GK pinnacle 7th edition
GK pinnacle 7th edition
Uploaded by
Ranadeep MukherjeeCopyright:
Available Formats
GK pinnacle 7th edition
GK pinnacle 7th edition
Uploaded by
Ranadeep MukherjeeCopyright
Available Formats
Share this document
Did you find this document useful?
Is this content inappropriate?
Copyright:
Available Formats
GK pinnacle 7th edition
GK pinnacle 7th edition
Uploaded by
Ranadeep MukherjeeCopyright:
Available Formats
INDEX
S. No. Subject Name Page no. Number of Questions
1. Static G.K. 01 - 165 2095
2. History 166 - 240 924
3. Polity 241 - 289 500
4. Geography 290 - 367 909
5. Economics 368 - 410 444
6. Physics 411 - 432 251
7. Chemistry 433 - 472 486
8. Biology 473 - 522 552
9. Current Affairs 01 - 72 (QR) 500 (QR)
TOTAL 522 + 72 = 594 6661
STATIC G.K.
S. No. Chapter Name Page no. Question no. No. of questions
1. Dance 01 - 11 01 - 142 142
2. Arts Personality 11 - 34 143 - 433 291
3. Arts Awards 34 - 36 434 - 457 24
4. Musical Instruments 36 - 41 458 - 522 65
5. Festivals 41 - 55 523 - 692 170
6. Fairs 55 - 56 693 - 712 20
7. Songs 56 - 61 713 - 772 60
8. Painting/ Dress/ Tribes 61 - 64 773 - 803 31
9. First in India/World 64 - 69 804 - 870 67
10. Sports 69 - 92 871 - 1179 309
11. Books and Authors 92 - 108 1180 - 1380 201
12. Famous Personality 108 - 110 1381 - 1409 29
13. Important Days 110 - 113 1410 - 1455 46
14. States G.K. 114 - 122 1456 - 1568 113
15. Organisation 122 - 128 1569 - 1636 68
16. World G.K. 128 - 130 1637 - 1670 34
17. Computer 130 - 139 1671 - 1774 104
18. Full forms 139 - 140 1775 - 1787 13
19. Religious Places 140 - 144 1788 - 1836 49
20. Awards 144 - 148 1837 - 1882 46
21. Important events 148 - 151 1883 - 1917 35
22. Founder 151 1918 - 1926 9
23. Schemes 151 - 159 1927 - 2012 86
24. Miscellaneous 159 - 165 2013 - 2095 83
HISTORY
Ancient History
S. No. Chapter Name Page no. Question no. No. of questions
1. Prehistoric And Indus Valley 166 - 168 01 - 28 28
2. Vedic Age 168 - 169 29 - 49 21
3. Jainism 169 - 170 50 - 53 4
4. Buddhism 170 - 171 54 - 76 23
5. Mahajanapadas 171 - 172 77 - 84 8
6. Mauryan Dynasty 172 - 175 85 - 121 37
7. Gupta Dynasty 175 - 177 122 - 144 23
8. Vardhana Dynasty 177 145 - 153 9
9. Chola Dynasty 177 - 179 154 - 172 19
10. Miscellaneous 179 - 187 173 - 273 101
Medieval History
S. No. Chapter Name Page no. Question no. No. of questions
1. Foreign Invasions 187 - 188 274 - 279 6
2. Delhi Sultanate 188 - 189 280 - 292 13
3. Slave Dynasty 189 - 191 293 - 313 21
4. Khilji Dynasty 191 - 192 314 - 326 13
5. Tughlaq Dynasty 192 327 - 336 10
6. Sayyid Dynasty 192 - 193 337 - 338 2
7. Lodi Dynasty 193 339 - 345 7
8. Mughal Period 193 - 194 346 - 356 11
9. Babur 194 - 195 357 - 367 11
10. Humayun and Sher Shah Suri 195 368 - 377 10
11. Akbar 195 - 197 378 - 400 23
12. Jahangir 197 401 - 405 5
13. Shah Jahan 197 - 198 406 - 412 7
14. Aurangzeb 198 413 - 418 6
15. Sikh Guru 198 - 199 419 - 422 4
16. Maratha Empire 199 423 - 425 3
17. Vijaynagar Empire 199 - 200 426 - 443 18
18. Wars and Treaties 200 - 202 444 - 468 25
19. Miscellaneous 202 - 207 469 - 535 67
Modern History
df
S. No. Chapter Name Page no. Question no. No. of questions
_p
1. The Revolt of 1857 207 - 208 536 - 545 10
na
2. Governors and Viceroys 208 - 211 546 - 577 32
ap
3. British acts and Policies 211 - 215 578 - 622 45
:@
4. Partition of Bengal and Swadeshi 215 623 - 629 7
Movements
TG
5. Gandhian Era 215 - 218 630 - 662 33
6. Expansion of British Rule 218 - 219 663 - 673 11
on
7. The Revolutionaries 219 - 223 674 - 714 41
ch
8. Struggle for Independence 223 - 225 715 - 742 28
ar
9. Socio Religious Reforms 225 - 232 743 - 816 74
Se
10. Indian National Congress and Its 232 - 234 817 - 842 26
Sessions
11. Muslim league 234 843 - 846 4
12. Miscellaneous 234 - 240 847 - 924 78
POLITY
S. No. Chapter Name Page no. Question no. No. of questions
1. Constitution 241 - 244 1 - 34 34
2. Sources of Indian Constitution 244 - 245 35 - 47 13
3. Article, Schedule, Parts and list 245 - 256 48 - 161 114
4. Amendments 256 - 260 162 - 200 39
5. Fundamental Rights and Duties 260 - 265 201 - 255 55
6. Committee Reports 265 - 267 256 - 268 13
7. Parliament 267 - 271 269 - 313 45
8. President, Vice President and Prime 271 - 276 314 - 363 50
Minister
9. Judiciary 276 - 279 364 - 391 28
10. Government Bodies 279 - 282 392 - 421 30
11. Polity of neighbouring countries 282 - 283 422 - 426 5
12. Miscellaneous 283 - 289 427 - 500 74
GEOGRAPHY
S. No. Chapter Name Page no. Question no. No. of questions
1. Solar system and its planets 290 - 293 01 - 44 44
df
2. Longitudes and latitudes 293 - 294 45 - 60 16
_p
3. Continents and Oceans 294 - 298 61 -102 42
4. Neighbouring Countries of India na
298 - 299 103 - 114 12
ap
5. Indian Drainage System 299 - 309 115 - 237 123
:@
6. World Drainage System 309 - 310 238 - 250 13
TG
7. Minerals and Energy Resources in India 310 - 314 251 - 298 48
8. Agriculture 314 - 321 299 - 372 74
on
9. Soil 321 - 324 373 - 405 33
ch
10. Vegetation 324 - 327 406 - 445 40
ar
11. Climate 327 - 333 446 - 504 59
Se
12. Industries 333 - 336 505 - 536 32
13. Biosphere Reserves 336 - 338 537 - 570 34
14. Physiographic Division of India 338 - 342 571 - 615 45
15. Transportation 342 - 346 616 - 660 45
16. Population 346 - 354 661 - 754 94
17. Atmosphere 354 - 355 755 - 772 18
18. Rocks 355 - 357 773 - 788 16
19. Mountain 357 - 360 789 - 826 38
20. Volcano 360 827 - 829 3
21. World geography and Map 360 - 362 830 - 848 19
22. Miscellaneous 362 - 367 849 - 909 61
ECONOMICS
S. No. Chapter Name Page no. Question no. No. of questions
1. Basics of Economy 368 - 371 01 - 33 33
2. Concepts of Demand and Supply 371 - 372 34 - 44 11
3. Cost, Production, Consumption and 372 - 373 45 - 60 16
Market
4. National Income, Inflation, Budget, 374 - 383 61 - 154 94
Taxation and GDP
5. Money Banking and Financial 383 - 393 155 - 262 108
Institutions
6. Navratna / Maharatna / PSUs 393 - 394 263 - 270 8
7. International Organisations 394 271 - 274 4
df
8. Government Schemes 394 - 397 175 - 312 38
_p
na
9. Five - Year Plans 397 - 400 ap 313 - 335 23
10. Indian Economy : Central Problems 400 - 404 336 - 375 40
and Planning
:@
11. Stock, Debentures and Foreign trade 404 - 405 376 -386 11
TG
12. Fiscal Policy and Monetary Policy 405 - 407 387 - 408 22
on
13. Miscellaneous 407 - 410 409 - 444 36
ch
PHYSICS
ar
Se
S. No. Chapter Name Page no. Question no. No. of questions
1. Light and Optics 411 - 412 01 - 22 22
2. Heat and Thermodynamics 413 - 414 23 - 36 14
3. Fluid Mechanics 414 37 - 41 5
4. Electric Current and Its Effects 414 - 418 42 - 81 40
5. Force and Pressure 418 - 421 82 - 115 34
6. Sound 421 116 - 124 9
7. Gravitation 421 - 422 125 - 130 6
8. Work and Energy 422 - 423 131 - 141 11
9. Wave 423 - 424 142 - 154 13
10. Radioactivity 424 - 425 155 - 160 6
11. Discoveries 425 - 428 161 - 196 36
12. Units and Measurements 428 - 431 197 - 230 34
13. Miscellaneous 431 - 432 231 - 251 21
CHEMISTRY
S. No. Chapter Name Page no. Question no. No. of questions
1. Structure of Atom 433 - 435 01 - 24 24
2. Metals, Non-metals and Alloys 435 - 437 25 - 53 29
3. Acid, Bases and Salt 437 - 439 54 - 83 30
4. Metallurgy 439 - 440 84 - 93 10
5. Organic Chemistry 440 - 445 94 - 158 65
df
6. Periodic table 445 - 451 159 - 221 63
_p
7. Ideal Gas Law 451 222 - 230 9
8. Chemical Properties 451 - 456
na
231 - 279 49
ap
9. Solutions 456 - 457 280 - 291 12
:@
10. Chemistry in Everyday life 457 - 462 292 - 356 65
11. Discoveries 462 - 466 357 - 400 44
TG
12. Common Name 466 - 468 401 - 438 38
on
13. Miscellaneous 469 - 472 439 - 486 48
ch
BIOLOGY
ar
S. No. Chapter Name Page no. Question no. No. of questions
Se
1. Scientific Name 473 01 - 08 8
2. Nutrition in Animals 473 - 476 9 - 37 29
3. Nutrition in plants 476 - 478 38 - 63 26
4. Deficiency and Diseases 478 - 484 64 - 130 67
5. Reproduction in Animals 484 - 485 131 - 139 9
6. Reproduction in Plants 485 - 486 140 - 149 10
7. Cell: Basic Unit of life 486 - 496 150 - 251 102
8. Sensory Organs 496 252 - 258 7
9. Circulatory System 496 - 497 259 - 269 11
10. Excretory System 497 270 - 273 4
11. Endocrine/Exocrine system 498 274 - 280 7
12. Respiratory system 498 281 - 285 5
13. Digestive system 498 - 500 286 - 302 17
14. Nervous system 500 - 501 303 - 309 7
15. Skeleton system 501 310 - 317 8
16. Plant Kingdom 501 - 506 318 - 371 54
17. Animal Kingdom 506 - 512 372 - 433 62
18. Micro organism 512 - 513 434 - 454 21
19. Enzymes and Hormones 513 - 515 455 - 470 16
20. Discoveries and Vaccines 515 - 517 471 - 496 26
21. Scientific Study 517 - 518 497 - 504 8
22. Miscellaneous 518 - 522 505 - 552 48
CURRENT AFFAIRS
[ QR Code ]
S. No Chapter name Page no. Question No. No. of Questions
df
_p
1. Important Facts 2024 - 25 01 - 08 - -
na
2. Important One liners 2024 - 25 08 - 20 - -
3. Sports 21 - 31 01 - 108 108
ap
4. Special Days 31 109 - 112 4
:@
5. Awards 31 - 35 113 - 153 41
TG
6. Persons 35 - 44 154 - 243 90
7. States 44 - 48 244 - 281 38
on
8. Schemes and projects 48 - 58 282 - 377 96
ch
9. Economics 58 - 61 378 - 401 24
ar
10. Polity 61 - 67 402 - 458 57
Se
11. Miscellaneous 67 - 72 459 - 500 42
* SSC exams also have the same weightage percentages as mentioned in our book.*
Pinnacle Static GK
painted to symbolise the type of dances include Tarangmel, performed
Static GK character they are playing? during Dussehra and Holi, and Dhalo,
SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (2nd Shift) performed by women during the Pausha
Dance (a) Bharatanatyam (b) Odissi moon festival by communities like
(c) Kathakali (d) Kathak Kunbis and Gaudis. The Dhangar
Q.1. Which of the following folk dances community performs the Dhangar dance
is performed by the fisherfolk of the Sol.5.(c) Kathakali, which originated in during their annual fair and Navratri.
Mithila region in Bihar? 17th-century Travancore (Kerala), draws
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon) its foundation from Sage Bharata's Natya Q.10. Which of the following dance
(a) Karma (b) Nrityakali Shastra. Its characters are distinguished forms emotes a play through dancing in
(c) Kamala (d) Jiya by makeup: Pacha (noble gods), Katti which the song is customarily in
(anti-heroes), Thadi (bearded roles), Kari Manipravala language ?
Sol.1.(c) Kamala. Folk dances of Bihar : (evil), and Minukku (virtuous women SSC MTS 14/11/2024 (2nd Shift)
Karma, Kajri, Jhumar, Jharni, Jat Jatin, /sages). Key instruments include (a) Kathak (b) Mohiniattam
Jhumeri, Sohar Khelwana, Natua, Chenda, Maddalam, Chengila, and (c) Sattriya (d) Kuchipudi
Nachini, Jhijiya, Dhamar jogira, Krishi Elaththalam, with songs called
Sol.10.(b) Mohiniattam, a classical
Nritya. Attakkatha.
dance from Kerala, features graceful
Q.2. Chad Laho is a dance-festival, Q.6. _________ dance is embedded in the movements and expressions to narrate
primarily celebrated by which of the stories from the epics Mahabharata, Hindu mythological stories, with songs in
following tribes of Meghalaya? Ramayana and Puranas. Manipravalam blending Sanskrit and
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Afternoon) SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Malayalam.
(a) Khasi (b) Garo (a) Kathakali (b) Kuchipudi
df
Q.11. Mohiniyattam is associated with
(c) Jaintia (d) Hojang (c) Sattriya (d) Odissi
which of the following traditional dance
_p
Sol.2.(c) Jaintia. Chad Laho dance Sol.6.(a) Kathakali literally means "story styles?
festival is celebrated as a thanksgiving play." It is a classical dance form from SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
na
festival to God after the harvesting Kerala, known for its heavy and elaborate (a) Samapadam (b) Tribhanga
makeup, intricate costumes, and (c) Chowk (d) Lasya style
season. Other folk dances of Meghalaya
ap
dramatic expressions.
and their Tribes: Ka Shad Suk Mynsiem Sol.11.(d) Lasya style. Mohiniyattam : A
(Khasis tribe), Beh-dien-khlam (Jaintias), Q.7. Which of the following Indian tribal
:@
graceful classical dance from Kerala,
Wangala (Garos), Chad Sukra (Jaintia). dances is prevalent in the Araku Valley focusing on expressions and storytelling
near Visakhapatnam? in the Lasya style. Samapadam : A
Q.3. Which of the following dances of
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift)
TG
Goa is performed to celebrate the victory steady, rhythmic movement in
(a) Dhimsa (b) Bagurumba Bharatanatyam. Tribhanga : A pose in
of the Maratha warriors over the
(c) Jhumur (d) Bardo Chham Odissi dance with three bends (head,
Portuguese ?
on
SSC MTS 01/10/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.7.(a) Dhimsa. Dances of Andhra waist, and knees). Chowk : A position
(a) Ghodemodni (b) Zemmado Pradesh: Buttabommalu, Dappu Dance, imitating a square - a very masculine
stance with the weight of the body
ch
(c) Morulem (d) Goff Kolatam, Lambada, Veeranatyam, Koya
Nrityam. Bagurumba is a folk dance of equally balanced.
Sol.3.(a) Ghodemodni (Horse dance)
ar
Assam's Bodo tribe. Bardo Chham is Q.12. Khuallam is a famous dance of:
celebrated in Thane, Sattari, and nearby
from Arunachal Pradesh, while Jhumur is SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Se
villages, is a traditional event featuring
performed by Assam's tea tribes. (a) Bihar (b) Andhra Pradesh
warriors on decorated horses showing
their skills in riding and martial arts. Q.8. Which Indian classical dance form (c) Mizoram (d) Uttar Pradesh
Other traditional dances of Goa include has composition in Meitei language? Sol.12.(c) Mizoram. Khuallam (Dance of
Monilem, Fugdi, Dhalo, Talgadi, SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (3rd Shift) the Guests) is a dance usually performed
Tonyamel, Bhandap, Zagor, Corredinho (a) Sattriya (b) Chhau in the ceremony called 'Khuangchawi'.
(Portuguese), Dhangar dance, and (c) Manipuri (d) Bharatanatyam Dances: Mizoram - Cheraw, Sarlamkai,
Veerbhadra. Solakia, Chailam, Chawnglaizawn,
Sol.8.(c) Manipuri, the classical dance of
Q.4. Which of the following war dances Manipur, combines Pre-Vaishnavite and Chheihlam, Tlanglam, Zangtalam.
is performed in Ngada festival and is Vaishnavite traditions. It includes Q.13. Tera Tali folk dance is primarily
performed by the tribes of Nagaland? Sankirtana, Rasalila, and the lively Pung associated with which of the following
SSC MTS 8/10/2024 (3rd Shift) drum dance. states?
(a) Jawara (b) Dalkhai SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.9. Which of the following dances is
(c) Rengma (d) Garadi (a) Rajasthan (b) Assam
performed in Goa during the festival
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Haryana
Sol.4.(c) Rengma. Other popular dances Ganesh Chaturthi?
of Nagaland include Modse, Aaluyattu. SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Sol.13.(a) Rajasthan. Terah Tali Dance :
Jawara (Madhya Pradesh), Dalkhai (a) Tarangmel (b) Dhalo This dance is performed in praise of the
(Odisha), Garadi (Puducherry). (c) Fugdi (d) Dhangar folk God Ramdevji, primarily by the
Kamar tribe. Rajasthani folk dances :
Q.5. In which of the following classical Sol.9.(c) Fugdi. It is performed by
Chari, Ghoomar, Kalbelia, Kathputli dance
dance forms are the actors’ faces women during festivals. Goa's folk
and Gair folk dance.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.14. Matki dance is the famous folk Sol.18.(a) Nagaland. Kuki dance is the procession taken out in memory of
dance associated with which of the performed by the Kuki tribe in India. Gugga Pir.
following states? Major folk dances : Nagaland - Modse, SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Agurshikukula, Butterfly Dance, (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Jammu & Kashmir
(a) Punjab (b) Gujarat Aaluyattu, War Dance and Zeliang Dance. (c) Haryana (d) Puducherry
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
Q.19. Yakshagan is a folk dance of which Sol.23.(c) Haryana. Gugga dance - It is a
Sol.14.(c) Madhya Pradesh. The "Matki
of the following states? religious dance (in the month of Bhadon)
Dance," performed using a small pitcher,
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) performed by men. Dancers carry
is particularly popular in the Malwa
(a) Odisha (b) West Bengal instruments such as Thali, Chimta, Deru.
region of Madhya Pradesh. Other
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka Folk dances of Haryana - Phalgun dance,
traditional dances of Madhya Pradesh
Loor dance, Daph dance, Khoria dance,
include Jawara, Grida, Chaitra, Kaksar, Sol.19.(d) Karnataka. Yakshagana is a
Saang dance, Dhamal dance, Jhumar
Karma, Maanch, Tertali, Pardhoni, and traditional folk dance form popular in
dance.
Kanara. Coastal districts. Some well-known folk
dances of Karnataka include Dollu Q.24. ‘Chang dance’ is popular in the
Q.15. Padayani’, a local dance form
Kunitha, Hulivesha, Kamsale, Puja state of:
primarily performed in ________ to please
Kunitha, Suggi Kunitha, Veeragase, and SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift)
Goddess Bhadrakali.
Karaga. (a) Goa (b) Bihar (c) Rajasthan (d) Tripura
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) Assam (b) Kerala Q.20. Langvir Nritya is a folk dance from Sol.24.(c) Rajasthan. The Chang dance,
(c) Odisha (d) West Bengal the state of ________ also known as Dhamal or Dhuff dance, is
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) performed during the Hindu festival of
Sol.15.(b) Kerala. Padayani literally
df
(a) Gujarat (b) Uttar Pradesh Holi to celebrate the triumph of good
means “row of warriors” is a dance. It is
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Haryana
_p
regarded as a remnant of the Dravidian over evil. It is popularly referred to as the
forms of worship that existed before the Sol.20.(c) Uttarakhand. Langvir Nritya is Holi dance due to its association with the
na
advent of Brahmanism. The percussion a dance form practiced by only men. The festival.
instruments used are padayani thappu, dancers use a long bamboo pole. Folk Q.25. Giddha dance is a folk dance of
ap
chenda, para and kumbham. Other dances of Uttarakhand: Jhora, Chholia, which of the following states ?
dances of Kerala : Mudiyettu, Barada Nati, Pandav Nritya, Chancheri, SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
:@
Thiruvathirakali, Kolkali, Oppana, Chhapeli, Thali, Rasu Nritya, Jaguars. (a) Manipur (b) Punjab
Kummattikali, Chavittu Natakam.
Q.21. Which of the following dances (c) Nagaland (d) Odisha
TG
Q.16. In which of the following states of developed in the monasteries of Assam? Sol.25.(b) Punjab. Gidda is performed by
India is Hojagiri dance predominantly SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift) women during social gatherings. Other
performed ? (a) Bharatanatyam (b) Kathak folk dances of Punjab : Bhangra, Daff,
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift)
on
(c) Sattriya (d) Kuchipudi Luddi, Jaago, Dhamal.
(a) Tripura (b) Kerala
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Maharashtra Sol.21.(c) Sattriya originated in the Q.26. Which classical dance was
ch
Sattra (monastery) as part of the introduced by the great Vaishnava saint
Sol.16.(a) Tripura. The Hojagiri dance is neo-Vaishnavite movement started by and reformer of Assam?
ar
performed during the Hojagiri Festival or Srimanta Sankardev in the 15th century. SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Laxmi Puja, which occurs on the full He promoted “ek sharan naam dharma” (a) Kathak (b) Kuchipudi
Se
moon night following Durga Puja, (devotional chanting of one God’s name). (c) Sattriya (d) Odissi
typically a few days after Dussehra. In 2000, the Sangeet Natak Akademi
recognized Sattriya as a classical dance. Sol.26.(c) Sattriya. The Sattriya dance
Q.17. In which of the following states is
form was introduced in the 15th century
the Chu-Faat dance performed? Q.22. 'Chhau' is a popular dance of which A.D by Mahapurusha Sankaradeva. It
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) of the following state ? became popular as a part of the
(a) Haryana (b) Uttarakhand SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) Vaishnava Bhakti Movement in Sattra
(c) West Bengal (d) Sikkim (a) Gujarat (b) Haryana (Hindu monasteries).
(c) Jharkhand (d) Kerala
Sol.17.(d) Sikkim. Chu-Faat, meaning
Q.27. Jagoi and Cholom are two
"Snowy Range" (Chu) and "Worship" Sol.22.(c) Jharkhand. Chhau dance has
divisions in the Indian classical dance
(Faat), is a folk dance of Sikkim martial and folk traditions. It is found in
form of ________.
performed in honor of Mount three styles named after the location
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Khangchendzonga. Other folk dances of where they are performed, i.e., the Purulia
(a) Kathak (b) Bharatanatyam
Sikkim - Sikmari, Singhi Chaam or the Chhau of West Bengal, the Seraikella
(c) Manipuri (d) Kathakali
Snow Lion Dance, Yak Chaam, Khukuri Chhau of Jharkhand and the Mayurbhanj
Naach. Chhau of Odisha. The Cultural Ministry of Sol.27.(c) Manipuri. Jagoi refers to the
India has included Chhau in the list of gentle and graceful movements, often
Q.18. ‘Kuki dance’ is a folk dance of India
classical dances making a total of 9 depicting devotion and love. Cholom
that is predominantly performed in _____.
classical dance forms. refers to the fast-paced and energetic
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Q.23. Gugga is the famous ritualistic movements, often depicting heroic and
(a) Nagaland (b) Karnataka
dance of ________, which is performed in martial themes. Other dances and their
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
division: Kathakali (Kerala) - Satvika, Cultural Heritage of India since 2010 ? (c) Vira and Toda (d) Jagoi and Cholom
rajasika and tamasika. Bharatanatyam SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift)
(Tamil Nadu) - Nritta, Nritya and Natya. (a) Garba (b) Kalbelia Sol.36.(d) Jagoi and Cholom. Manipuri is
(c) Ghumar (d) Matki an ancient classical dance form from
Q.28. The Chau dancers of ___________ Manipur. It has two main styles : Jagoi,
organise a festival named Chau-Jhumur Sol.32.(b) Kalbelia : It has other names which is gentle, and Cholom, which is
Utsav, where an open stage is designed like 'Sapera Dance' or 'Snake Charmer vigorous, reflecting the lasya and
for the performance by Chau groups. Dance'. This dance is particularly tandava elements described in Sanskrit
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift) performed by a Rajasthani tribe called literature.
(a) Jharkhand (b) West Bengal 'Kalbelia'.
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh Q.37. How many types of makeup
Q.33. The Bhotia dance form is a (vesham) are used for the performers of
Sol.28.(b) West Bengal. folk-dance from which of the following Kathakali dance?
Chhau is performed in three styles Indian states? SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
across eastern India: Purulia Chhau - SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) (a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 11
West Bengal. Seraikela Chhau - (a) Odisha (b) Goa
Jharkhand. Mayurbhanj Chhau - Odisha. (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Uttarakhand Sol.37.(c) 5. The five major Veshams in
Kathakali (Kerala), are Kathi (Knife),
Q.29. Which of the following states/UTs Sol.33.(d) Uttarakhand. The Bhotia Pacha (Green), Thaadi (Beard), Minukku
is Rauf a folk dance? dance performed by the Bhotia tribe of (Radiant), and Kari (Black). The Pacha
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) Uttarakhand. Other folk dances: Veshams represent noble and divine
(a) Karnataka Uttarakhand - Jhora, Chholia, Langvir characters. Kathi represents characters
(b) Kerala Nritya, Barada Nati, Pandav Nritya, that are arrogant and evil, although they
df
(c) Lakshadweep Chancheri, Chhapeli. possess a vein of gallantry.
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
_p
Q.34. With reference to Saila dance Q.38. Indian Classical Dance is an
Sol.29.(d) Jammu and Kashmir. Rauf is a consider the following statements and umbrella under which various performing
na
popular dance form performed by select the correct option. arts whose theory and practice can be
women during weddings and other a) A group comprising of male traced to the Sanskrit text, Natya-Shastra,
ap
celebrations. performers. the foundational treatise by:
b) The dance is performed with bamboo SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
:@
Q.30. Bhavai is a dance form that sticks. (a) Panini (b) Bhasa
belongs to which of the following states? c) It is performed after the cutting of (c) Patanjali (d) Bharata Muni
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) crops.
TG
(a) Bihar (b) Odisha SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift) Sol.38.(d) Bharata Muni. He was an
(c) Rajasthan (d) Madhya Pradesh (a) a, b, c (b) Both b and c ancient Indian dramatist and
(c) Both a and c (d) Both a and b musicologist. Natya-Shastra is also
Sol.30.(c) Rajasthan.
on
known as the fifth veda. Author and
Bhavai is performed by both men and Sol.34.(a) a, b, c. Saila dance book: Panini - Ashtadhyayi (Sanskrit
women belonging to Kalbelia, Jat, (Chattisgarh): This dance is performed treatise on grammar). Bhasa -
ch
Meena, Bhil, or Kumhar tribal only by boys after the harvest season in Svapnavasavadutta (The dream of
communities. The performers balance the Hindu month of Aghan (November Vasavadatta). Patanjali - Mahabhasaya
ar
eight to nine brass pitchers or earthen -December). Other folk dances of (Sanskrit grammar).
pots on their heads as they dance. Other
Se
Chattisgarh: Sua, Pandavani, Karma,
famous dances of Rajasthan: Ghoomar, Panthi, Jhirliti. Q.39. Which of the following classical
Kathputli, Fire Dance, Bhopa, Chang, dance forms is usually concluded with
Teratali, Gair, and Kachchhighori. Q.35. Which of the following dances is Tarangam ?
NOT a part of the Odia culture? SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
Q.31. What is known to be ‘ekaharya’, SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) (a) Kuchipudi (b) Odissi
where one dancer takes on many roles in (a) Paika (b) Gotipua (c) Sattriya (d) Kathakali
a single performance ? (c) Kathakali (d) Dalkhai
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.39.(a) Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh).
(a) Bharatanatyam (b) Kathak Sol.35.(c) Kathakali, a "story play" from In this, the dancer usually stands on a
(c) Kuchipudi (d) Kathakali Kerala, features vibrant costumes and brass plate locking the feet in position,
makeup of male dancers. Paika Dance shakatavadanam paada, and moves the
Sol.31.(a) Bharatanatyam: Features - welcomes esteemed guests or plate rhythmically with great dexterity.
The dance involves transitional accompanies religious processions. The instruments used in Kuchipudi
movements of the leg, hip and arm. Gotipua, from Odisha, praises Lord involve veena, flute, tambura, cymbals,
Expressive eye movements and hand Krishna and Jagannath, while Dalkhai is and mridangam.
gestures are used to convey emotions. It a popular folk dance of western Odisha.
encompasses Bhav, Rag, Ras and Taal. Q.40. Select the correct alternative on
The person who conducts the dance Q.36. What are the two main parts the basis of the statements given about
recitation is the Nattuvanar. corresponding to Lasya and Tandava ‘Rasa’.
elements in Manipuri dance? Statement I : It is the aesthetic
Q.32. Which of the following dances is SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) experience that one derives while
listed in the UNESCO List of Intangible (a) Bhangi and Stri (b) Varnam and Paran enjoying an artistic presentation.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Statement II : It deals with the creation of Sol.43.(d) Odissi (Odisha). The two main Nritya is performed by the Munda tribe in
human sentiments in the spectator or the body postures in this dance form include the Mayurbhanj region of Jharkhand,
aesthete. the Chowk and Tribhanga. Tribhanga where it stands out as a folk dance
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) (the body is deflected at the neck, torso rooted in martial arts. This dance plays a
(a) Only Statement I is true. and the knees) and Chowk (a position significant role in weddings, Dussehra,
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are imitating a square). and various other festivities. Other
true Dances of Jharkhand: Hunta, Barao,
(c) Only Statement II is true. Q.44. From which of the following epics Karam, Lahasuya, Groha Naach,
(d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II did the Garadi folk dance of Puducherry Seraikella Chhau.
is true. originate ?
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Q.48. In which of the following dance
Sol.40.(b) Both Statement I and (a) Ramayana (b) Panchatantra forms is Mati-Akhora used as the basic
Statement II are true. Rasa relates to (c) Mahabharata (d) Hitopadesha exercise pattern that facilitates various
human senses and evokes emotions in dance poses?
the mind through Natya (drama). Sol.44.(a) Ramayana. Garadi dance is Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
However, the concept extends beyond mainly performed at the time of the car (a) Sattriya (b) Manipuri
Natya to encompass dance, music, festival of Lord Vishnu. Indian States and (c) Kuchipudi (d) Kathakali
cinema, and literature. Rasa signifies folk Dances: Kerala - Chavittukali, Kolkali
aesthetic pleasure or the joy experienced or Kolkkali (also popular in Lakshadweep Sol.48.(a) Sattriya is a classical dance of
during a skillful performance, enhanced Islands), Kummattikkali. Goa - Assam. Mati-Akhora is a basic exercise
by exquisite poetry, music, and action. Dashavatara, Dekhni, Dhalo, Dhangar, pattern that facilitates various dance
Fugdi, Ghodemodni. Karnataka - Dollu poses. Poses include body bending, body
Q.41. Alarippu, Jatiswaram, Shabdam, Kunitha, Bayalata, Kamsale, Veeragase. movements, foot movements, jumps,
df
Varnam and Tillana are regular patterns Maharashtra - Dhangari Gaja, Lavani, hand, head and neck movements and eye
_p
of which of the following classical dance Povada, and Koli dance. movements.
forms of India?
Q.45. Cheraw dance belongs to which of Q.49. Jaita is the main dance form of
na
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(a) Sattriya (b) Bharatanatyam the following states? which state?
Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
ap
(c) Manipuri (d) Kathak
(a) Nagaland (b) Gujarat (a) Karnataka (b) Rajasthan
Sol.41.(b) Bharatanatyam, a classical (c) Mizoram (d) Uttarakhand (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
:@
dance form originating from Tamil Nadu,
follows a structured pattern - Alarippu: Sol.45.(c) Mizoram. Cheraw, also known Sol.49.(d) Uttar Pradesh. Jaita is a
Invocation, introducing the dancer and as the Bamboo dance, is one of the traditional folk dance performed by the
TG
setting the tone. Jatiswaram: Pure oldest traditional dances. Other Jat community, especially in the
dance, showcasing rhythmic patterns. traditional dances of Mizoram include Bundelkhand region, during weddings
Shabdam: Combination of music and Khuallam, Sarlamkai, Chheihlam, and and festivals. Other folk dances of Uttar
on
dance, with emphasis on expression. Mizo. Pradesh include: Nautanki, Raslila, Kajri.
Varnam: Central piece, highlighting the
Q.46. Bharatanatyam of Tamil Nadu has Q.50. When was Bharatanatyam banned
ch
dancer's skill and technique. Tillana:
grown out of the art of dancers by the British colonial government ?
Concluding piece, characterized by rapid
dedicated to temples, and was earlier SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
ar
movements.
known: (a) 1885 (b) 1910 (c) 1897 (d) 1927
Se
Q.42. 'Lai Haraoba' is the earliest form of Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(a) Sadir (b) Jagoi (c) Cholom (d) Gat Sol.50.(b) 1910. Bharatanatyam (Tamil
dance of which of the following classical
Nadu): It traces its origins back to the
dance forms of India?
Sol.46.(a) Sadir (or Dasi Attam). The Natyashastra, an ancient treatise on
Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
dance of Bharatanatyam belongs to the theatre written by the mythic priest
(a) Kuchipudi (b) Manipuri
Carnatic system of southern India. Jagoi Bharata. Features :- It encompasses
(c) Kathakali (d) Mohiniattam
and Cholom are the two main divisions in Bhav, Rag, Ras and Taal. It consists of six
Sol.42.(b) Manipuri (Manipur) classical Manipur’s dance. The term gat refers to a portions: Alarippu (Invocation),
dance is associated with rituals and stylized way of walking that is used to Jathiswaram (Nritta part), Shabdam
traditional festivals; there are legendary express scenes from daily life. It is also a (Short compositions with word), Varnam
references to the dances of Shiva and type of rhythmic footwork that is usually (a story, that includes both Nritta and
Parvati. The male dancers play the Pung performed at the end of a rendition. Nritya), Padam (Religious prayer, Bhajan,
and Kartal while dancing. It is an Keerthanam) and Tillana (Origin in the
Q.47. Select the INCORRECT Tarana of Hindustani Music).
important festival of the Meitai tribe.
combination of folk dance and its
Q.43. Archaeological evidence of which respective state. Q.51. What is a one act play of Sattriya
of the following dance forms dating back Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) called?
to the 2nd century BC was found in the (a) Dhangari Gaja - Maharashtra SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
caves of Udayagiri and Khandagiri ? (b) Dandiya Raas- Gujarat (a) Ekam Nat (b) Vishesham Nat
Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (c) Dollu Kunitha - Karnataka (c) Anant Nat (d) Ankiya Nat
(a) Kathak (b) Kuchipudi (d) Paika - Kerala
Sol.51.(d) Ankiya Nat: It is a form of
(c) Manipuri (d) Odissi
Sol.47.(d) Paika - Kerala. The Paika Sattriya that involves musical drama or
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
play. It was initially written in Brajavali, an Kaloi community of Tripura and is primary means of expression.
Assamese-Maithili hybrid language. It's performed during the harvest festival.
also known as 'Bhaona,' and it tells Other folk dances of Tripura: Garia, Q.61. The cultural heritage of Siddhis
stories about Lord Krishna. Lebang Boomani, Hozagiri, Bizu, Hai-Hak, from _______ dates back to almost 300
Cheraw, Jhum. years and their Siddhi Dhamal dance is
Q.52. Bhutia dance is performed in which an exquisite art form.
of the following states? Q.57. With which of the following dance SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) forms is Thumri music associated? (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Gujarat
(a) Nagaland (b) Odisha SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
(c) West Bengal (d) Sikkim (a) Kathak (b) Kathakali
(c) Bharatanatyam (d) Sattriya Sol.61.(b) Gujarat. Siddhis - They are
Sol.52.(d) Sikkim. Other dances: Sikkim - descendants of East African people who
Singhi Chham, Tamang Selo, Sherpa Sol.57.(a) Kathak: It is a classical dance came to India as slaves during the 14th
Dance, Ghantu, Gayley-Yang Dance, form of Uttar Pradesh. Thumri: It is a and 17th century AD. Dhamal is one such
Sangey Chham Dance and Chu Faat. common genre of semi-classical Indian dance form that reflects the Siddis’
music originating in the eastern part of passion for hunting. In the old days, also
Q.53. Which of the following dances is Uttar Pradesh. Kathakali (Kerala): It is a known as Mashira Nritya, this dance was
based on Rasleela themes of Radha and combination of 5 forms of fine art which performed by Siddis after returning from
Krishna? are Literature (Sahithyam), Music a successful hunting expedition.
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) (Sangeetham), Painting (Chithram),
(a) Mohiniyattam (b) Kathak Acting (Natyam) and Dance (Nritham). Q.62. Which dance form is associated
(c) Sattriya dance (d) Manipuri dance . with Natwari Dance ?
Q.58. The masculine aspect of the SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
df
Sol.53.(d) Manipuri dance. The themes Manipuri classical dance is known as: (a) Kathak (b) Kuchipudi
used in Manipuri dance forms: Mostly SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) (c) Odissi (d) Kathakali
_p
influenced by Hindu Vaishnavism (a) Choloms (b) Pareng (c) Maiba (d) Ras
themes. It also includes themes related Sol.62.(a) Kathak is famous for its
na
to Shaivism and Shaktism and regional Sol.58.(a) Choloms. The Kirtan form of spectacular footwork, amazing spins,
deities. Tandav Manipuri depicts themes congregational singing accompanies the Nazakat and Padhant. Natwari Nritya is
ap
of Shiv, Shakti or Krishna as warrior. dance which is known as Sankirtana in also known as the dance of Krishna.
Manipur. The male dancers play the Pung
:@
Q.54. In 2010, considering its and Kartal while dancing. The masculine Q.63. Dandari (Dancing) troupes perform
outstanding value and vulnerability, aspect of dance - the Choloms are a part ________ during the festival of Diwali for
UNESCO recognised 'Mudiyettu', an age - of the Sankirtana tradition. a fortnight with participation from Kolam
TG
old ritual-drama of ______ as an and Raj Gond tribes.
'intangible cultural heritage of humanity'. Q.59. Which of the dance was SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) immediately preceded by a practice (a) Chhau (b) Baiga Pardhoni
on
(a) Kerala (b) Telangana session called sevakali and undertaken (c) Ghusadi (d) Rout Nacha
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu in the precincts of a temple ?
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Sol.63.(c) Ghusadi (in the Adilabad
ch
Sol.54.(a) Kerala. Mudiyettu - A ritual (a) Kathakali (b) Kathak district of Telangana). Baiga Pardhoni
dance drama based on the mythological (c) Odissi (d) Kuchipudi (Madhya Pradesh) dance is performed by
ar
tale of a battle between the Goddess Kali the Baiga tribals. Raut Nacha
and the demon Darika. Sol.59.(a) Kathakali (dance of Kerala). (Chhattisgarh) is mainly performed by
Se
Its roots are in ancient ‘Kutiyattam’ Yaduvanshis.
Q.55. Thullal dance originated in which (Classical Sanskrit Dance Drama) and
of the following states ? Q.64. Gaur Maria, a dance form from
‘Krishnattam’ (Dance-Drama depicting
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) _________ state, is a famous art form of
Stories of Hindu God Krishna).
(a) Kerala (b) Uttarakhand joy and invocation. It is a group dance
(c) Manipur (d) Gujrat Q.60. Which of the abhinayas deals with and both men and women participate
the use of costumes, jewellery, facial enthusiastically in this dance.
Sol.55.(a) Kerala. There are three make - up etc? SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
versions of this art form Seethankan SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (a) Maharashtra (b) Rajasthan
Thullal, Parayan Thullal and Ottan Thullal. (a) Vachika Abhinaya (b) Aharya Abhinaya (c) Gujarat (d) Chhattisgarh
Other dances : Kerala - Theyyam, (c) Sattvika Abhinaya (d) Angika Abhinaya
Thirvathirakali, Kolkali. Uttarakhand - Sol.64.(d) Chhattisgarh. Gaur Maria
Choliya, Pandav Nritya, Bhotia Dance, Sol.60.(b) Aharya Abhinaya involves Dance: It is performed on the occasion of
Jhora Dance. dancers wearing costumes like dhoti, marriage by the Gaur Madiya of
choli, and davani, paired with traditional Abujhmad plateau of Bastar in
Q.56. Maimata is a popular folk dance of jewelry such as "tal saman" and Chhattisgarh and is called Gaur after the
which of the following states ? sun-moon diadems. Vachika Abhinaya bison. Other dances of Chattisgarh:
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) focuses on speech through poems and Pandavani, Raut Nacha, Panthi and
(a) Punjab (b) Tripura dramas, while Saatwikam Abhinaya Soowa.
(c) Haryana (d) Uttarakhand emphasizes the expression of sattvika Q.65. Lebang Boomani dance is the
Sol.56.(b) Tripura. Mamita dance is a emotions by skilled performers. Aangika harvest dance of _________.
traditional dance associated with the Abhinaya uses body movements as the SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(a) Mizoram (b) Tripura (movement and rhythm) and Lasya only performed on rare occasions, such
(c) Assam (d) Meghalaya (grace, bhava and rasa). The nine rasas as feasts or celebrations.
are - Shringaara, Haasya, Karuna, Rudra, SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Sol.65.(b) Tripura. Folk dance of Tripura
Veera, Bhayaanaka, Bheebhatsya, (a) Uttarakhand (b) Ladakh
and its related Community : Hozagiri
Adbhutha and Shaantha. (c) Kashmir (d) Himachal Pradesh
dance - Reang community. Garia, Jhum,
Maimita, Masak Sumani and Lebang Q.70. The Rathwas, who dwell in the Sol.73.(b) Ladakh. Other dances : Kathok
Boomani - Tripuri community. Mamita' is state of___perform the Rathwa dance on Chenmo, Kompa Tsum-Tsag, Koshan,
a popular dance of the Kaloi community the occasion of Holi (festival of colours). Shondol (Royal dance of Ladakh),
of Tripura. SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Takshon or Shon. Uttarakhand: Bhotiya,
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Telangana Pandav Nritya, Chholiya, Jhumela, Jagar.
Q.66. Mahari Dance and Gotipua Dance
(c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat Kashmir: Kud, Dumhal, Rouf, Bhand
belong to which of the following states ?
Pather, Bachha Nagma.
SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Sol.70.(d) Gujarat. Rathwas - Tribe of
(a) Odisha (b) Haryana Gujarat dwell in Rath-Vistar, the hilly area Q.74. Mundari dance is associated with
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Bihar of the southeastern part of the state. the tribal community of which Indian
Sol.66.(a) Odisha. Mahari Dance - A Rathwa dance - The dance is performed state?
ritualistic dance form from the eastern for five days as part of Holi celebrations SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift)
Indian state of Odisha that used to be and the dancers observe a fast during (a) Mizoram (b) Karnataka
performed at the temple of Lord this period. The male dancers are called (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Jharkhand
Jagannatha at Puri by devadasi dancers gherriyas while the female dancers are
called gheranis. Sol.74.(d) Jharkhand. Mundari dance -
called Maharis. Gotipua Dance - Community - Munda Tribe. Time - During
df
Performed in Orissa for centuries by Q.71. In the performance of _______ Harvest Season accompanied by musical
young boys, who dress as women to dance, on one side raasa dances are Instrument Madal, Nagara and Bansi.
_p
praise Jagannath and Krishna. performed by women, whereas on the Other Tribal Dances: Santhali Dance -
opposite side instrumentalist play the Santhal (West Bengal, Jharkhand).
na
Q.67. The Songi Mukhawate dance of
________ celebrates the victory of truth pung choloms (drums) and the karataala Bamboo Dance - Mizoram. Kalbelia
(cymbals). Dance - Kalbelia Community (Rajasthan).
ap
over falsehood. The name of the dance is
derived from the two lion masks worn by SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Bhagoria Dance - Bhils (Madhya
(a) Kathakali (b) Yakshagana Pradesh). Dhimsa Dance - Porja Tribe
:@
two dancers who represent Narasimha,
an aspect of Lord Vishnu. (c) Odissi (d) Manipuri (Andhra Pradesh).
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Sol.71.(d) Manipuri. There are two Q.75. Which of the following dance
TG
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Jharkhand
prominent manners or Choloms in forms is performed by the Adi tribe of
(c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat
Manipuri dance: Pung Cholom (roar of Arunachal Pradesh?
Sol.67.(c) Maharashtra. It is customarily the drums) borrows elements from the SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift)
on
performed as an integral part of the Manipuri martial arts Thang Ta, Sarit (a) Tapu (b) Karma
worship of Devi (mother goddess) on the Sarak and Maibi Jagoi dance. Kartal (c) Sangphao (d) Kaksar
ch
full moon night of the lunar month of Cholom - This is a group dance, where
dancers form a circle. Women dance in Sol.75.(a) Tapu. Indian folk and tribal
Chaitra (March/April).
dances : Arunachal Pradesh - Buiya,
ar
groups, called Mandilla Cholom.
Q.68. Rikham pada dance belongs to Chalo, Wancho, Pasi Kongki Ponung,
Se
which of the following states ? Q.72. The Lambadi dance is a folk dance Popir, Bardo Chham, etc. Assam - Bihu,
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift) form of the_______tribe and originated in Bichhua, Bagurumba, Khel Gopal, Tabal
(a) Meghalaya (b) Assam Andhra Pradesh. Chongli, Jhumura Hobjanai etc.
(c) Mizoram (d) Arunachal Pradesh SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Nagaland - Chong, Nuralim, Temangnetin,
(a) Sugali (b) Banjara Rangma, Zeliang, etc. Mizoram - Cheraw
Sol.68.(d) Arunachal Pradesh. (c) Nakkala (d) Dabba Yerukula Dance (Bamboo dance), Khuallam,
Rikham Pada Dance : Performed by the Chailam, Zangtalam, Khanatm, etc.
women of the Nishi tribe only to express Sol.72.(b) Banjara - A nomadic tribe of Manipur - Thang Ta, Lai Haraoba, Pung
their love for their husbands and to offer India. The community was denotified in Cholom, Nupa Dance, etc. Tripura -
their reverence to the gods. Other dances the 1950s but was listed under the Hojagiri. Meghalaya - Laho, Shad Suk
of Arunachal Pradesh : Bhuiya dance, Habitual Offenders Act, 1952. Other Mynsiem, Nongkrem.
Chalo dance, Wancho dance, Pasi names of Banjara : Lambani in Karnataka
Kongki, Ponung dance and Popir dance. and Gwar or Gwaraiya in Rajasthan. Q.76. Chali, Jhumura and Nadu Bhangi
Language of Banjara : ‘Gorboli’ ‘Gor mati are associated with which Indian
Q.69. Which form of Indian dance is said Boli’ or ‘Brinjari’, an independent dialect. classical dance form?
to be 'soft and suitable for female The dialect falls in the category of SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift)
presentation' ? Indo-Aryan Language. Another Tribal (a) Kathakali (b) Sattriya
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (1st Shift) dance of Andhra Pradesh - ‘Dhimsa’ (c) Manipuri (d) Kuchipudi
(a) Nritta (b) Taandava (Performed by the Porja tribes).
(c) Laasya (d) Nritya Sol.76.(b) Sattriya (Assam): Gayan
Q.73. The Balti dance of _____ is distinct -Bhayanar Nach, Kharmanar Nach are
Sol.69.(c) Laasya. The Indian classical as it has its own costume, music and also associated with Sattriya dance.
dances have two basic aspects: Tandava songs in the Balti language. The dance is There were two dance forms prevalent in
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Assam before the neo-Vaishnava associated with which of the following Princely states was primarily associated
movement i.e Ojapali and Devadasi with Indian states? with Kathak?
many classical elements. Two varieties SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift) SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift)
of Ojapali dances are still prevalent in (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh (a) Tripura (b) Avadh
Assam i.e. Sukananni or Maroi Goa Ojah (c) Kerala (d) Gujarat (c) Baroda (d) Vijaynagar
and Vyah Goa Ojah. Sukananti Ojapali is
of Shakti cult and Vyah Goa Oja paali is Sol.81.(c) Kerala. Other folk dances : Sol.86.(b) Avadh. Kathak (Uttar Pradesh)
of Vaishnava cult . Ottam Thulal, Kaikottikali, Tappatikali, - It was performed under the Mughal
Kali Auttam. Andhra Pradesh - Ottam emperors. Exponents - Pandit Birju
Q.77. Which of the following is a Thedal, Kummi, Siddhi, Bhamakalpam, Maharaj, Shovna Narayan, Shambhu
traditional dance form of Sri Lanka? Veeranatyam, Dappu, Tappeta Gullu, Maharaj, Lachhu Maharaj. Other dances
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift) Lambadi, Dhimsa, Kolattam, Butta of Uttar Pradesh: Charkula, Khyal,
(a) Bihu (b) Kathak Bommalu. Raslila, Nautanki Dance, Kajri. Tripura -
(c) Kandyan dance (d) Bharatanatyam Hojagiri, Garia, Jhum, Bijhu, Sangrai,
Q.82. Tevitichiyattam, Nangai Natakam Lebang boomani.
Sol.77.(c) Kandyan Dance (Developed and Dasiyattam are the forms of which
during the Kandyan kings' reign) - It is an of the following classical dances? Q.87. The Pakhawaj syllables are
ancient dance style narrating stories SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift) primarily used to conclude which of the
from the Indian epic Ramayana. Other (a) Odissi dance (b) Kathakali dance following Indian classical dances?
dances of Sri Lanka: PahathaRata (c) Sattriya dance (d) Mohiniyattam dance SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift)
Netum, Sabaragamuwa. (a) Manipuri (b) Kathak
Sol.82.(d) Mohiniyattam dance(Classical (c) Odissi (d) Kathakali
Q.78. The traditional singing of 'Nat' is dance form of Kerala in South India).
df
associated with _________Dance. Sol.87.(c) Odissi. The "Mangalacharan,"
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift) Q.83. Sarhul is a famous tribal festival of a concluding prayer or benediction, is
_p
(a) Kathak (b) Manipuri dance in which state ? often recited using Pakhawaj bols,
(c) Odissi (d) Chhau SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift) creating a powerful and symbolic ending.
na
(a) Assam (b) Sikkim
Sol.78.(b) Manipuri. Nat is the Manipuri (c) Jharkhand (d) Chhattisgarh Q.88. Bharatanatyam expresses South
ap
classical style of singing, Pung or the Indian religious themes and spiritual
Manipuri classical drum is the musical Sol.83.(c) Jharkhand. Sarhul - The ideas of ______.
:@
instrument used. Manipuri Dance Styles - festival of the Oraon tribe. It is the SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
Raas, Nata-Sankirtan, Pung Cholam festival of the New Year and celebrated (a) Sufism (b) Shaivism
(Dancers play the pung or drum while in the Hindu month of Chaitra, three days (c) Buddhism (d) Jainism
TG
dancing), Dhola Cholam, Kartal Cholam, after the appearance of the new moon. It
Thang ta (martial art form). is also a celebration of the beginning of Sol.88.(b) Shaivism - A Hindu tradition
spring. (which worships Shiva) that most
on
Q.79. The ‘Karma’ tribal dance form is accepts ascetic life and emphasises
associated with which of the following Q.84. Ghurehi is the folk dance of which yoga. The followers of Shaivism are
states? of the following Indian states? called Shaivas or Shaivites.
ch
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift) SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) Bharatnatyam (Tamil Nadu) : It traces its
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Goa (a) West Bengal (b) Himachal Pradesh origins back to the Natyashastra, an
ar
(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka (c) Karnataka (d) Jharkhand ancient treatise on theatre written by the
Se
Sol.84.(b) Himachal Pradesh. Ghurehi mythic priest Bharata.
Sol.79.(a) Chhattisgarh. Karma dance is
performed during the autumnal festival Dance - Performed by Ladies of Chamba Q.89. Daskathia of ________ is the tribal
of Karma Puja. The tribal group presents Region, during the annual fairs. It is a dance performed by two males depicting
this folk dance in front of the Karam tree devotional dance form, dedicated to Lord the historic and Puranic events.
that symbolizes the KaramDevta. Other Shiva and performed during Shivratri SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift)
folk dances from: Chhattisgarh - Raut festival. (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Gujarat
Nacha, Panthi, Pandavani, Saila, Suwa, Q.85. Kamsale is the folk dance of which (c) Goa (d) Odisha
Gendi, Cherchera. of the following Indian states ? Sol.89.(d) Odisha. Daskathia (Folk
Q.80. Laho is the dance form of which SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift) theatre form, associated with the
state? (a) Jharkhand (b) Karnataka worship of Lord Shiva). Some Folk
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (4th shift) (c) Kerala (d) Bihar theatre form:- Bhavai (Rajasthan),
(a) Manipur (b) Sikkim Garodas (Gujarat), Jatra (Odisha),
Sol.85.(b) Karnataka. Kamsale dance
(c) Meghalaya (d) Kerala Kariyila (Himachal Pradesh), Maach
(Beesu Kamsale) - A unique folk art
(Madhya Pradesh), Swang (Haryana),
Sol.80.(c) Meghalaya. Laho Dance : performed by the devotees of God
Ojapali (Assam), Powada (Maharashtra),
Performed during the Behdienkhlam Mahadeshwara. It also refers to a brass
Tamasha (Maharashtra), Bhand Pather
festival by the Jaintia tribe. Other dances made musical instrument. It is a group
(Jammu and Kashmir), Bhaona (Assam),
of Meghalaya : Nоngkrem, Shad Suk dance form performed by the menfolk in
Dashavatar (Konkan area), Naqal
Mynsiem, Wangala and Dоrsegata. villages in the Mysore, Nanjangud,
(Punjab).
Kollegala and Bangalore areas.
Q.81. The folk dance of Chavittu Kali is Q.90. Which of the following dances is
Q.86. Which of the following erstwhile
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
performed by the Santhal tribe of (a) Kathak (b) Bharatanatyam "Abhinaya" that enacts a traditional story
Jharkhand? (c) Kathakali (d) Mohiniyattam about the deeds of a specific God/
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (4th shift) Goddess; "Mokshya" that transcends all
(a) Jhika Dasain (b) Kolkali Sol.95.(b) Bharatanatyam. Other dance the participants to a higher spiritual level.
(c) Ghumar (d) Koli forms of Bharatanatyam: Melattur and
Pandanallur. Kuchipudi - Pure dance Q.100. Which of the following traditional
Sol.90.(a) Jhika Dashain. It is performed (Nritta) and Expressive dance (Nritya), dances is mainly performed during
a few days before Dussehra. Folk dance - Storytelling through dance (Natya). Navratri ?
Jharkhand : Alkap, Karma, Agni, Jhumar, Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
Paika, Phagua, Birhor. Q.96. Kathak is found in three distinct (a) Ras leela (b) Nati (c) Dumhal (d) Garba
forms, called 'gharanas', named after the
Q.91. Changai dance is associated with cities where the Kathak dance tradition Sol.100.(d) Garba (Gujarat). Other
which Indian state? evolved. Name those three cities. Navratri dances: Dandiya (Rajasthan and
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift) SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (1st shift) Gujarat). Gujarat :- Siddi Dhamal (hunting
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (a) Jaipur, Benaras, Lucknow dance), Padhar Dance (rituals dance).
(c) Nagaland (d) Jharkhand (b) Prayagraj, Thiruvananthapuram, Surat Rajasthan : Ghoomar (weddings and
(c) Ayodhya, Prayagraj, Jaipur Festivals dance), Kalbeliya Dance, Chari
Sol.91.(c) Nagaland. Changai Dance:
(d) Banaras, Ayodhya, Lucknow Dance. Nati (Himachal Pradesh), Dumhal
Performed by the Chang tribe during the
(Jammu and Kashmir).
Naknyulum festival, which lasts for three Sol.96.(a) Jaipur, Benaras, Lucknow.
days. Folk Dances of Nagaland: Lucknow Gharana (Founded by Ishwari Q.101. Which of the following classical
Aaluyattu (Konyak tribe), Agurshikukula Prasad). Jaipur Gharana (founded by dance forms is related to the worship of
(war dance), Butterfly Dance (Zeliang Bhanu Ji Maharaj). Banaras Gharana Lord Jagannath?
df
tribe), Khamba Lim, Kuki Dance, (Founded by Janakiprasad). Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
Leshalaptu, Mayur Dance (Animal (a) Odissi (b) Kathak
_p
dance). Modse (Ao tribe), Monyu Asho, Q.97. The 'Joenpa Legso' is a welcome (c) Sattriya (d) Bharatanatyam
Sadal Kekai (Kuki tribe), Seecha & Kukui dance of___________.
na
Kucho (Angami tribe), Rengma. SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift) Sol.101.(a) Odissi. Kathak : North Indian
(a) Afghanistan (b) Bhutan dance. Worship of Hindu god Krishna (or
ap
Q.92. Thabal Chongba is a folk dance of (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh Shiva or Devi in some cases). Sattriya :
which Indian state ? Assam. Worship of Lord : Shiva Nataraja.
:@
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift) Sol.97.(b) Bhutan. Other Dances of Bharatanatyam (Oldest classical dance) :
(a) Goa (b) Mizoram Bhutan - Drametse NgaCham Dance, Pa Tamil Nadu. Worship : Lord Shiva.
(c) Manipur (d) West Bengal Cham Dance, Zhungdra Dance, Boedra
TG
Dance. Dance forms of other countries : Q.102. Which of the following classical
Sol.92.(c) Manipur. Folk dances : Afghanistan - Atan, Ishala and Natsa. Sri dance forms begins with a drum playing
Manipur - Rasa lila, Gaura Lila, Pung Lanka - Kandyan dance. performance called 'Kelikottu'?
on
Cholom. Goa - Ghode Modni, Dhangar Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
Dance, Goff Talgadi, Shigmo and Mussel Q.98. The "Nalacharitham" play is
(a) Bharatanatyam (b) Odissi
khel. associated with which Indian dance
(c) Kuchipudi (d) Kathakali
ch
form?
Q.93. The Raigarh Gharana is associated SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift) Sol.102.(d) Kathakali (Kerala, classical
ar
with which of the following dance forms? (a) Kathak (b) Kathakali dance). The instruments used are -
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) (c) Sattriya (d) Odissi Chenda (Cylindrical drum), Madhalam (a
Se
(a) Odissi (b) Kathakali long cylindrical drum), Chengila,
Sol.98.(b) Kathakali (Kerala). The story
(c) Kathak (d) Manipuri Ilathalam (Resembles miniature pair of
Nalacharitham is written by "Unnai
cymbals), Idakka (drum) and Sankhu
Sol.93.(c) Kathak: Raigarh Gharana - Warrier". It is the romantic story of
(conch). Kathakali music follows the
Developed under the patronage of Raja unlimited love between Nala and
traditional Sopana sangeet of Kerala.
Chakradhar Singh. Damayanthi. There are 24 Basic Mudras
(hand gestures) and a total of 470 Q.103. Karagam Folk Dance is
Q.94. 'Kalasam' is a dance sequence in different symbols used in this dance. associated with which state ?
which of the following classical dances
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning)
of India ? Q.99. Moksha is an item of which of the
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Rajasthan
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift) following classical dance forms of India?
(c) Assam (d) Haryana
(a) Kathak (b) Kathakali Graduate Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
(c) Bharatanatyam (d) Manipuri (a) Odissi (b) Sattriya Sol.103.(a) Tamil Nadu. Karagam dance
(c) Bharatanatyam (d) Kathak It is a folk dance with musical
Sol.94.(b) Kathakali (Kerala). The text of
Sol.99.(a) Odissi. A classical Odissi accompaniment, performed balancing a
Kathakali songs known as Attakkatha.
performance consists of five different pot on the head. Dances of Tamil Nadu -
Major instruments used in Kathakali
types of items: "Mangalacharan", a praise Bharatanatyam, Kolattam, Karakattam,
music - Chenda, Maddalam, Chengila and
to a particular Divinity, to the stage and to Kazhai Kothu, Devaraattam, Mayil Attam,
Elathalam.
the audience; "Sthayee" or "Batu" that Kummi, Oyilattam, Karagam.
Q.95. 'Vazhuvoor ' is one of the styles in introduces the techniques of Odissi
Q.104. Bhoota Kola, a spirit worship
which Indian classical dance forms? Dance; "Pallavi" that creates a particular
ritual dance, is of which state?
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (4th shift) sentiment through abstract forms;
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Evening) dance that originated in Kerala. Most of Q.113. The Zo - Mal - Lok folk dance is
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu the stories for the play are taken from associated with which community?
(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka Hindu epics like “Bhagavata Purana”, SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Evening)
“Mahabharata” and “Ramayana’”. The (a) Chaimal community
Sol.104.(d) Karnataka. Andhra Pradesh - term Kathakali is derived from Katha (b) Jamatia community
Kuchipudi (classical), Vilasini Natyam, (conversation or traditional story) and (c) Lushai community
Veera Natyam, Tappeta Gullu, Butta Kali (performance). (d) Lepcha community
Bommalu. Kerala - Kathakali (classical),
Mohiniyattam, Theyyam, Ottamthullal, Q.109. Sangphao tribal dance is Sol.113.(d) Lepcha community. Zo Mal
Padayani. performed in which of the following Lok dance (Sikkim) - It portrays the
states? sowing, reaping and harvesting of paddy.
Q.105. Suggi is a famous folk dance SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Evening) Dances performed by the Lepcha
form of _________ state of India (a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan community - Chu Faat, Damsang-Lyang,
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning) (c) West Bengal (d) Nagaland Kinchum-Chu-Bomsa. Jamatias are fond
(a) Karnataka (b) Chhattisgarh of their traditional folk culture like Drama,
(c) Punjab (d) Sikkim Sol.109.(d) Nagaland (Naga tribe). Garia festival and other common dances
Popular folk dances: Nagaland - Modse, of Kok - Borok speaking tribes. Lushai
Sol.105.(a) Karnataka. Suggi - A dance Agurshikukula, Butterfly Dance,
performed at the time of harvesting by community (Tripura) - Cheraw Dance or
Aaluyattu, Sadal Kekai, Changai Dance, Bamboo dance.
the Halakki Vokkaliga tribe. Kuki Dance, Leshalaptu, Khamba Lim.
Q.114. dance is introverted and
Q.106. Nati is a folk dance of which of Q.110. Which among the following is a restrained compared to most other
the following states ? dance performed by the devotees during dances of India - the artist never
df
SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Evening) the ceremonial worship of Murugan the establishes eye contact with the
(a) Himachal Pradesh Hindu God of war ?
_p
audience.
(b) Madhya Pradesh SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Morning) SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (1st Shift)
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (a) Mayilattam (b) Yaksha
na
(a) Kathakali (b) Manipuri
(d) Andhra Pradesh (c) Kavadi attam (d) Kummi (c) Kuchipudi (d) Bharatnatyam
ap
Sol.106.(a) Himachal Pradesh. Nati - It Sol.110.(c) Kavadi attam (Burden Dance) Sol.114.(b) Manipuri. The dance in
was listed in the Guinness Book of World - part of Thaipusam festival and is Manipur is associated with rituals and
:@
Records as the largest folk dance in the celebrated in Tamil Nadu. Yakshagana traditional festivals, there are legendary
world. It is known as Tandi in upper (song of the yaksha) - celebrated in references to the dances of Shiva and
districts of Garhwal. Karnataka. It has originated as a product Parvati and other gods and goddesses
TG
Q.107. Jhijhiya is a famous folk dance of of the Vaishnava bhakti movement. who created the universe.
Bihar and is performed in the Kummi - celebrated in Tamil Nadu and
Kerala. Mayilattam - performed in the Q.115. Which of the following dance
mythological town of Mithila. This dance
on
Hindu temples of Tamil Nadu in forms is associated with the state of
is performed by women only. The whole
reverence to Lord Subrahmanya. Arunachal Pradesh ?
Navaratri "nine nights' festival is
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (1st Shift)
ch
celebrated to worship the three forms of Q.111. _______ poses are depicted on the (a) Panwariya (b) Dhaman
Lord ___________ . gopurams of the Chidambaram temple (c) Buiya (d) Garba
ar
SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Afternoon) (Tamil Nadu).
(a) Kali, Lakshmi, Durga
Se
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.115.(c) Buiya performed by the
(b) Sita, Durga, Laxmi (a) Bharatnatyam (b) Kathak Digaru Mishmi tribe. This dance is
(c) Lakshmi, Parvati, Saraswati. (c) Kathakali (d) Mohiniyattam performed in multiple festivals like
(d) Sita, Kali, Parvati Tazampu, Duiya, and Tanuya. Other
Sol.111.(a) Bharatnatyam. It is a dances of Arunachal Pradesh include
Sol.107.(c) Lakshmi, Parvati, Saraswati. classical dance of Tamil Nadu. Chalo dance (Nocte tribe), Oriah Dance
Jhijhiya is a cultural folk dance of Mithila Chidambaram temple (Tamil Nadu): (Wancho tribe), Pasi Kongki (Adi Tribe),
regions of Bihar and Madhesh province Dedicated to the Nataraja form of lord Ponung Dance (Adi Tribe), Popir Dance
of Nepal. It is performed in the Hindu Shiva. It was Built in the Dravidian style (Galo tribe), Bardo Chham (Sherdukpens
month of Ashwin (September/October). of temple architecture in the 10th century community), etc.
It has its own types of songs either in during Chola's rule.
Maithili or Bhojpuri language. Q.116. Which of the following dance
Q.112. After recovering from an forms is mentioned in the ancient text of
Q.108. Kathakali took shape in Southern
infectious illness, often smallpox, Brita Vyavahar Mala ?
India in the seventeenth century under
dance is typically performed to thank the SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
the patronage of the______.
local deity. It is one of the most well - (a) Sattriya (b) Mohiniyattam
SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Afternoon)
known dances of ________. (c) Manipuri (d) Odissi
(a) Prince of Tamil Nadu
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon)
(b) Prince of Bengal Sol.116.(b) Mohiniyattam (Kerala) -
(a) West Bengal (b) Bihar
(c) Prince of Karnataka Dance of Mohini (an incarnation of Lord
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Jharkhand
(d) Prince of Punjab Vishnu) mentioned in the ancient text of
Sol.108.(c) Prince of Karnataka. Sol.112.(a) West Bengal. Vyavaharmala (written in 1709 by
Kathakali (Kerala) - A classical Indian Mazhamagalam Narayanan Namputiri)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
and in Ghoshayathra (written later by (c) Kalbelia (d) Dandiya Raas Q.126. ‘Elelakkaradi’ is a tribal dance
poet Kunjan Nambiar). Odissi (Odisha) - form of which Indian state?
it incorporates two major postures - Sol.121.(d) Dandiya Raas is a folk dance SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Morning)
Tribhanga & Chowk. of Gujarat which is performed during the (a) Goa (b) Kerala
Navratri festival. Other folk dances of (c) Rajasthan (d) Jharkhand
Q.117. ‘Nupa’ dance is associated with Gujarat are Garba, Gheriya, Dangi Nritya,
which Indian state? Matukadi, Siddi Dhamal, Tippani and Sol.126.(b) Kerala. Tribal Dances of
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Hudo. India: Santhali Dance (West Bengal,
(a) Karnataka (b) Manipur Jharkhand & Odisha), Bamboo Dance
(c) Jharkhand (d) Tamil Nadu Q.122. _______is a traditional tribal dance (Mizoram), Kalbelia Dance (Rajasthan),
performed mainly by the women of Bhagoria Dance (Madhya Pradesh),
Sol.117.(b) Manipur. Nupa Pala (Kartal Jharkhand during the cultivation season. Chhau Dance (West Bengal, Jharkhand &
Cholom or Cymbal Dance) is a SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening) Odisha), Dhimsa Dance (Andhra
ramification of the Manipuri style of (a) Vera Dance (b) Yakshagana Pradesh), Shad Suk Mynsiem
dance and music. (c) Verdigao Dance (d) Jhumur (Meghalaya).
Q.118. The women of which tribe Sol.122.(d) Jhumur (Kudmi community). Q.127. Sangrai is a folk dance of which
perform the traditional folk dance called Other famous dances of Jharkhand - state of India?
Chakri? Santhali (folk dance of Jharkhand), SSC MTS 14/07/2022 (Evening)
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (4th Shift) Mardana Jhumair, Janani Jhumair, (a) Bihar (b) Tripura (c) Karnataka (d) Goa
(a) Kaul (b) Kanjar (c) Gond (d) Bharia Domkach, Fagua, Chhau dance.
Yakshagana dance (Karnataka), Verdigao Sol.127.(b) Tripura. Sangrai dance is
Sol.118.(b) Kanjar. It is performed
(Daman and Diu). performed by the Mog tribal community
exclusively by womenfolk in marriages
df
on the occasion of Sangrai festival
and festivals. Kanjar tribe inhabited
Q.123. Which is one of the most famous during the month of Chaitra (in April) of
_p
some parts of the Kota and Baran
dance forms of Assam performed by the the Bengali calendar year.
districts of Rajasthan. Gond tribe -
'Kulis' (people who work in the tea
na
Karma, Goncho Dance. Bharia tribe - Q.128. Which of the following is a
gardens) during autumn?
Bharam, Setam, Saila, and Ahirai dance. traditional masked dance of West
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
ap
(a) Mahasu dance (b) Jhumur dance Bengal?
Q.119. Ghoomar dance form was
(c) Lambadi dance (d) Karga dance SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Afternoon)
developed by which of the following
:@
(a) Kavadi (b) Gidda
tribes to worship Goddess Saraswati?
Sol.123.(b) Jhumur Dance (folk dance). (c) Gambhira (d) Jawara
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening)
Dances of Assam: Folk dance (Bihu
(a) Gujjar (b) Sahariya (c) Gond (d) Bhil
TG
Dance, Ali Ai Ligang dance, Deodhani, Sol.128.(c) Gambhira dance is
Sol.119.(d) Bhil. It is the largest tribal Barpeta’s Bhortal Nritya, Dhuliya and performed during the festival of Chaitra
group in India as per 2011 Census. Bhil Bhawariya, Bodo’s Bagurumba, Khamba Sankranti. The masks are made out of
on
tribes are found in the states of Lim, Bhaona, Oja Pali). neem and fig trees by the local Sutradhar
Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, community. Gidda (Punjab); Kavadi
Q.124. Which of the following dance (Tamil Nadu); Jawara Dance (Madhya
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Tripura.
ch
forms depicts the anguish of women Pradesh).
Gond Tribe (Karma dance). Sahariya tribe
whose partners are gone from home ?
(Lehngi dance). Gujjar Tribe (Chari
ar
SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Afternoon) Q.129. ‘Ummatt-aat’ is a folk dance form
dance). performed in ______.
(a) Matki (b) Biraha (c) Alkap (d) Paika
Se
Q.120. Which of the following is the main SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Afternoon)
Sol.124.(b) Biraha is an Ahir ethnic (a) Kasauli (b) Coorg
percussion instrument used in the
Bhojpuri folk genre from Uttar Pradesh, (c) Itanagar (d) Gangtok
performance of Mohiniyattam dance ?
Bihar, and Jharkhand.
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning) Sol.129.(b) Coorg. There are many other
(a) Sitar (b) Edakka Q.125. Gatka, a traditional fighting style traditional dance forms of Karnataka
(c) Dhumsa (d) Nagada of the Nihang Sikh warriors, used both which include Dollu Kunitha, Suggi
for self- defence as well as a sport, has Kunitha, Kamsale, Gorava Kunitha,
Sol.120.(b) Edakka. The musical
originated from which of the following Somana Kunitha, Bolak-aat, Komb-aat,
instruments used in Mohiniyattam:-
states of India ? Bhootha Aradhane, Yaksha Gana, Naga
Mridangam or Madhalam (barrel drum),
SSC MTS 07/07/2022 (Morning) Mandala, Veeragase.
Idakka (hourglass drum), flute, Veena,
(a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan
and Kuzhitalam (cymbals). Nagadas are Q.130. ______ is a popular folk dance of
(c) Bihar (d) Punjab
used in Punjabi and Rajasthani folk Minicoy Island.
music. Dhumsa used in 'Seraikella Sol.125.(d) Punjab. Famous Martial Arts SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning)
Chhau' dance of Orissa and 'Purulia in India: Kalaripayattu (Oldest Martial Art (a) Leshalaptu (b) Aaluyattu
Chhau' dance of West Bengal. in India; Kerala), Silambam (Tamil Nadu), (c) Lava (d) Moyashai
Thang-ta, and Sarit Sarak (Manipur),
Q.121. Which folk dance represents a Sol.130.(c) Lava. Nagaland Famous folk
Thoda (Himachal Pradesh), Lathi (Punjab
mock fight between Goddess Durga and dance - Leshalaptu, Aaluyattu, Moyashai,
and Bengal), Inbuan Wrestling (Mizoram),
Mahishasura? Modse, Bamboo Dance, Agurshikukula,
Musti Yuddha (Varanasi), and Pari -
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) Butterfly Dance, Sadal Kekai, Changai
Khanda (Bihar).
(a) Bhangra (b) Raslila Dance, Kuki Dance, Khamba Lim, Mayur
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Dance, Monyoasho, Rengma, Seecha and Lahоо. (a) Kalasha (b) Kamandal
Kukui Kucho, Shankai, War Dance and (c) Kumbha (d) Kapala
Zeliang Dance . Q.136. In which of the following states is
the ‘Mathuri’ folk dance practised? Sol.141.(a) Kalasha (Earthen pot). This is
Q.131. ______ is a mask dance popular in SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Afternoon) a female dominated dance. Normally in
South Malabar. (a) Telangana (b) Haryana this dance style, women perform carrying
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening) (c) Uttarakhand (d) Uttar Pradesh a ‘Kalash’ on their shoulders or heads.
(a) Dhangar (b) Kummattikali
Sol.136.(a) Telangana. The most popular Q.142. Which of the following dance
(c) Parichakali (d) Zemmado
folk dances of Telangana are Perini forms is also known as the 'Royal Dance
Sol.131.(b) Kummattikali. Dhangar - The Sivatandavam, Dappu Dance, Lambadi, of Ladakh' ?
Dhangar dance is performed by the Oggu Katha, Chindu Bhagavatam, SSC CHSL 20/10/2020 (Afternoon)
shepherd community of Goa during Gussadi Dance, Tholu Bommalata. (a) Yak dance (b) Jabro dance
Navratri. Parichakali (Lakshadweep). Dances of Uttarakhand- Choliya, (c) Shondol dance (d) Koshan dance
Other famous folk dances of south India Jhumelo, Pandavart / Pandava Leela,
Sol.142.(c) Shondol dance.
are - Padayani or Paddeni (Kerala), Langvir, Chanchari, Chhapeli, Tandi,
It is a famous dance which was earlier
Kummi and Kolattam (Tamil Nadu), Chaunfula, Jhoda, Thadiya.
used to be performed by artists for the
Kargam and Puli Vesham (Tamil Nadu).
Q.137. ‘Ranapa’, a folk dance form of King of Ladakh on special occasions.
Q.132. In which of the following dances Odisha, consists of enacting chapters
chairs on heads with lighted diyas are from the life of Lord ______. Arts Personality
performed by women ? SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Afternoon)
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Morning) (a) Indra (b) Ram (c) Krishna (d) Hanuman Q.143. ‘Raga Mala’ is an autobiography
df
(a) Dhangari Gaja Dance (b) Koli Dance of who among the following musicians?
(c) Tamasha Dance (d) Chari Dance Sol.137.(c) Krishna. Ranapa is
_p
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon)
performed on the stilt and accompanies
(a) Lata Mangeshkar (b) Amjad Ali Khan
Sol.132.(d) Chari Dance (Rajasthan). by drum music, along with songs related
na
(c) Ravi Shankar (d) A R Rahman
Chari dance describes the art of to Lord Krishna childhood stories.
collecting water in a chari or pot by the Sol.143.(c) Ravi Shankar (sitarist):
ap
Rajasthani Women. Q.138. Which of the following is a dance
Awards - Bharat Ratna (1999), Padma
form of West Bengal where there is a
Vibhushan (1981), Padma Bhushan
:@
Q.133. The ‘Veeragase’ dance, performed confluence of dancing, singing, drama
(1967). His Other Books: ‘My Music, My
during the Dussehra festival holds a and recital?
Life’; ‘Yours in Music’. Lata Mangeshkar
special place in the folk dances of the SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Afternoon)
(playback singer) biography name is
TG
state of ______ (a) Bhavai (b) Alkap (c) Tippani (d) Hudo
Lata: A Life in Music (author - Yatindra
SSC MTS 06/10/2021 (Evening) .
Sol.138.(b) Alkap. Mishra).
(a) Karnataka (b) Assam
on
(c) Odisha (d) Sikkim Q.139. ‘Bolak-aat’ is a ______ from the Q.144. Who among the following
state of Karnataka. musicians plays Carnatic music and also
Sol.133.(a) Karnataka. It is primarily
known as 'God of Ghatam'?
ch
performed during the Hindu months of SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Morning)
(a) music form (b) painting form SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening)
Shravana and Karthika.
(a) RV Raghvan (b) Ram Narayan
ar
(c) dance form (d) sculpting form
Q.134. 'Ratvai' is a dance form (c) TH Vinayakram (d) Asad Ali Khan
Se
associated with the ______ tribes of India. Sol.139.(c) Dance form. This dance form
Sol.144.(c) TH Vinayakram (popularly
SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Morning) is performed by Kodava men in the back
known as Vikku Vinayakram) is a
(a) Mewati (b) Khasi (c) Jatapus (d) Bhil of an oil lamp in an open field. The men
renowned Indian percussionist and a
hold chiavari (yak fur) in one hand and
Sol.134.(a) Mewati. It is performed master of playing the ghatam (a
the Kodava short sword (odi-kathi) in the
during the monsoons to the traditional South Indian clay pot
other while performing this dance.
accompaniment of large drums. Dances instrument). His Awards: Padma Shri
of Haryana include the ‘chaupaia’, which Q.140. Hallisaka is a group dance native (2002), Padma Bhushan (2014), Sangeet
is a devotional dance and is performed to ______. Natak Akademi Award (1988), Grammy
by men and women carrying ‘manjiras’. SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Evening) Award (1991).
(a) Rajasthan (b) Goa
Q.145. Kamala Lakshmi Narayanan is
Q.135. 'Chad Sukra', a popular traditional (c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat
recognised all over the world as the
dance - festival of Meghalaya, is
Sol.140.(d) Gujarat. It is a type of group foremost proponent of __________, a
celebrated as a ______.
dance in which a young man stands in southern Indian classical dance form
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Evening)
the middle of damsels who form a that combines artistic expression with
(a) community marriage festival
circular ring by joining hands. The time rhythmic footwork.
(b) thanksgiving festival
(tala) is kept by clapping and is SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Evening)
(c) birth festival
accompanied by singing. (a) Kathak (b) Bharatanatyam
(d) sowing festival
(c) Kuchipudi (d) Mohiniyattam
Sol.135.(d) Sowing festival. Folk Dance Q.141. Kadsa is a dance style performed
of Meghalaya: Behdienkhlam, Nоngkrem, by women in Jharkhand, carrying a ____. Sol.145.(b) Bharatanatyam. Kamala
Shad Suk Mynsiem, Wangala, Dоrsegata, SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Evening) Lakshmi Narayanan was invited to
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
perform for Queen Elizabeth II during her (c) Shiv Kumar Sharma (d) Kishan Maharaj (a) Sangita Kalanidhi
coronation festivities in 1953. Awards: (b) Oscar
Kalaimamani (1967), Padma Bhushan Sol.149.(a) Bhimsen Joshi. His Awards: (c) Grammy
(1970). She is a preeminent artist of the Bharat Ratna (2009), Padma Vibhushan (d) Sangeet Natak Akademi
Vazhuvoor tradition of the dance. In 2010 (1999), Padma Shri (1985). Lalit Kala
she received a National Heritage Kendra - Established in 1987. Sol.153.(c) Grammy. His music album
Fellowship from the National Endowment with Ry Cooder, A Meeting by the River,
Q.150. Lalita J Rao is associated with won him a Grammy Award. He also
for the Arts for her contributions to the which of the following gharanas?
arts. received the Sangeet Natak Akademi
SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Award in 1998, the Padma Shri in 2002,
Q.146. Who is revered as ‘Karnataka (a) Kirana gharana (b) Jaipur gharana and the Padma Bhushan in 2017.
Sangeeta Pitamaha’ ? (c) Agra gharana (d) Benaras gharana Famous Mohan Veena players: Pandit
SSC MTS 08/10/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.150.(c) Agra gharana. Awards of Joydeep Mukherjee, Poly Varghese.
(a) Jagannatha Dasa (b) Purandara Dasa Lalita J Rao - Sangeet Natak Akademi
(c) Gopala Dasa (d) Vijaya Dasa Q.154. In the year 1952, who among the
Award 2017 for her contribution to following lent his voice for the film ‘Amar
Sol.146.(b) Purandara Dasa composed Hindustani vocal music. Sujan Singh Bhupali’, which was being produced in
thousands of devotional songs, known founder of the Agra Gharana of music. two languages simultaneously and he
as 'Devaranamas', in praise of Lord Some Singers of the Agra Gharana: sang in both Bengali and Marathi ?
Vishnu. The original name of Purandara Ustad Vilayat Hussain Khan, Ustad SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Das was Srinivasa Nayaka. Vyasatirtharu Sharafat Hussain Khan, Khadim Hussain (a) Kishore Kumar
was the guru of Purandara Dasa. Khan Sahab, Ustad Faiyaz Khan, Dr (b) Hemanta Mukherjee
Pournima Dhumale. Gharana and (c) Debabrata Biswas
df
Q.147. R Muthukannammal, who was Founders: Kirana gharana - Abdul Wahid (d) Manna Dey
awarded the Padma Shri in 2022, is a Khan, Jaipur Atrauli - Alladiya Khan,
_p
__________ dancer. Benaras gharana - Janaki Prasad and Sol.154.(d) Manna Dey was a renowned
SSC MTS 30/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Sukhdev Maharaj.
na
Indian playback singer, music director,
(a) Garba (b) Sadir (c) Rouf (d) Chhau and musician. He had a classical music
Q.151. Which of the following awards
ap
background, being part of the
Sol.147.(b) Sadir. R Muthukannammal is and recognitions was NOT received by
Bhendibazaar Gharana. He received
a seventh generation veteran Sadir Vempati Chinna Satyam?
Padma Shri in 1971, Padma Bhushan in
:@
dancer from the Indian State of Tamil SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
2005 and Dadasaheb Phalke award in
Nadu. She is the only surviving person (a) Kalidas Samman
2007.
among the 32 Devadasis who served the (b) Honorary doctorate
TG
deity at the Viralimalai Murugan temple. (c) Sangeet Natak Akadami Award Q.155. Which of the following
Sadir, a traditional South Indian classical (d) Padma Shri personalities is a Padma Shri awardee
dance and precursor to Bharatanatyam, folk singer from the state of Uttar
on
originated from Dasiattam over 2,000 Sol.151.(d) Padma Shri. Vempati Chinna
Pradesh ?
years ago and was named in the 17th was a Kuchipudi dancer and a guru. He
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
was taught by Vedantam Lakshmi
ch
century. (a) Ila Arun (b) Ajita Srivastava
Narayana Sastry.
(c) Gurmeet Bawa (d) Teejan Bai
Q.148. Who among the following
ar
founded his Kuchipudi Art Academy at Q.152. Which of the following awards Sol.155.(b) Ajita Srivastava.
was won by Lata Mangeshkar in the year
Se
Madras in 1963 ? She received Padma Shri in 2022 for
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (2nd Shift) 2001? promoting the Kajari folk songs. She has
(a) Kamalakar Kameshwar Rao SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) completed her Sangeet Prabhakar from
(b) Lakshmi Narayan Shastri (a) Filmfare Lifetime Achievement Award Prayag Sangeet Samiti in Prayagraj. Ms.
(c) Raja Reddy (b) Padma Vibhushan Gurmeet Bawa (Posthumous) - Padma
(d) Vempati Chinna Satyam (c) Dadasaheb Phalke Award Bhushan (2022). Teejan Bai - Padma Shri
(d) Bharat Ratna (1988), Padma Vibhushan (2019), Padma
Sol.148.(d) Vempati Chinna Satyam. Bhushan (2003).
Other Art/Dance academies in India: Sol.152.(d) Bharat Ratna.
Darpana Academy of Performing Arts Lata Mangeshkar was an Indian playback Q.156. Who among the following was the
(1949), Ahmedabad - Mrinalini Sarabhai singer born in Indore. She received the youngest instrumentalist to be awarded
and Vikram Sarabhai. Kalakshetra Padma Bhushan in 1969, the Padma the Padma Bhushan, the third highest
Foundation (1936), Chennai - Rukmini Vibhushan in 1999, the Dadasaheb civilian award of India in 2002?
Devi Arundale (Bharatanatyam). Phalke Award in 1989, and the 'Officier de SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Bhatkhande Sanskriti Vishwavidyalaya la Legion d'Honneur,' France's highest (a) Pandit Ravi Shankar
(1926), Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh - Vishnu civilian award, in 2009. She is also (b) Ustad Zakir Hussain
Narayan Bhatkhande. renowned for singing the famous song (c) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
'Aye mere watan ke logo’. (d) Ustad Bismillah Khan
Q.149. Which of the following Khayal
artists is the founding father of Lalit Kala Q.153. Mohan Veena player, Pandit Sol.156.(b) Ustad Zakir Hussain (Tabla
Kendra of the University of Pune? Vishwa Mohan Bhatt won the _________ player). His Awards : Padma Vibhushan
SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (1st Shift) Award in the year 1994. (2023); Padma bhusan (2002); Padma
(a) Bhimsen Joshi (b) Ravi Shankar SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) Shri (1988); Sangeet Natak Akademi
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(1991). honoured Vani Jairam with the MS Samant.
Subbulakshmi Award for 2019 ?
Q.157. Madhuri Barthwal, a folk singer SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift) Q.165. Identify the Indian classical
and Padma Shri 2022 awardee, belongs (a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka dancer associated with Kathak.
to which of the following states of India? (c) Odisha (d) Tamil Nadu SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Vedantam Satyanarayana Sarma
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Himachal Pradesh Sol.161.(d) Tamil Nadu. Vani Jairam was (b) Kelucharan Mohapatra
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Maharashtra an Indian playback singer, fondly referred (c) Rohini Bhate
to as the "Meera of Modern India." She (d) Sharodi Saikia
Sol.157.(a) Uttarakhand. Madhuri received the Padma Bhushan award in
Barthwal is the first woman to be a 2023. M.S. Subbulakshmi Award is a Sol.165.(c) Rohini Bhate.She established
music composer in All India Radio. On tribute to the legendary Carnatic singer, Nritya Bharati Kathak Dance Academy in
International Women's Day in 2019, she M.S. Subbulakshmi. She was the first Pune. Awards: Sangeet Natak Akademi
was awarded the Nari Shakti Puraskar by musician ever to be awarded the Bharat Award (1979), Maharashtra Gaurav
Ram Nath Kovind. Other folk singers of Ratna in 1998. Puraskar (1990), Kalidas Samman
Uttarakhand: Narendra Singh Negi, (2001), Sangeet Natak Akademi
Pritam Bhartwan, Basanti Devi Bisht. Q.162. Ranjana Gauhar was awarded the Fellowship (2006).
Padma Shri Award (2003) for her
Q.158. Gangu Bai Hangal and Prabha contribution to which of the following Q.166. Bhupen Hazarika was one of the
Atre were exponents of the____ Gharana. Indian dance forms ? most well-known personalities from the
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift) SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift) state of ________.
(a) Rampur (b) Jaipur (a) Kuchipudi (b) Sattriya SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) Kirana (d) Mewati (c) Odissi (d) Manipuri (a) Odisha (b) Assam
df
(c) Nagaland (d) Manipur
Sol.158.(c) Kirana. Gangu Bai Hangal Sol.162.(c) Odissi. Ranjana Gauhar also
_p
was an Indian singer of the khayal genre received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Sol.166.(b) Assam. Bhupen Hazarika
of Hindustani classical music from Award in 2007. Other renowned Odissi (Sudhakantha) was a singer known for
na
Karnataka. She received the Padma Shri dancers include Kelucharan Mohapatra, his baritone voice. He received the
in 1962, the Padma Bhushan in 1971, and Mayadhar Raut, Sanjukta Panigrahi, National Film Award for Best Music
ap
the Padma Vibhushan in 2002. Ratikant Mohapatra, Deba Prasad Das, Direction in 1975, the Sangeet Natak
Kumkum Mohanty, Pankaj Charan Das, Akademi Award (1987), Bharat Ratna
:@
Q.159. Chittani Ramachandra Hegde was (2019), Padma Vibhushan (2012), Padma
associated with which of the following and Aruna Mohanty.
Bhushan (2001), and Padma Shri (1977),
dances? Q.163. Which Indian singer wrote ‘Raag Dada Saheb Phalke Award (1992), Asom
TG
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sarita’ ? Ratna (2009).
(a) Chhau dance (b) Chappeli dance SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) Yakshagana dance (d) Huttari dance (a) Kesarbai Kerkar Q.167. Indira PP Bora is a Padma Shri
on
(b) Balasaheb Poonchwale Awardee 2020 for her contribution to
Sol.159.(c) Yakshagana dance. It is a
(c) Kumar Gandharva which Indian classical dance?
traditional folk dance form popular in
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
ch
Coastal Karnataka districts. Chittani (d) Chintaman Raghunath Vyas
(a) Sattriya (b) Kathak
Ramachandra Hegde was awarded the
Sol.163.(d) Chintaman Raghunath Vyas (c) Kuchipudi (d) Bharatanatyam
ar
Padma Shri award in 2012. Some
was an Indian classical singer, renowned
exponents of Yakshagana : Kuriya Vithala Sol.167.(a) Sattriya. Indira P. P. Bora has
Se
for his khyal style. He was awarded the
Shastry, Soorikumeru Govinda Bhat, won Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in
Padma Bhushan in 1992 and the Sangeet
Narayana Hasyagar. 1996. Dance and their exponents :
Natak Akademi Award in 1987. He
researched traditional ragas and Sattriya - Sharodi Saikia, Guru Jatin
Q.160. Hariprasad Chaurasia, an Indian
bandishes, composing over 200 Goswami, Guru Ghanakanta Bora, Manik
flutist in the Hindustani classical
bandishes in various ragas under the pen Barbayan, Pushpa Bhuyan.
tradition, was awarded with which of the
following awards in 2000? name Gunijaan. In tribute to his guru, Q.168. Who among the following is a
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Gunidas, he founded the Gunidas Sarod player popularly known as 'Sarod
(a) Padma Shri (b) Padma Vibhushan Sangeet Sammelan in 1977. Samrat' ?
(c) Bharat Ratna (d) Padma Bhushan Q.164. Sangeet Natak Akademy Awardee SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sulochana Chavan was a famous (a) Pandit Kishan Maharaj
Sol.160.(b) Padma Vibhushan. Pandit
________ singer. (b) Pandit Ravi Shankar
Hariprasad Chaurasia belonged to the
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan Bangash
Senia gharana. Awards: Sangeet Natak
(a) Giddha (b) Jhumair (d) Pandit Shivkumar Sharma
Academy (1983), Konark Samman
(1992), Padma Bhushan (1992). Other (c) Ghumar (d) Lavani
Sol.168.(c) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
Flute Players: Devendra Murdeshwar, Sol.164.(d) Lavani. Sulochana Chavan : Bangash: Awards - Padma Shri (1975),
Raghunath Seth, Nityanand Haldipur, Her Awards - Padma Shri (in 2022), Lata Padma Bhushan (1991), Padma
Ronu Majumdar, Pt. Rajendra Prasanna, Mangeshkar Award (in 2010), Sangeet Vibhushan (2001). Amjad Ali Khan, along
and Chetan Joshi. Natak Akademi Award (in 2012). Other with his sons played ‘Raga for Peace’ in
Lavani Singers : Bela Shende, Asha the year 2014 at the ‘Nobel Peace Prize
Q.161. Which state government Concert’. Other Sarod Players: Allauddin
Bhosle, Usha Mangeshkar, Vaishali
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Khan, Hafiz Ali Khan, Ali Akbar Khan, in the genre. Awards : Padma Shri (1972), Iyer
Radhika Mohan Maitra, Sharan Rani Padma Bhushan (1989), Padma (b) Ariyakudi Ramanuja Iyengar
Backliwal, Zarin Sharma, Buddhadev Das Vibhushan (2016), Sangeet Natak (c) Mallikarjun Bheemarayappa Mansur
Gupta, Rajeev Taranath, Aashish Khan, Akademi Award (1977), Sangeet Natak (d) Bhimsen Joshi
Tejendra Majumdar etc. Akademi Fellowship (2010).
Sol.176.(a) Semmangudi Radhakrishna
Q.169. The Maharashtra Bhushan was Q.173. Pandit Omkar Nath Thakur was a Srinivasa Iyer (Vocalist) : Awards -
conferred upon ________in the year 2002. student of ____________. National Eminence Award (2002),
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift) SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) Kalidas Samman (1980). Ariyakudi
(a) Pandit Ravi Shankar (a) Ustad Abdul Karim Khan Ramanuja Iyengar : Awards - Sangeetha
(b) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi (b) Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar Kalanidhi award (1938), Padma Bhushan
(c) Pandit Jasraj (c) Pandit Gopal Shankar Mishra (1958).
(d) Pandit Hari Prasad Chaurasia (d) Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande
Q.177. Ali Akbar Khan was associated
Sol.169.(b) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi. He Sol.173.(b) Pandit Vishnu Digambar with which of the following gharanas?
belongs to the Kirana gharana tradition Paluskar. He was a Hindustani musician, SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
of Hindustani Classical Music. Awards - known for singing the original version of (a) Maihar gharana (b) Agra gharana
Bharat Ratna (2009), Padma Vibhushan the bhajan "Raghupati Raghava Raja (c) Gwalior gharana (d) Kirana gharana
(1999), Padma Bhushan (1985), Padma Ram" and founded the Gandharva
Shri (1972), Sangeet Natak Akademi Mahavidyalaya in 1901. Pandit Sol.177.(a) Maihar gharana. Ali Akbar
Award for Hindustani vocal music (1975), Omkarnath Thakur, a noted music Khan (Sarod) : Awards - Padma Bhushan
Aditya Vikram Birla Kalashikhar Puraskar teacher, musicologist, and Hindustani (1967), Padma Vibhushan (1989).
(2000). classical singer, was associated with the Exponents of Maihar gharana : Allauddin
df
Gwalior Gharana, the oldest Khayal Khan, Pandit Nikhil Ranjan Banerjee,
Q.170. Indian classical violinist Nityanand Haldipur. Agra gharana :
_p
Gayaki style.
Annavarapu Rama Swamy was awarded Founders - Haji Sujan Khan; Ustad
with the _____________ in 2021. Q.174. Who among the following Gagghe Khuda Bakhsh. Gwalior Gharana
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Padma Shri Odissi? na
classical dancers is NOT related to : Founders - Ustad Hassu Khan, Ustad
Haddu Khan and Ustad Nathu Khan.
ap
(b) Sangeet Natak Akademi SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) Kirana Gharana : Founders - Abdul Karim
(c) Padma Vibhushan (a) Geetanjali Lal (b) Mayadhar Raut Khan and Abdul Wahid Khan.
:@
(d) Padma Bhushan (c) Kiran Segal (d) Kumkum Mohanty
Q.178. For which film did Asha Bhosle
Sol.170.(a) Padma Shri (2021). Dr. Sol.174.(a) Geetanjali Lal. She is an win the International Indian Film
TG
Annavarapu Ramaswamy, a renowned Indian Kathak dancer and choreographer. Academy (IIFA) Award in the Best
Indian classical violinist from Andhra Notable Odissi dancers include Playback Singer Female category in
Pradesh, is noted for his contributions to Kelucharan Mohapatra, Deba Prasad Das, 2002?
on
music, including the invention of new Madhavi Mudgal, Sonal Mansingh, SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Ragas and Talas such as Vandana Raga, Pankaj Charan Das, Aruna Mohanty, and (a) Devdas (b) Humraz
ch
Sri Durga Raga, Tinetradi Tala, and Ileana Citaristi. (c) Om Jai Jagdish (d) Lagaan
Vedadi Tala.
Q.175. Which Indian musician and sitar Sol.178.(d) Lagaan. Asha Bhosle: She
ar
Q.171. Which Indian musician from player is the founder of the National was officially acknowledged as the most
Se
Maharashtra received the Padma Orchestra of India? recorded artist in music history by the
Vibhushan 2023 ? SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Guinness Book of World Records in
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (a) Ravi Shankar 2011. Her Award: Dadasaheb Phalke
(a) Ramdas Palsule (b) Bharat Kamat (b) Shahid Parvez Khan Award (2000), Padma Vibhushan (2008),
(c) Zakir Hussain (d) Milind Date (c) Kishan Maharaj Banga Bibhushan (2018), Maharashtra
(d) Ayyagari Syamasundaram Bhushan (2021), Filmfare Lifetime
Sol.171.(c) Zakir Hussain (tabla player). Achievement Award (2001).
Awards - Padma Shri (1988), Padma Sol.175.(a) Ravi Shankar. He was an
Bhushan (2002), Sangeet Natak Akademi Indian musician and player of the sitar, Q.179. ____________ is often touted as
Award (1991), Kalidas Samman (2006). who was influential in stimulating the "Tansen of the 20th century," this
Other Maestro Of Tabla: Pandit Ramdas Western appreciation of Indian music. musical genius blended the best of
Palsule, Bharat Kamat, AllaRakha Khan. His Awards: Bharat Ratna (1999), Padma classical music and created a unique
Vibhushan (1981), Padma Bhushan style of his own.
Q.172. The renowned ghazal singer Girija (1967) and Grammy Award (1968) for SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Devi was born in ________. Best Chamber Music Performance for (a) Ustad Ali Baksh Khan
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) his work "West Meets East". (b) Bade Ghulam Ali Khan
(a) Karnataka (b) Bihar (c) Mubarak Ali Khan
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Punjab Q.176. Who among the following was the (d) Barkat Ali Khan
youngest recipient of the Sangeetha
Sol.172.(c) Uttar Pradesh. Girija Devi Kalanidhi awarded by the Music Sol.179.(b) Bade Ghulam Ali Khan. He
was a Thumri singer of the Senia and Academy in 1947? was an Indian vocalist from the Kasur
Banaras gharanas. She was dubbed as SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Patiala Gharana. His Award: Padma
the 'Queen of Thumri' for her contribution (a) Semmangudi Radhakrishna Srinivasa Bhushan (1962), and Sangeet Natak
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Akademi Award (1962). renowned Indian vocalist, composer, and Q.188. Which famous santoor player was
innovator in Carnatic music. His Awards: honoured with the Ustad Hafiz Ali Khan
Q.180. Papanasam Ramayya Sivan was Padma Shri (1971), Padma Vibhushan Award in 1998?
an Indian composer of which music (1991), Sangeet Natak Akademi Award SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift)
style? (1975), Mahatma Gandhi Silver Medal (a) Tarun Bhattacharya
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) from UNESCO (1995). (b) Shivkumar Sharma
(a) Qawwali (b) Carnatic music (c) Satish Vyas
(c) Bhajan (d) Folk music Q.184. Who among the following (d) Abhay Sopori
dancers was the first one from the state
Sol.180.(b) Carnatic music. of Odisha to be conferred the Padma Sol.188.(b) Shivkumar Sharma was an
Paapanaasam Raamayya Sivan was Vibhushan Award? Indian classical musician and santoor
awarded the Sangeetha Kalanidhi by the SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) player. His Other Awards: Padma
Madras Music Academy in 1971. He also (a) Uday Shankar Vibhushan (2001), Padma Shri (1991).
composed film scores for Kannada and (b) Pandit Birju Maharaj
Tamil cinema in the 1930s and 1940s Q.189. Which of the following playback
(c) Kelucharan Mohapatra
and was known as Tamil Thyagaraja. singers is the recipient of the Karnataka
(d) Guru Bipin Singh
Amir Khusrow (1253-1325) is credited Ratna Award 2005?
with creating qawwali, while Tukadoji Sol.184.(c) Kelucharan Mohapatra : SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Maharaj introduced the Bhajan and the Awards - Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (a) Sistla Janaki (b) Ravindra Jain
Kanjiri Bhajan, performed with the Kanjiri (1966), Padma Shri (1974), Padma (c) Pandit Jasraj (d) Bhimsen Joshi
instrument. Bhushan (1988), Sangeet Natak Akademi Sol.189.(d) Bhimsen Joshi. He belongs
Fellowship (1991), Padma Vibhushan to the Kirana gharana tradition of
Q.181. The famous santoor player Pandit (2000).
df
Shivkumar Sharma received the________ Hindustani Classical Music. Awards -
in the year 1986. Q.185. Harmonium player, Tulsidas Bharat Ratna (2008), Padma Bhushan
_p
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Borkar, was awarded with the __ in 2016. (1985), Padma Vibhushan (1999).
(a) Maharashtra Gurav Puraskar SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
na
Q.190. For which of the following tribal
(b) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (a) Padma Shri (b) Padma Bhushan music and dance forms was Arjun Singh
(c) Sanskriti Award (c) Bharat Ratna (d) Padma Vibhushan
ap
Dhurve conferred with Tulsi Samman?
(d) Kalidas Samman SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.185.(a) Padma Shri. Tulsidas Borkar
:@
(a) Mardana (b) Pawara
Sol.181.(b) Sangeet Natak Akademi received the Sangeet Natak Akademi
(c) Baiga (d) Jhumta
Award. Also known as the Akademi Award in 2005. Other prominent
Puraskar, this award honors excellence in harmonium players include Appa Sol.190.(c) Baiga Dance Form: It is a
TG
the performing arts. The santoor, a Jalgaonkar, Ustad Rafiuddin Ahmed, traditional art form of the Baiga tribe, an
trapezoid-shaped hammered dulcimer Ustad Nizamuddin, Shankar Mahadevan, indigenous community in Madhya
made of walnut, is popular in India. and Bhishmadev Bedi. Pradesh. Arjun Singh Dhurve: Awards -
on
Tulsi Samman by Madhya Pradesh Govt
Q.182. Classical Sarod player Amjad Ali Q.186. Which of the following Rajiv
(1993-94), Padma Shri (2022).
Khan was awarded ________ in 2001 by Gandhi National Sadbhavana Awards
ch
the Government of India. was conferred on Ustad Amjad Ali Khan? Q.191. Which playback singer was
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) honoured with the Nightingale of Asia
ar
(a) Bharat Ratna (a) 20th (b) 19th (c) 21st (d) 18th Award in 1987?
Se
(b) Padma Shri SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) Padma Vibhushan Sol.186.(c) 21st. This award is
(a) Pulapaka Susheela
(d) Padma Bhushan presented every year to those who have
(b) Asha Bhosle
devoted their life in understanding and
(c) Mubarak Begum
Sol.182.(c) Padma Vibhushan. Ustad promoting social harmony. It constitutes
(d) Kavita Krishnamurthy
Amjad Ali Khan (Sarod Samrat): He is an a citation and cash Prize of Rs. 10 Lakh.
Indian classical sarod player, best known Sol.191.(b) Asha Bhosle. Her latest
for his clear and fast ekhara taans. He Q.187. Ishwari Prasad is credited to have
Awards :Yash Chopra Memorial Award
was born in Gwalior. Awards: Padma Shri introduced the ______ Gharana of Kathak.
(2018), Lata Dinanath Mangeshkar
(1975), Padma Bhushan (1991), Sangeet SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Award (2023), Banga Bibhushan Award
Natak Akademi Award (1989), Sangeet (a) Jaipur (b) Raigarh
(Highest West Bengal Civilian Award)
Natak Akademi Fellowship (2011). (c) Banaras (d) Lucknow
(2018). Maharashtra Bhushan Award
Sol.187.(d) Lucknow Gharana was (2021).
Q.183. Some of the talas invented by
________ include Trimukhi, Panchamukhi, established under the patronage of Wajid
Q.192. _______ was an Indian dancer and
Saptamukhi and Navamukhi. Ali Shah, the last Nawab of Oudh. This
choreographer best known for creating a
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) gharana is characterized by its emphasis
fusion style of dance adapting European
(a) M Balamuralikrishna on grace and elegance. Other Kathak
theatrical techniques to Indian classical
(b) Hariprasad Chaurasia Gharana and Founder: Jaipur Gharana -
and folk - dance forms.
(c) Yashraj Bhanuji; Benaras Gharana - Janaki
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift)
(d) Bhimsen Joshi Prasad; Raigarh Gharana - Raja
(a) Smita Nagdev (b) Ravi Shankar
Chakradhar Singh.
(c) Shovana Narayan (d) Uday Shankar
Sol.183.(a) M Balamuralikrishna was a
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.192.(d) Uday Shankar. He is known treatise on Hindustani classical music. In (c) Mrinalini Sarabhai
as the Father of Modern Dance in India. 1916, he reorganized the Baroda state (d) Shovana Narayan
Awards - Padma Vibhushan (1971), music school. He set up Marris College
Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship of Music in Lucknow in 1926, which is Sol.200.(b) Darshana Jhaveri, the
(1962). now known as Bhatkhande Music youngest of the four Jhaveri sisters, is a
Institute. He published books Swar disciple of Guru Bipin Singh. Awards -
Q.193. Chhannulal Mishra is related to Malika and Shri Mallakshaya Sangeetam Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1996),
which Musical Lineage? (pen name Chatur Pandit). Padma Shri (2002), Kalidas Samman
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) Award (2018).
(a) Delhi Musical Family Q.197. Vijay Kichlu belongs to the _____ .
(b) Jaipur Musical Family SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Q.201. Who among the following is a
(c) Kirana Musical Family (a) Bhendi Bazzar Gharana distinguished and experienced scion of
(d) Agara Musical Family (b) Gwalior Gharana the famous Kavungal family associated
(c) Agra Gharana with 'Kathakali' for six generations?
Sol.193.(c) Kirana Musical Family. It was (d) Patiala Gharana SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
founded by Abdul Karim Khan. Khayal (a) Padma Subramanyam
gayaki and Dhrupad-Dhamar are Sol.197.(c) Agra Gharana. Vijay Kichlu (b) Ammannur Madhava Chakyar
combined to create the gayaki of the was an Indian classical singer. Award - (c) Chathunni Panicker
Agra Gharana. Chhannulal Mishra was Padma Shri (2018). Agra Gharana was (d) Meenakshi Sundaram Pillai
awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2010, founded by Haji Sujan Khan and Ustad
Padma Vibhushan in 2020. Gagghe Khuda Bakhsh. Other Exponents Sol.201.(c) Chathunni Panicker: Awards
of Agra Gharana - Faiyaz Khan, Latafat - Padma Shri (2006), Sangeet Natak
Q.194. Sanjukta Panigrahi, a legendary Hussain Khan, Dinkar Kaikini and Lalith Akademi Award (1973). Other exponents
df
dancer, is associated with which of the Rao. of Kathakali - Kanak Rele, Kottakkal
following dance forms? Sivaraman, Guru Kunchu Kurup.
_p
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) Q.198. Thiyam Suryamukhi Devi who
(a) Bihu (b) Odissi received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Q.202. Siyaram Tewari belongs to which
na
(c) Kuchipudi (d) Laho Awards 2003, is known for her of the following music Gharanas ?
contribution to the: SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
ap
Sol.194.(b) Odissi. Awards of Sanjukta SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) (a) Dagari (b) Kirana
Panigrahi: Padma Shri (1975) and (a) Manipuri dance (b) Odissi dance (c) Darbhanga (d) Bettiah
:@
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1976). (c) Gotipua dance (d) Kathak dance
Odissi dance exponents: Kelucharan Sol.202.(c) Darbhanga. Siyaram Tiwari
Mohapatra, Kumkum Mohanty, Protima Sol.198.(a) Manipuri dance. Thiyam was an esteemed Indian classical singer
TG
Bedi, Sujata Mohapatra. Suryamukhi Devi - She created her own and a prominent exponent of the
solo composition such as Basanta Dhrupad genre in Hindustani classical
Q.195. Chitra Visweswaran is a famous Barnar Sakhi Ukti. Other Manipuri music. Award : Padma Shri (1971).
on
dancer of which of the following dance Exponents : Guru Bipin Singh, Maisnam Notable singers from this gharana
genres? Amubi Singh, Rajkumar Singhajit Singh, include Ram Chatur Mallick, Pandit Vidur
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Mallick, Padmashri Pandit Ram Kumar
ch
Sougaijam Thanil Singh, Thingbaijam
(a) Sattriya (b) Kuchipudi Babu Singh, Darshana Jhaveri, etc. Mallick, and Pt. Prem Kumar Mallik.
(c) Kathakali (d) Bharatnatyam
ar
Q.199. Who among the following Padma Q.203. Who among the following is NOT
Sol.195.(d) Bharatnatyam (Tamil Nadu). an Odissi dancer ?
Se
Vibhushan awardees belongs to Kalka -
Awards of Chitra Visweswaran: Padma Bindadin gharana of Kathak ? SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
Shri (1992). Notable Bharatanatyam SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) (a) Anita Ratnam
dancers include Rukmini Devi Arundale, (a) Kelucharan Mohapatra (b) Kumkum Mohanty
Padma Subrahmanyam, Mallika (b) Damyanti Devi (c) Sonal Mansingh
Sarabhai, Yamini Krishnamurthy, (c) Birju Maharaj (d) Protima Bedi
Mrinalini Sarabhai, Alarmel Valli, Bala (d) Sitara Devi
Saraswati, Anita Ratnam, Sonal Sol.203.(a) Anita Ratnam, a classically
Mansingh, and Sudha Chandran. Sol.199.(c) Birju Maharaj. He is the trained Bharatanatyam dancer, has also
direct descendant of Ishwari Prasad (the received formal training in Kathakali,
Q.196. Who among the following Indian first known Kathak teacher). Birju Mohiniattam, tai chi, and Kalarippayattu.
musicians is known for his contribution Maharaj established an institution She combined these diverse influences
to the field of Hindustani music for the named ‘Kalashram’ for imparting training to create her unique dance style, which
classification of Ragas into ten Thatas? in dance and associated disciplines. she calls "Neo Bharatam."
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Awards - Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
(a) Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande Q.204. Pandit Acchan Maharaj was a
(1964), Padma Vibhushan (1986). Kathak legend of which of the following
(b) Abdul Karim Khan
(c) Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar Q.200. Who among the following is a gharanas ?
(d) Allauddin Khan Padma Shri Awardee for her contribution SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
to Manipuri Dance? (a) Jaipur (b) Banaras
Sol.196.(a) Pandit Vishnu Narayan SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) (c) Lucknow (d) Raigarh
Bhatkhande. He was a prominent (a) Aditi Rao Hydari
musician who wrote the first modern Sol.204.(c) Lucknow. Acchan Maharaj is
(b) Darshana Jhaveri
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
the father of Pandit Birju Maharaj. pioneer and founder of Kirana Gharana of (c) Bharatanatyam (d) Kuchipudi
Exponents of Lucknow Gharana - Pandit Hindustani music?
Birju Maharaj, Shambhu Maharaj, Lachhu SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) Sol.213.(b) Kathak. Famous dancers :
Maharaj (Pandit Bajinath Prasad), Pandit (a) Firoz Dastur (b) Abdul Karim Khan Kathak (Uttar Pradesh) - Birju Maharaj,
Ishwari Prasad, Kalika Prasad, Manjari (c) Bhimsen Joshi (d) Sawai Gandharva Gopi Krishna, Sitara Devi, Uma Sharma,
Chaturvedi. Deepa Kartha. Mohiniyattam (Kerala) -
Sol.209.(b) Abdul Karim Khan : He was Jayaprabha Menon, Samitha Rajan,
Q.205. Sitara Devi, a doyen of _________ an Indian classical singer. He introduced Pallavi Krishnan.
Dance, was hailed as the Queen of Hindustani Khayal singing and Indian
Kathak by Rabindranath Tagore. classical music in Kirana gharana. Due to Q.214. Who among the following
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) frequent visits to Mysore Palace, he was Bharatnatyam dancers was bestowed
(a) Odissi (b) Sattriya conferred the title Sangeet Ratna. He with the title of Asthana Narthaki
(c) Kathak (d) Manipuri founded the Arya Sangeet Vidyalaya in (Resident Dancer) by the Tirumala
Poona in 1913. Tirupati Devasthanam temple?
Sol.205.(c) Kathak. Sitara Devi SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
(Dhanalakshmi): She was an Indian Q.210. Who among the following is a (a) Padma Subramanyam
dancer of the classical Kathak style of famous personality of the dance form (b) Yamini Krishnamurthy
dancing, a singer, and an actress. She Mohiniyattam? (c) Rita Ganguly
was born at Cuttack, Odisha. SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) (d) Indrani Rahman
Rabindranath Tagore described her as (a) Sitara Devi (b) Sunanda Nair
Nritya Samragni meaning the empress of (c) Birju Maharaj (d) Damayanti Joshi Sol.214.(b) Yamini Krishnamurthy. She
dance. Awards - Sangeet Natak Akademi was an exponent of Bharatanatyam and
Award (1969), the Padma Shri (1973). Sol.210.(b) Sunanda Nair. Mohiniyattam Kuchipudi dance. She opened Yamini
df
is an Indian classical dance form School of Dance in Delhi in 1990.Awards:
Q.206. Mallika Sarabhai is famous for originating from the state of Kerala. Padma Shri (1968), Padma Vibhushan
_p
which of the following dances? Other Mohiniyattam exponents - Gopika (2001), Padma Bhushan (2016), Sangeet
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) Varma, Neena Prasad, Mandakini Trivedi, Natak Akademi Award (1977).
na
(a) Sattriya (b) Kathak Pallavi Krishnan.
(c) Odissi (d) Kuchipudi Q.215. Who among the following
ap
Q.211. Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma, an personalities was awarded the Sangeet
Sol.206.(d) Kuchipudi. Mallika Sarabhai : accomplished Santoor player, originally Natak Akademi Award (for her
:@
Awards - Sangeet Natak Akademi Award hails from the State /UT of: contribution to Manipuri Dance)?
(2000), Padma Bhushan (2010), French SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Palme D'or (1977, The highest Civilian (a) Jammu and Kashmir (a) Urmila Nagar
TG
award in France). (b) Himachal Pradesh (b) Kalavati Devi
Q.207. Who among the following (c) Assam (c) Mallika Sarabhai
belongs to Patiala Gharana? (d) Lakshadweep (d) Nirmala Ramachandran
on
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) Sol.211.(a) Jammu and Kashmir. Awards Sol.215.(b) Kalavati Devi. She received
(a) Ali Baksh Khan (b) Nathu Khan of Shiv Kumar Sharma : Padma the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in
ch
(c) Abdul Wahid Khan (d) Chhaju Khan Vibhushan (2001), Padma Shri (1991). 2003. Other Manipuri dancers: Nirmala
Santoor players : Abhay Sopori, Bhajan Mehta, Guru Bipin Singh, Charu Mathur,
ar
Sol.207.(a) Ali Baksh Khan : He was an
Indian classical singer. Although the Sopori, Tarun Bhattacharya. Savita Mehta, Bimbavati Devi. Other
Se
Patiala gharana was originally founded Sangeet Natak Akademi Awardee and
Q.212. Indian musician, composer and year : Urmila Nagar (Kathak) - 2003,
by Mian Kallu, Ali Baksh Khan and Fateh singer Shubha Mudgal was awarded with
Ali Khan were instrumental in its Mallika Sarabhai (Bharatanatyam and
the _______ in 2000. Kuchipudi) - 1999-2000. Nirmala
development and prominence. Other SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
exponents of Patiala Gharana : Bade Ramachandran (Bharatnattayam) - 2004.
(a) Padma Shri
Ghulam Ali Khan, Munawar Ali Khan, (b) Padma Bhushan Q.216. Who among the following was the
Raza Ali Khan, Ajoy Chakraborty, Dilshad (c) Padma Vibhushan co-winner of Bharat Ratna with Lata
Khan, Parveen Sultana, Begum Akhtar, (d) Sangeet Natak Akademi Mangeskar in the year 2001?
Naina Devi, Nirmala Devi and Lakshmi SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Shankar. Sol.212.(a) Padma Shri. Shubha Mudgal (a) Bismillah Khan (b) Ravi Shankar
is known for her works in Hindustani (c) Bhimsen Joshi (d) Asha Bhosle
Q.208. Shovana Narayan has been classical music. Awards : Rajiv Gandhi
honoured with the Padma Shri for her National Sadbhavana Award (2016), Best Sol.216.(a) Bismillah Khan. He was a
contribution to which Indian dance form? Non-Feature Film Music Direction (1995) Hindustani classical shehnai player. His
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) for Amrit Beej. awards: Bharat Ratna (2001), Padma
(a) Odissi (b) Kathak Vibhushan (1980), Padma Bhushan
(c) Kathakali (d) Kuchipudi Q.213. Sangeet Majumdar was (1968), Padma Shri (1961). Sangeet
felicitated by Casa De La, Spain for her Natak Akademi has decided to institute
Sol.208.(b) Kathak. Shovana Narayan contribution to which of the following “Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar”
received the Padma Shri in 1992 and Indian Classical Dances? from the year 2006. Awards of Lata
sangeet natak akademi award in 1999. SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) Mangeskar: Padma Bhushan (1969),
Q.209. Who among the following is the (a) Mohiniyattam (b) Kathak Padma Vibhushan (1999), Bharat Ratna
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(2001). (c) Alladiya Khan Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(d) Omkarnath Thakur (a) Kuchipudi (b) Manipuri
Q.217. Begum Akhtar a famous singer (c) Kathak (d) Bharatanatyam
from India is known for which of the Sol.220.(c) Alladiya Khan. The
following genres? Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana is a Hindustani Sol.224.(a) Kuchipudi. Vedantam
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) music tradition renowned for its unique Satyanarayana Sarma, popularly known
(a) Ghazal music (b) Sufi music style of khayal singing. It stands out for as Satyam, was an Indian classical
(c) Folk music (d) Carnatic music its distinctive vocal aesthetics, raga dancer and choreographer. He was
repertoire, and technical skill. Gharana of known for his portrayal of female
Sol.217.(a) Ghazal music. Awards of Hindustani classical music and its characters such as Usha (Usha
Begum Akhtar (Mallika-e-Ghazal): Founders : Gwalior Gharana (Nanthan Parinayam), Deva Devi (Vipra Narayana),
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1972), Khan), Agra Gharana (Hajisujan Khan), and Mohini (Mohini Rukmangada). His
Padma Bhushan (1975), Padma Shri Rangeela Gharana (Faiyyaz Khan), Kirana award: Padma Shri (1970).
(1968). Famous Indian ghazal singers: Gharana (Abdul Wahid Khan).
Jagjit Singh, Hariharan, Bhupinder Singh. Q.225. Who among the following was
Sufi singers - Ali Azmat, Ali Baba Khan. Q.221. Ricky Kej, a globally acclaimed awarded the Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
Carnatic singers - Charulatha musician from India, won the 57th Lifetime Achievement Award, 2014 ?
Chandrasekhar, Soorya Narayanan, Grammy Award for which of the Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Vishwas Hari. following albums ? (a) Pandit Ravi Shankar
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) (b) Saraswati Abdul Rane
Q.218. Natya Sangeet is a form of (a) Winds of Samsara (c) Pandit Kumar Gandharv
musical play in classical music still (b) Mystic Mountains (d) Prabha Atre
prevalent in Maharashtra. Bal (c) Mountain Dreams
df
Gandharava is an exponent of this (d) Divine Tides Sol.225.(d) Prabha Atre (vocalist). Her
musical form. What is actual name of Awards : Padma Shri (1990), Padma
_p
Balgandharva? Sol.221.(a) Winds of Samsara. It reflects Bhushan (2002), Padma Vibhushan
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4) the concept of rebirth and the cyclicality (2022), Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
(a) Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande
(b) Narayan Shripad Rajhans na
of life, a key belief in Indian religions.
Ricky Kej won his third Grammy in 2023
(1991) for her contribution to Hindustani
vocal music.
ap
(c) Mallikarjun Mansur for "Divine Tides" in the Best Immersive
(d) Vishnu Digambar Paluskar Audio Album category. He won his Q.226. Who among the following is
:@
second Grammy Award for "Ballad of conferred upon Padma Shri 2021 for
Sol.218.(b) Narayan Shripad Rajhans. He Maya" in 2019. his/her contribution to Panthi folk dance
was a renowned Marathi singer and Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
TG
stage actor, famous for portraying Q.222. The first musician to be awarded (a) Satyaram Reang
female characters in Marathi plays at a with the highest civilian award of India, (b) Radhe Devi
time when women were not permitted to the ‘Bharat Ratna’ was __________. (c) Dulari Devi
on
act on stage. Natya Sangeet is a form of Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (d) Radhe Shyam Barle
drama that combines prose and poetry (a) Sudha Ragunathan
Sol.226.(d) Radhe Shyam Barle. She is a
ch
through songs to convey the story, akin (b) Madurai Mani Iyer
Panthi folk dancer and artist. Panthi is a
to musicals. The term "Dramatic Music" (c) Lalitha Venkataraman
folk dance of the Satnami community of
ar
refers to Natya Sangeet, one of the two (d) MS Subbulakshmi
Chhattisgarh. The songs convey the
popular forms of vocal arts in
spirit of renunciation of their gurus and
Se
Maharashtra and neighboring states, the Sol.222.(d) MS Subbulakshmi. She was
an acclaimed Indian Carnatic singer teachings of Saints such as Kabir,
other being Bhavageet.
hailing from Madurai, Tamil Nadu. Her Ravidas and Dadu. Satyaram Reang
Q.219. Which state of India does the notable awards include the Bharat Ratna (Tripura) was an Indian folk Hojagiri
musician Shyamamani Devi belong to ? (1998), Padma Vibhushan (1975), Padma dancer who received Padma Shri in 2021.
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Bhushan (1954), Ramon Magsaysay Dulari Devi (Bihar) is an artist working in
(a) Odisha (b) Bihar Award (1974), and Kalidas Samman the Mithila art tradition and received
(c) West Bengal (d) Uttar Pradesh (1988). Padma Shri in 2021.
Q.227. Akham Lakshmi Devi was
Sol.219.(a) Odisha. Shyamamani Devi Q.223. Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
honoured with Sangeet Natak Akademi
was an Odissi classical music vocalist winner Deepak Mazumdar is an exponent
Award for the year 2018 for her
and composer. She received Padma Shri of_______.
contribution to ______dance.
in 2022. Some famous Odissi musicians Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
include Tarini Charan Patra, Pandit (a) Manipuri (b) Sattriya
(a) Sattriya (b) Mohiniyattam
Ramhari Das, 'Suramani' Pandit (c) Bharatanatyam (d) Kuchipudi
(c) Manipuri (d) Odissi
Raghunath Panigrahi, and Singhari
Shyamasundar Kar. Sol.223.(c) Bharatanatyam. Sri Deepak
Sol.227.(c) Manipuri. Akham Lakshmi
Mazumdar received the Sangeet Natak
Devi received the Manipur State Kala
Q.220. Who was the founder of Jaipur - Akademi Award for 2018.
Akademi Award in 2010 and the Nritya
Atrauli gharana?
Q.224. Vedantam Satyanarayana Sarma Bhusan in 2014.
Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(a) Abdul Karim Khan is associated with which of these Q.228. Rani Karnaa was awarded the
(b) Ali Baksh Khan dances? Sangeet Natak Akademi (1996) for her
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
contribution to_____. SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) Award. Other Dancers: Kavungal
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (a) Pandavani (b) Raut Nacha Chathunni Panicker, Kalamandalam
(a) Odissi (b) Kathak (c) Jhirliti (d) Gendi Gopi, Kottakkal Sivaraman, Kalanilayam
(c) Kathakali (d) Kuchipudi Balakrishnan, Kottakal Sivaraman, Rita
Sol.232.(a) Pandavani (a traditional Ganguly.
Sol.228.(b) Kathak. Rani Karnaa also performing art form of Chattisgarh).
received the Padma Shri Award in 2014. Dr.Teejan Bai (Chhattisgarh) awarded: Q.237. The Wadali Brothers are__singers.
She was trained by Pandit Narayan Padma Vibhushan Award (2019), Padma SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Prasad and Sunder Prasad of the Jaipur Bhushan (2003), Padma Shri (1988), and (a) Bhatiali (b) Lavani
gharana and Pandit Shambhu Maharaj M. S. Subbulakshmi Centenary Award (c) Sufi (d) Pandavani
and Birju Maharaj of Lucknow gharanas. (2016).
Sol.237.(c) Sufi. Wadali Brothers:
Q.229. Who was one of the 20th century's Q.233. Who among the following Puranchand Wadali and Pyarelal Wadali.
foremost exponents of the founded the Kalakshetra Foundation in They are famous for various styles of
Bharatanatyam style of classical dance? Chennai that is an important center for singing including Kaafian, ghazal and
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) the study and performance of fine arts? bhajan. Awards: Sangeet Natak Akademi
(a) Nirmala Mehta (b) T Balasaraswati SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) Award (1991), Padma shri (2005).
(c) Bijayini Satpathy (d) Kumudini Lakhia (a) Alarmel Valli
(b) Mrinalini Sarabhai Q.238. Which Manipuri dance expert
Sol.229.(b) T Balasaraswati. Awards: (c) Yamini Krishnamurthy founded Govindji Nartanalaya dance
Sangeet Natak Academy Award (1955), (d) Rukmini Devi Arundale school for women in Imphal ?
Padma Vibhushan (1977), Sangita SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening)
Kalanidhi (1973). Sol.233.(d) Rukmini Devi Arundale (a) Guru Bipin Singh
df
founded the Kalakshetra Foundation in (b) Guru Amubi
Q.230. Who among the following Chennai in 1936. The foundation was (c) Rajkumar Singhajit Singh
_p
musicians is given credit for declared as an institution of national (d) Phanjoubam Iboton Singh
collaborating with the famous band ‘The importance by an Act of Parliament in
na
Beatles’ ? 1993. It is an important centre for the Sol.238.(a) Guru Bipin Singh. He is
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning) study and performance of fine arts, known as the Father of Manipuri Dance.
ap
(a) Pandit Kumar Gandharva especially Bharatanatyam dance and Manipuri dancers - Darshana Jhaveri,
(b) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi Carnatic music. Guru Amubi, Rajkumar Singhajit Singh,
:@
(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar Yumlembam Gambhini Devi, Nirmala
(d) Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma Q.234. In 2015, the eminent danseuse Mehta, Charu Mathur.
and ____________ exponent, Padma
TG
Sol.230.(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar Subrahmanyam was selected for Kerala's Q.239. Ammanur Madhava Chakkiar was
(Founder of the National Orchestra of prestigious choreography award awarded the Padma Shri for his
India) : Indian musician and composer, 'Nishagandhi Puraskaram' instituted by contribution to which of the following
on
and known for popularising the Indian the state tourism department. dance forms ?
classical instrument Sitar all over the SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
world. Awards - Bharat Ratna (1999), (a) Kutiyattam (b) Yakshagana
ch
(a) Kuchipudi (b) Bharatanatyam
Padma Vibhushan (1981), Padma (c) Sattriya (d) Kathakali (c) Kuchipudi (d) Kathakali
Bhushan (1967), Sangeet Natak Akademi
ar
Award (1962), Sangeet Natak Akademi Sol.234.(b) Bharatanatyam. Her Awards: Sol.239.(a) Kutiyattam (Kerala) - Its
stylized and codified theatrical language,
Se
Fellowship (1975), Kalidas Samman Padma Vibhushan (2024), Padma
(1987–88). He was the first Indian to win Bhushan (2003), Padma Shri (1981), neta abhinaya (eye expression) and
the Grammy Award. The Beatles - Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1983). hasta abhinaya (the language of
English Rock band formed in Liverpool in gestures) are prominent. Ammanur
Q.235. Gopika Varma has won the Madhava Chakkiar: Award - Sangeet
1960.
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2019 in Natak Akademi Award (1979), Padma
Q.231. ‘The Unforgettables’ was the which of the following dance forms ? Shri (1982), Padam Bhushan (2003) etc.
collection of semi-classical music of SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
which Ghazal singer? (a) Bharatanatyam (b) Mohiniyattam Q.240. Aluna Kabuini is associated with
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) (c) Kathak (d) Kuchipudi which of the following dances ?
(a) Mehdi Hassan (b) Jagjit Singh SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon)
(c) Mallika Pukhraj (d) Talat Mahmood Sol.235.(b) Mohiniyattam - Gopika (a) Kathak (b) Sattriya
Varma was the first Mohiniyattam dancer (c) Manipuri (d) Mohiniyattam
Sol.231.(b) Jagjit singh: Popularly to receive the ‘Kalaimamani’.
known as the ‘King of Ghazal’. Ghazal is Sol.240.(c) Manipuri. She is a Ras
one of the styles of singing in Hindustani Q.236. Haripriya Namboodiri is an exponent. She was the recipient of the
music. Tradition of singing ghazals was exponent of which Indian classical dance Manipur State Kala Academy Award in
established by Hazrat Amir Khusrau. form ? 2001 for her contribution in the field of
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) Tribal Kabui dance.
Q.232. Dr.Teejan Bai, a Padma Shri, (a) Kuchipudi (b) Odissi
Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan (c) Bharatanatyam (d) Kathakali Q.241. The Madhya Pradesh government
awardee is globally recognised for her conferred the Dhananjayans, a
contribution to which of the following art Sol.236.(d) Kathakali. She was winner of celebrated_________couple from Chennai,
forms? Stree Ratnam and Devdasi National with the prestigious Rashtriya Kalidas
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Samman for 2019 - 2020. of Lucknow. Awards : Padma Vibhushan vocalist: Dandapani Desikar, T. Brinda,
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) (1986), Sangeet Natak Akademi Award B.S. Raja Iyengar, Maharajapuram
(a) Kuchipudi (b) Bharatanatyam (1964), Kalidas Samman (1987). National Vishwanatha Iyer, Semmangudi R.
(c) Sattriya (d) Kathakali Institute of Kathak Dance (also Kathak Srinivasa Iyer.
Kendra) - Founded in 1964.
Sol.241.(b) Bharatanatyam. Dancing Headquartered at New Delhi. Q.250. Pandit Janki Prasad was
couple - Vannadil Pudiyaveettil associated with which of the following
Dhananjayan and Shanta Dhananjayan Q.246. Shambhu Maharaj was a Gharanas of Kathak?
(together known as Dhananjayans). renowned guru of which of the following SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Gharanas of Kathak? (a) Banaras (b) Raigarh
Q.242. Ustad Asad Ali Khan is famous SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (c) Jaipur (d) Lucknow
for which of the following schools of (a) Lucknow (b) Jaipur
Dhrupad as an instrumentalist ? (c) Raigarh (d) Banaras Sol.250.(a) Banaras. Gharanas of
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Kathak: Lucknow Gharana (Founded by
(a) Nauhar (b) Dagar Sol.246.(a) Lucknow. Pandit Shambhu Ishwari Prasad) - Wajid Ali Shah, Lachhu
(c) Khandarbani (d) Gauri Maharaj awards : Sangeet Natak Maharaj, Shambhu Maharaj. Jaipur
Akademi award (1955), the Sangeet Gharana (founded by Bhanu Ji Maharaj) -
Sol.242.(c) Khandarbani. Awards : Natak Akademi Fellowship (1967), Sunder Prasad, Puru Dadheech, Mangala
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1977), Padma Shri (1958). Famous Dancers Bhatt. Banaras Gharana (Founded by
and Padma Bhushan (2008). Famous from Lucknow Gharana: Birju Maharaj, Janakiprasad) - Sitara Devi, Jitendra
Dhrupad singers - Ustad Rahim Maharaj Bindadin, Kalika Prashad. Jaipur Maharaj, Kamalini Asthana and Nalini
Fahimuddin Dagar, Nasir Aminuddin Gharana: Sunder Prasad, Durga Lal. Asthana. Raigarh Gharana (Founder -
Dagar, Zia Fariduddin Dagar, Zia Banaras Gharana: Rudra Shankar Mishra, Raja Chakradhar Singh): Exponents -
df
Mohiuddin Dagar. Four schools of Sneha Bajaj, Kamalini Asthana and Nalini Kartik Ram, Pt. Kalyan Das Mahant,
Dhrupad: the Gauri (Gauhar), Khandar,
_p
Asthana. Shree Firtu Maharaj and Pt. Barman Lal.
Nauhar, and Dagar.
Q.247. Famous Bollywood actress Hema Q.251. In which Indian musician's name
na
Q.243. Rani Machaiah is a___folk dancer Malini is a trained________dancer. did the state of Massachusetts in the
who was awarded Padma Shri in 2023. SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (1st Shift) USA declare April 20th in 1984 as a day
ap
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (1st Shift) (a) Kathak (b) Bharatanatyam in his name?
(a) Ummathat (b) Lambadi (c) Odissi (d) Kuchipudi SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
:@
(c) Gussadi (d) Dhimsa (a) Brij Narayan (b) Ali Akbar Khan
Sol.247.(b) Bharatanatyam (Tamil (c) Rajeev Taranath (d) Amjad Ali Khan
Sol.243.(a) Ummathat - The traditional Nadu). Hema Malini: Awards - Padma
TG
dance form of Coorg (Karnataka) Shri (2000). Sol.251.(d) Amjad Ali Khan (sarod
performed by the Kodava women. player). His Awards : Padma Shri (1975),
Q.248. Which of the following musicians Padma Bhushan (1991), Padma
Q.244. Indian classical vocalist Pandit
on
is popularly known as ‘ Panchamda’? Vibhushan (2001).
Jasraj belonged to which of the following SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
musical gharanas? (a) Ravi (b) Khayam Q.252. Who among the following singers
ch
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (c) Naushad (d) RD Burman is from Andhra Pradesh ?
(a) Patiala Gharana (b) Dagari Gharana SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
ar
(c) Gwalior Gharana (d) Mewati Gharana Sol.248.(d) RD Burman : Indian music (a) Usha Uthup (b) Asha Bhosle
director, composer, and singer. Indian (c) Alka Yagnik (d) S Janaki
Se
Sol.244.(d) Mewati Gharana. Pandit musicians and their nicknames : A.R.
Jasraj : Awards - Padma Bhushan (1990), Rahmaan - The Mozart of Madras. Asha Sol.252.(d) S Janaki. Famous singers of
Padma Vibhushan (2000), Padma Shri Bhoshle - The Queen of Indipop. Lata Andhra Pradesh: Puvvula Suri Babu, M.
(1975), Sangeet Natak Akademi Award Mangeshkar - Queen of Melody, Voice of Balamuralikrishna, R. Balasaraswathi
(1987). Gharanas and Artists : Mewati the Millennium. Mohammed Rafi - Devi, S. P. Balasubrahmanyam, G. Anand,
Gharana - Ghagge Nazir Khan. Patiala Pheeko. Mohana Bhogaraju. Usha Uthup
gharana - Ali Baksh Jarnail Khan, Bade (Chennai, Tamil Nadu), Asha Bhosle
Ghulam Ali Khan. Dagari - Gundecha Q.249. Which Indian musical legend is
(Maharashtra), Alka Yagnik (Kolkata,
Brothers, Zia Mohiuddin Dagar. Gwalior credited with composing Talas such as
West Bengal).
Gharana - Nanthan Khan, Meeta Pandit. Trimukhi, Panchamukhi, Saptamukhi and
Navamukhi ? Q.253. Which of the following playback
Q.245. Who among the following was the SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (1st Shift) singers of India received the Padma Shri
director of Kathak Kendra and also (a) M Balamuralikrishna in 2009 and Padma Bhushan in 2016 ?
opened his own dance school named (b) Bade Ghulam Ali Khan SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
‘Kalashram'? (c) KJ Yesudas (a) Sonu Nigam
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (3rd Shift) (d) Pandit Jasraj (b) Abhijit Bhattacharya
(a) Pandit Lachhu Maharaj (c) Kumar Sanu Bhattacharjee
(b) Pandit Shambhu Maharaj Sol.249.(a) M Balamuralikrishna was an (d) Udit Narayan Jha
(c) Pandit Birju Maharaj Indian Carnatic vocalist. His Awards:
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1975), Sol.253.(d) Udit Narayan Jha. Other
(d) Pandit Acchan Maharaj
Padma Vibhushan (1991), Padma Shri Playback Singers and their Awards: Sonu
Sol.245.(c) Pandit Birju Maharaj. He (1971), Mahatma Gandhi Silver Medal Nigam (Padma Shri, 2022). Kumar Sanu
belongs to the Kalka-Bindadin Gharana (1995) - UNESCO. Famous Carnatic Bhattacharjee: Padma Shri (2009).
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.254. The Padma Shri awardee (2016) ‘Bharatnatyam’ and founded the Q.263. Which actress-cum dancer was
Gulabo Sapera is known as the Queen of Kalakshetra Foundation in Madras. She honoured with the Padma Bhushan
________ dance. was awarded with Padma Bhushan in award in 2011 ?
SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (3rd Shift) 1956, Kalidas Samman (1984), Sangeet SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Chari (b) Bhavai Natak Akademi Award (1957) and Prani (a) Hema Malini (b) Waheeda Rehman
(c) Kalbeliya (d) Kacchi Ghodi Mitra Award in 1968. (c) Meena Kumari (d) Rekha
Sol.254.(c) Kalbelia (‘Sapera Dance’ or Q.259. Which of the following music Sol.263.(b) Waheeda Rehman. Other
‘Snake Charmer Dance’). This dance is directors is known as 'Mozart of Awards : Filmfare Award for Best Actress
particularly performed by a Rajasthani Madras'? (1969), Filmfare Lifetime
tribe called 'Kalbelia'. Songs and dances SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Achievement Award (1995), Madhya
are an expression of the Kalbelia (a) AR Rahman (b) Madan Mohan Pradesh government's National Kishore
community’s traditional way of life. It was (c) RD Burman (d) Himesh Reshammiya Kumar Samman (2020).
included in UNESCO’s List of Intangible
Sol.259.(a) AR Rahman was born in Q.264. Sutapa Talukdar is associated
Cultural Heritage in 2010.
1967 in Madras (Tamil Nadu). His with which Indian Classical dance form ?
Q.255. Who among the following is the Awards: Padma Bhushan (2010), Padma SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift)
Indian classical dancer who masters Shri (2000); Two Oscar Awards (2009), (a) Kuchipudi (b) Odissi
both Bharatanatyam and Odissi dancing BAFTA Awards (2009), Golden Globe (c) Bharatanatyam (d) Mohiniyattam
style? (2009) and Two Grammy Awards (2010).
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift) Sol.264.(b) Odissi. Sutapa Talukdar
Q.260. The four Nattuvanars namely Awards - Sangeet Natak Akademi
(a) Shovana Narayan
Ponaiyah, Vadivelu, Sivanandam and Awards (2019).
(b) Guru Bipin Singh
df
Chinnaiya, who are renowned as
(c) Padma Subrahmanayam
Tanjaore Bandhu shaped up the modern Q.265. Who among the following is a
_p
(d) Sonal Mansingh
day _________. famous music director?
Sol.255.(d) Sonal Mansingh received SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (2nd Shift) SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift)
na
Padma Bhushan (1992), Padma (a) Bharatanatyam (b) Kuchipudi (a) Khayyam (b) Sameer
Vibhushan (2003). (c) Kodiattam (d) Kathakali (c) Anjaan (d) Kaifi Azmi
ap
Q.256. Deba Prasad Das, Pankaj Charan Sol.260.(a) Bharatanatyam. The term Sol.265.(a) Khayyam (Mohammed Zahur
:@
Das and Gangadhar Pradhan are ‘Nattuvanar’ means dance teacher. Khayyam Hashmi) was a famous music
associated with which of the following director in Hindi cinema. Award - Padma
Q.261. The efforts of Malayalam poet Bhushan (2011). Sameer was a lyricist.
dance forms ?
Vallathol Narayana Menon and dancer
TG
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Anjaan was an Indian lyricist. Kaifi Azmi
and guru Kalyanikutty Amma brought was a poet.
(a) Odissi (b) Bharatanatyam
back and gave a new life to the dance
(c) Manipuri (d) Kathak Q.266. Talat Aziz is primarily a____singer.
form ________ .
on
Sol.256.(a) Odissi - Classical dance SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (3rd Shift) SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift)
forms of Odisha. Its dance theoretical (a) Bharatanatyam (b) Kuchipudi (a) Hindustani Classical
ch
base traces back to ‘Natya Shastra’ of (c) Mohiniyattam (d) Kathakali (b) Carnatic Classical
Bharatamuni. (c) Ghazal
Sol.261.(c) Mohiniyattam. Dance and
ar
(d) Folk
Q.257. Bhanu Ji is associated with which their Exponents : Mohiniyattam (Kerala) -
Se
of the following Gharanas of Kathak? Sunanda Nair, Jayaprabha Menon, Pallavi Sol.266.(c) Ghazal. Musical genres and
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Krishnan. Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu) - singers: Ghazal - Jagjit Singh (King of
(a) Lucknow (b) Raigarh Mrinalini Sarabhai, Rukmini Devi Ghazals), Hariharan, Pankaj Udhas,
(c) Banaras (d) Jaipur Arundale, Padma Subrahmanyam, Yamini Bhupinder Singh; Hindustani Classical -
Krishnamurthy. Ananda Shankar, Tansen. Carnatic
Sol.257.(d) Jaipur Gharana of Kathak Classical - M. S. Subbulakshmi, Aruna
was conceived by Bhanu Ji Maharaj. Q.262. Who was the music director of Sairam, M. Balamuralikrishna. Folk -
Exponents of Jaipur gharana: Chunnilal the famous song "Aye Mere Watan Ke Swaroop Khan, Sharda Sinha, Kailash
Prasad, Kundan Lal Gangani, Sunder Logon" sung by Lata Mangeshkar? Kher.
Prasad, Mangala Bhat. SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
(a) Kishore Kumar (b) Rajesh Roshan Q.267. Who among the following
Q.258. Who is the first female classical (c) C Ramchandra (d) Anand Raaj Anand personalities is an award winning
dancer in Indian history to be nominated Bhojpuri folk singer?
as a Member of Rajya Sabha, the upper Sol.262.(c) C Ramchandra. Deshbhaki SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift)
house of the Parliament of India? songs and their singers : Aisa Desh hai (a) Ila Arun (b) Rabbi Shergill
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift) mera (Lata Mangeskar), Mera Rang De (c) Malini Awasthi (d) Papon
(a) Mukti Mohan Basanti Chola (Udit Narayan), Yeh Desh
(b) Shobha Naidu hai veer jawano ka (Mohammad Rafi), Sol.267.(c) Malini Awasthi - An Indian
(c) Sanjukta Panigrahi Teri Mitti (B Praak), Sandese Aate hain folk singer who sings in Bhojpuri,
(d) Rukmani Devi Arundale (Sonu Nigam), I Love my India Awadhi/Audhi, and Hindi languages.
(Hariharan), Mera Mulk Mera Desh Award - Padma Shri (2016). Ila Arun is an
Sol.258.(d) Rukmani Devi Arundale was (Aditya Narayan and Kumar Sanu), Mere Indian film actress, music composer and
an Indian classical dancer of Desh ki Dharti (Mahendra Kapoor). singer. Rabbi Shergill is a Punjabi folk
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
singer. Papon is an Assamese folk Q.272. Who among the following Q.276. Guru Bipin Singh, a Nrityacharya
singer. personalities is associated with awardee, Sangeet Natak Akademi
synthesising classical and modern Indian awardee and Kalidas Samman awardee,
Q.268. Kottakkal Nandakumaran Nair is dance through a theatre group called was renowned for promoting which
a Sangeet Natak Akademi 2019 Awardee Ranga Sri Little Ballet Troupe ? classical dance form?
for his contribution to ________. SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift) SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift)
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Guru Bipin Singh (a) Manipuri (b) Kuchipudi
(a) Bharatanatyam (b) Contemporary (b) Pandit Birju Maharaj (c) Odissi (d) Kathak
(c) Kathakali (d) Odissi (c) Shanti Bardhan
(d) Remo Fernandes Sol.276.(a) Manipuri. Awards of Guru
Sol.268.(c) Kathakali (Classical Indian Bipin Singh - Sangeet Natak Akademi
dance of Kerala). Kottakal Sol.272.(c) Shanti Bardhan - A junior Award (1966), Kalidas Samman (1989),
Nandakumaran Nair - He is famous for colleague of Uday Shankar, produced Title of Hanjaba by the Maharaja of
his ‘Kathi’ Veshas and has skill in some of the most imaginative dance Manipur.
enacting ‘Pacha’ and ‘Minukku’ veshas. -dramas of the 20th century. He
produced Ramayana, in which the actors Q.277. Urmila Satyanarayanan is an
Q.269. Who among the following exponent of which Indian classical dance
moved and danced like puppets.
personalities won the Sangeet Natak form ?
