PSYCH RLE

MODULE 1

T 1. Self - awareness tends to disclose the real thoughts and feelings of an individual.

T 2. The hidden self is a façade of the person in the real world.

F 3. Self-critiquing is a part of the reflective phase in the self-awareness process.

F 4. Pane 2 in Johari Window can be unknown to others.

F 5. Psychiatric nurses need to undergo self-awareness to equip themselves to manage manipulative

patients.

F 6. The Hidden Self anticipates both positive and negative reactions from the significant others of the
individual.

T 7. The reflective phase of the self-awareness process bridge the gap of unexamined beliefs.

F 8. Self-awareness is a feeling reaction that makes an individual throw away his/her excess baggage.

F 9. The Unknown Self is revealed in the emancipatory phase of self-awareness.

T 10. The information in the blind spot can be positive or negative and include hidden strengths or areas
for improvement.

MODULE 2

1. When asked about her confinement in a psychiatric unit, Ruru, a psychotic patient says, "I am
here for a vacation". In your assessment, what part of mental status examination is poor?
a. Mood
b. Cognitive evaluation
c. Insight
d. Judgment

2. Ruru also tells the other patients in the ward that he is just 21 years of age. He believes that he
is still as young 20 years ago. "Look, I look so young and will never get to be an old man", he
always tell them. Nurse Jane overheard Ruru and she knows that he is manifesting:
a. Capgra’s syndrome
b. Dorian gray
c. Somatic delusion
d. Grandiose delusion

3. Michelle, 20 years old, a schizophrenic patient jumps from one topic to another is is calewhich
sounds that topics are related during a nurse-patient interaction with Nurse Mariness. This is
called.
a. Perseveration
b. Flight of ideas
 c. Looseness of association
d. Verbigeration

4. Which of the following is not a disturbance included under thought process?

a. Neologism
b. Word salad
c. Verbigeration
d. Illusion

5. Toto, 20 years old, a bipolar client jumps from one topic to another which does direct a conversation
during a nurse-patient interaction with Nurse Coleen. This is called:

a. Perseveration
b. Looseness of association
c. Flight of ideas
d. Verbigeration

6. A client expresses the belief that the aliens are out to kill him. This is an example of.

a. Hallucination
b. Error in judgment
c. Delusion of persecution
d. Self-accusatory delusion

7. A disturbed client starts repeat phrases that others have just said. This type of speech is known as:

a. Autism
b. echolalia
c. neologism
d. echopraxia

8. These are characterized by the client's claim to association with famous people or celebrities:

a. paranoid delusions
b. referential delusions
c. religious delusions
d. grandiose delusions

9. An alcoholic patient is heard shouting in his room. He is saying, "Remove these bugs in my body! They
are crawling all over me." When the assigned nurse went to the patient's room there are no bugs
present as claimed. What type of hallucination is the patient exhibiting?

a. Visual hallucination
b. Gustatory hallucination
c. Tactile hallucination
d. Olfactory hallucination
10. A student nurse asks her instructor about the examples of thought disturbances. The instructor is
correct when she states that all of the following are disturbances in thinking, except;

a. Delusion

b. clang association

MODULE 3

T 1. In interacting with a client in the psychiatric ward for the first time, the distance must be 4 to 12
feet.

F 2. A direct eye contact must be practiced by student nurses in the pre-orientation phase.

F 3. The amount of space given by the nurse to the client is called kinesics.

F 4. The intensity of thoughts and feelings can manifest in proxemics among psychiatric clients.

T 5. Gestures may or may not tell thoughts by the clients in an interaction with a nurse.

T 6. Intimate distance is used by the nurses in procedures such as administering IM injections.

F 7. Proxemics denotes the closeness of relationships among people.

T 8. Kinesics may or may not communicate a signal for clients taking psychotropic drugs.

T 9. A pleasure or displeasure can be expressed by a client in kinesics and proxemics.

T 10. In a professional nurse-client relationship, the client must be aware of the physical boundaries

MODULE 4 (THERAPEUTIC / NON-THERAPEUTIC)

1. I can hear how painful it is for you to talk about your anxieties and depression. T – Accepting
2. You should not have hit your son don't you know its child abuse? NT – Disagreeing
3. Hey, that's life! You'll get by. NT – Stereotyping
4. Everything will be alright soon, you'll see. NT – Fake Reassurance
5. How did it happen? T – Encouraging description of perceptions
6. What do you want to talk about today? T – Broad Opening
7. If I were you, I will just ignore my neighbors and pretend that they do not exist. NT – Advising
8. Can you tell me more about this person? T – Exploring
9. Is what you are hearing something like a roaring thunder? NT – Seeking information.
10. What does the voice tell you? T – Challenging
11. Next time he comes to you, what will you do? T – Encouraging expression
12. You seem distracted today. T – Underloading
13. You are disgusting! I cannot imagine hearing this. NT – Judgments
14. Thank you for being open. I appreciate your honesty. T – Positive regard
15. What's your name? Tell me about your family. Oh, why don't you start by telling me who brought
you to the ER? NT – Overloading
MODULE 5

1. Establishment of an effective nurse-patient relationship is gaining the patient's

a. Trust
b. Problems
c. Behavior
d. Recognition

2. Which of the following factors is NOT needed in the nurse-patient relationship?

a. The nurse-patient relationship should be goal-oriented
b. The nurse-patient relationship should be carried out of the psychiatric unit
c. The nurse-patient purposeful
d. The nurse-patient relationship is time-limited

3. What would be the purpose of reviewing the clients records dining the pre interaction phase in the
material relationship?
a. To gain the patient's trust and confidence.
b. To solve the patient major problems
c. To identify the patient's weaknesses and strengths.
d. To have a general overview of the client's attitudes and behavior.

