MCQs on Dental Materials - Metallurgy

All of the following statements about cast cobalt alloys are true EXCEPT:
A. They have a modulus of elasticity twice that of gold alloys
B. They are more rigid than gold alloys
C. They have higher ductility than gold alloys
D. They have a lower proportional limit than gold alloys

# The contraction of gold alloys on solidifying is approximately:

A. 0.4%
B. 1.4%
C. 2.4%
D. 3.4%

# Addition of large amounts of platinum to a casting gold alloy will:

A. Decrease its strength and ability to be hardened
B. Decrease its tarnish resistance
C. Increase its fusion temperature
D. Redden the alloy

# The pattern for the metallic framework of a removable partial denture is

fabricated from:
A. Inlay wax type-II
B. Boxing wax
C. Modelling wax
D. Casting wax

# Ideal requirement of metal-ceramic casting:

A. Low fusing ceramic and high fusing alloys
B. Matching of coefficients of thermal expansion of ceramics and alloy
C. Bonding between ceramic and alloy
D. All of the above

# Gap between true end of casting ring and wax pattern should be:
A. 1/4 inch
B. 1/2 inch
C. 3/8 inch
D. One inch

# Which of the following is correct:

A. Type I and Type II gold can be heat treated and annealed
B. Type III and Type IV gold can be heat treated and annealed
C. Type I and IV gold can be heat treated and annealed
D. All the type of gold can be heat treated and annealed

# What is the use of boxing an impression:

A. Ease of construction of denture
B. Preserving the sulci
C. Ease of pouring an impression
D. All of the above

# The strength of a gypsum investment is dependent on:

A. Carbon content
B. Silica content
C. Gypsum
D. Copper

# Resistance to corrosion in a cobalt-chrome casting is due to presence of:

A. High quality iron
B. Chrome
C. Cobalt
D. Nickel

# The main form of iron carbide found in 18-8 steel:

A. Martensite
B. Ferrite
C. Austenite
D. Pearlite

# Flux is used during casting to:

A. Remove the oxides formed on the gold alloy
B. Lower the melting point
C. Replace casting wax
D. Speed the burnout process

# NiTi alloys have:

A. Shape memory
B. Hyper rigidity
C. Corrosion resistance
D. Weldable properties

# The maximum carbon content of steel used in dentistry is:

A. 19%
B. 2%
C. 1.7%
D. 4%

# Pickling:
A. Is accomplished by soakirng the casting in baking soda
B. Causes porosity in gold
C. Removes surface oxides from gold castings
D. Remove investment from gold casting
# Wax pattern is ideally invested immediately to decrease the dimensional
changes caused by:
A. Decrease flow
B. Continuous expansion
C. Relaxation of the internal stresses
D. Water loss

# Bending orthodontic wire at room temperature is an example of:

A. Tempering
B. Work/ Strain hardening
C. Age hardening
D. Precipitation hardening

# The most commonly used Titanium alloy for dental and medical purposes
is:
A. Ti 6Al 4V
B. Ti 5Al 4V
C. Ti 5Al 5V
D. Ti 6Al 6V

# A thinner mix of a gypsum-bonded investment will:

A. Produce a smoother casting
B. Decrease setting expansion
C. Increase setting expansion
D. Increase thermal expansion

# Cobalt-Chromium alloys contains:

A. 30% cobalt and 60% chromium
B. 60% cobalt and 30% chromium
C. 1 % palladium
D. 20% gold

# Which one of the following is most elastic?

A. Alpha titanium
B. Beta titanium
C. Chrome-cobalt-nickel
D. Nickel titanium

# Gypsum bonded investment should not be heated over:

A. 700°c
B. 1300°C
C. 1063°C
D. 900°C

# Cleaning of base metal alloy is done by:

A. Warm HCl
B. Cold HF
C. Cold H2S04
D. Sand blasting with aluminium oxide

# Glossy smooth margins of a casting are due to:

A. Shrinkage of alloy on cooling
B. Investment breakdown
C. Incomplete wax elimination
D. Incomplete gas elimination

# Which of the following zones is used for melting alloy during casting?
A. Reducing flame
B. Oxidizing flame
C. Green flame
D. All of the above

# Incomplete casting is the result of:

A. More porous investment in the mould
B. Narrow sprue diameter
C. Hollow sprue pin
D. Large reservoir

# Back pressure porosity can be avoided by:

A. Using asbestos liners
B. Placing the sprue at least one quarter inch away from the end of casting ring
C. Preventing rapid heating the investment in burnout oven
D. Using a short and wide sprue

# Mouth temperature waxes are:

A. Iowa wax
B. Modeling wax
C. Green stick wax
D. None of the above

# Setting expansion is advantageous in:

A. Casts
B. Models
C. Investment
D. Dies

# Tempering of steel cause:

A. increases its toughness
B. increases hardness
C. increases ductility
D. decreases its toughness

# Indium in metal alloys:

A. Improve bonding
B. Harden the metal ceramic Ag-Pd alloy
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

# In a patient with allergy to costume jewelry, which of the following is

contraindicated:
A. High gold
B. Low gold
C. Palladium - Ag
D. Ni - Cr

# Which of the following will produce the most rigid restoration for
framework of same dimension?
A. Wrought alloy
B. Palladium alloys
C. Cobalt-chrome alloys
D. Partial denture casting gold in hardened condition

# Turbulence of molten gold is due to:

A. Impurities in gold
B. Improper venting
C. A and B
D. None of the above

# Apart from composites and ceramics, another material that could be copy
milled easily and inexpensively is:
A. Molybdenum
B. Germanium
C. Titanium
D. Chromium

# A highly polished surface on a metallic dental restoration aids

considerably in the prevention of the:
A. Dimensional change
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Warpage
D. Tarnish and corrosion

# Austenite is an alloy of iron and carbon with the iron in:

A. Alpha form
B. Beta form
C. Gamma form
D. None of the above

# The yield strength of Austenite (NiTi alloy) is:

A. 100 Mpa
B. 240 Mpa
C. 560 Mpa
D. 700 Mpa

# Which zone is the hottest and efficient burning zone of the flame used for
casting?
A. Oxidizing zone
B. Reducing zone
C. Combustion zone
D. None of the above

# Stabilization of stain less steel is achieved by adding:

A. Carbon
B. Chromium
C. Nickel
D. Titanium

# Localised shrinkage porosity is seen when there:

A. Thin sprue
B. No reservoir
C. Investment heated strongly
D. Inadequate air discharge

# The function of a sprue is to:

A. Form an opening for molten metal to enter the mold
B. Help polish cast restorations
C. Eliminate air bubbles on the wax pattern
D. Reproduce fine detail

# Sub surface porosity can be decreased by:

A. Decreasing the sprue length
B. Decreasing the sprue thickness
C. Increasing the melting temperature
D. Increasing the mould temperature

# Softening heat treatment of alloy increases:

A. Tensile strength
B. Proportional limit
C. Ductility
D. Hardness

# The inlay wax most commonly used for direct technique:

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4

# Reduction in the fusion temperature of dental gold casting alloys is

caused by presence of:
A. Platinum
B. Copper
C. Silver
D. Gold

# The purity of gold is expressed in:

A. Carats
B. Percentage
C. Fineness
D. Gram

# Function of carnauba wax:

A. To provide a smooth and glossy surface
B. Increase toughness
C. Decrease toughness
D. Decrease flow at room temperature

# In a metal ceramic crown for a FPD the function of tin, indium which are
readily oxidized minor constituents is to:
A. Improve bonding
B. Decrease porosity
C. They react with the porcelain opaque layer, which masks the metal
D. Improves the thermal expansion between the metal and porcelain