Akademi Award 2021 for contribution to Q.273. Who among the following SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Manipuri Dance? personalities coined the term 'Odissi' for (a) Bharatanatyam (b) Kathak
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift) Odisha's classical dance? (c) Manipuri (d) Sattriya
(a) Bhuvan Kumar SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (4th shift)
(b) Thokchom Ibemubi Devi (a) Kabichandra Kalicharan Patnaik Sol.277.(a) Bharatanatyam. Urmila
df
(c) Sruti Bandopadhyay (b) Kelucharan Mohapatra Satyanarayanan (Tamil Nadu) - Awards:
(d) Kumkum Dhar Kalaimamani award (1997), Nritya
_p
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Rabindranath Tagore Choodamani (2001).
Sol.269.(b) Thokchom Ibemubi Devi.
na
The Manipuri Dance, also referred to as Sol.273.(a) Kabichandra Kalicharan Q.278. Satyaram Reang received the
the Manipuri Raas Leela, is anchored in Patnaik. His Contribution was in the field Padma Shri for promoting the Hojagiri
ap
the Vaishnava faith of the Meiteis. The of Odissi music, Odissi dance and Odia dance form. He belongs to which of the
four Jhaveri sisters (Nayana, Ranjana, theatre. Some of his major published following states?
:@
Suverna and Darshana) are classical works: Kalanka Bhanjana, Milana SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Manipuri dancers. Bhuvan Kumar (Chhau Madhuri, Daridrya Bhanjana. (a) Sikkim (b) Manipur
Dancer) (c) Assam (d) Tripura
TG
Q.274. Who among the following
Q.270. Asghari Bai is primarily personalities is a professional Kuchipudi Sol.278.(d) Tripura. His Awards - Padma
remembered for her contribution to Dancer ? Shri (2021), Sangeet Natak Akademi
on
which of the following genres of music? SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift) Award (1986), Hojagiri dance (Reang
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift) (a) Radha Sridhar community).
(a) Folk (b) Carnatic (b) Surupa Sen
ch
(c) Dhrupad (d) Ghazal (c) Anupama Hoskere Q.279. Who among the following Indian
(d) Kaushalya Reddy classical tabla players was called
ar
Sol.270.(c) Dhrupad. Awards of Asghari 'Abbaji'? He collaborated with American
Sol.274.(d) Kaushalya Reddy. Famous
Bai - Padma Shri (1990), Sangeet Natak jazz drummer Buddy Rich to create a
Se
Kuchipudi Dancers: Bhavana Reddy,
Akademi (1986). Other Dhrupad Artists: music album in 1968 ?
Yamini Reddy, Vempati Chinna Satyam,
Ramakant Gundecha, Umakant SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (1st shift)
Manju Bhargavi.
Gundecha, Zia Fariddudin Dagar, Pelva (a) Taufiq Qureshi (b) Zakir Hussain
Naik, Pandit Ram Kumar Mallick, Mukund Q.275. In 2018, Google Doodle celebrated (c) Fazal Qureshi (d) Alla Rakha
Dev Sahoo, Uday Bhawalkar. the 100th birthday of Mrinalini Sarabhai.
Sol.279.(d) Alla Rakha. He belongs to
She is an exponent of which of the
Q.271. Who among the following Punjab Gharana. Awards: Padma Shri
following dance forms?
personalities was awarded the Sangeet (1977) and Sangeet Natak Academy
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
Natak Akademi Award 2020 for his/her Award (1982).
(a) Bharatanatyam and Kathakali
contribution to contemporary dance? (b) Odissi and Kathak Q.280. Shivaputra Siddaramaiah Komkali
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) (c) Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam math is the original name of which of the
(a) Bhushan Lakandri (d) Yakshagana following Indian classical singers?
(b) Sruti Bandopadhyay
Sol.275.(a) Bharatanatyam and SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (1st shift)
(c) Bickram Ghosh
Kathakali. Awards of Mrinalini Sarabhai - (a) Pandit Omkarnath Thakur
(d) Sumitra Guha
Padma Shri (1965), Padma Bhushan (b) Pandit Kumar Gandharva
Sol.271.(a) Bhushan Lakandri. Sangeet (1992), Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (c) Pandit Jasraj
Natak Akademi Award: First Awarded - (1970), Dhirubhai Thakar Savyasachi (d) Pandit Dinkar Kaikini
1952. Awarded for - Performing arts in Saraswat Award (2014), Sangeet Natak Sol.280.(b) Pandit Kumar Gandharva.
India. Organiser - Ministry of Culture, Akademi Fellowship (1994). She was the Awards - Padma Vibhushan (1990).
Government of India. Headquarters - founder of Darpana Academy of Pandit Jasraj (Rasraj) - Mewati Gharana.
New Delhi. Performing Arts (1949).
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.281. Pandit Kishan Maharaj of Benaras Bhushan (1970), Lifetime Achievement "A Passion For Dance".
Gharana was a __________ player. Award (2004), Natya Padmam (2007),
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (2nd shift) Platinum Jubilee Award (2002). Q.290. Who among the following
(a) santoor (b) flute (c) sarangi (d) tabla personalities has received both Grammy
Q.286. Vasundhara Doraswamy was and Oscar awards?
Sol.281.(d) Tabla. Awards of Kishan awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
Maharaj - Padma Shri (1973), Padma Award (Akademi Puraskar) for the year (a) Javed Akhtar
Vibhushan (2002). 2019 for her contribution to which of the (b) Jagjit Singh
following ? (c) Gulzar
Q.282. Ustad Hassu Khan was one of the Graduate Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 1) (d) Amitabh Bhattacharya
founders of which of the following (a) Bharatanatyam (b) Kuchipudi
Gharanas of music? (c) Odissi (d) Kathak Sol.290.(c) Gulzar (Sampooran Singh
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift) Kalra) is a famous lyricist of Hindi films.
(a) Rampur (b) Agra Sol.286.(a) Bharatanatyam (Tamil Awards - National Film Award (1991,
(c) Gwalior (d) Patiala Nadu). She is the only Bharatanatyam 1988). Filmfare Award (2021, 2019,
danseuse to have been invited from India 2013). Academy Award (2009). Padma
Sol.282.(c) Gwalior Gharana: Oldest to perform for ‘WORLD PEACE’ Bhushan (2004). Jawed Akhtar : Poet
khayal gharana. Singers - Vishnu conference in Paris under the aegis of and lyricist and screenwriter of Hindi
Digambar Paluskar, Nisaar Husain Khan, UNESCO. She was honoured with films. Award : Padma Shri (1999), Padma
Ulhas Kashaalkar. Gharanas and their "Shantala Natya Sri Award" - The highest Bhushan (2007).
founders: Rampur - Ustad Inayat Hussain State Award for Dance by the Karnataka
Khan, Agra - Hajisujan Khan, Kirana - State Government and the Rajyotsava Q.291. Ratikant Mohapatra, an awardee
Abdul Karim Khan. Award (Karnataka State). of 'Sangeet Natak Akademi Award', is
df
known for which of the following
Q.283. Ramkrishna Talukdar received the Q.287. Which dancer was the first person classical dances of India?
_p
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2018 from Odisha to get Padma Vibhushan in Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
for his contribution to the Sattriya dance 2000 ? (a) Odissi (b) Manipuri
na
form. To which state does this dance Graduate Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 1) (c) Kathak (d) Kathakali
form belong? (a) Guru Shyama Charan Pati
ap
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (3rd shift) (b) Guru Bipin Singh Sol.291.(a) Odissi (2016). Other Awards
(a) West Bengal (b) Assam (c) Guru Mayadhar Rout : Bhumiputra Samman (2016), Nritya
:@
(c) Meghalaya (d) Jharkhand (d) Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra Choodamani (2014). Sangeet Natak
Akademi Award (Odissi) - Pankaj Charan
Sol.283.(b) Assam. Ramkrishna Talukdar
Sol.287.(d) Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra. Das (1970), Deba Prasad Das (1970),
TG
: Awards - Asom Gaurav, Sangeet Jyoti
Awards - Padma Bhushan (1988), Mayadhar Raut (1985), Sonal Mansingh
Award, Nritya Ratna, Kala Gaurav. It was
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1966), (1987), Kumkum Mohanty (1994),
given the status of a classical dance in
Kalidas Samman (1987). Gangadhar Pradhan (1997), Gita Mahalik
on
2000 by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.
(2009), Aruna Mohanty (2010), Sujata
Q.288. Jyoti Prasad Agarwala was a Mohapatra (2017), Surupa Sen (2018),
Q.284. Who was the founder of Benaras
music composer popularly called
ch
Gharana of Kathak? Sutapa Talukdar (2019), Rabindra
'Rupkonwar' in the state of _________ . Atibudhi (2020).
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
ar
(a) Ishwari Prasad
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Rajasthan Q.292. Kamalini and Nalini Asthana, the
(b) Shambhu Maharaj
Se
(c) Gujarat (d) Assam dancer duo have been conferred with the
(c) Raja Chakradhar Singh
Padma Shri in 2022. They are renowned
(d) Janaki Prasad Sol.288.(d) Assam. Jyoti Prasad Agarwal for which of the following dance forms?
- First filmmaker of Assam. He made the Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
Sol.284.(d) Janaki Prasad. Notable
first Assamese Movie - ‘Joymoti’ (1935). (a) Kuchipudi (b) Manipuri
dancers - Sitara Devi, Kamalini Asthana
His Famous Play - ‘Sonit - Konwari’, (c) Bharatnatyam (d) Kathak
and Nalini Asthana. Ishwari Prasad -
‘Rupalim’, ‘Karengar Ligiri’, ‘Lobhita’ and
Founder of the Lucknow Gharana;
'Joymoti’. His death anniversary (17 Sol.292.(d) Kathak. Kamalini Asthana
Notable dancer - Pandit Birju Maharaj.
January) is observed as ‘Silpi Divas’ in and Nalini Asthana (Agra, Uttar Pradesh)
Shambhu Maharaj - Celebrated Guru of
Assam. known for their performances of the
the Lucknow Gharana.
Benaras Gharana style of Kathak.
Q.285. Which danseuse among the Q.289. The noted danseuse Yamini
following was called to perform for Krishnamurthy opened Yamini School of Q.293. Surupa Sen is a famous _________
Queen Elizabeth-ll's coronation festivities Dance in_________, in the year 1990. dancer.
in 1953 ? Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift - 2) Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
Graduate Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 3) (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (a) Kathak (b) Kathakali
(a) Mrinalini Sarabhai (c) Chenna (d) Hyderabad (c) Odissi (d) Bharatanatyam
(b) Sitara Devi Sol.289.(b) Delhi. Yamini Krishnamurthy Sol.293.(c) Odissi. Awards of Surupa
(c) Rukmini Devi Arundale - Awards - Padma Shri (1968), Sangeet Sen: Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
(d) Kamala Lakshmi Narayanan Natak Akademi (1997), Padma Bhushan (2018), Raza Foundation Award (2006).
Sol.285.(d) Kamala Lakshmi Narayanan (2001), Padma Vibhushan (2016), "Natya Q.294. Who was the recipient of Ustad
(Bharatanatyam). Awards - Padma Shastra" award (2014). Autobiography - Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar 2017 for
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Kathak ? Sol.298.(a) Tabla. Ustad Shafaat Ahmed Q.303. Lata Mangeshkar recorded her
Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 3) Khan (Delhi gharana). Awards - Padma first playback song for a _________ film.
(a) Jitendra Maharaj (b) Rajendra Gangani Shri Award in 2003. Famous Tabla SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Morning)
(c) Geetanjali Lal (d) Vidha Lal players - Zakir Hussain, Trilok Gurtu, (a) Bengali (b) Punjabi
Kishan Maharaj, Alla Rakha, Aban Mistry. (c) Marathi (d) Tamil
Sol.294.(d) Vidha Lal. She is a disciple of
Kathak dancer Geetanjali Lal of Jaipur Q.299. Who among the following was Sol.303.(c) Marathi. Lata Mangeshkar -
Gharana. Awards: ‘Sri Krishna gana awarded the Bharat Ratna in 2001 and She recorded her first song “Naachu Ya
sabha endowment award (2010) and has been credited with taking the Gade, Khelu Saari Mani Haus Bhaari” in
Guinness world record for the most shehnai from the marriage mandap to 1942 at age of 13 for Marathi film Kiti
number of spins (103) in one minute the concert hall ? Hasaal and recorded her last song
(2011). SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening) ‘Saugandh Mujhe Is Mitti Ki’ in 2019.
(a) Ravi Shankar
Q.295. Papanasam Sivan was related to (b) Ali Akbar Khan Q.304. Alla Rakha left home at age 12 to
the following music? (c) Hariprasad Chaurasia learn a musical instrument under the
Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 3) (d) Bismillah Khan great master (ustad) Mian Qadir Baksh.
(a) Carnatic (b) Punjabi He became a renowned player of
(c) Khyal (d) Dhrupad Sol.299.(d) Bismillah Khan (Ustad). ________.
Awards: Sangeet Natak Akademi Award SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning)
Sol.295.(a) Carnatic. Papanasam Sivan (1956), Sangeet Natak Akademi (a) Sarod (b) Sarangi (c) Tabla (d) Sitar
Awards: Padma Bhushan (1972), Fellowship (1994), Swathi Sangeetha
Sangeet Natak Academy Fellow (1962), Puraskaram (1998) by Government of Sol.304.(c) Tabla. Alla Rakha specialized
President Award (1962). Kerala, T Choudayya National Award in Hindustani classical music. He was
df
(1995) by Government of Karnataka, born in Ghagwal (Jammu and Kashmir).
Q.296. Who among the following He is a player of Tabla and Pakhawaj.
_p
Tahar Mausique from the Republic of
musicians was awarded a Grammy in the Awards: Padma Shri (1977) and Sangeet
Iran (1992), Tansen Award by Govt. of
Music Album category for his Natak Akademi (1982).
na
Madhya Pradesh.
collaborative album ‘Global Drum Project’
along with Mickey Hart, Sikiru Adepoju Q.300. Ustaad Allauddin Khan, a famous Q.305. Who popularised the ‘Pandanallur
ap
and Giovanni Hidalgo ? Indian musician is associated with Style’ in Bharatanatyam and received
Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 4) __________ musical instrument. Padma Bhusan in 2004?
:@
(a) Ricky Kej (b) Vikku Vinayakram SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning) SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Morning)
(c) Zakir Hussain (d) A R Rahman (a) Surbahar (b) Santoor (a) Kumari Kamala (b) Madhuri Dixit
(c) Sarod (d) Sitar (c) Mallika Sarabhai (d) Alarmel Valli
TG
Sol.296.(c) Zakir Hussain. He is the son
of Ustad Alla Rakha. Awards - Padma Sol.300.(c) Sarod. Awards - Padma Sol.305.(d) Alarmel Valli. She was the
Shri (1988), Padma Bhushan (2002), Bhusan (1958), Padma Vibhushan second youngest dancer to be conferred
on
Padma vibhushan (2023) National (1971), Sangeet Natak Akademi (1954). the Padma Shri (in 1991) from the
Heritage Fellowship (1999), Sangeet Government of India, after
Natak Akademi Award (1990), Kalidas Q.301. Saswati Sen is the proud recipient Vyjayanthimala .
ch
Samman (2006), Guru Gangadhar of the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for
2004-2005. She is recognized for which Q.306. Who among the following is a
Pradhan Lifetime Achievement Award (In
ar
dance form? celebrated sarod maestro?
2012 at Konark Dance & Music Festival),
SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Morning) SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Evening)
Se
Grammy Award (1992 and 2009).
(a) Kathak (b) Kuchipudi (a) Niladri Kumar (b) Vilayat Khan
Q.297. Ilyas Khan was born in Lucknow (c) Manipuri (d) Mohiniyattam (c) N. Ramani (d) Zarin Sharma
to a family of musicians. He was famous Sol.306.(d) Zarin Sharma - She was a
for playing Sol.301.(a) Kathak. Saswati Sen was a
senior disciple of Pandit Birju Maharaj. famous Sarod player of Khayal (Agra
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning) gharana). AwardS - Sangeet Natak
(a) Tabla (b) Sitar Q.302. Saroja Vaidyanathan received Akademi Award (1988), Maharashtra
(c) Veena (d) Mridangam Kalidas Samman for classical dance Gaurav Puraskar (1990), Dadasaheb
in________. Phalke Academy award (2007).
Sol.297.(b) Sitar. Ilyas Khan (1924-1989) SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Evening)
- He was a disciple of Abdul Ghani Khan (a) 2009 - 10 (b) 2020 - 21 Q.307. Vidushi Sharan Rani is famous for
(a dhrupad singer from Kalpi). His father (c) 2001 - 02 (d) 2002 - 03 playing which musical instrument?
belonged to the Shahjahanpur gharana of SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Evening)
sarod players while his mother came Sol.302.(a) 2009 - 10. Saroja
(a) Flute (b) Sitar (c) Tabla (d) Sarod
from the Lucknow gharana of sarod Vaidyanathan (Bharatanatyam). Her
players. awards: Padma Bhushan (2013), Padma Sol.307.(d) Sarod. She is the first woman
Shri (2002). Bharat Kala Sunder (2006). sarod player in India. She was awarded
Q.298. Ustad Shafaat Ahmed Khan was Book by her :- “The Science of Padma Bhushan in 2000.
best known for which of the following Bharatanatyam”. The first recipients
instruments? (1980) of the Kalidas Samman - Q.308. "Bombay" Ramnath is a
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Afternoon) Semmangudi Srinivasa Iyer (Classical famous____singer of India.
(a) Tabla (b) Rudra Veena music) and Mallikarjun Mansur (Classical SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Morning)
(c) Violin (d) Harmonium Music). (a) Carnatic (b) Folk (c) Jazz (d) Hip-hop
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.308.(a) Carnatic. Bombay Jayashri in 1962. dance in the west?
Ramnath (Padma Shri in 2021) has sung SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening)
in multiple languages including Tamil, Q.313. Nahid Siddiqui was awarded (a) Leela Naidu (b) Lona Pinto
Telugu, Kannada. Famous Carnatic Milapfest's Lifetime Achievement Award (c) Indrani Rahman (d) Peace Kanwal
singer - M. S. Subbulakshmi, S. Sowmya, in October 2017. She is recognized for
M Balamuralikrishna, Nithyasree which dance form? Sol.317.(c) Indrani Rahman. She was the
Mahadevan. Famous folk singers: Mame SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning) first South Asian to compete in the Miss
Khan, Swaroop Khan, Ila Arun, Nooran (a) Odissi (b) Sattriya Universe pageant (1952). Indrani was a
Sisters, The Wadali Brothers, Malini (c) Kuchipudi (d) Kathak successful classical dancer in
Awasthi, Dipali Borthakur, Kollangudi Bharatanatyam, Kuchipudi, Kathakali and
Sol.313.(d) Kathak. Nahid Siddiqui (born Odissi. In 1961, she became the first
Karuppayee. Famous jazz singers: in Pakistan), A disciple of two great
Shankar-Jaikishan, Trilok Gurtu, Louiz dancer to be a part of the Asia Society
teachers: Maharaj Kathak (Pakistan) and tour. Awards - Femina Miss India (1952),
Banks. Famous hip-hop singers: Divine, Birju Maharaj. Other Awards - Pride of
Naezy, Raja Kumari, Brodha V. Padma Shri (1969), Sangeet Natak
Performance (1994), Time Out Award Akademi Award (1981).
Q.309. Who among the following was (1991), British Cultural Award,
awarded the prestigious title of International Dance Award. Q.318. M.S. Gopalakrishnan mastered
"Nrityacharya' conferred by the Maharaja both Carnatic and Hindustani classical
Q.314. Which famous female personality music. He was the master of _______.
of Manipur?
received the Padma Shri award for SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Afternoon
SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Manipuri classical dance? (a) Sarangi (b) violin (c) sitar (d) Santoor
(a) Guru Bipin Singh
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning)
(b) Rukmini Devi
(a) Kalabati Devi (b) Devyani Chalia Sol.318.(b) Violin. Awards and Honours:-
df
(c) Uday Shankar
(c) Elam Endira Devi (d) Charu Mathur Padma Bhushan (2012), Padma Shri
(d) Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra
(1975), Sangeet Natak Akademi (1982),
_p
Sol.314.(c) Elam Endira Devi (Manipur). Sangeet Natak Akademi Tagore Ratna
Sol.309.(a) Guru Bipin Singh.
She is an Indian classical dancer and (2012), Kalaimamani (Tamil Nadu) -
na
Q.310. Who is noted as a pristine Indian teacher. She performed in the film 1978.
Classical Dancer to perform at Salzburg ‘Matamgi Manipur’, which won the
ap
Festival in 2015? National Film Award (1972). Other Q.319. Budhaditya Mukherjee is
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening) awards - Excellence Award, Nritya Rani associated with which of the following
:@
(a) Tanjore Balasaraswati Upadhi, Best Actress Award. musical instruments?
(b) Alarmel Valli SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Evening)
(c) Kumari Kamala Q.315. Indore gharana is one of the vocal (a) Veena (b) Sitar (c) Violin (d) Sarangi
TG
(d) V. Satyanarayana Sarma gharanas of Indian classical music. It
was founded by _______. Sol.319.(b) Sitar. Budhaditya Mukherjee
Sol.310.(b) Alarmel Valli : An exponent SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning) : First-ever musician to perform at the
on
of the Pandanallur style of (a) Ustad Amir Khan House of Commons, London.
Bharatanatyam. Awards - Padma (b) Doreswamy V. Iyengar
Bhushan (2004), Chevalier of Arts and (c) Dr. Lakshminarayana Subramaniam Q.320. Shri Mani Prasad is associated
ch
Letters award (2004), Sangeet Natak (d) Ustad Bundu Khan with which form of music?
Akademi Award (2001). SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
ar
Sol.315.(a) Ustad Amir Khan. Other (a) Fusion Music
Q.311. Jayanthi Kumaresh is one of the disciples of Indore gharana - Pandit (b) Folk Music
Se
foremost exponents of ________. Amarnath, Shankar Lal Mishra, Kankana (c) Carnatic vocal music
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Morning) Banerjee, Purvi Mukherjee. Other gharana (d) Hindustani vocal music
(a) santoor (b) tabla (c) sitar (d) veena and its founder - Gwalior Khayal style
(Ustad Nathan Pir Baksh), Agra Sol.320.(d) Hindustani vocal music.
Sol.311.(d) Veena. Jayanthi Kumaresh is Pandit Mani Prasad was an Indian
(Hajisujan Khan), Rangeela (Faiyyaz
known for her mastery of the Saraswati classical vocalist from the Kirana
Khan), Jaipur (Alladiya Khan).
veena, a plucked string instrument that is gharana (singing style). He was awarded
one of the most important instruments in Q.316. Who among the following is a Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2019.
Carnatic music. Awards - Sangeet sitar maestro of global acclaim? Hindustani music is the classical music
shikhar samman award (2019); Music SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Evening) of the Northern parts of the Indian
academy award (2015). (a) Bismillah Khan subcontinent. Carnatic Music originated
(b) Girija Devi from Southern India, the city of
Q.312. In 2019, the Government of India
(c) Shahid Parvez Khan Hyderabad and other Dravidian-speaking
honoured Milena Salvini, an Italian-born
(d) Vishwa Mohan Bhatt regions of India.
Kathakali dancer, with which of the
following awards? Sol.316.(c) Shahid Parvez Khan. Awards Q.321. Shri Jatin Goswami received
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Evening) - Kalajyothi Lifetime Achievement Award several honours for his contribution to
(a) Padma Shri (b) Bharat Ratna (2020), Sangeet Natak Akademi Award SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(c) Padma Vibhushan (d) Padma Bhushan (2006), Padma Shri Award (2012). (a) Bharatnatyam Dance
Sol.312.(a) Padma Shri. Milena Salvini - Q.317. Which former Miss India, also the (b) Kathak Dance
Obtained a two-year scholarship to train recipient of the Sangeet Natak Akademi (c) Sattriya Dance
in Kathakali at the Kerala Kalamandalam Award, popularised Indian classical (d) Manipuri Dance
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.321.(c) Sattriya dance (Assam): SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (3rd Shift) Nishagandhi Puraskaram from the
Awards and Honours:- Padma Shri (a) Tripura (b) Uttar Pradesh Government of Kerala in 2013?
(2008), Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(2004), Silpi Divas Award (1994), Sangeet (a) Madhavi Mudgal (b) Shobana C Pillai
Jyoti Award (2004), Assam Natya Sol.326.(c) Madhya Pradesh. Baba (c) Uday Shankar (d) Mrinalini Sarabhai
Sanmilon Award (1997), Hiraprova - Allauddin Khan (Sarod player) laid the
Chandrakanta Award (2006). foundation of Maihar Gharana and Sol.330.(d) Mrinalini Sarabhai was the
became the court musician for the founder and director of Darpana
Q.322. With which of the following Maharaja of Maihar. Academy of Performing Arts in
classical dance forms is Deepika Reddy Ahmedabad.
associated ? Q.327. Who among the following is
SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (3rd Shift) known as a pioneering dance Q.331. Shovana Narayan was awarded
(a) Manipuri (b) Kuchipudi educationist and a prominent which of the following awards in 2013 ?
(c) Kathak (d) Sattriya Mohiniyattam exponent ? SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (1st Shift)
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (3rd Shift) (a) Guru Deba Prasad
Sol.322.(b) Kuchipudi (Classical dance (a) Madhavi Mudgal (b) Sangam Kala
of Andhra Pradesh): Guru Smt. Vijaya (b) Shagun Butani (c) Kalidas Samman
Prasad, Shri Vedantam Lakshmi (c) Mohanrao Kallianpurkar (d) Bharat Muni Samman
Narayana Sastry, Dr. Vempati Chinna (d) Dr Kanak Rele
Satyam, Yamini Krishnamurthy, Shobha Sol.331.(a) Guru Deba Prasad. Awards
Naidu, Raja and Radha Reddy, Kaushalya Sol.327.(d) Dr. Kanak Rele. She is the and Honors: Oisca Award (Japan)
Reddy, Yamini Reddy, Bhavana Reddy, founder-director of the Nalanda Dance (1990–91), Dadabhai Naoroji Award
Atisha Pratap Singh, Arunima Kumar. Research Centre (1967) and the (1993), Bihar Gaurav Puraskar (1985),
df
founder-principal of the Nalanda Nritya Guru ML Koser Award (2013), Art Karat
Q.323. The poet saint Kabir Das was Kala Mahavidyalaya in Mumbai. Awards Award (2014), Bharat Nirman’s Social
_p
born in sometime in the 15th century. and Honors: Padma Shri (1990), Kalidas Responsibility Award (2014) etc.
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (1st Shift) Samman (Madhya Pradesh, 2006),
na
(a) Kashi (b) Amritsar Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1994), Q.332. Who among the following is a
(c) Somnath (d) Agra Padma Bhushan (2013). famous performer of the Kathakali
ap
classical dance?
Sol.323.(a) Kashi (Uttar Pradesh). Kabir Q.328. Rajashree Shirke was given which SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (1st Shift)
:@
was a 15th century mystic poet, saint of of the following prestigious dance (a) Pankaj Charan Das (b) Sunanda Nayar
the Bhakti Movement. Books - Bijak, Kabir awards of 2013 for her excellence in (c) Gopinath (d) Raja Reddy
Parachai, Sakhi Granth, and Kabir Kathak?
TG
Granthawali. His verses are found in SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (1st Shift) Sol.332.(c) Gopinath. Awards and
Sikhism's scripture Guru Granth Sahib. (a) Sangeet Natak Academy Award Honors: Sangeet Natak Akademi's award
Saint Kabir was the contemporary of Guru (b) Padma Shri (1965), 'Kala Tilakam' by the Guruvayur
on
Nanak and Delhi Sultan Sikandar Lodhi. (c) Kalidas Samman Devaswom (1968), 'Kala RatIn’ title by
(d) National Film Award the Travancore Devaswom Board (1973),
Q.324. Aditi Mangaldas is a leading etc.
ch
dancer & Choreographer in the classical Sol.328.(a) Sangeet Natak Academy
Q.333. Rajkumar Singhajit Singh, a
Indian dance form of_________. Award. Awards and Honors: Mumbai
ar
leading exponent and guru of Indian
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Mayor's Award for Women Achievers of
classical Manipuri dance form, was
Se
(a) Bharatanatyam (b) Kuchipudi the Year, Best Shikshak for the year 2007,
awarded which of the following Indian
(c) Kathak (d) Kathakali and Title "Khosrovani" by Halim Academy
civilian honours in 1986?
of Sitar. Shambhu Maharaj was the first
Sol.324.(c) Kathak. Awards Received by SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Kathak dancer to win Sangeet Natak
Aditi Mangaldas - National Sangeet (a) PadmaBhushan (b) Padma Shri
Academy Award in 1955.
Natak Akademi award in 2013. (c) BharatRatna (d) Padma Vibhushan
Q.329. Who among the following Indian Sol.333.(b) Padma Shri. Rajkumar
Q.325. Who among the following was the
classical musicians has an auditorium Singhajit Singh (Manipuri dancer).
guru of Pandit Ravi Shankar ?
named after it in Tehran, Iran? Awards and Honors - Sangeet Natak
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (3rd Shift) Akademi Award (1984), Sangeet Natak
(a) Bismillah Khan (b) Amjad Ali Khan
(a) Ustad Bismillah Khan Akademi Fellowship (2011), Tagore
(c) Ali Akbar Khan (d) Allaudin Khan
(b) Ustad Sultan Khan Award (2014), Delhi Sahitya Kala
Sol.325.(d) Allauddin Khan (Sarod (c) Ustad Zakir Hussain Parishad Award (1975), Manipur Sahitya
player) was the guru of Pandit Ravi (d) Ustad Vilayat Khan Parishad Nritya Award (1975), etc.
Shankar. He was awarded the Padma
Bhushan (1958) and the Padma Sol.329.(a) Ustad Bismillah Khan Q.334. Which of the following Gharanas
Vibhushan (1971), Sangeet Natak (shehnai) - Become the third classical does Padma Bhushan Kishori Amonkar
Akademi award and Sangeet Natak musician of India after M. S. belong to?
Akademi Fellowship (1954). Subbalakshmi and Ravi Shankar to be SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (1st Shift)
awarded the Bharat Ratna (2001). (a) Gwalior (b) Kirana
Q.326. In which state is the Maihar court (c) Patiala (d) Jaipur - Atrauli
where Baba Allauddin Khan was a Q.330. Who among the following was the
musician? first recipient of the State annual award Sol.334.(d) Jaipur - Atrauli. Kishori
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Amonkar - She was a performer of the was given the Prani Mitra Award in 1968. Sangeet Natak Akademi (1993). Sangeet
classical genre khyal and the light SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (3rd Shift) Natak Akademi Award (1994).
classical genres thumri and bhajan. (a) Dr Padma Subrahmanyam
Awards and Honors: Padma Bhushan (b) Shovana Narayan Q.344. Sharmila Biswas, who was
(1987), and Padma Vibhushan (2002), (c) Rukmini Devi Arundale awarded the 'Best Choreography Award'
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1985) (d) Bipin Singh in 1998 by the Ministry of Information
and the Sangeet Natak Akademi and Broadcasting, represents which of
Fellowship (2009). Sol.339.(c) Rukmini Devi Arundale the following classical dance forms?
(Bharatanatyam). Awards: Padma SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (4th Shift)
Q.335. Who among the following Bhushan (1956), Sangeet Natak Akademi (a) Manipuri (b) Odissi
personalities is an exponent of Kathak Award (1957). (c) Kathakali (d) Kathak
dance in India?
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (1st Shift) Q.340. Who among the following is NOT Sol.344.(b) Sharmila Biswas (Odissi
(a) Prerna Shrimali (b) Usha Uthup an exponent of Mohiniyattam classical dancer and choreographer) established
(c) Suman Kalyanpur (d) Monali Thakur dance form? Odissi Vision and Movement Center
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (3rd Shift) (1995, Kolkata). Awards: Sangeet Natak
Sol.335.(a) Prerana Shrimali. She is a (a) Smitha Rajan Akademi Award (2012), Uday Shankar
senior dancer of Jaipur Gharana of (b) Jayaprabha Menon Award for Best Choreography (1998),
Kathak. Honours - 2001 Rashtriya Ekta (c) Prateeksha Kashi Mahari Award (2010).
Award (57th Birth Anniversary of Rajiv (d) Radha Dutta
Gandhi). Q.345. With which instrument is Ustad
Sol.340.(c) Prateeksha Kashi (Kuchipudi Sultan Khan associated?
Q.336. Guru Nileshwar Mukherjee is the dancer). Awards and honours: Ustad SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (4th Shift)
df
exponent of which of the following Indian Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar (2014), (a) Sitar (b) Sarod (c) Tabla (d) Sarangi
classical dance forms? Aditya Vikram Birla Kalakiran Puraskar
_p
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (2nd Shift) (2014), Aryabhata International Award Sol.345.(d) Sarangi. He was one of the
(a) Sattriya (b) Manipuri (2011), Kalabharathi National Young founding members of the Tabla Beat
na
(c) Odissi (d) Kathak Talent Award (2014), Natyaveda Award Science (Indian Fusion group) with Zakir
(2014). Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty Hussain and Bill Laswell. Awards: Padma
ap
Sol.336.(b) Manipuri. Amma: Mother of Mohiniyattam. Bhushan (2010), Sangeet Natak Akademi
(1992), American Academy of Artists
:@
Q.337. With which instrument do the Q.341. Surekha Punekar is a _________ (1998).
sisters Lalita and Nandini identify? dancer from the Indian state of
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Maharashtra. Q.346. Who among the following teamed
TG
(a) Mandolin (b) Violin SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (3rd Shift) up with flautist Hariprasad Chaurasia and
(c) Sarod (d) Flute (a) Tamasha (b) Lavani guitarist Brij Bhushan Kabra and
(c) Povada (d) Koli produced a concept album, 'Call of the
Sol.337.(b) Violin. Awards and Honors:
on
Valley' (1967)?
`Kalaimamani’ (Tamil Nadu), Title of Sol.341.(b) Lavani. Vithabai SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (1st Shift)
`Haratha Violin Vadya Thilakangal’, Best Narayangaonkar, Kantabai Satarkar, (a) Tarun Bhattacharya (b) Bhajan Sopori
ch
senior violinist (Madras music academy, Mangala Bansode, Sandhya Mane, (c) Shivkumar Sharma (d) Satish Vyas
and Indian fine arts society). Violinist in Roshan Satarkar are well known artists
ar
India: Mysore brothers – Mysore Nagaraj presenting Lavani on stage. Sol.346.(c) Pandit Shivkumar Sharma
and Mysore Manjunath, Abhijith P. S. Nair, (santoor player).
Se
Ambi Subramaniam, B. Sasikumar, Q.342. Which of the following was
awarded to Bharatnatyam dancer Q.347. Who among the following is
Balabhaskar Chandran, Embar Kannan,
Priyadarshini Govind in 1998 ? Telangana’s first Sangeet Natak Akademi
H. K. Narasimhamurthy, Lalgudi
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) Award winner ?
Vijayalakshmi, etc.
(a) Tagore Ratna SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Q.338. Who was the recipient of the (b) Kalaimamani (a) Padmaja Reddy
National Devdasi Award in 2016? (c) Nritya Choodamani (b) Yamini Reddy
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift) (d) Kalidas Samman (c) Deepa Sashindran
(a) Geeta Kapoor (d) Shantala Shivalingappa
(b) R Muthukannammal Sol.342.(b) Kalaimamani. Other Awards -
Sol.347.(a) Padmaja Reddy (Kuchipudi).
(c) Prerana Deshpande ‘Nritya Kalanidhi' title by The Music
She developed Kakatiyam (a two-part
(d) Dr Sohini Ray Academy in 2019, Sangeet Natak
Kuchipudi classical visual dance form).
Akademi award (2012).
Sol.338.(c) Prerana Deshpande Awards: Kala Ratna (2006), Sangeet
(Kathak). Gaurav Puruskar at the hands Q.343. Kumkum Mohanty, an Odissi Natak Akademi Award (2015), and
of Pt. Birju Maharaj, Singar Mani title, by dancer received which of the following Padma Shri (2022). Sangeet Natak
the Sur Singar Samsad of Mumbai, awards in 2005? Academy: Founded (1953), Headquarters
Nrityashree title, Kiran, Katan (1994). R SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (2nd Shift) (New Delhi).
MuthuKannammal (Sadir dancer) - (a) Padma Bhushan (b) Kalidas Samman
Q.348. Who among the following was
Padma Shri (2022). (c) Padma Shri (d) Padma Vibhushan
popularly called the ‘Australian Mother of
Sol.343.(c) Padma Shri. Guru Kelucharan Kathakali’?
Q.339. Name the classical dancer who
Mahapatra Award (2011), Odisha SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(a) Margot Fonteyn musical instrument? Sol.356.(a) French. Mallika Sarabhai
(b) Anna Pavlova SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) (Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi dancer ) -
(c) Yelena Andreyanova (a) Harmonium (b) Tabla Padma Bhushan (2010). Book - In Free
(d) Louise Lightfoot (c) Sarod (d) Violin Fall: My Experiments With Living.
Founder of Darpana dance Academy.
Sol.348.(d) Louise Lightfoot was Sol.352.(a) Harmonium -
popularly called the Australian Mother of Appa Jalgaonkar (Sangeet Natak Q.357. The Sabri brothers, Aziz Warsi
Kathakali by Vallathol Narayana Menon Akademi Award - 2000). It is also called and Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan are associated
(the founder of Kerala Kalamandalam). Reed Organ, a free-reed keyboard with which singing style?
Kathakali is known as the ballad of the instrument. Famous Harmonium players SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning)
East. It is performed on the Sopana - Mehmood Dhaulpuri, R. K. Bijapure, (a) Qawwali (b) Shabad
sangeet. Sudhir Nayak, Tulsidas Borkar. (c) Bhatiali (d) Bhajan
Q.349. Who among the following has the Q.353. Hari Prasad Chaurasia, an Indian Sol.357.(a) Qawwali. Nusrat Fateh Ali
credit to invent and create a new style of flutist, is associated with which of the Khan (President of Pakistan Award for
‘Bharatanatyam’ ? following music gharanas? Pride of Performance by the Government
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (3rd Shift) SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) of Pakistan). Indian folk music -
(a) Yamini Krishnamurthy (a) Maihar (b) Rampur-Jaipur Bhavageethe (Karnataka and
(b) Dr Padma Subrahmanyam (c) Senia (d) Prasanna Maharashtra), Bhangra and Giddha
(c) Rukmini Devi Arundale (Punjab), Lavani (Maharashtra). Alha
(d) Chinta Ravi Bala Krishna Sol.353.(c) Senia gharana (Founder - (Madhya Pradesh) and Panihari, Pankhida
Bilas Khan and Naubat Khan). Official and Maand (Rajasthan).
Sol.349.(b) Dr. Padma Subrahmanyam: Biography of Hari Prasad Chaurasia -
df
Awards - Sangeet Natak Akademi Award 'Breath of Gold' (2019) by Sathya Saran. Q.358. Who among the following was a
(1983), Padma Bhushan (2003) Padma Other famous flutists - Ronu Majumdar, famous sitar player ?
_p
Shri (1981). Pravin Godkhindi, Raghunath Seth. Other SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning)
Gharana - Agra (Hajisujan Khan), (a) Zakir Hussain
na
Q.350. Which Gharana was propounded Lucknow (Bindadin Maharaj), Banaras (b) Hari Prasad Chaurasia
by Bade Fateh Ali Khan and Ali Baksh (Pandit Ram Sahai), Jaipur (Ustad (c) Raja Khan
ap
Jarnail Khan? Alladiya Khan). (d) Nikhil Banerjee
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening)
:@
(a) Gwalior Gharana Q.354. Which extraordinary scholar and Sol.358.(d) Nikhil Banerjee (Maihar
(b) Agra Gharana artist of the 17th century AD composed Gharana). Awards - Padma Shri (1968),
(c) Patiala Gharana Bhaamaakalaapam, a dance drama Padma Bhushan (1987). Hari Prasad
TG
(d) Bhendi Bazaar Gharana based on Kuchipudi? Chaurasia (Flute Player), Zakir Hussain
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening) (Tabla Player). The Sangeet Sudarshana
Sol.350.(c) Patiala Gharana. Malika (a) Sachindra Yogi (b) Shivendra Yogi states that the sitar was invented during
on
Pukhraj, Gauhar Jan, Ghulam Ali are all (c) Siddhendra Yogi (d) Sidharth Yogi the 18th century by a fakir named Amir
related to Patiala Gharana. Gwalior Khusru.
Gharana : Ghulam Hassan Shaggan, Sol.354.(c) Siddhendra Yogi. Bhama
ch
Vasundhara Komkali, Narayanrao Bodas, Kalapam (story of Satyabhama, wife of Q.359. Laxmipriya Mohapatra was
Sunanda Patnaik. Agra Gharana : Yaqoob the god Krishna). Most popular classical associated with which of the following
ar
Hussain Khan, Yusuf Hussain Khan, dance-dramas, Kathakali (sage Bharata). classical dances of India ?
Se
Khurshid Hussain Khan, Shamim Ahmed SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
Khan, Ghulam Rasool Khan. Bhendi Q.355. The famous musician Satyadev (a) Sattriya (b) Kathakali
Bazaar Gharana : Pandit Shivkumar Pawar is associated with which musical (c) Odissi (d) Kuchipudi
Shukla, Ramesh Nadkarni, T.D. Janorikar. instrument?
Tansen belonged to Gwalior Gharana. SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening) Sol.359.(c) Odissi.
(a) Violin (b) Shehnai (c) Veena (d) Sitar Laxmipriya Mohapatra is said to be the
Q.351. Violin virtuoso L Subramaniam is first woman to perform Gotipua (folk
famous for which of the following genres Sol.355.(a) Violin. Other Violin Players - dance of Odisha) on stage, and the first
of music globally? Lalgudi Jayaraman - Padma Shri (1963), dancer to perform Odissi on stage.
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening) Padam Bhushan (1994), Sangeet Natak
(a) Jazz (b) Hindustani music Akademi (2010); L. Subramaniam Q.360. Ileana Citaristi is the first
(c) Carnatic music (d) Rock {Padma Shri (1998) Padma Bhushan classical dancer of foreign origin who
(2001); M. S Gopalakrishnan {Padma Shri was conferred the Padma Shri Award in
Sol.351.(c) Carnatic music. Padma Shri (1975), Sangeet Natak Akademi Award 2006 for her contributions to ________.
(1988), Padma Bhushan (2001), (1982), Padma Bhushan (2012)}. SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening)
Manaviyam (Millennium) Award, Kerala (a) Kathakali (b) Kathak
(2001). Popular Violists : Abhijith P. S. Q.356. Mallika Sarabhai was honoured (c) Bharatanatyam (d) Odissi
Nair, Ambi Subramaniam, Arrol Carelli, by the________government with Chevalier
Avaneeswaram S R Vinu, B. Sasikumar, des Palmes Academiques 2005. Sol.360.(d) Odissi. Ileana Citaristi is an
Ragini Shankar. SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning) Indian Odissi and Chhau dancer. Awards:
(a) French (b) Canadian 43rd National Film Awards (1996), Padma
Q.352. The famous musician, Appa (c) Swiss (d) Belgian Shri (2006), Leonide Massine for the Art
Jalgaonkar is associated with which of Dance (Italy, 1992), Sanskriti Siromani
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(2006), Lalithakala award (2007), Pandit with which classical dance of India? Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 2011,
Jasraj Award (2009), Prananath Patnaik SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Afternoon) Vetri Award from University of Madras in
Award (2005). (a) Manipuri (b) Kathak 2013. Honorary Doctorate from Periyar
(c) Odissi (d) Sattriya Maniammai University 2016, ICCR
Q.361. Who was hailed as the ‘Tansen of Empanelled Dance Artist in Outstanding
the 20th century’? Sol.365.(c) Odissi. Awards : Sanskriti Category 2017.
Higher Secondary 01/08/2022 (Shift - 3 ) Award (1984), Padma Shri (1990), Orissa
(a) Ustad Abdul Karim Khan State Sangeet Natak Akademi Award Q.370. Pandit Rajendra Gangani is
(b) Ustad Faiyaz Khan (1996), Grande Medaille de la Ville by associated with which classical dance of
(c) Ustad Amir Khan Govt. of France (1997), Central Sangeet India?
(d) Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan Natak Akademi Award (2000), Delhi State SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Morning)
Parishad Samman (2002) and the title of (a) Manipuri dance (b) Kathak dance
Sol.361.(d) Ustad Bade Ghulam Ali Khan Nritya Choodamani in 2004. (c) Odissi dance (d) Sattriya dance
(Patiala gharana). Awards - Sangeet
Natak Akademi Award (1962), Sangeet Q.366. With which of the following was Sol.370.(b) Kathak Dance.
Natak Akademi fellow (1967), Padma Kadri Gopalnath associated ? Pandit Rajendra Gangani: Awards -
Bhushan Award (1962). Ustad Abdul SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Morning) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (2003).
Karim Khan (founder of the Kairana (a) 365 (b) Saxophone He is one of the leading exponents of the
gharana of classical music). Ustad (c) Tabla (d) Flute Jaipur Gharana style of Kathak.
Faiyaz Khan (exponent of the Agra
gharana). Ustad Amir Khan (founder of Sol.366.(b) Saxophone. Famous Q.371. His compositions for
the Indore gharana of Classical Music). Saxophone players in India - Manohari blockbusters such as Silsila and Chandni
Singh, Allah Rakha Rahman, Braz are a manifestation of his musical
df
Q.362. Who among the following Gonsalves, Adnan Sami Khan, George brilliance. Who is he?
dancers was awarded the Queen Victoria Brooks, etc. The saxophone is a type of SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Afternoon)
_p
Silver Medal of the Royal Society for the single-reed woodwind instrument with a (a) Ustad Bismillah Khan
Prevention of Cruelty to Animals, London conical shape, usually made of brass. (b) Pandit Shivkumar Sharma
in 1958 ?
Graduate Level 01/08/2022 (Shift - 4 ) na
Q.367. Radha Sridhar received the
(c) Ustad Zakir Hussain
(d) Jagjit Singh
ap
(a) Sitara Devi Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for the
(b) Sonal Mansingh year 2018 for her contribution to which Sol.371.(b) Pandit Shivkumar Sharma.
:@
(c) Sanjukta Panigrahi classical dance of India? He was awarded Platinum Disc for music
(d) Rukmini Devi Arundale SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Afternoon) of film Silsila, Gold Disc for music of film
(a) Kathak dance (b) Kuchipudi Faasle, Platinum Disc for music of film
TG
Sol.362.(d) Rukmini Devi Arundale (c) Sattriya (d) Bharatanatyam Chandni.
(Bharatanatyam). Awards: Padma
Bhushan (1956), Sangeet Natak Akademi Sol.367.(d) Bharatnatyam. She Q.372. Minati Mishra was associated
on
Award (1957), Prani Mitra Award (1968). established Venkatesha Natya Mandira with which classical dance of India?
in 1969. She choreographed her first SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Morning)
Q.363. Who achieved fame for the dance-drama based on the Ramayana, (a) kathak (b) kuchipudi
ch
Pandanallur school of Bharatanatyam? followed by Hanumadvilasa. (c) odissi (d) manipuri
Graduate Level 02/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
ar
(a) Anita Ratnam Q.368. Dr N Rajam is known for playing Sol.372.(c) Odissi. Minati Mishra was a
the ________. recipient of the 1975 Orissa Sangeet
Se
(b) Padma Subramanyam
(c) Mallika Sarabhai SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Evening) Natak Akademi Award. She also received
(d) Meenakshi Pillai (a) veena (b) guitar (c) violin (d) flute the Kalinga Shastriya Sangeet Parishad
Award and in 2000, she received the
Sol.363.(d) Meenakshi Pillai. Other two Sol.368.(c) Violin. Popular Violinist in Sangeet Natak Akademi Award. In 2012,
prominent styles of Bharatanatyam India: Abhijith P. S. Nair, B. Sasikumar, the Government of India awarded her the
(classical dance, Tamil Nadu) are Harikumar Sivan, Embar Kannan, Kala Padma Shri, the fourth-highest civilian
Vazhuvoor Dance Form (Vazhuvoor B. Ramnath, Sunita Bhuyan, Akkarai award of India.
Ramiah Pillai and his ancestors) and Subbalakshmi, Vittal Ramamurthy, Ragini
Melattur Dance form (Guru Mangudi Shankar, Manoj George, Gagan Chandra Q.373. Chitti Babu is associated with
Dorairaj). Chatterjee, Sangeeta Shanka etc which musical instrument?
SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Afternoon)
Q.364. Tankeswar Hazarika Borbayan Q.369. Who is the first trans woman to (a) Guitar (b) Santoor (c) Sitar (d) Veena
received the Sangeet Natak Akademi win a Padma Shri award for
Award for the year 2018 for his Bharatanatyam? Sol.373.(d) Veena. Famous Veena
contribution to which classical dance of SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Evening) players in India - Zia Mohiuddin Dagar,
India? (a) Bishesh Huirem (b) Narthaki Nataraj Ayyagari Syamasundaram, Doraiswamy
SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Morning) (c) Sruthy Sithara (d) Sadhana Mishra Iyengar, Emani Sankara Shastri,
(a) Kuchipudi (b) Bharatanatyam Dhanammal, KR Kumaraswamy,
(c) Sattriya (d) Kathak Sol.369.(b) Narthaki Nataraj. Sundaram Balachandrer, etc.
Kalaimamani Award of Tamil Nadu
Sol.364.(c) Sattriya dance (Assam). Government in 2007, Nritya Choodamani Q.374. Yog Sunder Desai, a pioneer who
Award from Krishna Gana Sabha in 2009, ventured into the world of Indian Dance
Q.365. Madhavi Mudgal is associated
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
in the pre-independence era, was born on (c) Chhau (d) Mohiniyattam (a) Kathak (b) Manipuri
July 16, 1921 in __________. (c) Bharatanatyam (d) Odissi
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Morning) Sol.378.(c) Chhau. Awards: Padma Shri
(a) Maharashtra (b) Rajasthan (2012), Suvarna Shankhu (2010), Natya Sol.383.(b) Manipuri. Padma Shri
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Gujarat Shri title from Nataraj Music Academy (1970), Sangeet Natak Akademi (1956).
(2010).
Sol.374.(d) Gujarat. Yog Sunder Desai Q.384. Due to the service done by the
directed the 'Ram Lila' for Shriram Q.379. Who is the first Indian musician to poet ___________, the Kathakali dance
Bharatiya Kala Kendra in 1966. Yog win the Oscar award for Best Original form received a new impetus and today,
Sunder founded his dance ensemble in Score? many innovations are also being made to
1948 in Calcutta and called it the Indian SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Afternoon) suit the needs of a changing society.
Revival Group in the spirit of revivalism (a) Bhanu Athaiya (b) Resul Pookutty SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Evening)
that was sweeping the country. (c) Mehboob Khan (d) A.R. Rahman (a) Purandara Dasa
(b) Vallathol Narayana Menon
Q.375.________ along with his wife, Sol.379.(d) AR Rahman. Resul Pookutty (c) Satchidanandan
herself a dancer, and their son built Srjan won an oscar award for best sound (d) Gopal Bhatta
in 1993. mixing. Bhanu Athaiya won an Oscar for
SSC CHSL 24/05/ 2022 (Morning) costume design for her work on Sol.384.(b) Vallathol Narayana Menon
(a) Pankaj Charan Das “Gandhi”. Mehboob Khan was the was a poet in the Malayalam Language.
(b) Kelucharan Mohapatra Director of the movie Mother India which His famous poem is "Ente Gurunathan"
(c) Raghunath Dutta was nominated in the best foreign film ("My Great Teacher"). He was one of the
(d) Deba Prasad Das category. triumvirate poets of modern Malayalam,
along with Kumaran Asan and Ulloor S.
df
Sol.375.(b) Kelucharan Mohapatra. He is Q.380. Shamshad Begum, one of the first Parameswara Iyer.
an exponent of Odissi Dance. he women to sing playback for Hindi
_p
choreographed a number of dance - movies, was conferred with the Q.385. Padma Shri awardee Guru
dramas in Odissi style, including prestigious OP Nayyar Award for her Gangadhar Pradhan is an accomplished
na
"Panchapuspa", "Krushna Gatha", "Geeta contribution to Hindi film Music in the dancer of which of the following dance
Govinda", "Urbashi", "Krushna Leela", year _____. forms ?
ap
"Sakhigopal", "Konark" and "Sri Kshetra". SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Evening)
(a) 2001 (b) 2009 (c) 2012 (d) 2005 (a) Manipuri (b) Kathakali
:@
Q.376. The Nooran Sisters are renowned (c) Odissi (d) Kathak
for which of the following genres of Sol.380.(b) 2009. Award: Padma Bhushan
Indian Music? (2009). Sol.385.(c) Odissi. He was awarded the
TG
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Morning) Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1998
Q.381. Meenakshi Srinivasan received and the Padma Shri (India's fourth
(a) Qawwali (b) Sufi the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar
(c) Ghazals (d) HindustaniClassical highest civilian award) in 2008.
2011 for which of the following dance
on
Sol.376.(b) Sufi. The Nooran Sisters forms? Q.386. Who among the following
(Jyoti Nooran and Sultana Nooran) are a SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Afternoon) versatile musicians of India won the Best
ch
Sufi singing duo from Jalandhar, India. (a) Sattriya (b) Mohiniyattam Music Director National Award for the
They perform Sham Chaurasia gharana (c) Kuchipudi (d) Bharatanatyam Hindi movie ‘Rudaali’ and was also
ar
classical music. known as the ‘Bard of Brahmaputra’?
Sol.381.(d) Bharatanatyam. In 2018 SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Evening)
Se
Q.377. Which of the following Hindustani (Last Awarded) - Durgesh Gangani (a) Bhupen Hazarika (b) Manas Robin
vocalists from Allahabad, along with her (Kathak), Dr Manju Elangbam (Manipuri), (c) Joi Barua (d) Jayanta Hazarika
famed contemporary Gauhar Jaan, had Madhulita Mohapatra (Odissi) .
the privilege of performing for Emperor Sol.386.(a) Bhupen Hazarika. He
Q.382. Which of the following dancers of received Bharat Ratna Award in 2019. He
George V at the Delhi Darbar in 1911 ? Mohiniyattam form of Indian classical
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Morning) is from Assam.
dance was given the Devadasi National
(a) Shobha Abhyankar (b) Annupamaa Award in 2013? Q.387. Ashish Sankrityayan is an
(c) Allah Jilai Bai (d) Janki Bai SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Evening) exponent of _________ music.
Sol.377.(d) Janki Bai. She was popularly (a) Smitha Rajan (b) Jayaprabha Menon SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Evening)
known as “Chhappan chhuri” or the (c) Sunanda Nair (d) Gopika Verma (a) Odissi (b) Dhrupad
'woman with 56 stab wounds'. Shobha (c) Thumri (d) Kajari
Sol.382.(b) Jayaprabha Menon. Prerana
Abhyankar (Pune) - Mewati Gharana. Deshpande, a kathak dancer, has been Sol.387.(b) Dhrupad. In Hindustani
Annupamaa (Chennai)- Carnatic Music, awarded the Devadasi National Award music, there are ten main singing styles:
Allah Jilai Bai (Rajasthan) - Folk Music. for her contribution to Kathak dance in Dhrupad, Tappa, Chaturang, Ragasagar,
Q.378. Padma Shri awardee Gopal 2016. Dhamar, Hori, Khayal, Tarana, Sargam,
Prasad Dubey was awarded for his and Thumri. Every composition in the
Q.383. Padma Shri awardee Guru Amubi Carnatic style is made up of several
contribution to which of the following Singh was conferred the award for his
dances? parts: Pallavi, Anu Pallavi, Varnam and
significant contributions in which of the Ragamalika.
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Afternoon) following dance forms ?
(a) Sattriya (b) Panthi SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Afternoon) Q.388. The nineteenth century saw the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
golden age of Kathak under the Bade Ghulam Ali Khan (vocalist, from (c) Ghulam Mustafa Khan
patronage of Wajid Ali Shah, the last Patiala Gharana), Ustad Amir Khan (d) Chhannulal Mishra
Nawab of __________. (founder of the Indore gharana) and
SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Evening) Sadarang (Khayal Gharana). Sol.396.(b) Dr. Mangalampalli Balamurali
(a) Hyderabad (b) Rampur Krishna (Andhra Pradesh) was an Indian
(c) Oudh (d) Jaunpur Q.393. Who among the following Indian Carnatic vocalist, he also played the
Playback Singers holds the Guinness kanjira, mridangam, viola, and violin. He
Sol.388.(c) Oudh. He patronised the world record for singing the highest was conferred with many prestigious
Lucknow Gharana of Kathak. number of songs in one day? awards Padma Shri (1971), Padma
SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Morning) Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan (1991),
Q.389. Shobana Chandrakumar, a
(a) Alka Yagnik (b) Kumar Sanu Chevalier of the Ordre des Arts et des
recipient of Padma Shri, is a dancer of
(c) Kavita Krishnamurthy (d) Udit Narayan Lettres (2005), National Film Awards
which of the following Indian classical
(1976, 1987), and the Sangeet Natak
dance forms? Sol.393.(b) Kumar Sanu holds the Akademi Award (1975).
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Morning) Guinness world record for singing the
(a) Manipuri (b) Bharatanatyam highest number of 28 songs in one day Q.397. Which artist’s musical album is
(c) Kathak (d) Odissi in 1993. Honours- Maharashtra Ratna titled ‘Land of Gold’ ?
Awards (2014), Mahanayak Samman SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Afternoon)
Sol.389.(b) Bharatnatyam. Padma Shri
Lifetime Achievement: as Bengali (a) Mita Nag
(2006). She won the Kalaimamani (Tamil
Playback Singer (2014), Dr. Babasaheb (b) Anupama Bhagwat
Nadu) award in 2011. She won the
Ambedkar Nobel Award (2017), Bishesh (c) Anoushka Shankar
Kalarathna (Kerala) award in 2013.
Sangeet Mahasanman (2019). (d) Rajna Swaminathan
df
Q.390. The first recipient of the National
Q.394. Padma Shri Guru Mayadhar Sol.397.(c) Anoushka Shankar (British-
Award for Best Music Direction was
Raut’s pioneering spirit revived which of Indian American Sitar player) won a
_p
_______ who was honoured for his
the following dances in the 1950s and Grammy nomination for her album, “Land
composition in the Tamil film Kandan
redefined the grammar and Abhinaya of Gold”. Her other notable albums are
na
Karunai.
vocabulary of the dance form? RISE, Traveller, Traces of You, Home, and
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Afternoon)
SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Morning) Love Letters. Anupama Bhagwat (Sitarist;
ap
(a) KV Mahadevan (b) Vidyasagar
(a) Bharatanatyam (b) Odissi ‘Confluence’, ‘Ether’, ‘Epiphany’, ‘Colours
(c) Deva (d) Karthik Raja
(c) Manipuri (d) Kuchipudi of Sunset’, ‘Sanjh’), Rajna Swaminathan
:@
Sol.390.(a) K. V. Mahadevan. He was (acclaimed mridangam artist), and Mita
Sol.394.(b) Odissi. Guru Mayadhar Raut: Nag (Sitarist from Bishnupur Gharana).
again awarded the same in 1979 for
Awards- Sangeet Natak Akademi Tagore
TG
Sankarabharanam (Telugu film).
Ratna (2011), Sahitya Kala Parishad Q.398. Famous classical dancer
National Award for Best Music Direction
Award (1984). Vidyagauri Adkar is recognised with
2019: D. Imman was awarded for
______ Gharana of Indian classical dance
on
Viswasam (Tamil film). Q.395. Who among the following form.
Hindustani classical vocalists was SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Morning)
Q.391. In which of the following years
awarded the Padma Bhushan by the
ch
did Pandit Bhimsen Gururaj Joshi give (a) Alwar (b) Gwalior
Government of India and the title of (c) Banaras (d) Jaipur
his first ever live performance?
‘Rajya Gayika’ by the Government of
ar
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Afternoon)
Maharashtra in 1969? Sol.398.(d) Jaipur Gharana. Vidyagauri
(a) 1937 (b) 1945 (c) 1941 (d) 1950
Se
SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Morning) Adkar (Mumbai) is a Kathak dance
Sol.391.(c) 1941. Pandit Bhimsen (a) Gangubai Hangel (b) Sundari Dasi exponent in India. Other Kathak dancers
Gururaj Joshi was one of the greatest (c) Kesarbai Kerkar (d) Nagarathnamma of Jaipur Gharana are Sunder Prasad
Indian vocalists from Karnataka and (Sundar Chunnilal Prasad), Puru
Sol.395.(c) Kesarbai Kerkar was an Dadheech, and Mangala Bhatt.
belongs to the Kirana gharana tradition
Indian classical vocalist of the
of the Hindustani classical tradition. He
Jaipur-Atrauli gharana. She was awarded Q.399. Guru Shyama Charan Pati, was
gave his first live performance in 1941 at
the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in conferred the Padma Shri for his
the age of 19.
1953, followed by Padma Bhushan, in contributions to mainly which of the
Q.392. Who among the following Khayal 1969. The Maharashtra Government following dance forms?
singers of the 19th century was given the awarded her the title Maharashtra Rajya SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Morning)
title of ‘Tanras” by Bahadur Shah Jaffar, Gayika. Gangubai Hangal (Khyal, Kirana (a) Kathi nacha (b) Santali dance
the last Mughal Emperor of India? Gharana, Karnataka). Nagarathnamma (c) Chhau nritya (d) Jhumair
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Evening) (Carnatic Singer, Bangalore).
Sol.399.(c) Chhau nritya, a martial dance
(a) Bade Ustad Ghulam Ali Khan
Q.396. Who among the following Indian form of India. He was awarded the
(b) Meer Qutub Baksh
Carnatic musicians received the Padma Padma Shri, in 2006, for his contributions
(c) Ustad Amir Khan
Vibhushan award in 1991 and to Indian dance.
(d) Sadarang
established the Academy of Performing
Sol.392.(b) Meer Qutub Baksh. He was Arts and Research in Switzerland ? Q.400. Pandit Sunder Prasad who was
also a member of the Qawwal Bachchon SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Afternoon) awarded with the Sangeet Natak
Ka Delhi Gharana. His tomb in Hyderabad (a) Kishan Maharaj Akademi Award in 1959 was a ______
is near Khamas Shah Dargah. Ustad (b) Dr. Mangalampalli Balamuralikrishna dancer.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Afternoon) Delhi). Some prominent exponents are Kalamandalam (1980), 'Nrittapraveena'
(a) Kathakali (b) Odissi Faiyaz Khan “Prempiya", Vilayat Hussain title by Kerala Fine Arts Society (1984),
(c) Kathak (d) Mohiniyattam Khan "Pran Piya", Khadim Hussain Khan Kerala Sahitya Academy award (1985).
"Sajan Piya", Sharafat Hussain Khan
Sol.400.(c) Kathak. Pandit Sunder "Prem Rang", Shrikrishna Narayan Q.409. Malka Jaan of Agra Gharana was
Prasad was a guru (teacher) of Jaipur Ratanjankar "Sujan", Babanrao Haldankar the court musician at the durbar of which
Gharana. He was honoured by Natak "Raspiya'', Zohrabai, etc. of the following Nawabs of Calcutta?
Academy of Delhi in 1958. SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Morning)
Q.405. Who among the following is (a) Shuza-ud-Daula
Q.401. Who among the following won known as a vocalist in Carnatic Music? (b) Wajid Ali Shah
the first National Film Award for Best SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Morning) (c) Asaf-ud-Daula
Choreography in 1992? (a) Gangubai Hangal (d) Mohammad Ali Shah
SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Afternoon) (b) GN Balasubramaniam
(a) Saroj Khan (c) Kaushiki Chakraborty Sol.409.(b) Wajid Ali Shah. Malka Jaan
(b) Laxmibai Kolhapurkar (d) Girija Devi of Agra was one of Gauhar Jaan's
(c) Vaibhavi Merchant contemporaries. Shuja-ud-Daulah was
(d) Shiamak Davar Sol.405.(b) GN Balasubramaniam- the Subedar and Nawab of Oudh. Asaf
Carnatic Vocalist. Five famous Carnatic -ud-Daula was the Nawab wazir of Oudh
Sol.401.(b) Laxmibai Kolhapurkar. Raju Singers - Aruna Sairam, M. ratified by Shah Alam II.
Sundaram won 67th National Award in Balamuralikrishna, M. S. Subbulakshmi,
choreography for Movie Maharshi. Nithyasree Mahadevan, Semmangudi Q.410. Kalamandalam Kshemavathy
Srinivasa Iyer etc. Pavithran was conferred the Padma Shri
Q.402. Sartaj Khan, Sarwar Khan, award for her contribution to which of the
df
Swaroop Khan and Mame Khan are Q.406. In India, the tradition of singing following dance forms?
famous for which of the following? ghazal was established by _________. SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Afternoon)
_p
SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Evening) SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Morning) (a) Kuchipudi (b) Bharatanatyam
(a) Rajasthani folk music (a) Hazrat Ali (c) Kathak (d) Mohiniyattam
na
(b) Hindustani classical vocal (b) Hazrat Amir Khusrau
(c) Playing percussion instruments (c) Hazrat Nizamuddin Sol.410.(d) Mohinyattam. Awards of
ap
(d) Playing string instruments (d) Hazrat Shahenshahwali Kalamandalam Kshemavathy Pavithran:
Padma Shri (2011), Sangeet Natak
:@
Sol.402.(a) Rajasthani folk music. The Sol.406.(b) Hazrat Amir Khusrau. He is Akademi Award (1998), Kerala
most famous Rajasthani Maand singer is called the father of qawwali. He is known Sangeetha Nataka Akademi Award
Allah Jilai Bai (Bikaner Gharana). Other as the Parrot of India. Famous Books (1975) (for Bharatanatyam) and the
TG
Rajasthani folk singers are Ila Arun, written by him are Tughlaqnama, Nuh - Kerala Sangeetha Nataka Akademi
Rapperiya Baalam, and Rajnigandha sipihr and Khaizan-ul-futuh. Fellowship (2015).
Shekhawat.
on
Q.407. Manjamma Jogati became India’s Q.411. Who among the following Indian
Q.403. Which of the following Hindustani first transgender folk dancer to receive a musicians introduced shehnai to the
musical Gharanas is the oldest among all Padma Shri honour for her contribution concert stage and was selected to
ch
the Khayal Gayaki styles? to art in the year ____. perform for the ceremony at Delhi’s
SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Evening) SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Afternoon) historic Red Fort on the occasion of
ar
(a) Agra Gharana (b) Kirana Gharana (a) 2012 (b) 2021 (c) 2009 (d) 2018 India’s Independence Day on 15 August
(c) Atrauli Gharana (d) Gwalior Gharana
Se
1947 ?
Sol.407.(b) 2021. She was awarded SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Evening)
Sol.403.(d) Gwalior vocal Gharana is Padma Shri for her contribution to the
widely regarded as the oldest Gharana (a) Ali Bakhsh (b) Anant Lal
field of folk arts. First transgender (c) Bismillah Khan (d) Ali Ahmad Hussain
founded by Nathan Pir Bakhsh and Utsad Padma Shri Awardee (Narthaki Nataraj;
Nathu khan. Famous artists include Dr. Bharatnatyam dancer; 2019) Sol.411.(c) Ustad Bismillah Khan.
Meeta Pandit, Ustad Bade Inayat Hussain
Khan, Krishnarao Shankar Pandit, Q.408. Who among the following wrote Q.412. Which of the following Indian
Narayanrao Bodas, etc. Founders of Agra two books on the history and dance classical Bharatanatyam dancers
Gharana (Hajisujan Khan), Kirana (Abdul structure of Mohiniyattam? received the honours of Padma Shri in
Wahid Khan) and Atrauli (Alladiya Khan). SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Morning) 1981 and Padma Bhushan in 2003 ?
(a) Kalamandalam Radhika SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Evening)
Q.404. The important singers of (b) Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty Amma (a) Savitha Sastry
_________Gharana are Faiyyaz Khan, (c) Kalamandalam Hymavathi (b) Mallika Sarabhai
Latafat Hussein Khan and Dinkar Kakini. (d) Thankamani (c) Rukmini Devi
SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Evening) (d) Padma Subrahmanyam
(a) Patiala (b) Mewati Sol.408.(b) Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty
(c) Agra (d) Benaras Amma. She got several titles and awards Sol.412.(d) Padma Subrahmanyam
which are "Kavayithri' title given by (Tamil nadu) was awarded the Sangeet
Sol.404.(c) Agra Gharana is a tradition of Vallathol (1940), Sangeet Natak Akademi Natak Akademi Award (1983).
Hindustani classical vocal music fellowship (1974), Kerala Sangeet Natak
descended from the Nauhar Bani (during Q.413. Allah Jilai Bai, a singer from
Akademi fellowship (1974), 'Keerthi Rajasthan is famous for which of the
the reign of Emperor Alauddin Khilji of Shanku' title given by Kerala following ?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Evening) award (2004), Odisha Sangeet Natak
(a) Ghazals (b) Folk songs (a) Kedarnath Sahoo Akademi Award, and Tulsi Award.
(c) Bhajans (d) Hindustani classical music (b) Gopal prasad Dubey
(c) Suddhenra Narayan Singhdeo Q.422. Who among the following is a
Sol.413.(b) Folk songs. Allah Jilai Bai (d) Makar Dhwaja Darogha 19th century exponent of the Kathak
was well versed in Maand, Thumri, dance?
Khayal and Dadra. Her best-known piece Sol.417.(d) Makar Dhwaja Darogha SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Morning)
is Kesaria Balam. She was awarded the (Jharkhand) is known for his expertise in (a) Jatin Goswami
Padma Shri (1982) and Sangeet Natak the classical dance form of Chhau. (b) Kalka Prasad
Akademi Award (1988). (c) Bhabhananda Barbayan
Q.418. Who among the following Indian (d) Krishna Panicker
Q.414. Rama Vaidyanathan was awarded musicians founded Harmony and
with the honour of the Devadasi National Universality through Music (HUM) to Sol.422.(b) Maharaj Kalka Prashad
Award in 2013 for her contribution in perform in different parts of the world belonged to the Lucknow Gharana. He
which of the following Indian dance and draw people’s attention to specially - used to live in Banaras and promoted
forms? abled children? Kathak-style dance and Thumri singing.
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Evening) He plays Tabla and Pakhawaj. Jatin
(a) Mohiniyattam (b) Odissi (a) Kumar Bose Goswami (Sattriya), Bhabhananda
(c) Kuchipudi (d) Bharatnatyam (b) Sandeep Das Barbayan (Sattriya), and Krishna Panicker
(c) Swapan Chaudhuri (Mohiniyattam).
Sol.414.(d) Bharatnatyam. She was (d) Anindo Chatterjee
awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Q.423. Which dancer was awarded in
Award (2017), the National Excellence Sol.418.(b) Sandeep Das (Born: Patna; 1968 with a gold medal by the Mexican
df
Award by the All India National Unity Benaras Gharana) is an Indian Tabla Government for her choreography for the
Conference (1999), and the dance title of player and composer currently based in Ballet Folklorico of Mexico?
_p
"Bharatha Rathna '' (Sri Lanka; 1998). Boston, Massachusetts, United States. SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Afternoon)
He won a Grammy Award for Best World (a) Sonal Mansingh
na
Q.415. Who among the following got the Music Album, in 2017, for the album Sing (b) Shovana Narayan
Sangeet Natak Akademi 2017 for her Me Home. (c) Mrinalini Sarabhai
ap
contribution to Odissi dance? (d) Rukmani Arundale
SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Afternoon) Q.419. Guru MK Saroja has been
:@
(a) Sujata Mohapatra conferred with the Padma Shri for the Sol.423.(c) Mrinalini Sarabhai (Kerala)
(b) Shobha Koser relentless pursuit of which of the was an expert dancer in Bharatanatyam,
(c) Rama Vaidyanathan following dances? and Kathakali. Awards - Padma Shri
TG
(d) L N Oinam Ongbi Dhoni Devi SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Afternoon) (1965) and Padma Bhushan (1992). Her
(a) Bharatanatyam (b) Mohiniyattam autobiography - ‘The voice of the Heart-
Sol.415.(a) Sujata Mohapatra. She was (c) Odissi (d) Kuchipudi an autobiography’.
on
awarded the Central Sangeet Natak
Akademi Award (2017), Bhimeswar Sol.419.(a) Bharatanatyam. Guru MK Q.424. Lakshmi Shankar was a
Pratikha Samman (2004), Raaza Saroja was awarded the Padma Shri Hindustani classical vocalist of the
ch
Puruskar (2008). Shobha Koser (Kathak (2011), Sangeet Natak Akademi Tagore _________ Gharana.
dancer), Rama Vaidyanathan Ratna (2011), Sangeet Natak Akademi SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Afternoon)
ar
(Bharatnatyam), and L N Oinam Ongbi Award (1995). (a) Gwalior (b) Rangeela
Se
Dhoni Devi (Manipuri). (c) Kirana (d) Patiala
Q.420. Famous playback singer Kishore
Q.416. Padma Shri awardee Guru Kumar was born in 1929 in _________. Sol.424.(d) Patiala. The Gharana was
Keezhpadam Kumaran Nair was a dancer SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Evening) founded by Mian Kallu, a sarangi player
of which of the following classical (a) Bhopal (b) Calcutta of the Jaipur durbar. Lakshmi Shankar
dances of India? (c) Delhi (d) Khandwa was known for her performances of
SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Afternoon) khyal, thumri, and bhajan.
Sol.420.(d) Khandwa (Madhya Pradesh).
(a) Mohiniyattam (b) Odissi
He was awarded: Filmfare Award for Q.425. Mallikarjun Mansur, an Indian
(c) Kathak (d) Kathakali
Best Male Playback Singer (8 times), classical singer from Karnataka and an
Sol.416.(d) Kathakali. Keezhpadam Bengal Film Journalists' Association – excellent vocalist in Khayal style,
Kumaran Nair is a recipient of the Best Male Playback Award (4 times), and belonged to which of the following
Padma Shri award (2004), the Central Lata Mangeshkar Award. In 1997, Gharanas of music?
Sangeet Natak Akademi award (1988), Madhya Pradesh Government initiated an SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Evening)
the Kerala Sangeetha Nataka Akademi award called the "Kishore Kumar Award". (a) Darbhanga Gharana
Fellowship, and the Kalamandalam Q.421. Maguni Charan Das was awarded (b) Gwalior Gharana
award. Padma Shri for his contribution to which (c) Patiala Gharana
of the following forms of dances ? (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana
Q.417. Who among the following was
honoured with the Padma Shri in 2011 SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Evening) Sol.425.(d) Jaipur - Atrauli gharana
for his/her excellence in Chhau, a (a) Gotipua (b) Chhau (founded by Aladiya Khan). Awards-
semi-classical dance form of Eastern (c) Jhumair (d) Kharia Padma Shri (1970), Padma Bhushan
India? Sol.421.(a) Gotipua. Awards- Padma Shri (1976), and Padma Vibhushan (1992),
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
and Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship (c) Ustad Fateh Ali Khan the RCEMPA Hall in Jotsoma, Nagaland
(1982). His autobiography- ‘My journey in (d) Ustad Inayat Khan in 2022.
Music’.
Sol.430.(c) Ustad Fateh Ali Khan Q.435. The Nandi Award for Best Male
Q.426. Who among the following belongs to Patiala Gharana. Ustad Inayat Playback Singer was instituted by which
personalities along with his sons played Hussain Khan is the founder of Rampur state in the year 1977?
‘Raga for Peace’ in the year 2014 at the Sahaswan Gharana. SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
‘Nobel Peace Prize Concert’ ? (a) Gujarat (b) Andhra Pradesh
SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Afternoon) Q.431. Lourembam Bino Devi, Sangeet (c) Tripura (d) Maharashtra
(a) Pandit Ram Narayan Natak Akademi Award winner, had
(b) Ustad Bismillah Khan received the award for his contribution to Sol.435.(b) Andhra Pradesh. S. P.
(c) Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia which of the following dance forms ? Balasubrahmanyam holds the successful
(d) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Afternoon) record of winning the most Nandi
(a) Kuchipudi (b) Odissi Awards in this category. The Nandi
Sol.426.(d) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan. He is (c) Manipuri (d) Sattriya Awards recognize excellence in Telugu
an Indian classical sarod player. cinema, theatre, television, and lifetime
Sol.431.(c) Manipuri. Lourembam Bino achievements in Indian cinema. They are
Q.427. Guru Debaprasad Das Awardee Devi got Padma Shri in 2022. Awards: presented annually by the Government of
Durga Charan Ranbir is a teacher and Thouranisabi Gold Medal (1989), Andhra Pradesh and were first awarded
performer of which of the following conferred by the Manipur Sahitya Kala in 1964.
classical dance forms? Parishad, and the Manipur State Kala
SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Evening) Academy Award (1999). Q.436. Harivarasanam award is given in
(a) Kathak (b) Kathakali the field of music by which of the
df
(c) Manipuri (d) Odissi Q.432. In 1976, Natya Tarangini, was following state governments ?
founded in the National Capital Region, SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
_p
Sol.427.(d) Odissi. He was awarded the by world renowned Kuchipudi Dance duo (a) Kerala (b) Karnataka
Guru Kelucharan Mahapatra award 2019, ___________. (c) Maharashtra (d) Himachal Pradesh
na
Central Sangeet Natak Akademi Award SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Afternoon)
(2005), Orissa Sangeet Natak Academy (a) Seetha Nagajothy and P Nagajothy Sol.436.(a) Kerala. The Harivarasanam
ap
Award, Veda Vyas Award, etc. (b) Pasumarthy Vithal and Bharati Award is a music honor created by
(c) Radha and Raja Reddy Kerala's government and the Travancore
:@
Q.428. Who among the following was the (d) Jayarama Rao and Vanashri Rao Devaswom Board. It recognizes artists
founder of the Banaras Gharana of style who use music to promote the values of
of khayal singing? Sol.432.(c) Radha and Raja Reddy. Sabarimala, such as unity and equality.
TG
SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Evening) Awards - Padma Shri in 1984, Padma The award, which includes ₹1 lakh, a
(a) Ustad Inayat Khan Bhushan in 2000, Sangeet Natak citation, and a plaque, is announced
(b) Pandit Gopal Mishra Akademi Award (1991) etc. yearly before Sabarimala's Makaravilakku
on
(c) Ustad Mamman Khan festival.
(d) Ustad Chajju Khan Q.433. Ustad Hassu Khan, Ustad Haddu
Khan and Ustad Nathu Khan were Q.437. Which award was started by the
ch
Sol.428.(b) Pandit Gopal Mishra (Sarangi exponents of the___________ Gharana. Government of Madhya Pradesh in 1980
player). The chief exponents of the SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Evening) to the exponents of Hindustani classical
ar
Benaras Gharana are Rajan Mishra, Sajan (a) Benaras (b) Gwalior music ?
Mishra, Girija Devi, and others. Ustad (c) Delhi (d) Patiala
Se
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Mamman Khan (Delhi Gharana), Ustad (a) Kumar Gandharva Samman
Chajju Khan (Bhendi Bazaar Gharana), Sol.433.(b) Gwalior. The Gwalior
Gharana (Gwalior school of classical (b) Tansen Samman
Ustad Inayat Hussain Khan (Rampur - (c) Kishore Kumar Samman
Sahaswan gharana). music) is one of the oldest Khayal
Gharana in Indian classical music. (d) Iqbal Samman
Q.429. Anup Jalota is famous for which
Sol.437.(b) Tansen Samman: The award
of the following categories of Indian Arts Awards is presented annually during the Tansen
music ?
Samaroh at Gwalior. Kumar Gandharva
SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Morning)
Q.434. MG Music Awards is presented Samman: Established in 1992 by the
(a) Bhajan (b) Carnatic Music
annually by which of the following Madhya Pradesh government, the Kumar
(c) Hindustani Music (d) Instrumental
states? Gandharva Samman honors outstanding
Sol.429.(a) Bhajan. Bhajan Artist - Anup SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) musical talent. Kishore Kumar Samman:
Jalota, Krishna Das, Veena (a) Mizoram (b) Nagaland Started in 1997, the Kishore Kumar
Sahasrabuddhe, Deva Premal, Vaiyasaki (c) Manipur (d) Chhattisgarh Samman is awarded by the Madhya
Dasa, Pandit Jasraj, M.S. Subbulakshmi. Pradesh government for contributions to
Sol.434.(b) Nagaland. The MG Music
Hindi cinema. Iqbal Samman: Instituted
Q.430. Who among the following does Awards is an annual music awards
by the Government of Madhya Pradesh in
NOT belong to Rampur Sahaswan ceremony organized by the Musicians
1986-87 to honor excellence and
Gharana? Guild Nagaland. The first edition of the
creativity in Urdu literature.
SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Afternoon) awards was held online on June 21,
(a) Ustad Rashid Khan 2021, due to the COVID-19 pandemic. Q.438. Sangeeta Shankar was awarded
(b) Ghulam Mustafa Khan The second edition was held offline at Sangeet Natak Akademi Award 2021 for
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
her contribution in playing which musical Q.441. Guru Gangadhar Pradhan Award among the earlier recipients of the Lata
instrument? is given in which field of art? Mangeshkar Award.
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
(a) Violin (b) Santoor (c) Veena (d) Flute (a) Theatre (b) Textile Art Q.445. Which of the following presents
(c) Dance (d) Painting awards and recognitions in the field of
Sol.438.(a) Violin. Instruments and their Indian dances?
exponents: Violin: MS Gopalakrishnan, M Sol.441.(c) Dance. Guru Gangadhar SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift)
Chandrasekharan. Guitar: Braj Bhushan Pradhan - An eminent Odissi exponent. (a) INTACH
Kabra. Santoor: Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma, He founded both the prestigious Orissa (b) Sangeet Natak Akademi
Bhajan Sopori, Tarun Bhattacharya. Dance Academy as well as Konark Natya (c) Sahitya Akademi
Veena : Ayyagari Syamasundaram, Mandap. Awards - Padma Shri (2008), (d) Lalit Kala Akademi
Doraiswamy Iyengar, Suma Sudhindra. Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1997).
Flute: Hari Prasad Chaurasia, Pannalal Sol.445.(b) Sangeet Natak Akademi:
Ghosh, Palladam Sanjiva Rao. Q.442. Which of the following The apex body in the field of performing
performance categories belongs to Guru arts in the country, was set up in 1953.
Q.439. Which of the following Kelucharan Mohapatra and Guru The Chairman of the Akademi is
statements is / are true for the recipients Kelucharan Mohapatra Yuva Prativa appointed by the President of India for a
of the Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards? Summan ? term of five years. Sahitya Akademi
1.Sonal Mansingh was elected as Fellow SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning) (1954) : Headquarter - Rabindra Bhawan,
of Sangeet Natak Akademi in the year (a) Manipuri dance and music Delhi. Lalit Kala Akademi (1954) -
2018. (b) Odissi dance and music Headquarters - Rabindra Bhavan, Delhi.
2.Jatin Goswami was elected as Fellow (c) Maharashtra dance and music INTACH - Indian National Trust for Art
of Sangeet Natak Akademi in the year (d) Karnataka dance and music and Cultural Heritage (1984).
df
2018. Headquarter - New Delhi.
Sol.442.(b) Odissi dance and music.
_p
3.Radha Sridhar received the Sangeet
Natak Akademi Award in the year 2018 Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra Award was Q.446. Guru Gopinath National Award
instituted in the year 1995 by Shri 2021 was honoured to whom among the
na
for her contribution to Kathak.
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Ratikant Mohapatra to confer recognition following Kathak dancers?
on individuals for their contribution to the SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift)
ap
(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
(c) Both 2 and 3 (d) Both 1 and 3 fields of Dance, Music, Cinema and (a) Durga Lal (b) Roshan Kumari
Theatre. Award amount - 1,00,000 (c) Kumudini Lakhia (d) Shambhu Maharaj
:@
Sol.439.(a) Both 1 and 2. Radha Sridhar rupees.
received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Sol.446.(c) Kumidini Lakhia, an Indian
Award for the year 2018 for her Q.443. The National Award for Classical Kathak dancer and choreographer. She
TG
contribution to Bharatanatyam. Sangeet Dance is called. founded the KADAMB Centre for Dance
Natak Akademi Awards also known as SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (2nd Shift) in 1964. Awards - Padma Shri (1987),
the Akademi Puraskar Instituted in 1952, (a) Ethnic dance honor Padma Bhushan (2010). “Guru Gopinath
on
it recognizes excellence and sustained (b) Indian Award Desiya Natya Puraskaram” is the highest
contribution to the performing arts. The (c) Abhinandan Saroja Award award conferred by the Government of
ch
honour of Akademi Fellow carries a (d) classical respect Kerala for excellence in dance.
purse money of Rs. 3,00,000 while the Sol.443.(c) Abhinandan Saroja Award. It Q.447. Select the correct statement
ar
Akademi Award carries a purse money of is presented by the National Institute of about the achievements of Sruti
Rs 1,00,000 besides a Tamrapatra and
Se
Classical Dance to the dancers and Bandyopadhyay, an eminent Manipuri
Angavastram. choreographers for their contribution dancer.
Q.440. Which state gives the annual towards preserving the rich traditional SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (4th shift)
award Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra ? classical dance form of India. 2021 (a) She received Padma Shri for the year
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) Award Winner - Aparna Satheesan who is 2020.
(a) Karnataka (b) Odisha an exponent of Bharatanatyam and (b) She received the Sangeet Natak
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Manipur Kuchipudi dance. Akademi Award for the year 2020.
(c) She received Kalidas Samman for the
Sol.440.(b) Odisha. Kelucharan Q.444. Instituted in 1984, the National - year 2020.
Mohapatra (Odissi dancer) - First person level Lata Mangeshkar Award is given to (d) She received Padma Vibhushan for
to receive the Padma Vibhushan (2000) promote excellence in the area of light the year 2020.
from Odisha. Arts awards - Kalidas music annually by the ________
Samman (Madhya Pradesh), Jakanachari government's culture department. Sol.447.(b) Sruti Bandyopadhyay is
Award (Karnataka), Kala Ratna Award SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (3rd Shift) awarded with the Visiting Lecturer
(Andhra Pradesh), Tulsi Samman (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Rajasthan Fulbright Fellowship (2007) and the
(Madhya Pradesh), Kalaimamani Award (c) Karnataka (d) Goa Academic Staff Commonwealth
(Tamil Nadu), Rashtriya Kumar Fellowship (2012) to lecture and perform
Sol.444.(a) Madhya Pradesh. Lata on Indian dances in the USA and UK
Gandharva Samman (Madhya Pradesh), Mangeshkar (her honorific titles such as
Varnashilpi Venkatappa Award respectively.
the "Queen of Melody", "Voice of the
(Karnataka), Poompuhar State Award Millennium") was an Indian playback Q.448. Devdas Smriti Panthi Dance
(Tamil Nadu). singer and music composer. Naushad, Award is related to which state?
Kishore Kumar, and Asha Bhosle are Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(a) Rajasthan (b) Bihar 2019- Dr. Umayalpuram Sivaraman Sol.457.(a) Nalanda Dance Research
(c) Jharkhand (d) Chhattisgarh (Mrudangam) and Kalyanapuram Shri. R. Centre. Bharat Muni Samman (started in
Aravamudachariar (Harikatha). 2020- 2011). In 1966, this centre was
Sol.448.(d) Chhattisgarh. Awards of Pandit Arvind Parikh (Hindustani Sitar). established by Kanak Rele (exponent of
Chhattisgarh - Guru Ghasidas Samman, Mohiniyattam) in Mumbai.
chakradhar Samman, Devdas Banjare Q.453. Which of the following fields is
Memorial Award, Kishore Sahu Samman. not offered by Kalidas Samman?
Awards of Madhya Pradesh - Kalidas SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Evening)
Musical Instruments
Samman, Kabir Samman, Tansen (a) Classical music (b) Classical dance
Samman, Kishore Kumar Samman, Lata (c) Puppetry (d) Plastic arts Q.458. Ustad Vilayat Ali Khan is a
Mangeshkar Award, Maithilisharan Gupta maestro in __________ .
Award, Devi Ahilyabai Award, Iqbal Sol.453.(c) Puppetry is an animated SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Samman. Awards of Uttar Pradesh - visual art form. Kalidas Samman (2020)- (a) Tabla (b) Mridangam
Vishwa Bharti Award, Maharshi Valmiki Aruna Sairam Indian Music (Carnatic (c) Sitar (d) Flute
Award, Maharishi Vyas Award, Maharshi Music). This award is presented annually
by the Government of Madhya Pradesh . Sol.458.(c) Sitar. Sitarist : Pt. Ravi
Nara Award, Ved Pandit Award. Shankar, Shahid Parvez Khan, Budhaditya
Q.449. How much purse money was Q.454. Who among the following Mukherjee, Anushka Shankar.
given to a Sangeet Natak Akademi fellow Bharatanatyam exponents received the
‘Chevalier of Arts and Letters award from Q.459. Who among the following is the
in 2019? world renowned exponent of the bamboo
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (4th Shift) the Government of France in 2004?
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Morning) flute ?
(a) ₹4 lakh (b) ₹3 lakh SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) ₹2 lakh (d) ₹1 lakh (a) Mallika Sarabhai (b) Sonal Mansingh
df
(c) Mrinalini Sarabhai (d) Alarmel Valli (a) MS Subbulakshmi
Sol.449.(b) ₹3 lakh. Sangeet Natak (b) Ravi Shankar
_p
Akademi Fellowship: Awarded for the Sol.454.(d) Alarmel Valli. She is an (c) Hariprasad Chaurasia
performing arts in India, Sponsored by exponent of the Pandanallur style (d) Bismillah Khan
na
(Sangeet Natak Academy), First awarded (Bharatnatyam).
Sol.459.(c) Hariprasad Chaurasia. He
(1954: Allauddin Khan, Hafiz Ali Khan,
ap
Q.455. The Kalaimamani awards are served as the artistic director of the
Ariyakudi Ramanuja Iyengar, Karaikudi given in which of the following states of World Music Department at the
Sambasiva Iyer, and Prithviraj Kapoor).
:@
India? Rotterdam Music Conservatory in the
Q.450. For which year was Manna Dey SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Morning) Netherlands. His Awards : Sangeet Natak
honored with the Dadasaheb Phalke (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Telangana Academy award (1984), Padma Bhushan
TG
Award ? (c) Kerala (d) Odisha (1992), Padma Vibhushan (2000). Flute -
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift) Pannalal Ghosh, T.R. Mahalingam, N.
Sol.455.(a) Tamil Nadu. Ramani.
(a) 2015 (b) 2019 (c) 2007 (d) 2001 The Kalaimamani is the highest civilian
on
Sol.450.(c) 2007. Manna Dey belonged award in the state of Tamil Nadu, India. It Q.460. Buddhadev Dasgupta is famous
to the Bhendi Bazaar Gharana and was is awarded for best in Arts. It was first for playing which of the following
ch
trained under Ustad Aman Ali Khan. awarded in 1954. musical instruments ?
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
ar
Q.451. How much purse money was Q.456. ‘Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva (a) Sarod (b) Sarangi
given to a recipient of the Akademi Puraskar’ is given by which of the (c) Bansuri (d) Mridangam
Se
Award in 2019 ? following bodies?
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (3rd Shift) SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Afternoon) Sol.460.(a) Sarod. It is a stringed
(a) ₹1 lakh (b) ₹4 lakh (a) National School of Drama instrument, used in Hindustani music on
(c) ₹2 lakh (d) ₹3 lakh (b) Bhartiya Vidya Bhavan the Indian subcontinent. Buddhadev Das
(c) Gandharva Mahavidyalaya Gupta was an Indian classical musician.
Sol.451.(a) 1 Lakh and a copper Shield. (d) Sangeet Natak Akademi His Awards: Padma Bhushan (2012) and
Sahitya Akademi Award: {Established Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (1993).
Sol.456.(d) Sangeet Natak Akademi
(1954), Given in 24 languages}. The Notable exponents of the Sarod : Ustad
(formed in 1953). Ustad Bismillah Khan
award amount, which was Rs. 5,000 Amjad Ali Khan, Bahadur Khan, and
Yuva Puraskar’ is given to outstanding
since inception. This award is presented Allaudin Khan.
artists under the age of 40 who have
annually by the Sahitya Akademi
demonstrated talent in the fields of Q.461. Ustad Zia Mohiuddin Dagar was a
(National Academy of Letters).
music, dance and Theatre. First awarded- _____ player of profound depth, favouring
Q.452. When was the Sri 2006. National School of Drama (1959), sparse and slow realisations of ragas.
Shanmukhananda National Eminence Bhartiya Vidya Bhavan (1938). SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Award set up ? (a) Sitar (b) Violin
Q.457. Who gives the Bharat Muni
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Afternoon) (c) Flute (d) Rudra veena
Samman?
(a) 2001 (b) 2002 (c) 2000 (d) 2003 SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Afternoon) Sol.461.(d) Rudra veena. Zia Mohiuddin
Sol.452.(b) 2002. Awardee 2002- Shri (a) Nalanda Dance Research Centre Dagar received the Sangeet Natak
Semmangudi Srinivasaiyer (Carnatic (b) Government of India Akademi Award in 1981. Other Maestro:
Vocal), 2018- Zakir Hussain (Tabla), (c) Sangeet Natak Akademi Rudra veena - Ustad Ali Zaki Hader, Asad
(d) State Government Ali Khan, Mohammed Khan Faridi. Sitar -
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Ustad Vilayat Khan, Pt Ravi Shankar, Q.466. Which of the following is NOT a Other wind musical Instruments: Flute,
Nikhil Banerjee. stringed instrument ? oboe, clarinet, bassoon, and saxophone.
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift) Pakhawaj, drum, and tabla are all
Q.462. Padma Bhushan awardee, Ustad (a) Mandolin (b) Guitar percussion instruments that are played
Sabri Khan played which of the following (c) Flute (d) Violin by striking the surface of the instrument
musical instruments ? with hands or sticks to produce sound.
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.466.(c) Flute is a wind instrument
(a) Sarod (b) Santoor where sound is produced by vibration of Q.470. Shattantri Veena, meaning a
(c) Tabla (d) Sarangi the air column inside it. Instruments Veena with hundred strings, is the
without strings include the tabla, drums, ancient Sanskrit name of which
Sol.462.(d) Sarangi. Ustad Sabri Khan and harmonium. Instruments with strings instrument ?
was awarded the Padma Bhushan in include the guitar, cello, banjo, ukulele, SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift)
2006. and harp. (a) Santoor (b) Sarod
Q.463. Annapurna Devi is associated (c) Sarangi (d) Tambura/Tanpura
Q.467. Bharat Muni, in his Natya Shastra,
with which of the following musical categorises musical instruments into Sol.470.(a) Santoor. It gets its name
instruments? four different parts. What is the from Shat Trantri Veena. “Shat” means
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) categorisation of musical instruments by hundred and “Tantra” means “Tar”. So,
(a) Rudra Veena (b) Taal Bharat Muni based on? this is a one hundred string musical
(c) Ektara (d) Surbahar SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift) instrument and the name came from
Sol.463.(d) Surbahar. The surbahar, (a) Different sounds of the musical Shat-tantri to Shat-tar to San-tar to
often called the bass sitar, is a stringed instruments Santoor. Santoor maestro: Pandit Shiv
(b) The shape of the musical instruments Kumar Sharma, Varsha Agarwal, Rahul
df
instrument used in Hindustani classical
music with a lower pitch than the sitar. (c) Different materials used in the Sharma.
_p
Annapurna Devi was first trained in musical instruments
(d) The uses of the musical instruments Q.471. Which of the following
classical music under her father Ustad statements is INCORRECT about the
na
‘Baba’ Allauddin Khan, and established in different occasions, such as
wedding, festivals and public Music of India?
the Maihar-Senia gharana with his help. SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift)
ap
She was honored with the Padma gathering
(a) Tala is a cyclic arrangement of time
Bhushan in 1977, Sangeet Natak Sol.467.(a) Different sounds of the units.
:@
Akademi Award in 1991. Other Surbahar musical instruments. Musical (b) The sruti is a unit of measure or small
Exponents - Ustad Imrat Khan, Instruments were categorised into four difference between the various
Buddhaditya Mukherjee, Pushparaj groups in Bharat Muni's Natya Shastra consecutive pitches within a grama or
TG
Koshti, Kushal Das. (written between 200 BC and 200 AD): a scale.
Q.464. Arvind Parikh, a Padma Bhushan Avanaddha Vadya (membranophones or (c) A raga is believed to have started as a
percussion instruments), Ghan Vadya tribal or folk tune.
on
awardee, plays which of the following
musical instruments (idiophones or solid instruments), Sushir (d) The musical instrument Kamaicha is
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) Vadya (aerophones or wind instruments), majorly used by the ‘Manganiar’
ch
(a) Sitar (b) Bansuri and Tat Vadya (chordophones or stringed Community of Manipur as a popular
(c) Tabla (d) Sarangi instruments). accompaniment to their songs
ar
Q.468. Which of the following is a string Sol.471.(d) Kamaicha is a stringed
Sol.464.(a) Sitar. The sitar is a stringed
Se
instrument commonly featured in the folk instrument. It is made of steel,
instrument widely used in North Indian
music of Gujarat? parchment, gut, metal, shisham, and
classical music. Other renowned sitar
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) horsehair. This is a community
players include Ravi Shankar, Vilayat
(a) bungal (b) turi (c) pava (d) jantar instrument found in Rajasthan. Majorly
Khan, Annapurna Devi, Imrat Khan,
used by the ‘Manganiar’ Community of
Anoushka Shankar, Rishabh Seen, Sol.468.(d) jantar. Other folk instruments West Rajasthan as a popular
Anupama Bhagwat, and Niladri Kumar. include wind instruments like Turi, accompaniment to their songs. Some
Q.465. Umayalpuram K Sivaraman is an Bungal, Pava and string instruments like Music Instruments of Rajasthan: Sarangi,
eminent musician associated with which Ravan Hattho and Ektaro percussion Ravanhathha, Ektara, Moochang, Pungi,
of the following musical instruments? instruments like Manjira and Zanz pot Satara, Algoza, Murla, Nad Shehnai.
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift) drum are omnipresent in the folk sounds
of Gujarat. Q.472. Ustad Asad Ali Khan was one of
(a) Sitar (b) Guitar
the masters of the __________ .
(c) Dhol (d) Mridangam Q.469. Select the musical instrument SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.465.(d) Mridangam. The mridangam which is NOT played by way of (a) sarangi (b) mridangam
is a percussion instrument from the percussion or NOT played by way of (c) tanpura (d) rudra veena
Indian subcontinent and serves as the striking any object ?
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) Sol.472.(d) Rudra veena. Ustad Asad Ali
primary rhythmic accompaniment in Khan was an Indian musician renowned
Carnatic music ensembles. Notable (a) Pakhawaj (b) Drum
(c) Tabla (d) Shehnai for playing the rudra veena, a plucked
mridangam players include Palghat Mani string instrument, and he performed in
Iyer, Karaikudi R. Mani, and Yella Sol.469.(d) Shehnai. It is a wind the dhrupad style.His Awards: Padma
Venkateswara Rao. instrument made of wood and metal. Bhushan (2008).
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.473. Bhajan Sopori, a Padma Shri drum descended from the much older Veena - D. Balakrishna, Raghunath
awardee, is a _________ player. mridangam, which produces a deeper Manet, Mangalam Muthuswamy. Violin -
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) tone than the more popular tabla. Some Abhijith P. S. Nair, Ambi Subramaniam,
(a) sitar (b) santoor (c) tabla (d) violin notable Pakhawaj Players: Shankarrao Arrol Carelli. Tabla - Ustad Zakir Hussain,
Ghorpadkar; Dr. Anil Chaudhury. Pandit Swapan Chaudhuri.
Sol.473.(b) santoor. Pt Bhajan Sopari
belongs to the Sufiana Gharana of Indian Q.479. The famous musician Aban Q.483. Pandit Ram Narayan, who was
classical music. He was famous as ‘Saint Mistry is associated with which awarded the Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
of the Santoor’ and the ‘King of Strings’. instrument ? Lifetime Achievement Award for
Awards - Sangeet Natak Akademi Award Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2) 2015–2016, is a _______ player.
(1993), Padma Shri (2004). (a) Flute (b) Tabla Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
(c) Shehnai (d) Drums (a) sarod (b) flute (c) sarangi (d) violin
Q.474. Brij Bhushan Kabra was
considered an expert in which of the Sol.479.(b) Tabla (Percussion Sol.483. (c) sarangi. Ram Narayan
following instruments in the field of instrument). Aban Mistry known as the awards - Padma Shri (1976), Padma
Indian classical music? first woman solo tabla player in India. Bhushan (1991) and Padma Vibhushan
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) Instruments and their exponents - Tabla: (2005). Other famous Sarangi Players:
(a) Santoor (b) Violin (c) Veena (d) Guitar Zakir Hussain, Allah Rakha, Pt. Kishan Shakoor Khan, Ramesh Mishra, Sultan
Maharaj. Flute: Hari Prasad Chaurasia, Khan.
Sol.474.(d) Guitar. Brij Bhushan Kabra Pannalal Ghosh. Shehnai: Bismillah Khan,
received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Krishna Ram Chaudhary. Guitar: Braj Q.484. Prabhat Sarma, a recipient of
award in 2005. Other famous players: Bhushan Kabra. Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, was a
Guitar - Susmit Sen, Amyt Datta, Kapil _______ player from Assam.
df
Srivastava. Q.480. Padma Shri Awardee Gosaveedu SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Shaik Hassan is known for playing: (a) Tabla (b) sarangi
_p
Q.475. Bundu Khan was a _________ Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (c) Ghatam (d) Flute
player of Delhi gharana. (a) Nadaswaram (b) Ghatam
na
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) (c) Violin (d) Veena Sol.484.(d) Flute. Prabhat Sarma’s
(a) santoor (b) flute awards:- Sangeet Natak Akademi Award
ap
(c) sarod (d) sarangi Sol.480.(a) Nadaswaram is a double (2003), Asom Shilpi Diwas Award by the
reed wind instrument from South India. Assam government (2001). Flute is the
:@
Sol.475.(d) sarangi. Bundu Khan was Gosaveedu Shaik Hassan received part of the woodwind family group.
trained by his grandfather Saungi Khan. Padma Shri Award in 2022. Musical
Some sarangi players from the Delhi Instruments and Exponents: Q.485. Famous musician Talvin Singh is
TG
gharana: Shahnawaz Khan, Nabeel Khan, Nadaswaram - Umapathy Kandasamy, associated with playing the____.
Sabri Khan, Abdul Latif Khan. Karukurichi Arunachalam, Namagiripettai SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Krishnan. Ghatam - T. H. Vinayakram, (a) tabla (b) Flute (c) veena (d) shehnai
Q.476. Anantha R Krishnan is associated
on
with which musical instrument ? Giridhar Udupa. Violin - Gajananrao Sol.485.(a) Tabla. Other tabla players:
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Joshi, Sangeeta Shankar, N. Rajam. Zakir Hussain, Ustad Allah Rakha, Pandit
ch
(a) Tabla (b) Mridangam Veena - Jayanthi Kumaresh, Sundaram Shankar Ghosh, Pandit Udhai Mazumdar,
(c) Violin (d) Drums Balchander, Veenai Dhanammal. Pandit Vijay Ghate.
ar
Sol.476.(b) Mridangam - Percussion Q.481. Who among the following Q.486. Neeruswamy Pillai and
Se
instrument. Mridangam - KV Prasad, SV musicians played Carnatic music with Rajaratanam Pillai are exponents of
Rajarao, Umalayapuram Sivaraman, Ghatam? which musical instrument?
Palghat Mani Iyer. Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2) SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening)
(a) Ramnad Raghavan (b) TH Vinayakram (a) Mridangam (b) Mandolin
Q.477. The famous musician Vishnu (c) Ali Akbar Khan (d) KV Prasad (c) Nadaswaram (d) Sarangi
Govind Jog is primarily associated with
which of the following musical Sol.481.(b) TH Vinayakram. He is also Sol.486.(c) Nadaswaram. It is a double
instruments? known as Vikku Vinayakram, is an Indian reed wind instrument from South India.
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) percussionist revered as the "God of Other Exponents - Sheik Chinna Moulana,
(a) Violin (b) Flute Ghatam." The ghatam is a clay pot used Karukurichi Arunachalam, Thiruvizha
(c) Tabla (d) Veena in various musical repertoires, Jayashankar, and Namagiripettai
particularly in South India. Krishnan.
Sol.477.(a) Violin. Violin - M.S.
Gopalakrishnan, N.R. Muralidharan, M. Q.482. Uppalapu Shrinivas was a Q.487. Who among the following Indian
Chandrasekharan, Lalgudi Jayaraman. _________ player who was awarded with musicians is the inventor of Mohan
the Padma Shri in 1998. Veena?
Q.478. Mohan Shyam Sharma is a Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3) SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift)
famous musician associated with the : (a) veena (b) violin (c) mandolin (d) tabla (a) Totaram Sharma
Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2) (b) Braj Bhushan Kabra
(a) Tabla (b) Sarod Sol.482.(c) mandolin - stringed musical
(c) Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt
(c) Pakhawaj (d) Drums instrument. Uppalapu Srinivas: Awards -
(d) Sandeep Das
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (2009).
Sol.478.(c) Pakhawaj. It is a two-headed Some other musicians and instruments: Sol.487.(c) Pandit Vishwa Mohan Bhatt.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Awards - Grammy Award (1994) for Best Sol.492.(c) Pakhawaj is a barrel-shaped, SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Global Music Album (A Meeting by the two-headed drum, originating from the (a) Pandit Ravi Shankar
River), Sangeet Natak Akademi Award Indian subcontinent. Totaram Sharma (b) Vishwa Mohan Bhat
(1998), Padma Shri (2002), Padma received Sangeet Natak Akademi Award (c) Pandit Ayodhya Prasad
Bhushan (2017). Other Mohan veena (2011). Famous Pakhawaj Players: (d) Bismillah Khan
players - Harry Manx, Matt Malley. Pandit Purushottam Das, Mohan Shyam
Totaram Sharma (pakhawaj player). Brij Sharma, Bhavani Shankar, Pandit Prem Sol.497.(c) Pandit Ayodhya Prasad.
Bhushan Kabra (guitar player). Sandeep Vallabh. Percussion Instruments:- Ghatam - TH
Das (tabla player). Vinayakram, EM Subramaniam,
Q.493. The musician Sivamani is Mridangam- Dakshinamurthy Pillai, Rajna
Q.488. Ustad Akbar Ali Khan is associated with which musical Swaminathan. String Instruments :-
remembered for his contribution to which instrument? Guitar - Braj Bhushan Kabra.
of the following musical instruments? SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (4th shift)
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift) (a) Drums (b) Violin (c) Shehnai (d) Sarod Q.498. Which of the following
(a) Tabla (b) Santoor (c) Sitar (d) Sarod instruments is performed by Nandini and
Sol.493.(a) Drums. Awards - Ragini Shankar ?
Sol.488.(d) Sarod. Akbar Ali Khan Kalaimamani (2009), Padma Shri (2019). Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
(Maihar gharana). Awards- Padma (a) Veena (b) Sitar
Bhushan (1967), Padma Vibhushan Q.494. Select the correct sequence of (c) Violin (d) Mridangam
(1989). Famous Players (Sarod): Amjad the musical instruments according to the
Ali Khan, Buddhadev Das Gupta, Tejendra given sequence of their associated Sol.498.(c) Violin. Other Exponents -
Majumdar, Allauddin Khan. personalities : Ustad Allah Rakha, Jyotsna Srikanth, Abhijith P.S. Nair, L.
Totaram Sharma, TH Vinayakam. Subramaniam, K. Vaidyanathan, Nagai R
df
Q.489. RK Bijapure played which of the SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift) Muralidharan, Mohanan Chandrasekaran.
following musical instruments? (a) Tabla, Ghatam, Pakhawaj
_p
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift) (b) Ghatam, Pakhawaj, Tabla Q.499. Which of the following music
(a) Harmonium (b) Tabla (c) Tabla, Pakhawaj, Ghatam instruments are solid instruments?
na
(c) Ravanahatha (d) Sitar (d) Pakhawaj, Tabla, Ghatam SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(a) Tata Vadya (b) Ghana Vadya
ap
Sol.489.(a) Harmonium. R K Bijapure Sol.494.(c) Tabla, Pakhawaj, Ghatam. (c) Avanaddha Vadya (d) Sushira Vadya
(1985 - "Karnataka Kala Tilak" by Tabla is the most famous percussion
:@
Sangeet Nritya Academy). Harmonium - instrument of North India. Pakhawaj is Sol.499.(b) Ghana Vadya. Solid
Purushottam Walawalkar, Appa an ancient drum, it is the preferred instruments are usually played with a
Jalgaonkar. Ravanahatha - Dinesh percussion instrument of the ancient striker or hammer. These instruments are
TG
Subasinghe. singing style called Dhrupad. A Ghatam not capable of producing definite pitches
is a large, narrow-mouthed earthenware that are required for creating a melody.
Q.490. Which musical instrument Dr A P That is why their use is limited in
pot used as a percussion instrument.
on
J Abdul Kalam, former President of India, classical music. Tata Vadya - These are
used to play ? Q.495. Tansen, who was included in the Stringed instruments. Avanaddha Vadya -
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift) Navaratnas of Akbar, was an expert in These are percussion instruments.
ch
(a) Guitar (b) Sarod (c) Veena (d) Piano playing which of the following musical Sushira Vadya - These are wind
instruments? instruments. The Shehnai is a popular
ar
Sol.490.(c) Veena (Stringed instrument).
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift) wind instrument in India.
APJ Abdul Kalam : He served as the 11th
Se
(a) Nagada (b) Veena (c) Sarangi (d) Rabab
president of India and known as the Q.500. The shehnai is a reed instrument
Missile Man of India. Exponents of Veena Sol.495.(d) Rabab (String instrument). with how many holes along the tubes?
: Rajhesh Vaidhya, Jayanthi Kumaresh, Tansen (Ramtanu Pandey) - A Hindustani SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (1st Shift)
Veena E. Gayathri, Emani Sankara Sastry. classical musician also known as (a) Five (b) Seven (c) Eleven (d) Six
Sangeeth Samrat or Mian (Learned One).
Q.491. Ramnad V Raghavan is Sol.500.(b) Seven. Shehnai - It is a reed
Tansen Samaroh is celebrated every year
associated with which of the following instrument in which there are seven
in the month of December in Gwalior
musical instruments? holes along the tube which are used for
district.
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift) playing the melody by opening and
(a) Mridangam (b) Flute Q.496. The famous musician, Faiyaz closing them with the fingers. It is known
(c) Sitar (d) Sarod Khan is associated with which musical as Mangal Vadya. It is considered to
instrument? have come to India from West Asia. In
Sol.491.(a) Mridangam. Famous SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) the early fifties of this century, Ustad
Mridangam Players: A.V. Anand, Muthiah (a) Shehnai (b) Veena (c) Tabla (d) Sitar Bismillah Khan is credited for
Bhagavatar, Guruvayur Dorai, Palghat
popularising this instrument. Pt. Anant
Mani Iyer Karaikudi Mani, T. K. Murthy. Sol.496.(c) Tabla (Membranophone
Lal and Pt. Daya Shankar is also a noted
percussion instrument). The Maharaja of
Q.492. Totaram Sharma is associated Shehnai player.
Mysore awarded him the title "Aftab - e -
with which of the following instruments? Mausiqi" (the Sun of Music) in 1908. Q.501. What is Tat Vadya ?
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q.497. Select the Indian musician who is SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(a) Tanpura (b) Panchavadyam
associated with percussion instruments (a) Percussion instruments
(c) Pakhawaj (d) Sarangi
(played by striking). (b) Stringed instruments
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(c) Solid instruments first prize in The All India Radio music Sol.510.(c) Tabla. Pandit Swapan
(d) Wind instruments competition, and was awarded the Chaudhuri: Awards - Sangeet Natak
President's Gold Medal. In 2012, he was Academy Award (1996), Padma Shri
Sol.501.(b) Stringed instruments. Tata
awarded the Sangeet Ratna Award by the (2019).
Vadya - Sound produced by vibration of
Salt Lake Music Association.
a string or chord. Example - Veena, Sitar, Q.511. Which of the following musical
Sarangi etc. The Percussion Instruments Q.506. Who among the following is instruments did Dwaram Venkataswamy
- Congo, Bongo, Djembe, Darbukas, Hand India’s only publicly well-known woman Naidu play?
Drums and Tongue Drums. Idiophones or shehnai player? SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Afternoon)
Ghana Vadya are solid instruments that SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Morning) (a) Violin (b) Mandolin
do not need any further tuning. Examples (a) Gauhar Jaan (b) Binodini Dasi (c) Veena (d) Nadaswaram
- Piccolo, Manjira, Jaltarang, Jhanj and (c) Bageshwari Qamar (d) Rasoolan Bai
Chimta. Wind instruments - woodwinds, Sol.511.(a) Violin. His Awards - Padma
such as the flute, clarinet, oboe, and Sol.506.(c) Bageshwari Qamar. Gauhar Shri (1957), Sangeeta Kalanidhi (1941),
bassoon, also include brass instruments Jaan was an Indian singer (thumri, Dadra, Kalaprapoorna (1950), Sangeet Natak
like horn and trumpet. kajri, and Tarana) and dancer from Akademi Award (1953), Raja - Lakshmi
Kolkata. Binodini Dasi was an Indian Award (1992).
Q.502. Flute instruments come under Bengali actress and thespian. Rasoolan
which type of instrument category ? Hussain was a leading Indian Hindustani Q.512. Which of the following is not a
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (4th Shift) classical music vocalist, belonging to the percussion instrument?
(a) Ghana Vadya (b) Sushira Vadya Benaras Gharana. SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Evening)
(c) Avanaddha Vadya (d) Tata Vadya (a) Ghatam (b) Tabla
Q.507. Padma Bhushan awardee Pandit (c) mridangam (d) sarod
df
Sol.502.(b) Sushira Vadya (Wind Nikhil Jyoti Ghosh was a _________ player.
instrument). Example - Flute, Shehnai, SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Morning) Sol.512.(d) Sarod. The percussion family
_p
Nadaswaram. Ghana Vadya - Considered (a) sarod (b) tabla of musical instruments consists of
to be the world's first instrument. It does (c) harmonium (d) flute membranophones and idiophones.
na
not require tuning. Example - Manjira, Examples- Ghatam, Tabla, Mridangam,
Khartal, Chimta, Ghatam, Jaltarang etc. Sol.507.(b) Tabla. Pandit Nikhil Jyoti timpani, xylophone, cymbals, snare drum,
ap
Avanaddha Vadya - Sound produced by Ghosh was an Indian musician known for bass drum, tambourine, maracas, gongs,
striking on animal skin. Example - Tabla, his proficiency on the percussion chimes, celesta, and piano. Sarod,
:@
Mridangam, Dhol, Damru etc. instrument tabla. He was awarded the stringed musical instrument of the lute
Padma Bhushan (1990) and the Ustad family.
Q.503. Bickram Ghosh, a recipient of Hafiz Ali Khan Award (1995).
TG
Global Indian Music Award, is a music Q.513. Which of the following musical
composer and an Indian classical Q.508. Who among the following is an instruments is also known as a ‘Mangal
_________ player. outstanding player to have mastered the Vadya’ ?
on
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Evening) surbahar instrument ? SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Morning)
(a) tanpura (b) sarangi SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Evening) (a) Shehnai (b) Tabla
(c) tabla (d) bansuri (a) Ustad Imrat Khan (b) Allaudin Khan (c) Santoor (d) Damaru
ch
(c) Ali Akbar Khan (d) Abdul Karim Khan
Sol.503.(c) Tabla. On 1 October 2012, Sol.513.(a) Shehnai. Ustad Bismillah
ar
Ghosh won the 2012 Global Indian Music Sol.508.(a) Ustad Imrat Khan. He was Khan is a famous Shehnai Player.
Academy (GIMA) Awards in the Best awarded the Sangeet Natak Akademi Shehnai is a wind instrument made of
Se
Pop/Rock Single category for his Award (1988), and the Padma Shri award wood and metal.
composition, Vande Mataram. (2017).
Q.514. A distinct ‘Dhrupad style’ is
Q.504. Rajeev Taranath, a disciple of Ali Q.509. Lalgudi Gopala Iyer Jayaraman associated with the ______ gharana.
Akbar Khan, is a ________ player. used to play which of the following SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Afternoon)
SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Afternoon) instruments? (a) Ajrada (b) Nathdwara
(a) tabla (b) Flute (c) Sarod (d) Santoor SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Afternoon) (c) Jafferkhani (d) Bishnupur
(a) Harmonium (b) Flute
Sol.504.(c) Sarod. He is conferred with Sol.514.(d) Bishnupur. Tansen was a
(c) Mridangam (d) Violin
many awards such as the Padma Shri famous Dhrupad instrument player. It is
(2019), Sangeet Vidhwan Award (2018), Sol.509.(d) Violin. Lalgudi Gopala Iyer the oldest known style of major vocal
Sangeet Natak Akademi Award Jayaraman was an Indian Carnatic styles associated with Hindustani
(1999-2000), Sangeet Nritya Akademi violinist, vocalist and composer. He was classical music, Haveli Sangeet of
Award (1993), Karnataka Rajya Prashasti awarded the Padma Shri (1972), Padma Pushtimarg Sampraday and also related
(1996). Bhushan (2001) and National Film Award to the South Indian Carnatic tradition.
(Best Music Direction; Sringaram; 2006).
Q.505. Pandit Ananda Gopal Q.515. Which of the following
Bandopadhyay was a _________ player of Q.510. Pandit Swapan Chaudhuri is instruments is normally played in a
the Banaras gharana. associated with _________ instrument. vertical position and with an arched
SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Evening) SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Morning) bow?
(a) sarangi (b) sarod (c) sitar (d) tabla (a) veena (b) harmonium SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Evening)
(c) tabla (d) bansuri (a) Sitar (b) Sarangi
Sol.505.(d) Tabla. In 1965, he won the (c) Shehnai (d) Veena
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.515.(b) Sarangi. The Sarangi is a Sol.520.(d) Ektara is a drone flute (a) Mumbai (b) New Delhi
fretless, bowed string instrument used in consisting of a gourd resonator covered (c) Chennai (d) Bengaluru
Hindustani classical music and folk with skin, through which a bamboo neck
traditions of north India. is inserted. Ektara means “one string”. Sol.525.(a) Mumbai. The Kala Ghoda
Arts Festival, initiated in 1999, is a
Q.516. 'Ponu Yoksi', a sword like Q.521. 'Khuang' is a traditional musical nine-day annual celebration of arts
instrument used during ceremonial instrument of which state? organized by the Kala Ghoda
dances performed by the priests, belongs SSC CHSL 20/10/2020 (Morning) Association. Other festivals in Mumbai:
to: (a) Jharkhand (b) West Bengal Dahi Handi Festival, Ganesh
SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Morning) (c) Assam (d) Mizoram Chaturthi/Ganeshotsav, Banganga
(a) Himachal Pradesh Festival, Elephanta Festival.
(b) Madhya Pradesh Sol.521.(d) Mizoram. It is made up of a
(c) Uttar Pradesh hollow tree, wrapped on both sides with Q.526. Losoong festival is predominantly
(d) Arunachal Pradesh animal skin. celebrated in Sikkim by which of the
following tribes?
Sol.516.(d) Arunachal Pradesh. Some Q.522. The wood of which of the SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
popular instruments (Arunachal Pradesh) following trees is used to make the large (a) Bhil (b) Khasi (c) Kurumba (d) Bhutia
include drums, cymbals, Ujuk Tapu, Ame plucked string instrument used in
Bali, Emul, Pui, Kiring, Guga etc. Carnatic classical music known as Sol.526.(d) Bhutia. Losoong, also called
Bobbili Veena/Saraswathi Veena? Namsoong by the Lepchas in the
Q.517. 'Chinkara' is a ______ musical SSC CGL 09/03/2020 (Morning) Sikkimese, is usually the time when the
instrument popular in the state of (a) Teak wood (b) Jackfruit wood farmers rejoice and celebrate their
Madhya Pradesh. (c) Walnut wood (d) Sandal wood harvest. Festivals of Sikkim and
df
SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Afternoon) Community: Barahimizong (Mangar),
(a) plate (b) membrane Sol.522.(b) Jackfruit wood. Bobbili Sonam Lochar (Tamang), Tamu Lochar
_p
(c) stringed (d) wind Veena is carved from a single piece of (Gurung), Teyongsi Srijunga Sawan
jackfruit wood. Tongnam (Limboo).
na
Sol.517.(c) Stringed. It is made of
parchment, wood and steel. This Festivals Q.527. ‘Dashain’ and ‘Tihar’ are popular
ap
instrument is used by the ‘Pradhan’ festivals of which neighbouring country
community of Madhya Pradesh and the Q.523. The birth anniversary of Lord of India?
:@
‘Meo’ community of Rajasthan. Jhulelal of the Sindhi community is also SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift)
known as_________. (a) Sri Lanka (b) Nepal
Q.518. The traditional binding instrument
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Morning) (c) Pakistan (d) Bangladesh
TG
called "Pena" is related to which of the
following state ? (a) Jamshedi Navroj (b) Ulambana
Sol.527.(b) Nepal. Dashain Festival, also
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Afternoon) (c) Cheti Chand (d) Chaliho Sahib
known as Vijaya Dashami, is celebrated
on
(a) Sikkim (b) Kerala (c) Goa (d) Manipur Sol.523.(c) Cheti Chand marks the by Hindus. Tihar, also known as
beginning of the Lunar Hindu New Year Deepawali or Yamapanchak. Festivals of
Sol.518.(d) Manipur. Pena is also known
for Sindhi Hindus. Celebrated on the first Nepal: Biska Jatra, Gai Jatra, Indra Jatra,
ch
as Tingtelia is a mono string instrument
day of the Sindhi month of Chet (Chaitra) Maghe Sankranti, Pahan Charhe,
falling in the lute category, similar to
as per the lunisolar Hindu calendar. This Chhechu. Sri Lanka - Kandy Esala
ar
some of the traditional Indian stringed
festival symbolizes new beginnings and Perahera, Poson Poya, Vel Festival.
musical instruments such as
Se
holds deep spiritual significance for the Bangladesh - Shakrain, Pahela Baishakh.
Ravanahatha, Ubo or the Kenda, found in
Sindhi community. Pakistan - Shandur Polo Festival, Mela
various parts of the country.
Chiraghan, Urs of Data Ganj Bakhsh.
Q.519. The musical instrument 'Kartal' Q.524. Kharchi Puja of Tripura is
celebrated in the month of __________. Q.528. In which of the following states
from the state of Rajasthan comes under
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon) is Aoleang Monyü celebrated, which is an
the category of ______.
(a) September-October (b) April-May ancient spring festival celebrated by all
SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Morning)
(c) January-February (d) July-August Konyaks in the month of April?
(a) electrophones (b) membranophones
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) chordophones (d) idiophones Sol.524.(d) July - August. Kharchi Puja (a) Bihar (b) Telangana
Sol.519.(d) Idiophone is a percussion occurs during the month of ‘Ashad’ on (c) Odisha (d) Nagaland
instrument. It is classified as an the ‘Shukla Ashtami’ day. It is also known
as the 'Festival of 14 Gods,' this Sol.528.(d) Nagaland. Aoleang is
idiophone because the entire instrument
traditional event centers around the observed to mark the end of the old year
vibrates to produce a sound on its own.
worship of Chaturdasa Devata, housed in and to welcome the new-year beginning
Q.520. The ______ is a single string the ancient Ujjayanta Palace, the with spring. This festival is celebrated
musical instrument made using bamboo ancestral deity of the Tripuri people. annually as part of the Mini Hornbill
and a gourd, mostly used by traditional Other Festivals of Tripura: Pilak, Garia Tribal Festival. Festivals of Nagaland:
folk singers in Maharashtra. Puja, Bijhu, Owa. Hornbill, Sekrenyi, Moatsu Mong,
SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Evening) Suhkruhnye, Bushu, Yemshe, Metumniu,
(a) Edakka (b) Ekkalam Q.525. Where is the Kala Ghoda Arts Metemneo, Ngada, Tokhu Emong.
(c) Esraj (d) Ektara Festival organised every year?
SSC MTS 21/10/2024 (1st Shift) Q.529. Vangpui Kut festival is organised
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
for _______ days in Mizoram to celebrate the towns of Radha and Krishna April 13 or sometimes April 14, marks the
the glory of Mizo culture and traditions. respectively. Famous festivals of Uttar first day of the month of Vaisakh.
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Pradesh - Gaurav Mahotsav, Ramotsav, Chhapar Mela, a popular Punjabi fair,
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 4 Taj Mahotsav, Ayodhya Deepotsav, occurs annually in September in the
Ganga Mahotsav. Arunachal Pradesh - village of Chhapar in the Ludhiana
Sol.529.(a) 2. Vangpui Kut has been Sangken, Mopin, Pongtu. Himachal district of Punjab.
celebrated at Dungtlang village in Pradesh - Halda, Doongri, Chet Festival,
Champai District since 1984. Festivals of Kullu Dussehra. Karnataka - Ugadi, Q.536. Harela is a festival of greenery,
Mizoram: Pawl Kut - It is a thanksgiving Mysuru Dasara, Kambala, Gowri Habba. peace, prosperity, and environmental
festival celebrated for 2 days after the conservation, primarily celebrated in
harvest. Chapchar Kut - It is a Q.533. Which of the following which of the following states ?
thanksgiving festival celebrated after celebrations is dedicated to Sun God and SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
clearing the jungles for Jhum cultivation. his wife Usha to thank them for (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Haryana
Mim Kut - It is celebrated to pay respects sustaining life on earth and for granting (c) Assam (d) Uttarakhand
to the departed souls of the previous wishes?
year by offering them bread, maize, SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.536.(d) Uttarakhand. Harela,
vegetables and other items. Khuado Kut - (a) Madai Festival (b) Chhath Puja meaning "Day of Green," marks the new
It is a thanksgiving ceremony observed (c) Vishwakarma Puja (d) Sorath Sabha harvest brought by the rainy season and
on a full moon nights after the harvest. is celebrated annually during the Shravan
Sol.533.(b) Chhath Puja (main festival of month in the Kumaon region. Important
Q.530. ‘Attolu Eidu' is the cultural festival Bihar) is a four-day long strict and Indian Festivals - Uttarakhand : Phool Dei,
of which of the following union spiritual observance. The first day of the Olgia/Ghee Sankranti, Bat Savitri, Ganga
territories? Chhath Puja includes taking a dip in the Dussehra/Dasar, Nanda Devi Rajjaat.
df
SSC MTS 30/10/2024 (2nd Shift) holy river/any water body. The second Assam : Ambubachi festival, Bihu, Majuli
_p
(a) Jammu and Kashmir day of Chhath, also known as Kharna, festival. Madhya Pradesh : Khajuraho
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli involves devotees observing a day-long festival, Lokrang Festival, Bhagoria Haat
na
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands fast. The third day of Chhath goes in the Festival.
(d) Lakshadweep preparation of the prasad (offerings) for
Q.537. ‘Sangken’ is a festival celebrated
ap
the evening offerings, also known as
Sol.530.(d) Lakshadweep. Attolu Eidu Sanjhiya Arghya. On the fourth and final in Arunachal Pradesh by people of which
festival was conducted across of the following religions?
:@
day of Chhath, family members and
Lakshadweep Island, at locations such friends go to the banks of rivers before SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
as Minicoy, Kalpeni, Amini, Kiltanam and sunrise and make offerings (Arghya) to (a) Islam (b) Buddhism
Kavaratt. (c) Jainism (d) Hinduism
TG
the rising sun.
Q.531. Which of the following folk Q.534. ‘Nuakhai’ is the state festival of: Sol.537.(b) Buddhism. Sangken (festival
dances is conducted during the Bwisagu SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) of water) is an annual three-day long
on
Festival? (a) Meghalaya (b) Odisha festival. The Khampti and Singpho tribes
SSC MTS 30/10/2024 (2nd Shift) (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Bihar of the Lohit district in Arunachal Pradesh
ch
(a) Bhortal (b) Jhumur celebrate it. It is celebrated by the
(c) Bagurumba (d) Bihu dance Sol.534.(b) Odisha. Nuakhai is an annual Theravada Buddhist Communities. It is
harvest, marking the arrival of the new
ar
celebrated as Songkran in other
Sol.531.(c) Bagurumba. Bwisagu is the rice season. It is observed on Panchami Southeast Asian countries. Songkran is
Se
springtime festival of the Bodo Tithi (fifth day) of the lunar fortnight of the Thai New Year’s national holiday.
community that marks the beginning of Bhadrava (August-September), the day More Buddhists festivals include Buddha
the New Year in the month of Baisakh after Ganesh Chaturthi. Other festivals: Purnima, Hemis Festival, Losar Festival,
(mid-April). The Bagurumba dance or Odisha - Ratha Yatra, Raja Parba, Lumbini Festival, Parinirvana Day,
'Butterfly Dance,' is performed by Bodo Chandan Yatra, Bali Jatra. Rumtek Chaam Festival and Mani Rimdu
women. The Bagurumba dance is a Festival.
celebration of life, nature, and the vibrant Q.535. Which of the following festivals is
culture of the Bodo tribe. Bhortal Nritya celebrated as the birth anniversary of Q.538. Shab-e-Barat is celebrated by
(Assam) - Performed by Barpeta tribe , Guru Nanak Dev? which religious group?
Jhumur dance (Assam) - Performed by SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift)
the Kulis (tea tribe). (a) Hola Mohalla (b) Baisakhi (a) Muslim (b) Buddhist (c) Jain (d) Parsi
(c) Gurpurab (d) Chappar Mela
Q.532. Lathmar Holi is primarily Sol.538.(a) Muslim. Shab-e-Barat, also
celebrated in the state of: Sol.535.(c) Gurpurab. Guru Nanak known as Mid-Sha'ban, is observed on
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) Jayanti, also known as Gurpurab, the 15th night of Sha'ban in the Islamic
(a) Karnataka celebrates the birth anniversary of the calendar. Festivals celebrated by :
(b) Arunachal Pradesh first Sikh Guru, Guru Nanak Dev. This Muslim - Eid al-Fitr, Eid al-Adha etc;
(c) Uttar Pradesh festival occurs on Kartik Poornima, the Buddhist - Buddha Purnima, Vesak etc;
(d) Himachal Pradesh fifteenth lunar day of the month of Kartik, Jain - Mahavir Jayanti, Paryushana etc;
typically in November on the Gregorian Parsi - Navroz, Jamshedi Navroz etc.
Sol.532.(c) Uttar Pradesh. Lathmar Holi calendar. Hola Mohalla, or Hola, is a
is celebrated in the twin towns of three-day Sikh festival that usually takes Q.539. In which state/UT is the Hemis
Barsana and Nandgaon, also known as place in March. Vaisakhi, celebrated on festival celebrated?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) 1975. Some festivals which have been Rongker, Bohaggiyo Bishu, and
(a) Punjab (b) Sikkim organized in Madhya Pradesh are Jal Ambubashi Mela.
(c) Lakshadweep (d) Ladakh Mahotsav, Mandu Mahotsav, Orchha
Mahotsav, Satpura Cycle Safari, Heritage Q.548. ‘Atla Taddi’ is the widely
Sol.539.(d) Ladakh. Festivals in India: Run. celebrated festival of which Indian state?
Ladakh: Sindhu Darshan Festival, Losar SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Festival, Tak-Thok, Matho Nagrang. Q.544. Kajari Mahotsav is primarily (a) West Bengal (b) Punjab
celebrated in which of the following (c) Bihar (d) Andhra Pradesh
Q.540. Thrissur Pooram is one of the districts of Uttar Pradesh?
famous temple festivals celebrated in SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Sol.548.(d) Andhra Pradesh. Atla Taddi,
_______. (a) Mirzapur (b) Gorakhpur a traditional Hindu festival where women
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) Kushi Nagar (d) Jhansi pray to Goddess Gauri for marital
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala blessings. It occurs on the third night
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu Sol.544.(a) Mirzapur. The festival is after the full moon in the Aswiyuja
celebrated in honor of King Kantit month, usually in September or October.
Sol.540.(b) Kerala. Thrissur Pooram is Naresh's daughter, Kajali, renowned for Other festivals of Andhra Pradesh: Ugadi,
celebrated in the Malayalam month of her melodious love songs. Other major Ratha Saptami, Tirupati Ganga Jatara,
Medam (April-May). Other festivals: festivals in Uttar Pradesh include Ganga Pyditthallamma utsavam, Rottela
Kerala - Onam, Vishu, Attukal Pongala. Mahotsav in Varanasi and Taj Mahotsav Panduga (Rotiyaan ki Eid), Visakha Utsav,
Q.541. The festival of ‘Rath Yatra’ of Puri in Agra. Lumbini festival.
in Odisha is dedicated to which deity? Q.545. The chariot festival is dedicated Q.549. Kati Bihu is celebrated in which of
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) to Lord Jagannath along with Subhadra the following months in Assam?
df
(a) Lord Jagannath (b) Lord Ganesha and _________ . SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(c) Lord Shiva (d) Lord Hanuman SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (a) March (b) October
_p
Sol.541.(a) Lord Jagannath. Rath Yatra (a) Balabhadra (b) Sudama (c) January (d) November
(c) Hanuman (d) Arjuna
na
Festival : Celebrated on the second day Sol.549.(b) October. Kati Bihu is one of
of the bright fortnight in the month of Sol.545.(a) Balabhadra. Lord Jagannath, the three Bihu festivals celebrated in
ap
Ashadha, this festival features a public his brother Balabhadra, and his sister Assam. Kati means to cut and this day
procession with three large chariots Subhadra are a trio of deities worshiped marks the time of relocation of rice
:@
carrying the deities Jagannath, at the Jagannath temple (Puri, Odisha). It saplings. It is also known as Kongali
Balabhadra, Subhadra. is one of the Char Dham pilgrimage sites. Bihu. There are another two Bihu
Q.542 Paryushana festival is celebrated The temple was built on the basis of festivals celebrated in Assam - Bhogali
TG
by the people of which of the following Kalinga architecture. (Magh Bihu) is observed in January and
communities? Rongali (Bohag Bihu) is observed in April.
Q.546. Navratri festival is dedicated to Other festivals of Assam: Baishagu,
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
on
which of the following Goddesses? Ali-Ai-Ligang, Baikho, Rongker, Bohaggiyo
(a) Jain (b) Muslim (c) Hindu (d) Sikh SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) Bishu, Ambubashi Mela and Jonbill Mela.
Sol.542.(a) Jain. This 8-10 days festival (a) Jawala (b) Laxmi
ch
inspires Jains worldwide to remember (c) Durga (d) Saraswati Q.550. Which of the following is a
the roots and philosophies of Jainism. festival primarily celebrated in the state
ar
Sol.546.(c) Durga. Navratri, meaning of Odisha?
Celebrating paryushan also brings a
‘nine nights’ in Sanskrit, is a festival
Se
social purpose as well. Other Religious SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
where people fast and pray to the nine (a) Baishagu (b) Chhath
festivals : Jain - Mahavir Jayanti, Rohini
forms of Goddess Durga, an incarnation (c) Raja Parba (d) Me-Dam-Me-Phi
Vrat, Samvatsari, Meru Trayodashi etc.
of Parvati, who defeated Mahishasura.
Muslim - Eid ul Fitr, Eid ul Adha,
The two popular folk dances of Gujarat, Sol.550.(c) Raja Parba. It is a unique
Ramadan, Muharram etc. Sikh - Hola
the Garba and Dandia are performed by festival celebrating the onset of the
Mohalla, Vaisakhi, Maghi etc. Hindu -
both men and women during this monsoon and the earth’s womanhood. It
Holi, Diwali, Rakshabndahn etc.
occasion on every night. is held for three days in the month of
Q.543. Which of the following festivals is June. Odisha's famous festivals include
Q.547. In which of the following states is Konark Dance Festival, Kalinga
celebrated in Madhya Pradesh?
Me - dam - me - phi festival primarily Mahotsava, Durga Puja, Chhau Festival,
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
celebrated? Puri Beach Festival, Nuakhai, Pakhala
(a) Thaipusam Festival
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Dibasa, and Laxmi Puja.
(b) Jaisalmer Desert Festival
(a) Bihar (b) Assam
(c) Bihu Festival
(c) Nagaland (d) Odisha Q.551. By what name is the festival of
(d) Khajuraho Dance Festival
Makar Sankranti celebrated in Assam?
Sol.543.(d) Khajuraho Dance Festival - Sol.547.(b) Assam. Me-Dam-Me-Phi is a SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Organized by the Kala Parishad of the community festival celebrated by the (a) Pedda Padunga (b) Thai Pongal
Madhya Pradesh government. It is a Ahom people in memory of their dearly (c) Pongal (d) Magh Bihu
seven-day long festival which usually departed. ‘Me’ means offering, ‘Dam’
takes place from the 20th of February to means ancestors and ‘Phi’ means god. Sol.551.(d) Magh Bihu. Makar Sankranti
the 26th of February. It is held at The major festivals celebrated in Assam is celebrated in January and marks the
Khajuraho temples. It was started in are Bihu, Baishagu, Ali-Ai-Ligang, Baikho, transition of the sun into the zodiac sign
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Capricorn (Makar). This event Year and the harvest's start, and Kangali (a) Kerala And Karnataka
symbolizes the end of winter and the Bihu (October) involves lighting lamps by (b) Kerala And Tamil Nadu
beginning of longer days, as the sun a Tulsi plant during the lean season. (c) Madhya Pradesh & Rajasthan
starts moving northward (known as (d) Gujarat and Maharashtra
Uttarayana). The festival is celebrated Q.555. Hola Mohalla is a festival
under various names in different parts of associated with which religion/belief? Sol.558.(b) Kerala And Tamil Nadu.
India -Makar Sankranti: Kerala, Odisha, SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Vishu is a Hindu festival celebrated on
Karnataka, Maharashtra, Goa, and West (a) Jainism (b) Islam the first day of the Malayali month of
Bengal. Maghi Saaji: Himachal Pradesh. (c) Buddhism (d) Sikhism Medam (Malayalam New Year). New year
Sakrat: Haryana and Rajasthan. Thai festivals : Ugadi (Andhra Pradesh,
Sol.555.(d) Sikhism. Hola Mohalla : This Karnataka, Telangana), Gudi Padwa
Pongal: Tamil Nadu (celebrated as a festival is a vibrant three-day Sikh festival
harvest festival). Ghughuti: Uttarakhand. (Maharashtra), Baisakhi (Punjab,
celebrated in spring on the second day of Haryana), Pohela Boishakh (West Bengal,
Dahi Chura: Bihar (the traditional dish the lunar month of Chett, the first month
eaten during this festival). Khichdi Parv: Tripura), Puthandu (Tamil Nadu), Bohag
of the Nanakshahi calendar. The main Bihu (Assam), Cheti Chand (Sindhi
Uttar Pradesh (where khichdi is prepared procession occurs at Takht Sri Keshgarh
as part of the celebrations). Uttarayan: community), Losoong (Sikkim), Navreh
Sahib in Anandpur, Punjab, a site of (Kashmir), Chaitra Sukladi (North India).
Gujarat (popular for the kite-flying historical significance as the birthplace
tradition). of the Khalsa Panth in 1699, where Guru Q.559. Sakewa is a religious festival
Q.552. Which of the following festivals Gobind Singh founded the Khalsa Panth. celebrated by the Kirat Khambu Rai
observed in Assam is majorly celebrated Other Sikh festivals: Baisakhi, Maghi, community of
by Vaishnavites? Bandi Chhor Divas, Guru Nanak Jayanti. SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
df
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.556. The ‘Lokranjan’ festival
(a) Bihu (b) Doljatra (b) Goa
celebrates the folk and tribal culture of
_p
(c) Ambuchi Mela (d) Rongker (c) Sikkim
which Indian state? (d) Himachal Pradesh
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift)
na
Sol.552.(b) Doljatra (Dol Purnima) is a
Hindu festival that celebrates the love (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Jharkhand Sol.559.(c) Sikkim. 'Sakewa' is an annual
(c) Manipur (d) Meghalaya festival and is celebrated as a tribute to
ap
between Radha and Krishna, observed on
the full moon day of the Falgun month. mother nature. The rituals for this
Sol.556.(a) Madhya Pradesh. Lokranjan particular festival are performed in an
:@
Bihu consists of three festivals - Rongali, is a vibrant tribal dance festival held
Kongali, and Bhogali - celebrated by all open space, which is also known as
annually in Khajuraho, Madhya Pradesh, Bhoomi Puja or Chandi Puja. Other
Assamese people, regardless of religion. organized by the Adivasi Lok Kala important festivals of Sikkim: Losung,
TG
Ambubachi Mela is held at the Kamakhya Academy in association with the Madhya
Temple in Guwahati, dedicated to Drupka Tesh, Bumchu, Saga Dawa, Dasin
Pradesh Tourism Development and Phang Lhabsol .
Goddess Kamakhya, a Shakti deity. Corporation. Celebrated from 8th to 12th
on
Q.553. Makar Sankranti is the festival December. Some popular folk dances of Q.560. ‘Hampi Utsava,’ which is
dedicated to which of the following Madhya Pradesh include Jawara, Matki, celebrated in Karnataka, is also called
ch
Lords? Aada, Khada Nach, Phulpati, Grida Dance, ____________. The festival that captures
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) Selalarki, Selabhadoni, and Maanch. the pomp, splendour and glory of the
ar
(a) Ganesha (b) Surya historical period of Karnataka is
Q.557. Rottela Panduga or the Roti celebrated over a week.
(c) Chandra (d) Indra
Se
Festival is celebrated in which Indian SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Sol.553.(b) Surya. Makar Sankranti state? (a) Vijaya Utsava (b) Sarhul Mahotsava
signifies the entry of the Sun into the SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (c) Rajasi Utsava (d) Nritya Mahotsav
zodiac sign of Makara or Capricorn. (a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra
Festivals related to Lord Surya: Ratha (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu Sol.560.(a) Vijaya Utsava celebrates the
Saptami, Chhath, Pongal, Mitrotsavam. grandeur of the Vijayanagara Empire and
Sol.557.(c) Andhra Pradesh. Rotiyaan Ki is held over a week in Karnataka.
The festival dedicated to Lord Ganesha is Eid, or Rottela Panduga, is an annual
Ganesh Chaturthi. Indra Jatra is a festival Festivals of Karnataka: Vairamudi
three-day festival held at Bara Shaheed Festival, Kambala Festival, Karaga
in Sikkim that celebrates Lord Indra. The Dargah in Nellore, Andhra Pradesh. This
festivals related to the moon are Eid, Festival, Ugadi. The Sarhul festival marks
event is observed in Muharram to the beginning of the New Year and is
Guru Purnima, Karwachauth. commemorate the urs (death celebrated by the Oraon, Munda, and Ho
Q.554. Bihu festival is the main festival anniversary) of the 12 martyrs buried in tribes of Jharkhand.
of which state? the shrine. Women visiting the shrine
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift) exchange rotis at Nellore Tank. Other Q.561. The Indian festival of Holi comes
(a) Kerala (b) Punjab notable festivals celebrated in Andhra every year in the season of:
(c) Rajasthan (d) Assam Pradesh include Pongal, Ugadi, Sri Rama SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Navami, Ratha Saptami, Tirupati Ganga (a) spring (b) autumn
Sol.554.(d) Assam. Bihu occurs three Jatara, and Visakha Utsav. (c) summer (d) winter
times a year: Bhogali Bihu (January)
marks the harvest's end, Rongali Bihu Q.558. Vishu festival is celebrated in Sol.561.(a) Spring. Holi, also known as
(April) celebrates the Assamese New which of the following states? the Festival of Colors, is celebrated on
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the full moon day of the Phalguna month
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
in the Hindu calendar. Other notable festival in the Indian state of Kerala. festivals according to the Hindu calendar
festivals and their seasons include: Onam Festival falls during the Malayali : Holi is celebrated in the Phalguna
Diwali, celebrated in autumn (usually month of Chingam (Aug - Sep) and month (February - March). Makar
October or November); Makar Sankranti, marks the homecoming of legendary Sankranti is celebrated in the month of
observed in winter (January); Pongal, King Mahabali. Kumarakom boat race is Magh (January). Raksha Bandhan is
also in winter (January); and Ganesh the most admired boat race to take place celebrated on the full moon day
Chaturthi, celebrated during the on the Vembanad Lake in September (Purnima) of the Shravana month (July -
monsoon season (August or September). during Onam. Other Festivals of Kerala : August). Deepawali is celebrated every
Thrissur Pooram Festival, Attukal year on the 15th lunar day of the Kartik
Q.562. Mewar festival is celebrated Pongala Festival, Navarathri Festival, month (October - November).
during the _______ festival at Udaipur. Makaravilakku Festival, Kerala Village
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift) Fair, Aluva Sivarathri Festival, Vishu Q.570. The Braj festival in ________ is
(a) Gangaur (b) Teej Festival. held every year for two days in the Shukla
(c) Dussehra (d) Holi Paksha of the Phalgun month, a few days
Q.566. Muharram is the _______ month of before Holi.
