Class 10

Assignment 1

Resources and Development

1. Fossil fuels are examples of which of the following types of resources?

(a) Renewable (b) Flow (c) Biological (d) Non-renewable

2. Which of the following resource is non-recyclable?

(a) Coal (b) Iron-ore (c) Copper (d) Gold

3. What is the main reason behind global ecological crises such as global warming
and environmental pollution ?
(a) Depletion of resources (b) Accumulation of resources in a few hands
(c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources (d) Use of resources

4. Which are the main factors that determine creation of a resource?

(a) Nature and technology (b) Nature and human beings
(c) Nature, human beings and technology (d) Technology and human beings

5. Under which of the following types of resources can solar energy be

categorised?
(a) Flow resource (b) Human-made resource
(c) Non-recyclable resource (d) Exhaustible resource

6. From which Five Year Plan has India made concerted efforts for achieving the
goals of resource planning ?
(a) First Five Year Plan (b) Fifth Five Year Plan
(c) Annual Plans (d) Tenth Five Year Plan

7. On the basis of ownership, plantations can be better considered as which of the

following types of resources?
(a) Individual resource (b) Community owned resource
(c) National resource (d) International resource

8. What is necessary for sustained quality of life and global peace?

(a) Stopping use of resources (b) Saving resources for future
(c) Exploitation of resources (d) Equitable distribution of resources

9. Which of the following is a human-made resource?

(a) Petroleum (b) Forests (c) Machines (d) Land

10. The oceanic resources beyond 200 km of the Exclusive Economic Zone can be
termed as which of the following types of resource ?
(a) Individual resources (b) Community owned resources
(c) National resources (d) International resources

11. What was the main contribution of the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987?
(a) Sustainable development as means for resource conservation
(b) Advocated resource conservation for the first time
(c) Presented Gandhian philosophy
(d) All the above

12. What is land used for grazing cattle and livestock known as?
(a) Forests (b) Barren land (c) Pasture land (d) Fallow land

13. Which of the following is the root cause for resource depletion at global level,
according to Gandhiji?
(a) Conservation of resources (b) Use of resources
(c) Greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology.
(d) Backward technology.

14. What is arrangement of soil in different layers or horizons known as?

(a) Soil Composition (b) Soil Erosion (c) Soil Profile (d) Soil Texture

15. Which of the following regions in India possesses rich reserves of minerals and
fossil fuels?
(a) Plains (b) Mountains (c) Plateaus (d) Deserts

16. Which among the following is a type of resources classified on the basis of
exhaustibility?
(a) Biotic and abiotic (b) Renewable and non-renewable
(c) National and individual (d) Potential and reserves

17. How much desired area is required for forest in our country?
(a) 16% (b) 20% (c) 23.2% (d) 33%

18. Which one of the following soil is ideal for growing cotton?
(a) Regur Soil (b) Laterite Soil (c) Desert Soil (d) Mountainous Soil

19. Which of the following method will not help in soil conservation?
(a) Contour ploughing (b) Strip cropping
(c) Creating shelter belts (d) Ploughing up and down the slopes

20. How can the resources be classified on the basis of their origin?
(a) Biotic and Abiotic (b) Renewable and Non-renewable
(c) Individual and Community (d) Potential and Reserves

21. ‗Laterite‘ has been derived from the Greek word ‗later‘ which means:
(a) Mountain (b) Brick (c) Rock (d) Stone

22. In which of the following states is overgrazing responsible for land

degradation?
(a) Jharkhand and Orissa (b) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
(c) Punjab and Haryana (d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

23. How can the resources be classified on the basis of their origin?
(a) Biotic and Abiotic (b) Renewable and Non-renewable
(c) Individual and Community (d) Potential and Reserves

24. Which one of the following is not the community owned resource?
(a) Grazing grounds (b) Burial grounds
(c) Village ponds (d) Privately owned house

25. When running water cuts through clayey soils and makes deep channels, they
lead to:
(a) Gully erosion (b) Sheet erosion (c) Deforestation (d) Afforestation

26. Which one of the following is a Biotic Resource?

(a) Land (b) Water (c) Human beings (d) Rocks

27. Which one of the following is an example of biotic resources?

(a) Rock (b) Iron ore (c) Gold (d) Animal

28. There is enough for everybody‘s need and not for any body‘s greed,‘‘ who
among the following has given the above statement?
(a) Vinoba Bhave (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Atal Behari Vajpayee

29. The mountain share in the total land area is:

(a) 30% (b) 27% (c) 43% (d) 40%

30. Which one of the following states mostly has laterite soil?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Rajasthan (d) Meghalaya

31. Which one of the following is not a ‗Biotic Resource‘?

(a) Flora and Fauna (b) Rocks (c) Fisheries (d) Livestock

32. What is the percentage share of plains in the total land area?
(a) 43% (b) 23% (c) 33% (d) 27%

33. Which one of the following is not a renewable resource?

(a) Solar energy (b) Wind energy (c) Forests (d) Fossil fuels

34. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive Cultivation (b) Overgrazing
(c) Deforestation (d) Over-irrigation
35. Under which of the following types of resource can tidal energy be put?
(a) Human made (b) Biotic (c) Non-recyclable (d) None of these

36. Which cold desert is relatively isolated from the rest of country?
(a) Leh (b) Kargil (c) Ladakh (d) Dras

37. Resources which are found in a region but have not been utilised are called
(a) developed resources (b) stock (c) international resources
(d) potential resources

38. Soil formed by intense leaching is:

(a) alluvial soil (b) red soil (c) laterite soil (d) desert soil

39. In which of the following states is black soil found?

(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Bihar (c) Rajasthan (d) Jharkhand

40. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Extensive cultivation (b) Deforestation (c) Overgrazing (d) Over-irrigation

41. Which one of the following crops is grown in the black soil?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Cotton (d) Tea

42. Resources which are found in a region but have not been utilised are called
(a) developed resources (b) stock
(c) international resources (d) potential resources

Power Sharing

1. Which language was declared as the only official language of Sri Lanka by an
Act passed in 1956?
(a) Tamil (b) Sinhala (c) Hindi (d) English

2. Which is the capital city of Belgium?

(a) Wallonia (b) Brussels (c) Bonn (d) Paris

3. Which of the following is not a major social group in Sri Lanka?

(a) Sinhala-speakers or Sinhala Community (b) Sri Lankan Tamils
(c) Indian Tamils (d) Anglo-Indians

4. In which part of Sri Lanka are the Sri Lankan Tamils concentrated?
(a) North and South (b) North and East (c) East and West (d) South and East

5. Which of the following was not one of the initial demands of the Sri Lankan
Tamils?
(a) Recognition of Tamil as an official language
(b) Regional autonomy
(c) Equality of opportunity in securing jobs and education
(d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state)

6. Most of the Sinhala-speaking people are

(a) Buddhists (b) Hindus (c) Muslims (d) Christians

7. Which of the statements about power-sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri

Lanka are correct?
(a) In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their
domination on the minority French-speaking people
(b) In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of
the Sinhala-speaking majority
(c) The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power-sharing to
protect their culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs
(d) The transformation of Belgium from a unitary government to a federal one
prevented the division of country on linguistic lines.

