XAT 2023 _ Mock Test 8

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Mock Test Solutions in English
Questions
1. Direction: Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:
The Bacchae of Euripides closes with a mother mourning over the corpse of her mangled son, whom she
helped to tear apart while in an intoxicated frenzy. Her filicidal rage is a punishment for failing to
acknowledge that Dionysus is a God. The gods, it seems, interest themselves in drink and its apparatus.
In the Bacchae, the undifferentiated chorus plays the virtuous drinker—that is, the god-affirming, god-
thanking drinker. Named, self-determining, god-denying individuals (Pentheus, Agave) play villainous
drinkers, crazed, mangled, disinherited, isolated, and shamed by the wrath of the divinity they have
insulted. There is a kind of moral here: one’s orientation toward Dionysus determines one’s experience of
the Dionysian. But there is also a complementary formal suggestion: singing in groups has something to
do with good drinking or drinking to the good. Those moral and formal suggestions linger wherever the
drinking song appears: in religious rites and festivals from Passover to Christmas, on ships, in military
regiments, in sporting clubs—all gravitational centres for the first person plural, all highly ceremonial.
The long tradition of sacred or vertical drinking songs confirms the gods’ beneficent jealousy in regulating
the human–drink relationship. One of Sappho’s lyrics calls in the voice of a community of drinkers to
Aphrodite (Kupris) to come and pour them a nectar mixed with the “joys of the banquet.” Here “joys” are
the exclusive gift of a god to a banqueting community in celebration. They should be sought from the
gods, not just from the wine itself. Persons transcend things in the Sapphic gift economy, and true—or
safe—celebration begins with right orientation to persons. The drinking songs of the Jewish Passover
Haggadah and Christian worship make the point more directly: wine is a divine gift that, drunk with the
correct ceremonies, rids a community of its guilt and resentments. The eucharistic hymns in Act I of
Wagner’s Parsifal—sung in chorus—celebrate this idea as well as any work of art. The vertical drinking
song’s message is clear: Dionysus is a God, and wine is a divine gift to be accepted in company and in a
posture of worship.
This divine imperative is less obvious in horizontal drinking songs—that is, group drinking songs that have
no thematic interest in worship of a god: Schubert’s “Trinklied” lieder, Mozart’s so-called Champagne Aria
from Don Giovanni, and sporting anthems.
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Which of the following has NOT been discussed by the author in the context of drinking?
A. Group drinking B. Drinking and rage
C. Drinking and God D. Horizontal drinking
E. Drinking and songs
2. Based on the passage, which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of the lyrics of a horizontal
drinking song?
A. Now since we are met, let’s merry, merry be. B. No remedy quicker, but take up your liquor.
C. Come to the table of mercy, prepared with the
D. We sing and dance to a lost tomorrow.
wine and the bread.
E. Keep the wine on our lips, divine in our hearts.
3. Which of the following would BEST invalidate the idea ‘one’s orientation toward Dionysus determines
one’s experience of the Dionysian’?
A. The experience of the Dionysian is a product of
multiple factors besides the orientation towards B. ‘Dionysus’ and ‘Dionysian’ are two different ideas.
Dionysian.
C. A Dionysian experience is independent of all prior D. People who worship Dionysus have positive
beliefs and attitudes. experiences after drinking.
E. One’s orientations do not always determine one’s
experiences.
4. Direction: Read the excerpt from a poem below and answer the questions that follow:
Tell all the truth but tell it slant,
Success in circuit lies,
Too bright for our infirm delight
The truth’s superb surprise;
As lightning to the children eased
With explanation kind,
The truth must dazzle gradually

Or every man be blind.
Which of the following rhetorical devices does the poet employ in the second stanza?
A. Analogy B. Irony
C. Personification D. Euphemism
E. Apostrophe
5. What does the poet mean by ‘success in circuit lies’?
B. Telling the truth successfully involves delivering it
A. Truth is complete when it is told circuitously.
tactfully and not bluntly.
C. The truth should be delivered only in D. Truth is effective and successful when it is vague
circumlocutory phrases. and blunt.
E. Beating about the bush is a prerequisite to telling
the entire truth successfully.
6. As covid cases rise and local governments scramble to beef up primary-care facilities to divert patients
from overstretched hospitals, some see a glimmer of hope. The health ministry of China said the shift of
attention to community clinics had created an ‘opportunity’. Their fever departments should become a
permanent feature so that people with high temperatures would no longer feel a need to go to hospital. It
is astonishing that China, a country that has hosted two Olympic games and boasts of landing spaceships
on the Moon, is still debating how to build community health clinics that patients trust and want to use. If
the Covid pandemic can accelerate long-needed change, some of the suffering it is causing will not have
been in vain.
Which of the following can be concluded from the above?

A. The new wave of Covid in China could be B. China is underplaying the rise in cases to prevent
deadlier than the earlier ones. panic.
C. China’s healthcare system is not as advanced as D. The pandemic could usher in long overdue reform
its space program. in China’s healthcare system.
E. China hasn’t learnt its lessons from the pandemic.
7. Which of the following sentences are grammatically CORRECT?
1. You have spent your life dedicated to the cultivation of wisdom.

2. You have read all the books of wisdom literature from the world, and are up to date with latest advances
from the discipline of psychology.
3. Not only that, but you practise many techniques increase your wisdom, adapted from cultures in the
world.
4. For example, following Buddhist advice, you do meditation every evening.
5. And when you wake up every morning, you echo the word of Marcus Aurelius.
6. Above all, following the existentialist philosophers, you believe that this life is your only life.
A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 4, 6
C. 2, 3, 4 D. 3, 5, 6
E. 4, 5, 6
When I was a child in the 1950s, my friends and I had two educations. We had school (which was not the
big deal it is today), and we also had what I call a hunter-gatherer education. We played in mixed-age
neighbourhood groups almost every day after school, often until dark. We played all weekend and all
summer long. We had time to explore in all sorts of ways, and also time to become bored and figure out
how to overcome boredom, time to get into trouble and find our way out of it, time to daydream, time to
immerse ourselves in hobbies, and time to read comics and whatever else we wanted to read rather than
the books assigned to us. What I learnt in my hunter-gatherer education has been far more valuable to my
adult life than what I learnt in school, and I think others in my age group would say the same if they took
time to think about it.
For more than 50 years now, we in the United States have been gradually reducing children’s
opportunities to play, and the same is true in many other countries. In his book Children at Play: An
American History (2007), Howard Chudacoff refers to the first half of the 20th century as the ‘golden age’
of children’s free play. By about 1900, the need for child labour had declined, so children had a good deal
of free time. But then, beginning around 1960 or a little before, adults began chipping away at that
freedom by increasing the time that children had to spend at schoolwork and, even more significantly, by
reducing children’s freedom to play on their own, even when they were out of school and not doing
homework. Adult-directed sports for children began to replace ‘pickup’ games; adult-directed classes out
of school began to replace hobbies; and parents’ fears led them, ever more, to forbid children from going
out to play with other kids, away from home, unsupervised. There are lots of reasons for these changes
but the effect, over the decades, has been a continuous and ultimately dramatic decline in children’s
opportunities to play and explore in their own chosen ways.
Which of the following, if true, would BEST support the author’s assertion ‘What I learnt in my hunter-
gatherer education has been far more valuable to my adult life than what I learnt in school.’?
B. The author’s hunter-gatherer education has
A. The author’s school education played a role in
helped her deal with life-threatening situations, and
preparing her for her career, and the hunter-gatherer
her school education helped hone her subject
education helped develop her hobbies.
knowledge.
D. The contribution of the author's hunter-gatherer
C. The author’s hunter-gatherer education has made
education has been limited to her personal life, but
her socially independent, and the school education
her school education has helped her in professional
has made her financially independent.
life as well.
E. The relevance of author’s hunter-gatherer
education is time-bound, and the school education of
her time is on the verge of losing its relevance.
9. Which of the following is a logically plausible meaning of ‘pickup’ games as used in the passage?
A. Outdoor games played following a set of rules B. Games involving team play
C. Indoor games involving just the child D. Games that are played spontaneously
E. Games that one learns as one grows up
10. Which of the following sentences from the passage MOST closely sums up the central argument of the
author?
A. ‘What I learnt in my hunter-gatherer education
B. ‘For more than 50 years now, we in the United
has been far more valuable to my adult life than
States have been gradually reducing children’s
what I learnt in school, and I think others in my age
opportunities to play, and the same is true in many
group would say the same if they took time to think
other countries.’
about it.’
D. ‘There are lots of reasons for these changes but
C. ‘When I was a child in the 1950s, my friends and I
the effect, over the decades, has been a continuous
had two educations. We had school (which was not
and ultimately dramatic decline in children’s
the big deal it is today), and we also had what I call a
opportunities to play and explore in their own chosen
hunter-gatherer education.’
ways.’
E. ‘Adult-directed sports for children began to

replace “pickup” games; adult-directed classes out of
school began to replace hobbies; and parents’ fears
led them, ever more, to forbid children from going
out to play with other kids, away from home,
unsupervised.’
11. Europe’s energy crisis is a reminder that for all their technological sophistication, even rich-world
economies must rely on the munificence of nature. European economists, financiers, and policymakers
are watching forecasts closely: a balmy winter will bring relief, requiring less gas to be burned in order to
keep houses warm. If temperatures are not too punishing, energy prices will fall and growth be given a
boost. A frosty winter, on the other hand, will bring misery: pushing millions into poverty, increasing
inflationary pressures and keeping industries shuttered.
Which of the following is a logical conclusion from the above paragraph?