Sol.562.(a) Gangaur - A festival devoted the Islamic Calendar and is considered a SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift)
to Goddess Parvati. It is celebrated in holy month. (a) Haryana
March. Festivals of Rajasthan : Camel SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) (b) Rajasthan
Festival (Bikaner), Kumbhalgarh Festival, (a) fourth (b) second (c) first (d) third (c) Madhya Pradesh
Desert Festival (Jaisalmer), Kajli Teej (d) Himachal Pradesh
(Bundi), Abhaneri (Dausa), Ranakpur Sol.566.(c) first. Muharram : It is a
(Pali), Matsya Festival (Alwar) and Bundi sacred festival that commemorates the Sol.570.(b) Rajasthan. Braj festival is
Festival (Bundi). martyrdom of Hazrat Imam Hussein. dedicated to Lord Krishna who is
df
During this occasion, a relic called Alam believed to have spent a considerable
Q.563. In which country is the ‘Kachin
_p
is taken out as a procession. This festival amount of time in this region. Other
Manaw Festival’ celebrated ? is known as Peerla Panduga in festivals of the state with districts: Kajli
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift)
na
Telangana. Other festivals of Muslims : Teej - Bundi, Abhaneri festival’ - Dausa,
(a) Myanmar (b) Maldives Id-ul-Zuha, Shab-e-Barat, Milad-un-Nabi, Marwar Festival - Jodhpur. Momasar -
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Nepal
ap
Ramadan, Eid al-Adha. Bikaner, Chandrabhaga - Jhalawar,
Sol.563.(a) Myanmar. In the Kachin Matsya - Alwar, Kolayat - Bikaner,
Q.567. Bali Yatra, is a traditional cultural
:@
Manaw Festival, the Kachins perform the Kumbhalgarh fort festival - Udaipur,
festival of which state ? Ranakpur pali.
Manaw dance - a dance that was part of SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift)
the Nat (spirit worship) many years ago. (a) Odisha (b) Bihar Q.571. Pinjore heritage festival is
TG
Famous festivals of Myanmar : Thingyan, (c) West Bengal (d) Assam organised by the state of ________.
Ananda Pagoda Festival, Kyaukse SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift)
elephant dance festival. Sol.567.(a) Odisha. Bali Jatra is the (a) Uttarakhand (b) Sikkim
on
major Boita Bandana festival held at (c) Haryana (d) Jharkhand
Q.564. _________ is a significant festival Cuttack on Kartik Purnima and lasts for 7
of the Parsi people who practice
ch
days or more. It is considered to be one Sol.571.(c) Haryana. The Pinjore
Zoroastrianism as it marks the birth of Asia's largest open trade fair. Other Heritage Festival is held annually in
anniversary of Zoroaster.
ar
Festivals of Odisha: Kalipuja, Dola December at the historic Yadavindra
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) Purnima (Holi), Chandan Yatra, Snana Gardens in Pinjore, Panchkula, Haryana.
Se
(a) Khordad Sal (b) Gahambars Yatra, Ratha Yatra, Kalinga Mahotsav, This event is organized to celebrate and
(c) Pateti (d) Jamshed-e-Navroz Konark Dance Festival, Ekamra Utsav, honor the unique heritage of Pinjore and
Sol.564.(a) Khordad Sal. The Gahambars etc. its renowned Mughal Gardens. The
were established as a means of festival was first introduced in 2006.
Q.568. Jamshedi Navroz is a festival of
celebrating the six primordial elements _________ community. Q.572. In Gujarat, the festival Makar
of creation: sky, water, earth, plants, SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) Sankranti is celebrated as:
animals, and humans. Papeti (Navroz or (a) Christian (b) Hindu (c) Parsi (d) Jain SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)
Parsi New Year) is a festival celebrated (a) Dakshinayan (b) Uttarayan
by the Parsi community. It marks the Sol.568.(c) Parsi. Navroz has links with (c) Paschimayan (d) Purbayan
start of the Iranian calendar and is an the legend of King Jamshid of Iran, also
auspicious occasion for the Zoroastrian called Jamshedi Navroz. It is celebrated Sol.572.(b) Uttarayan. Makar Sankranti
community. on the first day of the first month of the denotes the entry of the sun into the
Fasli calendar, which usually falls on zodiac sign of Makara (Capricorn) as it
Q.565. Which of the following is the August 18 or August 19. travels on its celestial path. As part of
festival of Kerala that heralds the harvest the official celebration of 'Uttarayan', the
season, lasts for 10 days, and has snake Q.569. Dussehra festival is celebrated in Gujarat government has been hosting the
boat races etc? which of the following Hindu months ? International Kite Festival since 1989.
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) Vishu (b) Thiruvathira (a) Vaisakha (b) Ashwin Q.573. The Kutch festival is held at _____.
(c) Thrissur Pooram (d) Onam (c) Ashadha (d) Chaitra SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Bhuj
Sol.565.(d) Onam. Onam is the biggest Sol.569.(b) Ashwin. Other Hindu (c) Rajkot (d) Surat
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.573.(b) Bhuj. It is a carnival of music, Rann Utsav, Dang Darbar, Modhera state: Gangaur Festival (Jaipur), Desert
dance, and natural beauty in White Rann. Dance Festival, Madhavrai Festival, and Festival (Jaisalmer), Summer Festival
Other important festivals of Gujarat: Bhadra Purnima Fair. (Mount Abu), Pushkar Fair (Pushkar),
International Kite Festival (known as Mewar Festival (Udaipur). Andhra
Makar Sankranti or Uttarayan) - Q.577. With reference to Chethiagiri Pradesh - Ratha Saptami, Ugadi. Odisha -
Celebrates Makar Sankranti or Uttarayan Vihar festival consider the following Ratha Yatra, Bali Jatra. Karnataka -
in Ahmedabad. Tarnetar fair - Based on statements and select the correct option. Pattadakal, Ugadi.
the legend of Draupadi's swayamvara. i) It is a Buddhist festival.
Megh Malhar Parv -an annual celebration ii) It is held at Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh. Q.581. Which festival is celebrated after
that takes place in the Saputara region iii) Relics of SariPutta and Maha the month of Ramzan ?
every monsoon. Navratri - : Festival Moggallana are worshiped SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
celebrating feminine divinity, Shakti. SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift) (a) Eid ul Fitr (b) Muharram
(a) Both ii and iii (b) Both i and iii (c) Milad un Nabi (d) Jammat Ul Vida
Q.574. Easter is a religious festival of: (c) Both i and ii (d) i, ii, iii
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) Sol.581.(a) Eid ul Fitr. It is a religious
(a) Hindus (b) Christians Sol.577.(d) i, ii, iii. Other Buddhist festival celebrated by Muslims at the end
(c) Buddhists (d) Sikhs festivals include Buddha Purnima, Hemis of the holy month of Ramzan. It is
Festival, Losar Festival, Lumbini Festival, celebrated on the first day of Shawwal,
Sol.574.(b) Christians. Easter celebrates Parinirvana Day, Rumtek Chaam Festival the tenth month of the Islamic calendar.
the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the and Mani Rimdu Festival. Everyone celebrates this festival together
dead.It is observed on the first Sunday and prays to God for happiness, peace,
following the full Moon after the spring Q.578. Every year in the month of and prosperity.
equinox. The custom of decorating eggs February, this camel festival is organised
df
is practiced during Easter. The holiday by Rajasthan Tourism Development Q.582. Kojagiri Poornima is a festival
Corporation in __________. celebrated primarily in _______ on the full
_p
concludes the “Passion of Christ,” a
series of events and holidays that begins SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift) moon day of Ashwin month.
(a) Jaisalmer (b) Jodhpur SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
na
with Lent (a 40-day period of fasting,
prayer and sacrifice) and ends with Holy (c) Bikaner (d) Barmer (a) Maharashtra (b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Bihar
ap
Week, which includes Holy Thursday, Sol.578.(c) Bikaner. Bikaner Camel
Good Friday, and Easter Sunday. Festival happens in January month which Sol.582.(a) Maharashtra. Sharad
:@
Q.575. 'Tamu Lochar' is one of the Bikaner celebrates in honor of the 'Ship Purnima is also known as Kojagiri or
traditional festivals of the_________of of the Desert', the Camel. Festivals of Raas Purnima. It is a harvest festival.
Sikkim. It is celebrated to mark the Rajasthan: Desert Festival, Pushkar Fair, Other festivals of Maharashtra : Gudi
TG
beginning of their new year, which falls Jaipur Literature Festival, Nagaur Fair, Padwa or Chaitra Pratipada, Pola, Narali
on the 15th day of Pusa, according to the Kite Festival, Mewar Festival, Urs Purnima, Ratha Saptami, Marabats and
Hindu calendar Vikram Samvat and 30th Festival, Brij Holi, Elephant Festival, Badgyas, etc,.
on
December in the English calendar. Chandrabhaga Fair, Bundi Utsav,
Kumbhalgarh festival, Baneshwar Q.583. Which festival is celebrated by
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Christians as the birth of Jesus Christ?
ch
(a) Gurung community festival, Kolayat Fair, etc.
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
(b) Bhutia community
Q.579. According to Hindu calendar, (a) Christmas (b) Easter
ar
(c) Mangar community
Diwali falls in which of the following (c) Eid ul Fitr (d) Good Friday
(d) Lepcha community
Se
months?
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Sol.583.(a) Christmas : It is observed on
Sol.575.(a) Gurung community.
(a) Ashwin (b) Magha December 25. It corresponds to the
Festivals celebrated in Sikkim: Maghe
(c) Chaitra (d) Kartika traditional date of the winter solstice on
Sankranti, Sonam Lochar, Losar,
the Roman calendar. Good Friday is a
Ramnawami (Chaite Dasain), Sakewa,
Sol.579.(d) Kartika. Diwali, the Hindu Christian holiday commemorating the
Saga Dawa, Eid Ul Fitr, Bhanu Jayanti,
festival of lights. Diwali marks the day crucifixion of Jesus and his death at
Drukpa Tshechi, Tendong Lho Rum Faat,
when lord Ram returned to Ayodhya after Calvary. It is observed during Holy week
Indrajatra, Pang Lhabsol, Barahimizong,
14 years of exile after defeating King as part of the Paschal Triduum. Easter
Kagyed Dance. Vikram Samvat was
Ravan. The months of the Hindu calendar (Pascha) celebrates the Resurrection of
started in 57 B.C. when the emperor
in order are : Chaitra, Vaisakha, Jyaistha, Jesus Christ on the third day after his
Vikramaditya defeated Sakas.
Asadha, Shravana, Bhadra, Asvina, Crucifixion. Eid ul-Fitr is a Muslim festival
Q.576. International Kite Festival is a Kartika, Agrahayana, Pausa, Magha, and ending Ramadan, observed with prayers,
popular cultural festival of which state? Phalguna. feasts, and charity.
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift)
Q.580. Goga Navami, which is primarily Q.584. Ugadi is celebrated primarily in
(a) Goa (b) Manipur
celebrated in the Indian state of_______is which of the following states on the first
(c) Gujarat (d) Chhattisgarh
dedicated to the snake God, Gogaji. day of the Chaitra month of the Hindu
Sol.576.(c) Gujarat. The International SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) calendar?
Kite Festival marks the days in the Hindu (a) Rajasthan (b) Andhra Pradesh SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
calendar when winter begins turning to (c) Odisha (d) Karnataka (a) Odisha (b) Assam
summer, known as Makar Sankranti or (c) Karnataka (d) Uttarakhand
Uttarayan. Other Festivals of Gujarat: Sol.580.(a) Rajasthan. Other festivals of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.584.(c) Karnataka. Ugadi festival Navaratri, usually in April, marking the Q.592. The Myoko festival is celebrated
represents the beginning of the New birth of Lord Rama, the seventh in which of the following North-Eastern
Year. Other festivals of Karnataka - incarnation of Lord Vishnu, born to King states of India?
Hampi Festival, Karnataka Rajyotsava, Dasaratha and Queen Kaushalya of Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Vairamundi Festival. Other states and Ayodhya. Other important festivals: Holi (a) Sikkim (b) Arunachal Pradesh
their festivals : Odisha - Ratha Yatra, Raja in Falgun, Diwali in Kartik, and (c) Manipur (d) Meghalaya
Parba, Bali Jatra. Assam - Ambubachi Rakshabandhan in Sravana.
Mela, Dehing Patkai, Bihu. Uttarakhand - Sol.592.(b) Arunachal Pradesh. The
Uttarayani, Phool Dei. Q.589. According to Hindu calendar, on Myoko Festival is a month-long
which day does Holika Dahan take place? traditional celebration of the Apatani
Q.585. Which festival is celebrated as Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4) tribe. It's one of their most important
the birth of Lord Krishna? (a) Phalgun Poornima festivals, aimed at strengthening family
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) (b) Chaitra Poornima and clan bonds, as well as ensuring
(a) Diwali (b) Navratri (c) Chaitra Pratipada fertility in both fields and people. Other
(c) Janmashtami (d) Ganesh Chaturthi (d) Phalgun Amawasya festivals of Arunachal Pradesh : The
Mopin Festival, Losar Festival, Dree
Sol.585.(c) Janmashtami. It falls on the Sol.589.(a) Phalgun Poornima. Holika Festival of the Apatani, Chalo-Loku of the
8th day of the dark half of the month of Dahan is celebrated on the eve of Holi, Nocte, Solung of the Adis, Ziro Festival of
Bhadrapada. The activity of making a the festival of colors. According to the Music, Pangsau Pass Winter Festival,
human pyramid and putting efforts to Hindu calendar, Holi takes place on the and Siang River Festival.
break an earthen pot filled with full moon day (Poornima) of the month
buttermilk is associated with this of Phalgun. Different names in the Q.593. The Karbi tribe, which celebrates
festival. different regions - Rang Panchami the cultural festival ‘Rongker’, belongs to
df
(Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Madhya the Indian state of _________.
Q.586. Which of the following states is
_p
Pradesh), Lathmar Holi (Uttar Pradesh), Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
associated with the Bonalu festival? Holla Mohalla (Punjab), Shigmo (Goa), (a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
na
Royal Holi (Udaipur), Kumaoni Holi and (c) Assam (d) Uttarakhand
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka Khadi Holi (Uttarakhand), Manjal Kuli
(c) Kerala (d) Telangana Sol.593.(c) Assam. Rongker, winter
ap
(Kerala), Dol Jatra (West Bengal),
Yaosang (Manipur), Phaguwa (Bihar). post-harvest festival, is celebrated either
Sol.586.(d) Telangana. Bonalu is a on 5th January or 5th February as per the
:@
traditional Hindu festival, dedicated to Q.590. In which of the following states is convenience of the villagers. Festival and
Goddess Mahankali, and its name the Behdienkhlam festival celebrated in their tribes : Kherai Puja of the Bodos; the
"Bonalu" derives from the Telugu word the month of July ? Baikhu and Pharkantis of the Rabhas; the
TG
"Bona" meaning "food" or "offering." It is Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Ali-ai-ligang and Parag of the Mishing
celebrated in Ashada month (June-July). (a) Meghalaya (b) Haryana tribe; and the Sagra-misawa, wansawa,
Other states and their festivals : Tamil (c) West Bengal (d) Bihar and laghun of the Tiwas.
on
Nadu - Pongal, Thaipusam, Natyanjali
Festival. Karnataka - Mysore Dasara, Sol.590.(a) Meghalaya. Behdienkhlam Q.594. In which of the following cities is
(chasing away the Demon of Cholera) is
ch
Ugadi. Kerala - Onam, Vishu. the Agera festival celebrated ?
celebrated annually in July after the Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Q.587. The festival of Eid Milad-un-Nabi sowing period, the most important dance (a) Kolkata (b) Lucknow
ar
is celebrated in which of the following festival of the Jaintia tribes. Other (c) Mumbai (d) Chennai
Se
Islamic months? famous Festivals : Meghalaya - Wangala,
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Nongkrem, Shad Suk Mynsiem, Shad Sol.594.(c) Mumbai. Agera is celebrated
(a) Safar (b) Rajab Sukra. Haryana - Guga Navmi, Gita by the Christian farming community, and
(c) Muharram (d) Rabi' al-Awwal Jayanti. West Bengal - Shiber Gajan, it takes place in October. It is a harvest
Disum sendra, Rohini Utsav. Bihar - festival. Other cities and their festivals :
Sol.587.(d) Rabi' al-Awwal. Milad Kolkata - Durga Puja, Mumbai - Ganesh
Chhath Puja, Bihula, Karama.
un-Nabi (Barawafat), also known as Nabi Chaturthi, Chennai - Pongal.
Day, Mawlid, is a gazetted holiday in Q.591. Which of the following holy days
India. This festival celebrates the birth in Christianity is a mourning day ? Q.595. In which of the following states of
anniversary of Prophet Muhammad and Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) India is the Chethiyagiri Vihara festival
is observed by Muslims worldwide. (a) Good Friday (b) Christmas celebrated ?
Prophet Muhammad, an Arab religious (c) Easter (d) Maundy Thursday Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
and political leader, was born in Mecca (a) Meghalaya (b) Kerala
Sol.591.(a) Good Friday is a solemn holy (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Bihar
and is regarded as the founder of Islam.
day in Christianity, observed to
Q.588. The festival of Ram Navami is commemorate the crucifixion and death Sol.595.(c) Madhya Pradesh. The
celebrated in which of the following of Jesus Christ. It is traditionally a day of Chethiyagiri Vihara Festival, celebrated in
Hindu months? mourning, reflection, and fasting. November, attracts hundreds of pilgrims
Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Christmas celebrates the birth of Jesus to Sanchi in the Raisen District to view
(a) Magh (b) Falgun (c) Chaitra (d) Kartik Christ, while Easter commemorates his the relics of Buddha’s two great disciples,
resurrection. Maundy Thursday honors Sariputta and Mahamogallena. Other
Sol.588.(c) Chaitra. Ram Navami is the Last Supper of Jesus Christ with his festivals of Madhya Pradesh: Lokrang,
celebrated on the ninth day of Chaitra disciples. Akhil Bhartiya Kalidas Samaroh,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Khajuraho Festival, Bhagoria Haat, Ujjain day of the Krishna Paksha (waning phase Padwa, Rama Navami, Hanuman Jayanti.
Kumbh Mela, and Malwa Utsav. of moon) in Bhadon month (August and Vaishakha - Parshuram jayanti, Akshaya
September). Tritiya. Jyeshtha - Gayatri Jayanti, Ganga
Q.596. Which of the following festivals is Dussehra. Ashadha - Guru Purnima,
also known as the ‘100 drums festival’? Q.600. Doul Utsav is majorly celebrated Jagannath Rathyatra. Shravana - Nag
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) in which of the following states ? Panchami, Raksha Bandhan.
(a) Cheiraoba (b) Sanken SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) Bhadrapada - Krishna Janmashtami,
(c) Saga Dawa (d) Wangala (a) Bihar (b) Assam Ganesh Chaturthi, Hartalika teej. Ashwin
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) Maharashtra - Durga Ashtami. Kartik - Karwa Chauth,
Sol.596.(d) Wangala. This festival is
celebrated after harvest to thank Misi Sol.600.(b) Assam. Doul Utsav is also Dhanteras, Diwali, Bhaiya Dooj, Chhath
Saljong, the ‘Sun God’ and Mini-ma Kiri called ‘holi’ or ‘rang. Other festivals Puja.
Rokime, the ‘Goddess of Grains’. This celebrated in Assam - Bihu, Baishagu, Q.604. What does Gudi signify in Gudi
festival is usually celebrated in the month Ali-Ai-Ligang, Baikho, Rongker, Rajini Padwa festival as per Hindu mythology?
of October or November. Festivals of Gabra, Harni Gabra, Bohaggiyo Bishu, SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Meghalaya: Shad Suk Mynsiem, Ambubachi Mela and Jonbill Mela. (a) Symbol of harmony
Nongkrem Festival, Behdienkhlam Festivals in other states: Bihar - Chhath (b) Symbol of victory
Festival, Shad Sukra, Strawberry Festival. Puja, Bihula, Sama chakeva. Chhattisgarh (c) Symbol of peace
- Pola, Madai Festival, Hareli, Bhoramdeo (d) Symbol of power
Q.597. In which of the following festivals Mahotsav. Maharashtra - Ganesh Utsav,
is Kolam drawn? Gudi Padva. Sol.604.(b) Symbol of victory. Gudi
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Padwa: It is marathi new year. Gudi is
(a) Karma (b) Bhogali Bihu Q.601. Bhagoria is a festival associated made by tying a piece of fresh cloth
df
(c) Hareli (d) Pongal with which of the following festivals ? around a bamboo stick of about 5 feet
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) long and Marathis place neem leaves
_p
Sol.597.(d) Pongal. It is a harvest (a) Diwali (b) Dusshera along with sugar candy garland on it. The
festival celebrated by the Tamil (c) Holi (d) Shiv Ratri stick is then placed in a silver or bronze
na
community. It is primarily celebrated in pot. In Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra
Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka Sol.601.(c) Holi: A Hindu festival that is Pradesh this festival is also known as
ap
and Puducherry. Other harvesting celebrated in the spring season. Ugadi. It is celebrated in the first month
festivals: Karma (Jharkhand), Bhogali Bhagoria is a tribal festival that is of Chaitra.
:@
Bihu (Assam), Hareli (Chhattisgarh), celebrated in Madhya Pradesh and
Onam (Kerala), Nuakhai (Odisha), Gudi Maharashtra. Tribal Festivals - Hornbill Q.605. Which of the following
Padwa (Maharashtra). Festival (Nagaland), Tusu Parab statements is/are correct regarding the
TG
(Jharkhand), Bastar Dussehra Hornbill Festival?
Q.598. 'Moatsu' is a religious festival (Chhattisgarh), Nagoba Jatara A. The Hornbill Festival is celebrated in
celebrated in which of the following (Telangana). the North-eastern state of Nagaland.
on
states? B.The festival takes place in the month of
Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Q.602. For how many days is the Tirupati January.
(a) Nagaland (b) Chhattisgarh Tirumala Brahmotsavam organised? C. The name of the festival is derived
ch
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Mizoram SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) from the Indian Hornbill, a bird that is an
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 15 (d) 5 essential character of the folk tales of
ar
Sol.598.(a) Nagaland. The Moatsu
the state.
Festival is celebrated by the Ao tribes of Sol.602.(b) 9. Tirupati Tirumala
Se
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Nagaland during the first week of May Brahmotsavam - It is annually celebrated
(a) Both A and B (b) Both B and C
every year for three days. Other festivals at the Venkateswara Temple in Tirupati
(c) A, B and C (d) Both A and C
celebrated in Nagaland: Nazu Festival, district in Andhra Pradesh. Other Temple
Amongmong Festival, and Hornbill Festivals: Thrissur Pooram Sol.605.(d) Both A and C. Hornbill
Festival. States and their festivals: (Vadakkumnathan Temple, Kerala), Festival is celebrated from 1 to 10
Chhattisgarh - Bastar Dussehra, Madai Arattu festival (Sree PadmanabhaSwamy December in Nagaland. It is also called
Festival, Hareli Festival, and Kajari Temple, Kerala), Vaikunth Chaturdashi festivals of festivals.
Festival. Himachal Pradesh - Losar, Mela (Kamleshwar Mahadev Temple,
Doongri, and Halda. Mizoram - Khuado Uttarakhand), Buddha Purnima Q.606. Which of the following
Kut, Mim Kut, and Chapchar Kut. (Mahabodhi Temple, Bodhgaya, Bihar), statements is/are correct regarding
Ambubachii Mela (Kamakhya Devi Bathukamma Festival?
Q.599. ‘Gugga Naumi’ – the festival Temple, Assam). A. This festival is celebrated in the state
celebrated in Haryana and some parts of of Telangana.
Punjab, Rajasthan, UP and Himachal Q.603. In which month, as per the Hindu B. Bathukamma which means ‘Mother
Pradesh______is known as the festival of: calendar, is the birth anniversary of Lord Goddess come and live’ is a colourful
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) Mahavir Swami celebrated ? floral festival.
(a) camel-worshiping (b) cow-worshiping SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning) C. This festival is celebrated for 9 days
(c) snake-worshiping (d) owl-worshiping (a) Chaitra (b) Kartik mostly during September or October
(c) Magha (d) Vaisakha (mostly before Dussehra).
Sol.599.(c) Snake-worshiping. Gugga D. During this festival, men will sing
Naumi festival celebrated in the honour Sol.603.(a) Chaitra. Hindu calendar and songs and dance around the flower
of Gugga Pir. It is observed on the 9th their festival/jayanti: Chaitra - Ugadi, Gudi bunches.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) Bandana and Java. Drupka Teshi, Bumchu, Saga Dawa,
(a) Only A, B and C (b) Only B, C and D Dassin, Phang Lhabsol, Maghe Sankranti,
(c) A, B, C and D (d) Only A, C and D Q.611. The sal tree assumes great Sonam Lochar, Tendong Lho Rum Faat,
significance in a number of tribal Guru Rimpoche’s Thunkar Tshechu, Indra
Sol.606.(a) Only A, B and C. communities scattered across eastern Jatra, Barahimizong, Sakewa.
India. For instance ________ festival is
Q.607. Ker and Garia Puja are traditional celebrated in honour of the tree , in Q.615. Which festival brings out the
tribal festivals of which state? Jharkhand. fusion rich culture of Chhattisgarh and
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (1st Shift) Odisha?
(a) Manipur (b) Jharkhand (a) Karma (b) Tusu Parab SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
(c) Tripura (d) Odisha (c) Sarhul (d) Sohrai (a) Rath Yatra (b) Bastar Goncha
Sol.607.(c) Tripura. Other festivals (c) Shoolini fair (d) Madhavpur fair
Sol.611.(c) Sarhul : Celebrated by -
(Tripura) : kharchi Puja, Bizu Festival, Oraon, the Munda and the Ho tribes of Sol.615.(b) Bastar Goncha (referred to
Ashokastami, Lampra Puja, Wah festival Jharkhand. It marks the beginning of as chariot festival) - Performed by the
etc. Manipur (Gang-Ngai, Lui-Ngai-Ni, New Year. Celebrated - Every year in the Bastar tribal people. It is observed during
Yaosang, Cheiraoba, Kang). Jharkhand first month of the Hindu calendar, on the the Rath Yatra (June or July) of Odisha.
(Karam, Sarhul, Rohini, Sohrai, Makar). third day of the moon or the fortnight of Other tribal festivals of Chhattisgarh:
Odisha (Ratha Yatra, Raja Parba, 'Chaitra'. Bastar Dussehra, Bastar Lokotsav, Koriya
Naukhai, Kalinga Mahotsav). Mela, Fagun Wadai, Madai Festival and
Q.612. Buddha Purnima is marked on a Pola Festival, Gauri Gaura puja. Himachal
Q.608. Chapchar Kut festival is full moon day in the Hindu month of____.
predominantly celebrated in _________. Pradesh (Shoolini Fair - Solan). Gujarat
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (Madhavpur Fair - Porbandar).
df
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) (a) Vaisakh (b) Jyaistha
(a) Nagaland (b) Meghalaya (c) Bhadra (d) Ashadha Q.616. The Sakraat festival is celebrated
_p
(c) Mizoram (d) Manipur with the 'Budigali' or 'Kalasi' dance in
Sol.612.(a) Vaisakh (2nd month of the _________ , where women take part in this
na
Sol.608.(c) Mizoram. Chapchar kut Hindu Calendar). Buddha Purnima
celebrated every year in the month of dance, carrying decorative pots on their
(Buddha Jayanti) commemorates the heads.
ap
March after the completion of the jhum birth, enlightenment (nirvana), and death
operation (Clearing of the remnants of SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
(parinirvana) of Gautama Buddha (a) Odisha (b) Nagaland
:@
burning). States and their festivals : (founder of Buddhism).
Mizoram - Anthurium, Mim Kut, Pawl Kut. (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Manipur
Nagaland - Hornbill, Sekrenyi, Aoleang. Q.613. Dree Utsav is celebrated in the Sol.616.(a) Odisha.
TG
Meghalaya - Shad Suk Mynsiem, state of __________.
Nongkrem, Behdienkhlam, Wangala. SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (1st Shift) Q.617. The Konark Dance Festival (KDF)
Manipur - Gang-Ngai, Lui-Ngai-Ni, (a) Arunachal Pradesh has been held at Konark since 1986
on
Yaosang. (b) Kerala between ______ every year.
(c) Assam SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q.609. Chad Shukra festival is celebrated
(d) Andhra Pradesh (a) 1st and 5th October
ch
by the Jayanti tribe of ______________.
(b) 1st and 5th August
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) Sol.613.(a) Arunachal Pradesh. States (c) 1st and 5th January
ar
(a) Assam (b) Punjab and their Festivals: Arunachal Pradesh - (d) 1st and 5th December
(c) Jharkhand (d) Meghalaya Boori Boot, Myoko, Pongtu, Murung,
Se
Solang, Mopin, Monpa. Kerala - Snake Sol.617.(d) 1st and 5th December. The
Sol.609.(d) Meghalaya. Chad Shukra is a
Boat (Vallam Kali), Theyyam, Onam, Konark Dance Festival is held at an
sowing festival of Jaintia communities.
Attukal Pongala. Andhra Pradesh: open-air auditorium in the backdrop of
Other festivals of Meghalaya -
Pongal, Ugadi, Rottela Panduga, Prabhala the Sun Temple (Black Pagoda). Dance
Behdienkhlam (Jaintia), Wangala (Garo),
Theertham, Visakha Utsav, Tirupati Festival in India - Bamnia Chhau Dance
Ka Shad Suk Mynsiem (Khasi),
Tirumala Brahmotsavam, Lumbini Festival (West Bengal), Khajuraho Dance
Nongkrem (Khasi).
Festival, Rayalaseema Food and Dance Festival (Madhya Pradesh),
Q.610. ______ is celebrated in Jharkhand Festival, etc. Mamallapuram Dance Festival and
immediately after Diwali on the new Natyanjali Festival (Tamil Nadu),
moon day in the honour of cattle. Q.614. 'Losoong' festival, celebrated by Nishagandhi Dance Festival (Kerala),
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (3rd Shift) the tribal community in _______ , is Sirpur Music and Dance Festival
(a) Bhagta Parab (b) Makar usually the time when the farmers rejoice (Chhattisgarh).
(c) Rohini (d) Sohrai and celebrate their harvest.
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Q.618. Bastar Dussehra is celebrated in
Sol.610.(d) Sohrai - A chief festival of (a) Sikkim (b) Jharkhand which of the following states?
Santhal tribe. It is celebrated on (c) Odisha (d) West Bengal SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Amavasya (new moon) in the Hindu (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Haryana
month of Kartik (October-November). It Sol.614.(a) Sikkim. Losoong (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Jharkhand
is known for the care of domestic (Namsoong) is a Sikkimese New Year
animals, such as cows and buffaloes. festival. The festival is celebrated by Sol.618.(c) Chattisgarh. Bastar
Other festivals of Jharkhand: Sarhul, Bhutia and Lepcha tribes in India, Bhutan Dussehra (75 days long) started in the
Karam, Hal Punhya, Bhagat Parab, Rohini, and Nepal. Famous Festivals in Sikkim: 13th Century during the reign of the 4th
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
King of Bastar, King Purshottam Dev. Celebrated by farmers. Time - Beginning Ashwin in the Hindu lunar calendar.
Deity - Goddess Danteshwari Devi. of sowing season for wheat and barley.
Q.628. Banganga festival takes place
Q.619. Lui Ngai Ni is a festival that is Q.624. Tulip Festival is famous in which annually at which of the following places
associated with which of the following city ? in Maharashtra ?
states? SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift)
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift) (a) Agra (b) Allahabad (a) Pune (b) Nashik
(a) Manipur (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Ludhiana (d) Srinagar (c) Mumbai (d) Nagpur
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Himachal Pradesh
Sol.624.(d) Srinagar. Tulip Festival in Sol.628.(c) Mumbai. Banganga festival :
Sol.619.(a) Manipur. Lui Ngai Ni - A Kashmir is celebrated annually to display A two-day music festival (tribute to Lord
festival that is celebrated by the Naga the vast range of flowers at the Indira Rama) celebrated annually in the month
tribes of Manipur (India). It is a Gandhi Memorial Tulip Garden in of January in Malabar Hills, Mumbai.
seed-sowing festival that marks the Srinagar. It is organized during the onset
beginning of the new year for the Nagas. of spring season in Kashmir valley. Other Q.629. In which state is the Chithirai
The festival is celebrated on February Flower Festivals in India: Rose Festival festival celebrated?
15th every year. (Chandigarh), Ooty Flower Show (Tamil SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift)
Nadu), International Flower Festival (a) Punjab (b) Tamil Nadu
Q.620. Indian festival Dussehra is a (c) Rajasthan (d) Meghalaya
famous celebration that takes place at (Gangtok, Sikkim), Lalbagh Flower Show
which of the following? (Bangalore), Dasara Flower Show Sol.629.(b) Tamil Nadu. Chithirai
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (2nd shift) (Mysore), Cherry Blossom Festival Festival - celebrates the celestial union
(a) Mysore Palace (b) Nizam Palace (Shillong, Meghalaya). of Lord Sunderswarar (Lord Shiva) and
df
(c) Mayurbhanj Palace (d) Jaipur Palace Q.625. Chaitrual and Phulaich are the Goddess Meenakshi, considered to be
festival of which of the following states ? Lord Vishnu’s sister. Celebrated in
_p
Sol.620.(a) Mysore Palace (Karnataka). Madurai.
Established - 1912, Started construction SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift)
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Gujarat
na
in 1897. It was the residence of Q.630. In which city of Assam is the Tea
Wodeyars rulers who ruled Mysore for (c) Uttarakhand (d) Haryana Festival celebrated every year?
ap
seven centuries. Nizam Palace (Kolkata) Sol.625.(a) Himachal Pradesh. Chaitrual SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift)
- It was constructed in 1933. (festival of pictures) - celebrated in the (a) Guwahati (b) Silchar
:@
month of Chaitra (March - April) in (c) Jorhat (d) Dibrugarh
Q.621. Pawl Kut is a thanksgiving festival
of which Indian state? Sirmaur area. Phulaich (festival of Sol.630.(c) Jorhat. The Tea Festival in
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift) flowers)- celebrated on the 16th day of the state of Assam is celebrated every
TG
(a) Kerala (b) Gujarat the Hindu month of Bhadrapada (August year during the winter season between
(c) Mizoram (d) Himachal Pradesh. - September). November and January. Major festivals
celebrated (Assam): Bihu, Baishagu,
on
Sol.621.(c) Mizoram. Thanksgiving Q.626. Rajini Gabra and Harni Gabra is
the cultural festival of which of the Ali-Ai-Ligang, Baikho, Rongker, Rajini
festivals - Pawl kut (Straw harvest Gabra Harni Gabra, Bohaggiyo Bishu,
following Indian states?
ch
festival), Lyuva Khutla (Mara Tribes) in Ambubashi Mela and Jonbill Mela.
Mizoram, Uttarayan (Gujarat), Lohri SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Assam (b) Bihar
ar
(Punjab), Onam (Kerala), Bhogali Bihu Q.631. Which festival traces its origin to
(Assam), Pongal (Tamil Nadu), Gudi (c) Mizoram (d) West Bengal the Tibetan New Year and in Ladakh, it is
Se
Padwa (Maharashtra), Ugadi (Andhra Sol.626.(a) Assam. Rajini Gabra and celebrated every year at the end of the
Pradesh, Telangana and Karnataka). Harni Gabra is an annual festival of the harvesting season?
Dimasa tribe. This socio-religious festival SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift)
Q.622. Of which of the following states is (a) Losar festival (b) Matho Nagrang
Jallikattu a famous bull-taming festival ? is celebrated before starting new
cultivation. (c) Yuru Kabgyat (d) Dosmoche
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala Q.627. Nag Panchami is celebrated in Sol.631.(a) Losar festival: It is
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu which month of Hindu Calendar? celebrated in India in various parts such
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (4th shift) as Arunachal Pradesh, Ladakh, Sikkim,
Sol.622.(d) Tamil Nadu. Jallikattu : Part The Lahaul district of Himachal Pradesh.
of Pongal celebrations on Mattu Pongal (a) Shravan (b) Kartik
(c) Sharad (d) Asadh It marks the beginning of the Tibetan
day which occurs annually in January. new year. It is usually celebrated by the
Some Other Festivals : Natyanjali Dance Sol.627.(a) Shravan. Other festivals in tribes who believe in the Mahayana sect
Festival, Karthigai Deepam, Aadi Shravan month - Raksha Bandhan, of Buddhism like the Sherdukpens,
Perukku. Hariyali Teej, Narali Purnima. Kartik Khamba, Memba, Monpa tribe, etc.
Q.623. Kajari festival is celebrated in Month festival - Karwa Chauth, Rama
Ekadashi, Dhanteras, Lakshmi Puja Q.632. The 'Kambala' festival is
which of the following states ? organised by farming communities in the
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) (Deewali), Bhaiya Dooj, Chhath Puja.
Ashad - Jagannath Rathyatra, Guru state of ________.
(a) Punjab (b) Jharkhand SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (2nd shift)
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) Karnataka Purnima, Yogini Ekadashi. Sharad
Purnima is the harvest festival that is (a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Rajasthan
Sol.623.(c) Chhattisgarh. Kajari Festival - celebrated during the holy month of (c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.632.(c) Karnataka. The Kambala (a) Japan (b) Bhutan Q.642. Which among the following is the
festival is essentially associated with the (c) Thailand (d) Burma famous harvest festival of Meghalaya,
Buffalo race. The festival is dedicated to India?
Hindu God Lord Kadri Manjunatha, who Sol.637.(b) Bhutan. Paro Tsechu - A SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Afternoon)
is the epitome of Lord Shiva. mask dance to celebrate the birth (a) Chapcharkut festival
anniversary of Padmasambhava (Guru (b) Sunburn festival
Q.633. The Sikhs celebrate Bandi Chhor Rimpoche). It is a five-day festival held (c) Hornbill festival
Divas which coincides with which Hindu every year in the month of March or at (d) Nongkrem festival
festival? the beginning of April.
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (2nd shift) Sol.642.(d) Nongkrem festival. Period -
(a) Ganesh Chaturthi (b) Holi Q.638. Which of the following religious In the month of November, every year.
(c) Diwali (d) Dussehra festivals is known as Peerla Panduga in Venue - Smit, the Khasi Hills in
Telangana? Meghalaya. It is celebrated during
Sol.633.(c) Diwali. Bandi Chhor Divas - A Graduate Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 4) Autumn at Smit, the cultural centre of the
Sikh celebration that commemorates the (a) Muharram (b) Christmas Khasi Hills.
day on which, the sixth Guru of Sikhs, (c) Eid-ul-Fitr (d) Navroz
Guru Hargobind released 52 prisoners Q.643. Navreh is the lunar new year that
from Gwalior Fort, who had been Sol.638.(a) Muharram (first month of the is celebrated in which of the following
imprisoned by Mughal Emperor Jahangir. Islamic Lunar Calendar). It is a sacred states/union territories?
Emperor Jahangir had held 52 Kings at festival that commemorates the SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning)
Gwalior. Other Sikh Festivals - Muktsar martyrdom of Hazrat Imam Hussein and (a) Sikkim (b) Assam
Mela, Parkash Utsav Dasveh Patshah, is marked by processions. During this (c) Manipur (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Holla Mohalla, Gurpurab. occasion, a relic called Alam is taken out
df
as a procession. Sol.643.(d) Jammu and Kashmir. Navreh
Q.634. Doongri festival of Himachal - It falls on the first day of the Chaitra
_p
Pradesh is primarily celebrated by which Q.639. Makaravilakku festival is Navratri. On this day Kashmiri pandits
religious community? celebrated in which of the following look at a bowl of rice which is considered
na
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (4th shift) Indian states ? as a symbol of riches and fertility.
(a) Buddhist (b) Sikh Graduate Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
ap
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu Q.644.__________ is a festival of sowing
(c) Muslim (d) Hindu
(c) Kerala (d) Karnataka seeds in the field. It is a major festival
:@
Sol.634.(d) Hindu. Doongri Festival: It is celebrated in Jharkhand.
celebrated in Kullu district (Himachal Sol.639.(c) Kerala. It is celebrated SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening)
pradesh) in the month of may as the annually in the Sabarimala Temple. (a) Karam (b) Bandana
TG
birthday of Hadimba devi (wife of (c) Jawa (d) Rohini
Q.640. Which of the following harvest
Bhima). festivals is celebrated in Karnataka in the Sol.644.(d) Rohini. Festivals like
months of November-December?
on
Q.635. Tamladu is a festival celebrated Rajsawala Ambavati and Chitgomha are
by the Buddhist community of which Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1) also celebrated with Rohini.
Indian state? (a) Hampi (b) Dasara
ch
(c) Huthri (d) Kambala Q.645. The Yaoshang festival of Manipur
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (1st shift)
is celebrated for_______days.
(a) Karnataka
ar
Sol.640.(c) Huthri - The annual rice SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Morning)
(b) Arunachal Pradesh harvest festival which is celebrated by (a) two (b) five (c) seven (d) nine
Se
(c) Madhya Pradesh the communities living in Coorg
(d) Himachal Pradesh (Kodagu). Other festivals of Karnataka : Sol.645.(b) Five. Yaoshang festival
Kambala Festival (March and November), (Manipur’s version of Holi) - Celebrated
Sol.635.(b) Arunachal Pradesh. It is
Hampi Festival (November), Pattadakal every year on the full moon of Lamta
celebrated in the Lohit district by the
Dance Festival (January), Makar month (February-March) of the Meitei
Digaru Mishmis tribe.
Sankranti (January), Ugadi (April), lunar calendar. The highlight of the
Q.636. Guruvayur Ekadashi is the cultural Vairamudi Festival (March), Karaga festival is the ‘ThabalChongba’ (folk
festival of which Indian state? Festival (March/April), Vara Mahalakshmi dance) . It commemorates the birthday
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (3rd shift) Pooja (August). of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu.
(a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala Q.641. Which among the following is an Q.646. Tusu is a harvest festival
agricultural festival of Arunachal Pradesh celebrated in Jharkhand during the
Sol.636.(d) Kerala. Guruvayur Ekadashi and celebrated by the Galo tribe? winter on the last day of________ month.
is observed in the famous Sri Guruvayur SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning) SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Krishna temple. It is observed in the (a) Losar (b) Ugadi (c) Karma (d) Mopin (a) Phalguna (b) Chaitra
Vrischikam month as per traditional (c) Magha (d) Poush
Malayalam Calendar. Lord Guruvayur is Sol.641.(d) Mopin. It is a celebration of
an incarnation of Lord Vishnu. the harvesting season held in the months Sol.646.(d) Poush. Tusu is mostly seen
of April in East Siang and West Siang in the area between Bundu, Tamar, and
Q.637. Which country celebrates one of districts. Major tribes (Arunachal Raidih areas of Jharkhand.
the famous festivals known as Paro Pradesh) - Adi, Aka, Apatani, Nyishi,
Tschechu? Tagins, Bori, and Bokar. Q.647. Which among the following
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift) festivals is the thanksgiving festival,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
mainly celebrated in Goa? Sol.652.(c) Chikal Kalo. It is celebrated (c) Tharu tribe (d) Bhutia tribe
SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Evening) on the 12th day of the month of Ashadh
(a) Hornbill (b) Myoko that roughly falls in July. The Sol.657.(b) Garo tribe. Wangala Festival
(c) Bihula (d) Ladainha Devaki-Krishna temple grounds of Marcel (100 drums festival) is a harvest festival
village in Goa are the venue for the held in honor of Saljong, the Sun-god of
Sol.647.(d) Ladainha (celebrated by celebration of the festival. fertility. It also signifies the onset of
Christians). Other festivals in Goa: winter. Bhil tribe - Bhagoria Festivals
Shigmo, Sao Joao, Sunburn, Grape Q.653. Ganga Dussehra takes place (Madhya Pradesh). Tharu tribe (southern
Escapade. every year on the ________ day of Shukla Nepal and northern India) - Dashain
Paksha of Jyeshtha month. (Vijayadashami), Tihar (Deepawali), and
Q.648. Pongal, the four day Harvest SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Jitiya. Bhutia tribe (Sikkim) - Losar
festival is generally celebrated in _______. (a) 6th (b) 8th (c) 10th (d) 12th festival.
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) North - East India (b) North India Sol.653.(c) 10th. Ganga Dussehra Q.658. Kagyed dance, a customary
(c) Eastern India (d) South India (Gangavataran) - Hindu festival, marks dance festival which is celebrated
the descendance of river Ganga on Earth. annually in Sikkim falls in which month?
Sol.648.(d) South India. Pongal (Thai Holi: full moon date (Purnima) of Falgun SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift)
Pongal) is a four-day harvest festival month (Feb-March). (a) May (b) October
celebrated in South India and Sri Lanka. (c) December (d) August
It is a major festival of the Tamil people, Q.654. Which of the following festivals in
and is also celebrated by other Punjab is celebrated to commemorate Sol.658.(c) December. Kagyed dance
communities in the region. The festival is the formation of the Khalsa Panth? (celebrated by Buddhists in the name of
dedicated to the sun god, Surya, and SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (1st Shift) eight tantrik Gods and Goddesses) - a
df
marks the end of the winter solstice. (a) Lohri (b) Hola Mohalla customary dance festival, celebrated
(c) Teej (d) Baisakhi annually in Sikkim falls on the 28th and
_p
Q.649. Kicheri is a harvest festival and 29th day of the tenth month according to
involves ritual bathing, celebrated majorly Sol.654.(d) Baisakhi (Sikh New Year) the Tibetan calendar and December
na
in _________. commemorates the formation of Khalsa month according to the English calendar.
SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Evening) Panth by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699. It is
ap
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Haryana mainly celebrated in the states of Punjab Q.659. A Hindu festival celebrated by the
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Gujarat and Haryana. It is a spring harvest Tamil community that falls in the Tamil
:@
festival usually celebrated on 13 or 14 Solar Month is called?
Sol.649.(c) Uttar Pradesh. Makar April every year. Lohri (marks the passing SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
Sankranti (Harvest festival): Celebrated of the winter solstice), Hola Mohalla (a) Karaga (b) Bihu
TG
in different states with different names - (three-day long Sikh festival which (c) Onam (d) Thaipusam
Uttarayan in Gujarat, Maghi in Punjab, normally falls in March), Teej (also
Magha Saaji in Himachal Pradesh, Sol.659.(d) Thaipusam (This festival is
known as Teeyan, dedicated to the onset
on
Pongal in Tamil Nadu. Celebrated in the dedicated to Lord Muruga, celebrated on
of the monsoon).
month of January. the full moon in the Tamil month of Thai
Q.655. Where is the Sair-E-Gul Faroshan in January/February).
ch
Q.650 ."Solung" is a festival celebrated by festival held?
the Adi Tribe of which state? Q.660. Which of the following festivals is
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (4th Shift)
ar
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening) organised by the Government of
(a) Mussoorie (b) Mumbai
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh Karnataka, usually in January, to
Se
(c) Delhi (d) Shimla
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Andhra Pradesh celebrate the grandeur of temples at a
Sol.655.(c) Delhi. Sair-E-Gul Faroshan is UNESCO heritage site?
Sol.650.(c) Arunachal Pradesh. Solung a three-day festival, generally held in the SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
festival is celebrated in the first week of month of September, just after the rainy (a) Kambala Festival
September as an agricultural festival. season in the region of Mehrauli. (b) Pattadakal Dance Festival
(c) Karaga Festival
Q.651. Which among the following Q.656. Which of the following is (d) Hoysala Festival
festivals marks the birthday of a great celebrated as the New Year in Tamil
Buddhist saint Je Tsongkhapa? Nadu? Sol.660.(b) Pattadakal Dance Festival is
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift) SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (1st Shift) a three-day affair and a celebration of the
(a) Sarhul (b) Losar (a) Pongal (b) Puthandu temples in the small village (Pattadakal)
(c) Tusu (d) Galdan Namchot (c) Ugadi (d) Onam of Karnataka.
Sol.651.(d) Galdan Namchot is often Sol.656.(b) Puthandu (Puthuvarudam, Q.661. Which Indian religious festival has
celebrated in Tibet, Mongolia and Tamil New Year). Chittirai (14 April) on recently been included in the
Ladakh. This Festival marks the the Tamil calendar, celebrated as a representative list of intangible cultural
beginning of the New Year in Ladakh. festival by Tamil Hindus of Tamil Nadu heritage of humanity by UNESCO, an
and Puducherry. organisation of the United Nations?
Q.652. Which among the following is the SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
monsoon mud festival of Goa ? Q.657. Wangala festival is celebrated by (a) Durga Puja (b) Ramnavami
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift) which of the following tribes? (c) Janmashtami (d) Mahashtami
(a) Sarhul (b) Karma SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(c) chikal kalo (d) Ladainha (a) Bhil tribe (b) Garo tribe Sol.661.(a) Durga Puja (Durgotsava or
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sharadotsav) is a ten-day Hindu festival. Higher Secondary 01/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Himalayan Festival, Doongri Fair, Sazo
The festival of Durga Puja is observed to (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Goa Festival, Phulaich Festival, Sair Festival,
celebrate the triumph of goddess Durga (c) Sikkim (d) Rajasthan Nuala Festival, Khepa Festival, Minjar
over Mahishasura. It is held in September Fair, Renuka Fair, Markand Fair, Rali Puja
or October in Kolkata (West Bengal). It Sol.666.(a) Madhya Pradesh. Other Festival, Deotsidh Fair.
was included in the UNESCO List of festivals - Meghnad parv (Gond tribe),
Intangible Cultural Heritage (2021, List Ratona (Baiga tribe), Bhagoriya (bhil Q.672. ‘Maru Mahotsav’ also known as
was established in 2008). tribe), etc. desert festival is celebrated in ______.
SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Morning)
Q.662. Guru Purnima, a festival Q.667. Sammakka-Sarakka Jatara is (a) Jaipur (b) Leh
celebrated by Hindus, Jains and celebrated in which of the following (c) Jaisalmer (d) Srinagar
Buddhists in India falls in which month of states of India?
Hindu calendar? Higher Secondary 04/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Sol.672.(c) Maru Mahotsav (Jaisalmer
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift) (a) Odisha (b) Tamil Nadu desert festival) is held in the Hindu
(a) Kartika (b) Vaisakha (c) Telangana (d) Chhattisgarh month of Magh (February), three days
(c) Sravana (d) Ashadha prior to the full moon. The festival is
Sol.667.(c) Telangana. Festivals of celebrated amidst the beautiful dunes of
Sol.662.(d) Ashadha. It is observed on Telangana - Bathukamma, Bonalu, the Thar Desert in the Sam dunes.
the Full Moon day (Purnima) in the Hindu Medaram Jatara.
month of Ashadha (June -July). Guru Q.673. In which district of Rajasthan is
Q.668. The International Sand Art festival the Elephant festival celebrated every
Purnima (Vyaas Purnima) is celebrated in is usually held in _______.
India, Nepal, and Bhutan by Hindus, year?
SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Afternoon) SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Morning)
Jains, and Buddhists.
df
(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra (a) Alwar (b) Kota (c) Jaipur (d) Ajmer
Q.663. Thiruvathira is a cultural festival (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Odisha
_p
of which of the following Indian states? Sol.673.(c) Jaipur. Elephant Festival, a
Sol.668.(d) Odisha. Art Festivals of India: traditional festival of Rajasthan, held
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon)
na
Kala Ghoda Arts Festival (Mumbai). every year at Jaipur Polo Ground on the
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala
Ellora-Ajanta International Festival day of Holi.
(c) Telangana (d) Tamil Nadu
ap
(Aurangabad). Surajkund Crafts Mela
Sol.663.(b) Kerala. The 'Thiruvathira' (Haryana). Taj Mahotsav (Agra). Q.674. The Deccan festival is a five-day
:@
festival is celebrated to commemorate Serendipity Arts Festival (Goa). long festival which reflects the culture of
the plea of Goddess Parvathi who used the Deccan. The festival is associated
Q.669. The Festival of Salhesh is with which state?
to regularly observe fast on Thiruvathira
celebrated in the state of:
TG
day in the name of Lord Shiva. SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Evening)
SSC MTS 15/07/2022 (Morning) (a) Kerala (b) Karnataka
Q.664. Which festival is celebrated in the (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Punjab (c) Maharashtra (d) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Gujarat (d) Bihar
on
month of February by the Angami tribe of
Nagaland ? Sol.674.(d) Andhra Pradesh.
Sol.669.(d) Bihar. Famous festivals of
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning)
ch
Bihar - Chhath Puja, Buddha Jayanti, Q.675. Soorya Classical Dance Festival is
(a) Sekrenyi festival (b) Losoong festival
Sonepur Cattle Fair, Rajgir Mahotsav, held in ________ for 10 days every year.
(c) Hornbill festival (d) Majuli festival
ar
Sama-Chakeva, Bihula, Madhushravani, SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Afternoon)
Sol.664.(a) Sekrenyi Festival also known Pitrapaksha Mela, and Malmas Mela. (a) Rameshwaram (b) Madurai
Se
as Sokre-n and Phousanyi. Losoong is a (c) Thiruvananthapuram (d) Mysuru
Q.670. Which of the following states
Sikkimese New Year festival. The festival
celebrates the Float Festival? Sol.675.(c)Thiruvananthapuram (Kerala),
is celebrated by Bhutia and Lepcha tribes
SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Evening) this festival is organized by Soorya Stage
in India, Bhutan and Nepal. Majuli
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Rajasthan and Film Society.
(biggest river island in the world) festival
(c) Nagaland (d) Himachal Pradesh
celebrated in Assam. Q.676. Elephanta Festival is the cultural
Sol.670.(a) Tamil Nadu. Float Festival is pride of ________ among the dance and
Q.665. In which of the following Indian
celebrated at the famous Meenakshi music festivals of India.
states is Dunnapothula Panduga
Amman Temple which is dedicated to SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Morning)
celebrated?
Goddess Meenakshi who is believed to (a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening)
be the reincarnation of Goddess Parvati. (c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) West Bengal
(c) Assam (d) Telangana Q.671. Gochi festival is an Indian festival Sol.676.(d) Maharashtra. Elephanta
majorly celebrated in ________. Festival is celebrated in February every
Sol.665.(d) Telangana. Dunnapothula
SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Evening) year on Elephanta islands in Mumbai,
Panduga (Sadar) is a buffalo carnival.
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Goa Maharashtra. The Elephanta Caves
Some Famous festivals are Pongal
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Karnataka founded by King Krishnaraja (Kalachuri
(Tamil Nadu), Ganga Sagar Mela, Durga
dynasty) are a collection of cave temples
Puja (West Bengal), Bihu (Assam), Sol.671.(c) Himachal Pradesh. Festivals predominantly dedicated to the Hindu
Kakatiya festival (Telangana). & Fairs of Himachal Pradesh :- Halda God Shiva.
Q.666. ‘Laru Kaj’ is a festival primarily Festival, Kullu Dussehra Fair, Ice Skating
celebrated by the Gonds of __________. Carnival, Losar Festival, International Q.677. Held in the month of __________,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
the Ellora Ajanta Dance Festival is an (a) Cheiraoba (b) Heikru Hidongba is celebrated along with the worship of
interface between the culture and history (c) Gang-Ngai (d) KUT the local goddess, Kesharpal Kesharpalin
of India. Devi.
SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Afternoon) Sol.681.(a) Cheiraoba. List of festivals in SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Afternoon)
(a) April (b) February Manipur are - Gang-Ngai, Lui-Ngai-Ni, (a) Madai (b) Khatarua
(c) January (d) March Yaosang. Kang: The Ratha Yatra of (c) Harela (d) Phool Dei
Manipur, Heikru Hitongba, Ningol
Sol.677.(c) January. Ellora Festival Chak-Kouba: A social festival of the Sol.687.(a) Madai. Festivals of
(Ellora Ajanta Festival) organized by Manipuris, Kut: Festival of Kuki - Chin- Uttarakhand :- Bhitauli, Harela, Phool Dei,
Maharashtra Tourism Development Mizo. Batsavitri, Ganga Dussehra or Dasar,
(MTDC) is celebrated every year for three Dikar Puja, Olgia or Ghee Sankranti,
days. The paintings and sculptures of Q.682. To which of the following Khatarua, Ghuian Ekadashi, Chhipla Jaat,
Ajanta and Ellora caves have been incarnations of Vishnu is Dhanuyatra of Kandali, Janopunya, Kumaon Holi
UNESCO World Heritage Sites since 1983 Odisha's Bargarh district dedicated? (including Khari Holi and Baithaki Holi).
and are considered masterpieces of SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Morning)
Buddhist religious art. (a) Lord Rama (b) Lord Vamana Q.688. Teeyan is a festival celebrated in
(c) Lord Varaha (d) Lord Krishna Punjab, which celebrates the onset of
Q.678. Tribes of the Nicobar Islands pay ______.
their respects to the departed soul of the Sol.682.(d) Lord Krishna. Dhanu Jatra or SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Afternoon)
head of the family during the ______. Dhanu Yatra is an annual drama-based (a) winter (b) monsoon
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Morning) open-air theatrical performance (c) summer (d) spring
(a) Ossuary Feast (b) Jagaddhatri Puja celebrated in Bargarh, Odisha.
(c) Ganjan Festival (d) Kalpataru Utsav Sol.688.(b) Monsoon . A cultural festival
df
Q.683. Kaveri Sankramana is a festival observed by and for women, Teeyan or
Sol.678.(a) Ossuary Feast. Goddess celebrated in____in the month of October. Punjabi. Teeyan begins on the third day
_p
Jagadhatri Puja is worshiped in the West SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Morning) of Saawan Maas and ends on Saawan
Bengal region. Gajan is a Hindu festival, (a) Telangana (b) Andhra Pradesh Purnima, spanning a total of thirteen
na
associated with such deities as (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka days.
Shiva-Parvati. Kalpataru Utsav is an
ap
Sol.683.(d) Karnataka. Kaveri Q.689. In which festival of Maharashtra
annual religious festival observed by Sankramana is celebrated at Talakaveri in
monks of the Ramakrishna Math. and Chhattisgarh, are the bullocks and
:@
Kodagu district in Karnataka. other cattles used for agriculture
Q.679. In which Indian state is the Q.684. Which state in India celebrates worshipped?
‘Fatorpa Zatra’ celebrated? the 'Sundareswara Festival' ? SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Evening)
TG
SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Afternoon) SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Afternoon) (a) Ganga Dussehra (b) Pola festival
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Goa (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Vata Poornima (d) Jiviti Puja
(c) Kerala (d) Himachal Pradesh (c) Kerala (d) Goa
on
Sol.689.(b) Pola is a thanksgiving
Sol.679.(b) Goa. It is celebrated at the Sol.684.(c) Kerala. The Sri Sundareswara festival celebrated by farmers in
temple of Shantadurga Kuncolienkarin at Maharashtra, to acknowledge the
ch
temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva. Every
Fatorpa in Quepem taluka. Famous year a festival is celebrated where importance of bulls and oxen, who are a
Temple Fairs in India : Odisha - Puri Rath crucial part of agriculture and farming
ar
hundreds of devotees attend the festival.
Yatra; Kerala - Thrissur Pooram, Arattu activities. It falls on the day of the Pithori
Se
Festival, Attuvela Mahotsavam; Tamil Q.685. Drukpa Tsechi, a festival Amavasya (the new moon day) in the
Nadu - Chithirai Thiruvizha Festival; celebrated in Sikkim, is associated with month of Shravana (usually in August).
Karnataka- Vairamudi Garuda Utsavam which of the following personalities?
SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Morning) Q.690. Which of the following festivals is
Festival, Karaga Festival; Andhra Pradesh
(a) Mahavir Swami (b) Lord Rama called the month of merits and is
- Kotappakonda Temple Fair; Uttarakhand
(c) Lord Buddha (d)LordKrishna celebrated between May and June?
- Nanda Devi Festival, Vaikunth
SSC CHSL 9/08/2021 (Evening)
Chaturdashi Mela.
Sol.685.(c) Lord Buddha. This festival (a) Saga Dawa (b) Bhanu Jaati
Q.680. The Kodava community of Coorg celebrates Lord Buddha's first preaching (c) Losar (d) Losoong
worships weapons during the ______ of the Four Noble Truths to his first five
disciples at Sarnath. Sol.690.(a) Saga Dawa. It is the most
festival.
significant and sacred for the followers
SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Morning)
Q.686. In which of the following months of Mahayana Buddhism who, on this
(a) Madai (b) Kailpodh
is the ‘Valvil Ori Vizha’ festival of Tamil auspicious occasion, commemorate
(c) Thaipusam (d) Bhagoriya
Nadu celebrated? Lord Buddha’s birth, his attainment of
Sol.680.(b) Kailpodh. It is celebrated in SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Afternoon) enlightenment and salvation from this
September. Kail means weapon or armor (a) June (b) January (c) May (d) August corporeal world. It is celebrated in
and Pold means festival. Puttari is the Sikkim.
Sol.686.(d) August. It is celebrated in a
harvest festival of Kodava community.
grand manner in the Kolli Hills of Tamil Q.691. Arthunkal Feast and Vettukad
Q.681. Which of the following festivals is Nadu. Festival are church festivals from the
also known as the 'Manipuri New Year' ? state of ______.
Q.687. ______ festival in the Bastar region SSC CHSL 12/08/2021 (Morning)
SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Evening)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(a) Nagaland (b) Goa Kavant Tribal Fair, Chitra Vichitra Tribal Q.699. Sardhana Christian Fair is held in
(c) Sikkim (d) Kerala Fair, Madhavrai Fair. which of the following states?
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.691.(d) Kerala. Other Church Q.695. Madhavpur Fair in Gujarat is a (a) West Bengal (b) Haryana
festivals of Kerala : Bharananganam, _______ day long event to celebrate Lord (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
Edappally Perunal, Edathua, Krishna's marriage with Rukmani.
Kadamattom, Kallooppara Perunal, SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.699.(d) Uttar Pradesh. Sardhana
Koratty, Malayattur, Manjinikkara , (a) four (b) two (c) five (d) three Christian Fair : Every year on the 1st
Maramon Convention, Niranam, Rakkuli Sunday of the month of November a
Thirunal, St. Dominic Syrian, Thumpoly, Sol.695.(c) five. Fair and Festivals of large feast is held in honor of Mother
Vettukad. Gujarat: Rann Utsav, International Kite Mary. Other Fairs of Uttar Pradesh :
Festival, Tarnetar fair, Megh Malhar Parv Kumbh Mela (the festival of the sacred
Q.692. In which of the following festivals Saputara, Vibrant Navratri Festival, Dang Pitcher), Gau Charan Fair, Nauchandi Fair,
the meaning is 'merry making of the Darbar Fair, Kavant Fair. Dewa Sharif Fair, Shakumbhari Fair, Magh
gods'? Fair (Prayagraj), Rath Fair (Vrindavan),
SSC CGL 03/03/2020 (Afternoon) Q.696. In which of the following states is
the groundnut fair, ’Kadalekayi Parishe’ Agra Cattle Fair or Bateshwar Fair (Agra).
(a) Diwali (b) Pongal
(c) Lai Haroba (d) Makar Sankranti celebrated on the last Monday of the Q.700. Ambubachi fair is celebrated in
Karthika month of the Hindu calendar? which of the following states?
Sol.692.(c) Lai Haraoba is the ritual SSC MTS 11/11/2024 (2nd Shift) SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
ceremonial festival of Manipur which is (a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu (a) Mizoram (b) Assam
believed to be the act of re-enactment of (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka (c) Nagaland (d) Manipur
the creation of the universe by the gods
df
and goddesses at the sacred site Sol.696.(d) Karnataka. Kadalekayi Sol.700.(b) Assam. Ambubachi Mela is
Haraothel of Koubru Hill. Parishe is an annual groundnut fair held an annual four-day Hindu mela held at
_p
in Basavanagudi, Bangalore, at the Bull Kamakhya Temple in Guwahati, Assam.
Temple, usually in November or It symbolizes the fertility cult of Goddess
na
Fairs December. Dedicated to Lord Ganesha, it Kamakhya. Other Fair of Assam -
marks the harvest season for Jonbeel Mela.
ap
Q.693. Bhavnath Mahadev fair is held groundnuts. The fair features prayers,
every year in which of the following cultural events, and local markets where Q.701. Bahu Mela in_______is the major
:@
places? farmers sell their fresh produce. It is a festival held at the Kali Temple in the
SSC MTS 14/10/2024 (1st Shift) centuries-old tradition celebrating Bahu Fort twice a year.
(a) Jabalpur (b) Chennai Karnataka's agricultural heritage. Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
TG
(c) Agra (d) Junagarh (a) Punjab (b) Leh
Q.697. ’Poush Mela’ is a unique festival (c) Jammu (d) Haryana
Sol.693.(d) Junagarh. The Bhavnath
celebrated in which of the following
Mahadev Fair is held at the Bhavnath
on
Indian states? Sol.701.(c) Jammu. Bahu Mela, one of
Mahadev Temple, situated at the foot of
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the largest Hindu festivals in Jammu, is a
Mount Girnar in the city of Junagadh
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh vibrant celebration held at Bahu Fort.
ch
(Gujarat). A five day fair is held during the
(c) West Bengal (d) Madhya Pradesh Major festivals in Jammu and Kashmir
festival of Mahashivratri which is a
include the Tulip Festival, Shikara
ar
worldwide tourist attraction. Other fairs Sol.697.(c) West Bengal. Poush Mela is Festival, Saffron Festival and Gurez
celebrated in Gujarat: Chitra-Vichitra Fair, an annual fair and festival that takes
Se
Festival.
Dangs Durbar Fair, Shamlaji Fair, and place in Santiniketan, in Birbhum District,
Tarnetar Fair (Trinetrashwar Mahadev marking the harvest season. Other Fair of Q.702. The Dang Darbar Fair is held
Fair). West Bengal - Kenduli Mela, Bhim Mela, every year in which Indian state?
Rash Mela, Ganga Sagar Mela, Jalpesh Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Q.694. In which of the following states is
Mela, Kolkata Book Fair. (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Rajasthan
the Bhadaravi Poonam Mela organised
(c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat
every year in the Nilkanth Mahadev Q.698. Gangaur Festival, Pushkar Fair,
temple premises in Babra? Nagaur Fair and Urs Fair are the popular Sol.702.(d) Gujarat. Dangs Darbar is a
SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (2nd Shift) fairs and festivals of which state? fair held during the Holi festival in Ahwa
(a) Rajasthan (b) Himachal Pradesh SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift) district in Gujarat. Traditionally, tribal
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Gujarat (a) Rajasthan (b) Tripura people perform dance and music,
(c) Punjab (d) Maharashtra celebrating it as a festival. Notable
Sol.694.(d) Gujarat. Ambaji Bhadarvi
festivals in Gujarat include Navratri, Rann
Poonam Fair takes place in the month of Sol.698.(a) Rajasthan. Other fairs and Utsav, International Kite Festival
Bhadarvo Ambaji, Gujarat. The fair is festivals in Rajasthan: Camel Festival, (Uttarayan), Modhera Dance Festival,
organized by the Shri Arasuri Ambaji Mahaveerji Fair, Baneshwar Fair , Kolayat Makar Sankranti, Janmashtami, and
Mata Devasthan Trust and the Fair, Marwar Festival, and Dhulandi Diwali.
Banaskantha District Administration. The Festival. Fairs and Festivals of India:
fair is considered a major religious Tripura - Poush Sankranti, Garia, and Q.703. Identify the cultural festival on the
gathering in western India, with over 25 Kharchi. Punjab - Chhappar Mela, Lohri, basis of given clues:
lakh devotees visiting the temple town. Hola Mohalla, and Baisakhi. Maharashtra i) This festival brings together craftsmen
Other Fair of Gujarat - Tarnetar Fair, - Banganga Festival, and Pola Festival. like potters, embroiderers, weavers, wood
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
carvers, metal workers, stone smiths and Kumbh Mela is held at only two places, Q.711. The Champaran Mela is
painters from all over India on one Haridwar and Allahabad, every sixth year celebrated every year in which city of
platform in Haryana. and a Maha Kumbh is held after every Chhattisgarh?
ii) This crafts mela is held in February 144 years. It is the 13th intangible Graduate Level 05/08/2022 ( Shift - 3)
every year and provides a glimpse of the cultural heritage from India to be listed (a) Bilaspur (b) Raipur
state’s cultural heritage and recent on UNESCO's list. (c) Raigarh (d) Korna
achievements.
Q.707. Simhastha fair is held in Ujjain on Sol.711.(b) Raipur. The Annual Fair of
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
the bank of which river? Champaran is held with great festivities
(a) Shamlaji Fair (b) Surajkund Mela
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift) in the month of Magh every year.
(c) Kapil Muni Fair (d) Chitra Vichitra Fair
(a) Kshipra river (b) Son river
Sol.703.(b) Surajkund Mela (Faridabad). (c) Ganga river (d) Gandak river Q.712. Which of the following is a cattle
This is one of the most celebrated fair celebrated in the state of Himachal
Sol.707.(a) Kshipra river. Ujjain Pradesh?
international Craftsmela and is organised
Simhastha is a Hindu religious mela held SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Afternoon)
by the Haryana Tourism Department.
every 12 years in the Ujjain city of (a) Doongri Festival (b) Manimahesh Fair
Shamlaji fair (Gujarat). The Kapil Muni
Madhya Pradesh. (c) Ashwin Mela (d) Nalwari Fair
Fair is the largest fair of Bikaner
(Rajasthan). The Chitra Vichitra Fair Q.708. With reference to Sonepur Cattle Sol.712.(d) Nalwari Fair. Doongri
(Gujarat). fair, consider the following statements Festival also known as Hidimba Devi Fair
and select the correct option. is celebrated in Kullu on the occasion of
Q.704. Shri Jagannathji Mela is held at
a) It is associated with the Hariharnath Basant Panchami. Ashwin Navratri Mela
______.
temple. is celebrated in Himachal Pradesh and
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
df
b) It begins on Purnima (full moon night) Ashwin Amavasya Mela is celebrated in
(a) Cuttack (b) Sambalpur
and Kartik month. Uttar Pradesh.
_p
(c) Jaipur (d) Alwar
c) It is celebrated in the Madhya Pradesh
state.
Songs
na
Sol.704.(d) Alwar (Rajasthan). The Shri
Jagannathji Mela starts with a SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift)
(a) Both a and b (b) Both a and c
ap
procession of Lord Jagannath passing Q.713. AR Rehman, Gulzar and _____ won
through the city. Other Fairs of Rajasthan: (c) Both b and c (d) a, b, c
the 52nd annual Grammy Award for the
Karni Mata Mela (Bikaner); Beneshwar
:@
Sol.708.(a) Both a and b. Sonepur Cattle best motion picture song ‘Jai ho’.
Mela (Dungarpur) and Pushkar Fair Fair is one of Asia's largest cattle fairs, SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(Ajmer). organized at the confluence of two rivers, (a) Danny Boyle (b) Tanvi Shah
TG
the Ganga and Gandak in Bihar. Nagaji (c) Dev Patel (d) Freida Pinto
Q.705. The world's largest camel fair is
held in which of the following cities? Fair is celebrated in the tribal area of
Sol.713.(b) Tanvi Shah. She is the first
SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift) Madhya Pradesh.
Indian Woman to win a Grammy Award.
on
(a) Bikaner (b) Pushkar Q.709. Sheorinarayan fair is held in Grammy Award is given in the field of
(c) Barmer (d) Udaipur which of the following states? Music. It is presented by the Recording
ch
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift) Academy of the United States. First
Sol.705.(b) Pushkar (Rajasthan) camel
(a) West Bengal (b) Jharkhand Indian who won a grammy award was
fair held each November at the time of
ar
(c) Chhattisgarh (d) Madhya Pradesh Pandit Ravi Shankar. A R Rahman won
the Kartik Purnima. Fairs/Festivals of
Two Grammy Awards in 2010. The record
Se
Rajasthan : Bikaner camel festival is Sol.709.(c) Chhattisgarh. The fair is held for the most Grammy Awards won is held
celebrated in the month of January. every year in the month of February by Beyoncé (USA).
Barmer Cattle Fair is held every year in during the Magh Purnima. The
the months of March and April. The Sherorinarayan Temple which is devoted Q.714. With which of the following
Mewar festival Udaipur, is held each year to Lord Rama is the main venue of this states is the Bhatiali folk music, which is
in March-April to welcome spring. The Fair. mostly sung by the fishermen,
Bundi Festival is celebrated in the month associated ?
of Kartik (October-November). Q.710. Ganga Sagar Mela is conducted
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
at the mouth of the river Hooghly in ____.
(a) Kerala (b) Andhra Pradesh
Q.706. Kumbh Mela and Sangam are SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
(c) West Bengal (d) Odisha
famous in which state? (a) West Bengal (b) Bihar
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift) (c) Goa (d) Andhra Pradesh Sol.714.(c) West Bengal. Bhatiali music
(a) Meghalaya (b) Uttar Pradesh is a river song characterized by its soulful
Sol.710.(a) West Bengal. Gangasagar
(c) Manipur (d) Sikkim and melancholic tunes, reflecting the
fair is held annually on the occasion of
Sol.706.(b) Uttar Pradesh. This fair Makar Sankranti (January) on Sagar lives and struggles of the fishermen
starts on the day of Makar Sankranti. Island's southern tip, where the Ganges community. Other folk music of West
This fair is held every 12 years, with the river enters the Bay of Bengal. This Bengal: Baul, Bhawaia, Kirtan, Gambhira,
location of the observance rotating confluence is Gangasagar. Fairs of West Shyama Sangeet, Lalon Geeti. Other
among four pilgrimage sites on the four Bengal: Bera Utsav, Orange Festival, Rath States and their folk music: Kerala -
sacred rivers: Ganga at Haridwar, Triveni Yatra Festival, Jalpesh Festival, Ramkeli Kathakali Music, Mappila Pattu,
Sangam at Prayagraj, the Godavari at Mela, Poush Mela, Raas Mela, Book Fair Ottamthullal Songs, Sopanam, Kolkali.
Nashik, and Shipra at Ujjain. Ardha (half) & Film Festival, etc. Andhra Pradesh - Madiga Dappu, Mala
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Jamidika. Odisha - Avanti, Panchali, (c) Bihar (d) Madhya Pradesh past battles through this form of music.
Odramagadhi. Folk music in India : Baul (West Bengal),
Sol.718.(a) Haryana. Raganis are Mando (Goa), Sohar (Uttar Pradesh and
Q.715. The song ‘Teri mitti’ is from which performed by multiple singers and Bihar), Chhakri (Jammu and Kashmir),
of the following movies? dancers and are sung in the local dialect. and Powada (Maharashtra).
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift) State and their Folk songs : Haryana -
(a) Jai Ho (b) Kesari Gharwa Gayan, Jhoolana, Patka, and Q.722. Khubakeshei is a kind of song
(c) Satya Mev Jayte (d) Rajniti Rasia. Uttar Pradesh - khayal, ghazals, accompanied by clapping, sung in the
Swang, Naqal. Bihar - Sohar, Bidesia, state of _____.
Sol.715.(b) Kesari. It is based on the true Chhath Geet, Kajri. Madhya Pradesh - SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
story of the Battle of Saragarhi in 1897. Nirguni Bhajans, Fag songs, Pandavani. (a) Bihar (b) Karnataka
The film was directed by Anurag Singh. (c) Manipur (d) Odisha
‘Teri mitti’ song : Writer - Manoj Q.719. Match List-I (Name of the
Muntashir. Composer - Arko Pravo composition) with List-II (Writer). Sol.722.(c) Manipur. Khubakeshei is a
Mukherjee. Singer - B Praak. List-I (Name of the List-II (Writer) traditional folk song from Manipur,
Composition) typically sung with clapping and
Q.716. Which folk music is based on the accompanied by traditional instruments
1. Vande Mataram A. Pradeep
Mahabharata with Bhima portrayed as like the Pena (a stringed instrument) or
2. Jana Gana Mana B. Bankim Chandra
hero? the Khartal (a pair of cymbals). Popular
Chattopadhyay
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) folk songs of Manipur : Pena Khongba,
3. Ae Mere Watan C. Rabindranath
(a) Dandiya (b) Pandavani Khulang Eshei, Lai Haraoba Eshei.
Ke Logon Tagore
(c) Alha (d) Mando
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift)
Q.723. Which of the following musical
df
Sol.716.(b) Pandavani. It is a folk music (a) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B (b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
forms in Carnatic Classical is the
tradition from Chhattisgarh. It narrates (c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A (d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
simplest composition of raga?
_p
the story of the five Pandava brothers SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift)
Sol.719.(b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A. "Aye Mere
(protagonists of the epic Mahabharata). (a) Kirtnam (b) Varnam
na
Watan Ke Logo" is a patriotic song
This age-old musical form was kept alive (c) Gitam (d) Pada
written in Hindi by Kavi Pradeep,
by performers like Teejan Bai, Jhaduram
ap
composed by C. Ramchandra, and sung
Devangan, Ritu Verma, Usha Barle and Sol.723.(c) Gitam. The main traditional
by singer Lata Mangeshkar. Jana Gana
Shantibai Chelak. Folk songs of forms of improvisation in Carnatic music
:@
Mana is the national anthem of the
Chhattisgarh : Fag, Karma songs, Danda consist of the following: Alapana, Niraval,
Republic of India. It was originally
songs, Sawnahi, Kau-Mau, Sua songs, Pallavi, Ragam, Swarakalpana, Tanam,
composed as "Bharoto Bhagyo Bidhata"
Chau-Mau Dewar songs, Cher-Chera Tani, Avartanam. Varnam - A type of
TG
in Bengali by polymath Rabindranath
songs, Sohar song, Khuduwa, Dhankul composition in Carnatic music that
Tagore on 11 December 1911. "Vande
songs, Bhojali songs, Dandi Pouha, captures the essence of a raga, or scale,
Mataram" is a Bengali poem by Bankim
Loriya, Goura songs, Fugdi etc. in a short piece of music. Padas are
on
Chandra Chatterjee.
scholarly compositions in Telegu and
Q.717. Who is known as the ‘Father of Tamil.
Q.720. Which folk music does NOT
Carnatic Music’?
ch
belong to Nagaland?
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) Q.724. Who among the following wrote
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) Vidyaranya the popular Telugu patriotic song
ar
(a) Nyioga (b) Heliamleu
(b) Purandara Dasa ‘Desamunu preminchumanna, manchi
(c) Hereileu (d) Neuleu
Se
(c) Thirunal Rama Varma annadi penchumanna’ meaning ‘Love the
(d) Vishwanath Iyer Sol.720.(a) Nyioga. It is sung when a nation, grow the goodness’?
marriage ceremony is concluded and the SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift)
Sol.717.(b) Purandara Dasa. Tamil Nadu (a) Gurajada Apparao
bride's family returns leaving the bride in
is famous for Carnatic music, based on (b) Sri Krishnadevaraya
her home in Arunachal Pradesh.
ragas (melodies) and talas (rhythms). (c) Bammera Potana
Nagaland's folk music is known for its
Purandara Dasa has contributed (d) Goparaju Ramachandra Rao
enchanting melodies and lyrics that tell
significantly to its codification and giving
stories of love, nature, bravery, and
it a clear format for its teaching and Sol.724.(a) Gurajada Apparao. Gurajada
cultural identity. Nagaland famous folk
performance. The devotional songs Venkata Apparao was an Indian
dance: Hereileu, Chang Lo, Tetseo
composed by Shyama Shastri, Tyagaraja playwright, dramatist, poet, and writer
Sisters, Tati, Theku, Asem, Kuki dance.
and Muthuswami Dikshitar are very known for his works in Telugu theatre.
popular. These songs are accompanied Q.721. The famous folk music ‘Hekialeu’ Rao wrote the play Kanyasulkam in 1892,
by instruments like the mridangam, has its origin in which state? which is considered as the greatest play
veena, nadaswaram, and flute. In SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) in the Telugu language. He holds the
recognition of its musical heritage, (a) Assam (b) Goa titles Kavisekhara and Abyudaya Kavitha
Chennai was included in the UNESCO (c) Nagaland (d) Tami Nadu Pithamahudu. In 1910, Rao scripted the
Creative Cities Network in 2017. widely known Telugu patriotic song
Sol.721.(c) Nagaland. The Hekialeu song "Desamunu Preminchumanna".
Q.718. Folk songs in _________ are called
is known as the war song of Nagaland.
Raganis. Q.725. Which folk music of Jammu and
This is because the aged people of
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift) Kashmir is sung in wedding ceremonies?
Nagaland narrate their achievements in
(a) Haryana (b) Uttar Pradesh SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(a) Alha (b) Wanawun SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) The Lucknow Gharana focuses on
(c) Panihari (d) Baul (a) You are my destiny (b) The Oracle expressiveness and grace, the Jaipur
(c) Infinity Love (d) Ekam Satyam Gharana is known for its strong footwork,
Sol.725.(b) Wanawun. It is usually and the Banaras Gharana combines
performed by women, who sing and Sol.729.(d) Ekam Satyam. A.R. Rahman elements of both.
dance together, accompanied by collaborated with Michael Jackson on
traditional instruments like the tarang (a the song "Ekam Satyam" (also known as Q.733. Ohira folk music is primarily
type of drum) and the tumbaknari (a "The One Truth"), which was recorded in associated with one of the popular
single-headed drum). Other folk music: 1999. Michael Jackson ("King of Pop") festivals of which of the following
Alha - Uttar Pradesh and Madhya was an American singer, songwriter, states?
Pradesh. Panihari - Rajasthan. Baul - dancer, and record producer. SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift)
West Bengal. (a) Jharkhand (b) Karnataka
Q.730. Who composed the music of the (c) Assam (d) Kerala
Q.726. Under which Gharana do the patriotic song ‘Maa Tujhe Salaam’ ?
composition of the blend of Khayal and SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) Sol.733.(a) Jharkhand. Ohira folk song is
Dhrupad-Dhamar styles come? (a) Anu Malik dedicated to animals. Folk Music in India:
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift) (b) Himesh Reshammiya Jharkhand - Domkach, Jhumar. Uttar
(a) Indore Gharana (b) Patiala Gharana (c) Shankar Mahadevan Pradesh - Rasiya Geet, Kajri, Qawwali.
(c) Agra Gharana (d) Gwalior Gharana (d) AR Rahman Maharashtra - Lavoni, Pavodas.
Sol.726.(c) Agra Gharana was founded Sol.730.(d) AR Rahman. Some Patriotic Q.734. Community tradition is related to
by Haji Sujan Khan. Agra was an songs and their Singers: ‘Aye mere watan which of the following music streams?
important part of Braj Bhumi, the land of ke logo’ (Lata Mangeshkar), ‘Yeh Desh SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift)
df
Shri Krishna, and home to Bhakti and Sufi Hai Veer Jawanon Ka’ (Mohammed Rafi), (a) Hindustani Classical Music
saints like Surdas and Raskhan. The ‘Bharat Ka Rahnewala Hoon’ (Mahendra (b) Karnataka Classical Music
_p
Gwalior Gharana, considered the oldest Kapoor), ‘Phir Bhi Dil Hai Hindustani’ (c) Hindustani Lokgeet
Khayal Gharana in Indian classical music, (Udit Narayan), ‘Aao Bachho Tumhe (d) Karnataka Lokgeet
was founded by Nathan Khan, and
Tansen was one of its earliest and most na
Dikhaye’ (Kavi Pradeep), ‘Nanha Munna
Rahi Hun’ (Shanti Mathur), ‘Ae Watan Sol.734.(a) Hindustani Classical Music
ap
famous vocalists. Tere Liye (Mohammad Aziz & Kavita is traditionally passed down through oral
Krishnamurthy)’, ‘Teri Mitti’ (B Praak), traditions in a teacher-student
:@
Q.727. In classical Carnatic music, ‘Sandese Aate Hai’ (Sonu Nigam & Roop (guru-shishya) relationship within
tempo is called as ________. Kumar Rathod). Gharanas (musical schools), which
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift) preserve unique styles and reflect
TG
(a) padam (b) gita (c) laya (d) achala Q.731. In which of the following states community traditions across different
are the Pai songs accompanied by the regions.
Sol.727.(c) laya. Carnatic music Saria dance sung during the rain
on
originated in South India whereas festivals? Q.735. Which folk music is a mix of
Hindustani music originated in North SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) Indian and western music and is popular
India. Different forms of Carnatic Music: in Goa?
ch
(a) Tripura (b) Uttar Pradesh
Gitam (simple composition), Swarajathi (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Sikkim SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)
(devotional or heroic), Varnam (unique to (a) Mando (b) Pai songs
ar
Carnatic music), Kirtanam (focused on Sol.731.(c) Madhya Pradesh. Pai song is (c) Pawada (d) Maand
Se
devotion), and Kriti (an evolved form of sung to pray for a good monsoon and a
Kirtanam). good harvest. The Saira dance is Sol.735.(a) Mando. It is a beautiful
performed by members of the peasant dance performance and represents the
Q.728. In Hindustani classical music, community to seek the blessings of Lord meeting point of Indian and western
according to Vishnu Narayana Indra (rain god) for a good harvest. Other traditions. Other fairs and festivals of
Bhatkhande, how many thaats are the festivals of Madhya Pradesh: Lokrang Goa include: Fatorpa Zatra, Shigmo
origins of ragas? Festival, Akhil Bharatiya Kalidas Festival, Shirgao Jatra, Sao Joao Festival,
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift) Samaroh, Lokranjan or Khajuraho Sangodd, Chikalkalo, and Tripurari
(a) 72 (b) 52 (c) 10 (d) 20 Festival, Bhagoria Haat Festival, Nagaji Poornima. Marwar Festival (originally
Fair, and Chethiyagiri Vihara Festival. known as the Maand Festival) is
Sol.728.(c) 10. These 10 thaats are: celebrated in memory of the heroes of
Bilawal, Khamaj, Kafi, Asavari, Bhairav, Q.732. The music of traditional Rajasthan.
Bhairavi, Todi, Purvi, Marwa, Yaman. _________consists of thumri and other
Each thaat has a specific arrangement of lyrical song forms. Q.736. Who has written the patriotic
whole and half steps, and ragas are SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift) song ‘Sandese Aate Hai’?
derived from these thaats by using (a) Kathakali (b) Sattriya SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)
different combinations of notes, (c) Kathak (d) Kuchipudi (a) Irshad Kamil (b) Javed Akhtar
ornamentations, and emotional (c) Gulzar (d) Sameer Anjan
expressions. Sol.732.(c) Kathak. The word "Kathak" is
derived from "Katha," meaning story. Sol.736.(b) Javed Akhtar. His other
Q.729. Which of the following songs did Kathak has three main schools or songs - Kandho Se Milte Hain Kandhe
AR Rahman record with Michael gharanas-Lucknow, Jaipur, and (Lakshya); Ye Jo Des Hai Tera
Jackson? Banaras-each with its unique emphasis. (Swadesh). His awards: Padma Bhushan
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(2007), Padma Shri (1999). Some (c) Classical (d) Hindustani basic seven notes. The exposition
patriotic songs and writers: Sare Jahan preceding the composed verses is called
Se Acha Hindustan Hamara- Muhammad Sol.740.(a) Karnataka. It is based on the alap. The major vocal forms associated
Iqbal, Aye Mere Watan Ke Logo - Kavi Sanskrit term Karnataka Sangitam, with Hindustani classical music are the
Pradeep, Aye Watan Watan Mere Abaad meaning “traditional” or “codified” music. khayal, dhrupad, dhammar, Tarana and
Rahe Tu - Gulzar, I Love My India - Gitam: Simple, melodious composition in thumri.
Anand Bakshi, Teri mitti - Manoj raga. Suladi: Talamalika with sections in
different talas. Jatisavaram: Focuses on Q.744. What is 'Padam' in Carnatic
Muntashir.
rhythmical excellence and Jati patterns. Music?
Q.737. Which of the following is NOT a Purandara Dasa (1484-1564) is known as SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift)
part of Carnatic music ? the father of Carnatic music. He was a (a) A love poem
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) poet, composer, and mystic from (b) A poem about courage
(a) Varnam (b) Dhrupad Vijayanagar. He's also known as (c) A patriotic poem
(c) Charana (d) Pallavi Karnataka Sangeetha Pitamaha. (d) A lullaby
Sol.737.(b) Dhrupad is a genre in Q.741. Which statement about Classical Sol.744.(a) A love poem. A type of lyrical
Hindustani classical music (HCM). Other Carnatic Music is correct? composition that often deals with
vocal forms associated with HCM: SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) themes of love, devotion, or emotions. It
Khayal, Ghazal, Dhammar, Tarana and (a) The compositions are either in is known for its expressive and emotive
Thumri. Main traditional forms of Telugu, Kannada, Tamil or Sanskrit. qualities. Some key terminologies: raga,
Carnatic music: Alapana, Niraval, Pallavi, (b) The compositions are either in tala, krithi, varnam, pallavi, anupallavi,
Ragam, Kalpnaswaram, Thana. Marathi, Odia, Konkani or Bengali. charanam, alapana, javali, tillana,
(c) The compositions are either in swaram.
df
Q.738. 'Pankhida' songs are sung by Telugu, Malayalam, Hindi or Sanskrit.
peasants of _____ while working on the Q.745. Which statement about Syama
_p
(d) The compositions are either in
fields. Sastri is correct?
Malayalam, Marathi, Tamil or Bengali.
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift) SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift)
na
(a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh Sol.741.(a) Carnatic music in the South (a) His famous composition is
(c) Rajasthan (d) Odisha Indian languages, is a system of music Pancharatna Kritis.
ap
commonly associated with South India, (b) His signature name was Guruguha.
Sol.738.(c) Rajasthan. 'Pankhida' songs (c) A crater on planet mercury is named
including the modern Indian states of
:@
are an integral part of Rajasthani folk after him.
Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil
culture and are typically sung during (d) He is one among the trinity of
Nadu and portions of east and south
agricultural activities like sowing, Carnatic Music.
Telangana and southern Odisha. Some
TG
harvesting, and threshing. The peasants
Carnatic Singers: Dr. Nithyashree
sing and speak while playing algoza and Sol.745.(d) The Trinity of Carnatic Music
Mahadevan, Sudha Raghunathan, K J
manjira. Indian folk music - Bhavageethe are also known as the three Jewels of
Yesudas, P Unni Krishnan, M
on
(Karnataka and Maharashtra), Bhangra Carnatic Music. They are credited with
Balamuralikrishna, Semmangudi
and Giddha (Punjab), Lavani creating a new era in Carnatic music
Srinivasa Iyer, Bombay Jayashri, Aruna
(Maharashtra), Alha (Madhya Pradesh) history by bringing about a noticeable
ch
Sairam.
and Panihari, Pankhida and Maand change in the existing tradition.
(Rajasthan). Tyagaraja: A Telugu composer known for
ar
Q.742. Which of the following is a style
of Carnatic music? his Pancharatna Kritis. Muthuswami
Q.739. ___________ is a musical
Se
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) Dikshitar: A Sanskrit and Manipravalam
composition that expresses devotion
(a) Dhamar (b) Chaturang composer. Syama Sastri: A Telugu and
through madhura bhakti.
(c) Svarajati (d) Dhrupad Sanskrit composer.
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) Tillana (b) Gita (c) Padam (d) Kriti Sol.742.(c) Svarajati. It consists of three Q.746. With which Gharana is the
sections, called Pallavi, Anupallavi and famous Tarana singer Pandit Rattan
Sol.739.(c) Padam. A musical
Charanam. The theme is either Mohan Sharma associated ?
composition can refer to an original
devotional, heroic or amorous. Dhrupad, SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
piece, its structure, or the process of
Khayal, Tappa, Chaturanga, Tarana, (a) Patiala Gharana (b) Agra Gharana
creating it. Tillana is a rhythmic Carnatic
Sargam, Thumri and Ragasagar, Hori and (c) Talwandi Gharana (d) Mewati Gharana
piece performed at the end of concerts,
focusing on rhythm and tempo. Gita is a Dhamar are ten main styles of singing in
Sol.746.(d) Mewati Gharana. Rattan
hymn, often from texts like the Bhagavad Hindustani music.
Mohan Sharma is an Indian classical
Gita. Kriti, another Carnatic composition, Q.743. Which of the following is called vocalist. He has received several awards
expresses various emotions, not limited the cyclic arrangement of time units in but the closest to his heart is the title of
to devotion. Hindustani Classical music? “Badshah-e-Tarana”. His trendsetting
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) albums - “Gayatri Mantra”. Music
Q.740. Which of the following types of
(a) Tala (b) Raga (c) Jati (d) Alap Gharana and founder: Gwalior - Nanthan
music is confined to the states of
Khan, Agra - Hajisujan Khan, Rangeela -
Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu Sol.743.(a) Tala. Jati is the classification
Faiyyaz Khan, Jaipur Atrauli - Alladiya
and Kerala? of a Raag based on the number of notes
Khan, Kirana - Abdul Wahid Khan.
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) employed in its Aaroh and Avroh. The
(a) Karnataka (b) Regional Raga is a melodic scale composed of Q.747. How many basic talams are there
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
in Indian Classical Carnatic music? Vani? Kathak under the patronage of Wajid Ali
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift) SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift) Shah, the last Nawab of Awadh, who
(a) 7 (b) 11 (c) 37 (d) 21 (a) Dagari Gharana helped establish the Lucknow Gharana,
(b) Bettiah Gharana known for its emphasis on bhava
Sol.747.(a) 7 talas in Carnatic music: (c) Talwandi Gharana (expression). Exponents of Lucknow
Dhruva, Matya, Jampa, Ata, Triputa, (d) Darbhanga Gharana Gharana:- Lachhu Maharaj, Shambhu
Rupaka, Eka. Carnatic Music: Composed Maharaj, Maya Rao, Damayanti Joshi,
of a system of Ragam (Raga) and Sol.751.(d) Darbhanga Gharana. It Birju Maharaj etc.
Thalam (Tala), it has a rich history and originated in Darbhanga, Bihar in the
tradition. It developed in states of Tamil 17th-century. It is a gharana of the Q.755. Who wrote the patriotic song
Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh and Hindustani classical music dhrupad ‘Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan
Karnataka. thought to have been started by Hamara’ that was published in the weekly
Radhakrishna and Kartaram. Gauhar vani journal Ittehad on 16 August 1904?
Q.748. Folk music sung on the birth of a developed the raga or unadorned SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
child in some Indian states like Bihar, melodic figures. The Dagarvani (a) Muhammad Iqbal
Uttar Pradesh, etc. is called _____. emphasized melodic curves and graces. (b) Chandrasekhar Azad
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift) The Khandar vani specialised in quick (c) Rabindranath Tagore
(a) kohbar (b) banna (c) sohar (d) gari ornamentation of the notes. (d) Sardar Bhagat Singh
Sol.748.(c) Sohar. Kohbar: It is painted Q.752. To which Hindustani music Sol.755.(a) Muhammad Iqbal (Allama
on the wall of the bride and groom's Gharana are the Gundecha brothers Iqbal) is the National Poet of Pakistan.
room as a decoration for performing the related? Iconic figures and their famous quotes:
puja ritual. It is the oldest example of SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift) Bhagat Singh - “Inquilab Zindabad”.
df
wall painting tradition in Bihar, Jharkhand (a) Patiala Gharana (b) Agra Gharana Subhash Chandra Bose - “Jai Hind”, “Tum
and Eastern Uttar Pradesh. States and
_p
(c) Dagari Gharana (d) Indore Gharana Mujhe Khoon Do, Mai Tumhe Azadi
their folk music: Bihar- Bidesia, Kajari, Dunga”. Mahatma Gandhi - “Karo ya
and Sukar ki Biah. Uttar Pradesh- Birha, Sol.752.(c) Dagari Gharana. Umakant
na
Maro”. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee -
Nauka Jhakkad, Kajri, Rasiya etc. and Ramakant Gundecha are together “Vande Mataram”. Pandit Madan Mohan
known as the Gundecha Brothers. They
ap
Q.749. What is Miyan ki Todi in Malviya - “Satyameva Jayate”.
received the Sangeet natak academy
Hindustani music ? award in 2017. Hindustani Music Q.756. 'The forty minutes raga’ is an
:@
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift) Gharanas and founders: Gwalior album composed by _________ .
(a) Kirtan (b) Tanam (c) Chhand (d) Raag (Nanthan Khan); Agra (Hajisujan Khan); SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Rangeela (Faiyyaz Khan); Jaipur Atrauli (a) Bhimsen Joshi
TG
Sol.749.(d) Raag. Miyan ki Todi, often
simply referred to as Todi or Darbari Todi (Alladiya Khan); Kirana (Abdul Wahid (b) Hariprasad Chaurasia
is a Hindustani classical raga which gave Khan). (c) Ali Akbar Khan
(d) Amjad Ali Khan
on
its name to the Todi thaat, one of the ten Q.753. In the Hindustani music system,
types of classical music according to the the ________ are allotted to different Sol.756.(c) Ali Akbar Khan (Sarod
musicologist Bhatkhande.
ch
hours of the day and different seasons. player). He was an Indian Hindustani
Ragas from the Todi raganga (class of SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift) classical musician of the Maihar
ragas) include Bilaskhani Todi, Gujari
ar
(a) ragas (b) gita (c) varnas (d) srutis gharana. His other Album name : Garden
Todi (also called Gurjari Todi), Desi Todi, of Dreams, In Concert 1972, The 80
Se
Hussaini Todi, Asavari Todi and Bahaduri Sol.753.(a) ragas. Its schedules: Four Minute Raga, Shree Rag. His awards :
Todi. praharas (periods) in the first half of the Padma Vibhushan (1989), Padma
day and four in the second half. Srutis Bhushan (1967). Other Indian sarod
Q.750. The famous folk music of divide the frequencies in an octave into
Rajasthan that was developed in royal players : Amjad Ali Khan, Amaan Ali
22 distinct parts. Varnam is a musical Khan, Satyaki Banerjee.
courts is known as: form in Carnatic music. In Hindustani
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift) music, there are various singing styles, Q.757. Who is the author of the poetry
(a) Maand (b) Lavani including Dhrupad, Tappa, Chaturang, 'Chand Pukhraj Ka'?
(c) Sohar (d) Dandiya Ragasagar, Dhamar, Hori, Khayal, Tarana, Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Sol.750.(a) Maand. It is similar to the Sargam, and Thumri. (a) Anand Bakshi (b) Gulzar
thumri and the ghazal. Folk music and (c) Gurmel Singh (d) Shailendra
Q.754. The Lucknow Gharana which
dance styles of Rajasthan: Ghoomar, came into existence in the time of Wajid Sol.757.(b) Gulzar. His awards :
Bhavai, Kachhi Ghodi, Kalbelia, Kathputli. Ali Shah was developed by who among Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 2013;
Other folk dance: Lavani is a folk dance the following? Padma Bhushan in 2004; Sahitya
and music genre that originated in SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift) Akademi Award for Urdu in 2002. His
Maharashtra. Sohar is sung during (a) Ustad Bakhtawar Khan other Poems - Triveni, Raat Pashmine Ki,
Childbirth in Bihar. Dandiya (Dandiya (b) Pandit Kalka Prasad Suspected Poems. Anand Bakshi -
Raas) performed during the Navaratri (c) Pandit Thakur Prasad Nagme, Kisse, Baatein, Yaadein. Gurmel
festival in Gujarat. (d) Pandit Bindawar Prasad Singh - Economic Liberalisation and
Q.751. In which Gharana do singers Indian Agriculture. Shailendra - Na Bairi
Sol.754.(c) Pandit Thakur Prasad. The Na Koi Begana.
perform the Khandhar Vani and Gauhar
19th century saw the golden age of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.758. Who was the singer of the life - sustaining character of the (Maharashtra), Bhavgeet (Karnataka),
famous song 'Mere Desh Ki Dharti Sona Brahmaputra. Bhuta song of Kerala is Nattupura Pattu (Tamil Nadu), Zeliang
Ugle' from the film 'Upkar' (1967) ? based on superstitions to send away evil (Nagaland), Maand (Rajasthan), Kajari
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift) ghosts and spirits. (Uttar Pradesh, Bihar), Baryi (Arunachal
(a) KJ Yesudas (b) Suresh Wadkar Pradesh).
(c) Manna Dey (d) Mahendra Kapoor Q.763. Qawwali was brought in India
from _____. Q.768. Owi, a typical folk song which is
Sol.758.(d) Mahendra Kapoor (Indian SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift) made up of couplets describing women’s
playback singer) received Padma Shri (a) Turkey (b) Mongolia maternal and marital homes and is sung
(1972). Famous Patriotic songs: "Hai (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Persia by village womenfolk while performing
preet jahan ki reet sada, main geet routine chores throughout the day,
wahan ke gata hoon" (Mahendra Kapoor), Sol.763.(d) Persia. Qawwali is religious belongs to which state?
“Des rangila" (Mahalakshmi Iyer), "Maa Sufi music that celebrates devotion and SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Afternoon)
tujhe salam" (AR Rahman), "Kar chale one's relationship with God. Amir (a) Mizoram (b) Goa
hum fida jaan-o-tan saathiyon” Khusrau is the popularly acknowledged (c) Assam (d) Maharashtra
(Mohammed Rafi), "Aye mere pyare father of Qawwali. Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan
watan, aye mere bichchde chaman, recognised as "Shahenshah-e-Qawwali". Sol.768.(d) Maharashtra.
tujhpe dil qurban" (Manna Dey). Q.764. Which of the following pairs of Q.769. Which of the following is a form
Q.759. Rabindra Sangeet is associated Thumri Singing-characteristics is correct ? of devotional poetry sung in praise of
with: I. Poorab - fairly slow and staid God Vithoba?
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift) II. Punjab - more mercurial SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Evening)
(a) Rabi (b) Ravindra Jain SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) (a) Shabad (b) Abhang
df
(c) Rabindranath Tagore (d) Ravi Shankar (a) Only I (b) Both I and II (c) Tevaram (d) Bhatiali
(c) Only II (d) Neither I nor II
_p
Sol.759.(c) Rabindranath Tagore. Sol.769.(b) Abhangs are sung during the
Rabindra Sangeet is a set of folk songs Sol.764.(b) Both (I) and (II). The thumri pilgrimage to the temples of Pandharpur,
na
sung during festivals and rituals in West is another North Indian vocal form and is by the devotees. Tevaram - The Ancient
Bengal. Folk songs in West Bengal : based on the romantic-devotional Tamil Shaivite Devotional Hymns of
ap
Bhatiali, baul. literature inspired by the bhakti Tamil Sangam Period. Shabads are
movement. The text is usually derived devotional songs of the Sikhs sung in
:@
Q.760.Who is credited with creating the from the Radha-Krishna theme and is of gurdwaras or religious occasions.
popular Raga Miya Ki Malhar? primary importance.
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift) Q.770. Bhalari is one of the popular folk
TG
(a) Tansen (b) Amir Khusrau Q.765. ______ is a vocal form of music songs of ______, sung by farmers while
(c) Meera Bai (d) Zakir Hussain from the state of Punjab. working in their fields.
SSC CGL 13/04/2022(Morning) SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Evening)
on
Sol.760.(a) Tansen. Compositions - (a) Qawwali (b) Ghazal (a) Rajasthan (b) Maharashtra
Darbari Kanhra (night raga), Mian Ki Todi (c) Tappa (d) Bhajan (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Bihar
(morning raga), Mian ki Sarang (mid-day
ch
raga). Miya ki Malhar (seasonal raga). Sol.765.(c) Tappa. The ghazal is a form Sol.770.(b) Maharashtra.
of amatory poem or ode, originating in
ar
Q.761. Carnatic music is confined to____. Arabic poetry. Bhajan refers to any Q.771. Padavali Kirtan refers to songs
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift) devotional song with a religious theme or composed in the medieval period of
Se
(a) Karnataka, Maharashtra, Gujarat and spiritual ideas, specifically among Indian West Bengal (15th to 17th century) in
Rajasthan religions, in any language. praise of ______.
(b) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Morning)
Haryana Q.766. Lalita is a form of folk music from (a) Shakti (b) Vishnu
(c) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and ______. (c) Shiva (d) Brahma
Haryana SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Rajasthan Sol.771.(b) Vishnu. The term padavali
(d) Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil
(c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat literally means "gathering of songs".
Nadu and Kerala
Q.772. A Shadava Raga has only ______
Sol.761.(d) Carnatic Music : It is Sol.766.(c) Maharashtra. Famous folk
notes in its scale.
accompanied by instruments such as the music of Maharashtra are Bhajan,
SSC CHSL 05/08/2021 (Afternoon)
flute, veena, nadaswaram, mridangam Bharud, Gondhal, Kirtan, Lalita, Abhangas
(a) seven (b) eight (c) five (d) six
and ghatam. Purandaradasa is and Tumbadi singing.
considered to be the father of Carnatic Sol.772.(d) Six. There are around 83
Q.767. Which of the following is a folk
music. ragas in Indian classical music.
song genre popular in parts of West
Q.762. The most distinctive type of folk Bengal, Assam and Bangladesh?
songs of Assam are ________. SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Evening) Painting/ Dress/ Tribes
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift) (a) Chalo (b) Roppi
(a) Qawwali songs (b) Bihu songs (c) Bhawaiya (d) Rekham Pada Q.773. Elelakkaradi dance of Kerala is
(c) Teej songs (d) Bhuta songs performed by which of the following
Sol.767.(c) Bhawaiya. Chalo (folk song tribes?
Sol.762.(b) Bihu songs. It celebrates the of Haryana). Baul (Bengal), Lavani SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(a) Irular tribe (b) Kurumba tribe Uttarayan (Gujarat), Maghi (Punjab), family ?
(c) Adiyan tribe (d) Mavilan tribe Magha Saaji (Himachal Pradesh), Khichdi SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Morning)
(Uttar Pradesh), Pongal (Tamil Nadu). (a) Garo (b) Gondi (c) Korwa (d) Bhil
Sol.773.(a) Irular tribe. Elelakkaradi : The
dance resembles the fight of the people Q.778. With the arrival of spring, _______ Sol.782.(d) Bhil. They are considered as
against the wild bears which often attack villages dance to the melodious singing one of the oldest tribes in India. They
their tribal hamlets. of 'Bagurumba'. were mainly found in parts of Rajasthan,
SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Gujarat, Malwa, Madhya Pradesh and
Q.774. Which country do the ‘Veddas’
(a) Bodo (b) Khasi (c) Garo (d) Karbi Bihar. Pahari Korwa is mainly
traditional forest dwellers who foraged,
concentrated in Jashpur, Sarguja and
hunted and lived in close-knit groups in Sol.778.(a) Bodo. Other tribes and their Raigarh districts of Chhattisgarh. They
caves in the dense jungles? dances : Khasi - Nongkrem dance. Garo - are a branch of the Kolarian tribe and
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) Wangala dance. Karbi - Domahi Kikang speak Mundari language.
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Nepal dance.
(c) Myanmar (d) Bhutan Q.783. Warli Painting is the folk painting
Q.779. Santhal community is an ethnic of state of India.
Sol.774.(a) Sri Lanka. Some tribes from group of ________ India.
different countries : Nepal - Tamang, SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift)
SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Morning)
Newar, Tharu, Rai, Limbu, and Bhutia. (a) Manipur (b) Mizoram
(a) eastern (b) northern
Myanmar - Burmese, Rakhine, Kachin, (c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra
(c) southern (d) western
Danu, Lisu. Bhutan - Monpa, Brokpa,
Sol.783.(d) Maharashtra. Warli painting
Bumthangpa, Tibetans. Pakistan - Sol.779. (a) Eastern. Santhal community
is a form of tribal art mostly created by
Pashtuns, Sindhis, Muhajirs. is primarily found in the states of
the tribal people from the North Sahyadri
df
Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha, and
Q.775. In which state is the Raika tribe Range in Maharashtra. Other folk
Bihar. Tribes in five distinct regions are :
_p
found? paintings - Bihar (Madhubani Paintings),
Himalayan region (Gaddi, the Jaunsari,
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) Odisha (Pattachitra Art), Gujarat (Pithora
the Naga, etc.), Middle India (Munda, the
na
(a) Kerala (b) Manipur Painting), Andhra Pradesh (Kalamkari
Santhal), Western India (Bhil, the Grasia),
(c) West Bengal (d) Rajasthan Paintings), West Bengal (Kalighat Pat
South Indian Region (Toda, the Chenchu)
ap
Art), Miniature Painting (Rajasthan),
and the Islands Region (with tribes like
Sol.775.(d) Rajasthan. The Raika tribe is Tanjore Painting (Tamil Nadu), Gond
the Onge in Bay of Bengal). Highest
renowned for herding animals,
:@
Painting (Madhya Pradesh), Phad
Scheduled Tribes Populated state -
particularly camels, sheep, and goats. (Rajasthan), Cheriyal Scrolls (Telangana).
Madhya Pradesh.
Other tribes of Rajasthan: Minas, Damor,
Q.784. Madhubani style of painting
TG
Dhanka, Garasia, Kathodi etc. Q.780. Garo tribe is related with which
originated in the state of ________
region of India?
Q.776. Which of the following tribes does SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon)
NOT live in India? (a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka
on
(a) Western (b) South
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) (c) Bihar (d) Rajasthan
(c) North-eastern (d) South-western
(a) Maasai (b) Tharu (c) Gond (d) Santhal
Sol.784.(c) Bihar. Madhubani paintings
ch
Sol.780.(c) North-eastern. Tribes of
Sol.776.(a) Maasai. The Maasai are a (Mithila Art): features - Made by using
Meghalaya: Garo, Khasi, Jaintia. Region
semi-nomadic ethnic group living in natural extract like powdered rice and
ar
wise Tribes of India : Western region -
southern Kenya and northern Tanzania, paint using fingers, bamboo twigs, cotton
Bhil, Gond, and Koli; South region - Toda,
Se
near the shores of Lake Victoria and rags. Other famous paintings: Gujarat -
Kurumba, and Irula; Eastern region -
other African Great Lakes." Region wise Rabari Embroidery, Pithora Paintings;
Munda, Santhal, and Oraon; Central
Tribes of India : Western region - Bhil, Karnataka - Mysore painting; Rajasthan -
region - Baiga, Muria, Gonds.
Gond, and Koli; South region - Toda, Phad Paintings.
Kurumba, and Irula; Eastern region - Q.781. Which of the following is NOT a
Q.785. Thangka painting style depicts
Munda, Santhal, and Oraon; Central major tribe of South India?
_________ deity.
region - Baiga, Muria, Gonds. SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon)
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (4th Shift)
(a) Dang (b) Toda (c) Badaga (d) Irula
Q.777. Manipur's ____________ tribe (a) Islamic (b) Buddhist
celebrates the 'Gaan-Ngai' festival, which Sol.781.(a) Dang (Gujarat). Major tribes:- (c) Jewish (d) Hindu
is a post-harvest festival of the tribe Tamil Nadu - Irulas, Badagas, Todas,
Sol.785.(b) Buddhist. Thangka Painting
living in the regions of Manipur. Kotas, Kurumbas; Andhra Pradesh
is a Tibetan Buddhist Painting painted on
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) -Gadaba, Andh, Sadhu Andh, Thoti;
cotton and silk cloths. Kalighat Painting -
(a) Chothe (b) Zeliangrong Arunachal Pradesh - Apatanis, abor,
Calcutta.
(c) Inpui (d) Gangte Dafla, Galong, Momba, Tagin; Assam -
Bodo, Chakma, Dimasa, Hajong, Garos, Q.786. In which of the following states is
Sol.777.(b) Zeliangrong. Gaan-Ngai is
Khasis. Major facts: The Gond and Bhil Bhiti Chitra (fresco painting) a popular
celebrated by the Zeliangrong tribe of
comprise the largest tribal group of India. art form?
Manipur, Nagaland, and Assam. The
The smallest tribal community is the SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Morning)
festival usually falls in December or
Andamanese. (a) Karnataka (b) Nagaland
January and is a time of feasting,
(c) Haryana (d) Maharashtra
dancing, and merry-making. Some Q.782. Which of the following tribes
harvest festivals celebrated in India: belongs to the Indo - European Linguistic
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.786.(c) Haryana. Mata Mansa Devi Q.792. 'Eravalla, Kadar, Muduvar' are Apatani and Bokar fall under the Tani
Temple, Kalayat Kapil Muni Temple, and languages spoken by the tribes primarily dialect which is a type of Tibeto-Burman
Havelis at Bhiwani possess illustrious in the state of ______. Language and is widely spoken in
examples of such paintings. SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Morning) Arunachal Pradesh.
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala
Q.787. The ‘Paitkar’ paintings are unique (c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra Q.797. ______ is one of the important
cultural symbols of ______. crafts of Uttar Pradesh which entails
SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Morning) Sol.792.(a) Tamil Nadu - is also home to delicate traditional hand embroidery on
(a) Jharkhand (b) Chhattisgarh tribal languages such as Irula, Kurumba, fabrics like chiffon, muslin, organza,
(c) Telangana (d) Karnataka Badaga, Yerukala, Sholaga, Kanikaran, organdie and silk.
Malsar, Malapandaram, Wayanad Chetti, SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Evening)
Sol.787.(a) Jharkhand. Paitkar painting Muthuvan, Toda, and Kota. (a) Knitting (b) Crochet
is a folk painting found in East India in (c) Chikankari (d) Needle lace
the form of scrolls. The Paitkar painting Q.793. Where in India can we find the
occurs in the bordering areas of Jarawa and the Onge tribes? Sol.797.(c) Chikankari. Chikan in literal
Jharkhand, West Bengal and Orissa and SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Morning) sense means embroidery. This art form
is considered as the oldest tribal painting (a) Daman and Diu is known to be introduced by Mughals.
of India. (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Chhattisgarh Q.798. Mekhela Chador' is a traditional
Q.788. To which of the following states (d) Arunachal Pradesh dress from the state of:
do 'Kajali Paintings', in which no brush is SSC CHSL 17/03/2020 (Morning)
used, traditionally belong ? Sol.793.(b) Tribes of Andaman and (a) Tripura (b) Odisha
SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Afternoon) Nicobar Islands : Onges, Jarwas, (c) West Bengal (d) Assam
df
(a) Jharkhand (b) Tamil Nadu Shompen, and Sentinelese.
(c) Kerala (d) Rajasthan Sol.798.(d) Assam.
_p
Q.794. 'Bauche' is a traditional
Sol.788.(d) Rajasthan. Kajali paintings bridegroom’s sword worn during a tribal Q.799. Pablo Picasso, Claude Monet,
na
are made from black kajal and stone wedding ceremony in: Salvador Dali, Vincent Van Gogh were
colors, and require extensive hard work SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Evening) famous for their______.
ap
and expert hands. (a) Andhra Pradesh SSC CHSL 18/03/2020 (Evening)
(b) Uttar Pradesh (a) artwork (b) western music
:@
Q.789. Which one of the following is a (c) Madhya Pradesh (c) social work (d) ballet performances
ritual folk art traditional to the state of (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Kerala? Sol.799.(a) Artwork.
TG
SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Evening) Sol.794.(d) Arunachal Pradesh.
Q.803. Chenchus schedule tribe belongs
(a) Margomkali (b) Manjari Traditional dresses : Mekhela Chador
to which state of India?
(c) Phad (d) Pithora (Assam), Pheran (Jammu and Kashmir),
SSC CHSL 19/03/2020 (Morning)
on
Mundum Neriyathum (Kerala), Ghagra
Sol.789.(a) Margomkali is a ritual folk art (a) West Bengal (b) Kerala
Choli (Haryana), Chaniyo Choli (Gujarat),
of the Syrian Christians of Kottayam and (c) Nagaland (d) Telangana
Nauwari Saddi or Lugda (Maharashtra),
ch
Thrissur districts. Nauvari (Goa), Jiasen or Dhara Sol.800.(d) Telangana. Chenchus are
(Meghalaya), Risa and Rikutu- (Tripura). Adivasi, a designated Scheduled Tribe in
ar
Q.790. Which goats' underfur is woven
into fine shawls called Pashmina Q.795. Which of the following pairs is the Indian states of Andhra Pradesh,
Se
shawls? INCORRECT with reference to paintings Telangana, Karnataka and Odisha.
SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Evening) in India? Q.801. Prolific Indian Painter Maqbool
(a) Kashmiri goat (b) Jamnapari goat SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Morning) Fida Hussain predominantly used which
(c) Alpine goat (d) Boer goat (a) Saura Paintings – Odisha of these animals to depict a lively and
(b) Bagh Paintings – Madhya Pradesh free spirit in his paintings?
Sol.790.(a) Kashmiri goat. The
(c) Phad Paintings – Rajasthan SSC CGL 03/03/2020 (Morning)
Changthangi goat of Ladakh which
(d) Guler Paintings – Karnataka (a) Tigers (b) Cows
produces the finest fibre or cashmere
also called pashmina wool. The best Sol.795.(d) Guler State is famous as the (c) Elephants (d) Horses
quality pashmina shawls are found in birthplace of Kangra painting in the first
Sol.801.(d) Horses. Maqbool Fida
Kashmir. half of the 18th century when a family of
Hussain was awarded Padma Shri in
Kashmiri painters trained in Mughal
Q.791. ‘Jadopatiya’ is a form of ______ 1966, Padma Bhushan in 1973 and
painting sought shelter at the court of
popular in the state of Jharkhand. Padma Vibhushan in 1991. His Paintings
Raja Dalip Singh. It is famous in
SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Evening) :- Mother Teresa, Madhuri Dixit, Hindu
Himachal Pradesh.
(a) music (b) dance Deities, Battle of Ganga and Jamuna,
(c) painting (d) sculpture Q.796. Languages like Nyishi, Apatani Krishna, Bharat Mata.
and Bokar are widely spoken in ______.
Sol.791.(c) Painting. These paintings are Q.802. The process of coating grooves
SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Evening)
generally practiced by the Santhals in or engravings in ornaments with
(a) Mizoram (b) Arunachal Pradesh
which the artisans make scrolls called coloured enamels is called________.
(c) Nagaland (d) Assam
Jado or Jadopatia and are drawn with SSC CGL 03/03/2020 (Evening)
natural inks and colors. Sol.796.(b) Arunachal Pradesh. Nyishi, (a) Phulkari (b) Zardozi
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(c) Meenakari (d) Chikankari Sol.806.(b) S Vijayalakshmi. She is an Q.811. India's first indigenous Aircraft
Indian chess player holding the FIDE Carrier, _____, conducted its maiden sea
Sol.802.(c) Meenakari designing titles of International Master (IM) and travel in August 2021 marking a
basically refers to the process of coating Woman Grandmaster (WGM). Notable significant step towards making military
grooves or engravings in ornaments with Indian female chess players include equipment in India.
colored enamels. Koneru Humpy, Vaishali Rameshbabu, SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Q.803. Who wrote the play Harika Dronavalli, Eesha Karavade, Divya (a) INS Vayudooth (b) INS Swades
'Mricchakatika' (The Little Clay Cart), a Deshmukh, and Mary Ann Gomes. (c) INS Kranti (d) INS Vikrant
social drama with touches of grim Q.807. Who is the only Indian woman Sol.811.(d) INS Vikrant. It was designed
reality? who has been ranked world’s no.1 for and built by Cochin Shipyard Limited
SSC CGL 07/03/2020 (Afternoon) badminton? (CSL) Kochi, Kerala and launched into
(a) Raidasa (b) Magh SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) water in 2013.
(c) Kalidasa (d) Sudraka (a) Saina Nehwal (b) Rituparna Das
Q.812. Which of the following airports is
Sol.803.(d) Sudraka wrote three Sanskrit (c) Jwala Gutta (d) P V Sindhu
being built as India's first 'carbon-neutral
plays: Mricchakatika (The Little Clay Sol.807.(a) Saina Nehwal. Other Indian airport'?
Cart), Vinavasavadatta and a bhana Badminton Players: Kidambi Srikanth, SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(short one-act monologue), Prakash Padukone, Sai Praneeth, Pullela (a) Kangra airport (b) Leh airport
Padmaprabhritaka. Gopichand, Parupalli Kashyap, Ashwini (c) Jammu airport (d) Srinagar airport
Ponnappa, Satwiksairaj Rankireddy,
First in India/World Sol.812.(b) Leh airport. Carbon neutrality
Chirag Shetty. Major tournaments: BWF
means that the amount of carbon
World Championships, Thomas Cup,
df
released into the atmosphere is equal to
Q.804. Anna Chandy, the first Indian Uber Cup, Sudirman Cup.
the amount of carbon that is absorbed by
_p
woman to serve as a judge at a high
Q.808. Who was the first female Indian carbon sinks. Indira Gandhi International
court was appointed in which High
wrestler to win Gold at the Airport (IGIA) in Delhi is the first airport in
na
Court?
Commonwealth Games ? India to achieve net zero carbon
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) emission status. The Airports Authority
ap
(a) West Bengal (b) Kerala
(a) Babita Phogat (b) Alka Tomar of India (AAI) is a statutory body
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Geeta Phogat (d) Sakshi Malik constituted under the Airports Authority
:@
Sol.804.(b) Kerala. She was the first of India Act, 1994. Founded - 1 April
Sol.808.(c) Geeta Phogat. She achieved 1995. Headquarters - Rajiv Gandhi
female judge in India, the first woman to
this feat in the 55 kg freestyle category at Bhawan (New Delhi).
become a judge of a High Court. She
TG
the 2010 Commonwealth Games held in
became the founder and editor of the
Delhi, India. Babita Phogat secured silver Q.813. Who was the first Indian wrestler
journal (Shreemati) in which she
in 2010. She won her first to win a world championship medal?
supported women's rights. Justice Leila
on
Commonwealth Games gold in 2014. SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Seth was the first woman to be Chief
Sakshi Malik earned a bronze medal at (a) Udey Chand (b) Malwa Singh
Justice of a High Court. Fathima Beevi is
the 2016 Rio Olympics. (c) KD Jadhav (d) Dara Singh
ch
the first female judge of the Supreme
Court of India. Q.809. Who was the first Indian woman Sol.813.(a) Udey Chand. He was
ar
wrestler to win a medal at the Olympics ? awarded the first Arjuna Award in
Q.805. Ranjana Prakash Desai who
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift)
Se
wrestling in 1961. He secured a bronze in
became the first woman chairperson of
(a) Babita Phogat (b) Sakshi Malik the men’s freestyle 67 kg category at the
the Press Council of India originally
(c) Alka Tomar (d) Geeta Phogat 1961 world championships held in
worked in which of the following organs
Sol.809.(b) Sakshi Malik. She won the Yokohama, Japan. KD Jadhav became
of the government?
bronze medal in the 58 kg category at the India's first individual Olympic medallist
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
2016 Rio Olympics. In 2010, Geeta post independence.
(a) Legislature (b) Judiciary
(c) Vigilance (d) Executive Phogat became the first female Indian Q.814. Who was the chief guest at the
wrestler to win gold at the first Republic Day celebration of India in
Sol.805.(b) Judiciary. Ranjana Prakash
Commonwealth Games. 1950?
Desai was a retired Judge of the
Q.810. Who was the first Indian wrestler SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Supreme Court of India and the head of
to win Gold at the World Championships (a) Gamal Abdel Nasser
the Delimitation Commission of India.
in 2010? (b) Kwame Nkrumah
Press Council of India (PCI): It is a
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift) (c) Josip Broz Tito
statutory body created by the Press
(a) Geeta Phogat (b) Sushil Kumar (d) Sukarno
Council Act of 1978. It acts as an apex
body for regulation of the press in the (c) Alka Tomar (d) Bajrang Punia Sol.814.(d) Sukarno (Indonesian
country. President). Republic Day is a national
Sol.810.(b) Sushil Kumar. He made
Q.806. Which of the following is the first history in the 2010 World Wrestling holiday in India commemorating the
Indian woman Grandmaster in Chess ? Championships by winning the top spot adoption of the Constitution of India, and
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) in the men's freestyle 66kg category in the country's transition to a republic
(a) Harika Dronavalli (b) S Vijayalakshmi Moscow, Russia. He also won a silver which came into effect on 26 January
(c) Tania Sachdev (d) R Vaishali medal at the London Olympics in 2012. 1950. Between 1950 and 1954, Republic
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Day parades were held at Irwin Stadium SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) (Bengaluru), Rajiv Gandhi International
(now National Stadium), Kingsway, Red (a) Demetrius Vikelas Airport (Hyderabad). World's busiest
Fort and Ramlila Maidan. King Tribhuvan (b) Lord Killanin airport (in passenger terms) - Atlanta's
Bir Bikram Shah of Nepal - Second Chief (c) Pierre, Baron de Coubertin Hartsfield-Jackson international airport.
Guest of the Republic Day Parade in (d) Avery Brundage
1951. Q.822. Which of the following is India's
Sol.818.(a) Demetrius Vikelas. The first all-women-managed railway station?
Q.815. The first train steamed off from International Olympic Committee (IOC): SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Mumbai to ______. Founded: 23 June 1894, Headquarters: (a) Chennai Egmore Railway Station,
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Lausanne (Switzerland). The first Chennai
(a) Pune (b) Malad (c) Thane (d) Nagpur Olympic games were held on 6 April (b) Gandhinagar Railway Station, Jaipur
1896 in Athens. India first participated in (c) Trivandrum Central Railway Station,
Sol.815.(c) Thane. The first passenger
the Olympics in 1900 in Paris. Pierre de Thiruvananthapuram
train in India departed from Mumbai to
Coubertin (second president IOC). (d) Matunga Railway Station, Mumbai
Thane on April 16, 1853, covering a
distance of 34 kilometers. It was Q.819. When was the first World Sol.822.(b) Gandhinagar Railway
operated by three locomotives named Weightlifting Championship organized by Station, Jaipur. Matunga Railway Station,
Sahib, Sultan, and Sindh, under the Great the World Weightlifting Federation in Mumbai is also managed by all women
Indian Peninsula (GIP) Railway company. London, UK? crew in the sub-urban category. Surekha
The concept of laying a railway line SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) Yadav became the country's first female
between Mumbai and Thane, extending (a) March 1991 (b) March 1891 train driver in 1988, also Asia's first
to Kalyan and Bhor Ghat, was proposed (c) March 2000 (d) March 1895 female locomotive pilot.
by George Clark in 1843. Lord Dalhousie
df
is recognized as the father of Indian Sol.819.(b) March 1891 - Only Men’s Q.823. Who was appointed as the first
competition. The first World Weightlifting woman Vice-Chancellor of Jawaharlal
_p
Railways, while John Mathai was the first
railway minister of India. Championships for women took place in Nehru University (JNU), New Delhi ?
the United States in 1987. International SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (3rd shift)
na
Q.816. In which of the following cities Weightlifting Federation (IWF) founded in (a) Geeta Bhat (b) Jayati Ghosh
has India's first underwater train project 1905. Indian Weightlifting Federation (c) Utsa Patnaik (d) Santishree Pandit
ap
been launched ? formed in 1935.
SSCStenographer12/10/2023(Afternoon) Sol.823.(d) Santishree Pandit.
:@
(a) Patna (b) Kolkata Q.820. In which of the following years Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) was
(c) Allahabad (d) Haridwar was the first radio show broadcast in established - 1969 by an act of
India? parliament. G. Parthasarathy was the
TG
Sol.816.(b) Kolkata. Underwater train SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift) First Vice-Chancellor.
project: It is part of the Kolkata Metro's (a) 1923 (b) 1936 (c) 1911 (d) 1927
East-West Corridor. The underwater Q.824. The first Paralympic games were
on
section of the tunnel passes under the Sol.820.(a) 1923. The Radio Club of held in which year?
Hooghly River. Bombay made the first-ever broadcast in SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (3rd shift)
the country in June 1923. The Indian (a) 1962 (b) 1960 (c) 1964 (d) 1961
ch
Q.817. Who was the first defence Broadcasting Company (IBC) came into
minister of India? being on 23 July 1927. All India Radio: Sol.824.(b) 1960. The first Paralympic
ar
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) Founded - 1936, Headquarters - Games - Rome (Italy). First winter
(a) Kailash Nath Katju (b) Baldev Singh Paralympics Games - Sweden (1976).
Se
Akashvani Bhavan building in New Delhi.
(c) YB Chavan (d) Swaran Singh Prasar Bharti: Founded - 23 November Q.825. Who was behind publishing the
1997, Headquarters - New Delhi. first newspaper in India?
Sol.817.(b) Sardar Baldev Singh. First
Cabinet of Free India 1947:- Jawaharlal SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (4th shift)
Q.821. Which of the following airports is
Nehru (Prime Minister: External Affairs & (a) Deen Bandhu Mitra
India's first to be completely powered by
Commonwealth Relations, Scientific (b) James Augustus Hickey
solar energy?
Research), Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (c) Hem Chandrakar
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift)
(Home Minister, Information And (d) Harishchandra Mukherjee
(a) KempeGowda International Airport
Broadcasting, States), Dr. Rajendra (KIA), Bangalore Sol.825.(b) James Augustus Hickey -
Prasad (Food And Agriculture), Maulana (b) Indira Gandhi International Airport Bengal Gazette was published in
Abul Kalam Azad (Education), Dr. John (IGIA), Delhi Calcutta in 1780. It was a weekly English
Mathai (Railways And Transport), R.K (c) Cochin International Airport Limited newspaper started by an Irishman. Udant
Shanmugham Chetty (Finance), Dr. B R (CIAL), Kerala Martand (The Rising Sun) - The first
Ambedkar (Law), Jagjivan Ram (Labour), (d) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Hindi-language weekly newspaper
C.H. Bhabha (Commerce), Raj Kumari International Airport (CSMIA), Mumbai published on May 30, 1826 from Calcutta
Amrit Kaur (Health), Rafi Ahmed Kidwai by Pt. Jugal Kishore Shukla.
(Communication), Dr. Shyam Prasad Sol.821.(c) Cochin International Airport
Mukherji (Industries And Supplies), V.N (CIAL), Kerala. Other Indian Airports : Q.826. Who among the following was the
Gadgil (Works, Mines & Power). Indira Gandhi International Airport first Chief Election Commissioner of
(Delhi), Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj India?
Q.818. Who among the following was the International Airport (Mumbai), SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift)
first president of the IOC ? Kempegowda International Airport (a) Dr. Nagendra Singh (b) SP Sen Verma
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(c) Sukumar Sen (d) KVK Sundaram Pratibha Patil; Prime minister - Indira son Sayyid Muhammed. In 1993, it was
Gandhi; Chief minister - Sucheta Kriplani declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Sol.826.(c) Sukumar Sen. Dr. Nagendra (UP); Defense minister - Nirmala
Singh - The First Indian to be the Sitharaman. Q.835. Who was the first Indian actress
President of the International Court of to receive the Padma Shri Award?
Justice from the year 1985 to 1988. KVK Q.831. Who among the following SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Sundaram - Second Chief Election became the first Indian to be invited to (a) Nargis Dutt (b) Asha Parekh
Commissioner of India. perform at the prestigious Lincoln Centre (c) Madhubala (d) Devika Rani
Hall in the United States of America?
Q.827. The first Women's Cricket World SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift) Sol.835.(a) Nargis Dutt: She was an
Cup was hosted by which of the (a) M.S.Subbulakshmi (b) Zakir Hussain Indian actress and politician who worked
following countries ? (c) Ravi Shankar (d) Bismillah Khan in Hindi cinema. Padma Shri (1958). First
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift) recipient of Padma Shri - K. Shankar Pillai
(a) Australia (b) West Indies Sol.831.(d) Bismillah Khan:- He played - 1954 (Literature & Education), Balbir
(c) England (d) New Zealand the shehnai on 15 August 1947 at the Singh - 1957 (sports), Asha Devi
Red Fort. He was the first Indian to greet Aryanayakam - 1954 (Public Affairs), Bir
Sol.827.(c) England. Women Cricket the nation with his musical instrument. Bhan Bhatia - 1954 (Medicine).
World Cup: 1973 (first edition) - England
(Winner), 2022 - NewZealand (Host), Q.832. Who among the following served Q.836. Which state government has
Australia (Winner), ICC Women's T20 as the first Chief Justice of India ? introduced India's first elephant death
World Cup 2024 (Bangladesh), ICC SSC CHSL Tier-2 26/06/2023 audit framework?
Women's T20 World Cup 2026 (England), (a) Hiralal Jekisundas Kania SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Afternoon
ICC Women's Cricket World Cup 2025 (b) Bijan Kumar Mukherjea (a) Orissa (b) Andhra Pradesh
df
(India), ICC Women's T20 Champions (c) Mehr Chand Mahajan (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra
Trophy 2027 (Sri Lanka). (d) M Patanjali Sastri
_p
Sol.836.(c) Tamil Nadu. India's first
Q.828. When did India win the first World Sol.832.(a) Hiralal Jekisundas Kania. elephant death audit framework:
na
Cup title in Hockey? The Supreme Court (Article 124) was Introduced in - 2022. The framework
SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 4th shift) established at Calcutta as a court of aims to improve transparency and
ap
(a) 1975 (b) 1978 (c) 1971 (d) 1982 record through the Regulating Act of accountability in the management of
1773. Now, It comprises the Chief elephant deaths in the state.
:@
Sol.828.(a) 1975. India defeated Justice and not more than 33 other
Pakistan under the Captaincy of Ajit Pal judges. Q.837. India participated in the Olympic
Singh in 3rd edition of Hockey World Games for the first time in ______.
TG
Cup. Hosted by - (Malaysia). India has Q.833. Which among the following is SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Afternoon
won 8 Gold medals in Olympics hockey India's first Human spaceflight (a) 1908 (b) 1900 (c) 1922 (d) 1904
six of them in a row (from 1928-1956) programme?
Sol.837.(b) 1900. Athlete Norman
on
and added two more at Tokyo (1964) and SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening)
Moscow (1980). (a) Shukrayaan (b) Gaganyaan Pritchard represented India at the Paris
(c) Mangalyaan (d) Chandrayaan - 1 Olympics.
ch
Q.829. Which was the first petrochemical
company in India? Sol.833.(b) Gaganyaan - It envisages Q.838. Who was the first Indian Army
ar
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (1st shift) demonstration of human spaceflight officer to be promoted to the rank of field
(a) Indian Petrochemicals Corporation capability. It will be launched at the end marshal ?
Se
Limited of 2023 or in 2024. Mars Orbiter Mission SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(b) Gas Authority of India Limited (MOM, Mangalyaan): Launch vehicle - (a) Vikram Batra (b) Karam Singh
(c) Haldia Petrochemicals Limited PSLV-C25, Date - 5 November 2013. (c) Sam Manekshaw (d) KM Cariappa
(d) National Organic Chemical Industry Chandrayaan-1 (India's first moon Sol.838.(c) Sam Manekshaw: Chief of
Limited mission): Launched on - 22 October the Army Staff of the Indian Army during
2008. Place - SDSC SHAR (Sriharikota). the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971. Field
Sol.829.(d) National Organic Chemical
Chandrayaan-2: Launched on - 22 July Marshal is a five–star General officer
Industry Limited : It was established in
2019. Launch vehicle - GSLV Mk III-M1. rank and the highest attainable rank in
1961. Other companies and their
Chandrayaan - 3 : Launched on - 14 July the Indian Army. KM Cariappa: First
founding years: Gas Authority of India
2023. Launch vehicle - LVM3 M4. Indian Commander -in-Chief of the Indian
Limited (GAIL) - 1984. Haldia
Petrochemicals Limited - 1985. Dr V. Q.834. Which is the first garden - tomb in Army. Vikram Batra: Martyr of Kargil war,
Krishnamurthy is known as the 'Father of the Indian subcontinent? Param Vir Chakra (1999).
Public Sector Undertakings' in India. SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Afternoon) Q.839. Who was the first woman of
Q.830. Which state had the first female (a) Taj Mahal Indian origin to go to space?
Governor in independent India? (b) Qutb Shahi Tombs SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (2nd shift) (c) Humayun's Tomb (a) Nagin Cox (b) Yogita Shah
(a) West Bengal (b) Rajasthan (d) Aurangzeb's Tomb (c) Kalpana Chawla (d) Sirisha Bandla
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Gujarat Sol.834.(c) Humayun's Tomb (Maqbara-i Sol.839.(c) Kalpana Chawla
Sol.830.(c) Uttar Pradesh (Sarojini Humayun). It is situated in Delhi. It was
Naidu). First female in India : President - designed by Mirak Mirza Ghiyas and his Q.840. Who was the first Indian woman
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
to be appointed Chief Justice of a state Navy. Divya Ajit Kumar is the first woman India?
High Court? to be conferred by the Army with the SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Morning)
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift) Sword of Honour. (a) CD Deshmukh (b) HVR Lengar
(a) Leila Seth (c) PC Bhattacharya (d) LK Jha
(b) Anna Chandy Q.844. Which of the following has
become the first state in the country to Sol.848.(a) CD Deshmukh. RBI was
(c) M. Fathima Beevi
get the L-root server? established on 1 April 1935. The
(d) Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift) headquarter of RBI is in Mumbai. The
Sol.840.(a) Leila Seth. In 1991, she (a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra Reserve Bank of India was set up on the
became the first female judge to be (c) Rajasthan (d) Andhra Pradesh basis of the recommendations of the
appointed as a Chief Justice of a state ‘Hilton Young Commission’.
high court, Himachal Pradesh High court. Sol.844.(c) Rajasthan {(At the
Bhamashah State Data Centre in Q.849. Where was the first jute mill set
Anna Chandy was India’s first female
association with the Internet Corporation up at Kolkata in 1859?
judge and the first woman in the country
for Assigned Names and Numbers SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Morning)
to become a High court judge. M
(ICANN)}. There are at present three (a) Sreerampur (b) Mesra
Fathima Beevi was the first woman judge
Domain Name System (DNS) root (c) Howrah (d) Rishra
to the Supreme Court as well as the first
Muslim woman judge there. Kiran servers : J-root servers and Two L-root
Sol.849.(d) Rishra. The mill was set up
Mazumdar-Shaw is the founder of servers.
on the riverbank of Hooghly in Kolkata.
Biocon Ltd. Q.845. Who among the following has The jute spinning machinery was brought
become IAF’s first woman fighter pilot by George Acland from Dundee.
Q.841. Who was the first Indian to get
the Oscar for lifetime achievements in from J&K?
Q.850. Who among the following is the
df
cinema in 1992 ? Graduate Level 02/08/2022 ( Shift - 3 )
first Indian to get an Oscar Award?
(a) Garima Lahiri (b) Apurva Lahiri
_p
SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift) SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Morning)
(a) Tarun Majumdar (b) K Viswanath (c) Arundhati Ramsingh (d) Mawya Sudan
(a) Bhanu Athaiya (b) Satyajit Ray
na
(c) Satyajit Ray (d) T Rama Rao Sol.845.(d) Mawya Sudan. First female (c) AR Rahman (d) Resul Pookutty
Sol.841.(c) Satyajit Ray was the first combat pilots commissioned in the IAF
ap
Sol.850.(a) Bhanu Athaiya. She was a
Indian who received such an award from in 2016: Avani Chaturvedi (became first
costume designer in more than 100
the Academy of Motion Pictures, Arts woman fighter pilot of India), Bhawana
movies and won an Oscar award in 1983
:@
and Science. Awards - Dadasaheb Kanth, and Mohana Singh. In 2015, the
for the movie ‘Gandhi’.
Phalke Award (1984), Bharat Ratna Government of India opened up the
(1992). Padma Shri (1958), Padma combat roles to women in the Indian Air Q.851. In which Olympic games did India
TG
Bhushan (1965), JLCCA Ramon Force (IAF) on an experimental basis for win the gold medal in men's hockey, for
Magsaysay Award (1967), Padma five years. First woman pilot of India the first time post-independence?
Vibhushan (1976) etc. (Sarla Thakral). SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Morning)
on
(a) London (b) Sydney
Q.842. Flight Lieutenant_________ had Q.846. The first regional rural bank set
(c) Barcelona (d) Athens
up in India was __________.
ch
created history in May 2019 by becoming
the first woman to qualify for combat SSC CHSL 27/05/ 2022 (Morning) Sol.851.(a) London. The Indian field
(a) Grameen Bank hockey team defeated the British team to
ar
missions on a fighter jet.
SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift) (b) Aarohan Bank win the country's first gold medal at the
Se
(a) Priya Jhingan (b) Harita Kaur Deol (c) Prathama Grameen Bank 1948 Summer Olympics.
(c) Bhawana Kanth (d) Shanti Tigga (d) Vikas Bank
Q.852. Which of the following was the
Sol.842.(c) Bhawana Kanth. Priya Sol.846.(c) Prathama Grameen Bank first language conferred with the status
Jinghan: The First Lady Cadet to join the was set up on October 2, 1975. Owner- of Classical Language in India?
Indian Army Officer. Harita Kaur Deol:The Government of India (50%), Nationalised SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Afternoon)
first Indian woman to fly solo in an Avro Banks (35%), State Governments (15%). (a) Kannada (b) Sanskrit
HS-748 aircraft. Shanti Tigga: She was (c) Tamil (d) Malayalam
Q.847. The first playback song in Hindi
the first female jawan in the Indian Army. Movies was recorded by music directors Sol.852.(c) Tamil. Six languages in India
Q.843. Indian Army’s 1st women combat RC Boral and Pankaj Mullick in which namely Tamil, Telugu, Sanskrit, Kannada,
aviator is ___________ . year? Malayalam and Odia have been given the
SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (3rd Shift) SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Morning) status of classical language.
(a) Punita Arora (b) Divya Ajit Kumar (a) 1939 (b) 1941 (c) 1943 (d) 1935
Q.853. Who among the following was the
(c) Abhilasha Barak (d) Priya Semwal Sol.847.(d) 1935, for the Nitin first Finance Minister of independent
Bose-directed film, Dhoop Chhaon, by India?
Sol.843.(c) Abhilasha Barak. The Army
music directors RC Boral and Pankaj SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Afternoon)
Aviation Corps is a form of the Army that
Mullick (Main khush hona chahun, sung (a) RK Shanmukham Chetty
was formed in November 1986. Punita
by Suprava Sarkar, Parul Ghosh and Uma (b) TT Krishnamachari
Arora was the first woman Lieutenant
Shashi Devi). (c) Syama Prasad Mukherjee
General of the Indian Army. She held the
ranks of Lieutenant General in the Indian Q.848. Who among the following was the (d) Jagjivan Ram
Army and Surgeon Vice Admiral in the first Indian Governor of Reserve Bank of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.853.(a) RK Shanmukham Chetty was Sol.858.(c) Aryabhatta. Rohini was SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Morning)
the first Finance Minister of independent India's first satellite launched from an (a) Dilip B Bhosale
India when the country's first budget was Indian - made launch vehicle. (b) Pradip Kumar Mohanty
tabled in Parliament on 26 November (c) Pinaki Chandra Ghose
1947. Q.859. Who among the following was the (d) Ajay Kumar Tripathi
first Indian to win a seat in the House of
Q.854. Who among the following was the Commons? Sol.864.(c) Pinaki Chandra Ghose. The
first-ever Indian to receive the Bharat SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Afternoon) Lokpal has jurisdiction over the central
Ratna award? (a) MN Roy (b) Dadabhai Naoroji government to inquire into allegations of
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Afternoon) (c) WC Bonnerjee (d) Hasrat Mohani corruption against its public
(a) Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya functionaries and for matters connected
(b) Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman Sol.859.(b) Dadabhai Naoroji. The House to corruption.
(c) Pandurang Vaman Kane of Commons is the lower house
(d) Purushottam Das Tandon (democratically elected house) of the Q.865. In which year did India host the
Parliament of the United Kingdom. Commonwealth Games?