8. What led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking

communities in Belgium during the 1950s and 1960s?
(a) Both the communities demanded special powers
(b) The minority French-speaking community was richer and more powerful than
the majority Dutch-speaking community
(c) The majority Dutch-speaking community was richer and more powerful than
the minority French-speaking community
(d) Both the communities were equal in socio-economic ladder and this was
resented by the French-speaking community

9. Which of the following countries have federal division of powers?

(a) India (b) Belgium (c) Sri Lanka (d) Both (a) and (b)

10. Non-sharing of power leads to

(a) peace among all the communities
(b) tyranny of the majority and oppression of the minority
(c) negation of the very spirit of democracy
(d) both (b) and (c)

11. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) Belgium and Sri Lanka are democracies
(b) Both of them dealt with the question of power-sharing similarly
(c) In Belgium, leaders realised that unity of the country was possible only by
respecting the feelings and interests of all communities
(d) In Sri Lanka, majority community forced its domination over others and
refused to share power.

12. Which of the following is not one of the aspects of federal division of powers?
(a) Sharing of powers among central provincial and local governments
(b) Division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government
(c) The Constitution clearly lays down powers of different levels of government
(d) There is no vertical division of powers

13. Which language was declared as the only official language of Sri Lanka by an
Act passed in 1956?
(a) Tamil (b) Sinhala (c) Hindi (d) English

14. Which is a prudent reason for power-sharing?

(a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between communities and ensures the
stability of political order
(b) Power-sharing is the very spirit of democracy
(c) Both the above
(d) None of the above

15. Which of the following was not one of the initial demands of the Sri Lankan
Tamils?
(a) Recognition of Tamil as an official language
(b) Regional autonomy
(c) Equality of opportunity in securing jobs and education
(d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state)

16. Which of the statements about power-sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri
Lanka are correct?
(a) In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their
domination on the minority French-speaking people
(b) In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of
the Sinhala-speaking majority
(c) The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power-sharing to
protect their culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs
(d) The transformation of Belgium from a unitary government to a federal one
prevented the division of country on linguistic lines.

17. Power sharing is good because:

(a) It increases the conflict between social groups
(b) It ensures the instability of political order
(c) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups
(d) It leads to violence

18. How many times the Constitution of Belgium was amended between 1970 and
1993?
(a) Two times (b) Three times (c) Five times (d) Four times

19. In which one of the following year Sri Lanka emerged as an independent
country?
(a) 1947 (b) 1948 (c) 1948 (d) 1950
20. Which of the following languages is not spoken in Belgium?
(a) French (b) Dutch (c) Danish (d) German

21. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) Belgium and Sri Lanka are democracies
(b) Both of them dealt with the question of power-sharing similarly
(c) In Belgium, leaders realised that unity of the country was possible only by
respecting the feelings and interests of all communities
(d) In Sri Lanka, majority community forced its domination over others and
refused to share power.

22. Which one of the following communities constituted majority in Brussels?

(a) French Speaking (b) Dutch Speaking (c) German Speaking (d) None

23. Power can be shared in modern democracies in the following ways:

(a) Among different organs of the government
(b) Among various levels
(c) Among different social groups
(d) All the above

24. Who elects the community government in Belgium?

(a) People belonging to one language community (b) By the leader of Belgium
(c) The citizens of the whole country (d) The community leaders to Belgium

25. Which one of the following communities constituted majority in Brussels?

(a) French Speaking (b) Dutch Speaking (c) German Speaking (d) None

26. In which one of the following countries principle of majoritarianism led to civil
war?
(a) Pakistan (b) Sri Lanka (c) Belgium (d) India

27. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) In Belgium, leaders realised that unity of the country is possible only by sharing
power
(b) In Sri Lanka, the majority community wants to force domination over others
(c) In Sri Lanka, the demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by Tamils
has been granted
(d) Division of Belgium along linguistic lines was averted due to power sharing

28. Which two languages are generally spoken in Belgium?

(a) French and English (b) Dutch and English
(c) French and Dutch (d) Dutch and Sinhala

29. Which of the following ethnic groups in Belgium has the largest population?
(a) Walloon (b) Flemish (c) German (d) None of the above

30. Division of powers between higher and lower levels of government is called
(a) horizontal distribution (b) parallel distribution
(c) vertical division (d) diagonal division

31. Which one of the following is not a valid reason for power sharing?
(a) for majoritarianism (b) being part and parcel of democracy
(c) to reduce tensions (d) for political stability

32. Which one of the following statements about coalition Government is true?
(a) Power is shared among the different organs of the government
(b) Power is shared among governments at different levels
(c) Power is shared by different social groups
(d) Power is shared by two or more political parties

33. The Government in which power is shared by two or more political parties, is
known as:
(a) Community Government (b) Unitary Government
(c) Federal Government (d) Coalition Government

34. Which one of the following communities is not related to Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhalas (b) Indian Tamils (c) Parsis (d) Sri Lankan Tamils

35. Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called:

(a) Sri Lankan Tamils (b) Indian Tamils (c) Muslim Tamils (d) None
36. What is the percentage of German-speaking people in Belgium?
(a) 59 (b) 40 (c) 60 (d) 10

37. Which one of the following is the only official language of Sri Lanka?
(a) English (b) Hindi (c) Tamil (d) Sinhala

38. Power sharing is desirable because it helps

(a) to increase pressure on government (b) to reduce possibilities of conflicts
(c) to generate awareness among people (d) to increase percentage of votes

39. Which one of the following statements about community government is true?
(a) Power is shared among different organs of the government
(b) Power is shared among governments at different levels
(c) Power is shared by different social groups
(d) Power is shared by two or more political parties

40. Which major social group constituted the largest share in population of Sri
Lanka?
(a) Sinhalas (b) Sri Lankan Tamils (c) Indian Tamils (d) Muslims

Federalism

1. There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.
Which are they?
(a) One route involves independent states coming together on their own to form a
bigger unit
(b) Second route is where a large country decides to divide its powers between the
states and the national government
(c) Both the above
(d) None of the above

2. Which of the following is not one of the key features of federalism?

(a) There are two or more levels of governments
(b) Each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and
administation
(c) The existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally
guaranteed
(d) The Constitution can be unilaterally changed by any one level of government

3. Which form of power sharing is most commonly referred to as federalism?

(a) Horizontal division of power
(b) Vertical division of power
(c) Division of power among various communities
(d) Sharing of power among political parties

4. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a unitary government?