# The porosity formed due to simultaneous nucleation of solid grains and

gas bubbles at the first moment that metal freezes at the mold walls is
called:
A. Pinhole porosity
B. Gas inclusion porosity
C. Micro porosity
D. Subsurface porosity

# Investment material used for cobalt-chromium alloys is:

A. Gypsum bonded
B. Phosphate bonded
C. Silica bonded
D. None of the above

# The standard perforated tray for use with alginate impression materials
may be brought to more customized contour by:
A. Utility wax
B. Base plate wax
C. Beading wax
D. Boxing wax

# Silica sol:
 A. Is applied to the walls of the investment to produce hygroscopic expansion
B. Increase the strength and the setting expansion of the phosphate-bonded
investments
C. Acts as a retarder in the silica bonded investments
D. Acts as a refract ory in the silica bonded investments

# The base constituents of dental waxes come from three main sources
except:
A. Animal
B. Mineral
C. Insect
D. Vegetable

# Boxing wax is also called as:

A. Carding wax
B. Inlay wax
C. Utility wax
D. Sticky wax

# Stainless steel is used mostly in dentistry:

A. To strength amalgam
B. In orthodontic wires
C. To construct clasps for partial dentures
D. To replace internal gold restorations

# Shape memory in NiTi is because of stress induced form:

A. Austenite to martensite
B. Martensite to austenite
C. Ferrite to austenite
D. Austenite to ferrite

# A common electrolyte used for plating copper in direct dies is:

A. Copper cyanide
B. Ionic copper
C. Acidic copper sulfate
D. Silver cyanide

# Casting shrinkage is compensated by:

A. Thermal expansion
B. Hygroscopic expansion
C. Wax expansion
D. All of the above

# Waxes are used for:

A. Primary impression
B. Corrective impressions
C. Impression of single tooth
D. None of the above

# The gold alloys used for casting contain at least _______ percent of
precious metal according to ADA specification number 5:
A. 55
B. 65
C. 75
D. 85

# Passivating alloys are:

A. Cr, Al, Ti
B. Cr, Mo, Ti
C. Cr, Gold, Ti
D. Cr, Fe, Ti

# Impurities in casting is removed by:

A. Annealing
B. Degassing
C. Pickling
D. Conditioning

# Which of the following refractory is used to counteract most of the

expansion?
A. Quartz
B. Cristobalite
C. Tridymite
D. Corundum

# Shape memory is seen in:

A. Stain less steel wire
B. NITINOL wire
C. TMA wire
D. Aluminium

# Crucible indicated for casting base metal alloys is:

A. Carbon crucible
B. Clay crucible
C. Quartz crucible
D. High melting plastic crucible

# The best pickling solution for gypsum bonded investment is:

A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Nitric acid
C. Sulphuric acid
D. Phosphoric acid

# Heat hardening is the process done at:

A. Heating 750°C and slowly cooling to zero degrees
B. Heating quickly upto 450°C followed by sudden quenching
C. Heating upto 250°C for 15 to 30 min
D. Heating at 750° C and then quenching to room temperature

# Corrosion of stainless steel is due to formulation of:

A. Chromium carbide
B. Carbon carbide
C. Iron carbide
D. Nickel carbide

# Titanium casting is done:

A. Under vacuum in argon atmosphere
B. Under air pressme in nitrogen atmosphere
C. In specially fabricated aluminum vanadium crucibles
D. Using CAD-CAM technique

# The rapid decrease in tensile strength and increase in ductility of a

wrought metal is seen in which stage of annealing?
A. Recovery stage
B. Recrystallisation stage
C. Grain growth stage
D. All of the above

# Gold content of an 18 carat alloy is:

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

# Which one of the following categories of dental materials has the highest
thermal conductivity?
A. Unfilled acrylic plastics
B. Gold alloys
C. Porcelains
D. Zinc phosphate cements

# The sprue in wax pattern should be placed:

A. At right angle
B. At 45° angle
C. At obtuse angle
D. It depend upon type of wax pattern

# Most biocompatible material in oral cavity is:

A. Platinum
B. Palladium
C. Titanium
D. Gold

# Quartz in investment material is added for:

A. Strength
B. Expansion components for casting shrinkage
C. Decrease strength
D. Contraction

# Which of the waxes are derived from the lignite?

A. Paraffin wax
B. Inlay wax
C. Microcrystalline wax
D. Montan wax

# Inlay wax is used to:

A. Temporarily cement inlays
B. Make inlay wax patterns
C. Invest inlay patterns
D. Box models

# Silver plated dyes use an electrolytic bath of:

A. Silver fluorides
B. Silver cyanide
C. Silver bromide
D. Silver iodide

# 18-8 Stainless steel orthodontic wire has:

A. 18% Nickel 8% Chromium
B. 18% Chromium 8% Nickel
C. 18% Chromium 8% Cobalt
D. 18% carbon 8% Iron

# Suck back porosity is due to:

A. Attached impurities on undersurface of casting
B. Hot spot
C. No rapid cooling
D. Inadequate melting temperature

# Disadvantage of having a short sprue is:

A. Rapid solidification of metal
B. No place for reservoirs
C. Incomplete evacuation of gases
D. Difficulty in removing casting from investment

# Air bubbles formed on the surface of casting is probably due to:

A. Improper casting pressure
B. Improper heating of the investment
C. Improper angulations of sprue
D. Improper wetting of the wax pattern by the investment

# Who was the first person to introduce cast inlay restoration into
dentistry?
A. William H Taggart
B. Buonocore
C. G.V. Black
D. Bowen

# Asbestos liner is used in a casting ring to:

A. Facilitate venting of the mold
B. Retard the heating of the investment
C. Permit expansion of the mold
D. All the above

# The main ingredient of inlay wax is:

A. Candellila wax
B. Paraffin wax
C. Carnauba wax
D. Gum dammar

# Which of the following decrease with strain hardening?

A. surface hardness
B. strength
C. proportion limit
D. corrosion resistance

# Casting flux is used to:

A. Prevent the oxidation of the metal during melting
B. Increase the melting point of the flux
C. Prevent the contamination of the metal and the liner
D. All of the above

# Suck back porosity in the casting can be eliminated by:

A. Increasing the mould metal temperature difference
B. Increasing the flow of molten metal
C. Flaring the point of the sprue attachment
D. None of the above

# Gases dissolved in molten metals are liberated when cooled giving rise to:
A. Suckback porosity
B. Gas inclusion porosity
C. Localized shrinkage porosity
D. Microporosity

# The component in very minor quantity in stainless steel that changes the
properties to a maximum level is:
A. Carbon
B. Molybdenum
C. Chromium
D. Nickel

# Percentage of gold in high noble alloy is:

A. less than 25%
B. 25%
C. greater than 40%
D. 0%

# Binder used in Gypsum investment is:

A. Silica
B. Quartz
C. Cristobalite
D. Calcium sulphate monohydrate

# Which of the following is function of fluoride flux in soldering process?

A. It prevents the formation of copper oxide
B. It prevents the formation of chromium oxide or dissolves chromic oxide Layer
C. It prevents the flow of material in undesirable area
D. Increases the strength of solder