Sol.854.(b) Chandrasekhara Venkata SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Afternoon)
Raman. Bharat Ratna was introduced on Q.860. Who among the following is the (a) 2018 (b) 2010 (c) 2006 (d) 2014
2nd January 1954. The First 3 persons to first-ever woman fighter pilot to have
receive Bharat Ratna (1954) - C taken part at a Republic Day Parade? Sol.865.(b) In 2010, India hosted the
Rajagopalachari, S Radhakrishnan & CV SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Evening) Commonwealth Games. The event was
Raman. (a) Anny Divya first held in 1930, and with the exception
(b) Bhawna Kanth of 1942 and 1946, has taken place every
Q.855. Which country launched the first (c) Mohana Singh Jitarwal four years since then.
df
artificial satellite Sputnik 1? (d) Avani Chaturvedi
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Evening) Q.866. What is the name of the first
_p
(a) USSR (b) France (c) USA (d) Germany Sol.860.(b) Bhawna Kanth. She was crude oil pipeline constructed in India?
declared as the first combat pilot along SSC CHSL 12/10/2020 (Afternoon)
na
Sol.855.(a) USSR. It was launched into with two of her cohorts Mohana Singh (a) Naharkatia-Nunmati-Barauni
an elliptical low Earth orbit by the USSR and Avani Chaturvedi. Pipeline
ap
on 4 October 1957 as part of the Soviet (b) Kandla-Bhatinda Pipeline
space program. Launch site: Baikonur Q.861. Who was the first Director - (c) Hajira-Bijapur-Jagdishpur (HBJ) Gas
:@
Rocket: Sputnik 8K71PS. General of Archaeological Survey of Pipeline
India? (d) Mumbai High-Kayoli Pipeline
Q.856. Who among the following has SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Evening)
TG
been the first sportsperson to receive the (a) Lord Curzon Sol.866.(a) Naharkatia - Nunmati -
Padma Shri award from the Government (b) Alexander Cunningham Barauni Pipeline. The pipeline between
of India? (c) Mortimer Wheeler Naharkatia and Nunmati became
on
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Evening) (d) John Marshall operational in 1962 and between
(a) Balbir Dosanjh (b) Milkha Singh Nunmati and Barauni in 1964.
(c) Manpreet Singh (d) Dhanraj Pillay Sol.861.(b) Alexander Cunningham. ASI
ch
is an Indian government agency Q.867. What is the name of the first
Sol.856.(a) Balbir Singh Dosanjh. Padma responsible for archaeological research research station in Antarctica built by the
ar
Shri (1957). He wrote two books: his and the conservation and preservation of Government of India?
autobiography The Golden Hat Trick cultural monuments in the country. SSC CHSL 19/10/2020 (Evening)
Se
(1977) and The Golden Yardstick: In (a) Vaishali (b) Maitri
Quest of Hockey Excellence (2008). Q.862. In which of the following (c) Bharati (d) Dakshin Gangotri
countries was the first hockey
Q.857. Who among the following was the association formed? Sol.867.(d) Dakshin Gangotri was the
first woman commando trainer in India? SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Afternoon) first scientific base station of India
SSC MTS 2/11/2021 (Evening) (a) Spain (b) The UK (c) The US (d) India situated in the Antarctic established in
(a) Avani Chaturvedi (b) Damyanti Beshra 1983.
(c) Dr. Seema Rao (d) Rani Rampal Sol.862.(b) The UK (1876). India has
recently won a bronze medal in the 2020 Q.868. The first Backward Classes
Sol.857.(c) Dr. Seema Rao. India's first Tokyo Olympics in Men’s Hockey Title. Commission of India was headed by ___.
female jawan in the Indian army is Shanti SSC CHSL 20/10/2020 (Evening)
Tigga. The first woman officer in the Q.863. In which of the following years (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Indian Air Force, Vijayalakshmi Ramanan. was the first rocket launched in India? (b) Kaka Kalelkar
Punita Arora was the first woman in the SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Evening) (c) Lokmanya Tilak
Indian Armed Forces to be promoted to a (a) 1948 (b) 1973 (c) 1963 (d) 1977 (d) Nanaji Deshmukh
three-star rank.
Sol.863.(c) 1963 . The launchpad for the Sol.868.(b) Kaka Kalelkar. The first
Q.858. What was the name of the first first rocket ‘RH200’ was Thumba Backward Classes Commission of India
artificial satellite launched by India in Balasore and took off from Thumba near was set up by a Presidential Order in
1975? Thiruvananthapuram. 1953 under the chairmanship of Kaka
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Evening) Kalelkar.
(a) Panini (b) Sushruta Q.864. Who among the following
(c) Aryabhatta (d) Charaka became the first Lokpal of India? Q.869. Name the first female amputee to
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
climb Mount Everest. aircraft. Astroturf is a brand name for a badminton court is 13.41m (44ft) long
SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Afternoon) type of artificial turf used in sports fields. and 5.18m (17ft) wide. The width
(a) Arunima Sinha (b) Poorna Malavath extends to 6.1m (20ft) in doubles. The
(c) Anshu Jamsenpa (d) Premlata Agarwal Q.873. In which of the following events net is 1.55m (5ft 1in) high at the ends
did India get its first individual Olympic and 1.52m high (5ft) where it dips in the
Sol.869.(a) Arunima Sinha is the world's gold medal? middle. The birdie, also referred to as the
first female amputee to climb Mount SSC MTS 30/09/2024 (2nd Shift) shuttlecock, is made up of 16 feathers,
Everest in 2013. She is also the first (a) Wrestling (b) Boxing the birdie is between 62 - 70mm long and
female amputee to climb Mount Vinson, (c) Weightlifting (d) Shooting weighs between 4.74 and 5.5 g.
the highest peak of Antarctica.
Sol.873.(d) Shooting. The gold medal Q.877. A three-time Olympian, PT Usha
Q.870. Who is the first General of the was won by Abhinav Bindra in the 2008 broke the Asian Games record in four
Indian Army, whose retirement day is Beijing Olympics in the Men's 10 meter events (200 m, 400 m, 400 m hurdles and
celebrated as the 'Armed Forces Air Rifle event. India's first Olympic 4 × 400 m relay) in ____________.
Veterans Day' every year? medals were silver, won by Norman SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
SSC CGL 06/03/2020 (Morning) Pritchard in athletics at the 1900 Paris (a) New Delhi, 1982 (b) Beijing, 1990
(a) General Maharaj Rajendra Sinhji Olympics. The first individual Olympic (c) Seoul, 1986 (d) Hiroshima, 1994
(b) General S.M. Srinagesh medal for India was secured by
(c) General K.S. Thimayya Khashaba Dadasaheb Jadhav (KD Sol.877.(c) Seoul, 1986. Pilavullakandi
(d) General K.M. Cariappa Jadhav) in wrestling at the 1952 Helsinki Thekkeraparambil Usha is a bonafide
Olympics. Indian track and field legend.
Sol.870.(d) General K.M. Cariappa.
Armed Forces Veterans Day is observed Q.874. What is the length of the men's Q.878. Chip, Condor, Duff and Driver are
df
each year on 14th January as a mark of kabaddi court? some of the terms used in ________.
respect and recognition of the services SSC MTS 08/10/2024 (2nd Shift) SSC MTS 29/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
_p
rendered by Field Marshal KM Cariappa, (a) 11 m (b) 15 m (c) 17 m (d) 13 m (a) Horse Polo (b) Golf
the first Indian Commander -in-Chief of (c) Chess (d) Swimming
na
the Indian Armed Forces who retired on Sol.874.(d) 13 m. The Kabaddi court
14 Jan 1953. measures 13 × 10 meters for men and 12 Sol.878.(b) Golf. A chip is a short golf
ap
× 8 meters for women. It is basically a shot usually made by a player who is
combative sport, with seven players on near, but not on, the putting surface. A
Sports
:@
each side; played for a period of 40 condor is perhaps the rarest shot in all of
minutes with a 5 minutes break (20 - 5 - golf. It refers to a golf score that is 4
Q.871. When and where was the first
20). shots under par on any individual hole.
TG
Wimbledon tournament held?
Duff is used to describe any very poorly
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Morning) Q.875. How many chances does a high struck shot. The driver is the longest of
(a) 1877, Worple Road Site, Wimbledon jumper get for overcoming a certain all the woods, incorporates the largest
on
(b) 1888, Church Road site, Wimbledon height? club head, and is used almost exclusively
(c) 1887, Church Road site, Wimbledon SSC MTS 17/10/2024 (3rd Shift) to “drive” the ball from the tee box.
(d) 1887, Worple Road Site, Wimbledon (a) Three chances (b) Two chances
ch
(c) Four chances (d) Six chances Q.879. In basketball, how many points
Sol.871.(a) 1877, Worple Road Site,
are awarded when a basket is scored
ar
Wimbledon. The Wimbledon Open was Sol.875.(a) Three chances. The high from outside the 6.25-metre line ?
organized by the All England Lawn jump is a track and field event in which
Se
SSC MTS 30/10/2024 (1st Shift)
Tennis and Croquet Club, which competitors leap (unaided) from one foot (a) Five points (b) Six points
continues to host the championships. over a four-metre-long horizontal bar. A (c) Three points (d) Two points
Wimbledon is famous as the only Grand jump is considered successful if the
Slam tournament still played on grass athlete clears the bar without dislodging Sol.879.(c) Three points: Field goals - A
courts. The Australian Open (1905) and it. The length of the high jump bar field goal is a basket made during regular
US Open (1881) played on hard courts, typically spans 4 metres (13 feet and 1.5 play from anywhere on the court. A field
and the French Open (1891) played on inches). The height of the high jump bar goal made within the three-point line is
clay. varies during competition. Some worth two points.
Important Terms - Approach, Take-off,
Q.872. What is the name of a cycling Q.880. The rifle (in the shooting sport) is
Flight, Landing.
track? single-loaded in _________-millimetre
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening) Q.876. In badminton, how high above the calibre (the inner diameter of a gun
(a) Velodrome (b) Aerodrome ground is the net positioned at the barrel), which is used across all events.
(c) Velosuper (d) Astroturf centre? SSC MTS 13/11/2024 (1st Shift)
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (2nd Shift) (a) 5.6 (b) 4.8 (c) 4.5 (d) 5.1
Sol.872.(a) Velodrome. It is a specially
(a) 4 feet (b) 5 feet (c) 6 feet (d) 5.5 feet
designed track used for competitive Sol.880.(a) 5.6. Olympic shooting
cycling events. It is typically an Sol.876.(b) 5 feet. Badminton is a features three types of guns: Rifle, Pistol,
oval-shaped track with banked sides to racquet sport played by either two and Shotgun, used at distances of 10m,
allow cyclists to achieve high speeds opposing players (singles) or two 25m, or 50m. Rifles and pistols are
safely. An aerodrome is a location or opposing pairs (doubles). Badminton single-loaded, with rifles using a 5.6mm
facility for the takeoff and landing of court’s dimensions: In singles, a calibre and pistols using 4.5mm (10m Air
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Pistol) or 5.6mm (25m Rapid Fire Pistol Sol.885.(c) 1980. The 1st Asian Kabaddi and the 58th is scheduled for 2025 in
with a five-shot magazine). Shotguns are Championship was held in 1980 and Doha, Qatar.
12-gauge with an 18.5mm calibre, where included as a demonstration game in the
gauge refers to the number of lead balls 9th Asian Games in New Delhi in 1982. Q.890. How many players are there on
from a pound that fit the barrel. The 9th Championship took place in the each side of the Kabaddi Team in the
Republic of Korea, where India secured field?
Q.881. The ________ Polo Club is the its 8th title. Kabaddi was also included in SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
home of the Ezra Cup event, the world’s the South Asian Federation (SAF) Games (a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
oldest polo tournament, started in 1880. started in 1984 in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
SSC MTS 14/11/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.890.(b) 7. Sports and Number of
(a) Delhi (b) Jaipur Q.886. In which year was the Players in Each Team: Cricket (11),
(c) Calcutta (d) Hyderabad International Olympic Committee Hockey (11), Football (11), Basketball (5),
formed? Volleyball (6), Water Polo (7), Kho-Kho
Sol.881.(c) Calcutta. The Calcutta Polo SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (9), Rugby (15).
Club, established in 1862, is the oldest (a) 1896 (b) 1892 (c) 1898 (d) 1894
polo club in the world still in existence. Q.891. In which year did India make its
The Ezra Cup, started in 1880 by Sir Sol.886.(d) 1894. International Olympic Olympic debut in hockey?
David Ezra, is the world's oldest polo Committee (IOC) : Established - June 23, SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift)
trophy still being played for. 1894. Founders - Pierre de Coubertin and (a) 1936 (b) 1932 (c) 1924 (d) 1928
Demetrios Vikelas. Function - Organizes
Q.882. At which Olympics did Gagan Sol.891.(d) 1928. India made its Olympic
the Winter and Summer Olympics.
Narang win a bronze medal? debut in hockey in 1928 at the
Headquarters : Lausanne, Switzerland.
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Amsterdam Olympics. The Indian men's
Status : Granted 'Permanent Observer'
df
(a) London 2012 (b) Rio 2016 hockey team won their first Olympic gold
status at the United Nations in 2009.
(c) Athens 2004 (d) Beijing 2008 medal in this tournament, beating the
_p
Q.887. When was the Indian Hockey Netherlands. The team was led by
Sol.882.(a) London 2012. Gagan Narang Federation established? captain Jaipal Singh and Dhyan Chand,
na
is an Indian sports shooter and is SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) who scored the most goals with 14.
associated with air rifle shooting. He won (a) 1925 (b) 1955 (c) 1945 (d) 1935 India's hockey team is the most
ap
the bronze medal in the Men’s 10 meter successful in Olympic history, winning
air rifle event. He received the Arjuna Sol.887.(a) 1925. Indian Hockey eight gold medals in 1928, 1932, 1936,
:@
award in 2005. Indian Shooters : Abhinav Federation was the administrative body 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964, and 1980.
Bindra, Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore, Vijay of field hockey in India. Headquarters -
Kumar, Manu Bhaker, Swapnil Kusale. New Delhi. The International Hockey Q.892. In which of the following years
TG
Federation was established in Paris in was the Pro Kabaddi League established
Q.883. At which Olympics was Kho-Kho 1924, initiated by Paul Leautey. in India?
featured in an exhibition in the main SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.888. Which Indian marathon event is
on
stadium? (a) 2015 (b) 2016 (c) 2013 (d) 2014
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) considered the largest marathon in Asia?
(a) 1936 (b) 1932 (c) 2008 (d) 2016 SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.892.(d) 2014. The inaugural Pro
ch
(a) Kaveri Trail Marathon Kabaddi season in 2014 saw eight teams
Sol.883.(a) 1936. The Olympics were (b) Pinkathon participating in the league. By Season 5,
ar
held in Berlin. The Kho-Kho team (c) Delhi Half Marathon the number of teams competing grew to
consists of 12 players, but only 9 players (d) Mumbai Marathon 12.
Se
take the field for a contest. The first-ever
Asian Kho-Kho Championship was Sol.888.(d) Mumbai Marathon. The TATA Q.893. Who among the following players
organized in Kolkata in 1996. Mumbai Marathon (TMM) is recognized is related to table tennis?
as the largest marathon in Asia and the SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.884. Which of the following countries continent's biggest mass participation (a) Manish Narwal (b) Manika Batra
won the first men’s Asian Hockey sporting event. (c) K Srikanth (d) Pankaj Advani
Championship trophy?
Q.889. Which of the following Table Sol.893.(b) Manika Batra. Her Awards :
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Tennis World Championship events was Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
(a) Japan (b) China
held in India? (2020), and Arjuna Award (2018). Other
(c) India (d) Pakistan
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Prominent Table Tennis Players :
Sol.884.(c) India is the most successful (a) 19th World Championships, 1952 Achanta Sharath Kamal, Sathiyan
team in the men’s Asian Champions (b) 17th World Championships, 1950 Gnanasekaran, Mouma Das, and Neha
Trophy with five titles. The tournament (c) 20th World Championships, 1953 Aggarwal Sharma.
was held annually from 2011 to 2013 and (d) 18th World Championships, 1951
has been conducted every two years Q.894. When and where did India win its
Sol.889.(a) The 19th World Table Tennis first World Championships medal in
since 2016. Championships were held in Mumbai in Athletics?
Q.885. When was the 1st Asian Kabaddi 1952, and India also hosted the 1987 SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Championship held? edition in New Delhi. The first (a) 2009, Germany (b) 2005, Finland
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) championship took place in 1926 in (c) 2007, Japan (d) 2003, France
(a) 1970 (b) 1985 (c) 1980 (d) 1975 London, England, while the 56th edition
was held in 2024 in Busan, South Korea, Sol.894.(d) 2003, France. India won its
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
first World Championships medal in Sol.898.(b) Bangalore. India hosted its of it?
Athletics when Anju Bobby George first women's international Test cricket SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
secured the bronze in the Women’s long match against the West Indies on (a) The Bishop (b) The Queen
jump at the 2003 World Championships October 31, 1976, at M. Chinnaswamy (c) The Pawn (d) The Rook
in Paris. This achievement marked her as Stadium in Bangalore. The inaugural
the first Indian athlete to win a global Women's Cricket World Cup was held in Sol.903.(c) The Pawn. Chess is a board
athletics medal. England in 1973. game for two players. It is played on a
square board, made up of 64 smaller
Q.895. Indian Olympic Association was Q.899. Which of the following states was squares, with eight squares in each row
established in which of the following the overall champion in both men and and column.
years ? women categories in the first Janjatiya
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Khel Mahotsav? Q.904. Agricultural shot is a term used in
(a) 1927 (b) 1931 (c) 1933 (d) 1929 SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) which of the following sports?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Chhattisgarh SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.895.(a) 1927. The Indian Olympic (c) Jharkhand (d) Odisha (a) Lawn Tennis (b) Cricket
Association is headquartered in New (c) Football (d) Table Tennis
Delhi. The first president of the Sol.899.(d) Odisha. The first Janjatiya
association was Sir Dorabji Tata, and the Khel Mahotsav, a grand sporting event Sol.904.(b) Cricket. An "agricultural shot"
current president (as of September 2024) jointly hosted by the Ministry of Culture, in cricket refers to a poorly played shot
is PT Usha. the Odisha Government, and KIIT by a batsman. It is usually a risky shot
University, concluded in Bhubaneswar. that doesn't make the most of the
Q.896. Which of the following numbers chance to score runs.
best describes the number of white Q.900. Raja Bhalindra Singh trophy is
df
pieces used in chess? associated with which of the following Q.905. India hosted the Asian Games in
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) national sports events? which of the following years?
_p
(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 19 (d) 17 SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) Khelo India Youth Games (a) 1954 and 1986 (b) 1951 and 1982
na
Sol.896.(b) 16. There are six different (b) Khelo India Winter Games (c) 1951 and 1986 (d) 1954 and 1982
types of chess pieces. Each side starts (c) Khelo India University Games
ap
with 16 pieces : eight pawns, two Sol.905.(b) 1951 and 1982. The Asian
(d) National Games Games are organized by the Olympic
bishops, two knights, two rooks, one
:@
queen, and one king. King : Moves one Sol.900.(d) National Games. Council of Asia (OCA) every four years,
square in any direction. Queen : Moves The National Games are organized by the with headquarters in Kuwait. The 20th
any number of squares diagonally, Indian Olympic Association (IOA). The Asian Games will be held in Nagoya,
TG
horizontally, or vertically. Rook : Moves IOA is responsible for the regulations of Japan, in 2026. Kamaljeet Sandhu
any number of squares horizontally or the games. IOA: Founded - 1927, became the first Indian woman to win an
vertically. Bishop : Moves any number of Headquarter - New Delhi. First National individual gold medal at the 1970 Asian
on
squares diagonally. Knight : Moves in an Games organised in Lahore (1924). First Games. Bangkok, Thailand, has hosted
'L-shape' (two squares in one direction Modern National Games - New Delhi the most Asian Games (1966, 1970,
1978, and 1998), followed by South
ch
and then one square perpendicular). (1985).
Pawn : Moves one square forward (two Korea in 1986, 2002, and 2014.
Q.901. Vijender Singh has represented
ar
squares on its first move) and captures Q.906. Where was the 1st World Cup of
diagonally one square forward. India in Olympics for how many times?
Kabaddi organised in 2004?
Se
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Q.897. Follow On is related to which of (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 2 SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift)
the following cricket formats ? (a) Mumbai (b) Hyderabad
Sol.901.(c) 3. Vijender Singh, an Indian (c) Punjab (d) Kolkata
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
professional boxer, made history as the
(a) Only T20 matches Sol.906.(a) Mumbai. India won the
first Indian boxer to win an Olympic
(b) Only Test Matches inaugural Kabaddi World Cup by
medal, earning bronze at the 2008 Beijing
(c) Only One Day matches defeating Iran with a score of 55-27.
Olympics.
(d) Both test and One - day matches India has consistently clinched the
Q.902. In which sport did India win its Kabaddi World Cup title, including
Sol.897.(b) Only Test Matches. Follow -
first individual Olympic medal? victories in 2007 and 2016.
on: The follow on forces the team batting
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift)
second to bat again just after the original Q.907. Which of the following team
(a) Swimming (b) Judo
innings has finished. In a match of five events is included in the Target Olympic
(c) Wrestling (d) Shooting
days or more, a side which bats first and Podium Scheme?
leads by at least 200 runs has the option Sol.902.(c) Wrestling. K.D. Jadhav was SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
of requiring the other side to follow-on. India’s first athlete from independent (a) Tennis (b) Football
India to win an individual Olympic medal, (c) Cricket (d) Hockey
Q.898. Where was the first women’s
securing bronze in wrestling at the 1952
international test cricket match hosted in Sol.907.(d) Hockey. Target Olympic
Helsinki Olympics.
India in 1976? Podium Scheme (TOPS): To improve
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Q.903. In chess, which of the following India’s performance at Olympics and
(a) New Delhi (b) Bangalore may only move forward to the Paralympics, the Ministry of Youth
(c) Mumbai (d) Kolkata unoccupied square immediately in front Affairs and Sports (MYAS) started the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) Sol.912.(a) The Bishop moves only Q.917. The term Blue Line is associated
in September 2014. diagonally and stays on the same color with which of the following games ?
square. SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.908. How many ICC World Cups has (a) Football (b) Cricket
India won in ODI cricket? Q.913. Where was the Durand Cup (c) Table Tennis (d) Ice Hockey
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Tournament started in India in 1888?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4 SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.917.(d) Ice Hockey. It has three main
(a) Mumbai (b) Calcutta lines: two blue lines, a red center line, and
Sol.908.(c) 2. India won its first ICC (c) Shimla (d) Delhi two goal lines. The blue lines divide the
Cricket World Cup in 1983 under Kapil rink into three zones: (i) attacking zone
Dev, defeating the West Indies at Lord's, Sol.913.(c) Shimla. Durand Cup is (ii) Neutral zone, and (iii) Offending zone.
England. In 2011, under Mahendra Singh named after Sir Mortimer Durand who
Dhoni, India claimed its second title by was then, the Foreign Secretary to Govt Q.918. ‘Castling’ is related to which of
defeating Sri Lanka at Mumbai's of India. It is the oldest football the following sports?
Wankhede Stadium. tournament in India as well as in Asia. SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
The winning team receives three (a) Table Tennis (b) Billiards
Q.909. Who among the following is trophies: the Durand Cup, the Shimla (c) Tennis (d) Chess
known as ‘Captain Cool’ in Indian Trophy (first awarded in 1904), and the
Cricket? President's Cup (first presented by Dr. Sol.918.(d) Chess. Castling is a unique
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Rajendra Prasad in 1956). chess move involving the king and one of
(a) Virat Kohli the original rooks. Key chess terms
(b) Mahendra Singh Dhoni Q.914. Jaipal Singh Munda is associated include Bishop, Pawn, Knight, Rook, King,
(c) Kapil Dev with which of the following sports? Checkmate, Queen, and Zugzwang.
df
(d) Sachin Tendulkar SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) Badminton (b) Cricket Q.919. The first Indian Olympic Games
_p
Sol.909.(b) Mahendra Singh Dhoni. He is (c) Kabaddi (d) Hockey was hosted by which of the following
also known as "Thala," and "MSD,". Virat cities?
na
Kohli, nicknamed "Cheeku," "King Kohli," Sol.914.(d) Hockey. Jaipal Singh Munda SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
and "The Run Machine," is renowned for was the first captain of the Indian field (a) Lahore (b) Madras
ap
his batting. Kapil Dev, known as the hockey team to clinch gold in the 1928 (c) Bombay (d) Allahabad
"Haryana Hurricane," was famous for his Summer Olympics in Amsterdam. Other
:@
aggressive play, while Sachin Tendulkar Hockey Players: Major Dhyan Chand, Sol.919.(a) Lahore. Dr. A. G. Noehren
is affectionately called the "God of Rani Rampal, PR Sreejesh, Dhanraj Pillay, and Harry Crowe Buck launched the first
Cricket” and "Master Blaster”. Gurjit Kaur, Navjot Kaur, Manpreet Singh, Indian Olympic Games in Lahore in 1924
TG
Krishan Bahadur Pathak, Prithipal Singh. to engage youth in sports.
Q.910. Which of the following terms is
related to football? Q.915. Mirabai Chanu secured a silver Q.920. How many squares are there on a
chessboard ?
on
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) medal at which Commonwealth Games?
(a) Third man (b) Bicycle Kick SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift) SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
(c) Overs (d) LBW (a) 2010 (b) 2014 (c) 2022 (d) 2018 (a) 67 (b) 68 (c) 64 (d) 69
ch
Sol.910.(b) Bicycle Kick: This is a type of Sol.915.(b) 2014. Saikhom Mirabai Sol.920.(c) 64. A standard chessboard
ar
kick in football where a player, while Chanu: She is an Indian weightlifter from consists of 8 rows and 8 columns,
airborne, kicks the ball overhead using a Imphal city, Manipur. She won the silver resulting in a total of 64 squares. This is
Se
cycling motion of the legs. Important medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics in the calculated by multiplying the number of
Terminologies: Football - Direct free Women's 49 kg category. She also rows by the number of columns (8 × 8 =
kick, Set, Volley, Service line, Header, Free became only the second Indian woman 64).
Kick, Penalty Kick, Hat-trick. Cricket- after PV Sindhu to win an Olympic silver Q.921. In field hockey, ________ occurs
Third man, Overs, LBW (Leg Before medal. Awards: Major Dhyan Chand Khel when a player pushes the ball and raises
Wicket). Ratna (2018), Padma Shri (2018). Other it off the ground.
weightlifters - Karnam Malleswari, SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Q.911. The first Indian woman to hold Jeremy Lalrinnunga, Deepak Lather,
the Under - 20 World Wrestling (a) bully (b) slap
Vikas Thakur. (c) flick (d) centre pass
Championship is _________.
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Q.916. How many athletes were selected Sol.921.(c) flick. During a penalty corner,
(a) Antim Panghal (b) Pranati Nayak to represent India at the 1924 Paris the attacker must use a push, scoop, or
(c) Swati Sanjay (d) Hina Khalifa Summer Olympics ? flick shot to avoid fouls. Internationally,
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the "drag flick" is the most popular lifted
Sol.911.(a) Antim Panghal. She is an (a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 8
Indian wrestler from Haryana. shot in penalty corners.
Sol.916.(d) 8. India's Olympic Journey: Q.922. In which year did Indian archers
Q.912. In chess which of the following India's first participation in the Olympics
may move only diagonally? participate in the Olympics for the first
was in 1900 in Paris, France, with time?
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) Norman Pritchard representing the
(a) The Bishop (b) The Knight SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift)
country. (a) 1980 (b) 1973 (c) 1988 (d) 1975
(c) The Queen (d) The Rook
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.922.(c) 1988. India competed in 7 (a) 1927 (b) 1896 (c) 1935 (d) 1948 Sol.930.(b) 11. The 1951 Asian Games,
events at the 1988 Summer Olympic officially known as the First Asian
Games held in Seoul, South Korea with a Sol.926.(b) 1896. The first Olympic Games, was a multi-sport event
contingent of about 20 athletes Games of the modern era took place in celebrated in New Delhi, India from 4 to
participating in sports disciplines Athens, in the country where the original 11 March 1951. Motto - Play the game in
including Archery for the first time, Games took place in Antiquity, in April the spirit of the game. Opened by -
Athletics, Boxing, Hockey, Swimming, 1896. Leander Paes is still the only Rajendra Prasad (President of India).
Table Tennis and Tennis. Indian to win an Olympics tennis medal, Main venue - National Stadium (Major
bagging a men's singles bronze at Dhyan Chand National Stadium). 1st
Q.923. What is the circumference of the Atlanta 1996. Rank - Japan (Gold - 24, Silver - 21,
International Football Association Board Bronze - 15). 2nd Rank - India (Gold - 15,
(IFAB) approved football ? Q.927. Where is Birsa Munda
International Hockey Stadium located ? Silver - 16, Bronze - 20).
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) 68 - 70 cms (b) 80 - 82 cms SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) Q.931. In Kabaddi, a super tackle is when
(c) 78 - 80 cms (d) 70 - 72 cms (a) Ranchi (b) Rourkela a raider is caught/self out/declared out
(c) Bhubaneswar (d) Jamshedpur with or less than how many defenders
Sol.923.(a) 68 - 70 cms. The football defending ?
must meet the following criteria as per Sol.927.(b) Rourkela (India’s largest
hockey stadium). Birsa Munda was a SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift)
the FIFA laws : The ball shall be spherical (a) Six (b) Five (c) Three (d) Four
in shape. It should be made of leather or tribal leader who led the Munda Rebellion
any other suitable material approved by against British rule and the exploitation Sol.931.(c) Three. Kabaddi is a contact
the governing body. Ball circumference of his people in Jharkhand. Stadiums in team sport that originated in India and is
shall be 68 to 70 cm which is equal to 27 India named after famous Personalities: popular in many South Asian countries.
df
to 28 inches. The weight of the ball shall Indira Gandhi Stadium (New Delhi), Rajiv The game is played with two teams of
Gandhi International Cricket Stadium
_p
be between 410 to 450g which is equal seven players each. Other terminologies
to 14 to 16 oz at the start of the match. (Hyderabad), Narendra Modi Stadium in Kabaddi : Chain Tackle - A defensive
(Ahmedabad), Lal Bahadur Shastri
na
Air pressure should be equal to 0.6–1.1 tactic where the opponents form chains
atmosphere (600–1,100 g/cm2) at sea Stadium (Hyderabad), Arun Jaitley by holding hands in twos or threes. Dubki
Stadium (New Delhi), Major Dhyan Chand
ap
level. - An escape technique used by raiders
Hockey Stadium (Lucknow). who face a chain tackle. Golden Raid - It
Q.924. Of the football clubs listed below,
:@
happens when there is a tie between two
which is the oldest in India ? Q.928. What is the colour of the sending
teams at the end of extra time.
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift) off card in football?
(a) Bombay FC (b) FC Kochin SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) Q.932. Which of the following
TG
(c) Madras FC (d) Calcutta FC (a) Yellow (b) Black (c) Red (d) Blue statements is correct with respect to the
Badminton game and match length?
Sol.924.(d) Calcutta FC. It was Sol.928.(c) Red. Yellow colour Card - A
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift)
on
established in 1872. The oldest club that card used to warn a player in Football. In
(a) A match consists of the best of two
is currently active is the Mohun Bagan football, there are 11 players on each
games of 21 points
side. A standard football match is 90
ch
AC, which was established in 1889. The (b) A match consists of the best of five
Indian Football Association (IFA) was minutes made up of two 45-minute
games of 21 points
halves. FIFA recommendations for field
ar
established in Calcutta in 1893. The All (c) A match consists of the best of three
India Football Federation (AIFF) was dimensions in professional football are
games of 21 points.
Se
formed in 1937. 105 metres in length and 68 metres in
(d) A match consists of the best of four
width.
games of 21 points.
Q.925. As per Olympic rules, in the third
game, badminton players change ends Q.929. Fighting in the upright position in
Sol.932.(c) In badminton, a standard
when a side scores _____ points. judo is called ________.
match is played as the best of three
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
games. Each game is played to 21
(a) 15 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (a) ne-waza (b) tachi-waza
points, and a player must win by at least
(c) koshi-waza (d) ashi-waza
a 2-point margin. If the score reaches
Sol.925.(b) 11. The International Olympic
Sol.929.(b) tachi-waza. Judo has its 20-20, the game continues until one
Committee is the guardian of the
origin in the ancient Japanese art of player or team leads by 2 points up to a
Olympic Games and the leader of the
Ju-jitsu. Kano Jigoro invented Judo in maximum of 30 points. The player or
Olympic Movement. A truly global
1882. It was used in war and practiced in team that wins two out of three games
organisation. Badminton had its debut as
full body armor. Other Terminology: Kumi wins the match.
an official event at the 1992 Summer
Olympics and has been contested in Kata - a gripping pattern. Shintai - Q.933. In field hockey, in a penalty stroke,
eight Olympiads. Saina Nehwal became forwards, sideways and backward an attacker shoots at goal from ___ yards
India's first female world no. 1 in April movement of the body during Judo. away in a one - on - one confrontation
2015 and the first Indian to win an Ukemi - Breakfall techniques. with the goalkeeper.
Olympic badminton medal. Q.930. How many countries participated SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
in the first Asian Games held in 1951? (a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 9
Q.926. In which year was tennis included
in the Olympic games? SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) Sol.933.(c) 7. Field hockey is an eleven -
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) (a) 16 (b) 11 (c) 20 (d) 24 a - side game played on a pitch
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
measuring 91.4 meters long by 55 Q.938. Which country hosted the first Q.942. What is the standard weight of
meters wide (approximately 100 yards by FIFA World Cup? hammer for women in the hammer throw
60 yards). Each team consists of 10 field SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) event?
players and one goalkeeper. (a) Brazil (b) France SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(c) Uruguay (d) Italy (a) 5 kg (b) 4 kg (c) 8 kg (d) 6 kg
Q.934. The Ultimate Kho-Kho League
was started in which year? Sol.938.(c) Uruguay. The FIFA World Cup Sol.942.(b) 4 kg. The hammer throw is
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift) was first organized in 1930 under FIFA one of the four throwing events in track
(a) 2021 (b) 2022 (c) 2023 (d) 2020 President Jules Rimet, with 13 invited and field, along with the discus throw,
teams. Uruguay became the first shot put, and javelin. The hammer
Sol.934.(b) 2022. Ultimate Kho Kho
champion. The 22nd FIFA World Cup was consists of a metal ball attached to a
modifies traditional Kho Kho rules by
held in 2022 in Qatar, where Argentina grip by a steel wire, with the throw taking
reducing the attacking team to seven
defeated France after a 3-3 draw and a place within a 2.135-meter diameter
players and shrinking the field to 22 × 16
4-2 penalty shootout. Lionel Messi, the circle. For the throw to be valid, the
meters. Each tag is worth two points,
Argentine captain, won the Golden Ball hammer must land within a 35-degree
intensifying the scoring. A 30-second
award as the best player of the sector. The standard weight of hammer
break between batches allows for
tournament. for men athletes is 7.26kg.
strategic pauses in the game.
Q.939. According to the International Q.943. Which of the following is NOT any
Q.935. Where did the indigenous sport
Football Association Board (IFAB), which position in the Basketball sport?
‘Kalaripayattu’ originate from?
colour must the football goal post be? SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift)
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift)
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift) (a) Point guard (b) Shooting guard
(a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu
(a) Blue (b) White (c) Red (d) Black (c) Small forward (d) All rounder
df
(c) Goa (d) Karnataka
Sol.939.(b) White. Goal-posts and Sol.943.(d) In basketball, the five
_p
Sol.935.(a) Kerala. Kalaripayattu is a
martial art based on the ancient cross-bars must be made of wood, metal positions on the court are: Point guard -
or other approved materials. They may Usually the team's best ball handler and
na
knowledge of the human body. The
Various Martial Art Forms in India: Thang be square, rectangular, round, half-round playmaker. Shooting guard - A scoring
or elliptical in shape. The International specialist who can shoot from outside.
ap
Ta - Manipur, Lathi Khela - West Bengal,
Gatka - Punjab, Mallakhamb - Madhya Football Association Board (IFAB) is an Small forward - Often considered the
international self-regulatory body of most versatile player, responsible for
:@
Pradesh, Silambam - Tamil Nadu, Kathi
Samu - Andhra Pradesh, Sqay - Kashmir, association football that is known for scoring, rebounding, and defense. Power
Paikha Akhadha - Odisha, Musti Yuddha - determining the Laws of the Game, the forward - Typically the strongest
regulations for the gameplay of football. rebounder and post player. Center - The
TG
Uttar Pradesh (Varanasi).
tallest player, responsible for defending
Q.936. Where was India’s first hockey Q.940. Who is the Indian batsman after the basket and rebounding.
club founded? whom the Ranji Trophy is named?
on
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift) Q.944. Where did the indigenous sport
(a) Madras (b) Delhi (a) Ranjit Singh Bedi (b) Ranjit Singhji ‘Gatka’ originate from ?
ch
(c) Calcutta (d) Shimla (c) Ranjit Patel (d) Ranjit Wadekar SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift)
(a) Punjab
Sol.936.(c) Calcutta. The first hockey Sol.940.(b) Ranjit Singhji. He was ruler
ar
(b) Manipur
club formed in the then Calcutta (now of the princely state of Nawanagar (c) Rajasthan
Se
Kolkata) in 1855. The Hockey (Gujarat) from 1907 to 1933. Ranji (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Association was founded in 1886. The Trophy was started by the Board of
Indian Hockey Federation was the Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) in 1934 Sol.944.(a) Punjab. Gatka is a traditional
administrative body of field hockey in after his death in 1933. The Ranji Trophy fighting style of the Nihang Sikh warriors,
India, incorporated in 1925. The is a premier domestic first-class cricket used both for self- defence as well as a
International Hockey Federation is the championship played in India and sport. Famous Martial Arts in India:
global governing body of field hockey organized annually by the BCCI Kalaripayattu (Oldest Martial Art in India;
founded on 7th January. (Headquarters - Mumbai). Kerala), Silambam (Tamil Nadu),
Thang-ta, and Sarit Sarak (Manipur),
Q.937. The term ‘banana kick’ is Q.941. What is the minimum over rate Thoda (Himachal Pradesh), Lathi (Punjab
associated with which sport ? per hour in a test match? and Bengal), Inbuan Wrestling (Mizoram),
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift) Musti Yuddha (Varanasi), and Pari
(a) Ice Hockey (b) Football (a) 17 overs per hour -Khanda (Bihar).
(c) Boxing (d) Hockey (b) 13 overs per hour
(c) 15 over per hour Q.945. The Thomas Cup is associated
Sol.937.(b) Football. The duration of the (d) 10 overs per hour with which of the following sports?
match is 90 minutes divided into two SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift)
equal halves of 45 minutes each with an Sol.941.(c) 15 over per hour. In ODIs, (a) Badminton male
interval of 10 - 15 minutes. Other bowling teams must complete the (b) Badminton female
important terminology : Football - Back required 50 overs in 3.5 hours, or a (c) Tennis female
Heel, Bicycle Kick, Corner Kick, Foul. minimum of 14.28 overs per hour. For (d) Tennis male
Boxing - Bout, Clinch, Knock Out. Hockey T20s, the requirement is 14.11 overs per
- Bender, Celly, Grinder. hour, according to ICC’s rules. Sol.945.(a) Badminton male. Thomas
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Cup is a Biennial event. The first Q.949. In kabaddi, when a raider touches Advancing. Football - Dribble, Attacker,
tournament was held in 1948 - 49 and any body part of any defender or any part Bicycle kick.
won by Malaya. India’s men’s badminton of their clothing, it is called:
team won the Thomas Cup title for the SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) Q.953. What is the duration of single
first time ever in 2022 by defeating (a) catch (b) tag round in free style wrestling ?
Indonesia. Uber Cup - First held in (c) raid (d) pursuit SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift)
1956–1957 and contested at three year (a) 3 min (b) 2.5 min
intervals, it has been contested every two Sol.949.(b) A tag is a crucial aspect of (c) 3.5 min (d) 2 min
years since 1984. the game, as it allows the raider to score
points by touching multiple defenders Sol.953.(a) 3 min. A typical freestyle
Q.946. Where and when was India’s first during a raid. The raider must then return wrestling bout, much like Greco-Roman,
Senior National Archery Championship to their own side of the court before is divided into two periods of three
held ? taking a breath, making the tag a high - minutes each with a 30-second break in
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) pressure and thrilling moment in the between. For official Under-15, cadets,
(a) Chennai, 1975 (b) Delhi, 1973 game. and veteran competitions, the periods
(c) Delhi, 1975 (d) Chennai, 1973 are curtailed to two minutes each.
Q.950. Pusarla Venkata Sindhu won
Sol.946.(b) Delhi, 1973. The Senior silver medal in badminton in which Q.954. India is home to the second
National Archery Championship was Olympics Games ? oldest cricket club in the world. Where is
introduced as part of organized archery SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift) it situated?
in India, largely due to the efforts of Prof. (a) Beijing 2008 (b) Rio 2016 SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Vijay Kumar Malhotra, who played a key (c) Tokyo 2020 (d) London 2012 (a) Mumbai (b) Kolkata
role in introducing and promoting the (c) Hyderabad (d) Chennai
df
sport in the country. 1972: Archery is Sol.950.(b) Rio 2016. The 2016 Summer
Olympics were held in Brazil, in the city of Sol.954.(b) Kolkata. The world's first
_p
included as an Olympic discipline in the Cricket club - Hambledon, England
Munich Games. 1975: Modern archery Rio de Janeiro. Mascot - Vinicius. She is
the only Indian woman to have won (1760). Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) -
na
takes root in India, with the 1787. First Cricket club in India - Calcutta
establishment of the Archery Association multiple medals at the Olympics - a silver
medal in women's singles at Rio 2016 Cricket club (1792). First ever
ap
of India. international cricket match - US vs
and a bronze at Tokyo 2020. Her awards:
Q.947. With which of the following Padma Bhushan (2020), Padma Shri Canada in 1844. India played their first
:@
sports is Lovlina Borgohain associated? (2015), Arjuna Award (2013), and Major International cricket match - Against
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna (2016). England in 1932.
(a) hockey (b) basketball
TG
Q.951. What is the standard size of Q.955. In which year did the Indian
(c) boxing (d) cricket football team go on its first known
basketball for men?
Sol.947.(c) Boxing. Lovlina Borgohain SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift) official international tour?
on
won a bronze medal at Tokyo 2020 in the (a) 05 (b) 08 (c) 07 (d) 06 SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift)
welterweight category (69kg). She (a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1914 (d) 1924
Sol.951.(c) 07. Basketball dimensions
ch
became only the third Indian boxer to bag Sol.955.(d) 1924. An Indian team,
an Olympic boxing medal after Vijender according to category: Men: Size 7,
comprising both Indian and British
Circumference 749-780mm, Weight
ar
Singh at Beijing 2008 and Mary Kom at players, visited Sri Lanka (Ceylon at the
London 2012. 567-650g. Women: Size 6, Circumference
time) for what was the Indian football
Se
724-737 mm, Weight 510-567g. The ball
team’s first-ever official foreign tour.
Q.948. In cricket, ________ is called by the shall be spherical, with black seams not
Legendary footballer Gostha Pal,
umpire when the bowler doesn’t deliver exceeding 6.35mm in width and, either of
regarded as the first captain of the Indian
the ball within reach of the batter. a single shade of orange or a
football team, led the squad during the
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) combination of orange and other colors.
trip.
(a) dead ball (b) yorker Famous Indian Basketball Players -
(c) no ball (d) wide Paramjeet Singh, Sarabjit Singh, Vishesh Q.956. Buddh International Circuit is
Bhriguwanshi, Trideep Rai, Suman located at:
Sol.948.(d) Wide. Other cricket Sharma. SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
terminology: Dead Ball - When the ball is
(a) Noida (b) Chennai
no longer in play, usually due to an Q.952. Bails are used in which of the
(c) Mumbai (d) Delhi
interruption or an incident, such as a following games/sports?
player leaving the field or a significant SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift) Sol.956.(a) Noida.
external factor. Yorker: This is a type of (a) Badminton (b) Cricket The Buddh International Circuit, a 5.14
delivery where the ball lands very close (c) Hockey (d) Football km motor racing track designed by
to the batter's feet, making it difficult to Hermann Tilke and inaugurated in 2011,
hit. No ball: This is called by the umpire Sol.952.(b) Cricket. Bails are the two is located in Greater Noida, Delhi NCR,
for several reasons, such as when the smaller sticks placed on top of the three and was primarily known for hosting the
bowler's front foot lands beyond the stumps to form a wicket. Terminology Formula One Indian Grand Prix.
crease (overstepping), or when the ball is used in the sports: Cricket - Stumps,
delivered above waist height without Wicket, On-Drive, Maiden Over, Googly. Q.957. Since 1994, Winter Olympics
pitching (a beamer). Badminton - Smash, Shuttlecock, Drive, traditionally take place _______ after the
Let. Hockey - Flick, 16 yard hit, Summer Olympics
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) Q.961. In which year was the Board of SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) 3 months (b) 2 years Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 7 (d) 8
(c) 4 years (d) 6 months formed?
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.965.(c) 7. Game and number of
Sol.957.(b) 2 years. The Winter Olympic (a) 1931 (b) 1928 (c) 1947 (d) 1914 players: Cricket (11), Hockey (11),
Games is a major international Basketball (5), Volleyball (6), Tennis (1 or
multi-sport event held once every four Sol.961.(b) 1928 (December). 2 players), Kabaddi (7), Water Polo (7),
years for sports practiced on snow and Headquarters - Wankhede Stadium, Kho-Kho (9), Rugby (15).
ice. The first Winter Olympic Games, the Churchgate (Mumbai). R E Grant Govan
1924 Winter Olympics, were held in was the first BCCI president. ICC Q.966. Where is the largest football
Chamonix, France. From 1924 to 1992, (International Cricket Council) - stadium in India located?
the Summer and Winter Games were Formation: 1909. SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift)
each held in the same year, every four (a) New Delhi (b) Kolkata
years. The four-year period between the Q.962. In a test match, the captain of the (c) Goa (d) Bengaluru
ancient and modern Olympic Games is fielding side may demand a new ball
Sol.966.(b) Kolkata. The largest football
called an Olympiad. after _____.
stadium in India is the Vivekananda Yuba
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift)
Bharati Krirangan, also known as Salt
Q.958. Which of the following is NOT (a) 85 overs (b) 70 overs
Lake Stadium. Opened - 25 January
compulsory equipment for a football (c) 80 overs (d) 75 overs
1984. Other Stadiums: Birsa Munda
referee?
Sol.962.(c) 80 overs. Test cricket is the Football Stadium (Ranchi), DY Patil
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift)
traditional form of the game, which has Stadium (Navi Mumbai), Guru Nanak
(a) White flag (b) Whistle(s)
been played since 1877 and now settled Stadium (Ludhiana), Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Watch(es) (d) Red and yellow cards
df
in a five-day format which comprises two Stadium (Kollam), Indira Gandhi Stadium
Sol.958.(a) White flag. A Red Card is innings each. It is considered the (Kohima).
_p
used by the officials to remove a player pinnacle form because it tests teams
Q.967. What are the standard
from the match. A yellow card in football over a longer period of time. Test cricket
na
measurements of a cricket pitch?
is a disciplinary warning that a referee consists of three sessions of two hours
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift)
shows to a player who breaks a rule. each, the break between sessions being
ap
(a) 20 yards by 10 ft (b) 22 yards by 12 ft
Modern football originated in Britain in 40 minutes for lunch and 20 minutes.
(c) 20 yards by 12 ft (d) 22 yards by 10 ft
the 19th century. Some famous The International Cricket Council (ICC)
:@
footballers include: Lionel Messi, governs Test cricket. Sol.967.(d) 22 yards by 10 ft. In the
Cristiano Ronaldo, Diego Maradona, game of cricket, the cricket pitch
Q.963. According to rules laid down by
Zinedine Zidane, Pele, Johan Cruyff,
TG
the International Football Association consists of the central strip of the cricket
Franz Beckenbauer. field between the wickets. Dimensions of
Board (IFAB), what can be the maximum
length of a goal line in football ? Cricket Wicket - Height of 28” (71.12 cm)
Q.959. The number of white pawns in
on
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift) and width of 9” (22.86 cm). Bat - Length
chess is _______.
(a) 40 m (b) 100 m (c) 90 m (d) 50 m should be not more than 38 inches (96.5
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
cm) and the width not more than 4.25
ch
(a) 14 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d) 10 Sol.963.(c) 90 m. International Football inches (10.8 cm) and made up of Wood
Sol.959.(c) 8. The pawns begin the game Association Board established in 1886. only. Ball - Weight between 5.5 ounces
ar
on the second and seventh rank: White's FIFA recommendations for field and 5.75 ounces, and shall measure
dimensions in professional football are
Se
pawns start on the second rank, while between 22.4 cm and 22.9 cm in
Black's pawns are located on the seventh 105 metres in length and 68 metres in circumference.
rank. Each player begins a game with width. Number of Players - 11 players.
Q.968. Which of the following is NOT the
eight pawns, one on each square of their Q.964. What is the duration of colour of a warning card in kabaddi?
second rank. The white pawns start on International hockey match? SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
a2 through h2; the black pawns start on SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) (a) Yellow (b) Green (c) Black (d) Red
a7 through h7. (a) 55 min (b) 50 min
Sol.968.(c) Black. The warning card in
(c) 60 min (d) 70 min
Q.960. In which year was the All India kabaddi: Green Card - As an initial
Football Federation (AIFF) formed? Sol.964.(c) 60 min. The total duration of warning. Yellow Card - 2 minutes
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) a field hockey match is 60 minutes (four suspension from the game along with
(a) 1947 (b) 1937 (c) 1957 (d) 1967 quarters of 15 minutes each). Before one technical point to the opponent
2019, matches were played for 70 team. Red Card - 1 technical point to the
Sol.960.(b) 1937. Before AIFF, football
minutes, with a five-minute halftime team along with the suspension from the
was governed by the Indian Football
break after 35 minutes. Common rules of match. The team who has lost the player
Association (IFA), established in Kolkata
Hockey: Hockey Stick Weight: Must not has to continue the match with the
in 1893. AIFF joined FIFA (Federation
exceed 737 grams. Hockey Ground remaining no. Black card is used in the
Internationale de Football Association) in
Dimensions: 91.4 meters long and 55 sport of badminton to indicate
1948 and is responsible for managing
meters wide. disqualification.
football in India, with its headquarters
located in New Delhi. FIFA, the global Q.965. What is the minimum number of Q.969. In badminton, 0 points is called
governing body for football, was founded football players required in a team for a ______.
in Paris (France) in 1904. match to start? SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(a) out (b) love (c) in (d) play Sol.973.(a) Basketball. Dribbling is the part in Modern Olympics for the first time
act of continuously bouncing the ball on SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.969.(b) love: It means one player is the floor with one hand at a time. It's the (a) 1896 (b) 1904 (c) 1900 (d) 1916
at zero point. The word Love comes from only legal way for a player to maintain
the French word l'oeuf – which means possession while walking or running. Sol.977.(c) 1900. Athens hosted the first
egg which is the shape of zero. Other Key terms of Basketball: Assist, Olympics in 1896, starting the tradition of
Badminton Terminology: Shuttlecock, Block, Blocking, Boxing out, Center, the Games being held every four years.
Fail, Smash, Deuce, Black Card. Charging, Crossover, Defense, Dribbling, The Olympic flag was designed in 1913
Dunk, Field goal, Forward, Free throw, by Baron Pierre de Coubertin. India first
Q.970. In Fencing, a defensive blade
Guard, Key, Offense, Pass, Rebound, Shot, took part in the Olympics in 1900 in
movement that blocks the opponent’s
Three-point-line, Traveling, and Turnover. Paris, represented by Norman Pritchard,
offensive action is called ____________.
an Anglo-Indian. Norman Pritchard, an
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Q.974. The term 'Libero' is used in _____ . Indian-born athlete, was the first Asian to
(a) reprise (b) saber
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) win an Olympic medal.
(c) redoublement (d) parry
(a) snooker (b) basketball
(c) volleyball (d) badminton Q.978. Who among the following was the
Sol.970.(d) Parry. Fencing is a combat
founding president of the Indian Olympic
sport featuring sword fighting with three
Sol.974.(c) volleyball. In volleyball, the Association?
disciplines: foil, epee, and sabre. Each
libero is a specialized defensive player SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
uses a different blade and has its own
responsible for receiving serves, digging (a) Dorabji Tata (b) AG. Noehren
rules. Key terms include Allez, Attack,
attacks, and improving ball control. They (c) Jamsetji Tata (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Beat, Counter-parry, Riposte, and Touche.
wear a different-colored jersey and are
Notable Indian fencers are C.A. Bhavani Sol.978.(a) Dorabji Tata. The Indian
not allowed to serve, block, or attack the
df
Devi, Bibish Kathiresan, Ena Arora, and Olympic Association (IOA) is the
ball above the net. Other Terminologies -
Yashkeerat Kaur Hayer. governing body for the Olympic
_p
Cut Shot, Dig, Dink, Double Hit,
Penetration, Sidearm, Booster, Spikers. Movement and the Commonwealth
Q.971. In cricket, a fast, head-high
Games in India. It was established in
na
delivery of the ball is referred to as _____.
Q.975. What is the height of the stump 1927, with Sir Dorabji Tata serving as the
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
from the ground in cricket? Founding President and Dr. A.G. Noehren
ap
(a) bouncer (b) duck
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) as the Secretary General. Its
(c) leg-bye (d) grubber
(a) 27 inch (b) 25 inch headquarters are located in New Delhi,
:@
Sol.971.(a) bouncer. (c) 28 inch (d) 26 inch India.
Cricket Terminologies : Off break, Follow
- on, Fine leg, Mid Wicket, Gully, Third - Sol.975.(c) 28 inches. Cricket Rules and Q.979. In which year was the Department
TG
man, Googly, Short-pitched, Full toss, Dimensions : Minimum length of a of Sports transformed into the
Square, Square leg, Square leg umpire, cricket bat is 38 inches and 4.25 inches Department of Youth Affairs and Sports?
Yorker, Wicket, Timed out, Pitch, Stump, wide. The cricket ball must weigh SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
on
Bail, Beamer, Seamer, Hit wicket, Sawn between 155.9 and 163 g. 8.81 inches - 9 (a) 1983 (b) 1982 (c) 1985 (d) 1984
off, Pavilion, Toss, Maiden over, No ball, inches is the average circumference of
Sol.979.(c) 1985. The Ministry of Youth
ch
Caught, Bowled, Leg Before Wicket, the standard cricket ball in international
cricket. Affairs & Sports was initially set up as
Stumped, Run-out. the Department of Sports in 1982 at the
ar
Q.972. In Equestrian sports, ______ Q.976. In basketball, _________ is when a time of organization of the IX Asian
Se
occurs when a horse or rider lowers an referee throws the ball up at the centre Games in New Delhi . Its name was
element of a jump that establishes the circle to determine which team gets changed to the Department of Youth
height of an obstacle. possession. affairs & sports during celebration of the
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift) SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) International Youth Year, 1985. It became
(a) knockdown (b) canter (a) a hook ball (b) a dunk ball a Ministry on 27th May, 2000.
(c) clean round (d) curb (c) a jump ball (d) a high ball Subsequently, the Ministry has been
bifurcated in Deptt. of Youth Affairs and
Sol.972.(a) knockdown. Penalties: A Sol.976.(c) a jump ball. Basketball is Deptt. of Sports under two separate
knockdown usually results in 4 penalty played between two teams consist of secretaries w.e.f. 30th April, 2008.
points. Types of Knockdowns: twelve (12) members each. But only five
Knockdowns can occur due to various players from each team may be on the Q.980. The number of players in baseball
reasons, including the horse's mistake, court at one time. Shooting with either is:
rider error, or a combination of both. one hand or both hands is done in the SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
Impact on Score: Accumulating penalty following ways - Jump shot, Dunk shot, (a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 7
points can significantly affect a rider's Free throw, Layup, Three-point shot, Hook
shot. A hook shot is where the player Sol.980.(c) 9. Number of players in
overall score and ranking in the
swings the ball up and over their head in game: Cricket (11), Curling (4), Football
competition.
a sweeping motion with one hand. A (11), Futsal (5), Hockey (11), Ice Hockey
Q.973. In which of the following games dunk shot is where a player jumps and (6), Basketball (5), Rugby Football (15),
is the term 'Dribbling' used ? pushes the ball through the basket while Polo (4), Water Polo (7), Volleyball (6),
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) it's still in their hand. Beach Volleyball (2), Kabaddi (7),
(a) Basketball (b) Cricket Lacrosse (12), Handball (7), Kho Kho (9).
(c) Baseball (d) Volleyball Q.977. In which year did women take
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.981. In which year, for the first time, edition of the Asian Games was held in as a shot, as far as possible. The shot is
was a resolution on the National Sports New Delhi on 8 to 11 March 1951. The typically made of brass, iron, or steel with
Policy laid in both Houses of Parliament 19th Asian Games were held in a smooth surface for a better grip. For
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) Hangzhou, China, from September 23 to junior male athletes, the standard shot
(a) 1984 (b) 2014 (c) 1948 (d) 2000 October 08, 2023. put weight is 6 kilograms (13.2 pounds),
while for senior female athletes, it is 4
Sol.981.(a) 1984. The National Sports Q.985. Which of the following is NOT an kilograms (8.8 pounds), and for junior
Policy was formulated with the objective Indian tournament? female athletes, it is 3 kilograms (6.6
of raising the standard of Sports in the Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4) pounds). The diameter of the shot
country. National Sports Day - 29th (a) UEFA Champions League ranges from 110-130 mm for men and
August (to honor the birth anniversary of (b) Durand Cup 95-110 mm for women.
Major Dhyan Chand). (c) Santosh Trophy
(d) Subroto Cup Q.989. In which sport is a shuttlecock
Q.982. What is the colour of the antenna used ?
used on the volleyball net? Sol.985.(a) UEFA Champions League. It Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) is an annual club football competition (a) Basketball (b) Kabaddi
(a) Red and white (b) Yellow and black organized by the Union of European (c) Football (d) Badminton
(c) Black and white (d) Green and white Football Associations (UEFA) and
contested by top-division European Sol.989.(d) Badminton. Equipment -
Sol.982.(a) Red and white. Antennas are
clubs. It was founded in 1955. Some Racket, net and shuttlecock are required.
used to help players and referees
prominent football trophies in India Court - The length and width of the
determine if a ball is in or out of bounds.
include the Durand Cup, Santosh Trophy, doubles court shall be of 13.40 m × 6.10
Court Dimensions: Court = 18 x 9m;
Federation Cup, I-League Trophy, Indian m. The height of the net is 1.55 m at the
df
Diagonal = 20.12m; Attack line = 3m
Super League (ISL) Trophy, IFA Shield, sides and 1.52 m at the centre. The
from centre. Ball: circumference is
_p
Rovers Cup, Sait Nagjee Trophy, Subroto game became an international sport
65–67 cm and its weight is 260–280
Cup, and Bordoloi Trophy. after the first All England Championship.
grams. Net top is set at the height of
na
In 1934, the International Badminton
2.43 m for men and 2.24 m. for women. Q.986. The All India MCC Murugappa Federation (IBF) was formed and the
Height is measured at the centre of the Gold Cup Tournament in Chennai is held
ap
rules of the game were standardized.
court. There are two teams comprising 6 for which sport?
players each on the court. Volleyball was Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Q.990. What is it called in basketball
:@
invented by William G. Morgan in the year (a) Basketball (b) Handball when a shot goes through the basket
1895. (c) Hockey (d) Football without touching the rim or backboard?
Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
TG
Q.983. What is the size of a standard Sol.986.(c) Hockey. Murugappa Gold (a) Screen (b) Dime
table tennis ball? Cup Hockey Tournament 2024 : Winner - (c) Swish (d) Technical foul
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) Railways Sports Promotion Board
on
(a) 41 mm (b) 39 mm (RSPB); Runner up - Maharashtra. Sol.990.(c) Swish. Other terminologies :
(c) 40 mm (d) 42 mm Prominent Indian Hockey Players : A screen is a blocking maneuver by an
offensive player that creates space for a
ch
Jarmanpreet Singh, Sanjay Rana, Raj
Sol.983.(c) 40 mm. Table Tennis
Kumar Pal, Abhishek and Sukhjeet Singh. teammate to receive a pass or take a
Equipment: Ball: The ball is spherical,
shot; it is also known as a pick. A "dime"
ar
orange or white in colour made of Q.987. Gloves are NOT used in which of refers to a precisely delivered pass that
celluloid or similar plastic material with a
Se
the following sports? allows a teammate to easily score. A
diameter of 40 mm, weight 2.7g. Racket: Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4) technical foul is called on a player, coach,
Size about 15 cm across and 25cm long (a) Basketball (b) Hockey or team for unsportsmanlike conduct,
including the handle. Scoreboard: The (c) Cricket (d) Football typically without any physical contact
board used for scoring is called Table
with an opponent.
Tennis Scoreboard. The net is Sol.987.(a) Basketball requires a good
suspended by a cord attached at each grip on the ball and quick hand Q.991. Sir Garfield Sobers Trophy is
end to an upright post 15.25 cm high. movements, which are best achieved related to which of the following sports
The colour of net assembly should be of with bare hands. Gloves would hinder events?
dark green, dark blue or black and have a these movements and reduce control Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
white top not more than 15 mm wide. over the ball. Games where gloves are (a) Tennis (b) Football
generally not required include volleyball, (c) Hockey (d) Cricket
Q.984. The Asian Games is also known tennis and rugby.
as___________. Sol.991.(d) Cricket. The Sir Garfield
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Q.988. What is the weight of the shot put Sobers Trophy is a prestigious award
(a) Asiad for the men's category? presented annually by the International
(b) World Cup Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Cricket Council (ICC) to the ICC Men's
(c) Commonwealth Games (a) 16 pounds (b) 12 pounds Cricketer of the Year. Named after the
(d) National Games (c) 14 pounds (d) 10 pounds legendary West Indies cricketer Sir
Garfield Sobers, the trophy was first
Sol.984.(a) Asiad. The Asian Games Sol.988.(a) 16 pounds (7.26 kg). The awarded to Rahul Dravid in 2004. The
(Asiad) is a multi-sport event held every shot put is a track and field event where latest recipient is Pat Cummins
four years among Asian nations. The first athletes throw a heavy metal ball, known (Australia, 2023).
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.992. Dr. B. C. Roy Trophy is an Indian Todd Memorial Trophy, Williams Cup. any number of squares horizontally or
football tournament for : vertically. Queen - Moves any number of
Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Q.996. How many circles does a target unoccupied squares in any direction-
(a) under-14 players have in archery? horizontally, vertically or diagonally.
(b) under-21 players SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
(c) under-19 players (a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 15 Q.1001. In which year was the Men's
(d) under-17 players cricket world cup started?
Sol.996.(c) 10. Archery: It is the sport, SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Sol.992.(c) under-19 players. The Junior practice, or skill of using a bow to shoot (a) 1985 (b) 1970 (c) 1975 (d) 1980
National Football Championship, also arrows. Terminology: Bodkin point, Bow,
known as BC Roy Trophy, is an Indian Arm guard, Bow Hand, Full Draw, Release, Sol.1001.(c) 1975. World Cup - The first
football tournament held for players Crossbow, Overdraw. World Cup was organised in England in
under-15 years of age representing the 1975. It was won by the West Indies
Q.997. Due to World War I and II the (final was played between Australia and
states of India. It was formerly held for Olympic Games were NOT held in which
the U-19 age group before being West Indies). India won the world cup
years ? two times - First win came in 1983
converted into an U-15 tournament from SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
the 2023-24 edition. (Defeated West Indies in the final) and
(a)1916, 1936, 1940 (b)1916, 1940, 1944 the second win came in 2011 (Defeated
Q.993. The first South Asian Games were (c)1924, 1940, 1944 (d)1920, 1944, 1948 Sri Lanka).
hosted by _____. Sol.997.(b) 1916, 1940, 1944. The first
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Q.1002. What is the most often
modern Olympic Games were held in described as gymnastics and dance on
(a) Kathmandu (b) Dhaka Athens (Greece) in 1896. Summer
(c) Colombo (d) Calcutta (Kolkata) horseback?
df
Olympics and their venues: 2024 - Paris SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Sol.993.(a) Kathmandu. The South Asian (France), 2028 - Los Angeles (U.S.A). (a) Jousting (b) Barrel racing
_p
Games are held with the motto "Peace, Winter Olympics and their venues: 2026 - (c) Equestrian vaulting (d) Steeplechase
Prosperity, Progress." The next edition of Milan–Cortina d'Ampezzo (Italy). Baron
na
the South Asian Games will take place in Pierre de Coubertin founded the Sol.1002.(c) Equestrian vaulting. It was
2025 in Lahore, Pakistan. These games International Olympic Committee (IOC) in demonstrated as an art at the 1920
ap
aim to promote unity and cooperation 1894. Antwerp Olympics. Jousting - Medieval
among South Asian nations through tournament that saw knights compete
:@
Q.998. ‘Let Ball’, 'Stroke Ball' and 'No Let' against each other on horseback. Barrel
sports. are part of which game ? racing - An event in which a horse and
Q.994. With which sport is the Burdwan SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) rider attempt to run a cloverleaf pattern
TG
Trophy associated? (a) Squash (b) Rugby around preset barrels in the fastest time.
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (c) Handball (d) Polo
(a) Powerlifting (b) Weightlifting Q.1003. The Athletics Federation of India
Sol.998.(a) Squash. Terminologies : Foot
on
(c) Boxing (d) Wrestling was formed in ________.
fault, Not up, Out, Fault, Down, Hand Out, SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Sol.994.(b) Weightlifting. Sports and Rally, Striker, Half Court Line, Outline, (a) 1946 (b) 1950 (c) 1936 (d) 1948
ch
Trophies : Badminton - Agarwal Cup, Quarter Court, Board, Hand.
Amrit Diwan Cup, Asia Cup. Basketball - Sol.1003.(a) 1946.
ar
Q.999. In table tennis, the period during The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) is
Basalat Jha Trophy, B. C. Gupta Trophy, which a ball is in play is called __________. the apex body for running and managing
Se
Federation Cup. Boxing - Aspy Adjahia SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Trophy, Federation Cup, Val iBaker athletics in India. Headquarters - New
(a) let (b) point (c) obstruction (d) rally Delhi. AFI has decided to name August 7
Trophy.
Sol.999.(d) Rally starts when the server as ‘Javelin Throw Day’ in India to honor
Q.995. With which game is the CK serves the ball and ends when the point Neeraj Chopra’s first historic Olympic
Nayudu Trophy associated? is awarded to one of the players. Let- gold (2020). International Association of
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Service ball hitting the net or a Athletics Federation (IAAF): Founded -
(a) Cricket (b) Football distraction that causes the point played 1912. Founded at - Stockholm, Sweden.
(c) Handball (d) Basketball over. Point - A unit of scoring in table Headquarters - Monaco.
Sol.995.(a) Cricket. The CK Nayudu tennis. Dead - A ball without any spin. Q.1004. ______ hosted the 2nd Olympic
Trophy is a domestic first-class cricket Games in _______.
Q.1000. The rule that ‘it can move only
tournament in India, named after the SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
one square in any direction’ applies to
famous Indian cricketer CK Nayudu. (a) France, 1900 (b) Japan, 1900
whom in a game of chess?
Sports and trophy/tournament : Cricket - (c) USA, 1900 (d) England, 1900
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Ranji trophy, Deodhar Trophy, Duleep
(a) The Rook (b) The King Sol.1004.(a) France, 1900. First Olympic
Trophy, G. D. Birla Trophy, Irani Trophy,
(c) The Bishop (d) The Queen games were held in Athens (1896). India
Sahara Cup, Vijay Merchant Trophy, Rani
Jhansi Trophy. Football - Durand Cup, Sol.1000.(b) The King. Chess - A board first participated at the Olympic Games
Santosh Trophy (National Football), Sir game for two players, called White and in 1900. The Summer and Winter
Ashutosh Mukherjee Trophy, Subrata Black. It is played on a chessboard with Olympic Games are still held every four
Mukherjee Cup (National school 64 squares arranged in an 8 × 8 grid. years. The five rings represent the union
football). Basketball - Bangalore Cup, Different movement rule: Rook - Moves of the five inhabited continents – Africa,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
the Americas, Asia, Europe and Oceania. Dressage, Eventing, and jumping (also were awarded the Arjun award in 1961.
known as show jumping). First winners: G.S. Randhawa (Athletics),
Q.1005. Rangaswami Cup is associated Nandu M. Natekar (Basketball), Buddy D’
with which game ? Q.1009. The First Commonwealth Suza (Boxing), Manuel Aaron (Chess),
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) Games were organized in which of the Saleem Durrani (Cricket), P.K. Banerjee
(a) Volleyball (b) Basketball following years ? (Football), Kumari Ann Lumsden
(c) Hockey (d) Football SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) (Hockey), J.C. Vora (Table Tennis), R.
(a) 1926 (b) 1930 (c) 1920 (d) 1922 Krishnan (Tennis), A. Palaniswamy
Sol.1005.(c) Hockey. Important cups and
trophies associated with various games: Sol.1009.(b) 1930. Commonwealth (Volleyball), A.N. Ghosh (weightlifting),
Hockey - Agha Khan Cup, Beighton Cup. Games (British Empire Games)- 1st Havaldar Udey Chand (Wrestling).
Cricket - Asia Cup, C. K. Naidu Trophy, Event (1930) - Host city - Hamilton, Q.1013. Which of the following sports
Deodhar Trophy, Duleep Trophy, Irani Canada. Nations - 11. XXII Event (In does NOT have its apex national
Trophy, Ranji Trophy, ICC Champions 2022) - Host city - Birmingham, England. governing body headquartered in New
Trophy, ICC World Cup. Football - Moto - Games for Everyone. Nations - 72. Delhi ?
Bandodkar Trophy, Durand Cup, Rank - 1st- Australia (67 Gold), 2nd - SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Federation Cup, FIFA World Cup, Merdeka England (58 Gold), 4th - India (22 Gold). (a) Badminton Association of India
Cup. Volleyball - Indira Pradhan trophy, (b) Volleyball Federation of India
Centennial Cup, and Shivanthi Gold Cup. Q.1010. During a game of hockey,
following an offense, if a player is shown (c) Athletes Federation of India
Basketball - Todd Memorial Trophy, (d) Hockey India
Williams Jones Cup. a yellow card then he will be sent off the
pitch for _______. Sol.1013.(b) Volleyball Federation of
Q.1006. Netaji Subhas National Institute SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) India: It was founded in 1951 and its
df
of Sports is situated in______. (a) 5 minutes (b) 3 minutes Headquarter is located in Chennai, Tamil
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) (c) 4 minutes (d) 6 minutes
_p
Nadu. Volleyball is played by two teams
(a) Patiala (b) Bengaluru of six players on a court divided by a net.
(c) Kolkata (d) New Delhi Sol.1010.(a) 5 minutes. Other used
na
penalty cards : Red card - A player being Volleyball-court is 18m long and 9m
Sol.1006.(a) Patiala. Netaji Subhas permanently suspended from the game. wide. Terms related to Volleyball - Spike,
ap
National Institute of Sports : Established Green card - An official warning when a Block, Serve, Dig, Set, Attack, Rotation,
- 1961, Commonly known - National minor offense has occurred. White card - Ace, Side out, Net violation, Kill, etc.
:@
Institute of sports (NIS). It is the It is used in bandy to indicate a Q.1014. In football, a kick is awarded to
Academic Wing of the Sports Authority five-minute timed penalty given to a the opposition player when a player has
of India (SAI). It is Asia’s largest sports player. Blue card - It is used in bandy to committed a foul. What is the kick
TG
Institute. indicate a ten-minute timed penalty given called?
to a player. Black card - It is used in the SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening)
Q.1007. What is the distance between sport of badminton to indicate (a) Bicycle kick (b) Goal kick
on
the football goal posts ? disqualification.
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) (c) Wide kick (d) Free kick
(a) 8.34 m (b) 7.10 m Q.1011. Syed Modi India International is
ch
Sol.1014.(d) Free kick. Football related
(c) 7.32 m (d) 6.32 m organized in which sporting event? fact: dimensions 105 meters x 68
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
ar
Sol.1007.(c) 7.32 m. Dimensions - length meters; game lasts for 90 minutes with
(a) Volleyball (b) Badminton two halves of 45 minutes; Players - 11.
of 115 yards and width of 75 yards. A
Se
(c) Chess (d) Kabaddi Football Terms - Attacker, Back Heel,
Football match contains two equal
halves of 45 minutes. Each team has 11 Sol.1011.(b) Badminton. Syed Modi Back Pass, Bicycle Kick, Center Spot,
players. A football weighs between 410 International - This tournament was Corner Flag, Corner Kick, Foul, Free Kick.
to 450 grams. Terms related to football - introduced to the badminton circuit as a Q.1015. The term 'inning' is related to
Penalty Kick, Kick, Goal, Head, Side Back, BWF Grand Prix event in 2009, Since then which of the following sports ?
Pass, Baseline, Rebound, Comer Bick, the tournament is being annually held in SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
Right Out, Hattrick, Move, Left Out, Off Lucknow (Babu Banarasi Das Indoor (a) Basketball (b) Hockey
Side, Stopper, Defender, etc. Stadium). Famous Badminton Trophy : (c) Volleyball (d) kho kho
Uber Cup (Women), Tunku Abdul
Q.1008. Which of the following is NOT an -Rahman Cup, Thomas Cup, BWF World Sol.1015.(d) kho kho. Terminology: Kho,
Equestrian discipline? Championship, Narang Cup. Chaser, Runner, Cross lane, Central Lane,
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) Pole, Square. Total Players - 12.
(a) Dressage (b) Vaulting Q.1012. Who was the first winner of the
(c) Sprint (d) Show jumping Arjuna Award in Kabaddi? Q.1016. In the game of ice hockey,
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) during normal play how many players are
Sol.1008.(c) Sprint. Equestrian is the (a) BC Ramesh there in each team on the ice at any one
broad umbrella term for sport involving (b) Manjeet Chhillar time to compete ?
riding on horseback. There are numerous (c) Sahanand Mahadev Shetty SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
equestrian disciplines ranging from (d) Bholanath Guin (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 6
horse racing and vaulting (gymnastics on
horseback) to polo and rodeo. There are Sol.1012.(c) Sahanand Mahadev Shetty Sol.1016.(d) 6. Ice hockey - Canadian
three disciplines in the Olympic Games: (1972). First time twenty sports persons national sport. The first recognised team,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
the McGill University Hockey Club, was Sol.1021.(c) Anju Bobby George - She Q.1026. Narendra Modi Cricket Stadium
formed in 1880. Sport and number of won a bronze medal in long jump at the is one of the premier stadiums in India
players (in one Team): Baseball - 9, 2003 World Championships in Athletics located at ______.
Basketball -12 players (with five players in Paris. SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
on the court at any given time), Hockey - (a) Ahmedabad (b) New Delhi
11, Kabaddi - 7, Kho Kho - 12 (but during Q.1022. In Ball Badminton, players (c) Baroda (d) Surat
a contest, only 9 players from each side change the ends in each game when a
take the field), Polo - 4, Volleyball - 6. side first scores all of the following, Sol.1026.(a) Ahmedabad. Narendra
EXCEPT: Modi Cricket Stadium (Motera) - Built on
Q.1017. The shape of a basketball court SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) the banks of the Sabarmati River. Other
is a _________ (a) 18 (b) 11 (c) 27 (d) 9 cricket stadiums in India: Eden Gardens -
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) Kolkata, Wankhede Stadium -
(a) circle (b) rectangle Sol.1022.(b) 11. Ball badminton : A sport Mumbai (Maharashtra), HPCA
(c) square (d) triangle native to India. It is a racket sport game, International Cricket Stadium -
played with a yellow ball made of wool, Dharamshala (Himachal Pradesh), Ekana
Sol.1017.(b) rectangle. Shape of other on a court of fixed dimensions (12 by 24 Cricket Stadium - Lucknow (Uttar
Sports court: Boxing - Square/Circle, m) divided by a net. It originated in Pradesh) and Arun Jaitley cricket
Cricket - Circular, Hockey - Rectangular, Tanjore, in Tamil Nadu. It is a team sport, stadium - New Delhi.
Volleyball courts - Rectangular, Tennis played by five players a side.
courts - Rectangular, Badminton Courts - Q.1027. Vinesh Phogat became the first
Rectangular. Q.1023. What is the standard weight of a Indian woman wrestler to win how many
hockey ball? medals at World Championships?
Q.1018. In test match cricket, how many SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift)
df
minimum overs can a team play in a day ? (a) 161 gm - 156 gm (b) 163 gm - 156 gm (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 3
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) (c) 160 gm - 156 gm (d) 162 gm - 156 gm
_p
(a) 60 (b) 80 (c) 70 (d) 90 Sol.1027.(c) 2. Vinesh Phogat became
Sol.1023.(b) 163 gm - 156 gm. Hockey’s the first Indian woman wrestler to win
na
Sol.1018.(d) 90. Test cricket: Longest Related Dimensions : Pitch boundary - gold in both Commonwealth and Asian
form of cricket. Test matches are played The pitch on which field hockey is played Games. Her Awards: Major Dhyan Chand
ap
for five days which comprises two is 91.4m long and 55m wide. Goal post - Khel Ratna (2020), Arjuna Award (2016).
innings by each team. Each goal post is 2.14m high and 0.05m Some Indian Wrestlers - Sakshi Malik,
:@
wide. Terminology - Cross, Dangerous Ravi Kumar Dahiya, Yogeshwar Dutt,
Q.1019. Cricket became an international Play, Defense, Drive, Flick, Penalty Stroke,
game with the formation of the Imperial Deepak Punia, Antim Panghal.
Tackle, Undercutting.
TG
Cricket Conference (ICC) in the Q.1028. Which of the following terms
year_________. Q.1024. The ball color in the sport of Ball best describes the average number of
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Badminton should be: runs a batter makes per 100 deliveries in
on
(a) 1947 (b) 1951 (c) 1921 (d) 1909 SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) cricket?
(a) red (b) pink (c) yellow (d) green SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Sol.1019.(d) 1909. Imperial Cricket
ch
Conference (ICC) - The governing body Sol.1024.(c) Yellow. A ball of lemon (a) Economy rate (b) Batting average
of world cricket. It was renamed as yellow color made of wool between 22 to (c) Strike rate (d) Batting rate
ar
International Cricket Council (ICC) in 23 grams of weight and between 5 to 5.5 Sol.1028.(c) Strike rate. Batting average:
1989. Headquarters - Dubai. cm in diameter. Its racket: Weight from
Se
The total number of runs divided by the
200 to 250 grams; and Length of 63 to 70 total number of innings in which the
Q.1020. In a basketball game, how many cms. Net: Made of fine cord to make a 2
players from one team play on the court batsman was out. Economy rate: A
cm square mesh along its length and bowler's economy rate is the average
at any given time? with red tape at the top, tri-colour (Red
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) number of runs they have conceded per
tape, white and blue body). 1 meter wide over bowled. Run rate: The average
(a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 6 and 13.5 meters in length. number of runs a batsman scores in an
Sol.1020.(b) 5. A traditional basketball Q.1025. What is the weight of the ball in over of six balls.
team has 12 players, with five basketball handball for men ?
players on the court at any given time. Q.1029. In Fencing, a contest between
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift) the two fencers is known as:
Name of positions of five players: Point (a) 425 to 475 gm (b) 325 to 375 gm
guard, Shooting guard, Small forward, SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (1st Shift)
(c) 525 to 575 gm (d) 225 to 275 gm (a) bout (b) remise (c) parry (d) riposte
Power forward and Center.
Sol.1025.(a) 425 to 475 gm. The Sol.1029.(a) Bout. The three disciplines
Q.1021. The first Indian who won a handball court - measures 40m long and
medal in World Athletics Championship of modern fencing are the foil, the epee,
20m wide. The ball (resin handballs) and the saber. The 3 moves in fencing
is_______. circumference ranges from 58 to 60 cm
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) are called : Lunge - The basic attacking
for men and 54 to 56 cm, and the weight move; Parry - A defensive action where
(a) Neeraj Chopra (325 to 375 gm) for women. The
(b) Annu Rani the fencer blocks the opponent's lunge;
handball goal - 2m (6.56ft) high and 3m Riposte - A counterattack by the fencer
(c) Anju Bobby George (9.84ft) wide. A handball team consists
(d) Murali Sreeshankar who has blocked the opponent with a
of 7 players. parry. Remise - It is performed when one
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
fencer's attack has failed, either because champion. India first participated in the Sol.1039.(b) 1974. India played its first
their opponent has parried or they Olympics in 1900 in Paris. The first men's ODI against England at Leeds
missed. Indian contingent at the Olympics was in under the captaincy of Ajit Wadekar. First
1920. Ever ODI Match was played between -
Q.1030. Who became the first Indian Australia and England in 1971 at the
javelin ace to win the gold at the Zurich Q.1035. What is the only sport Melbourne cricket ground (MCG).
Diamond League? specifically designed to be played by
SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (3rd Shift) participants of both genders Q.1040. The term 'Dressage' is
(a) Sahil Silwal (b) Shivpal Yadav simultaneously ? associated with:
(c) Neeraj Chopra (d) Rohit Yadav SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift) SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift)
(a) Netball (b) Quidditch (a) equestrian (b) polo
Sol.1030.(c) Neeraj Chopra (in Zurich (c) Korfball (d) Basketball (c) rugby (d) water polo
diamond league 2022). Gold medals :
Olympics Games 2020 - (Tokyo Japan), Sol.1035.(c) Korfball - It is a ball sport, Sol.1040.(a) Equestrian (horse riding).
World Championships 2023 - (Budapest, with similarities to netball and Indian Equestrians : Fouaad Mirza,
Hungary), Commonwealth Games 2018 - basketball. Each team has 8 players, 4 Imtiaaz Anees, Indrajit Lamba, Darya
(Gold Coast, Australia), Asian Games men and 4 women, who are divided into Singh, Jitendarjit Singh Ahluwalia.
2018 - (Jakarta, Indonesia). Awards : an attacking and defending division. Aim Terminology related to Sports :
Padma Shri (2022), Major Dhyan Chand - To score by throwing the ball through a Equestrian - Amble, Bascule, Buck,
Khel Ratna Award (2021), Arjuna Awards basket that is 3.5 meters high (11.5 feet). Eventing, Forging, Gait and Gallop. Polo -
(2018). Neck Shot, Bump, Chukka, Bowl-in.
Q.1036. What is the minimum lane width Rugby - Drop Goal, Ankle tap, Advantage
Q.1031. What is the width of the court in Swimming in metres? line, Ball back, Blitz defence. Water Polo -
df
for double matches in Lawn Tennis? SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift) Dead Time, Double post, Dry Pass.
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift) (a) 2.10 (b) 2.11 (c) 2.12 (d) 2.13
_p
(a) 38 feet (b) 36 feet Q.1041. Which of the following is NOT
(c) 34 feet (d) 32 feet Sol.1036.(d) 2.13. Size of swimming the first day event in the decathlon?
na
pool (Olympics) : 50 m long, 25 m wide SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Sol.1031.(b) 36 feet. Lawn Tennis Terms and minimum 2 m depth, divided into 10 (a) Discus throw (b) Shot put
ap
- Ace, Advantage, Deuce, Backspin, Deep, lanes. Types of Swimming - Freestyle, (c) 100 metre dash (d) 400 metre dash
Double Bagel, Groundstroke, Approach Backstroke, Breaststroke, Butterfly,
:@
Shot. Double Matchcourt Size - Length Medley, Marathon swimming (in open Sol.1041.(a) Discus throw. Men’s
(78 feet). Single match Court Size - water environments as the rivers, lakes, decathlon : Day 1 - 100 metres running,
Length (78 Feet), Width (27 feet). sea). Famous Olympic Swimmers - Long jump, Shot put, High jump, 400
TG
Michael Phelps, Sajan Prakash, Krisztina metres running. Day 2 - 110 metres
Q.1032. What is the distance between Egerszegi, Virdhawal Khade, Shivani hurdles, Discus throw, Pole vault, Javelin
the goal line and the penalty spot in Kataria. throw, 1500 metres running. Women’s
on
football? decathlon : Day 1 - 100 metres running,
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift) Q.1037. The 'Glide Technique' is used in Discus throw, Pole vault, Javelin throw,
(a) 11 yards (b) 12 yards which track and field event ?
ch
400 metres running. Day 2 - 100 metres
(c) 10 yards (d) 9 yards SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift) hurdles, Long jump, Short put, High jump,
(a) Pole Vault (b) 4 x 100 m Relay
ar
Sol.1032.(b) 12 yards. 1500 metres running.
(c) Shot Put (d) Long Jump
Se
Q.1033. The term ‘tackle point’ is Q.1042. What is the distance between
Sol.1037.(c) Shot Put. the hurdles in 100 m women's hurdles in
associated with ________. Sports Terminology : Wrestling -
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift) metres ?
Freestyle, Bridge out, Breakdown. Weight SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Football (b) Baseball Lifting - Snatch, Jerk.
(c) Hockey (d) Kabaddi (a) 7.50 (b) 9.00 (c) 8.00 (d) 8.50
Q.1038. Who was the first American
Sol.1033.(d) Kabaddi. Terminology in Sol.1042.(d) 8.50 m. In sprint hurdle
male athlete to win the Marathon gold
Sports : Kabaddi - All-out, Ankle hold, races for women, the first hurdle is 13 m
medal in the Olympic Games?
Bonus line, Frog Jump, Lona etc. (42 ft 8 in) from the starting line. In the
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift)
long hurdle events, whether for men or
(a) Abebe Bikila (b) Thomas Hicks
Q.1034. How many Gold medals India women, the first hurdle is 45 m (147 ft 8
(c) Frank Shorter (d) John Hayes
won in the Olympics between 1928 and in) from the starting line and the distance
1980? Sol.1038.(b) Thomas Hicks. between hurdles is 35 m (114 ft 10 in).
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift) Top Marathon Runners : Kelvin Kiptum,
(a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8 Q.1043. What are the events in
Eliud Kipchoge, Kenenisa Bekele, Sisay
powerlifting ?
Lemma, Birhanu Legese, Mosinet
Sol.1034.(d) 8. India has won 10 gold SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift)
Geremew, Dennis Kimetto, Evans Chebet,
medals at the Olympics. The men’s (a) Squats, bench press and deadlift
Gabriel Geay, Lawrence Cherono.
hockey team itself accounts for eight of (b) Squats, lat pull down and curl
them. After Abhinav Bindra (men’s 10m Q.1039. In which year did India make its (c) Curls, bench press and squat
air rifle shooting - Beijing 2008), Neeraj One - Day International (ODI) debut? (d) Curls, over arm lift and deadlift
Chopra (men’s javelin throw - Tokyo SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift)
2020) is the second individual Olympic (a) 1971 (b) 1974 (c) 1975 (d) 1972 Sol.1043.(a) Squats, bench press and
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
deadlift. Other events related to Sports : Q.1048. How many points are there in (Dibrugarh, Assam), Guru Gobind Singh
Swimming - Freestyle, Butterfly, the 4th set in volleyball? Sports College (Lucknow).
Backstroke. Athletics - Relay, Hurdles, SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Shot Put, High Jump. Cycling - Sprint, (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 25 (d) 8 Q.1053. In which year was the 1st winter
Time trial, Track race, Point race. edition of the Olympic Games organised?
Shooting - Rapidfire Pistol, Standard rifle, Sol.1048.(c) 25. Volleyball : Number of SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (4th shift)
Free pistol, Air rifle, Range, Bull’s players in each team - 6, Court - 18 (a) 1926 (b) 1920 (c) 1922 (d) 1924
eye.Weight Lifting - Jerk, Snatch. meters long and 9 meters wide. The net
is 2.43 meters high for men's games and Sol.1053.(d) 1924 (Chamonix, France).
Q.1044. Who among the following is the 2.24 meters high for women's games. American Charles Jewtraw became the
first Indian female football player to play Other games : Tennis - The first point is first Gold medalist in the 1st Winter
in Union of European FootballAssociation “15”. The second is “30. The third point is Olympic Games.
(UEFA)'s women's champions league? “40”. Badminton : The best of 3 games of Q.1054. The maximum distance covered
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) 21 points. Terminologies (Volleyball) - in a marathon is___________.
(a) Shanti Mallick block, decoy, dig, dump, pancake, SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift)
(b) Bala Devi tandem, Stuff etc. (a) 40 km (b) 42.5 km
(c) Manisha Kalyan (c) 42.195 km (d) 41.5 km
(d) Oinam Bembem Devi Q.1049. Maximum how many overs can
a bowler bowl in ODI cricket matches? Sol.1054.(c) 42.195 km. This distance
Sol.1044.(c) Manisha Kalyan. She won SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (2nd shift) was standardised at 26 miles 385 yards
the 2020-21 AIFF Women's Emerging (a) 11 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 8 (42.195km) in 1921. The first women’s
Footballer of the Year and the 2022–23 Olympic marathon took place at the 1984
AIFF Women's Player of the Year awards. Sol.1049.(c) 10. The minimum number
df
of bowlers in a 50 over ODI match has to Los Angeles Games. Half-Marathon :
Other Indian international footballers - 13.1 miles (approximately 21.0975
be 5. The maximum number of overs per
_p
Sunil Chhetri, Bhaichung Bhutia, Shabbir kilometres). India’s Marathon players -
Ali, Climax Lawrence, Gouramangi Singh, bowler in T20 Cricket is 4. The first ODI
was played on 5 January 1971 between Nitendra Singh Rawat, Ram Singh Yadav,
na
Subrata Pal, I. M. Vijayan, Mahesh Gawli, Srinu Bugatha, Rashpal Singh.
Manitombi Singh. Australia and England at the Melbourne
Cricket Ground.
ap
Q.1055. Khelo India Winter Games
Q.1045. Which country came out with started in which year?
the first 'official' compilation of volleyball Q.1050. Sports Authority of India, the
:@
apex body for sports promotion, was set SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (2nd shift)
rules and was published by the YMCA? (a) 2022 (b) 2020 (c) 2019 (d) 2018
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (3rd shift) up in the year ________.
(a) Germany (b) The US SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift) Sol.1055.(b) 2020. The first Khelo India
TG
(c) The UK (d) Australia (a) 1990 (b) 1961 (c) 1984 (d) 1982 Winter Games were held in two legs at
Sol.1050.(c) 1984. Sports Authority of two different venues : Leh (Ladakh),
Sol.1045.(b) The US. William G. Morgan - Gulmarg (Jammu and Kashmir).
on
A YMCA physical education director, India (SAI): Headquarters - New Delhi.
created the game of volleyball in 1895, Associated Ministry - Ministry of Youth Q.1056. A football match lasts two equal
Affairs and Sports. Sports Organization
ch
and he also wrote down the original rules periods of_________.
for the sport. and Headquarters : Indian Olympic SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Association (New Delhi) - 1927, All India
ar
(a) 40 minutes (b) 50 minutes
Q.1046. Which of the following countries Football Federation (New Delhi) - 1937. (c) 20 minutes (d) 45 minutes
Se
has hosted the three Asian Games?
Q.1051. Which of the following states
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift) Sol.1056.(d) 45 minutes. A football team
recognise the Dahi Handi as a sports
(a) South Korea (b) Philippines consists of 11 players on the field,
event?
(c) Japan (d) India including 1 goalkeeper and 10 outfield
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift)
players. Football Terminology : Back
Sol.1046.(a) South Korea (1986, 2002 (a) Maharashtra (b) Bihar
heel, cross, far post, futsal, Header,
and 2014). Asian Games: Organized by (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
Inswinger. Games and their duration :
the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) after Hockey (two periods of 35 minutes),
Sol.1051.(a) Maharashtra. Dahi Handi
every 4 years. Headquarters - Kuwait. Basketball (48 minutes or 12 minutes
(Gopal kala) is celebrated during the
New Delhi, India, hosted the first Asian each quarter), Kabaddi (two halves of 20
Krishna Janmashtami.
Games in 1951 and the second time in minutes).
1982. 20th Asian Games (2026) will be Q.1052. In which of the following states
held in Nagoya (Japan). is the National Sports University located? Q.1057. FTX Crypto Cup is associated
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift) with which of the following sports
Q.1047. In the Olympic flag, the total events?
(a) Manipur (b) Punjab
number of rings are _________. SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (1st shift)
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Assam
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Snooker (b) Chess (c) Billiards (d) Golf
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 4 Sol.1052.(a) Manipur. National Sports
University : Inaugurated on 16 March Sol.1057.(b) Chess. Sports with other
Sol.1047.(b) 5. The Olympic rings were 2018, by Narendra Modi in Imphal. Cups/Trophies: Snooker - World Snooker
designed by Pierre de Coubertin in 1913 Sports universities : Lakshmibai National Championship, Scottish Open, World
with the coloured blue, yellow, black, Institute Of Physical Education (Gwalior), Grand Prix. Billiards - Arthur Walker
green, and red on a white field. Sri Sri Aniruddha Deva Sports University Trophy. Polo - Ezar Cup, President Cup.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Tennis - Ambre Solaire Cup, ATP (c) Baseball (d) Handball (a) Sourabh Chaudhari (b) Manika Batra
President's Cup, Watson's Water Trophy, (c) Sankalp Gupta (d) Pankaj Advani
Wightman Cup. Football - African Sol.1062.(a) Basketball. Techniques -
Nations Cup, McDowell Cup, Merdeka Screen (blocking opponent player by Sol.1066.(d) Pankaj Advani. Awards and
Cup. standing beside), Shooting (To score), achievements : Arjuna Award (2004),
Dribbling (Move the ball in court), Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna
Q.1058. The term 'Straight drive' is defence, Rebounding (controlling missed (2005-06), Padma Shri (2009), Padma
related to which of the following sports? shots), passing. International Basketball Bhushan (2018), Rajyotsava Prashasti
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (2nd shift) Federation (Headquarters - Mies, (2007). Sourabh Chaudhari (shooter) -
(a) Hockey (b) Cricket Switzerland) - Governs the sport of Gold medal (Asian Games 2018),
(c) Football (d) Badminton basketball worldwide. Famous players - Sankalp Gupta (Chess) - India's 71st
Wilt Chamberlain, Michael Jordan, Grandmaster.
Sol.1058.(b) Cricket. LeBron James.
Other terminologies :Cricket - Beamer, Q.1067. When was the Duckworth -
Belter, Chinaman, Chucker, Dolly, Doosra, Q.1063. In hockey, _________ is awarded Lewis formula used for the first time in
Duck, Googly, Maiden, Mankad, Nurdle, if the ball goes over the back line after international cricket ?
Paddle etc. last being touched by a defender. Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 ( Shift - 2)
SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 4th shift) (a) 1 January 1998 (b) 1 January 1999
Q.1059. How many substitute players are (a) long corner (b) off side (c) 1 January 1996 (d) 1 January 1997
there in a Beach Volleyball team? (c) free hit (d) penalty comer
SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 3rd shift) Sol.1067.(d) 1 January 1997.
(a) 3 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 1 Sol.1063.(a) Long corner. Free hit - It calculates the target score for the team
Awarded to a team if the opposing team batting second in a limited overs cricket
df
Sol.1059.(b) 0. Beach Volleyball - Team - commits a foul outside the circle. match interrupted by weather or other
Two players. Terms related - Ace, Block, Penalty corner - Awarded to the circumstances. The method was devised
_p
Attack, Chicken wing, Forearm pass, etc. opposition team when a player commits by Frank Duckworth and Tony Lewis.
a foul within the striking circle. Players in
na
Q.1060. The Nehru trophy boat race was Q.1068. In which of the following sports
organized by which of the following Hockey - 11 (10 field players and 1
goalkeeper). is the technique clean and jerk used?
ap
states ? Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 4th shift) Q.1064. Deepika Pallikal is associated (a) Wrestling (b) Hammer throw
:@
(a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu with _____. (c) Bodybuilding (d) Weightlifting
(c) West Bengal (d) Kerala SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (2nd shift)
(a) squash (b) billiards Sol.1068.(d) Weightlifting. Clean and
Sol.1060.(d) Kerala. Nehru boat race - It
TG
(c) chess (d) cricket jerk is a two-part weightlifting movement
is named after Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. : lifting the barbell to the shoulders
Conducted on the Punnamada lake, near Sol.1064.(a) Squash. She is the first (clean) and then lifting it overhead (jerk).
Alappuzha on the second Saturday of
on
Indian to break into the top 10 in the The snatch - Weightlifter picks up the
August every year. Traditional Sports of Professional Squash Association barbell and lifts it above his head in one
Indian states : Seval Sandai or Women's rankings. The World Squash singular motion.
ch
Cockfighting - Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Federation (WSF) - The global governing
Andhra Pradesh. Maramadi Bull Surfing - body for the sport of squash; Q.1069. In hockey, if the umpire indicates
ar
Kerala. Kambala, Hori habba - Karnataka. Headquarters - Hastings (UK); the direction with one arm raised
Jallikattu, Pallanguzhi - Tamil Nadu. horizontally, it Means___________ .
Se
Establishment - 1967.
Bullock cart race - Maharashtra. Camel Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
racing - Rajasthan. Dhopkhel - Assam. Q.1065. The number of flights in a 110 m (a) Goal scored (b) Bully
hurdle race is______. (c) Timing (d) Free hit
Q.1061. Who among the following is
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (3rd shift)
India's second GrandMaster after Sol.1069.(d) Free hit. Umpires Signal in
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11
Viswanathan Anand ? Hockey : Time Start - Turn Towards the
SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 2nd shift) Sol.1065.(c) 10. It is a track event in other umpire with one arm straight up in
(a) P. Harikrishna (b) Dibyendu Barua athletics. It is for both men and women. the air. Time Stopped - Turn towards the
(c) Sasikran Krishnan (d) Abhijit Kunte Dimensions : Standard heights of the other umpire and cross fully extended
hurdle : Distance (110 m/100 m) - Men's arms at the wrists above the head. Hit for
Sol.1061.(b) Dibyendu Barua.
(1.067 m), under 20 Women (0.838 m), behind the back-line (16-yard hit) - Extend
Grandmaster (GM) a title awarded to
under 20 Men (0.991 m). Distance (400 both arms horizontally sideways. Penalty
chess players by the world chess
m) - Men's (0.914 m), under 20 Women Stroke - One arm points to the penalty
organization FIDE (Federation
(0.762 m), under 20 Men (0.914 m). spot, the other points straight in the air.
Internationale des Echecs). Formed on
There are 10 hurdles in the 400 m hurdle Obstruction - Hold crossed forearms in
20 July 1924. Headquarters - Lausanne
race. There are 28 hurdle jumps and 7 front of the chest. Kicks - Slightly raise a
(Switzerland).
water jumps in 3000 m steeplechase leg and touch it near the foot or ankle
Q.1062. In which of the following sports, event. with the hand.
apart from volleyball, do players make
use of the Screen technique? Q.1066. Which of the following players is Q.1070. Which of the following
SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 3rd shift) associated with billiards ? weightlifting styles is used in
(a) Basketball (b) Cricket Graduate Level 28/06/2023 ( Shift - 3) powerlifting?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 3) started in 1905 AD. (a) Koneru Humpy
(a) Straight lift (b) Deadlift (b) Vishwanathan Anand
(c) Clean and jerk (d) Power lift Q.1074. The Corbillon Cup is associated (c) Vidit Santosh Gujrathi
with which of the following sports ? (d) P Harikrishna
Sol.1070.(b) Deadlift. Powerlifting - It is SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Afternoon)
a sport consisting of three lifts : Squat, (a) Golf (b) Hockey Sol.1078.(d) P Harikrishna. He became
bench press, and deadlift. Goal of the (c) Table Tennis (d) Badminton the youngest grandmaster from India
sport is to lift as much weight as after attaining the title in 2001, a record
possible. Wrestling styles - Greco Roman Sol.1074.(c) Table Tennis. The Corbillon now held by Gukesh D. He was
Wrestling, FreeStyle Wrestling, Folk Style Cup is awarded to the winning team of Commonwealth Champion in 2001,
Wrestling and Sumo Wrestling. Female the women's team event at the World World Junior Champion in 2004, and
weightlifters : Mirabai Chanu, Karnam Table Tennis Championships. Cups and Asian Individual Champion in 2011.
Malleswari, Kunjarani Devi. trophy : Golf - Ryder Cup, Aga Khan Gold
Cup. Hockey - Scindia Gold Cup, Q.1079. Who among the following is/was
Q.1071. Pommel Horse, Roman Rings, Murugappa Gold Cup. a famous track and field sprinter of India ?
Vaulting Table are few term which are SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Morning)
related to _________ Q.1075. Who won India's first badminton (a) Major Dhyan Chand
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Evening) medal in the Olympics games? (b) T. C. Yohannan
(a) Gymnastic (b) Swimming SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Afternoon) (c) Mahesh Bhupathi
(c) Riding (d) Polo (a) P.V.Sindhu (b) Prakash Padukone (d) Milkha Singh
(c) Saina Nehwal (d) Pullela Gopichand
Sol.1071.(a) Gymnastics - B-score, Sol.1079.(d) Milkha Singh (Flying Sikh) :
Back-to-back tumbling, Balance, Base, Sol.1075.(c) Saina Nehwal. She became He won Gold medals in 1958
df
Bib, Busnari. Football - Bending the Ball, the first Indian female to win a 4-star Commonwealth Games, 1958 Tokyo
Direct Free Kick, Dribble. Swimming - tournament in 2006. Medal Record - Asian Games (200m and 400m), 1962
_p
Butterfly, Breaststroke. Polo - Chukker, Bronze (Olympics, 2012), Gold (2010 and Jakarta Asian Games (400 m and 4 х 400
Foul, Knock-in. Riding - Dressage, Bridle, 2018 Commonwealth). Awards - Arjuna m relay). Awards - Padma Shri (1959).
na
Reins. Award (2009), Padma Shri (2010), Major Famous players related to sports: Track
Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna (2009–2010), and field sprinters - Hima Das, Dutee
ap
Q.1072. In Table Tennis, the length of Padma Bhushan (2016). Chand, Amiya Kumar Mallick, Amlan
upper surface of the table is______ Borgohain.
:@
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Evening) Q.1076. The First Field Handball World
(a) 264 cm (b) 780 cm Championships were played in Germany Q.1080. Who was the first Indian and
(c) 274 cm (d) 270 cm in______. Asian tennis player to win an Olympic
TG
SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Afternoon) medal?
Sol.1072.(c) 274 cm. Dimensions of (a) 1958 (b) 1928 (c) 1938 (d) 1948 SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Afternoon)
table in table-tennis - 2.74 meters long, (a) Ankita Raina (b) PV Sindhu
Sol.1076.(c) 1938. First Field Handball
on
1.525 m wide, and 0.76 m high. Table (c) Purav Raja (d) Leander Paes
tennis (ping-pong /whiff-whaff) is the World Championships was played on the
national sport of China. Table tennis was 5th and 6th February 1938, hosted by Sol.1080.(d) Leander Paes. He won a
ch
first played as an Olympic sport at the Germany, under the International bronze medal in men's single at the 1996
1988 Summer Olympics in Seoul. The Amateur Handball Federation (IAHF). Summer Olympics in Atlanta. KD Jadhav
ar
name table tennis was adopted in Only 4 teams participated : Germany, - The first athlete from independent India
Austria, Sweden and Denmark. Germany
Se
1921–22. Table tennis was founded by to win an individual Olympic medal. He
David Foster. Players - Sharath Kamal won this championship. won a bronze medal in wrestling at the
Achanta, Ma Long, Manika Batra, Liu Q.1077. In cricket, hitting the ball to the 1952 Helsinki Olympics.
Guoliang. boundary along the ground is _____ runs.
Q.1081. The National Anti-Doping Bill,
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Q.1073. Which is the oldest tennis 2021 targets _________ sector of India
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 6
tournament in the world? SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening)
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.1077.(c) 4. If the ball crosses the (a) Sport (b) Agriculture
(a) French Open (b) US Open boundary line without touching the (c) Finance (d) Military
(c) Wimbledon (d) Australian Open ground, 6 runs are scored. Five penalty
Sol.1081.(a) Sport. The National
runs are awarded to the batting team if
Sol.1073.(c) Wimbledon - The Anti-Doping Bill, 2021 - The Bill prohibits
The ball strikes a fielder's helmet when it
tournament dates back to 1877. athletes, athlete support personnel, and
is on the field but not being worn. Types
Wimbledon is the oldest and most other persons from engaging in doping in
of out in cricket - Caught, Bowled, Leg
prestigious grass court Grand Slam sport. National Anti-Doping Agency
Before Wicket (LBW), Stumped, Run-out,
tennis tournament, believed to be the (India) - Formation - 24 November 2005,
Obstructing the field, Hit Wicket, Timed
oldest active tennis tournament globally, Purpose - Anti-doping in sports,
Out, Hit the ball twice, Retired out.
and is held from late June to early July Headquarters - New Delhi, Official
each year. US Open - This tournament Q.1078. Who among the following is the language - English, Hindi. Chairman -
was started in 1881 AD, French Open first Indian to win the under 10 World Minister of Sports (India).
(Roland Garros tournament) - This Chess Championship in Menorca, Spain
tournament was started in 1891, in the year 1996? Q.1082. The thickness of a wrestling mat
Australian Open - This tournament was SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Evening) should be between _______ centimetres.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening) England in 1932. Sol.1091.(d) 2 min. A standard ring is
(a) 7 and 9 (b) 5 and 7 between 16 and 24 feet (4.9 and 7.3 m)
(c) 9 and 11 (d) 3 and 5 Q.1087. Olympic Games 1952 were held to a side between the ropes with another
in which of the following places? 2 feet (0.61 m) outside.
Sol.1082.(b) 5 and 7. Wrestling - At the SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon)
Olympics there are two variations of (a) London (b) Helsinki Q.1092. What is the average
wrestling : Freestyle and Greco-Roman. (c) New York (d) Berlin circumference of the standard cricket
ball in international cricket ?
Q.1083. The Super Bowl, an annual Sol.1087.(b) Helsinki. Summer Olympics SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
championship game of Football, is held 1st Olympics (Athens, Greece, in 1896), (a) 7.89 inches - 8.45 inches
in _______ country. 2nd Olympics (Paris, France, in 1900), 32th (b) 10.46 inches - 10.90 inches
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Evening) Olympics (Tokyo Olympic 2020, Japan), (c) 9.45 inches - 10.20 inches
(a) Canada (b) Peru 33th Olympics (Paris, France, in 2024). (d) 8.81 inches - 9 inches
(c) United States of America (d) Mexico Headquarter of the International
Olympics committee (IOC) - Lausanne, Sol.1092.(d) 8.81 inches - 9 inches.
Sol.1083.(c) United States of America. Switzerland. Cricket pitch is 22 yd (20.12 m) long (1
The Super Bowl (Big Game) - One of the chain) and 10 ft (3.05 m) wide.
biggest annual sporting events, It is the Q.1088. Davis Cup is related with which
final championship game of the National of the following sports ? Q.1093. In Table Tennis, how many lets
Football League (NFL). SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift) are allowed in a row on a serve?
(a) Table Tennis (b) Cricket SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Q.1084. Which among the following is an (c) Basketball (d) Tennis (a) Three (b) Unlimited (c) Two (d) One
international level professional auto
df
racing sport? Sol.1088.(d) Tennis (Men). Other Cups Sol.1093.(b) Unlimited. There's no limit
SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Afternoon) related to Tennis : Wimbledon Trophy, on the number of times one can replay
_p
(a) Formula One (b) Super Bowl Wightman Cup (Women). when it has hit the net.
(c) Tour de France (d) Wimbledon
na
Q.1089. Which of the following pairs of Q.1094. Players that stop dribbling in
Sol.1084.(a) Formula One - Highest "term-sports" is correct? handball have to pass or shot within:
ap
class of international racing for open - I. Offside - Football , II. Par - Golf SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (1st Shift)
wheel single-seater formula racing cars SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (1st Shift) (a) 5 second (b) 30 second
:@
sanctioned by the Fédération (a) Only II (b) Both I and II (c) 10 second (d) 3 second
Internationale de l'Automobile. (c) Neither I nor II (d) Only I
Sol.1094.(d) 3 seconds. If a handball
Q.1085. Judo has its origin in the ancient Sol.1089.(b) Both I and II. Terms related player takes more than three steps
TG
_______ art of Ju-jitsu. with Golf : Hole , Bogey , Put , Stymie , without dribbling (bouncing the ball) or
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon) Caddie, Tee, Links, Putting the green. holds the ball for more than 3 seconds
(a) Malaysian (b) Korean Some prominent golfers of India are : without bouncing it, shooting or passing,
on
(c) Chinese (d) Japanese Aditi Ashok, Diksha Dagar, Jeev Milkha then that is deemed 'walking' and
Singh, Anirban Lahiri, Shubhankar possession is lost. Terminology used in
Sol.1085.(d) Japanese. Kano Jigoro
ch
Sharma, Arjun Atwal, Shiv Kapur, Jyoti Handball : Court player, Goalie, Corner
invented Judo in 1882. Judo was
Randhawa, Udayan Mane, Gaganjeet Throw, Free throw, Penalty throw,
developed as a martial art for
ar
Bhullar etc. Referee’s throw, Dive shot, Goal, Throw-in,
self-defense and personal development.
Throw-on, Throw out, etc.
Se
It emphasizes throws, joint locks, and Q.1090. The term 'Back-stick' is used in
pins to subdue opponents. The terms which of the following games/sports ? Q.1095. The length of a Beach Volleyball
Kumi-Kata, Shintai, Ukemi are associated SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (1st Shift) court is:-
with judo. National games : Japan - (a) Basketball (b) Badminton SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Sumo Wrestling; South Korea - (c) Hockey (d) Volleyball (a) 12 m (b) 16 m (c) 20 m (d) 15 m
Taekwondo; Malaysia - Sepak Takraw
Sol.1090.(c) Hockey. Back stick is a Sol.1095.(b) 16 m long & 8 m wide. Two
(Kick volleyball); China - Table Tennis
penalty for hitting the ball on the rounded teams of two or more players. An
(Ping Pong).
back side of the Stick. Other Olympic sport since the 1996 Summer
Q.1086. In which country did the game of terminologies used in the game of Olympics (Atlanta). Beach Volleyball is
cricket start? hockey : Bully, Circle, Charging, Channel, the modified form of the game Volleyball.
SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Afternoon) Clear, Chip, Crumbs, The “D”, Drag flick, Volleyball - court is 18m long and 9m
(a) New Zealand (b) South Africa Flagrant foul, Flick, Flat-stick tackle, Foot, wide. Two teams of six players. An
(c) India (d) England Green Card, Hacking, Hooking, Indian Olympic sport since the 1964 Summer
Dribble, Jink, Leading pass, Yellow Card, Olympics (Tokyo). Federation
Sol.1086.(d) England. The world's first
Tomahawk, Tackle, Sweep hit, Swatting, Internationale de Volleyball (FIVB) is the
Cricket club - Hambledon, England.
Scoop, Red Card, Pitch, etc. international governing body for both of
Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC) - 1787.
the games.
First Cricket club in India - Calcutta Q.1091. In AIBA Boxing Junior Boys and
Cricket club (1792). First ever Girls Competitions, the bouts must Q.1096. Pivoting is related to which of
international cricket match - US vs consist of each round of _______ minutes. the following sports?
Canada in 1844. India played their first SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (3rd Shift) SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (1st Shift)
International cricket match - Against (a) 5 min (b) 3 min (c) 1 min (d) 2 min (a) Hockey (b) Volleyball
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(c) Badminton (d) Basketball Sol.1101.(d) 1960. India has won 35 (a) front court (b) back court
medals at the Olympics since the 1900 (c) restricted area (d) middle court
Sol.1096.(d) Basketball. Pivoting in edition. Gold medal winners from India :
basketball is when a player stands still Jaipal Singh (1928 - Amsterdam), Lal Sol.1105.(b) Back court. The centre line
and steps with one foot. The foot that Bokhari (1932 - Los Angeles), Dhyan is marked parallel to the end lines from
stays on ground is called pivot foot. Chand (1936 - Berlin), Kishan Lal (1948 - the midpoint of the side lines. It extends
Basketball (court - 28 m × 15 m) - 2 London), K.D. Singh (1952 - Helsinki), 0.15 m beyond each sideline. The
teams of five active players each. In Balbir Singh Sr (1956 - Melbourne), backcourt is the half of the court that the
Olympics since 1936. Charanjit Singh (1964 - Tokyo), team with the ball advances the ball from
Vasudevan Bhaskaran (1980 - Moscow), into the frontcourt. In a basketball game,
Q.1097. In all AIBA Boxing competitions, the frontcourt is the side of the court on
the rest time between each round is Abhinav Bindra (2008-Beijing), and
Neeraj Chopra (2021-Tokyo). which the team with possession of the
________minutes. ball is attempting to score, and is also
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (1st Shift) Q.1102. Which of the following strokes in known as that team's offensive end of
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5 swimming does NOT start with a dive the court.
Sol.1097.(a) 1. into the pool from outside?
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Q.1106. In which game/sport is the area
AIBA Boxing competitions - comprising of bout called a ring?
three rounds of three minutes in men, (a) Butterfly (b) Backstroke
(c) Breaststroke (d) Freestyle SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift)
and four rounds of two minutes in (a) Taekwondo (b) Judo
women. Sol.1102.(b) Backstroke : (c) Karate (d) Boxing
Q.1098. In Tennis which of the following The backstroke is unique because it’s the
only stroke done on the back. It’s the Sol.1106.(d) Boxing. Other Facts of
df
scores is a complete set? Boxing - Clinching refers to the act of
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift) third-fastest competitive swimming
leaning excessively on the opponent for
_p
(a) 5 - 3 (b) 6 - 4 (c) 6 - 6 (d) 6 - 5 stroke – faster than the breaststroke but
slower than the butterfly. Butterfly : Start support. Parrying refers to the act of
blocking a blow from the opponent using
na
Sol.1098.(b) 6 - 4. A tennis match is by putting both of your arms straight in
composed of points, games, and sets. front of you at the 12 o’clock position, the glove. A knock out is an automatic
win. Knockdown that happens when a
ap
Tennis is played in points : Four points palms slightly tilted outward at about a
win a game, six games win a set, and two shoulder’s width apart. boxer falls to the ground.
:@
or three sets win a match. A set consists Q.1107. Asiad is regulated by_________.
of a number of games (a minimum of Q.1103. In hockey, what is the meaning
of the signal if the umpire points both SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift)
six). A set is won by the first side to win (a) International Olympic Council
arms horizontally towards the goal?
TG
six games with a margin of at least two (b) Commonwealth Games Federation
games over the other side (e.g. 6-3, 6-4 SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(a) Free hit (b) Penalty corner (c) Indian Olympic Council
or 7-5). (d) Olympic Council of Asia
(c) Penalty stroke (d) Goal scored
on
Q.1099. The age range for the Youth Sol.1107.(d) Olympic Council of Asia
Boxer category is: Sol.1103.(b) Penalty Corner. Umpire
(OCA). Asiad (Asian Games) - Held every
ch
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift) signals in Hockey : Free hit (Indicate the
direction with one arm raised horizontally four years. First held in 1951 in New
(a) 15 – 16 years (b) 19 – 20 years Delhi. Indian Olympic Association -
ar
(c) 17 – 18 years (d) 13 – 18 years and open hand at face level), Penalty
stroke (One arm points to the penalty governing body for the Olympic
Se
Sol.1099.(c) 17 – 18 years. IBA Youth spot, the other points straight in the air), Movement and the Commonwealth
World Boxing Championships (began in Goal scored (point both arms horizontally Games in India. Commonwealth Games
1979 & held biennially since 1990). towards the center of the field). Federation - international organisation
responsible for the direction and control
Q.1100. In football, when the ball strikes Q.1104. Which of the following sports of the Commonwealth Games.
the frame of the goal or the referee and was initially known as Poona? International Olympic Council -
remains within the goal and touch lines, SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (4th Shift) responsible for Olympic games.
it is: (a) Badminton (b) Baseball
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (2nd Shift) (c) Volleyball (d) Kho-Kho Q.1108. What is the distance of the
(a) foul (b) still in play penalty mark from the midpoint of the
(c) a misconduct (d) out of play Sol.1104.(a) The modern version of goal post in football?
Badminton has its origins in the city of SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Sol.1100.(b) still in play. Other terms Pune in India and was initially called (a) 10 m (b) 15 m (c) 11 m (d) 13 m
related to Football : Back of the net, 'Poona', which was played by British army
Ball-to-hand, Bicycle kick, Box-to-box officers stationed in India in the 1860s. In Sol.1108.(c) 11m. Some Facts - All free
player, Chip shot, Clean sheet, Hoof, 1873 the duke of Beaufort introduced the kicks and corners are direct and
Dummy run etc. sport at his country estate, Badminton opposition must be 3 metres away.
House, from which the game derives its Dribble is keeping control of the ball
Q.1101. In which of the following name. while running.
Olympic games did India NOT win Gold?
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (1st Shift) Q.1105. The Basketball centre line is part Q.1109. The first edition of the
(a) 1948 (b) 1928 (c) 1932 (d) 1960 of the: Commonwealth Youth Games was
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (2nd Shift) organised in which of the following
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
years? (c) warning for misconduct Sol.1117.(a) Assen, Netherlands. 2nd
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (3rd Shift) (d) disqualified for misconduct edition (France, 1998). 2022 - Spain.
(a) 2008 (b) 2012 (c) 2000 (d) 2016 2023 - Durban, South Africa. Bhavina
Sol.1113.(c) Warning for misconduct. Patel - 2022 - Birmingham
Sol.1109.(c) 2000. The first edition of Red Card - Fault for misconduct, Black Commonwealth Games, Gold, Tokyo
the Commonwealth Youth Games was Card - Disqualified for misconduct. The 2020 paralympic - Silver, Arjuna Award
held in Edinburgh (Scotland) from 10 to first badminton competition (All England (2021).
14 August 2000. 2nd edition (December Open Badminton Championships), for
2004) - Bendigo (Australia). 7th edition gentlemen's doubles, ladies' doubles, and Q.1118. In case of first false start in a
(2023) - Trinidad and Tobago. mixed doubles, was in 1899. running event, the athlete(s) shall be:
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
Q.1110. In Tennis, what is the score Q.1114. Which of the following (a) disqualified (b) can restart
when the receiver wins the next point countries hosted the inaugural FIVB (c) Warned (d) suspended
after deuce? Volleyball Men's World Cup?
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (1st Shift) SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) Sol.1118.(b) Can restart. Track and Field
(a) Advantage out (b) 30-40 (a) 1965, Poland (b) 1977, Japan Terminology : Annual Plan, Curb, Discus,
(c) Advantage in (d) 40-30 (c) 1969, East Germany (d) 1981, Japan Toe board, Dashes, Anchor Leg, Distance
runs, Middle Distance runs, Hurdling,
Sol.1110.(a) ‘Advantage out’ when the Sol.1114.(a) 1965, Poland. The 1965 Relays, Pole vaulting, High jump, Long
receiver wins the next point after the FIVB Men's World Cup was held from 13 Jump, Steeplechase, Baton, Throwing
deuce. Deuce : If a player and his to 19 September. Eleven nations were Sector, Trial, False start, Crossbar. The
opponent reach 40. The first point scored involved in the first edition of the rule states that only one false start per
after the deuce is known as an competition also known as the race is allowed without the
df
Advantage. "Tournament of the Continents". The disqualification of the athlete(s) making
International Volleyball Federation (FIVB)
_p
Q.1111. In cricket, if the umpire raises the false start. Any athlete(s) making
2023 World Cup (Host - Brazil, China and further false starts in the race shall be
an index finger above the head it Japan).
na
means_________ disqualified.
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (4th Shift) Q.1115. When and where was the Q.1119. In which of the following
ap
(a) dead ball (b) wide ball maiden Athletics World Cup organised, countries was the 1979 Asian Wrestling
(c) no ball (d) batsman is out that was discontinued after its first Championships organised by the Asian
:@
edition? Associated Wrestling Committee (AAWC)
Sol.1111.(d) Batsman is out. SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
Terminologies : Not out (waving the for the first time?
(a) London, 2018 (b) Seoul, 2019 SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning)
TG
arms in a sweeping motion out in front of (c) Tokyo, 2020 (d) Beijing, 2018
the chest), No ball (One arm fully (a) Lahore, Pakistan (b) Oarai, Japan
extended horizontally), Free hit (One Sol.1115.(a) London 2018. Eight teams (c) Jalandhar, India (d) Tehran, Iran
on
hand held above their head and making a participated in the maiden Athletics Sol.1119.(c) Jalandhar, India.
circular motion), Wide Ball (Both arms World Cup (China, France, Great Britain,
extended horizontally), Six runs (Both Jamaica, Poland, South Africa and the Q.1120. A FIBA sanctioned game of
ch
arms held high above their head), dead United States). The 2022 World Athletics basketball typically consists of ______.
ball (crossing and uncrossing his arms in Championships held at Eugene, Oregon, SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
ar
front of his body) etc. United States. The World Athletics (a) 4 quarters of 15 minutes each
Se
headquarters are situated at Quai (b) 2 halves of 30 minutes each
Q.1112. In Triple Jump, white flag Antoine , Monaco. (c) 4 quarters of 10 minutes each
indicates: (d) 2 halves of 25 minutes each
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift)/ Q.1116. Which was the first city in the
(a) trail is valid world to have hosted both the summer Sol.1120.(c) FIBA (Federation
(b) trail is failure and winter editions of the Olympic Internationale de Basket-ball) : Playing
(c) trail with wind support Games? time (4 quarters of 10 minutes each, 5
(d) allow to trial SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning) minutes over-time). FIBA : Founded (18
(a) Tokyo (b) Sydney June 1932), Headquarters (Mies,
Sol.1112.(a) trail is valid (a fair jump). (c) New York (d) Beijing Switzerland). National Basketball
The Triple jump (the hop, skip and jump) Association (playing time - 4 quarters of
is a track and field event. The triple jump Sol.1116.(d) Beijing. The United States 12 minutes each, 5 minutes over-time),
was a part of the inaugural modern has hosted the most (eight) Olympic National Men’s Collegiate Athletic
Olympics in 1896 in Athens. The first Games, followed by France (five) and Association (2 quarters of 20 minutes
modern Olympic champion was James Japan (four) editions. each, 5 minutes over-time).
Connolly (Triple jumper). Red Flag - a
foul jump. Q.1117. In which of the following places Q.1121. The first ICC Women's Cricket
was the first edition of the World Para World Cup was held in the year_____
Q.1113. Yellow card in badminton Table Tennis Championships held in SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening)
indicates: 1990 ? (a) 1982 (b) 1978 (c) 1988 (d) 1973
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (3rd Shift) SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) fault for misconduct (a) Assen, Netherlands (b) Granada, Spain Sol.1121.(d) 1973. India hosted the
(b) suspension for misconduct (c) Beijing, China (d) Lasko, Slovenia women's world cup (1997). The first
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Men’s Cricket World Cup was held in Q.1127. In basketball, what can be the
England in 1975. India has never won maximum number of points that can be
the Women's Cricket World Cup. scored in a shot?
SSC MTS 15/07/2022 (Evening)
Q.1122. ‘Trump’ is a sports term used in (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2
__________.
Higher Secondary 01/08/2022 ( Shift - 3) Sol.1127.(c) 4 points. Some terms
(a) Cycling (b) Bridge related to basketball include Slam dunk, SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Morning)
(c) Cricket (d) Snooker Full-court press, Alley-oop, Jump shot, (a) Chaupar (b) Gilli Danda
Playmaker, Point guard, Hoopster, Sixth (c) Malkhamb (d) Kho Kho
Sol.1122.(b) Bridge (Contract bridge) is man, etc.
a trick-taking card game using a Sol.1132.(c) Mallakhamb is the state
standard 52-card deck. Other Q.1128. What is the distance between game of Madhya Pradesh. The first
Terminologies - Chicane (a hand with no the stumps and the popping crease at national mallakhamb championships
trumps), Deadwood (unmatched cards the same end of a Cricket pitch? were held in 1962 at Gwalior. The name
remaining in the hand), Deck (may refer SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Afternoon) mallakhamb derives from the terms
either to the pack), Flush (Cards of the (a) 1.50m (b) 1.34m (c) 1.62m (d) 1.22m Malla, meaning wrestler, and khamb
same suit), Kibitzer (Onlooker at a card which means pole.
game), Prial (a set of 3 cards of the same Sol.1128.(d) 1.22m. The dimensions of a
turf pitch are 20.12m long (from stump Q.1133. Which of the following is an
rank) etc.
to stump) plus a minimum of 1.22m adventure sport?
Q.1123. In which of the following behind the stumps to accommodate the SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Morning)
grounds did Yuvraj Singh hit 6 sixes in an return crease and bowler approach area. (a) Snow hockey (b) Cycling
df
over of a T20 International match? The width of a turf pitch is 3.05m. (c) Paragliding (d) Paralympics
SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Morning)
_p
Q.1129. Who among the following Indian Sol.1133.(c) Paragliding. Adventure
(a) Wanderers Stadium
players is also known as 'Dhing Express'? Sports - Air Based : Powered Hang
(b) Kingsmead Stadium
na
SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Afternoon) gliding, Parasailing, SkyDiving /
(c) Mabhida Stadium
(a) Dutee Chand (b) Neeraj Chopra Parachuting and Hot Air Ballooning. Land
(d) Newlands Cricket Ground
ap
(c) Hima Das (d) PT Usha Based : Mountaineering, Trekking, Rock
Sol.1123.(b) Yuvraj Singh hit 6 sixes in Climbing, Sport Climbing, Camping, Snow
:@
Stuart Broad's over in the 21st match of Sol.1129.(c) Hima Das, is an Indian Skiing, Mountain Biking and Zipline.
the first T20 world cup between India and sprinter from the state of Assam. She
holds the current Indian national record Q.1134. In which sport does the score
England at Kingsmead Cricket Ground in
TG
in 400 metres with a timing of 50.79 s depend on putting the ball in a hole?
Durban, South Africa.
that she clocked at the 2018 Asian SSC CHSL 27/05/ 2022 (Afternoon)
Q.1124. In basketball, a free-throw is Games in Jakarta, Indonesia. (a) Hockey (b) Baseball
on
worth how many points? (c) Squash (d) Golf
SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Evening) Q.1130. How many number of players
are permitted to be substituted in a game Sol.1134.(d) Golf is a club-and-ball sport
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
ch
of field hockey? in which players use various clubs to hit
Sol.1124.(a) 1 point. A traditional SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Morning) balls into a series of holes on a course in
ar
basketball team has 12 players, with five (a) No limit (b) 3 (c) 10 (d) 5 as few strokes as possible. Trophies
basketball players on the court at any associated with Golf are FedEx Cup,
Se
given time. Sol.1130.(a) no limit . All five skaters and Walker cup, Ryder Cup, Augusta Masters,
the goalie can be substituted at any time British open, Canada cup.
Q.1125. Who among the following is the during a hockey game.
first Indian Grandmaster to become Q.1135. In which track and field event is
Women's Chess World Rapid Champion? Q.1131. The equipment bolt is used in the baton used?
SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Afternoon) which sport? SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Evening)
(a) Tania Sachdev (b) Koneru Humpy SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Afternoon) (a) Hammer throw (b) Relay race
(c) Harika Dronavalli (d) Bhakti Kulkarni (a) Swimming (b) Mountaineering (c) High jump (d) Steeplechase
(c) Cycling (d) Motor sports
Sol.1125.(b) Koneru Humpy is the first Sol.1135.(b) A relay race is an event
Indian Grandmaster to become women Sol.1131.(b) Mountaineering. More where a team of four athletes runs equal
Chess World rapid champion. equipment used in Mountaineering are predetermined distances in a sprint race,
Climbing pack, Rope(s) (dry preferred), each passing a rod-like object called the
Q.1126. What is the height of the goal - Helmet, Harness (with adjustable leg 'baton' to the next person to continue the
post according to FIFA? loops), Crampons, Ice axe (with leash), race. The last runner in a relay is called
SSC MTS 14/07/2022 (Afternoon) Belay/rappel device, Pulley. the 'anchor'.
(a) 6 ft (b) 8 ft (c) 10 ft (d) 12 ft
Q.1132. What is the name of the Q.1136. In running events who counts
Sol.1126.(b) 8 ft. The standard traditional Indian sports shown in the the laps ?
soccer/football goal dimensions are 24ft picture below? SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Morning)
(7.32 metres) wide and 8 ft (2.44 metres) (a) Lap counter (b) Lap scorer
high. Both goalposts and the crossbar (c) Time keeper (d) Lap recorder
have the same width and depth of 12cm.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.1136.(b) Lap scorer counts the lap in place on a large floor mat? Q.1146. ______ is the first woman hockey
the running events. Running events SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Evening) player to receive the Rajiv Gandhi Khel
include : Sprints (100m, 200m, 400m), (a) Uneven parallel bar Ratna Award.
Middle distance (800m, 1500m), Long (b) Floor exercise SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening)
distance (3000m Steeplechase, 5000m, (c) Vaulting table (a) Rani Rampal (b) Vandana Katariya
10,000m), Hurdles (110/100m, 400m), (d) Balance beam Question (c) Nikki Pradhan (d) Sharmila Devi
Relays (4 x100m, 4 x 400m).
Sol.1141.(b) A floor exercise is a Sol.1146.(a) Rani Rampal. The new
Q.1137. What is the other name of trap gymnastics event in which movements name of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
shooting? are performed on the floor in an area of is Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.
SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Morning) 12 metres (40 feet) square. Uneven
(a) Clay-pigeon shooting parallel Bar is an Olympic gymnastics Q.1147. Los Angeles Clippers and
(b) Crawl shooting event performed only by women. Portland Trail Blazers are ______ teams.
(c) Wood-pigeon shooting Vaulting is a gymnastics exercise in SSC CGL 18/04/2022(Morning)
(d) Pigeon shooting which the athlete leaps over a form that (a) Women’s Tennis (b) Men’s Basketball
was originally intended to mimic a horse. (c) Women’s Hockey (d) Men’s Volleyball
Sol.1137.(a) Clay-pigeon shooting is the The balance beam is one of the events
other name of trap shooting. The other Sol.1147.(b) Men’s Basketball. It is a
that comprise a total artistic gymnastics game played between two teams of five
disciplines are skeet shooting and program.
sporting clays. players each on a rectangular court.
Q.1142. Where is the JRD Tata Sports Basketball is the national game of Serbia,
Q.1138. Which kind of sport is bungee Complex located ? Lithuania and Estonia.
jumping? SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Afternoon)
df
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Morning) Q.1148. Participation in which of the
(a) Visakhapatnam (b) Ranchi following activities is NOT recommended
(a) Adventure sport (b) Recreational sport
_p
(c) Rourkela (d) Jamshedpur for the motor development of a student?
(c) Para sport (d) Special sport
Sol.1142.(d) Jamshedpur, Jharkhand. It SSC CGL 20/04/2022(Morning)
na
Sol.1138.(a) Adventure sports - Skiing, is used mostly for association football (a) Playing cricket
Dirt biking, Scuba diving, Zorbing, etc. matches and athletics competitions. (b) Joining a dance class
ap
Recreational sport - swimming, cycling, Cricket stadium in Jamshedpur is (c) Attending Yoga sessions
football, yoga, etc. Para sport - Archery, Keenan Stadium. (d) Helping the visually challenge
:@
Badminton, Equestrian, Goalball, etc.
Special sports are not usually related to Q.1143. What is the width of the tennis Sol.1148.(d) Examples of Motor
competitions, ex- Run for Cause court for Doubles? Development of students include being
TG
Marathon competitions. SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Morning) able to run, hop, balance on one foot,
(a) 13.57 m (b) 9 m (c) 12 m (d) 10.97 m throw and kick a ball, climb up stairs or
Q.1139. In which sport is the term LONA playground equipment, ride a tricycle,
on
used? Sol.1143.(d) 10.97 m. A competitive pushing, climbing, bending, throwing,
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Afternoon) tennis court is rectangular in shape, scooping, crawling, kicking, bouncing,
(a) Kabaddi (b) Kho-Kho measuring 23.77 m long. The width, dancing.
ch
(c) Volleyball (d) Soft ball however, differs for doubles (10.97 m)
and singles (8.23 m). There are four main Q.1149. The European Champions Cup
ar
Sol.1139.(a) In Kabaddi When a team types of surface for tennis courts: Grass, or Heineken Cup is associated with
knocks out all the players of the other Which sport?
Se
clay, hard and artificial grass.
team, it gets a "Lona". Some other terms SSC MTS 06/10/2021 (Evening)
used in the game are Cant, Raid, Q.1144. In which year was the Indian (a) Rugby (b) Cricket
Successful raid, Struggle, To put out an Football Association established? (c) Football (d) Hockey
anti, etc. SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Morning)
Sol.1149.(a) Rugby. It is the top-tier
(a) 1853 (b) 1873 (c) 1883 (d) 1893
Q.1140. The World Badminton competition for clubs whose countries'
Championship event 2026 will be Sol.1144.(d) 1893. The Indian Football national teams compete in the Six
organised by__________. Association (IFA) : Headquarters - Nations Championship.
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Evening) Kolkata. Calcutta FC was the first club to
Q.1150. Which of the following is NOT an
(a) Australia (b) India be established in 1872. The All India
Olympic event?
(c) China (d) Indonesia Football Federation (AIFF) was formed in
SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Evening)
1937.
Sol.1140.(b) India. World Badminton (a) Rhythmic gymnastics
Championships, is a tournament Q.1145. Which of the following (b) Artistic gymnastics
sanctioned by Badminton World equipment is used in throwing events ? (c) Acrobatic gymnastics
Federation (BWF), founded in 1977. 2021 SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Afternoon) (d) Trampoline gymnastics
: Host City- Huelva (Spain); Winner- (a) Iron rod (b) Indian club Sol.1150.(c) Acrobatic gymnastics. Acro
Japan, 2022 : Tokyo (Japan), 2023 : (c) Shot (d) Iron ring is not yet an Olympic sport. However,
Copenhagen (Denmark), 2025 : Paris acro is included in the World Games, the
(France), 2026 : India. Sol.1145.(c) Shot. The four standard
throwing events - Shot put, discus, European Games, and has its own
hammer, and javelin. Acrobatic World Championships held in
Q.1141. Which gymnastic event takes
even-numbered years.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.1151. Who among the following was international cricket matches? behind the batsman on the off side of the
India's first world champion in any sport SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Afternoon) field. A first slip is alongside the
after independence? (a) Mohammad Azharuddin wicketkeeper, with second slip, third slip
SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Morning) (b) Sachin Tendulkar etc following in the same direction. First
(a) Milkha Singh (c) Sourav Ganguly slip is normally about a foot or so behind
(b) Lila Ram (d) Mahendra Singh Dhoni the wicketkeeper.
(c) Ramanathan Krishnan
(d) Wilson Jones Sol.1156.(b) Sachin Tendulkar played Q.1162. With which of the following
664 international cricket matches in total, sports is the term ‘Chinaman’
Sol.1151.(d) Wilson Jones. He won both scoring 34,357 runs. He is the youngest associated?
the national billiards and snooker titles in to receive Bharat Ratna Award in 2014. SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Morning)
1952 and 1954. In London, he played his (a) Cricket (b) Table tennis
first World Billiards Championship in Q.1157. Which soccer player holds the (c) Polo (d) Swimming
1951. distinction of having the most wins of the
FIFA World Cup by any player? Sol.1162.(a) Cricket. Chinaman bowling
Q.1152. The La Liga Trophy is SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Afternoon) is a left-arm unorthodox spin, where the
associated with which sport? (a) Pele (b) Diego Maradona bowler spins the ball into a right-handed
SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Afternoon) (c) Zinedine Zidane (d) George Best batsman.
(a) Tennis (b) Football
(c) Weightlifting (d) Cricket Sol.1157.(a) Pele (Brazil) is known as Q.1163. With which of the following
‘The Black Pearl’, ‘The King of Football’. sports do you associate the term '16-yard
Sol.1152.(b) Football. Football trophies - Brazil won FIFA five times. Its hit'?
The FIFA World Cup, The UEFA headquarters is in Zurich, Switzerland. SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Afternoon)
df
Champions League, UEFA European (a) Lawn tennis (b) Golf
Championship, Copa America, The Q.1158. Who among the following was (c) Field hockey (d) Cricket
_p
English Premier League , etc. the first Indian swimmer to swim across
the English Channel in 1958 ? Sol.1163.(c) Field hockey. A 16-yard hit
na
Q.1153. The gymnast Dipa Karmakar SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Evening) is awarded to the defence when a foul is
belongs to the state of ______. (a) Shamsher Khan (b) Mihir Sen committed inside their striking circle by
ap
SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Evening) (c) Brojen Das (d) Virdhawal Khade the opposition or when the ball is hit over
(a) Maharashtra (b) Haryana the backline by the opposing team.
:@
(c) Manipur (d) Tripura Sol.1158.(b) Mihir Sen. Arati Saha the
first Asian woman to swim across the Q.1164. In which of the following sports
Sol.1153.(d) Tripura. Dipa Karmakar is English Channel. Gertrude Ederle is the shakehand grip used?
TG
an Indian artistic gymnast. She won a becomes the first woman to swim across SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Afternoon)
bronze medal at the 2014 the English Channel. Matthew Webb was (a) Badminton (b) Squash
Commonwealth Games in Glasgow. the first swimmer to swim across the (c) Cricket (d) Table tennis
on
English Channel.
Q.1154. Produnova is related to which of Sol.1164.(d) Table tennis. It is the typical
the following sports? Q.1159. Who is known as the ‘Wizard of European type grip where the head of the
ch
SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Morning) Hockey’ ? racket faces up, and your hand looks like
(a) cycling (b) Gymnastics SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Morning) it's ready to shake a person's hand.
ar
(c) Diving (d) Solitary swimming (a) Balbir Singh ‘Penhold grip’, ‘Common grip’ and
(b) Dhanraj Pillay ‘Forehand’ grip are some of the other
Se
Sol.1154.(b) Gymnastics. Produnova is (c) Mohammed Shahid grips used in Table tennis.
related to women's artistic Gymnastics (d) Major Dhyan Chand
vault consisting of a front handspring Q.1165. Birdie, eagle and albatross are
onto the vaulting horse and two front Sol.1159.(d) Major Dhyan Chand. all terms used in ______.
somersaults in a tucked position off it. SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Morning)
Dipa Karmakar is one of five women Q.1160. With which of the following (a) golf (b) polo (c) baseball (d) football
gymnasts in the world to have sports is the Ruia Gold Cup associated ?
successfully executed the highly-difficult SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Afternoon) Sol.1165.(a) Golf. Some Terms used in
Produnova vault. Dipa Karmakar finished (a) Water polo (b) Bridge Golf - par, bogey, double bogey, triple
in fourth place at the Rio 2016 Olympics. (c) Badminton (d) Swimming bogey, ace, handicap, etc. terms used in
Baseball- strikeout, base, walk, home run
Q.1155. Which state in India houses The Sol.1160.(b) Bridge. Other trophies hit, bat, batter, etc.
National Institute of Water Sports? associated with Bridge include Basalat
SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Afternoon) Jha Trophy, Holkar Trophy and Singhania Q.1166. With which sport are Vijay
(a) Maharashtra (b) Goa Trophy. Amritraj and Anand Amritraj associated?
(c) Karnataka (d) Assam SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Afternoon)
Q.1161. In cricket, which of the following (a) Table tennis (b) Cricket
Sol.1155.(b) Goa. The National Institute fielding positions is behind the batsman? (c) Lawn tennis (d) Football
of Water Sports was established in July SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Evening)
1990. (a) Mid-wicket (b) First slip Sol.1166.(c) Lawn tennis.
(c) Mid off (d) Cover
Q.1156. Which Indian cricketer has Q.1167. Which of the following animals
featured in the most number of Sol.1161.(b) A slip fielder is placed is made to race in the traditional sport
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
called 'Kambala' in Karnataka? Wimbledon and the French, thus (a) Italy (b) Korea (c) Russia (d) Sweden
SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Morning) becoming the first Indians to win a
(a) Horse (b) Dog (c) Buffalo (d) Goat doubles event at a Grand Slam. Sol.1176.(d) In 1976, the first Winter
Games in Paralympics history were held
Sol.1167.(c) Kambala is an annual Q.1172. At the 1992 Summer Olympics, in Sweden.
buffalo race held in the southwestern ______ became the first woman to carry
Indian state of Karnataka. the flag of India at the opening ceremony Q.1177. Who had proposed the motto of
of any Olympics. Olympics?
Q.1168. In which of the following cities is SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Evening) SSC CHSL 20/10/2020 (Morning)
the headquarters of the All India Chess (a) Karnam Malleswari (a) Didon (b) Pierre de Coubertin
Federation situated? (b) Shiny Abraham Wilson (c) Hirohito (d) Moon Jae-in
SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Afternoon) (c) PT Usha
(a) New Delhi (b) Bengaluru Sol.1177.(b) Pierre de Coubertin. The
(d) Nilima Ghose Olympic motto is made up of three Latin
(c) Hyderabad (d) Mumbai
Sol.1172.(b) Shiny Abraham Wilson. She words: CITIUS, ALTIUS, FORTIUS -
Sol.1168.(a) New Delhi. AICF is the is an Asian Games gold medal winner COMMUNITER (FASTER, HIGHER,
central administrative body for the game and the first Indian woman to reach the STRONGER - TOGETHER).
of chess in India, founded in 1951 which semi-finals of an Olympic event.
is affiliated with Fédération Internationale Q.1178. ‘Tenpins’ refers to the game of
des Échecs (FIDE), the world body for Q.1173. Who among the following was a ______.
chess. The organisation is also in charge World War II veteran, also associated SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Morning)
of managing women's chess in India. with cricket? (a) baseball (b) basketball
SSC CHSL 5/8/2021 (Afternoon) (c) billiards (d) bowling
df
Q.1169. Who among the following was (a) Brad Friedel (b) Alan Burgess
the first para-athlete to receive the Rajiv Sol.1178.(d) bowling.
(c) Ivan Cordoba (d) Erik Karlsson
_p
Gandhi Khel Ratna? Q.1179. To which of the following Indian
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Afternoon) Sol.1173.(b) Alan Burgess, New Zealand states does Mardani Khel, one of the
na
(a) Mariyappan Thangavelu first-class cricketer, and World War II famous martial art forms in India
(b) Devendra Jhajharia veteran. He was a tank driver in World belong?
ap
(c) Varun Singh Bhati War II. In June 2020, Burgess became SSC CGL 06/03/2020 (Morning)
(d) Naresh Kumar Sharma the world’s oldest living first-class (a) Maharashtra (b) Uttar Pradesh
:@
cricketer. (c) Rajasthan (d) Madhya Pradesh
Sol.1169.(b) Devendra Jhajharia is the
first para-athlete to be honoured with the Q.1174. In which Olympic Games did Sol.1179.(a) Maharashtra. It is
TG
Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna - the highest Shabana Akhtar, the first female athlete particularly known for its use of the
sports award in the country. He is an to represent Pakistan, participate? uniquely Indian patta (sword) and vita
Indian Paralympic javelin thrower SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Morning) (corded lance).
on
competing in F46 events. (a) Beijing Olympics
(b) Atlanta Olympics
Q.1170. ______ was the first Test cricket (c) Sydney Olympics
Books And Authors
ch
captain of an independent Indian team. (d) Barcelona Olympics
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Afternoon) Q.1180. Who among the following is the
ar
(a) Vijay Hazare (b) Hemu Adhikari Sol.1174.(b) Shabana Akhtar was author of the book 'The House of Blue
(c) Bishan Singh Bedi (d) Lala Amarnath Pakistan's first woman to compete at the Mangoes'?
Se
Olympics when she took part in the SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Morning)
Sol.1170.(d) Lala Amarnath Bharadwaj,
women's long jump at the 1996 Summer (a) David Davidar
known as the father figure of Indian
Olympics in Atlanta, United States. (b) Durjoy Data
Cricket, captained India in the first Test
(c) Arvind Adiga
series and won against Pakistan in 1952. Q.1175. Who among the following won a
(d) Sekhar Bandyopadhyay
He was the first batsman to score a bronze medal at the World Athletics
century for India in Test cricket. Championship in Paris in 2003? Sol.1180.(a) David Davidar. His Other
SSC CHSL 10/08/2021 (Evening) Books: “The solitude of emperors”,
Q.1171. Which two Indians became the
(a) Krishna Poonia (b) Seema Punia “Ithaca”, and “Nila amera kuṭhi”.
first pair to reach the finals of all Grand
(c) PT Usha (d) Anju Bobby George
Slams in a year in the Open era, winning Q.1181. Who among the following is the
the French Open and Wimbledon as top Sol.1175.(d) Anju Bobby George is a author of the book ‘The Glassblower’s
seeds? retired Indian athlete. She made history Breath’?
SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Morning) when she won the bronze medal in the SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening)
(a) Leander Paes and Mahesh Bhupathi long jump at the 2003 World (a) Bharati Mukherjee
(b) Yuki Bhambri and Leander Paes Championships in Athletics in Paris and (b) Sunetra Gupta
(c) Rohan Bopanna and Mahesh became the first Indian athlete ever to (c) Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
Bhupathi win a medal in a World Championships in (d) Shobha De
(d) Rohan Bopanna and Yuki Bhambri Athletics jumping 6.70 m.
