SAMPLE TEST

Make the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions
Question 1: A. needs B. opens C. looks D. sings
Question 2: A. academic B. grade C. behave D. examination
Make the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions
Question 3: A. extreme B. lucky C. rapid D. happy
Question 4: A. pollution B. computer C. currency D. allowance
Make the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions
Question 5: Tom invited us to come to his party, __________?
A. hadn't he B. couldn't he C. wasn't he D. didn't he
Question 6: In the U.S, white represents goodness and is usually __________color of __________
bride’s wedding dress.
A. a – a B. a – the C. the – a D. the – the
Question 7: Only a few of the many species__________risk of extinction actually make it to the
lists and obtain legal protection.
A. in B. on C. at D. with
Question 8: A new TV show has sparked __________by showing the positive side of dropping out
of college.
A. controversy B. argument C. contention D. debate
Question 9: It would be to your advantage in the interview to prepare questions__________.
A. by chance B. on the whole C. in advance D. for short
Question 10: In order to __________their goals in college, students need to invest the maximum
amount of time, money, and energy in their studies.
A. manage B. catch C. establish D. achieve
Question 11: I applied for that position but was __________.
A. taken away B. got over C. turned down D. turned off
Question 12: He is exhausted. He __________around the whole afternoon trying to clean the house
before the guests arrive.
A. has been running B. has run C. be running D. was running
Question 13: The children are really getting in my_________. Tell them to go and play out side.
A. hair B. nerves C. mouth D. books
Question 14: If the weather is fine this weekend, we __________ to see our grandparents.
A. were going B. will go C. would do D. went
Question 15: The teacher told the students __________ an essay on the positive and negative
effects that modern technology has on children.
A. to write B. to be written C.write D. writing
Question 16: Some candidates failed the oral examination because they didn't have
enough__________ .
A. confide B. confident C. confidential D. confidence
Question 17: Many of the pictures __________ from outer space are presently on display in the
public library.
A. to send B. sent C. sending D. were be sent
Question 18: __________, remember to bring some sample of your work.
A. At the time you are attending the interview B. As soon as you attend the interview
C. After you attend the interview D. When you attend the interview
Question 19: He was offered the job__________ his qualifications were poor.
A. despite B. in spite of C. even though D. Whereas