(a) There is either only one level of government or the sub-units are subordinate to
the central government
(b) The central government can pass on orders to the provincial government
(c) A state government is answerable to central government
(d) The powers of state governments are guaranteed by the Constitution

5. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) Usually a federation has two levels of governments
(b) Both the levels of governments enjoy theirs powers independent of one another
(c) In a federal system, a state government has powers of its own
(d) In a federal system, the state government is answerable to the central
government

6. What is true regarding sources of revenue in a federal system?

(a) States have no financial powers or independent sources of revenue.
(b) States are dependent for revenue or funds on the central government.
(c) Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure
its financial autonomy.
(d) States have no financial autonomy.

7. Which are the basic objectives of a federal system?

(a) To safeguard and promote unity of the country
(b) To accommodate regional diversity
(c) To share powers among different communities
(d) Both (a) and (b)

8. The Constitution of India originally provided for :

(a) a two-tier system of government. (b) a three-tier system of government.
(b) a single-tier system of government. (d) a four-tier system of government.

9. Choose the incorrect statement.

(a) Belgium shifted from a unitary to a federal form in 1993
(b) Belgium shifted from a federal form to a unitary form of government in 1993
(c) Sri Lanka countinues to be a unitary system
(d) Tamil leaders want Sri Lanka to become a federal system

10. Which of the following is not an example of ‗holding together‘ federations?

(a) India (b) Spain (c) Belgium (d) Switzerland

11. What is the third tier of government known as?

(a) Village Panchayats (b) State government
(c) Local self-government (d) Zila Parishad

12. Which state of India enjoys a special status and has its own Constitution?
(a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Kerala (d) Jammu and Kashmir

13. Which of the following is not an example of ‗coming together‘ federations?

(a) India (b) USA (c) Switzerland (d) Australia

14. Which language was recognised as the national language by the Constitution of
India?
(a) Hindi (b) English (c) Tamil (d) None of these

15. Which of these is incorrect, based on the Consitutional Amendment, 1992?

(a) One-fourth of positions are reserved for women.
(b) Regular elections should be held to the local government bodies.
(c) Seats are reserved for SCs, STs and OBCs.
(d) State Election Commission looks after these elections.

16. Which period saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of the
country?
(a) Period after 1990 (b) Period after 2000
(c) Period after 1980 (d) Period after 1970

17. Who administers the whole district?

(a) Sarpanch (b) Mayor (c) District Magistrate or Collector (d) Sessions Judge

18. Rural local government is popularly known as:

(a) Zila Parishad (b) Panchayat Samiti (c) Panchayati Raj (d) None

19. Which is not true regarding changes in power-sharing arrangement between the
centre and the states?
(a) The Parliament cannot on its own change this arrangement.
(b) Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses with at least two-
thirds majority.
(c) Then, it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total states.
(d) The Parliament alone has the power to amend the provisions regarding power-
sharing.

20. Which of these is incorrect, based on the Consitutional Amendment, 1992?

(a) One-fourth of positions are reserved for women.
(b) Regular elections should be held to the local government bodies.
(c) Seats are reserved for SCs, STs and OBCs.
(d) State Election Commission looks after these elections.

21. Which one is not the part of 3 tier system of Panchayat Raj?
(a) Muncipalities (b) Village Panchayat (c) Block Samiti (d) Zila Parishad

22. Which among the following states in India has a special status?
(a) Punjab (b) Jharkhand (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Himachal Pradesh

23. The system of Panchayat Raj involves:

(a) Village, block and district levels (b) Village and state levels
(c) Vilalge, district and state levels (d) Village, state and union levels

24. Which one of the following countries is good examples of ‗holding together
federations‘?
(a) USA (b) Switzerland (c) Australia (d) India

25. Which of the following was not a provision of the Act of 1956 passed in Sri
Lanka?
(a) Sinhala was recognised as the only official language
(b) Buddhism was to be protected by the state
(c) Provinces were given autonomy
(d) Sinhalas were favoured in government jobs

26. When power is taken away from central and state governments and given to
local government, it is called:
(a) Distribution (b) Centralisation (c) Reorganisation (d) Decentralisation

27. Which of the following countries is an example of ‗coming together‘

federation?
(a) India (b) Pakistan (c) USA (d) Sri Lanka

28. Choose the correct statement regarding language policy of the Indian
Government.
(a) English is our national language
(b) Citizens are free to choose any language as national language
(c) Hindi is our national language
(d) Constitution of India did not declare any language as national language

29. Both the union and the state government can make laws on the subjects
mentioned in the:
(a) Union list (b) State list (c) Concurrent list (d) None of the above

30. Which of the following is not a subject of the Union List?

(a) Foreign affairs (b) Currency (c) Banking (d) Law and order
31. Who among the following is the head of a Municipal Corporation?
(a) Home Minister (b) Sarpanch (c) Governor (d) Mayor

32. Which one of the following countries has the federal form of government?
(a) Egypt (b) Sri Lanka (c) Australia (d) England

33. Who among the following is called head of the state at the state level?
(a) Chief Minister (b) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha (c) Governor (d) Mayor

34. Which of the following countries has coming a Together Federation?

(a) The U.S.A (b) India (c) Spain (d) Belgium

35. Which one of the following countries has not adopted the holding together
federation?
(a) India (b) Spain (c) Belgium (d) Japan

36. How many other lanugages are recognised as Scheduled Languages by the
constitution, besides Hindi?
(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 18 (d) 19

37. Which one of the following subjects is included in the concurrent list?
(a) Banking (b) Trade (c) Police (d) Education

39. Which of the following governments has two or more levels?

(a) Community Government (b) Coalition Government
(c) Federal Government (d) Unitary Government

40. Which one of the following is not a feature of federalism?

(a) Two or more levels of government
(b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens
(c) Courts have the power to interpret the constitution
(d) The centre government can order the state government

41. Rural local government is popularly known as:

(a) Panchayati Raj (b) Zila Parishad (c) State Government (d) Gram Panchayat

42. In local self-government institutions at least one-third of all positions are

reserved for
(a) men (b) women (c) children (d) scheduled tribes

43. Which of the following subjects falls under the Concurrent list?
(a) Defence (b) Agriculture (c) Marriage (d) Currency

44. Which one of the following countries is an example of holding together

federation?
(a) India (b) U.S.A (c) Australia (d) Switzerland

Development
1. Which of the following resources is a non-renewable energy resource?
(a) Solar radiations (b) Crude oil (c) Wind energy (d) All the above

2. The countries with per capita income of US $955 (2017) or less are termed as
(a) Low income countries (b) Developing countries
(c) Developed countries (d) Rich countries

