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10 JEE (Main) Examination January-2020 ALLEN

SET # 02
PHYSICS 5. The electric field of a plane electromagnetic
1. A stationary observer receives sound from two r ˆi + ˆj
identical tuning forks, one of which approaches wave is given by E = E 0 cos (kz + wt)
2
and the other one recedes with the same speed
(much less than the speed of sound). The At t = 0, a positively charged particle is at the
observer hears 2 beats/sec. The oscillation
æ pö
frequency of each tuning fork is n0 = 1400 Hz point (x, y, z) = ç 0, 0, ÷ . If its instantaneous
è kø
and the velocity of sound in air is 350 m/s. The
speed of each tuning fork is close to : velocity at (t = 0) is u0 k̂ , the force acting on
1 1 it due to the wave is :
(1) m/s (2) m/s
8 2 ˆi + ˆj
(1) zero (2) parallel to
1 2
(3) 1 m/s (4) m/s
4
iˆ + ˆj
2. An elevator in a building can carry a maximum (3) antiparallel to (4) parallel to k̂

EN
of 10 persons, with the average mass of each
person being 68 kg. The mass of the elevator
itself is 920 kg and it moves with a constant
speed 3 m/s. The frictional force opposing the
motion is 6000 N. If the elevator is moving up
6.
r
2
A particle of mass m and charge q has an initial
r
velocity u = u0 ĵ . If an electric field E = E 0 iˆ and
r
magnetic field B = B0ˆi act on the particle, its
with its full capacity, the power delivered by speed will double after a time:
the motor to the elevator (g = 10 m/s2) must be
2mu0 3mu0
LL
at least : 3mu0 2mu0
(1) qE (2) qE (3) qE 0
(4) qE 0
(1) 56300 W (2) 48000 W 0 0

(3) 66000 W (4) 62360 W 7. In the figure, potential difference between

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3. The activity of a radioactive sample falls from A and B is :
700 s–1 to 500 s–1 in 30 minutes. Its half life is
close to :
10 kW A
(1) 66 min (2) 52 min
A

(3) 72 min (4) 62 min


4. Mass per unit area of a circular disc of radius 10 kW 10 kW
30 V
a depends on the distance r from its centre as
s (r) = A + Br. The moment of inertia of the
disc about the the axis, perpendicular to the B
plane and passing through its centre is :
(1) 5V (2) 10 V
æ A aB ö
(1) 2pa4 ç + ÷ (3) zero (4) 15 V
è4 5 ø
æ A aB ö B2
(2) pa4 çè 4 + 5 ÷ø 8. The dimension of
2µ 0
, where B is magnetic

æ aA B ö field and µ 0 is the magnetic permeability of


(3) 2pa4 çè 4 + 5 ÷ø vacuum, is:
(1) ML–1 T–2 (2) ML2 T–1
æ A Bö
(4) 2pa 4 çè 4 + 5 ÷ø (3) MLT–2 (4) ML2 T–2

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ALLEN JEE (Main) Examination January-2020 11
9. In a building there are 15 bulbs of 45 W, 15 13. A mass of 10 kg is suspended by a rope of
bulbs of 100 W, 15 small fans of 10 W and 2 length 4 m, from the ceiling. A force F is
heaters of 1 kW. The voltage of electric main applied horizontally at the mid-point of the
is 220 V. The minimum fuse capacity (rated rope such that the top half of the rope makes
value) of the building will be: an angle of 45° with the vertical. Then F equals:
(1) 10 A (2) 25 A (Take g= 10 ms– 2 and the rope to be massless)
(1) 100 N (2) 90 N
(3) 15 A (4) 20 A
(3) 75 N (4) 70 N
10. An emf of 20 V is applied at time t=0 to a circuit
14. A thin lens made of glass (refractive index
containing in series 10 mH inductor and 5 W
= 1.5) of focal length f = 16 cm is immersed
resistor. The ratio of the currents at time t = ¥
in a liquid of refractive index 1.42. If its focal
and at t = 40 s is close to : (Take e2 = 7.389)
length in liquid is f1, then the ratio fl/f is closest
(1) 1.06 (2) 1.15 to the integer :
(3) 1.46 (4) 0.84 (1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 9 (4) 17
(T) B 15. A planar loop of wire rotates in a uniform
magnetic field. Initially, at t = 0, the plane of
the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field.