Sol.1181.(b) Sunetra Gupta. Her Other
Sol.1171.(a) Leander Paes and Mahesh Q.1176. Where were the first Winter Books: “Memories of Rain”, and “A Sin of
Bhupathi. In 1999, the duo reached the Paralympics Games held ? Color”. Authors and their books: Shobha
finals of all four Grand Slams, winning SSC CHSL 19/03/2020 (Morning) De - “Starry Nights”, “Speedpost”. Bharati
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Mukherjee - “Desirable Daughters”, “Miss Q.1185. Which of the following fictional Q.1189. The famous novel ‘The house of
New India”. Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni - towns is mentioned in the English novel blue mangoes’ is written by:
“The Palace of Illusions”, “The Last ‘In Custody’ written by Anita Desai? SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
Queen”. SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (2nd Shift) (a) Romila Thapar (b) Shashi Tharoor
(a) Kanthapura (b) Mirpore (c) David Davidar (d) Anees Salim
Q.1182. Who among the following is the (c) Malgudi (d) Lilliput
author of the book 'The Thousand Faces Sol.1189.(c) David Davidar is an Indian
of Night'? Sol.1185.(b) Mirpore. In Custody (1984) novelist his other books include “The
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Afternoon) is a novel set in Delhi by Anita Desai. Her solitude of emperors” and “Ithaca”.
(a) Githa Hariharan (b) Urvashi Butalia other novels include “Journey to Ithaca”, Romila Thapar - “Somanatha”, “The Past
(c) Meena Alexander (d) Namita Gokhale “Clear Light of Day”, “Fasting, Feasting”, Before Us”. Shashi Tharoor - “The
“The Zigzag Way”, and “The Peacock Paradoxical Prime Minister”, “Riot: A
Sol.1182.(a) Githa Hariharan. Authors Garden”. Malgudi is a fictional town Love Story”. Anees Salim - “The Blind
and their books: Githa Hariharan - “When located in south India in the novels and Lady’s Descendants”, “Fly, Hasina, Fly”
Dreams Travel”, “Ghosts of Vasu Master”. short stories of R.K. Narayan. Lilliput and “Vanity Bagh”.
Urvashi Butalia - “The other side of fictional island nations that appear in the
silence”, “The Persistence of Memory”. novel Gulliver's Travels by Jonathan Q.1190. ‘Running for My Life: One Lost
Meena Alexander - “Fault lines”, “Illiterate Swift. Boy’s Journey from the Killing Fields of
heart”. Namita Gokhale - “Things to Sudan to the Olympic Games’ an
Leave Behind”, “The Book of Shadows”. Q.1186. Who wrote the novel 'The autobiography depicting the struggle for
Catcher in the Rye'? life to success in life is written by who
Q.1183. The historical fiction ‘The Glory SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift) among the following personalities?
of Patan’ by KM Munshi was originally (a) HG Wells (b) Ernest Hemingway SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
df
written in which Indian language? (c) Mark Twain (d) JD Salinger (a) Noah Lyles (b) Jesse Owens
SSC MTS 30/09/2024 (1st Shift)
_p
(c) Lopez Lomong (d) Arnold Palmer
(a) Malayalam (b) Bengali Sol.1186.(d) JD Salinger was an
(c) Tamil (d) Gujarati American author. His other works include Sol.1190.(c) Lopez Lomong is an
Sol.1183.(d) Gujarati. Kanhaiyalal
na
“Nine Stories”, “Franny and Zooey”,
“Raise High the Roof Beam”. HG Wells -
American track and field athlete.
Autobiographies and sport person: “No
ap
Maneklal Munshi, popularly known by his “The War of the Worlds”, “The Time Spin” - Shane Warne (Cricketer); “Faster
pen name Ghanshyam Vyas, was an Machine”, “The Invisible Man”. Ernest than Lightning: My Autobiography” -
:@
Indian independence movement activist, Hemingway - “The Old Man and the Sea”, Usain Bolt (sprinter); “Ace against Odds” -
politician, writer from Gujarat state. “The Sun Also Rises”. Mark Twain - Sania Mirza (Tennis); “A Shot at History” -
Books by him: ‘’Krishnavatara II The “Adventures of Huckleberry Finn”, “The Abhinav Bindra (Shooter);
TG
Wrath Of An Emperor’’, ‘’Atta Ke Svapna’’, Innocents Abroad”. “Controversially Yours” - Shoaib Akhtar
‘’Gaurava K Pratka’’, ‘’Lopamudra’’, (Cricketer).
‘‘Pratiodha’’, ‘’Akhand Hindustan’’, ‘’Gujarat Q.1187. Epic Poem, Savitri, described by
on
and Its Literature’’, ‘’The Book of its author as ‘A Legend and a Symbol’, Q.1191. Yashodhara Dalmia is the author
Satyabhama’’, ‘’The Ruin That Britain was written by _____. of which famous book?
ch
Wrought’’, ‘’Kakani Raashi Ane Chiye Tej SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift) SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
Thik’’. (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (a) Paintings in the Kangra Valley
ar
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh (b) Ajanta
Q.1184. Who among the following is the (c) Mahatma Phule (c) The Painted World of the Warlis
Se
author of the book named (d) Baba Saheb Ambedkar (d) Indian Art
'Streepurushtulna'?
SSC MTS 16/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Sol.1187.(b) Aurobindo Ghosh. Savitri Sol.1191.(c) The Painted World of the
(a) Tarabai Shinde poem was based on the legend of Savitri Warlis. Her Other Books include “Amrita
(b) Pandit Ramabai and Satyavan in the Mahabharata. His Sher-Gil: A Life”, “Sayed Haider Raza”.
(c) Rashasundari Devi other books include “The Life Divine”, Other Authors: Vijay Sharma - “Painting in
(d) Sarojini Naidu “The Human Cycle”, “The Secret of the the Kangra Valley”. Walter M. Spink -
Veda” and “The Synthesis of Yoga”. “Ajanta, A Brief History and Guide”, “The
Sol.1184.(a) Tarabai Shinde was a axis of Eros”.
feminist activist who protested Q.1188. ‘Once a Dancer’ is the
patriarchy and caste in 19th century autobiography of ________________. Q.1192. Which book has been authored
India. She is known for her published SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift) by Rabindra Bharali?
work, Stri Purush Tulana, originally (a) Yamini Krishnamurthy SSC MTS 29/10/2024 (1st Shift)
published in Marathi in 1882. Pandita (b) Audrey Hepburn (a) Indie 101
Ramabai wrote the Stree Dharma-Neeti (c) Allegra Kent (b) The Forgotten Forms of Hindustani
(1882) book on the duties and moral (d) Sudha Chandran Music
obligations of women in India. (c) The Music Room
Rassundari Devi wrote the autobiography Sol.1188.(c) Allegra Kent is an American (d) Music to my Ears
'Amar Jibon' (1876). Sarojini Naidu (first ballet dancer. Her other books include
Governor of United Provinces) - The “Ballerina Swan”, “Dancers' Body Book”. Sol.1192.(b) The Forgotten Forms of
Village Song, The Golden Threshold, The Other Options: Yamini Krishnamurthy Hindustani Music. Dr. Rabindra Bharali
Sceptred Flute. (Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi) - “A has been trained under the able guidance
Passion For Dance: My Autobiography”. of Pt. Deepak Chatterjee of Rampur
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sahaswan Gharana and Pt. Mukul Governor ? Baniya: Peasants and Usurers in Western
Shiputra of Gwalior Gharana. Other SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) India’’. Sumit Sarkar - ‘’Writing Social
Books: ‘’Indie 101’’ - Ritnika Nayan, (a) Draupadi Murmu History’’, ‘’The Swadeshi Movement in
‘’Music to My Ears’’ - Celine L. A. (b) Baby Rani Maurya Bengal, 1903-1908’’.
Simpson, ‘’The Music Room’’ - Namita (c) Kiran Bedi
Devidayal. (d) Anandi ben Patel Q.1200. Which famous book was written
by ‘Haripala’?
Q.1193. Who among the following is the Sol.1196.(c) Kiran Bedi. She is the first SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift)
author of the autobiography 'Lone Fox woman in India to join the officer ranks of (a) Gita Govinda
Dancing: My Autobiography'? the Indian Police Service (IPS) in 1972. (b) Sangeet Darpan
SSC MTS 29/10/2024 (2nd Shift) Her other books: ‘It's always possible’, (c) Sangeet Ratnakara
(a) Khushwant Singh (b) Brij Mohan Kaul ‘Himmat Hai’, ‘Dare to Do! For the New (d) Sangeeta Sudhakara
(c) Ruskin Bond (d) John Dalvi Generation’.
Sol.1200.(d) Sangeeta Sudhakara. The
Sol.1193.(c) Ruskin Bond. His other Q.1197. ‘Ungalil Oruvan’ (One Among term ‘Carnatic’ and ‘Hindustani’ to
books: “The Room on the Roof”, “The You) is the autobiography of which of the classify musical styles first appeared in
Blue Umbrella”, “Roads to Mussoorie”. following chief ministers? it. The Gita Govinda is a work composed
Authors and Books: Khushwant Singh - SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) by the 12th-century Hindu poet,
“Train to Pakistan”. Brij Mohan Kaul - (a) MK Stalin Jayadeva. Sangeet Darpan is a musical
“Confrontation with Pakistan”. John Dalvi (b) K Chandrashekhar Rao treatise on Indian classical music written
- “Himalayan Blunder”. (c) Basavaraj Bommai by Damodar Pandit. The
(d) Pinarayi Vijayan Sangita-Ratnakara (Ocean of Music and
Q.1194. Who among the following Dance) is one of the most important
df
authors wrote ‘Kamayani’, Sol.1197.(a) MK Stalin. Other Chief musicological texts from India.
‘Dhruvswamini’, ‘Kankal’, ‘Titli’, ministers’ books : Mamata Banerjee - ‘My
_p
‘Skandagupta’, ‘Lahar’ and ‘Mamta’? Unforgettable Memories’, Yogi Q.1201. The famous book 'Sangraha
SSC MTS 30/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Adityanath - ‘Hathyoga : Swaroop evam Choodamani', which deals with the
(a) Jaishankar Prasad
(b) Suryakant Tripathi Nirala na
Sadhna’, Arvind Kejriwal - ‘Swaraj’. current system of Carnatic music was
written by:
ap
(c) Bhisham Sahni Q.1198. Who has written the book SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(d) Krishna Sobti Sangeet Bal Prakash? (a) Damodara Misra (b) Haripala
:@
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (c) Matanga (d) Govindacharya
Sol.1194.(a) Jaishankar Prasad. Prasad (a) Pandit Narayan Rao
was his pen name. He was also known (b) Vishnu Digambar Paluskar Sol.1201.(d) Govindacharya. Matanga
TG
as Chhayavadi kavi. Other Author and (c) Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande Muni authored the Brihaddesi, a
Books: Jaishankar Prasad - Iravati, Kānan (d) Bhimsen Joshi significant text in the study of Indian
kusum, Chandragupta. Suryakant Tripathi music. Bharata Muni is traditionally
on
Nirala - Ram Ki Shakti Pooja, Kukurmutta, Sol.1198.(b) Vishnu Digambar Paluskar attributed with the Natya Shastra, an
Parimal. Bhisham Sahni - Tamas, founded the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in ancient musical and dramatic treatise.
Lahore in 1901. His notable works
ch
Kahaniyan, Madhavi. Krishna Sobti -
Zindaginama - Zinda Rukh, Badalom ke include Baalbodh (Children's Knowledge) Q.1202. Who wrote the book ‘Gulamgiri’?
in five volumes, Raag Pravesh (Entry into SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift)
ar
ghere.
Raagas) in nineteen volumes, and (a) Swami Shraddhanand
Se
Q.1195. In 1973, the first female high Mahilaa Sangeet (Ladies' Music). (b) Dwarkanath Tagore
court judge of India Anna Chandy Paluskar also innovated musical (c) BR Ambedkar
published her autobiography ____________ performances through enterprises like (d) Jyotiba Phule
in Malayalam. Tablaa Tarang (Tabla Vibrations) and
SSC MTS 05/11/2024 (1st Shift) Kaashtha Tarang (Wood Vibrations). Sol.1202.(d) Jyotiba Phule. He founded
(a) The Test of My Life the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873.
(b) Playing it My Way Q.1199. Who is the author of the book Famous Books and Authors : Swami
(c) Atmakatha 'From Plassey to Partition and After : A Shraddhanand - “Hindu-Sangathan -
(d) The Race of My Life History of Modern India'? Savior of the Dying Race”. BR Ambedkar
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift) - “The Annihilation of Caste”, “Thoughts
Sol.1195.(c) Atmakatha. Anna Chandy (a) Romila Thapar on Pakistan”, etc.
was the first woman judge in India and (b) Devid Hardiman
the Commonwealth, appointed as a (c) Sekhar Bandyopadhyay Q.1203. Who among the following is the
munsif in 1937. She later became the (d) Sumit Sarkar author of the book 'The Guide'?
first female High Court judge in India in SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
1959. Other Autobiographies: Yuvraj Sol.1199.(c) Sekhar Bandyopadhyay. His (a) Rohinton Mistry (b) RK Narayan
Singh - ‘’The Test of My Life’’, Sachin other Book: ‘’Caste and Partition in (c) Vikram Chandra (d) Shashi Tharoor
Tendulkar - ‘’Playing it My Way’’, Milkha Bengal: The Story of Dalit Refugees,
1946-1961’’. Romila Thapar - Sol.1203.(b) RK Narayan. His other
Singh - ‘’The Race of My Life’’. books: ‘Malgudi Days’, ‘Swami and
‘’Somanatha’’, ‘’Sakuntala: Texts,
Q.1196. Who has written the book Readings, Histories’’. Devid Hardiman - Friends’, ‘The Vendor of Sweets’, ‘A Tiger
‘Fearless Governance’, published in ‘’Gandhi in His Time and Ours: The Global for Malgudi’, ‘The English Teacher’, ‘The
January 2021, describing her stint as Legacy of His Ideas’’, ‘’Feeding the Dark Room’ and ‘Mahatma Ka Intezaar’.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Author and their notable works: Shashi Q.1208. Whose memoir is titled 'Once of My Heart’’, ‘’One Amazing Thing’’, ‘’The
Tharoor - ‘Why I Am a Hindu’, ‘The Upon a Life : Burnt Curry and Bloody Conch Bearer’’, ‘’The Mirror of Fire and
Paradoxical Prime Minister’, and ‘Pride Rags'? Dreaming’’, ‘’The Forest of
Prejudice & Punditry’. Vikram Chandra - SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) Enchantments’’. R. K. Narayan - ‘’Malgudi
‘Sacred Games’, ‘The Srinagar (a) Temsula Ao (b) Janice Pariat Days’’. Rohinton Mistry - ‘’A Fine Balance’’.
Conspiracy’. Rohinton Mistry - ‘A Fine (c) Easterine Kire (d) Patricia Mukim Indu Sundaresan - ‘’The feast of roses’’.
Balance’, ‘The Scream’.
Sol.1208.(a) Temsula Ao. Her Books : Q.1212. Who among the following wrote
Q.1204. Which actor's autobiography is ‘Laburnum for My Head : Stories’, ‘The the novel ‘Grimus’?
titled 'Bad Man'? Tombstone in my Garden’. Authors and SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) book: Janice Pariat - ‘Boats on Land’, (a) Amitav Ghosh (b) Salman Rushdie
(a) Gulshan Grover (b) Amrish Puri ‘Everything the Light Touches’. Easterine (c) Arvind Adiga (d) Vikram Seth
(c) Raza Murad (d) Ashish Vidyarthi Kire - ‘When the River Sleeps’, ‘Spirit
Nights’. Patricia Mukim - ‘Waiting for an Sol.1212.(b) Salman Rushdie is an
Sol.1204.(a) Gulshan Grover. Some Indian-born British-American novelist.
Equal World: Gender in India's Northeast'.
famous Autobiographies : Kishore Kumar Books by Him: ‘’Satanic Verses’’,
- ‘The Ultimate Biography’, Dilip Kumar - Q.1209. ‘Unladylike’ is a memoir by ____. ‘’Midnight's Children’’, ‘’Victory City’’, ‘’The
‘The Substance and the Shadow’, Manoj SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Enchantress of Florence: A Novel’’’, ‘’The
Bajpayee - ‘The Definitive Biography’. (a) Aditi Mittal Golden House’’.
Q.1205. Truth, Love and a Little Malice is (b) Supriya Joshi
(c) Aishwarya Mohanraj Q.1213. A Flight of Pigeons is a famous
the autobiography of: book written by _________________.
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) (d) Radhika Vaz
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
df
(a) Arjun Singh Sol.1209.(d) Radhika Vaz. Hilarious (a) Salman Rushdie (b) Vikram Seth
(b) Satyajit Ray Comedy Novels by Indian Writers: ‘The (c) Khushwant Singh (d) Ruskin Bond
_p
(c) Phoolan Devi Unproposed Guy’ - Bhavik Sarkhedi and
(d) Khushwant Singh Suhana Bhambhani, ‘Mrs Funnybones’ - Sol.1213.(d) Ruskin Bond. His Other
na
Twinkle Khanna, ‘The Great Indian Novel’ books: ‘The Great Train Journey’, ‘The
Sol.1205.(d) Khushwant Singh. Books by Room on the Roof’, ‘The Blue Umbrella’,
- Shashi Tharoor, ‘English, August’ -
ap
Him: ‘’Train to Pakistan’’, ‘’Sex, Scotch & ‘Delhi Is Not Far’. Other writer and book:
Scholarship’’, ‘’Land of Five Rivers’’, ‘’A Upamanyu Chatterjee, ‘Anything for You,
Ma’am’ - Tushar Raheja, ‘Tongue - in - Khushwant Singh - ‘The train to Pakistan’,
:@
History of the Sikhs’’, ‘’I Shall Not Hear ‘The end of India’, ‘The Company of
the Nightingale’’. Cheek’ - Khyrunnisa A, ‘Dissected’ -
Naveen Kakkar, ‘Hostelitis’ - Srinivas Women’.
Q.1206. Whose autobiography is titled ‘A Addepalli, ‘The Backbenchers Series’ -
TG
Q.1214. Who among the following is the
Life Apart’? Sidharth Oberoi, ‘Page 6 and Beyond’ - author of the book ‘The Oath of the
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Hureen Saghar Gandhi, ‘The Great Indian Vayuputras’?
(a) Prabha Khaitan (b) Bindu Bhatt Democracy’ - Manivannan K, ‘The White
on
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
(c) Vinita Agarwal (d) Mannu Bhandari Tiger’ - Aravind Adiga, ‘The Rozabal Line’ (a) Indrapramit Das (b) Amish Tripathi
- Ashwin Sanghi, ‘Delhi Belly’ - Arijit Sen. (c) Vikram Chandra (d) Ravi Subramanian
Sol.1206.(a) Prabha Khaitan. She was an
ch
Indian novelist, poet, entrepreneur and Q.1210. The book ‘A suitable Boy' was Sol.1214.(b) Amish Tripathi. His other
feminist. Bindu Bhatt is a Gujarati
ar
authored by _______________ in 1993. books: The ‘Immortals of Meluha’, ‘The
language novelist, storywriter, critic and SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Secret of the Nagas’, ‘The Shiva Trilogy’.
Se
translator. Her books : ‘Chhinnmasta’, (a) Arundhati Roy (b) Kiran Desai Indrapramit Das - ‘The Devourers’, ‘Infinity
‘Anya Se Ananya’, ‘Peeli Aandhi’, etc. (c) Vikram Seth (d) David Davidar war’. Vikram Chandra - ‘Sacred Games’,
Autobiography of Mannu Bhandari - ‘Ek
Sol.1210.(c) Vikram Seth. Some of his ‘Red Earth’ and ‘Pouring Rain’, ‘The
Kahaani Yeh Bhi’.
notable works include ‘The Golden Gate’, Srinagar Conspiracy’. Ravi Subramanian
Q.1207. ‘Anup Rag Vilas' is a book ‘The Frog and the Nightingale’, ‘An Equal - ‘Bankerupt’, ‘the Name of God’, ‘God is
written by which of the following Music: A Novel’, ‘Beastly Tales’, ‘Two a Gamer’.
musicians? Lives’, ‘All You Who Sleep Tonight’. Q.1215. Which of the following books is
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Q.1211. Which of the following books written by Rabindranath Tagore ?
(a) Pandit Kumar Gandharva
was written by Chitra Banerjee SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
(b) Pandit Jasraj
Divakaruni? (a) Non - Violent Resistance
(c) Pandit Birju Maharaj
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) (b) The Essential Writings
(d) Pandit Dinkar Kaikini
(a) Malgudi Days (c) The Way to God
Sol.1207.(a) Pandit Kumar Gandharva. (b) The Palace of Illusions (d) Nationalism
He was conferred the title ‘Kumar (c) A Fine Balance
Gandharva’ by the Shankaracharya. His Sol.1215.(d) Nationalism. His other
(d) The feast of roses books: “Gitanjali”, “Gora”, “The
Awards: Padma Bhushan (1977) and
Padma Vibhushan (1990). Other books Sol.1211.(b) The Palace of Illusions. Postmaster”. “Non-Violent Resistance” or
and authors: Pandit Jasraj - ‘Rasraj’. Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni is an (Satyagraha) written by Mahatma
Pandit Birju Maharaj - ‘The Master Indian-born American author. Books Gandhi. “The Way to God” written by
Through My Eyes’, ‘Rasgunjan’. Pandit authored by Her: ‘’Arranged Marriage: Dwight L. Moody.
Dinkar Kaikini - ‘Living Music’. Stories’’, ‘’The Mistress of Spices’’, ‘’Sister
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.1216. Who among the following is the Chakraborty - ‘Stranger Trilogy’, ‘Forever Sol.1223.(c) Milkha Singh, also known
author of the book ‘Those Pricey Thakur is True’, ‘Half Torn Hearts’. Samit Basu - as the Flying Sikh, was awarded the
Girls’ ? ‘The Simoqin Prophecies’, ‘The City Padma Shri in 1959. Other notable
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) Inside’, ‘Chosen Spirits’. Amish Tripathi - autobiographies by sports persons: PT
(a) Pratibha Ray (b) Preeti Shenoy ‘The Immortals of Meluha’, ‘The Secret of Usha (Golden girl), Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Anuja Chauhan (d) Anita Nair the Nagas’, ‘The Shiva Trilogy’. (Playing It My Way), Yuvraj Singh (The
test of my life), Saina Nehwal (Playing To
Sol.1216.(c) Anuja Chauhan. Books and Q.1220. Who among of the following is Win), Muhammad Ali (The Greatest: My
Authors: Anuja Chauhan - ‘Club You To the author of the book Making India Own Story), Sania Mirza (Ace against
Death’, ‘Battle for Bittora’, ‘The Fast And Awesome? Odds), Mary Kom (Unbreakable).
The Dead’ and ‘The Zoya Factor’. SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Pratibha Ray - ‘Yajnaseni: The Story of (a) Chetan Bhagat Q.1224. Who is the author of the book 'A
Draupadi’, ‘Citadel of Love’. Preeti Shenoy (b) Vikram Seth Life Misspent'?
- ‘Life is what you make it’, ‘The Secret (c) Aravind Adiga Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Wish List’, ‘It Happens for a Reason’. (d) Siddhartha Mukherjee (a) Dushyant Kumar
Anita Nair - ‘Ladies Coupe’, ‘The Better (b) Harivansh Rai Bachchan
Man’, ‘Lessons in Forgetting’, ‘Cut Like Sol.1220.(a) Chetan Bhagat. His other (c) Suryakant Tripathi Nirala
Wound’. books: ‘One Indian girl’, ‘Half Girlfriend’, (d) Maithili Sharan Gupta
‘The 3 Mistakes of My Life’ and ‘2 States’.
Q.1217. The book Godaan was authored Other Authors and books: Vikram Seth - Sol.1224.(c) Suryakant Tripathi Nirala :
by ______________ in 1936. ‘A Suitable Boy’, ‘The Golden Gate’, ‘An Other notable Hindi poets and their
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) Equal Music’. Aravind Adiga - ‘The White works: Suryakant Tripathi Nirala: "Saroj
(a) Mahatma Gandhi Tiger’, ‘Selection Day’, ‘Last Man in Smriti", "Parimal", "Anaamika. Maithili
df
(b) Munshi Premchand Tower’. Siddhartha Mukherjee - ‘The Sharan Gupta: "Bharat-Bharati",
_p
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru Emperor of All Maladies’, ‘Holding "Jayadrath Vadh". Harivansh Rai
(d) Mulk Raj Anand Broadband’, ‘Fatehpur Sikri and Agra’. Bachchan: "Madhukalash", "Milan
na
Yamini". Dushyant Kumar: "Saaye Mein
Sol.1217.(b) Munshi Premchand. His Q.1221. Which of the following novels Dhoop", "Ek Kanth Vishpayi".
other books : ‘Kaphan’, ‘Namak ka was written by George Orwell?
ap
daroga’, ‘Nirmala’, ‘Gaban’, ‘Do Bailon Ki Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Q.1225. Which author wrote the
Katha’, ‘Poos Ki Raat’, ‘Shatranj ke (a) Brave New World autobiography 'Baluta' ?
:@
Khiladi’, ‘Sevasadan’. Mahatma Gandhi - (b) Fahrenheit 451 Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
‘The Story of My Experiments with Truth’, (c) Animal Farm (a) Daya Pawar (b) Nirmal Verma
‘Hind Swaraj’. Jawaharlal Nehru - ‘The (d) Pride and Prejudice (c) Chitra Mudgal (d) Teji Grover
TG
Discovery of India’, ‘Glimpses of World
History’, ‘India and the World’. Mulk Raj Sol.1221.(c) Animal Farm. George Sol.1225.(a) Daya Pawar was an Indian
Anand - ‘Untouchable’, ‘Coolie’, ‘Across Orwell's other notable works : “Burmese Marathi language author and poet known
on
the Black Waters’. Days (1934)”, “Coming Up for Air (1939)”, for his contributions to Dalit literature.
“Down and Out in Paris and London Other Authors and works : Nirmal Verma
ch
Q.1218. ‘Along The Red River : A Memoir’ (1933)”. ‘Brave New World” is written by - Parinde, Jalti Jhari, London ki raat.
is a book about the life of _____. Aldous Huxley (1932), “Fahrenheit 451” is Chitra Mudgal - Ek Jamin Apni, Gilli
ar
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) written by Ray Bradbury (1953), “Pride gaddu, Bayan. Teji Grover - Sapne Mein
(a) Nirupama Borgohain and Prejudice” is written by Jane Austen Prem Ki Saat, Neela, Maine Ek Line
Se
(b) Pushpalata Das (1813). Banai.
(c) Mitra Phukan
(d) Sabita Goswami Q.1222. “Why I Am An Atheist” is the Q.1226. ‘An Unsuitable Boy' is the
autobiography of which Indian freedom autobiography of which Indian
Sol.1218.(d) Sabita Goswami. Author fighter ? personality ?
and Books : Nirupama Borgohain - Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
‘Abhiyatri’. Pushpalata Das - ‘Rajarama (a) Bhagat Singh (a) Salman Khan (b) AR Rahman
Sukla rashtriyaatma varcasva evam (b) Subhash Chandra Bose (c) Karan Johar (d) Virat Kohli
krtitva’. Mitra Phukan - ‘Chumki Posts a (c) Lala Lajpat Rai
Letter’, ‘The Biratpur Adventure’, ‘The (d) Sarojini Naidu Sol.1226.(c) Karan Johar.
Collector's Wife’. Autobiographies by Bollywood actors:
Sol.1222.(a) Bhagat Singh. ‘The Golden Naseeruddin Shah - “And Then One Day:
Q.1219. Who among the following wrote Threshold’ by Sarojini Naidu, ‘India A Memoir”, Dev Anand - “Romancing With
the book ‘Chanakya’s Chant’? Divided’ by Rajendra Prasad, ‘England's Life”, Satyajit Ray - “Jakhan Choto
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) Debt to India’ by Lala Lajpat Rai. Chilam”.
(a) Novoneel Chakraborty
(b) Samit Basu Q.1223. Who authored the autobiography Q.1227. What is the title of the
(c) Amish Tripathi 'The Race of My Life'? autobiography written by the renowned
(d) Ashwin Sanghi Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4) American professional boxer, Mike
(a) Mohinder Singh Gill Tyson?
Sol.1219.(d) Ashwin Sanghi. His other (b) PT Usha Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
books: ‘The Rozabal Line’, ‘The Krishna (c) Milkha Singh (a) The Greatest: My Own Story
Key’, ‘The Sialkot Saga’. Novoneel (d) Dutee Chand (b) Undisputed Truth: My Autobiography
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(c) Undisputed Life: My Story politician who served as the Deputy autobiography of Abul Kalam Azad, the
(d) Undeniable Story: My Life Prime Minister of India from 2002 to first Education Minister of free India?
2004. His Awards: Padma Vibhushan Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Sol.1227.(b) Undisputed Truth: My (2015), Bharat Ratna (2024). (a) The Test of My Life
Autobiography. His other important Autobiographies of Indian politicians: (b) The Road Ahead
books include ‘Undisputed Truth’, ‘Iron ‘Wings Of Fire’ (A.P.J. Abdul Kalam), ‘An (c) Unbreakable
Ambition: My Life With Cus D'amato’, Autobiography: Toward Freedom’ (d) India Wins Freedom
‘CenterStage: Twelve of My Most (Jawaharlal Nehru), ‘India Wins Freedom’
Fascinating Interviews’ etc. (Maulana Abul Kalam Azad), ‘Atmakatha’ Sol.1235.(d) India Wins Freedom.
(Rajendra Prasad), ‘A Grain of Sand in the Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was
Q.1228. Who among the following wrote posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna
the book ‘Straight from the Heart’ ? Hourglass of Time’ (Arjuna Singh).
in 1992 for his contributions to education
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Q.1232. Who among the following in India. His other books:
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Mary Kom sportspersons is credited with the ‘Ghubar-e-Khatir’, and ‘Basic Concepts of
(c) Kapil Dev (d) Milkha Singh autobiography ‘Undisputed Truth’? the Quran’.
Sol.1228.(c) Kapil Dev. His Awards: Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
(a) Kevin Pietersen (b) Muhammad Ali Q.1236. ‘Letters from a Father to his
Padma Bhushan (1991), Padma Shri Daughter’ was authored by whom among
(c) Matthew Hayden (d) Mike Tyson
(1982), Arjuna Award (1979-80). Indian the following freedom fighters ?
player and their Autobiographies: Sachin Sol.1232.(d) Mike Tyson. Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Tendulkar - ‘Playing It My Way’, Mary Autobiographies of sportspersons: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
Kom - ‘Unbreakable’, Yuvraj Singh - ‘The Cricket Delightful (Mushtaq Ali), Sunny (b) Subhas Chandra Bose
Test of My Life’, Milkha Singh - ‘The Race Days (Sunil Gavaskar), Playing with Fire (c) Mahatma Gandhi
df
of My Life’, Saina Nehwal - ‘Playing to (Nasser Hussain), Straight from the (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Win’. Sania Mirza - ‘Ace against Odds’.
_p
Heart (Kapil Dev), Out of My Comfort
Zone (Steve Waugh), Portrait of a Rebel Sol.1236.(a) Jawaharlal Nehru. Other
Q.1229. Who among the following wrote Books by him : “The Discovery of India”,
na
(Kevin Pietersen).
the book ‘Long Walk to Freedom’? “An Autobiography”, “Glimpses of World
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Q.1233. Who among the following is the History”. Other Authors and Books :
ap
(a) Winston Churchill (b) Barack Obama author of the book ‘The Complete Subhas Chandra Bose - “Azad Hind”, “The
(c) Nelson Mandela (d) Mother Teresa Adventures of Feluda’? Indian Struggle”, “Dreams of a Youth”.
:@
Sol.1229.(c) Nelson Mandela. He was Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Mahatma Gandhi - “The Story of My
South Africa's first democratically (a) Mrinal Sen (b) Ritwik Ghatak Experiments”, “Hind Swaraj”, “Satyagraha
(c) Goutam Ghosh (d) Satyajit Ray in South Africa”. Chandrika Prasad
TG
elected President. Other books and their
authors : Winston Churchill - “A History of Srivastava - “Lal Bahadur Shastri - A Life
Sol.1233.(d) Satyajit Ray received the
the English-Speaking Peoples”. Barack of Truth in Politics”.
Bharat Ratna in 1992, the Padma
on
Obama - “Dreams from My Father”, “The Vibhushan in 1976, the Padma Bhushan Q.1237. Who among the following is the
Audacity of Hope”, “Of Thee I Sing”, “A in 1965, and the Oscar Award for lifetime author of the novel 'Ret Samadhi' ?
Promised Land”. achievements in cinema in 1992. His
ch
Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Q.1230. Whom among the following notable books include Jakhan Choto (a) Rita Kumari (b) Geetanjali Shree
Chilam (autobiography), Badshahi Angti,
ar
cricketers has co-written the book named (c) Shashi Tharoor (d) Jhumpa Lahiri
'281 and beyond'? Sonar Kella, and Gangtokey Gondogol.
Se
Other Author: Mrinal Sen - Always Being Sol.1237.(b) Geetanjali Shree. Her book
Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Born. 'Tomb of Sand (Ret Samadhi)' has
(a) Rahul Dravid (b) Ajay Jadeja
become the first Hindi novel to be
(c) Saurav Ganguly (d) VVS Laxman
Q.1234. ‘Total Recall: My Unbelievably awarded the prestigious 2022
Sol.1230.(d) VVS Laxman (Vangipurapu True Life Story’ was authored by whom International Booker Prize. The book was
Venkata Sai Laxman) is a former Indian among the following personalities in translated in english by Daisy Rockwell.
international cricketer. Rahul Dravid - addition to Peter Petre ? Hamara Shahar Us Baras, Khali Jagah
“The Nice Guy Who Finished First”; Kapil Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2) and Pratinidhi Kahaniyan are other books
Dev - “Straight from the Heart”; Sunil (a) Andre Agassi by her. Other Authors and Books : Shashi
Gavaskar - “Sunny Days”; Sourav Ganguly (b) Pete Sampras Tharoor - The Great Indian Novel, A
- “A Century is Not Enough”; Suresh (c) Malcom X Wonderland of Words. Jhumpa Lahiri -
Raina - “Believe”. (d) Arnold Schwarzenegger The Namesake, The Lowland.
Q.1231. ‘My Country, My Life’ is an Sol.1234.(d) Arnold Schwarzenegger. He Q.1238. Which of the following novels is
autobiographical text of which of the served as the 38th governor of California written by the Indian author Kiran Desai?
following Indian politicians? from 2003 to 2011. He is also a Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2) celebrated author, with notable works (a) The Inheritance of Loss
(a) Narendra Modi including: Be Useful: Seven Tools for Life, (b) The Circle of Reason
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee The New Encyclopedia of Modern (c) The Golden House
(c) Lal Krishna Advani Bodybuilding, Arnold: The Education of a (d) A Suitable Boy
(d) Sharad Pawar Bodybuilder.
Sol.1238.(a) The Inheritance of Loss.
Sol.1231.(c) Lal Krishna Advani. He is a Q.1235. Which of the following is the Other books by Kiran Desai: ’Hullabaloo
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
in the Guava Orchard’, ‘Consumer Identity Raza - “A Village Divided”, “Neem Ka “The Unheard Cry for Meaning”, “Man's
and Fashion’, ‘Emblems of Ped”. Mohan Rakesh - “Another Life: Search for Ultimate Meaning”.
Transformation’. Amitav Ghosh - ‘The Thirteen Stories and a Play”. Harishankar
Circle of Reason’. Parsai - “Hum Ek Umra Se Waqif Hain”, Q.1248. Who among the following is the
“Rani Nagfani ki Kahani”. author of the book ‘India After Gandhi:
Q.1239. The novel ‘Raavan - Enemy of The History of the World's Largest
Aryavarta’ is written by whom among the Q.1244. Who wrote the book ‘If God Was Democracy’ ?
following writers? A Banker’? SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) (a) Ramchandra Guha
(a) Kiran Desai (b) Amish Tripathi (a) Ravi Subramanian (b) Amitav Ghosh (b) Anuja Chauhan
(c) Ruskin Bond (d) Amitav Ghosh (c) Jhumpa Lahiri (d) Ashwin Sanghi (c) Ravinder Singh
(d) Sandhya Menon
Sol.1239.(b) Amish Tripathi. He is an Sol.1244.(a) Ravi Subramanian. His
Indian author and diplomat, best known books: “The Incredible Banker”, “In the Sol.1248.(a) Ramchandra Guha. Authors
for “The Shiva Trilogy” and “Ram Name of God”, “God Is A Gamer”, “I and their books: Ramchandra Guha -
Chandra” Series. His Other Books: “The Bought the Monk’s Ferrari”, “Don't Tell Gandhi Before India, Environmentalism:
Immortals of Meluha”; “The Secret of the The Governor”. A Global History, Rebels Against the Raj,
Nagas”, "The Oath of the Vayuputras”; Makers of Modern India, This fissured
“Scion of Ikshvaku”; “Sita: Warrior of Q.1245. Who among the following is the land, The Unquiet Woods, Democrats and
Mithila”. author of the novel 'Maila Anchal' ? Dissenters . Sandhya Menon - “When
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) Dimple Met Rishi”, “There's Something
Q.1240. The novel 'The White Tiger' was (a) Kamleshwar about Sweetie”.
written by: (b) Phanishwar Nath 'Renu’
df
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (c) Harishankar Parsai Q.1249. The novel ‘The Mountain of
(a) Aravind Adiga (b) Indu Sundaresan (d) Kashinath Singh Light’ is written by _____________.
_p
(c) Amitav Ghosh (d) Vikram Chandra SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Sol.1245.(b) Phanishwar Nath 'Renu’. (a) Anukrti Upadhyay
na
Sol.1240.(a) Aravind Adiga received the Other Novels - ‘’’Parti Parikatha’’, ‘’Kitne (b) Meena Kandasamy
Man Booker Prize in 2008 for his novel Chaurahe’’, ‘’Paltu Babu Road’’. Authors (c) Indu Sundaresan
ap
‘The White Tiger’. His other novels and their books: Kamleshwar - ‘’Aagami (d) Zarreen Khan
include ‘Last Man in Tower’ and Atit’’, ‘’Partitions’’, ‘’Murdon Ki Duniya’’.
:@
‘Selection Day’. Authors and their notable Harishankar Parsai - ‘’Viklang Shraddha Sol.1249.(c) Indu Sundaresan: Her other
works: Indu Sundaresan - ‘The Twentieth Ka Daur’’, ‘’Ghaayal Basant’’, ‘’Badchalan’’, books - “The twentieth wife”, “The feast
Wife’, ‘The Feast of Roses’. Amitav Ghosh ‘’Apni Apni Bimari’’, ‘’Tulsidas Chandan of roses”. Books and authors: Anukrti
TG
- ‘Sea of Poppies’, ‘The Shadow Lines’. Ghise'’. Kashinath Singh - ‘’Rehan Par Upadhyay - “Bhaunri”, “Kintsugi”, “Daura”,
Vikram Chandra - ‘Sacred Games’, ‘Red Ragghu’’, ‘’Kashi Ka Assi’’. “The Blue Woman”. Meena Kandasamy -
Earth and Pouring Rain’. “Ms.Militancy”, “When I Hit You”, “The
on
Q.1246. 'The Last Song of Dusk’ is the Gypsy Goddess”. Zarreen Khan - “Koi
Q.1241. Who among the following debut novel of: Good News?”, “I Quit! Now What?”.
authored the book ‘Unbreakable’? SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
ch
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (a) Ravinder Singh Q.1250. ‘I Know Why the Caged Bird
(a) Shantanu Naidu (b) Indra Nooyi (b) Ira Trivedi Sings’ is an autobiography of ________.
ar
(c) Mary Kom (d) Kapil Dev (c) Siddharth Dhanvant Shanghvi SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Se
(d) Nikita Singh (a) Dolly Alderton
Sol.1241.(c) Mary Kom. Indra Nooyi: "My (b) Michelle Obama
Life in Full: Work, Family, and Our Future". Sol.1246.(c) Siddharth Dhanvant (c) Patricia Lockwood
Kapil Dev: "Straight from the Heart". Shanghvi. Other Books:- “AIDS Sutra: (d) Maya Angelou
Untold Stories From India”, “The Lost
Q.1242. ‘Goal’ is the autobiography of Flamingoes of Bombay”. Other novel Sol.1250.(d) Maya Angelou.
_______. writers:- Ira Trivedi - “What Would You Do Autobiographies of famous personalities:
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) To Save the World”, “Om the Yoga Dog”. Dolly Alderton - “Everything I Know About
(a) Cristiano Ronaldo (b) Mary Kom Nikita Singh - “Love @ Facebook”, “What Love” (memoir), Barack Obama -
(c) Major Dhyan Chand (d) Mike Tyson Do You See When You Look In The “Dreams from my father: A story of Race
Sol.1242.(c) Major Dhyanchand. Mirror?”. and Inheritance”, Michele Obama -
“Becoming”, Anne Frank - “The Diary of a
Q.1243. Who among the following is the Q.1247. Who among the following is the young girl”.
author of the novel ‘Tamas’? writer of ‘Man’s Search for Meaning’ ?
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) Q.1251. Who is the author of ‘Harry
(a) Harishankar Parsai (b) Mohan Rakesh (a) Alfred Lansing (b) Elie Wiesel Potter and the Prisoner of Azkaban’?
(c) Rahi Masoom Raza (d) Bhisham Sahni (c) Viktor E Frankl (d) Edith Eger SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening)
(a) Stephen King (b) George Eliot
Sol.1243.(d) Bhisham Sahni. His Other Sol.1247.(c) Viktor E Frankl. His other (c) J K Rowling (d) Salman Rushdie
books: “Balraj: My Brother”, “Madhavi”, books:- “The Doctor and the Soul”, “On
“Bhatakti Raakh”, “Pahala Path”, the Theory and Therapy of Mental Sol.1251.(c) J. K. Rowling. Other books -
“Patriyan”, “Today's Pasts: A Memoir”. Disorders”, “Psychotherapy and “The Casual Vacancy” and “the Cormoran
Authors and their books: Rahi Masoom Existentialism”, “The Will to Meaning”, Strike series”, “The Running Grave”, “The
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Ink Black Heart”, “The Cuckoo's Calling”. (c) Arjun Singh (d) LK Advani Sol.1261.(c) Ayushmann Khurrana.
Other Indian Actors and their books :
Q.1252. Which of the following books is Sol.1256.(c) Arjun Singh. Anupam Kher - “Aap khud hi best hai” ,
an autobiography of the former American Emraan Hashmi : “The Kiss of Life”,
president Bill Clinton? Q.1257. Which of the following is the
autobiography of the first Indian Nawajuddin Siddiqui - “An Ordinary Life:
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) A memoir”, Karan Johar - “An Unsuitable
(a) Long Walk to Freedom President Dr. Rajendra Prasad ?
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) Boy”, Sonu Sood - “I Am No Messiah”.
(b) My Country My Life
(c) My Life (a) A Shot at History Q.1262. Who among the following is the
(d) Becoming (b) My Country My Life author of the book, ‘Unfinished; A
(c) Atmakatha Memoir’ ?
Sol.1252.(c) My Life. Books by him: The (d) Atma Britanta SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
President is Missing, The President’s (a) Alia Bhatt
Daughter, Back to Work, Gone. Sol.1257.(c) Atmakatha. Dr. Rajendra
Prasad: Books - ‘’Satyagraha in (b) Priyanka Chopra
Q.1253. Who is the author of the novel Champaran’’, ‘’India Divided’’, “Enslaved in (c) Deepika Padukone
‘The Moor’s Last Sigh’? Paradise”, “ Champaran mein Mahatma (d) Kareena Kapoor
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) Gandhi”. Sol.1262.(b) Priyanka Chopra : She was
(a) V.S. Naipaul (b) John Keay awarded Padma Shri in 2016. She won
(c) Kiran Doshi (d) Salman Rushdie Q.1258. Which of the following is an
autobiography of the international tennis Miss World pageant in the year 2000.
Sol.1253.(d) Salman Rushdie: Other player Andre Agassi ? Q.1263. ‘The Fall of a Sparrow' is an
Novels - “The Satanic Verses”, SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) autobiography of ____________.
df
“Midnight's Children”, “Quichotte”, (a) Me SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
“Shame”, “Luka and the Fire of Life”, “The (b) Becoming (a) Salim Ali (b) Raj Kapoor
_p
Golden House”. Famous V.S. Naipaul - (c) Too Many Reasons to Live (c) Kapil Dev (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
“A House for Mr. Biswas”, “A Bend in the (d) Open: An Autobiography
na
River”, “In a Free State”. Sol.1263.(a) Salim Ali (Birdman of India).
Sol.1258.(d) Open: An Autobiography Other books by him - “The books of
ap
Q.1254. Who is the author of the novel Another book by him: The Whirl. He is an Indian birds”, “Indian hill birds”, “A
'Before We Visit the Goddess'? American tennis player. pictorial guide to the birds of the Indian
:@
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) subcontinent”. Atal Bihari Vajpayee -
(a) Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni Q.1259. In which of the following
languages is 'Childhood Days - A Memoir' “Dynamics of an open society”, “Twenty
(b) Jhumpa Lahiri one poems”.
by Satyajit Ray written?
TG
(c) Arundhati Roy
(d) Kiran Doshi SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) Q.1264. Whose autobiography is titled
(a) Telugu (b) Hindi "Waiting for a Visa"?
Sol.1254.(a) Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni. (c) Bengali (d) Kannada
on
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Her Other books: “The Palace of (a) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia
Illusions”, “The Forest of Enchantments”, Sol.1259.(c) Bengali. Satyajit Ray was an
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
ch
“Mistress of Spices”, “The Last Queen” Indian Bengali filmmaker. His first film
was Pather Panchali (1955), which won (c) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
and “Queen of dreams”. (d) Dr. Kamal Ranadive
ar
eleven international prizes. Books: “The
Q.1255. Who among the following is the Incredible Adventure of Professor Sol.1264.(c) Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar. His
Se
author of the book 'On Writing: A Memoir Shonku” (Bengali), “Sonar Kella” Other Books: “The Problem of the
of the Craft' ? (Bengali), “Jakhan Choto Chilam” Rupee”, “The Annihilation of Caste”,
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) (Bangali). “Buddha Or Karl Marx”.
(a) F Scott Fitzgerald
(b) Clive Staples Lewis Q.1260. Who is the author of the book Q.1265. Who among the following is the
(c) Ernest Hemingway ‘The Soul of a Butterfly: Reflections on author of the Hindi novel 'Raag Darbari' ?
(d) Stephen King Life’s Journey’ ? SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) (a) Shrilal Shukla (b) Rahul Sankrityayan
Sol.1255.(d) Stephen King (American). (a) Muhammad Ali (b) Jake LaMotta (c) Premchand (d) Kashinath Singh
His Other Books - “Fairy Tale”, “Billy (c) Roberto Duran (d) Eugene J Bullard
Summers”, “It”, “The Shining”, “Carrie”. Sol.1265.(a) Shrilal Shukla . His notable
Other Authors: F. Scott Fitzgerald - “The Sol.1260.(a) Muhammad Ali. His Other works: Raag Darbari, Makaan, Bisrampur
Beautiful and Damned”, “The Great Book - “The Greatest: My Own Story”. Ka Sant and Sooni Ghaati Ka Sooraj.
Gatsby”. Clive Staples Lewis - “The
Q.1261. Who among the following is one Q.1266. The film based on which of the
Chronicles of Narnia”, “Mere Christianity”.
of the co-authors of the book, 'Cracking following novels by Amrita Pritam won
Ernest Hemingway - “The Sun Also
The Code : My Journey in Bollywood' ? the National Film Award ?
Rises”, “A Farewell to Arms”.
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (1st Shift) SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q.1256. 'A Grain Of Sand In The (a) Harshvardhan Kapoor (a) Nagmani (b) Raseedi Ticket
Hourglass of Time' is an autobiography (b) Nawazuddin Siddique (c) Village No.36 (d) Pinjar
of which Indian politician ? (c) Ayushmann Khurrana
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) (d) Rajkumar Rao Sol.1266.(d) Pinjar : Theme - Partition
(a) IK Gujral (b) Manmohan Singh and Communal Conflict. Based on -
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Violence done upon women at the time SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift) An Experiment in Autobiography - (Author
of the Partition of India in 1947. Amrita (a) Poonam Surie (b) Andy Marino - Khwaja Ahmad Abbas). Mai Ek Harfan
Pritam : Punjabi author and Poet. Books - (c) Daman Singh (d) Raghav Bahal Maula is the autobiography of A.K.
“Revenue Stamp- an autobiography”, Hangal.
“Rasidi ticket”, “ . Ajj Aakhaan Waris Shah Sol.1271.(b) Andy Marino. Books by
Nu”. him:- “Escape From Chernobyl”, “It Rides Q.1276. Which of the following
a Pale Horse”, “Escape from East Berlin”. autobiographies was written by the
Q.1267. Who authored the book ‘Poverty Indian female poet Kamala Das, who was
and Un-British Rule in India' in 1901, Q.1272. Who among the following is the nominated for Nobel Prize for literature
which was highly critical of the economic author of the book 'The Buddha and his in 1984?
impact of British Rule? Dhamma', which appeared in 1957 after Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (3rd Shift) the death of its author? (a) My Story
(a) Pherozeshah Mehta SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (4th shift) (b) A Life Less Ordinary
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji (a) Subhas Chandra Bose (c) A Life Apart
(c) WC Bonnerji (b) BR Ambedkar (d) Smritichitre: The Memoire of a
(d) Badruddin Tyabji (c) Mahatma Gandhi Spirited Wife
(d) Motilal Nehru
Sol.1267.(b) Dadabhai Naoroji. Other Sol.1276.(a) My Story. “A Life Less
books by Him - “The Wants and Means of Sol.1272.(b) BR Ambedkar. His Other Ordinary” (Baby Halder). “A Life Apart”
India”, “The Manners and Customs of the Books - “Castes in India”, “The Problem (Neel Mukherjee). “Smriti Chitre: The
Parsees” “The European and Asiatic of the Rupee”, “Bahishkrit Bharat”, “The Memoirs of a Spirited Wife” (Lakshmibai
Race”. Annihilation of Caste”, “Federation Tilak). “How I Became a Hindu” (Sita
Versus Freedom”, “Thoughts on Ram Goel).
df
Q.1268. Who was the author of the Pakistan”, “Ranade, Gandhi and Jinnah” ,
famous book 'The Economic History of “Mr. Gandhi and Emancipation of Q.1277. 'Vikramarjuna - Vijaya'
_p
India" ? Untouchables”, “Pakistan Or Partition Of composed by Pampa was written in
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift) India”, “Who were the Shudras”, “The which of the following languages?
na
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) PC Dutta Untouchables”, “Buddha Or Karl Marx”. Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
(c) RG Bhandarkar (d) RC Dutt (a) Sanskrit (b) Tamil
ap
Q.1273. Six Machine: I Don't Like Cricket (c) Telugu (d) Kannada
Sol.1268.(d) RC Dutt. Other Books: “The ... I Love It' is a book written by:
:@
Epic Of The Bharatas Mahabharatas”, Graduate Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 1) Sol.1277.(d) Kannada. Other ancient
“The peasantry of Bengal”. (a) Andre Russell (b) Kieron Pollard books and their writers - Panini-
(c) Chris Gayle (d) MS Dhoni (Ashtadhyayi), Patanjali (Mahabhasya),
TG
Q.1269. Who is the author of the book
Shudraka (Mricchakatika), Kalhana
'The 7 Sins of Being a Mother' ? Sol.1273.(c) Chris Gayle (Jamaican (Rajatarangini).
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (1st Shift) cricketer).
on
(a) Twinkle Khanna Q.1278. ‘A Life of the Genius: The Man
(b) Tahira Kashyap Khurrana Q.1274. “Moonwalk”, a memoir written Who Knew Infinity' is a biography of
(c) Alia Bhatt by which famous music personality? Indian mathematician ______ .
ch
(d) Kareena Kapoor Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) Michael Jackson (b) Stevie Wonder (a) Acharya Pingala (b) Aryabhata
ar
Sol.1269.(b) Tahira Kashyap Khurrana, (c) Bob Dylan (d) Kurt Cobain (c) Srinivasa Ramanujan (d) Neena Gupta
writer and filmmaker, shines a light on
Se
unspoken facets of being a mother. Sol.1274.(a) Michael Jackson . His
Sol.1278.(c) Srinivasa Ramanujan:- He
Books : “The 12 Commandments of books :- “Thriller Live “, “Dancing the
is also called 'mathematician of
Being a Woman”, “Cracking the Code: My Dream”, “We Are the World Sheet Music”.
mathematicians' and 'magician of
Journey in Bollywood”, “Be Atmanirbhar”, Discography- “Got to Be There “, “Ben”,
numbers' for his amazing work on
“Souled Out”, “I Promise…”. “Music & Me”. Filmography - “The Wiz”,
number theory. National Mathematics
“Bad 25” etc.
Day (celebrated on 22 December to
Q.1270. '2G Saga Unfolds' book was
Q.1275. Which of the following commemorate the birth anniversary of
written by______.
autobiographies was written by the Srinivasa Ramanujan).
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Indian film actor Balraj Sahni?
(a) Mohsin Hamid (b) Tarun Vijay Q.1279. 'India's Struggle for
Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
(c) Andimuthu Raja (d) Kanwaljit Singh Independence' is one of the notable
(a) The Act of Life
books written by ____ .
Sol.1270.(c) Andimuthu Raja. Famous (b) Main Ek Harfan Maula
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening)
Author - Book: Tarun Vijay - “Shakshat (c) Meri Filmi Atmakatha
(a) Sekhar Bandyopadhyay
shiv de samvad: Kailash Mansarovar (d) I Am Not an Island
(b) R.K. Narayana
yatra”, “Vampanthi Kalush Katha”.
Sol.1275.(c) Meri Filmi Atmakatha. (c) R.C. Majumdar
Mohsin Hamid - “Moth Smoke”, “Exit
Balraj Sahni had composed famous (d) Bipan Chandra
West”, “The Last White Man”. Kanwaljit
travelogs like 'Mera Pakistani Safarnama'
Singh - “Sikh Granthi (My Life, My Sol.1279.(d) Bipan Chandra. Awards
and 'Rusii Safarnama. The Act of Life
Religion)”. -Padma Bhushan (2010), Most Popular
(Writer - Jyoti Sabharwal) is a 2006
Q.1271. "Narendra Modi: A Political autobiography by Indian theater and film Books - “History of Modern India”, “India
Biography” is written by __________. actor Amrish Puri. I Am Not an Island: since Independence“, “Freedom
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Struggle”, “Communalism in Modern Q.1284. Which of these is the title of the India”. Vijay Darda - “Kudedan me
India”, “India After Independence”, “In the first novel of Anand Neelakantan? bachpan”.
Name of Democracy”, “Indian National SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Morning)
Movement”, “Bharat me Upniveshvad aur (a) Asura: Tale of the Vanquished Q.1289. Who among the following is the
Rashtravad”. (b) Satya Ke Prayog author of "Flood of Fire"?
(c) The Immortals of Meluha SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Morning)
Q.1280. 'Freedom in Exile' is the (d) Kadambari (a) Arunima Sinha (b) Tarun Khanna
autobiographical book of _____________. (c) Amitav Ghosh (d) Twinkle Khanna
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.1284.(a) Asura : Tale of the
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Vanquished. Anand Neelakantan’s Sol.1289.(c) Amitav Ghosh. His other
(b) Mahatma Gandhi Notable works - ‘’Ajaya: Roll of the Dice’’, books by - ‘The Shadow Lines’, ‘The
(c) J.B. Kriplani ‘’Ajaya: Rise of Kali’’, ‘’The Rise of Hungry Tide’, 'The Nutmeg’s Curse’, ‘The
(d) Dalai Lama Sivagami’’, ‘’Penn Ramayanam’’, ‘’Valmiki's Glass Palace’, ‘River of Smoke’, ‘The
Women’’. Mahatma Gandhi - ’’Satya ke Calcutta Chromosome', ‘Gun Island’,
Sol.1280.(d) Dalai Lama. The Dalai Prayog’’. Amish Tripathi - ‘’The Immortals 'Jungle Nama’. Arunima Sinha - ‘Born
Lama wrote two autobiographies; the of Meluha’’. Banabhatta - “Kadambari”. Again on the mountain: A Story of losing
first was ‘My Land And My People’ and everything and Finding it back’. Tarun
the second was 'Freedom in Exile' . More Q.1285. Who is the author of the epic Khanna - ‘Winning in emerging markets’,
books by him:- “ The Art of Happiness”, poem 'Padmavat”? ‘Billions of Entrepreneurs’, ‘Foundations
“The Book of Joy”, “Ancient Wisdom, SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning) of neural networks’, ‘Kumbh Mela:
Modern World”, “Beyond Religion”. (a) Kuldeep Nayyar (b) Kalidasa Mapping the Ephemeral megacity city'
(c) Malik Muhammad Jayasi (d) Al-Biruni and ‘Trust’. Twinkle Khanna - ‘Mrs.
Q.1281. 'Galpaguchchha', written by Funnybones’ and ‘Pajamas are forgiving’.
df
Rabindranath Tagore is a collection of Sol.1285.(c) Malik Muhammad Jayasi. It
______. was written in Awadhi language. Q.1290. Who wrote the book "A Brief
_p
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening) Kuldeep Nayar - “Beyond the Lines”, History of Time"?
(a) devotional songs (b) poems “India after Nehru” and “Emergency SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(c) English shayaris (d) short stories Retold”. Kalidasa -
na
“Shakuntala”,
“RituSamhara or The Six Seasons'' , “The
(a) Stephen Hawking
(b) Albert Einstein
ap
Sol.1281.(d) Short stories. Megha Duta”. Al - Biruni - “Kitab ul-Hind''. (c) John Watson
Galpaguchchha is a collection of sixty - Tulsidas - ‘Ramcharitrmans’. (d) Neil Degrasse Tyson
:@
one of Tagore’s short stories. Other short
stories by Tagore - "Kabuliwala", Q.1286. "Wide Angle" is an Sol.1290.(a) Stephen Hawking.
“Kshudita Pashan''. Some novels - autobiography of which of the following Published in 1988. Other books - “Brief
TG
‘Chaturanga’, ‘Shesher Kobita’, ‘Char sports persons? Answers To The Big Questions”, “The
Adhyay’, and ‘Noukadubi’. Poetry - SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Evening) Theory of Everything”, “Black Holes: The
Gitanjali (Nobel Prize in Literature in (a) Wasim Akram (b) Yuvraj Singh Reith Lectures”, “The Universe In A
on
1913). (c) Imran Khan (d) Anil Kumble Nutshell”. The Black Hole War - Written
by Leonard Susskind.
Q.1282. 'In The Afternoon of Time' is an Sol.1286.(d) Anil Kumble. Awards of Anil
ch
autobiographical book by __________. Kumble - Arjuna award (1995) and Q.1291. Who wrote the novel "Life of Pi"?
SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Morning) Padma Shri (2005). SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Morning)
ar
(a) Satyajit Ray (a) Jonathan Safran Foer
Q.1287. Who wrote the Panchatantra, a
Se
(b) Sam Pitroda (b) Khaled Hosseini
(c) Harivansh Rai Bachchan collection of fables? (c) Yann Martel
(d) P.T. Usha SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Afternoon) (d) Carol Birch
(a) Rumi (b) Amar Singh
Sol.1282.(c) Harivansh Rai Bachchan. (c) Jaya Dev (d) Vishnu Sharma Sol.1291.(c) Yann Martel. ‘Life of Pi’ -
He is best known for his early work This book was published in 2001 and
Madhushala. In 1976, he received the Sol.1287.(d) Vishnu Sharma was an
won the Man Booker Prize. Famous
Padma Bhushan. Indian scholar and author. The
Writer and Books - Jonathan Safran Foer
Panchatantra is a collection of
- "Everything is Illuminated". Khaled
Q.1283. ___________ describe the idea of interrelated animal fables in Sanskrit
Hosseini - "The Kite Runner" and "A
evolution in his book, "The origin of verse and prose, arranged within a frame
Thousand Splendid Suns".
species". story.
SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Afternoon) Q.1292. Who is the author of the tragic
(a) Edward Jenner (b) Charles Darwin Q.1288. "India at Risk" is written by
story, "Othello" ?
(c) Robert Brown (d) Aristotle which of the following authors?
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Afternoon)
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) William Shakespeare
Sol.1283.(b) Charles Darwin. Famous (a) Jaswant Singh (b) Khushwant Singh
(b) William Wordsworth
books by Charles Darwin: “The Descent (c) Natwar Singh (d) Vijay Darda
(c) Johannes Gutenberg
of Man, and Selection in Relation to Sex”,
Sol.1288.(a) Jaswant Singh. His Other (d) Charles Dickens
“The Expression of the Emotions in Man
and Animals”, “Insectivorous Plants”, “On books - “Defending India", “Travels in
Sol.1292.(a) William Shakespeare -
Natural Selection”, “The Voyage of the Transoxiana” , “Conflict And Diplomacy” ,
“Hamlet”, “The Merchant of Venice”, “The
Beagle”. “A Call to Honour: In Service of Emergent
Tempest”.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.1293. Which among the following Q.1297. 'The Stars in My sky. Those Who Sol.1300.(c) Arundhati Roy. More books
books was written by Dr. Raghuram Brightened My Film Journey' is the by her:- “The God of Small Things”, “The
Rajan? second book by _____. End of Imagination”, “The Cost of Living”,
SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Morning) SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Afternoon) “The Algebra of Infinite Justice”,
(a) The Third Pillar (b) We are Displaced (a) Amitabh Bachchan (b) Divya Dutta “Walking with the Comrades”, “Kashmir:
(c) The India Story (d) My Life in Full (c) Neeti Mohan (d) Sonam Kapoor The Case for Freedom”. “Capitalism: A
Ghost Story”.
Sol.1293.(a) The Third Pillar. Books and Sol.1297.(b) Divya Dutta. Her first book,
Authors: Dr. Raghuram Rajan - ‘Fault “Me and Ma'' which was released in Q.1301. Who among the following wrote
Lines’, ‘Naan Seivathai Seikiren’, ‘I Do 2017. Amitabh Bachchan - ‘Soul Curry for "The Bench" ?
What I Do’, ‘Monetary Policy and Its You and Me - An Empowering Philosophy SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
Unintended Consequences’. Malala That Can Enrich Your Life’ (2002). (a) Amitav Ghosh (b) Meghan Markle
Yousafzai - ‘We Are Displaced’, ‘Malala's (c) Kalki Koechlin (d) Samir Soni
Magic Pencil’. Bimal Jalan - ‘The Future Q.1298. Which of the following books
was written by Swami Vivekananda? Sol.1301.(b) Meghan Markle. Kalki
of India’, ‘India's Economic Crisis: The Koechlin: “Skeleton Woman”, “The
Way Ahead’, ‘The India Story’. Indra Nooyi SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Evening)
(a) Ancient India Elephant In The Womb”, Samir Soni: “My
- ‘My Life in Full’. Experiments with Silence”: “The Diary
(b) River of Smoke
Q.1294. Which among the following (c) The East and the West Of-An-Introvert”.
books is an autobiography of Mithali Raj? (d) No secrets Q.1302. Leo Tolstoy is best known for
SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Evening) his _______.
(a) All Round View (b) Unguarded Sol.1298.(c) The East and the West -
This book is a comparative study of SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (4th Shift)
(c) No Holding Back (d) One More Over
df
eastern and Western cultures. Books (a) dance (b) acting
Sol.1294.(b) “Unguarded”. Mithali Raj: written by Swami Vivekananda - ‘Raja (c) direction (d) novels
_p
Awards - Arjuna Award (2003), Padma Yoga’, ‘Jnana Yoga’, ‘Karma Yoga and Sol.1302.(d) Novels. His major works
Shri (2015), Khel Ratna Award (2021). Bhakti Yoga’, ‘Pathways to Joy: The
na
include the novels ‘War and Peace
An autobiography of players - ‘’All round Master’, ‘Meditation and Its Methods’, (1869)’, ‘Anna Karenina’, ‘Sevastopol
view’’ - Imran Khan. ‘’No Holding Back’’ - ‘Vedanta: Voice of Freedom’, ‘My India:
ap
Sketches’, ‘Resurrection’, ‘Childhood’, ‘My
Michael Holding. “One more over’’ - The India Eternal’, ‘Chicago Addresses’, confession’, ‘The Three Questions’, ‘Hadji
Erapalli Prasanna. ‘My Idea of Education’, ‘Pearls of
:@
Murat’, ‘Youth’, ‘Family Happiness’,
Wisdom’, ‘Religion of Love’. ‘Ancient ‘Boyhood’, ‘The Cossacks’, ‘The Devil’,
Q.1295. Who is the author of the novel, India’ - RC Majumdar, ‘River of Smoke’ -
"Oliver Twist"? ‘Ivan the Fool’ etc.
Amitav Ghosh, ‘No Secrets’ - Anuj Dhar.
TG
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon) Q.1303. Who is the author of the book
(a) Mark Twain (b) Charles Dickens Q.1299. Who wrote the famous novel 'Languages of Truth: Essays 2003-2020' ?
(c) Oscar Wilde (d) Jane Austen "Durgeshnandini" ? SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift)
on
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift) (a) Vikram Sampath (b) Salman Rushdie
Sol.1295.(b) Charles Dickens. Novels of (a) Rabindranath Tagore (c) Kabir Bedi (d) Meghan Markale
Charles Dickens: ‘Great Expectations’, (b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
ch
‘The Pickwick Papers’, ‘A Tale of Two (c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee Sol.1303.(b) Salman Rushdie. He is an
Cities’, ‘David Copperfield’, ‘Little Dorrit’, (d) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay Indian-born British-American novelist.
ar
‘Bleak House’. Other Books: “Midnight's Children”,
Sol.1299.(c) Bankim Chandra
Se
“Quichotte”, “Victory City” etc. Vikram
Q.1296. Which of the following memoirs Chatterjee's first Bengali novel Sampath - “Savarkar : A Contested
is based on ex-Prime Minister Dr Durgeshnandini revolutionized Bengali Legacy, 1924-1966”. Meghan Markale
Manmohan Singh? prose writing. His other books: “The Bench”. Kabir bedi - “Stories I Must
SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Morning) “Anandamath” (National Song ‘Vande Tell: The Emotional Life of an Actor”.
(a) A Prime Minister to Remember Matram’ is a part of it), “Kapalkundala” ,
(b) The Change We Choose “Mrinalini” , “Vishabriksha” (The Poison Q.1304. The 'Karmayodha Granth' book
(c) The Prime Minister Tree), “Indira” , “Chandrasekhar”, “Devi was released by which of the following
(d) The Accidental Prime Minister Chaudhurani”. Rabindranath Tagore politicians?
(wrote the National Anthem) - “Gitanjali”, SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Sol.1296.(d) The Accidental Prime (a) Amit Shah (b) Rahul Gandhi
“The Postmaster”, “Gora”, “Kabuliwala”.
Minister (2014) - It was written by (c) Nitin Gadkari (d) Smriti Irani
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar - “Betaal
Sanjaya Baru. Other Books of Sanjay
Panchavinsati”, “Banglar Itihas”. Sarat
Baru - "1991: How P.V. Narasimha Rao Sol.1304.(a) Amit Shah. 'Karmayodha
Chandra Chattopadhyay - “Parineeta”,
Made History", “India and the World: Granth' - written on the life of PM Modi.
“Choritrohin”, “Devdas”, “Pather Dabi",
Essays on Geoeconomics and Foreign Some important books and writers: ‘Amit
“Srikanta”, “Datta”.
Policy”, “India's Power Elite”, “A New Cold Shah and the march of BJP’ - Anirban
War: Henry Kissinger and the Rise of Q.1300. The book titled ‘The Ministry of Ganguly and Shiwanand Dwivedi, ‘Rahul
China”, “Beyond Covid's Shadow: Utmost Happiness’ has been written by Gandhi The great warrior of Indian
Mapping India's Economic Resurgence”, _______. politics’ - Lakshmi Priya, ‘Rahul’ - Jatin
“Power Shifts and New Blocs in the SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Gandhi and Veenu Sandhu, ‘Unmasking
Global Trading System”, etc. (a) Jia Pingwa (b) Dan Brown India’ - Nitin Gadkari, ‘Lal Salaam’ - Smriti
(c) Arundhati Roy (d) Sunita Narain Irani.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.1305. ‘Imperfect’ is an autobiography Sol.1309.(c) Sudha Murty. Other books autobiographies: ‘My Country My Life’
of: by Sudha Murty:- “Wise and Otherwise”, (Lal Krishna Advani), ‘An Autobiography’
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift) “The Mother I Never Knew”, “The Day I (Jawaharlal Nehru), ‘Autobiography of a
(a) Rahul Dravid (b) Ravi Shastri Stopped Drinking Milk”, “Gently Falls the Yogi’ (Paramahansa Yogananda),
(c) Milkha Singh (d) Sanjay Manjrekar Bakula”, “Three Thousand Stitches”, ‘Atmakatha’ (Anna Chandy), ‘All from
“House of Cards”, “Something Happened Memory’ (B. V. Acharya), ‘Courage and
Sol.1305.(d) Sanjay Manjrekar - Cricket on the Way to Heaven” etc. Books by Conviction’ (Vijay Kumar Singh), etc.
commentator and former cricketer. Ravi Khushwant Singh - “Delhi Through the
Shastri (‘Stargazing: The Players in My Seasons”, “Godmen and Godwomen of Q.1314. By whom among the following
Life’). Rahul Dravid ( ‘The Nice Guy Who India”, “The Sikhs” etc. personalities who lived in the White
Finished First’, ‘Timeless Steel’). House is ‘Living History’ a famous book
Q.1310. The autobiography of Nirad C written?
Q.1306. Manimekalai describes the story Chaudhari is____________. Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4)
of which of the following? SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) (a) Ivanka Trump
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (1st Shift) (a) The Autobiography of an Unknown (b) Hillary Rodham Clinton
(a) Kovalan and Madhavi’s Daughter Indian (c) Laura Bush
(b) Kovalan’s wife Madhavi (b) Matters of Discretion (d) Melania Trump
(c) Kovalan’s first wife Kannagi (c) The Race of My Life
(d) Kovalan and Madhavi’s Son (d) An Autobiography of a Yogi Sol.1314.(b) Hillary Rodham Clinton.
Ivanka Trump (Books) :- Trump Card,
Sol.1306.(a) Kovalan and Madhavi’s Sol.1310.(a) The Autobiography of an Women Who Work. Laura Bush (Books):-
Daughter. It is a Tamil-Buddhist epic Unknown Indian. Other books by him - Spoken from the Heart, Our Great Big
written by Kulavanikan Seethalai Sataar Hinduism: A Religion to Live By, ’Thy Backyard, Read All About It.
df
in the 6th century. Other Great Epics of Hand, Great Anarch! India, 1921-1952’, ‘A
Tamil Literature are Cilappatikaram Q.1315. Which of the following novels is
_p
Passage to England’, ‘To Live or Not to
(written by Ilango Adigal, story of Live’. ‘Matters of Discretion’ (Inder Kumar the first in the series of the trilogy written
Kannaki and Kovalan), Civaka Cintamani by Akshat Gupta?
na
Gujral), ‘The Race of My Life’ (Milkha
(written by Tirutakkatevar, story of King Singh), Graduate Level 04/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
Caccantan), Kundalakesi (composed by (a) The Hidden Hindu
ap
Nagasena, story of Kundalakesi and Q.1311. ‘The Godfather of Soul’ is an (b) Scion of Ikshvaku
Kalan), and Valayapathi (story of a father autobiography of __________, who was (c) The Immortals of Meluha
:@
who has two wives). one of the greatest singers. (d) Secrets of the Goddess
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
Q.1307. In which year, James Mill (a) Tina Turner (b) Kurt Cobain Sol.1315.(a) ‘The Hidden Hindu’. ‘7
TG
Published a massive three-volume work, (c) Johnny Cash (d) James Brown Secrets of the Goddess’ (Devdutt
"A History of British India"? Pattanaik), ‘Scion of Ikshvaku’ (Amish
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift) Sol.1311.(d) James Brown books - ‘I Feel Tripathi), ‘The Immortals of Meluha’
on
(a) 1815 (b) 1807 (c) 1805 (d) 1817 Good: A Memoir of a Life of Soul’, ‘Soul (Amish Tripathi).
Classics’, ‘Roots of Rhythm Series’. Tina
Sol.1307.(d) 1817. James Mill was Q.1316. Who is the author of the book
ch
Turner (Autobiography - My Love Story),
among the founders of the Ricardian Kurt Cobain (‘Heavier Than Heaven’ ‘Modi Government: New Surge of
school of economics. He was the first Communalism’?
ar
biography written by Charles R. Cross).
writer to divide Indian history into three Johnny Cash (Autobiography - ‘Cash’). SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Morning)
Se
parts: Hindu, Muslim and British. Other (a) Pranab Mukherjee (b) Jaswant Singh
Works: Commerce Defended (1808), Q.1312. ‘Tess of the d'Urbervilles’ was (c) Sitaram Yechury (d) M J Akbar
Government (1820), Elements of Political written by:
Economy (1821), Liberty of the Press Higher Secondary 01/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Sol.1316.(c) Sitaram Yechury. Books:
(1825), etc. (a) Charles Dickens (b) DH Lawrence ‘Socialism in a Changing World’, ‘Left
(c) Leo Tolstoy (d) Thomas Hardy Hand Drive: Concrete Analysis of
Q.1308. ‘Mein Kampf’ of Adolf Hitler was Concrete Conditions’, ‘Communalism vs.
originally written in which of the following Sol.1312.(d) Thomas Hardy. Other Secularism’, and ‘Ghrina Ki Rajniti’.
languages? Books - ‘Far from the Madding Crowd’,
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening) ‘Jude the Obscure’, ‘The Return of the Q.1317. Which of the following novels is
(a) Japanese (b) English Native’ etc. D.H. Lawrence - ‘Lady based on the Member of Parliament
(c) German (d) French Chatterley's Lover’, ‘Women in Love’, (India), Phoolan devi, and written by the
‘Sons and Lovers’, ‘The Rainbow’ etc. author Roy Moxham?
Sol.1308.(c) German. Adolf Hitler, leader SSC MTS 15/07/2022 (Morning)
of the Nazi Party (from 1920/21) and Q.1313. ‘Courage and Commitment: An (a) Outlaw: India’s Bandit Queen and Me
chancellor and Fuhrer of Germany Autobiography’ is written by an Indian (b) Lilavati’s Daughters
(1933–45). Politician? (c) Spy Princess
Graduate Level 02/08/2022 (Shift - 3) (d) The Woman Who Knew Infinity
Q.1309. ‘Dollar Bahu’ is written by whom (a) Margaret Alva (b) Rahul Gandhi
among the following Indian authors? (c) LK Advani (d) Shashi Tharoor Sol.1317.(a) ‘Outlaw: India's bandit
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning) queen and me’. ‘Lilavati's Daughters’ -
(a) Kiran Desai (b) Arundhati Roy Sol.1313.(a) Margaret Alva. Famous Ramakrishna Ramaswamy and Rohini
(c) Sudha Murty (d) Khushwant Singh Indian personalities and their Godbole. ‘Spy Princess’ - Shrabani Basu.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
‘The Man Who Knew Infinity’ - Robert (a) Elon Musk (b) Bill Gates (a) George Harrison (b) Justin Bieber
Kanigel. (c) Jeff Bezos (d) Cristiano Ronaldo (c) AR Rahman (d) Elton John
Q.1318. ‘Khullam Khulla’ is the Sol.1323.(b) Bill Gates. Sol.1328.(a) George Harrison. Justin
autobiography of whom among the The Unauthorized Autobiography - Elon Bieber- ‘First Step 2 Forever : My Story’, A
following persons? Musk. “Jeff Bezos - Biography of a R Rahman- ‘Notes of a Dream’, Elton
SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Evening) Billionaire Business Titan” - Elliolt Renold. John- ‘Me’.
(a) Shashi Kapoor (b) Amitabh Bachchan
(c) Rishi Kapoor (d) Shatrughan Sinha Q.1324. Who among the following is the Q.1329. 'The Man Who Made the
author of ‘Set the Boy Free’ ? Elephant Dance by Kurien’ is the audio
Sol.1318.(c) Rishi Kapoor. ‘Anything But SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Afternoon) autobiography of ____.
Khamosh’ - Shatrughan Sinha. "Shashi (a) David Niven (b) Johnny Marr SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Afternoon)
Kapoor: The Householder, the Star" - (c) Paul Kalanithi (d) Bill Browder (a) M Karunanidhi (b) Dr. Verghese Kurien
Aseem Chhabra. ‘Amitabh Bachchan the (c) Temsula Ao (d) Saurabh Duggal
legend’ - Bhawna Soumya. Sol.1324.(b) Johnny Marr. David Niven-
‘The Moon's a Balloon’, ‘Bring on the Sol.1329.(b) Dr. Verghese Kurien (Father
Q.1319. Who is the author of the book Empty Horses’. Paul Kalanithi - ‘When of White Revolution). M. Karunanidhi-
'Slumdog Millionaire'? breath becomes air’. Bill Browder - ‘Red ‘Karunanidhi: The Definitive Biography’
SSC MTS 22/07/2022 (Afternoon) Notice’, ‘Freezing Order’. written by Vaasanthi. Saurabh Duggal-
(a) APJ Abdul Kalam (b) Vikas Swarup Akhada: ‘The Authorized Biography of
(c) Kiran Desai (d) R K Narayan Q.1325. _________’s ‘The Year of the Mahavir Singh Phogat’.
Runaways’ follows the lives of three
Sol.1319.(b) Vikas Swarup. His Famous migrant workers who flee India to look Q.1330. Who among the following is the
df
books: ‘Q & A: Slumdog Millionaire’, ‘Six for work in England. author of the book ‘Boys Don’t Cry’?
Suspects’, ‘The Accidental Apprentice’. SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Morning)
_p
(a) Neel Mukherjee (b) Sunjeev Sahota (a) Zuni Chopra (b) Meghna Pant
Q.1320. Who among the following is the (c) Shashi Tharoor (d) Khushwant Singh (c) Melita Tessy (d) Insiya Patanwala
na
author of 'Abhinaya Darpan'?
SSC MTS 22/07/2022 (Evening) Sol.1325.(b) Sunjeev Sahota - ‘The Year Sol.1330.(b) Meghna Pant - ‘Feminist
ap
(a) Amar Singh (b) sushruta of the Runaways’ was shortlisted for Rani’, ‘One and a Half Wife’, ‘The Terrible,
(c) yask (d) Nandikeshwar 2015 Man booker prize. Other books- Horrible, Very Bad Good News’.
:@
China Room (Long listed for 2021 Booker
Sol.1320.(d) Nandikeshwara. 'The Mirror Prize), ‘Ours are the street’. Q.1331. Which of the following novels
of Gesture'. It is a Sanskrit treatise on was written by the Indian author
Indian classical dances having a detailed Q.1326. Who is the author of the famous Anuradha Roy?
TG
account of dance movements and Marathi novel ‘Mrityunjay’? SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Evening)
expressions. SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Afternoon) (a) Tell Her Everything
(a) Bhalchandra Nemade (b) Sleeping on Jupiter
on
Q.1321. Who is the author of the (b) Shivaji Sawant (c) Midnight’s Children
controversial novel ‘Lajja’ ? (c) Ranjit Desai (d) The Illicit Happiness of Other People
ch
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Morning) (d) Vishnu Khandekar
(a) Arundhati Roy (b) Taslima Nasrin Sol.1331.(b) Sleeping on Jupiter. Tell
ar
(c) Shobhaa De (d) Kiran Bedi Sol.1326.(b) Shivaji Sawant. Her Everything - Mirza Waheed,
Some popular books by him are ‘Chhava’ ‘Midnight’s Children’ - Salman Rushdie,
Se
Sol.1321.(b) Taslima Nasrin. Some of (Novel), ‘Yugandhar’ (Novel), ‘Kavadase’, ‘The Illicit Happiness of Other
her famous books are - ‘My Girlhood’, ‘Kanchan Kan’, ‘Ladhat’, ‘Ashi Mane Ase People’-Manu Joseph.
‘French Lover’, ‘Revenge’, ‘Selected Namune’.
Columns’ etc. Q.1332. Which journalist’s autobiography
Q.1327. Which of the following books is is titled the ‘Devil’s Advocate: The untold
Q.1322. Which of the following Marathi an autobiography of the Indian story’?
writers was the author of the constitutional jurist Fali S Nariman? SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Morning)
autobiography ‘Majya Jalmachi SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Evening) (a) Vir Sanghvi (b) Pranoy Roy
Chittarkatha’ ? (a) Courage and Commitment (c) Vinod Dua (d) Karan Thapar
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Afternoon) (b) Before Memory Fades: An
(a) Kusumagraj Autobiography Sol.1332.(d) Karan Thapar. His other
(b) Sunita Deshpande (c) Wandering in Many Worlds books include “Face To Face India -
(c) Shivaji Sawant (d) All From Memory: An Autobiography Conversations With Karan Thapar”, “
(d) Shantabai Krushnaji Kamble Sunday Sentiments, Wisdom Tree”, “More
Sol.1327.(b) Before Memory Fades: An Salt Than Pepper”, etc.
Sol.1322.(d) Shantabai Krushnaji Autobiography. ‘Wandering in Many
Kamble. She wrote the first female Dalit Worlds’- V. R. Krishna Iyer, ‘All From Q.1333. Surendranath Banerjee’s
autobiography. Memory: An Autobiography’ - B. V autobiography is called ____________.
Acharya. SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Afternoon)
Q.1323. Among the following famous (a) Hind Swaraj
personalities, whose autobiography is Q.1328. ‘I, Me, Mine’ is the autobiography (b) A Nation in the Making
‘The Road Ahead’ ? of which international musician? (c) Young India
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Evening) SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Evening) (d) Hints for Self Culture
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.1333.(b) A Nation in the Making. Sol.1338.(d) Haruki Murakami. (d) Unstoppable: My Life So Far
‘Hind Swaraj’- Mahatma Gandhi, ‘Young Some more Popular Books by him -
India’ - ‘Lala Lajpat Rai, ‘Hints for Self "Kafka on the Shore", "Norwegian Wood", Sol.1343.(d) ‘Unstoppable: My Life So
Culture’ - Har Dayal. "1Q84", "After Dark", "A Wild Sheep Far’ (Maria Sharapova), ‘But Seriously’
Chase", "The Elephant Vanishes" etc. (John McEnroe), ‘Unbreakable’ (Mary
Q.1334. The famous novel ‘Anand Math’ Kom), and ‘Open’ (Andre Agassi).
was originally written in _________ Q.1339. Which of the following is 'George
language. David Roberts’ thriller novel that is based Q.1344. The historical fiction novel ‘The
SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Afternoon) on his own experience in Mumbai? King Within’ is authored by:
(a) Bengali (b) Hindi (c) Sanskrit (d) Odia SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Evening) SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) Area of Darkness (b) Amrit Aur Vish (a) Krishna Sobti (b) Indu Sundaresan
Sol.1334.(a) Bengali. It was written by (c) Shantaram (d) Kurukshetra (c) Nandini Sengupta (d) Kiran Nagarkar
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and
published in 1882. India’s National Song Sol.1339.(c) Shantaram. George David Sol.1344.(c) Nandini Sengupta - ‘The
‘Vande Matram’ has been taken from Roberts - ‘The Mountain Shadow’, ‘The Poisoned Heart’, ‘The Ocean’s Own’, ‘The
Anand Math. Spiritual Path’, ‘Shantaram Part Two’, etc. Blue Horse and Other Amazing Animals
‘Area of Darkness’ (V.S. Naipaul), ‘Amrit from Indian History’, ‘Babies from the
Q.1335. Who among the following has Aur Vish’ (Amritlal Nagar) and Heart: A Complete Guide to Adoption’,
written ‘Sangeet Kala Prakash’ ? ‘Kurukshetra’ (Ramdhari Singh 'Dinkar'). etc.
SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Evening)
(a) Prabhu Atre Q.1340. Which Indian cartoonist’s Q.1345. ‘Finding My Way’ is a famous
(b) Pandit Jasraj autobiography is titled ‘The Tunnel of autobiography written by which of the
(c) Ramakrishnabuva Vaze Time’? following Gond artists of India with the
df
(d) Pandit Kumar Gandharva SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Morning) help of Mukul S Anand?
(a) Ajit Ninan (b) RK Laxman SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Evening)
_p
Sol.1335.(c) Ramakrishnabuva Vaze. He (c) OV Vijayan (d) Mario Miranda (a) Venkat Raman Singh Shyam
was a Hindustani classical musician of (b) Dhavat Singh Uikey
na
the Gwalior tradition. Pandit Jasraj Sol.1340.(b) RK Laxman. Most famous (c) Bhajju Shyam
(Mewati Gharana), Pandit Kumar books: OV Vijayan- Thalamurakal (d) Jangarh Singh Shyam
ap
Gandharva (Singing Emptiness: Kumar (Generations; 1997), Mario Miranda- The
Gandharva Performs the Poetry of Kabir), Life of Mario 1950 and Ajit Ninan- “Like Sol.1345.(a) Venkat Raman Singh
:@
and Prabha Atre (Kirana Gharana). That Only”. Shyam and Mukul S Anand. Dhavat Singh
Uikey- ‘Where has the Tiger Gone?’,
Q.1336. Who among the following is the Q.1341. Who among the following was Bhajju Shyam - ‘The Nightlife of Trees’,
TG
author of the book ‘Sultry Days’? the author of the famous work “Sangita and ‘Jangarh Singh Shyam: The
SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Evening) Ratnakara” ? Enchanted Forest’ - Aurogeeta Das.
(a) Anita Nair (b) Nikita Singh SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Morning)
Q.1346. Which of the following is the
on
(c) Shobhaa De (d) Judy Balan (a) Sharngadeva (b) Lochan Kavi
(c) Jaidev (d) Ramamatya debut novel of Indian novelist Chetan
Sol.1336.(c) Shobhaa De - ‘Sethji’, Bhagat, who received the Society Young
ch
‘Bollywood Nights’, ‘Snapshots’, ‘Speed Sol.1341.(a) Sharngadeva. Authors and Achievers Award and the Publisher’s
Post’, ‘Socialite Evenings’, ‘Second their books: Lochan Kavi - “Raga Recognition award for his works?
ar
Thoughts’, ‘Sisters’. Anita Nair - ‘The Tarangini”. Jaidev - “Gita Govinda”, and SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Afternoon)
Better Man’, ‘Mistress’, and ‘Lessons in “Love Song of the Dark Lord”. (a) The Three Mistakes of My Life
Se
Forgetting. Ramamatya - “Swaramela Kalanidhi”. (b) Five Point Someone
(c) Revolution 2020
Q.1337. Whose autobiography is called Q.1342. Among the following, whose
(d) What Young India Wants
"half story"? autobiography is ‘Daughter of Destiny: An
SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Morning) Autobiography’? Sol.1346.(b) Five Point Someone (His
(a) Dayanand Saraswati SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Morning) first novel published in 2004; 3 Idiots
(b) Banarasi Das Jain (a) Kamala Das (b) Urvashi Butalia movie was based on it ). Movies based
(c) Bhai Parmanand (c) Malala Yousafzai (d) Benazir Bhutto on his novels: Hello in 2008 ( One Night
(d) Satyanand Agnihotri at the Call Center), Kai Po Che! in 2013
Sol.1342.(d) Benazir Bhutto. Urvashi
(The 3 Mistakes of My Life; won 59th
Sol.1337.(b) Banarasi Das Jain. It was Butalia- ‘The Other Side of Silence:
Filmfare award for best screenplay); 2
composed in Braj Bhasa. It is the first Voices from the Partition of India’. Malala
States in 2014 (his novel of the same
autobiography written in an Indian Yousafzai- ‘I Am Malala: The Girl Who
name) and Half Girlfriend in 2017 (his
language. Banarasidas was the founder Stood Up for Education and Was Shot by
novel of the same name).
of the Spiritual Revolution, known as the Taliban’. Kamala Das- ‘My Story’.
Terah-panth. Q.1347. Who among the following is the
Q.1343. Which of the following is the
Q.1338. ‘What I Talk About When I Talk autobiography of the international athlete author of the book ‘Narcopolis’?
About Running’ is a book written by Maria Sharapova? SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Afternoon)
________. SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Evening) (a) Jeet Thayil (b) Shashi Tharoor
SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Morning) (a) Open (c) David Davidar (d) Anees Salim
(a) Suematsu Kencho (b) Yukio Mishima (b) Unbreakable Sol.1347.(a) Jeet Thayil. Books of Jeet
(c) Hiroaki Sato (d) Haruki Murakami (c) But Seriously
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Thayil - ‘The Book of Chocolate Saints’, (a) Chatursen Shashtri wrote ‘2001 : A Space Odyssey’ and held
‘Low’, ‘English: Poems’, ‘These errors are (b) Sumitranandan Pant the position of a Professor at the
correct’, ‘Names of the Women’, (c) Rangeya Raghav Physical Research Laboratory,
‘Collected Poems’, etc. (d) Vrindavan Lal Verma Ahmedabad?
SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Evening)
Q.1348. Which of the following novels is Sol.1352.(d) Vrindavan Lal Verma. (a) Isaac Asimov (b) Arthur C Clarke
set in the background of life in New Delhi Famous Novels by him- ‘Gadh Kundar’, (c) Jules Verne (d) HG Wells
after the declaration of Emergency in the ‘Virata ki Padmini’ ‘Musahibju’, ‘Jhansi ki
1970’s ? Rani’, ‘Kachnar’, ‘Madavji Sindhia’,’Tute Sol.1357.(b) Arthur C Clark - ‘Rama
SSC CHSL 08/06/ 2022 (Evening) Kante’, ‘Bhuvan Vikram’, ‘Ahilya Bai’ etc. Series’, 'Childhood Ends’, ‘City and the
(a) Such a Long Journey Stars’, ‘Fountains of Paradise’.
(b) The Heart Has its Reasons Q.1353. Who among the following is the
(c) Rich Like Us author of ‘A Movable Feast’ ? Q.1358. Which of the following sages of
(d) The House of Blue Mangoes SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Afternoon) ancient India wrote the ‘Mimamsa -
(a) Ernest Hemingway (b) William Faulkner sutras’ ?
Sol.1348.(c) ‘Rich Like Us’- Nayantara (c) George Orwell (d) Roald Dahl SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Morning)
Sahgal, ‘Such a Long Journey.’ - Rohinton (a) Jaimini (b) Charaka
Mistry, ‘The Heart Has Its Reasons’- Sol.1353.(a) Ernest Hemingway - ‘The (c) Badarayana (d) Panini
Maria Duenas, and ‘The House of Blue Old Man and the Sea’, ‘A Farewell to
Mangoes: A Novel’- David Davidar. Arms’ etc. William Faulkner - ‘A Fable’, Sol.1358.(a) Jaimini. Author and books:
‘The Reivers’ etc. Roald Dahl- ‘Matilda’, Charak - ‘Charaka Samhita’, Badarayana -
Q.1349. Who among the following has ‘Charlie and the Chocolate Factory’ etc. ‘Brahma Sutras’.
authored the famous novel ‘To kill a
df
mockingbird’? Q.1354. Which of the following Q.1359. Who among the following is the
SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Morning) autobiographies is written by former author of the book ‘The Coalition Years’?
_p
(a) Mary Shelley (b) George Orwell English footballer, David Beckham SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Afternoon)
(c) Harper Lee (d) Charles Dickens published in 2003 ? (a) Giani Zail Singh (b) APJ Abdul Kalam
na
SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Evening) (c) Pranab Mukherjee (d) KR Narayanan
Sol.1349.(c) Harper Lee - ‘Go Set a (a) A Shot at History
ap
Watchman’, etc. .Mary Shelley- ‘The Last (b) The Greatest: My own Story Sol.1359.(c) Pranab Mukherjee - ‘The
Man’, ‘Mathilda’, ‘Frankenstein, A (c) My Side Dramatic Decade: The Indira Gandhi
:@
Longman Cultural Edition’, etc. (d) Standing my Ground Years’, ‘The Turbulent Years’, ‘Thoughts
and Reflections’.
Q.1350. Which of the following Sol.1354.(c) ‘My Side’. Personality and
Q.1360. ‘Si-yu-ki’ or ‘The Records of the
TG
autobiographies is written by the great their autobiography: Muhammad Ali -
Indian santoor player Shiv Kumar Sharma ‘The Greatest: My own Story’, Mathew Western World’ was written by:
in 2002? Hayden - ‘Standing My Ground’. SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) Marco Polo (b) Fa-Hien
on
SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Evening)
(a) The Life of a Musician Q.1355. Who among the following is the (c) Abdur Razzak (d) Hiuen Tsiang
(b) That Long Silence author of the book ‘Social Harmony’?
ch
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening) Sol.1360.(d) Hiuen Tsiang. Author and
(c) Journey with a Hundred Strings: My books: Marco Polo - “The Description of
Life in Music (a) HD Deve Gowda (b) PV Narsimha Rao
ar
(c) Narendra Modi (d) Manmohan Singh the World '', “Travels in the Land of Kubilai
(d) Abba - God’s greatest Gift to Us Khan ''.
Se
Sol.1350.(c) ‘The Life of a Musician’ - Sol.1355.(c) Shri Narendra Modi. Books
by Shri Narendra Modi - ‘Exam Warriors’, Q.1361. The book titled 'My Journey:
Book By Ferguson Lennox, ‘That Long Transforming Dreams into Actions' is an
Silence’ - Novel By Shashi Deshpande, ‘Abode of Love’, ‘Sabka Saath, Sabka
Vikas’, ‘Nayan he Dhanya Re’, ‘Sangharsh autobiography of:
‘Abba - God’s greatest Gift to Us’ - Book SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Evening)
by Amaan Ali Khan and Ayaan Ali Khan. Ma Gujarat’, ‘Sakshibhav’, ‘Aapatkal Mein
Gujarat’, ‘Mann ki Baat’, etc. (a) Pratibha Patil
Q.1351. ‘Drawing From the City’ is a (b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
visual autobiography of which of the Q.1356. Who among the following is the (c) APJ Abdul Kalam
following Indian folk artists? author of the book ‘Myth = Mithya : (d) Lal Krishna Advani
SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Morning) Decoding Hindu Mythology’?
SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Evening) Sol.1361.(c) APJ Abdul Kalam. Books -
(a) Teju Behun (b) Jamini Roy
(a) Shashi Tharoor (b) Devdutt Pattanaik “Wings of Fire”, “Ignited Minds”, “Turning
(c) Bhajju Shyam (d) Baua Devi
(c) Vikram Seth (d) Amitav Ghosh Points”.
Sol.1351.(a) Teju Behun. Jamini Roy
Sol.1356.(b) Devdutt Pattanaik. More Q.1362. Which of the following is a book
Famous Paintings- Three Pujarins,
famous books by him are ‘Jaya’, ‘My by former Prime Minister of India, Indira
Yashoda and Krishna etc. Bhajju Shyam
Gita’, ‘Krishna's Secret’, ‘7 Secrets of Gandhi ?
received international recognition for his
Shiva’, ‘Devlok with Devdutt Pattanaik’, SSC MTS 06/10/2021 (Morning)
book The London Jungle Book in 2004.
‘How To Take Decisions’, ‘Sita’, ‘My (a) Discovery of India
Baua Devi is a Mithila painting artist.
Hanuman Chalisa’, ‘How to become Rich’. (b) Wings of Fire
Q.1352.Who among the following is the (c) My Experiments with Truth
author of the novel “Mrignayani” ? Q.1357. Who among the following (d) My Truth
SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Afternoon) science fiction/ popular science writers
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.1362.(d) My Truth. Her other books - author of ‘Being Gandhi’? Sol.1373.(d) Manmohan Singh.
“Freedom’s Daughter”, "Remembered SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Morning) ‘Changing India’ was written by him.
Moments". (a) Ashis Ray (b) Paro Anand
(c) Nirupama Yadav (d) V Pattabhi Ram Q.1374. Who among the following wrote
Q.1363. Who among the following is the ‘The Light of Asia: The Poem that
author of the book ‘The Testaments’ ? Sol.1368.(b) Paro Anand. She won the Defined the Buddha’ that will narrate the
SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Afternoon) Sahitya Akademi Bal Sahitya Puraskar in phenomenal poem ‘The Light of Asia’?
(a) Jokha Alharthi (b) Andrew Sean Greer 2017 for her anthology Wild Child and SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Afternoon)
(c) Anna Burns (d) Margaret Atwood Other Stories (now published as "Like (a) Shashi Tharoor (b) Salman Rushdie
Smoke: 20 Teens 20 Stories''). (c) Chetan Bhagat (d) Jairam Ramesh
Sol.1363.(d) Margaret Atwood. ‘The
Testaments’ is a sequel to ‘The Q.1369. ‘Bhavartha Dipika’ and Sol.1374.(d) Jairam Ramesh. The Light
Handmaid Tales’. The Testaments was ‘Amritanubhava’ are the sacred books of of Asia is a biblio-biography of Edwin
joint winner of the 2019 Booker Prize, the people of ______. Arnold’s palpably fresh grasp of a
alongside Bernardine Evaristo's novel SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Evening) complex philosophy and a worthy
“Girl, Woman, Other”. (a) Haryana (b) Gujarat contribution to modern Buddhist studies.
(c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan
Q.1364. 'Boy : Tales of Childhood' is an Q.1375. Who is the author of the book
autobiographical book by ______. Sol.1369.(c) Maharashtra. The author of ‘Hit Refresh' ?
SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Evening) the book ‘Bhavartha Dipika’ and SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Evening)
(a) Mark Twain (b) Ruskin Bond ‘Amritanubhava’ is Sant Dyaneshwar. (a) Kazi Nazrul Islam
(c) Roald Dahl (d) Lewis Carroll (b) Jagmohan Bhanver
Q.1370. The first printed edition of the (c) Aishwarya Rai
df
Sol.1364.(c) Roald Dahl. Lewis Carroll : Ramcharitmanas by Tulsidas was (d) Satya Nadella
‘Alice's Adventures in Wonderland’ (1865) published from ______ in 1810.
_p
and ‘Through the Looking-Glass’, and SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Morning) Sol.1375.(d) Satya Nadella. “Hit Refresh:
‘What Alice Found There’ (1872). (a) Delhi (b) Calcutta/Kolkata The Quest to Rediscover Microsoft's Soul
na
(c) Madras/Chennai (d) Bombay/Mumbai and Imagine a Better Future for
Q.1365. Who is the author of the book Everyone” is a nonfiction book by Satya
ap
'The Tales of Beedle The Bard' ? Sol.1370.(b) Calcutta (Kolkata). Nadella and co-authors Jill Tracie
SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Afternoon) Nichols and Greg Shaw, with a foreword
Q.1371. Willy Wonka is a fictional
:@
(a) Lewis Carroll (b) EB White by Bill Gates, published in 2017.
(c) Roald Dahl (d) JK Rowling character from the children's story book
'______'. Q.1376. Who is the author of the book
Sol.1365.(d) JK Rowling. Other novels: SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Morning)
TG
'My Master' ?
“Harry Potter and the Philosopher's (a) Alice's Adventures in Wonderland SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Evening)
Stone”, “The Ink Black Heart’’, “Troubled (b) Charlie and the Chocolate Factory (a) Swami Vivekananda
Blood”. (c) Matilda
on
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Charlotte's Web (c) Sri Aurobindo
Q.1366. Who among the following is the
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
ch
author of the book titled 'Speaking Truth Sol.1371.(b) Charlie and the Chocolate
to Power: My Alternative View' ? Factory written by Roald Dahl. Charlotte's Sol.1376.(a) Swami Vivekananda. Other
ar
SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Morning) Web (E. B White), Matilda (Roald Dahl). books - ‘Meditation and Its Methods’,
(a) Subramanian Swamy ‘Jnana Yoga’, ‘Work and Its Secret’,
Se
(b) Mani Shankar Aiyar Q.1372. Who among the following is the
author of the book ‘The Anarchy: The ‘Thoughts of Power’.
(c) P Chidambaram
(d) Arun Shourie Relentless Rise of the East India Q.1377. Who among the following is the
Company’? author of ‘The Brahma Sutra – The
Sol.1366.(c) P Chidambaram. Other SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Afternoon) Philosophy of Spiritual life’?
books: “Fearless in Opposition”, (a) Shoshana Zuboff (b) Sumit Sarkar SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Evening)
“Standing Guard”, Undaunted - “Saving (c) Shashi Tharoor (d) William Dalrymple (a) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
the Idea of India”. (b) Indira Gandhi
Sol.1372.(d) William Dalrymple. More
(c) Sarojini Naidu
Q.1367. Who among the following is the famous books by him are- ‘Kohinoor: The
(d) Rajendra Prasad
author of the Hindi poetry book Story of the World’s Most Infamous
‘Chheelate Hue Apne Ko' ? Diamond’, ‘Return of a King’, ‘The Last Sol.1377.(a) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.
SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Evening) Mughal’, ‘Nine Lives’, ‘White Mughals’, Other books - ‘The Hindu view of life’,
(a) Nand Kishore Acharya (b) Javed Akhtar ‘From the Holy Mountain’. ‘The Pursuit of Truth’.
(c) Rahat Indori (d) Gulzar
Q.1373. Who wrote the book 'The Quest Q.1378. Who among the following had
Sol.1367.(a) Nand Kishore Acharya. for Equity in Development'? authored ‘Buddha Gaya: The Hermitage
Other famous books by him- ‘Sanskriti ka SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Morning) of Sakya Muni’ in 1878 ?
Vyakarna’, ‘Sabhyata ka Vikalp’, ‘Gulam (a) Amartya Sen SSC CHSL 12/08/2021 (Morning)
Badshah’, etc. He was awarded Sahitya (b) Montek Singh Ahluwalia (a) Alexander Cunningham
Akademi Award 2019 in Hindi literature. (c) Raghuram Rajan (b) Rajendralala Mitra
(d) Manmohan Singh (c) HH Cole
Q.1368. Who among the following is the (d) John Marshall
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.1378.(b) Rajendralala Mitra. More their Nicknames: Bihar Kesri - Sri Krishna (1875), Assam University, Banaras Hindu
books by him are ‘The Chandogya Sinha, Bihar Vibhuti - Dr. Anurag Narayan University (1916), Central University of
Upanishad’, ‘Antiquities Of Orissa’, ‘The Singh, Iron Man of India - Vallabhai Patel, Gujarat (2009).
Sanskrit Buddhist literature of Nepal’ etc. Biswa Kavi - Rabindranath Tagore,
HH Cole - appointed as the Curator of Netaji - Subhash Chandra Bose. Q.1386. Who was the first woman
Ancient Monuments in 1880. Lokmanya Tilak - Bal Gangadhar Tilak. graduate of Calcutta University ?
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (1st shift)
Q.1379. Which Nobel laureate wrote the Q.1383. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who (a) Sarojini Naidu
book ‘India: A Million Mutinies Now’ and was the first Home Minister of India, is (b) Annie Besant
Role in History'? known by which sobriquet? (c) Kadambini Ganguly
SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Afternoon) SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift) (d) Rajkumari Amritkaur
(a) Vidiadhar Surajprasad Naipaul (a) Father of Indian Unrest
(b) Olga Tokarczuk (b) Iron man of India Sol.1386.(c) Kadambini Ganguly and
(c) Peter Handke (c) Grand old man of India Chandramukhi Basu were the first BA
(d) Patrick Modiano (d) Morning star of Indian Renaissance graduates in the British empire in India.
She was the South Asia's first female
Sol.1379.(a) Vidiadhar Surajprasad Sol.1383.(b) Iron man of India. Sardar surgeon. Rajkumari Amritkaur - The first
Naipaul. Other novels - ‘A House for Mr Vallabhbhai Patel is popularly known as Health Minister of India (1947).
Biswas’, ‘A Bend in the River’, ‘Miguel the "Iron Man of India" due to his crucial
Street’, ‘In a Free State’. role in the unification and integration of Q.1387. Who among the following
Indian princely states such as advocated the ideology of "oru jati, oru
Q.1380. Who is the author of the book Travancore, Hyderabad, Junagadh, matam, oru daivam manushyanu" (one
'Hazaar Chaurasi Ki Maa'? Bhopal into the Indian Union. Other caste, one religion, one god for
df
SSC CGL 06/03/2020 (Afternoon) sobriquet personalities: Father of Indian humankind)?
(a) Krishna Sobti (b) Rita Kothari SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (1st shift)
_p
Unrest - Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Grand old
(c) Sugathakumari (d) Mahasweta Devi man of India - Dadabhai Naoroji, Morning (a) Birsa Munda
(b) Narayana Guru
na
Sol.1380.(d) Mahasweta Devi-‘Imaginary star of Indian Renaissance - Raja Ram
Mohan Roy. (c) Swami Shraddhanand
Maps’, ‘Hazaar Chaurasi ki Maa,’ ‘Breast (d) Keshub Chunder Sen
ap
Stories’, ‘Chotti Munda and His Arrow’, Q.1384. Which of the following is an
‘Five Plays’, etc. autobiography of a Bengali illiterate Sol.1387.(b) Narayana Guru. He belongs
:@
woman who secretly acquired literacy to Ezhava caste and was considered
‘avarna’. He built a temple dedicated to
Famous Personality skills to read sacred texts in an age when
girls and women were denied education Lord Shiva at Aruvippuram which was
TG
and deemed fit only for household against the caste based restrictions of
Q.1381. Who among the following was a
chores ? the time. He established the Sree
poet who won the Nobel Prize for
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam
on
literature in 1913 ?
(a) Jina Amucha by Baby Kamble (SNDP), a charitable society. His Books:
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(b) Amar Jiban by Rassundari Devi “Advaitha Deepika”, “Asrama”and
(a) Aurobindo Ghose
ch
(c) Smritichitre by Lakshmibai Tilak “Thevarappathinkangal”. He became the
(b) Rudyard Kipling
(d) Ente Katha by Kamala Das proponent of Advaita Vedanta (Principle
(c) bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
ar
of non-duality) put forward by Adi
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
Sol.1384.(b) Amar Jiban by Rassundari Shankara.
Se
Sol.1381.(d) Rabindranath Tagore. He Devi. She was the first Indian woman to
write an autobiography and the first Q.1388. Which of the following persons
was also referred to as ‘Gurudev’,
Bengali to write an autobiography. has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize ?
‘Kabiguru’, and ‘Biswakabi’. He got Nobel
Authors and Books: Baby Kamble - ‘’The SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
Prize for his work Gitanjali. He was a
Prisons We Broke’’. Lakshmibai Tilak - (a) C. V. Raman (b) Kailash Satyarthi
Bengali poet, novelist, and painter, who
‘’Smritichitre’’. Kamala Suraiyya - ‘’The Old (c) Amartya Sen (d) Rabindranath Tagore
was highly influential in introducing
Indian culture to the west. He was the Playhouse And Other Poems’’,
Sol.1388.(b) Kailash Satyarthi was
first non-European to receive the Nobel ‘’Padmavati the Harlot and Other Stories’’.
awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014
Prize. Q.1385. Who became the first "for the struggle against the suppression
Vice-Chancellor of Jawaharlal Nehru of children and young people and the
Q.1382. Which Indian political leader was
University in 1969 ? right of all children to education". He
called as Lok Nayak?
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (4th shift) founded the Bachpan Bachao Andolan
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) BD Nagchaudhuri (b) G Parthasarathi (Save the Childhood Movement) in 1980.
(a) Ram Manohar Lohia
(c) Y Nayudamma (d) KR Narayanan
(b) Jai Prakash Narayan Q.1389. In 2019, a minor planet between
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Sol.1385.(b) G Parthasarathi. Jawaharlal Mars and Jupiter was named after whom
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose Nehru University (JNU): A public major among the following Indian musicians by
research university located in New Delhi, the International Astronomical Union
Sol.1382.(b) Jai Prakash Narayan. He
India. It was established in 1969 and (IAU) ?
received the Ramon Magsaysay Award
named after Jawaharlal Nehru, India's SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (1st shift)
(1965) and Bharat Ratna (1998,
first Prime Minister. Other Central (a) Pt Hari Prasad Chaurasia
posthumously). Famous Personalities &
Universities : Aligarh Muslim University (b) Pt Ravi Shankar
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(c) Ustad Zakir Hussain Teacher. She was honoured with a Missile Development Program (IGMDP)
(d) Pt Jasraj doodle on her 191st birth anniversary by in India?
Google On 9 January 2022. India's First SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Sol.1389.(d) Pt Jasraj. The International
Female Engineer - Ayyalasomayajula (a) Har Gobind Khorana
Astronomical Union (IAU) has named
Lalitha. First Indian female doctor of (b) Vikram Sarabhai
minor planet 2006 VP32 (number -
western medicine - Anandi Gopal Joshi. (c) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
300128), discovered on November 11,
(d) Homi J. Bhabha
2006, as 'Pandit Jasraj'. He became the Q.1394. Shiv Dayal Saheb, a banker from
first Indian musician to get honored with Agra founded the Radha Soami Satsang Sol.1398.(c) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam.
this unique recognition. in _________. IGMDP was an Indian Ministry of
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning) Defence programme to research and
Q.1390. Which of the following
(a) 1842 (b) 1880 (c) 1861 (d) 1875 develop a comprehensive range of
architects designed the Gateway of
missiles. The project started in 1982 -
India? Sol.1394.(c) 1861. Shiva Dayal Saheb 1983 (completed in 2008) under the
Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) founded the sect ‘Radha Soami Satsang’ leadership of Dr APJ Abdul Kalam
(a) Herbert Baker (b) George Wittet on Basant Panchami. The sole purpose (missile man of India). Prithvi, Agni,
(c) Henry Irwin (d) Lauri Baker of this satsang is to experience the Trishul, Akash, Nag missiles have been
divinity of God who resides in all of us. developed under this.
Sol.1390.(b) George Wittet. Gateway of
India (1924). The foundation stone was Q.1395. Satyajit Ray was honoured with Q.1399. Who among the following is
placed in 1911 in Bombay. The Bharat Ratna in 1992. He was a famous famously called the Iron Lady of India?
monument was erected to ________ . SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift)
commemorate the landing of King SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon) (a) Mary Kom
df
George V and Queen Mary at Apollo (a) Physicist (b) Filmmaker (b) Deepika Padukone
Bunder in India. Other Architects and (c) Cricketer (d) Lawyer
_p
(c) Lata Mangeshkar
their works: Henry Irwin - Ambas Vilas
Sol.1395.(b) Filmmaker. Other Awards of (d) Indira Gandhi
Palace (Mysore). Lauri Baker - The Indian
na
Coffee House, Central for Development Satyajit Ray: Padam Shri (1958), Padam Sol.1399.(d) Indira Gandhi. She was the
Studies (Kerala). He was known as the Bhushan (1965), Dada Saheb Phalke third prime minister of India from 1966 to
ap
“Brick Master of Kerala” and “Gandhi of award (1985), Ramon Magsaysay Award 1977 and from 1980 until her
Architecture”. (1967) and Bharat Ratna (1992). assassination in 1984. She was India's
:@
Q.1396. Who is famously known as Bihar first and, to date, only female prime
Q.1391. To which state of India did
Kesari ? minister of India. Awards - Bharat Ratna
Fathima Beevi, the first woman Supreme
(1971), and Bangladesh Freedom Honour
TG
Court Judge of India, belong ? SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift)
(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Shri Krishna Sinha (2011). Mary Kom - The first Indian
Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
(c) Karpuri Thakur (d) Lala Lajpat Rai woman boxer to win an olympic medal
(a) Kerala (b) Andhra Pradesh
and a gold at Asian Games.
on
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka
Sol.1396.(b) Shri Krishna Sinha was
also known as Bihar Kesari and Shri Q.1400. Who among the following was
Sol.1391.(a) Kerala. Padma Bhushan
ch
Babu. He served as the first Chief famously known as the "The parrot of
(2024). First female judge of India -
Minister of Bihar from 1946 to 1961. India"?
Justice Anna Chandy.
ar
Nicknames of other personalities - SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q.1392. Giorgia Meloni recently became Rajendra Prasad (Desh Ratna, (a) Amir Khusro (b) Lata Mangeshkar
Se
the first Woman Prime Minister of which Ajatshatru), Karpuri Thakur (Jana Nayak), (c) Pandit Ravishankar (d) Kalidas
country ? Spacing 7 -Lala Lajpat Rai (Punjab
Sol.1400.(a) Amir Khusro: He was a poet
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Evening) Kesari).
in Delhi Sultanate. He is sometimes
(a) Austria (b) Italy (c) Spain (d) Ukraine
Q.1397. Who is famously known as the referred to as the "voice of India" or
Sol.1392.(b) Italy. First Female Prime father of the Indian nuclear programme? "Parrot of India" (Tuti-e-Hind), and has
Minister of Some Countries: Austria - SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (2nd Shift) been called the "Father of Urdu
Brigitte Bierlein. Spain - María Teresa (a) Homi J. Bhabha literature”. He was a mystic and a
Fernández de la Vega. Ukraine - (b) Vikram Sarabhai spiritual disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya of
Tymoshenko. India - Indira Gandhi. (c) C.V.Raman Delhi.
Bangladesh - Sheikh Hasina Wazed. (d) Venkatraman Radhakrishnan
Q.1401. Which Indian cricketer is also
Pakistan - Benazier Bhutto.
Sol.1397.(a) Homi J. Bhabha. Bhabha known as Little Master ?
Q.1393. Fatima Sheikh was widely Atomic Research Centre (Mumbai - SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
regarded as _______. 1954), Tata Institute of Fundamental (a) Umesh Yadav (b) Virat Kohli
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning) Research (Mumbai - 1945), ISRO (c) Sunil Gavasker (d) Kapil Dev
(a) India's First Female Muslim (Bangalore - 1969), DRDO (New Delhi -
Sol.1401.(c) Sunil Gavasker. Haryana
Entrepreneur 1958). Vikram Sarabhai - Father of Indian
Hurricane - Kapil Dev, Captain Cool -
(b) India's First Female Doctor Space Programme. APJ Abdul Kalam -
Mahendra Singh Dhoni, The Wall - Rahul
(c) India's First Female Muslim Teacher Missile Man of India.
Dravid, Jumbo - Anil Kumble, Turbanator -
(d) India's First Female Engineer
Q.1398. Who among the following was Harbhajan Singh, Master Blaster - Sachin
Sol.1393.(c) India's First Female Muslim the architect of the Integrated Guided Tendulkar, Hit - Man - Rohit Sharma,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Nawab of Nazafgarh - Virendra Sehwag. Sol.1407.(c) Cartoonist. Mario de Marks the adoption of the Indian
Miranda : Awards - Padma Shri (1988), Constitution in 1950. Independence Day
Q.1402. Who among the following is Padma Bhushan (2002), Padma (August 15) - Commemorates India's
referred to as ‘Prince of Bhangra’, due to Vibhushan (2012). independence from British rule in 1947.
his Bhangra music? Gandhi Jayanti (October 2) - Celebrates
SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Evening) Q.1408. Lal Bahadur Shastri was born on the birth anniversary of Mahatma
(a) Diljit Dosanjh (b) Sukhbir Singh ______. Gandhi.
(c) Arijit Singh (d) Shaan SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Evening)
(a) 2 October 1869 (b) 12 October 1904 Q.1412. In India, Teachers’ Day is
Sol.1402.(b) Sukhbir Singh. He was (c) 12 October 1869 (d) 2 October 1904 celebrated annually on September 5 to
nominated and won the 1996 Channel V mark the birthday of:
Awards in three categories: Best Debut Sol.1408.(d) 2 October 1904. He was SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Album, Best Male Vocalist and Best born in Mughalsarai, UP. He served as (a) APJ Abdul Kalam
Music Video (for "Punjabi Munde") for his the second Prime Minister of India. The (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
first album ‘New Style’. Iconic slogan “Jai Jawan Jai Kisaan” (c) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
was given by him. (d) Subash Chandra Bose
Q.1403. The Open Hand Monument in
Chandigarh was designed by ______. Q.1409. Veteran freedom fighter, social Sol.1412.(c) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.
SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Evening) reformer and feminist Savithribai Phule He served as India's first Vice-President
(a) Matthew Nowicki (b) Maxwell Fry hailed from which of the following states from 1952 to 1962. He was awarded the
(c) Le Corbusier (d) Albert Mayer of India? Bharat Ratna in 1954. APJ Abdul Kalam :
SSC CGL 03/03/2020 (Morning) He was an Indian aerospace scientist
Sol.1403.(c) Le Corbusier. Chandigarh
(a) Maharashtra (b) Odisha and the 11th President of India. His
df
city was designed by Le Corbusier .
(c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat birthday on October 15 is celebrated as
Matthew Nowicki was chief architect of
_p
the new Indian city of Chandigarh. Albert Sol.1409.(a) Maharashtra. She was the World Students' Day to honor his
Mayer known for plan of Chandigarh. first female teacher of India. dedication to education. Sardar
na
Vallabhbhai Patel : His birthday (October
Q.1404. Who among the following was 31) is celebrated as National Unity Day or
Important Days
ap
the prime minister of India in 1978 ? Rashtriya Ekta Diwas in India. Subhas
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Morning) Chandra Bose : His birthday (January 23)
Q.1410. On which of the following dates
:@
(a) Gulzari Lal Nanda (b) Charan Singh is celebrated as Parakram Diwas in India.
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri (d) Morarji Desai does India celebrate its Constitution
Day? Q.1413. In November 2021, the
Sol.1404.(d) Morarji Desai. He was SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) government declared November 15 as
TG
leading the government formed by the (a) 26th January (b) 26th November ‘Janjatiya Gaurav Divas’. It happens to be
Janata Party. He is the oldest person to th
(c) 15 August (d) 2nd October the birth anniversary of which of the
hold the office of prime minister, at the following freedom fighters?
on
age of 81, in the history of Indian politics. Sol.1410.(b) 26th November.
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
The Constitution of India was adopted on
Q.1405. How is Dhanpat Rai Srivastava (a) Birsa Munda (b) Kanhu Murmu
26 November 1949, that is why
ch
better known? (c) Arjun Munda (d) Veer Narayan Singh
Constitution Day is celebrated on 26
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Morning) Sol.1413.(a) Birsa Munda. Janjatiya
ar
November. 15th August : Independence
(a) Agyeya (b) Dinkar Day (commemorating India’s Gaurav Divas celebrations begin with
Se
(c) Nirala (d) Premchand independence from British rule in 1947). President Murmu paying tribute to
Sol.1405.(d) Premchand was an Indian 2nd October : Gandhi Jayanti (the Bhagwan Birsa Munda in Khunti district,
writer known for his modern Hindustani birthday of Mahatma Gandhi, celebrated Jharkhand. Birsa Munda (1875-1900)
literature. as a national holiday and also observed was born into a Munda family, a tribal
as International Day of Non-Violence). group residing in Chotanagpur. He led the
Q.1406. With which of the following 26th January : Republic Day (the Munda Rebellion, a significant tribal
literary magazines was poet and writer Constitution of India came into force on uprising in the region south of Ranchi,
Amrita Pritam associated? 26 January 1950). between 1899 and 1900.
SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Morning)
Q.1411. The birth anniversary of Q.1414. National Sports Day is
(a) Shabad (b) Nagmani
Mahatma Gandhi is celebrated as the celebrated on the birthday of _______.
(c) Awaaz (d) Preetlari
national festival of India. In which of the SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.1406.(b) Nagmani. Amrita Pritam (a) Kapil Dev (b) Roop Singh
following years was Gandhi ji born ?
was an Indian novelist, essayist and poet, (c) Major Dhyan Chand (d) MS Dhoni
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
who wrote in Punjabi and Hindi. She
(a) 1885 (b) 1869 (c) 1890 (d) 1877 Sol.1414.(c) Major Dhyan Chand.
edited Nagmani, a monthly literary
magazine in Punjabi for several years. National Sports Day is celebrated on
Sol.1411.(b) 1869. 2nd October is also
August 29th to honor the legendary
observed globally as the International
Q.1407. Mario de Miranda was a ______ hockey player Major Dhyan Chand, who is
Day of Non-Violence in recognition of his
from the state of Goa. regarded as one of the greatest field
contributions to peace and non-violent
SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Evening) hockey players. Other Personalities and
movements. India's three national
(a) designer (b) vocalist Days Celebrated: Mahatma Gandhi:
festivals are: Republic Day (January 26) -
(c) cartoonist (d) poet Gandhi Jayanti (2nd October), Jawaharlal
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
th
Nehru: Children's Day (14 November), Q.1418. Independence Day is celebrated Muslims around the world fast and focus
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: National Unity every year in Pakistan on _________. their attention on giving to charity
Day (31st October), APJ Abdul Kalam: SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (known as Zakat), observed?
World Students' Day (15th October). (a) 30 January (b) 14 August SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(c) 31 December (d) 23 March (a) Ninth (b) Second (c) Seventh (d) Sixth
Q.1415. When is National Javelin Day
celebrated in India ? Sol.1418.(b) 14 August. India - 15 Sol.1422.(a) Ninth. Ramadan begins and
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift) August 1947. Independence Day of other ends with the appearance of the crescent
(a) 12th January (b) 7th August Countries: Bangladesh - 26 March 1971, moon. Islamic months- (1) Muharram,
(c) 6th August (d) 29th August Sri Lanka - 4 February 1948, Nepal - 21 (2) Safar, (3) Rabi al-Awwal, (4) Rabi
December 1923, China - 1 October 1949, al-Thani, (5) Jumada al-Awwal, (6)
Sol.1415.(b) 7th August. National Myanmar - 4 January 1948, America - 4 Jumada al-Thani, (7) Rajab, (8) Shaban,
Javelin Day is celebrated in India on July 1776, Canada - 1 July 1867. (9) Ramadan, (10) Shawwal, (11) Dhu
August 7th to commemorate Neeraj al-Qadah, (12) Dhu al-Hijjah (month of
Chopra's gold medal in the men's javelin Q.1419. When was the International Day Hajj). Other festivals of muslims:
throw event at the 2021 Tokyo Olympics. of the Girl Child 2021 celebrated? Muharram, Eid al-Adha, Eid al-Fitr, Mawlid
The Athletics Federation of India (AFI) SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift) an-Nabi and Eid ul-Azha.
established the day to celebrate Chopra's (a) 14 October (b) 12 October
achievement and promote the sport of (c) 13 October (d) 11 October Q.1423. When was the International Day
javelin throwing in India. Other Important for Elder Persons 2021 celebrated?
Days: 12th January: National Youth Day Sol.1419.(d) 11 October. International SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 3rd shift)
(Swami Vivekananda's birthday), 29th Girl Child Day - First time celebrated in (a) 1 October (b) 3 October
August: National Sports Day (birth 2012. It is celebrated by the United (c) 4 October (d) 2 October
df
anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand). Nations General Assembly. Other
important Days: 5 October - World Sol.1423.(a) 1 October. Important Days
_p
Q.1416. The National Youth Day or the Teachers' Day, 2 October - Gandhi in October : 2 October - International day
‘Yuwa Diwas’ is celebrated on which day Jayanti, 23 March - Sahid Diwas, 22 April of non-violence, 9 October - World Post
in India ?
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) na
- Earth Day, 5 June - Environment Day. Day, 10 October - World Mental Health
Day, 16 October - World Food Day, 17
ap
(a) 26 January (b) 12 January Q.1420. According to the Indian calendar, October - International Day for the
(c) 14 April (d) 26 November Vasanta Season falls in which months? Eradication of Poverty, 24 October -
:@
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift) World Polio Day.
Sol.1416.(b) 12 January. The day is (a) Chaitra-Vaisakha
observed to commemorate the birth (b) Jyaistha-Asadha Q.1424. The first day of the Tamil
TG
anniversary of Swami Vivekananda. (c) Margashirsa-Pausa calendar on 14 April is celebrated as ____
Important Dates and Days : 31st October (d) Sravana-Bhadra SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (1st shift)
- National Unity Day (Celebrates the birth (a) Mahamaham (b) Onam
on
of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel), 5th Sol.1420.(a) Chaitra-Vaisakha. Seasons (c) Pongal (d) Puthandu
September - Teachers' Day (Celebrates according to the Hindu Calendar:
the birth of Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan), Grishma ritu - Jyeshtha and Aashaadha, Sol.1424.(d) Puthandu. Mahamaham is
ch
14th November - Children's Day Varsha ritu - Shravana and Bhadrapada, a Hindu festival celebrated every 12
(Celebrates the birth of Jawaharlal Sharad ritu - Ashwin and Kartik, Shishir or years during the Tamil month of Masi.
ar
Nehru), 30th January - Martyrs' Day Shita ritu - Magha and Phalguna. Hindu
Q.1425. Easter is celebrated on which of
Se
(Observed to commemorate the death of months in chronological order: Chaitra,
Vaishakh, Jyeshtha, Aashada, Shraavana, the following days of the week?
Mahatma Gandhi).
Bhadra, Ashwin, Kartik, Margashirsha, Graduate Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
Q.1417. International Yoga Day is Pausha, Magha, Phalgun. (a) Wednesday (b) Monday
celebrated on ________. (c) Sunday (d) Tuesday
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) Q.1421. According to the Indian calendar,
Hemanta season falls in which months? Sol.1425.(c) Sunday. Easter Sunday :- It
(a) 20 June (b) 23 June
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift) is a religious Christian holiday that is
(c) 22 June (d) 21 June
(a) Sravana - Bhadra observed globally to celebrate the
Sol.1417.(d) 21 June. The International (b) Chaitra - Vaisakha resurrection of Jesus Christ.
Day of Yoga has been celebrated across (c) Jyaistha - Asadha
the world annually since 2015, following Q.1426. On which day of the Hindu
(d) Margashirsa - Pausa calendar is the festival of Holi celebrated ?
its inception in the United Nations
General Assembly in 2014. Important Sol.1421.(d) Margashirsa - Pausa. Other Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
days and Dates :- 9th Jan - Pravasi Seasons according to the Hindu (a) Chaitra Poornima (b) Chaitra Saptami
Bhartiya Diwas, 12th Jan - National Youth Calendar: Basant ritu - Chaitra and (c) Falgun Poornima (d) Falgun Amavasya
Day, 2nd Feb - World Wetlands Day, 28th Vaisakha, Grishma ritu - Jyeshtha and Sol.1426.(c) Falgun Poornima. The
Feb - National Science Day, 8th Mar - Aashaadha, Varsha ritu - Shravana and festival is celebrated for two days: First
International Women’s Day, 7th Apr - Bhadrapada, Sharad ritu - Ashwin and Day - Holika Dahan or Chhoti Holi.
World Health Day, 31st May - World Kartik. Second Day - Rangwali Holi, Dhulandi or
Anti-Tobacco Day, 5th June - World Phagwah.
Environment Day, 16th Sep - World Ozone Q.1422. In which month of the Islamic
Day, 4th Dec - Indian Navy Day. calendar is 'Ramadan', a holy time when Q.1427. Ganesh Chaturthi is observed in
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
_______ month of Hindu calendar. Q.1431. Every year, Halloween is every year on ________.
Higher Secondary 30/06/2023 (Shift - 2) celebrated on __________ . SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (4th Shift)
(a) Kartika (b) Ashadha SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Afternoon) (a) 5th June (b) 1st January
(c) Bhadrapada (d) Vaishakh 𝑡ℎ
(a) 24 November
𝑡ℎ
(b) 25 December (c) 29th August (d) 1st July
𝑠𝑡 𝑠𝑡
Sol.1427.(c) Bhadrapada. Festival (c) 1 October (d) 31 October Sol.1436.(a) 5th June . 1st January -
according to Hindu Calendar: Chaitra - Global Family Day. 1st July - National
Sol.1431.(d) 31st October. A holiday
Ugadi, Gudi Padwa, Ram Navami. Doctors' Day in India in memory of Dr.
widely observed particularly in the United
Jyeshtha - Ganga Dussehra. Ashada - Bidhan Chandra Roy.
States and Canada. 24th November:
Jagannath Rath Yatra, Guru Purnima.
Thanksgiving Day (in the United States). Q.1437. International Day for the
Shravana - Raksha Bandhan. Bhadrapada
25th December: Christmas Day. 18th preservation of the Ozone layer is
- Janmashtami, Hartalika Teej. Kartik -
December - International Migrants Day. 1 observed on.
Karwa Chauth, Dhanteras, Diwali, Bhai
December - World AIDS day. SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (1st Shift)
Dooj, Chhath Puja. Phalguna - Holi. Other
festivals of Maharashtra - Gudhi Padwa, (a) September 13 (b) September 10
Q.1432. Which is the first month in the
Narali Pournima, Bhau Beej, Ellora (c) September 16 (d) September 18
Islamic lunar calendar (Islamic lunar
Festival, Pola, Banganga Festival. calendar)? Sol.1437.(c) September 16. The ozone
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Afternoon) layer (found in the stratosphere) is a thin
Q.1428. In India, National Voters' Day is
(a) Shawwal (b) travel part of Earth's atmosphere that absorbs
celebrated on ____________
(c) Ramzan (d) Muharram almost all of the sun's harmful ultraviolet
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Evening)
(a) 26 March (b) 24 February light. 18 September - World Bamboo Day,
Sol.1432.(d) Muharram has a 10-day
(c) 27 December (d) 25 January 21 September - International Day of
df
period when Muslims mourn the
Peace (UN), 26 September - World
martyrdom of Hazrat Imam Hussain, son
Sol.1428.(d) 25 January. Other Environmental Health Day, 10 September
_p
of Hazrat Ali and Grandson of Prophet
important days - 1 January - Global - World Suicide Prevention Day (WSPD).
Muhammad.
Family Day. 9 January - Pravasi Bharatiya
na
Divas. 12 January - National youth day. Q.1438. In which month, Hiroshima Day
Q.1433. International Tiger Day is
15 January - Thal Sena Divas (Army Day). is observed across the world?
ap
observed on_
25 January - Indian Tourism Day. 21 SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (4th Shift)
February - International Mother Language (a) October (b) August
:@
(a) July 5th (b) July 30th
Day. 24 February - Central Excise Day. 1 (c) January (d) July
(c) July 29th (d) July 4th
March - World Civil Defence Day. Sol.1438.(b) August. Hiroshima Day is
Sol.1433.(c) July 29th - Celebrate with
TG
Q.1429. How many Indian states observed on 6 August (Little Boy) to
the aim of conserving tigers and saving
celebrate their formation on November commemorate the atomic bombing of
their endangered species.
1st ? Hiroshima Japan in the year 1945 and 9
on
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Morning) Q.1434. In India, National Statistics Day August (Fat Man) of Nagasaki, at the end
(a) Eight (b) Seven (c) Five (d) Six is celebrated on of World War II (1939 - 1945). World War
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift) I - 1914 to 1918. The atomic bomb is
ch
Sol.1429.(b) Seven. States formed on (a) 22nd June (b) 15th June based on the principle of nuclear fission.
1st November : Andhra Pradesh (1956), (c) 28th June (d) 29th June
ar
Karnataka (1956), Kerala (1956), Madhya Q.1439. "World Refugee Day" is observed
Sol.1434.(d) 29th June (Celebrated as every year on______.
Se
Pradesh (1956), Haryana (1966), Punjab
(1966), Chhattisgarh (2002). Two Union the birth anniversary of Prof. P. C. SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Territories also formed on this day : Mahalanobis who worked in the field of (a) 20th june (b) 22th june
Puducherry (1954) and Lakshadweep Statistics and planning commission). 1 (c) 18th june (d) 17th june
(1956). June - World Milk Day, 5 June - World
Sol.1439.(a) 20th June. World Refugee
Environment Day, 7 June - World Food
Q.1430. Engineer's Day in India is Day 2023 Theme: “Whoever, Whatever,
Safety Day, 20 June - World Refugee Day ,
celebrated in the memory of _______. Whenever.” First time: 2001. It is
23 June - International Olympic Day and
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Morning) designated as an International Day by the
United Nations Public Service Day. 15
(a) Kalpana Chawla UN (United Nations). It celebrates the
June - World Wind Day.
(b) Dr. M. Visvesvaraya strength and courage of people who have
(c) Satish Dhawan Q.1435. International Women's Day been forced to flee their home country to
(d) A.P.J Abdul Kalam celebrated on? escape conflict or persecution.
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Sol.1430.(b) Dr. M. Visvesvaraya. He Q.1440. Swami Vivekananda’s death
(a) 12th march (b) 8th march
was Chief Engineer of Mysore State anniversary is observed on _______ .
(c) 8th july (d) 12th july
(1909) and the 19th Dewan of Mysore SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(1912 to 1918). Books: “Reconstructing Sol.1435.(b) 8th march. 12th March- (a) July 1 (b) July 4
India” and “Planned Economy of India”. National Girl Scout Day and National (c) August 1 (d) August 4
Engineer's Day (15 September) in India is Napping Day. 26th August - Women’s
Sol.1440.(b) July 4. Swami Vivekananda
celebrated for their contribution. Awards Equality Day.
was born on 12 January 1863. January
- Order of the Indian Empire (1911);
Q.1436. World Environment Day is held 12 is observed as National Youth Day.
Bharat Ratna (1955).
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Vivekananda Title - Maharaja Ajit singh was proclaimed by the General Assembly Q.1450. When is Martyr’s Day observed
of Khetri. Established - RamaKrishna of the United Nations as the International in India every year?
Mission in 1897. He Introduced Indian Decade for action on ‘Water for life’? SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Morning)
philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga. SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Afternoon) (a) 12 March (b) 19 September
(a) 1994 - 2004 (b) 1972 - 1982 (c) 25 October (d) 30 January
Q.1441. When did the Constitution of (c) 1983 - 1993 (d) 2005 - 2015
WHO come into force - a date which we Sol.1450.(d) 30th January. The date was
now celebrate World Health Day every Sol.1445.(d) 2005 - 2015. The decade chosen as it marks the assassination of
year ? of 1994-2004:- Decade of the world’s Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi in 1948,
SSC CGL Tier II 07/03/2023 Indigenous People. The decade of by Nathuram Godse.
(a) 5 April 1948 (b) 7 April 1948 1983-1993 : Second Decade to Combat
(c) 6 April 1948 (d) 8 April 1948 Racism and Racial Discrimination. Q.1451. Which day in May 2020 was
2021-2030:- United Nation Decade on observed as 'International Tea Day' ?
Sol.1441.(b) 7 April 1948. WHO (World Ecosystem Restoration. 2014 - 2024:- SSC CHSL 9/8/2021 (Morning)
Health Organisation): responsible for United Nations Decade of sustainable (a) 21 May (b) 1 May
international public health. Its decision Energy for all. (c) 15 May (d) 23 May
-making body is the World Health
Assembly (WHA). Headquarter - Geneva, Q.1446. When is National Consumer Day Sol.1451.(a) 21 May.
Switzerland. observed in India? Q.1452. On which of the following days is
SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Evening) World Computer Literacy Day observed?
Q.1442. In honor of an Indian musician, (a) 26th December (b) 24th December
the US state of Massachusetts SSC CHSL 9/8/2021 (Evening)
(c) 24th November (d) 26th November (a) 5 June (b) 2 December
proclaimed 20 April as__________ in 1984.
df
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (1st Shift) Sol.1446.(b) 24th December. On this day (c) 13 May (d) 30 September
(a) Sakhawat Hussain Day the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 had
_p
Sol.1452.(b) December 2. June 5: World
(b) Sharan Rani Backliwal Day received the assent of the president. Environment Day. 30 September:
(c) Amjad Ali Khan Day World Consumer Rights Day - 15 March.
na
International Translation Day.
(d) Allauddin Khan Day
Q.1447. When is National Handloom Day Q.1453. World Thyroid Day is observed
ap
Sol.1442.(c) Amjad Ali Khan Day (sarod celebrated? on ______.
player) - 21st Rajiv Gandhi National SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Morning) SSC CHSL 10/8/2021 (Afternoon)
:@
Sadbhavna Award, Padma Shri (1975), (a) 23rd August (b) 18th November (a) 30th April (b) 17th June
Padma Bhushan (1991), Padma (c) 15th September (d) 7th August (c) 25th May (d) 23rd March
Vibhushan (2001), Sangeet Natak
TG
Akademi Award (1989), Fukuoka Asian Sol.1447.(d) 7th August (Celebrated Sol.1453.(c) 25th May. 17th June - World
Culture Prize in 2004. Since 2015). National Handloom Day is Day to Combat Desertification and
celebrated to mark the beginning of Drought. 23rd March- World
on
Q.1443. Which of the following Swadeshi Andolan on August 7, 1905. Meteorological Day.
environment events is observed by Aim - To encourage indigenous
switching off all lights at homes, industries including handloom weavers. Q.1454. On which date International Day
ch
business establishments, landmarks and of Biological Diversity is celebrated?
so on for an hour ? Q.1448. When is World Nature SSC CHSL 20/10/2020 (Morning)
ar
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Morning) Conservation Day observed? (a) 22nd June (b) 20th May
SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Morning)
Se
(a) World Environment Day (c) 17th May (d) 22nd May
(b) Earth Hour Day (a) 12th July (b) 5th August
(c) Earth Charter Day (c) 28th July (d) 30th May Sol.1454.(d) 22nd May. Proclaimed by
(d) Earth Day the United Nations in December 2000 to
Sol.1448.(c) July 28. Objective - Raise commemorate adoption of the final draft
Sol.1443.(b) Earth Hour Day. It is awareness about the importance of of Convention on Biological Diversity on
observed on 26 March every year. Earth protecting our natural resources and the 22 May 1992 by the Nairobi Final Act of
Day is an annual event on April 22 to environment. World Environment Day the Conference.
demonstrate support for environmental (5th June). International Day for
protection. Theme- Invest In our Planet. Biological Diversity (22nd May). Q.1455. The birth anniversary of _____ is
celebrated as 'International Nurses Day'
Q.1444. Which day has been declared by Q.1449. When is the Hindi Diwas every year.
the World Health Organization as Hand observed annually ? SSC CGL 03/03/2020 (Evening)
Hygiene Day? SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Afternoon) (a) Clara Barton (b) Alice Walker
SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Afternoon) (a) 14 March (b) 6 April (c) Florence Nightingale (d) Mother Teresa
(a) 5th May (b) 18th August (c) 14 September (d) 2 October
(c) 21st July (d) 14th June Sol.1455.(c) Florence Nightingale (the
Sol.1449.(c) 14 September (Celebrated foundational philosopher of modern
Sol.1444.(a) 5th May. National Ice Since 1953). On 14 September 1949, the nursing). International Nurses Day (12th
Cream Pie Day is observed annually on Constituent Assembly accepted Hindi in May) is celebrated to commemorate her
August 18th. 14th June- World Blood the Devanagari script as the official birth in 1820. The event was established
Donor Day. language of India. World Hindi Day - in 1974 by the International Council of
January 10. Nurses (ICN).
Q.1445. Which of the following decades
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
States G.K. Burman language spoken by the Tripuri Sol.1465.(a) Madhya Pradesh. The
people of the Indian state of Tripura and Sanchi Stupa was declared a world
Q.1456. Sama Chakeva is a folk dance neighboring areas of Bangladesh. The heritage site by UNESCO in 1989. Sanchi
based on the mythological story of the official languages of Tripura are Bengali, is a Buddhist complex, famous for its
siblings Sama and Chakeva, in which the English and Kokborok. Tripura : Capital - Great Stupa, on a hilltop at Sanchi Town
brother goes to an extreme extent to Agartala. State Animal - Phayre's langur. in Raisen District of Madhya Pradesh. It
save his sister. With which State of India State bird - Green imperial pigeon. State was originally commissioned by the
is this folk dance associated? tree - Agar. State flower - Nageshwar. Mauryan emperor Ashoka. UNESCO
SSC MTS 14/10/2024 (3rd Shift) World Heritage Sites in India: Ajanta
Q.1461. Which state hosts the Nehru Caves (1983), Group of Monuments at
(a) Assam (b) Haryana
trophy boat race? Mahabalipuram (1984), Mahabodhi
(c) Bihar (d) Punjab
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya (2002).
Sol.1456.(c) Bihar. Sama Chakwa (a) Kerala (b) Goa
festival is celebrated in the Mithila (c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu Q.1466. ‘Lai-Phi’ and ‘Chin-Phi’ are the
Region (Bihar and some parts of Nepal). cultural costumes of which state?
Sol.1461.(a) Kerala. The Nehru Trophy SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Q.1457. Which of the following Boat Race is an annual event held in the (a) Nagaland (b) Uttarakhand
states/UTs has the first 100% fully digital Punnamada Lake in Alappuzha district of (c) Manipur (d) Sikkim
literate Panchayat in India? Kerala. The race was first held in 1952 to
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) commemorate a visit by India's first Sol.1466.(c) Manipur.
(a) Kerala (b) Puducherry Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, to the Manipur Traditional Costumes: For
(c) Maharashtra (d) Delhi state. Women - Innaphi, Phanek, Mayek Naibi,
Kanap Phanek. For Men - Dhoti with a
df
Sol.1457.(a) Kerala. Pullampara grama Q.1462. Lal Thanhawla holds the record jacket, white turban, Khamen Chatpa,
for the longest-serving Chief Minister of
_p
panchayat in Thiruvananthapuram has Ningthoupee dress.
become the first digitally literate ________, occupying the position for five
terms. Q.1467. Match the states in column A
na
panchayat in Kerala. The Digi Pullampara
project was started on August 15, 2021. SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) with their official languages in column B.
(a) Meghalaya (b) Manipur Column A Column B
ap
Q.1458. Which of the following states (c) Mizoram (d) Sikkim (States) (Official Languages)
launched the first Migration Monitoring
:@
1. Andhra Pradesh a. Malayalam
System in the year 2022? Sol.1462.(c) Mizoram : Formation - 20
2. Kerala b. Telugu
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) February 1987; 1st Governor - Hiteswar
Saikia; First Chief Minister - C. Chhunga. 3. Karnataka c. Konkani
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka
TG
4. Goa d. Kannada
(c) Kerala (d) Goa
Q.1463. Baiga is a folk music of Baiga SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.1458.(a) Maharashtra. Migration Tribe from which of the following states? (a) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d (b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
on
Monitoring System provides updated SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift) (c) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c (d) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
information on migrant pregnant women, (a) Assam (b) Bihar
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Madhya Pradesh Sol.1467.(b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c. States
lactating mothers, and children. It is
ch
and their official languages: Punjab -
developed by the Department of Women
Sol.1463.(d) Madhya Pradesh. Other Punjabi, Rajasthan - Hindi, Uttar Pradesh -
ar
and Child Development.
Baiga tribe dances include Faag, Saila, Hindi, Bihar - Hindi, Odisha - Odia, Assam
Karma, and Bilma. - Assamese, West Bengal - Bengali,
Se
Q.1459. Which city is referred to as the
‘Manchester of India’? Maharashtra - Marathi, Tamil Nadu -
Q.1464. Which of the following states is
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) Tamil, Gujarat - Gujarati. India has two
famous for celebrating the festival of
(a) Kanpur (b) Kolkata official languages: Hindi and English.
Vijaya Dashami, which marks the end of
(c) Ahmedabad (d) Mumbai
Durga puja? Q.168. Guntapalle Chaitya Buddhist cave
Sol.1459.(c) Ahmedabad. It is located in SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) is situated in which of the following
Gujarat on the banks of the Sabarmati (a) West Bengal (b) Rajasthan states?
river. The first mill was established in (c) Telengna (d) Chhattisgarh Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
1859. It soon became the second largest (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Bihar
Sol.1464.(a) West Bengal.
textile city of India, after Mumbai. It is (c) Maharashtra (d) Himachal Pradesh
Vijayadashami (also known as Dussehra)
referred to as the "Manchester of India"
is a major Hindu festival celebrated every Sol.1468.(a) Andhra Pradesh.
because of its similarities to the
year at the end of Durga Puja and The Guntapalle Chaitya Buddhist cave is
well-known cotton textile center of
Navratri. It is observed on the tenth day a rock-cut temple complex, featuring
Manchester, Great Britain.
of the month of Ashvin. both chaityas and viharas. Indian States
Q.1460. Which of the following is the and Caves: Andhra Pradesh - Belum
Q.1465. In which of the following states
official language of Tripura? Caves, Borra Caves, Guttikonda Bilam.
is the Sanchi Stupa UNESCO world
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift) Maharashtra - Ajanta and Ellora caves,
heritage site located?
(a) Mizo (b) Kokborok Aurangabad Caves, Bhaja Caves,
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift)
(c) Khasi (d) Garo Pitalkhora Caves, Ghorawadi Caves,
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Rajasthan
Kanheri Caves. Bihar - Barabar Caves,
(c) Bihar (d) Punjab
Sol.1460.(b) Kokborok is a Tibeto - Nagarjuna Caves.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.1469. Amaravati stupa is situated in in summer along with the pre-monsoonal Sol.1477.(c) Delhi. Famous Memorials in
which of the following states? showers and harvested in autumn. Boro: Delhi : Shanti Van (Jawaharlal Nehru),
Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Rice sown in winter and harvested in Vijay Ghat (Lal Bahadur Shastri), Shakti
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Odisha summer. This is also called spring rice. Sthal (Indira Gandhi), Sadaiv Atal (Atal
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh Bihari Vajpayee), Vir Bhumi (Rajiv
Q.1473. Bharhut Stupa is located in Gandhi), Samta Sthal (Babu Jagjivan
Sol.1469.(c) Andhra Pradesh. Amaravati which of the following states ? Ram), Sangharsh Sthal (Chaudhary Devi
Stupa is situated in the Guntur district of SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Lal).