4. in which phase of the nurse-patient relationship does the nurse review her beliefs and attitudes?
a. Pre interaction phase
b. Orientation phase
c. Working phase
d. Termination phase

5. This stage involves nurses learning about patient and their initial concerns and needs.
a. Pre interaction phase
b. Orientation phase
c. Working phase
d. Termination phase

6. It begins when the problems are resolved, and it ends when the relationship is ended. Both nurse
and client usually have feelings about ending the relationship: the client especially may feel the
termination as an impending loss.
a. Pre interaction phase
b. Orientation phase
c. Working phase
d. Termination phase

7. This is the phase of the nurse-patient relationship where the nurse let the patient exploit his
feelings and help the client find solutions to his or her problems.
a. Pre interaction phase
b. Orientation phase
 c. Working phase
d. Termination phase

8. This phase occurs before any nurse and patient interaction.

a. Pre interaction phase
b. Orientation phase
c. Working phase
d. Termination phase

9. The nurse at this phase is building trusting relationship with the client when the nurse is honest
regarding intentions, is consistent, and keeps promises. Mutual respect and trust are crucial goals.
a. Pre interaction phase
b. Orientation phase
c. Working phase
d. Termination phase

10. What is the main goal of the nurse in the orientation phase of the nurse-patient relationship?
a. To assess the patient’s behaviors and attitudes
b. To establish rapport with the patient
c. To identify the problems of the patient
d. All of the above

MODULE 6

Penn State Worry Questionnaire 1. This is a 16-item self-report scale designed to measure the trait of
worry in adults. Worry is regarded as a dominant feature of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). The
scale measures the excessiveness, generality, and uncontrollable dimensions of worry.

Goldberg Bipolar Spectrum Screening 2. This diagnostic test can help determine whether the patient
might have the symptoms of bipolar disorder (Bipolar I or II).

Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) 3. This diagnostic procedure is a 21-item, self-report rating inventory
that measures characteristic attitudes and symptoms of depression.

Hamilton Anxiety Scale (HAM-A) 4. This widely used interview scale measures the severity of a patient's
anxiety, based on 14 parameters, including anxious mood, tension, fears, insomnia, somatic complaints
and behavior at the interview.

Dissociative Experiences Scale 5. This is a 28-item, self-report measure of dissociative experiences.

Dissociation is often considered a psychological defense mechanism for victims of traumatizing events,
and the scale is of particular use in measuring dissociation among people with PTSD, dissociative
disorders, borderline personality disorder and those with a history of abuse.
Patient Health Questionnaire – 9 6. This questionnaire is one of the tools used to screen for the
presence and severity of depression and to screen for the presence and severity of depression and to
monitor response to treatment.

Schizophrenia Test and Early Psychosis indicator 7. This diagnostic test is designed as a simple screening
quiz to help identify symptoms of the schizophrenia prodrome before an individual becomes fully
psychotic.

Zung self-rating depression scale 8. The diagnostic scale consists of 20 items with a Likert type scale
after each item. The scores for each item range from 1 to 4 and the SDS ranges from a raw score of 20 to
a raw score of 80.

Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale 9. The diagnostic procedure was designed to remedy the
problems of existing rating scales by providing a specific measure of the severity of symptoms of
obsessive-compulsive disorder that is not influenced by the type of obsessions or compulsions present.

Center for Epidemiological Studies – Depression 10. This diagnostic test is a 20-item self-report
depression inventory with possible scores ranging from 0 to 60.

MODULE 7
1. Employing family therapy in the client at the psychiatric wards utilizes interaction between the farnily
members of the patient. Which of the following is not correct regarding family therapy?

a. Including the patient's spouse and children in the therapy

b. Asking the parents of the patient to be present at the psychiatric ward during family therapy
c. Only immediate blood relatives are allowed to be present in the family therapy
d. Siblings and other significant others can be included in the family therapy

2. Which of the following best describes the structural type of family therapy?

a. This form of family therapy is best suited for situations in which individuals cannot or do not
want to involve other family members in the treatment
b. The therapist in this form of treatment is neutral and distant, allowing the family members to
dive deeper into their issues and problems as a family
c. This form of therapy is more brief and direct than the others, in which the therapist assigns
homework to the family
d. The therapist in this form of treatment is neutral and distant, allowing the family members to
dive deeper into their issues and problems as a family

3. Family therapy is employed in which of the following cases? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Child and adolescent behavioral problems

b. Depression
c. LGBTQ+ issues
d. Sexual disorders
e. Substance abuse

4. In order to solve family issues, the nurse must do the following except
 a. Observe how people interact within units
b. Evaluate and resolve relationship problems
c. Guide clients through transitional crises such as divorce or death
d. Promote the spirituality as requested by the family

5. What would be the initial short-term goal of a family who has a daughter suffering from bipolar
disorder type II?
a. Understand the nature of their daughter's condition
b. Help remind the daughter about her lithium intake
c. Assist their daughter in her activities of daily living
d. Maintain wellness of the daughter by adhering to the treatment regimen provided

6. The benefits of family therapy are the following except;

a. A better understanding of healthy boundaries and family patterns and dynamics

b. Enhanced communication
c. Improved problem solving
d. Better cooperation with the nurses at the ward

7. The nurse in family therapy must observe for which of the following during a family therapy session?

a. Tone of the voice among family members

b. The primary decision maker in the family
c. The dynamics between the members of the family
d. The degree of closeness of each of the family members

8. The patient tells the nurse that she does not want to join the family therapy session today. The
patient appears distraught and starts to pace before the session. Which of the following is the most
appropriate response by the nurse?

a. "It appears that you feel anxious about the session for today"
b. “What seems to be the reason for you not to be attending the family therapy session today?
c. “I respect your decision, I will tell the rest of the family that the session will be postponed for
today
d. "Is your family hard on you lately?"