–150
2.0

1.0
–50
EN H
If it rotates with a period of 10 s about an axis
in its plane then the magnitude of induced emf
will be maximum and minimum, respectively
at :
(1) 2.5 s and 7.5 s (2) 5.0 s and 7.5s
50 150 A/m (3) 5.0 s and 10.0 s (4) 2.5s and 5.0 s
11.
–1.0 16. Two ideal Carnot engines operate in cascade
LL
(all heat given up by one engine is used by the
other engine to produce work) between
–2.0
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temperatures, T1 and T2. The temperature of the


The figure gives experimentally measured hot reservoir of the first engine is T1 and the
B vs. H variation in a ferromagnetic material. temperature of the cold reservoir of the second
The retentivity, co-ercivity and saturation, engine is T2. T is temperature of the sink of first
A

respectively, of the material are: engine which is also the source for the second
engine. How is T related to T1 and T2, if both
(1) 150 A/m, 1.0 T and 1.5 T
the engines perform equal amount of work ?
(2) 1.0 T, 50 A/m and 1.5 T
2T1T2
(3) 1.5 T, 50 A/m and 1.0 T (1) T = T + T (2) T = T1T2
1 2
(4) 1.5 T, 50 A/m and 1.0 T
12. In a Young's double slit experiment, the T1 + T2
(3) T = (4) T = 0
separation between the slits is 0.15 mm. In the 2
experiment, a source of light of wavelength 589 17. A box weighs 196 N on a spring balance at the
nm is used and the interference pattern is north pole. Its weight recorded on the same
observed on a screen kept 1.5 m away. The balance if it is shifted to the equator is close to
separation between the successive bright (Take g = 10 ms–2 at the north pole and the
fringes on the screen is: radius of the earth = 6400 km):
(1) 6.9 mm (2) 5.9 mm (1) 195.66 N (2) 194.66 N
(3) 4.9 mm (4) 3.9 mm (3) 194.32 N (4) 195.32 N
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12 JEE (Main) Examination January-2020 ALLEN
18. Under an adiabatic process, the volume of an
ideal gas gets doubled. Consequently the mean F
collision time between the gas molecule
22.
Cp
changes from t1 to t2 . If = g for this gas
Cv
Consider a uniform cubical box of side a on a
t2 rough floor that is to be moved by applying
then a good estimate for t is given by :
1 minimum possible force F at a point b above
its centre of mass (see figure). If the coefficient
g+1
of friction is m = 0.4, the maximum possible
æ1ö 2
(1) ç ÷ (2) 2
è2ø b
value of 100 × for a box not to topple before
a
g
1 æ1ö moving is ______ .
(3) (4) ç ÷
2 è 2ø 23. The balancing length for a cell is 560 cm in
19. An ideal fluid flows (laminar flow) through a a potentiometer experiment. When an external
resistance of 10 W is connected in parallel to
pipe of non-uniform diameter. The maximum
and minimum diameters of the pipes are 6.4 cm
and 4.8 cm, respectively. The ratio of the
minimum and the maximum velocities of fluid
in this pipe is:
EN the cell, the balancing length changes by
60cm. If the internal resistance of the cell is
N
10
W , where N is an integer then value of N

3 3 81 9 is____ .
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4 256 16 r r r
24.
LL
The sum of two forces P and Q is R such that
20. An electron (of mass m) and a photon have the r r
same energy E in the range of a few eV. The R = P . The angle q (in degrees) that the

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ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength associated r r r
with the electron and the wavelength of the resultant of 2P and Q will make with Q
photon is (c = speed of light in vacuum) is, ____ .
25. M grams of steam at 100°C is mixed with
A

