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Umeed (NEET)
PRACTICE SHEET-01 8-08-2021

(Biotechnology: Principles and Processes)

1. Which of the following is a plasmid? 7. Which one of the following palindromic
(A) pBR322 base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at
(B) Bam H I about the middle by some particular
(C) Sal I restriction enzyme?
(D) Eco RI (A) 5'.............CGTTCG.............3'
3'.............ATGGTA.............5'
2. Which of the following is known as (B) 5'.............GATATG.............3'
molecular scissors? 3'.............CTACTA.............5'
(A) Ligase (C) 5'.............GAATTC.............3'
(B) Helicase 3'.............CTTAAG.............5'
(C) Restriction endonuclease (D) 5'.............CACGTA.............3'
3'.............CTCAGT.............5'
(D) DNA polymerase

8. DNA fragments generated by the restriction

3. The first restriction endonuclease reported
endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be
was
separated by
(A) Hind II (B) EcoRI
(A) polymerase chain reaction
(C) Hind III (D) BamHI
(B) electrophoresis
(C) restriction mapping
4. Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class
(D) centrifugation
of enzymes, which is called as
(A) ligases (B) kinases
9. Agarose extracted from sea weeds is used
(C) nucleases (D) polymerases
in
(A) spectrophotometry
5. There is a restriction endonuclease called
(B) tissue culture
EcoRI. What does co part in it stand for ?
(C) PCR
(A) Colon (B) Coelom
(D) gel electrophoresis
(C) Coenzyme (D) coli

10. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are

6. The enzyme used for joining two DNA
used
fragments is called
(A) as selectable markers.
(A) ligase
(B) to select healthy vectors.
(B) restriction endonuclease
(C) to keep the cultures free of infection.
(C) DNA polymerase
(D) as sequences from where replication
(D) gyrase
starts.
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11. During heat shock to the bacterium, the 17. For transformation with recombinant DNA,
temperature used for giving thermal shock the bacterial cells must first be made
is ‘competent’ which means
(A) 52°C (A) should increase their metabolic
(B) 100°C reactions.
(C) liquid nitrogen (B) should decrease their metabolic
(D) 42°C reactions.
(C) increase efficiency with which DNA
12. Which of the following enzyme is used in enters the bacterium.
case of fungus to cause release of DNA (D) ability to divide fast.
along with other macromolecules ?
(A) Lysozyme 18. For transformation, micro-particles coated
(B) Cellulase with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun
(C) Chitinase are made up of
(D) Amylase (A) silver or platinum
(B) platinum or zinc
13. During isolation of DNA, addition of which (C) silicon or platinum
of the following causes precipitation of (D) gold or tungsten
purified DNA ?
(A) Chilled ethanol 19. The polymerase enzyme used in PCR is
(B) Ribonuclease enzyme (A) DNA polymerase I
(C) DNA polymerase (B) Taq polymerase
(D) Proteases (C) reverse transcriptase
(D) restriction endonuclease
14. Which of the following is a natural genetic
engineer of plants ? 20. The first step in the PCR is
(A) Yeast (A) denaturation
(B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (B) primer extension
(C) E. coli (C) annealing
(D) Mycoplasma (D) cooling

15. _______ is a procedure through which a 21. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed
piece of DNA is introduced in a host for
bacterium. (A) addition of preservatives to the
(A) Transduction product.
(B) Transformation (B) purification of the product.
(C) Conjugation (C) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the
(D) R.D.T culture vessel.
(D) availability of oxygen throughout the
16. Which of the following are required to process.
facilitate cloning into a vector ?
(A) Origin of replication 22. After completion of biosynthetic stage, the
(B) Selectable marker product has to be subjected through a series
(C) Cloning sites of processes before it is ready to marketing
(D) All of these