3. What the countries with per capita income of US $12,056 per annum and above
(in 2017) are called?
(a) Rich countries (b) Low-income countries
(c) Developing countries (d) None of the above

4. Per capita income is:

(a) income per person (b) income per family
(c) income per earning person (d) income per month

5. Which is the most important attribute to compare countries?

(a) Human Development Index (b) Literacy rate (c) Export earnings (d) Income

6. Proportion of literate population in the 7 years and above age group is termed as
(a) Education index (b) Mortality ratio
(c) Literacy rate (d) Gross enrolment ratio

7. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms

of human development rank than India ?
(a) Bhutan (b) Sri Lanka (c) Nepal (d) None of the above

8. One common development goal among the people is:

(a) family (b) freedom (c) income (d) security

9. Cause of high infant mortality rate is :

(a) inadequate facilities of health (b) lack of infrastructural facilities
(c) lack of awareness (d) both (a) and (b)

10. Groundwater overuse in India is how much

(a) one-third of country (b) one-fourth of country
(c) one-fifth of country (d) two-fifth of country

11. Human Development Index compares countries based on which of the

following levels of the people?
(a) Educational level (b) Health status (c) Per capita Income (d) All the above

12. We can obtain per capita income of a country by calculating:

(a) the total income of a person
(b) by dividing the national income by the total population of a country
(c) the total value of all goods and services
(d) the total exports of the country.

13. Kerala has low Infant Mortaliy Rate because:

(a) it has good climatic condition
(b) it has adequate infrastructure
(c) it has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities
(d) it has poor net attendence ratio

14. In which state in India is the infant mortality rate lowest?

(a) Kerala (b) Bihar (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Punjab

15. Which of the following countries has higher HDI rank than India?
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Nepal (c) Bangladesh (d) Pakistan

16. According to the World Development Report a country is considered rich when
the per capita income is more than which of the following figures?
(a) Rs 24,000 per annum (b) Rs 37,000 per annum
(c) Rs 4,53,000 per annum (d) Rs 5,43,000 per annum

17. Which is the most important attribute for comparing the development of
countries ?
(a) Resources (b) Population (c) Average income (d) None of these

18. In terms of human development, which of the following countries is ahead of

India?
(a) Bangladesh (b) Sri Lanka (c) Nepal (d) Bhutan

19. Which one of the following states has the highest Human Development Index
(HDI)?
(a) Kerala (b) Punjab (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) West Bengal

20. Which of the following is most likely to be a development goal for landless
rural labourers?
(a) Higher support prices for their crops
(b) They should be able to settle their children abroad
(c) Raised wages
(d) None of these

21. Which one of the following criteria is the basis to measure the development of
a country according to UNDP?
(a) Per capita income (b) Educational levels of the people
(c) Health status of the people (d) All the above

22. Underemployment occurs when people:

(a) do not want to work
(b) are working in a lazy manner
(c) are working less than what they are capable of doing
(d) are not paid for their work

23. Which one of the following is a developmental goal for industrialists?

(a) To get more days of work (b) To get better wages
(c) To get more electricity (d) All the above

24. Which one among the following is a developmental goal for the landless rural
labourers?
(a) To get electricity and water (b) To educate their children
(c) More days of work and better wages (d) To shift to the cities

25. The developmental goal for a girl from a rich family is:
(a) to get more days of work (b) to get as much freedom as her brother gets
(c) to get electricity (d) to get better wages

26. Which one of the following is the most important attribute while comparing the
level of development of various countries?
(a) Population (b) Social status of the people
(c) Political status (d) Per capita income

27. Which one of the following is not a feature of developing country?

(a) Agriculture as the major occupation (b) High technological development
(c) Mass poverty (d) Mass illiteracy

28. Life expectancy at birth means:

(a) average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth
(b) average expected length of life of a person at the time of death
(c) average expected length of a child at the time of birth
(d) None of the above

29. Which one of the following statements defines ‗Literacy Rate‘?

(a) Total literate population divided by total population
(b) Total literate population divided by literate population
(c) Proportion of illiterate population in the 18 and above age group.
(d) It measures the proportion of literate proportion in the 7 years and above age
group.

30. India‘s HDI rank in the world is:

(a) 125 (b) 115 (c) 126 (d) 134

31. Development goals of different sections of our society can be achieved by:
(a) Force (b) Democratic political process (c) Violent agitation (d) Terrorism

Rise of Nationalism in Europe

1. Nationalism brought about in Europe the emergence of :
(a) The Nation State (b) The Modern State
(c) Multinational Dynastic State(d) Alliances formed among many European states

2. The first clear expression of Nationalism in Europe came with :

(a) The American Revolution (b) The French Revolution
(c) The Russian Revolution (d) The Industrial Revolution

3. The ideas of a United Community enjoying equal rights under a Constitution

were expressed by the French as :
(a) La Patrie (b) Le Citoyen (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

4. Frederic Serrieu, a French artist, in his series of four prints (1848) visualised his
dream of a world as:
(a) A world made up of ‗democratic and social republics‘
(b) A world made up of one nation, one world
(c) A world with one absolute ruler
(d) A world following one religion, one language

5. What kind of political and constitutional change was brought about by the
French Revolution?
(a) It ended the absolute monarchy
(b) It transferred power to a body of the French citizens
(c) It proclaimed that henceforth people would constitute the nation and shape its
destiny
(d) All the above

6. The Civil Code of 1804, also known as the Napoleonic Code, established :
(a) Equality before the law (b) Secured the right to property
(c) Did away with all the privileges based on birth (d) All the above

7. Socially and politically dominant class in Europe during mid-eighteenth century

was __________ .
(a) Nobility (b) landed aristocracy (c) Church (d) absolute monarchs

8. All the new regimes, set up in 1815, were autocratic because:

(a) They did not tolerate criticism and dissent
(b) They imposed censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, plays,
songs etc.
(c) They curbed activities which questioned their legitimacy
(d) All the above

9. Name one kind of revolt that started in Europe in 1848.

(a) Linguistic Revolt in Germany
(b) Artisans, industrial workers and peasants revolted against economic hardships
(c) Revolt against monarchy in Switzerland
(d) Revolt for freedom in Greece

10. In politics, liberalism emphasised ______________ .

(a) End of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and a representative
government through Parliament
(b) The inviolability of private property
(c) The right to vote
(d) Both (a) and (b)

11. Which new spirit guided European nations after Napoleon‘s defeat?
(a) Fascism (b) Conservatism (c) Nazism (d) Communism
12. The denial of universal suffrage in Europe, led to _________________.
(a) Revolutions
(b) Women and non-propertied men organising opposition movements, demanding
equal rights throughout 19th and early 20th centuries
(c) Demand of equal political rights
(d) Return of monarchy