# Nickel-Titanium alloy has:

A. unreliable spring back
B. low spring back
C. minimal spring back
D. none of the above

# The deoxidizing agent added to dental alloys is:

A. Palladium
B. Silver
C. Copper
D. Zinc

# Advantage of titanium over other base metal alloys:

A. Low weight
B. Low cost
C. Low strength
D. Low melting point

# Function of wetting agents used in casting procedure is:

A. To felicitate wetting of ring liner
B. To felicitate mixing investment
C. To reduce contact angle of a liquid with wax surface
D. For better wax elimination
# The rate of tarnish and corrosion of class II cast material having VHN 200
is:
A. 0%
B. 2 to 3%
C. 5 to 10%
D. Less than 1%

# Component of inlay wax which makes it flake resistant is:

A. Paraffin
B. Carnauba
C. Gum dammar
D. Candelila

# Microstructure of cobalt chromium alloy in cast condition is:

A. fibrous
B. homogeneous
C. inhomogeneous
D. amorphous

# Within an hour after cementation of cast gold on lay patient complains of

shooting pain every time the teeth comes together. Most probable
explanation is?
A. Supraocclusion of restoration
B. Retained cement in gingival sulcus
C. Excess acid in mix
D. Galvanic current caused by gold onlay occluding with a large restoration

# Dendrites in cast alloys form by mechanism of:

A. constitutional superconductivity
B. constitutional supercooling
C. constitutional supergriting
D. constitutional supergraining

# Which one of the following elements is NOT added in small amount to be

used as grain refiners?
A. Iridium
B. Ruthinium
C. Indium
D. Platinum

# Compared with noble metals, base metals show:

A. Increased hardness
B. Increased ductility
C. Better biocompatibility
D. Increased density
# Binder in Phosphate bonded investment is:
A. Magnesium oxide and Phosphate
B. Magnesium oxide and Phosphoric acid
C. Magnesium oxide and Monoammonium phosphate
D. Magnesium oxide and Ortho Phosphoric acid

# Mechanical properties of Commercially Titanium are similar to alloys:

A. type III and type IV gold
B. type V and type VI gold
C. type VII and type VIII gold
D. none of the above

# Which of the following fuel gases used for soldering, has the highest heat
content?
A. Hydrogen
B. Natural gas
C. Acetylene
D. Propane

# The effects associated with cold working can be eliminated by a heat

treatment called:
A. Age hardening heat treatment
B. Annealing heat treatment
C. Homogenization heat treatment
D. Solution heat treatment

# Which of the following increases castability of base metal alloys?

A. Tin
B. Beryllium
C. Molybdenum
D. Carbon

# With indirect spruing, which one of the following porosities can be

minimised?
A. Back pressure porosity
B. localized shrinkage porosity
C. Pinhole porosity
D. Micro porosity

# During soldering, the solidus temperature of the filler material should

be:
A. Greater than the substrate material
B. Lesser than the substrate material
C. Equal to the substrate material
D. Temperature not relevant

# The linear solidification shrinkage of Type IV Ni-Cr based alloys is:

A. 2.3%
B. 1.56%
C. 1.37%
D. 3%

# The solvent flux used for base metal soldering is:

A. Boric acid
B. Borax
C. Fluoride
D. Rouge

# Which of the following cast gold alloys is used for fabricating partial
denture frameworks?
A. Type I - Soft
B. Type II - Hard
C. Type III - Hard
D. Type IV - Extra Hard

# In base metal alloys, corrosion resistance occurs due to:

A. Passivity
B. High fusion temperature
C. High molecular weight
D. Co-efficient of thermal expansion

# Modern dental noble metal casting alloys generally have equiaxed fine
grain structures because of the incorporation of small amounts of:
A. Chromium
B. Indium
C. Iridium
D. Palladium

# The castability of chromium-cobalt base metal alloys when compared to

gold based noble metal alloys is:
A. More
B. Less
C. Equal
D. Depends on the alloy type

# Nickel is added to wrought gold alloys as:

A. Strengthener
B. Hardener
C. Whitens the alloy
D. Scavenger

# Fins and spines on the casting is seen due to:

A. Prolonged heating
B. Rapid heating rate
C. Water film contamination
D. Too high pressure during casting

# Stages of annealing in order:

A. Recovery, recrystallization, grain growth
B. Recrystallization, recovery, grain growth
C. Grain growth, Recrystallization, recovery
D. Melting point, Grain growth, Recrystallization

# Solder and flux used for joining Elgiloy wires are:

A. Gold solder and borax flux
B. Gold solder and fluoride flux
C. Silver solder and borax flux
D. Silver solder and fluoride flux

# Dr. Taggart is associated with:

A. Discovery of Ceramics
B. Lost wax technique
C. Acid etch technique
D. Bleaching procedures

# Which of the following fuel gases is the best choice of heat source to carry
out soldering process?
A. Propane
B. Acetylene
C. Natural gas
D. Hydrogen

# The term ordered hardening heat treatment used in which of the

following dental alloys?
A. Gold-Copper
B. Nickel-Chromium
C. Nickel-Titanium
D. Silver-Palladium

# The best fuel gas when used with oxygen is:

A. Hydrogen
B. Natural gas
C. Propane
D. Acetylene

# Linear coefficient of thermal expansion of metal used for metal ceramic

restoration range from:
A. 11.5-12.5x10-6/°C
B. 10.5-11.5x10-6/°C
C. 13.5-14.5x10-6/°C
D. 16.5-17.5x10-6/°C
# Annealing is also known as:
A. Soft hardening treatment
B. Hard hardening treatment
C. Precipitating heat treatment
D. Stress relieving heat treatment

# Quartz is added to gypsum bonded investment to:

A. Increase the strength
B. Counter balance contraction of gypsum during heating
C. aid in hygroscopic expansion
D. increase the shelf life of investment

# Chromium is used in stainless steel for which purpose?

A. Corrosion resistance
B. Increases the lustre of stainless steel
C. Stabilization of the alloy
D. Increases the hardness of steel

# The best bio-compatible dental casting alloy is:

A. Co-Cr
B. Ni-Cr
C. Titanium alloy
D. Gold

# Which of the following characteristics of inlay wax is its major

disadvantage?
A. Flow
B. Rigidity
C. High thermal expansion
D. Low thermal conductivity

# Which among these is not an ideal property of soldering material?

A. Corrosion resistant
B. Non-pitting
C. High fusing
D. Free flowing

# Which of the following is not used as antiflux?

A. Graphite
B. Iron oxide
C. Boric oxide
D. Calcium carbonate dissolved alcohol

# Which of the following statements is not true about use of silica in the
investment materials?
A. It acts as refractory
B. It regulates thermal expansion
C. Quartz and cristobalite are the allotropic form used in dental investments
D. Beta allotropic form is stable below transition temperature

# Which of the following is a solid solution?

A. Amalgam
B. Cobalt-chromium
C. Silver-palladium
D. Gallium-silver

# Laser welding:
A. Involves high heat generation
B. Can be done with pure Titanium
C. Is not used in dentistry
D. Can be done with pure gold

# Which is false regarding ethyl silicate bonded investment?

A. Silica gel which reverts to silica on heating
B. Magnesium oxide provides strength
C. It is easy to handle and most commonly used
D. On mixing ammonium chloride silica liquid converts to gel

# The component responsible for allergy in dental casting alloys is:

A. Cobalt
B. Nickel
C. Copper
D. Titanium

# Chromium added to steel does not:

A. Increase hardness
B. Increase tensile strength
C. Increase corrosion resistance
D. Decrease elastic limit

# The casting shrinkage in gold alloys is maximum in:

A. Class II MOD inlays
B. Large class V restoration
C. Class II MO Restoration
D. Class 1 inlay

# According to OSHA maximum permissible amount of Ni in dental clinic

environment is:
A. 1 mg
B. 2 mg
C. 3 mg
D. 4 mg
MCQs on Dental Ceramics and Miscellaneous - Dental
Materials MCQs
# According to US FDA, the machine used for taking intraoral radiographs
is classified as:
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Classs III
D. Class IV