Andhra Pradesh. It was built by the (a) Punjab (b) Madhya Pradesh
Satavahana dynasty. Life and teaching of (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Bihar Q.1478. Where is the Vivekanand Rock
Buddha are carved out in the stupa. It Memorial situated?
was discovered by Colin Mackenzie in Sol.1473.(b) Madhya Pradesh. Bharhut SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (1st Shift)
1797. is famous for the ruins of a Buddhist (a) Port Blair (b) Vishakhapatnam
stupa (shrine) discovered there by Major (c) Kanyakumari (d) Chennai
Q.1470. Sriharikota island is located in General Alexander Cunningham in 1873.
which of the following states? Sol.1478.(c) Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu).
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Q.1474. In which state of India is Vivekananda Rock Memorial - Its
(a) West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu Kaziranga National Park located ? construction was completed in 1970.
(c) Odisha (d) Andhra Pradesh SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Swami Vivekananda visited Kanyakumari
(a) Assam (b) Gujarat in 1892. He was a disciple of
Sol.1470.(d) Andhra Pradesh. Satish (c) Karnataka (d) West Bengal Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and the
Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) or founder of Ramakrishna Mission. The
Sriharikota Range (SHAR) is a rocket Sol.1474.(a) Assam. Kaziranga National
memorial consists of two main
df
launch center (spaceport) operated by Park - A UNESCO world heritage site of
India and known for one horned structures, the Vivekananda Mandapam
the Indian Space Research Organisation
_p
Rhinoceros. National Parks in India : Jim and the Shripada Mandapam.
(ISRO). It is located in Sriharikota, district
Nellore. Other space center: Vikram Corbett National Park - Uttarakhand, Q.1479. Rann Utsav is celebrated in
na
Sarabhai Space Centre: Located in Ranthambore National Park - Rajasthan, which of the following states?
Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. Indian Blackbuck National Park, Gir National SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift)
ap
Institute of Space Science and Park - Gujarat. Kanha National Park - (a) Goa (b) Punjab (c) Gujarat (d) Haryana
Technology (IIST): Located in Madhya Pradesh, Bhitarkanika National
:@
Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. Dr. Abdul Park - Odisha. Sol.1479.(c) Gujarat. Rann Utsav - It was
Kalam Island (formerly Wheeler Island): conceptualised as a three-day festival,
Q.1475. According to the Ministry of which progressively evolved into a
Located off the coast of Odisha.
TG
Commerce and Industry (2018-19), which 100-day celebration at Dhordo, a village
Q.1471. Pakyong airport is located in state of India is the largest producer of near Rann of Kutch.
________. Rubber?
on
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2) SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Q.1480. Which of the following states
(a) Sikkim (b) Assam (a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat has the honour of being India's first
(c) Kerala (d) Uttar Pradesh carbon-free state?
ch
(c) Nagaland (d) Arunachal Pradesh
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift)
Sol.1471.(a) Sikkim. Pakyong Airport is Sol.1475.(c) Kerala (490460 tonnes). (a) Arunachal Pradesh
ar
one of the five highest airports in India. Top Natural Rubber producing Indian (b) Himachal Pradesh
States: Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Tripura,
Se
Airports in India: Lokpriya Gopinath (c) Madhya Pradesh
Bordoloi International Airport (Assam), Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Manipur, (d) Kerala
Pasighat Airport (Arunachal Pradesh), Mizoram.
Dimapur Airport (Nagaland), Netaji Sol.1480.(b) Himachal Pradesh (India's
Q.1476. In which state is Vijay Stambh first and the world's second carbon-free
Subhas Chandra Bose International situated?
Airport (Kolkata), Rajiv Gandhi state). A state is carbon-free if all of its
SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift) electricity is from clean energy sources
International Airport (Hyderabad), Veer (a) Rajasthan (b) Punjab
Savarkar International Airport (Port Blair), like wind, solar, and nuclear. First carbon
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Gujarat neutral district - Majuli (Assam). First
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar International
Airport (Nagpur). Sol.1476.(a) Rajasthan. Vijay Stambh carbon free panchayat - Pali Village
(Tower of Victory) was built by Maharana (Jammu and Kashmir). Bhutan is the first
Q.1472. In which of the following states Kumbha between 1440 AD and 1448 AD carbon negative country in the world.
are Aus, Boro and Aman paddy crops to commemorate his victory over the
grown in a year? Q.1481. Which Indian state is renowned
combined armies of Gujarat and Malwa
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) for the traditional canal irrigation method
led by Mahmud Khilji. It is situated inside
(a) Odisha (b) Uttarakhand known as 'Kulh'?
Chittor Fort in Chittorgarh. This tower is
(c) Haryana (d) Punjab SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift)
dedicated to Hindu God Vishnu.
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Odisha
Sol.1472.(a) Odisha. Aman, Aus and Q.1477. In which city is the Rajghat (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
Boro are rice varieties. Rice is usually memorial situated?
sown thrice in a year. Aman: This variety SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift) Sol.1481.(a) Himachal Pradesh. Kuhls
is sown in the rainy season (July-August) (a) Ahmedabad (b) Surat are shallow surface channels diverting
and harvested in winter. Aus: Rice sown (c) Delhi (d) Agra water from naturally flowing streams or
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
springs, to cultivated fields, and mainly amended the Representation of the Sol.1489.(b) Mumbai. NABARD (National
used for flood irrigation. Water People Act, 1951 to create a provision for Bank for Agricultural and Rural
Harvesting Structures found in other the use of EVMs in the elections. EVM Development) is administered by the
states : Kerala and Karnataka (Kattas, consists of two units - Control Unit (CU) Government of India. It was instituted on
Surangams), Maharashtra (Bandharas and Balloting Unit (BU). the recommendations of B.Sivaraman
and Tals), Tamil Nadu (Eris), Uttar Committee on 12 July 1982 by
Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh (Bundhis). Q.1486. The Ravan Phadi cave in is implementing the National Bank for
an example of the early Chalukya style Agriculture and Rural Development Act
Q.1482. Which Indian state was the first architecture which is known for its 1981.
to make it mandatory for all homes to distinct sculptural style.
have rooftop rainwater harvesting SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Afternoon) Q.1490. Bagh Caves, which has 9
structures? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala Buddhist caves, was developed around
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift) (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka the 6th Century AD situated on the Bagh
(a) Sikkim (b) Tamil Nadu river in_________.
(c) Odisha (d) Haryana Sol.1486.(d) Karnataka. Ravana Phadi SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Cave Temple is one of the jewels in the (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
Sol.1482.(b) Tamil Nadu. Rooftop Aihole monuments. Other Historic Caves: (c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat
rainwater harvesting is a technique used Maharashtra - Ajanta Caves, Ellora Caves,
for the conservation of water. The Elephanta Caves. Kerala - Edakkal caves, Sol.1490.(b) Madhya Pradesh. Bagh
rainwater that has fallen on the roof of Maniyoor caves, Ezhuthupara cave. Caves - These are a group of nine
houses or buildings is collected in Andhra Pradesh - Erravaram Caves, Buddhist caves, first discovered in 1818,
storage or underground tanks through Belum Caves, Akkanna Madanna Caves. located on the bank of the Baghani River
the help of pipes in this technique. This in Dhar district, Madhya Pradesh. Other
df
helps in recharging the groundwater Q.1487. The famous Dhamek Stupa is caves: Madhya Pradesh - Udayagiri
located in which of the following states?
_p
levels. Rainwater harvesting is already a Caves (Vidisha), Pandav Caves
common practice in Mizoram. SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening) (Pachmarhi), Dharmrajeshwar Caves
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
na
(Mandsaur), Bhimbetka Caves (Bhojpur
Q.1483. Lotia is a regional music form of (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Himachal Pradesh Raisen), Lohani Caves (Mandu) etc.
which state ?
ap
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (3rd shift) Sol.1487.(b) Uttar Pradesh. Dhamek Q.1491. Which Indian state is home to
(a) Odisha (b) Rajasthan Stupa - It is located at Sarnath, in the Buddhist cave temples known as
:@
(c) Assam (d) Bihar Varanasi. It was built in 249 B.C. by Barabar Caves?
Ashoka the Great. It was made to SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Morning)
Sol.1483.(b) Rajasthan. Lotia - It is sung commemorate the event of Lord Buddha (a) Bihar (b) West Bengal
TG
by the peasants while working in the giving the first sermon to his first five (c) Sikkim (d) Uttar Pradesh
fields on the occasion of Lotia festival in disciples. Other stupas: Swayambhunath
the Chaitra month according to the Hindu Stupa - Kathmandu (Nepal), Bharhut Sol.1491.(a) Bihar. The Barabar Hill
on
calendar. Stupa - Satna District (Madhya Pradesh), Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut
Kesariya Stupa - East Champaran District caves in India. These are supposed to
Q.1484. In which state is the Maski
ch
(Bihar), Sanchi Stupa - Raisen District have been constructed by emperor
inscription located at present? (Madhya Pradesh), Chaukhandi Stupa - Ashoka for the use of Ajivaka ascetics.
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift)
ar
Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh). These caves are situated in the twin hills
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh of Barabar (four caves) and Nagarjuni
Se
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka Q.1488. Which among the following (three caves). Most caves at Barabar
Buddhist Universities is located in Bihar, consist of two chambers, carved entirely
Sol.1484.(d) Karnataka. Maski India?
inscription : Ashoka's minor rock edict. It out of granite.
SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Morning)
is situated on the banks of the Muski (a) Vallabhi University Q.1492. The rock - cave temple of
River, a tributary of the Tungabhadra (b) Somapuri University _______ is the largest monolithic structure
River. The inscription is written in the (c) Nalanda University in the world.
Brahmi script. The edict was the first of (d) Nabadwip University SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Emperor Ashoka to include the name (a) Udaygiri (b) Ajanta
Ashoka and not by his usual title Sol.1488.(c) Nalanda University (The (c) Ellora (d) Badami
‘Devanampiya Piyadasi’. Discovered by - world’s first residential University) - Built
C. Beadon in 1915. by Kumaragupta (Gupta dynasty). Sol.1492.(c) Ellora. The caves are
Prominent rulers - Harshavardhana of dedicated to Hinduism, Buddhism, and
Q.1485. Which of the following states Kannauj, Pala Rulers, and many scholars Jainism. The Kailasa Temple (Ellora): It
used EVMs for the first time in the patronized Nalanda. is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is
general elections held in May 1982 ? located in the Aurangabad district of
Graduate Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 4) Q.1489. The head office of National Bank Maharashtra, India. It is dedicated to
(a) Kerala (b) Andhra Pradesh for Agricultural and Rural Development is Lord Shiva and is the largest and most
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra located in ________. impressive cave in the Ellora complex. It
SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (afternoon) is a monolithic structure (carved out of a
Sol.1485.(a) Kerala (Ernakulam, Parvur (a) Pune (b) Mumbai
Vidhan Sabha). Electronic Voting single rock).
(c) Chennai (d) Kolkata
Machine (EVM) - In 1989, the Parliament Q.1493. The Elephanta Caves are located
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
in which state? Sol.1497.(b) Maharashtra. Pandavleni Diamond - Asansol (West Bengal), City of
SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Evening) Caves - These are built on the Tri Rashmi Peace - Bardhaman (West Bengal),
(a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan hill about 3004 feet above sea level. Temple City of India - Bhubaneswar
(c) Maharashtra (d) Karnataka These caves are a group of old Buddhist (Odisha), The Venice of the East -
caves (250 B.C. - 600 A.D.). Alappuzha (Kerala), Garden City of India -
Sol.1493.(c) Maharashtra. Elephanta Bengaluru (Karnataka), Detroit of Asia -
Caves: Declared a UNESCO World Q.1498. Dhuska is the most popular food Chennai (Tamil Nadu), Manchester of
Heritage Site in 1987. item of state of __________ . South India - Coimbatore (Tamil Nadu),
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (3rd Shift) Scotland of India - Coorg (Karnataka),
Q.1494. Which city in India is associated (a) Punjab (b) Jharkhand
with the tea industry? School Capital of India - Dehradun
(c) Kerala (d) Andhra Pradesh (Uttarakhand), Queen of the Hills -
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) Panipat, Haryana Sol.1498.(b) Jharkhand. Other Foods of Darjeeling (West Bengal).
(b) Ahmedabad, Gujarat Jharkhand- Handia, Litti Chokha, Mirchi Q.1502. Which among the following is an
(c) Darjeeling, West Bengal Ka Salan, Mitha Khaja, Rugra. Punjab: Indian martial art from Manipur ?
(d) Madurai, Tamil Nadu Sarso ka saag and Makki di Roti, Lassi, SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Gobhi - Shalgam- Gajar Pickle, Pinni. (a) Muay Thai (b) Kalaripayattu
Sol.1494.(c) Darjeeling, West Bengal. Kerala: Erissery, Sadya, Appam With
Darjeeling Tea was the first product to (c) Tháng Tại (d) Gatka
Ishtu, Idli Sambar, Nadan Kozhi
get the Geographical Indication (GI) tag Varuthathu. Andhra Pradesh: Pulihora, Sol.1502.(c) Thang-Tai (sword and
in India, in October 2004. Kangra Tea Gutti vankaya kura, Chepa Pulusu, spear) - It is dedicated to fighting skill
from Himachal Pradesh also has GI tag Gongura Pickle Ambadi, Pesarattu, Gutti and worship. The Meitei creation of
status. GI tag is regulated by the Vankaya Koora, Punugulu, Bobbatlu, Thang-ga goes back to antiquity.
df
Geographical Indications of Goods Medu Vada, Uppindi.
(Registration and Protection) Act of Q.1503. India's First open Rock Museum
_p
1999. Q.1499. Kye Gompa, the largest centre of is located in which city ?
Buddhist learning in the Western SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (1st Shift)
na
Q.1495. The Ganesh-rath is one of the Himalayas, is situated in the state/union (a) Varanasi (b) Chennai
finest monolithic temples located in territory of___________. (c) Mysuru (d) Hyderabad
ap
______. SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (4th Shift)
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Afternoon) (a) Uttarakhand (b) Himachal Pradesh Sol.1503.(d) Hyderabad. Other Famous
:@
(a) Somnath (b) Mahabalipuram (c) Punjab (d) Jammu & Kashmir monuments : Char- Minar, Makka Masjid
(c) Varanasi (d) Nagpur both built by Quli Qutub Shah.
Sol.1499.(b) Himachal Pradesh. Famous
TG
Sol.1495.(b) Mahabalipuram. The Buddhist monasteries: Hemis Monastery Q.1504. Nasik is also known as _____
Ganesh - rath - It is one of ten rathas - Ladakh, Tabo Monastery - Himachal capital of India.
("chariots") carved out of pink granite Pradesh, Tsuglagkhang Monastery - SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (4th Shift)
on
within the group of monuments of the Himachal Pradesh, Thiksey Monastery - (a) Wine (b) Gold (c) Orange (d) Cotton
Pallava Period at Mahabalipuram, a Leh, Ladakh, Tawang Monastery -
UNESCO-inscribed World Heritage Site Sol.1504.(a) Wine. Nashik ("Wine Capital
ch
Arunachal Pradesh, Bylakuppe of India") holds almost half of the
since 1984. Monastery (Namdroling) - Karnataka, wineries in India. Wine is composed of
ar
Q.1496. Which state became the first to Ghoom Monastery - West Bengal, ethanol (12%). Nashik is situated on the
implement "New Education Policy" at pre Lingdum Monastery - Sikkim. banks of river Godavari. The Godavari
Se
- primary level? Q.1500. Aga Khan Palace is located in starts from Trimbakeshwar, Maharashtra
SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Afternoon) _______ city of Maharashtra. and flows to the Bay of Bengal. It is also
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Haryana SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift) known for hosting the Kumbh Mela every
(c) Kerala (d) Uttarakhand (a) Pune (b) Aurangabad 12 years.
Sol.1496.(d) Uttarakhand. National (c) Ahmednagar (d) Mumbai Q.1505. Which among the following is
Education Policy (NEP) 2020 was Sol.1500.(a) Pune. This Palace was built the official sport of Maharashtra, as of
announced by the Ministry of Education. in 1892 by Sultan Muhammed Shah Aga 2022?
It was based on the recommendation of Khan III in the district of Pune SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (1st Shift)
the ‘Kasturiranjan committee’. Aim - (Maharashtra). (a) Mallakhamb (b) Kalaripayattu
Transform the Indian education system (c) Sand sculptures (d) Dahi-Handi
to meet the needs of the 21st Century. Q.1501. Which Indian city is also known
Karnataka became the first state to as Queen of Deccan? Sol.1505.(d) Dahi - Handi. It is an
adopt NEP in higher education. SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (4th Shift) entertainment and competitive event
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Pune celebrated with Hindu festival Krishna
Q.1497. The famous Pandav Leni Caves (c) Amritsar (d) Puducherry Janmashtami (birth of God Krishna).
is located in which of the following Madhya Pradesh (Mallakhamb), Kerala
states? Sol.1501.(b) Pune. Some Indian Cities (Kalaripayattu). Puri Beach (Odisha) -
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon) and Sobriquets : City of Taj - Agra (Uttar Here, Sudarsan Pattnaik showcases his
(a) Odisha (b) Maharashtra Pradesh), Boston/Manchester of India - sand arts. Mysore Sand Sculpture
(c) Kerala (d) Bihar Ahmedabad (Gujarat), Sangam City - Museum - It is home to several sand
Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh), Land of Black models and was founded by M N Gowri.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.1506. "Living root bridges" is an iconic (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Gujarat Abhinav Bindra Foundation Trust (ABFT).
structure found in which state? IOC - Headquarters: Lausanne
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Sol.1510.(b) Rajasthan. Launched by (Switzerland), Founded: 23 June 1894
(a) Meghalaya (b) West Bengal National Legal Services Authority (Paris, France).
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Assam Chairman, Uday Umesh Lalit. About
Rajasthan (northwest) - Capital: Jaipur. Q.1515. In which district of Maharashtra
Sol.1506.(a) Meghalaya. Living root is Ralegan Siddhi, a small village that has
bridges (Jing Kieng Jri) - The aerial Q.1511. Which of the following is the become an example for watershed
bridges, built by weaving and adjusting first 'smoke-free state' in India? development, situated?
the roots of the Indian rubber tree. Other SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) Higher Secondary 01/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
Famous root bridges - Riwai Root Bridge (a) Rajasthan (b) Uttarakhand (a) Yavatmal (b) Nashik
and Umshiang Double Decker Bridge. (c) Bihar (d) Himachal Pradesh (c) Ahmednagar (d) Pune
Properties - Elastic, easily combined, Sol.1511.(d) Himachal Pradesh. This
grows in rough and rocky soils. Grown by Sol.1515.(c) Ahmednagar. Extra Facts -
was achieved due to the Ujjwala Scheme Integrated Watershed Development
Khasi and Jaintia tribes of Meghalaya. (2016, by centre) and Grahini Suvidha Programme (IWMP) objective is to cover
Q.1507. Surat is also known as ________ Yojana (2018, by Himachal Pradesh 55 million hectares of rain fed land by
of India. Government). Chandigarh is the first 2027. Other Initiatives - Hariyali (Central
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (4th Shift) smoke-free city in India. Government), Neeru-Meeru programme
(a) Diamond city (b) Blue city Q.1512. The Government of________ (Andhra Pradesh) and Arvary Pani
(c) Pink City (d) City of Lakes launched Mukhyamantri Chaa Srami Sansad (Alwar, Rajasthan). Tamil Nadu
Kalyan Prakalpa Scheme for tea garden has made water harvesting structures in
Sol.1507.(a) Diamond city. It is also the houses compulsory.
df
known as “The silk city”, and “The green workers.
city”. Surat (located on the River Tapi) SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) Q.1516. In which state in India is
_p
has been called “The gateway to Mecca”. (a) Kerala (b) Assam Chandratal wetland located?
Old name of Surat - Suryapur. (c) Tripura (d) Andhra Pradesh Higher Secondary 05/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
Q.1508. Which of the following sites do
na
Sol.1512.(c) Tripura (5th largest tea (a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Himachal Pradesh
ap
"Not" have nuclear power plants? producing State in India). Assam is the
largest tea-producing state in India (c) Uttarakhand
SSC CGL 01/12/20`22 (1st Shift) (d) Uttar Pradesh
:@
(a) Vijayawada (b) Naraura followed by West Bengal. Jorhat has the
(c) Tarapur (d) Rawat Bhata world famous Tocklai Experimental Sol.1516.(b) Himachal Pradesh.
Centre. China (1st) and India (2nd) are Important Wetlands - Pong dam, Renuka
TG
Sol.1508.(a) Vijayawada. Nuclear power the largest tea producing countries in the Wetland (Himachal Pradesh), Tampara
plants in India: Kakrapar Atomic Power world. Lake (Odisha), Yashwant Sagar (Madhya
Station (1993, Gujarat), Kalpakkam, Pradesh), Chitrangudi Bird Sanctuary
Q.1513. The Kashi Yatra Scheme was
on
Madras (1984, Tamil Nadu), Narora (Tamil Nadu), Shallbugh Wetland
(1991, Uttar Pradesh), Kaiga (2000 ; introduced by the government of ……
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (1st Shift) (Jammu and Kashmir) Thane Creek
Karnataka), Rawatbhata (1973,
ch
(a) Karnataka (b) Uttar Pradesh (Maharashtra), Kanjirankulam Bird
Rajasthan), Tarapur (1969, Maharashtra), Sanctuary (Tamil Nadu) etc.
Kudankulam (2013, Tamil Nadu). Under (c) Punjab (d) Kerala
ar
Construction: Chutka (Madhya Pradesh), Sol.1513.(a) Karnataka government has Q.1517. Which state of India has set up
Se
Gorakhpur (Haryana), Bhimpur (Madhya launched the Kashi Yatra scheme. It District Investment Promotion Agencies
Pradesh), Mahi Banswara (Rajasthan), offers cash assistance of Rs 5,000 to (DIPA) ?
Haripur (West Bengal), etc. pilgrims who visit the Kashi Vishwanath SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Morning)
Temple (Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh). The (a) Karnataka (b) Haryana
Q.1509. In which of the following states (c) Odisha (d) West Bengal
was 'Kudumbashree,' women-oriented, Kashi Vishwanath Temple (Jyotirlingas)
community-- based, poverty-reduction is dedicated to Lord Shiva. The current Sol.1517.(c) Odisha Government has set
programme implemented ? structure was built by the Ahilyabai up District Investment Promotion
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (4th Shift) Holkar of Indore (Maratha ruler) in the Agencies (DIPA) to promote and
(a) Maharashtra (b) Kerala year 1780. facilitate investment across the State.
(c) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh Q.1514. India's first Olympic Values Q.1518. The Janjira Fort is situated on a
Sol.1509.(b) Kerala. Education Programme (OVEP) was small island in the Arabian sea, off the
The name Kudumbashree in Malayalam launched in _____. coast of______.
language means 'prosperity of the SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift) SSC MTS 22/07/2022 (Evening)
family'. The 'Kudumbashree' SHG (Self (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Punjab (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra
Help Groups) was started in 1998. (c) Odisha (d) Haryana (c) Kerala (d) Karnataka
Q.1510. India’s First AI-powered, end - to Sol.1514.(c) Odisha. The Olympic Values Sol.1518.(b) Maharashtra. Janjira fort is
- end digital Lok Adalat was launched in Education Programme (OVEP) of the situated on an oval-shaped rock off the
________. International Olympic Committee (IOC) Arabian Sea coast near the port town of
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift) was launched in Odisha by Chief Minister Murud, 165 km south of Mumbai,
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Rajasthan Naveen Patnaik, in collaboration with the Maharashtra. Some other forts in
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Maharashtra: Lohagad fort, Daulatabad (a) Golden Temple Q.1528. Janapada Geete, which includes
fort, Raigad fort, Shaniwarwada fort (b) Paonta Sahib the vachanas of Basavanna, is
pune, Sindhu Garh fort, Pratapgarh fort, (c) Patna Sahib associated with the state of ______.
Rajmachi fort, Korigad fort, Sinhagad fort (d) Gurudwara Bangla Sahib SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Morning)
etc. (a) Odisha (b) Kerala
Sol.1523.(a) Golden Temple. Shri Guru (c) West Bengal (d) Karnataka
Q.1519. Which of the following is a Hargobind Singh laid the foundation
limestone cave in India? stone of the Akal Takht building in 1605. Sol.1528.(d) Karnataka. Janapada
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Evening) Paonta Sahib was founded by the Tenth Geete, Jana means people or tribe and
(a) Undavalli Caves (b) Varaha Cave Sikh guru, Guru Gobind Singh. Patna pada means verse/rhyme.
(c) Borra Caves (d) Bhimbetka Caves Sahib was built by Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
Gurudwara Bangla Sahib is known for its Q.1529. Pochampally Ikat sarees and
Sol.1519.(c) Borra Caves is a limestone association with the eighth Sikh Guru, dress materials, famous for their
cave located in the Ananthagiri hills of Guru Har Krishan. traditional geometric patterns belong to
the Araku Valley of the Alluri Sitharama the state of ______.
Raju district in Andhra Pradesh. Undavalli Q.1524. Litti Chokha is a famous cuisine SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Morning)
Caves- Amravati, Andhra Pradesh. of which of the following states? (a) Telangana (b) Tamil Nadu
Varaha Cave- Mahabalipuram, Tamil SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Afternoon) (c) Karnataka (d) Kerala
Nadu. Bhimbetka Caves - Amcha khurd, (a) Maharashtra (b) Bihar
Madhya Pradesh. (c) Gujarat (d) Odisha Sol.1529.(a) Telangana. Traditional
Sarees and States: Banarasi Saree - Uttar
Q.1520. Agumbe, a biodiversity-rich Sol.1524.(b) Bihar. Litti Chokha Pradesh, Kanjivaram Silk Saree - Tamil
region that receives 7640 mm of average basically consists of wheat and sattu. It Nadu, Nauvari Saree - Maharashtra, Tant
df
annual rainfall in South India, is located originated centuries ago as a staple food Saree - West Bengal.
in which state? in the court of Magadha.
_p
SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Morning) Q.1530. 'Muya Awandru' is a traditional
Q.1525. In the context of the culture of food of this Indian state.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka
na
Uttarakhand, 'Kafuli' is the name of a: SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Morning)
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala
SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Evening) (a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka
ap
Sol.1520.(b) Karnataka. Agumbe ( 'Cobra (a) cuisine (b) folk dance (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Tripura
Capital' of India) is registered as a (c) festival (d) style of painting
:@
UNESCO World Heritage Site and is Sol.1530.(d) Tripura. Muya awandru is a
Sol.1525.(a) cuisine. Kafuli is a delicacy dish prepared with bamboo shoots,
famous for its rich biodiversity, waterfalls
of Uttarakhand prepared out of leafy berma (fermented fish), parsley, and
(Onake Abbi, Bakarna, and Jogi Gundi
TG
greens such as palak (spinach) and green chilies. It is a rice flour-based
fall), and red-hazy sun-set over the
methi (fenugreek) leaves. It is also gravy.
Arabian Sea.
known as Dhapdi in Garhwal.
Q.1531. Bombay state was split along
on
Q.1521. In which of the following Indian
states will you find the Buxa Fort? Q.1526. In which of the following states linguistic lines, forming Maharashtra and
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening) of India is the buffalo breed named ______, in the year 1960.
ch
(a) Odisha (b) Karnataka 'Banni' mainly reared? SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Afternoon)
(c) West Bengal (d) Tamil Nadu SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Evening) (a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka
ar
(a) Kerala (b) West Bengal (c) Rajasthan (d) Goa
Sol.1521.(c) Buxa Fort is located in the (c) Gujarat (d) Odisha
Se
Buxa Tiger Reserve, Alipurduar district, in Sol.1531.(a) Gujarat. The States
West Bengal. Kurumbera Fort is located Sol.1526.(c) Gujarat. Banni buffalo is Reorganisation Committee report was to
at Gagneswar, West Bengal. Fort William, also known as "Kutchi" or "Kundi". It is a be implemented in 1956.
Kolkata, West Bengal. breed of buffalo found primarily in the
Kutch district of Gujarat, India. Q.1532. In which of the following states
Q.1522. In which city of Gujarat will you is the Stanley Reservoir located?
Q.1527. Which of the following palaces SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Evening)
find the Uparkot Buddhist Caves ?
is located in Thiruvananthapuram ? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Goa
SSC CGL 12/04/2022(Afternoon)
SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Evening) (c) Maharashtra (d) Andhra Pradesh
(a) Bhavnagar (b) Vadodara
(a) Chowmahalla Palace
(c) Junagadh (d) Anand
(b) Amber Palace Sol.1532.(a) Tamil Nadu. Stanley
Sol.1522.(c) Junagadh. Some of the (c) Ujjayanta Palace Reservoir (Mettur dam) is one of the
famous Buddhist Caves in India are (d) Kanakakunnu Palace largest fishing reservoirs in South India.
Ajanta Caves, Ellora Caves, Kanheri Its main source of water is the River
Sol.1527.(d) Kanakakunnu Palace is Kaveri.
Caves, Bhaja Caves, Junnar Caves, Karla
situated in Thiruvananthapuram near the
Caves in Maharashtra, Barabar Caves in
Napier museum, India. Chowmahalla Q.1533. In which Indian state is the
Bihar, Nagarjunakonda Caves in Andhra
Palace is the palace of the Nizams of 'Pookode Lake' located?
Pradesh, Dhauli Caves, Lalitgiri Caves,
Hyderabad. Amber Fort is a fort located SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Evening)
Ratnagiri Caves in Orissa.
in Amber, Rajasthan. The Ujjayanta (a) Punjab (b) Gujarat
Q.1523. What is located inside the Palace is a museum and the former (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
premises of Akhal Takht Sahib? palace of the Kingdom of Tripura
SSC CGL 21/04/2022(Morning) situated in Agartala. Sol.1533.(c) Kerala. 10 Famous Lakes
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
in Kerala : Ashtamudi Lake, Periyar Lake, SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Morning) you find the Meguti temple?
Vembanad Lake, Pookode Lake, Vellayani (a) Karnataka (b) Uttarakhand SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Morning)
Lake, Paravur Lake, Punnamada Lake, (c) Goa (d) Punjab (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Odisha
Sasthamkotta Lake, Mananchira Lake, (c) Karnataka (d) Kerala
Veeran Puzhal Lake. Sol.1539.(c) Goa. Famous dishes of Goa
are - Goan Fish Curry, Prawn Balchao, Sol.1544.(c) Karnataka. Megudii Jain
Q.1534. In which state of India does the Fish Recheado, Chicken, Xacuti, Chicken temple is a monument in Aihole,
'Weinia Falls' lie? Cafreal, Shark Ambot Tik, Pork Sorpotel, constructed in 634 AD in Dravidian style
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Evening) Mussel, Rawa Fry, Caldeirada, Pork of architecture.
(a) Sikkim (b) Himachal Pradesh Vindaloo.
(c) Meghalaya (d) Goa Q.1545. Which of the following is the
Q.1540. ‘Tolu Bommalata’ (leather most literate district in India as per
Sol.1534.(c) Meghalaya. Weinia Falls is shadow puppet show) is a traditional art Census 2011?
also known as Kshaid Weinia. Kunchikal form from the state of: SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Morning)
Falls in Shimoga District of Karnataka is SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Evening) (a) Ernakulam (b) Kottayam
the highest waterfall in India and the (a) Karnataka (b) Kerala (c) Serchhip (d) Champhai
second biggest waterfall in Asia. (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh
Sol.1545.(c) Serchhip (Mizoram,
Q.1535. Churahi, Mandeali and Keonthali Sol.1540.(d) Andhra Pradesh. Tholu 97.91%). As per Census 2011 : State with
are dialects spoken in the state of: means leather in Telugu and bommalu highest literacy rate - Kerala. State with
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Evening) means dolls. Traditional Art Forms of lowest literacy rate - Bihar.
(a) Madhya Pradesh Andhra Pradesh: Kuchipudi, Kalamkari
(b) Arunachal Pradesh Paintings, Buta Bommalu, Lambadi Q.1546. Which of the following Indian
df
(c) Uttar Pradesh Nirmal Painting, Kolattam states has the famous tourist destination
(d) Himachal Pradesh Bhamakalapam, Veeranatyam, called Pamban Island?
_p
Burrakatha, Dhimsa. SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Afternoon)
Sol.1535.(d) Himachal Pradesh. Other (a) Kerala (b) Andhra Pradesh
na
Pahari dialects spoken here - Chambiali, Q.1541. Which of the following is a site (c) Odisha (d) Tamil Nadu
Churahi, Mandeli, Himachali and Kuluhi. of archaeological importance in Jammu
ap
and Kashmir? Sol.1546.(d) Tamil Nadu. Pamban
Q.1536. Which of the following is the SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Morning) Island or Rameswaram Island is an
:@
State Tree of Maharashtra ? (a) Maski (b) Burzahom island located between peninsular India
SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Morning) (c) Brahmagiri (d) Watkal and Sri Lanka, on the Adam's Bridge
(a) Mango (b) Jammi archipelago.
TG
(c) Banyan (d) Ashok Sol.1541.(b) Burzahom. Maski is a town
and an archaeological site in the Raichur Q.1547. In which state is India’s least
Sol.1536.(a) Mango. Scientific name - district of the state of Karnataka. densely populated district Dibang Valley
Mangifera indica. Amba (Marathi), located as per Census 2011 ?
on
Brahmagiri is a mountain range in the
Family: Anacardiaceae. Western Ghats of south India. SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Afternoon)
(a) Himachal Pradesh
ch
Q.1537. Which of the following is the Q.1542. Chutka Atomic Power Plant is (b) Nagaland
state bird of Rajasthan? situated in which of the following states? (c) Telangana
ar
SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Morning) SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Evening) (d) Arunachal Pradesh
(a) Indian Roller (a) Haryana (b) Gujarat
Se
(b) Crane Crane (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan Sol.1547.(d) Arunachal Pradesh. Dibang
(c) Asian Cuckoo is named after the Dibang River or the
(d) Son Chiraiya (Great Indian Bustard) Sol.1542.(c) Madhya Pradesh (in Mandla Talon as the Mishmis. It has an area of
district). Presently, India has 22 nuclear 9,129 square kilometers (3,525 sq mi).
Sol.1537.(d) Son Chiraiya (Great Indian power reactors. Kudankulam Nuclear
Bustard). State Animal: Chinkara and Power Plant is the largest nuclear power Q.1548. Where is the Kudremukh iron ore
Camel. State Dance- Ghoomer, State tree- station in India, situated in Kudankulam mine located?
Khejri (Prosopis Cineraria), State Flower- Tamil Nadu. Tarapur Atomic Power SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Evening)
Rohida (Tecomella Undulata). Station (1969) is located in Tarapur, (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Bihar
Maharashtra is the first atomic power (c) Odisha (d) Karnataka
Q.1538. Which state among the following
is the largest producer of coffee? plant in India. Sol.1548.(d) Karnataka (Panambur,
SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Evening) Q.1543. 'Panche' is a traditional sarong Mangalore). Other Iron Ore mine states -
(a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu worn by the men in the state of ______. Orissa, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand.
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Kerala SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Morning) Q.1549. In which of the following
Sol.1538.(a) Karnataka. Kodagu (a) Kerala (b) Karnataka states/union territories is India’s highest
Chikmagalur and Hassan districts are (c) Assam (d) Sikkim Meteorological Centre situated?
major coffee producer regions of the Sol.1543.(b) Karnataka. Panche (Dhoti) - SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Morning)
state. This unstitched cloth is wrapped around (a) Assam (b) Meghalaya
the legs and knotted around the waist. (c) Ladakh (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Q.1539. ‘Balchao’ and ‘Sorpotel' are the
traditional culinary dishes of: Q.1544. In which present-day state will Sol.1549.(c) Ladakh. Districts in the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Union Territory of Ladakh - Two (Kargil Q.1555. Which present day Indian state SSC CHSL 12/08/2021 (Evening)
district and Leh district). came into existence as the Mysore state (a) Uttarakhand (b) Jammu & Kashmir
in 1953? (c) Lakshadweep (d) Assam
Q.1550. In which of the following states SSC CHSL 10/08/2021 (Morning)
is the famous Chitradurga Fort located? (a) Kerala (b) Karnataka Sol.1560.(b) Jammu and Kashmir. Dogri
SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Evening) (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh is spoken by approximately 2.3 million
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka people. It is an officially recognized
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Rajasthan Sol.1555.(b) Karnataka (renamed in language in India.
1973). Karnataka is the largest state in
Sol.1550.(b) Karnataka (In Chitradurga South India and the sixth-largest (area Q.1561. ‘Aloo Posto’ is a traditional
District). The fort was built in stages wise) in India. Mysore was formed on 1 delicacy of which state of India?
between the 11th and 13th centuries by November 1956. SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Morning)
the dynastic rulers of the region, (a) Haryana (b) Uttarakhand
including the Chalukyas and Hoysalas, Q.1556. 'Rahide' is a long scarf worn by (c) Gujarat (d) West Bengal
later the Nayakas of Chitradurga of the the women of ______ to protect their head
Vijayanagar Empire. from the cool breeze as well as to show Sol.1561.(d) West Bengal. A traditional
their traditional social affinity. Bengali lunch - bhaat (rice), aloo bhaja
Q.1551. In which of the following states SSC CHSL 10/08/2021 (Morning) (fried potato), begun bhaja (fried
is Sri Bhramaramba Mallikarjuna Temple (a) Madhya Pradesh eggplant), dal (lentils), chingri macher
located? (b) Himachal Pradesh malaikari (prawn in coconut gravy),
SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Evening) (c) Uttar Pradesh mutton, chatni, papad, and mishti
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Odisha (d) Arunachal Pradesh (sweets).
(c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu
df
Sol.1556.(b) Himachal Pradesh. Woven Q.1562. ‘Ramoji Film City’ is located
Sol.1551.(a) Andhra Pradesh. in all shapes and sizes, Rahide comes in close to which of the following cities?
_p
Sri Bhramaramba Mallikarjuna Temple is different fabrics and patterns. SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
located in Srisailam, district Kurnool, in (a) Pune (b) Hyderabad
na
Andhra Pradesh. Sri Bhramaramba Q.1557. Which modern-day Indian state (c) Mumbai (d) Gurugram
Mallikarjuna Temple, Srisailam Temple is was created on 1 April 1937 as the
ap
a historic temple dedicated to Shiva and United Provinces by the Britishers? Sol.1562.(b) Hyderabad. It is the largest
Parvati. SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Morning) integrated film city in the world and it has
:@
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Arunachal Pradesh been certified by the Guinness World
Q.1552. The Sufi shrine Charar-e-Sharief (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh Records as the largest studio complex in
(or Sharif) is located near ______ city. the world.
TG
SSC CHSL 05/08/2021 (Afternoon) Sol.1557.(c) Uttar Pradesh came into
(a) Srinagar (b) Mumbai existence on 1 April 1937 as a result of Q.1563. Vailankanni (Velankanni) is a
(c) Hyderabad (d) Lucknow the shortening of "United Provinces of pilgrim centre located in the ______
district of Tamil Nadu.
on
Agra and Oudh". Arunachal Pradesh - 20
Sol.1552.(a) Srinagar. Charar-e-Sharief, February 1987 - 55th constitutional SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Morning)
famous for the shrine of Sufi saint - amendment act, 1986. Sikkim - 16 May, (a) Theni (b) Salem
ch
Sheikh Noor-ud-Din Noorani. 1975 - 36th constitutional amendment (c) Nagapattinam (d) Madurai
act, 1975.
ar
Q.1553. Which of the following is the Sol.1563.(c) Nagapattinam. This city is
state flower of Manipur? Q.1558. In which year did the state of famous for the church of Mother Mary
Se
SSC CHSL 10/08/2021 (Morning) Himachal Pradesh come into existence? and handlooms and silk. Vailankanni
(a) Foxtail Orchids (b) Shirui Lily SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Evening) (Velankanni) is also known as the
(c) Pink Rhododendron (d) Retusa (a) 1971 (b) 1947 (c) 1956 (d) 1965 Lourdes of the East.
Sol.1553.(b) Shirui Lily (Lilium Sol.1558.(a) 25th January 1971. The Q.1564. The longest continuous wall in
mackliniae). Foxtail Orchids State of Himachal Pradesh Act was India, the second longest in the world, is
(Rhynchostylis retusa) or Kopou Flower passed by Parliament on 18th December at ______ Fort.
is a flower of Assam. Pink Rhododendron 1970. Thus it emerged as the eighteenth SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Evening)
is a flower of Himachal. state of the Indian Union. (a) Kumbhalgarh (b) Chittorgarh
(c) Mehrangarh (d) Kangra
Q.1554. Which of the following states Q.1559. 'Sandalwood' is the state tree of
emerged as a separate state in 1963 ? ______. Sol.1564.(a) Kumbhalgarh (Rajasthan).
SSC CHSL 10/08/2021 (Morning) SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Evening) The Great Wall of China is the longest
(a) Nagaland (b) Mizoram (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Karnataka wall in the world.
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Tripura (c) Punjab (d) Rajasthan Q.1565. Salsette Island is situated in
Sol.1554.(a) Nagaland became the 16th Sol.1559.(b) Karnataka. Mysore city which state of India ?
state of India on 1 December 1963. Other (Karnataka) is also known as SSC CHSL 19/03/2020 (Afternoon)
states were conferred statehood on ‘Sandalwood city of India’ . (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh
Mizoram (20 February 1987), Arunachal (c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala
Pradesh (20 February 1987), Tripura (21 Q.1560. Dogri language is mainly spoken
January 1972). in which of the following states/union Sol.1565.(c) Maharashtra (on India’s
territories? west coast). The highest point is the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
conical peak of Kanheri in Borivali SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) Q.1574. National Sports University is
National Park on the northern reaches of (a) Mumbai (b) Kolkata situated in ________.
Salsette island. (c) New Delhi (d) Chennai SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) Mizoram (b) Tripura
Q.1566. Which state in India was the first Sol.1570.(a) Mumbai. BCCI is the
(c) Meghalaya (d) Manipur
to introduce the 'Mid-day Meal Scheme' principal national governing body of the
for school children? sport of cricket in India established in Sol.1574.(d) Manipur. National Sports
SSC CHSL 20/10/2020 (Morning) 1928. RE Grant Govan was the first University: Established in 2018. Other
(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat president and De Mello was the first Sports Universities : Netaji Subhas
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala Secretary of the BCCI. International National Institute of Sports (Patiala),
Cricket Council (ICC) - Headquarters Lakshmibai National College of Physical
Sol.1566.(c) Tamil Nadu . The basic (Dubai, United Arab Emirates). Education (Kerala), and Tamil Nadu
objective of this scheme is to enhance Physical Education and Sports University
enrolment in schools. Nodal Ministry: Q.1571. In which of the following states
is Govindji Nartanalaya located? (Chennai).
Ministry of Education.
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.1575. In which year was the National
Q.1567. Which of the following is NOT a (a) Manipur (b) Assam Institute of Kathak Dance established?
twin city of India? (c) Nagaland (d) Tripura SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
SSC CGL 04/03/2020 (Afternoon) (a) 1964 (b) 1961 (c) 1954 (d) 1969
Sol.1571.(a) Manipur.
(a) Ahmedabad and Gandhinagar
Govindji Nartanalaya is a well-known
(b) Hubli and Dharwad Sol.1575.(a) 1964. National Institute of
cultural institution dedicated to
(c) Thrissur and Thiruvalla Kathak Dance is also known as Kathak
promoting Manipuri classical dance and
(d) Cuttack and Bhubaneswar Kendra. It is a unit of the Sangeet Natak
other traditional art forms. This institute
df
Akademy. Other renowned Dance
Sol.1567.(c) Thrissur and Thiruvalla. was founded by Manipuri dancer and
Institutes : Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur
_p
Famous twin cities of India: Hyderabad choreographer Guru Bipin Singh. Some
Dance Academy (Manipur), Nalanda
and Secunderabad, Vijayawada and notable dance institutions established by
Nritya Kala Mahavidyalaya (Mumbai),
na
Amaravati, Kochi and Ernakulam, Kolkata famous dancers : Kalakshetra
Ballet Repertoire Academy of India
and Howrah, Jalpaiguri and Siliguri. Foundation (Tamil Nadu) - Rukmini Devi
(Mumbai), Sri Thyagaraja College of
ap
Arundale; Shri Ram Bharatiya Kala
Q.1568. Which city of India is known as Music and Dance (Hyderabad), and
Kendra (New Delhi) - Sumitra Charat
Nrityanjali Institute of Performing Arts
:@
'Athens of the East' ? Ram; Nrityabharti Kathak Dance
SSC CGL 04/03/2020 (Afternoon) (Mumbai).
Academy (Maharashtra) - Rohini Bhate.
(a) Allahabad (b) Patna Q.1576. When was the Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.1572. In which of the following states
TG
(c) Madurai (d) Kochi Manipur Dance Academy established?
is the Nrityagram, an Odissi dance
Sol.1568.(c) Madurai (Tamil Nadu). It is institution, located? SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
located on the banks of River Vaigai. SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) 1951 (b) 1953 (c) 1954 (d) 1952
on
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka Sol.1576.(c) 1954. Other renowned
Organisation (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra Dance Institutes: National Institute of
ch
Sol.1572.(b) Karnataka. The Nrityagram : Kathak Dance (1964) - New Delhi.
Q.1569. Which of the following Established - 1990; Founder - Protima Nalanda Nritya Kala Mahavidyalaya
ar
organisations in India provides facilities Gauri. Other dance Academy: Bhartendu (1973) - Mumbai. National Ballet
Se
for acquisition of satellite data and its Natya Academy (Lucknow), National Academy of India (2002). Sri Thyagaraja
processing? Dance Academy (Delhi). Government College of Music & Dance
SSC MTS 13/11/2024 (3rd Shift) (1952) - Hyderabad. Nrityanjali (1963) -
(a) National Remote Sensing Centre Q.1573. In which of the following cities Mumbai.
(NRSC) of Manipur is the Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Forest Research Institute (FRI) Manipur Dance Academy located ? Q.1577. Who established Shantiniketan
(c) Indian Institute of Remote Sensing SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) and when?
(IIRS) (a) Imphal (b) Ukhrul SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(d) Wildlife Institute of India (WII) (c) Chandel (d) Thoubal (a) Mahatma Gandhi, 1910
(b) Ravindranath Tagore, 1901
Sol.1569.(a) National Remote Sensing Sol.1573.(a) Imphal. Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Ravindranath Tagore, 1905
Centre (NRSC) is a premier organization Manipur Dance Academy, a unit of the (d) Devendranath Tagore, 1915
located in Hyderabad, under the Indian Sangeet Natak Academy in New Delhi, is
Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It is dedicated to teaching Manipuri dance Sol.1577.(b) Ravindranath Tagore, 1901.
responsible for remote sensing satellite and music. Established in 1954. Other Shantiniketan Initially founded as an
data acquisition and processing, data renowned Dance Institutes : National ashram by Debendranath Tagore in 1863
dissemination, aerial remote sensing and Institute of Kathak Dance (New Delhi), and later expanded by Rabindranath
decision support for disaster Nalanda Nritya Kala Mahavidyalaya Tagore into a center for learning and
management. (Mumbai), Ballet Repertoire Academy of culture, it evolved into Visva-Bharati
India (Mumbai), Sri Thyagaraja College of University in 1921. In 2023, Shantiniketan
Q.1570. The head office of Board of Music and Dance (Hyderabad), and was recognized as India's 41st UNESCO
Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is Nrityanjali Institute of Performing Arts World Heritage Site. Other Institutes and
located in ________. (Mumbai). Founders : Rishi Valley (1926, Andhra
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Pradesh) - J. Krishnamurti; Auroville annual music conferences, leading to the Sol.1584.(d) Harsh Vardhan Shringla.
(1968, Tamil Nadu) - Sri Aurobindo; December Music Festival of Madras, one The G20, or Group of 20, is an
Sabarmati Ashram (1915, Gujarat) - of the world's largest cultural events. intergovernmental forum consisting of
Mahatma Gandhi. Sangita Kala Acharya : This award was 19 sovereign countries, the European
instituted in 1993 and is given to those Union (EU), and the African Union (AU). It
Q.1578. Which of the following institutes who have contributed by bringing several addresses major global economic
was founded by Mrinalini Sarabhai who disciples to the concert platform. issues, including international financial
was a Bharatanatyam and Kathakali stability, climate change, and sustainable
dancer? Q.1581. Sports Authority of India comes development. India hosted the 18th G20
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift) under which ministry? summit in New Delhi on 9 September
(a) Sri Thyagaraja College of Music and SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) 2023, with the theme "One Earth, One
Dance (a) Ministry of Education Family, One Future," inspired by ancient
(b) Nrityanjali Institute of Performing (b) Ministry of Social Justice Sanskrit texts. Brazil will host the G20 in
Arts (c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare 2024, followed by South Africa in 2025.
(c) Darpana Academy of Performing Arts (d) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
(d) Nalanda Nritya Kala Mahavidyalaya Q.1585. The ICAR – Sugarcane Breeding
Sol.1581.(d) Ministry of Youth Affairs Institute is located at:
Sol.1578.(c) Darpana Academy of and Sports. Sports Authority of India : SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Performing Arts. It is a school for Formed in - 1984. Headquarters - (a) Vellore (b) Coimbatore
performing arts in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, Lodhi Road, (c) Tirunelveli (d) Cuddalore
established by Mrinalini Sarabhai and Delhi. Ministry of Education - Department
Vikram Sarabhai in 1949. Mrinalini of School Education & Literacy, Sol.1585.(b) Coimbatore. The Sugarcane
Sarabhai’s Awards : Padma Bhushan Department of Higher Education. Breeding Institute (SBI): Established in
df
(1992) and Padma Shri (1965). Ministry of Health and Family welfare - 1912. The Indian Council of Agricultural
_p
Department of Health & Family welfare, Research (ICAR) , an autonomous body,
Q.1579. Which of the following is India’s and Department of Health Research. coordinates agricultural education and
national academy of dance ?
na
research in India and reports to the
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.1582. Where was the first official Department of Agricultural Research and
(a) Lalit Kala Akademi summit of the Non-Aligned movement
ap
Education, Ministry of Agriculture,
(b) Centre for Cultural Resources and held? established on July 16, 1929, in New
Training SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
:@
Delhi.
(c) Centre for Indian Classical Dances (a) India (b) Yugoslavia
(d) Sangeet Natak Akademi (c) New York (d) Egypt Q.1586. Which of the following
organisations is associated with the
TG
Sol.1579.(d) Sangeet Natak Akademi Sol.1582.(b) Yugoslavia. The development of the web version: e -
was set up in 1953. It has three Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was GOPALA application?
constituent units, two of these being founded in 1961 with the view to SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
on
dance-teaching institutions: the advancing the interests of developing (a) National Dairy Development Board
Jawaharlal Nehru Manipur Dance countries in the context of Cold War (NDDB)
ch
Academy (JNMDA) at Imphal, and confrontation. The first summit was (b) Indian Council of Agricultural
Kathak Kendra in Delhi. Lalit Kala attended by 25 countries. Research
ar
Akademi is India's national academy of (c) National Dairy Research Institute
fine arts established in 1954. Centre for Q.1583. Gandharva Mahavidyalaya,
(NDRI)
Se
Cultural Resources and Training, which was founded by Pandit Vinaya
Chandra Maudgalya, is located at _____. (d) National Institute of Agricultural
established in 1979, works in the field of Extension Management
linking education with culture. SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) New Delhi (b) Pune Sol.1586.(a) National Dairy Development
Q.1580. Sangeet Kala Acharya Award is (c) Kolkata (d) Mumbai Board (NDDB). It is a statutory body
given by which organisation every year established by an Act of the Parliament
since 1993? Sol.1583.(a) New Delhi. Gandharva
of India and recognized as an Institution
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Mahavidyalaya was established in 1939.
of National Importance. Founded on July
(a) Madras Music Academy It is one of the oldest and most
16, 1965, and located in Anand, Gujarat, it
(b) Calcutta School of Music distinguished cultural institutions of
operates under the Ministry of Fisheries,
(c) Shankar Mahadevan Academy Delhi. Its role in imparting training to
Animal Husbandry, and Dairying,
(d) Subramaniam Academy of entire generations of music lovers and
Government of India.
Performing Arts bringing Indian classical music and
dance into the cultural mainstream is Q.1587. National Institute of
Sol.1580.(a) Madras Music Academy : It well acknowledged. Mountaineering and Adventure Sports
was established as an offshoot of the All (NIMAS) is located at_______
India Congress Session in December Q.1584. Who was the chief coordinator
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
1927 and inaugurated on August 18, for the G20 summit hosted by India?
(a) Nagaland (b) Arunachal Pradesh
1928, by Sir CP Ramaswami Aiyar at the SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(c) Mizoram (d) Himachal Pradesh
YMCA Auditorium, Esplanade. Its (a) S Jaishankar
mission was to set the standard for (b) Vijay Gokhale Sol.1587.(b) Arunachal Pradesh. NIMAS
Carnatic music. In 1929, it initiated (c) Vinay Kwatra was established in 2013 and is located in
(d) Harsh Vardhan Shringla the picturesque Dirang Valley within the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
West Kameng district of Arunachal SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) operates through a network of 50
Pradesh. Other Mountaineering Institutes (a) 1922 (b) 1926 (c) 1901 (d) 1919 Regional Directorates located at various
in India: Himalayan Mountaineering parts of the country.
Institute, Darjeeling (West Bengal). Sol.1591.(b) 1926. Bhatkhande Music
National Institute of Mountaineering and Institute University, formerly known as Q.1595. Where is the Atal Bihari
Adventure Sports, Dirang (Arunachal “Marris College of Hindustani Music” Vajpayee Institute of Mountaineering and
Pradesh). Indian Institute of Skiing and was established by Pt. Vishnu Narayan Allied Sports situated?
Mountaineering (IISM) Gulmarg Bhatkhande. The purpose of its SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
(Kashmir). Atal Bihari Vajpayee Institute establishment was to liberate music (a) Pahalgam, Jammu and Kashmir
of Mountaineering and Allied Sports, from the monopoly of Gharanedar (b) Darjeeling, West Bengal
Manali (Himachal Pradesh). Musicians and make music education (c) Manali, Himachal Pradesh
accessible to all. Location - Lucknow (d) Uttarkashi, Uttarakhand
Q.1588. Nehru Institute of (Uttar Pradesh).
Mountaineering is located at ________. Sol.1595.(c) Manali, Himachal Pradesh.
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift) Q.1592. The headquarters of the Indian Atal Bihari Vajpayee Institute of
(a) Jammu and Kashmir Institute of Tourism and Travel Mountaineering and Allied Sports
(b) Himachal Pradesh Management are located at: (ABVIMAS) is an Indian institute, which
(c) Uttarakhand SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) provides specialized training in skiing,
(d) Leh (a) Guwahati (b) Bhuvneshwar mountain rescue and mountaineering,
(c) Gwalior (d) New Delhi founded in 1961.
Sol.1588.(c) Uttarakhand. The Nehru
Institute of Mountaineering (NIM) was Sol.1592.(c) Gwalior. The Indian Institute Q.1596. To mark the celebration of
founded in 1965. The Himalayan of Tourism and Travel Management, an Gandhi Jayanti, the _________ celebrates
df
Mountaineering Institute, located in autonomous body, operates under the it as International Day of Non-Violence.
Ministry of Tourism, Government of SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
_p
Darjeeling, West Bengal. It was founded
on November 4, 1954, by Pandit India. Other institutes include: Rajeev (a) United Nations
Gandhi National Youth Development (b) BRICS Nations
na
Jawaharlal Nehru to commemorate the
first successful ascent of Mount Everest (Sriperumbudur, Tamil Nadu), Swami (c) South Asian Association for Regional
Vivekanand National Institute of Cooperation
ap
by Tenzing Norgay Sherpa and Sir
Edmund Hillary. Rehabilitation Training and Research (d) Group of 20
(Cuttack), Marine Engineering and
:@
Q.1589. Lakshmibai National Institute of Research (Kolkata), and Aryabhatta Sol.1596.(a) United Nations passed a
Physical Education (LNIPE) is located at Research Institute (Nainital). resolution in 2007 to observe Gandhi
______. Jayanti (October 2) as the International
TG
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) Q.1593. Lakshmibai National College of Day of Non-Violence every year. BRICS
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Haryana Physical Education is located at ______. Nations: Brazil, Russia, India, China and
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Punjab SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) South Africa. Established - 2009. The
on
(a) Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala South Asian Association of Regional
Sol.1589.(c) Madhya Pradesh. LNIPE (b) Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh Cooperation (SAARC): Headquarters -
ch
(located in Gwalior) is a higher education (c) Shahdara, Delhi Kathmandu (Nepal). Established - 8
institute deemed-to-be-university, under (d) Patiala, Punjab December, 1985. G-20: Established -
ar
the aegis of the Ministry of Youth Affairs 1999.
and Sports. It is committed to excelling Sol.1593.(a) Thiruvananthapuram,
Se
in physical education, coaching and Kerala. LakshmiBai National College of Q.1597. Indian Industrialists reacted
sports in the country. Former names - Physical Education (LNCPE): It was against colonial policies that restricted
Lakshmibai College of Physical founded in 1985 under the auspices of business activities and formed an
Education. Established - 1957. Campus - the Department of Youth Affairs and organization in 1927. What was it called?
Shaktinagar. Sports, Ministry of Human Resource SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Development, Government of India. (a) Indian Industrial and Commercial
Q.1590. Where is the ITC Sangeet Congress (IICC)
Research Academy located? Q.1594. In which year was Dattopant (b) Organization of Industries of India
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift) Thengadi National Board for Workers (OII)
(a) Kolkata (b) Delhi Education and Development established (c) Federation of the Indian Chamber of
(c) Bengaluru (d) Indore SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Commerce and Industries (FICCI)
(a) 1978 (b) 1968 (c) 1948 (d) 1958 (d) Confederation of Indian Industries
Sol.1590.(a) Kolkata. ITC Sangeet (CII)
Research Academy (ITCSRA) is a Sol.1594.(d) 1958. The Dattopant
Hindustani classical music academy run Thengadi National Board for Workers Sol.1597.(c) FICCI: It is the largest and
by the corporate house, ITC Limited. Education and Development (DTNBWED) oldest apex business organisation in
Formation - 1978. Objective - The is an autonomous body under the India. Founded: 1927, Headquarters: New
creation of an effective training system, Ministry of Labour & Employment, Delhi. IICC: Founded - 1920,
to rationalise traditional data with the Government of India. Its objective is to Headquarters - New Delhi. CII: Founded -
help of modern research methods. promote education and development 1895, Headquarters - New Delhi.
programs for workers in both organized
Q.1591. In which year was the Marris and unorganized sectors. The Board has Q.1598. Which of the following
College of Music established in India ? its Headquarters at New Delhi. It ministries of the Government of India has
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
under it the Council of Scientific & SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift) 1982. Role - Development of agriculture,
Industrial Research (CSIR)? (a) 1948 (b) 1958 (c) 1975 (d) 1981 small-scale industries and other allied
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift) economic activities in rural areas. Other
(a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry Sol.1601.(b) 1958. Defence Research Institutions, Establishment Year and
(b) Ministry of Earth Sciences and Development Organisation (DRDO) : Headquarters : Indian Council of
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology The Research and Development wing of Agricultural Research (ICAR), 1929 - New
(d) Ministry of Education the military's research and development, Delhi. The National Institute for Rural
headquartered in Delhi. Achievements of Development (NIRD), 1977 - Hyderabad.
Sol.1598.(c) Ministry of Science and DRDO : Agni and Prithvi series of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) April 1, 1935
Technology. Council of Scientific & missiles, Light combat aircraft (Tejas), - Mumbai.
Industrial Research (CSIR): The largest Multi-barrel rocket launcher (Pinaka)
research and development (R&D) Mk-I, Pilotless Target Aircraft ‘Lakshya-I. Q.1605. One of the important institutes
organization in India. Established - 1942, associated with the green revolution is
Headquarters - New Delhi. Founder(s) - Q.1602. Indian Academy of Sciences, the Indian Agriculture Research Institute.
Arcot Ramasamy Mudaliar, Shanti founded in 1934 by CV Raman, is Where is it located?
Swaroop Bhatnagar. President: Prime situated in__________ SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Minister of India. Motto - “CSIR-The SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift) (a) Mumbai (b) Ludhiana
Innovation Engine of India”. Parent (a) Mumbai (b) Hyderabad (c) New Delhi (d) Patna
institution - Ministry of Science and (c) Bangalore (d) New Delhi
Technology, Government of India. Sol.1605.(c) New Delhi. The Green
Sol.1602.(c) Bangalore. The Indian revolution started in the 1960s, using
Q.1599. Which of the following countries Academy of Sciences - Registered as a high yielding variety (HYV) seeds,
is NOT a member of SAARC (South Asian society in 1934 with the aim of mechanised farm tools, irrigation
df
Association for Regional Cooperation)? promoting the progress and upholding facilities, pesticides, and fertilisers.
the cause of science, in both pure and
_p
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift) Agricultural Institute - National Academy
(a) Pakistan (b) Myanmar applied branches. C.V. Raman, won the of Agricultural Research Management
Nobel Prize in Physics (1930) for his
na
(c) Afghanistan (d) Bhutan (NAARM) - Hyderabad. Established -
work on the scattering of light. India 1976. Central Potato Research Institute
Sol.1599.(b) Myanmar. SAARC (South celebrates National Science Day on 28
ap
(CPRI) - Shimla. Indian Institute of
Asian Association for Regional February of every year to commemorate Horticultural Research - Bangalore,
Cooperation) is the regional the discovery of the “Raman effect”.
:@
Established - 1967. Indian Agricultural
intergovernmental organization and Research Institute (IARI): Establishment -
geopolitical union of states in South Q.1603. The Indian National Science
Academy is situated in _____. 1 April 1905.
Asia. Member states : Afghanistan,
TG
Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift) Q.1606. Which of the following trade
Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. Founded : (a) New Delhi (b) Hyderabad agreements aims to 'strengthen intra
8 December 1985, Dhaka (Bangladesh). (c) Allahabad (d) Bangaluru -SAARC economic cooperation to
on
Objectives - To promote economic Sol.1603.(a) New Delhi. The Indian maximize the region's potential for trade
cooperation, social progress, and cultural National Science Academy (formerly and achieve development for their
ch
development among its member states. known as The National Institute of people'?
Sciences of India). Established - January SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Q.1600. Indian council of Historical
ar
1935 at Calcutta. Headquarters - Delhi. (a) APTA (b) SAFTA (c) NAFTA (d) LAIA
Research, an autonomous organization,
Se
was set up by the Government of India in Aim: Promotion of scientific knowledge. Sol.1606.(b) SAFTA (South Asian Free
_______. Institutions and Place - The Defence Trade Area) - Formed in 2004 at 12th
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift) Research and Development Organisation SAARC convention held in Islamabad,
(a) 1991 (b) 1982 (c) 1972 (d) 1962 (DRDO) - New Delhi; Indian Space Pakistan. Member countries -
Research Organisation (ISRO) - Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India,
Sol.1600.(c) 1972. Indian Council of Bengaluru; Indian Institute of Sciences
Historical Research (ICHR) - It is a Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka.
(IISC) - Bengaluru; Council of Scientific Headquarter - Kathmandu (Nepal).
captive body of the Ministry of Education, and Industrial Research (CSIR) - New
Government of India established by an NAFTA - North American Free Trade
Delhi; Bhabha Atomic Research Centre Agreement. APTA - Asia-Pacific Trade
administrative order. Aim - To promote (BARC) - Trombay, Mumbai.
and give directions to historical research Agreement. LAIA - Latin American
and to encourage and foster objective Q.1604. Which of the following Integration Association. SAARC - South
and scientific writing of history. institution has been accredited as Asian Association for Regional
Headquarters - New Delhi. Regional National Implementing Entity for Cooperation.
centers - Pune (Maharashtra), Bengaluru Adaptation Fund under United Nations Q.1607. Where is the National Dope
(Karnataka), and Guwahati (Assam). Framework Convention on Climate Testing Laboratory located?
Founded : 27 March 1972. First Change (UNFCCC) in India? SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift)
chairman - Ram Sharan Sharma. SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift) (a) Mumbai (b) Bangalore
(a) ICAR (b) NIRD (c) NABARD (d) RBI (c) Punjab (d) New Delhi
Q.1601. Defence Research Development
Organisation (DRDO), which is under the Sol.1604.(c) NABARD (National Bank for
Sol.1607.(d) New Delhi. National
Ministry of Defence Government of India, Agriculture and Rural Development): A
Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) was set up
was formed in the year _______. Statutory body. Established - July 12,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
as a registered society under the Ministry of Road Transport and (MHA) banned PFI for five years. All
Societies Registration Act of 1860 to Highways. However, since 2015, it has Tripura Tiger Force {founded on 11 July
regulate dope control programmes to been overseen and operated by the 1990, Headquarters (Bangladesh)}.
promote education and research and Ministry of Defence. The BRO Raising Jammu Kashmir Liberation Front
create awareness about doping and its ill Day is held every year on May 7. {founded in June 1976, Headquarters
effects. The World Anti-Doping Agency (Muzaffarabad, Pakistan occupied
(WADA, 1999) was set up under the Q.1611. Which is the governing body for Kashmir (Pakistan)}.
International Olympic Committee and Badminton in India ?
recognised by the UNESCO International SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Afternoon) Q.1615. The headquarters of the National
Convention against Doping in Sport (a) Indian Badminton Agency Institute of Oceanography of India is
(2005). (b) Indian Badminton Association located at:
(c) Badminton Association of India SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift)
Q.1608. Forest Research Institute, (d) Badminton Agency of India (a) New Delhi (b) Hyderabad
Dehradun was established as Imperial (c) Kanyakumari (d) Goa
Forest Research Institute. In which year Sol.1611.(c) Badminton Association of
was it established as "Imperial Forest India - An association registered under Sol.1615.(d) Goa. National Institute of
Research Institute"? the societies act. It was formed in 1934, Oceanography (NIO) of India -
Graduate Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 3) and has been holding national-level headquartered at Dona Paula, Goa.
(a) 1905 (b) 1908 (c) 1907 (d) 1906 tournaments in India since 1936. regional offices in Kochi, Mumbai, and
Headquarter - New Delhi. Badminton Vizag. It is one of the 38 constituent
Sol.1608.(d) 1906. Forest Research Tournaments: Thomas Cup, Uber Cup, laboratories of the Council of Scientific &
Institute (FRI), DehraDun began as Forest Sudirman cup, Premier Badminton Industrial Research (CSIR), New Delhi.
School in 1878. Wildlife Institute of India League, Yonex All England Open. NIO was founded on 1 January 1966.
df
(1982) headquarter - Dehradun. Central
Q.1612. Which institution launched a list Q.1616. The Indian Institute of remote
_p
Tobacco Research Institute (1947) -
Rajahmundry, All Indian Institute of of 50 iconic Indian heritage textiles? sensing was established at:
SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (4th Shift) SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
na
Medical Science (1956) - New Delhi,
Central Rice Research Institute (1946) - (a) Ministry of textile (b) NITI Aayog (a) Khadakwasla (b) Shimla
(c) Ministry of Culture (d) UNESCO (c) Dehradun (d) Kochi
ap
Cuttack, Central Leather Research
Institute (1948) - Chennai, Central Potato
Sol.1612.(d) UNESCO (United Nations Sol.1616.(c) Dehradun. Aryabhatta
Research Institute (1949) - Shimla,
:@
Educational, Scientific and Cultural Research Institute of Observational
National Sugar Institute (1936) - Kanpur.
Organization). Established - 16 Sciences (ARIES) in Nainital,
Q.1609. Where is the headquarters of the November 1945. Headquarters - Paris. Uttarakhand. National Remote Sensing
TG
Spices Board of India located? Some important Indian Heritage Textiles: Centre (NRSC) in Hyderabad. Space
SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Evening) Toda embroidery and Sungadi (Tamil Applications Centre (SAC) in
(a) Bengaluru (Karnataka) Nadu), Himroo weaves (Hyderabad), Ahmedabad, Gujarat. Satish Dhawan
on
(b) Kochi (Kerala) Bandha tie and dye weaving (Sambalpur, Space Centre SHAR (SHAR or SriHarikota
(c) Pune (Maharashtra) Odisha), Kunbi weaves (Goa). Range) in Nellore district, Andhra
ch
(d) Guntur (Andhra Pradesh) Pradesh.
Q.1613. "Advanced Light Helicopter
Sol.1609.(b) Kochi (Kerala). Spices (ALH) MK III" has been manufacturer by Q.1617. Who has become the first
ar
Board is a statutory body constituted which organization? woman director general of the Council of
Se
since 1987 under the Spices Board Act, SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (4th Shift) Scientific and Industrial Research?
1986 by merging the erstwhile (a) ISRO (b) HAL (c) DRDO (d) BHEL SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift)
Cardamom Board and Spices Export (a) Sanjay Verma
Sol.1613.(b) HAL. The ALH Mk-III (b) Vinod Aggarwal
Promotion Council under the
helicopters, indigenously manufactured (c) Nallathamby Kalaiselvi
administrative control of the Department
by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). (d) Prakash Chand
of Commerce. Kerala is known as the
HAL: Established - 23 Dec 1940.
spice garden of India.
Headquarters - Bengaluru. Sol.1617.(c) Nallathamby Kalaiselvi.
Q.1610. Which organisation is Council of Scientific and Industrial
responsible for the development and Q.1614. Which political organization was Research (CSIR): Founded: 26 September
maintenance of the roads on the Indian banned in September 2022 by 1942, Headquarters: New Delhi.
borders? Government of India under the Unlawful
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning) Activities (Prevention) Act ? Q.1618. The abbreviation “CPCL” is
(a) Border Roads Organisation SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (1st Shift) associated with the petroleum industry in
(b) Western Roadways Organisation (a) Khalistan Zindabad Force India. Expand “CPCL”:
(c) National Green Highways Project (b) Popular Front of India (PFI) SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (1st Shift)
(d) Eastern Roadways Organisation (c) All Tripura Tiger Force (a) Central Petroleum Corporation Limited
(d) Jammu and Kashmir Islamic Front (b) Coimbatore Petroleum Corporation
Sol.1610.(a) Border Roads Organisation. Limited
It was founded in 1960 with the goal of Sol.1614.(b) Popular Front of India (PFI). (c) Chennai Petroleum Corporation Limited
developing critical highways in the This political party was Founded on 22 (d) Corporation of Petroleum and
northern and northeastern border November 2006, Headquarters (New Chemicals Limited
territories. The BRO was once part of the Delhi). The Ministry of Home Affairs
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.1618.(c) Chennai Petroleum (c) Manali (d) Uttarkashi innovative learning organization created
Corporation Limited (CPCL) is a to improve the quality of education in
subsidiary of Indian Oil Corporation Sol.1622.(b) Gulmarg, Jammu and India. HelpAge India is an Indian
which is under the ownership of the Kashmir. The best mountaineering organization focused on the concerns of
Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas of institutes in India. Nehru Institute of elders. Goonj is channelising the unused
the Government of India. Headquarters: Mountaineering, Uttarkashi, Uttarakhand. material lying idle in urban homes, to the
Chennai, Founded: 18 November 1965. Himalayan Mountaineering Institute, far-flung villages of India as an important
Darjeeling (West Bengal), Atal Bihari economic resource.
Q.1619. ____ is the centre for the Indian Vajpayee Institute of Mountaineering and
Institution of Soil Science. Allied Sports, Manali (Himachal Q.1626. In which year was the National
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift) Pradesh), Jawahar Institute of Archives of India established?
(a) Porbandar (b) Bhopal Mountaineering & Winter Sports, SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Afternoon)
(c) Visakhapatnam (d) Bhubaneswar Pahalgam (Jammu and Kashmir), (a) 1840 (b) 1830 (c) 1891 (d) 1835
National Institute of Mountaineering and
Sol.1619.(b) Bhopal. The Indian Institute Allied Sports, Dirang (Arunachal Sol.1626.(c) 1891. The National
of Soil Science (IISS) was established in Pradesh), Sonam Gyatso Mountaineering Archives of India is the custodian of the
1988 under the umbrella of the Indian Institute, Gangtok (Sikkim) etc. records of the enduring value of the
Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) Government of India. Established at
by the Ministry of Agriculture. Location: Q.1623. When was the Lalit Kala Calcutta (Kolkata) as the Imperial Record
Bhopal. Indian Institute of Rice Research Akademi established? Department. It is the biggest archival
- Hyderabad. Indian Institute of Wheat SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Evening) repository in South Asia.
and Barley Research - Karnal. (a) 1965 (b) 1956 (c) 1951 (d) 1954
Q.1627. What is the name of the Centre
df
Q.1620. GATT was established in 1948 Sol.1623.(d) 1954. Lalit Kala Akademi, for the Study of Culture and Civilization in
with ______ countries as the global trade National Academy of Art, New Delhi was Shimla?
_p
organization to administer all multilateral set up by the Government of India as an SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Evening)
trade agreements by providing equal autonomous body, on 5th August 1954 (a) International Centre
opportunities to all countries in the
international market for trading na
by the then Honourable Minister for
Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
(b) Abdul Kalam Centre
(c) Tagore Centre
ap
purposes. (d) Nehru Centre
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) Q.1624. Which organisation was created
:@
(a) 29 (b) 23 (c) 35 (d) 28 in 1988 by the World Meteorological Sol.1627.(c) Tagore Centre. It was
Organization (WMO) and the United established in 2013. Former President
Sol.1620.(b) 23. The General Agreement Nations Environment Program (UNEP) to Pranab Mukherjee inaugurated it at the
TG
on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) (1947) assess the science related to climate Indian Institute of Advanced Studies
covers international trade in goods. change? (IIAS, established - 1964) in Shimla
GATT became WTO (World Trade SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Evening) (Himachal Pradesh).
on
Organisation) on 1st January 1995 (a) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
following the 1994 Marrakesh Change (IPCC) Q.1628. In which year did India become a
signatory to the CITES (Convention on
ch
Agreement. WTO (Headquarters - (b) International Climate Action Network
Geneva, Switzerland). Membership - 164 (ICAN) International Trade in Endangered
Species on Wild Fauna and Flora)?
ar
Members. (c) Global Climate Growth Institute (GCGI)
(d) Australian Youth Climate Coalition SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Morning)
Se
Q.1621. ______ was established in 1948 (AYCC) (a) 1980 (b) 1983 (c) 1976 (d) 1975
with 23 countries as a global trade
organization to administer all multilateral Sol.1624.(a) Intergovernmental Panel on Sol.1628.(d) 1975. It is also known as
trade agreements. Climate Change (IPCC)- Headquarters: the Washington Convention which is a
SSC MTS 07/07/2022 (Afternoon) Geneva; Founder: Bert Bolin; Founded: multilateral treaty to protect endangered
(a) World Trade Organization 1988. ICAN- Formation: 1989; plants and animals. Location- Geneva,
(b) International Reciprocal Trade Headquarters: Bonn; Founder: Michael Switzerland.
Association Oppenheimer. Global Green Growth Q.1629. Where is the headquarters of the
(c) General Agreement on Tariffs and Institute- Formation: 2010; International Hockey Federation (FIH)
Trade Headquarters: Seoul. AYCC- Formation : located?
(d) World Chamber of Commerce 2006; Headquarters : Melbourne. SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Afternoon)
Sol.1621.(c) General Agreement of Q.1625. Which of the following is an (a) Australia (b) Nepal
Tariffs and Trade. Its purpose was to Indian ‘not for profit’ organization, (c) Switzerland (d) Bhutan
liberalize trade by reducing tariffs and working on sustainable solutions to make Sol.1629.(c) Switzerland.
reducing quotas among member sanitation and water accessible to all? The International Hockey Federation is
countries. It was replaced by the World SSC CGL 13/04/2022(Afternoon) the governing body for the sport of
Trade Organisation in 1995. (a) Pratham (b) Helpage India hockey. Founded: 1924 in Paris (France).
(c) Goonj (d) Sulabh International The Indian Hockey Federation (IHF):
Q.1622. Where is the Indian Institute of
Skiing and Mountaineering situated ? Sol.1625.(d) Sulabh International was Formed - 1925, Headquartered in New
SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Morning) founded by Bindeshwar Pathak (Padma Delhi.
(a) Dalhousie (b) Gulmarg Vibhushan 2024). Pratham is an
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.1630. In which of the following states (a) May 1946 (b) December 1945 Sol.1639.(b) Myanmar. Ethnic Groups:
is the headquarters of IDBI (Industrial (c) October 1945 (d) February 1946 Nepal (Chhetri, Bahun, Magar, Rana
Development Bank of India) located? Tharu, Tamang, Newar, Gurung).
SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Morning) Sol.1635.(c) October 1945. India joined Afghanistan (Pashtun, Hazaras,
(a) Haryana (b) Maharashtra the United Nations and was among the Turkemens, Uzbeks, Nuristanis).
(c) Karnataka (d) West Bengal 50 countries to sign it. SriLanka (Sinhalese, Sri Lankan Moors,
Q.1636. India signed Panchsheel Treaty Sri Lanka Kaffirs).
Sol.1630.(b) Maharashtra (Mumbai).
IDBI was constituted under the Industrial with which country ? Q.1640. Match India’s neighbouring
Development Bank of India Act, 1964. An SSC CHSL 17/03/2020 (Afternoon) countries in column A with their official
industrial bank is a state-chartered, (a) Nepal (b) Pakistan languages in columnB.
financial institution, owned by a (c) China (d) Bangladesh Column A Column B
commercial firm, that is not regulated by Sol.1636.(c) China. The Five Principles (Country names) (Official Languages)
a federal banking agency. of the Panchsheel Agreement (April 29, 1. Sri Lanka a. Mandarin
1954) - Mutual respect for each other’s 2. China b. Burmese
Q.1631. Where is the headquarters of the 3. Myanmar c. Tamil
Badminton World Federation located? territorial integrity and sovereignty,
Mutual non-aggression, Mutual non 4. Bhutan d. Dzongkha
SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Morning) SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Malaysia (b) Japan -interference in each other’s internal
affairs, Equality and mutual benefit, (a) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c (b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(c) Singapore (d) Switzerland (c) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (d) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
Peaceful co - existence.
Sol.1631.(a) Malaysia (Kuala Lumpur). Sol.1640.(d) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d. Official
International Badminton Federation: World G.K. languages of India's neighboring
df
Founded in 1934 with nine member countries: Afghanistan - Dari and Pashto,
nations (Canada, Denmark, England,
_p
Q.1637. Match the following Bangladesh - Bengali, Nepal - Nepali,
France, Ireland, Netherlands, New neighbouring countries with their official Pakistan - Urdu, Sri Lanka - Sinhala and
Zealand, Scotland and Wales).
na
languages correctly. Tamil, Maldives - Dhivehi.
Q.1632. Which of the following Country name Official Languages
Q.1641. Who is known as the 'Father of
ap
organizations releases the Global 1. Afghanistan a. Dzongkha
Bangladesh' from the following options ?
Innovation Index? 2. Bhutan b. Burmese
SSC Stenographer12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
:@
SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Morning) 3. Pakistan c. Dari
(a) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
(a) WEF 4. Myanmar d. Urdu
(b) Ataur Rahman Khan
(b) INSEAD, Cornell University, WIPO SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (c) Muhammad Habibur Rahman
TG
(c) UNDP (a) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d (b) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b (d) Sheikh Hasina
(d) WTO (c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b (d) 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
Sol.1641.(a) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
on
Sol.1632.(b) The Global Innovation Index Sol.1637.(b) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b. Country (First President of Bangladesh).
was started in 2007 by INSEAD and and Official language: Bangladesh Bangladesh: First Prime Minister -
World Business. (Bengali), Israel (Hebrew), Maldives Tajuddin Ahmad. First female prime
ch
(Dhivehi), Netherlands (Dutch), Portugal minister - Khaleda Zia. Personalities and
Q.1633. In which of the following
(Portuguese), Saudi Arabia (Arabic), Sri
ar
their nicknames - Grand Old man of India
countries is the headquarters of the
Lanka (Sinhala and Tamil). (Dadabhai Naoroji), Indian Einstein
International Table Tennis Federation
Se
(Nagarjuna), Man of Peace (Lal Bahadur
situated? Q.1638. Which country’s national game
Shastri), Morning Star of India
SSC CHSL 12/8/2021 (Afternoon) is Chinlone (Caneball)?
Renaissance (Raja Ram Mohan Roy),
(a) Japan (b) Thailand SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Machiavelli of India (Chanakya), Bengal
(c) England (d) Switzerland (a) Myanmar (b) China
Kesari (Ashutosh Mukherji).
(c) Afghanistan (d) Bhutan
Sol.1633.(d) Switzerland.
Q.1642. Soparrkar and the logo of his
The International Table Tennis Sol.1638.(a) Myanmar. The Chinlone
worldwide initiative 'Dance for a Cause'
Federation (ITTF) was founded in 1926 game is non-competitive, with typically
are being printed on an official postage
by William Henry Lawes. six people playing together as one team.
stamp issued by the __________
Other countries' National Game : China -
Q.1634. National Rifle Association of government.
Table tennis; Afghanistan - Buzkashi;
India was founded in: SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
Bhutan - Archery; Pakistan - Field Hockey;
SSC CHSL 12/08/2021 (Evening) (a) Nepal (b) Bangladesh
Bangladesh - Kabaddi; Nepal - Volleyball.
(a) 1956 (b) 1964 (c) 1951 (d) 1948 (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bhutan
India had not declared any sport or game
Sol.1634.(c) 1951. National Rifle as the national sport. Sol.1642.(d) Bhutan. In 2008 Sandip
Association of India (NRAI) a view to Soparrkar had launched his Initiative
Q.1639. In which country do Kachin, Dance for a Cause at the World
promote and popularize the shooting
Karen, Karenni, Chin and Mon ethnic Economic forum in Davos, Switzerland.
sports in India.
groups belong? The First Stamp of Independent India
Q.1635. India joined the United Nations SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) was issued on 21 November 1947. It
after ratifying the UN Charter in ______. (a) Nepal (b) Myanmar depicts the Indian Flag with the patriots'
SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Morning) (c) Afghanistan (d) Sri Lanka slogan, Jai Hind. The first postal stamp
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
in India was introduced on 1 July 1852 Switzerland. (a) 7000 (b) 3000 (c) 9000 (d) 5000
under the Governor General Lord
Dalhousie. Q.1648. One of the major hubs of Sol.1652.(a) 7000. The production of silk
information technology is Silicon valley. originated in Neolithic China {Yangshao
Q.1643. Which religion has the maximum which is situated in ___________ . culture (4th millennium BCE)}. Silk is a
number of followers in Bhutan? SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Morning) natural protein fiber (fibroin). Highest
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (a) Tokyo (b) London silk-producing country - China. Karnataka
(a) Hindu (b) Islam (c) New york (d) California (highest producer state of silk). The
(c) Buddhism (d) Christian best-known silk is obtained from the
Sol.1648.(d) California. Silicon Valley is cocoons of the larvae of the mulberry
Sol.1643.(c) Buddhism. Other religions the biggest hub of the IT industry in the silkworm Bombyx mori reared in captivity
in Bhutan: 2nd largest religion in Bhutan world (Presence of biggest technology (sericulture).
- Hinduism followed by Christianity. companies). Silicon valley of India -
Bengaluru. Q.1653. Which of the following
Q.1644. Which of the following ethnic neighbours of India has the highest
groups are the largest in Myanmar ? Q.1649. Which continent of the world is population density?
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift) referred to as a "Continent, Dedicated to SSC MTS 15/07/2022 (Morning)
(a) Karen (b) Bamar Science" ? (a) Bangladesh (b) Sri Lanka
(c) Rohingya (d) Shan SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Evening) (c) China (d) Pakistan
(a) Africa (b) Antarctica
Sol.1644.(b) Bamar. Myanmar ethnic (c) North America (d) Asia Sol.1653.(a) Bangladesh. According to
groups - Karen, Shan, Mon, Chin, Kachin, the United Nations Department of
Rohingya, Rakhine. Other largest Ethnic Sol.1649.(b) Antarctica (the Economics and Social Affairs (UN -
df
Groups : Punjabis - Pakistan, Pashtuns - southernmost continent) - It is the only DESA), India overtakes China as the
Afghanistan, Yamato - Japan, Inuit - continent with no permanent human world’s most populous country (As of
_p
Greenland, Khalkh - Mongolia, Bantu - habitation. There are 7 continents in the April 2023).
Central, East and Southern Africa, Han - world: Asia, Europe, Africa, North
na
China. America, South America, Antarctica and Q.1654. Before being renamed, Mount
Australia. India is located in the southern Everest was simply known as ______.
ap
Q.1645. Which is the national fruit of part of the Asian continent. SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Morning)
Bangladesh ? (a) Peak IX (b) Peak XV
:@
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift) Q.1650. What is the national sport of (c) Peak XII (d) Peak VI
(a) Pomegranate (b) Mango Bhutan?
(c) Apple (d) Jackfruit SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.1654.(b) Peak XV. Mount Everest is
TG
(a) Ice Hockey (b) Cricket a peak in the Himalayan mountain range.
Sol.1645.(d) Jackfruit. National fruits (c) Archery (d) Volleyball It is located between Nepal and Tibet.
and Countries: India (Mango), Nepal The mountain was named after George
(Raspberry), Saudi Arabia (Dates), Serbia Sol.1650.(c) Archery - It is a game of
on
Everest, a former Surveyor General of
(Plum), Singapore (Durian), Ukraine shooting arrows using a bow. Related India. The Tibetan name is
(cherry), Vietnam (Dragon fruit), Canada - facts regarding Bhutan :- Capital Chomolungma, which means “Mother
ch
(Blueberries), Afghanistan (Thimphu), National flower (Blue poppy), Goddess of the World.” The Nepali name
(Pomegranate), New Zealand (Kiwifruit), National Tree (Himalayan cypress), is Sagarmatha. In 1953 Edmund Hillary
ar
Pakistan (Mango - Summer and Guava - National animal (the takin), National and Tenzing Norgay were the first
Winter). Anthem (Druk Tsendhen). National
Se
persons to climb Mount Everest .
sports of other countries - Cricket
Q.1646. Which of the following cities of (Australia, England, Jamaica, Barbados), Q.1655. The town of Paro is a famous
Nepal does NOT have a branch of 'Indian Volleyball (Sri Lanka and Nepal) and Ice tourist destination of ______.
Citizens Association of Nepal'? Hockey (Canada). SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Morning)
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (2nd shift) (a) Sri Lanka (b) Bangladesh
(a) Pokhara (b) Lalitpur Q.1651. Which country is the leading
(c) Bhutan (d) India
(c) Bhairahawa (d) Damak producer of jute?
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Sol.1655.(c) Bhutan. Paro is a valley
Sol.1646.(b) Lalitpur. An Indian Citizens' (a) Brazil (b) China town in Bhutan, west of the capital,
Association (ICA) of Nepal was formed (c) India (d) Columbia Thimphu. This town is famous for its
on 14 September 1990. Druk Choeding temple which was built by
Sol.1651.(c) India is the largest producer
Q.1647. According to the World Ngawang Chogyel, the prince-abbots of
of jute (golden fiber) in the world
Meteorological Organization report Ralung in Tibet in 1525.
followed by Bangladesh, China, and
reviewed during 2010-2012, the highest Thailand. West Bengal followed by Bihar, Q.1656. In which of the following
registered shade temperature of ________ Assam, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Tripura, neighbouring countries of India is the
was recorded at Al Aziziyah, Libya. and Meghalaya are the largest producers famous Katas Raj Temples complex, with
SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 3rd shift) in India. shrines of multiple faiths, located ?
(a) 58°C (b) 68°C (c) 50°C (d) 72°C SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Afternoon)
Q.1652. Techniques of making silk were
Sol.1647.(a) 58°C. WMO (World first invented in China around _____ years (a) Pakistan (b) Sri Lanka
Meteorological Organization): Formation ago. (c) Afghanistan (d) Myanmar
- 23 March 1950, Headquarters - Geneva, SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.1656.(a) Pakistan. Katas Raj has a a multilateral development bank of the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
collection of buildings and ruins that established in 2014. How many countries
stretch in an unbroken line from the are members of NDB? Q.1668. New Delhi's Lotus Temple was
Buddhist era down to British rule. SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Morning) designed by an architect from ______.
(a) 25 (b) 12 (c) 9 (d) 5 SSC CHSL 12/10/2020 (Afternoon)
Q.1657. In which of the following years (a) Germany (b) Iran (c) UAE (d) Japan
was ADB (Asian Development Bank) Sol.1662.(d) 5. The five founding
established? members of the New Development Bank Sol.1668.(b) Iran. The Bahai Lotus
SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Morning) include Brazil, Russia, India, China, and temple (1986) in New Delhi was
(a) 1978 (b) 1980 (c) 1966 (d) 1959 South Africa. Headquarters: Shanghai, designed by Iranian architect Fariborz
China. Sahba in the shape of a lotus as it is
Sol.1657.(c) 1966. Asian Development common to several religions including
Bank (ADB) - Headquarters: Manila, Q.1663. In which year did Gongsa Ugyen Hinduism and Buddhism.
Philippines. Wangchuck become the first monarch of
Bhutan? Q.1669. Which of the following is the
Q.1658. A gold lion passenger holding a SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Morning) second largest artificial lake in Asia?
sword in its right forepaw, is the national (a) 1901 (b) 1910 (c) 1905 (d) 1907 SSC CHSL 21/10/2020 (Afternoon)
symbol of ______. (a) Chilika Lake in Odisha
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Evening) Sol.1663.(d) 1907. Ugyen Wangchuck (b) Chandubi Lake in Assam
(a) Sri Lanka (b) Bhutan was the first Druk Gyalpo (King of (c) Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh
(c) Myanmar (d) Pakistan Bhutan) from 1907 to 1926. (d) Dhebar Lake in Rajasthan
Sol.1658.(a) Sri Lanka. The Sinha Flag or Q.1664. Which one of the following is the Sol.1669.(d) Dhebar Lake in Rajasthan.
df
Lion Flag consists of a golden lion largest valley in Asia? Miyun Reservoir is the largest artificial
holding a kastane sword in its right SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Morning) lake in Asia.
_p
fore-paw in a maroon background with (a) Alai valley (b) Dang valley
four gold box leaves, one in each corner. (c) Chuy valley (d) Fergana valley Q.1670. The ______ in China is the world’s
na
longest man-made waterway.
Q.1659. The international agreement Sol.1664.(b) Dang valley. It lies between SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Afternoon)
ap
Montreal Protocol is related to: the Mahabharat Range in the north and (a) Corinth Canal (b) Kiel Canal
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Evening) the Churia Range in the south. (c) Suzhou Canal (d) Grand Canal
:@
(a) Wildlife
(b) Ramsar sites Q.1665. In the context of the Sri Lankan Sol.1670.(d) Grand Canal. The waterway
(c) the ozone layer Civil War, what does the first ‘T’ in LTTE is the link of the Yellow river and Yangtze
stand for? River.
TG
(d) World Heritage sites
SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Morning)
Sol.1659.(c) Ozone Layer. Montreal (a) Tamil (b) Tigers
Computer
Protocol is an international agreement (c) Tarantulas (d) Triumph
on
made in 1987. It was designed to stop
Sol.1665.(b) Tigers. LTTE stands for The Q.1671. Which of the following protocols
the production and import of ozone
is commonly used for data encapsulation
ch
-depleting substances and reduce their Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam. LTTE
was a military separatist group fighting in WANs ?
concentration in the atmosphere to help
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
ar
protect the earth's ozone layer. for an independent homeland for Hindu
Tamils in Northeastern Sri Lanka. (a) High-Level Data Link Control
Se
Q.1660. Which one of the following was (b) TCP/IP
the last imperial dynasty to rule China ? Q.1666. Which is the largest uranium (c) Ethernet
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Evening) producing country in the world? (d) Wi-Fi
(a) Ming dynasty (b) Qing dynasty SSC CHSL 18/03/2020 (Morning)
(a) Uzbekistana (b) Kazakhstan Sol.1671.(a) HDLC (High-Level Data Link
(c) Yuan dynasty (d) Sui dynasty
(c) USA (d) India Control) is a group of data link layer
Sol.1660.(b) Qing dynasty or the Qing communication protocols that transmit
Empire, officially the Great Qing. It was Sol.1666.(b) Kazakhstan. About two - data between network nodes.
established in 1636 and ruled China from thirds of the world's production of
uranium from mines is from Kazakhstan, Q.1672. What does QR in 'QR code' stand
1644 to 1912.
Canada and Australia. for?
Q.1661. In which year was Bank of SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
Bhutan Limited, the oldest bank of Q.1667. Tummalapalle, believed to have (a) Quick Response (b) Quick Resolution
Bhutan, established? one of the largest uranium reserves in (c) Quantum Read (d) Query Response
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Evening) the world, is situated in which of the
(a) 1956 (b) 1971 (c) 1947 (d) 1968 following states? Sol.1672.(a) Quick Response. A QR code
SSC CHSL 18/03/2020 (Morning) is a type of barcode that can be read
Sol.1661.(d) 1968. Bank of Bhutan (BoB) (a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu easily by a digital device and which
was established by a Royal Charter. (c) Telangana (d) Andhra Pradesh stores information as a series of pixels in
Bhutan is a landlocked country in South a square-shaped grid.
Asia and its capital is Thimphu. Sol.1667.(d) Andhra Pradesh. The
Tummalapalle Mine is a uranium mine in Q.1673. Which browser extension could
Q.1662. New Development Bank (NDB) is Tummalapalli village located in Kadapa be used to download an entire web page
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
for offline use? Q.1678. In symmetric encryption, how (b) Insert function
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 many keys are used to encrypt and (c) Financial function
(a) Grammarly (b) Evernote decrypt data? (d) Auto Sum function
(c) AdBlock (d) Web ScrapBook SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
(a) Three Keys (b) No Key Sol.1681.(d) Auto Sum function. The
Sol.1673.(d) Web ScrapBook. It captures (c) One Key (d) Two Keys Average function is typically listed in the
web pages to local devices or backend AutoSum function drop-down menu in
servers for future retrieval, organization, Sol.1678.(c) One Key. Symmetric spreadsheet software like Microsoft
annotation, and editing. encryption (or “private key” encryption) is Excel. The AutoSum function provides a
called “private key” because the use of a quick way to calculate common
Q.1674. Which of the following is single encryption key necessitates that functions like Sum, Average, Count, Max,
considered the first mechanical the key is always kept private. and Min.
computer designed by Charles Babbage?
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 Q.1679. What is the function of the CPU Q.1682. Which of the following are
(a) ENIAC (b) Analytical Engine after the DMA transfer starts? needed for Skype to function on a
(c) Abacus (d) UNIVAC SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 computer?
(a) As long as the transfer is handled by 1) A web cam
Sol.1674.(b) Analytical Engine. It was the DMA controller, it is free to 2) A microphone
proposed in 1837. It featured an perform other tasks. 3) A speaker
Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU), (b) It plays a role in the entire data SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift)
programmatic flow control (like loops transfer. (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3
and conditional branching), and used (c) It remains inactive until the DMA (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 3
punched cards for programmability. transfer is completed.
df
(d) It actively manages each byte Sol.1682.(c) 1, 2 and 3. Skype is a
Q.1675. Which of the following keyboard communication platform that allows
_p
shortcuts is commonly used to rename a transferred.
users to make voice and video calls,
file or folder in Windows OS? Sol.1679.(a) Direct Memory Access send instant messages, and share files
na
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 (DMA) is a technique that allows data to over the internet.
(a) F2 (b) Alt + Enter be transferred between memory and
ap
(c) Ctrl + R (d) Ctrl + F5 input/output devices without involving Q.1683. The default width of a column in
the processor. MS-Excel is:
:@
Sol.1675.(a) F2. A standard PC SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift)
keyboard has 12 function keys, labeled Q.1680. Which of the following best (a) 6 characters (b) 7 characters
F1 through F12, in the top row of the describes the primary difference (c) 9 characters (d) 8 characters
TG
keyboard. between broadband and dial-up Internet
connections? Sol.1683.(d) 8 characters. In Microsoft
Q.1676. Keyboard shortcut to Save as Excel, the default width of a column is
document in MS Word 2019 is: SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
on
(a) Dial-up requires a cable connection, set to accommodate 8.43 characters,
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 which is approximately 64 pixels. Here
(a) F10 (b) F11 (c) F12 (d) F9 while broadband does not.
are some of the default settings in
ch
(b) Broadband is only available in urban
Sol.1676.(c) F12. Shortcut Keys in MS areas, while dial-up is available Microsoft Excel: Row Height: 15 points
(or about 20 pixels). Font: Calibri, Font
ar
Word 2019: F1: Opens Help, F2: Moves everywhere.
text or objects (similar to Cut), F3: Inserts (c) Dial-up uses a telephone line, while Size: 11. Cell Alignment: Horizontal
Se
the AutoText entry, F4: Repeats the last broadband uses various technologies Alignment- General , Vertical Alignment-
action, F5: Opens the Find and Replace for higher speeds. Bottom. Cell Fill Color: No fill (white
dialog box with the Go To tab active. (d) Broadband is slower than dial-up. background). Page Margins: 1 inch (2.54
cm) on all sides. Zoom Level: 100%.
Q.1677. What application software is Sol.1680.(c) Dial-up: Uses a traditional
utilised for managing extensive data telephone line to connect to the internet. Q.1684. In MS Word, which option allows
collections and executing queries? This method is slow and can be you to align text in a way that it appears
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 interrupted by phone calls. Broadband: vertically at the bottom of a cell or text
(a) Antivirus software Uses various technologies like cable, box?
(b) Database management system fiber optic, or DSL to provide high-speed SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift)
software internet access. It offers significantly (a) Center Alignment
(c) Word processing software faster speeds than dial-up and is not (b) Justify Alignment
(d) Paint interrupted by phone calls. Examples of (c) Bottom Alignment
Internet Service Providers (Broadband): (d) Distributed Alignment
Sol.1677.(b) Popular DBMS Software: Jio, Airtel, Vi, BSNL, Atria Convergence
Relational DBMS (RDBMS) - Oracle Sol.1684.(c) Bottom Alignment.
Technologies, Hathway, Exitel
Database, MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft This option ensures that the text is
Broadband.
SQL Server. NoSQL DBMS positioned at the bottom edge, leaving
(Non-Relational Databases) - MongoDB, Q.1681. Average function is listed in the space above it. Center Alignment:
Cassandra, Redis. Cloud-Based DBMS - drop - down menu of which of the Centers text horizontally in the cell or text
Amazon RDS, Google Cloud Firestore, following tools? box. Justify Alignment: Aligns text evenly
Azure SQL Database. SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) along both the left and right margins.
(a) Move function Distributed Alignment: Distributes text
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
evenly across the width, with equal of cells organized in rows and columns. that is printed above the baseline,
spacing between characters and words. It is the working surface you interact with smaller than the regular text. It is often
to enter data. Each worksheet contains used to represent exponents, footnotes,
Q.1685. Symmetric encryption is also 1048576 rows and 16384 columns and or endnotes. Examples: 10̣2 - 2 above 10
known as: serves as a giant table that allows you to is called the superscript.
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift) organize information.
(a) public-key encryption Q.1693. The moderate margin of a page
(b) hybrid encryption Q.1689. What will happen when you in MS Word can be applied to the page
(c) conventional encryption select the cell contents of a particular from which of the following?
(d) asymmetric encryption row in MS-Excel and then click the Delete SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift)
button? (a) View Tab (b) Page Layout Tab
Sol.1685.(c) conventional encryption. SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) (c) Review tab (d) Design Tab
Public key encryption, also known as (a) First five cell entries will be deleted
public key cryptography. The Hybrid (b) Only first three cells will be deleted Sol.1693.(b) Page Layout Tab : This is
Encryption primitive combines the (c) Entire row will be deleted where you adjust the layout settings of
efficiency of symmetric encryption with (d) Entries in all the selected cells will be your page, including margins, orientation,
the convenience of public key deleted and size.
(asymmetric) cryptography. Asymmetric
encryption is a security technique that Sol.1689.(d) Microsoft Excel is a Q.1694. In Microsoft Excel, which chart
uses two different keys to encrypt and spreadsheet editor developed by type is best suited for comparing
decrypt data. Microsoft for Windows, macOS, Android, proportions or percentages of a whole?
iOS and iPadOS. It features calculation or SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift)
Q.1686. Which kind of computer security computation capabilities, graphing tools, (a) Line Chart (b) Bar Chart
df
requires verifying the genuineness of the pivot tables, and a macro programming (c) Scatter Chart (d) Pie Chart
individuals or organisations that want to
_p
language called Visual Basic for Sol.1694.(d) Pie Chart: A circular chart
access a system? Applications (VBA). Excel forms part of divided into sectors, each representing a
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift)
na
the Microsoft 365 suite of software. proportion or percentage of the whole.
(a) Authentication (b) Non-repudiation
(c) Availability (d) Confidentiality Q.1690. Which of the following is the
ap
Q.1695. Which of the following occupies
maximum file size that can be attached less memory when saving an MS-Word
Sol.1686.(a) Authentication. Computer to an email message in Gmail?
:@
file?
security (Cybersecurity), is the protection SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
of computer systems and information (a) 100 MB (b) 200 MB (a) .docx (b) .docm (c) .doc (d) .docc
from harm, theft, and unauthorized use. (c) 25 MB (d) 50 MB
TG
Sol.1695.(a) .docx file is a Microsoft
Q.1687. In MS Word, which feature Sol.1690.(c) 25 MB. Email (electronic Word document saved in the Open XML
allows you to create different headers mail) is the exchange of computer-stored format. The .docx file extension is a
on
and footers for odd and even pages in a messages from one user to one or more combination of the words "doc" and "xml"
document? recipients via the internet. and is an evolution of the older .doc
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift)
ch
format.
(a) Different Odd & Even Pages Q.1691. In Microsoft PowerPoint, what
(b) Page Breaks is the shortcut key combination to insert Q.1696. Which was the first
ar
(c) Section Breaks a new slide in a presentation? programmable general purpose
Se
(d) Different First Page SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) computer in the world ?
(a) Ctrl + I (b) Ctrl + N SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Sol.1687.(a) Different Odd & Even (c) Ctrl + D (d) Ctrl + M (a) ENIAC (b) Mark I
Pages. Microsoft Word is a word
(c) Napier's bones (d) Pascaline
processor program developed by Sol.1691.(d) Ctrl + M. Microsoft
Microsoft. It was first released on PowerPoint is a presentation program, Sol.1696.(a) ENIAC. Designed by John
October 25, 1983, under the name created by Robert Gaskins, Tom Rudkin Mauchly and J. Presper Eckert. Mark I
Multi-Tool Word for Xenix systems. Initial and Dennis Austin at a software was designed in 1937 by Harvard
release - October 25, 1983. company named Forethought, Inc. graduate student Howard H. Aiken to
Shortcut keys in Microsoft Powerpoint : solve advanced mathematical physics
Q.1688. On what type of data can MS Ctrl + I - Add or remove italics to problems. Napier's bones is a manually -
Excel functions operate? selected text. Ctrl + N - Create a new operated calculating device created by
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) slide. Ctrl + D - Duplicate the selected John Napier. Pascaline world's first
(a) External data sources only object or slide. calculator invented by mathematician
(b) Entire worksheets only
Pascal.
(c) Range of cells or groups of cells Q.1692. In MS-Word, a number printed
(d) Individual cells only above the base line is called ___________ . Q.1697. Which feature in MS Word
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift) allows you to see a document's layout
Sol.1688.(c) Range of cells or groups of (a) superscript (b) strikethrough and formatting as it will appear when
cells. MS Excel, a worksheet, also known (c) subscript (d) above BL printed?
as a spreadsheet, is a table into which SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
you enter data and data label. Worksheet Sol.1692.(a) superscript. In Microsoft (a) Screen View (b) Draft View
used in Excel documents is a collection Word, a superscript is a number or text (c) Print Preview (d) Reading View
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.1697.(c) Print Preview. Draft View: SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) transitions, and focus on a single slide
Simplified view for editing, without layout (a) timings (b) letters without distractions.
details. Reading View: Optimized for (c) numbers (d) numbers with letters
on-screen reading, not editing. Q.1707. Which of the following
Sol.1702.(c) Numbers. In MS Excel, rows represents the Two - Factor
Q.1698. In a spreadsheet, page are named after numbers like 1, 2, 3, 4 Authentication (2FA)?
orientation is changed through etc. and the columns are named with SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift)
___________. capital letters A, B, C etc. (a) The use of two different credentials
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift) to verify identity
(a) paper dialog box Q.1703. In Microsoft Word, which option (b) A tool for optimising system
(b) print dialog box allows you to exclude specific sections resources
(c) page setup dialog box or types of text from the spelling and (c) A security measure to prevent
(d) format dialogue box grammar check? physical damage to a PC
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) (d) A technique for organising files and
Sol.1698.(c) page setup dialog box. This (a) spell check (b) Thesaurus folders on a PC
dialog box allows you to adjust various (c) Exclusion Dictionary (d) AutoCorrect
page settings, including: Page orientation Sol.1707.(a) Two-Factor Authentication
(landscape or portrait), Paper size, Sol.1703.(c) Exclusion Dictionary. (2FA) is a security process that requires
Margins, Headers and footers, Print area. MS-WORD: It is an application two different credentials to verify an
component of MS-Office which is used to individual's identity.
Q.1699. Which of the following steps is do document, brochure, invitation and
used to format a cell in an MS Excel book preparation. It enables us to Q.1708. What enables IoT devices to
Spreadsheet? prepare, modify, design and edit the gather data and exchange it over the
df
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift) desired documents. It was first released network?
(a) Select cell → Right click → Format in 1983, under the name Multi-Tool Word SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)
_p
cell for Xenix systems. (a) Biochip transponders
(b) View Select cell → Format (b) Data encryption techniques
na
(c) Select cell → View → Format cell Q.1704. Which MS Excel function can be (c) Human interaction
(d) Menu → Select cell → Format used to sum up the numbers entered in a (d) Actuators and sensors
ap
group of cells?
Sol.1699.(a) In Excel, cell alignment is SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift) Sol.1708.(d) Actuators and sensors. The
:@
how your text or numbers are positioned (a) AVERAGE (b) COUNT Internet of Things (IoT) refers to the
in the cell. You can align vertically, (c) SUM (d) MAX interconnected network of physical
meaning towards the top, the middle or devices, vehicles, appliances, and other
TG
the bottom. And also align horizontally, Sol.1704.(c) SUM. Example of SUM objects embedded with sensors,
meaning to the left, the center or to the function: =SUM(A1:A10) adds up the software, and connectivity capabilities.
right. values in cells A1 through A10.
on
Q.1709. Which of the following
Q.1700. Which of the following is NOT an Q.1705. The process of merging data extensions is used to save MS-Power
alignment option for text in a cell ? from a data source into a main document Point applications?
ch
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) in a word-processing application is SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)
(a) Justified (b) Center called: (a) .doc (b) .docx (c) .txt (d) .ppt
ar
(c) Left (d) Right SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) data accumulation Sol.1709.(d) .ppt. Microsoft PowerPoint
Se
Sol.1700.(a) Justified alignment is (b) mail merge is a presentation program that allows
typically used in paragraph formatting to (c) data concatenation users to create slideshows and
align text to both the left and right (d) data integration presentations using slides, images,
margins. Common shortcut keys related videos, animations, and other features.
Sol.1705.(b) Mail Merge. Data
to line alignment in MS Word: Horizontal
Accumulation: Refers to the process of Q.1710. Which of the following is an
Alignment: Ctrl + L = Left align, Ctrl + E =
collecting and storing data. Data example of system software ?
Center align, Ctrl + R = Right align, Ctrl +
Concatenation: Means linking or SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift)
J= Justify align (in some applications).
combining data from multiple sources (a) Microsoft Word
Q.1701. How can we add text to a slide into a single sequence. Data Integration: (b) Adobe Photoshop
in MS-PowerPoint ? Involves combining data from multiple (c) Windows operating system
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) sources into a unified view. (d) Google Chrome
(a) Note box (b) Dialogue box
Q.1706. Which view in MS PowerPoint is Sol.1710.(c) Windows operating system.
(c) Notes page (d) Textbox
useful for editing or formatting a single Some examples of operating systems
Sol.1701.(d) Textbox. In Microsoft slide at a time? include Apple macOS, Microsoft
PowerPoint, a Text Box is a graphical SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) Windows, Google's Android OS, Linux OS,
element that allows you to add text to a (a) Normal view (b) Reading view and Apple iOS.
slide. It's a container that holds text, and (c) Outline view (d) Slide Sorter view
Q.1711. In MS Word, which option allows
you can position it anywhere on the slide.
Sol.1706.(a) Normal view: Allows you to you to insert a new column in a table
Q.1702. Rows in MS-Excel are identified edit text and images, format slide while simultaneously shifting the existing
by: elements, add animations and columns to the right ?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) Sol.1715.(b) Ctrl + P. Other important Gmail is the email service provided by
(a) Insert Table shortcut keys: Ctrl + X - Cuts selected Google. Created by - Paul Buchheit.
(b) Insert Column to the Right text or files and copies them. Ctrl + V - Launched - April 1, 2004.
(c) Insert Columns Pastes the contents of your clipboard
(d) Insert Column to the Left into the current cursor location on a PC. Q.1720. Which keyboard key is used to
Ctrl + C - Copies highlighted text or jump the cursor to the next cell of the
Sol.1711.(b) Insert Column to the Right. images. Ctrl + N - Creates a new page. table in MS Word?
In Microsoft Word: To add a column to Ctrl + B - Bolds selected text. Ctrl + Z - SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift)
the left of the cell, click Insert Left in the Undoes a change made to a document. (a) Tab (b) Home (c) Ctrl (d) Shift
Rows and Columns group. Ctrl + Y - Redoes an action. Sol.1720.(a) Tab. In MS Word, pressing
Q.1712. When a new text document is Q.1716. To create a new MS Word Tab moves the cursor to the next cell in
created in MS-Office 2016, the default document, which of the following steps the row, while pressing Shift+Tab moves
text size of the document is _____. is correct? the cursor to the previous cell.
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift) SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift)
(a) 14 points (b) 10 points Q.1721. Which Excel feature allows you
(a) File Tab → Start to simultaneously edit the same cell or
(c) 12 points (d) 11 points (b) File Tab → Recent range of cells with multiple users in
Sol.1712.(d) 11 points. 11 point size (c) File Tab → Open real-time?
means it is approximately 0.152778 (d) File Tab → New SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift)
inches. 72 points size means the text Sol.1716.(d) File Tab → New. Some (a) co-authoring
size equals 1 inch. The default font style Microsoft Word keyboard shortcuts: Ctrl (b) Track Changes
in MS Word 2016 is Calibri. The default + O - Opens a document, Ctrl + W - (c) Conditional Formatting
df
font and size can be changed in the Word Closes a document, Ctrl + B - Applies or (d) Data Validation
Options or by selecting a different font or
_p
removes bold formatting, Ctrl + I - Sol.1721.(a) Co-authoring. Microsoft
size for the document. Applies or removes italic formatting, Ctrl Excel is a spreadsheet editor developed
na
Q.1713. Which of the following is an + U - Applies or removes underline by Microsoft for Windows, macOS,
input device? formatting. Android, iOS and iPadOS. It features
ap
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift) Q.1717. Application software includes a calculation or computation capabilities,
(a) Keyboard (b) Speaker variety of programs that are designed to graphing tools, pivot tables, and a macro
:@
(c) Monitor (d) Printer meet the information processing needs programming language called Visual
of _____________. Basic for Applications (VBA). Excel
Sol.1713.(a) Keyboard. Input devices forms part of the Microsoft 365 suite of
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift)
TG
provide data to the computer, while software. Initial release date -
output devices receive data from the (a) customers (b) programmers
(c) team leaders (d) end users September 30, 1985. Written in - C++
computer and present it to the user. (back-end).
on
Examples of Input devices : keyboards, Sol.1717.(d) End users. Application
computer mice, scanners, cameras, software is a term used for software Q.1722. Which key can be pressed to
joysticks, and microphones, etc. initiate a slide show in MS PowerPoint ?
ch
created for a specific purpose. Examples
Examples of Output devices : Monitor, of application software include: Word SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Printers, Headphone, Computer Speaker, (a) Function key F2 (b) Function key F8
ar
Processing Software, Graphics Software,
Projector. Spreadsheet Software, Presentation (c) Function key F4 (d) Function key F5
Se
Q.1714. How can you access the Step by Software, Web Browsers. Sol.1722.(d) Function key F5. Some
Step Mail Merge Wizard in Microsoft Q.1718. Where can you find the options other function keys: F2 - Selects the text
Word? ‘From Beginning’ and ‘From Current Slide’ box that contains an object or text, F3 -
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) to run a slide show in MS PowerPoint? When used with Shift, toggles between
(a) Clicking on the Mailings tab SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) lower case, sentence case, and upper
(b) Pressing Ctrl + M (a) Slide Show tab (b) Home tab case for selected text. F7- Opens the
(c) Pressing F12 (c) View tab (d) Slide Sorter tab Spelling dialog box to identify and correct
(d) Clicking on the File menu spelling errors. F9 - When used with Shift,
Sol.1718.(a) Slide Show tab. Microsoft shows or hides gridlines.
Sol.1714.(a) Ctrl + M in Microsoft Word PowerPoint is a presentation program,
is used to indent a paragraph, not to start created by Robert Gaskins and Dennis Q.1723. How does the CPU distinguish
the Mail Merge Wizard. F12 opens the Austin. It was released on April 20, 1987. between each memory cell ?
"Save As" dialog box in Microsoft Word, SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift)
not developer tools (which happens in Q.1719. What should you click to choose (a) By its byte size (b) By its capacity
web browsers). the date for sorting in Gmail? (c) By its address (d) By its data item
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
Q.1715. In MS-Word, a document may (a) The filter icon Sol.1723.(c) By its address. The Central
be printed using ______________. (b) The ‘Date within’ field Processing Unit (CPU) is the primary
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) (c) The ‘1 Day’ dropdown menu component of a computer that acts as
(a) Ctrl+X (b) Ctrl+P (d) The calendar icon its “control center.” It has three main
(c) Ctrl+V (d) Ctrl+C parts: Arithmetic logic unit (ALU), control
Sol.1719.(b) The ‘Date within’ field. unit (CU), and memory unit.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.1724. In PPT What method can be (d) To calculate the hash value of the Q.1732. Formulas in MS-Excel always
used to move among slides if your hands message or file content start with which of the following
are already on the keyboard ? symbols?
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift) Sol.1727.(b) In digital signature SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) Scrolling with the mouse wheel verification, the sender encrypts the hash (a) ! (b) - (c) = (d) ==
(b) Using the keyboard directional keys of the message with their private key to
(c) Clicking on the slide thumbnail in the create the digital signature. Sol.1732.(c) =.
Slides tab Q.1728. Which of the following is an Q.1733. In Microsoft Word, the Mail
(d) Pressing the Esc key to exit the example of multi-factor authentication Merge Wizard is located under the
presentation for PC security? _________ tab.
Sol.1724.(b) PowerPoint (PPT) is a SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift) SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift)
presentation program that allows users (a) Firewall protection (a) Review (b) Home
to create, edit, and share multimedia (b) Fingerprint scan (c) Mailings (d) Insert
presentations on their computer or (c) Antivirus software
(d) OS protection Sol.1733.(c) Mailings. In MS Word,
mobile device. Mailings tab, manage mail merges with
Q.1725. In MS Word, which icon from the Sol.1728.(b) Fingerprint scan. options to select recipients, insert fields,
icons below the Menu Bar is commonly Multi-factor authentication (MFA) preview, and finish merges.
used to save the current document? involves using two or more
authentication methods to verify a user's Q.1734. Which of the following is the
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift)
identity. fastest way to open the Help window in
(a) The undo icon
Microsoft Word?
(b) The envelope icon
df
Q.1729. In MS Word, which option allows SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
(c) The printer icon
you to quickly remove all formatting from (a) Click the Help button on the ribbon
_p
(d) The floppy disk icon
selected text while retaining the (b) Click the Microsoft Office button and
Sol.1725.(d) The floppy disk icon. It is underlying text content ? then, click Help
na
on the upper-left corner of the Word app SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift) (c) Type ‘help’ in the search bar and then,
is the Save As button. It will open a file (a) Clear Formatting (b) Paste Special press Enter
ap
location tab where we can select and (c) Format Painter (d) Cut (d) Press F1
save our documents.
:@
Sol.1729.(a) Clear Formatting. Paste Sol.1734.(d) Press F1. Function keys in
Q.1726. In addition to using the arrow Special: It lets us paste content with Microsoft Word: F2 - Moves selected text
keys and mouse clicks, what other source formatting, destination or object to another location. F3 -
TG
method can be used to move around a formatting, or as plain text. Format Toggles the "AutoText" feature on/off. F4:
table in Microsoft Word? Painter: It is used to copy formatting Repeat last action. F5 - Go to a specific
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) from one section of text and apply it to page, bookmark, or section (similar to
on
(a) Pressing the ‘Ctrl’ key and clicking on another. It's helpful for maintaining Ctrl + G). F6 - Move cursor to task pane
the cell consistency in document formatting. (e.g., Navigation, Styles).
(b) Pressing the ‘Enter’ key or using the
ch
Q.1730. In Microsoft Office, how is the Q.1735. Which function is used to
scroll wheel font size determined? calculate the maximum value in a
(c) Using the Tab key or double-clicking
ar
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift) selected column in MS Excel?
on the cell (a) Pixels (b) Points SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
Se
(d) Right-clicking on the cell and (c) Inches (d) Centimetres (a) Auto max (b) Max
selecting ‘Move to Next Cell’
(c) Auto high (d) High
Sol.1730.(b) Points. Microsoft Office
Sol.1726.(b) Some commonly used
was Initial release - October 1, 1990. It Sol.1735.(b) Max.
shortcuts in Microsoft Word for
featured Word, Excel, and PowerPoint.
navigating the document: Ctrl + Left Q.1736. What is ‘Phishing’ in the context
Arrow: Move the cursor one word to the Q.1731. The slide number can be added of network security?
left. Ctrl + Right Arrow: Move the cursor to each slide of the MS PowerPoint SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
one word to the right. Ctrl + Up Arrow: presentation from which of the (a) A type of computer worm that
Move the cursor up by one paragraph. following? spreads through email attachments.
Ctrl + Home: Move the cursor to the SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift) (b) An attack that floods a network with
beginning of the document. Ctrl + End: (a) Footer (b) Page Formatting excessive traffic to disrupt its
Move the cursor to the end of the (c) View (d) Table Design operation.
document. Ctrl + Page Up: Moves the (c) A social engineering attack that tricks
Sol.1731.(a) Footer. Microsoft Power
cursor to the top of the previous page. users into revealing sensitive
Point is a presentation program, created
Q.1727. What function does the public by Robert Gaskins, Tom Rudkin and information.
key serve in digital signature verification? Dennis Austin at a software company (d) A type of malware that spreads
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift) named Forethought, Inc. It was released through infected USB drives.
(a) To encrypt the digital signature on April 20, 1987, initially for Macintosh
Sol.1736.(c) Four types of phishing :
(b) To decrypt the digital signature computers only. Operating system -
Spear Phishing, Whaling, Vishing, Email
(c) To ensure confidentiality during Microsoft Windows. Written in - C++
Phishing. More types of cyber attacks:
transmission (back-end).
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Malware (short for “malicious software”) (c) SMPT (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) packets?
is a file or code, typically delivered over a (d) DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023
network, that infects, explores, steals or Protocol) (a) Packet filtering
conducts virtually any behavior an (b) Application - level gateway
attacker wants. Spoofing is the act of Sol.1740.(d) DHCP . It is a network (c) Circuit - level gateway
disguising a communication from an protocol that is used to configure (d) Network filtering
unknown source as being from a known, network devices to communicate on an
trusted source. IP network. An Internet Protocol (IP) Sol.1744.(a) packet filtering. It is a
address is the unique identifying number powerful security technique against
Q.1737. What protocol is commonly assigned to every device connected to intrusions from external networks. An
used for sending and receiving emails? the internet. IP (version 4) addresses are application-level gateway (ALG) is a type
SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 32-bit integers that can be expressed in of firewall that filters traffic at the
(a) SSH (Secure Shell Protocol) hexadecimal notation. An IPv6 address is application layer of the OSI (open
(b) SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) 128 bits long compared with the 32 bit systems interconnection) model.
(c) FTP (File Transfer Protocol) address of IPv4.
(d) HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) Q.1745. Which of the following
Q.1741. In MS-Excel 365, you can use statements is/are correct for email ?
Sol.1737.(b) The Secure Shell (SSH) _________ when you want to change a cell I. A user can check the email header prior
protocol is a method for securely reference within a formula without to downloading.
sending commands to a computer over changing the formula itself. II. A user can partially download an
an unsecured network. SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 email.
(a) INDIRECT (b) VLOOKUP SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023
Q.1738. What is the purpose of the (c) TRANSPOSE (d) MATCH (a) Only II (b) Only I
df
Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU) in a Central (c) Neither I nor II (d) Both I and II
Processing Unit (CPU)? Sol.1741.(a) INDIRECT. Other functions:
_p
SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 VLOOKUP - Looks for a value in the Sol.1745.(d) Both I and II. Different Parts
(a) It executes program instructions by leftmost column of a table, and then of Email: Sender/from, subject line,
performing calculations and logical
comparisons. column we specify. TRANSPOSE - na
returns a value in the same row from the pre-header, salutation, email body,
Closing line, Signature, Call to Action
ap
(b) It manages the data flow between the Converts a vertical range of cells to a (CTA), Attachments. A call to action
CPU fan. horizontal range, or vice versa. MATCH - (CTA), if defined, is an instruction to the
:@
(c) It controls the speed of the CPU fan. Returns the relative position of an item in reader that encourages them to take
(d) It connects the CPU to peripheral an array that matches a specified value immediate action.
devices. in a specified order.
TG
Q.1746. In File Explorer of Windows 11,
Sol.1738.(a) Logical operations: Q.1742. In computer memory __________ to reduce the space between files, select
comparisons (greater than, less than, bus is used to transfer addresses view > _________ view.
on
equal to), AND, OR, NOT. The primary between CPU and the main memory. SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023
function of an ALU is to store and SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 (a) Cloud (b) Wide
ch
retrieve data from memory. There can be (a) status (b) control (c) Compact (d) Stretch
more than one ALU in a CPU. (c) data (d) address
Sol.1746.(c) Compact. In Windows 11
ar
Q.1739. Which keyboard shortcut opens Sol.1742.(d) address bus. A computer under View menu (Tiles, content, details
Se
File Explorer (previously known as bus is a set of conductors that enable pane, preview pane, show). Under Show
Windows Explorer) in Windows 10? information to be transmitted between menu (Navigation pane, compact view,
SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 computer components, such as printers, item check boxes, file name extensions,
(a) Ctrl + P (b) Win + E modems, and monitors. hidden items).
(c) Ctrl + C (d) Alt + Tab
Q.1743. Which of the following parts of Q.1747. A _________ is a program that
Sol.1739.(b) Win + E. File explorer given URL is a 'domain name' ? can self - replicate and propagate over
shortcuts in Windows 11: Alt + D: Select http://www.india.in/tallybook/tallybook.x the network.
the address bar. Ctrl + E: Select the yz SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023
search box. Ctrl + N: Open a new window. SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 (a) worm (b) trojan horse
Num Lock + asterisk (*): Display all (a) http: (b) www.india.in (c) boot sector virus (d)macro virus
subfolders under the selected folder. (c) tallybook (d) tallybook.xyz
Num Lock + plus (+) : Display the Sol.1747.(a) Worm. A boot sector virus
contents of the selected folder. Num Sol.1743.(b) www.india.in. A URL is a type of malware that infects a
Lock + minus (-): Collapse the selected (Uniform Resource Locator) is a unique system's boot partition or the Master
folder. identifier used to locate a resource on Boot Record (MBR) of a hard disk. A
the Internet. http: This is the protocol macro virus is a computer virus written in
Q.1740. Which networking protocol is used for communication, in this case, the same macro language used to create
used to assign IP addresses dynamically indicating Hypertext Transfer Protocol. software programs such as Microsoft
to devices on a network? Excel or Word.
SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 Q.1744. Which of the following types of
(a) FTP (File Transfer Protocol) firewall operates at the Network layer to Q.1748. When the sender and receiver of
(b) HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) examine incoming and outgoing an email are on the same system, we
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
need only ______ user agents. connects two or more packet-switched files and folders.
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 networks. (b) A type of malware that spreads
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) six through email attachments.
Q.1752. Which backup device provides a (c) A security mechanism that filters and
Sol.1748.(a) two. When the sender and convenient way to create system images controls network traffic.
the receiver of an e-mail are on different and complete backups, but may require a (d) A hardware device used to boost
systems, we need two UAs (User Agents) lengthy restoration process? network performance.
and a pair of MTAs (client and server). SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
MTAs- Message transfer agents. (a) Tape drive Sol.1755.(c) A firewall is defined as the
(b) Network-attached storage (NAS) system which analyzes and filters
Q.1749. What is the primary purpose of (c) Solid-state drive (SSD) incoming or outgoing data packets
RAM (Random Access Memory) in a (d) DVD-RW disc based on predefined rules.
computer?
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 Sol.1752.(a) A tape drive is a device that Q.1756. In computer registers, MAR
(a) Storing permanent data and files stores computer data on magnetic tape, stands for ______.
(b) Providing long-term storage for especially for backup and archiving SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
programs purposes. DVD Rewritable (DVD RW) (a) Main Access Register
(c) Providing temporary storage for data discs are designed to store up to 4.7GB (b) Memory Access Register
that the CPU is currently processing or 120 minutes of DVD-quality video. (c) Memory Address Register
(d) Managing peripheral devices (d) Main Address Register
Q.1753. Which of the following is not an
Sol.1749.(c) RAM is a computer or example of a web browser? Sol.1756.(c) MAR (Memory Address
laptop’s short-term memory. It’s where SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 Registers). It holds the address of the
df
the data is stored that the computer (a) Facebook (b) Apple Safari location to be accessed from memory.
processor needs to run applications and (c) Google Chrome (d) Opera MAR and MDR (Memory Data Register)
_p
open files. The information stored in together facilitate the communication of
RAM can be checked with the help of Sol.1753.(a) Facebook (social the CPU and the main memory. Memory
na
BIOS (Basic Input / Output System). BIOS networking site). Examples of social Data Registers: It contains data to be
is the program a computer's networking sites: Twitter, Instagram, written into or to be read out from the
ap
microprocessor uses to start the Linkedin, Snapchat, Google meet. A web addressed location. More types of
computer system after it is powered on. browser is an application for accessing registers : AC (accumulator), DR (Data
:@
RAM is volatile in nature, which means websites and the Internet. Examples: registers), PC (Program counter), IR
the data is lost when the device is Mozilla Firefox, Google Chrome, Opera, (index registers), MBR (Memory buffer
switched off. Safari, Microsoft Edge, Netscape registers).
TG
Navigator, Mosaic.
Q.1750. What is a cell in Microsoft Q.1757. What is a ‘Trojan’ in the context
Excel? Q.1754. What is the function of the of network security?
on
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 cache memory in a computer’s memory SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
(a) A separate file used to store data. hierarchy? (a) A protocol used for secure
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
ch
(b) A single worksheet within a communication between devices on a
workbook. (a) To provide permanent storage for network.
data and files.
ar
(c) The intersection of a row and a (b) A program that monitors network
column in a worksheet. (b) To store frequently used data for traffic for security breaches.
Se
(d) A small diagram or chart. faster access by the CPU. (c) A type of firewall that protects against
(c) To control the flow of data between viruses and malware.
Sol.1750.(c) Cells are the basic building the CPU and memory. (d) Malicious software disguised as
blocks of a worksheet. A worksheet (also (d) To manage the allocation of memory legitimate software to gain
known as a spreadsheet) consists of resources to different programs. unauthorised access.
cells in which we can enter and calculate
data. The active cell is the selected cell Sol.1754.(b) Cache memory is a chip - Sol.1757.(d) A Trojan virus spreads
in which data is entered when we begin based computer component that makes through legitimate-looking emails and
typing. A range is a group of two or more retrieving data from the computer's files attached to emails, which are
cells in a worksheet. memory more efficient. It is an extremely spammed to reach the inboxes of as
fast memory type that acts as a buffer many people as possible.
Q.1751. Which networking device between RAM and the CPU. It holds
operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model and frequently requested data and Q.1758. In File Explorer of Window 10,
forwards data based on MAC addresses? instructions so that they are immediately the keyboard shortcut ‘Num Lock +
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 available to the CPU when needed. It is Asterisk sign (*)’ is used to ______.
(a) Switch (b) Hub (c) Firewall (d) Router costlier than main memory or disk SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
memory but more economical than CPU (a) display all subfolders under the
Sol.1751.(a) Switch. A network switch
registers. selected folder
connects devices in a network to each
(b) open the properties dialog box for the
other, enabling them to talk by Q.1755. What is a ‘Firewall’ in the context
selected item
exchanging data packets. A hub is a of network security?
(c) display the contents of the selected
device that links multiple computers and SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
folder
devices together. A router is a device that (a) A software application for managing
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(d) collapse the selected folder could be for a business card, brochure, Q.1766. A ___________ is an electronic
resume, presentation. device that receives a weak signal and
Sol.1758.(a) File explorer keyboard regenerates it.
shortcuts: Num Lock + plus (+): Display Q.1762. Which of the following types of SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift)
the contents of the selected folder. Num hackers, also known as crackers, hack to (a) hub (b) router (c) repeater (d) switch
Lock + minus (-) : Collapse the selected gain unauthorised access to a system
folder. Ctrl + Shift + E: Display all folders and harm its operations or steal sensitive Sol.1766.(c) Repeater operates at the
above the selected folder. Ctrl + Shift + N: information? physical layer. It is a powerful network
Create a new folder. SSC CHSL Tier - II 26/06/2023 hardware device that regenerates an
(a) White hat (b) Black hat incoming signal from the sender before
Q.1759. In Windows 10, which of the (c) Red hat (d) Gray hat retransmitting it to the receiver.
following keyboard shortcuts is used to
display and hide the desktop? Sol.1762.(b) Black Hat. A white hat Q.1767. Which of the following shortcut
SSC CHSL Tier - II 26/06/2023 (ethical hacker) is an individual who uses keys is used to make the contents of a
(a) Windows logo key + D hacking skills to identify security cell underlined in MS-Excel 365?
(b) Windows logo key + H vulnerabilities in hardware, software or SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (4th Shift)
(c) Windows logo key + C networks. A red hat is a hacker who (a) Ctrl + 6 (b) Ctrl + 3
(d) Windows logo key + G takes aggressive steps to stop black hat (c) Ctrl + 2 (d) Ctrl + 4
hackers. A gray hat is a computer
Sol.1759.(a) Windows logo key + D. security expert who sometimes violates Sol.1767.(d) Ctrl + 4. Some other
Windows logo key + G - It is used to open ethical standards but doesn't have shortcut key in MS-Excel 365: Ctrl + 0 -
Xbox Game Bar when a game is open. malicious intentions. To hide the selected column, Ctrl + 1 -
Windows logo key + C - It is used to open Open the Format Cells dialog box, Ctrl + 2
df
chat from Microsoft Teams. Windows Q.1763. Which of the following is a mini - - Bold text or remove bold formatting, Ctrl
logo key + H - It is used to Launch voice DIN connector used to connect a + 3 - Italicize text or remove italic
_p
typing. keyboard and mouse to a PC compatible formatting, Ctrl + 5 - Apply or remove
computer ? strikethrough formatting, Ctrl+6 Hides
na
Q.1760. Which of the following is NOT a SSC CHSL Tier - II 26/06/2023 and shows hidden objects, Ctrl + 8 -
part of an email address? (a) Ethernet port (b) VGA port Display and hide the outline symbols, Ctrl
ap
SSC CHSL Tier - II 26/06/2023 (c) PS/2 port (d) RS232 port + 9 -To hide a row.
(a) Email service provider's domain
:@
(b) '@' symbol Sol.1763.(c) PS/2 port:- The PS/2 port is Q.1768. In a star network, how many
(c) Username a 6-pin mini-DIN connector used for lines are required for connecting N nodes
(d) Photo connecting keyboards and mice to a PC to the host node?
TG
compatible computer system. It is also SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Sol.1760.(d) Photo. Parts of an email called a mouse port. (a) N+1 (b) N/2 (c) (N/2) - 1 (d) N-1
address are :- Username- The username
on
is the name we choose to be identified Q.1764. What is the diameter of a Blu-ray Sol.1768.(d) N-1. Network topology -
with for e-mail purposes and that we Disc? Arrangement of a network, comprising
have provided to the email host to create SSC CHSL Tier - II 26/06/2023 nodes and connecting lines. There are 6
ch
our email account. '@' symbol- @ (a) 115 mm (b) 100 mm types of topology, Bus Topology - Every
(pronounced "at the rate of" ) is the (c) 110 mm (d) 120 mm computer is connected to a common bus
ar
symbol in an Email address that (single cable), Ring Topology - Every
Sol.1764.(d) 120 mm. Blu-ray Disc is
Se
separates the name of the user from the node is connected to two other nodes,
user's Internet address. Mail Server - A 120 mm in diameter and 1.2 mm thick, forming a loop. Tree Topology - A central
mail server transfers and delivers email the same size as DVDs (digital root node from which all other nodes
messages between two or more mail versatile/video disks) and CDs (Compact branch out, Star Topology - Each device
clients. Domain - A domain name forms disks). Currently, 50GB and 25GB on the network is connected to a central
part of the Uniform Resource Locator capacity, Blu-ray Disc media is available hub, Mesh Topology ({n(n-1)/2})- Each
(URL) and is the address for a webpage. in both the BD-RE rewritable and BD-R node is connected to every other node in
Example:- ssccglpinnacle@gmail.com. recordable formats. the network, Hybrid Topology - It is a
Q.1765. The _______ unit is that part of combination of two or more network
Q.1761. Identify whether the following topologies.
statements are true or false with the CPU which controls or directs the
reference to MS-Word 2010. operations of the processor. Q.1769. Which of the following shortcut
(i) A template can be selected while SSC CHSL Tier - II 26/06/2023 keys is used to move the cursor one
creating a new document. (a) control (b) memory word to the left in MS-Word 365 ?
(ii) The keyboard shortcut for going to (c) arithmetic logic (d) data SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (1st Shift)
the end of a document is Shift + End. Sol.1765.(a) Control. A control unit (a) Ctrl + PageUp
SSC CHSL Tier - II 26/06/2023 handles all processor control signals. (b) Ctrl + Left arrow key
(a) (i) False (ii) False (b) (i) True (ii) True The control unit is made up of flip-flops, (c) Shift + Left arrow key
(c) (i) True (ii) False (d) (i) False (ii) True logic gates, digital circuits and encoder (d) Shift + PageUp
Sol.1761.(c) (i) True (ii) False. In and decoder circuits that are wired in a Sol.1769.(b) Ctrl + Left arrow key. Ctrl +
Microsoft Word, templates are pre specific and fixed way. Page Up - Moves the cursor one Line Up.
-designed documents. The template The Shift + left arrow and Shift + right
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
arrow combinations - moving the cursor Q.1774. IBM 360 was developed in which Q.1777. The CPWD along with the
to the beginning and the end of a line of the following generations of computer ? Ministry of Road Transport and
respectively. SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift) Highways works for public infrastructure.
(a) Second Generation What is the full form of CPWD?
Q.1770. Sam wants to share his (b) First Generation Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
presentation with larger audience via (c) Third Generation (a) Central Public Welfare Department
emails. Which feature of MS PowerPoint (d) Fourth Generation (b) Central Public Welfare Design
365 can he use for it? (c) Central Political Welfare Design
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift) Sol.1774.(c) Third generation. First (d) Central Public Works Department
(a) Save As (b) Print (c) Share (d) Info Generation (1940 - 56): Vacuum tubes
were used. Example: ENIAC (Electronic Sol.1777.(d) The Central Public Works
Sol.1770.(c) Share. Features of Numerical Integrator And Computer), Department (CPWD) operates under the
Microsoft Powerpoint 365 - Designer, EDVAC (Electronic Discrete Variable Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs of
Smart Lookup, QuickStarter, New charts, Automatic Computer), EDSAC (Electronic India. It acts as the builder, developer,
Morphing, Real-time collab, Version Delay Storage Automatic Calculator), and manager of Central government
History, Zoom for non-sequential UNIVAC I (Universal Automatic Computer properties. Over time, its operations have
presentations. I), IBM 701, IBM 650 etc. expanded to include roadways and
Q.1771. Natural language processing bridge engineering. Established in 1854,
(NLP) is a branch of artificial intelligence Full Forms its headquarters is located in the Central
that helps computers _______ human Secretariat in New Delhi.
language. Q.1775. What does SAARC stand for?
Q.1778. What is the full form of RIDF ?
I. understand SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
df
II. Interpret (a) South Asian Association of Regional
(a) Rural Infrastructure Development
III. manipulate Climate change
_p
Forum
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift) (b) South Asian Association for Regional
(b) Rural Infrastructure Development
(a) I, II and III (b) only I and III Cooperation
na
Fund
(c) only I and II (d) only II and III (c) South Asian Association of Regional
(c) Road Infrastructure Development
Cartography
ap
Sol.1771.(a) I, II and III. Natural Fund
(d) South Asian Association of Regional
Language Processing (NLP) refers to the (d) Rural Industries Development Fund
Corporation
:@
branch of Artificial Intelligence that gives Sol.1778.(b) Rural Infrastructure
the machines the ability to read, Sol.1775.(b) South Asian Association
Development Fund created in 1995-96
understand and derive meaning from for Regional Cooperation - Established in
under National Bank for Agriculture and
TG
human languages. Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
Rural Development (NABARD) with an
Afghanistan became the newest member
Q.1772. Which of the following is NOT an initial corpus of Rs.2,000 crore. There are
of SAARC at the 13th annual summit in
39 eligible activities under RIDF. Eligible
on
application software ? 2005. Headquarters - Kathmandu, Nepal.
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (1st Shift) activities are classified under three broad
Eight member States : Afghanistan,
(a) Entertainment software categories: Agriculture and related
Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives,
ch
(b) Education software sector, Social sector, Rural connectivity.
Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka.
(c) Programming language translator
ar
Q.1779. What is the full form of IADP?
software Q.1776. What is the full form of
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift)
Se
(d) Personal assistance software ‘PM-SYM’?
(a) Intensive Agricultural District
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Sol.1772.(c) Programming language Programme
(a) Pradhan Mantri Sanyukt Yojana
translator software. Software is a set of (b) India Agricultural Development
Man-dhyan
instructions. Softwares are majorly Programme
(b) Pradhan Mantri MukhiyaSukrasha
classified into two categories: System (c) Integrated Agricultural District plan
Yojana
Software and Application Software. (d) Intensive Agricultural Development
(c) Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi
Project
Maan-dhan
Q.1773. Sheetal wants to create financial
(d) Pradhan Mantri Shrestha Yojana Sol.1779.(a) Intensive Agricultural
statements for her business. Which
Mulyankan District Programme (Launched in 1960) -
among the following software should
she use for the same ? Also known as a “package program”; Aim
Sol.1776.(c) Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (2nd Shift) - To provide loans for seeds and
Maan-Dhan: It is a Central Sector
(a) Presentation software fertilisers to farmers.
Scheme announced in the Interim Budget
(b) System software of 2019. Nodal Ministry - Ministry of Q.1780. What does 'F' stand for in FRBM
(c) Multimedia software Labour and Employment. Aim - To Act, 2003 of the Indian economy?
(d) Spreadsheet software provide social security and old age SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Afternoon)
protection to unorganized workers in (a) Fiscal (b) Financial
Sol.1773.(d) Spreadsheet software. It
India. A minimum monthly pension of Rs (c) Freedom (d) Functional
helps a user perform numerical functions
3,000 after the beneficiary turns 60 years
and analyze numbers through a Sol.1780.(a) Fiscal. The FRBM Act
old.
computerized version of an accounting (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
worksheet. An Example - Excel. Management Act), enacted in August
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
2003. Aim - To promote fiscal discipline, Code (IPC) and Special and Local Laws Kailasa Temple (dedicated to Lord Shiva)
transparency, and accountability in the (SLL). Headquarters - New Delhi. Ministry was built by Krishna I of the Rashtrakuta
management of India's finances. - Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). dynasty. It is the largest single-rock
Established - 1986. It implementes excavation in the world. Yadava dynasty
Q.1781. With respect to sports, NADA Crime and Criminal Tracking Network built many of the Jain caves. The Ellora
stands for ______. System (CCTNS). Caves are a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Afternoon) The caves include 12 Buddhist caves, 17
(a) National Anti - Doping Association Q.1785. What is the full form of RPG? Hindu caves, and 5 Jain caves.
(b) National Autonomous Doping Agency SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (1st Shift)
(c) National Anti - Doping Agency (a) Report Program Generator Q.1789. Brihadiswara Temple which
(d) National Autonomous Doping (b) Random Program Generator exhibits Dravidian temple architecture is
Association (c) Report Process Generator located in__________.
(d) Random Process Generator SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.1781.(c) National Anti-Doping (a) Dharmapuri (b) Thiruvananthapuram
Agency - It is India's national Sol.1785.(a) Report Program Generator. (c) Madurai (d) Thanjavur
organisation responsible for promoting, It is a high-level programming language
coordinating, and monitoring the doping for business applications, introduced in Sol.1789.(d) Thanjavur (Tamil Nadu).
control program in sports in all its forms. 1959 for the IBM 140. Some Major High Brihadeshwara Temple (also known as
Established - November 2005. Language - Python, Java, C++, JavaScript Thanjai Periya Kovil and Rajarajeswaram)
Headquarters - New Delhi. and C#. is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva. It
was built by Tamil King Raja Raja Chola I.
Q.1782. With respect to social groups in Q.1786. A balanced diet should meet the The temple is part of the UNESCO World
India, PVTGS stands for_______________ . RDAs for an individual. State the full form Heritage Site known as the “Great Living
df
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Evening) of RDA. Chola Temples”, with the other two being
(a) Periodic Vulnerable Tribal Groups SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Afternoon)
_p
Gangaikonda Cholapuram and
(b) Periodic Various Tribal Groups (a) Request Diet Allowances Airavatesvara temple.
(c) Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (b) Recommended Dietary Allowances
(d) Particularly Various Tribal Groups (c) Request Dietary Allowances
(d) Recommend Diet Allowances na Q.1790. The Sun Temple at Konark was
built under the rule of which dynasty?
ap
Sol.1782.(c) Particularly Vulnerable SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Tribal Groups. It is a sub-classification of Sol.1786.(b) The Recommended Dietary (a) Pandya Dynasty
:@
a Scheduled Tribe or section of a Allowance (RDA) is the average daily (b) Pallava Dynasty
Scheduled Tribe that is considered more dietary intake level that is sufficient to (c) Rashtrakuta Dynasty
vulnerable than a regular Scheduled meet the nutrient requirement of nearly (d) Eastern Ganga Dynasty
TG
Tribe. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one all (97 to 98 percent) healthy individuals
union territory. in a particular gender and life stage Sol.1790.(d) Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
group. Konark Sun Temple is a 13th-century CE
on
Q.1783. With respect to sports, WADA Sun temple at Konark in Puri district,
stands for______________ . Q.1787. In the context of the banking Odisha. This temple is attributed to King
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Evening) sector, what does ‘F’ stand for in IFSC?
ch
Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga
(a) World Anti-Doping Association SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Morning) Dynasty.Temple is a classic illustration of
(b) World Anti-Doping Agency (a) Functional (b) Forum
ar
Great Kalinga Architecture. It is
(c) Wrestling Anti-Doping Association (c) Fiscal (d) Financial dedicated to the God Surya. The famous
Se
(d) World Autonomous - Doping Agency Chandrabhaga Mela takes place here
Sol.1787.(d) Financial. IFSC stands for
Sol.1783.(b) World Anti-Doping Agency - every year in the month of February. This
Indian Financial system Code. It is an 11
It was established in 1999 as an temple is also called "Black Pagoda". The
digit alphanumeric code used to uniquely
international independent agency temple was declared a UNESCO World
identify bank branches within the
composed and funded equally by the Heritage Site in 1984.
National Electronic Funds transfer
sport movement and governments of the (NEFT) network by the central bank. Q.1791. Lad Khan Temple at Aihole in
world. The First World Conference on Karnataka is an example of which of the
Doping in Sport held in Lausanne
Religious Places following styles of temple architecture?
(Switzerland) in 1999. Headquarter - Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Montreal, Canada. (a) Dravida (b) Nagara
Q.1788. At which place was the
Q.1784. What is the full form of NCRB? magnificent temple of Saiva constructed (c) Vesara (d) Pagoda
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (4th Shift) by the great Rashtrakuta King ‘Krishna I’?