1/ 2
æ E ö
(1) ç ÷ 200 g of ice at its melting point in a thermally
è 2m ø
insulated container. If it produces liquid water
1/ 2
at 40°C [heat of vaporization of water is
1æ E ö 540 cal/ g and heat of fusion of ice is
(2) ç ÷
c è 2m ø 80 cal/g], the value of M is______.
(3) c(2mE)1/2 CHEMISTRY
1 æ 2E ö
1/ 2
1. Within each pair of elements of F & Cl , S &
(4) ç ÷ Se, and Li & Na, respectively, the elements that
cè m ø
release more energy upon an electron gain are-
21. A 60 pF capacitor is fully charged by a 20 V
supply. It is then disconnected from the supply (1) F, Se and Na
and is connected to another uncharged 60 pF (2) F, S and Li
capactior is parallel. The electrostatic energy
(3) Cl, S and Li
that is lost in this process by the time the charge
is redistributed between them is (in nJ) ____. (4) Cl, Se and Na
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ALLEN JEE (Main) Examination January-2020 13
2. The redox reaction among the following is : 6. Which of the following statements is correct-
(1) Combination of dinitrogen with dioxygen (1) Gluconic acid can form cyclic (acetal/
at 2000 K hemiacetal) structure
(2) Formation of ozone from atmosphereic (2) Gluconic acid is a partial oxidation product
oxygen in the presence of sunlight of glucose
(3) Gluconic acid is obtained by oxidation of
(3) Reaction of H2SO4 with NaOH
glucose with HNO3
(4) Reaction of [Co(H2O)6]Cl 3 with AgNO3
(4) Gluconic acid is a dicarboxylic acid
3. Among the statements(a)-(d), the incorrect 7. The bond order and the magnetic characteristics
ones are- of CN– are :
(a) Octahedral Co(III) complexes with strong (1) 3, diamagnetic
field ligands have very high magnetic
1
moments (2) 2 , paramagnetic
2
(b) When D0 < P, the d-electron configuration
(3) 3, paramagnetic
of Co(III) in an octahedral complex is t 4eg e2g
1
(4) 2 , diamagnetic
(c) Wavelength of light absorbed by 2

EN
[Co(en)3]3+ is lower than that of [CoF 6]3–
(d) If the D 0 for an octahedral complex of
Co(III) is 18,000 cm –1 , the D t for its
tetrahedral complex with the same ligand
will be 16,000 cm–1
8. The equation that is incorrect is -

(1) ( L 0m )NaBr - ( L 0m ) NaI = ( L m


0
)KBr - ( L0m )NaBr
(2) ( L m )H 2O = ( L m )HCl + ( L m )NaOH - ( L m )NaCl
0 0 0 0

(1) (a) and (b) only (3) ( L 0m )KCl - ( L m


0
)NaCl = ( Lm0 )KBr - ( L0m )NaBr
(2) (c) and (d) only
LL
(4) ( L 0m ) NaBr - ( L 0m )NaCl = ( L 0m )KBr - ( L 0m )KCl
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (a) and (d) only 9. In the following reaction sequence
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4. The number of possible optical isomers for the NH2


complexes MA2B2 with sp3 and dsp2 hybridised
Ac2O Br2
metal atom, respectively, is : A B
AcOH
A

Note : A and B are unidentate neutral and


unidentate monoanionic ligands, respectively CH3
(1) 0 and 0 (2) 0 and 2
the major products B is -
(3) 0 and 1 (4) 2 and 2
5. In the following reactions products(A) and (B), NHCOCH3 NHCOCH3
respectively , are : Br Br
NaOH + Cl2 ® (A) + side products (1) (2)
(hot and conc.)
CH3 CH 2Br
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 ® (B) + side products
(dry)
NHCOCH3 NHCOCH3
(1) NaClO3 and Ca(OCl)2
COCH3
(2) NaOCl and Ca(ClO3)2 (3) (4)
(3) NaClO3 and Ca(ClO3)2 Br
(4) NaOCl and Ca(OCl)2 CH3 CH3
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14 JEE (Main) Examination January-2020 ALLEN
10. Two open beakers one containing a solvent and 13. Identify the correct labels of A, B and C in the
the other containing a mixture of that solvent following graph from the options given below:
with a non volatile solute are together sealed A B
C
in a container. Over time - no.
(1) The volume of the solution does not change of
molecules
and the volume of the solvent decreases
(2) The volume of the solution decrease and the speed
volume of the solvent increases Root mean square speed (Vrms) ; most probable
(3) The volume of the solution increase and the speed (Vmp) ; Average speed (Vav.)
volume of the solvent decreases (1) A – Vrms ; B –Vmp ; C – Vav
(2) A – Vav ; B –Vrms ; C – Vmp
(4) The volume of the solution and the solvent
(3) A – Vmp ; B –Vrms ; C – Vav
does not change
(4) A – Vmp ; B –Vav ; C – Vrms
11. A chromatography column, packed with silica 14. Among the statements (a) - (d), the correct ones
gel as stationary phase, was used to separate a are -
mixture of compounds consisting of (A) (a) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide gives
benzanilide (B) aniline and (C) acetophenone.
When the column is eluted with a mixture of
solvents, hexane : ethyl acetate (20 : 80), the
sequence of obtained compounds :
(1) (B), (C) and (A)
EN dioxygen
(b) Like hydrogen peroxide, compounds , such
as KClO 3 , Pb(NO 3 ) 2 and NaNO 3 when
heated liberated dioxygen
(c) 2-Ethylanthraquinone is useful for the
industrial preparation of hydrogen peroxide.
(2) (C), (A) and (B) (d) Hydrogen peroxide is used for the
manufacture of sodium perborate
LL
(3) (A), (B) and (C)
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (B), (A) and (C)
(2) (a) and (c) only