9. In the family therapy exercise color candy go around the color yellow candy signifies

a. Words to describe your family

b. Ways your family has fun
c. Favorite memories with your family
d. Things you worry about
10. This exercise can be used in individual, couples, or family therapy, and is intended to help the
client(s) explore the type of future they would like to build
a. Emotions ball
b. Genogram
c. Family gift
d. Miracle question
 MODULE 8
1. Which of the following is not a goal in remotivation therapy?
a. Prevent disengagement
b. Increase interest in reality
c. Improve family relations
d. Stimulate thinking

2. Which of the following is not true regarding remotivation therapy?

a. The therapy is structured into 12 sessions
b. A maximum of 1 hour is used for the session.
c. The whole psychiatric ward will participate in the session
d. Groups of 12-15 patients are encouraged to join the sessions.

4. During the remotivation therapy at the psychiatric ward, the nurse leader has told the patient
entering the day room. "You look well-dressed today. To which the patient replied, "Thank
you!" Which therapeutic communication technique did the nurse use here?
a. Exploring
b. Acknowledging
c. Providing general leads
d. Broad opening

5. Which of the of following types of patients need to be escorted into the day room during the
remotivation therapy? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
a. Patient who is catatonic
b. Patient who is exhibiting mania
c. Patient who is very talkative
d. Patient who is severely depressed
e. Patient who is hyperactive

5. A patient in the manic phase of the bipolar disorder suddenly is jumping from topic to another
while discussing the alternatives in cooking tilapia. The nurse leader talks to the manic patient
and says, "Let's go back to what you have told us about sauteing milkfish. Please tell us more
about that." The type of therapeutic communication employed by the nurse here is
a. Restating
b. Seeking clarification
c. Exploring
d. Focusing

6. Which of the following topics can be discussed in the remotivation therapy group sessions?
(SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
a. Interpreting the poem "The Road Not Taken" by Robert Frost
 b. The recent basketball match between the LA Lakers and Cleveland Cavaliers
c. The forthcoming 2022 elections in the Philippines
d. The ingredients of a fruit salad.
e. The many uses of the coconut tree.
f. The hobbies that the patients usually do during their free time.

7.Which of the following persons will serve as the best leader of the remotivation therapy session in
a group?
a. A patient who is in a lucid interval
b. The registered nurse
c. The manic patient who is talkative
d. The nursing attendant

8. Which of the following is discussed in the 4th step of the remotivation therapy?
a. The patient’s past experiences

MODULE 9

1. Which of the following is NOT a good candidate for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

a. A patient with severe depression

b. A patient who exhibits catatonia in schizophrenia
c. A patient who has severe obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. A patient who is suicidal

2. Atropine sulfate is administered to a patient prior to ECT in order to

a. Decrease the secretions to prevent aspiration

b. Relax the bronchial smooth muscles to promote bronchoconstriction
c. Provide anesthesia prior to the procedure
d. Relax the muscles to avoid injury

3. The nurse is monitoring the patient post-ECT and has noted that the patient just had convulsions for
only 10 seconds. The nurse must expect the physician to

a. Administer benzodiazepines stat

b. Stimulate another seizure
c. Note the duration of convulsions
d. Assess the airway of the patient

4. Which of the following patients do NOT belong to the very high risk contraindicated patients to ECT?

a. Patient who recently had a myocardial infarction

b. Patient who has high-risk pregnancy
c. Patient who just had a stroke
d. Patient who has meningitis
5. Which of the following medications given prior to ECT will help prevent fractures or injury on the
patient?
a. Methohexital (Brevital)
b. Lorazepam (Ativan)
c. Alprazolam (Xanax)
d. Succinylcholine (Anectine)

6. In securing the consent form, the nurse must know that if the psychiatric patient who will undergo
ECT is not at his lucid state, the person who is going to sign the form would be the

a. Registered nurse
b. Immediate family member
c. Patient
d. Physician

7. The role of the anesthesiologist prior to ECT aside from administering an anesthetic would be

a. To monitor the patient's blood pressure

b. To administer other medications such as atropine sulfate and succinylcholine
c. To obtain the baseline vital signs of the patient.
d. To give 100% oxygen. to the patient

8. What is the mechanism of action of ECT?

a. It alters the neurotransmitters of the CNS

b. It increases the permeability of the blood-brain barrier
c. It is unknown
d. It alters the endocrine system causing an antidepressant effect

9. After the seizures of the patient have subsided post-ECT, the responsibility of the nurse is to

a. Reorient the patient to time, place, and name.

b. Asses the patient's airway and administer 100% oxygen via mask
c. Help the patient in an upright position
d. Ask the patient about his/her name

10. Which of the following is a common side-effect of ECT?

a. Memory loss
b. Headaches
c. Arrhythmias
d. Muscle paralysis

MODULE 10

1. Student nurse Anne is currently on her psychiatric ward rotation and her clinical instructor engaged
her in an oral quiz on psychotherapeutic agents. She would be right to answer that loxapine,
thiothixene, and fluphenazine belong to which psychotherapeutic agent classification?
 a. Typical antipsychotics
b. Atypical antipsychotics
c. Antimanic drugs
d. CNS stimulants

2. All of the following are not true about psychotherapeutic agents, except

a. These agents are not indicated for behavioral disorders.

b. Psychotherapeutic agents perform their curative functions in patients with psychoses.
c. Antipsychotics address mental disorders mainly through their sedating effects
d. Psychotherapeutic agents help patients perform activities of daily living with ease.