# For airblasting of ceramic veneer, the particle size of alumina used is:
A. 25 micrometer
B. 50 micrometer
C. 75 micrometer
D. 100 micrometer

# Which is used for etching porcelain?

A. 9.6% HF
B. 1.23 % HF
C. 37% HF
D. 4% HF

# Enamel is permeable to:

A. Bacteria
B. Bacterial product
C. Retroviruses
D. Peroxidase

# Animal test to check the biocompatibility of dental materials are all

EXCEPT:
A. Buehler Test
B. Implantation test
C. Ames test
D. Sensitization test

# Incorrect regarding boric oxide incorporated in ceramics is:

A. forms glass phase
B. forms a separate lattice interspersed with the silica
C. increases viscosity of the metal
D. it strengthen the surrounding structures
# Which of the following is not a natural abrasive?
A. Arkansas stone
B. Pumice
C. Tripoli
D. Rouge

# Metal oxides are added in porcelain provide all EXCEPT:

A. Strength
B. Improve bonding
C. Cosmetic
D. Impart color

# What is true for true for fixed prosthesis?

A. It is difficult to remove prosthesis when cemented with cement having maximum
compressive strength and low tensile strength
B. It is difficult to remove prosthesis when cemented with cement having maximum
compressive strength and low shear strength
C. Cement is weakest phase in fixed prosthesis
D. Increased thickness of cement will cause less flaw compared to small thickness

# Regarding dispersion strengthening:

A. Increasing the strength of ceramic by dispersing their matrix with the crystalline
phase of same material
B. The crystalline phase works by hindering the crack propagation
C. The strengthening is due to polymorphic transformation
D. CAD/CAM procedures in these materials further decrease their surface flaws

# Porosity in porcelain can be prevented by:

A. Thoroughness of condensation
B. Rapidity of firing
C. High firing temperature
D. All of the above

# Dental porcelains are crystalline materials of:

A. Rubber
B. Organic substances
C. Glass
D. Plastic

# In method of firing:
A. a short firing period at a higher temperature
B. a large time period at a lower temperature is preferred
C. a long firing period at a very high temperature is preferred
D. a short firing period at a very low temperature is preferred

# The melting point of titanium in degree celcius is:

A. 1056
B. 1560
C. 1668
D. 1886

# Flux used in dental ceramics is:

A. Alumina
B. Silica
C. Kaolin
D. Boric oxide

# In porcelain metal elements are embedded in the matrix of:

A. Rubber matrix
B. Glass
C. Plastic
D. Resin matrix

# Porcelain denture teeth:

A. Have a higher coefficient of thermal expansion than acrylic teeth
B. Have a lower abrasion resistance than enamel
C. Should be used where the inter dental clearance is small
D. Have a higher abrasion resistance than gold

# To prevent porosity in dental porcelain, it should be baked:

A. In presence of air
B. In vacuum
C. For long period
D. Under pressure

# Condensation shrinkage of porcelain during firing depends upon:

A. Rate of arriving at firing temperature
B. Uniformity of particle size
C. Shape and size of particle
D. Type of investment used

# The first porcelain tooth material was introduced by:

A. DeChemant
B. Ash
C. Plateau
D. McClean

# Electrolyte used for plating copper dies is:

A. Ionic copper
B. Copper cyanide
C. Silver cyanide
D. Acidic copper sulphate

# Chemical method of strengthening porcelain involves:

A. exchange of aluminum and sodium ions
B. exchange of aluminum and potassium ions
C. exchange of sodium and potassium ions
D. None of the above

# Which of the following bur is used in the preparation of cavity restored

with porcelain fused to metal?
A. Carbide bur
B. Diamond bur
C. Stainless steel bur
D. Diamond bur for porcelain and carbide bur for metal

# Porcelain binds to metal in PFM crown by:

A. Metallic bond
B. Mechanical bond
C. Chemical bond
D. Both B and C

# The ideal temperature of water bath for softening fluid wax is about:
A. 51 to 54 degree F
B. 51 to 54 degree C
C. 70 to 75 degree F
D. 70 to 75 degree C

# The preferred material for repair of fractured denture base is:

A. Chemically cured resin
B. Heat cure resin
C. Light cure resin
D. Vinyl resin

# Chemical tempering in porcelains is done to interrupt crack propagation

by:
A. Transformation toughening
B. Dispersion of crystalline phase
C. Inducing residual compressive strength
D. All of the above

# Pyroplastic flow of porcelain is due to:

A. High temperature during glazing
B. Low temperature during glazing
C. Improper condensation
D. High firing temperature

# The most toxic form of mercury is:

A. Methyl and ethyl mercury
B. Mercury vapour
C. Inorganic mercury forms
D. Mercury sulphide

# Compared with dental alloys, ceramics show:

A. High ductility
B. High hardness
C. Low esthetic value
D. Susceptibility to brittle fracture

# Coefficient of thermal expansion of metal ceramic alloys is:

A. Same as porcelain
B. More than porcelain
C. Less than porcelain
D. More than or equal to porcelain but not less

# Machinable glass ceramic is:

A. Cerestore
B. Decor MGC
C. Infusium
D. Leucite

# Porosity in porcelain at condensation stage depends on:

A. Shape and size of particle
B. Uniform distribution of particle size
C. Number of particles
D. None of the above

# Stage recognized in the firing of dental porcelain given below. Which of

stage is not correct?
A. Cold stage bisque
B. Low bisque
C. Medium bisque
D. High bisque

# The opacity in ceramics is achieved by:

A. Boric oxide
B. Copper oxide
C. Silica
D. Titanium oxide

# Which is not present in porcelain?

A. Silica
B. Feldspar
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Amorphous material

# Dicor restoration is:

A. Two colored restorations
B. Heat pressed ceramics
C. Castable ceramics
D. None of the above

# Dispersion of crystalline phase to strengthen ceramics results in:

A. dispersed porcelain
B. glazed porcelain
C. aluminium porcelain
D. all of the above

# Which of the following is not a method to strengthen ceramic

restoration?
A. Three layer laminate technique
B. Stiffer supporting materials
C. Higher thermal coefficient of expansion of ceramic as compared to metal sub-
structure
D. Minimize number of porcelain firing cycles

# The best tissue tolerated material for crown and bridge:

A. Highly polished porcelain
B. Highly polished acrylic
C. Highly glazed porcelain
D. Highly polished metal

# Crocus cloth is:

A. Emery
B. Garnet
C. Pumice
D. Rouge

# The maximum shrinkage during firing process in ceramics occurs in:

A. High bisque stage
B. Low bisque stage
C. Medium bisque stage
D. Fusion stage

# Which of the following is the main constituent of porcelain?

A. Feldspar
B. Kaolin
C. Quartz
D. Clay

# Super abrasive is:

A. Sand
B. Silicon carbide
C. Diamond
D. Aluminum oxide
# The main purpose of adding metallic oxides in ceramic is:
A. Color matching
B. Transparency
C. Opacity
D. None

# Porcelain is best fired:

A. In open air
B. Under air compression
C. When several layers are fired simultaneously
D. Under minimum pressure

# Greening occurring when porcelains are fired on silver free alloys may be
attributed to:
A. Vaporization of silver from the walls of contaminated furnaces
B. Surface diffusion of silver from the marginal metal
C. More rapid silver diffusion in sodium containing glass
D. Silver ionization by porcelains with high oxygen potential