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as a finished product. This series of 26. Which of the following statement is

processes is called incorrect ?
(A) upstream processing (A) T-DNA transform normal plant cell
(B) downstream processing into a tumor.
(C) elution (B) Retroviruses in animals have the
(D) insertional inactivation ability to transform normal cell into
cancerous cells.
23. Which of the following statement is (C) T- plasmid of Agrobacterium
incorrect regarding PCR? tumefaciens is modified into cloning
(A) In PCR, two primers are used. vector which is more pathogenic to
(B) Taq DNA polymerase is related for plants.
PCR. (D) Retrovirus have also been disarmed
(C) Taq DNA polymerase is not and are now used to deliver desirable
thermostable. genes into animal
(D) Multiple copies of gene can be cells.
synthesized in PCR.
27. Which of the following statement is
24. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
incorrect ? (A) Hind-II always cuts DNA molecules at
(A) EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases G a particular point by recognizing a
and A. specific sequence of 4 base pairs.
(B) Each EcoRI restriction endonuclease (B) Besides Hind-II, today we know more
recognizes a specific palindromic than 900 restriction enzymes.
nucleotide sequence in DNA. (C) The name EcoRI comes from
(C) When cut by same restriction enzyme, Escherichia coli Ry13.
the resultant DNA fragments do not (D) Restriction endonuclease are used in
have the same kind of sticky ends. genetic engineering to form
(D) Making multiple identical copies of recombinant molecules of DNA.
any template DNA is called cloning.
28. Which of the given statement is correct in
25. Which of the following is not correct about the context of observing DNA separated by
pBR322 vector ? agarose gel electrophoresis?
(A) It was constructed by using DNA (A) DNA can be seen in visible light.
derived from naturally occurring (B) DNA can be seen without staining in
plasmids of E coli. visible light.
(B) It has two drug resistance genes-tetR (C) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be
and ampR. seen in visible light.
(C) It was developed by Bolivar and (D) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be
Rodriguez. seen under exposure to UV light.
(D) Selectable markers present in it can
differentiate recombinants from non- 29. Which of the given statements (i-iv) are
recombinants on the basis of their correct about bioreactor?
inability to produce colour in the (i) Bioreactor provides the optimal
presence of chromogenic substrate. conditions for obtaining the desired
product.

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(ii) Raw materials are biological which are (A) shortest fragments of DNA.
converted into specific products. (B) longest fragments of DNA.
(iii) Stirred-tank reactor is horizontal in (C) restriction enzyme used to cut the
shape. DNA into fragments.
(iv) Large volume of culture cannot be (D) ligase used to bind the DNA fragments
processed. together.
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii) 34. A biologist intends to use a polymerase
(C) (iii) and (iv) chain reaction to perform a genetic task.
(D) All of these The biologist probably is trying to
(A) discover new genes.
30. Restriction endonucleases (B) clone a gene.
(A) are enzymes that process pre-RNA’s. (C) cut DNA into many small fragments.
(B) are enzymes that degrade DNA. (D) isolate DNA from a living cell.
(C) protect bacterial cells from viral
infection. 35. In genetic engineering, where genes can be
(D) None of the above inserted from one organism into another or
back into the original organism uses which
31. Introduction of one or more genes into an of the following techniques?
organism which normally does not possess (A) Polymerase chain reaction
them or their deletion by using artificial (B) Gene gun
means (not by breeding) comes under a (C) DNA hybridization
branch. called ________ . (D) Gel electrophoresis
(A) molecular biology
(B) cytogenetics 36. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for
(C) genetic hybridization (A) DNA finger printing.
(D) genetic engineering (B) Disarming pathogen vectors.
(C) Transformation of plant cells.
32. DNA fragments are separated using gel (D) Constructing recombinant DNA
electrophoresis molecules.
(A) because DNA is pulled through the
gel towards the negative end of the 37. Plasmid present in bacterial cells are
field. (A) circular double helical DNA
(B) because larger DNA fragments move molecules.
faster through the gel than smaller (B) linear double helical DNA molecules.
DNA fragments. (C) circular double helical RNA
(C) to identify and isolate DNA fragments. molecules.
(D) to synthesize DNA for cloning. (D) linear double helical RNA molecules.

33. Imagine a gel through which DNA 38. What must be done before placing DNA
fragments have moved in response to an into the electrophoretic chamber ?
applied electrical current. The band on this (A) It must be ground up with mortar and
gel that is farthest from the top (that is, pestle.
from the place where the DNA fragments (B) It must be cut by restriction
were added to the “well”) represents the endonucleases.

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(C) It must be treated with RNAase . (D) non-recombinant bacteria containing

(D) None of the above -galactosidase.