3. Antipsychotic which has a role in managing side effects of chemotherapy.

a. Risperidone
b. Haloperidol
c. Prochlorperazine
d. Aripiprazole

4. What is the top nursing consideration of a nurse who is taking care of an adult client with
schizophrenia receiving antipsychotics?

a. Monitor urine output.

b. Obtain ECG tracing regularly as ordered
c. Assess bowel sounds.
d. Provide comfort measures.

5. All of the following are contraindications to neuroleptic agents, except:

a. Children below age 12

b. Dementia
c. Active alcoholism
d. None of the above

6. Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic?

a. Haloperidol
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Risperidone
d. Stelazine

7. Which of the following neurotransmitters is affected when the patient is taking in antipsychotics?

a. Dopamine
b. Epinephrine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Serotonin

8. Which of the following adverse effects of antipsychotics demonstrates tongue protrusion and lip
smacking?
 a. Akathisia
b. Tardive dyskinesia
c. Pseudoparkinsonism
d. Dystonia

9. A patient is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse would be most especially alert for the
development of which of the following adverse effects?

a. Sedation
b. Anticholinergic side-effects
c. Pseudoparkinsonism
d. Hypotension

10.When the patient is experiencing constipation brought about by Haloperidol (Haldol) the nurse must
do which of the following?

a. increase fiber in the diet of the patient

b. Restrict fluids
c. Limit the exercise of the patient
d. Offer the patient a caffeinated beverage

MODULE 11

1. This drug is the mainstay treatment for mania.

a. quetiapine (Seroquel)
b. olanzapine (Zyprexa)
c. lithium salts (Lithotabs)
d. lamotrigine (Lamictal)

2. Antimanic drugs have effect on the following neurotransmitters, except:

a. Norepinephrine
b. Dopamine
c. Serotonin
d. None of the above

3. Which of the following is the most important patient education for a patient receiving CNS
stimulants?

a. Proper storage of drugs

b. Low-sodium diet
c. Light to moderate exercises
d. All of the above.

4. A nurse is reviewing a manic patient's serum lithium level and determines that the level is therapeutic
by which result?

a. 0.2 mEq/L
 b. 0.8 mEq/L
c. 1.7 mEq/L
d. 2.0 mEq/L

5. Which of the following orders for lithium (Eskalith) must the nurse question from the primary health
care provider?

a. A 25-year-old female patient who is recently diagnosed with bipolar disorder type II
b. A 31-year-old male patient who is currently in the manic phase of bipolar disorder type I
c. A 22-year-old female patient who told the nurse that she recently missed her period and
experiencing signs of mania
d. A 47-year-old female patient who had a relapse of bipolar disorder type II

6. CNS stimulants act specifically in which area of the brain?

a. Cerebellum
b. Reticular activating system
c. Pons
d. Medulla oblongata

7. Which of the following psychiatric conditions are CNS stimulants given? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Schizophrenia
b. Bipolar disorder
c. Narcolepsy
d. Depression
e. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder

8. Which of the following conditions in children might cause the nurse to withhold the CNS stimulant for
a child with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder?

a. Seizures
b. Gastritis
c. Glomerulonephritis
d. Tonsillitis

9. Which of the following psychotropic drugs may increase the levels of the CNS stimulants and can
cause toxicity? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Antipsychotics
b. Anxiolytics
c. Mono-amine oxidase inhibitors
d. Tricyclic antidepressants
e. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

10. In teaching the patient about the administration of CNS stimulants, which of the following
statements might need further instruction?

a. "I will monitor for adverse effects such as CNS stimulation, rash, and physical and psychological
dependence."
 b. "I can take the medication at around 8 pm after my dinner."
c. "I will monitor my weight frequently.
d. "I will avoid citrus drinks while taking CNS stimulants.

MODULE 12

1. Nortriptyline and protriptyline are classified as what class of TCAs

a. Amines
b. Secondary amines
c. Tetracyclics
d. None of the above

2. The following are true about depression, except:

a. External causes always play a part in assessment and diagnosis.

b. Patients with depression have trouble sleeping and eating.
c. Depression can lead to multiple physical problems.
d. None of the above.

3. Which TCA is also approved for use in patients with OCD?

a. Imipramine.
b. Clomipramine.
c. Sertraline
d. Amitriptyline

4. A combination of MAOIs and TCAs will precipitate which drug adverse effect?

a. Severe hypertensive crisis

b. Severe hyperpyretic crisis
c. Severe hypnotic crisis
d. Severe amnesia

5. What is the treatment for hypertensive crisis caused by MAOI?

a. Phentolamine
b. Adenosine
c. Propanolol
d. Nifedipine
6. How many weeks will the full therapeutic effects of SSRIs be realized?
a. 2 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 6 weeks
d. 8 weeks
7. Which of the following is contraindicated to patients who are taking Parnate?
a. Pizza
b. Beer
c. Tofu
 d. All of the above

8. Which of the following is not a tricyclic antidepressant?

a. Norpramine
b. Marplan
c. Vivactyl
d. Surmontil

9. A patient tells the nurse, "My antidepressant is not working. I have been taking it for 5 days now but
nothing happens." What would be the best response by the nurse?

a. "The doctor must increase the dosage of your antidepressant."

b. "The doctor must change it to another type of antidepressant."
c. "Please wait for your antidepressant to take effect after 2 to 4 weeks."
d. "We will have the check the levels of the antidepressant in your blood."