13. The three leaders who helped unification of Italy were :

(a) Giuseppe Mazzini, Victor Emmanuel II, Cavour
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini, Cavour, Giuseppe Garibaldi
(c) Victor Emmanuel, Bismarck, Cavour
(d) None of the above

14. In the 19th century, the French artists symbolised the French nation as :
(a) Marianne, a popular Christian name for women
(b) Marianne, a female figure, with a red cap, the tricolour and the cockade
(c) As a female named Marianne, with characteristics of liberty (a red cap, a
broken chair) and the Republic (the red cap, tricolour and the cockade)
(d) All the above

15. Repression of liberal revolutionaries after 1815, in Europe, led to

(a) Armies being trained by revolutionaries
(b) All revolutionaries trained to overthrow monarchy
(c) Secret societies being formed in many European states to train revolutionaries
and spread their ideas
(d) All the above

16. The Nationalist Greeks got the support of the West European nations because :
(a) They were fighting against the Muslim Ottoman Empire
(b) They had sympathies for ancient Greek culture
(c) Greece was considered the cradle of European civilisation
(d) All the above
17. The purpose behind the painting ―The Massacre at Chios‖ by Eugene
Delacroix, 1824, was:
(a) To appeal to the emotions of the spectators and create sympathy for the Greeks
(b) To dramatise the incident in which 20,000 Greeks were killed
(c) To focus on the suffering of women and children
(d) All the above

18. German philosopher Johann Gotfried Herder claimed that true German culture
was discovered through
(a) Folk songs, folk poetry, folk dances (b) Common people — das volk
(c) Vernacular language (d) All the above

19. Cavour‘s contribution to Italian unification was :

(a) Diplomatic alliance with the enemies of Austria
(b) War with Austrians and Bourbons.
(c) Diplomatic alliance with France in 1859 and strengthening Sardinia and
Piedmont
(d) Defeated the Bourbon kings

20. Which one of the following is true regarding how the new artists depicted
liberty during the French Revolution?
(a) As a female figure with a torch of enlightenment in one hand and the Charter of
Rights of Man in the other hand.
(b) Blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales.
(c) The gold red and black tricolour.
(d) Rays of the rising sun.

21. Conservatives did not believe in establishing and preserving :

(a) the monarchy (b) the democracy
(c) traditional institutions of state and society (d) social hierarchies

22. Which of the following powers was not interested in Balkan peninsula?
(a) England (b) Germany (c) Russia (d) Japan
23. Which one of the following is not true regarding the history of the nationalist
movement in Great Britain?
(a) It was the result of a long-drawn-out process and not of a sudden revolution.
(b) The wealthy and powerful English nation steadily extended its influence over
the Welsh, the Scots and the Irish.
(c) Ireland and Scotland were equal partners in the union called the United
Kingdoms.
(d) The British flag and national anthem were actively promoted in this Union.

24. Which one of the following is not regarding the reforms carried out by the
Union called Zollverein?
(a) Creation of a network of railways to promote nationalism
(b) Opposition to unhindered movement of goods, people and capital in member
states
(c) Reduction of tariff barriers in states
(d) Reduction of number of currencies in Germany

25. Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union 1707?
(a) United Kingdom of Irish (b) United Kingdom of Scotland
(c) United Kingdom of America (d) United Kingdom of Great Britain

26. What emerged as a force which brought about sweeping changes in the
political and material world of Europe in the nineteenth century?
(a) The emergence of the nation state (b) The multinational dynastic empire
(c) Territorial state (d) Absolute monarchy

27. Which one of the following areas was the most serious source of nationalist
tension in Europe after 1871?
(a) The Balkans (b) The Romanians (c) Great Britain (d) Germania

28. Which one of the following is true regarding the ideas promoted by Mazzini?
(a) Opposition to monarchy and support to democratic republic
(b) To establish liberty and freedom under a monarchy
(c) Disintegration of the German confederation under 39 States
(d) Censorship of newspapers, books, plays and songs
29. Which one of the following was not the feature of Napoleonic Code?
(a) Equality before the law (b) Universal Adult Franchise
(c) Right to Property (d) No privileges based on birth

30. Who amongst the following Italian leaders was neither a revolutionary nor a
democrat?
(a) Mazzini (b) Cavour (b) Garibaldi (d) Victor Emmanuel II

31. Which one of the following was not implemented under the Treaty of Vienna
of 1815?
(a) Restoration of Bourbon dynasty
(b) Setting up series of states on the boundaries of France
(c) Restoration of monarchies
(d) Diluting the German confederation of 39 states

32. Which of the following treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation?

(a) Vienna Treaty of 1815 (b) Constantinople Treaty
(c) Diplomatic Treaty of Sardenia-Piedmont (d) None of these

33. Who among the following was described as ‗the most dangerous enemy of
social order‘ by Duke Metternich?
(a) Louis Philippe (b) Karol Kurpinski (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Johann Gottfried

34. What did the ideas of la patrie and le citoyen signify in the French
Revolution?
(a) The motherland and the children (b) The fatherland and the citizens
(c) The community and the citizens (d) The state and the community

35. Which one of the following areas was the most serious source of nationalist
tension in Europe after 1871?
(a) The Balkans (b) The Romanians (c) Great Britain (d) Germania

36. The main function of the Prussian Zollverein was to:

(a) impose customs duty on imported goods (b) abolish tarrif barriers
(c) reduce customs duties (d) introduce new rules for trade

37. ‗Young Italy‘, the secret society of Italy, was set up by:
(a) Garibaldi (b) Cavour (c) Mazzini (d) Victor Emmanuel II

38. Elle, the measuring unit in Germany was used to measure

(a) Cloth (b) Thread (c) Land (d) Height

39. Why was the treaty of Vienna (1815) drawn up?

(a) To establish tariff barriers (b) To restore the monarchies
(c) To divide the German Confederation of 39 states (d) To establish democracies

40. Which of the following best explains a Utopian Society?

(a) A Society where everybody is equal
(b) A democratic society
(c) An idealist society which can never be achieved
(d) A society with a comprehensive constitution

41. Who said ―When France sneezes, the rest of the Europe catches cold‖?
(a) Garibaldi (b) Mazzini (c) Metternich (d) Bismarck

42. What does a blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales symbolise?
(a) Peace (b) Equality (c) Justice (d) Liberty

43. Which one of the following countries was appreciated as ‗Cradle of European
Civilisation‘ by poets and artists?
(a) Greece (b) Italy (c) France (d) Switzerland

44. What does the crown of oak leaves worn by Germania stand for?
(a) Courage (b) Heroism (c) Freedom (d) Unity

45. Which one of the following is true regarding the Treaty of Constantinople of
1832 ?
(a) It recognised Turkey as an independent nation
(b) It recognised Germany as an independent nation
(c) It recognised France as an independent nation
(d) It recognised Greece as an independent nation