# For porcelain fused to metal crown, the porcelain should have?

A. High fusion expansion
B. High fusion temperature
C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than that of metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion more than that of metal

# Quartz in dental porcelain is:

A. Strengthener
B. Binder
C. Pigment
D. Crack minimizer

# Opaque porcelain:
A. is feldspathic glass
B. contains opacifier like zirconium and titanium oxide
C. not used to mask the color of the cement used in placing of restoration
D. used to produce the characteristic translucence, which is an inherent aspect of the
incisal edge in natural teeth

# Phenomenon in which porcelain appears different under varying light

condition is:
A. Translucency
B. Refractive optics
C. Metamerism
D. Opacification

# Shrink free ceramic is known as:

A. Cerestore
B. Captek
C. IPS Empress
D. Dicor

# Lithium silicate containing crystals in ceramic crown are:

A. IPS Empress
B. Captek
C. Dicor
D. IPS Empress 2

# Porcelain bonded to metal is strong when it is:

A. Air fired
B. Tempered after firing
C. Fired under compression
D. Fired several times before completion

# Major drawback of porcelain is:

A. High compressive strength
B. Brittleness
C. Translucency
D. Hardness

# When porcelain is baked against metal, it should possess a:

A. high fusion expansion
B. high fusion temperature
C. linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than but close to that of the metal
D. linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than, but close to that of the metal

# Clogging of an abrasive wheel with debris causing reduction of abrasive

action is called:
A. Blinding
B. Buffing
C. Dressing
D. Truing

# Ceramics fired to metals are processed by:

A. Heat pressing
B. Machining
C. Sintering
D. Slip casting

# Which of the following releases single wavelength of energy?

A. QTH
B. PAC
C. LED
D. Argon LASERs
MCQs on Bleaching of Teeth
# Discoloration of tooth in tetracycline therapy is due to the formation of:
A. Calcium orthophosphate
B. Dicalcium phosphate dihydrate
C. Calcium oxide
D. Tetracalcium phosphate

# Microabrasion is a procedure in clinical orthodontics performed to:

A. Clean the bracket base
B. Clean the archwire
C. Polishing the bracket
D. Removal of white spot lesions

# Dentist prescribed home applied bleaching technique uses:

A. 35% hydrogen peroxide
B. 10% carbamide peroxide
C. 18% hydrochloric acid
D. Sodium perborate

# Minimum dosage of tetracycline which will show tooth discoloration is:

A. 5 mg/kg bodyweight
B. 20 mg/kg bodyweight
C. 50 mg/kg bodyweight
D. 80 mg/kg bodyweight

# Till what age tetracycline should not be given to prevent discoloration?

A. 3 year
B. 8 year
C. 12 year
D. 18 year

# Glass ionomer cement is used as a barrier over gutta percha filling before
bleaching an endodontically treated discolored tooth to:
A. prevent bleaching agent from dissolving gutta percha
B. prevent percolation of the bleaching agent into the apical area
C. prevent contamination of bleaching agent
D. prevent discoloration of tooth from obturating material

# Bleaching is indicated in which of the following clinical situations?

A. Dentin discolorations
B. Teeth with discolored composites
C. Tooth discoloration due to caries
D. Teeth with superficial discolorations

# A 20 year old female patient comes to the clinic with discoloration of the
upper right central incisor. This tooth was intact and otherwise
asymptomatic.The common sequel following bleaching non vital teeth is:
A. Ankylosis
B. Periodontal pathology
C. External cervical resorption
D. Reinfection

# A 20 year old female patient comes to the clinic with discoloration of the
upper right central incisor. This tooth was intact and otherwise
asymptomatic.The treatment most often employed for managing
discoloration in a non vital tooth is:
A. Microabrasion
B. Walking bleach
C. Over the counter bleaching
D. Veneer

# A 20 year old female patient comes to the clinic with discoloration of the
upper right central incisor. This tooth was intact and otherwise
asymptomatic. The most likely cause for the discoloration in this patient
would be:
A. pulp necrosis
B. dental resorption
C. internal resorption
D. microleakage

# Following intracoronal bleaching immediate composition restoration was

required, what has to be done?
A. Treat with catalase
B. Wait for 7 days is mandatory
C. Treat with H2O2 for 3 minutes
D. Not possible

# The 'in office' non vital bleaching technique is:

A. Walking bleach
B. Power bleach technique
C. Thermo catalytic technique
D. Night guard technique
# Which one of the following is used to bleach a discolored endodontically
treated tooth?
A. Ether
B. Chloroform
C. Superoxol
D. Sodium hypochlorite

# Which of the following is not responsible for endogenous staining of teeth

during development?
A. Tetracycline
B. Rh incompatibility
C. Neonatal liver diseases
D. Vitamin C deficiency

# In case of bleaching technique to remove fluorosis stains:

A. 17% ether removes the surface debris
B. 36% hydrochloride acid etches the enamel
C. 30% H2O2 bleaches the enamel
D. All of the above correct

# Discoloration of the teeth results from:

A. Decomposition of the pulp
B. Filling materials
C. Hemorrhage following pulp extirpation
D. All of the above

# The bleaching material used for night guard vital tooth bleaching is:
A. Superoxol
B. Anesthetic ether and hydrochloric acid
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Carbamide peroxide

# Night guard bleaching refers to:

A. Laser activated bleaching
B. Dentist prescribed home applied technique
C. Thermo bleaching
D. Photo bleaching

# A 12 year old child comes to your clinic with a history of long term use of
tetracycline. The anterior teeth are mild yellowish brown. What method
would you use to remove the stain?
A. Hydrochloric acid pumice microabrasions
B. At home bleaching method
C. Superoxol with or without heat
D. Composite resin veneers
# Vital bleaching causes:
A. Internal resorption
B. Cervical resorption
C. External resorption
D. Periapical periodontitis

# Carbamide solution used for bleaching degrades into:

A. 0.3% sodium perborate
B. 30% hydrogen peroxide
C. 3% hydrogen peroxide
D. 30% sodium perborate

# Tooth discoloration is due to:

A. Acute pulpal abscess
B. Pulpal hyperemia
C. Pulpal death
D. None of the above

# When undertaking bleaching of vital teeth, all of the following are done
except:
A. Prophylaxis
B. Use of eye protective glasses
C. Use of local anesthesia
D. Polishing after treatment

# In the walking bleach technique:

A. It uses a heat treatment
B. It requires the patient to report in 24 hours
C. Can be done with 35 percent hydrogen peroxide
D. It uses a mixture of sodium perborate and hydrogen peroxide

# Home bleach is also called as:

A. Walking bleach
B. Thermocatalytic bleach
C. Power bleach
D. All of the above

# Superoxol is:
A. 30% H2O2
B. Combination of H2O2 + Sodium perborate
C. Combination of Hcl+H2O2
D. None of the above

# The most common consequence of bleaching non vital teeth is:

A. Discoloration
B. Cervical resorption
C. Apical Periodontitis
D. Root resorption

1.Night guard bleaching refers to

A. Laser activated bleaching
B. Dentist prescribed home applied technique
C. Thermo bleaching
D. Photobleaching

2.Vital bleaching causes

A. Internal resorption
B. Cervical resorption
C. External resorption
D. Periapical periodontitis

3.Tooth discoloration is due to

A.Acute pulpal Abscess
B. pulpal hyperemia
C. Pulpal death
D. None of the above

4.In The Walking bleach technique

A. It uses a heat treatment
B. It requires the patient to report in 24 hours
C. Can be done with 35 percentage hydrogen peroxide
D. It uses a mixture of sodium perborate and hydrogen peroxide