A. Europe’s energy crisis has resulted in weather- B. Technological sophistication makes nations
based economics. independent of nature.
C. Energy crises in summer do not have such
D. Energy crises must be averted in winters.
adverse impacts on economics.
E. The connection between nature and economics is
exaggerated.
12. Read the following paragraph carefully.
In 2002, America Unrivaled – a book edited by my Princeton colleague, G John Ikenberry, the foremost
_____ of the idea of liberal internationalism – asked why there was so little _______ from other countries
to American power _______. That was when the _______ in the United States for an attack on Iraq was
building up.
Which of the following options will BEST fill up the above blanks meaningfully?
A. momentum,resistance, projection, energy B. projection, momentum, resistance, impulse
C. opponent, momentum, seconder, force D. exponent, resistance, projection, momentum
E. resistance, exponent, resistance, projection
13. Direction: Read the excerpt from a poem below and answer the questions that follow:
Toy Boat
For Tamir Rice
yellow plastic
black sea
eye-shaped shard
on a darkened map
no shores now
to arrive — or
depart
no wind but
this waiting which
moves you
as if the seconds
could be entered
& never left
toy boat — oarless
each wave
a green lamp
outlasted
toy boat
toy leaf dropped

from a toy tree
waiting
waiting
as if the sp-
arrows
thinning above you
are not
already pierced
by their own names
Which of the following is not a theme of the above poem?

A. The poem describes a solitary boat that floats in
B. The poem is about a boat without a destination.
the sea.
D. The poem is about how internal forces will
C. The poet depicts the unpredictable nature of life.
conquer the external forces in life.
E. The poem is about the feelings of a traveller on a
long voyage.
14. The ‘eye-shaped shard/on a darkened map’ refers to:
A. The toy’s purpose B. The toy’s colour
C. The toy’s shape D. A description of the sea
E. A description of the owner of the toy
Lately, figurative painting has become a much stronger presence on the art scene—and in the art market
—than it’s been in living memory. About a decade ago, the hot thing was a certain kind of post-minimal but
decorator-friendly abstraction, usually exemplifying what John Yau called, at the time, a ‘well-produced
scruffiness’ via ‘ironic variations of the artistic canon’, as exemplified by such honoured precursors as
Agnes Martin, Robert Ryman, and Frank Stella. Critics got all bent out of shape over the market frenzy
over a few of these young neo-traditional abstractionists, for instance Jacob Kassay and Lucien Smith,
and their fate was sealed when Walter Robinson coined the term ‘zombie formalism’ to describe the
formulaic nature of their production and its indebtedness to the colour field and minimalist painting of the
1960s. No one could ever take that cohort seriously again, and collectors started looking elsewhere for
new finds. Figurative painting seemed like a fresher field. The push in that direction has only taken on
greater momentum, partly because figurative painting seemed to offer artists a way to communicate more
directly their passionate beliefs, and to focus on human stories rather than on abstruse aesthetic
concerns. And it offered curators and collectors a way to display their sympathies right there on the wall—
like wearing one’s heart on one’s sleeve.
But even more than with the earlier clamour over abstraction, the rush to embrace new figurative painting
has led to some undesirable consequences: Artists who couldn’t paint their way out of a paper bag are
being exhibited cheek by jowl with refined stylists whose images evince a profound engagement with
contemporary reality. Often enough, the former seem more numerous; various undead forms of figure
painting roam the galleries and museums today just as the revenant styles of abstraction did a decade
ago. The indiscriminate uptake of the new figurative painting suggests it might have as brief a heyday as
the formalism of a decade prior. That’s all the more reason, though, to look for the artists whose figuration
is built to last—several of whom exhibited their work in New York this past fall.
According to the passage, which of the following proved to be the last stroke for neo-traditional
abstractionism paintings?
A. Critics’ getting upset with the popularity of some B. Walter Robinson’s coming up with the term
artists of such paintings. ‘Zombie Formalism’ for such paintings.
C. A waning interest of art collectors in such
D. A resurgence of the figurative art form that helps
paintings because of the perception that it is not
an artist convey their beliefs more directly.
‘serious art’.
E. Their formulaic nature and dependence on
minimalist style of painting.
16. Based on the passage, which of the following can BEST be concluded about the future of figurative
painting?
B. It may survive if artists stop using the style
A. It will go the way of neo-traditional abstractionism.
indiscriminately.
C. It might be reduced to a fad just as the formalism D. Only a few figurative painters will last in the long
of the previous decade. run.

E. Because of increased proliferation, refined
painters might lose interest in it.
17. Which of the following BEST captures the view of John Yau as applied to the post minimal but decorator-
friendly abstractionist works?
B. He found them refreshingly surprising as can be
A. He viewed them positively as can be seen from
seen from the term ‘ironic variation of the artistic
the term ‘well-produced’.
canon’.
C. He thought that they were created in a fine
D. He thought that they had a shabby aspect to them
manner, had a surprise element, and had many
and twisted previous high-quality works.
notable names creating them.
E. He thought that they were copying the works of
some earlier honoured artists and making variations
to it.
18. Arrange the following sentences in a LOGICAL sequence.
1. Any mission, even the initial one, will necessarily be planned to be months-long, and that increases the
complexity of the logistics enormously.
2. When a Mars-bound astronaut will spend months in space just getting to the landing spot, spending just
a couple of days on the planet isn’t going to satisfy.
3. But that ‘if’ is doing an awful lot of work.
4. The Apollo missions spent between just one and three days on the surface – and it took only three days
to get to the Moon itself.
5. When we went to the Moon, the astronauts had to carry everything for their visit in their tiny, fragile
landers.
A. 35421 B. 45321
C. 14523 D. 32154
E. 54321
19. Arrange the following sentences in a LOGICAL sequence.
1. Some 107 inscriptions have been catalogued at the bases of the statues: 61 in Greek, 45 in Latin, and
one bilingual.
2. It became a spectacle to behold and commemorate.
3. They were not merely scratched onto the rock but engraved by professional stonecutters.
4. But Greek and Roman tourists tended to reinterpret the colossi through the lens of their own culture.
5. They overlooked its pharaonic roots and instead saw Memnon, the mythical king of Aethiopia,
serenaded by his anguished mother Eos, the goddess of dawn.
A. 24531 B. 32145
C. 31254 D. 54123
E. 45213
20. Direction: Read the excerpt from a poem below and answer the question that follows:
Let me now sleep, let me not think, let me
Not ache with inconsistent tenderness.
It was untenable delight; we are free--
Separate, equal--and if loverless,
Love consumes time which is more dear than love,
More unreplicable. With everything
Thus posited, the choice was clear enough
And daylight ratified our reckoning.
Now only movement marks the birds from the pines;
Now it's dark; the blinded stars appear;
I am alone, you cannot read these lines

Who are with me when no one else is here,
Who are with me and cannot hear my voice
And take my hand and abrogate the choice.
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the following lines?
‘... we are free--
Separate, equal--and if loverless,
Love consumes time which is more dear than love..’

A. The lines suggest that two lovers have chosen to
B. The lines suggest the reunion of two lovers.
separate.
D. The lines eulogise love and the time present with
C. The lines emphasise the importance of love.
a loved one.
E. The lines suggest the fleeting nature of time.
21. Direction: Read the paragraph below and answer the questions that follow:
You can’t teach creativity; all you can do is let it blossom. Little children, before they start school, are
naturally creative. Our greatest innovators, the ones we call geniuses, are those who somehow retain that
childhood capacity, and build on it, right through adulthood. A great deal of research has shown that
people are most creative when infused by the spirit of play, when they see themselves as engaged in a
task just for fun. In many experiments, the attempt to increase creativity by rewarding people for it or by
putting them into contests to see who is most creative has the opposite effect. It’s hard to be creative
when you are worried about other people’s judgments. In school, children’s activities are constantly being
judged.
Which of the following can be inferred from the above paragraph?

A. Good teachers let creativity grow and develop. B. People who play for fun exhibit creativity.
D. Schools are not the ideal places for fostering
C. Creativity increases when one is rewarded for it.
creativity.
E. Schools nurture creativity in a disciplined manner.
22. Which of the following is an assumption of the claims in the passage above?
A. Creativity decreases with age. B. Adulthood kills creativity.

C. Creativity is innate. D. Children cannot be taught creativity.
E. Children are the greatest innovators.
According to Barbara Caine, a historian at the University of Sydney and the editor of Friendship: A History,
the notion of a ‘best friend’ is a relatively recent invention. Before the mid-to-late 20th century, Caine told
me, people didn’t usually use that term. They referred to sentimental friends and beloved friends—but not
best friends.
For much of history, women—especially those in the middle class, who were expected to be homemakers
—didn’t tend to have a large number of social connections. ‘In order to have friends, you need
independence. You need to be able to leave the family and the home. You need to be a legally and
socially independent person. And women weren’t’, Caine said. Friendship was considered a largely male
phenomenon. But after the Industrial Revolution, urbanisation led more men and women to start going to
college, working in new industries, joining social clubs—essentially, living a life outside the home and
family. The average person’s social circle expanded.
It stands to reason that as larger social groups became more common, people began to elevate one ‘best’
connection. And in the mid-to-late 1900s, feminist movements championed female friendships, leading
many women to assign particular importance to them. Best friend caught on in child psychology, fiction,
music, and commercials; by 1971, it was a common enough phrase to appear in the title How to Be Your
Own Best Friend, a hit guide to self-reliance, and by the ’90s, it was ubiquitous in books for kids. And
much of the language around it seemed to mimic that of monogamy—the model for love, deeply rooted in
heteronormative institutions, that many people knew most intimately. ‘Nobody closer’, went the jingle for a
1970s McDonald’s ad about a friend duo. ‘You’re two of a kind.’ Best-friendship was defined by its
exclusivity.
Today, the term is still widely used. But most of us don’t naturally fall into friend pairs. Seeking them out,
then, can lead to hurt—if we choose one friend over another, if the best-friend designation isn’t
reciprocated, or if we don’t have a closest friend but feel that we should. For those who do have one,
prioritising them could mean turning away from other, potentially fruitful friendships. And relying on one
person for all of your emotional needs creates a lot of pressure: No one is available to be a great friend
100 percent of the time.
Which of the following is the author MOST likely to support?