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12. Consider the following reactions : (3) (a), (b) , (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only
(a) + Cl
anhyd.AlCl3
15. For the following reactions :
CH3CH2CH2Z + Br–
A

ks
tion
stitu
Cl Cl S ub
CH3CH2CH2 Br + Z—
anhyd.AlCl3 ke
+ Cl2 Cl Cl e lim
(b) dark i n at
i on
(excess) CH3CH=CH2 + HZ + Br –
Cl Cl where
CH3
anhyd.AlCl3
(c) + CH2=CH–Cl CH=CH2
Z = CH3CH2O (A) or H 3C–C–O— (B),
– –

CH3
(d) + CH2=CH–CH 2Cl
anhyd.AlCl3
CH2–CH=CH2 ks and ke , are , respectively, the rate constants
for the substitution and elimination, and
Which of these reactions are possible ?
ks
(1) (a) and (d) m= , the correct options is -
ke
(2) (b) and (d) (1) mB > mA and ke(B) > ke(A)
(2) mB > mA and ke(A) > ke(B)
(3) (a) and (b) (3) mA > mB and ke(B) > ke(A)
(4) (b) , (c) and (d) (4) mA > mB and ke(A) > ke(B)
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ALLEN JEE (Main) Examination January-2020 15
16. The refining method used when the metal and 20. For the reaction
the impurities have low and high melting 2H2(g) + 2NO(g) ® N2(g) + 2H2O(g)
temperatures, respectively, is - the observed rate expression is,
(1) zone refining rate = kf[NO] [H2]. The rate expression of the
2

(2) liquation reverse reaction is :


(3) vapour phase refining (1) kb[N2][H2O]2/[NO] (2) kb[N2][H2O]
(4) distillation (3) kb[N2][H2O]2 (4) kb[N2][H2O]2/[H2]
17. The correct order of stability for the following 21. Consider the following reactions :
alkoxides is : NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4(Conc.) ® (A) + Side
O– O– products
O–
O2N (A) + NaOH ® (B) + Side product
NO2 NO2 (B) + H2SO4(dilute) + H2O2 ® (C) + Side
(A) (B) (C)
product
(1) (C) > (B) > (A) (2) (C) > (A) > (B)
The sum of the total number of atoms in one
(3) (B) > (C) > (A) (4) (B) > (A) > (C)
molecule each of (A), (B) and (C) is
18. The ammonia (NH3) released on quantitative
22. 3g of acetic acid is added to 250 mL of
reaction of 0.6 g urea (NH 2 CONH 2 ) with
0.1 M HCl and the solution made up to 500 mL.
sodium hydroxide (NaOH) can be neutralized
by :
(1) 100 ml of 0.1 N HCl
(2) 200 ml of 0.4 N HCl
(3) 100 ml of 0.2 N HCl
(4) 200 ml of 0.2 N HCl
EN To 20 mL of this solution
1
2
mL of 5 M NaOH

is added. The pH of the solution is _____.