Sol.1791.(c) Vesara style of temples is a
(a) National Currency Records Branch SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
combination of both Nagara (North
(b) National Capital Register Bureau (a) Badami (b) Kanchi
India) and Dravida (South India), its
(c) National Criminal Records Bureau (c) Kannauj (d) Ellora
superstructure is bell-shaped. Examples
(d) National Crime Records Bureau of Vesara Style temples in Karnataka:
Sol.1788.(d) Ellora. The temples at Ellora
Sol.1784.(d) National Crime Records Caves (Maharashtra) were built by the Mahadeva temple (Ittagi);
Bureau is an Indian government agency Rashtrakuta and Yadava dynasties. Kasivisvesvara temple (Lakkundi);
responsible for collecting and analyzing Rashtrakuta dynasty built the Hindu and Kallesvara Temple (Kukkanur).
crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Buddhist caves during their reign. The
Q.1792. The Trimbakeshwar Temple,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
which is situated in Nashik, Maharashtra, the four holy sites related to the life of (c) Maldives (d) Sri Lanka
was built by : the Lord Buddha, and particularly to the
Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3) attainment of Enlightenment. First Sol.1799.(a) Nepal. Pashupatinath
(a) Maharaja Ganga Singh temple was established in the 3rd Temple (Dedicated to Lord Shiva):
(b) Maharana Pratap century BC by Mauryan emperor Ashoka. Stretches on both sides of the Bagmati
(c) Balaji Baji Rao Famous Temples in Bihar: Vishnupad River. It was conferred the status of a
(d) Shivaji Mandir and Mangala Gowri Temple World Heritage Site in 1979 by the United
(Gaya), Pawapuri Jal Mandir (Nalanda) Nations Educational, Scientific and
Sol.1792.(c) Balaji Baji Rao. and Mithila Shakti Peeth (Darbhanga). Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
Trimbakeshwar Temple, a renowned
religious center, houses one of the twelve Q.1796. Bhitargaon Brick temple is a Q.1800. The Sirpur Shrine is situated in
Jyotirlingas and is located at the foot of good example of architecture of which of which of the following states?
Brahmagiri Hill in the city of Trimbak. the following periods? SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Other notable temples and their builders SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (a) Odisha (b) Uttar Pradesh
include the Brihadeeswara Temple (Raja (a) Mughal period (b) Gupta period (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Bihar
Raja Chola I of the Chola dynasty), (c) Maurya period (d) Chola period Sol.1800.(c) Chhattisgarh. Temples in
Konark Sun Temple (King Chhattisgarh: Maa Bamleshwari Devi
Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Sol.1796.(b) Gupta Period. Bhitargaon
Temple: It is situated in Kanpur (Uttar Temple, Mahamaya Temple,
Dynasty), and the Kailasa Temple at Chandrahasini Devi temple,
Ellora (Krishna I of the Rashtrakuta Pradesh) and is one of the earliest
surviving brick temples of India. It was BhoramdeoTemple, Danteshwari Temple.
dynasty).
built during the 5th century AD. Other Q.1801. The lofty gates erected in the
Q.1793. Select the correct combination Gupta period Architectures: Ajanta,
df
courtyard of the temples in south India
of the temple and the state in which it is Ellora, Sarnath. Temples built during were called ____________ .
_p
located. Gupta Period: Dashavatara Temple SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift)
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) (Deogarh), Bhitari Temple (Ghazipur). (a) mandap (b) ardhmandap
na
(a) Mahakaleshwar (c) vimana (d) gopuram
Jyotirlinga-Uttarakhand Q.1797. The ‘Mukteshwar’ dance festival
is held from 14th to 16th January at the
ap
(b) Somnath Jyotirlinga Sol.1801.(d) Gopuram - A monumental
Temple-Maharashtra Mukteswar temple in the state of _______. entrance tower, built in the Dravidian
SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
:@
(c) Kamakhya Temple-Assam Style. Tallest Gopuram -
(d) Jagannath Temple-West Bengal (a) Uttarakhand Ranganathaswamy Temple (Tamil Nadu).
(b) Odisha Southern Indian temples : Shikhara -
Sol.1793.(c) Kamakhya Temple - (c) Madhya Pradesh
TG
crowning element at the top of the
Assam. Other temples and locations : (d) Himachal Pradesh temple. Vimana - shape of the main
Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga - Madhya temple tower.
Pradesh, Somnath Jyotirlinga Temple - Sol.1797.(b) Odisha. Temples in Odisha:
on
Gujarat, Jagannath Temple - Odisha, Jagannath Temple (Puri), Sun Temple Q.1802. Builders of which of the
Badrinath Temple - Uttarakhand, Golden (Konark), Maa Tara Tarini Temple following temples had constructed a 4
ch
Temple - Punjab, Meenakshi Temple - (Purusottampur), Lingaraj Temple km long incline for placing 90 tonnes of
Tamil Nadu. Hoysaleswara Temple - (Bhubaneswar), Brahmeswara Temple stone on top of the tallest shikhara
ar
Karnataka. (Bhubaneswar). amongst temples of its time?
Graduate Level 05/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
Se
Q.1794. In which state is the Bhitari Q.1798. The most famous of all Jain
festivals, Mahamastakabhisheka is (a) The Sun Temple
temple situated? (b) Rajarajeshvara Temple
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (3rd Shift) performed every 12 years at the
Digambara sacred complex at _______ in (c) Kandhariya Mahadeva Temple
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Odisha (d) Gangadikondha Temple
(c) Jharkhand (d) Bihar Karnataka.
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Sol.1802.(b) Rajarajeshvara Temple. It
Sol.1794.(a) Uttar Pradesh. The Victory (a) Keelakuilkudi (b) Jinanathapura was built by Rajaraja Chola I, in
of Skandagupta over the Huns is (c) Shravanabelagola (d) Puliyarmala Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu. It is dedicated to
mentioned in Bhitari Inscription. Other Lord Shiva.
Religious Sites of Uttar Pradesh: Sarnath, Sol.1798.(c) Shravanabelagola (Hassan
Kashi Vishwanath Temple, Banke Bihari district of Karnataka) - Gomateshwara Q.1803. The Jagannath Temple in Puri
Temple, ISKCON Vrindavan, Banaras statue located in this place and built depicts which Indian classical dance
Ghats. under the Ganga dynasty. Karuppanna form?
Swamy Temple (Keelakuilkudi, Madurai), SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (1st shift)
Q.1795. Where is the Mahabodhi temple Shantinatha Basadi temple (a) Kuchipudi (b) Bharatanatyam
situated? (Jinanathapura), Puliyarmala Jain (c) Kathak (d) Odissi
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Temple (Kalpetta Wayanad - Kerala).
(a) Varanasi (b) Bodh Gaya Sol.1803.(d) Odissi. Lord Jagannath is
(c) Patna (d) Agra Q.1799. The famous 'Pashupatinath worshipped as Vishnu or Narayana or
Temple' is located in which country from Krishna and deity Balabhadra as Shesha.
Sol.1795.(b) Bodh Gaya (Bihar). The the following?
Mahabodhi Temple (located on the SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (1st Shift) Q.1804. In which of the following
banks of the Niranjana River) is one of (a) Nepal (b) Bhutan countries is the Hindu religious place
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
'Chandranath Hill' located? Beechupally Anjaneya Swamy Temple. situated in Tamil Nadu ?
Graduate Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 1) SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (4th Shift)
(a) Bhutan (b) Nepal Q.1808. Dilwara Temples at Mount Abu, (a) Shore temple
(c) Bangladesh (d) Sri Lanka Rajasthan is an example of _______ (b) Kailasa temple
temple architecture. (c) Virupaksha temple
Sol.1804.(c) Bangladesh. Chandranath SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening) (d) Jagannatha temple
Temple :- It is located on top of the (a) Buddhist (b) Jain
Chandranath Hill, is a famous Shakti (c) Mughal (d) Dravida Sol.1812.(a) The Shore Temple
Peeth located near Sitakunda in (Dravidian style). It is located in
Bangladesh. Sol.1808.(b) Jain. Dilwara Temple Mahabalipuram (Tamil Nadu). It was
(Nagara Style of Architecture): Built by designated a UNESCO World Heritage
Q.1805. In North Indian temple Vimal Shah and designed by Vastupala. site in 1984. It was built in the reign of
architecture , which element denotes the Other Jain Architecture: Ellora Caves Narasimhavarman II.
superstructure or tower above the (Maharashtra), Hathi Gumpha.
sanctum and the pillared mandapas? Q.1813. Which among the following is
Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 1) Q.1809. ______ was considered as the NOT a component of Lion Capital at
(a) Kalasha (b) Amalaka most important part of some of the Sarnath, India?
(c) Shikhara (d) Antarala earliest Hindu temples. SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Afternoon) (a) Carved cow representing South
Sol.1805.(c) Shikhara - A tower, in (a) Shikharas (b) Garbhagriha direction
elevation, which is progressively inclined (c) Gatas (d) Mandapa (b) Figures of 4 lions
in a convex curve. The three most (c) Dharma Chakras
common temple architecture are: Nagara Sol.1809.(b) Garbhagriha - Inner
(d) Lotus base bell
df
in the north (between the Himalayas and chamber of the temple where the main
Vindhyas), and Dravidian in the south. deity was placed. It is also known as Sol.1813.(a) Carved cow representing
_p
The Vesara style of temples is an Sanctum Sanctorium. Other parts of South direction. The top of the
admixture of Nagara and Dravidian Hindu Temple : Mandapa - Incorporates column—the capital—has three parts.
na
styles. space for a large number of worshippers, First, a base of a lotus flower (ubiquitous
Shikhar - Mountain-like spire, Vahan - symbol of Buddhism). Then, a drum on
ap
Q.1806. Which of the following temples Vehicle of the temple’s main deity, which four animals are carved represents
is built in the style of the Rekha Deula or Amalak and Kalash - Crowning elements. the four cardinal directions: a horse
:@
the one with a curvilinear superstructure? (west), an ox (east), an elephant (south),
Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 3) Q.1810. The Virupaksha Temple is
situated at _______. and a lion (north). Four lions stand at top
(a) Kailasanathar Temple in Tamil Nadu of the drum, each facing in the four
TG
(b) Sri Jagannath Temple in Odisha SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening)
(a) Surat (b) Sanchi (c) Hampi (d)Jaipur cardinal directions.
(c) Shree Padmanabhaswamy Temple in
Kerala Sol.1810.(c) Hampi. Virupaksha Temple Q.1814. In the Kandariya Mahadeva
on
(d) Kandariya Mahadev Temple in (Pampapathi Temple) was built by Temple, _______ was the place of ritual
Madhya Pradesh Lakhan Dandesha in Dravidian style on worship, where only the king, his family
ch
the south bank of the river Tungabhadra members and the priests used to gather.
Sol.1806.(b) Sri Jagannath Temple in SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening)
Odisha. It was built by Anantavarman at Hampi (Capital of Vijayanagara).
ar
Dedicated to Lord Siva. It is designated (a) sanctum sanctorum (b) Mahamandap
Chodaganga Deva In Kalinga - Style (c) antraal (d) Amalak
as a UNESCO World Heritage site (1986).
Se
architecture. The temple was called the
“White Pagoda” and is a part of Char Other Monuments at Hampi - Vittala Sol.1814.(a) sanctum sanctorum.
Dham pilgrimages (Badrinath, Dwaraka, Temple, Ganigatti Jain temple, Krishna Garbha griha (Temple's innermost part
Puri, Rameswaram). Temple and Lotus Mahal. where the Murti of the deity is kept).
Q.1811. Lingaraja Temple is situated in Temple Other Part - Mahamaṇḍapa
Q.1807. Ramappa Temple is dedicated (greater hall). Antarala (small
to which God? which of the following states of India?
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (3rd Shift) antechamber or foyer between
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning) garbhagriha and mandapa). Amalaka
(a) Lord Rama (b) Lord Vishnu (a) Odisha (b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu (notched stone disk, usually with ridges
(c) Lord Indra (d) Lord Shiva on the rim, that sits on the top temple's
Sol.1807.(d) Lord Shiva. Ramappa Sol.1811.(a) Odisha (Bhubaneswar): shikhara. Kandariya Mahadeva temple
Temple (Rudreshwara Temple or Dedicated to Lord Shiva. Karnataka: The (Nagara Style of Architecture) (Madhya
Ramalingeswara Temple) - Situated in Chalukya Shiva Temple (LadKhan Pradesh) was constructed by king
Palampet in (Warangal) Telangana. It is a Temple) in Aihole. Maharashtra: Ter Dhaṇgadeva (Chandela dynasty) in 999
masterpiece of the Kakatiyan style of Temple, is a temple of Vamana (an CE.
temple architecture. In July 2021, incarnation of Vishnu), Trimbakeshwar
Temple of Lord Shiva in Nashik. Tamil Q.1815. In which state of India is the Sri
Ramappa Temple was declared as a Brahmapureeswarar temple situated?
UNESCO World Heritage Site. Other Nadu: Murugan Temple at
Saluvankuppam, Brihadeeswarar Temple SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Afternoon)
famous temples (Telangana) - Chilkur (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu
Balaji Temple, Sanghi Temple, Gnana (Thanjavur), Iravatanesvara temple.
(c) Rajasthan (d) Manipur
Saraswathi Temple, Surendrapuri Temple, Q.1812. Which of the following temple is
Karmanghat Hanuman Temple, Sol.1815.(b)Tamil Nadu . Other famous
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
temples of Tamil Nadu: Meenakshi Gorakhnath Math Temple, Kashi 1966 in New York City by A. C.
Temple, Rameshwaram Temple, Kumari Vishwanath Temple, Banke Bihari Bhaktivedanta Swami Prabhupada. Its
Amman Temple, Nagannathaswamy Temple, Vrindavan, Sarnath temple, etc. core beliefs are based on Hindu
Temple, Brihadeeswarar Temple, scriptures, particularly the Bhagavad Gita
Kapaleeshwarar Temple, Nataraja Q.1820. Which of the following is correct and the Bhagavata Purana, and the
Temple, Arunachaleswarar Temple, about Nagara or North Indian Temple Gaudiya Vaishnava tradition.
Ekambareswarar, Mahabalipuram Shore, Style Architecture?
etc. SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Afternoon) Q.1824. Phodong Monastery is located
(a) There were no tower or shikhara in ______.
Q.1816. Kardang Monastery which is a (b) It has elaborate boundary walls SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Evening)
Buddhist Pilgrimage is situated in which (c) There was no Kalasha, the topmost (a) Ladakh (b) Bihar
state of India? part of the temple (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Sikkim
SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Morning) (d) The garbhagriha is always located
(a) Jharkhand (b) Goa directly under the tallest tower. Sol.1824.(d) Sikkim.
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Kerala Phodong Monastery (or Phodang) is a
Sol.1820.(d) Features of Nagara style Buddhist monastery. Hemis Monastery
Sol.1816.(c) Himachal Pradesh. It is temple: It is built on a stone platform is situated 45 Kms away from Leh in
situated on the left bank of River Bhaga. with steps leading up to it, It does not Ladakh.
It was renovated in 1912 CE by Lama usually have elaborate boundary walls or
Norbu Rinpoche. gateways, Amalaka or Kalash which is Q.1825. Shaikh Muinuddin Sijzi
installed on Shikhara, etc. Sub divisions : (Moinuddin Chishti) dargah is situated in
Q.1817. What is the stone-like disc seen Rekha-Prasad or Latina, Shekari, Bhumija, which of the following cities?
at the top of the temple in Odisha and Valabhi , and Phamsana. SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Morning)
df
nearby district's Temple architecture (a) Jalandhar (b) Ajmer
called? Q.1821. Harmandir Sahib is situated in (c) Panipat (d) Patna
_p
SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Morning) which city of Punjab?
(a) Kalasha (b) Antarala SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Evening) Sol.1825.(b) Ajmer. Dargah Sharif of
na
(c) Amalaka (d) Jagati (a) Bathinda (b) Amritsar Ajmer Sharif is a Sufi tomb (dargah) of
(c) Kapurthala (d) Patiala the revered Sufi saint, Moinuddin Chishti,
ap
Sol.1817.(c) ‘Amalaka’ is one of the located at Ajmer, Rajasthan. The shrine
important elements of Temple Shikhara Sol.1821.(b) Amritsar, Punjab. Golden has Chishti's grave (Maqbara).
:@
(Tower) in Nagara Shaili usually found in Temple (Sri Harmandar Sahib) is the
Uttara Bharatha. A mandir ‘kalash’ is a preeminent spiritual site of Sikhism. Q.1826. In which of the following states
metal or stone spire used to top the Some other spiritual sites of Sikhism are is Sabarimala Sree Dharma Sastha
TG
domes of Hindu temples. In Hindu the Gurdwara Darbar Sahib Kartarpur in Temple located?
temple architecture, the ‘jagati' is the Kartarpur (Pakistan), and Gurdwara SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Morning)
raised surface of the platform or terrace Janam Asthan in Nankana Sahib (a) Karnataka (b) Telangana
on
upon which some Buddhist or Hindu (Pakistan), etc. (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Kerala
temples are built. Sol.1826.(d) Kerala. The temple is
Q.1822. A 7 meter high sculpture known
ch
Q.1818. Khajuraho temple in Madhya as 'Sadashiva', representing three dedicated to Lord Ayyappa Swamy.
Pradesh is an example of ___________ aspects of Lord Shiva is found at ______ Kerala's renowned Sabarimala Temple is
ar
style of temple architecture. Caves. to be renamed Sabarimala Sree Ayyappa
Swamy Temple.
Se
SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Evening) SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Morning)
(a) Dravida (b) Vesara (a) Khandagiri (b) Udayagiri Q.1827. Kadam Rasul Mosque, whose
(c) Nagara (d) Hoysala (c) Bhimbetka (d) Elephanta construction is characterized by the use
Sol.1818.(c) Nagara. The Khajuraho Sol.1822.(d) Elephanta Caves. The of bricks and black marble, is situated at
Group of Monuments is a group of Hindu sculpture represents three aspects of ______.
temples and Jain temples in Chhatarpur Shiva: identified as the Creator, the SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Morning)
district, Madhya Pradesh, India. They are Preserver, and the Destroyer, respectively, (a) Purnea (b) Alwar
a UNESCO World Heritage Site (1986). along with Aghora or Bhairava (left half), (c) Mandu (d) Gaur
Taptapurusha or Mahadeva (central full Sol.1827.(d) Gaur, Malda (West Bengal).
Q.1819. Madan Mohan temple is a face), and Vamadeva or Uma (right half).
centrally protected monument. It is Kadam Rasool Mosque was built by
situated in which state of India? Q.1823. Who established the Sultan Nasseruddin Nusrat Shah in the
SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Morning) International Society for Krishna year 1530-31.
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand Consciousness (ISKCON)? Q.1828. In which of the following places
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Karnataka SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Morning) is the Govardhan Math located?
(a) Bhaktivedanta Swami Prabhupada SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Morning)
Sol.1819.(c) Uttar Pradesh (in (b) Sri Chaitanya
Vrindavan). Madan Mohan temple was (a) Badrinath (b) Dwarka
(c) Srila Bhaktisiddhanta Sarasvati (c) Sringeri (d) Puri
built by Sanatana Gosvami in 1580 AD. (d) Sri Ramakrishna
Some other famous temples of Uttar Sol.1828.(d) Puri (Orissa). Govardhan
Pradesh are Ram Janmabhoomi Temple, Sol.1823.(a) Bhaktivedanta Swami Math or Govardhan Peetham is one
Shri Krishna Janmabhoomi Mandir, Prabhupada. ISKCON was founded in amongst the four cardinal peethams
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
established by the 8th century Sol.1833.(c) Rai Bhoi di Talvandi. Guru in a year (excluding posthumous awards
philosopher-saint Adi Shankara to Nanak was the founder of the Sikh and to NRI/foreigners/OCIs) should not
preserve and propagate Sanatana religion and was born on 15th April 1469 be more than 120. The award does not
Dharma. in Pakistan. amount to a title and cannot be used as a
suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name.
Q.1829. Which of the following temples Q.1834. The Biraja Temple, the Rajarani
has Panchayatana Style of architecture? Temple and the Samaleswari Temple are Q.1838. Which television channel
SSC CHSL 13/10/2020 (Evening) all located in ? presents the IMMIES Awards every year
(a) Sun Temple SSC CGL 4/3/2020 (Morning) with an aim to reward the best talent in
(b) Kashi Vishwanath temple (a) Odisha (b) Tamil Nadu the Indian music industry?
(c) Brihadeeswara Temple (c) Assam (d) Kerala SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(d) Dashavatara Temple (a) B4U Music (b) MTV
Sol.1834.(a) Odisha. (c) Channel V (d) 9XM
Sol.1829.(d) Dashavatara Temple.
Q.1835. ‘Dharmaraja (Yudhishthir) Ratha’,
Panchayatana is an architectural style Sol.1838.(b) MTV. The MTV Immies are
‘Bhima Ratha’, ‘Arjuna Ratha’ and ‘Nakula
where the main shrine is built on a held every year with an aim to award the
Sahadeva Ratha’ are four of the Panch
rectangular plinth with four smaller best talents in the Indian music industry.
Rathas at Mahabalipuram. What is the
subsidiary shrines at the four corners, The Mirchi Music Awards, or IMMIES, are
name of the fifth Ratha?
making it a total of five shrines. presented annually by Radio Mirchi to
SSC CGL 5/3/2020 (Afternoon)
honor the best in Hindi film music. The
Q.1830. Where is Bishnupur, which is (a) Draupadi Ratha (b) Bhishma Ratha
first ceremony took place on March 28,
famous for terracotta temples, located? (c) Krishna Ratha (d) KarnaRatha
2009, at Taj Lands End, Mumbai, hosted
SSC CHSL 14/10/2020 (Afternoon) by Shaan and Tulip Joshi.
df
Sol.1835.(a) Draupadi Ratha.
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat
(c) West Bengal (d) Assam Q.1839. Norman Ernest Borlaug was
_p
Q.1836. Which tales are related with the
painting and sculptures of the Ajanta awarded the _____ in 1970 for his
Sol.1830.(c) West Bengal. Terracotta contributions to the green revolution.
na
caves?
temples are known for their Hindu SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift)
SSC CGL 09/03/2020 (Afternoon)
temples made from local terracotta, such (a) Nobel Prize in Physics
ap
(a) Hitopadesha Tales
as the pyramid-shaped Rasmancha, (b) Nobel Peace Prize
(b) Panchatantra Tales
established around 1600. (c) Nobel Prize in Chemistry
:@
(c) Pentamerone Tales
Q.1831. Which of the following cities is (d) Jataka Tales (d) Nobel Prize in Physiology
home to one of the famous Sol.1839.(b) Nobel Peace Prize. Norman
Sol.1836.(d) Jataka tales. These are
TG
Swaminarayan Akshardham temples in Borlaug was a renowned American
Buddhist legends describing the previous
India? agronomist and humanitarian, often
births of the Buddha. These fables
SSC CHSL 15/10/2020 (Afternoon) referred to as the Father of the Green
embed ancient morals and cultural lores
on
(a) New Delhi (b) Madurai Revolution. Norman E Borlaug Award :
that are also found in the fables and
(c) Vadodara (d) Mysore recognizes exceptional scientists under
legends of Hindu and Jain texts.
ch
Sol.1831.(a) New Delhi. Swaminarayan 40 and someone who works in the field
of food and nutrition security and hunger
Akshardham is the world's largest Awards
ar
comprehensive Hindu temple. It eradication. It is given in the honor of
measures 356 ft (109 m) in length, 141 ft Norman Borlaug.
Q.1837. Identify the correct statement
Se
high and 356 ft in width. It was with reference to the Padma awards. Q.1840. In which year was the first
inaugurated on 6 November 2005. SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (1st Shift) Arjuna Award given to a woman hockey
(a) The Padma award can be used as a player?
Q.1832. Kartarpur Sahib corridor
suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
connects Dera Baba Nanak Shrine in
(b) The total number of Padma awards to (a) 1963 (b) 1964 (c) 1962 (d) 1961
Gurdaspur, India to Kartarpur Gurudwara
be given in a year should not more
in Pakistan, which is located near the
than 150. Sol.1840.(d) 1961. Arjuna Award:
banks of the river _____.
(c) The Padma Awards are given Awarded for consistent good
SSC CHSL 19/10/2020 (Morning)
annually. performance in sports over 4 years. The
(a) Ravi (b) Jhelum (c) Sutlej (d) Chenab
(d) The names of the awardees are never winners of the Arjuna Award receive a
Sol.1832.(a) Ravi. Kartarpur Corridor published in the Gazette of India. statuette of Arjuna, a certificate and a
was first proposed in early 1999 by Atal cash prize 15 lakhs. First woman hockey
Sol.1837.(c) Padma Awards, which were player awarded - Anne Lumsden. Football
Bihari Vajpayee and Nawaz Sharif, the
instituted in the year 1954, are Olympian PK Banerjee was the first
Prime Ministers of India and Pakistan
announced every year on the occasion of footballer to win the prestigious
respectively at that time.
Republic Day. The award is given in 3 accolade.
Q.1833. Birthplace of Guru Nanak, categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan
known as Nankana Sahib today, was for exceptional and distinguished Q.1841. In which year was MS Dhoni
earlier called. service; Padma Bhushan for awarded Padma Shri Award?
SSC CHSL 16/10/2020 (Morning) distinguished service of a high order; and SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
(a) Roda (b) Umarkot Padma Shri for distinguished service. (a) 2009 (b) 2010 (c) 2007 (d) 2012
(c) Rai Bhoi di Talwandi (d) Luni The total number of awards to be given
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.1841.(a) 2009. The Padma Shri, is Sports”. The award comprises a Q.1848. The _________ is/are given for
the fourth-highest civilian award of the medallion, a certificate, and a cash prize outstanding performance in sports and
Republic of India, after the Bharat Ratna, of Rs. 25 lakh. First recipient (1991-92) - games over a period of the previous four
the Padma Vibhushan and the Padma Viswanathan Anand (Chess). Rani years and for showing qualities of
Bhushan. Established - 1954. Mahendra Rampal is the first woman Hockey Player leadership, sportsmanship and a sense
Singh Dhoni: Awards - Padma bhushan to receive the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna of discipline.
(2018), Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award Award in 2020. Winner (2022) - Achanta SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
(2007). Sharath Kamal (Table Tennis). (a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA)
Trophy
Q.1842. Which of the following awards is Q.1845. The government of India (b) Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar
presented for lifetime achievement in recently changed the name of Rajiv (c) Arjuna Awards
sports and games? It was instituted to Gandhi Khel Ratna Award to Dhyan (d) Dronacharya Awards
honour those sportspersons who have Chand Khel Ratna Award, Dhyan Chand
contributed to sports by their served in the Indian army as a : Sol.1848.(c) Arjuna Awards : Instituted
performance and continue to contribute SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) in 1961; Cash prize - ₹15 lakh; First
to the promotion of sports even after (a) Major General (b) Major awarded to football Olympian PK
their retirement from an active sporting (c) General (d) Field Marshal Banerjee; First woman awardee - Anna
career. Lumsden (Hockey). Arjuna Awards 2023 :
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift) Sol.1845.(b) Major. The Major Dhyan Aditi Gopichand Swami (archery),
(a) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Chand Khel Ratna Award is India's Mohammed Shami (cricket), Aishwary
(b) Arjuna Award highest sporting honor, awarded annually Pratap Singh Tomar (shooting), among
(c) Dhyanchand Award by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and others. MAKA (The Maulana Abul Kalam
Sports. Dhyan Chand, a legendary hockey
df
(d) Dronacharya Award Azad) Trophy : Given to an institution or
player, received the Padma Bhushan, university for top performance in
_p
Sol.1842.(c) Dhyan Chand Award. It is India's third highest civilian award, in inter-university tournaments.
awarded annually by the Ministry of 1956. His birthday, August 29, is Dronacharya Award : India's highest
na
Youth Affairs and Sports. Instituted in celebrated as National Sports Day. The sports honor for coaches. Rashtriya Khel
2002. The first recipients - Shahuraj Khel Ratna award comes with a prize of Protsahan Puraskar : Awarded to
ap
Birajdar (Boxing), Ashok Diwan (Hockey), ₹25 lakh, recognizing outstanding organizations and individuals for sports
and Aparna Ghosh (Basketball). Major achievements in sports. promotion and development.
:@
Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna (previous name
- Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award): Q.1846. Prof M Yunus won the Nobel Q.1849. Which Indian award was
Instituted in 1991-1992. peace prize in which year ? established in the year 1982, to promote
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
TG
and encourage scientific efforts in the
Q.1843. Most major sports awards are (a) 2002 (b) 2006 (c) 2004 (d) 2001 field of environment and ecology ?
accompanied by a cash reward. Which of Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
the following is the only national sports Sol.1846.(b) 2006. Prof M Yunus won
on
the Nobel Peace Prize for founding the (a) Pitambar Pant National Environment
award that does NOT include a cash Fellowship Award
reward? Grameen Bank and pioneering the
(b) Sanjay Gandhi Award for Environment
ch
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift) concepts of microcredit and
microfinance. The Prathama Bank of and Ecology
(a) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna (c) B P Pal National Environment
ar
(b) Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar Moradabad, Uttar Pradesh, was the first
Regional Rural Bank established on 2 Fellowship Award for Biodiversity
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy
Se
October 1975. (d) Indira Gandhi Paryavaran Puraskar
(d) Dronacharya Award
Q.1847. Who among the following was Sol.1849.(b) The Sanjay Gandhi Award
Sol.1843.(b) Rashtriya Khel Protsahan for Environment and Ecology is awarded
Puruskar. An honour given by the awarded the Bharat Ratna for his
contribution to the Green Revolution in annually to an individual citizen of India
Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. The engaged in scientific work in the field. It
award was launched in 2009. Awards India?
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) includes a cash prize of ₹100,000, with
and their cash prize: Major Dhyan Chand the announcement made in May or June
Khel Ratna - 25 lakh; Dronacharya Award (a) Govind Ballabh Pant
(b) PV Kane of the following year. Eligibility is open to
Regular -10 lakh; Dronacharya Award all Indian citizens.
Lifetime - 15 lakh; Arjuna Award - 15 lakh. (c) C Subramaniam
(d) APJ Abdul Kalam Q.1850. Who among the following wrote
Q.1844. In which year was the Rajiv the novel ‘Kitne Pakistan’, which won the
Gandhi Khel Ratna award renamed as Sol.1847.(c) C Subramaniam. He
received Bharat Ratna award in 1998. Sahitya Akademi Award ?
Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna award, SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
which is the highest sporting honour in The first Bharat Ratna was given to the
three members in 1954: Shri Chakravarti (a) Rajeshwar Singh (b) Kamleshwar
the nation? (c) Shrilal Shukla (d) Amrita Pritam
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift) Rajagopalachari, Dr. Sarvapalli
(a) 1991 (b) 2019 (c) 2021 (d) 2014 Radhakrishnan, Dr. Chandrasekhara Sol.1850.(b) Kamleshwar. He was
Venkata Raman. Other awardee: awarded the 2003 Sahitya Akademi
Sol.1844.(c) 2021. Major Dhyan Chand GovindBallabh Pant (1957), Pandurang Award. Other novels: “Pati Patni Aur
Khel Ratna Award : It is awarded annually Vaman Kane (1963), Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Woh”,, “Samagra Upanyas”.
by the “Ministry of Youth Affairs and Kalam (1997).
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.1851. Dronacharya Award was started Sol.1854.(a) 1954. Linus Carl Pauling (a) Rabindranath Tagore
in _______. was also awarded with the Nobel Peace (b) Dwarka Nath Tagore
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) Prize (1962). Some Scientists who won (c) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(a) 1990 (b) 1985 (c) 1961 (d) 1980 Nobel Prize in Chemistry :- Otto Paul (d) Abanindranath Tagore
Hermann Diels and Kurt Alder (1950) -
Sol.1851.(b) 1985. Dronacharya Award: “for their discovery and development of Sol.1857.(a) Rabindranath Tagore :-
The award comprises a bronze statuette the diene synthesis”. Sir Cyril Norman Mystic, artist and Bengali polymath
of Dronacharya, a certificate, ceremonial Hinshelwood and Nikolay Semenov (great poet, philosopher, music
dress, and a money prize of Rs 15 lakh (1956) - “for their research into the composer and a leader of Brahma
(lifetime) and 10 Lakh (regular). The first mechanism of chemical reactions”. Samaj). Books written by Rabindranath
recipients of the award were Frederick Sanger (1958)- “for his work on Tagore - Gora (Fair-Faced) and Ghare
Bhalchandra Bhaskar Bhagwat the structure of proteins, especially that -Baire (The Home and the World).
(Wrestling), Om Prakash Bhardwaj of insulin”. National anthem of India composed by
(Boxing), and O. M. Nambiar (Athletics), Rabindranath Tagore.
who were honored in 1985. Q.1855. For which discovery did William
Bradford Shockley, John Bardeen and Q.1858. Who among the following is a
Q.1852. When was Kapil Dev awarded Walter Houser Brattain jointly receive the Nobel Laureate who is also known as the
with Padma Shri Award? Nobel Prize in Physics in 1956? father of micro finance systems?
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift) SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (4th shift) SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 2nd shift)
(a) 1981 (b) 1980 (c) 1982 (d) 1983 (a) Discovery of transistor effect (a) Raghuram Rajan (b) Sandra Rotman
(b) Discovery of thermionic emission (c) Amartya Sen (d) Muhammad Yunus
Sol.1852.(c) 1982. Kapil Dev (The
Haryana Hurricane) : He was the captain (c) Discovery of electromagnetic Sol.1858.(d) Muhammad Yunus. He is a
df
of the Indian cricket team when India induction Bangladeshi social entrepreneur, banker,
lifted a World Cup trophy (1983). Awards (d) Discovery of receptors for economist and civil society leader who
_p
- Padma Bhushan (1991), Arjuna Award temperature and touch was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize
for Cricket (1979), C. K. Nayudu Lifetime 2006 for founding the Grameen Bank and
na
Sol.1855.(a) Discovery of transistor
Achievement Award (2013). effect. Nobel Prize: Started in 1901, work to “create economic and social
development from below”.
ap
Q.1853. Who received the Nobel Prize in Alfred Nobel (discovered the Dynamite in
1901 for 'recognition of the extraordinary 1867). Indian who recieved Nobel prize: Q.1859. Who along with Arthur Compton
:@
services rendered by the discovery of the First - Rabindra Nath Tagore - 1913 received the Nobel Prize in 1927 for the
laws of chemical dynamics and osmotic (Literature), Chandrashekhara Venkat development of the cloud chamber for
pressure in solutions'? Raman - 1930 (Physics), Har Gobind the detection of charged particles?
TG
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift) Khorana - 1968 (Physiology or Medicine), SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Hermann Emil Fischer Amartya sen - 1998 (Economics), Kailash (a) Charles Wilson (b) Frederick Soddy
(b) Jacobus Henricus van 't Hoff Satyarthi - 2014 (Peace). (c) Ernest Lawrence (d) Harold Urey
on
(c) Svante August Arrhenius Q.1856. Paramvir Chakra, Ashok Chakra
(d) Henri Moissan Sol.1859.(a) Charles Wilson. Frederick
and Vir Chakra are presented during the Soddy - A British chemist, won the 1921
ch
Sol.1853.(b) Jacobus Henricus van't celebration of which day ? Nobel Prize in chemistry for his research
Hoff. Nobel Prize - 1902 - Hermann Emil SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (4th shift) on radioactive decay and his formulation
ar
Fischer “in recognition of the (a) Republic Day of the concept of isotopes. Ernest
(b) Independence Day
Se
extraordinary services he has rendered Lawrence - Nobel Prize in Physics in
by his work on sugar and purine (c) Gandhi Jayanti 1939 for his invention of the cyclotron.
synthesis’”. 1903 - Svante August (d) Indian Air Force Day Harold Urey - Nobel Prize in Chemistry in
Arrhenius “in recognition of the Sol.1856.(a) Republic Day. Post 1934 "for his discovery of deuterium, a
extraordinary services he has rendered to -independence, the first three gallantry heavy isotope of hydrogen".
the advancement of chemistry by his awards were Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir
electrolytic theory of dissociation”. 1906 Q.1860. Who received a Nobel Peace
Chakra, and Vir Chakra, instituted on 26th Prize for dismantling apartheid in South
- Henri Moissan “in recognition of the January 1950 (effective from 15th
great services rendered by him in his Africa?
August 1947). Later, Ashoka Chakra SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
investigation and isolation of the element Class-I, Class-II, and Class-III were
fluorine, and for the adoption in the (a) Nelson Mandela
instituted on 4th January 1952, renamed (b) Rabindranath Tagore
service of science of the electric furnace as Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra, and
called after him”. (c) Mahatma Gandhi
Shaurya Chakra in January 1967. Order (d) Albert John Lutuli
Q.1854. When did Linus Carl Pauling of precedence is Param Vir Chakra,
receive the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for Ashoka Chakra, Mahavir Chakra, Kirti Sol.1860.(a) Nelson Mandela and
'his research into the nature of the Chakra, Vir Chakra, and Shaurya Chakra. Frederik Willem de Klerk received the
chemical bond and its applications to the Nobel Peace Prize in 1993. Mahatma
Q.1857. Who among the following was Gandhi (Symbol of non violence):
elucidation of the structure of complex the first non-European to win a Nobel
substances'? Nominated for Nobel Peace Prize in
prize in 1913 in literature for his work 1937, 1938, 1939, 1947 and 1948 but
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift) 'Gitanjali' ?
(a) 1954 (b) 1950 (c) 1956 (d) 1958 never awarded the prize. Albert John
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (3rd shift) Lutuli: Awarded the 1960 Nobel Peace
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Prize for his role in leading the Q.1865. Bessie Award is a dance award (At Night All Blood Is Black).
non-violent anti -apartheid movement. given in which country?
SSC MTS 22/07/2022 (Morning) Q.1870. Who among the following was
Q.1861. Which citizen of the Republic of the first Dr Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar
(a) Germany (b) Norway
India was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize awardee?
(c) Australia (d) USA
in the year 2014 ? SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Morning)
SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (4th Shift) Sol.1865.(d) U.S.A. Bessie Awards (The (a) MN Saha (b) KS Krishnan
(a) Amartya Sen New York Dance and Performance (c) CV Raman (d) S Chandrasekhar
(b) C. V. Raman Awards; Established in 1983) are
(c) Kailash Satyarthi awarded annually to dance artists Sol.1870.(b) KS Krishnan. Dr Shanti
(d) Rabindranath Tagore presenting their work in New York City. Swarup Bhatnagar award: The purpose
of the award is to recognise outstanding
Sol.1861.(c) Kailash Satyarthi. The Q.1866. Which Indian actress was also Indian work in science and technology.
Nobel Peace Prize 2014 was awarded one of the dancers to be honoured with
jointly to Kailash Satyarthi and Malala the 'Padma Shri' award in 1968? Q.1871. In which discipline is the Bidhan
Yousafzai "for their struggle against the SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Afternoon) Chandra Roy Award given
suppression of children and young (a) Hema Malini (b) Sridevi SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Afternoon)
people and for the right of all children to (c) Vyjayanthimala (d) Madhubala (a) Law (b) Architecture
education". (c) sports (d) medicine
Sol.1866.(c) Vyjayanthimala. Award:
Q.1862. The first woman to win the Padma Vibhushan (2024). Sol.1871.(d) Medicine.
Dronacharya Award was weightlifting The Bidhan Chandra Roy Award was
coach _______ in 2000. Q.1867. The South Indian film dance instituted in 1962. Legal Era Awards
df
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (3rd Shift) choreographer, K Shivashankar, won given in the field of law. The Pritzker
(a) Sunita Sharma (b) Renu Kohli which of the following prestigious Prize award is given in the Architecture
_p
(c) Purnima Mahato (d) Hansa Sharma awards in 2010 for the best field.
choreography in the Telugu film
na
Sol.1862.(d) Hansa Sharma. The Magadheera? Q.1872. The Gitanjali Literary Prize is
Dronacharya award contains a medallion, SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Afternoon) awarded in association with which
ap
a certificate, and a money prize of Rs 15 (a) National Film Award country?
lakh (lifetime) and 10 Lakh (regular). (b) Filmfare Award SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Afternoon)
:@
First awarded (1985) - Bhalachandra (c) International Film Academy Award (a) Germany (b) England
Bhaskar Bhagwat (Wrestling), Om (d) Guild Award (c) France (d) The US
Prakash Bhardwaj (Boxing), O. M.
Sol.1872.(c) France.
TG
Nambiar (Athletics). Sol.1867.(a) National Film Award. The
most prominent film award ceremony in The Gitanjali Literary prize has two aims:
Q.1863. Who was conferred with the to contribute to the promotion of the
India. Established in 1954. It has been
Ashok Chakra for his gallantry in 26/11 French language in India and also to the
on
administered by the Indian government's
Mumbai terrorist attacks ? promotion of Indian works in France.
Directorate of Film Festivals since 1973.
SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (4th Shift)
ch
(a) Mohan Chand Sharma Q.1868. Who was awarded the Nobel Q.1873. The 'Amrita Devi Bishnoi
(b) Hemant Karkare Prize in Physics in 1926, ‘for his work on National Award' is given for :
ar
(c) R P Diengdoh the discontinuous structure of matter’? SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Morning)
(d) Mohit Sharma SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Evening) (a) environment protection
Se
(a) Charles Wilson (b) energy protection
Sol.1863.(b) Hemant Karkare was the (b) Murray Gell-Mann (c) wildlife protection
chief of the Mumbai Anti-Terrorist Squad (c) Jean Baptiste Perrin (d) biodiversity protection
(ATS). He was killed in action during the (d) Owen Willans Richardson
2008 Mumbai attacks. In 2009, he was Sol.1873.(c) wildlife protection.
posthumously given the Ashoka Chakra, Sol.1868.(c) Jean Baptiste Perrin. The 'Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award '
India's highest peacetime gallantry Charles Thomson Rees Wilson (1927; for is in remembrance of Amrita Devi
decoration. his invention of the cloud chamber). Bishnoi, who died in the 1730 Khejarli
Murray Gell- Mann (1969; for the massacre while trying to protect a grove
Q.1864. Which Indian music director was classification of elementary particles and of Khejri trees in Khejarli, Rajasthan.
awarded Japan's Fukuoka prize - 2016 their interactions). Owen Willans
for his outstanding contribution in Richardson (1928; for his work on the Q.1874. Who among the following was
creating, preserving and showcasing thermionic phenomenon and especially the first recipient of Padma Vibhushan?
South Asian traditional fusion music? for the discovery of the law named after SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Evening)
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (4th Shift) him). (a) JRD Tata
(a) Vishal Bharadwaj (b) Satyendra Nath Bose
(b) Pritam Chakraborty Q.1869. In which year was the (c) Hargobind Khorana
(c) AR Rahman International Booker Prize established? (d) John Matthai
(d) MM Keeravani SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Evening)
(a) 2005 (b) 1969 (c) 1981 (d) 1918 Sol.1874.(b) Satyendra Nath Bose along
Sol.1864.(c) A.R. Rahman. Padma Shri with Nandalal Bose, Zakir Husain,
(2000), Padma Bhushan (2010), two Sol.1869.(a) 2005. 2022- Geetanjali Balasaheb Gangadhar Kher, V. K. Krishna
Grammy Awards (both in 2010). Shree (Tomb of Sand), 2021 - David Diop Menon, and Jigme Dorji Wangchuck
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(Bhutan), who were honoured with SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening) (c) Lucknow (d) Kolkata
Padma Vibhushan in 1954. (a) Indian National Congress
(b) Ministry of Human Resource Sol.1883.(b) Jodhpur. The first G20
Q.1875. The Ramon Magsaysay Award Development, Government of India Employment Working Group (EWG)This
was established in the year ______. (c) Ministry of Home Affairs, Government meeting was part of India's presidency of
SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Evening) of India the G20, which focused on addressing
(a) 1957 (b) 1982 (c) 1962 (d) 1965 (d) Indira Gandhi National Open employment challenges and promoting
University inclusive labor markets among member
Sol.1875.(a) 1957. Ramon Magsaysay countries. The G20, an intergovernmental
Award is an annual award established to Sol.1879.(a) Indian National Congress. forum of 19 countries and the EU, was
perpetuate former Philippine President This award was given for the first time in founded in 1999 in response to global
Ramon Magsaysay's example of integrity 1985. It is given on Indira Gandhi’s economic crises.
in governance, courageous service to the martyrdom day (31st October) and it
people, and pragmatic idealism within a carries an amount of 10 lakh in cash and Q.1884. In which year was the first
democratic society. a citation. underground section (Vishwavidyalaya -
Kashmere Gate) of the Golden Route
Q.1876. The ICTP Ramanujan Prize is Q.1880. Which American President won opened in New Delhi?
awarded annually for excellence in _____. the Nobel Peace Prize? SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Evening) SSC CHSL 12/10/2020 (Evening) (a) 2004 (b) 2000 (c) 1998 (d) 1997
(a) Chemistry (b) Physics (a) Bill Clinton
(c) Mathematics (d) Biology (b) George Washington Sol.1884.(a) 2004. The Red Line, the
(c) Barack Obama inaugural line of the Delhi Metro, was
Sol.1876.(c) Mathematics. The prize is officially opened in December 2002, by
(d) Abraham Lincoln
df
named after the Indian mathematician the then Prime Minister of India, Atal
Srinivasa Ramanujan. It was founded in Sol.1880.(c) Barack Obama. He was Bihari Vajpayee.
_p
2004 and was first awarded in 2005. awarded in 2009 for his “extraordinary
Another Award, SASTRA Ramanujan efforts to strengthen international Q.1885. In which year did the Bhopal gas
na
Prize was established in 2005. diplomacy and cooperation between tragedy occur?
people.” SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift)
ap
Q.1877. Which of the following (a) 1984 (b) 1982 (c) 1988 (d) 1985
organizations awards the Nobel Q.1881. Who among the following was
:@
Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences? the first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Sol.1885.(a) 1984. The Bhopal disaster
SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Evening) Ratna Award? or Bhopal gas tragedy was a chemical
(a) Norwegian Nobel Committee SSC CHSL 15/10/2020 (Afternoon) accident in December 1984. Over 40 tons
TG
(b) Karolinska Institute (a) Vijay Amritraj of methyl isocyanate gas leaked from the
(c) The Royal Swedish Academy (b) PT Usha Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL)
Sciences (c) Sachin Tendulkar pesticide plant in Bhopal (Madhya
on
(d) Swedish Academy (d) Viswanathan Anand Pradesh). Other Major Industrial
disasters in India: Chasnala Mining
Sol.1877.(c) The Royal Swedish Sol.1881.(d) Viswanathan Anand. He is Disaster - In 1975, a coal mine in
ch
Academy Sciences. It was first awarded an Indian chess grandmaster and also Jharkhand experienced the Chasnala
in 1969 to Dutch economist Jan the former world champion. Rajiv Gandhi mining accident. Jaipur Oil Depot Fire -
ar
Tinbergen and Norwegian economist Khel Ratna Award (Dhyanchand Khel The oil store owned by the Indian Oil
Ragnar Frisch "for having developed and
Se
Ratna) is given for the spectacular and Company in Rajasthan had this industrial
applied dynamic models for the analysis most outstanding performance in the accident in 2009.
of economic processes. field of sports by a sportsperson over a
period of four years. The award was Q.1886. In which year did Swami
Q.1878. Who is the first Indian to have
started in the year 1991-92. Vivekananda give his speech at the
won the Pulitzer Prize?
Chicago Parliament of Religions?
SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Morning) Q.1882. Name the first actor to win the SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
(a) Gobind Behari Lal Oscar Awards? (a) 1893 (b) 1892 (c) 1891 (d) 1890
(b) Sanghamitra Kalita SSC CGL 9/03/2020 (Morning)
(c) Jhumpa Lahiri (a) Warner Baxter (b) Emil Jannings Sol.1886.(a) 1893. Swami Vivekananda
(d) Geeta Anand (c) Lionel Barrymore (d) Charlie Chaplin was born Narendra Nath Datta, on 12th
January 1863 in Calcutta. He was the
Sol.1878.(a) Gobind Behari Lal. He was Sol.1882.(b) Emil Jannings. The first foremost disciple of Ramakrishna
an Indian-American journalist and Academy Awards ceremony was held in Paramahamsa and a world
independence activist. He won the Hollywood on May 16, 1929. spokesperson for Vedanta. He founded
Pulitzer in 1937 in the journalism
the Ramakrishna Mission in May 1897,
category. Pulitzer Prize - First awarded -
1917. Presented by - Columbia
Important Events after his guru Ramakrishna
Paramahamsa. His books are
University. Awarded for - Excellence in
Q.1883. Where was the first meeting of 'Jnanayoga’, ‘Bhaktiyoga’, ‘Rajayoga’, ‘To
newspaper journalism, literary
the Employment Working Group of G20 the youth of India’ etc. He established the
achievements, musical composition.
conducted ? Belur Math in Belur, Howrah district. He
Q.1879. The Indira Gandhi Award for SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) died in 1902 in Belur Math in West
National Integration is accorded by the: (a) Jaipur (b) Jodhpur Bengal.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.1887. The Beating Retreat Ceremony Sol.1890.(d) Mame Khan - An Indian Sol.1894.(b) 1962. The National
during Republic Day is held every year at Rajasthani folk singer who is known for Integration Council (NIC) is a group of
which of the following places? his Sufi and folk music performances. senior politicians and public figures in
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Cannes Film Festival (Festival de India that looks for ways to address the
(a) Hyderabad (b) Jaipur Cannes) - A film festival held annually in problems of communalism, casteism,
(c) New Delhi (d) Bengaluru Cannes (France). First held - 1946. The and regionalism.
festival came to provide a rendezvous for
Sol.1887.(c) New Delhi. The Beating those interested in the art and influence Q.1895. In which of the following years
Retreat Ceremony is held every year at of the movies. was the National Food Security Act
the Vijay Chowk on January 29, marking enacted in India?
the conclusion of the Republic Day Q.1891. Reni Village in Garhwal was SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
celebrations. The first Beating Retreat known for what environmental (a) 2013 (b) 2009 (c) 2012 (d) 2011
ceremony in India was held in 1955, movement in 1970?
during the state visit of Queen Elizabeth SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Afternoon) Sol.1895.(a) 2013. National Food
II and Prince Philip. It was conceived by (a) Save Silent Valley Movement Security Act - The Act legally entitled
Major GA Roberts and commissioned by (b) Chipko Movement 75% of the rural population and 50% of
then-Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. (c) Jungle Bachao Andolan the urban population to receive
(d) Appiko Movement subsidized food grains under Targeted
Q.1888. Who takes the salute during the Public Distribution System.
Republic Day parade at New Delhi? Sol.1891.(b) Chipko movement.
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) Sunderlal Bahuguna gave the movement Q.1896. In which year was ‘Ramlila’
(a) Chief Justice (b) Governor the proper direction. Save Silent Valley inscribed on the UNESCO Representative
(c) President (d) Prime Minister was a social movement (in 1973) aimed List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of
df
at the protection of Silent Valley, Humanity ?
Sol.1888.(c) President. Republic Day SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
_p
Palakkad district of Kerala, India. In the
parade takes place every year on 26 early 1980s, the Jungle Bachao Andolan (a) 2010 (b) 2008 (c) 2006 (d) 2012
January at Kartavya Path (Former Raj
na
(Singhbhum District, Jharkhand) and the Sol.1896.(b) 2008. UNESCO Intangible
Path), New Delhi. The parade marches Appiko Movement forest-based
from the Rashtrapati Bhavan on the Cultural Heritage India - Ramman (2009),
ap
environmental movements (Uttara Chhau dance, Kalbelia, Mudiyettu (2010),
Kartavya Path to India Gate and from Kannada district of Karnataka in the
there to Red Fort. It opens with the Buddhist chanting of Ladakh (2012),
:@
Western Ghats). Sankirtana (2013), Traditional brass and
unfurling of the national flag by the
President of India. This is followed by Q.1892. Which Indian finance minister copper craft of utensil making among the
marching from several regiments of the was India’s delegate to the World Thatheras of Jandiala Guru, Punjab
TG
Army, Navy, and Air Force, along with Monetary Conference at Bretton Woods (2014), Nouroz, yoga - (2016), Kumbh
their bands. tableaux from various states in 1944? Mela (2017), Durga puja (2021).
signifying their cultures are displayed. A SSC MTS 06/10/2021 (Morning)
on
Q.1897. When was the Indian Reform
beating retreat ceremony signifies the (a) KC Neogy Association formed?
end of the parade. (b) CD Deshmukh SSC CHSL 17/03/2020 (Afternoon)
ch
(c) John Mathai (a) 1885 (b) 1870 (c) 1860 (d) 1865
Q.1889. The Rajpath was decided to be a
(d) RK Shanmukham Chetty
permanent venue for the Republic Day
ar
Sol.1897.(b) 1870. Kesava Chandra Sen
parade from which of the following year Sol.1892.(d) RK Shanmukham Chetty. was the founder of the Indian Reform
Se
onwards? He was an Indian lawyer, economist, and Association. He joined the Brahmo
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) politician who served as independent Samaj in 1857.
(a) 1955 (b) 1959 (c) 1958 (d) 1951 India's first finance minister from 1947 to
1948. Q.1898. When was the construction of
Sol.1889.(a) 1955. The initial four
the Rashtrapati Bhavan completed?
Republic day parades were held at
Q.1893. In which year the post of SSC CHSL 17/03/2020 (Afternoon)
different places that were Irwin
National Security Advisor created in (a) 1929 (b) 1953 (c) 1949 (d) 1959
Amphitheatre, Kingsway, Red Fort and
Ramlila Maidan respectively between India?
Sol.1898.(a) 1929. Rashtrapati Bhavan:
1950 to 1954. The French army was the SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Afternoon)
The official residence of the President of
first foreign army to participate in India’s (a) 2000 (b) 1998 (c) 2003 (d) 1999
India. Designed by Edwin Landseer
Republic Day Parade in 2016 (67th Lutyens. It took 17 years to complete it.
Sol.1893.(b) 1998. Brajesh Mishra was
Republic day). The chief guest of the first
appointed as the first National Security
Republic Day Parade was the President Q.1899. When was the Rovers Cup
Advisor of India. Ajit Kumar Doval is the
of Indonesia Sukarno was the chief started?
current National Security Advisor of
guest. SSC CHSL 19/03/2020 (Afternoon)
India.
(a) 1891 (b) 1952 (c) 1981 (d) 1931
Q.1890. Who among the following
Q.1894. In which year was the first
singers became the first Indian folk artist Sol.1899.(a) 1891. The Rovers Cup was
meeting of the National Integration
to attend the Cannes Film Festival 2022 ? a football tournament held in India. It
Council held?
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift) was started by British football
SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Morning)
(a) Gurudas Man (b) Daler Mehndi enthusiasts in Bombay.
(a) 1955 (b) 1962 (c) 1951 (d) 1965
(c) Teejan Bai (d) Mame Khan
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.1900. When was WhatsApp (a) 1950 (b) 1952 (c) 1956 (d) 1947 (a) 1991 (b) 1994 (c) 1993 (d) 1992
incorporated?
SSC CHSL 19/03/2020 (Afternoon) Sol.1906.(b) 1952. Freedom fighter Potti Sol.1912.(d) 1992. National Stock
(a) 2008 (b) 2007 (c) 2009 (d) 2010 Sriramulu wanted the capital of Andhra Exchange of India Limited is the leading
Pradesh to be built in Rayalaseema. It stock exchange of India, located in
Sol.1900.(c) 2009. WhatsApp was was due to his 58 day fast, a separate Mumbai. It was the first dematerialized
founded by Brian Acton and Jan Koum . Andhra state was carved out of the electronic exchange in the country.
erstwhile Madras Presidency with
Q.1901. When was the Secretariat of the Kurnool as its capital. Q.1913. In which year was the
SAARC set up? foundation stone for the Gateway of
SSC CHSL 19/03/2020 (Evening) Q.1907. When was the PIN Code (Postal India laid in Bombay (now Mumbai)?
(a) 1987 (b) 1984 (c) 1986 (d) 1985 Index Code) introduced in India? SSC CGL 03/03/2020 (Afternoon)
SSC CHSL 16/10/2020 (Afternoon) (a) 1913 (b) 1915 (c) 1905 (d) 1920
Sol.1901.(a) 1987. The SAARC (a) 1949 (b) 1969 (c) 1972 (d) 1963
Secretariat was established in Sol.1913.(a) 1913 (by then governor of
Kathmandu. Its role is to coordinate and Sol.1907.(c) 1972. Postal Index Number Bombay, Sir George Sydenham Clarke). It
monitor the implementation of SAARC code - Also known as Zip code or area was built in greeting the arrival of
activities, service the meetings of the postal code, Pin code is the post office King-Emperor George V and Queen Mary,
association and serve as the channel of numbering code system used by the the first British monarch to visit India.
communication between SAARC and postal service of India, India Post.
other international organizations. Q.1914. In which period was the
Q.1908. When was the Human legendary Victoria Terminus Station
Q.1902. When was the Eden Gardens Development Report first published? (currently Chhtarpati Shivaji Maharaj
df
Stadium, Kolkata established? SSC CHSL 20/10/2020 (Morning) Terminus), Mumbai built?
SSC CHSL 19/03/2020 (Evening) (a) 1980 (b) 2000 (c) 1990 (d) 1981 SSC CGL 04/03/2020 (afternoon)
_p
(a) 1875 (b) 1854 (c) 1885 (d) 1864 (a) 1878 to 1883 (b) 1843 to 1853
Sol.1908.(c) 1990. Human Development (c) 1933 to 1943 (d) 1911 to 1921
na
Sol.1902.(d) 1864. Eden Gardens Report is an annual report published by
Stadium is the oldest cricket stadium in the Human Development Report Office of Sol.1914.(a) 1878 to 1883.
ap
India. the United Nations Development The Chhatrapati Shivaji station, formerly
Programme. known as Victoria Terminus, was
Q.1903. When was Safari first released
:@
designed by the British architect F.W.
by Apple? Q.1909. Telangana became the 29th Stevens.
SSC CHSL 19/03/2020 (Evening) state of India in which year?
(a) 1998 (b) 2003 (c) 2001 (d) 2002 SSC CHSL 21/10/2020 (Afternoon) Q.1915. In which year was the Currency
TG
(a) 2015 (b) 2014 (c) 2016 (d) 2017 Building in the BBD Bagh or Dalhousie
Sol.1903.(b) 2003. A mobile version has area of Kolkata constructed?
been bundled with iOS devices since the Sol.1909.(b) 2014. In February 2014, SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Morning)
on
iPhone’s introduction in 2007. Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, (a) 1900 (b) 1833 (c) 1850 (d) 1910
2014 bill was passed by the Parliament
Q.1904. In which year did UNESCO
ch
of India for the formation of Telangana Sol.1915.(b) 1833. The beautiful colonial
include Yoga in its Intangible Cultural state comprising ten districts from building was designed in Italian style
Heritage list?
ar
north-western Andhra Pradesh. with Venetian windows. This building
SSC CHSL 13/10/2020 (Morning) was the office of the Reserve Bank of
Se
(a) 2014 (b) 2016 (c) 2018 (d) 2015 Q.1910. In which year was the ‘Ramnath India till the year 1937.
Goenka Excellence in Journalism’ award
Sol.1904.(b) 2016. UNESCO List of instituted in India? Q.1916. In which of the following years
Intangible Cultural Heritage includes SSC CHSL 21/10/2020 (Evening) were two additional Commissioners
those intangible elements that help (a) 2010 (b) 2006 (c) 2008 (d) 2007 appointed to the Election commission of
demonstrate diversity of cultural heritage India for the first time?
and raise awareness about its Sol.1910.(b) 2006. Ramnath Goenka SSC CGL 06/03/2020 (Evening)
importance. Excellence in Journalism’ awards are (a) 1989 (b) 1991 (c) 1990 (d) 1998
given for both print journalism as well as
Q.1905. In which year did the Dalai Lama
broadcast journalism. Sol.1916.(a) 1989.
cross over into India and take asylum?
Originally the commission had only a
SSC CHSL 15/10/2020 (Afternoon) Q.1911. In which year was the Rigveda
Chief Election Commissioner. It currently
(a) 1957 (b) 1959 (c) 1962 (d) 1952 manuscript included in the UNESCO's
consists of the Chief Election
Memory of the World Register?
Sol.1905.(b) 1959. Dalai Lama fought Commissioner and two Election
SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Afternoon)
his way through the snow to reach Commissioners.
(a) 2005 (b) 2006 (c) 2004 (d) 2007
Chutangmu, a tiny Assam Rifles outpost
Q.1917. Which of the following years is
near Tawang, to request asylum in India. Sol.1911.(d) 2007. The Rigveda, the
called the Year of the Great Divide in the
oldest among the four Vedas (Rigveda,
Q.1906. In which year was a separate demographic history of India?
Yajurveda, Samaveda and Atharvaveda).
Andhra state formed after the linguistic SSC CGL 09/03/2020 (Morning)
reorganization of the then Madras Q.1912. When was the National Stock (a)1951 (b)1921 (c)1931 (d)1911
province? Exchange of India established?
SSC CHSL 16/10/2020 (Morning) SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Evening) Sol.1917.(b) 1921 is a “year of the great
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
divide” in the demographic history of Sol.1921.(b) Mahendra Lal Sircar. Sol.1926.(b) Premchand Roychand.
India when mortality started to decline Ashutosh Mukhopadhyay founded the
leading to acceleration in the rate of Calcutta Mathematical Society in 1908. Schemes
population growth (the second stage). Prafulla Chandra Roy is known as the
father of Indian Chemistry. A Q.1927. Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar
Founder crescograph is a device for measuring Yojana was implemented through which
the growth in plants was invented by organisation?
Q.1918. In 1990, who established Jagadish Chandra Bose. SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Morning)
Nrityagram, a dance school in (a) India Post Payments Bank
Q.1922. Who among the following made
Bengaluru? (b) HDFC Bank
the first compound microscope?
SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) Employees Provident Fund
SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Afternoon)
(a) Madhavi Mudgal Organisation
(a) William Gilbert (b) Zacharias Jansen
(b) Protima Gauri Bedi (d) Life Insurance Corporation
(c) John Harrington (d) Galileo Galilei
(c) Mukti Mohan
Sol.1927.(c) Employees Provident Fund
(d) Rekha Raju Sol.1922.(b) Zacharias Jansen.
Organisation. Aatmanirbhar Bharat
A compound microscope has multiple
Sol.1918.(b) Protima Gauri Bedi. She Rojgar Yojana (ABRY): Launched in 2020
lenses: The objective lens is
was an Indian model turned Odissi under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat 3.0
compounded (multiplied) by the eyepiece
exponent. Other Odishi Exponents: package, it aims to boost the economy,
lens to obtain a high magnification.
Kelucharan Mohapatra, Guru Pankaj generate employment during the
Charan Das, Sujata Mohapatra, Ratikant Q.1923. Who among the following Sikh post-COVID recovery phase, and
Mohapatra, Gangadhar Pradhan, Nandita Gurus founded the Tarn Taran Sahib ? incentivize new job creation.
df
Behera, Sanchita Bhattacharyaa, SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Evening)
Q.1928. During the Green Revolution
Sharmila Biswas. (a) Guru Ram Das
_p
period in India, child nutrition-focused
(b) Guru Arjan Dev
Q.1919. The Lucknow Gharana of Kathak scheme, the Integrated Child
(c) Guru Nanak Dev
na
was founded by ___________ , a devotee Development Scheme (ICDS) was
(d) Guru Gobind Singh
of the Bhakti movement who lived in launched in ________.
ap
southeast Uttar Pradesh. Sol.1923.(b) Guru Arjan Dev. He was the SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon)
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift) fifth Sikh Guru and laid the foundation of (a) 1972 (b) 1977 (c) 1975 (d) 1976
:@
(a) Ram Kumar (b) Bhagwan Ram Tarn Taran Sahib in 1596.
Sol.1928.(c) 1975. The ICDS scheme
(c) Ishwari Prasad (d) Shyam Kumar
Q.1924. Who among the following provides services to children under 6
TG
Sol.1919.(c) Ishwari Prasad. Some invented the aeroplane? years of age, pregnant and lactating
Important gharanas and their founders: SSC CHSL 15/10/2020 (Afternoon) mothers, and women aged 16–44. The
Kirana gharana - Ustad Abdul Karim (a) Auguste and Louis Lumière program's goals are to improve the
health, nutrition, and education of the
on
Khan. Mewati gharana - Ustad Ghagge (b) Alexander Graham Bell
Nazir Khan and Ustad Wahid Khan. (c) Orville and Wilbur Wright target community.
Indore gharana - Amir Khan. (d) Louis Pasteur and Alexander Fleming Q.1929. In Pradhan Mantri Gramin
ch
Jaipur-Atrauli gharana - Alladiya Khan. Awaas yojana, the cost of unit assistance
Sol.1924.(c) Orville and Wilbur Wright
ar
Q.1920. Who among the following was is shared between Central and State
(Wright brothers). Auguste and Louis
the founding member of Sri Sai Nataraja Governments in the ratio ___________ in
Lumiere invented cinematograph and
Se
Academy of Kuchipudi that offers plain areas.
autochrome (a photography process).
training and higher studies in Kuchipudi? SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
The first practical telephone and
SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (a) 60 : 40 (b) 40 : 60
Graphophone was invented by Alexander
(a) P Ramadevi (c) 90 : 10 (d) 30 : 70
Graham Bell.
(b) Kaushalya Reddy Sol.1929.(a) 60 : 40. The Pradhan Mantri
Q.1925. Which of the following was
(c) Yamini Krishnamurthy Awas Yojana - Gramin (PMAY-G) :
invented by Walter Hunt?
(d) Aparna Satheesan Launched on November 20, 2016. It aims
SSC CHSL 21/10/2020 (Afternoon)
to provide housing with basic amenities
Sol.1920.(a) P Ramadevi. (a) Ship (b) Safety pin
to houseless families and those living in
Natya Tarangini Institute of Kuchipudi (c) Scooter (d) Safety lamp
dilapidated or kutcha houses. Targeting
Dance : Founded by Raja and Radha
Sol.1925.(b) Safety pin. Walter Hunt also 2.95 crore houses by March 2024. In the
Reddy in New Delhi (1976).
invented a sewing machine in 1833. Northeastern and Himalayan States, the
Q.1921. Who among the following was Safety Lamp invented in 1815 by Sir cost-sharing ratio is 90 : 10. This scheme
the founder of the Indian Association for Humphry Davy. restructured the Indira Awas Yojana (IAY)
the Cultivation of Science? from 1985.
Q.1926. Who among the following
SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Evening)
founded the Bombay Stock Exchange? Q.1930. Which state initiated the
(a) Ashutosh Mukhopadhyay
SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Evening) implementation of the Mid-day Meal
(b) Mahendra Lal Sircar
(a) Ashishkumar Chauhan scheme in elementary schools?
(c) Prafulla Chandra Roy
(b) Premchand Roychand SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(d) Jagadish Chandra Bose
(c) Vikramjit Sen (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Roychand Deepchand (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Karnataka
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.1930.(a) Tamil Nadu. Mid-day Meal remittance, credit, insurance, pension in (a) 2003 (b) 1983 (c) 1993 (d) 2013
Scheme : Introduced in 1956 by Tamil an affordable manner?
Nadu's Chief Minister K. Kamaraj, the SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.1938.(c) 1993. Objective : The
scheme aimed to reduce school dropout (a) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana Member of Parliament Local Area
rates and increase enrollment by (b) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Development Scheme (MPLADS) aims to
providing free meals to students. Kaushalya Yojana empower MPs to recommend
(c) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana developmental projects that focus on
Q.1931. In which year was the PM (d) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana creating durable community assets in
Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure areas such as drinking water, primary
Mission launched? Sol.1934.(d) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan education, public health, sanitation, and
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) Yojana (PMJDY) is a National Mission road infrastructure, primarily within their
(a) 2020 (b) 2022 (c) 2021 (d) 2023 for Financial Inclusion launched on constituencies. Each year, MPs receive
August 28, 2014. ₹5 crore in two installments of ₹2.5 crore
Sol.1931.(c) 2021. Prime Minister Shri each. Notably, the funds allocated under
Narendra Modi inaugurated the PM Q.1935. In which year was the Digital MPLADS are non-lapsable.
Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure India mission launched?
Mission, which aims to be one of the SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.1939. Under Pradhan Mantri Fasal
largest initiatives in India focused on (a) 2014 (b) 2016 (c) 2015 (d) 2017 Bima Yojana, the maximum premium
improving healthcare infrastructure. payable by the farmers will be _________
Sol.1935.(c) 2015. The Digital India for all kharif food and oilseeds crops.
Q.1932. Consider the following programme was launched by Prime SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
statements and choose the correct Minister Shri Narendra Modi. Aim : To (a) 4% (b) 2% (c) 6% (d) 8%
statement(s) from the following: transform India into a knowledge-based
df
1. The UDAN scheme has completed five economy and a digitally empowered Sol.1939.(b) 2%. The Pradhan Mantri
years since its implementation in 2017. society by ensuring digital services,
_p
Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), launched on
2. It is the flagship scheme of the digital access, digital inclusion, digital 18 February 2016 by Prime Minister
Ministry of Science and Technology. empowerment and bridging the digital
na
Narendra Modi, is an insurance service
3. The Airports Authority of India is the divide. Coordinated by : Ministry of for farmers' crops. It follows the "One
implementing agency of this scheme. Electronics and Information Technology.
ap
Nation–One Scheme" concept, replacing
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) the earlier National Agriculture Insurance
(a) Only statement 3 Q.1936. In which year was Smart Cities
Scheme and Modified National
:@
(b) Only statement 2 Mission launched?
Agricultural Insurance Scheme.
(c) Only statements 2 and 3 SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(d) Only statements 1 and 3 (a) 2015 (b) 2013 (c) 2019 (d) 2018 Q.1940. What is the primary objective of
TG
the 'Standup India' initiative?
Sol.1932.(d) Only statements 1 and 3. Sol.1936.(a) 2015. It is a Centrally
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
The UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) Sponsored Scheme to enhance the
(a) To boost the manufacturing sector
on
scheme is an initiative by the Indian quality of life in 100 selected cities by
(b) To promote digital transactions
government aimed at enhancing providing efficient services, robust
nationwide
infrastructure, and a sustainable
ch
connectivity to remote and regional areas (c) To facilitate bank loans for SC/ST and
while making air travel more affordable. environment. The Central Government
women entrepreneurs
has decided to extend the deadline for
ar
The scheme was introduced in 2016 as (d) To support all types of startups
part of the National Civil Aviation Policy. Smart Cities Mission till 31st March
Se
2025. Sol.1940.(c) Stand-Up India, launched on
Q.1933. Which of the following schemes April 5, 2016, promotes entrepreneurship
enables students mobility across Higher Q.1937. In Pradhan Mantri Kisan
among women and SC/ST communities.
Education Institutions? Samman Nidhi Yojana, beneficiaries are
It offers bank loans from ₹10 lakh to ₹1
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) provided with how much amount every
crore for setting up greenfield enterprises
(a) National Educational Technology year?
in manufacturing, trading, or services
Forum SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
sectors. The initiative aims to foster
(b) PM Umeed scheme (a) ₹6,000 (b) ₹4,000
economic growth and create jobs by
(c) Structured Assessment for Analysing (c) ₹5,000 (d) ₹3,000
supporting marginalized groups in
Learning Levels (SAFAL) Sol.1937.(a) ₹6,000 - per year in three business ventures.
(d) Academic Bank of Credits equal installments, every four months is
Q.1941. Which is the joint digital skills
Sol.1933.(d) Academic Bank of Credits transferred into the bank accounts of
initiative for employability through digital
(ABC) is the initiative of the Ministry of farmers’ families across the country
skills by National Career Service and
Electronics and Information Technology through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)
Microsoft India?
(MeitY) and Ministry of Education (MoE) mode. Implemented by the Ministry of
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
respectively. It was launched in July Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
(a) Digisaksham (b) Vidyadaan
2021. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
(c) Shiksha Vani (d) Swayam
Yojana launched on 24th February, 2019.
Q.1934. Which is the National Mission Sol.1941.(a) Digisaksham.
for Financial Inclusion to ensure access Q.1938. In which year was the MPLADS The DigiSaksham program was launched
to financial services, namely, a basic scheme implemented? in 2021. The program was a
savings and deposits accounts, SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) collaboration between the Ministry of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Labour and Employment (MoLE) and (d) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana Provide housing for the rural poor in
Microsoft India. Goal : To help job India. The cost of unit assistance is to be
seekers become more employable by Sol.1944.(b) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA shared between Central and State
teaching them digital skills. Other Yojana: Launched on April 8, 2015, by Governments in the ratio 60:40 in plain
Initiatives for Youth Employment : Prime Minister Narendra Modi, this area.
Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY), flagship scheme aims to provide
National Career Service, and Pradhan affordable credit to micro and small Q.1948. In which year was Ujala Yojana
Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 3.0. enterprises, integrating small launched?
entrepreneurs into the formal financial SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.1942. Name the pension scheme that system. The scheme offers three loan (a) 2014 (b) 2016 (c) 2015 (d) 2017
seeks to ensure old age protection for products: Shishu (Loans up to ₹50,000),
unorganised workers. Kishore (Loans ranging from ₹50,000 to Sol.1948.(c) 2015. Unnat Jyoti by
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift) ₹500,000), Tarun (Loans from ₹500,000 Affordable LEDs for All (UJALA) : It aims
(a) Atal Pension Yojana to ₹1,000,000). to replace 77 crore incandescent lamps
(b) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojna with LED bulbs through phase-wise
(c) Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojna Q.1945. The _________ portal is a distribution across India.
(d) Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi platform provided by the Govt. of India
for farmers to attain any information Q.1949. Which of the following schemes
Maandhan of the Government of India is a part of
related to agriculture.
Sol.1942.(d) Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the ‘Target Group’ approach?
Maandhan. This scheme was launched (a) Cropland (b) Farmer’s SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2019 (c) Agricultural (d) Cultivation (a) Drought Prone Areas Programme
to support unorganized sector workers. It (DPAP)
df
offers a monthly pension of ₹3,000 after Sol.1945.(b) Farmer’s. The Farmers' (b) Marginal Farmers Development
Portal is a one-stop platform where Agency (MFDA)
_p
the age of 60. Workers aged 18 to 40
years, with a monthly income of ₹15,000 farmers can access information on (c) Hill Areas Development Programme
seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, credit, best (HADP)
na
or less, and who are not members of
EPFO, ESIC, or NPS (government-funded), practices, dealer networks, input (d) Command Area Development & Water
availability, beneficiary lists, and weather Management Programme (CADP)
ap
can enroll in the PM-SYM scheme.
advisories. Other government portals
Q.1943. Which of the following include the mKisan Portal, Crop Sol.1949.(b) Marginal Farmers
:@
ministries launched the PM Daksh Insurance Portal, and Participatory Development Agency (MFDA) supports
scheme? Guarantee System (PGS) Portal of India. small and marginal farmers through
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift) credit, training, and technology. The
TG
(a) Ministry of Education Q.1946. The Atal Innovation Mission was Small Farmers Development Agency
(b) Ministry of Electronics and launched in the year ________. (SFDA) was established in 1971 by the
Information Technology SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) All India Rural Credit Review Committee,
on
(c) Ministry of Social Justice and (a) 2021 (b) 2016 (c) 2014 (d) 2004 which was formed in 1969. Additionally,
Empowerment the Marginal Farmers and Agricultural
Sol.1946.(b) 2016. The Atal Innovation
ch
(d) Ministry of Food Processing Laborers Development Agency
Mission (AIM) objective is to create and (MAFALDA) was established in 1971-72.
Industries promote an ecosystem of innovation and
ar
Sol.1943.(c) Ministry of Social Justice entrepreneurship across the country at Q.1950. The National Youth Policy 2014
Se
and Empowerment. The "Pradhan Mantri school, university, research institution, defines youth as population between the
Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi" MSME, and industry levels, with NITI ages of______ and______.
(PM-DAKSH) scheme was launched in Aayog as the implementing agency. Atal SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
2020-21, and is designed to uplift the Tinkering Labs, a component of AIM, are (a) 20; 29 (b) 15; 25 (c) 15; 29 (d) 10; 19
marginalized sections of society by state-of-the-art spaces established in
schools to foster curiosity and innovation Sol.1950.(c) 15; 29. The National Youth
offering skill development programs. It Policy was first formulated in 1988,
targets SC (Scheduled Caste), OBC among students from grades 6 to 12.
revised in 2003, and again in 2014.
(Other Backward Classes), Economically Q.1947. In Pradhan Mantri Gramin Changes in the socio-economic and
Backward Classes, Denotified tribes, and Awaas Yojana, the cost of unit other conditions of the country require
Safai Mitras, providing upskilling, assistance is shared between Central periodic reformulation to address
reskilling, short-term training, and and State Governments the ratio contemporary issues and promote youth
entrepreneurial development courses. ____________ for the North-Eastern and well-being. India has the highest youth
Q.1944. Under which scheme are the Himalayan states. population in the world.
collateral free loans of up to ₹10 Lakh SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) 90 : 10 (b) 60 : 40 Q.1951. Which of the following is NOT
extended by the Member Lending one of the main pillars of the ‘Namami
Institutions (MLIs) in India? (c) 45 : 55 (d) 50 : 50
Gange Programme’, launched by the
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.1947.(a) 90 : 10. Pradhan Mantri Government of India in 2014?
(a) National Strategy for Financial Awaas Yojana : Launched - Urban (25th SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Inclusion June 2015) and Gramin (1st April 2016). (a) Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure
(b) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana It is a social welfare programme under (b) Industrial Effluent Monitoring
(c) Stand Up India scheme the Ministry of Rural Development. Aim - (c) River Linkage Development
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(d) River-Front Development at creating effective and efficient Q.1958. In which year was the
institutional platforms to enable the rural ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar’ Yojana
Sol.1951.(c) River Linkage poor to increase their household income launched by the Government of India?
Development. The 'Namami Gange by means of sustainable livelihood SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Programme' is an integrated enhancements and better access to (a) 2020 (b) 2022 (c) 2010 (d) 2015
conservation mission approved as a financial services.
flagship program by the Union Sol.1958.(a) 2020. The 'Aatmanirbhar
Government in June 2014. Q.1955. When was the Bharat Nirman Bharat Rojgar' Yojana has been launched
Programme launched by the Government with effect from 1st October, 2020 as
Q.1952. When was the Swarnajayanti of India? part of Atmanirbhar Bharat package 3.0
Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) to incentivize employers for creation of
launched by the Government of India? (a) 2014 (b) 2005 (c) 2010 (d) 2000 new employment along with social
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift) security benefits and restoration of loss
(a) 1999 (b) 2000 (c) 1995 (d) 1991 Sol.1955.(b) 2005. The Bharat Nirman of employment during Covid-19
program was a Union Government pandemic.
Sol.1952.(a) 1999. The objective of the program launched to improve rural
SGSY is to bring the assisted infrastructure. The program's objectives Q.1959. __________ is one of the well -
Swarozgaris above the poverty line by included: Developing rural roads, Building known schemes sponsored by the Union
providing them income generating assets rural housing, Improving rural telephony, Government of India. It was launched in
through bank credit and Government Electrifying rural areas, and Providing November 2015 with the aim of rescuing
subsidy. rural water supply and irrigation. the country’s ailing electricity distribution
Q.1953. How might ICT enhance the companies.
Q.1956. Which of the following is NOT a SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift)
df
openness of e-land records? poverty alleviation programme in India?
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) (a) One Nation, One Grid
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift)
_p
(a) Enabling quick search and retrieval of (b) Integrated Power Development
(a) Rashtriya Ucchatar Shiksha Abhiyan Scheme (IPDS)
land records (b) Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar
na
(b) Facilitating manual record updates (c) Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana
Yojana (d) Deendayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti
and amendments (c) Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana
ap
(c) Enforcing strict regulations on land Yojana
(d) Integrated Rural Development
transactions Program Sol.1959.(c) Ujwal DISCOM Assurance
:@
(d) Reducing the need for land surveys Yojana. Key Features of UDAY: Financial
and assessments Sol.1956.(a) Rashtriya Ucchatar Shiksha
Turnaround: Allows state governments to
Abhiyan. It is a holistic scheme of
take over 75% of DISCOM debt and pay
TG
Sol.1953.(a) Information and development for higher education in
Communication Technology (ICT) back lenders by selling bonds. Energy
India initiated in 2013 by the Ministry of
facilitates the digitization and online Efficiency: Promotes the use of
Education. Swarna Jayanti Shahari
energy-efficient LED bulbs, agricultural
on
availability of land records, making it Rozgar Yojana in India is a Centrally
easier for stakeholders to access pumps, fans, and air conditioners. Other
Sponsored Scheme which came into
information efficiently. ICT systems can Scheme: One Nation, One Grid refers to
effect on 1 December 1997. The Prime
ch
provide real-time updates and tracking of the unified national power grid.
Minister Rozgar Yojna (PMRY) scheme is
land records, reducing delays and Integrated Power Development Scheme
to provide assistance to the educated
ar
increasing the reliability of information. (IPDS) focuses on strengthening
unemployed persons.
sub-transmission and distribution
Se
Digital India Land Records Modernization
Programme was launched in 2008 by the Q.1957. Who among the following infrastructure. Deendayal Upadhyaya
Ministry of Rural Development to digitize launched the digital platform 'FASTER'? Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY) aims to
and modernize land records and develop SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift) provide 24/7 electricity to rural areas.
a centralized land record management (a) Finance Minister
Q.1960. The approach driven by seven
system. (b) President
engines, which is powered by Clean
(c) Chief Justice of India
Q.1954. By which ministry of Energy and 'Sabka Prayas' is related to
(d) Prime Minister
Government of India was the Deendayal which scheme?
Antyodaya Yojana started? Sol.1957.(c) Chief Justice of India. SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift)
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) FASTER, which stands for 'Fast and (a) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana
(a) Ministry of Corporate affairs Secured Transmission of Electronic (b) Garib Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyan
(b) Ministry of Rural Development Records', is a digital platform used by (c) Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana
(c) Ministry of Home affairs court officials. It enables instant (d) PM Gati Shakti Master Plan
(d) Ministry of Labour and Employment transmission of electronic copies of
court orders. This secure electronic Sol.1960.(d) PM Gati Shakti Master
Sol.1954.(b) Ministry of Rural communication channel ensures swift Plan. Launched on October 13, 2021, the
Development. Deen Dayal Antyodaya delivery of documents to the intended PM Gati Shakti plan is aimed at
Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods parties. Portals Launched by Government integrating and speeding up
Mission (DAY - NRLM) was launched as of India : “ROSHNI” - IIT Ropar, Shiksha infrastructure projects across sectors. It
‘Aajeevika - National Rural Livelihoods Vani - CBSE, Diksha - Ministry of Human focuses on seven key engines: roads,
Mission (NRLM)' in the year 2011. It was Resource Development, e-Sahaj - Ministry railways, airports, ports, mass transport,
renamed as DAY-NRLM in 2015. It aims of Home Affairs. waterways, and logistics infrastructure.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.1961. Match the columns. afforestation. Rural Development, aimed to provide
List I List II SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) supplementary wage employment in 150
i. National Manufacturing Policy a. 2014 (a) Haryali (b) Chipko andolan of India's most backward districts.
ii. Make in India initiative b. 2016 (c) Neeru-Meeru (d) Arvary Pani Sansad
Q.1968. Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka
iii. Startup India scheme c. 2011
Sol.1964.(a) Haryali : Launched in 2003. Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) Scheme is a
iv. Smart City Project d. 2015
Chipko movement (1973) was a scheme of which Ministry of the
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) nonviolent protest to prevent felling of Government of India?
(a) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b trees in Himalayas that began in Chamoli Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
(b) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a (Uttarakhand) under the leadership of (a) Ministry of Tourism
(c) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c Sundarlal Bahuguna, Gaura Devi, etc. The (b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(d) i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d Neeru-Meeru (Water and You) (c) Ministry of Minority Affairs
programme was launched in Andhra (d) Ministry of Culture
Sol.1961.(d) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d. National
Pradesh in 2000. Arvary Pani Sansad (in
Manufacturing Policy: Objective - Sol.1968.(c) Ministry of Minority Affairs.
Alwar, Rajasthan) program was launched
Enhancing the share of manufacturing in Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Ko Kaam
in 1999.
GDP to 25% within a decade and creating Karyakram (PMKKK) renamed as
100 million jobs. Make in India initiative: Q.1965. Which Ministry of the Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan
Objective - To promote India as the most Government of India launched South (PM VIKAS) Scheme. This integrated
preferred global manufacturing Asia Distribution Utility Network (SADUN) scheme converges five erstwhile
destination. Startup India scheme: Aim - which aims to modernise distribution of schemes of the Ministry viz. Seekho aur
To empower startups to grow through utilities in South Asia? Kamao, USTTAD, Hamari Dharohar, Nai
innovation and design. Smart City Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Roshni and Nai Manzil.
df
Project: Objective: To promote (a) Information and Broadcasting
Q.1969. In October 2020, which of the
_p
sustainable and inclusive cities with core ministry
infrastructure, a high quality of life, a (b) Power ministry following Ministries launched the
clean environment, and smart solutions. Ayushman Sahakar Scheme, to assist
na
(c) Railways ministry
(d) Civil Aviation ministry cooperatives in the creation of
Q.1962. When was the Prime Minister’s healthcare infrastructure?
ap
Employment Generation Programme Sol.1965.(b) Power Ministry. SADUN is a Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(PMEGP) launched? joint initiative of the Ministry of Power, (a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
:@
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) United States Agency for International (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(a) 2008 (b) 2009 (c) 2006 (d) 2012 Development (USAID) and Power Finance (c) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers
Corp. This initiative aims to promote Welfare
TG
Sol.1962.(a) 2008. The Prime Minister's
knowledge sharing among distribution (d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Employment Generation Programme
companies (discoms) in the region.
(PMEGP) is a government scheme that Sol.1969.(c) Ministry of Agriculture and
on
aims to create employment opportunities Q.1966. In which year was the 'Prime Farmers Welfare. The scheme is
in rural and urban areas. The scheme Minister Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar implemented by the National Cooperative
provides financial assistance for setting
ch
Nidhi' (PM SVANidhi) scheme launched Development Corporation (NCDC). Other
up self-employment ventures, including by the Government of India with the related schemes include Ayushman
for artisans and unemployed youth.
ar
objective of providing an affordable Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya
working capital loan to street vendors to Yojana (AB-PMJAY), launched by the
Q.1963. In which year was the Mahatma
Se
resume their livelihoods ? Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in
Gandhi National Rural Employment
Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) September 2018, and the National Rural
Guarantee Act passed?
(a) 2022 (b) 2020 (c) 2021 (d) 2019 Health Mission (NRHM), initiated by the
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
same ministry in 2005.
(a) 2004 (b) 2005 (c) 2003 (d) 2006 Sol.1966.(b) 2020. Prime Minister Street
Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi Q.1970. Which of the following is NOT a
Sol.1963.(b) 2005. The Mahatma Gandhi
(PM-SVANidhi) fully funded by the poverty alleviation programme in India?
National Rural Employment Guarantee
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Act (MGNREGA) was enacted in
The scheme facilitates a working capital (a) Rural Housing - Indira Awaas Yojana
September 2005, with the primary
collateral-free loan of ₹10,000, with (IAY)
objective of ensuring 100 days of wage
subsequent loans of ₹20,000 and (b) Namami Gange
employment per year for rural
₹50,000 with a 7% interest subsidy. (c) Rural Employment Generation
households. Originally proposed by P.V.
Narasimha Rao in 1991, it was Programme (REGP)
Q.1967. The 'National Food for Work
implemented across 625 districts in India (d) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
Programme' was launched in the year
before its nomenclature was amended (SGRY)
2004 by the Government of India in _____
from NREGA to MGNREGA on 2nd most backward districts of India. Sol.1970.(b) Namami Gange. India has
October 2009 . Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1) implemented several poverty alleviation
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 150 (d) 250 programs aimed at reducing poverty and
Q.1964. The ___________ project has
been organised by the Central improving living standards. Poverty
Sol.1967.(c) 150. The National Food for
government for the villagers, to conserve alleviation programme in India: Mahatma
Work Programme (NFWP), launched on
water for drinking, irrigation, fisheries and Gandhi National Rural Employment
November 14, 2004, by the Ministry of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Guarantee Act (2005), Pradhan Mantri towards Employees' Provident Funds launched in the year 2020 by which
Awas Yojana (2015), National Rural (EPF) and Employees' Pension Scheme Ministry of Government of India?
Livelihood Mission (2011), Public (EPS) both. SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Distribution System (PDS), Pradhan (a) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and
Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (2016). Q.1974. The Swadesh Darshan Scheme Waterways
(SDS) which was launched in 2014-15 by (b) Ministry of Social Justice and
Q.1971. What is the duration of Pradhan the Ministry of Tourism, Government of Empowerment
Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana? India, has been revamped as ___ in 2023. (c) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3) SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) Enterprises
(a) 7 years (b) 8 years (a) Swadesh Darshan 3.0 (SD3.0) (d) Ministry of Rural Development
(c) 6 years (d) 5 years (b) Swadesh Darshan 4.0 (SD4.0)
(c) Swadesh Darshan 2.0 (SD2.0) Sol.1978.(d) Ministry of Rural
Sol.1971.(d) 5 years. The Pradhan (d) Swadesh Darshan 1.0 (SD1.0) Development. It was for a period of 125
Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana days with a resource envelope of
(PMMSY) was launched in 2020, by the Sol.1974.(c) Swadesh Darshan 2.0 Rs.50,000 crore, to boost employment
Department of Fisheries, Ministry of (SD2.0). It seeks to attain “Aatmanirbhar and livelihood opportunities for returnee
Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Bharat” with the mantra of ‘vocal for migrant workers and similarly affected
Dairying. local’. workers in the rural area, in the wake of
Q.1972. Which of the following Q.1975. Which age group of the COVID-19 pandemic. It will run for 125
government schemes was launched to population are covered under the Deen days in 116 districts across six states -
provide financial assistance to start-ups Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh,
for proof of concept, prototype Yojana (DDU-GKY) scheme of the Jharkhand, Odisha and Rajasthan.
df
development, product trials, market entry Government of India ? Q.1979. In which year was the Pradhan
and commercialisation on 19 April 2021? SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
_p
Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (a) 25 to 60 years (b) 30 to 60 years (PMRPY) launched?
(a) Start-up India Seed Fund Scheme (c) 15 to 35 years (d) 14 to 40 years
na
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
(SISFS) (a) 2018 (b) 2015 (c) 2016 (d) 2022
(b) Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana Sol.1975.(c) 15 to 35 years. Deen Dayal
ap
(PMRY) Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalyaya Yojana Sol.1979.(c) 2016. PMRPY : a scheme to
(c) Procurement and Marketing Support (Launch - 2014) : It is a demand-driven incentivise employers registered with the
:@
(PMS) Scheme placement linked skill training initiative Employees' Provident Fund Organisation
(d) Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana working under the National Rural (EPFO) for job creation. Administered by
(PMMY) Livelihood Mission (NRLM). Scheme was - The Employees' Provident Fund
TG
announced by the Ministry of Rural Organisation (EPFO). Nodal Ministry -
Sol.1972.(a) Start-up India Seed Fund Development on Antyodaya Divas. Ministry of Labour and Employment.
Scheme (SISFS) aims to provide seed
on
funding to startups at the initial stages. Q.1976. In which year was the Training of Q.1980. Which of the following options
Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (1993) Rural Youth for Self Employment best describes the purpose of Pradhan
(TRYSEM) scheme launched by the Mantri Shram Yogi Mann-Dhan (PM-SYM)
ch
focuses on self-employment
opportunities for unemployed youth. Government of India? scheme, 2019 ?
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift) SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift)
ar
Procurement and Marketing Support
(PMS) Scheme provides marketing (a) 1991 (b) 2000 (c) 1979 (d) 1965 (a) Provide healthcare services to
Se
assistance to micro and small pregnant women
Sol.1976.(c) 1979. Objectives of
enterprises. Pradhan Mantri MUDRA (b) Provide education loans to financially
TRYSEM : To provide rural youth (18-35
Yojana (2015) provides loans to weak students
years) from families below the poverty
micro-enterprises. (c) Provide pension to unorganized
line with training and technical skills to
sector workers
Q.1973. Which ministry started the enable them to take up self-employment
(d) Provide financial assistance to small
Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan in agriculture, industry, services and
and marginal farmers
Yojana? business activities.
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Sol.1980.(c) Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi
Q.1977. The Swarna Jayanti Shahari
(a) Ministry of Labour and Employment Maan Dhan (PM-SYM) scheme - The
Rojgar Yojana (SJSRY) was launched in
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs scheme provides a monthly pension of
the year ____ by the Government of India.
(c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs Rs. 3000/- to subscribers after they
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
(d) Ministry of Rural Development attain the age of 60 years. The scheme is
(a) 1990 (b) 1997 (c) 2010 (d) 2004
for the age group of 18-40 years.
Sol.1973.(a) Ministry of Labour and
Sol.1977.(b) 1997. SJSRY : The Swarna Q.1981. Which of the following
Employment. Pradhan Mantri Rojgar
Jayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJSRY) government schemes provides
Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY) was
shall seek to provide gainful employment subsidised food grains to poor
launched on 9th August, 2016 with the
to the urban unemployed. Ministry - households in India?
objective to incentivise employers for
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift)
creation of employment. Under the
scheme, Government of India is paying (a) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
Q.1978. The Pradhan Mantri Garib
Employer’s full contribution i.e. 12% (b) Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna
Kalyan Rojgar Abhiyaan (PMGKRA) was
Yojana
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(c) Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana of India in 2015 ? (c) Government of India
(d) Atal Pension Yojana SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift) (d) Government of Uttar Pradesh
(a) Water supply followed by sewerage
Sol.1981.(b) Pradhan Mantri Garib (b) Electricity and power generation Sol.1989.(c) Government of India. The
Kalyan Anna Yojana (2020). The scheme (c) Primary education for all Abhiyan was inaugurated by the Union
aims to provide 5 kg of grains (wheat or (d) Health care of urban dwellers Minister of Water Resources, River
rice) for free to each individual who is Development and Ganga Rejuvenation in
covered under National Food Security Sol.1985.(a) Water supply followed by Rajasthan in June 2015. Objective:
Act, 2013. sewerage. AMRUT: Launched on 25th Strengthening grass-root involvement of
June 2015 and selected 500 cities and all stakeholders including Panchayati Raj
Q.1982. Which of the following initiatives towns to focus on development of basic institutions and local bodies for
of the Government of India is aimed at infrastructure. National Heritage City Participatory Irrigation Management.
developing and rejuvenating 75 water Development And Augmentation Yojana
bodies in each district of the country as a (HRIDAY) started on 21 January 2015. Q.1990. 'Swachh Bharat Mission' is
part of the celebration of Azadi ka Amrit associated with which public figure?
Mahotsav? Q.1986. What is the name of the flagship SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift)
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (4th shift) program that was launched in 2005 to (a) Mahatma Gandhi
(a) Mission Amrit Clean Water address the lack of infrastructure in (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mission Amrit Water urban India ? (c) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Mission Amrit Sarovar SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Mission Amrit District (a) National Urban Livelihoods Mission
(b) Integrated Development of Small & Sol.1990.(a) Mahatma Gandhi. Swachh
Sol.1982.(c) Mission Amrit Sarovar. With Medium Towns Bharat Mission (SBM) is a country-wide
df
a view to conserve water for the future (c) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and campaign initiated by the Government of
this Mission launched on 24th April, India at Rajpath (New Delhi) on October
_p
Urban Transformation
2022. (d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban 2, 2014 to eliminate open defecation and
improve solid waste management.
na
Q.1983. Which of the following is the Renewal Mission
largest pan-India scheme to strengthen Sol.1986.(d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Q.1991. How many engines drive 'PM
ap
health care infrastructure across the Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) - A Gati Shakti', a project launched by the
country with focus on primary, secondary massive city-modernization scheme central government with an aim to
:@
and tertiary care services? launched by the Government of India revolutionise infrastructure in India?
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift) under the Ministry of Urban SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) LaQshya (b) AB-PMJAY Development. Launched - December (a) Two (b) Seven (c) Nine (d) Four
TG
(c) PM-ABHIM (d) PM-MI 2005. Closed - 2014. Sol.1991.(b) Seven. Gati Shakti scheme
Sol.1983.(c) PM-ABHIM (Prime Minister Q.1987. When was the National Urban (2021) or National Master Plan for
on
Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Health Mission approved by the multi-modal connectivity plan comes
Mission): Ministry ( Ministry of Health Government of India ? under the Ministry of Commerce.
and Family Welfare), launched (October
ch
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift) Q.1992. What is the aim of the
2021). (a) 2014 (b) 2015 (c) 2012 (d) 2013 Annapurna Yojana of the Government of
ar
Q.1984. The 'Right to Work' plan, under Sol.1987.(d) 2013. The National Urban India?
the National Rural Employment Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
Se
Health Mission (NUHM): Launched by the
Guarantee Act, 2005, was implemented Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. (a) To provide food grains to children
in how many districts in the first phase? (b) To provide food grains to women
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift) Q.1988. In which year was the 'Pradhan (c) To provide food to all
(a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 100 (d) 120 Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana' launched? (d) To provide food grains to senior citizens
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (1st shift)
Sol.1984.(b) 200. National Rural (a) 2019 (b) 2015 (c) 2014 (d) 2020 Sol.1992.(d). Annapurna Yojana -
Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 Launched by the Ministry of Rural
(NREGA) : It is under the Ministry of Rural Sol.1988.(b) 2015. Pradhan Mantri Development. It is a part of the National
development. In (2009), the NREGA Kaushal Vikas Yojana: promotes skill Social Assistance Programme (1995).
scheme was renamed as the Mahatma development in the country by providing Objective - It provides Food Security to
Gandhi National Rural Employment free short-duration skill training and Senior Citizens above 60 years of age
Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) scheme. incentivizes this by providing monetary and to those eligible old-aged persons
Aim - to ensure that if any adult member rewards to youth for skill certification. who remained uncovered under Indira
of a rural household is willing to do Ministry - Skill Development and Gandhi NOAPS (National Old Age
unskilled manual work, that household Entrepreneurship. Pension Scheme). Eligible beneficiaries
gets at least 100 days of jobs in a will receive 10 kg (Every month) of grains
financial year. Q.1989. The 'Jal Kranti Abhiyan' was free of charge.
launched by which government during
Q.1985. What is the priority zone of the the financial year 2015 - 2016 ? Q.1993. Karmayogi Bharat owns and
AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 1st shift) operates the digital assets and platforms
and Urban Transformation) mission, (a) Government of Punjab for the online training of _____________ .
which was launched by the Government (b) Government of Haryana Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
(a) civil servants (b) defense personnel launched on June 01, 2020. Aim - cooked meal in Government and
(c) social activists (d) academicians Providing affordable Working Capital Government-aided schools. The scheme
loans to street vendors to resume their replaced the Mid-day Meal Scheme. The
Sol.1993.(a) Civil servants. Karmayogi livelihoods that have been adversely Mid Day Meal Scheme was started in
Bharat : A Special Purpose Vehicle (set affected due to Covid-19 lockdown. India on 15th August 1995.
up under section 8 of Companies Act,
2013 as a 100% government-owned Q.1997. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana- Q.2001. Which road plan in India was the
entity) which shall own, manage, Urban was launched by which Union first attempt for the Road Development
maintain and improve the digital Ministry? Programme between 1943-1963 ?
platform, IGOT (Integrated Govt. Online SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Evening) SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (4th Shift)
training) to implement Mission (a) Ministry of Finance (a) Poona Road Plan
Karmayogi (2020) - the National (b) Ministry of Housing and Urban (b) Nagpur Road Plan
Programme for Civil Services Capacity Affairs (c) Bombay Road Plan
Building. (c) Ministry of Human Resource (d) Lucknow Road Plan
Development
Q.1994. The National Rural Employment (d) Ministry of Rural Development Sol.2001.(b) Nagpur Road plan (1943 -
Programme was merged with ____ in 1989. 1963). Bombay road plan (1961- 1981,
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning) Sol.1997.(b) Ministry of Housing and Lucknow road plan (1981 – 2001).
(a) Indira Awas Yojana Urban Affairs. It was launched on 25th
(b) Rural Landless Employment June 2015. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Q.2002. In which of the following years
Guarantee Programme - Gramin (PMAY-G) - It was launched in was the Fit India Movement launched by
(c) Employment Assurance Scheme June 2015 with the aim to provide the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports,
(d) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana ‘Housing for All’ by 2022 in rural areas. GoI?
df
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
Sol.1994.(d) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana - It Q.1998. The Union Government's "PAHAL (a) 2018 (b) 2001 (c) 2020 (d) 2019
_p
was launched in April 1989 by merging Scheme" is related to _______ .
National Rural Employment Program SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Morning) Sol.2002.(d) 2019. Fit India Movement
na
(NREP) and Rural Landless Employment (a) Girl Scholarship was launched on the occasion of
Guarantee Programme (RLEGP). It was (b) Medical Subsidy National Sports Day to make fitness an
ap
replaced by Jawahar Gram Samridhi (c) LPG Subsidy integral part of the daily lives of the
Yojna on 1 April 1999 and on 25 (d) Bathroom Construction people of India.
:@
September 2001, merged with Q.2003. Smart cities and Academia
Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana. Sol.1998.(c) LPG Subsidy. PAHAL
(Pratyaksh Hanstantrit Labh) entered into Towards Action and Research (SAAR)
Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY) - 1985-86
TG
Guinness Book of World Records (largest scheme was launched by the ______.
(Now replaced by Pradhan Mantri Gramin SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Afternoon)
Awas Yojana). Direct Benefit Transfer of LPG), was
launched on 01 June 2013 by the (a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
on
Q.1995. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas. (b) Ministry of Culture
Yojana was launched in ___________. (c) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Q.1999. The National Literacy Mission (d) Ministry of External Affairs
ch
SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Morning)
(a) 2000 (b) 2010 (c) 2005 (d) 1998 (NLM) was set up in _____ .
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.2003.(c) The Ministry of Housing and
ar
Sol.1995.(a) 2000. Pradhan Mantri (a) 1971 (b) 1982 (c) 1988 (d) 1998 Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the
SAAR program under the Smart Cities
Se
Gramodaya Yojana - It was started to
improve the lives of the rural poor Sol.1999.(c) 1988. The National Mission.
population. Other important government Literacy Mission - It aimed to educate
people in the age group of 15 - 35. The Q.2004. In which year was Soil Health
scheme: National Social Assistance Card launched in India to enable the
Programme (Launched on 15th August, major aim of the programme is on the
promotion of literacy among women, farmers to apply appropriate
1995). Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak recommended dosages of nutrients for
Yojana (Launched on 25th December, scheduled castes and tribes and
backward classes. crop production and improving soil
2000). Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana health and its fertility?
(October 2014). Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Q.2000. “PM POSHAN” Scheme is Graduate Level 02/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
Yojana (launched in 2016). implemented by which ministry? (a) 2017 (b) 2019 (c) 2013 (d) 2015
Q.1996. PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Morning)
(a) Ministry of Women & Child Sol.2004.(d) 2015 (Ministry of
Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme was Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare). Soil
launched by which ministry? Development
(b) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Health Card (SHC) is a printed report
SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Morning) which contains nutrient status of soil
(a) Ministry of Consumer Affairs Welfare
(c) Ministry of Education with respect to 12 nutrients: pH,
(b) Ministry of Finance Electrical Conductivity (EC), Organic
(c) Ministry of Commerce (d) Ministry of Social Justice
Carbon (OC), Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus
(d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs Sol.2000.(c) Ministry of Education. In (P), Potassium (K), Sulphur (S), Zinc (Zn),
Sol.1996.(d) Ministry of Housing and 2021, the Union Cabinet approved the Boron (B), Iron (Fe), Manganese (Mn) and
Urban Affairs. The PM Street Vendor’s PM-POSHAN (Pradhan Mantri Poshan Copper (Cu) of farm holdings.
Atma Nirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) - Shakti Nirman) for providing one hot
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.2005. When was the Ayushman Bharat Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan by Ala-ud-din Bahmani to commemorate
Digital Mission launched? Abhiyan’ (PM AASHA) launched by the the victory over the Daulatabad Fort. It
Graduate Level 02/08/2022 (Shift - 3 ) Government of India? has 24 chambers, spread over four floors
(a) 27 September 2021 SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Afternoon) and a small mosque.
(b) 2 October 2021 (a) 2016 (b) 2015 (c) 2018 (d) 2017
(c) 27 January 2020 Q.2014. Theravada is known as the
(d) 17 February 2021 Sol.2009.(c) 2018. The ‘Pradhan Mantri official religion of which of the following
Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan’ (PM neighbouring countries of India?
Sol.2005.(a) 27 September 2021. AASHA) was launched by the SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (2nd Shift)
Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission aims to Government of India. Pradhan Mantri (a) Afghanistan (b) Bangladesh
provide digital health IDs for all Indian Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (c) Pakistan (d) Sri Lanka
citizens to help hospitals, insurance (PM-AASHA) is an umbrella scheme
firms, and citizens access health records aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to Sol.2014.(d) Sri Lanka. Theravāda is one
electronically when required. the farmers for their produce. of the major branches of Buddhism, and
it is considered the oldest and most
Q.2006. ‘Surakshit Hum Surakshit Tum Q.2010. ‘Mission Antyodaya’ is a mission traditional form. It is predominantly
Abhiyan’ was launched by which of the mode project envisaged by the: practiced in Southeast Asian countries
following institutions? SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Afternoon) such as Sri Lanka, Thailand, Myanmar
Graduate Level 04/08/2022 (Shift - 2) (a) Ministry of Urban Development (Burma), Laos, and Cambodia. Official
(a) NITI Aayog and bill and Melinda (b) Ministry of Rural Development religion of India’s Neighbouring
Gates Foundation (c) Ministry of Health Development Countries: Pakistan (Islam), Bangladesh
(b) Ministry of Women and Child (d) Ministry of Transport Development (Islam), Bhutan (Mahayana Buddhism),
Development and Piramal Foundation Afghanistan (Islam).
df
(c) Ministry of Women and Child Sol.2010.(b) Ministry of Rural
Development. Mission Antyodaya is a Q.2015. The Kamakshi Saunsthan
_p
Development and Bill and Melinda
Gates Foundation convergence and accountability temple of Goa is crowned with the
framework aiming to bring optimum use ________ two-storied tower and with a
na
(d) NITI Aayog and Piramal Foundation
and management of resources. It was golden Kalash perched on its Shikhar.
Sol.2006.(d) NITI Aayog and Piramal adopted in the Union Budget 2017-18. SSC MTS 12/11/2024 (2nd Shift)
ap
Foundation. NITI stands for “National (a) pentagonal (b) circular
Institution for Transforming India” Q.2011. In which year was the ‘Target (c) hexagonal (d) octagonal
:@
(2015). Its initiatives include "15-year Olympic Podium Scheme’ (‘TOPS’)
road map", "7-year vision, strategy, and formulated by the Ministry of Youth Sol.2015.(d) octagonal. The Kamakshi
action plan", AMRUT, Digital India, Atal Affairs and Sports? Saunsthan temple, built in the late 16th
TG
Innovation Mission. SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Evening) century, is located in the village of
(a) 2015 (b) 2014 (c) 2013 (d) 2016 Shiroda, Goa. The temple complex,
Q.2007. In which year was the known as 'Sthal' or 'Thal', is accessed
on
Immunization Programme introduced in Sol.2011.(b) 2014. TOPS facilitates through a grand Mahadwar (temple gate)
India as ‘Expanded Programme of selected athletes with support staff and and includes key features like Sabha
training personnel, sports psychologists,
ch
Immunization’ (EPI) by the Ministry of Mandap (entrance hall), Deepasthambh
Health and Family Welfare? physiotherapists etc including direct (lamp tower), a holy water tank, and a
financial support of 50,000 rupees per
ar
SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Evening) square-shaped chowk for Prasad rituals.
(a) 1982 (b) 1974 (c) 1978 (d) 1980 month.
Se
Q.2016. Consider the following
Sol.2007.(c) 1978. The Expanded Q.2012. In which year was National statements related to the Online Dispute
Programme on Immunization (EPI) was Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) Resolution (ODR) handbook.
started in India in 1978 with the objective registered as a society under the 1. It will be launched by the Ministry of
to reduce morbidity and mortality from Societies Registration Act 1860? Science and Technology.
tetanus, poliomyelitis, diphtheria, SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Evening) 2. ODR is the resolution for cases outside
pertussis, and childhood tuberculosis by (a) 2018 (b) 2014 (c) 2011 (d) 2009 courts using digital technology and
providing immunization services to all Sol.2012.(c) 2011. National Mission for techniques of Alternative Dispute
eligible children and pregnant women by Clean Ganga (NMCG) is the Resolution (ADR), such as negotiation,
1990. implementation wing of the National mediation and arbitration.
Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA). 3. The development of ICT and increased
Q.2008. Realizing the importance of use of internet has played a major role
maintaining the cleanliness of the water for ODR.
bodies, the Government of India passed Miscellaneous Which of the given statements is/are
the Water (Prevention and Control of correct?
Pollution) Act, ________, to safeguard our Q.2013. Chand Minar at Daulatabad is a
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift)
water resources. 210-feet-high tapering tower divided into
(a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 and 3
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Evening) _____ storeys.
(c) Only 1 (d) Only 2
(a) 1974 (b) 1973 (c) 1971 (d) 1969 SSC MTS 30/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) four (b) six (c) three (d) five Sol.2016.(b) Only 2 and 3. Online
Sol.2008.(a) 1974. Dispute Resolution handbook is launched
Sol.2013.(a) four. Chand Minar (2nd
Q.2009. In which year was the ‘Pradhan by NITI Ayog. It is developed by Agami
largest minaret in India) was built in 1435
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
and Omidyar India, in association with System (GIS) allows for the effective Q.2024. Marathi language is in
NITI Aayog and with the support of ICICI mapping, analysis, and management of the_______language family
Bank, Ashoka Innovators for the Public, land data by integrating spatial and SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Trilegal, Dalberg, Dvara and NIPFP. attribute information. It provides tools for (a) Indo Aryan (b) Austric
creating detailed maps, analyzing land (c) Sino-India (d) Austro
Q.2017. How is the structure of health use patterns, and managing land records
infrastructure and health care system in efficiently. Blockchain technology can Sol.2024.(a) Indo Aryan. Marathi is a
India? enhance security and transparency, and language spoken in the Indian state of
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) VR and AR have potential applications. Maharashtra and belongs to the
(a) Three-tier system (b) Five-tier system Indo-Aryan branch of the Indo-European
(c) Two-tier system (d) Four-tier system Q.2021. On 12 September 2002, ISRO language family. It is closely related to
launched the Kalpana-1 satellite using languages such as Hindi, Gujarati, and
Sol.2017.(a) Three-tier system. The the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle. What Punjabi. Austric: These are the
healthcare system in India is a three-tier is the application of this satellite? languages spoken by the Munda or Kol
structure, with Sub Health Centres, SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift) group and spoken in central, eastern, and
Primary Health Centres, and Community (a) Earth observation northeastern India.
Health Centres, both in urban and rural (b) Planetary observation
areas, serving as the pillars of the (c) Climate & environment Q.2025. With which of the following
primary health care system. communication communities is the word 'Langar'
(d) Disaster management system (community kitchen) mainly associated?
Q.2018. Which language is known as SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift)
‘Italian of the East’ ? Sol.2021.(c) Climate & environment (a) Sikhism (b) Hinduism
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) communication. Kalpana-1 satellite was (c) Jainism (d) Buddhism
df
(a) Telugu (b) Malayalam originally known as MetSat-1. Launched
(c) Marathi (d) Kannada Sol.2025.(a) Sikhism. The concept of
_p
by vehicle PSLV - C4. On February 5, 2003
it was renamed to Kalpana-1 by the “Langar” is an integral part of Sikh
Sol.2018.(a) Telugu. Telugu Language culture, symbolizing equality, service, and
na
Day is celebrated every year on August Indian Prime Minister Atal Bihari
Vajpayee in memory of Kalpana Chawla community bonding. It is commonly
29. In 2008, Telugu was granted the served at Gurdwaras (Sikh temples) and
ap
status of a classical language. Nicolo di (NASA astronaut who perished in the
Space Shuttle Columbia disaster). was introduced by Guru Nanak
Conti, who visited the Vijayanagara (1469-1539). Similar tradition of
:@
Empire, found that the words in the Q.2022. In whose ashram did the Beatles Annadanam (food donation) exist in
Telugu language end with vowels, just compose rock music in 1968 influenced Hinduism.
like those in Italian, and hence referred to by classical music?
TG
it as "The Italian of the East”. SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift) Q.2026. Which of the following is NOT
(a) Osho Rajnish Ashram one of the classical languages of India?
Q.2019. To enhance the interoperability SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift)
(b) Maharshi Aurobindo Ashram
on
between the Indian and Russian Armies, (a) Odiya (b) Malayalam
a joint training exercise called _________ (c) Pandit Ravishankar Ashram
(d) Maharshi Mahesh Yogi Ashram (c) Kannada (d) Magahi
commenced at Prudboy Ranges,
ch
Volgograd in the year 2021. Sol.2022.(d) Maharshi Mahesh Yogi Sol.2026.(d) Magahi (Magadhi) is an
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) Indo-Aryan language spoken in Bihar,
ar
Ashram. In February 1968, the English
(a) INDRA 2021 (b) SURYA KIRAN 2021 rock band the Beatles traveled to Jharkhand and West Bengal states of
Se
(c) VARUNA 2021 (d) SHAKTI 2021 Rishikesh (Uttarakhand) to take part in a eastern India, and in the Terai of Nepal.
Transcendental Meditation (TM) training All the Classical Languages are listed in
Sol.2019.(a) INDRA 2021. 12th Edition of the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
Indo-Russia Joint Military Exercise course at Maharshi Mahesh Yogi's
Ashram. Maharshi Mahesh Yogi is the Six languages that enjoy the ‘Classical’
INDRA 2021 : Objective - Conduct status in India: Tamil (declared in 2004),
counter-terror operations under UN founder of the Transcendental
Meditation technique. Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu
mandate. Participation - 250 personnel (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia
from India and Russia. Indian Army Q.2023. The institute established by (2014).
Contingent - Mechanised Infantry Kaka Hathrasi in 1932 is:
Battalion. The 13th edition of the Indra SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift) Q.2027. Oil India Limited (OIL) is under
naval exercise was hosted by India in the (a) Sangeet Karyalaya the administrative structure of:
Bay of Bengal in November 2023. (b) Music Art Centre SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
(c) Music Art Kendra (a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Q.2020. What kind of technology is most (b) Ministry of Power
frequently used to manage and digitise (d) Swar Sangam Kendra
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable
e-land records? Sol.2023.(a) Sangeet Karyalaya: Located Energy
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) - Hathras (Uttar Pradesh). The institute (d) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural .
(a) Virtual Reality (VR) was founded with the aim of promoting Gas
(b) Blockchain Indian classical music and preserving the
(c) Augmented Reality (AR) cultural heritage of India. Kaka Hathrasi Sol.2027.(d) Ministry of Petroleum and
(d) Geographic Information System (GIS) published the monthly magazine Natural Gas. Oil India Limited (OIL) is a
"SANGEET" in 1935. Maharatna company. Headquarter -
Sol.2020.(d) Geographic Information Noida. Established - 1959. For a
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
company to be categorized as a (d) Ministry of Finance (d) Malwa plateau
Maharatna status, It should be listed on
an Indian stock exchange and have an Sol.2031.(a) Ministry of Electronics and Sol.2034.(a) Chota-Nagpur plateau. This
average annual turnover of over ₹25,000 Information Technology. Aadhaar card plateau covers parts of Jharkhand,
crore during the previous three years. is a 12-digit unique identification number Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and West Bengal.
India now has 14 Maharatna, 24 issued by the Unique Identification Mundari is a Munda language, belonging
Navratna and 62 Miniratna CPSEs. Authority of India (UIDAI) to every to the Austroasiatic language family.
individual resident of India. It serves as Chhota Nagpur plateau is called the
Q.2028. In which year was the National proof of identity, which is linked to the “Heart of industrial India” because it is
Human Rights Commission established individual's biometric and demographic rich in minerals and power fuels. The
in India? information. The Aadhaar programme highest mountain peak of Chota Nagpur
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) was launched in 2009 by the UIDAI with Plateau is Parasnath.
(a) 2003 (b) 1995 (c) 1993 (d) 2005 the goal of providing a unique and
verifiable identity for every resident of Q.2035. Which is an advanced weather
Sol.2028.(c) 1993. The National Human India. satellite of India configured with
Rights Commission (NHRC) was improved imaging system and
established on October 12, 1993. Its Q.2032. Which of the following atmospheric sounder ?
statute is contained in the Protection of statements is/are correct? SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
Human Rights Act, 1993, and is in I- Radio broadcasting started in India in (a) GSAT-7A (b) INSAT -3D
conformity with the Paris Principles, 1923 by the Radio Club of Bombay. (c) RS-D1 (d) SROSS-2
adopted for promoting and protecting II- All India Radio came into being in
human rights. Section 2 (d) of the 1936. Sol.2035.(b) INSAT - 3D: Launched -
Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 III - In 1976, TV was delinked from All 2013; Launch Vehicle - Ariane-5 VA-214.
df
defines human rights as rights relating to India Radio (AIR) and got a separate Important Satellites: SARAL (2013):
Climate & Environment, Earth
_p
life, liberty, equality and dignity of the identity as Door darshan (DD).
individual, guaranteed by the SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift) Observation. RISAT-1 (2012): Earth
Observation. RISAT-2 (2009): Earth
na
Constitution. (a) I, II and III are correct
(b) Both I and II are correct. Observation. Bhaskara-I (1979): Earth
Q.2029. Annamacharya composed Observation, Experimental. GSAT-7A
ap
(c) Both II and III are correct.
Sankirtans in praise of which God? (d) Only III is correct. (2018): Communication. Rohini Satellite
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) RS-D1 (1981): Earth Observation.
:@
(a) Lord Shiva (b) Lord Venkateshwara Sol.2032.(a) I, II and III are correct.
(c) Lord Rama (d) Lord Krishna Radio broadcasting was changed to All Q.2036. Rajasthani architecture is also
India Radio (AIR) in 1936 and to known as:
TG
Sol.2029.(b) Lord Venkateshwara. Akashwani in 1957. AIR (Akashvani) is Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Annamacharya was a Telugu musician, India's national public radio broadcaster. (a) Indo-Saracenic (b) Maru-Gurjara
composer, and a Hindu saint. The Sri It was owned by the Ministry of (c) Greco-Roman (d) Sharqi
on
Venkateswara Swami Temple is a Hindu Information and Broadcasting. AIR
temple situated in the hills of Tirumala at Sol.2036.(b) Maru-Gurjara architecture.
originated programming in 23 languages This style of architecture evolved in the
ch
Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh. and 179 dialects. region of Rajasthan and Gujarat, blending
Q.2030. Which is the only surviving Q.2033. Who was the Indian Buddhist regional traditions with elements of
ar
specimen of the ancient Sanskrit theatre monk who is credited with the Hindu, Jain, and Mughal architecture.
Se
recognised by UNESCO as a Masterpiece development of many ancient martial art The term "Maru" refers to the desert
of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of forms in the 5th century? region (Marwar) of Rajasthan, and
Humanity? SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift) "Gurjara" refers to the region of Gujarat,
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift) (a) Bodhidharma (b) Paramartha highlighting the cultural influence from
(a) Bhavai (b) Kutiyattam (c) Atisa (d) Bodhiruchi both areas.
(c) Kathakali (d) Yakshagana
Sol.2033.(a) Bodhidharma. He was a Q.2037. Sashastra Seema Bal is the lead
Sol.2030.(b) Kutiyattam. It blends semi-legendary Buddhist monk who lived intelligence unit for the_________and
Sanskrit classicism with Kerala's local during the 5th or 6th century CE. In Indian Bhutan borders and the coordinating
traditions, featuring expressive eye philosophy, he is commonly considered agency for national security activities.
movements (neta abhinaya) and the founder of Chan Buddhism in China. Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
gestures (hasta abhinaya). Traditionally, It was later known as Zen in Japan. (a) Nepal (b) Myanmar
it is performed in Kuttampalams, Bodhidharma is also credited with (c) Pakistan (d) Bangladesh
theaters found in Hindu temples. founding the famous Shaolin school of
Sol.2037.(a) Nepal. Sashastra Seema
Chinese martial arts. He is known as a
Q.2031. The UIDAI is under the Bal (SSB) was established as the Special
Tripitaka Dharma Master.
jurisdiction of which of the following Service Bureau in May 1963.
ministries? Q.2034. In which of the following regions Headquarter - New Delhi. Motto - Service,
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift) of India is the Mundari language spoken? Security and Brotherhood. The Border
(a) Ministry of Electronics and SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift) Security Force (BSF) is responsible for
Information Technology (a) Chota-Nagpur plateau the Bangladesh and Pakistan borders,
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs (b) Baghelkhand while the Indo-Tibetan Border Police
(c) Ministry of Education (c) Thar desert (ITBP) oversees the border with China.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.2038. Which geostationary weather Q.2042. What was the style of Shantiniketan institute in ___________.
satellite launched by the European Space architecture used in Laxmi Vilas Palace SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning)
Agency in 1977 that provides weather of Vadodara, Gujarat ? (a) 1905 (b) 1901 (c) 1903 (d) 1899
imaging of Earth at both visible light and Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
infrared wavelengths? (a) Indo-Islamic (b) Hindu Temple Sol.2047.(b) 1901. Santiniketan literally
Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2) (c) Indo-Saracenic (d) Mughal means “abode of peace” in Bengali.
(a) Himawari (b) Meteosat Q.2048.Which of the following is NOT a
(c) QuikSCAT (d) Landsat Sol.2042.(c) Indo-Saracenic. Laxmi Vilas
Palace of Vadodara was built by family in classification of Modern Indian
Sol.2038.(b) Meteosat - The first Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III in 1890. Languages ?
European geostationary weather satellite, SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Evening)
launched in November 1977 by the Q.2043. Rani - Ki - Vav (the Queen's (a) Indo - European (b) Sino - Tibetan
European Space Agency (ESA). stepwell) is situated on the banks of (c) Indo - African (d) Dravidian
Himawari is a Japanese weather satellite which river ?
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning) Sol.2048.(c) Indo-african. People of
series. QuikSCAT was a NASA satellite India speak a large number of languages
that measured ocean winds. Landsat is a (a) Ganga (b) Yamuna
(c) Krishna (d) Saraswati which are broadly divided into the
series of Earth observation satellites following four families: Indo-European
focused on land use, geology, and natural Sol.2043.(d) Saraswati. Rani-ki-Vav Family (Arya), Dravidian Family (Dravida),
resources, not specifically weather (UNESCO World Heritage Site) - Its Austric Family (Nishada), and Sino
imaging. construction is attributed to Udayamati Tibetan Family (Kirata).
Q.2039. ________ is a mode of (the spouse of the 11th-century
Chaulukya king Bhima - 1) in Patan Q.2049. Who hosted the first meeting of
communication in itself, and it also
df
(Gujarat). It is on the new 100 rupee note India-Central Asia Summit?
regulates the use of other means of SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (1st Shift)
(coloured Lavender).
_p
communication. (a) India (b) Kyrgyzstan
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Q.2044. The famous Sheesh Mahal in (c) Kazakhstan (d) Tajikistan
na
(a) Television (b) Phone Punjab was built by which of the
(c) Satellite (d) Radio following rulers? Sol.2049.(a) India. Prime Minister Shri
ap
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Morning) Narendra Modi hosted the first meeting
Sol.2039.(c) Satellite. On the basis of of the India-Central Asia Summit on 27
configuration and purposes, satellite (a) Maharaja Sawai Pratap Singh
:@
(b) Rana Kumbha January 2022.
systems in India can be grouped into
two: Indian National Satellite System (c) Maharaja Narinder Singh Q.2050. India’s short-range Ballistic
(INSAT, established in 1983) and Indian (d) Raja Man Singh - I Missile, Prithvi Il was successfully test
TG
Remote Sensing Satellite System (IRS, Sol.2044.(c) Maharaja Narinder Singh. fired from _____.
established in 1988). A communication Sheesh Mahal - It is located in Patiala SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (1st Shift)
satellite is an artificial satellite that (a) Rutland Island, Andaman
on
(Punjab).
amplifies and relays radio signals (b) Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh
between a transmitter and receiver on Q.2045. How many UNESCO Natural (c) Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh
ch
Earth. Notable communication satellites: World Heritage sites are there in India? (d) Chandipur, Odisha
GSAT-31; GSAT-7A; GSAT-11; EDUSAT. SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Morning)
ar
(a) Seven (b) Four (c) Six (d) Five Sol.2050.(d) Chandipur, Odisha.
Q.2040. Who among the following Submarine Launched Ballistic Missiles -
Se
designed the India Gate ? Sol.2045.(a) Seven. UNESCO (United Ashwin, Sagarika, K-4 and K-5. Surface
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Nations Educational, Scientific and -to-surface Missiles - Prithvi I, Prithvi II,
(a) Lord Wavell (b) Lord Dalhousie Cultural Organization) World Heritage Agni (I - V), Dhanush, Prahar and Shaurya
(c) Edwin Lutyens (d) John Nash Convention which was established in (Medium-Range Ballistic Missile).
1972.
Sol.2040.(c) Edwin Lutyens. India Gate Q.2051. The world's highest motorable
was constructed in 1931. The India Gate Q.2046. Lomas Rishi cave is situated in road passes through_________pass in
is a war memorial located astride the which of the following Hills? India, as of 2022.
Kartavya path (formerly Raj path) on the SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning) SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (4th Shift)
eastern edge of the ‘ceremonial axis’ of (a) Vindhyas Hills (b) Barabar Hills (a) Khunjerab (b) Rohtang
New Delhi. (c) Aravali Hills (d) Satpura Hills (c) Dihang (d) Umling La
Q.2041. The Rajgir Zoo is located in Sol.2046.(b) Barabar Hills (Bihar). It was Sol.2051.(d) Umling La. It connects
which of the following states? constructed by emperor Ashoka for the Chisumle and Demchok village. The
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift) use of Ajivaka. Buddhist, Hindu and Jain Border Roads Organization (BRO) has
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Madhya Pradesh sculptures are also found there. It constructed the road at an altitude of
(c) Gujarat (d) Bihar includes four caves - Lomas Rishi Caves, 19,300 feet. Highest motorable roads in
Sudama caves, Vishwakarma Caves, and India - Dungri La (Uttarakhand,18,406 ft),
Sol.2041.(d) Bihar. Zoos in India : Sri Karan Chaupar caves. The Barabar Hill Marsimik La (Jammu & Kashmir, 18,314
Chamarajendra Zoological Gardens Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut ft), Donkia La (Sikkim,18,045 ft), Photi La,
(Karnataka), Nandankanan Zoological caves in India. (Jammu & Kashmir - 18,124 ft), Khardung
Park (Odisha), Rajiv Gandhi Zoological La (Jammu & Kashmir - 17,583 ft) etc.
Park (Maharashtra). Q.2047. Rabindranath Tagore started
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Q.2052. Market Based Economic inaugurated in Hyderabad in the memory SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Dispatch (MBED) Mechanism is related of ________ . (a) The Altai Railway
with which of the following ministry? SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (2nd Shift) (b) The Amur Railways
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (2nd Shift) (a) Saint Ramanujacharya (c) Trans - Baikal Railway
(a) Ministry of Power (b) Swami Vivekananda (d) Trans - Siberian Railways
(b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs (c) Swami Dayananda
(c) Ministry of Finance (d) Shri Ravi Das Sol.2060.(d) The Trans-Siberian Railway
(d) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium is the longest railway system connecting
Enterprises Sol.2056.(a) Saint Ramanujacharya. St. Petersburg in Western Russia to
Statue of Equality: Height - 216 feet. Vladivostok on the Pacific coast. India's
Sol.2052.(a) The Ministry of Power. The Material - Panchaloha. Statue of Unity - longest distance train (Vivek Express -
Electricity Act, 2003 - An Act to Tallest statue in world - 182 meters - Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari-4189 km).
consolidate the laws relating to Located in Kevadia, Narmada District,
generation, transmission, distribution, Gujarat. Swami Vivekanand Statue - 33 ft Q.2061. At present, the Grand Trunk
trading and use of electricity. tall - Ranchi Jharkhand. Road extends from___________ in India.
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
Q.2053. Intermediate Range Ballistic Q.2057. Chandigarh International Airport (a) Kashmir to Kanyakumari
Missile Agni-4 has been successfully test has been renamed as__________ (b) Amritsar to Kolkata
fired in _________. SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (4th Shift) (c) Chennai to Kolkata
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (3rd Shift) (a) Manmohan Singh International (d) Agra to Kolkata
(a) Pokhran Firing Range, Rajasthan Airport
(b) Neil Island, Andaman and Nicobar (b) Shaheed Bhagat Singh International Sol.2061.(b) Amritsar to Kolkata. Grand
Islands Airport Trunk Road was built by Sher Shah Suri in
df
(c) Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh (c) Guru Gobind Singh International the 16th century. National Highway 1 is
known as Sher Shah Suri Marg.
_p
(d) APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha Airport
(d) Rajguru International Airport Q.2062. Which city is called the
Sol.2053.(d) APJ Abdul Kalam Island,
na
Odisha. The Agni-IV (range 4000 Km) is a Sol.2057.(b) Shaheed Bhagat Singh ‘Manchester of India’?
two-stage surface-to-surface missile. It International Airport (Chandigarh, SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (1st Shift)
ap
has been developed by DRDO (Defence Punjab). Guru Gobind Singh Airport (a) Ludhiana (b) Visakhapatnam
Research and Development (Maharashtra). Amritsar International (c) Hyderabad (d) Ahmedabad
:@
Organisation). Airport renamed as Sri Guru Ram Das Sol.2062.(d) Ahmedabad - Boston of
Jee International Airport (Amritsar, East' . Visakhapatnam - City of Destiny,.
Q.2054. Which among the following is a Punjab). Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
TG
surface-to-surface missile of India? Jaipur - Pink City. Surat - Silk City of India,
International Airport (Kolkata). Bharat Diamond City of India. Akola - Cotton City
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (3rd Shift) Ratna Babasaheb Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(a) Javelin (b) AIM-120 AMRAAM of India. Coorg (Karnataka) - Scotland of
International Airport (Nagpur,
on
(c) Spike (d) Agni V India.
Maharashtra).
Sol.2054.(d) Agni V {(range around 5000 Q.2063. The National Archives of India
ch
Q.2058. When was the None of the came up in the ______.
km - 5500 km), developed by Defence Above (NOTA) ballot option first
Research and Development SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
ar
implemented in India? (a) 1930s (b) 1910s (c) 1920s (d) 1900s
Organisation} is a ballistic missile SSC CGL Tier II 07/03/2023
Se
developed under the Integrated Guided (a) 2015 (b) 2004 (c) 2013 (d) 2010 Sol.2063.(c) 1920s. The Imperial Record
Missile Development Programme Department (Now- The National Archives
(IGMDP). On October 27, 2021, (test fired Sol.2058.(c) 2013. "None of the above" of India) was set up on 11 March 1891 in
on) the country celebrated 75th infantry (NOTA): It does not hold any electoral Calcutta (Kolkata). In 1926 the
day. The missiles developed under value, it allows the voter to indicate Department was shifted into its new
IGMDP (established in 1983) are Prithvi, disapproval of all of the candidates, it building in New Delhi. It is the biggest
Agni, Trishul, Akash, Nag. does not provide for a ‘right to reject’. archival repository in South Asia.
Q.2055. The S-400 Triumf (Russian for Q.2059. When was 'Vayudoot' airline Q.2064. Which of the following
Triumph) Missile System is _____ missile setup in India? statements is/are true about the
defence system designed in Russia. SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (1st Shift) communication development in India?
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (1st Shift) (a) 1981 (b) 1991 (c) 1971 (d) 1969 A. TV services began in India before
(a) air - to - underwater Independence.
(b) surface - to - air Sol.2059.(a) 1981. The airline was
headquartered at New Delhi's Safdarjung B. TV was delinked from All India Radio.
(c) surface - to - surface C. Doordarshan got a separate identity in
(d) air - to - air Airport. It ceased operations on 1 April
1997. Air India (J.R.D Tata , 1932,). 1976.
Sol.2055.(b) surface - to - air. This Kingfisher airlines (Vijay Mallya, 2003, SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning)
System is an anti-aircraft missile defence Ceased operations: 20 October 2012). (a) Only C (b) Both A and B
system developed by Russia's Almaz (c) Both A and C (d) Both B and C
Central Design Bureau. Q.2060. The railway system connecting
St - Petersburg to Vladivostok is Sol.2064.(d) Both B and C. Television
Q.2056. “Statue of Equality” has been _________. started in India on September 15, 1959.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Doordarshan (1959), Headquarters-New Q.2069. The aviation sector was saint from Maharashtra?
Delhi. All India Radio (AIR), officially inaugurated in India in the year _____ with SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Morning)
known since 1957 as Akashvani is the the establishment of Tata Airlines. (a) Dadu Dayal (b) Chokhamela
national public radio broadcaster of India SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Morning) (c) Bhakhan (d) Sundar Das
and is a division of Prasar Bharati. It was (a) 1925 (b) 1932 (c) 1929 (d) 1935
established in 1936. Sol.2074.(b) Chokhamela. Dadu Dayal
Sol.2069.(b) 1932 . The airline, founded was a poet - saint from Gujarat.
Q.2065. Air transport was launched in by J.R.D Tata, started as an airmail
India in the year 1911 between which two carrier within India after winning a Q.2075. For which of the following
places? contract with Imperial Airways. The productions is the Ramagundam power
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) airline flew its inaugural flight in October plant famous ?
(a) Allahabad and Naini 1932, flying from Karachi to Mumbai. SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Evening)
(b) Allahabad and Jaipur (a) hydroelectricity (b) nuclear energy
(c) Allahabad and Kanpur Q.2070. Who among the following (c) thermal energy (d) Bio-gas
(d) Allahabad and Delhi founded the ‘Shillong Chamber Choir’ ?
SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Morning) Sol.2075.(c) Thermal energy.
Sol.2065.(a) Allahabad and Naini (short (a) Neil Nongkynrih Ramagundam power plant - It is part of
distance of 10km). Indian National (b) Madhup Mudgal the National Thermal Power Corporation,
Airways (1933, between Karachi and (c) Debashish Chaudhuri a 2600 MW power station located in
Lahore). Airports Authority of India (d) António Fortunato de Figueiredo Ramagundam, Telangana.
{Founded (1 April 1995), Headquarters Q.2076. Which of the following is the
(New Delhi), Longest air route in India Sol.2070.(a) Neil Nongkinrih.
The Shillong Chamber Choir, established name of the spacecraft developed by
{Srinagar ( J&K ) to Port Blair ( Andaman
df
in 2001, is a multi-genre choir, which won SpaceX for NASA’s manned mission to
and Nicobar )}. the International Space Station?
the reality TV show India's Got Talent in
_p
Q.2066. What was the former name of 2010. SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Afternoon)
the Yamuna Expressway Project (a) Crew Centaurus (b) Crew Dragon
na
constructed in Uttar Pradesh, India? Q.2071. In which year was the ‘Lotteries (c) Crew Shark (d) Crew Aries
SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Evening) Regulation Act’ passed?
ap
SSC CGL 11/04/2022(Morning) Sol.2076.(b) Crew Dragon is the name of
(a) Purvanchal Expressway the spacecraft developed by SpaceX for
(b) Taj Expressway (a) 1998 (b) 1993 (c) 1999 (d) 1991
:@
NASA’s manned mission to the
(c) Noida-Agra Expressway Sol.2071.(a) 1998. The Lotteries International Space Station. NASA
(d) Kennedy Expressway Regulation Act, 1998 is an important headquarters is in Washington DC.
TG
Sol.2066.(b) Taj Expressway. piece of legislation that lays down
thorough guidelines for the central Q.2077. Which is the national heritage
It is presently India's 3rd longest animal of India?
expressway since February 2017. government to conduct lotteries in India.
SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Evening)
on
Q.2067. Which of the following is the Q.2072. Which of the following is an (a) Lion (b) Horse (c) Tiger (d) Elephant
first six-lane expressway in India? indigenous dairy breed of cattle?
ch
SSC CGL 12/04/2022(Evening) Sol.2077.(d) Elephant (2010). Project
SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Evening) Elephant (PE) was launched by the
(a) Grand Trunk Road (a) Red Sindhi (b) Chippiparai
ar
(c) Kanni (d) Kombai Government of India in the year 1992.
(b) Ahmedabad–Vadodara National
Se
Expressway Sol.2072.(a) Red Sindhi is a reputed heat Q.2078. Unique Transaction Reference
(c) Mumbai–Pune Expressway tolerant milch cattle breed originating number is a ______ character code used
(d) Yamuna Expressway from Sindh province of Pakistan. The to uniquely identify a transaction in the
Chippiparai is a breed of sighthound RTGS system.
Sol.2067.(c) Mumbai Pune Expressway. SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Morning)
Purvanchal Expressway (Lucknow- from Tamil Nadu in southern India. The
Kanni is a rare indigenous South Indian (a) 17 (b) 34 (c) 22 (d) 45
Ghazipur).Yamuna Expressway (Noida to
Agra). sighthound breed of dog. The Kombai or Sol.2078.(c) 22. Unique Transaction
Polygar dog is a breed of sighthound Reference number used to uniquely
Q.2068. The Barabati Fort is situated in native to Tamil Nadu. identify a transaction in the RTGS
the city of. system. It is used to identify a specific
SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Evening) Q.2073. ______ is one of the languages in
which the denomination is printed on the bank transaction in India. All banks in
(a) Guwahati (b) Cuttack India use UTR numbers for all types of
(c) Madurai (d) Raipur reverse of a contemporary Indian
currency note. money transfers.
Sol.2068.(b) Cuttack. More Forts in SSC CGL 13/04/2022(Afternoon) Q.2079. Who among the following was
Odisha: Chudanga Gada Fort (a) Burmese (b) Sinhala the founder of Homeopathy?
(Bhubaneswar), Raibania Fort (Baleswar (c) Nepali (d) Dzongkha SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Afternoon)
district), Sisupalgarh Fort (a) Samuel Hahnemann
(Bhubaneswar), Asurgarh Fort (Kalahandi Sol.2073.(c) Nepali. Sinhala, is an Indo -
Aryan language primarily spoken by the (b) FG Hopkins
district), Potagarh Fort. Gulbarga Fort - (c) Robert Koch
Karnataka. Sinhalese people of Sri Lanka.
(d) Selman Waksman
Q.2074. Who among the following was a
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Static GK
Sol.2079.(a) Samuel Hahnemann Q.2085. In which year was the Marine Sol.2090.(b) Vandana Shiva. Navdanya
espoused the law of cure known as Products Export Development Authority is an Indian-based non-governmental
"Similia Similibus Curentur", or "Like (MPEDA) established in India? organization that promotes biodiversity
Cures Like". SSC CHSL 05/08/2021 (Evening) conservation, biodiversity, organic
(a) 1948 (b) 1974 (c) 1947 (d) 1972 farming, the rights of farmers, and the
Q.2080. SIMBEX is a military exercise process of seed saving.
conducted between the defense forces Sol.2085.(d) 1972. The Marine Products
of which of the following nations? Export Development Authority (MPEDA) Q.2091. How many windows are there on
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Afternoon) is a statutory body that was established the outside walls of Hawa Mahal of
(a) India and Thailand under the Ministry of Commerce and Jaipur?
(b) India and Singapore Industry for the promotion of the export SSC CHSL 17/03/2020 (Evening)
(c) India and the US of marine products from India. (a) 965 (b) 964 (c) 953 (d) 973
(d) India and Sri Lanka
Q.2086. Since 2000, Euro norms are Sol.2091.(c) 953. Hawa Mahal of Jaipur
Sol.2080.(b) India and Singapore. India followed in India under the name ______ was designed by Lal Chand Ustad.
and Thailand (Maitree, CORPAT), India Stage Emission Standards for four
and the US (Vajra Prahar, Yudh Abhyas), wheeled vehicles. Q.2092. In which color are the railway
India and Sri Lanka (Mitra Shakti). SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Afternoon) lines and telephone lines shown in the
(a) Bharat (b) Jagat topographic map?
Q.2081. Who among the following is the (c) India (d) Hindustan SSC CHSL 14/10/2020 (Evening)
founder of the field of psychoanalysis? (a) Blue (b) Yellow (c) Black (d) Red
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Morning) Sol.2086.(a) Bharat. Vehicle emission
(a) Carl Jung (b) Kai T Erikson norms were introduced in India in 1991 Sol.2092.(c) Black - Railroads,
df
(c) Jean Piaget (d) Sigmund Freud for petrol and in 1992 for diesel vehicles. boundaries, telephone lines. Brown -
Topographic contours. Blue - Lakes,
_p
Sol.2081.(d) Sigmund Freud. Carl Jung - Q.2087. When was the Editors Guild of streams, irrigation ditches and other
Founded analytical psychology. Kai T India founded? hydrographic features Red - Land grids
na
Erikson - specializing in the social SSC CHSL 10/08/2021 (Morning) and important roads.
consequences of catastrophic events. (a) 1982 (b) 1978 (c) 1956 (d) 1989
ap
Jean Piaget - Worked on child Q.2093. Which of the following was
development. Sol.2087.(b) 1978. It was established previously known as 'the Lady Willingdon
:@
with the twin objectives of protecting Park'.
Q.2082. Which of the following is the press freedom and raising the standards SSC CGL 03/03/2020 (Afternoon)
largest sea bird with the longest of editorial leadership of newspapers (a) Buddha Jayanti Park
TG
wingspan? and magazines. (b) Mughal Gardens
SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Morning) (c) Deer Park
(a) Frigatebird (b) Booby Q.2088. Where was the first factory of (d) Lodhi Garden
the Indian Iron and Steel Company
on
(c) Wandering Albatross (d) Auk
(IISCO) set up? Sol.2093.(d) Lodhi Garden. Lady
Sol.2082.(c) Wandering Albatross. The SSC CHSL 10/08/2021 (Morning) Willingdon Park was inaugurated in April
ch
maximum dimensions in this species are (a) Durgapur (b) Jabalpur 1936.
a length of 1.44 m (4.7 ft) and a (c) Jamshedpur (d) Hirapur
ar
wingspan of 3.65 m (12.0 ft). Q.2094. Which ISO certification pertains
Sol.2088.(d) Hirapur. IISCO Steel Plant of to Environmental Management Systems?
Se
Q.2083. ‘Oolong’ is a variant of ______. Steel Authority of India Limited is an SSC CGL 06/03/2020 (Afternoon)
SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Evening) integrated steel plant located at Hirapur (a) 9001 (b) 22000 (c) 14001 (d) 27001
(a) jute (b) tea (c) rubber (d) coffee (later to be called Burnpur) in the
Asansol subdivision of Paschim Sol.2094.(c) 14001. ISO 22000 - It is an
Sol.2083.(b) Tea. Oolong - It is a Bardhaman district, West Bengal. international standard for food safety
traditional semi-oxidized Chinese tea. It established by the International
is made from the leaves of the Camellia Q.2089. Where is the Rumi Darwaza Organization for Standardization.
Sinensis plant. The same plant is used to located?
make Green tea and Black tea. SSC CHSL 10/08/2021 (Evening) Q.2095. Who designed the logo for
(a) Lucknow (b) Gwalior Lokpal in India?
Q.2084. Hakki, Pikki and Siddi are (c) Agra (d) Bhopal SSC CGL 09/03/2020 (Morning)
_________ from Karnataka. (a) Deepak Punia (b) Prashant Mishra
SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Morning) Sol.2089.(a) Lucknow. It is an imposing (c) Kamareddy (d) B.P.Raju
(a) language (b) Theater form gateway that was built by Nawab
(c) Music type (d) dance form Asaf-Ud-Daula in 1784. Sol.2095.(b) Prashant Mishra. The logo
of Lokpal: LOK - people and PAL -
Sol.2084.(a) Language. Q.2090. In the context of forest caretaker, i.e. "caretaker of people”.
These languages are critically conservation, Navadanya Movement was
endangered in Karnataka. Hakki, Pikki founded in 1987 by ______.
and Siddi is a mix of Konkani, Kannada SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
and Hindi. Kannada is the official (a) Medha Patkar (b) Vandana Shiva
language of Karnataka. (c) Baba Amte (d) Pandurang Hegde
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Civilization were found in Harappa Sol.8.(d) Circular. Granaries of the Indus
History only. Valley Civilization were discovered in two
key regions: Mohenjodaro and Harappa.
Ancient History Sol.4.(c) Harappa was discovered in Mohenjodaro, located south of the Indus
1921-22 by Daya Ram Sahni. It is located River, is a major site where the Great
Prehistoric And Indus Valley on the banks of the Ravi River in Sahiwal Granary, the largest building, was found.
(formerly Montgomery) district, Punjab,
Q.1. Which of the following sites would Pakistan. The city is divided into three Q.9. Which was the prominent
be suitable for observing the architecture main sections: the Citadel, the architectural feature of the Indus Valley
of the Harappan civilisation? Middletown, and the Lower Town. The towns and cities?