5.The most common consequences of bleaching nonvital teeth is

A. Discoloration
B. Cervical resorption
C. Apical periodontitis
D. Root resorption

6.Which of the following is used to bleach a discoloured endodontically treated

tooth
A. Ether
B. Chloroform
C. Superoxol
D. Sodium hypo chlorite
7.discoloration of teeth results from
A. Decomposition of the pulp
B. filling materials
C. Haemorrhage following pulp extraction
D. All of the above

8. bleaching is indicated in which of the following clinical situations

A. dentin discoloration
B. teeth with discoloured composites
C. tooth discoloration due to caries
D. Teeth with superficial discolorations

9.Discoloration of tooth in Tetra cycline therapy Is because of formation of

A. Calcium orthophosphate
B. Dicalcium phosphate dihydrate
C. Calcium oxide
D. Tetra calcium phosphate

10.The common sequels Following bleaching nonvital teeth are

A. Ankylosis
B. Periodontal pathology
C. External cervical resorption
D. Reinfection

Answer with explanation

1. B
2. D
3. C
4. D
5. B.
6. C
7. D
8. A.
9. A .
10. C

Waseem Hussam, [Apr 18, 2024 at 1:16 AM]

Mcq :
1. Which of the following statements regarding biocompatibility in dental materials
is correct?
a) It refers to the ability of a material to withstand mechanical stresses.
b) It refers to the ability of a material to interact favorably with biological systems.
c) It refers to the ability of a material to resist chemical degradation.
d) It refers to the ability of a material to conduct electricity.

2. What is the primary concern regarding the biocompatibility of dental materials?

a) Mechanical strength
b) Resistance to wear
c) Interaction with biological tissues
d) Thermal conductivity

3. Which type of testing evaluates the potential of a dental material to cause an

immune response?
a) Cytotoxicity testing
b) Sensitivity testing
c) Genotoxicity testing
d) Mutagenicity testing

4. Dental materials that release ions may cause adverse reactions in patients. Which
ion is commonly associated with such reactions?
a) Sodium
b) Zinc
c) Calcium
d) Aluminum

5. Which organization sets international standards for the biocompatibility testing

of medical devices, including dental materials?
a) FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
b) ADA (American Dental Association)
c) ISO (International Organization for Standardization)
d) WHO (World Health Organization)

6. Which dental material is known for its excellent biocompatibility and ability to
release fluoride ions?
a) Amalgam
b) Composite resin
c) Glass ionomer
d) Resin-modified glass ionomer
7. The most common allergic reactions in dental patients are associated with which
metal used in dental materials?
a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Nickel
d) Platinum

8. Which type of biocompatibility testing involves exposing cells to extracts of dental

materials to assess their effects?
a) In vitro testing
b) In vivo testing
c) Clinical testing
d) Observational testing

9. Dental materials should ideally exhibit which of the following properties to

ensure biocompatibility?
a) High solubility
b) Low toxicity
c) High reactivity
d) Low stability

10. What is the purpose of radiopacity testing in assessing the biocompatibility of

dental materials?
a) To evaluate the material's ability to resist radiation
b) To assess the material's ability to block X-rays
c) To measure the material's resistance to thermal changes
d) To determine the material's electrical conductivity

11. Which of the following dental materials is commonly used for its antibacterial
properties?
a) Amalgam
b) Composite resin
c) Glass ionomer
d) Zinc oxide eugenol cement

12. Which regulatory body oversees the approval and monitoring of dental
materials in the United States?
a) FDA
b) ADA
c) ISO
d) CDC
13. What is the purpose of biocompatibility testing for dental materials?
a) To determine the color stability of materials
b) To assess the material's ability to resist staining
c) To evaluate the material's compatibility with living tissues
d) To measure the material's electrical conductivity

14. Which type of biocompatibility testing assesses the potential of a material to

cause cell death?
a) Cytotoxicity testing
b) Sensitivity testing
c) Genotoxicity testing
d) Mutagenicity testing

15. Which dental material is known for its high biocompatibility and natural
appearance?
a) Amalgam
b) Composite resin
c) Gold alloy
d) Stainless steel

16. The biocompatibility of dental materials is influenced by factors such as:

a) Mechanical properties
b) Chemical composition
c) Surface characteristics
d) All of the above

17. Which type of biocompatibility testing evaluates the potential of a material to

cause an allergic reaction?
a) Sensitivity testing
b) Cytotoxicity testing
c) Genotoxicity testing
d) Mutagenicity testing

18. What is the purpose of genotoxicity testing in assessing the biocompatibility of

dental materials?
a) To evaluate the material's ability to cause mutations in cells

Waseem Hussam, [Apr 18, 2024 at 1:16 AM]

MCQs on the biocompatibility of dental materials:

1. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the biocompatibility of dental

materials?
 a) Chemical composition
b) Mechanical properties
c) Color
d) Surface characteristics
Answer: c) Color

2. Biocompatibility refers to:

a) The ability of a material to bond to tooth structure
b) The ability of a material to withstand mechanical forces
c) The ability of a material to not cause harmful effects in living tissue
d) The ability of a material to resist degradation
Answer: c) The ability of a material to not cause harmful effects in living tissue

3. Which dental material is known for its excellent biocompatibility and is

commonly used in implants?
a) Amalgam
b) Composite resin
c) Titanium
d) Zinc oxide eugenol
Answer: c) Titanium

4. All of the following are examples of biocompatible dental materials EXCEPT:

a) Resin-modified glass ionomer
b) Stainless steel
c) Mercury-containing amalgam
d) Zirconia
Answer: c) Mercury-containing amalgam

5. Which dental material is known for its high biocompatibility and ability to release
fluoride?
a) Composite resin
b) Glass ionomer
c) Amalgam
d) Resin-modified glass ionomer
Answer: b) Glass ionomer

6. The process of leaching out harmful substances from dental materials into
surrounding tissues is known as:
a) Corrosion
b) Degradation
c) Solubility
d) Dissolution
 Answer: a) Corrosion

7. Which of the following statements about allergic reactions to dental materials is

true?
a) Allergic reactions are very common in dental materials.
b) Allergic reactions only occur with metals.
c) Allergic reactions can occur due to sensitivity to components in dental
materials.
d) Allergic reactions only occur with resin-based materials.
Answer: c) Allergic reactions can occur due to sensitivity to components in dental
materials.