10. Which of the following is an anticholinergic side-effect of antidepressants?

a. Dry mouth
b. Akathisia
c. Pill rolling
d. Dystonia

MODULE 13

1. What drug refers to the ability to help patient feel calm and unaware of his environment?

a. Anesthesia
b. Sedatives
c. Hypnotics
d. Anxiolytics

2. The most commonly used anxiolytics

a. Benzodiazepines
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Barbiturates
d. Buspirone

3. Which of the following medical condition(s) can be considered as contraindication(s) to use of

anxiolytics and hypnotics?

a. Psychosis
b. Alcoholic intoxication
c. Acute gastroenteritis
d. Both A and B

4. What is the antidote of benzodiazepine?

 a. Theophylline
b. Ranitidine
c. Flumazenil
d. Benadryl

5. Abrupt withdrawal of barbiturates can precipitate what medical condition?

a. Ascites
b. Hypertensive crisis
c. Status epilepticus
d. Coma

6.A patient is prescribed when pentobarbital for the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder. Which of
the following beverages will the patient avoid when taking this medication?

a. Ale
b. Milk
c. Carbonated drinks
d. Orange juice

7. When describing the action of benzodiazepines as anxiolytics, which of the following would the nurse
need to keep in mind?

a. Enhanced action of gamma-amino butyric acid

b. Effect on action potentials
c. Depression of the cerebral cortex
d. Depressed motor output

8. A patient is receiving a barbiturate intravenously. The nurse would monitor the patient for which of
the following?

a. Hypertension
b. Bradypnea
c. Tachypnea
d. Bleeding

9. Anxiolytics/sedatives are also used for the treatment of which of the following?

a. Parkinson's disease
b. Alzheimer's disease
c. Seizure disorders
d. Myasthenia gravis

10. Which of the following psychiatric conditions will not benefit from low-dose benzodiazepines?

a. Generalized anxiety disorder

b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. Mania
d. Schizophrenia
MODULE 14

1. During psychotherapy, the depressed patient tells you, "I've figured out a way to end my life, but
promise me you won't tell anyone okay" The nurse's best response would be

a. "Yes, everything you tell me during our sessions are confidential."

b. b."I'm sorry but I am afraid I need to divulge this to the rest of the members of the healthcare
team in order to protect yourself."
c. "Why don't we talk about the things that you have during your teenage years?"
d. "I will only tell this to the doctor so he would know what to do. Would that be alright?"

2. A patient with a diagnosis of major depression who has attempted suicide says to the nurse, "I should
have died! I've always been a failure. Nothing ever goes right for me." Which response demonstrates
therapeutic communication?

a. "You have everything to live for."

b. "Why do you see yourself as a failure?"
c. "Feeling like this is all part of being depressed."
d. "You've been feeling like a failure for a while?"

3. Which of the following is of utmost importance prior to having a psychotherapy session with the
patient?

a. Building trust
b. Improving communication skills
c. Greeting the patient every time the session begins
d. Always smile at the patient

4. Which of the following is a basic requirement of psychotherapy?

a. Empathy
b. Confidentiality
c. Integrity
d. Critical thinking

5. This type of psychotherapy involves practicing new skills in the "real world"

a. Interpersonal therapy
b. Psychodynamic therapy
c. Psychoanalysis
d. Cognitive behavioral therapy

6. Which of the following are included under the creative arts therapy? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Aerobic exercise
 b. Dance
c. Drama
d. Jogging
e. Music
f. Poetry

7. Dialectical behavior is often used to treat people with (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Chronic suicidal thoughts

b. Psychosis
c. Borderline personality disorder
d. Mania
e. Post-traumatic stress disorder

8. Which of the following psychotherapies are beneficial for children who have psychiatric disorders?

a. Creative arts therapy

b. Animal-assisted therapy
c. Dialectical behavior therapy
d. Play therapy

9. A client who frequently exhibits angry outbursts is diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder.
Which appropriate feedback should a nurse provide when this client experiences an angry outburst?

a. “Why do you continue to alienate your peers by your angry outbursts?"

b. "You accomplish nothing when you lose your temper like that.”
c. "Showing your anger in that manner is very childish and insensitive."
d. "During group, you raised your voice, yelled at a peer, left, and slammed the door."

9.A client diagnosed with dependent personality disorder states, "Do you think I should move from my
parent's house and get a job?" Which nursing response is most appropriate?

a. “It would be best to do that in order to increase independence."

b. "Why would you want to leave a secure home?"
c. "Let's discuss and explore all of your options."
d. "I'm afraid you would feel very guilty leaving your parents."

MODULE 15

T 1. Self-esteem is an intrinsic quality that people have and it develops gradually as a person grows.

F 2. Those who walk with a big smile and radiate confidence usually have deeper problems they
suppress.

F 3. Our self-esteem builds up or declined throughout our lives, based on our early childhood
experiences, which may be positive or negative according to Morris Rosenberg.
T 4. Therapy, like Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy, can be an effective treatment in enhancing a patient's
self - esteem.

F 5. The "A" in the FAST acronym means apologize at all times.

T 6. According to Webber, low self-esteem can affect everything in a patient's life, from relationships to
career.

T 7. To silence the inner critic that we have inside, we need to start replacing negative thoughts with
positive ones

F 8. Research reveals that self-esteem tends to increase during pre-school to school age.

F 9. Among adolescents, the ethnic group that tends to have the lowest self-esteem would be Hispanics.

T 10. Exercising can help patients feel better about themselves due to the release of endorphins.

MODULE 16

1.This is a type of assertiveness training where it targets the anxiety that can possibly result into an
avoidant type of behavior?

a. Behavioral skills training

b. Cognitive restructuring training
c. Cognitive-behavior therapy
d. Desensitization therapy

2. Dialectical behavior therapy is indicated for which of the following types of personality disorders?

a. Avoidant personality disorder

b. Borderline personality disorder
c. Paranoid personality disorder
d. Passive-aggressive personality disorder

3. Which of the following are outcome goals of assertiveness training? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Become our own master and avoid being trampled on.

b. Get what we want by being aggressive.
c. Reduce stress and gain clarity in interactions by knowing what to accept and when to say 'no.
d. Improve self-esteem and self-confidence by being more assertive.
e. Base decisions on facts by keeping emotions in check.