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Elephants will die out if man continues killing them.
A. get progress B. become extinct C. become polluted D. become populous
Question 21: The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water.
A. surprised B. existed C. died D. survived
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: After five days on trial, the court found him innocent of the crime and he was
released.
A. benevolent B. innovative C. naive D. guilty
Question 23: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about.”
A. behaving improperly B. behaving nice C. behaving cleverly
D. good behavior
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Before a job interview, Cindy is the person who is called for the first interview.
Mary: “Good luck to you!” Cindy: “________________________”
A. Thank you! B. That is a nice compliment.
C. I am sorry. D. I agree with you.
Question 25: John and Mary meet each other after class.
John: “How about having a swim in the river?” Mary: “_____________________”
A. That's a good idea. B. Sorry. I don’t know.
C. You must be kidding! D. You are so kind.
Read the following passage and make the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word to each of the blanks from 26 to 30
Books which give instructions on how to do things are very popular in the United States today.
Thousands of these How-to books are useful.In fact, there are about four thousand books (26)
_________ titles that begin the words “How to”. One book may tell you how to earn more
money.Another may tell you how to save or spend it, and another may (27) _________ how to give
your money away.
Many How-to books give advice on careers. They tell you how to choose a career and how to
succeed in it. If you fail, however, you can buy the book “How to Turn Failure into (28)
_________”. If you would like to become very rich, you can buy the book “How to Make a
Milionaire”.If you never make any money all, you may need a book called “How to Live on
Nothing”.
One of the most popular types of books is one that helps you with personal problems. If you
want to have a better love of life, you can read “How to Succeed in love every Minute of Your
Life”. If you are tired of books on happiness, you may prefer books (29) _________ give step-by-
step instructions on how to redecorate or enlarge a house.
Why have How-to books become so popular? (30) _________ because life has become so
complex.Today people have far more free time to use, more choices to make, and more problems to
solve. How-to books help people deal with modern life.
Question 26: A. in B. with C. for D. on
Question 27: A. explain B. pay C. learn D. take
Question 28: A. Succeed B. Success C. Succession D. Successful
Question 29: A. whom B. which C. who D. whose
Question 30: A. Probability B. Probable C. Probably D. Improbable
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 43.
Rachel Carson was born in 1907 in Springsdale, Pennsylvania. She studied biology in college
and zoology at Johns Hopkins University, where she received her master’s degree in 1933. In 1936,
she was hired by the US Fish and Wildlife Service, where she worked most of her life.
Carson’s first book, Under the Sea Wind, was published in 1941. It received excellent reviews,
but sales were poor until it was reissued in 1952. In that year, she published The Sea Around Us,
which provided a fascinating look beneath the ocean’s surface, emphasizing human history as well
as geology and marine biology. Her imagery and language had a poetic quality. Carson consulted no
less than 1,000 printed sources. She had voluminous correspondence and frequent discussions with
experts in the field. However, she always realized the limitations of her non-technical readers.
In 1962, Carson published Silence Spring, a book that sparked considerable controversy. It
proved how much harm was done by the uncontrolled, reckless use of insecticides. She detailed
how they poison the food supply of animals, kill birds, and contaminate human food. At that time,
spokesmen for the chemical industry mounted personal attacks against Carson and issued
propaganda to indicate that her findings were flawed. However, her work was vindicated by a 1963
report of the President’s Science Advisory Committee.
Question 31. The passage mainly discusses Rachel Carson’s work ________
A. at college B. at the US Fish and Wildlife Service
C. as a writer D. as a researcher
Question 32. According to the passage, what did Carson primarily study at Johns Hopkins
University?
A. oceanography B. zoology C. literature D. history
Question 33. When she published her first book, Carson was closest to the age of
A. 26 B. 29 C. 34 D. 45
Question 34. The word “reckless” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________
A. unnecessary B. limited C. continuous D. irresponsible
Question 35. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a source of information
for The Sea Around Us?
A. printed matter B. talks with experts
C. a research expedition D. letters from scientists
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Fertilizer is any substance that can be added to the soil to provide chemical
elements essential for plant nutrition. Natural substances such as animal droppings and straw have
been used as fertilizers for thousands of years, and lime has been used since the Romans introduced
it during the Empire. It was not until the nineteenth century, in fact, that chemical fertilizers became
popular. Today, both natural and synthetic fertilizers are available in a variety of forms.
A complete fertilizer is usually marked with a formula consisting of three numbers, such as
4-8-2 or 3-6-4, which designate the percentage content of nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and potash in
the order stated. Synthetic fertilizers are available in either solid or liquid form. Solids, in the shape
of chemical granules are popular because they are easy to store and apply. Recently, liquids have
shown an increase in popularity, accounting for about 20 percent of the nitrogen fertilizer used
throughout the world. Formerly, powders were also used, but these were found to be less convenient
than either solids or liquids.
 Fertilizers have no harmful effects on the soil, the crop, or the consumer as long as they are
used according to recommendations based on the results of local research. Occasionally, however,
farmers may use more fertilizer than necessary, damaging not only the crop but also the animals or
humans that eat it. Accumulations of fertilizer in the water supply accelerate the growth of algae
and, consequently, may disturb the natural cycle of life, contributing to the death of fish. Too much
fertilizer on grass can cause digestive disorders in cattle and in infants who drink cow’s milk.
Question 36. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Local research and harmful effects of fertilizer
B. Advantages and disadvantages of liquid fertilizer
C. A formula for the production of fertilizer
D. Content, form, and effects of fertilizer
Question 37. When did chemical fertilizers become popular?
A. in the 16th century B. in the 19th century
C. in the 18th century D. in the 17th century
Question 38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as natural substances in the passage?
A. lime B. straw C. animal droppings D. chemical granules
Question 39. Which of the following has the smallest percentage content in the formula 4-8-2?
A. nitrogen B. phosphorus C. acid D. potash
Question 40. What is the percentage of nitrogen in a 5-8-7 formula fertilizer?
A. 5 percent B. 3 percent C. 7 percent D. 8 percent
Question 41. The word “essential” in paragraph 1could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. limited B. preferred C. anticipated D. required
Question 42. What happens when too much fertilizer is used?
A. Local research teams provide recommendations.
B. Algae in the water supplies begin to die.
C. Animals and humans may become ill.
D. Crops have no harmful effects.
Make the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following sentences
Question 43: Fifty minutes are the maximum length of time allotted for the exam.
A. are B. length C. maximum D. allotted
Question 44: That film was so depressed! There was no happy ending for any of the characters.
A. was B. depressed C. happy D. for
Question 45: He would prefer playing outdoor games rather than stay at home to listen to music.
A. would B. playing C. stay D.to listen
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: “I will come back early. I really will!”. She said.
A. She promised to come back early. B. She reminded me to come back early.
C. She refused to come back early. D. She offered to come back early.
Question 47: No one in our club can speak English as fluently as Mai.
A. Mai is the worst English speaker in our club.
B. Mai speaks English the most fluently in our club.
C. Mai speaks English as fluently as other people in our club.
D. Mai speaks English more fluently than no one in our club.
Question 48: He should have listened to your advice.
A. It was essential that he listen to your advice but he didn’t.
B. It was likely that he could have listened to your advice.
C. I could guess he might have taken your advice.
D. He needn’t have listened to your advice.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49: John used to live in Spain for ten years. He speaks Spanish fluently now.
A. John could not speak Spanish fluently now if he had not lived in Spain for ten years.
B. Provided that John lived in Spain for ten years, he could speak Spanish fluently now.
C. Unless John had lived in Spain for ten years, he could not have spoken Spanish fluently now.
D. Suppose John has lived in Spain for ten years, he can speak Spanish fluently now.
Question 50: The storm was so great. Many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.
A. Although the storm was not great, many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.
B. So great was the storm that many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.
C. Many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city in spite of the great storm.
D. It was so a great storm that many families had to be evacuated to safer parts of the city.

THE END.