46. Who led the protest movement against the Protestants in Ireland?
(a) Garibaldi (b) Wolfe Tone (c) Mazzini (d) Cavour

47. Who among the following was associated with the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(a) Bismarck (b) Duke Metternich (c) Louis Philippe (d) Victor Emmanuel II

48. Who led the protest movement against the Protestants in Ireland?
(a) Garibaldi (b) Wolfe Tone (c) Mazzini (d) Cavour

Nationalism in India

1. The growth of modern nationalism in India, as in Vietnam, is closely connected

to :
(a) A sense of oppression under colonialism (b) An anti-colonial movement
(c) A discovery of unity in their struggle against colonialism (d) All the above

2. When was the Non-Cooperation programme adopted by the Congress?

(a) At Surat in December 1920 (b) At Nagpur in December 1920
(c) At Calcutta in January 1921 (d) At Bombay in December 1920

3. The two events which shaped Indian politics in the 1920s were:
(a) The setting up of the Simon Commission by the Tory Government in Britain
which had not a single Indian member
(b) The worldwide economic depression which led to a fall in agricultural prices
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) The division within the Congress

4. The leader of the peasants in the Gudem Hills of Andhra was :

(a) Baba Ramchandra (b) Venkata Raju (c) Alluri Sitaram Raju
(d) None of the above
5. Who presided over the December 1929 Session of the Congress at Lahore and
what was its demand?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru. The demand was for Poorna Swaraj or full independence
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose and ―Poorna Swaraj‖ was its demand
(c) Mahatma Gandhi. He asked for peaceful transfer of power by the British
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru, the demand was for more representation of Indians in the
Councils

6. The business groups and industrialists lost enthusiasm for the Civil
Disobedience Movement because:
(a) They lost faith in Gandhiji‘s methods
(b) They were frightened by the British repression
(c) The spread of violent activities worried them about prolonged disruption of
business and the failure of the Round Table Conference made them afraid
(d) All the above

7. Who was the President of the Muslim League in 1930?

(a) Mr M.A. Jinnah (b) Maulana Azad
(c) Abdul Ghaffar Khan (d) Sir Muhammad Iqbal

8. The two great writers of Bengal and Madras, who contributed to nationalism
in the late nineteenth century through folklore were :
(a) Abanindranath Tagore and Ravi Verma
(b) Rabindranath Tagore and Natesa Sastri
(c) Jamini Roy and Ravi Verma
(d) None of the above

9. The reason for Mahatma Gandhiji‘s fast unto death in 1932, was
(a) the failure of the Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) the public resort to violence during the Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) the clash with Dr Ambedkar over his demand for a separate electorate for Dalits
which he thought would halt their integration into society
(d) the failure of the Second Round Table Conference

10. Natesa Sastri expressed and proved his love for folklore by :
(a) Believing that folklore was national literature
(b) By calling it the most trustworthy manifestation of the people‘s real thoughts
and characteristics
(c) By publishing a massive four-volume collection of Tamil folk tales ‗The
Folklore of Southern India‘
(d) All the above

11. Which was the main cause for boycotting foreign goods during Non-
Coopeartion Movement?
(a) A symbol of western economic and cultural dominations
(b) A symbol of foreign rule
(c) A symbol of western political domination
(d) A symbol of oppressive rule

12. Which pact resolved the issue of separate electorates for dalits between Gandhi
and Ambedkar in 1932?
(a) Lucknow pact (b) Nagpur pact (c) Poona pact (d) Surat pact

13. Which one of the following is not true regarding the impact of the First World
War on India?
(a) Defence expenditure resulted in increased taxes.
(b) Forced recruitment of soldiers was introduced in the villages
(c) Income tax was introduced and customs duties increased
(d) The hardships ended with the war as the British introduced the Rowlatt Act

14. In which movement did Gandhi see an opportunity to bring Muslims under the
umbrella of a unified national movement:
(a) the oppressive plantation system in Champaran movement
(b) A satyagraha movement to support the peasants of the Kheda district of Gujarat
(c) A nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act of 1919
(d) A non-cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as well as Swaraj

15. Which of the following was the cause for business classes to participate in
Civil Disobedience Movement?
(a) To buy foreign goods without any restrictions
(b) To sell Indian goods without any restrictions
(c) Protection against import of foreign goods
(d) To export their goods

16. Which one of the following is not true regarding the Khilafat Movement?
(a) It aimed at bringing the Hindus and Muslims together in the Non-Cooperation
Movement
(b) It aimed at defending the Ottoman Emperor‘s temporal powers
(c) Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali led the movement in India
(d) It resulted in the restoration of the power of the Khilafat of Turkey

17. Which one of the following is not true regarding the Rowlatt Act?
(a) It barred Indians from carrying weapons and arms
(b) It allowed detention of political prisoners without trial, for two years
(c) Its aim was to give power to the government to repress political activities
(d) It was passed by the Imperial Legislative Councils in 1919

18. Which one of the following is not true regarding the Jallianwala Bagh incident?
(a) It took place on 10th April, 1919
(b) Satyagrahis were forced to rub their noses on the ground and crawl on
thestreets
(c) Its aim was to create a ‗moral effect‘ in the minds of the satyagrahis
(d) Its aim was to create a feeling of terror

19. Which one of the following leaders headed Abadh Kisan Sabha?
(a) Jawahar lal Nehru (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose (d) Motilal Nehru

20. Why did the rich peasant community actively participate in the Civil
Disobedience Movement ? Choose the most appropriate answer from the
following:
(a) Failure of talks in the 2nd Round Table Conference
(b) The Government‘s refusal to reduce the revenue demand
(c) Khadi cloth was more expensive than mill cloth
(d) Racial discrimination
21. Which one of the following statements is not the basic concept of
‗Satyagraha‘?
(a) Emphasis on the power of truth (b) Emphasis on the need to restrain oneself
(c) Emphasis on non-violence (d) Emphasis on enduring the British dominance

22. The event that marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement was:
(a) The demand for Poorna Swaraj of 1929
(b) The Independence Day pledge of 1930
(c) The violation of Salt Law in 1930
(d) All of these

23. Why did General Dyer open fire on the peaceful gathering at Jallianwala Bagh
on 13th April, 1919?
(a) General Dyer wanted to enforce martial law very strictly in Amritsar.
(b) He wanted to create feeling of terror and awe in the minds of satyagrahis.
(c) He wanted to demoralise the local Congress leaders.
(d) He wanted to gain prominence in the eyes of British government.

24. Which one of the following was the main reason behind the start of the Non-
Cooperation Movement in 1920?
(a) To fulfill the demand for Swaraj.
(b) To oppose the arrival of Prince of Wales.
(c) To surrender the titles vested by British.
(d) To boycott the civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils.