8. Which dental material is commonly used as a temporary filling material due to its
soothing effect on the pulp?
a) Zinc oxide eugenol
b) Composite resin
c) Glass ionomer
d) Amalgam
Answer: a) Zinc oxide eugenol

9. The release of ions from dental materials can lead to:

a) Tissue irritation
b) Tissue regeneration
c) Improved bonding
d) Reduced strength
Answer: a) Tissue irritation

10. Which dental material is known for its excellent esthetic properties but may
cause allergic reactions in some patients?
a) Amalgam
b) Composite resin
c) Glass ionomer
d) Gold alloy
Answer: b) Composite resin

11. The main component of dental amalgam that raises concerns about
biocompatibility is:
a) Silver
b) Tin
c) Copper
d) Mercury
Answer: d) Mercury
12. Which of the following dental materials has the lowest solubility?
a) Zinc oxide eugenol
b) Composite resin
c) Glass ionomer
d) Amalgam
Answer: d) Amalgam

13. Which dental material is known for its high strength and resistance to wear, but
may cause galvanic reactions in the mouth?
a) Stainless steel
b) Composite resin
c) Zirconia
d) Titanium
Answer: c) Zirconia

14. The biocompatibility of dental materials can be affected by:

a) Age of the patient
b) Oral hygiene habits
c) Medical history
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

15. Which dental material is commonly used for its bacteriostatic properties in
cavity liners?
a) Zinc oxide eugenol
b) Composite resin
c) Glass ionomer
d) Amalgam
Answer: c) Glass ionomer

16. Which dental material is known for its low thermal conductivity and is
commonly used for crowns and bridges?
a) Composite resin
b) Gold alloy
c) Stainless steel
d) Zirconia
Answer: d) Zirconia

17. The term "biocompatibility" primarily refers to the interaction between dental
materials and:
a) Bone
 b) Blood
c) Oral soft tissues
d) Saliva
Answer: c) Oral soft tissues

18. Which dental material is commonly used for its ability to form chemical bonds
with tooth structure?

Waseem Hussam, [Apr 18, 2024 at 1:16 AM]

a) Amalgam
b) Composite resin
c) Glass ionomer
d) Zinc oxide eugenol
Answer: b) Composite resin

19. Which dental material is known for its high biocompatibility, strength, and
resistance to corrosion, but is less esthetic than other options?
a) Amalgam
b) Composite resin
c) Stainless steel
d) Zirconia
Answer: c) Stainless steel

20. The potential for allergic reactions is highest with which type of dental material?
a) Metals
b) Polymers
c) Ceramics
d) Composites
Answer: a) Metals

21. Which dental material is commonly used as a temporary restorative material

and sedative dressing due to its antibacterial properties?
a) Zinc oxide eugenol
b) Composite resin
c) Glass ionomer
d) Amalgam
Answer: a) Zinc oxide eugenol

22. Which dental material is known for its excellent biocompatibility and is
commonly used in orthodontics for wires and brackets?
a) Stainless steel
b) Composite resin
 c) Gold alloy
d) Zirconia
Answer: a) Stainless steel

23. The term "gingivitis" refers to inflammation of the:

a) Teeth
b) Gums
c) Tongue
d) Cheeks
Answer: b) Gums

24. Which dental material is known for its high strength and biocompatibility,
making it suitable for long-term dental restorations?
a) Composite resin
b) Stainless steel
c) Zirconia
d) Glass ionomer
Answer: c) Zirconia

25. The release of fluoride ions from dental materials can:

a) Increase the risk of dental caries
b) Decrease the risk of dental caries
c) Increase the risk of allergic reactions
d) Decrease the strength of the material
Answer: b) Decrease the risk of dental caries

Waseem Hussam, [Apr 18, 2024 at 1:16 AM]

wrought alloys

1. Which of the following is a commonly used wrought alloy in dental materials?

a) Brass
b) Cast iron
c) Cobalt-chromium
d) Aluminum

Answer: c) Cobalt-chromium

2. What is the primary advantage of using cobalt-chromium alloys in dental

applications?
a) Corrosion resistance
b) Low strength
c) High cost
 d) Ease of casting

Answer: a) Corrosion resistance

3. Which type of alloy is commonly used for dental crowns and bridges due to its
high biocompatibility and aesthetic appeal?
a) Stainless steel
b) Nickel-based alloys
c) Noble metal alloys
d) Titanium alloys

Answer: c) Noble metal alloys

4. Which of the following properties is most desirable in a dental alloy?

a) Low ductility
b) High melting point
c) Brittle behavior
d) High biocompatibility

Answer: d) High biocompatibility

5. What is the primary advantage of using noble metal alloys in dental restorations?
a) Low strength
b) Corrosion resistance
c) High cost
d) Poor aesthetic appearance

Answer: b) Corrosion resistance

6. Which alloy is often used in orthodontic applications due to its high strength and
biocompatibility?
a) Gold alloys
b) Stainless steel
c) Nickel-based alloys
d) Cobalt-chromium

Answer: b) Stainless steel

7. Which property makes gold alloys suitable for dental restorations?

a) Low biocompatibility
b) High strength
c) Malleability
 d) High cost

Answer: c) Malleability

8. What is the primary disadvantage of using nickel-based alloys in dental

applications?
a) Low strength
b) Allergic reactions
c) Low cost
d) Corrosion resistance

Answer: b) Allergic reactions

9. Which of the following alloys is commonly used for removable partial dentures?
a) Stainless steel
b) Cobalt-chromium
c) Nickel-based alloys
d) Titanium alloys

Answer: b) Cobalt-chromium

10. Which alloy is often preferred for implants due to its biocompatibility and low
modulus of elasticity?
a) Gold alloys
b) Titanium alloys
c) Stainless steel
d) Nickel-based alloys

Answer: b) Titanium alloys

Waseem Hussam, [Apr 18, 2024 at 1:17 AM]

multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to endodontic instruments and materials

1. What is the primary purpose of an endodontic file?

a) To remove carious tissue
b) To shape and clean the root canal
c) To pack gutta-percha into the canal
d) To remove the coronal portion of the tooth
Answer: b) To shape and clean the root canal

2. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used endodontic file type?

a) K-file
 b) H-file
c) Reamer
d) Hedstrom file
Answer: c) Reamer

3. What is the function of a spreader in endodontic procedures?

a) To shape the coronal portion of the canal
b) To condense gutta-percha in the apical portion of the canal
c) To remove debris from the canal
d) To remove carious tissue from the pulp chamber
Answer: b) To condense gutta-percha in the apical portion of the canal

4. Which of the following materials is commonly used as a sealer in endodontic

therapy?
a) Gutta-percha
b) Zinc oxide-eugenol cement
c) Resilon
d) Calcium hydroxide
Answer: b) Zinc oxide-eugenol cement

5. What is the function of a Gates-Glidden drill in endodontic procedures?

a) To shape the coronal portion of the canal
b) To remove gutta-percha from the canal
c) To remove debris from the canal
d) To irrigate the canal
Answer: a) To shape the coronal portion of the canal

6. Which type of endodontic instrument is used to remove pulp tissue from the root
canal?
a) Excavator
b) H-file
c) K-file
d) Guttapercha point
Answer: c) K-file

7. Gutta-percha is derived from which plant?

a) Rubber tree
b) Palm tree
c) Pine tree
d) Bamboo tree
Answer: a) Rubber tree
8. Which of the following is a characteristic of gutta-percha?
a) It is soluble in water
b) It has antimicrobial properties
c) It is radiopaque
d) It is biodegradable
Answer: c) It is radiopaque

9. What is the function of a finger spreader in endodontic procedures?

a) To shape the coronal portion of the canal
b) To condense gutta-percha in the apical portion of the canal
c) To remove debris from the canal
d) To remove carious tissue from the pulp chamber
Answer: b) To condense gutta-percha in the apical portion of the canal

10. Which type of endodontic instrument is used to remove carious dentin?

a) Excavator
b) H-file
c) K-file
d) Guttapercha point
Answer: a) Excavator

11. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using gutta-percha as a root canal

filling material?
a) It is biodegradable
b) It is radiopaque
c) It has low compressive strength
d) It has antimicrobial properties
Answer: c) It has low compressive strength

12. Which of the following materials is commonly used as an irrigant in endodontic

therapy?
a) Sodium hypochlorite
b) Gutta-percha
c) Resilon
d) Zinc oxide-eugenol cement
Answer: a) Sodium hypochlorite

13. Which of the following instruments is used to remove gutta-percha during

retreatment procedures?
a) H-file
b) Lentulo spiral
c) Guttapercha point
 d) Gates-Glidden drill
Answer: b) Lentulo spiral

14. What is the purpose of a root canal sealer?

a) To shape the root canal
b) To fill the pulp chamber
c) To disinfect the root canal
d) To provide a fluid-tight seal
Answer: d) To provide a fluid-tight seal

15. Which of the following materials is commonly used as a temporary filling

material in endodontic therapy?
a) Zinc oxide-eugenol cement
b) Gutta-percha
c) Resilon
d) Calcium hydroxide
Answer: a) Zinc oxide-eugenol cement

16. Which type of endodontic instrument is used to remove debris from the root
canal?
a) Excavator
b) H-file
c) K-file
d) Guttapercha point
Answer: a) Excavator

17. Which of the following is NOT a property of an ideal root canal filling material?
a) Radiopacity
b) Biocompatibility
c) Antibacterial properties
d) Solubility in water
Answer: d) Solubility in water

18. Which of the following materials is commonly used as an intracanal

medicament?