4. Which of the following statements needs further teaching from the nurse to the patient regarding
about techniques on learning how to say 'no?

a. It is okay to say 'no'

b. Saying no in a pestive way such as, "I would love to help you out, however, I already have made
prior arrangements with someone else."
 c. Making excuses when refusing someone else's requests.
d. Be specific about what it is you are saying "no" to

5. Which of the following affirmation statements may help the patient? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. "I am strong and assertive."

b. "My free time is my own."
c. "People will respect me for my assertiveness."
d. "I am responsible for how I behave and how I feel."

6. A lack of assertiveness is seen in which of the following types of mental disorders with the exception
of?

a. Anxiety disorders
b. Depression
c. Alcohol/substance abuse
d. Narcissistic personality disorder

7. The following are helpful approaches in establishing nonverbal skills EXCEPT

a. Stand straight and hold your head in a neutral position

b. Sit in such a way that you direct your attention to the speaker and make your movements
minimal and purposeful.
c. Establish your personal space.
d. Walk with purpose, showing you know where you are going and how to get there.

8. Verbal assertiveness include the following (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Be direct without being rude. Say what you mean as clearly as possible.
b. Be subtle with your decisions when refusing something
c. Calm persistence can be powerful. Repeat the point in a confrontational way.
d. Use "I" statements. Appear aggressive in saying "I."
e. Be grateful, appreciative, and apologize when appropriate.

9. Which of the following boundaries are not included in teaching the young person about boundaries in
situations they face?

a. Physical boundaries
b. Emotional boundaries
c. Communication boundaries
d. Sexual boundaries

10. Which of the following mindset in assertiveness training is incorrect?

a. Try not to react too quickly and keep emotions in check.

b. When there is a misunderstanding, correct it calmly and rationally.
c. Ask if a compromise can be reached. Come up with some on your own.
d. Only take constructive criticism. It is about something you have done or not done, rather than
who you are.
MODULE 17

1. Syrange the following choices according to its correct order based on Hans Selye's General Adaptation
Syndrome

a. Stage of resistance - 2nd

b. Stage of exhaustion - 3rd
c. Stage of alarm - 1st

2. When a patient who is depressed tells you that she is going to escape her problems by relocating in a
new location and starting a new life, the nurse must recognize this problem in which of the following
nursing diagnoses?

a. Hopelessness
b. Ineffective coping
c. Anxiety
d. Chronic sorrow

3. A patient tells you that his anxiety has increased to the impending finality of his divorce with his wife.
The nurse must note that the type of stress that the patient is experiencing would be?

a. Ambient
b. Crises/catastrophes
c. Major life events
d. Daily hassles/microstressors

4. A patient is complaining to the nurse lately that he has lack sleep for several days due to the ongoing
construction that his neighborhood have. This type of stressor is categorized as

a. Organizational
b. Major life events
c. Daily hassles/microstressors
d. Ambient

5. A patient diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder reports that he often feels frightened by
banging sounds during the New Year celebration because the sounds reminded him of his service with
the military at the war in Marawi City. The type of stressor the patient had was

a. Crises/catastrophes
b. Major life events
c. Ambient
d. Organizational

6. A patient went to a clinic and complains of having increased anxiety due to encountering a lot of
deadlines to fulfill at work. The type of stressor seen in the patient is

a. Major life events

b. Organizational
 c. Daily hassles/microstressors
d. Ambient

7. A patient is venting out to the nurse about the recent conflict that she had with a coworker and is
crying but still talks about the incident that has happened at work. The best approach the nurse can do
with this patient is to do

a. Focusing
b. Giving general leads
c. Offering self
d. Active listening

8. Skipping meals can cause heightened stress due to which of the following imbalances occurring in the
body

a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Hypokalemia

9. Exercising causes the release of which of the following chemicals causing an overall feeling of
heightened mood?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Serotonin
c. Dopamine
d. Endorphins

10. A major stressful event such as being the lone survivor of a family during a typhoon can cause which
of the following mental disorders to develop?

a. Generalized anxiety disorder

b. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. Post-traumatic stress disorder
d. Phobia

MODULE 18

1. This type of behavior modification technique identifies negative thoughts and self-destructive
behavior and replacing them with rational and realistic outcomes of their problems.

a. Cognitive-behavior therapy
b. Dialectical-behavior therapy
c. Exposure therapy
d. Rational emotive behavior therapy

ANSWER: D RATIONALE: Rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT) focuses on identifying negative or
destructive thoughts and feelings. People then actively challenge those thoughts and replace them with
more rational, realistic ones.
2. Exposure therapy is beneficial for which of the following mental disorders? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Phobias
b. Major depressive disorder
c. Bipolar disorder
d. Social anxiety
e. Agoraphobia

3. A patient is currently diagnosed to have paraphilia, specifically sadism. The physician has ordered for
the patient to have electric currents to be introduced to the patient's body while watching videos
related to sadomasochism. The type of therapy shown here is

a. Aversion therapy
b. Flooding
c. Systematic desensitization
d. Exposure therapy

4. This is a type of therapy where the health care practitioner slowly introduces the specific fear to the
patient one day at a time until the patient is able to confront these fears on their own.

a. Flooding
b. Systematic desensitization
c. Aversion therapy
d. Cognitive-behavior therapy

5. Which type of mental disorders can benefit from aversion therapy? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Alcoholism
b. Major depressive disorder
c. Paraphilias
d. Phobias
e. Personality disorders

6. This is a type of operant conditioning where the therapy gives rewards such as candy, toys, or extra
time playing with a favorite toy among children with developmental disorders such as attention-deficit
hyperactivity disorder.