25. ‗Hind Swaraj‘ was written by:

(a) Abul Kalam Azad (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Sardar Patel (d) Subhash Chandra Bose

26. In 1916, Gandhiji travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasant to

struggle against the:
(a) Upper caste people (b) Landless agriculture labourers
(c) Oppressive plantation system (d) None of them
27. In 1905, who painted the image of Bharat Mata shown as dispensing learning,
food and clothing?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore (b) Abnindranath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (d) None of these

28. Who amongst the following led the Civil Disobedience in Peshawar?
(a) Abdul Gaffar Khan (b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) Jawaharlal Nehru

29. The Simon Commission was boycotted in India because:

(a) There was no Indian member in the Commission.
(b) It supported the Muslim League
(c) Congress felt that people deserved Swaraj
(d) There were differences among the members

30. The resolution of Poorna Swaraj was adopted at which session of the
Congress?
(a) Karachi (b) Haripur (c) Lahore (d) Lucknow

31. Which of the following was a cause for the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation
Movement?
(a) Lack of coordination among the satyagrahi
(b) Outbreak of violence at Chauri Chaura.
(c) Gandhiji wanted to start Civil Disobedience
(d) Other nationalists persuaded Gandhiji

32. Who led the peasants movement in Oudh during the Non-Co-Operation
Movement?
(a) Motilal Nehru (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Baba Ramchandra (d) Sardar Patel

33. Gandhiji in his work ‗Hind Swaraj‘ said that:

(a) The British must Quit India
(b) Indians must not cooperate with the British
(c) The Government must concede the right to make salt
(d) Indians must be involved in the governance of India
► (b) Indians must not cooperate with the British

34. Which of the following in not true about the Rowlatt Act?
(a) It allowed the detention of prisoners for five years without trial.
(b) Gave the government powers to repress political activity
(c) It passed the Act despite opposition from the Indian members in the Imperial
Legislative Council.
(d) Led to the launch of a movement under Gandhiji‘s leadership.

35. Which of the following best describes Satyagraha as an idea?

(a) Practising civil disobedience (b) Resignation from official posts
(c) Appealing to the conscience of the adversary without physical force
(d) Boycott of schools and colleges

36. Who among the following was the author of the famous novel
‗Anandamath‘?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (b) Abanindranath Tagore
(c) Natesa Sastri (d) Rabindranath Tagore

37. Which one of the following is not true regarding the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of
1931?
(a) Mahatma Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) Gandhiji consented to participate in a Round Table Conference
(c) The British government agreed to release the political prisoners
(d) The British government agreed to grant independence

38. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in:

(a) 1920 (b) 1913 (c) 1910 (d) 1915

39. What was the effect of the Non-Cooperation Movement on the plantation
workers in Assam?
(a) They left the plantations and headed towards home (b) They went on strike
(c) They destroyed the plantations (d) They started using violence
40. Who among the following were associated with ‗Swaraj Party‘ formed during
India‘s freedom struggle?
(a) C.R. Das and Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(c) Motilal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali

41. Name the Sanyasi who was an indentured labourer in Fiji:

(a) Baba Ramchandra (b) Baba Ramdev (c) Baba Sitaraman (d) Baba Jaidev

42. The concept of Non-Cooperation was turned into a movement through the:
(a) surrender of government awarded titles
(b) boycott of foreign goods and schools
(c) boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils
(d) all of these

43. By whom was the song ‗Vande Mataram‘ composed?

(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Sarat Chandra Chatterjee (d) Natesa Sastri

44. How did the Indian people belonging to different communities, regions or
languages develop a sense of collective belonging?
(a) Through the experience of united struggles (b) Through cultural process
(c) Through the several of Indian folklores. (d) All of these

45. The peasants of Kheda district could not pay the revenue because they were
affected by:
(a) extreme poverty (b) the crop failure (c) a plague epidemic (d) all the above

46. The relationship between the poor peasants and the Congress remained
uncertain during the Civil Disobedience Movement because
(a) The poor peasants were interested in the lowering of the revenue demand
(b) They launched a no rent campaigns
(c) They were hard hit by the depression
(d) All the above
 47. Why was Simon Commission sent to India in 1928?
(a) To look into the functioning of Indian constitutional system and suggest
reforms.
(b) To try Indian revolutionary leaders.
(c) To frame a new Constitution for India.
(d) To persuade Gandhiji to attend the Round Table Conference.

48. In the countryside, rich peasants and Jats of Uttar Pradesh actively participated
in the Civil Disobedience Movement because
(a) They wanted Poorna Swaraj
(b) They were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices.
(c) They wanted the unpaid rent to the landlord to be remitted
(d) The government was forcing land ceiling

Resources and Development

Directions:- In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have
been put forward. Read both statements carefully and choose the correct answer from
the below:

o (A) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
o (B) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
o (C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
o (D) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false.

1.) ASSERTION (A):.Land is a resource of utmost importance.

REASON (R): Land can be used for various purposes like agriculture and industry.

2.) ASSERTION (A): The black soils are made up of extremely fine ie, clayey
material.
REASON(R) : They are well known for their capacity to hold moisture.

3.) ASSERTION (A ): Alluvial soils are very fertile

REASON (R) : Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric
acid, and lime
 4.) ASSERTION (A): Rajasthan and Gujarat have enormous potential for the
development of wind and solar energy, but so far these have not been developed
properly
REASON (R) : Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy
human needs but human beings do not have the appropriate technology to access
these, are included among developed resources.

5.) ASSERTION (A): Biotic Resources are obtained from biosphere and have life
such as human beings, flora and fauna.
REASON (R): Abiotic Resources are those things which are composed of non living
things ,for example, rocks, air and metals

6.) ASSERTION (A) : Agenda 21 was signed in1992 in Rio de Janeiro

REASON(R): Sustainable development focused on utilization of resources

7.) ASSERTION (A): Public parks, picnic spots, playgrounds in urban areas are
community owned resources.
REASON (R) : They are accessible to all the people living there.

8.) ASSERTION (A): Ploughing along the contour lines decelerates the flow of water
down the slopes and controls soil erosion.
REASON (R) : Soil erosion is the washing away of top layer of soil or denudation of
soil cover.

9.) ASSERTION (A) : All the resources belong to the nation.

REASON(R): International institutions regulate the oceanic resources beyond 200
nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone.

10.) ASSERTION (A): Resources are not vital for any developmental activity.
REASON(R) : Excessive consumption and over utilisation of resources may lead to
socio-economic and environmental problems.

Power-Sharing
Directions:- In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have
been put forward. Read both statements carefully and choose the correct answer from
the below:

o (A) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
o (B) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
o (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
o (D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.
1.) Assertion (A): In Belgium, the leaders realized that the unity of the country is
possible by respecting the feelings and interest of different countries.
Reason: Belgium favoured Dutch speaking community.