[Given : pKa of acetic acid = 4.75, molar mass
of acetic acid = 60 g/mol, log3 = 0.4771]
19. In the following reaction squence, structures of Neglect any changes in volume
A and B, respectively will be :
The standard heat of formation ( D f H 298 ) of
0
LL
23.
O ethane in (kJ/mol), if the heat of combustion
HBr Na
(intramolecular Product) B of ethane, hydrogen and graphite are –1560,
node06\B0B0-BA\Kota\JEE Main\JEE-Main January & September-2020 Booklet\English\01-January_JEE (Main) 2020-Paper_E

A
D Ether
–393.5 and –286 kJ/mol, respectively is
CH2Br
_______
OH 24. The flucculation value of HCl for arsenic
OH
A

sulphide sol. is 30 m mole L–1. If H2SO4 is used


(1)
Br
for the flocculation of arsenic sulphide, the
&
CH2Br amount, in grams, of H2SO4 in 250 ml required
Br for the above purpose is ______.
CH2Br (molecular mass of H2SO4 = 98 g/mol)
OH 25. The number of sp2 hybridised carbons present
(2) &
CH2Br O in "Aspartame" is ________.
MATHEMATICS
Br Br 1. Let y = y(x) be a function of x satisfying
(3)
OH
& y 1 - x 2 = k - x 1 - y 2 where k is a constant
CH2Br O
OH æ1ö 1 dy 1
OH and y ç ÷ = - . Then at x = , is equal to:
è2ø 4 dx 2
(4)
Br
& 5 5 2 5
CH2Br (1) (2) - (3) (4) -
2 2 5 4
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16 JEE (Main) Examination January-2020 ALLEN
2. The area (in sq. units) of the region 8. Let A = [aij] and B = [bij] be two 3 × 3 real
{(x, y) Î R2|4x2 £ y £ 8x + 12) is : matrices such that b ij = (3) (i + j – 2) a ji, where
i, j = 1, 2, 3. If the determinant of B is 81, then
127 125 124 128 the determinant of A is :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3 3 (1) 3 (2) 1/3 (3) 1/81 (4) 1/9
r r r 9. Let a1, a 2, a3,… be a G.P. such that a 1 < 0,
3. Let a , b and c be three units vectors such that
r r r r r r r r rr 9
a + b + c = 0 . If l = a ·b + b·c + c·a and a1 + a2 = 4 and a3 + a4 = 16. If åa i = 4l , then
r r r r r r r i =1

d = a ´ b + b ´ c + c ´ a , then the ordered pair, l is equal to :


r
(l,d) is equal to : 511
(1) –171 (2) 171 (3) (4) –513
3
æ 3 r rö æ 3 r rö
(1) ç - ,3a ´ b ÷ (2) ç - ,3c ´ b ÷ 10. Let A, B, C and D be four non-empty sets.
è 2 ø è 2 ø
The contrapositive statement of "If A Í B and
B Í D, then A Í C" is :
æ 3 r rö æ 3 r rö
(3) ç ,3b ´ c ÷ (4) ç ,3a ´ c ÷ (1) If A Í C, then B Ì A or D Ì B
è2 ø è2 ø

4. If the sum of the first 40 terms of the series,


3 + 4 + 8 + 9 + 13 + 14 + 18 +19 +… is (102)m,
then m is equal to :
(1) 20 (2) 5 (3) 10
EN
(4) 25
(2) If AË C , then AË B or BË D

(3) If AË C , then A Í B and B Í D

(4) If AË C , then AË B and B Í D

5. The value of c in the Lagrange's mean value 11. If 3x + 4y = 12 2 is a tangent to the ellipse
theorem for the function f(x) = x3 – 4x2 + 8x + 11,
x 2 y2
when x Î [0, 1] is : + = 1 for some a Î R, then the distance
LL
a2 9
2 7 -2 between the foci of the ellipse is :
(1) (2)

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3 3 (1) 4 (2) 2 7 (3) 2 5 (4) 2 2