A. A vast network of mild friendships over one deep B. Prioritising friends according to the needs they
friendship. fulfil.
C. Not using any labels in relationships to avoid hurt. D. Having non-exclusive loving friendships.
E. Having a set of good friends and one friend who
stands out among them.
24. According to Barbara Caine, which of the following are prerequisites to having friendships?
I. Legal independence
II. Social independence
III. Leaving family and home
IV. Education
V. Urbanisation
A. Only I, II, and IV B. Only I and II
C. Only I,II, III, IV, and V D. Only I, II, and III
E. Only I and V
25. Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?
A. Sentimental friends and beloved friends are labels B. For a large part of history, middle class women
that can be used for friends. were expected to be homemakers.
C. Monogamy is the preserve of heteronormative D. The Industrial Revolution contributed to the
institutions. expansion of people’s friend circle.
E. The term best friend entered some forms of pop
culture in the mid to late 1900s.
26. Which of the following sentences are grammatically INCORRECT?
1) Temptingly simple as this response is, it can be a trap.
2) It tends to focus discussions on the material aspects of jobs that are uppermost in employees minds at
the moment.
3) In the past the foremost issue was often pay, but most recently it has been flexibility—notably, remote
and hybrid work.
4) And while material offerings are the easiest lever to pull, they’re easy for competitors to imitate.
5) An overreliance on them can set up a race to the bottom as employers strive to outbid one another for
talent.
6) There’s a much better approach—one that improves hiring and retaining.

A. 1, 3, 5 B. 2, 3, 4
C. 3, 4, 5 D. 2, 4, 6
E. 3, 5, 6
27. Direction: Read the caselet given below and answer the questions that follow.
Venugopal joined a call centre during the second wave of COVID because he was sacked from a
managerial role in a PR firm. Venugopal took up the role at the call centre to support his family comprising
his wife and a two-year-old son. However, he felt dissatisfied with his new job despite working from home.
One month after Venugopal joined the firm, Rihanna joined the firm at the same level as Venugopal.
Rihanna had been a trainer and writer before joining the call centre and was also a brilliant cook. Knowing
this, Venugopal started sharing pictures of dishes cooked by him with Rihanna and also asked her to help
him write a book. Rihanna agreed to help Venugopal and the two of them started talking often. Rihanna
received a call from an unknown number on a Friday night around 12 a.m. The caller was Venugopal’s
wife Gabriella who told Rihanna who she was. She also told Rihanna that Venugopal drank too much and
was therefore asleep. Gabriella asked Rihanna if there was anything urgent she wanted to talk to her
husband about. Rihanna was confused and upset about the whole incident and called Venugopal to
discuss the matter but her call was not answered. What should Rihanna do?
1) Register a complaint against Venugopal and his wife at the local police station.
2) Report the incident to her manager.
3) Escalate the matter to the HR head.
4) Find out about the whereabouts of Venugopal from the company’s HR portal and set him right.
5) Send a message to Venugopal expressing her displeasure.

A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3
C. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 5
E. 2 and 4
28. After a year of working from home, Venugopal is asked to work from the office on all the working days. He
requests his manager, Rohit, to allow him to work from home for at least one day a week but the manager
doesn’t approve his request. One month later, Venugopal had a hairline fracture in a forearm bone when
he had an accident while coming to the office. Rohit allows Venugopal to work from home for 15 days as
advised by the doctor. Venugopal requested working from home for 15 more days to recover. Rohit is not
sure if he should allow Venugopal to work from home or not. Which of the following pieces of information
will help Rohit make a decision?
1) Venugopal's application for 7 days leave for his brother’s marriage next week was denied by Rohit.
2) Venugopal took off the plaster and crepe bandage a week before the doctor asked him to.
3) Venugopal has some issues with his wife.
4) The doctor has advised rest for a week more.

A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4
C. 1, 2, and 4 D. 2, 3, and 4
E. 1, 2, 3 and 4
29. One of the team members from Venugopal’s team leaves and Rohit shifts Ron from Rihanna’s team to
Venugopal’s team for a month. Venugopal sets unrealistic targets for Ron because of which Ron ends up
working even on holidays. When Ron showed his displeasure to Venugopal, he started cribbing about his
issues with his wife. Ron, being an elderly gentleman, kept working almost 24*7 for two weeks. Rihanna
noticed this and was taken aback by Venugopal’s behaviour. What should Rihanna do?
1. Write a formal email to Venugopal to ask for an explanation.
2. Ask Ron to not do anything that Venugopal says.
3. Apprise Rohit of the current situation.

A. Only 1 B. Only 2
C. Only 3 D. Only 1 and 2
E. Only 1 and 3
The Board of Directors of ABC Ltd. is meeting today on the future of their CEO, Mr. Brilliant. Mr. Brilliant
has been accused by the company’s IT manager, Ms. Leela, of sexual harassment, a charge that Mr.
Brilliant vehemently denies. Mr. Brilliant claims that he was in a romantic relationship with Ms. Leela for
several months and this was no secret. Mr. Brilliant is an absolute asset to the company as he has built
ABC Ltd. from scratch to a billion dollar company with substantial overseas interests. Any harsh decision
against Mr. Brilliant by the board would adversely affect the future of ABC Ltd. and could even lead to
several key executives loyal to Mr. Brilliant leaving the company. This would benefit ABC’s competitors.
Which of the following actions would adversely affect both Mr. Brilliant and ABC Ltd. the most?
B. Ask Mr. Brilliant to go on an indefinite unpaid
A. Initiate an internal inquiry to find the truth.
leave with immediate effect.
D. Terminate the services of Mr. Brilliant with
C. Take no action against Mr. Brilliant.
immediate effect.
E. Ban Mr. Brilliant from entering the company’s
premises until an inquiry has published its findings.
31. At the Board meeting, members came up with the following suggestions. Which of the following
suggestions would harm the company the least?
A. Terminate the services of Mr. Brilliant to maintain B. Suspend Mr. Brilliant for at least a year with
the company’s clean image. immediate effect.
C. Form a committee of women employees in the
company and make a report saying that Mr. Brilliant D. File an FIR against Mr. Brilliant.
is not guilty.
E. Set up a fast track committee to investigate and
present their findings within a month to enable the
Board to take a decision.
32. The Board members decided to suspend Mr. Brilliant from the company for six months due to the pending
internal inquiry.
Which of the following should Mr. Brilliant do in order to save his career at ABC Ltd. for the time being?
B. Reveal the fact that he had notified the HR
A. Ask his followers in the company to influence the
department that he was in a relationship with Ms.
members conducting the internal inquiry.
Leela six months ago.
C. Threaten to join a rival company and reveal all D. Make a stirring speech highlighting his role in
company secrets to them. building ABC Ltd.

E. Make his followers in the company threaten to
resign with immediate effect if his suspension is not
revoked.
33. Direction: Read the following caselet and choose the best alternative for the questions that follow:
Deepak, the head of logistics of one of the country’s largest steel companies, was deep in thought about a
problem his department was facing. Globalisation had affected his industry like many other industries.
Despite the increased competition, current revenues of his organisation remained healthy as his company
was able to deliver to new clients in overseas markets as well as to remote areas, thanks to improved
infrastructure. However, the complexity of managing logistics had increased manifold. Logistics personnel
were under pressure to come up with solutions that would be cost-effective and at the same time deliver
quickly to their large customers. The biggest challenge for Deepak was to handle increasing volumes
quickly. Most of his colleagues were middle-aged and knew only about the traditional methods of
transporting steel. Transporting additional volumes was a challenge as all the logistics people were busy
and it was very difficult to get people with relevant experience.
Large overseas clients as well as distributors in remote areas were complaining that their shipments were
arriving late frequently. Deepak knew this was because most of his colleagues were still sending
shipments by train to ports and remote areas, as they had done for many decades. Deepak was
pondering five possible solutions to tackle this problem:
1. Get the help of transport consultants to stay updated.
2. Recruit more personnel in the logistics department.
3. Decrease the number of simultaneous shipments handled by each logistics person.
4. Decrease time spent on client interaction and increase the time for generating solutions.
5. Ask the logistics personnel to spend some time every day to explore other more viable transportation
methods such as road and water transport.
Which of the following would be the best sequence of decisions taken by Deepak (starting from immediate
to distant)?
A. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2 B. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
C. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 D. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
E. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
34. Deepak delves deep into each shipment made over the past one year and finds that, for most shipments,
rail transport is the most cost-effective as it is cheaper than road transport and trains can carry large
volumes at one go. However, there are considerable time overruns in delivery because most goods trains
are slow in reaching their destinations due to internal operational deficiencies. Most of the time, goods
trains are frequently shunted aside near railway stations to make way for passenger trains even when
there are no passenger trains currently passing through. If the railways were a bit more alert, considerable
savings in time could take place.
How should Deepak attempt to solve this problem quickly in order to save time on delivery?
B. Request his CEO to write a letter to the
A. Write an official letter to the concerned authority
concerned authority of the railways highlighting this
of the railways highlighting this issue.
performance lag.
C. Hire retired senior personnel from the railways as
consultants to ensure that the trains carrying his D. Explore other transportation mediums such as
shipments are not inordinately held up at railway water transport.
stations.
E. Do nothing. Deepak cannot possibly solve this
problem. Only the railways can.
35. Deepak is to retire in a year’s time and he wanted to leave behind an efficient and smooth functioning
department. Order the following activities, from the most important to the least important, that Deepak
should undertake in the next one year.
1. Empower senior personnel and, at the same time, seek the opinion of all others to handle future
challenges.
2. Set a future direction for the department taking into account the various challenges to be faced.
3. Do nothing. After he retires, the department would be somebody else’s headache, not his.
4. Benchmark performance with respect to the best steel companies in the world.
5. Infuse fresh thinking by hiring logistics personnel from outside the steel industry.
Select the best option in which the activities are arranged in the order of priority starting with the most
important step:
A. 2, 1, 5, 4 B. 2, 4, 5, 1
C. 1, 4, 5, 2 D. 3, 4, 1, 2
E. 4, 5, 1, 3
MBA entrance examinations test students in two areas of verbal ability: reasoning skills and adequate
knowledge of grammar. From an analysis conducted on data from the past 10 years, it has been found
that students good at reasoning skills are more likely to become senior managers in organisations.
In order to prepare students for successful careers in the corporate sector, the test makers of MBA
entrance exams are considering the following proposals:
I. Assigning one mark for grammar questions and two marks for each reasoning-based question.
II. Preparing a question paper with Part A and Part B. Part A would comprise grammar, while Part B would
comprise reasoning-based questions only. The qualifying cut-off percentile would be calculated on the
combined scores of the two parts.
III. Assigning 0.25 negative marks for each wrong attempt for a grammar question and 0.50 negative
marks for each wrong attempt at a reasoning-based question.
IV. Preparing a question paper with more reasoning-based questions than grammar-based questions,
where each question carries equal marks.
Which of the following proposals are likely to identify students who are likely to make successful
careers in the corporate sector?
A. I, II, and III B. II and III
C. II and IV D. I and IV
E. III and IV
37. This year, the MBA entrance exam would comprise 100 questions in total, 50 testing knowledge of
grammar and 50 testing students on reasoning ability. There will be equal marks allotted for each question
in the two sections. The following information is also available on websites posted by past MBA students:
I. Chances of silly errors would be low in reasoning-based questions.
II. Questions have differential marking; some questions carry one mark while others carry two marks in
both the sections.
III. Banks are more likely to assist MBA students with bank loans for starting new ventures than they
would for students from other educational streams.
IV. Most MBA graduates get very good jobs, and hence may not be interested in starting new ventures.
V. Options are generally confusing for both grammar and reasoning-based questions.
VI. Each wrong attempt would attract a negative marking of 25% of the total marks allotted for that
question.
For an aspiring student, the best approach to get good scores would be to know which of the
following:
A. I, III, and V B. II, III, and VI
C. I and II D. IV, V, and VI
E. I, II, and VI
38. Past analysis of data has also revealed to test makers of MBA entrance exams that in addition to good
reasoning ability, good reading and writing skills are also important skills for senior managers in almost
every organisation. Keeping this in mind, what proposed changes can be considered for this year’s MBA
entrance exam?
I. Increase the weightage of grammar-based questions.
II. Introduce passage-based questions with multiple choice options as the answers.
III. Decrease the weightage of reasoning-based questions.
IV. Introduce a compulsory essay writing section.
V. Remove negative marking for wrong answers and encourage students to attempt all the questions.
VI. Introduce passage-based questions with open-ended answers.
Which proposal (or combination of proposals) would likely test students for their reading and
writing abilities?
A. I, III, IV, V B. II, IV, VI
C. II, III, IV D. I, III
E. I, V, VI
Mr. Prakash Shah, the CEO of Easy Air, a major low cost airline in India, is invited to an air show in
Farnborough, England where all the major aircraft manufacturers are displaying their latest models of
aircraft. He is taken on test flights by all the manufacturers and he finds the Chinese aircraft, Kio, to be far
ahead of all the others in performance and fuel efficiency. Moreover, the manufacturer is willing to give
loans (for part of the costs) on a long-term repayment basis at attractive rates should Mr. Shah be
interested in purchasing. Mr. Shah promptly orders five planes to take advantage of the Chinese offer. The
makers of Kio aircraft (CAC) give Mr. Shah a delivery time six months ahead of the original schedule,
hoping to take advantage of the Indian government’s Make in India initiative and manufacture most of their
components in India. However, a rising wave of anti-Chinese sentiment in India forces CAC to shut down
its Indian plant and make the Kio plane in its original plant in China. Other Indian airline companies who
were interested in purchasing the Kio plane are unhappy because their delivery schedules have also been
delayed. CAC is worried that other major Indian airline companies may switch their orders to rival aircraft
manufacturers.
Which of the following conclusions can be most justifiably made?
Statement 1: Kio is poised to sweep the Indian airline market.
Statement 2: The competing models of Kio made by other airline manufacturers are more expensive than
Kio’s.
A. 1 alone B. 2 alone
C. Neither 1 or 2 D. Either 1 or 2
E. I and II together
40. Due to the delay in delivery schedule, what should be CAC’s approach to Mr. Shah’s order?
A. Collect 50% as advance and the remaining B. Collect the full amount from Mr. Shah. Later, when
amount on delivery. the delivery is delayed, blame it on the Indian

government.
C. Not collect the amount but request Mr. Shah to D. Collect the amount Mr. Shah is willing to deposit
write to the Indian Civil Aviation Ministry. after clarifying the fact that delivery will be delayed.
E. Request Mr. Shah to transfer the full amount to an
offshore tax haven so that both Air Gujarat and CAC
would not have to pay any taxes on the purchase.
41. Unhappy Indian airline companies will not only cancel their orders given to CAC but also spread negative
rumours about the company. The best way for CAC to deal with the negative publicity is to:
A. Write to the Indian government and point out the
ill-effects of CAC having to shut down its plant in B. Suggest customers to wait.
India.
C. Demand compensation from the Indian D. Suggest to Indian airline companies to consider
government failing which international arbitration purchasing other models of CAC with substantial
may be sought by CAC. discounts and gifts.
E. Offer other Indian airline companies hefty
discounts on the Kio model for the delay in delivery
schedules if they do not cancel their orders.
Applicants did not receive their admit cards for a particular online medical entrance examination on the
scheduled date. Applicants sent multiple emails enquiring about the admit card but the authorities did not
provide an answer to the students and the students were clueless about the admit card release date.
Which of the following is a logical step for the candidates to take?

A. Boycott the exam. B. Write an email to the concerned authorities.
D. Protest outside the concerned organisation’s
C. Go for a hunger strike.
office.
E. Write to the HRD ministry.
43. Which of the following factors could have resulted in the delay?
1. Non availability of test centres.

2. Paper being leaked.
3. The authorities are testing the students’ ability to adapt to circumstances.
4. Internal politics at the organisation.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, and 3
E. 2, 3, and 4
44. The admit card is released a day before the exam. Some of the students travelling from far away places
for the entrance test could not make it for the test on time. These students were not allowed to write the
exam. What should the authorities do?
B. The authorities should scrap the exam and
A. Tell the students to apply for the exam and try
provide admissions based on academic
their luck next year.
performance.
D. The authorities should evaluate the students who
C. Hold another exam with a paper of the same
appeared for the exam and the ones who didn’t on
difficulty level for the students who missed the exam.
different parameters.
E. No admissions to be provided this year.
XYZ Knowledge Park is one of the biggest office spaces in Bengaluru. Prashant, who is an employee at
one of the companies whose office is in XYZ Knowledge Park, sets up a coffee shop ‘The Early Risers’ in
the food court at XYZ Knowledge Park in partnership with a friend Sushant. Sushant takes care of the stall
as Prashant generally keeps busy in office and does not go to the food court often. Also, Sushant takes a
particular amount as salary every month.
On a particular day, Prashant reaches office early at 10 a.m. and goes to the food court to have coffee at
‘The Early Risers’ only to find out that the store is still closed and Sushant is nowhere to be seen.
Prashant asked people around about the opening time of the coffee shop. People told him that ‘The Early
Risers’ never starts its operations before 11:30 a.m. Prashant is furious at this and wants to take some
action regarding this. What should he do?
1. End the partnership with Sushant.

2. Ask the people around to keep an eye on Sushant.
3. Stop paying the monthly salary to Sushant.
4. Discuss the situation with Sushant

A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. 3 only D. 4 only
E. 2 and 4
46. After a year of operation, Prashant and Sushant evaluate the performance of the business and realise that
the footfall at the store is less than expected. What could be the reasons for the less footfall?
1) The store opens an hour after most of the offices are open.
2) ‘The Early Risers’ is the only coffee shop in the food court.
3) A few food items are also served at the coffee shop.
4) The service at the coffee shop is very slow.

A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4 D. 1 and 4
E. 1 and 3
47. Read the caselet given below and answer the question that follows.
Lokesh had an accident and hurt his right knee. He had to get a surgery done to get his knee operated on
to get the kneecap fixed. All the expenses of the surgery were repaid by the health insurers. A week after
the surgery, Lokesh had to take an injection costing INR 25,000, which was covered by the health
insurance. However, when Lokesh claimed the money, the company refused to pay any money to him
without giving a reason. The company was not responsive despite registering complaints by writing
multiple emails or calling the customer care number. What should Lokesh do?
A. Go to the nearest office of the health insurance B. Call the customer care number repetitively and
company and reprimand the employees. warn the customer care reps of dire consequences.
C. Tell everyone he knows about his experience and
D. Post his story on social media and tag the health
dissuade them from buying policies from the
insurance company.
company.
E. Reach out to the hospital he got his knee

operated on at.
48. How many four-digit numbers with distinct digits in ascending order are possible such that the product of
these digits lies between 24 and 60?
A. 9 B. 5
C. 6 D. 7
E. 8
49. In the given figure, DE is parallel to BC, FE is parallel to DC, AF = 8 cm, and FD = 12 cm. Find DB .
A. 30 cm B. 25 cm
C. 20 cm D. 22 cm
E. 32 cm
50. On 19th January 2022, when the clock showed 6:25 a.m., it was 35 minutes behind the correct time. On
the last day of the month, at 7:00 p.m., it showed 8:25 p.m. on that day. When was the clock 15 minutes
ahead of the correct time?
A. 24th January, 12:00 p.m. B. 23rd January, 12:00 a.m.
C. 24th January, 12:00 a.m. D. 23rd January, 12:00 p.m.
E. 25th January, 12:00 p.m.
51. Direction: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The Bubble Chart shown below depicts the population density (i.e., population per km2) of 7 countries
denoted along the Y axis versus their respective areas (in ’00 km2) denoted along the X axis. The
diameter of each bubble (value within the bubble) denotes the number of suicide cases registered in the
respective countries for the year 2001.
Registered suicide rate is calculated as the ratio of the number of registered suicide cases in a country to
the total population of that country, expressed in percentage terms.
Total number of suicide cases in a country = Registered suicide cases + Unregistered suicide cases
How many of the given countries have a registered suicide rate of less than 0.015%?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. Cannot be determined
52. In how many of the given countries was the total number of suicides less than 10 in the year 2001?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. Cannot be determined
53. How many of the following statements can be definitely concluded as per the data from the given graph?
i) More population meant more registered suicide rates.
ii) Less population meant more registered suicide rates.
iii) More population density of a country meant more registered suicide cases.
iv) Less area of a country meant more registered suicide cases.

A. None B. 1
C. 2 D. 3
E. All four can be concluded.
54. During the entire cricketing career, Rahul appeared in a total of 40 matches and scored an average of ‘n’
runs. From these 40 matches, the difference between the least runs scored by him and ‘n’ is 39. If Rahul
excludes the runs of any one match, then the average of the runs scored by him in the remaining matches
can attain a minimum value of 37 and a maximum value of 42. Find the maximum runs scored by Rahul.
A. 210 B. 179
C. 181 D. 197
E. 200
55. If A is 22.22% more than C and B is 45.45% less than C, then A is what percentage of B?
A. 112% B. 224%
C. 260% D. 310%
E. 230%
56. The number of integral values of ‘a’ less than 100, so that the roots of the quadratic equation
are rational is:
A. 11 B. 10
C. 9 D. 8
E. 7
57. A car takes 14 hours to travel a distance of 102 km. Some part of the journey is covered at the speed of 3
km/h and the remaining part of the journey at the speed of 13 km/h. Find the distance (in km) covered by
the car at the speed of 13 km/h.
A. 87 B. 78
C. 98 D. 89
E. 90
58. Direction: Based on the given information, solve the following questions:
Eshan plotted a bar graph showing the total marks obtained by his four friends, Amrit, Bhumit, Chitra, and
Dheeraj, in the first four semesters of engineering.
(All marks are multiples of 50.)
He then ranked everyone (including himself) based on their semester-wise marks from 1 to 5, 1 being the
one who got the highest total marks in that semester and 5 being the least. The sum of the ranks obtained
by Amrit, Bhumit, and Chitra is 18, 13, and 12, respectively.
What is the sum of the ranks of Eshan in the four semesters?

A. 9 B. 12
C. 10 D. 8
E. 11
59. In how many semesters was Chitra’s rank better than at least two of her four friends?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. Never
60. In how many semesters was the sum of the ranks of Eshan, Chitra, and Dheeraj 6?
A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3
E. 4
61. There are 8 different balls that need to be placed in 4 different boxes. What is the probability that two of
these boxes contain exactly 3 and 2 balls?
A. B.
C. D.
E. None of the above
62. Find the quotient when the sum of all 3-digit odd numbers of the form ‘aab’, where a > 0, is divided by 25 .
A. 999 B. 990
C. 1000 D. 900
E. 1009
63. 74325 is added to the number 94551y32 . The resulting number is divided by 11, the remainder of which
is 9. Find the equivalent of y in base 3 .
A. 11 B. 21
C. 12 D. 22
E. 23
64. Direction: Read the given data carefully, and answer the following questions.
The table given below provides certain data about the age, gender, and weight of 40 people. The first
number in each cell for male and female is the number of people in that group. The minimum and
maximum weights of respondents in each group are given in brackets. For males as well as females in
each age group, the weights of no two people are the same. Everyone’s age is an integer. For example,
there are five female respondents in the age group 51 to 75, and among these five, the lightest weighs 49
kg, while the heaviest weighs 59 kg.
The percentage of people that weigh between 45 to 60 kg (both inclusive) is at least:

A. 40% B. 45%
C. 35% D. 50%
E. 37.5%
65. The percentage of people that weigh at least 55 kg is at most:
A. 67.5% B. 72.5%
C. 70% D. 75%
E. 77.5%
66. The average weight of people who weigh at most 53 kg is at least:
A. 44.16 years B. 45.87 years
C. 43.33 years D. 42.72 years
E. 43.42 years
67. Solve for x if .
A. , B. ,
C. , D. ,
68. Which of the following is not the possible number of odd factors for N = p 5 × p 4 × p 3 × p 2 ?
1 2 3 4
A. 72 B. 120
C. 60 D. 36
E. 90
69. Three numbers that are co-prime to one another are such that the product of the first two numbers is 357
and that of the last two numbers is 609. Find the LCM of these numbers.
A. 4263 B. 10353
C. 8211 D. 7917
E. 10773
70. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
The sleeping habit of a person was tracked for 10 weeks. The following bar graph shows the total number
of hours the person slept during the night and the total number of hours he slept during the day in these
10 weeks.
On any day of the week, the person slept for an integral number of hours during the day as well as during
the night.
The following table shows the ratio of the number of hours for which the person slept during the day and
during the night on weekdays (Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, and Sunday,
respectively) of five different weeks.
Due to some error, the name of the weeks is mentioned as week A, B, C, D, and E.
For how many of the given weeks (i.e., A, B, C, D, and E) can we uniquely determine their actual week
numbers?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. 5
71. Find the average number of hours for which the person slept during the night on Fridays of the five weeks
A, B, C, D and E.
A. 7.4 hours B. 8.2 hours
C. 7.6 hours D. 7.8 hours
E. 8 hours
72. Which of the following additional information, if true, will help us in uniquely determining the actual week
numbers for each of the five weeks A, B, C, D, and E?
A. The number of hours for which the person slept B. The number of hours for which the person slept
during the day on Tuesday of week D and that on during the day on Saturday of week A and that on
Thursday of week E are equal. Wednesday of week E are equal.
C. The person slept for an average of 2.4 hours
D. The person slept for an average of 8 hours during
during the day on Thursdays of the five weeks A, B,
the night on Saturdays of weeks A, B, C, D, and E
C, D, and E
E. All of the above but option D
73. The HCF and the difference of two numbers is 11. If the LCM of the same two numbers is a three-digit
number, then what is the maximum possible value of the smaller number between the two?
A. 88 B. 99
C. 110 D. 132
74. What is the speed of Train A?
Statement I: Train A can cross a tunnel that is thrice its length in 48 seconds and a platform of length 200
metres in 20 seconds.
Statement II: Train A can cross Train B while moving in opposite directions and the same direction in 15
seconds and 35 seconds, respectively. The speed of Train B is 72 km/h.
A. If the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to B. If the data in Statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in Statement II answer the question, while the data in Statement I
alone is not sufficient to answer the question. alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
C. If the data in either Statement I or Statement II D. If the data in both statements I and II together is
alone is sufficient to answer the question. not sufficient to answer the question.
E. If the data in both statements I and II together is
necessary to answer the question.
75. In the given figure, points P, R, Q, and S are the points lying on the circle. Find the ratio of the area of
triangle TRQ to that of triangle SPT if and .
A. B.
C. D.
Solutions
1. B
Sol. Passage summary: The passage discusses the concepts of vertical drinking and horizontal
drinking songs.
Genre: Culture/Religion
Word count: 392
Question type: Direct
The author has merely narrated a story from the ‘Bacchae’ where a drunk mother helps in
tearing apart her son. However, the author has not conceptually discussed the relationship of
drinking with rage. All the others have been conceptually discussed in the passage.
2. A
drinking songs.
Word count: 392
Question type: Further Application
Refer to the last paragraph. Horizontal drinking songs have no interest in the worship of God.
So, C and E are eliminated. C talks about the Christian ceremony of having wine and bread.
D looks like a sad song. One of the examples of horizontal drinking songs are sporting
anthems. So, they don’t come across as sad songs.
B does not give the idea of a group.
Hence, A. It talks about group drinking to make merry, but is not related to worshipping God.
3. C
drinking songs.
Word count: 392
Question type: Critical Reasoning
We essentially have a cause-effect relationship here.

A does not refute that orientation towards Dionysian matters. It just states that other factors
are also involved.
B does not affect the argument. The ideas may be different but still dependent on each other.
C negates the statement by saying that the Dionysian experience does not depend on any
orientation.
D supports the argument if we consider the drinking experience as a Dionysian experience,
something the passage considers.
E’s ‘do not always’ leaves room for cases where orientations determine experiences.
4. A
Sol. The poet draws an analogy in the second stanza. An analogy is a literary technique in which
two unrelated objects are compared for their shared qualities.
The poet says that just as kindly explaining the concept of lightning to children eases their fear
of it, truth must also be revealed gradually and gently to people rather than blinding them with
surprise.
5. B
Sol. The poet wants to say that truth should be delivered in a roundabout way and not bluntly so
that people can handle it. Hence, B.
A is distorted in saying ‘complete’.
C is extreme in using ‘only’.
D is oxymoronic in using vague and blunt together.
E is extreme in saying ‘prerequisite’.
6. D
Sol. The paragraph talks about China rushing to improve its primary care facilities as Covid cases
rise in the country. The Chinese government sees the pandemic as an opportunity to improve
its healthcare system. The author concludes that the pandemic might bring in the long needed
change in the health system in China.
Hence, it can be concluded that the pandemic might usher in change in China’s healthcare
system.
7. B
Sol. B is the answer because 1, 4 and 6 are correct. There are errors in the other sentences:
2: There are two errors here:
‘From the world’ is incorrect. ‘Around the world’ is the correct phrase.
‘The’ is missing before ‘latest’.
3:There are two errors here:
‘To’ is missing before ‘increase '.
The correct phrase is ‘around the world’ not ‘in the world’.
5:When we talk about something said by someone, we use ‘words’, not ‘word’.
Here are the correct sentences:
2. You have read all the books of wisdom literature from around the world, and are up to date
with the latest advances from the discipline of psychology.
3. Not only that, but you practise many techniques to increase your wisdom, adapted from
cultures around the world.
5. And when you wake up every morning, you echo the words of Marcus Aurelius.
8. B
Sol. Passage summary: The passage discusses how children’s playing has become more adult-
directed and is leading to a decline in children’s opportunities to play and explore in their own
chosen ways.
Genre: Culture/Psychology
Word count: 365
Question type: Critical reasoning
A does not support the author’s assertion as it shows contributions of both the educations
without implying that one is more important than the other.
B supports the author’s assertion that dealing with life threatening situations is more valuable
than just honing your subject knowledge.
In C, it is again not clear which independence is more important.
D goes against the author’s assertion.
E tries to show that neither of the educations may be very valuable in the present times.
9. D
chosen ways.
Word Count: 365
Question type: Specific idea
D is the best choice. Refer, ‘Adult-directed sports for children began to replace “pickup”
games.’ This means that probably pickup games are not directed. D best matches this idea. A
still has a ‘set of rules’ and is rejected. B and C may or may not be directed. In E, the learning
may be directed by adults.
10. D
chosen ways.
Word count: 365
Question type: Main idea
The author, through talking about her own experiences (A and C) is trying to arrive at the main
point that how over the decades (B), as play has become adult-directed (E), there has been a
continuous and ultimately dramatic decline in children’s opportunities to play and
explore in their own chosen ways. Thus, D is the main point that the author wants to raise.
The others are helping her to build this main argument.
11. A
Sol. Refer to the first line of the passage, which establishes the dependence of even richer nations
on nature. The author explains the connection between nature and economics in the
paragraph.
Hence, A is the answer.
12. D
Sol. In the first blank, we need a word which means ‘a person or thing that is a representative,
advocate, type, or symbol of something’. Hence, ‘exponent’ is the correct word for the first
blank.
The second blank needs a word which means ‘the act or power of opposing, or withstanding’.
Hence, resistance is the correct word here.
In the given option, ‘projection’ is the only word that fits in the third blank.
The third blank needs a word which signifies ‘force or speed of movement; impetus, as of a
physical object or course of events’. Hence, ‘momentum’ is the correct word for the fourth
blank
Hence, the correct answer is D.
Here is the complete paragraph:
In 2002, America Unrivaled – a book edited by my Princeton colleague, G John Ikenberry, the
foremost exponent of the idea of liberal internationalism – asked why there was so little
resistance from other countries to American power projection. That was when the momentum
in the United States for an attack on Iraq was building up.
13. D
Sol. Poem summary
The poem describes a solitary toy boat that floats in a sea without a destination. The oarless
boat can be seen as a symbol of the unpredictability of human life.
Type of question: Main point/Theme
The lines of the poem literally talk of a toy boat that floats in the sea without any destination.
A and B are both the themes if the poem is read literally. Figuratively, C can be called a theme
as the oarless boat can be seen as symbolic of human life and its unpredictability; just as the
boat floats without any direction, life moves on without any fixed or predictable destination
D cannot be seen as a theme as it talks of internal forces, while the passage seems to be
talking about the opposite
Hence, D is the correct answer.
14. C
Sol. The lines clearly refer to the shape of the boat: shaped like an eye, like a eye shaped shard
Hence, C is the correct answer.
15. B
Sol. Passage summary: The passage discusses how figurative painting emerged as an alternative to abstract
formalism, but its indiscriminate uptake is putting the future of the style in danger.
Genre: Art
Word count: 355
Question type: Direct
The passage clearly states that ‘their fate was sealed when Walter Robinson coined the term “zombie
formalism” to describe the formulaic nature of their production and its indebtedness to the colour field and
minimalist painting of the 1960s.’ Hence, B.
A and E represent the problems with the neo-traditional abstractionist style but are not the last strokes.
C and D are consequences of the last stroke, not the causes.

16. C
Genre: Art
Word Count: 355
Question Type: Inference

A is too definitive. Refer, ‘The indiscriminate uptake of the new figurative painting suggests it might have
as brief a heyday as the formalism of a decade prior. That’s all the more reason, though, to look for the
artists whose figuration is built to last—several of whom exhibited their work in New York this past fall.’
B is a hypothetical scenario that has not been predicted.
C is the best fit. Refer, ‘…it might have as brief a heyday as the formalism of a decade prior.’ The word
fad fits here because the passage has talked about the short lived market frenzy over formalism.
D cannot be inferred because of ‘only few’. Refer, ‘That’s all the more reason, though, to look for the artists
whose figuration is built to last—several of whom exhibited their work in New York this past fall.’ We don’t
know the number of these artists. Also, this option implies that other kinds of painters will not last.
E is beyond the scope of the passage.

17. D
Genre: Art
Word count: 355
Question type: Specific idea/Inference
Refer, ‘About a decade ago, the hot thing was a certain kind of post-minimal but decorator-friendly
abstraction, usually exemplifying what John Yau called, at the time, a “well-produced scruffiness” via
“ironic variations of the artistic canon,” as exemplified by such honoured precursors as Agnes Martin,
Robert Ryman, and Frank Stella.’
Scruffiness means shabbiness. So, John Yau thought they were merely shabby works produced well so as
to appeal to decorators. He also felt they were strange variations of earlier high quality works (artistic
canon). So, only D fits. A, B, C are rejected as they are positive.
E is extreme in saying that they were ‘copying’.

18. A
Sol. The first thing to note is that there is no sentence which can come before 3 because of ‘if’. 5 follows 3 as
3 talks about ‘awful lot of work’. And 5 talks about the work astronauts had to do, when they went to the
moon. 4 follows as it talks about the time it used to get to the moon which has been mentioned in 5. 2 and
1 come at the end. Note the use of the future tense in both the sentences.
Hence, the correct answer is A (35421).
19. E
Sol. The first thing to note here is that 4 and 5 form a pair. ‘They’ in 5 refers to ‘Greek and Roman tourists ‘ in
4. Hence, we can eliminate C and D. 1 and 3 form a pair because ‘they’ in 3 refers to ‘inscriptions’ in 1.
Out of the remaining ones, the only option with 1 and 3 as a pair is E. Hence. E is the correct answer.
20. A
Sol. The poem is about two people who decide to separate but the poet seems to regret the
decision.
The lines ‘separate equal’ suggest that there has been separation.
Hence, A is the correct answer.
21. D
Sol. Refer to the last two lines of the paragraph. It’s hard to be creative when you are worried
about other people’s judgments. In school, children’s activities are constantly being judged.
Taking these two sentences together, we can infer that schools do not help creativity.
Hence, D is the correct answer.
22. C
Sol. Refer to the lines: You can’t teach creativity; all you can do is let it blossom.
The author’s assumption in this statement is that creativity is inherent or innate.
Hence, C is the answer.
23. D
Sol. Passage summary: The passage discusses the history of the idea of a ‘best friend’ and provides an
opinion on it.
Genre: Sociology
Word count: 398
Question type: Further application
A is rejected because the author is not asking us to choose several ‘mild’ friendships over one deep
friendship.
B is rejected because the author mentions in the last paragraph that prioritisation can lead to hurt.
C is a broader argument that spans relationships in general and is thus rejected.
The author will support D. Refer to the last paragraph. ‘For those who do have one, prioritising them could
mean turning away from other, potentially fruitful friendships. And relying on one person for all of your
emotional needs creates a lot of pressure: No one is available to be a great friend 100 percent of the time.’
E again tries to create the idea of a best friend by having one friend who stands out.
24. B
opinion on it.
Genre: Sociology
Word count: 398
Question type: Specific idea
Refer, ‘“In order to have friends, you need independence. You need to be able to leave the family and the
home. You need to be a legally and socially independent person. And women weren’t”, Caine said.
Friendship was considered a largely male phenomenon. But after the Industrial Revolution, urbanisation
led more men and women to start going to college, working in new industries, joining social clubs—
essentially, living a life outside the home and family. The average person’s social circle expanded.’
The question specifically talks about prerequisites. Education and urbanisation have not been given as
must-haves. Also, leaving family and home is distorted. The paragraph talks only about the ‘ability’ to
leave the family and the home.
25. C
opinion on it.
Genre: Sociology
Word count: 398
Question type: Inference
A can be inferred from the last sentence of the first paragraph.
B is given in the passage. ‘For much of history, women—especially those in the middle class, who were
expected to be homemakers—didn’t tend to have a large number of social connections.’
C is distorted in saying that monogamy is the ‘preserve of’ heteronormative institutions. It is ‘deeply rooted’
in them but may extend to other institutions as well.
D can be inferred from ‘But after the Industrial Revolution, urbanisation led more men and women to start
going to college, working in new industries, joining social clubs—essentially, living a life outside the home
and family. The average person’s social circle expanded.’ Though social circle and friend circle are not
synonymous, they can overlap. Moreover, Para 2 mentions this extract in the context of friendship. When
compared, C has a more glaring error.
E can be inferred from ‘And in the mid-to-late 1900s, feminist movements championed female friendships,
leading many women to assign particular importance to them. Best friend caught on in child psychology,
fiction, music, and commercials’. Music, fiction, commercials are forms of pop culture.
26. D
Sol. D is the answer because there are errors in 2, 4 and 6:
2: It should be employees’ mind and not employees. Possessive case of the noun is required.
4: Lever should be in the plural form ‘levers’ because levers refers to ‘material offerings’ which
are plural.
6: Noun form of retaining is required. The correct word to be used is ‘retention’.
Here are the correct sentences:
2. It tends to focus discussions on the material aspects of jobs that are uppermost in
employees’ minds at the moment.
4. And while material offerings are the easiest levers to pull, they’re easy for competitors to
imitate.
6. There’s a much better approach—one that improves hiring and retention.
27. D
Sol. D is the answer as 2 and 5 are the right courses of action. Let’s look at all the options:
1. Register a complaint against Venugopal and his wife at the local police station: This will
blow the issue out of proportion.
2. Report the incident to her manager: This is definitely the right thing to do as the manager is
the first person this should be reported to.
3. Escalate the matter to the HR head: It’s too early to report to the HR. Reporting to the HR
would be advisable after an explanation from Venugopal and the manager’s intervention.
4. Find out about the whereabouts of Venugopal from the company’s HR portal and set him
right: This is unethical and illegal.
5. Send a message to Venugopal expressing her displeasure: This is logical as it might clarify
things without taking any action.
28. C
Sol. The first thing to note is that the question is which factors will help Rohit take a decision that
can either be positive or negative. Let’s look at the options:
1. Venugopal's application for 7 days leave for his brother’s marriage next week was denied
by Rohit. This will help Rohit in taking a decision as the request for work from home might be
for the marriage and not the injury.
2. Venugopal took off the plaster and crepe bandage a week before the doctor asked him to.
This will help Rohit in making a decision as Venugopal himself made the condition worse. So,
he doesn’t deserve working from home for another 15 days.
3. Venugopal has some issues with his wife. This should not influence Rohit’s decision.
4. The doctor has advised rest for a week more: This should help Rohit let Venugopal work
from home for at least a week more.
29. E
Sol. 1 and 3 are the right courses of action because Venugopal should be warned about his actions
and Rohit should be apprised of the situation as he shifted Ron to Venugopal’s team. 2 is
unprofessional. Hence, the correct answer is E.
30. D
Sol. A and C will not affect Mr. Brilliant at all, at least in the short term.
B, D, and E will affect Mr. Brilliant and ABC Ltd. adversely. Option D will affect Mr. Brilliant and
ABC Ltd. most adversely since Mr. Brilliant would be out of the company permanently. In B
and E, there is a possibility of Mr. Brilliant returning to the company.
Hence, the correct answer is option D.
31. E
Sol. A will hurt ABC Ltd. since terminating the services of an employee on the basis of suspicion is
unethical and in this case, Mr. Brilliant is an asset to the company. So, it won’t be a good idea
to part ways with Mr. Brilliant on account of suspicion.
B will hurt ABC Ltd. for at least a year, which is a complete financial year and losing a valuable
employee for a complete year is not advisable.
C is eliminated because forming a committee just to come out with desired results is unethical.
Filing an FIR would not only hamper the business of the company but also bring a bad name
to it. So, D is eliminated.
Option E would harm ABC the least because it’s just a matter of a month after which the Board
will be able to take the right decision. Also, there is a chance for Mr. Brilliant to return to the
company.
32. B
Sol. Options A and E may or may not be possible. Secondly, these options are unethical.
Threatening as per C might just make things worse for Mr. Brilliant and D is irrelevant.
If Mr. Brilliant had notified the HR department that he was in a relationship with Ms. Leela six months ago,
as stated in option B, then the inquiry against him will take another route. He won’t be guilty from the
beginning. Only if something is proven after the inquiry is done, he will be charged and his career at ABD
Ltd. will be sabotaged.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.

33. C
Sol. Since Deepak’s team is too busy to be able to handle so many shipments, [3] would be the
first step as the employees should be able to manage their current workload first.
[4] would follow because with more time at their disposal, logistics people would be able to
come up with in-house solutions. Client relations are good to have but can’t take precedence
over work.
[5] would be useful for future shipments, and therefore takes the third position after the
immediate solutions.
[1] and [2] come in the end because of the following reasons:
- [1] involves 3rd party involvement, time, and money.
- [2] is a long-term solution as one can’t be sure about the time recruitment can take and will
definitely involve both time and money.
Now, we need to decide which one to place first. If we look at [1], we can still be certain about
getting results in a particular time period. There is more uncertainty attached to the recruitment
process.
Therefore, we place [1] before [2]. Hence, the correct sequence is 34512 and the correct
answer is C.
34. C
Sol. Options A and B would not help to solve the problem quickly since the railways is a huge
organisation and changing its functioning would require a considerable period of time.
Option D does not suggest a cost effective or viable solution as it may not be possible to send
all shipments to ports by river transport.
Option E does not help in solving this problem at all.
Option C would be the best solution for Deepak as this will help to reduce bottlenecks of his
shipments from railways as the retired personnel would know about the nitty gritty of the trade
and would help with faster movement of consignments.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
35. A
Sol. Statement 2 is the most important and immediate step that Deepak should take. Once a future
direction is set, Statement 1 comes in according to which the employees will be empowered to
work efficiently.
3 doesn’t help anyone. So, we eliminate 3.
Statement 4 is good to have but benchmarking performance is not more important than
improving one's own performance. Hence, 4 comes at the end.
Thus, the sequence (from the most to the least important) is 2154.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
36. D
Sol. It is clear that more weightage is to be given to reasoning-based questions as compared to
grammar questions. II and III do not do this and can thus be eliminated.
Allocating more marks for each reasoning-based question as compared to grammar-based
ones and having more reasoning-based questions in the test would definitely make the test
more reasoning intensive. Thus, I and IV are both valid steps that the test makers can
consider.
37. E
Sol. III and IV do not pertain to the test at all and can be eliminated.
In V, the condition is the same for both types of questions, grammar based and reasoning
based. Hence, it is not worthwhile information for a test aspirant.
I, II, and VI are useful bits of information for a test aspirant to possess before he enters the
exam hall since they involve the test directly and will help the student formulate a test-taking
strategy.
Hence, the correct answer is option E.
38. B
Sol. For testing reading and writing skills, it is clear that aspirants should be given passages to
read and something to write. I, III, and V will not test aspirants on either and can thus be
eliminated.
II will test reading skills, and IV will test an aspirant’s writing abilities.
Option VI will test both reading as well as the writing skills of the test aspirant.
Thus, II, IV, and VI can be included in the test.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
39. C
Sol. Statement 1 cannot be justified. The passage mentions that due to delays in delivery by Kio,
several Indian airlines may back out from ordering Kio planes.
Statement 2 cannot be justifiably concluded as the passage mentions that the Kio aircraft is
the most fuel efficient, not necessarily the cheapest in price as compared to other airline
manufacturers.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
40. D
Sol. A is an incorrect response from CAC as it is necessary that Mr. Shah be informed about the
delay in the delivery schedule; so is B and it is unethical as well. C would not achieve any
purpose and E would be side stepping the issue of informing Mr. Shah about the delayed
deliveries of the Kio aircraft. D is the correct response as it leaves the financial settlement to
Mr. Shah himself and does not impose any terms and conditions on him.
41. E
Sol. A, B, and C would not achieve any purpose and are too fanciful to be feasible solutions. Between options
D and E, we choose E since airline companies have given orders for Kio in particular; other models of
aircraft may not suit their needs.
Hence, the correct answer is option E.

42. B
Sol. The students should take a logical step that can yield quick results. A is not an option because
the candidates want to take admission. C and D are too extreme in the given situation. E won’t
yield quick results. B is the most logical step as the concerned authorities might be able to
provide quick resolution.
43. A
Sol. A is the correct answer. 1 and 2 could have been the reasons for the delay. Let’s have a look
at the options.
1. Non availability of test centres: This is the reason enough to delay the release of admit
cards.
2. Paper being leaked: If the test paper is leaked, there is no point in releasing the admit
cards.
3. The authorities are testing the students’ ability to adapt to circumstances: This is no way of
testing the students’ abilities.
4. Internal politics at the organisation: Even if there are some politics at the organisation, it
cannot affect the release of the admit card. There would be someone looking after these
things.
44. C
Sol. C is the correct answer as holding another exam with the same level of difficulty for the
affected students is logical and fair. Let’s look at the other options.
A. Tell the students to apply for the exam and try their luck next year: This wastes one year of
the students.
B. The authorities should scrap the exam and provide admissions based on academic
performance: This is unfair to the students who have appeared for the exam
C. The authorities should evaluate the students who appeared for the exam and the ones who
didn’t on different parameters: The whole admission process would be unfair if this is done.
D. No admissions to be provided this year: An academic year will be wasted if this is done.
45. D
Sol. D is the correct answer as the first thing that Prashant should do is to discuss the whole
situation with Sushant and give him a chance to explain himself. Ending the partnership or
stop paying to Sushnat without any proof is not logical. Asking the people around your own
partner brings a bad name to the business.
46. D
Sol. D is the answer as the store opening late and bad services can be the reason for less footfall.
People who want coffee early in the morning will look for alternatives if this coffee shop is not
open and customers definitely do not like slow service. 2 and 3 should actually help in
increasing the sales.
47. D
Sol. D seems to be the only option that can be helpful for Lokesh as companies are very sensitive
about their public image. A and B are extreme and unfair. C and D won’t yield any results.
48. E
Sol. Let the 4 digits be a, b, c, and d.
So,
Hence, the only possible numbers are:
Thus, 8 numbers are possible.

Hence, option E is the correct answer.
49. A
Sol.
Draw a line GF parallel to BC,

is similar to .
So,
Also, is similar to .
And is similar to CDB.
cm
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
50. A
Sol. On 19th January 2022, when the clock showed 6:25 a.m., it was 35 minutes behind the correct
time, i.e., the correct time was 6:25 a.m. + 35 minutes = 7:00 a.m.
On 31st January 2022, the correct time was 7:00 p.m.
So, the total duration between these two correct times = 12.5 days = 300 hours
On the 19th, it was lagging and on the 31st, it was ahead. So, overall it was gaining.
So, the amount of gain in 12.5 days (or 300 hours) = 35 + 85 = 120 minutes
If the clock has to show 15 minutes ahead, by that time, the clock must have gained = 35 + 15
= 50 minutes.
That is, the clock should have run for = = 125 hours = 5 days 5 hours
Hence, the time when the clock was 15 minutes ahead of the right time = 19th January, 7:00
a.m. + 5 days + 5 hours = 24th January, 12:00 p.m.
51. A
Sol. We can draw the following table from the given graph.
From the above table, we can say that only 1 country has a registered suicide rate of less than
0.015%.
52. E
Cannot be determined as the info given is for ‘registered suicide cases’ and not ‘suicide
cases’.
53. A
From the given data, none of the above statements can be definitely concluded.
54. D
Sol. Total runs scored by Rahul in 40 matches = 40n
Lowest runs by Rahul = n – 39
Now, the maximum value of average runs of the remaining matches will be when the match in
which the lowest runs were obtained is excluded.
So, 39(42) = 40n – n + 39
n = 41
The minimum value of average runs of the remaining matches will be when the match in which
the highest runs is obtained is excluded.
So, 39(37) = 40(41) – p (where p is the maximum runs scored)
p = 197
Thus, maximum runs scored by Rahul = 197.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
55. B
Sol. Let the value of C be x.
Then A and B
The required percentage

Hence, option B is the correct option.
56. C
Sol. Here,
For roots to be rational, D must be a perfect square number.
For ‘a’ to be an integer, must be a multiple of 4 and it is possible when
So, the values of a are 0, 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, 72, 80, 100, ....
But we cannot consider 0 and 100. The total values are 9.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
57. B
Sol. Total distance covered by the car = 102 km
Total time taken = 14 hours
Let the distance covered at the speed 3 km/h = d km
So, the distance covered at the speed 13 km/h = (102 – d) km
As per the data,
km
So, the distance covered at the speed of 13 km/h is 102 - 24 = 78 km.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
58. D
Sol. From the stacked bar chart, we can draw the following table:
From the above table, we can prepare the following table showing the tentative ranks of the
five persons:
The sum of Amrit’s ranks is 18. Thus, his ranks are 4, 5, 5, 4, respectively, in the four
semesters. (Only possibility)
The sum of Bhumit’s ranks is 13. He already had a rank of 5 in semester 1. Thus, his ranks in
the remaining semesters 2, 3, and 4 shall be 4, 2, and 2, respectively.
The sum of Chitra’s ranks is 12. She already had a rank of 3 and 5 in semesters 3 and 4,
respectively. Thus, her rank in semesters 1 and 2 will be 2 and 2, respectively.
From the final table, the sum of the ranks of Eshan in the four semesters is 8.
59. C
five persons:
From the final table, Chitra’s rank was better than at least 2 of her four friends in three
semesters. (Except the fourth semester.)
60. C
five persons:
From the final table, the sum of the ranks of Eshan, Chitra, and Dheeraj was 6 in semesters 1
and 2.

61. A
Sol. Two boxes can be selected in ways.
Five balls can be selected in ways.
Three balls for box 1 can be selected in ways.
Two balls for box 2 can be selected in way.
3 and 2 balls in boxes 1 and 2 can be interchanged in 2 ways.
The remaining 3 balls can be arranged in the remaining 2 boxes in ways
Total number of ways
The required probability

62. A
Sol. As b is an odd number,
111, 113, 115, 117, 119
221, 223, 225…
.
.
.
991, 993, 995, 997, 999.
As 110, 220, 330,....., 990 are common in these numbers, we add them separately.
Then, we can see that 1, 3 , 5,...., 9 are written 9 times.
So, sum = 9(1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9) + 5(110 + 220 +.....+ 990) = 225 + 24750 = 24975
So, the quotient when

Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.
63. B
Sol. 74325 when divided by 11 gives the remainder as 9. Obviously 94551y32 must be divisible by
11 to get the final remainder as 9.

Sum of alternate numbers starting from rightmost digits = 11 + y
Sum of the remaining digits = 18
The difference of 11 + y and 18 should be either 0 or a multiple of 11.
Case I: or 11k
(It is not possible.)

Case II: or 11k
It is not possible.
It is not possible.
The only possible value of y is 7.
The equivalent of 7 in base system 3 is 21.
Hence, B is the correct answer.
64. B
Sol. The number of people that weigh 45 to 60 kg (both inclusive) is at least:
The required percentage = × 100 = 45%

65. C
Sol. The number of people that weigh at least 55 kg is at most:
The required percentage = × 100 = 70%

66. D
Sol. The weight of people who weigh at most 53 kg is such that the average is least:
Sum = 35 + 32 + 53 + 48 + 43 + 51 + 52 + 53 = 367
The required average = = 45.875 kg

Now, to further decrease the average, we can include a male of 36 kg (from age 0 to 25), 2
females of age 33 and 34 kg (from 0 to 25 years).
Calculating the average now:
35 + 32 + 53 + 48 + 43 + 51 + 52 + 53 + 36 + 33 + 34 = = 42.72 kg
Now, we cannot further decrease the average weight.
67. A
Sol.
Case I: , ,
or
or
Since ,
Case II: , ,
or
or
Since ,
Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.
68. D
Sol. Number of odd factors = (p + 1)(q + 1)(r + 1).....
Here, p, q, r…. are the powers of odd primes.
As 2 is the only even prime number, at most only 1 of p1, p2, p3, and p4 can be the even prime
number.
Case 1) Zero even primes
Number of odd factors: 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 = 360
Case 2) p1 is even
Number of odd factors: 5 × 4 × 3 = 60
Case 3) p2 is even
Case 4) p3 is even
Case 5) p4 is even
According to the options, option (D) is not possible.

Hence, option (D) is the correct answer.
69. B
Sol. Let the three numbers be a, b, and c.
Since these three numbers are co-prime, they will contain only 1 as the common factor and no
other number.
Given, ab = 357 and bc = 609

Now, HCF of 357 and 609 = 21 (middle number, i.e., b)
∴ first number, a = = 17
And third number, c = = 29

So, the required LCM is
70. D
Sol. Representing the data given in the bar chart as follows:
For week A, sum of the ratios of sleep hours during the night = (3 + 4 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 4 + 5) = 25
Sum of the ratios of sleep hours during the day = 2 + 2 + 1 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 15
It is given that the person slept for an integral number of hours during the day as well as
during the night.
So, week A can only be week 2 because only then he can sleep for an integral number of
hours during the day and night.
For week B, sum of the ratios of sleep hours during the night = 4 + 3 + 3 + 2 + 5 + 4 + 3 = 24
Following the above procedure, week B can only be week 4.
Following the same for week C, it can only be week 9.
Week D can only be week 5.
Week E can be either week 7 or week 10.
From the above explanation, we can say that we can uniquely determine the actual week
numbers for 4 out of the five given weeks.
71. E
during the night.
Required average = = 8 hours

72. E
during the night.

From the above explanation, we can say that using the statements of options A, B, and C, we
can uniquely determine the actual week numbers for each of the five weeks A, B, C, D, and E.
73. B
Sol. Let the numbers be Hx and Hy, where the HCF is H.
Then, their LCM = Hxy
It is given that H = 11
11x − 11y = 11 or x − y = 1 and LCM = 11x(x − 1)
Also, 99 < 11xy < 1000
11 x(x − 1) < 1000
The highest possible positive integral values of x and (x - 1) are 10 and 9
So, the maximum possible value of 11(x - 1) = 99.
Hence, option (B) is the correct answer.
74. C
Sol. Let the speed of Train A be S m/s and the length of Train A be L m.
From Statement I:
Length of the tunnel = 3L m
Then,
L + 3L = S × 48
⇒ L = 12S
Also,
L + 200 = S × 20
⇒ 200 = 8S
⇒ S = 25 m/s
So, data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement II:
72 km/h = 20 m/s
Let the length of Train B be M m

Then,
L + M = (S + 20) × 15
⇒ L + M = 15S + 300 … (i)
Also,
L + M = (S – 20) × 35
⇒ L + M = 35S – 700… (ii)
On solving equations (i) and (ii), we get:
15S + 300 = 35S – 700
⇒ 35S – 15S = 300 + 700
⇒ 20S = 1000
⇒ S = 50 m/s
So, the data in Statement II alone is also sufficient to answer the question.
75. B
Sol.
In the given figure, and

By AA similarity,

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Mock Test Solutions in English

Tell all the truth but tell it slant,

Success in circuit lies,

Too bright for our infirm delight

The truth’s superb surprise;

As lightning to the children eased

With explanation kind,

The truth must dazzle gradually

Or every man be blind.

Which of the following can be concluded from the above?

1. You have spent your life dedicated to the cultivation of wisdom.

4. For example, following Buddhist advice, you do meditation every evening.

E. ‘Adult-directed sports for children began to

Which of the following is a logical conclusion from the above paragraph?

For Tamir Rice

this waiting which

& never left

toy boat — oarless

toy leaf dropped

from a toy tree

thinning above you

by their own names

Which of the following is not a theme of the above poem?

of the previous decade. run.

3. But that ‘if’ is doing an awful lot of work.

2. It became a spectacle to behold and commemorate.

Let me now sleep, let me not think, let me

Not ache with inconsistent tenderness.

It was untenable delight; we are free--

Separate, equal--and if loverless,

Love consumes time which is more dear than love,

More unreplicable. With everything

Thus posited, the choice was clear enough

And daylight ratified our reckoning.

Now only movement marks the birds from the pines;

Now it's dark; the blinded stars appear;

I am alone, you cannot read these lines

Who are with me when no one else is here,

Who are with me and cannot hear my voice

And take my hand and abrogate the choice.

‘... we are free--

Separate, equal--and if loverless,

Love consumes time which is more dear than love..’

Which of the following can be inferred from the above paragraph?

A. Creativity decreases with age. B. Adulthood kills creativity.

Which of the following is the author MOST likely to support?

II. Social independence

III. Leaving family and home

1) Temptingly simple as this response is, it can be a trap.

6) There’s a much better approach—one that improves hiring and retaining.

2) Report the incident to her manager.

3) Escalate the matter to the HR head.

5) Send a message to Venugopal expressing her displeasure.

3) Venugopal has some issues with his wife.

4) The doctor has advised rest for a week more.

1. Write a formal email to Venugopal to ask for an explanation.

2. Ask Ron to not do anything that Venugopal says.

3. Apprise Rohit of the current situation.

company secrets to them. building ABC Ltd.