2.) Assertion (A): Horizontal distribution of power allows different organs of the
government placed at same level to exercise different powers.
Reason(R): The separation ensures that different organs can exercise unlimited power

3.) Assertion (A): In a democracy, everyone has voice in the shaping of public
policies.
Reason: India has federal system.

4.) Assertion (A): Power sharing is good for democracy.

Reason (R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between the social groups.

5.) Assertion (A): Power Sharing is good.

Reason: It leads to ethical tension.

6.) Assertion (A): French speaking community in Belgium was rich and powerful.
Reason: Belgian Government favoured French speaking community.

7.) Assertion (A): Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1949.

Reason(R): The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over
government by virtue of their majority

8.) Assertion (A): Community government in Belgium is elected by one language

community.
Reason: Community government helped in resolving conflict between different
linguistic groups.

9) Assertion (A): Community government in Belgium allows to share power among

religious and linguistic groups.
Reason(R): In India there are legal and constitutional arrangements where by socially
weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration.

10) Assertion (A): Power sharing can help to prevent conflict in society.
Reasoning (R): Power sharing ensures that different social groups are included
in decision-making processes, reducing marginalisation and fostering inclusivity.

Federalism
 Directions:- In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have
been put forward. Read both statements carefully and choose the correct answer from
the below:

o (A) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A) .
o (B) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A) .
o (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
o (D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

1.) Assertion (A) : Hindi is identified as the only official language of India.
Reason (R) : It helped in creating supremacy of Hindi speaking people over others.

2.) Assertion (A): A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992.
Reason (R): The constitution was amended to make the third tier of democracy more
powerful and effective

3.) Assertion (A) : Third-tier of government is local government.

Reason (R) : It made democracy weak.

4.) Assertion (A): When power is taken away from central and state governments and
given to local governments it is called decentralisation.
Reason (R): At least one third of all positions are reserved for women in local
government bodies

5.)Assertion (A) : Zilla Parishad Chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad.
Reason (R) : Mayor is the head of municipalities.

6.) Assertion (A): Besides Hindi there are 21 other languages recognized as scheduled
languages by the constitution.
Reason (R):Restructuring the centre state relations is one more way in which
federalism has been strengthened in practice.

7).Assertion (A) : Coalition government is formed during dearth of coal in the

country.
Reason (R) : It helps in overcoming coal crisis.

8.) Assertion (A): Belgium shifted from a federal form of government to a unitary
government.
Reason (R): Usually, a federation has two levels of government

9.) Assertion (A): Belgium and Spain have ‗holding together‘ federation.
Reason (R) : A big country divides power between constituent states and national
government.
 10.) Assertion (A): A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992.
Reason (R): The constitution was amended to make the third tier of democracy more
powerful and effective.

Development
Directions:- In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have
been put forward. Read both statements carefully and choose the correct answer from
the below:

o (A) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A) .
o (B) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A) .
o (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
o (D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

1.) Assertion (A) – A high average income is not indicative of the overall wellbeing of
a country.
Reason (R) – Average income does not cover human development indicates like level
of education, health and public facilities.

2.) Assertion: India has experienced some significant changes in the contribution to
GDP by the primary sector
Reason: In terms of GDP, the service sector emerged as the largest producing sector in
India replacing the primary sector.

3.) Assertion (A) Suppose the literacy rate in a state is 78% and the the net attendance
ratio in secondary stage is 47%.
Reason ( R ) More than half of the students are going to other states for elementary
education.

4.) Assertion (A) Sustainable development is a crucial step for the development of a
country.
Reason ( R ) Sustainability is the capability to use the resources judicious and
maintain
ecological balance.

5.) Assertion (A): Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate.

Reason (R): Kerala lacks the provision of basic health and educational facilities..
 6.) Assertion (A): The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the
development of any region, but mere availability of resources in the absence of
corresponding changes in technology and institutions may hinder development.
Reason (R): There are many regions in our county that are rich in resources but these
are included in economically backward regions.

7. Assertion (A) A country at present has very high national income due to surplus oil
resource. However it is essential to look for alternative sources of income also.
Reason (R) Oil is a natural resource that is non-renewable in nature. If it is not used
judiciously then it will get exhausted soon.

8.) Assertion (A) Different people having different development goals.

Reason (R) People want freedom, equality, security and respect.

9.) Assertion (A): Developmental goals that people are not only about better income
but also about other important things in life.
Reason (R): A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a
variety of jobs or run a business.

The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Directions:- In the following questions, the Assertions (A) and Reason(s) (R) have
been put forward. Read both statements carefully and choose the correct answer from
the below:

o (A) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
o (B) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
o (C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
o (D) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false.

1.) Assertion (A) : Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of

state and society should be preserved.
Reason (R) : Zollverein was formed to preserve conservatism

2.) Assertion (A) : The Scottish Highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic
language or wear their national dress, and large numbers were forcibly driven out of
their homeland.
Reason (R) : The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to establish their
dominance over a largely Catholic country.

3.) Assertion (A) : Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation.
Reason (R) : Weavers in Silesia had led a revolt against the contractors who supplied
raw material and gave them orders for finished textiles but drastically reduced their
payments.

4.) Assertion (A) : Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one was ruled by
an Italian princely house.
Reason (R) : The north was under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain.
Answer- (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.

5) Assertion (A) : Giuseppe Mazzini worked with the conservatives for the monarchy.
Reason (R) : Italy had to continue to be a patchwork of small states and kingdoms.

6.) Assertion (A) : In France, were the ‗Bibliothéque Bleué, which were low-priced
small books printed on poor quality paper, and bound in cheap blue covers.
Reason (R) : In England, penny chapbooks were carried by petty pedlars known as
chapmen, and sold for a penny, so that even the poor could buy them.

7) Assertion (A) : In the areas conquered by Napoleon the reactions of the local
population were mixed.
Reason (R) : Increased taxation, censorship etc. out-weigh the advantages of
administrative changes.

8.) Assertion (A) : Germany, Italy and Switzerland were divided into kingdoms,
duchies and cantons whose rulers had their autonomous territories.
Reason (R) : They were closely bound to each other in spite of their autonomous rule.

9.) Assertion (A) : From the very beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced
various measures and practices like the idea of la patrie and le citoyen.
Reason (R) : This was done to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French
people.

10.) Assertion (A) : On 18 May 1848, 831 elected representatives revolted in the
Frankfurt parliament.
Reason (R) : The elected representatives revolted against the issue of extending
political rights to women.

11) Assertion : Artists in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries found a way out by
personifying a nation.
Reason : they represented a country as if it were a person.

12.) Assertion : Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation.
Reason : During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven
States.