39. Which of the following has the ability to 44. Match column-I with column-II and select
transform normal cells into cancerous cells the correct
in animals ? combination from the option given below.
(A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens Column - I Column -II
(B) Retroviruses A. Competent I. Thermus aquaticus
(C) DNA-viruses B. Taq DNA II. Antibiotic
(D) Plasmids polymerase
C. Ampicillin III. Micro-injection
40. Which of the following is used as a best D. Ethidium bromide IV. DNA staining
genetic vector in plants? (A) A-III; B-I; C-II; D-IV
(A) Bacillus thuringiensis (B) A- II; B-I; C-IV; D -III
(B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (C) A- IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
(C) Pseudomonas putida (D) A- I; B-IV; C-II; D -III
(D) All of the above
45. Match column-I with column-II and choose
41. Which of the following process require the correct option.
energy? Column - I Column -II
(A) Ligation A. EcoRI I. I. bacillus amyloliquefaciens
(B) Transformation B. BamHI II. Haemophilus influenzae
(C) Restriction digestion C. Hind III III. Escherichia coli
(D) Hybridization D. pBR322 IV. Artificial plasmid
(A) A-III;B-I;C-II;D-IV
42. What type of enzyme is used in (B) A- II; B-I; C-IV; D -III
recombinant DNA technology to split a (C) A- IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
specific sugar phosphate bond in each (D) A- I;B-IV;C-II;D -III
strand of a DNA double helix ?
(A) Esterase 46. Which of the following is incorrectly
(B) Restriction enzyme matched?
(C) Lipase (A) Agarose - Sea weed
(D) Ligase (B) Thermus aquaticus - 'T - DNA'
(C) Plasmid DNA - Vector
43. The colonies of recombinant bacteria (D) Sal I - Restriction endonuclease
appear white in contrast to blue colonies of
non-recombinant bacteria because of
47. Match the following and choose the correct
(A) insertional inactivation of - combination
galactosidase in nonrecombinant from the options given below.
bacteria. Column – I Column - II
(B) insertional inactivation of - A. PCR I. Large scale culture
galactosidase in recombinant bacteria. B. Bioreactor II.To induce alien
(C) inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in DNA in host cell
recombinant bacteria.

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C. Gene gun III. Restriction

endonuclease
D. EcoRI IV. Amplification of
gene
(A) A-IV; B-I; C-II;D- III
(B) A-II; B-I; C-IV;D- III
(C) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
(D) A - I; B - IV; C - II; D – III

48. The given figure shows a simple stirred

tank bioreactor
with their parts labelled as A, B, C and D.
Identify A, B, C and D.

(A) B - Denaturation at a temperature of

about 98°C separating the two DNA
strands.
(B) A - Denaturation at a temperature of
about 50°C.
(C) C - Extension in the presence of heat
stable DNA polymerase.
(A) A-Motor; B-pH control; C-Foam (D) A- Annealing with two sets of primers.
braker; D-Sterile air
(B) A-pH control; B-Motor; C-Foam
50. The given figure shows the E. Coli cloning
broker; D-Stcrile air vector pBR322 showing restriction sites.
(C) A-pH control; B-Sterile air; C-Motor; Some parts are labelled as A, B, C & D.
D- Foam brakcr Choose the option showing the correct
(D) A-Motor; B-Stcrile air; C-pH control; labelling.
D-Foam braker

49. The figure given below shows three steps

(A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction
(PCR). Select the option giving correct
identification together with what it
represents?

(A) Hind I, EcoRI, ampR, ori

(B) Hind I, BamHI, kanR, ampR
(C) Bam H I, PstI, ori, ampR
(D) EcoRI, BamHI, ampR, ori

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Answer Key
1. (A) 18. (D) 35. (B)
2. (C) 19. (B) 36. (C)
3. (A) 20. (A) 37. (A)
4. (C) 21. (D) 38. (B)
5. (D) 22. (B) 39. (B)
6. (A) 23. (C) 40. (B)
7. (C) 24. (C) 41. (A)
8. (B) 25. (D) 42. (B)
9. (D) 26. (C) 43. (D)
10. (A) 27. (A) 44. (A)
11. (D) 28. (D) 45. (A)
12. (C) 29. (A) 46. (B)
13. (A) 30. (C) 47. (A)
14. (B) 31. (D) 48. (A)
15. (B) 32. (C) 49. (C)
16. (D) 33. (A) 50. (D)
17. (C) 34. (B)

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