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Evening) Harappans sourced copper from Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(a) Sunabeda (b) Sanchi present-day Rajasthan. Significant (a) Citadel (b) Pyramids
(c) Banawali (d) Valparai findings include two rows of six (c) False Arch (d) Stupas
granaries, workers' quarters, two
Sol.1.(c) Banawali, located in the Sol.9.(a) Citadel. In 1921, Dayaram Sahni
sandstone statues depicting human
Fatehabad district of Haryana, has discovered Harappa, followed by R.D.
anatomy, a sculpture of a dog attacking a
revealed a three-fold cultural sequence Banerjee's discovery of Mohenjodaro in
deer, and small bullock carts (known as
through excavations: Pre-Harappan 1922. Key features of major cities
ekkas).
(Early Harappan), Harappan, and Bara include grid-based town planning, the
(Post-Harappan) phases. The site was Q.5. Drains exiting from Mohenjo-Daro use of burnt bricks, underground
excavated by Dr. R.S. Bisht. It comprises had ________ doors that were probably drainage systems (like Dholavira's water
a citadel and a lower town, both of which closed at night to prevent vagrants or reservoirs), and fortified citadels (except
are fortified. negative elements from entering the city Chanhudaro). Stupas - Buddhist
df
through that access. architecture. Pyramids - Ancient Egypt.
_p
Q.2. The Iron Age site named Tekwada is SSC MTS 11/11/2024 (1st Shift)
located in _________. Q.10. Select the correct alternative on
(a) wooden (b) sandstone
the basis of the given statements on the
na
SSC MTS 17/10/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) mud (d) iron
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra cities of Harappan civilisation.
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu Sol.5.(a) wooden. Statement I: Most of the Harappan cities
ap
Mohenjo-Daro, discovered by R.D. Banerji were divided into two parts: Higher Town
Sol.2.(b) Maharashtra. The Iron Age is a in 1922, is located on the right bank of and Lower Town.
:@
time period when iron became the the Indus River in southern Pakistan. Statement II: The archaeologists
primary material for tools and weapons. describe the lower part of the towns as
Some Iron Age sites in India: Hallur Q.6. In which Harappan site was a paved Citadel.
TG
(Karnataka), Adichanallur and bathroom found? SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Mayiladumparai (Tamil Nadu), Raja Nal Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
ka Tila (Uttar Pradesh). (a) Banawali (b) Mohenjodaro true.
on
(c) Kalibangan (d) Dholavira (b) Only Statement II is true.
Q.3. Which of the following statements
(c) Only Statement I is true
is/are true about the Iron Age? Sol.6.(b) Mohenjodaro. It is situated on
ch
(d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II
1. The establishment of large cities took the banks of Indus River in present-day
is true.
place on the basis of sizeable surplus. Pakistan. Significant discoveries from
ar
2. The ceramic associated with this age Mohenjodaro include the bronze statue Sol.10.(c) Only Statement I is true. The
Se
was Painted Grey Ware. of a dancing girl, the sculpture of a Harappan cities were typically structured
3. The Indus Valley Civilization flourished bearded priest, and the Great Granary. into two distinct sections. The part to the
during the Iron Age. west was generally smaller in area but
Q.7. At which of the following places in
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (3rd Shift) higher in elevation, which archaeologists
the Indus valley civilisation a brick
(a) Only 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2 refer to as the Citadel. In contrast, the
structure has been identified as a
(c) All 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 section to the east was larger in size but
dockyard meant for berthing ships and
lower in elevation, commonly known as
Sol.3.(b) Only 1 and 2. The Indus Valley handling cargo ?
the Lower Town.
Civilization flourished during the Bronze Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Age, not the Iron Age. The civilisations (a) Mohanjodaro (b) Dhaulavira Q.11. Fire altars were found in which of
that flourished during the Iron Age were (c) Rakhigarhi (d) Lothal the following groups of Harappan cities?
Greece, Rome, Persia and India. SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Sol.7.(d) Lothal (Gujarat). Location: Bank
(a) Kalibangan and Lothal
Q.4. Which of the following statements is of the Bhogwa River. Features : Evidence
(b) Banawali and Chanhudaro
correct ? of the earliest cultivation of rice, Served
(c) Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa
SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (3rd Shift) as a seaport for the Indus Valley people.
(d) Mohenjo-Daro and Dholavira
(a) Harappan culture spread only to
Q.8. In Harappa, the granary had rows of
Sindh and Punjab. Sol.11.(a) Kalibangan and Lothal.
_________ brick platforms for threshing
(b) The script of the Harappan culture Findings of different Indus valley
the grains.
has been deciphered by historians. civilization sites : Kalibangan - Lower
Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
(c) At burials in Harappan sites the dead fortified town, Boustrophedon style,
(a) diagonal (b) spherical
were generally laid in pits. Wooden drainage, Copper Ox, Evidence
(c) rectangular (d) circular
(d) Granaries in the Indus Valley of earthquake, Wooden plough, Camel’s
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
bone. Lothal - Port Town, Evidence of monument. Type - Clairn Circles type of Q.20. In which of the following sites of
Rice, Graveyard, Ivory scale, Copper dog. Megalith (grave/memorial) were the jadeite stone was found?
Mohenjo-Daro - Prepared Garments, stone pieces set in a circular shape SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Temple-like Palace, Pashupati seal, around the grave. Menhir (standing (a) Mahagara (b) Mehrgarh
Statue of a dancing girl, The Great Bath, stone), Capstone (Single megaliths (c) Hallur (d) Daojali Hading
The Great Granary etc. placed horizontally over burial
chambers), Dolmen (A large capstone on Sol.20.(d) Daojali Hading - A neolithic
Q.12. Which of the following statements two or more support stones creating a site in Dima Hasao District of Assam.
is true about the Great Bath of the Indus chamber). Megalith Sites - Nilaskal Situated near Brahmaputra valley close
Valley Civilisation ? (Karnataka), Hanamsagar (Karnataka), to routes leading into China and
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Junapani (Maharashtra), Hire Benakal Myanmar.
(a) It was used for grain storage. (Karnataka), etc. Q.21. Which of the following metals was
(b) It was used for farming.
used to make weapons and tools in
(c) It was used as the water tank of the Q.16. Cotton was probably grown at
Harappan cities?
city. Mehrgarh from about ________.
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift)
(d) It was probably used for religious SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening)
(a) Silver (b) Gold (c) Copper (d) Iron
purpose. (a) 7000 years ago (b) 8000 years ago
(c) 6000 years ago (d) 5000 years ago Sol.21.(c) Copper was the first metal
Sol.12.(d) "Great bath" is a public water
used in Indus Valley (Bronze Age
tank located in Mohenjo Daro (Pakistan). Sol.16.(a) 7000 years ago. It is the
civilization) to make tools, utensils, and
It was a large rectangular tank in a oldest agricultural settlement in the
other objects. Other metals used were
courtyard surrounded by a corridor on all Indian subcontinent.
lead, gold, bronze and silver.
four sides. There were two flights of
df
steps on the north and south leading into Q.17. Which of the following Harappan
Q.22. The Harappan brought Gold from
town was located on Khadir Beyt in the
_p
the tank, which was made watertight by present-day _______ in India.
setting bricks on edge and using a Runn of Kutch and was divided into three
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift)
parts?
na
mortar of gypsum. There were rooms on (a) Telangana (b) Tamil Nadu
three sides, in one of which was a large SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (4th Shift)
(c) Karnataka (d) Kerala
(a) Sotka - koh (b) Chanhudaro
ap
well.
(c) Surkotada (d) Dholavira Sol.22.(c) Karnataka. Gold ornaments
Q.13. Which of the following Indus Valley
:@
are found at both Mohenjo-daro and
sites is now located in Pakistan ? Sol.17.(d) Dholavira. Discovered in 1968
Harappa. Other materials they imported:
SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (1st Shift) by archaeologist Jagat Pati Joshi. Fifth
Copper - Brought from present-day
(a) Harappa (b) Lothal largest metropolis of Indus Valley
TG
Rajasthan, and from Oman in west Asia.
(c) Alamgirpur (d) Kalibangan Civilization, 40th Indian site on UNESCO’s
Tin - Brought from present-day
World Heritage list. Surkotada:
Sol.13.(a) Harappa. The Indus valley Afghanistan and Iran. Precious stones -
Discovered in 1964-68 by Jagat Pati
on
civilization (Bronze Age) is also called Brought from present-day Gujarat, Iran
Joshi, located in northeast Bhuj in
the Harappan culture. Other Important and Afghanistan.
Gujarat. Chanhudaro: Discovered in 1931
Sites : Sutkagendor (Dast river,
ch
by N. G. Majumdar, located in Sindh, Q.23. Which of the following types of
Balochistan); Chanhudaro (Pakistan, Pakistan. Sotka koh - Discovered by house remains were found in Mehrgarh
Indus river); Kalibangan (Rajasthan,
ar
George F. Dales, located on the Makran site of Harappan civilization?
Ghaggar river); Lothal (Gujarat, Bhogva coast, near the city of Pasni, Balochistan SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Se
river); Alamgirpur (Meerut, Hindon river). (Pakistan). (a) Triangular or circular
Q.14. Pottery was first traceable to which (b) Rectangular or circular
Q.18. Bhimbetka, a noted site of the
period of ancient Indian history? (c) Square or rectangular
Palaeolithic period, is located in which
Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4) (d) Circular or square
state of India?
(a) Chalcolithic (b) Palaeolithic SSC CGL Tier II 02/03/2023 Sol.23.(c) Square or rectangle. Major
(c) Neolithic (d) Mesolithic (a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh findings at Mehrgarh are evidence of
Sol.14.(c) Neolithic. Pottery has been (c) Rajasthan (d) Madhya Pradesh animal bones and the remains of houses.
discovered in the early villages of Mehrgarh was discovered in 1974 by
Sol.18.(d) Madhya Pradesh. Bhimbetka
Mehrgarh. The Palaeolithic (the first and Jean-Francois Jarrige. It is the first place
is located in the Vindhya ranges of
longest part of the Stone Age) was a where people started growing barley and
Madhya Pradesh. It was discovered by V.
period of prehistory when humans made wheat, reared the sheep and goat as it
S. Wakankar in 1957.
stone tools. was one of the oldest villages.
Q.19. During which of the following
Q.15. In India, the practice of erecting Q.24. The duration of the Mesolithic
period Ostriches were found in India?
megaliths began about __________ ago. period is from about ______ years ago to
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Evening) ____ years ago.
(a) Mesolithic (b) Chalcolithic
(a) 3000 years (b) 2000 years SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (4th Shift)
(c) Neolithic (d) Palaeolithic
(c) 500 years (d) 1000 years (a) 14000, 10000 (b) 17000, 12000
Sol.19.(d) Palaeolithic age. Large (c) 12000, 10000 (d) 10000, 7000
Sol.15.(a) 3000 years. A megalith is a
quantities of ostrich egg shells found at
large stone that has been used to Sol.24.(c) 12000, 10000. The Mesolithic
Patne, Maharashtra.
construct a pre - historic structure or Period (Middle Stone Age) is the earliest
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Holocene culture. Feature: Microliths, apauruṣeya, which means "not of a man, SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift)
technological innovations (bow and superhuman" and "impersonal, (a) Craftsman (b) Priests
arrow for hunting, querns, grinders, etc.), authorless". The Rigveda is the oldest (c) Ordinary people (d) Warriors
Excavated sites (Tilwara, Bagor, Tarsang, Veda and contains 1,028 hymns (suktas)
Morkhana, Lekhahia, Birbhanpur, etc.). comprising about 10,600 verses. Sol.34.(a) Craftsman. The Rigvedic
society was structured into three main
Q.25. Most Harappan seals made of ____. Q.30. Which Rigvedic God is considered varnas : Priests, who performed rituals
SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Evening) an intermediary between God and men? and offered spiritual guidance; Warriors,
(a) Bricks (b) Granite (c) Steatite (d) Brass SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (2nd Shift) who governed and protected the tribe
(a) Indra (b) Agni (c) Varuna (d) Yama and Ordinary People comprising farmers,
Sol.25.(c) Steatite (a kind of soft stone). traders, and artisans engaged in
Some seals were also made of Sol.30.(b) Agni. The Rigveda, with over a
economic activities.
terracotta, gold, agate, chert, ivory, and thousand hymns, praises deities like:
faience. Two important seals were the Agni - the god of fire; Indra - the warrior Q.35. A large number of words are
Pashupati seal and the Unicorn seal. god; and Soma - a sacred plant from derived from the word ‘Go’ meaning cow.
which a special ritual drink was prepared. A wealthy person was known as ________
Q.26. A celt is ______ from the Neolithic in Vedic times.
Q.31. According to the Ashrama system
period. SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
of Vedic life, which of the following was
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning) (a) Gomat (b) Gotra
the third stage of life?
(a) a tomb (b) a house (c) a tool (d) an urn (c) Gabaksha (d) Gaveshana
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.26.(c) a tool. The term Neolithic (a) Grihastha (b) Sanyasa Sol.35.(a) Gomat. The term Gomat was
Period refers to the last stage of the (c) Brahmacharya (d) Vanaprastha derived from the Sanskrit word 'gomati'
df
Stone Age. which means possessing or having
Sol.31.(d) Vanaprastha, where a person
cows. Gotra : It refers to people who are
_p
Q.27. Which of the following is a handed over household responsibilities
to the next generation, took an advisory descendants of a common ancestor
Palaeolithic site of archaeological
role, and gradually withdrew from the through their father's side. Gaveshana:
na
importance in India?
world. The four stages of the ashrama This means "search for cows," but it can
SSC MTS 06/10/2021 (Afternoon)
system are : Brahmacharya (Student's also refer to battle.
ap
(a) Chirand (b) Burzahom
(c) Hunasagi (d) Mehrgarh life), Grihastha (household life), Q.36. How many Mandalas were in Rig
Vanaprastha (retired life), Sannyasa
:@
Vedic Samhita?
Sol.27.(c) Hunasagi. Some Old Stone (renounced life). SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Age stone-cutting equipment has been
Q.32. The Vedangas are Hindu auxiliary (a) 11 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 20
found and kept in the Hunasagi Gram
TG
Panchayat office. disciplines that originated in ancient
Sol.36.(b) 10. Rig Veda is the oldest of
times and are linked to the study of the
the four Vedas. It is a collection of
Q.28. Which of the following Harappan Vedas. These are _________ in number.
10,600 verses and 1,028 hymns. The
on
sites is located in Afghanistan? SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Famous Gayatri mantra is in Rig Veda
SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Evening) (a) five (b) seven (c) four (d) six
Mandala 3. Each mandala consists of
ch
(a) Shortughai (b) Balakot
Sol.32.(d) Six. Vedanga literally means Suktas which are basically eulogies. The
(c) Nageswar (d) Kalibangan
"limbs of the Vedas," and refers to the six 10th mandala contains the Purusha
ar
Sol.28.(a) Shortughai was a trading post disciplines connected with studying the Sukta which explains the four Varnas
Vedas, the ancient Indian spiritual were born from the mouth, arms, thighs
Se
of Harappan times and it seems to be
connected with lapis lazuli mines located writings. The six Vedangas are as and feet of the Brahma or Purusha.
in the surrounding area. follows: Shiksha (phonetics), Kalpa Mandala 9 is completely devoted to
(ritual), Vyakarana (grammar), Nirukta Soma.
(etymology), Chandas (meter), and
Vedic Age Q.37. Which of the following is the
Jyotisha (astronomy).
(1500 BC to 600 BC) earliest literary record of Indian culture?
Q.33. According to the Varna system that Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Q.29. Consider the following statements was prevalent in the Vedic period, which (a) Yajurveda (b) Rigveda
in the context of the Vedas. of the following was NOT a Varna? (c) Atharvaveda (d) Samaveda
1.The Vedas are called Shruti. SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Brahmanas (b) Kshatriyas Sol.37.(b) Rigveda. There are four
2.The Rigveda consists of ten Mandalas.
(c) Samiti (d) Vaishyas Vedas: Rigveda, Samaveda, Yajurveda,
Which of the statements given above
and Atharvaveda.
is/are correct? Sol.33.(c) Samiti. The traditional caste
SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (2nd Shift) system consists of a hierarchy of four Q.38. Asikni, which was a part of
(a) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only 2 castes (varnas) - Brahmins (priests and Sapta-Sindhu, is the name of which of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Only 1 teachers), Kshatriyas (rulers and the following rivers in present times ?
warriors), Vaishyas (merchants and SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Sol.29.(c) Both 1 and 2. Vedas are sruti
cultivators), and Shudras (servants). (a) Jhelum (b) Beas
("what is heard") distinguishing them
(c) Chenab (d) Ravi
from other religious texts, which are Q.34. Which among the following was
called smrti ("what is remembered"). NOT a part of the three sections of the Sol.38.(c) Chenab. Ancient names of
Hindus consider the Vedas to be Rigvedic tribe? Indian Rivers - Vitasta (Jhelum), Purushni
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
(Ravi), Shatudri (Satluj), Vipasha (Beas), Mimamsa and Karma Mimamsa (‘Study SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Morning)
Sadanira (Gandak), Drishdvati of Actions’). The six principal Hindu (a) Men and women were expected to
(Ghaghara). darshans are Samkhya, Yoga, Nyaya, marry within the same gotra.
Vaisheshika, Mimamsa, and Vedanta. (b) People belonging to the same gotra
Q.39. Which of the following Vedas is Badarayana - Author of Brahma Sutra or were regarded as descendants of the
found in two recensions, black and white, Vedanta Sutra. Patanjali - Philosophy of person after whom the gotra was
and is full of rituals to be performed Yoga sutra. Kapila - Philosophy of named.
publicly or individually? Sankhya. Vyasa - Author of the (c) Women retained their father’s gotra
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) Mahabharata, Vedas and Puranas. after marriage.
(a) Rigveda (b) Atharvaveda (d) Each gotra was named after a
(c) Yajurveda (d) Samaveda Q.44. India was named 'Bharat' after the
famous king.
name of the Bharat clan. In which of the
Sol.39.(c) Yajurveda :
following Vedas is this clan first Sol.48.(b) Gotra originally referred to the
Notable Upanishads of Yajurveda -
mentioned ? seven lineage segments of the Brahmans
Brihadaranyaka, Isha, Taittriya, Katha,
and Maithri. Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1) (priests), who trace their derivation from
(a) Atharvaveda (b) Yajurveda seven ancient seers: Atri, Bharadvaja,
Q.40. In which of the following Vedas (c) Samaveda (d) Rigveda Bhrigu, Gotama, Kashyapa, Vasishtha,
was Dasarajna war (the war of ten kings) and Vishvamitra.
mentioned? Sol.44.(d) Rigveda. There are 1028
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (4th shift) Suktas in 10 Mandals (Chapters). Q.49. ‘Purusha Sukta’ is a hymn from
(a) Yajurveda (b) Samaveda which Veda?
Q.45. The language of the Aryan texts
(c) Rigveda (d) Atharvaveda SSC CHSL 05/08/2021 (Afternoon)
was:
(a) Atharvaveda (b) Yajurveda
df
Sol.40.(c) Rigveda (Book of Mantras). Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4)
(a) Ardh-Magadha Prakrit (b) Prakrit (c) Rigveda (d) Samaveda
Dasarajna war was fought between King
_p
(c) Persian (d) Sanskrit
Sudas of the Bharata tribe and a Sol.49.(c) Rigveda. The most commonly
confederation of ten tribes, including the Sol.45.(d) Sanskrit was the first used portion of the Sukta contains 24
Puru, Yadu, Turvasa, Anu, Druhyu, Alina,
Paktha, Bhalanas, Shiva, and Vishanin. na
language spoken in India. Ardhamagadhi
Prakrit was a Middle Indo-Aryan
mantras or stanzas. Purusha Suktam is
dedicated to Lord Vishnu, who is
ap
The battle took place on the banks of the language. Prakrit is a group of vernacular described as the great Purusha in the
Parushni (Ravi) river. Middle Indo-Aryan languages spoken in hymn. Purusha Suktam is one of the
:@
India between the third and seventh Pancha Suktam (5 Suktams) – Purusha
Q.41. The main (chief) social unit of the Suktam, Vishnu Suktam, Sri Suktam, Bhu
century BCE.
Aryans was______ . Suktam, and Nila Suktam.
TG
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (1st shift) Q.46. As per the Rigvedic or Early Vedic
(a) Rajan (b) Parishad (c) Gana (d) Jana Period (1500-1000 BC), who among the
following was a River Goddess?
Jainism
on
Sol.41.(d) Jana (Tribes). Gana - Tribal or
SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Afternoon)
clan based assemblies, Parishad - A Q.50. With reference to Ajivikas, consider
(a) Agni (b) Sindhu (c) Arika (d) Usha
small body similar to Samitis/sabhas the following statements:
ch
consisting exclusively of Brahmins, Rajan Sol.46.(b) Sindhu. The seven rivers a) Makkhali Gosala was the prominent
- A kind of Chief or King. mentioned in the Rig-Veda - Sindhu teacher of this sect.
ar
(Indus), Vitasta (Vehit/Jhelum), Asikni b) Ajivikas believed in fatalism.
Q.42. Which of the four Vedas contains a (Chenab), Prusni/Eravati (Ravi) Vipasha
Se
Which of the above statements is/are
collection of magic spells and charms to (Beas), Sutudri (Sutlej) and Sarasvati correct?
fend off evil spirits and diseases? (which dried up). Agni (fire-god of SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (2nd shift) Hinduism), Usha (Goddess of Dawn), (a) Both a and b (b) Neither a nor b
(a) Rig Veda (b) Sama Veda Arika (God of Beauty). (c) Only b (d) Only a
(c) Yajur Veda (d) Atharva Veda
Q.47. In the Rig Veda there is a hymn in Sol.50.(a) Both a and b. Ajivika - It was a
Sol.42.(d) Atharva Veda (‘Book of magic the form of a dialogue between Sage school of thought that developed in India
spells’) - Has 730 hymns/suktas, 5987 Vishvamitra and two rivers that were during the same time as Jainism and
mantras, and 20 books (Khandas). Sama worshipped as goddesses. Which are Buddhism. It is one of the schools under
Veda (‘Book of Chant’) - The earliest these rivers? Nastika philosophy (it does not believe in
reference for singing; 1875 verses. Yajur SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Morning) the authority of Vedas). It was founded
Veda (‘Book of Rituals’) - Has two types, (a) Alakananda and Bhagirathi
by Goshala Maskariputra. The sect is
Krishna (or black) and Shukla (or white). (b) Ravi and Chenab
seen as professing total determinism in
(c) Ganga and Yamuna
Q.43. The Purva Mimansa school of the transmigration of souls, or series of
(d) Beas and Sutlej
philosophy was founded by ________ in rebirths.
ancient India. Sol.47.(d) Beas and Sutlej. The most
Q.51. Mahavir Jayanti celebrates the
Graduate Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 3) prominent river in the Rig Veda is
birthday of Lord Mahavira who is the ____
(a) Vyasa (b) Kapila Saraswati.
Tirthankara of Jainism.
(c) Patanjali (d) Jaimini
Q.48. Which of the following statements SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.43.(d) Jaimini. Purva Mimansa about the ‘Gotra’ practice in ancient India (a) 23rd (b) 26th (c) 24th (d) 25th
(‘Prior Study’) also known as Dharma is true?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
th
Sol.51.(c) 24 . Lord Mahavir was born (Madhya Pradesh) is known for its early Q.60. The location of ‘Dhamek Stupa’ is:
on the 13th day of the Chaitra month Buddhist reliefs and carvings. Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(March - April) of the Hindu calendar in (a) Shravasti (b) Kushinagar
540 BC. Birthplace - Vaishali in Q.56. During which of the following rules (c) Sarnath (d) Bodh Gaya
present-day Bihar. ‘Kaivalya’ or did Buddhism get split into two schools -
Hinayana and Mahayana in the fourth Sol.60.(c) Sarnath. The Dhamek Stupa
omniscience - Age of 42. Moksha
Buddhist council? was built in 500 CE to replace an earlier
(liberation from the cycle of birth and
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) structure commissioned by the great
death) - Age of 72 in 468 BC (Pavapuri
(a) Kushana (b) Parthian Mauryan king Ashoka in 249 BCE.
near modern Rajgir in Bihar). The first
tirthankara - Rishabhanatha. (c) Gupta (d) Shaka
Q.61. Which of the following Indo-Greek
Sol.56.(a) Kushana. The Fourth Buddhist kings was mentioned in the Buddhist text
Q.52. The Jain temple at Pattadakal was
Council was held in 72 AD at Kundalvana, Milindapanho as Milinda?
built by ________.
Kashmir, under the Kushan king Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Kanishka. It was led by Vasumitra, with (a) Demetrius I (b) Antiochus II
(a) Chalukyas (b) Cholas
Asvaghosa as his deputy, and marked (c) Strato II (d) Menander I
(c) Rashtrakutas (d) Hoysalas
the division of Buddhism into two sects:
Sol.61.(d) Menander I. The Milinda
Sol.52.(c) Rashtrakuta. Other temples Mahayana and Hinayana.
Panha is a dialogue between the Indian
made by Rashtrakutas - The
Q.57. The Shailendra kings who had Buddhist sage Nagasena and the
Kailasanatha Temple in Ellora, the
close contacts with the Indian rulers 2nd-century BC Indo-Greek king
Navalinga Temples in Pattadakal.
were followers of which of the following Menander I.
Q.53. Name the holy city recognized as religions?
Q.62. Select the INCORRECT statement
df
the birthplace of the first and fourth Jain SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
from among the following.
Tirthankaras. (a) Buddhism (b) Jainism
_p
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Morning) (c) Shaivism (d) Vaishnavism (a) ‘Sanchi Stupa’ is situated in Madhya
(a) Varanasi (b) Dwaraka
na
Sol.57.(a) Buddhism. The rulers of the Pradesh.
(c) Ayodhya (d) Gaya (b) ‘Bavikonda Stupa’ is situated in
Sailendra built many temples and
ap
monuments, including the Borobudur Andhra Pradesh.
Sol.53.(c) Ayodhya is recognized as the
stupa, which is now a UNESCO World (c) ‘Dhamek Stupa’ is situated in Uttar
birthplace of the first (Rishabhdev) and
Pradesh.
:@
fourth (Abhinandannath) Jain Heritage Site. The Shailendra empire was
based in Java and spread to other parts (d) ‘Piprahwa Stupa’ is situated in Sikkim.
Tirthankaras.
of Southeast Asia, including Sumatra, Sol.62.(d) Piprahwa Stupa is located in
TG
Buddhism Bali, and parts of modern-day Malaysia Uttar Pradesh near the town of Piprahwa,
and Thailand. close to the India-Nepal border, this site
Q.54. Which of the following describes is renowned for its archaeological
on
Q.58. Stupas are a symbol of which of
the Medhi part in Buddhist structure? significance.
the following religions ?
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning)
Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Q.63. Which of the following is the
ch
(a) The circular terrace between the
(a) Hinduism (b) Jainism largest Stupa in India?
railing and dome
(c) Buddhism (d) Sikhism SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
ar
(b) Ceremonial gateways in front of
Sol.58.(c) Buddhism. Stupas were burial (a) Kesariya Stupa (b) Shanti Stupa
stupas
Se
mounds prevalent in India from the vedic (c) Sanchi Stupa (d) Maha Stupa
(c) A low wall to enclose the structure
(d) The umbrella-shaped structure placed period. Stupas typically consist of Sol.63.(a) Kesariya Stupa (Bihar): It was
at the top of the structure several elements, including a circular discovered in 1958 during an excavation
base or platform, a hemispherical dome led by K.K Muhammed. Shanti Stupa
Sol.54.(a) All forms of Buddhist or Anda, a spire or Harmika, and a (Leh): It was built in 1991 by Japanese
architecture include three primary parasol or Chhatra. Sanchi Stupa in Buddhist Bhikshu Gyomyo Nakamura.
structures: vihara, stupa, and Madhya Pradesh is the most famous of
chaitya-griha. the Ashokan stupas. Q.64. Who among the following has
written the biography of Buddha,
Q.55. Which of the following statements Q.59. The tall sculptures on the Bharhut Buddhacharita ?
is/are correct in context of Buddhist Stupa are the depictions of ________. SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
architecture? Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1) (a) Ashvaghosha (b) Nagarjuna
i. The Uddeshika stupa was created as a (a) Mahavira (b) Yakshas and Yakshinis (c) Vasumitra (d) Charaka
memorial. (c) Buddha (d) Bodhisattvas
ii. Paribhogika stupa contained the Sol.64.(a) Ashvaghosha. He was the
buried bodily remains of Buddh. Sol.59.(b) Yakshas and Yakshinis. court poet of king Kanishka. Other
iii. Bharhut stupa is situated in Uttar (nature spirits in Indian mythology linked writers and books: Nagarjuna -
Pradesh. to prosperity and fertility). These figures Mulamadhyamakakarika. Vasumitra -
SSC MTS 15/10/2024 (3rd Shift) symbolize the connection between the Mahavibhasa. Charaka - Charaka
(a) Only i and ii (b) i, ii and iii spiritual and natural worlds and Samhita.
(c) Only i and iii (d) Only i showcase the integration of local
traditions into Buddhist art. Q.65. Which is the oldest Stupa of the
Sol.55.(a) Only i and ii. Bharhut stupa Buddhist Period?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift) rainy season. Important Buddhist viharas I. Gautama Buddha belonged to a small
(a) Dhamek Stupa (b) Mahabodhi Stupa - Ajanta, Ellora. Nasik, Karle, Kanheri, gana known as the Sakya gana and was
(c) Kesariya Stupa (d) Sanchi Stupa Bagh. a Kshatriya.
II. Gautama Buddha passed away at
Sol.65.(d) Sanchi Stupa was built by the Q.70. Buddha meditated for days on end Kusinara.
Mauryan emperor Ashoka in the 3rd under a peepal tree at _____ where he SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Morning)
century BC in Madhya Pradesh. It was attained enlightenment. (a) Only I (b) Neither I nor II
declared a world heritage site by SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift) (c) Only II (d) Both I and II
UNESCO in 1989. (a) Sarnath (b) Bodh Gaya
(c) Kushinagar (d) Ujjain Sol.74.(d) Both I and II. Important places
Q.66. _______ was the first woman to be related to the life of Buddha are - Birth
ordained as a bhikkhuni in Buddhism. Sol.70.(b) Bodh Gaya. Gautam Buddha (Lumbini); Enlightenment (Bodh Gaya at
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift) (Siddharta, Sakyamuni & Tathagata). Bihar); His first Sermon also known as
(a) Dhammananda Bhikkhuni Father: Suddhodana, Mother: Mayadevi. Dharma-Chakra-Pravartana (Sarnath); His
(b) Sujata Birth Place (563 B.C.): Lumbini (Nepal), death or Mahaparinirvana in Kushinagara
(c) Mahapajapati Gotami Capital of Sakya republic. Teachers: (Pali: Kusinārā), Uttar Pradesh.
(d) Sanghamitta Alarakalama and UdrakaRamputra.
Enlightenment : At age of 35 under the Q.75. The earliest Buddhist texts were
Sol.66.(c) Mahapajapati Gotami. Peepal tree at Uruvela (Bodhgaya) on written in:
Sanghamitta was an Indian Buddhist nun banks of river Niranjana (Falgu). SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Afternoon)
and the eldest daughter of Ashoka. Mahaparinirvana (483 B.C.): At (a) Pali (b) Apabhramsha
Sujata fed Gautama Buddha a bowl of Kushinagar at age of 80. Sign:- Lotus and (c) Prakrit (d) Sanskrit
kheera, a milk-rice pudding, ending his Bull - Birth, Horse - Renunciation, Bodhi
df
six years of asceticism. Venerable Sol.75.(a) Pali. Pali canon, also called
Tree - Enlightenment, Dhammachakra
Dhammananda Bhikkhuni is the first fully Tipitaka (Pali: “Triple Basket”), is the
_p
Pravartana (Sarnath) - First sermon.
ordained Theravadin nun in Thailand. complete canon, first recorded in Pali, of
Q.71. What was the pedestrian path for the Theravada (“Way of the Elders”)
na
Q.67. With reference to Buddhist devotees to wave in homage to Stupa branch of Buddhism.
architecture, what does chaitya mean? called in Buddhist architecture?
ap
SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Afternoon) Q.76. The ‘Gandhara’ School of Art was
SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) Buddha Relics influenced by the art from which of the
(a) Medhi (b) Torana (c) Anda (d) Chattra
:@
(b) Temple entrance following European countries?
(c) Prayer Hall Sol.71.(a) Medhi. Features of Stupa - SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Morning)
(d) Residence/Monastery Medhi (A circular terrace), Toranas (wall (a) Italy (b) Belgium
TG
with decorated gateways), Anda (c) Hungary (d) Greece
Sol.67.(c) Prayer Hall. It is a rectangular
(hemispherical mound), Chattra (A Sol.76.(d) Greece. Gandhara School of
hall with a semi-circular apse at one end,
central pillar supporting a triple-umbrella Art : Features - Grey-sandstone is used,
on
which contains a stupa or relic chamber.
form), and Harmika (A square railing). Mainly Buddhist images are found,
Other types of architecture : Stupa - It
contained the Buddha's ashes. Vihara - Patron - Kushanas, Found in north-west
Q.72. Ramabhar Stupa, which marks the
ch
Residence hall for the monks. India.
site where Lord Buddha was cremated, is
situated in which state of India?
ar
Q.68. The rules made for the Buddhist
SSC MTS 07/07/2022 (Evening) Mahajanapadas
"Sangha” were written down in a book
Se
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Bihar
called ________ . Q.77. When did the second urbanisation
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening) in Ganga Valley take place ?
(a) Abhidhamma Pitaka (b) Sutta pitaka Sol.72.(d) Uttar Pradesh. Important SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
(c) Vinaya pitaka (d) Milinda Panha places related to Lord Buddha (Founder (a) 5th Century BCE (b) 3rd Century BCE
of Buddhism): Mahabodhi Temple, Bodh (c) 6th Century BCE (d) 2nd Century BCE
Sol.68.(c) Vinaya Pitaka. Buddhist Gaya (He attained enlightenment);
teachings were divided into Three Dhamekh Stupa, Sarnath (He gave his Sol.77.(c) 6th Century BCE. This era
Pitakas at the First Buddhist Council in first sermon to his five disciples witnessed the development of kingdoms
483 BC. Vinaya Pitaka: It consists of post-enlightenment). and Mahajanapadas like Magadha,
rules of conduct and discipline Kosala, and Vatsa, alongside
applicable to the monastic life of the Q.73. The Lion Capital was built to advancements in agriculture, trade, and
monks and the nuns. It was compiled by commemorate the historical event of administration. The First urbanisation in
Upali, and was written in Pali language. _________ of Buddha. India took place during the Harappan
SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Morning) civilization.
Q.69. In Buddhist architecture, which (a) Home abandonment
among the following are meditation cells (b) acquisition of knowledge Q.78. What was the name of the first
and living quarters for the monks? (c) death dynasty that ruled over Magadh kingdom ?
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Morning) (d) First Sermon Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
(a) Viharas (b) Chaitya Grihas (a) Nanda dynasty
(c) Pietra dura (d) Stupas Sol.73.(d) First sermon. (b) Mauryan dynasty
(c) Shishunga dynasty
Sol.69.(a) Viharas were dwelling places Q.74. Which of the following statements
(d) Haryanka dynasty
used by wandering monks during the is correct?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Sol.78.(d) Haryanka dynasty : The these rivers and fertility of land. Now defining Dhamma as compassion and
capital of this dynasty was Rajagriha. Magadha is a part of Bihar region. truthfulness. Pillar Edict VII, Ashoka
Bimbisara was the first king of Magadha, describes all sect's desire for self-control
starting the Haryanka dynasty, which Q.83. Rulers of Mahajanapadas in and purity of mind. The Rummindei
lasted from 544 BC to 412 BC. ancient India collected taxes on crops at Inscription marks his visit to Buddha's
the rate of _____ of what was produced. birthplace, Lumbini, while the Kandahar
Q.79. How many Mahajanapadas were SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Evening) Greek Edicts, written in Greek and Prakrit,
there during the age of Buddha? (a) 1/3rd (b) 1/5th (c) 1/6th (d) 1/4th were found in 1963.
Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(a) 15 (b) 26 (c) 16 (d) 9 Sol.83.(c) 1/6th. Rulers of Q.87. The name ‘Piyadassi’ is associated
mahajanapadas in ancient India with whom among the following Mauryan
Sol.79.(c) 16. The references of 16 collected a tax called 'Bhaga' from the kings?
Mahajanapadas are found in Anguttara Farmers in their region. SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Nikaya (Buddhist literature) and (a) Bindusara (b) Brihadratha
Bhagwati Sutra (Jain texts). The list of Q.84. Which of the following pairs of
(c) Ashoka (d) Chandragupta Maurya
the 16 Mahajanapadas includes: Anga ‘Name of Ruler – Empire’ is correctly
(Champa), Magadh (Rajgriha/Girivraja, matched? Sol.87.(c) Ashoka. "Piyadasi" is an
later Pataliputra), Kasi (Kasi), Vatsa I. Mahapadma Nanda – Magadha Empire honorific epithet that means "He who
(Kausambi), Kosala (Sravasti), Saurasena II. Ajatasatru – Maurya Empire regards others with kindness", "Humane",
(Mathura), Panchala (Ahichchhatra), Kuru SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Afternoon) or "He who glances amiably".
(Indraprastha), Matsya (Viratnagar), (a) Only II (b) Neither I nor II
(c) Both I and II (d) Only I Q.88. Deimachus, who was a Greek
Chedi (Sothivati/Banda), Avanti
ambassador, came to India during the
(Ujjain/Mahishmati), Gandhara (Taxila,
df
Sol.84.(d) Only I. Mahapadma Nanda reign of the Mauryan king, _________.
Purushapura), Kamboj (Rajapura), established the Nanda dynasty in Eastern SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
_p
Asmaka (Paithan/Pratisthan), Vajji Magadha. He established Pataliputra (a) Shatadhanvan
(Vaishali), Malla (Kusinara). (Patna, Bihar) as his kingdom's capital. (b) Bindusara
na
Q.80. Kosala Mahajanapada (6th century (c) Ashoka
BCE) is a part of modern day: Mauryan Dynasty (d) Chandragupta Maurya
ap
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (1st shift) Sol.88.(b) Bindusara also known as
(a) Maharashtra (b) Haryana Q.85. With reference to the city
:@
"Amitrochates" or "Amitragata" by the
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh administration of Mauryan Empire,
Greeks, was the son of Chandragupta
consider the following statements.
Maurya. Bindusara patronized the
Sol.80.(d) Uttar Pradesh. Modern day A) Megasthenes put light on the Mauryan
TG
Ajivikas and was taught by the Ajivika
names of other Mahajanapadas: Munger city administration.
Brahmin Pingalavatsa.
and Bhagalpur (Anga), Gaya and Patna B) The city council was divided into six
(Magadha), Banaras (Kashi), Prayagraj committees. Q.89. In which of the following Major
on
(Vatsa), Malwa and Madhya Pradesh C) City administration was well planned. Rock Edicts of Ashoka is the Kalinga war
(Avanti), Rawalpindi (Gandhara), North Which of the above statements is/are mentioned?
ch
Bihar (Vajji), Jaipur (Matsya), Meerut and correct? SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Haryana (Kuru), Western Uttar Pradesh SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon) (a) XII (b) X (c) XIII (d) XI
ar
(Shurasena and Panchala), Bundelkhand (a) B, C (b) A, B (c) A, B, (d) C, A
region (Chedi), Rajouri, Hajra and North Sol.89.(c) XIII. Major Rock Edict XIII of
Se
-West Frontier Province (Kamboja), Sol.85.(c) A, B, C. The Mauryan Empire, Ashoka discusses the Kalinga War,
Banks of Godavari (Asmaka or Assaka), founded by Chandragupta Maurya in 321 expressing remorse for the loss of life
Deoria and Uttar Pradesh (Malla). BCE, was the first major empire in India. and suffering it caused. It announces his
It stretched from the Oxus Valley to the conversion to Buddhism and
Q.81. Iron mines in Jharkhand attributed Kaveri Delta, covering most of the commitment to non-violence,
to the rise of which of the following subcontinent, with its capital at highlighting the importance of Dharma
kingdoms in ancient India? Pataliputra, a city fortified with 64 gates (righteous living). Major Rock Edict XII:
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (1st shift) and 570 towers. Megasthenes, a Greek Deals with Ashoka's tolerance and
(a) Kuru (b) Magadha (c) Kashi (d) Kushan historian, documented India in his work respect for other religions. Major Rock
Indica. Edict X : Discusses Ashoka's duties as a
Sol.81.(b) Magadha.
ruler and his commitment to Dharma.
Q.86. Which of the following edicts of
Q.82. Magadha Mahajanapada was Major Rock Edict XI : Explains the
King Ashoka describes the Kalinga war?
surrounded by the rivers______. principles of Dharma and moral conduct.
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon)
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Rock edict XIII (b) Pillar edict III Q.90. Who among the following generally
(a) Ganga and Jhelum (c) Rock edict II (d) Pillar edict IV used to head the provincial
(b) Ganga and Yamuna
administration under the Mauryas?
(c) Ganga and Son Sol.86.(a) Rock edict XIII. The Edicts of
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(d) Ganga and Ghaghara Ashoka, issued during his reign
(a) Dandapala (b) Kumara
(268–232 BCE), are inscriptions on
Sol.82.(c) Ganga and Son. Magadha (c) Samaharta (d) Prashasti
pillars, boulders, and caves. Key edicts
became the most powerful among the include Pillar Edict I, emphasizing Sol.90.(b) Kumara. The 18 Tirthas were
mahajanapadas in 6th Century AD due to protection of people, and Pillar Edict II, key officials in ancient administration,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
including roles like Mantrin (Chief Q.94. Ashoka sent his son Mahendra and Q.99. Who among the following Mauryan
Minister), Purohita (Priest), Senapati daughter Sanghmitra to spread the rulers was the first, who tried to convey
(Army Commander), Yuvaraja (Prince), message of Dhamma to which of the his messages to his subjects concerning
Dauvarika (Chief of Palace Attendants), following countries? the idea and practice of dhamma through
Antarvamsika (Chief of the King’s SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) inscriptions?
Guards), Prasasta (Magistrate), (a) Burma (b) China Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Samahata (Collector General), (c) Afghanistan (d) Sri Lanka (a) Brihadaratha
Samnidhata (Chief Treasurer), and (b) Ashoka
Pradesta (Commissioner). Other roles Sol.94.(d) Sri Lanka. Ashoka (272 BCE (c) Dasaratha
included Nayak (Town Guard), Paur –232 BCE) was the third king of the (d) Chandragupta Maurya
(Town Chief), Karmanta (Mines Mauryan dynasty (Founder -
Superintendent), Dandpala (Army Chandragupta Maurya). Sol.99.(b) Ashoka was the third emperor
Officer), and Durgapala (Fort Guardian). of the Mauryan Dynasty. To propagate
Q.95. Bhabru-Bairat rock edicts mainly the policy of dhamma, he used the
Q.91. Which of the following was NOT depicting Ashokas' conversion to medium of edicts. These edicts were
one of the basic attributes of Ashokas' Buddhism are found in ___________. used to communicate between the King
Dhamma? Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1) (Ashoka) and his subjects. Few
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (a) Rajasthan (b) Uttar Pradesh inscriptions were addressed to the
(a) Political unification (b) Ahimsa (c) Bihar (d) Odisha Buddhist Samgha.
(c) Celibacy (d) Secularism Sol.95.(a) Rajasthan. Bhabru is the only
Q.100. Which of the following was a
inscription in the Boustrophedon script
Sol.91.(c) Celibacy. Ashoka's Dhamma, Ceylonese chronicle that acted as an
(bi-directional script from right to left and
as outlined in his Edicts, emphasized the important literary source of the Mauryan
df
left to right in an alternate line).
following basic attributes: Ahimsa empire?
_p
(Non-violence), Secularism (Separation Q.96. Who requested the Syrian king to SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
of religion and state), Political unification send a Greek philosopher? (a) Indica (b) Mudrarakshas
na
(Unity and harmony among subjects). Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (c) Mahavamsa (d) Arthasastra
(a) Chandragupta Maurya (b) Bindusara
Q.92. Who among the following envoys Sol.100.(c) Mahavamsa - It was written
ap
(c) Ashok (d) Kunal
was sent by Seleucus I to the court of by Mahanama in Pali language. Literary
Chandragupta Maurya? Sources of Mauryan Period:
:@
Sol.96.(b) Bindusara was the second
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Mauryan Empire, father of Ashoka, and "Arthashastra” (Kautilya), “Indica”
(a) Fa-Hien (b) Al-Biruni son of Chandragupta (founder of (Megasthenes).
(c) Megasthenes (d) Deimachus
TG
Mauryan empire). Syrian King Antiochus-I
Q.101. Who among the following
sent his ambassador Deimachus to the
Sol.92.(c) Megasthenes. He was an Mauryan kings fasted to death and died
court of Bindusara.
ancient Greek historian, diplomat, and at Shravanabelagola?
on
ethnographer who authored the famous Q.97. Barabar Cave, famously known for SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening)
work “Indica”, providing valuable insights depicting Ashokas' inscription, is (a) Bindusara (b) Dasharatha
ch
into the Mauryan Empire, including its situated at_______. (c) Ashoka (d) Chandragupta Maurya
administration, society, geography, and Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Sol.101.(d) Chandragupta Maurya: His
ar
culture. (a) Sanchi, Madhya Pradesh
Greek name was Sandrocottos. He was
(b) Rampurva, Bihar
Se
Q.93. Which of the following Ashokan the founder of the Mauryan Empire. He
(c) Gaya, Bihar
rock edicts declares prohibition of animal occupied Patliputra (Magadh Empire) in
(d) Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh
sacrifice ? 322 B.C by defeating Dhanananda of
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) Sol.97.(c) Gaya, Bihar. The Barabar Nanda Empire. During his tenure
(a) Major Rock Edict - IV Caves, located in the Makhdumpur Megasthenese (Greek Historian) visited
(b) Major Rock Edict - I region of Jehanabad district, Bihar, date India. He used to follow Jainism.
(c) Major Rock Edict - II back to the Mauryan period (3rd century
(d) Major Rock Edict - III Q.102. What was the function of an
BCE) and were built by Emperor Ashoka
officer called Samaharta?
for Ajivaka ascetics. The caves include
Sol.93.(b) Major Rock Edict - I. There are SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Karan Chaupar, Lomas Rishi, Sudama,
14 Major Rock Edicts of Ashoka in three (a) Reserve the state treasury
and Visvakarma Caves.
languages (Prakrit, Aramaic and Greek) (b) Tax assessment
and two scripts (Brahmi and Kharosthi). Q.98. Who among the following rulers (c) Security assurance
Major Rock Edicts: II - It mentions social was defeated in the battle for Pataliputra (d) To correspond
welfare under Dhamma. Major Rock by Chandragupta Maurya ?
Edict III - It declares that respect for Sol.102.(b) Tax assessment. Officers
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
parents and for all living things, including during the Mauryan administration:
(a) Megasthenes (b) Dhana Nanda
Brahmanas and Sramanas, is a virtue. Shulkadhyaksha (Officer-in-charge of
(c) Seleucus Nicator (d) Elara
Major Rock Edict IV - Consideration and royal income), Koshadhyaksha (Treasury
non-violence to animals and courtesy to Sol.98.(b) Dhana Nanda. He was the last officer), Lakshanadhyaksha (Coin
relations. Major Rock Edict XIII - It ruler of the Nanda dynasty, and his minting), Rajjukas (Land measurer),
mentions Ashoka’s victory over Kalinga. defeat marked the establishment of the Yukta (Subordinate revenue officer),
Mauryan Empire in India. Sannidata (Treasury head),
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Panyadhyaksha (Office of commerce during the Mauryan empire? Q.112. Which of the following places
department). Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) does not contain the major inscription of
(a) Brihat Samhita (b) Nitisara Ashoka ?
Q.103. Emperor Ashoka conquered (c) Shulba Sutra (d) Arthashastra SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Afternoon)
Kalinga after how many years of his (a) Girnar (b) Kandahar (c) Sanchi (d) Kalsi
coronation? Sol.107.(d) Arthashastra - It focused
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (1st shift) primarily on principles and practice of Sol.112.(c) Sanchi. It is a famous
(a) 5 years (b) 8 years statecraft, Written in the Sanskrit Buddhist site with several stupas and
(c) 11 years (d) 15 years language by Kautilya (Chanakya monasteries. Language used in Ashoka’s
/Vishnugupta), who was the Prime inscriptions - Prakrit. Ashoka's name is
Sol.103.(b) 8 years. Ashoka fought the Minister under Chandragupta Maurya’s only used in four of these locations:
Kalinga War in 261 BC. King Ashoka reign. Maski, Brahmagiri (Karnataka), Gujjara
(268 - 232 BC) was the third king of the (Madhya Pradesh) and Nettur (Andhra
Mauryan Empire. Q.108. Nagarjuni Caves were donated to Pradesh).
which of the following sects by
Q.104. How many classes of Indian Mauryans? Q.113. What was the purpose behind the
society are mentioned in Megasthenes Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 ( Shift - 2) Pillars of Ashoka?
book Indica? (a) Ajivika (b) Buddhism SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Morning)
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 ( 3rd shift) (c) Lokayat (d) Jainism (a) To spread bherighosha
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 7 (b) To spread mass conversion
Sol.108.(a) Ajivika - It was founded by (c) To spread sectarian faith
Sol.104.(d) 7. They were Brahmins
Goshala Maskariputra. It is based on the (d) To spread the dharma policies
(upper class), Philosophers, Farmers,
philosophy that the affairs of the entire
df
Herders, Artisans, Military, Overseers, Sol.113.(d) To spread the dharma of
universe were ordered by a cosmic force
Councillors and Assessors. policies. Pillars are inscribed with edicts
called Niyati that determined all events,
_p
including an individual’s fate. The seven by the 3rd Mauryan Emperor Ashoka the
Q.105. According to Kautilya's
caves were created by Mauryan time for Great (c. 268 to 232 BCE). There are
na
Arthashastra, the Commanding Officer of
the Ajivika Sect. seven pillar edicts. The Seventh Pillar
the cavalry in the Mauryan administration
Edict mentions Dhamma Mahamattas
ap
was known as:
Q.109. As per the contents mentioned in and it is the longest pillar almost of all.
SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 4th shift)
Asokan inscriptions, how many major
:@
(a) Rathadhyaksha (b) Hastyadhyaksha Q.114. Which caves are considered as
political centres were there in the
(c) Ashwadhyaksha (d) Patyadhyaksha the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in
Mauryan empire?
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Morning) India dating back to the Maurya period?
Sol.105.(c) Ashwadhyaksha. Officers in
TG
(a) five (b) six (c) four (d) three SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Evening)
Mauryan Empire: Mantrin (Chief
(a) Barabar and Nagarjuni caves
Minister), Senapati (Commander-in
Sol.109.(a) Five. The five major political (b) Bagh Caves
-Chief), Yuvraj (Crown prince),
on
centres of the Mauryan empire were (c) Elephanta Caves
Shulkadhyaksha (Officer in-charge of
located at Pataliputra, Taxila, Ujjain, (d) Ajanta and Ellora Caves
royal income), Prashasti (Prison head),
Tosali and Suvarnagiri.
ch
Koshadhyaksha (Treasury officer), Sol.114.(a) Barabar and Nagarjuni caves
Vyabharika (Chief Judge), Dandapala Q.110. Which Mauryan ruler was called - Located in Jehanabad district of Bihar,
ar
(Head of Police), Annapala (Head of food Amitrochates by the Greeks? Constructed by Emperor Ashoka for the
grains department), Pradeshika (District SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Evening) benefit of Ajivika ascetics. They were cut
Se
administrator), Hastyadhyaksha (Chief (a) Samudragupta (b) Kanishka from a single solid granite block.
Commander of Elephant Corps), (c) Bindusara (d) Chandragupta Ⅰ
Rathadhyaksha (Chief Commander of Q.115. Somewhat before the time of the
Chariot Corps) and Nayaka (City security Sol.110.(c) Bindusara. He was the son of Mauryan empire, about _______ years
officer). Chandragupta Maurya and was the ago, emperors in China began building
second Mauryan emperor of India whose the Great Wall.
Q.106. The Mauryan pillar capital found reign from 297 - 273 BCE. SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
at _______ is popularly known as the Lion (a)1200 (b) 3500 (c) 2400 (d) 600
Capital. Q.111. There were several cities in the
Mauryan empire. Which of the following Sol.115.(c) 2400. Emperor Qin Shi
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift)
cities was located on the southernmost Huang ordered construction of the Great
(a) Bhabru (b) Bairat
side? Wall around 221 B.C. It was meant to
(c) Sanchi (d) Sarnath
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Afternoon) protect the northern frontier of the
Sol.106.(d) Sarnath Lion Capital - (a) Girnar (b) Topra empire from pastoral people.
Erected by Ashoka (Around 250 BCE) in (c) Brahmagiri (d) Rupnath
commemoration of Dhammachakra Q.116. Pushyamitra, who was the
pravartana or the first sermon of Buddha. Sol.111.(c) Brahmagiri. The Maurya commander of Brihadratha, the last
The Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath is Empire: Founder - Chandragupta Maurya, Mauryan emperor, killed the king and
the Indian National Emblem. Capital - Pataliputra (modern Patna). established a new dynasty. Which of the
Three important rulers of the Mauryan following was his dynasty?
Q.107. Which of the following texts lays Empire - Chandragupta, his son SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023)
down minute details of the Bindusara, and Bindusara’s son, Ashoka. (a) Shunga (b) Kanva
administrative and military organisation (c) Satavahana (d) Chedi
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Sol.116.(a) Shunga Dynasty Founder - 'Kantakasodhana' was prevalent in the (a) Dandin (b) Bhavabhuti
Pushyamitra Sunga. Ruled - From 185 ______ Empire. (c) Kshemendra (d) Harisena
BCE to 73 BCE. Last Ruler - Devabhuti. SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Morning)
Kanva Dynasty Founder - Vasudeva (a) Kushana (b) Mauryan Sol.124.(d) Harisena. He was a Sanskrit
Kanva. Ruled - From 73 BCE to 28 BCE. (c) Chola (d) Rashtrakuta writer and poet in the court of
Last Ruler - Susarma. Satavahana Samudragupta. "Brihat Katha Kosh" is a
Dynasty Founder - Simuka . Famous Sol.120.(b) Mauryan Empire. It literally collection of ancient Indian folk tales and
Ruler - Gautamiputra Satakarni. means ‘removal of the thorns’ and was legends. Bhavabhuti is believed to be the
used in reference to criminal justice in court poet of King Yashovarman of
Q.117. Ashoka appointed ______ to solve ancient India. Kautilya also mentioned Kannauj. His famous plays are
the social problems in his region. the cases that are subject to Kantaka Mahaviracharita, Malatimadhava.
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Shodhana in his book Arthashastra.
(a) samaharta (b) nyayadhish Q.125. Kalidasa was a famous poet in
(c) amatya (d) dhamma mahamatta Q.121. Who among the following the court of________.
published a set of Ashokan inscriptions Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Sol.117.(d) Dhamma Mahamatta. in 1877 ? (a) Kanishka
Tirthas: The highest category of officials SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Afternoon) (b) Pushyamitra Shunga
in the administration. There were 18 (a) DC Sircar (c) Harshavardhana
Tirthas. Amatyas: High ranking officials (b) MS Vats (d) Chandragupta II
almost like present-day secretaries. The (c) Alexander Cunningham
important officials in the revenue (d) Colin Mackenzie Sol.125.(d) Chandragupta II, also known
department are Sannidhata: Chief as Vikramaditya, ruled from 380 to 415
treasury, Samaharta: collector general of Sol.121.(c) Alexander Cunningham. He CE and was a renowned patron of arts
df
revenue. Yuktas: Subordinate officers was the founder of the Archaeological and literature. Kalidasa's notable works,
Survey of India. such as "Abhijnanasakuntalam",
_p
responsible for the Empire’s revenue.
Rajjukas: Officers in charge of land "Meghaduta", and "Raghuvamsa",
Gupta Dynasty showcase his mastery of Sanskrit
na
measurement and boundary-fixing.
literature.
Q.118. Which of the following
ap
Q.122. Rudrasena II of which of the
statements is correct? Q.126. Harisena, the author of Prayag
following dynasties married
I. Most of Ashoka’s inscriptions were Prashasti, was the court poet of which of
Prabhavatigupta, the daughter of
:@
written in Brahmi script. the following Gupta emperors ?
Chandragupta II of the Gupta dynasty?
II. Many of Chanakya’s ideas were written Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
down in a book called the Arthashastra. (a) Samudraguta (b) Kumaragupta I
TG
(a) Pushyabhuti (b) Vakataka
SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Afternoon) (c) Ramagupta (d) Skandagupta
(c) Chalukya (d) Pallava
(a) Only II (b) Only I Sol.126.(a) Samudragupta. He was the
(c) Neither I nor II (d) Both I and II Sol.122.(b) Vakataka. The Vakataka
on
son and successor of Chandragupta I
dynasty: Founded by Vindhyashakti
Sol.118.(d) Both I and II. Brahmi Script and was the greatest ruler of the Gupta
around 250-270 CE. The Vakatakas ruled
dynasty. The Allahabad Pillar inscription,
ch
was deciphered by James Prinsep. over Central and Western India.
also called Prayag Prashasti, was
Q.119. Ashokan Minor Rock Edicts are Q.123. The ________ were tributary chiefs composed by Harishena.
ar
found in different parts of India. Which of of the Gupta dynasty. They established
Q.127. Gupta emperor Chandragupta I
Se
the following is NOT a find spot of an independent kingdom in western
Ashokan Minor Rock Edicts in was the first ruler to adopt which of the
India. Dhruvasena II was the most
Karnataka? following titles?
important ruler of this kingdom.
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Morning) Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) Brahmagiri (b) Gavimath (a) Maharajadhiraja (b) Parmeshvara
(a) Maitrakas (b) Maukharis
(c) Rupnath (d) Maski (c) Mahendraditya (d) Vikramaditya
(c) Pushyabhutis (d) Gurjara Pratiharas
Sol.127.(a) Maharajadhiraja.
Sol.119.(c) Rupnath. Minor rock edicts Sol.123.(a) Maitrakas established
Chandragupta I, the son of Gupta king
of Ashoka - Kandahar (Afghanistan), Valabhi as their capital and ruled until the
Ghatotkacha and grandson of the
Lampaka (Afghanistan), Bahapur (Delhi), middle of the eighth century. Dhruvasena
dynasty's founder Sri Gupta, is referred to
Bairat (Rajasthan), Bhabru (Rajasthan), II was a contemporary of
as Maharaja in the Allahabad Pillar
Gujarra (Madhya Pradesh), Rupnath Harshavardhana and was married to his
inscription, while his successor,
(Madhya Pradesh), Panguraria (Madhya daughter. Hsuan Tsang tells us that
Kumaragupta, adopted the title
Pradesh), Sasaram (Bihar), Barabar Dhruvasena II attended Harsha’s
"Mahendraditya."
Caves (Bihar), Rajula-Mandagiri, Andhra assembly at Prayaga (Allahabad).
Pradesh, Suvarna Giri (Andhra Pradesh), Maukharies ruled over Kannauj, a city in Q.128. The Chinese Buddhist pilgrim Fa
Brahmagiri (Karnataka), Jatina- western Uttar Pradesh, they were also Hien visited India during the reign of
Rameshwara, Karnataka, Siddapur the subordinate rulers of the Guptas and which of the following Gupta emperors?
(Karnataka), Maski (Karnataka), Nittur used the title of samanta. Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
(Karnataka), Udegolam (Karnataka), (a) Vishnugupta (b) Chandragupta I
Palkigundu and Gavimath (Karnataka). Q.124. Who among the following was the
(c) Ghatotkacha (d) Chandragupta II
author of 'Brihat Katha Kosh'?
Q.120. A type of court called SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) Sol.128.(d) Chandragupta II, also known
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
as Vikramaditya, was the third ruler of (d) Lucknow pillar inscription (c) Skandagupta (d) Kumaragupta I
the Gupta Empire. He is often identified
with King Chandra from the Delhi iron Sol.132.(a) Allahabad pillar inscription Sol.137.(b) Chandragupta II - He was the
pillar inscription. Notable Travellers and composed in Sanskrit by Harishena, the son of Samudragupta and Datta Devi. He
Their Visits - Abdul Razzak (Iran): Deva court poet of Samudragupta. ruled the Gupta Empire from 380 to 415
Raya II. Francois Bernier (France): Shah AD during the Golden Age of India. He
Q.133. Who was the court poet of established the Mehrauli iron pillar.
Jahan, Ibn Batuta (Morocco): Harshavardhana?
Mohammed Bin Tughlaq, Megasthenes SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Afternoon) Q.138. Who among the following
(Greece): Chandragupta Maurya, (a) Hema Saraswati (b) Parmanand succeeded Ghatotkacha, the Gupta ruler?
Thomas Roe and William Hawkins (c) Banabhatta (d) Sri Ponna SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Evening)
(Britain): Jahangir, Hwien Tsang (China): (a) Kumaragupta I (b) Chandragupta I
Harsha Vardhana. Sol.133.(c) Banabhatta - His teacher's (c) Chandragupta II (d) Skandagupta
name was Bhatsu or Bharvu.
Q.129. The paintings in the Bagh caves Banabhatta's three works are famous - Sol.138.(b) Chandragupta I. Founder - Sri
belong to which of the following periods? “Harshacharita”, “Kadambari” and Gupta, Next Successors - Ghatotkacha,
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning) “Chandishtak”. Harshvardhan was the Chandragupta I, Samudragupta,
(a) Maukhari (b) Maurya ruler of the Pushyabhuti dynasty of Chandragupta II, Kumaragupta I (founded
(c) Chola (d) Gupta Thaneshwar. Nalanda University).
Sol.129.(d) Gupta. Bagh Caves are Q.134. Who among the following Q.139. Ruler of which dynasty built the
located in Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh). Navratnas from Chandragupta II court famous Iron pillar in Delhi?
These are a group of nine rock-cut wrote 'Mantrashastra’ ? SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift)
monuments. These caves were founded
df
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning) (a) Gupta (b) Pallava
by the Buddhist monk Dataka. Caves in (a) Kalidasa (b) Ghatakarapara (c) Maurya (d) Pushyabhuti
_p
India - Undavalli caves (Andhra Pradesh), (c) Vetala Bhatta (d) Amarasimha
Barabar Caves (Bihar), Badami Cave Sol.139.(a) Gupta dynasty. In Mehrauli
na
Temples (Karnataka), Udaygiri Caves Sol.134.(c) Vetala Bhatta. Nine jewels (Delhi) an iron pillar was constructed by
(Madhya Pradesh), Ajanta Caves and (Navratna) of Chandragupta II - the famous king Chandragupta II, India,
ap
Ellora Caves (Maharashtra). Amarasimha, Dhanvantari, Harisena, notable for the rust-resistant
Kalidasa, Kshapanaka, Shanku, composition of the metal used in its
Q.130. The Vakataka dynasty was
:@
Varahamihira, Varuchi, Vetala-Bhatta. construction. The inscription on the pillar
directly related to which Gupta emperor? is in Sanskrit, about Gupta emperor
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift) Q.135. The reign of Kumaragupta I the Chandragupta II.
(a) Chandra Gupta I (b) Shree Gupta son and successor of _____ was one of
TG
(c) Samudra Gupta (d) Chandra Gupta II peace and relative inactivity. Q.140. Which of the following offices
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Afternoon) was NOT held by the poet Harishena?
Sol.130.(d) Chandra Gupta II. Vakataka (a) Chandragupta I (b) Skandagupta SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (1st Shift)
on
dynasty : Founded by Vindhyashakti in (c) Chandragupta II (d) Samudragupta (a) Sandhi-vigrahika
250 CE. Ajanta caves (numbers ⅩⅥ, (b) Maha-danda-nayaka
ch
ⅩⅦ, ⅩⅨ) are the best examples of Sol.135.(c) Chandragupta II (successor (c) Nagara-shreshthi
Vakataka excellence in the field of of Samudragupta). Kumaragupta I : He (d) Kumar-amatya
ar
painting. was also known as Shakraditya and
Mahendraditya. He founded Nalanda Sol.140.(c) Nagara-shreshthi (Chief
Se
Q.131. In which period is the first Mahavihara in 5th century CE. His banker or merchant). Offices held by
inscriptional example of the practice of successor - Skandagupta. Poet Harishena: Maha-danda-Nayaka
Sati found? (Chief Judicial Officer), Kumar-amatya
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift) Q.136. Which king was shown on his (Important minister) and a sandhi -
(a) Maukhari (b) Vardhana coins as a Veena player? vigrahika (Minister of War and Peace).
(c) Satavahana (d) Gupta SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning)
(a) Ashoka Q.141. Fa Xian began his journey back
Sol.131.(d) Gupta. Practice of Sati has (b) Chandragupta Maurya home from which of the following Indian
been found in the Eran Pillar Inscription (c) Samudragupta state?
of Bhanugupta, Madhya Pradesh. Sati (d) Chandragupta I SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Movement : Raja Ram Mohan Roy (a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra
described ‘Sati’ as ‘murder’ according to Sol.136.(c) Samudragupta - He was a (c) Bengal (d) Odisha
every shastra. By his efforts, Bengal Sati ruler of the Gupta dynasty. On several of
Regulation Act was passed to criminalize his coins, he was depicted as seated on Sol.141.(c) Bengal. Fa-Xian (Chinese
the practice of Sati in 1829. a sofa and playing a Veena. He is known traveller) started his journey back home
as the Napoleon of India. He was given from Bengal by boarding a merchant
Q.132. The famous source of the Gupta the title of Kaviraj. ship. He traveled from China to India on
empire, the Prayaga Prashasti is also foot to acquire Buddhist texts. He came
known as the ________. Q.137. After the victory over Sakas, who to India, under the reign of Chandragupta
Graduate Level 27/06/2023 ( Shift - 4) among the following adopted the title of II, and arrived at Pataliputra from the
(a) Allahabad pillar inscription 'Vikramaditya"? northwest.
(b) Ahmedabad pillar inscription SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon)
(c) Bithur pillar inscription (a) Chandragupta I (b) Chandragupta II Q.142. Samudragupta's mother belonged
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
to which of the following gana? AD) belonged to the Pushyabhuti Harshavardhan sent an envoy to Taizong
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift) dynasty, also known as the Vardhana (Tai-Tsung), the Tang emperor of China
(a) Koliya (b) Lichchhavi (c) Sakya (d) Vajji dynasty. He wanted to extend his power and in return, the Chinese ruler sent three
in the Deccan but he was defeated by embassies to Harsha court.
Sol.142.(b) Licchavi. Samudragupta (335 Pulakesin II, the Chalukya ruler, on the
-375 CE, Kaviraja) was the son of bank of river Narmada. The river thus Q.151. After about 75 years of
Chandragupta I and Queen Kumaradevi became the southern boundary of his Harshavardhana's death ______ rose to
(Licchavi clan). He is called ‘Napoleon of kingdom. Vardhana dynasty: Founder - power in Kannauj.
India’ by V.A. Smith. Pushyabhuti. Capital: Thanesar SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening)
(Thaneshwar), later Kannauj (a) Yashovarman (b) Yadagiri
Q.143. In the context of Gupta (c) Mahendravarman (d) Pulakeshin II
administration, the term 'vithi' referred to (Kanyakubja).
a/an: Sol.151.(a) Yashovarman. He was the
Q.147. Pushyabhuti dynasty, after
SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Evening) founder of the Varman dynasty of Kanauj
Prabhakarvardhana, strengthened its
(a) elephantry unit and surrounding areas during the 8th and
position in the regions of Punjab and
(b) administrative unit the 9th centuries.
Haryana after defeating which of the
(c) personal guard of the king following dynasties? Q.152. What was the period of
(d) soldier SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Harshavardhana's reign?
Sol.143.(b) Administrative unit. In (a) Maukharis (b) Hunas SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Gupta's period, there was a hierarchy of (c) Chalukyas (d) Maitrakas (a) 647 CE to 700 CE
administrative divisions from top to (b) 570 CE to 610 CE
Sol.147.(b) Hunas. The Pushyabhuti (c) 606 CE to 647 CE
bottom. The empire was called by dynasty (Vardhana dynasty) ruled
df
various names such as Rajya, Rashtra, (d) 545 CE to 570 CE
northern India during the 6th and 7th
Desha, Mandala, Prithvi, and Avani. It was
_p
centuries, emerging after the Gupta Sol.152.(c) 606 CE to 647 CE.
divided into provinces, which were Empire's decline. Its core territory was in Harshavardhana - Last ruler of the
further divided into Vishayas. A
na
present-day Haryana, with Sthanishvara Vardhana Empire (Pushyabhuti dynasty);
Vishayapati administered the Vishaya. A (Thaneshwar) as the capital. The dynasty Undisputed ruler of Thaneshwar (modern
part of the Vishaya was called Vithi.
ap
reached its peak under Harsha Vardhana, -day Haryana). He was author of three
who reigned from 606 to 647 AD. Sanskrit plays - Nagananda, Ratnavali,
Q.144. Who among the following Gupta
:@
Priyadarshika.
rulers married a girl from the Lichchhavi Q.148. Thaneswar where the Vardhana
clan? dynasty ruled around the present-day Q.153. King Shashanka, against whom
SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Afternoon) state of _______. Harshvardhana declared war, was a ruler
TG
(a) Samudragupta (b) Sri Gupta Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4) of the ______ kingdom.
(c) Chandragupta-I (d) Ramagupta (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Haryana SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Evening)
(c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat (a) Kanyakubja (b) Junagarh
on
Sol.144.(c) Chandragupta-I. The
(c) Magadha (d) Gauda
Lichchhavi clan was headquartered at Sol.148.(b) Haryana.
Vaishali in present-day Bihar during the
ch
Sol.153.(d) Gauda. Karnasubarna was
time of Gautama Buddha. Q.149. According to which of the
the capital of Gauda Kingdom during the
following foreign travellers did
ar
reign of Shashanka, the first important
Vardhana Dynasty Dhruvasena II attend Harsha’s assembly
king of ancient Bengal who ruled in the
Se
at Prayag (Allahabad)?
7th century.
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
Q.145. Which of the following plays was
(a) Marco Polo (b) Hiuen Tsang
NOT written by Harshavardhana ? Chola Dynasty
(c) Fa-Hien (d) I-tsing
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Vikramorvasiyam (b) Ratnavali Sol.149.(b) Hiuen Tsang (Xuanzang) - Q.154. With reference to medieval
(c) Nagananda (d) Priyadarshika Chinese Buddhist monk who travelled history, consider the following
from China to India to study Buddhism statements.
Sol.145.(a) Vikramorvasiyam is a
and obtain Buddhist scriptures during the 1. The founder of the Chola dynasty
romantic play written by Kalidasa, based
reign of King Harsha Vardhan. Assembly called the ‘Imperial Cholas’ was
on the legend of King Pururava and an
of Prayag (Maha Moksha Parishad) - Vijayalaya (9th century AD).
Apsara named Urvashi. Kalidasa's works
Harsha Vardhan gave all his belongings 2. One of the important dynasties which
include: Abhijnanasakuntalam,
in charity for the welfare of the public. ruled in northern India was
Malavikagnimitram, Kumarasambhavam.
Gurjara-Pratiharas.
Q.150. Who sent an envoy to the Chinese
Q.146. Pulakeshin II assumed the title of 3. Palas ruled in western India and
court in 641 AD?
‘Dakshinapatheshvara’ (lord of the south) Rashtrakutas ruled in southern India in
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
after defeating which of the following the early years (750 -1000).
(a) Narsimhavarman I
rulers of north India? Which of the given statement(s) is/are
(b) Harsha Vardhan
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) correct?
(c) Narsimhavarman II
(a) Rudrasena II (b) Harshavardhana SSC MTS 12/11/2024 (1st Shift)
(d) Pulakesin I
(c) Dhruvasena II (d) Prabhakarvardhana (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
Sol.150.(b) Harsha Vardhan. In 641 AD (c) 2 only (d) 1 only
Sol.146.(b) Harshavardhana (606-647
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Sol.154.(a) 1 and 2 only. The successors celebrated of the Chola kings and Sol.163.(a) Land gifted to Brahmans.
of Vijayalaya expanded the Chola ascended the throne in 985 AD. Rajendra There were five types of 'land gifts' that
kingdom by annexing Pandyan and I, the son of Rajaraja I, became the first Chola kings gave to their people on the
Pallava territories. Rajaraja I, who Chola king to venture to the banks of the basis of Chola inscriptions : Vellanvagai -
became king in 985, strengthened and Ganges, earning the title "Victor of the For non-Brahmana, peasant proprietors.
reorganized the empire. His son, Ganges." Shalabhoga - For the maintenance of a
Rajendra I, further extended the Chola school. Devadana or Tirunamattukkani -
influence with expeditions to the Ganga Q.159. Name the Chola inscription that Land gifted to temples. Pallichchhandam
valley, Sri Lanka, and Southeast Asia, provided details of the way in which the - Land donated to Jaina institutions.
supported by a powerful navy. Palas sabha was organised in the local
ruled in eastern India and Rashtrakutas administration in the Chola empire. Q.164. The Airavatesvara Temple in
ruled in the Deccan region. SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) Tamil Nadu was built by _________ .
(a) Thirunanthikarai inscription SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Afternoon)
Q.155. One of the greatest of Chola (b) Thiruvalangadu inscription (a) Rajaraja Chola II
rulers, Rajaraja I ruled from 985 AD to (c) Darsanam Koppu inscription (b) Rajaraja Chola I
______. (d) Uttaramerur inscription (c) Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh II
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(d) Maharaja Pratap Singh
(a) 1015 AD (b) 1017 AD Sol.159.(d) Uttaramerur inscription. It
(c) 1014 AD (d) 1018 AD dated 919 CE and 921 CE of the Chola Sol.164.(a) Rajaraja Chola II.
king Parantaka I provides evidence of Airavatesvara Temple is a Hindu temple
Sol.155.(c) 1014 AD. The Chola Empire
India's long history of democratic built in the Dravidian style of architecture.
was founded by Vijayalaya. Rajaraja I
government. Dedicated to - Lord Shiva.
was known for his conquests of South
df
India and parts of Sri Lanka. He built the Q.160. In the 11th century, the army of Q.165. The term "Vetti" in Chola empire
great Brihadisvara Temple at the Chola which of the following Cholas reached is related to ___________
_p
capital Thanjavur. upto Ganga to invade Bengal? SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift) (a) part payments (b) army
na
Q.156. Which of the following animals
(a) Rajendra I (b) Rajaraja I (c) forced labour (d) gold coins
was the emblem of the Chola dynasty?
(c) Vijayalaya (d) Rajadhiraj I
ap
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.165.(c) Forced labour. Some types of
(a) Wolf (b) Horse (c) Elephant (d) Tiger Sol.160.(a) Rajendra I (1014 and 1044 taxes in Cholas empire: Kadmai or Irai -
:@
CE) - He was also known as Tax on land; Pattam and ayam - Taxes
Sol.156.(d) Tiger. Three dynasties ruled
Gangaikonda Chola. He defeated imposed on non-agricultural professions
during the Sangam Age. Cheras:
Mahipala, the Pala king of Bengal and like artisans and merchants; Nirvilai or
Modern-Day City (Kerala), Ancient Capital
TG
Bihar. nirkkirai - Water tax; Ulku and sungam -
(Vanji), Important Ports (Musiri, Tondi),
Emblem (Bow and Arrow). Cholas: Toll tax; Tattar-pattam - A tax levied on
Q.161. Who among the following rulers
Modern-Day City (Tamil Nadu), Ancient gold -smiths; Sangam - Export and
on
invaded Malaya to liberate their trade
Capital (Uraiyur, Puhar), Important Ports import taxes; Kannala Kanam - Marriage
with China?
(Kaveripattinam). Pandyas: Modern-Day tax; Poorvi - War tax.
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (2nd shift)
ch
City (Tamil Nadu), Ancient Capital (a) Pallava (b) Chola Q.166. Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni was a
(Madurai), Important Ports {Muziris (c) Chalukya (d) Rashtrakuta contemporary of which Chola king?
ar
(Muchiri), Korkai, Kaveri}, Emblem (Carp). SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (4th Shift)
Sol.161.(b) Chola dynasty.
Se
Q.157. Brihadiswara Temple of Tanjore (a) Rajaraja I (b) Rajendra II
was built by which of the following Chola Q.162. Sabha and Ur, two kinds of village (c) Rajadhiraja (d) Rajendra I
emperors? assemblies are referred to in which of the
Sol.166.(d) Rajendra I who ruled from
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift) following dynasties?
1014 to 1044 CE. Ghazni invaded India
(a) Vijayalaya (b) Chamunda Raya SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift)
seventeen times. In 1018 he plundered
(c) Rajendra I (d) Raja Raja Chola (a) Chola (b) Rashtrakuta
the holy city of Mathura and also
(c) Gurjara Pratihara (d) Chalukya
Sol.157.(d) Raja Raja Chola. The attacked Kannauj.
Brihadisvara Temple (Dravidian-style) Sol.162.(a) Chola. Ur - Assembly of
Q.167. In the early eleventh century, the
also known as Raja Rajeswara Temple is common villagers. Sabha - Assembly in
Chola king Rajendra I built a Shiva temple
dedicated to Shiva. It was declared a the villages which were inhabited
and filled it with a Sun-pedestal seized
UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1987. predominantly by the Brahmanas.
from the ______.
Nagaram - Assembly of merchants,
Q.158. Which among the following Chola SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (1st Shift)
traders and artisans.
emperors defeated the Pandya king (a) Palas (b) Vakatakas
Maravarman Rajsimha II in the battle of Q.163. "Brahmadeya", a type of land (c) Chalukyas (d) Kalingas
Vellore? during the Chola Period was the ________.
Sol.167.(c) Chalukyas. Chola king
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift) SSC MTS 10/05/2023
Rajendra-I (reigned between 1014 and
(a) Parantaka I (b) Rajendra I (a) land gifted to Brahmans
1044 CE) built a Shiva temple in his
(c) Rajaraja I (d) Vijayalaya (b) land of non-Brahmana peasant
capital, Gangaikondacholapuram (north
proprietors
Sol.158.(a) Parantaka I. Rajaraja I, the Tamil Nadu) and filled it with prized
(c) land gifted to temples
son of Parantaka II, is the most statues seized from defeated rulers such
(d) land of royal person
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
as Sun-pedestal (Chalukyas), a Ganesha Q.172. Puhar or Kaveripattinam, was the Sol.175.(d) Raja Bhimdev I. He was a
statue and several statues of Durga, a port of which of the following dynasty? Chaulukya king who ruled parts of
Nandi statue, an image of Bhairava and SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (3rd Shift) present-day Gujarat, India. The Sun
Bhairavi (Kalingas of Orissa), and a Kali (a) Cheras (b) Cholas Temple of Modhera, dedicated to the
statue (Palas of Bengal). (c) Pandyas (d) Vakatakas solar deity Surya, is located in Modhera
village, Mehsana district, Gujarat, on the
Q.168. Who among the following Sol.172.(b) Cholas (8th-12th century AD) bank of the river Pushpavati.
belonged to the ancient chiefly family of was founded by Vijayalaya in the 8th
the Cholas from Uraiyur, captured the century. Rajaraja Chola (greatest king of Q.176. Kautilya has mentioned the
Kaveri delta from the Muttaraiyar in the the Chola Empire) reigned between 985 concept of Saptanga Rajya to understand
middle of the ninth century ? and 1014 C.E. the State with seven organs and one of
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (1st Shift) them is Danda, which means:
(a) Gandaraditya (b) Vijayalaya Miscellaneous SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning)
(c) Parantaka I (d) Aditya I (a) Ministers (b) Ally (c) Fort (d) Force
Sol.168.(b) Vijayalaya founded the Chola Q.173. With which of the following relief Sol.176.(d) Force. Kautilya, also known
Empire and captured Thanjavur (Capital sculptures were the walls of the great as Chanakya, outlined the Saptanga
of Chola Empire) in 850 CE. He Stupa of Amaravati in the Lower theory of the state in the Arthashastra,
constructed a temple for the goddess Godavari region adorned? identifying seven key components:
Nishumbhasudini in Thanjavur. SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Morning) Swami (King), Amatya (Minister),
(a) Sunken relief (b) Freestanding Janapada (Territory), Durga (Fort), Kosa
Q.169. Which of the following towns was (c) Alto-relievo (d) Bas relief (Treasure), Danda (Army or Force), and
grown as a temple town during the Chola Mitra (Ally).
df
dynasty? Sol.173.(d) Bas relief. The Amaravati
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (3rd Shift) school of art flourished under the Q.177. The Dhakeshwari Temple in
_p
(a) Bhillasvamin (b) Ajmer patronage of the Satavahanas in the present day Bangladesh has been
(c) Ahmedabad (d) Ahmednagar Andhra region. Nagarjunkonda, another constructed under the rule of which
na
notable site, is renowned for its Buddhist dynasty?
Sol.169.(a) Bhillasvamin. Famous Chola architecture. SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning)
ap
dynasty temples: Moovar Koil
(a) Chandela (b) Parmara
(Kodumbalur), Koranganatha (Musiri), Q.174. Select the correct alternative on
(c) Rashtrakuta (d) Sena
:@
Valisvara Temple, Kampaheswarar the given statements based on Ashoka's
Temple (Thirubuvanam). All temples Lion capital and India's State Emblem. Sol.177.(d) Sena. The National Temple
mentioned above are in Tamil Nadu. Statement I: In the original Ashoka's Lion of Bangladesh is the Dhakeshwari
TG
Capital, there are four lions mounted Temple, located in the capital, Dhaka.
Q.170. Which of the following territories back- to-back on a circular abacus that Dhakeshwari means "Goddess of Dhaka"
to the south and north were made part of itself rests on a bell-shaped lotus. and was built in the 12th century by King
the Chola kingdom by the successors of
on
Statement II: The State Emblem is an Ballal Sen of the Sena dynasty.
the ruler Vijayalaya? adaptation of the Lion Capital of Asoka
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (2nd Shift) at Sarnath in which the bell-shaped lotus Q.178. Nataraja represents the dancing
ch
(a) Pallava and Chera was omitted. figure of which Hindu deity?
(b) Pandyan and Pallava SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Morning) SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
ar
(c) Rashtrakuta and Chera (a) Only Statement II is true. (a) Kartikeya (b) Vishnu
(d) Vakataka and Satavahana (c) Shiva (d) Ganesh
Se
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Sol.170.(b) Pandaya and Pallava. The true.
Sol.178.(c) Shiva. Nataraja is a depiction
Pallava dynasty (275 CE to 897 CE, (c) Neither Statement I nor Statement II
of Shiva performing the cosmic dance of
Capital - Kanchipuram) ruled in Deccan is true.
creation and destruction, known as the
(Tondaimandalam). Pandya (Capital - (d) Only Statement I is true.
Tandava, while surrounded by flames.
Madurai). The Cheras (Capital - Vanji),
Sol.174.(b) Both Statement I and Q.179. The excavated ruins of the
Greatest ruler of Cheras - Senguttuvan,
statement II are true. The Lion Capital of Nalanda University indicate that bright
also known as Red Chera.
Ashoka, carved around 250 BCE, is the red _____ was/were used in its
Q.171. Which dynasty bronze statues head of a column erected by Emperor construction.
were made using the "lost wax" Ashoka at Sarnath, near Varanasi, India. SSC MTS 18/10/2024 (1st Shift)
technique? Ashoka, the 3rd ruler of the Mauryan (a) stone (b) bricks (c) granite(d) marble
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (1st Shift) Empire (c. 268–232 BCE), governed a
(a) Chola (b) Pandya (c) Chalukya (d) Pala vast territory that stretched from Sol.179.(b) bricks. The Ancient Nalanda
present-day Afghanistan to Bangladesh, University was founded by Kumaragupta
Sol.171.(a) Chola. Bronze is an alloy of with Pataliputra as its capital. I. Nalanda University was destroyed in
copper and tin. The lost wax technique is 1193 CE by Bakhtiyar Khilji, a Turkish
a method of metal casting in which Q.175. Sun temple at Modhera was built military general. The Chinese scholars
molten metal is poured into a mold that by which of the following rulers? I-Qing and Xuan Zang visited Nalanda in
has been created by means of a wax SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening) the 7th century CE. The ancient Nalanda
model. Examples: Nataraja Bronze (a) Govinda II (b) Aditya I was a centre of learning from the 5th
Casting, Shiva and Parvati (Sivagami, (c) Krishna Deva Raya (d) Raja Bhimdev I century CE to 12th century CE. Located
1012 CE), etc. in present day Rajgir, Bihar.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.180. Who excavated the Chira Tope established Islam. He was born around SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
stupa at Taxila? 570 AD in Mecca. In 622 AD, he (a) Pallava (b) Maukhari
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift) completed the Hegira, his migration from (c) Vakataka (d) Chalukya
(a) James Mill Mecca to Medina, to escape persecution.
(b) James Princip Sol.189.(c) Vakataka dynasty originated
Q.185. Gautamiputra Satakarni titled from the Deccan in the mid-3rd century
(c) Alexander Cunningham
Rajaraja and Maharaja is related to which CE. Vakatakas were the most important
(d) John Marshall
of the following dynasties? successors of the Satavahanas in the
Sol.180.(d) John Marshall. Dharmarajika SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Deccan and coexistent with the Guptas
Stupa in Taxila, Pakistan is also known (a) Shunga (b) Pandya in northern India.
as Chir Tope, which means "Scarred hill". (c) Satavahana (d) Shaka
Q.190. An inscription, Takht-i-Bahi
Q.181. Which among the following Sol.185.(c) The Satavahana Dynasty, recovered from Mardan near Peshawar,
dynasties originated from the Yueh-chih founded by Simuk, primarily indicates the rule of which of the
tribe of China? encompassed present-day Andhra following dynasties in north-western area
SSC MTS 14/11/2024 (3rd Shift) Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Telangana, of present Pakistan?
(a) Guptas (b) Satavahanas along with portions of Gujarat, Karnataka, SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) Parthians (d) Kushanas and Madhya Pradesh. (a) Bactrian (b) Sakas
(c) Indo-Greek (d) Parthians
Sol.181.(d) Kushanas. They migrated Q.186. Valabhi, a city of ancient India
from China to Bactria, then to areas of was the capital of the __________ dynasty Sol.190.(d) Parthians (247 BC - 224 AD).
Afghanistan and finally into India around from the 5th to 8th Century CE. It was founded by Arsaces I of Parthia
the 1st century CE. SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) when he rebelled against the Seleucid
df
(a) Maitraka (b) Chalukya Empire. They replaced the Sakas in
Q.182. Details about Sudarshana lake
(c) Pallava (d) Vakataka North-Western India. The Takht-i-Bahi
_p
are given in a rock inscription at Girnar
inscription, dated in 45 AD, refers to
(Junagarh), which was composed to Sol.186.(a) Maitraka. The Maitraka
Gondophernes as a Parthian ruler.
na
record the achievements of the Shaka dynasty was founded by Senapati
ruler _________. Bhatarka. The decline of the Gupta Q.191. The Maukharis ruled over which
ap
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) Empire led to the rise of various ruling of the following cities in western Uttar
(a) Rudrasimha III (b) Rudradaman I dynasties across northern India. Among Pradesh that over the time replaced
:@
(c) Chashtana (d) Maues the most notable were the Pushyabhutis Pataliputra as a political centre of north
of Thanesar, the Maukhari of Kanauj, and India?
Sol.182.(b) Rudradaman I. Junagadh
the Maitrakas of Valabhi. SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
inscription is written in the Sanskrit
TG
language. It is located near Girnar hill (a) Kannauj (b) Bareli (c) Agra (d) Kanpur
Q.187. Vasudeva I who issued coins in
near Junagadh in Gujarat. The Junagadh gold (dinars and quarter dinars) and Sol.191.(a) Kannauj. The Maukharis,
rock contains inscriptions of Ashoka
on
copper (single denomination) was a initially vassals of the Guptas and titled
(one of the fourteen Major Rock Edicts of ________ king. Samantas, gained independence in the
Ashoka), Rudradaman I and SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) mid-6th century as the Gupta Empire
ch
Skandagupta. (a) Shunga (b) Vakataka declined.
(c) Shaka (d) Kushana
ar
Q.183. Silappathikaram (the Jewelled Q.192. Under which of the following Pala
Anklet), the earliest epic poem in Tamil Sol.187.(d) Kushana. Vasudeva I was the king's patronage the Vikramshila
Se
was written in the 5th - 6th Century CE by last of the "Great Kushans." He ruled in university in 8th century India was
_________. Northern India and Central Asia, where founded?
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) he minted coins in the city of Balkh. The SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) Tolkappiyar (b) Ilango Adigal Kushana dynasty was founded by Kujula (a) Gopala (b) Mahipala I
(c) Sittalai Sattanar (d) Tirumalisai Alwar Kadphises. (c) Devapala (d) Dharmapala
Sol.183.(b) Ilango Adigal. Ancient Tamil Q.188. Who among the following is the Sol.192.(d) Dharmapala, the second ruler
literature is known as Sangama hero of the Sanskrit historical poem, the of the Pala Dynasty, ascended the throne
Literature. The Sangam literature 'Ramacharita' written by Sandhyakar around 780 AD after Gopala and
includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Nandi? expanded the empire significantly. He
Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and two SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift) defeated Indrayudha of Kanauj, installing
epics named – Silappathikaram, and (a) Gopala (b) Devapala Chakrayudha as his nominee, but later
Manimegalai (Written by Sittalai (c) Ramapala (d) Dharmapala faced defeat by Rashtrakuta king Dhruva
Sattanar). The earliest known work in near Monghyr, Bihar.
ancient Tamil is Agastyam. Sol.188.(c) Ramapala was the successor
to the Pala king Shurapala II in the Q.193. Three Poets Pampa, Ponna and
Q.184. In the 7th Century AD, a new Bengal region of the Indian subcontinent, Ranna are called as the ‘Three Jewels’ of:
religion called Islam was born in _______ . and 15th ruler of the Pala line. SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift)
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sandhyakar Nandi was patronaged by (a) Kannada Literature
(a) Malaysia (b) South Africa Madanapala, ruler of Pala Dynasty. (b) Telugu Literature
(c) Arabia (d) Indonesia (c) Tamil Literature
Q.189. Vindhyashakti was the founder of
Sol.184.(c) Arabia. Prophet Muhammad (d) Sanskrit Literature
which of the following dynasties?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Sol.193.(a) Kannada Literature. Pampa, Vidarbha? Brihadratha Maurya. He ruled from 184
also known as Adi Pampa, is renowned SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) BC to 75 BC, driving out the Greeks
for his literary works, including (a) Vakatakas (b) Maukharis through the Shunga-Greek war. The
"Vikramarjuna Vijaya" and "Adi Purana." (c) Maitrakas (d) Chalukyas capital of the Shunga Empire was
Ponna, often referred to as Ponna Pataliputra.
Sol.197.(a) Vakatakas. Vindhyashakti
Kavishwara, served as a court poet for
founded the Vakataka dynasty in the Q.202. Who among the following Pallava
Rashtrakuta king Krishna III and is best
third century. Their history is mainly kings occupied Vatapi (Badami) and
known for his epic "Shantipurana." Ranna
known through land grant charters defeated the Chalukyas?
was a court poet of the Western
issued to Brahmanas. The Maukhari SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Chalukya Empire, and his most
dynasty ruled over (modern day) Uttar (a) Sivaskanda Varman
celebrated work is "Gadayuddha."
Pradesh and parts of Bihar. (b) Parameswaravarman
Q.194. Which of the following kingdoms (c) Simhavarman
Q.198. In 10th century India, Queen Didda
was divided into subdivisions called (d) Narasimhavarman
became the ruler of which of the
Aharas or Rashtras that meant districts?
following regions of north India? Sol.202.(d) Narasimhavarman. Pulakesin
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) II, a ruler of the Chalukya dynasty, reigned
(a) Kushana (b) Parthian
(a) Kannauj (b) Malwa from 610 CE to 642 CE, expanding his
(c) Satavahana (d) Shaka
(c) Delhi (d) Kashmir empire across much of the Deccan
Sol.194.(c) Satavahana : Period : 60 BC - region. However, in 642-643 CE, Pallava
Sol.198.(d) Kashmir. Didda was the ruler
225 AD; Capital - Pratishthana (Paithan) king Narasimha Varman I defeated
of Kashmir from 980 CE to 1003 CE.
and Amravati; Founder - Simuka. The Pulakesin II when his general,
Most knowledge relating to Didda is
lowest level of administration was a Shiruttondar Paranjoti, captured the
df
obtained from the Rajatarangini. Ashish
grama which was under the charge of a Chalukya capital, Vatapi. Simhavishnu is
Kaul's novel Didda: The Warrior Queen of
_p
Gramika. There were also officers called regarded as the founder of the Pallava
Kashmir is based on Didda's life.
amatyas who were perhaps ministers or dynasty, a Tamil dynasty that ruled parts
na
advisors of the king. Revenue was Q.199. Mahendravarman I who wrote of South India from the 3rd to the 9th
collected both in cash and kind. It Mattavilasa-prahasana is related to century.
ap
majorly comprised present Andhra which of the following ruling dynasties?
Pradesh, Telangana, and Maharashtra. Q.203. In the context of Mathura school
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
of Art, during which of the following
:@
(a) Maitraka (b) Pallava
Q.195. ______, authored by Tolkappiyar is periods were a number of sculptures of
(c) Pushyabhuti (d) Chalukya
the earliest Tamil literature. Brahmanical deities, such as Kartikeya,
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.199.(b) Pallava dynasty (275 CE to Vishnu and Kubera carved?
TG
(a) Tolkappiyam (b) Ettutogai 897 CE) - They ruled a significant portion SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(c) Kalittogai (d) Narrinai of the Deccan, also known as (a) Shaka (b) Parthian
Tondaimandalam, which covered parts of (c) Satavahana (d) Kushana
on
Sol.195.(a) Tolkappiyam. Tamil has a present-day Tamil Nadu and Andhra
literary tradition that goes back to the Pradesh. Founder - Simha Vishnu Sol.203.(d) The Kushan Empire was a
ch
period of the Sangams. The most (Avanisimha). syncretic empire established by the
well-known surviving works from this Yuezhi in the Bactrian territories in the
ar
period are the Tolkappiyam (a book of Q.200. The Pratiharas who first had their early 1st century. The Mathura School of
grammar attributed to Tolkappiyar), Ettu capital at Bhinmal gained prominence Art flourished under the Kushana
Se
Togai (Eight Anthologies), Pattu Pattu during the rule of: emperor Kanishka during the first century
(Ten Idylls). SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) AD.
(a) Nagabhatta I (b) Nagarjuna
Q.196. The Pandya Kingdom was first (c) Devpala (d) Kanishka Q.204. Which power were the Badami (or
mentioned by Megasthenes, who said Vatapi) Chalukyas originally subjects of ?
that their kingdom was famous for Sol.200.(a) Nagabhatta I (Reign : 730 - SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift)
pearls. Their capital was : 760 AD) laid the foundation of the (a) Hoysalas (b) Pandyas
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Pratihara dynasty's power. He is best (c) Kadambas (d) Pallavas
(a) Thanjavur (b) Uraiyur known for defeating the Arabs during
(c) Madurai (d) Kaveripatnam their expansion and building an empire Sol.204.(c) The Kadambas ruled from
that stretched from Gujarat to Gwalior, Banavasi in present-day Karnataka,
Sol.196.(c) Madurai. Megasthenes: A stopping further Arab invasions in marking a significant period in the early
Greek diplomat and historian who eastern Sindh. medieval history of the Deccan region.
mentioned the Pandya Kingdom in his Badami was the capital of the early
book Indica around 300 BCE. The Pandya Q.201. According to the inscriptions, Chalukyan dynasty, which governed the
Kingdom was an ancient Tamil kingdom Pushyamitra Shunga was a devotee of area from 543 to 598 CE. With the
that ruled parts of southern India, which of the following Gods? decline of the Vakataka rule, the
especially Tamil Nadu, from the 6th SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Chalukyas established their dominance
century BCE to the 15th century CE. (a) Rama (b) Shiva (c) Krishna (d) Indra in the Deccan.
Q.197. In peninsular India, which of the Sol.201.(c) Krishna. Pushyamitra Q.205. Which of the following
following kingdoms was the local power Shunga founded the Shunga Empire after statements about the Pala Dynasty of
that ruled over northern Maharashtra and assassinating the last Mauryan emperor, eastern India is INCORRECT?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.209.(b) Korkai. Pandya dynasty (4th Sol.213.(a) Rashtrakuta. Dantidurga was
(a) Devapala was the grandson of century BCE to the 17th century CE): the founder of the Rashtrakuta empire
Gopala. Capital - Madurai, Founder - who fixed his capital at Manyakheta or
(b) Dharmapala founded the Valabhi Mudathirumaran. Malkhed near modern Sholapur.
university.
(c) The Pala kings were the followers of Q.210. Dantivarman or Dantidurga was Q.214. During the reign of which of the
Buddhism. the founder of which of the following Pallava kings was the shore temple at
(d) The Pala dynasty was founded by dynasties ? Mahabalipuram built ?
Gopala. SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(a) Rashtrakuta (b) Chera (a) Paramesvaravarman I
Sol.205.(b) The Vallabhi University was (c) Pala (d) Pratihara (b) Mahendravarman II
founded by Bhattarka, the king of the (c) Narasimhavarman I
Maitraka Empire, not Dharmapala. Pala Sol.210.(a) Rashtrakuta. Manyakheta
(d) Narasimhavarman II
Dynasty: The Pala dynasty was founded was the capital of the Rashtrakuta
by Gopala, probably around 750 AD. kingdom. The Elichpur clan, initially a Sol.214.(d) Narasimhavarman II, also
Dharmapala was the second ruler of the feudatory of the Badami Chalukyas, rose known as Rajasimha, ruled the Pallava
Pala Empire. to power under Dantidurga by dynasty from 700 to 728 CE. He also
overthrowing Chalukya ruler Kirtivarman constructed the Kailasanatha Temple in
Q.206. Who among the following rulers II and establishing an empire in the Kanchipuram.
was a part of the Tripartite Struggle for Gulbarga region. This clan became
the possession of Kannauj? known as the Rashtrakutas of Q.215. Rajataranagini, the book authored
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) Manyakheta, who emerged as a by Kalhana in 12th Century was originally
(a) Prithvi Raj III (b) Yashovarman significant power in written in which of the following
df
(c) Dharmapala (d) Mahendra Pal Maharashtra-Karnataka region. languages?
Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
_p
Sol.206.(c) Dharmapala. The Tripartite Q.211. Krishna III of Rashtrakuta dynasty (a) Tamil (b) Telugu
Struggle, also known as the Kannauj established a victory pillar and a temple (c) Sanskrit (d) Shaurseni
na
Triangle Wars, took place in the 8th and at which of the following cities of south
9th centuries, between the three India after defeating the Chola ruler Sol.215.(c) Sanskrit. The word
ap
dynasties - The Palas of Bengal, The Parantaka I ? "Rajatarangini" means "River of Kings."
Pratiharas of Central India and The SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) This book chronicles the history of the
:@
Rashtrakutas of Deccan. (a) Poompuhar (b) Udaiyalur northwestern Indian subcontinent,
(c) Takkolam (d) Rameswaram specifically the kings of Kashmir. It
Q.207. The founder of the Pallava
contains 7,826 verses divided into eight
TG
dynasty was: Sol.211.(d) Rameswaram. Krishna III sections known as Tarangas (waves).
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) whose Kannada name was Kannara (939
(a) Balasimha (b) Simharaj – 967 C.E.) was the last great warrior Q.216. Who among the following was the
on
(c) Singhamvishnu (d) Simhavishnu and able monarch of the Rashtrakuta founder of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty
dynasty {Founder: Dantivarman}. Its in the region of Malwa in the eighth
Sol.207.(d) Simhavishnu (575-590 AD).
Capital - Manyakheta. Parantaka I was century?
ch
He was the first Pallava monarch whose
known as the destroyer of Madurai (the Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
domain extended beyond Kanchipuram
capital city of the Pandyas). (a) Vatsaraja (b) Mahendrapala I
ar
(Kanchi) in the South. Rise : Defeating
(c) Nagabhatta I (d) Mihira Bhoja
Kalabhras inaugurated the rule of Q.212. In Andhra region, who among the
Se
imperial Pallavas. Royal Titles: following translated a few portions of Sol.216.(c) Nagabhatta I. The Gurjara -
Avanisimha (lion of the Earth). His court Mahabharata in Telugu? Pratiharas Dynasty (8th-11th Century
poet Bharavi - Wrote Kiratarjuniya. SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) A.D.) ruled over northern and western
(a) Nanniah (b) Tikkanna India. Nagabhatta I established an
Q.208. Bilhan was a court poet in which
(c) Pampa (d) Kamban empire extending from Gujarat to Gwalior
of the following kingdoms ?
and defied the Arab invasions towards
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.212.(a) Nanniah (Nannayya) is
further east of Sindh.
(a) Vijayaditya VII (b) Vikramaditya VI regarded as the first poet of Telugu
(c) Kulottunga I (d) Rajaraja II literature and is part of the famous Q.217. Which of the following
"Trinity of Poets" (comprising Nannaya, statements are true regarding the Ravana
Sol.208.(b) Vikramaditya VI. The
Tikkana and Erra Pragada) in Telugu Phadi cave at Aihole.
Chalukya dynasty was established by
literature. He began the translation of the 1. Nataraja is the important structure at
Pulakeshin I in 543. He took Vatapi
Mahabharata from Sanskrit into Telugu this site.
(modern Badami in Bagalkot district,
during the 11th century under the 2. This Nataraja image is surrounded on
Karnataka) under his control and made it
patronage of the Eastern Chalukya king, the right by four large saptamatrikas and
his capital. He and his descendants are
Rajaraja Narendra. on the left by three large ones.
referred to as "Chalukyas of Badami".
Q.213. Manyakheta or Malkhed was the 3. The figures have slim, graceful bodies
Q.209. Which of the following was the capital of which of the following with long oval faces.
port-city of the Pandyan Kingdom? kingdoms? 4. The temple shows a distinct feature of
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) Pandya architecture of mixing and
(a) Dindigul (b) Korkai (a) Rashtrakuta (b) Shaka incorporation of several styles.
(c) Tenkasi (d) Virudhunagar (c) Satavahana (d) Kushan Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 Q.221. Which of the following (c) Maukharis (d) Gaudas
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 statements about the Kushana dynasty is
INCORRECT? Sol.224.(a) Senas Dynasty: A hindu
Sol.217.(d) 1, 2 and 3. The Ravan Phadi Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) dynasty that ruled over eastern Bengal
cave, located in Aihole, Karnataka, is an (a) The Kushanas were a major ruling and western Bihar for about two
example of early Chalukyan architecture. group in the post-Mauryan period. centuries. Important Rulers - Vijaya Sena,
The First capital of the Chalukya Dynasty (b) Many Kushana rulers also adopted Ballal Sena, Lakshmana Sena. Deva
was Aihole which is clear from the the title ‘devaputra’, or ‘son of god’. dynasty - Ruled over eastern Bengal after
inscriptions found in the caves of Aihole. (c) The First Buddhist Council was the Sena dynasty.
The bronze sculpture of Nataraja was organised by Kanishka.
cast during the period of the Cholas Q.225. Who had Sialkot as his capital ?
(d) Asvaghosha, the author of the SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
dynasty. Buddhacharita, was the court poet of (a) Menander (b) Demetrios
Q.218. Consider the following Kanishka. (c) Eukratides (d) Pushyamitra
statements regarding Kailashnath Sol.221.(c) The First Buddhist Council
Temple, Ellora. Sol.225.(a) Menander: A Greek king who
was held during the reign of King
1. It is built completely in the Dravidian ruled over the Indo-Greek kingdom.
Ajatashatru of the Haryanka Dynasty in
style. Demetrios (Greek king): His capital was
Rajgriha. Kanishka belonged to the
2. Its main deity is Lord Shiva. Takshashila. Eucratides: Expanded the
Kushan dynasty, which was founded by
3. This temple was carved out of a Indo-Greek territories into Bactria and the
Kujula Kadphises. The Fourth Buddhist
portion of a hill. northern regions of India. Pushyamitra
Council was held under the patronage of
4. It was built during the Chola phase at Sunga - An Indian king who ruled over the
Kanishka in Kashmir.
Ellora. Sunga dynasty. His capital was
df
Which of the given statements is correct ? Q.222. Which of the following rulers is Pataliputra.
_p
Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3) considered as the greatest king of
Q.226. To which of the following
(a) Only 2, 3 and 4 (b) Only 1, 2 and 3 Satavahana dynasty and is described as
dynasties were the Vatapi Chalukyas
na
(c) Only 1, 2 and 4 (d) Only 1, 3 and 4 the destroyer of the Sakas, Yavanas and
tributary princes?
Pahlavas?
Sol.218.(b) Only 1, 2 and 3. The Kailasa SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
ap
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
temple at Ellora was built by the (a) Kalyani Chalukyas (b) Cholas
(a) Simuka
Rashtrakuta king Krishna I in the 8th (c) Pallavas (d) Kadambas
:@
(b) Hala
century. Located in Cave 16, it is (c) Gautamiputra Satakarni Sol.226.(d) Kadamba dynasty (Founder -
dedicated to Lord Shiva and was carved (d) Yajna Sri Satakarni Mayurasharma) was an ancient Indian
from a single rock. Named after Mount
TG
dynasty that ruled over parts of South
Kailash, it is the largest of the 34 Sol.222.(c) Gautamiputra Satakarni. He
India, particularly the present-day
Buddhist, Jain, and Hindu cave temples is renowned for his military conquests
Karnataka region, from the 4th to the 6th
at Ellora and was designated a UNESCO and is described in the Nasik inscription
on
centuries CE.
World Heritage site in 1983. as the "destroyer of the Sakas, Yavanas,
and Pahlavas." He also used the title of Q.227. Which of the following pairs of
ch
Q.219. Who among the following 'Ekabrahaman,' which means the locations are famous for Buddhist
Kushana kings was the founder of the Peerless Brahman. Simuka was the railings and gateways?
ar
Kushana dynasty? founder of the Satavahana dynasty. Hala SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3) was the seventeenth king of the (a) Bharhut and Amravati
Se
(a) Vasudeva I (b) Vima Kadphises Satavahana Dynasty. (b) Patna and Rajgir
(c) Huvishka (d) Kujula Kadphises (c) Parasnath and Ajanta
Q.223. Who was the author of
Sol.219.(d) Kujula Kadphises. Kushan (d) Sarnath and Kushinagar
“Mahabhashya”?
Dynasty (First-Third Century) : Kanishka - SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) Sol.227.(a) Bharhut and Amravati.
He administered the territory from two (a) Bana (b) Panini Bharhut Stupa is located in Satna,
capitals : Purushapura (now Peshawar in (c) Patanjali (d) Kautilya Madhya Pradesh. It was discovered in a
northern Pakistan) and Mathura. ruined state by Alexander Cunningham
Vasudeva I - Last Kushana Ruler. Sol.223.(c) Patanjali. “The Yoga Sutra”
and his team. The discovered railing and
was also written by Patanjali. Authors
gateway are now on display at the Indian
Q.220. Kathasaritasagara, a collection of and their books: Kalhana -
Museum (Kolkata). Amravati Stupa was
stories, was written in which of the “Rajatarangini”. Vatsayana - “Kamasutra”.
discovered by Colin Mackenzie (1797).
following languages? Vishnu Sharma - “Panchatantra”. Kautilya
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) - “Arthasastra”. Panini - “Ashtadhyayi”. Q.228. Which of the following is the
(a) Pali (b) Sanskrit Megasthenes - “Indica”. Jayadeva - oldest dated fort in India ?
(c) Prakrit (d) Persian “Gitagovinda”. Sri Harsha - “Naishadha SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Charita”. Banabhatta - “Harshacharita”, (a) Kangra Fort
Sol.220.(b) Sanskrit. The
“Kadambari”. (b) Mehrangarh Fort
Kathasaritsagara (Ocean of Story)
(c) Srirangapatna Fort
written in the 11th century by Somadeva. Q.224. Which of the following dynasties
(d) Golconda Fort
Other Sanskrit Literature: Buddhacarita - succeeded the Palas of Bengal ?
Ashvaghosa; Malavikagnimitram - SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.228.(a) Kangra Fort (Nagarkot Fort).
Kalidasa; Harshacharita - Banabhatta. (a) Senas (b) Devas This fort was built by Susharm Chand
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
(Katoch Dynasty). Mohammed Ghazni in Sol.232.(a) Pala Dynasty. Temples and Founder - Chandradeva. After the failure
1009 A.D plundered the Shahi treasury at their associated Dynasty: Khajuraho of the Pratiharas, the Gahadavalas
Kangra, Himachal Pradesh. The Katoch Temple (Madhya Pradesh) - Bundelas or established themselves on the throne of
dynasty traces its origins to the ancient Chandelas; Kailash Temple Kanauj. Jai Chand - The last great ruler of
Trigarta Kingdom, mentioned in the (Maharashtra) - Rashtrakutas; Thousand this dynasty. He was killed in the Battle
Mahabharata epic. Forts in India: Pillared Temple, Ramappa Temple of Chandawar in 1194 AD by Mohammad
Golconda Fort - Hyderabad, Mehrangarh (Telangana) - Kakatiyas; Brihadeeswara Ghori.
Fort - Jodhpur (Rajasthan), Srirangapatna Temple (Tamil Nadu) - Cholas;
Fort - Karnataka, Panhala Fort - Kailashnath Temple, Shore Temple Q.237. Alvars were the devotees of
Maharashtra, Daulatabad Fort - (Tamil Nadu) - Pallavas; Dilwara Temple which South Indian cult?
Aurangabad (Maharashtra). (Rajasthan) - Solankies; Virupaksha SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift)
Temple (Karnataka) - Chalukyas; Sun (a) Shaktism (b) Saivism
Q.229. Brihat Samhita was the treatise of (c) Jainism (d) Vaishnavism
Temple (Gujarat) - Solankis.
which of the following subjects ?
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) Q.233. Malavikagnimitra, a drama of the Sol.237.(d) Vaishnavism. Nayanars and
(a) Botany (b) Astronomy 5th century CE, was written by Alvars saints belonged to South India.
(c) Geography (d) Natural History SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) Some famous Vaishnava devotees :
(a) Kalidasa (b) Harisena Ramanuja, Madhvacharya, Chaitanya
Sol.229.(b) Astronomy. Brihat Samhita - Mahaprabhu, Nimbarkacharya. Jainism -
It is the noted work of Varahamihira. It is (c) Bhavabhuti (d) Pingala
Devotees of Jainism are called Jains
an important encyclopedic text in Sol.233.(a) Kalidasa. He was a court such as Rishabhadeva, Parshvanath,
Sanskrit. Other Samhitas - Jaya Samhita poet of Chandragupta-II (Vikramaditya). Bhadrabahu. Shaktism - Devotees of
(Mahabharat), Charak Samhita Other Books: Meghaduta, Shaktism are called Shaktas. Famous
df
(Medicinal Science), Sushruta Samhita Kumarasambhava, Raghuvaṃsa, and Shaktas: Adi Shankaracharya, Sarada
(Book on Surgeries and related science).
_p
Vikramorvasiya. Harisena - Court poet of Devi, Paramahansa Yogananda.
Q.230. Which ruler of the Chahamana Samudragupta and composed Prayag
Q.238. In the middle of which century did
na
dynasty made Ajmer his capital? pillar inscription in Sanskrit. Bhavabhuti -
A great playwright, best known for his the Arab traveller Sulaiman visit India?
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift)
ap
(a) Prithviraj III (b) Prithviraj II play Uttara-Ramacharitam (latter part of
Rama's life). Pingala - Ancient Indian poet (a) 15th (b) 9th (c) 11th (d) 6th
(c) Arnoraj (d) Ajayaraja
:@
and mathematician, and the author of the Sol.238.(b) 9th. Travellers Who Visited
Sol.230.(d) Ajayaraja. Chahamanas or Chandaḥsastra. India: Hiuen Tsang (China) - During the
Chauhans dynasty: Chauhans of Delhi
Q.234. The star-shaped temples were reign of Harshavardhana. Al Biruni
TG
and Ajmer, also known as the
built during the reign of: {Khwarizm (present-day Uzbekistan)} - In
Chahamanas of Shakambhari, ruled over
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) 11th century. During the reign of Sultan
part of modern-day Rajasthan. Important
(a) Hoysala (b) Chalukya of Mahmood Ghaznavi. Ibn Battuta
on
Kings : Vasudeva, Ajayaraja, Arnoraja,
(c) Badami (d) Cholas (Morocco) - During the reign of
Vigraharaja IV, Prithviraj Chauhan III, and
Muhammad Bin Tughlaq, Marco Polo
Hariraja.
ch
Sol.234.(a) Hoysala. Hoysala (Italy) - During the reign of Pandya
Q.231. Prithviraj Raso, an epic poem Architecture Temples: Aralaguppe is the Kingdom. Megasthenes (Greece) - During
ar
about the life of the 12th century Indian temple dedicated to Lord the reign of Chandragupta Maurya. Abdur
king, Prithviraj Chauhan, was written by: Channakeshava (Vishnu). The temple Razzaq (Persia) - During the reign of
Se
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) was built during the rule of the Hoysala Deva Raya II (Sangama dynasty). Fa Hien
(a) Chand Bardai (b) Banabhatta Empire King Vira Someshwara. (China) - During the reign of
(c) Bharavi (d) Ashvaghosa Chandragupta II. Al Masudi (Arab) - In
Q.235. Which of the following was the 10th century AD.
Sol.231.(a) Chand Bardai. Indian Epics capital of the Hindu Shahi Kingdom?
and writers - Mahabharata (Sage Ved SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (1st shift) Q.239. The rulers of which of the
Vyasa), Ramayana (Valmiki), (a) Srinagar (b) Lahore following Rajput dynasties patronised
Raghuvamsa (Kalidasa), Buddhacharita (c) Waihind (d) Multan Jainism and one of them is reported to
(Asvogosha), Silapadikaram (Ilango have accepted Jainism under the
Adigal in Tamil), Ramcharitmanas Sol.235.(c) Waihind. Hindu Shahi influence of a Jain scholar
(Tulsidas in Awadhi), Kumarasambava kingdom was founded by Kallar. It ruled Hemachandra?
(Kalidasa in Sanskrit). Banabhatta wrote over Kabul and the old province of SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift)
Harshacharita and Bharavi wrote Gandhara from the decline of the Kushan (a) Pratihara (b) Parmara
Kiratarjuniya. empire. This kingdom was known as the (c) Chalukya (d) Chahman
Kabul Shahi dynasty.
Q.232. Siddheshwar Mahadev Temple in Sol.239.(c) Chalukya. Pratihara dynasty
Bengal depicts the architecture of which Q.236. The Gahadavalas ruled over - Nagabhatta I was the founder. The
dynasty.? which region of India ? Pratiharas who ruled over Kannauj for a
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (3rd shift) long time are also called Gurjara-
(a) Pala Dynasty (a) Ajmer (b) Malwa (c) Kanauj (d) Patan Pratiharas. Parmar dynasty - Founded by
(b) Hussain Shahi dynasty Upendra or Krishnaraja. Capital: Ujjain,
Sol.236.(c) Kanauj. Gahadavalas or
(c) Chalukya dynasty Later - Dharan Nagari (Dhar).
Rathors of Kanauj (1090-1194 AD):
(d) Shunga Dynasty
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.240. Alha and Udal, who gave stiff SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift) Q.248. The Rampurva bull that was part
resistance to the enemy, belonged to (a) Pushya mitra (b) Bhavbhuti of a Mauryan pillar found in Rampurwa,
which of the following Rajput States? (c) Shashanka (d) Devabhuti Bihar is now placed at _______.
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (3rd shift) SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening)
Sol.244.(d) Devabhuti. He was
(a) Parmar (b) Kalchuri (a) Pradhan Mantri Bhavan
assassinated by his minister (Vasudeva
(c) Chandella (d) Gahadavala (b) Sansad
Kanva). Other Kings of Shunga Dynasty:
(c) Rajpath
Sol.240.(c) Chandella (Founder - Pushyamitra Shunga (Founder of Shunga
(d) Rashtrapati Bhawan
Nannuk). They were originally vassals of Dynasty), Agnimitra, Vasujyeshtha,
the Gurjara - Pratiharas. The Chandelas Vasumitra, Bhagabhadra. Shashanka: Sol.248.(d) Rashtrapati Bhawan. The
initially ruled as feudatories of the The first king of ancient Bengal, governed Pillars of Ashoka are the most famous
Gurjara-Pratiharas of Kanyakubja the Gauda Kingdom from 600 to 625 AD. examples of Mauryan art. The
(Kannauj). Original capital - Khajuraho. Bhavabhuti: A famous Sanskrit Rashtrapati Bhavan houses the imposing
The last King of this dynasty - Paradidev playwright who wrote famous plays like 3rd century BC Ashoka pillar of
(Parmadi). His generals - Alha and Udal. Mahaviracharita, Malatimadhava etc. sandstone known as the Rampurva bull.
Battle of Mahoba: Fought between It got its name from the place of its
Q.245. Of which of the following
Paradidev and Prithviraj Chauhan-III in discovery, Rampurwa in Bihar.
Pratihara kings was Rajashekhara, the
1182 AD.
famous poet and dramatist, the court Q.249. Who among the following was the
Q.241. The Pala Dynasty rulers were poet? last Pallava king?
primarily patrons of which religion? SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 2nd shift) SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift) (a) Rajapala (b) Devapala (a) Mahendravarman - I
(a) Buddhist (b) Jain (c) Ramabhadra (d) Mahendrapala (b) Aparajitavarman
df
(c) Hindu (d) Islam Sol.245.(d) Mahendrapala (885-910 AD). (c) Narasimhavarman - I
_p
Works of Rajshekhara: (d) Simhavishnu
Sol.241.(a) Buddhist. Pala Dynasty -
Viddhashalabhanjika, Balabharata,
Founded by Gopala, in 750 AD. They were Sol.249.(b) Aparajitavarman. Pallava
na
Karpuramanjari, Balaramayana,
staunch supporters of Mahayana dynasty (275 CE to 897 CE) - Also known
Kavyamimamsa. Gurjara Pratihara
Buddhism. They were in a tripartite as Tondaimandalam. Founder - Simha
ap
dynasty (8th to 11th century): Founder -
struggle between the Palas, the Vishnu (Avanisimha). Mahendravarman -
Harichandra. Mihira Bhoja (836-885 AD) -
Pratiharas and the Rashtrakutas for the He defeated the Kalabhras and
:@
Most powerful Partihara king. Yashpala
control of Kanauj and North India. re-established the Pallava kingdom.
(1024- 1036) - last ruler of the Gurjara
Narashimhavarman-1 - Son of
Q.242. Who among the following was the Pratihara dynasty.
Mahendravarman.
TG
author of the play 'Mrichchhakatika'?
Q.246. Who were the first to make land
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift) Q.250. The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple
grants to Brahmins?
(a) Kalidasa (b) Amarasimha was constructed in 999 A.D. by the king
on
Graduate Level 30/06/2023 ( Shift - 1)
(c) Shudraka (d) Bhasa Dhangadeva of ______ dynasty.
(a) Sakas (b) Satavahanas
SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Evening)
Sol.242.(c) Shudraka. Mrichchhakatika (c) Guptas (d) Kushans
ch
(a) Chandela (b) Pala (c) Pallava (d) Chola
play was translated into English by Arthur Sol.246.(b) Satavahanas (1st Century BC
W. Ryder in 1905 as “The Little Clay Cart”. Sol.250.(a) Chandela. Kandariya
ar
to 3rd Century AD): Simuka was the
Other Sanskrit plays of Shudraka: founder. Sakas (2nd century BCE to the Mahadeva temple - built at Khajuraho
Se
“Vinavasavadatta”, “Padmaprabhritaka”, 4th century CE) - The most famous (Madhya Pradesh), made up of
“a bhana” (short one -act monologue). Shaka ruler in India was Rudradaman sandstone. Its first mention is found in ‘al
(130 A.D to 150 A.D.), came to an end Biruni’ And ‘Ibn Battuta’ work. It follows
Q.243. The Ashtadhyayi of Panini is a the Nagara Style of architecture and was
renowned work on ______. with the defeat of the last Shaka ruler,
Rudrasimha III by Chandragupta-II (Gupta recognized by UNESCO as a world
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (1st shift) heritage site in 1986. Other temples built
(a) Mauryan Polity dynasty). Kushans (First – Third
Centuries) - Founded by Kujula by Chandela dynasty (Founder - Nanuka):
(b) Gupta Administration Devi Jagdamba Temple, Chitragupta
(c) Medicine Kadphises.
Temple, Laxmana Temple.
(d) Sanskrit Grammar Q.247. During the reign of which of the
following Pallavas, Hiuen Tsang visited Q.251. In the mid-eighth century,
Sol.243.(d) Sanskrit Grammar. Ancient Dantidurga, a Rashtrakuta chief,
Authors and books : (Kautilya) the Pallava capital Kanchi?
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning) overthrew his Chalukya overlord and
Chanakya's work - “Arthashastra” (on performed a ritual literally called a ______.
(a) Narasimhavarman I
statecraft, political science, economic SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(b) Narasimhavarman II
policy and military strategy). Maharshi (a) Prarthna sabha (b) Golden womb
(c) Mahendravarman II
Charak - “Charaka Samhita” (a famous (c) Horse ride (d) Subsidiary alliance
(d) Mahendravarman I
text of ayurveda) - Ayurveda. “Sushruta
Samhita” - A comprehensive textbook on Sol.247.(a) Narasimhavarman I. He was Sol.251.(b) Golden womb
medicine and surgery. also known as Mahamalla or Mamalla, (Hiranyagarbha). This ritual was
which means "great wrestler”. He took performed with the help of Brahmanas, it
Q.244. Who was the last king of the was thought to lead to the “rebirth” of the
the title Vatapikonda (the conqueror of
Shunga dynasty? sacrificer as a Kshatriya, even if he was
Vatapi).
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
not one by birth. The first known ruler of (a) Three taxes (b) Three ports Q.260. Who among the following was the
the dynasty was Dantidurga who (c) Three chiefs (d) Three horses founder of the Kanva dynasty?
conquered Badami in 752 A.D., defeating SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
the Chalukyas. Sol.256.(c) Three chiefs. It is a reference (a) Narayana (b) Susharman
to the three ruling families of Tamil Nadu (c) Vasudeva (d) Devabhuti
Q.252. The emblem of the Chera Dynasty during the Sangam period: the Cholas,
that controlled the central and northern the Cheras, and the Pandyas. Sol.260.(c) Vasudeva Kanva (73-63 BCE)
parts of Kerala and the Kongu region of founded the Kanva dynasty (72–28 BCE,
Tamil Nadu was _________ . Q.257. The term 'Kammakaras' in ancient Kanvayanas). Rulers of the Kanva
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Evening) times is related to ________. dynasty - Bhumimitra (64-50 BCE),
(a) birds (b) fish SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening) Narayana (50-38 BCE), Susarman (38-28
(c) bow and arrow gan (d) tiger (a) Landless agricultural labourers BCE). Capital: Patliputra . Devabhuti - the
(b) Craftsmen last ruler of the Sunga Dynasty.
Sol.252.(c) Bow and Arrow Gan. The (c) Tax collecting officer
symbol also appears on the coins the (d) Goldsmith Q.261. The rulers of which of the
dynasty minted. The dynasty controlled following dynasties built the Khajuraho
the central and northern parts of Kerala Sol.257.(a) Landless agricultural temples between 950 to 1050 A.D in
and the Kongu region of Tamil Nadu. labourers. Terminologies related in central India?
Their capital was Vanji, Tamil Nadu. ancient times - Shrenis: In ancient times, SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
crafts persons and merchants formed (a) Gurjara-Pratihara Dynasty
Q.253. Which of the following is NOT associations. Samaharta and Sanidata - (b) Rashtrakuta Dynasty
part of six schools of Indian Philosophy? Tax collecting officers in ancient times. (c) Pala Dynasty
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Afternoon) Sonalika is a Sanskrit word that refers to (d) Chandela Dynasty
df
(a) Samkhya (b) Yoga a goldsmith. Grihapatis- independent
(c) Nyaya (d) Dravida farmers. An agrahara was land granted Sol.261.(d) Chandela Dynasty. The
_p
to a Brahmana. Khajuraho Group of Monuments are a
Sol.253.(d) Dravida. Samkhya: Founded
group of Hindu and Jain temples in
na
by - Kapila (Book - Samkhya sutra) : It Q.258. Who among the following gave up Chhatarpur district, Madhya Pradesh,
holds that reality is constituted of two his traditional professions and took to Known for its Erotic Sculpture. The
ap
principles of one female (Prakriti) and the arms, successfully established a Pratiharas, also known as the Gurjara
other male (Purusha). Yoga - Union of the kingdom in Karnataka? -Pratiharag (Founder - Harichandra). The
:@
two principal entities. Nyaya: A technique SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (1st Shift) most well-known king of this dynasty
of logical thinking. Author of the Nyaya (a) Vasudeva Kanva was Bhoja or Mihira Bhoja.
Sutras - Gautama. (b) Gurjara-Pratihara Harichandra
TG
(c) Pushyamitra Shunga Q.262. In which of the following
Q.254. The Amaravati School of art was
(d) Kadamba Mayurasharman languages did Amoghavarsha write
developed under the patronage of _____ .
Kavirajamarga?
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Evening)
on
Sol.258.(d) Kadamba Mayurasharman SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) Cholas (b) Cheras was a Brahmana. The Kadamba (a) Tamil (b) Sanskrit
(c) Satavahanas (d) Palas Mayurasharman (345–365 C.E.) was the
ch
(c) Kannada (d) Telugu
founder of the Kadamba Kingdom of
Sol.254.(c) Satavahanas. Different
Banavasi (Karnataka). Kadimi Chettu Sol.262.(c) Kannada. Amoghavarsha
ar
School of arts: Gandhara School of Art
(story of Mayur Sharma) was written by (Rashtrakuta ruler) also wrote
(Kushana) - It developed in the North
Se
Visawanatha Satyanarayana {Padma ‘Prasnottara Ratna Malika’ (Sanskrit). He
West Frontier, in the modern-day
Bhushan (1970), Jnanpith Award (1971)}. patronized many Indian scholars
Kandahar region. Mathura School of Art
including mathematician Mahaviracharya
(Kushana) - It developed around Mathura. Q.259. Ravikirti was the court poet of , who wrote Ganita -sara- samgraha,
which of the following dynasty rulers ? Jinasena, Virasena, Shakatayan, and Sri
Q.255. Who among the following was a
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift) Vijaya (a Kannada language theorist). He
famous ruler of the Pandya dynasty of
(a) Cholas (b) Cheras held titles such as Nrupathunga,
South India?
(c) Pallavas (d) Chalukyas Atishadhavala, Veeranarayana,
SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Morning)
(a) Nedunjeliyan II (b) Karikala Sol.259.(d) Chalukya dynasty. The Jain Rattamarthanda , and Srivallabha during
(c) Ashoka (d) Nizam Shah poet Ravikirti was the court poet of his reign. Historian Panchamukhi called
'Pulakeshin II' (610 to 642 CE), the first him the ‘Ashoka of South’.
Sol.255.(a) Nedunjeliyan II. He was
sovereign ruler of the Chalukya dynasty Q.263. Which king of the Pala dynasty
made ‘Pandya supreme in the south’. He
of Vatapi (modern Badami). Ravikirti's defeated Indrayudh and made
defeated a confederacy of the Cholas
Aihole inscription (a nineteen-line Chakrayudha as the ruler of Kannauj?
and Cheras at Talaiyalanganam near
Sanskrit inscription), in honour of his Graduate Level 04/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
Tiruvarur. His deeds have been described
patron king, is found in the Meguti Jain (a) Dharmapala (b) Mahendrapala
in the Maduraikkanci. Pandya Empire -
temple at Aihole, Karnataka. Chalukya (c) Devapala (d) Gopala
Established by King Kadungon in the 6th
dynasty (between 6th and 12th
century AD. Capital - Korkai, Madurai.
centuries). Pallava dynasty (275 CE to Sol.263.(a) Dharampala (770-810)
Q.256. Sangam poems mention a Tamil 897 CE). Chera dynasty (in the Sangam founded the Vikramshila University
word 'Muvendar' which means ________. period and before). Chola dynasty (300 (Bhagalpur, Bihar) and built Somapuri
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Morning) BCE to 1279 CE). monastery, Bihar. In 750 AD, Gopala
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
founded the Pala dynasty. Capital: Sol.268.(a) Lord Shiva. The caves of the second phase of excavation under
Muddagiri/ Munger (Bihar). Elephanta were built by the Rashtrakuta the patronage of King Harisena of the
rulers. They are on Elephanta Island, or Vakataka dynasty.
Q.264. Mukteshwara Temple is a Gharapuri, in Mumbai Harbour. There are
10th-century Hindu temple dedicated to about 34 caves. These are declared a Q.273. Kolathunadu, Valluvanad and
Shiva, located in _______. World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1987. Thekkumkoor were ancient small-time
SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Afternoon) kingdoms in which state of India?
(a) Assam (b) Odisha Q.269. In which of the following temples SSC CGL 03/03/2020 (Morning)
(c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat will you find Gopurams? (a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka
SSC CGL 13/08/2021(Afternoon) (c) Kerala (d) Bihar
Sol.264.(b) Odisha (Bhubaneswar).
(a) Shiva Temple, Chidambaram
Ancient temples - Virupaksha Temple, Sol.273.(c) Kerala. Kolathunadu - land
(b) Bhabatarini Temple, Dakshineswar
Hampi (Built by Lakkan Dandesha, a lying between Perumba river in the north
(c) Golden Temple, Amritsar
chieftain under the ruler Deva Raya II), and Putupattanam river in the south.
(d) Dilwara Temple, Mount Abu
Ellora Kailashanatha Temple (Krishna I of Valluvanad (Founder - Ilayi Raja) - Region
Rashtrakuta), Sun Temple Konark Sol.269.(a) Shiva Temple, between Meenachil and Pamban rivers.
(Eastern Ganga King Narsimhadeva-1). Chidambaram. A gopuram or gopura is a Thekkumkoor - The region between the
monumental tower, usually ornate, at the Nila river and Panthaloor Hills.
Q.265. Queen Rudramadevi belonged to
entrance of any temple, especially in
which dynasty of India?
Southern India. They are a prominent
SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Afternoon) Medieval History
feature of koils, Hindu temples built in
(a) Chola (b) Kakatiya
the Dravidian style. They are topped by
(c) Chalukya (d) Chera Foreign Invasions
the kalasam, a bulbous stone finial.
df
Sol.265.(b) Kakatiya. Marco Polo Nataraja temple in Chidambaram, Tamil
_p
mentioned her in his writings. Rudradeva Nadu is one of the famous examples of Q.274. In which of the following battles
I was the first independent ruler of this Gopuram. did Muhammad of Ghor defeat
na
kingdom of Warangal. Their capital was Jayachandra of Gahadavala dynasty in
Orugallu, now known as Warangal. In Q.270. Who among the following wrote 1194 AD?
the basic text of Vaisheshika philosophy? SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
ap
1323 Prince Jaunakhan (Muhammad bin
Tughlaq) defeated Prataparudra Deva SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Morning) (a) First battle of Tarain
(a) Kanada (b) Shankaracharya (b) Battle of Chandawar
:@
(the last ruler of this kingdom) and
annexed their kingdom (c) Patanjali (d) Jaimini (c) Battle of Anhilwara
(d) Second battle of Tarain
Q.266. Which place had a water Sol.270.(a) Kanada. It is an ancient
TG
harvesting system channeling the flood Sanskrit text at the foundation of the Sol.274.(b) Battle of Chandawar. Mu'izz
water of the Ganga river in the first Vaisheshika school of Hindu philosophy. ad-Din Muhammad, also known as
century B.C ? Vaisheshika is one of the six classical Muhammad Ghori, was the Sultan of the
on
SSC MTS 06/10/2021 (Evening) schools of Indian philosophy, often Ghurid Empire. First battle of Tarain
(a) Kanpur (b) Gorakhpur referred to as "Darshanas." (1191) - Prithviraj Chauhan's Rajput
ch
(c) Mirzapur (d) Sringaverapura forces defeat Muhammad Ghori's Ghurid
Q.271. Yashovigraha, Mahichandra and
army. Second battle of Tarain (1192) -
Chandradeva were the first three rulers of
ar
Sol.266.(d) Sringaverapura (near Mohammad Ghori defeated Prithviraj
Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh). Water ______ dynasty.
Chauhan. Battle of Anhilwara (1178) -
Se
harvesting in India - Dholavira in SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Afternoon)
Mohammad Ghori was defeated by
Harappan civilization, Bhopal Lake (built (a) Maratha (b) Chauhans
Gujarat king Mularaja II.
by the Paramara Raja Bhoj in 11th (c) Gahadavala (d) Wadiyar
century), Iltutmish constructed a tank in Q.275. In the 11th century, under
Sol.271.(c) Gahadavala. Yashovigraha
Hauz Khas for supplying water to the Siri Maḥmud of Ghazni, Ghazni, a small town
was the founder of the Gahadavala
Fort (14th century). in ______, became the capital of the vast
dynasty. The majority of the Gahadavala
empire of the Ghaznavids.
Q.267. Which state of India was ruled by epigraphic records were discovered in
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift)
the Ningthouja dynasty? Uttar Pradesh.
(a) Egypt (b) Persia
SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Afternoon)
Q.272. In which of the following caves is (c) Afghanistan (d) Turkey
(a) Manipur (b) Haryana
(c) Gujarat (d) Assam the painting named ‘Padmapani
Sol.275.(c) Afghanistan. Mahmud of
Bodhisattva’ found?
Ghazni was a Turkish conqueror who
Sol.267.(a) Manipur . It has 125 SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Afternoon)
attacked India 17 times between 1000 to
extended families. It was apparently (a) Ajanta Cave No. 4
founded by King Nongda Lairen 1027 AD. In 1018 he plundered the holy
(b) Ajanta Cave No. 2
Pakhangba in 33 CE. city of Mathura and also attacked
(c) Ajanta Cave No. 3
Kannauj. In 1019 and 1029 he undertook
Q.268. The Caves of Elephanta are (d) Ajanta Cave No. 1
two raids on Gangetic valley. In 1025 he
predominantly dedicated to which of the attacked Somnath (a town on the coast
Sol.272.(d) Ajanta Cave No. 1. The
following deities? of Kathiawar).
iconic Ajanta paintings Padmapani and
SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Afternoon)
Vajrapani glorify the walls of the Cave 1
(a) Lord Shiva (b) Lord Krishna Q.276. In which year Timur's invasion of
of Ajanta. Cave 1 of Ajanta was built in
(c) Lord Rama (d) Lord Ganesha Delhi took place?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) Qutb-ud-din Aibak, who became the first Rajasekhara), Saluva Dynasty (Saluva
(a) 1398 (b) 1221 (c) 1492 (d) 1526 Sultan of Delhi in 1206. The dynasty Narasimha, Sadasiva), Tuluva Dynasty
ruled Delhi from 1206 to 1290. Khilji (Rama, Venkata), Aravidu Dynasty
Sol.276.(a) 1398. Timur invaded India in Dynasty: The second dynasty of the Delhi (Tirumala Raya, Sriranga III).
1398 during the reign of Nasir-ud-Din Sultanate, ruling from 1290 to 1320.
Mahmud Shah Tughluq of the Tughlaq Tughlaq Dynasty: The third dynasty of the Q.284. Which of the following systems of
Dynasty. After the invasion, Timur Delhi Sultanate, ruling from 1320 to the Delhi sultanate had a influence on the
appointed Khizr Khan as the ruler of 1414. Lodi Dynasty: The last dynasty of Bahmani and Vijayanagar kingdoms?
Punjab. Khizr Khan later founded the the Delhi Sultanate, ruling from 1451 to SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Sayyid Dynasty (1414–1451). 1526. (a) Walis (b) Chahalgani
(c) Bitikchi (d) Iqtadari
Q.277. The famous Arabic scholar Al Q.281. Ibn Battuta, who visited India
Biruni came into contact with India during Delhi Sultanate, originally Sol.284.(d) Iqtadari System:- Introduced
through _____ in the eleventh century A.D. belonged to which country? by Shamsuddin IIltutmish (3rd Sultan of
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift) Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Delhi). Provision - Under this system, the
(a) Abdullah Shah Ghazi (a) Russia (b) Morocco land of the empire was divided into
(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi (c) England (d) Egypt several large and small tracts called Iqta
(c) Al-Walid I and assigned these Iqtas to his soldiers,
(d) Muhammad Bin Qasim Sol.281.(b) Morocco. Ibn Battuta visited officers and nobles. Administrative
India in 1333 during the reign of Terms used in Sultanate Period: Dabir
Sol.277.(b) Mahmud Ghaznavi Muhammad bin Tughlaq, who appointed (Secretary), Faujdar (Commander of
(998 - 1030 AD) attacked India 17 times him as the qazi (judge) of Delhi. Other army), Sipahsalar (Commander), Amil
between 1000 to 1027 AD. Al-Biruni’s notable foreign travelers : Hiuen Tsang (Revenue officer), Diwan (Office: the
df
Books: Kitab-ul-Hind and Tahkik-e- Hind. (China) - Harshavardhana's court; central secretariat).
_p
Al-Beruni (Persia) - Came with Mahmud
Q.278. When did the Mongol ruler Q.285. During the Sultanate of Delhi, the
of Ghazni; Francois Bernier (France) -
Genghis Khan die? term "Ulema" was associated with ______.
na
Shahjahan and Aurangzeb's court.
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (3rd Shift) SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) 1219 (b) 1210 (c) 1235 (d) 1227 Q.282. In reference to the Delhi (a) Learned theologians and Jurists
ap
Sultanate, what was the ‘Group of Forty’? (b) Commander-in-chief
Sol.278.(d) 1227. Genghis Khan (original
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2) (c) Postal officer
:@
name Temujin) was a Mongolian
(a) They were mostly powerful Turkish (d) Village Revenue officer
warrior-ruler, one of the most famous
slaves of Iltutmish, who took power
conquerors of history, who consolidated Sol.285.(a) Learned theologians and
in the interregnum following Sultana
TG
tribes into a unified Mongolia and then Jurists. Officers in Delhi Sultanate - State
Raziyya’s killing.
extended his empire across Asia to the Level: Amil (Revenue Officer), Barid
(b) They were forty military archers who
Adriatic Sea. His last campaign against (Intelligence agents), Khwaja (Accounts
distinguished themselves by their
on
the Western Xia. Officer), Kotwal (Head of city law and
bravery in the Delhi Sultanate.
Q.279. Who among the following was the (c) They were forty banjara leaders who order), Muhatasib (Head of municipality
ch
best-known Chahamana ruler? transferred military supplies in times law and order), Muftis (Expounder of
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (4th Shift) of war. law).
ar
(a) Prithviraja III (b) Vigraharaja II (d) They were forty Rajput nobles who
Q.286. Who among the following was the
(c) Prithviraja l (d) Vasudeva planned a coup to dethrone Qutb ud
Se
daughter of Iltumish, a ruler of Slave
Din Aibak in 1210.
Sol.279.(a) Prithviraj III (1168-1192). He Mamluk dynasty?
defeated Sultan Muhammad Ghori in Sol.282.(a) The 'Group of Forty' (Chalisa) SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Afternoon)
1191 (first Battle of Tarain), but he was in the Delhi Sultanate was a council of (a) Kubra Noorzai (b) Harkha
defeated by Ghori in 1192 (second Battle powerful Turkish slaves, formed by (c) Razia Sultan (d) Shafiqa Ziayee
of Tarain). Vigraharaja II {(971-998), Iltutmish to assist in governance.
Sol.286.(c) Razia Sultan. In 1236, Razia
Chahamana dynasty}. Prithviraj I {(1090 Sultan (Mamluk dynasty), succeeded her
Q.283. Who was the Sultan of Delhi at
-1110), Chahamana dynasty}. Vasudeva father to the Sultanate of Delhi. She sent
the time of the establishment of
{(73 BCE to 28 BCE), founder of Kanvas an expedition against Ranthambore to
Vijayanagara Empire?
Dynasty}. control the Rajputs. Mamluk dynasty
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Nasiruddin Mahmud (1206 to 1290) - Founded by Qutbuddin
Delhi Sultanate (b) Iltutmish Aibak (Lakh Baksh).
(1206 AD to 1526 AD) (c) Mohammad bin Tughlaq
Q.287. Under the Delhi Sultanate, a
(d) Alauddin Khilji
religious tax ________ was imposed on
Q.280. Which was the first dynasty of the
Sol.283.(c) Mohammad bin Tughlaq . the wealthy and rich Muslims in India.
Delhi Sultanate?
Vijaynagar Empire: Established - 1336 by SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Harihara and Bukka. Capital - Hampi. The (a) Firuz (b) Mamluk (c) Zakat (d) Kismat
(a) Mamluk dynasty (b) Tughlaq dynasty
(c) Khilji dynasty (d) Lodi dynasty Empire stretched from Krishna river in
Sol.287.(c) Zakat. Zakat tax was
the north to extreme south of the
abolished by Sikander lodi. Firoz Shah
Sol.280.(a) Mamluk dynasty: Also known peninsula. Dynasties with first and last
Tughlaq introduced four types of taxes
as the Slave Dynasty, founded by rulers - Sangama Dynasty (Harihara I,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
based on the Quran. They were Kharaj Amir Khusrau (Books - ‘Tughlaq Nama’, Sol.295.(b) Balban. Ghiyasuddin Balban
(Land tax), Khams (Tax on booty ‘Nuh Sipihr’, ‘Khazain ul Futuh’ ). (Reigned : 1266–1287) was the ninth
captured in war), Jizya (Imposed on non sultan of the Slave dynasty of Delhi. He
muslim), and Zakat. Q.292. Who was the ruler of Delhi belonged to the famous group of 40
sultanate when Ibn Batuta came to India? Turkic slaves of Iltutmish. He was the
Q.288. Who composed Tabaqat-i-Nasiri SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Afternoon) first Muslim ruler to formulate the 'theory
in the Delhi Sultanate period? (a) Alauddin Khilji of kingship' similar to the 'theory of the
SSC CGL Tier II 02/03/2023 (b) Firuz Shah Tughlaq divine right of the kings'. He established
(a) Hasan Nizami (b) Amir Khusrau (c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq the military department “Diwan-i-Arz”.
(c) Minhaj-us-Siraj (d) Ziauddin Barani (d) Ibrahim Lodi
Q.296. Raziya Sultan was the first and
Sol.288.(c) "Tabaqat-i-Nasiri'' (1260) was Sol.292.(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq was only female ruler of the Sultanate, who
written by Minhaj-i-Siraj in Persian the ruler of the Delhi sultanate when Ibn ascended the throne in:
language. He was a chronicler during the Batuta came to India. Muhammad bin SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
rule of Sultan Iltutmish. Hasan Nizami Tughluq was the Sultan of Delhi from (a) 1238 AD (b) 1236 AD
(Persian language poet) wrote 1324 to 1351 from the Tughlaq Dynasty. (c) 1241 AD (d) 1242 AD
Tajul-Maasir (the first official history of
the Delhi Sultanate). Sufi poet Amir Slave Dynasty Sol.296.(b) 1236 AD. Razia Sultana was
Khusro was the court poet of Alauddin the daughter of Iltutmish and served as
Khilji. His famous works: Tughluq Nama, Q.293. Who was appointed as the the Sultan of Delhi from 1236 to 1240.
Wast-ul-Hayat, Nuh Sipihr, Ashiqa, governor of Bengal by Sultan Balban She was married to Malik Altunia, the
Khamsa, Baqia-Naqia. Ziauddin Barani after the revolt and subsequent death of governor of Bathinda. She was buried in
(Muslim political thinker of Delhi Tughril Beg? Kaithal, Haryana. She was imprisoned by
df
Sultanate) wrote Tarikh-i-Firozshahi and SSC MTS 05/11/2024 (1st Shift) Malik Ikhtiyar-ud-din Altunia in the Qila
_p
Fatwa-i-Jahandari. (a) Zafar Khan (b) Bughra Khan Mubarak Fort (Bathinda). The book
(c) Khizr Khan (d) Mahmud Khan "Razia Queen of India" was written by
Q.289. Zafar khan was a famous General
na
Rafiq Zakaria about her life.
of which of the following rulers of the Sol.293.(b) Bughra Khan. After
Delhi Sultanate? Nasir-ud-din Mahmud died in 1266, Q.297. Which of the following Delhi
ap
SSC CGL Tier II 03/03/2023 Ghiyasuddin Balban (1266-1287) sultans introduced two coins, namely
(a) Alauddin Khilji (b) Iltutmish ascended the throne. He was also the silver tanka and copper jital?
:@
(c) Muhammad bin Tughluq (d) Balban first muslim ruler to formulate the ‘theory SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
of Kingship’. Balban introduced the (a) Qutbuddin Aibak (b) Bahlul Lodi
Sol.289.(a) Alauddin Khilji’s Generals : practice of Sijda (prostration) and Paibos (c) Ghiyasuddin Balban (d) