Saint Gabriel College

School of Nursing
Old Buswang, Kalibo, Aklan

Fourth Shifting
Post test

1. Nurse Neil is preparing to give a bed bath to an immobilized client with tuberculosis. The nurse would wear
which item in performing this care?
a) Surgical mask and gown
b) Particulate respirator and protective eyewear
c) Particulate respirator, gown and gloves
d) Surgical mask, gown and protective eyewear

2. Patient Gab is complaining of shortness of breath. Nurse Gab assesses his respiratory rate to be 30 breaths
per minute and documents that Jake is tachypneic. The nurse Gab understands that tachypnea means:
a) Pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute
b) Blood pressure of 140/90
c) Respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute
d) Frequent bowel sounds

3. Nurse Jasmine is instructing a hospitalized client with a diagnosis of emphysema about measures that will
enhance the effectiveness of breathing during dyspneic periods. Which position would the nurse instruct the
client to assume?
a) Sitting up and leaning on an over-bed table
b) Side-lying on bed
c) Sitting in a recliner chair
d) Sitting up on bed

4. Nurse Jerelyn performs an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis. The nurse
would check the results of which diagnostic test that will confirm this diagnosis?
a) Tuberculin skin test
b) Bronchoscopy
c) Sputum Culture
d) Chest X-ray

5. Nurse Keith is assigned Medical Surgical Ward. He takes care of a patient has undergone Laryngectomy.
The immediate nursing priority would be:
a) Keep trachea free of secretions
b) Monitor for signs of infection
c) Provide emotional support
d) Promote means of communication

6. A patient who is receiving oxygen at a flow rate of 3L/ min via NC is complaining of nasal passage
discomfort. What intervention should Nurse Angel do to improve patient’s comfort?
a) Increase flow rate to 6L/ min
b) Check the level of water in the humidifier.
c) Provide extra pillow to place on the back to position patient to semi fowlers.
d) Change Nasal Cannula to Face Mask.

7. Nurse Chris is admitting a client diagnosed with Pneumonia, upon auscultation she hears high pitches,
popping sound during inspiration, known as what adventitious lung sound?
a) Crackles b) Rhonchi c) Stridor d) Wheeze

8. A pediatric client, was rushed to the Emergency Room, the mother verbalized family history of Asthma ,
upon auscultation Nurse Kate hears high pitched continuous musical squeaking, this breath sound is also
known as
a) Wheeze b) Rhonchi c) Stridor d) Crackles

9. Nurse Hans is assigned to patient with Acute Epiglottitis, he hears high pitched, inspiratory, crowing sound
on the neck. He notes what breath sound?
a) Wheeze b) Rhonchi c) Stridor d) Crackles

10. Spirometry test measures the airflow. Nurse Nirvana instructs the patient to:
a) Breathe through a tight fitting mouthpiece and will have nose clips.
b) Not to smoke 2 hrs before the test
c) Take bronchodilators or inhaler medication 30 mins prior the test.
d) Eat a regular meal before the test for more energy and prevent exhaustion.

11. Throat Culture is also known as throat swab culture. The following are procedure and principles of the test
except.
a) Back of the throat is swabbed with a sterile cotton swab near the tonsils
b) Patient should do oral hygiene practices before the swab
c) Instruct the patient to resist gagging and closing the mouth during procedure.
d) That it is a laboratory test to isolate and identify organism that may cause throat infection.

12. Sputum culture was ordered to the suspected PTB patient of Nurse Luise. The following are Nursing
Interventions in performing sputum collection for culture, except.
a) Perform back and chest tapping on client to aid in loosening the sputum.
 b) Gargle with water only before specimen collection, cough deeply and spit sputum in a regular
specimen cup.
c) Collect morning specimen
d) Send specimen to lab ASAP.

13. The following are common upper respiratory tract disorders except.
a)Rhinitis b) Epistaxis c) Influenza d) Asthma

14. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Upper airway?
a) For clearance mechanism such as coughing
b) Transport gases to the lower airways
c) Warming, Filtration and Humidification of inspired air
d) Protect the lower airway from foreign matter.

15. All but one of the following is a purpose of steam inhalation

a) Mucolytic
b) Warm and humidify air
c) Administer medications
d) Promote bronchoconstriction

16. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in steam inhalation?

a) It is a dependent nursing action
b) Spout is put 12-18 inches away from the nose
c) Render steam inhalation for at least 60 minutes
d) Cover the client’s eye with wash cloth to prevent irritation

17. Uncle Boknoy, a 60 year old street vendor was mobbed by teen gangsters. He was rushed to Saint Gabriel
Medical Center and was Unconscious. Nurse Khalil and you are to suction his secretions. In which position
should you place Uncle Boknoy?
a)High fowlers c)Semi fowlers
b)Prone d)Side lying

18. Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100% Oxygen at 15 LPM?
a) Nasal Cannula
b) Simple Face mask
c) Non Rebreather mask
d) Partial Rebreather mask

19. Which of the following will alert Nurse Philip as an early sign of hypoxia?
a) Client is tired and dyspneic
b) The client is coughing out blood
c) Client is frequently turning from side to side.
d) The client’s heart rate is 50 BPM

20. CAP MR stands for

a) Community acquired Pneumonia- moderate risk
b) Covid associated Pnuemonia- Moderate risk
c) Community associated Pyelonephritis- Mildly relieved
d) Community acquired Pneumonia- Multidrug resistant

21. Nurse Eunice is giving Health teachings to a patient diagnosed with Pneumonia. Which of the following
should not be included?
a) Rest and diet counseling to strengthen immune system ex. food Rich in vitamin C
b) Deep breathing exercise
c) Compliance to medications especially Antibacterials.
d) Limit of Fluids to prevent fluid retention.

22. The surgical unit nurse has just received a patient with a history of smoking from the post anesthesia care
unit. Which action is most important at this time?
a) Auscultate for adventitious breath sounds
b) Obtain patient’s blood pressure and temperature
c) Remind the patient about harmful effects of smoking
d) Ask health care provider about prescribing a nicotine patch

23. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the emergency department
with increased shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing action?
a) Administer oxygen as prescribed
b) Obtain a chest X-ray
c) Assess lung sounds
d) Start an IV line

24. A nurse is caring for a patient with asthma who is experiencing an acute exacerbation. Which medication
should the nurse anticipate administering?
a) A long-acting beta agonist
b) A corticosteroid
c) A short-acting beta agonist
 d) An anticholinergic

25. A nurse is monitoring a patient with pulmonary embolism. Which assessment finding would be most
concerning?
a) SpO2 of 92%
b) Sudden onset of chest pain
c) Productive cough
d) Low-grade fever

26. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for a patient with a suspected tension
pneumothorax?
a) Administer high-flow oxygen
b) Assist with needle decompression
c) Position the patient in a high Fowler's position
d) Initiate fluid resuscitation

27. A patient with heart failure is experiencing orthopnea. What position should the nurse encourage the
patient to assume?
a) Supine
b) Prone
c) High Fowler's
d) Lateral

28. Which patient would the nurse assess first after a shift change?
a) A patient with asthma who is using a peak flow meter
b) A patient with COPD who is resting comfortably
c) A patient with pneumonia who has an SpO2 of 88%
d) A patient with a respiratory infection who is on antibiotics

29. A patient with chronic bronchitis is being discharged home. Which statement by the patient indicates a
need for further teaching?
a) "I will avoid smoking and secondhand smoke."
b) "I can use a humidifier to help my breathing."
c) "I should take my bronchodilator only when I feel short of breath."
d) "I will get a flu shot every year."