a. Behavior modeling
b. Contingency management
c. Extinction
d. Token economies
8. Operant conditioning focuses on which of the following in order to either increase or decrease the
frequency of a patient's behavior (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
a. communication
b. reinforcement
c. limit setting
d. punishment
e. personality diorder
8. Behavioral therapy has been found to help people with the following:

a. Communication
b. Daily routines
c. Coping strategies
d. Healthier thought pattems
e. Self-esteem
f. Family relationships

9. In which of the following operant conditioning are time-outs done?

a. Contingency management
b. Extinction
c. Behavior modeling
d. Token economies

10. Patients with phobia will benefit from which of the following behavioral therapy techniques?

a. Cognitive behavior therapy

b. Dialectical behavioral therapy
c. Exposure therapy
d. Rational emotive behavior therapy

MODULE 19

1. In milieu therapy, the nurse must know that the health care practitioners will make a substantial
change in the patient's

a. Behavior
b. Attitudes
c. Environment
d. Communication

Which 2. of the following is NOT a basic assumption of milieu therapy?

a. Every interaction is an opportunity for therapeutic intervention

b. Each client owns his or her behavior
c. Peer pressure should not be encouraged
d. Inappropriate behaviors are dealt with as they occur

3. Under milieu therapy, if the patient becomes violent during a group session, which of the following
restrictions is most preferred?

a. Limit setting
b. Temporary isolation
c. Restraints
d. Restricting the client from having meals

4. Which of the following is NOT a goal of milieu therapy?

 a. Manipulate the environment so that all aspects of client's hospital experience are considered
therapeutic
b. Client is expected to learn adaptive coping, interaction, and relationship skills that can be
generalized to other aspects of his or her life
c. Achieving client autonomy
d. Maintain drug therapy until the patient because mentally well

5. In the application of new rules in the psychiatric ward, under milieu therapy the nurse must

a. Consult the psychiatrist at all times

b. Never involve the patient in the application of new rules
c. The patients should have a voice in the decision-making process of the psychiatric ward
d. Nurses must collaborate with other members of the health care team when making decisions

6. Which of the following are included in the work-related activities in milieu therapy?

a. Clients need to choose the type of work they wish to perform

b. Work activities should be geared toward developing skills that will be useful in actual job
situations
c. A variety of activities provides the opportunity to test different areas for future job interests.
d. All of the above

7. Which of the following is indicative of level III under the progressive levels of responsibility according
to client's self-care capacity?

a. Participates actively in community meetings and serves on at least one client community.
b. Attends at least one therapeutic group daily
c. Exhibits poor personal hygiene.
d. Unable to function in group therapy

8. The following are characteristics of patients under level IV of responsibility according to client's self-
care capacity EXCEPT;

a. Demonstrates willingness to serve as an officer on the client committee

b. Knows the names of all medications and the times they are to be taken
c. Assumes leadership role in the community, acts as a positive role model, and ensures that other
clients are prompt in their attendance of regularly scheduled activities and group meetings
d. Initiates discussions with the mental health team concerning discharge planning.
9. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding open communication under milieu therapy?
a. It is the process of providing safety and security and involves the patient's access to food and
shelter.
b. It is another process that affirms patient individuality.
c. It is a purposeful interaction that allows patients to interact with others in a useful way.
d. In this, staff and patient willingly share information.
10. A communication pattern where messages are initiated at one point and are passed from one
receiver to the next until the messages reaches the end of chain

a. Fan pattern
b. Wheel pattern
c. Ring pattern
d. Chain pattern

MODULE 20
1. Play therapy is commonly applied to which of the following age groups?

a. Children below 12
b. Adolescents
c. Young adults
d. Elderly clients

2. The primary goal of play therapy would be

a. To allow patients with ADHD to channel their energy in play

b. To become distracted with their psychosis b
c. To express themselves through play
d. To let patients, enjoy their stay at the psychiatric ward

3. How long does play therapy last?

a. 30 to 45 minutes
b. An hour
c. 1 hour and 30 minutes
d. 2 hours

4. What is the role of the nurse during directive play therapy? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. The therapist takes a hands-on approach and leads the child through guided play activities to
help them express themselves
b. The therapy makes use of a less controlled environment
c. The therapist leaves the child to engage in whatever play activities they might enjoy and
express
themselves with limited interference
d. They'll typically give specific instructions and supervise the child as they go through it

5. This individual used an approach called "active play" to assist children who displayed
impulsivity and a tendency to act out.

a. Hermione Hug-Hellmuth
b. David Levy
c. Roger Phillips
d. Joseph Solomon

6. This type of play therapy is a structured approach that encouraged a traumatized child to
engage in free-play

a. Directive play therapy

b. Non-directive play therapy
c. Release therapy
d. Active play

7. The person-centered therapy emphasizes the importance of which of the following traits?
(SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Genuineness
b. Honesty
c. Trust
d. Acceptance
e. Empathy

8. Play therapy in adults has been shown to be beneficial in terms of which of the following?

a. Optimizing learning
b. Enhancing relationships
c. Improving health and well-being
d. All the above

9. Which of the following adult mental disorders can benefit from play therapy? (SELECT ALL
THAT APPLY)

a. Dementia
b. Post-traumatic stress syndrome
c. Mood disorders
d. Anxiety disorders
e. Arrested emotional development

10. When providing play therapy to children, it is important for nurses to

a. Choose the type of toy for the child

b. Limit the child's playtime to 20 minutes only
c. Allow the child to choose their toy of choice
d. Leave the child in the playroom then come back after the prescribed timeframe
MODULE 21
1. Which of the following patients is at highest risk for suicide?

a. 72-year-old male, alcoholic, and autonomous.

b 15-year-old female, diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus, with 2 best friends
c. 45-year-old male, schizophrenic, and unemployed
d. 55-year-old male, clinically depressed, active in church

2. A patient has told the nurse that he has no reason to live and wants to die. The nurse
understands that the patient is at highest risk for self-harm at which of the following times?

a. Immediately after a family visit

b. On the anniversary of significant life events in the patient's life
c. During the first few days after admission
d. When the patient's somber mood becomes uplifted.

3. Which of the following items must be removed from the patient's room during a suicide
watch? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Glass mirror
b. Extra linens
c. Telephone
d. Cables
e. Curtains

4. While the nurse is accompanying the patient to the toilet during a suicide watch the patient
becomes agitated and says. "Why do you keep on following me. I need my privacy!" What would
be the best response by the nurse?

a. "I am sorry, but I only am following the doctor's orders."

b. "I am afraid that you might harm yourself that is why I need to watch out for your safety"
c. "What makes you think that I am following you?"
d. "Would you want another nurse to follow you instead?"

5. Which of the following is an indirect warning signs of suicide? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a. Discussing about the suicide in detail

b. The patient is showing dangerous behavior
c. Patient gives away possessions to other patients at the ward
d. Patient wishes that he is terminally ill
e. The patient becomes suddenly happy

6. Which of the following should a suicide watcher not do during a suicide watch?
a. The SUWA should not have other patients and should have a ratio of 1:1 with the suicidal
patient
b. May go have a 15-minute bathroom break
c. Stay alert and avoid distractions
d. Must not sleep during the suicide watch at nighttime

7. Which of the following must the nurse NOT do when a patient begins to have a violent
behavior?

a. Try to be calm when talking with the client.

b. Acknowledging the grievances of the patient
c. Attempt to pat the patient's back to defuse the patient
d. Maintain a safe distance between the nurse and the patient

8. When are restraints used on the patient who is displaying violent behavior?

a. is no longer exerting control over his/her own behavior

b. to prevent harm to others and to patient
c. to prevent serious disruption of treatment environment.
d. All of the above

9. The patient with the manic phase of bipolar disorder becomes disruptive during a group
therapy and is disturbing the other patients in the group. The nurse on duty is placing the client
on time out. The best place to do time out for the patient would be at the

a. Patient's room
b. Nurses' station
c. Pantry
d. Dining area

10. A patient who becomes violent suddenly gains access to a knife from the kitchen. The nurse
must do which of the following?

a. Attempt to get the knife from the patient.

b. Tell the patient to hand the knife to her.
c. Letting the patient put the knife on the floor.
d. Ask another staff nurse to try to get the knife from the patient.

MODULE 22
1. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis of a patient who is having a panic
attack?

a. Ineffective coping
 b. Powerlessness
c. Anxiety
d. Self-care deficit

2. Which of the following is the MOST important nursing responsibility during a panic attack?

a. Speak in simple words

b. Stay with the patient

c. Maintain calmness when talking with the patients

d. Move the client to a quiet area

3. In patient with catatonic stupor, the nurse must place priority in assessing the patient's

a. Intake and output

b. Food intake
c. Muscle spasms
d. Airway

4. Which of the following must the nurse do in preventing the occurrence of pressure ulcers in
patients who are bedridden due to catatonic stupor?

a. Providing the patient with adequate nutrition

b. Increasing the IV drip of patients
c. Turning the patient to side every 2 hours
d. Applying lotions over bony prominences

6. Delirium tremens is observed during the withdrawal period of which of the following commonly
abused substances?

a. Alcohol
b. Narcotics
c. Cocaine
d. Marijuana

6. Which of the following vitamins are affected during alcohol intoxication?

a. Riboflavin
b. Thiamine
c. Cobalamin
d. Biotin

7. A patient who is taking haloperidol (Haldol) develops rigid muscles, fever, then becomes extremely
confused. The nurse must do which of the following?

a. Decrease the dosage of the medication

 b. Report this finding to the physician
c. Stop giving the drug
d. Monitor the patient's vital signs

8. The patient who has schizophrenia is manifesting a body temperature of 39.9 degrees Celsius. The
patient. recently received chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for his psychosis. The nurse must expect the
health care provider to prescribe which of the following?

a. Bromocriptine
b. Amantadine
c. Diazepam
d. Dantrolene

9. Which of the following are examples of movements under tardive dyskinesia? (SELECT ALL THAT
APPLY)
a. Pill rolling
b. Shuffling gait
c. Lip smacking
d. Tongue twisting
e. Cheek puffing

10. Which of taste following drugs has lesser extrapyramidal effects on patients who are under
antipsychotic therapy?

a. Haloperidol
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Thioridazine
d. Quetiapine

MODULE 23

T 1. Lack of social support after discharge can lead to noncompliance to treatment after the
patient has been discharged.

T 2. Discharge planning is primarily aimed to prevent homelessness, suicide, or being

criminalized.
T 3. Discharge planning addresses societal, cultural, financial, and physiological interventions
necessary to safeguard and enhance that person's health and well-being in the community.
T 4. Nurses need to assess the patient's capacity, insight, and perception toward the psychiatric
illness before the patient is going to be discharged.

T 5. The nurse must discuss with the patient where he/she is going to stay after the discharge.
F 6. The patient's progress during the hospital stay and how ready they are for discharge should
not be discussed with
F 7. It is okay to leave your personal phone number to a psychiatric patient who is about to be
discharged.
T 8. Patient discharge planning is done at the termination phase of the nurse-patient
relationship.

T 9. Documentation of all clinical decisions actions is

T 10. The treating team should propose and actions is extremely nominated representative, and
document his/her understanding about illness and need for medication