2
4- 5 4- 7
(3) (4) 12. The value of a for which 4a ò e -a|x|dx = 5 , is :
3 3
A

-1

6. If q1 and q2 be respectively the smallest and the


æ3ö æ4ö
largest values of q in (0, 2p) – {p} which satisfy (1) loge ç ÷ (2) loge ç ÷
è2ø è3ø
the equation, 5
2 cot 2 q - + 4 = 0 , then (3) loge2 (4) loge 2
sin q
13. The coefficient of x7 in the expression
q2 (1 + x)10 + x (1 + x)9 + x2 (1 + x)8 +…+ x10 is :
ò cos 3qdq is equal to :
2
(1) 120 (2) 330 (3) 210 (4) 420
q1
14. Let a and b be the roots of the equation
x2 – x – 1 = 0. If pk = (a)k + (b)k, k ³ 1, then
2p p 1 p p
(1) (2) + (3) (4) which one of the following statements is not
3 3 6 9 3
true ?
7. The number of ordered pairs (r, k) for which (1) (p1 + p2 + p3 + p4 + p5) = 26
6·35Cr = (k2 – 3)·36Cr + 1, where k is an integer, (2) p5 = 11
is : (3) p3 = p5 – p4
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6 (4) p5 = p2 · p3

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ALLEN JEE (Main) Examination January-2020 17
15. The locus of the mid-points of the 20. Let the tangents drawn from the origin to the
perpendiculars drawn from points on the line, circle, x2 + y2 – 8x – 4y + 16 = 0 touch it at the
x = 2y to the line x = y is : points A and B. The (AB)2 is equal to :
(1) 2x – 3y = 0 (2) 7x – 5y = 0
52
(3) 5x – 7y = 0 (4) 3x – 2y = 0 (1)
5
3 + isin q
16. If , qÎ[0,2 p] , is a real number, then
4 - i cos q 32
(2)
an argument of sinq + icosq is : 5

-1 æ 3 ö -1 æ 4 ö 56
(1) - tan ç ÷ (2) tan ç ÷ (3)
è4ø è3ø 5

-1 æ 4 ö -1 æ 3 ö 64
(3) p - tan ç ÷ (4) p - tan ç ÷ (4)
è3ø è4ø 5
17. Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the 21. If the system of linear equations,

di fferent ial equa tio n,

satisfying y(0) = 1. This curve intersects the


x-axis at a point whose abscissa is :
(1) 2 + e (2) 2 (3) 2 – e
EN
(y 2 - x)

(4) –e
dy
dx
= 1, x+y+z=6
x + 2y + 3z = 10
3x + 2y + lz = m
has more two solutions, then m – l2 is equal to
18. Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree 5 such that ________
x = ±1 are its critical points. If
æ 1 1ö
LL
æ f(x) ö 22. If the function f defined on ç - , ÷ by
lim ç 2 + 3 ÷ = 4 , then which one of the è 3 3ø
x ®0 è x ø
node06\B0B0-BA\Kota\JEE Main\JEE-Main January & September-2020 Booklet\English\01-January_JEE (Main) 2020-Paper_E

following is not true? ì1 æ 1 + 3x ö


ï log e ç ÷ , when x ¹ 0
(1) f is an odd function f(x) = í x è 1 - 2x ø
ï ,whenx = 0
(2) x = 1 is a point of minima and x = –1 îk
A

is a point of maxima of f.
is continuous, then k is equal to_______
(3) x = 1 is a point of maxima and x = –1
23. If the mean and variance of eight numbers
is a point of minimum of f.
3, 7, 9, 12, 13, 20, x and y be 10 and 25
(4) f(1) – 4f(–1) = 4 respectively, then x·y is equal to_____
19. In a workshop, there are five machines and the
24. If the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the
probability of any one of them to be out of
point (1, 0, 3) on a line passing through (a, 7, 1)
1
service on a day is . If the probability that at æ 5 7 17 ö
4 is ç , , ÷ , then a is equal to_____
è3 3 3 ø
most two machines will be out of service on the
3 25. Let X = {n Î N : 1 £ n £ 50}. If
æ3ö
same day is ç ÷ k , then k is equal to : A = {n Î X : n is a multiple of 2} and
è4ø
B = {n Î X : n is a multiple of 7}, then the
17 17 17 number of elements in the smallest subset of X
(1) (2) 4 (3) (4)
2 8 4 containing both A and B is_____
E

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