30. A nurse is preparing to teach a patient with emphysema about pursed-lip breathing. What is the primary
benefit of this technique?
a) Decreases respiratory rate
b) Increases oxygen intake
c) Prevents airway collapse
d) Promotes relaxation

31. Which of the following laboratory results is most indicative of hypoxemia?

a) Increased hemoglobin
b) Decreased arterial blood pH
c) Decreased arterial oxygen tension (PaO2)
d) Increased carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2)

32. A patient with a history of lung cancer is experiencing dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?
a) Assess lung sounds
b) Administer bronchodilators
c) Obtain a chest X-ray
d) Provide supplemental oxygen

33. Which of the following assessments is most important for a nurse to perform on a patient with a
tracheostomy?
a) Assess the patient's swallowing ability
b) Monitor the tracheostomy tube for patency
c) Evaluate the patient's vital signs
d) Inspect the stoma for signs of infection

34. A nurse is administering a nebulizer treatment to a patient with asthma. Which of the following is a priority
assessment before treatment?
a) Baseline heart rate
b) Peak expiratory flow rate
c) Lung auscultation
d) Blood pressure

35. The nurse is educating a patient with pneumonia about the importance of incentive spirometry. What is
the primary goal of this intervention?
a) Increase oxygen saturation levels
b) Promote lung expansion
 c) measure respiratory rate
d) Prevent airway obstruction

36. When assessing a patient with respiratory distress, which finding would suggest hypoxia?
a) Bradycardia
b) Confusion or altered mental status
c)Hypertension
d) Peripheral edema

37. A patient diagnosed with pulmonary edema is being treated with diuretics. Which assessment finding
would indicate the treatment is effective?
a) Decreased blood pressure
b) Decreased respiratory rate
c) Increased urine output
d) Increased SpO2 levels

38. The participating BHW understood that this period of disease which involves a Presymptomatic stage
followed by the development of recognizable clinical disease with specific signs and symptoms.
a) Pathogenetic period
b) Exposure
c) Incubation period
d) Non- infectious period

39. The nurse defines this period between exposure and onset of clinical symptoms.
a) Pathogenetic period
b) Exposure
c) Incubation period
d) Non- infectious period

40. The nurse defines this period the time during which the host can infect another susceptible host.
a) Pathogenetic period
b) Infectious period
c) Incubation period
d) Non- infectious period

41. This is the period of disease when the host's ability to transmit the disease to other hosts ceases.
a) Pathogenetic period
b) Non- Infectious period
c) Incubation period
d) Infectious period

42. One BWH asked, what is the period of disease between exposures and infection called?
a) Pathogenetic period
b) Latent period
c) Incubation period
d) Non-Infectious period

43. Prepathogenic period is the:

a) is the time before the development of disease or before pathogenesis.
b) is the period of disease between exposures and infection
c) is the period of disease when the host's ability to transmit the disease to other hosts ceases
d) is the period between exposure and onset of clinical symptoms

44. This level of prevention aims to identify and treat existing health problems at the earliest possible time. It
includes screening, case - finding, disease surveillance, prompt and appropriate treatment.
a)Primary c. Tertiary
b)Secondary d. Premordial

45. This level of prevention Attempts to reduce the magnitude or severity of the residual effects of both
infectious diseases. This limits disability progression.
a)Primary c. Tertiary
b) Secondary d. Premordial

46. This level of prevention is directed to the healthy population, focusing on prevention of emergence of risk
factors and removal of the risk factors or reduction of their levels (specific protection).
a)Primary c. Tertiary
b) Secondary d. Premordial

47. A part of Epidemiological triangle is any element, substance or force, either animate or inanimate, the
presence or absence of which may serve as stimulus to initiate or perpetuate a disease process.
a)Agent c. Environment
b)Host d. Bacteria

48. Defined as any organism that harbors and provides nourishment for another organism. The characteristics
of the host will affect his or its risk of exposure to sources of infection and his or its susceptibility or resistance.
a.Agent c. Environment
 b.Host d. Bacteria

49. It is the sum total of all external conditions and influences that affect the life and development of an
organism.
a.Agent c. Environment
b.Host d. Bacteria

50. The public health nurse have discussed the three components of Environment, a component of
epidemiologic triangle, the participants enumerated all correctly all but one,
a.Geophysical conditions or the climate
b. Biological, presence plants & animal life
c. Socio economic development of the community
d. Number of children completed Immunization