Waseem Hussam, [Apr 18, 2024 at 1:17 AM]

a) Gutta-percha
b) Calcium hydroxide
c) Resilon
d) Zinc oxide-eugenol cement
Answer: b) Calcium hydroxide
19. Which of the following materials is commonly used as a core buildup material in
endodontically treated teeth?
a) Composite resin
b) Gutta-percha
c) Resilon
d) Zinc oxide-eugenol cement
Answer: a) Composite resin

20. Which of the following instruments is used to remove pulp tissue from the pulp
chamber?
a) Excavator
b) H-file
c) K-file
d) Guttapercha point
Answer: a) Excavator

21. Which of the following is a property of calcium hydroxide when used as an

intracanal medicament?
a) It is radiopaque
b) It promotes periapical healing
c) It has low compressive strength
d) It is soluble in water
Answer: b) It promotes periapical healing

22. Which of the following materials is commonly used as a temporary filling

material in endodontic therapy?
a) Zinc oxide-eugenol cement
b) Gutta-percha
c) Resilon
d) Calcium hydroxide
Answer: a) Zinc oxide-eugenol cement

23. Which type of endodontic instrument is used to shape the coronal portion of the
root canal?
a) Excavator
b) H-file
c) K-file
d) Gates-Glidden drill
Answer: d) Gates-Glidden drill
24. Which of the following materials is commonly used as an irrigant in endodontic
therapy?
a) Sodium hypoch
MCQs on Bleaching of Teeth

# Discoloration of tooth in tetracycline therapy is due to the formation of:

A. Calcium orthophosphate
B. Dicalcium phosphate dihydrate
C. Calcium oxide
D. Tetracalcium phosphate

# Microabrasion is a procedure in clinical orthodontics performed to:

A. Clean the bracket base
B. Clean the archwire
C. Polishing the bracket
D. Removal of white spot lesions

# Dentist prescribed home applied bleaching technique uses:

A. 35% hydrogen peroxide
B. 10% carbamide peroxide
C. 18% hydrochloric acid
D. Sodium perborate

# Minimum dosage of tetracycline which will show tooth discoloration is:

A. 5 mg/kg bodyweight
B. 20 mg/kg bodyweight
C. 50 mg/kg bodyweight
D. 80 mg/kg bodyweight

# Till what age tetracycline should not be given to prevent discoloration?

A. 3 year
B. 8 year
C. 12 year
D. 18 year
 .

# Glass ionomer cement is used as a barrier over gutta percha filling before bleaching an
endodontically treated discolored tooth to:
A. prevent bleaching agent from dissolving gutta percha

B. prevent percolation of the bleaching agent into the apical area

C. prevent contamination of bleaching agent
D. prevent discoloration of tooth from obturating material

# Bleaching is indicated in which of the following clinical situations?

A. Dentin discolorations
B. Teeth with discolored composites
C. Tooth discoloration due to caries
D. Teeth with superficial discolorations

# A 20 year old female patient comes to the clinic with discoloration of the upper right
central incisor. This tooth was intact and otherwise asymptomatic.The common sequel
following bleaching non vital teeth is:
A. Ankylosis
B. Periodontal pathology
C. External cervical resorption
D. Reinfection

# A 20 year old female patient comes to the clinic with discoloration of the upper right
central incisor. This tooth was intact and otherwise asymptomatic.The treatment most
often employed for managing discoloration in a non vital tooth is:
A. Microabrasion
B. Walking bleach
C. Over the counter bleaching
D. Veneer

# A 20 year old female patient comes to the clinic with discoloration of the upper right
central incisor. This tooth was intact and otherwise asymptomatic. The most likely cause
for the discoloration in this patient would be:
A. pulp necrosis
B. dental resorption
C. internal resorption
D. microleakage

# Following intracoronal bleaching immediate composition restoration was required, what

has to be done?
A. Treat with catalase
B. Wait for 7 days is mandatory
C. Treat with H2O2 for 3 minutes
D. Not possible

# The 'in office' non vital bleaching technique is:

A. Walking bleach
B. Power bleach technique
C. Thermo catalytic technique
D. Night guard technique

# Which one of the following is used to bleach a discolored endodontically treated tooth?
A. Ether
B. Chloroform
C. Superoxol
D. Sodium hypochlorite

# Which of the following is not responsible for endogenous staining of teeth during
development?
A. Tetracycline
B. Rh incompatibility
C. Neonatal liver diseases
D. Vitamin C deficiency
# In case of bleaching technique to remove fluorosis stains:
A. 17% ether removes the surface debris
B. 36% hydrochloride acid etches the enamel
C. 30% H2O2 bleaches the enamel
D. All of the above correct

# Discoloration of the teeth results from:

A. Decomposition of the pulp
B. Filling materials
C. Hemorrhage following pulp extirpation
D. All of the above

# The bleaching material used for night guard vital tooth bleaching is:
A. Superoxol
B. Anesthetic ether and hydrochloric acid
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Carbamide peroxide

# Night guard bleaching refers to:

A. Laser activated bleaching
B. Dentist prescribed home applied technique
C. Thermo bleaching
D. Photo bleaching

# A 12 year old child comes to your clinic with a history of long term use of tetracycline.
The anterior teeth are mild yellowish brown. What method would you use to remove the
stain?
A. Hydrochloric acid pumice microabrasions
B. At home bleaching method
C. Superoxol with or without heat
D. Composite resin veneers
# Vital bleaching causes:
A. Internal resorption
B. Cervical resorption
C. External resorption
D. Periapical periodontitis

# Carbamide solution used for bleaching degrades into:

A. 0.3% sodium perborate
B. 30% hydrogen peroxide
C. 3% hydrogen peroxide
D. 30% sodium perborate

# Tooth discoloration is due to:

A. Acute pulpal abscess
B. Pulpal hyperemia
C. Pulpal death
D. None of the above

# When undertaking bleaching of vital teeth, all of the following are done except:
A. Prophylaxis
B. Use of eye protective glasses
C. Use of local anesthesia
D. Polishing after treatment

# In the walking bleach technique:

A. It uses a heat treatment
B. It requires the patient to report in 24 hours
C. Can be done with 35 percent hydrogen peroxide
D. It uses a mixture of sodium perborate and hydrogen peroxide

# Home bleach is also called as:

 A. Walking bleach
B. Thermocatalytic bleach
C. Power bleach
D. All of the above

# Superoxol is:
A. 30% H2O2
B. Combination of H2O2 + Sodium perborate
C. Combination of Hcl+H2O2
D. None of the above

# The most common consequence of bleaching non vital teeth is:

A. Discoloration
B. Cervical resorption
C. Apical Periodontitis
D. Root resorption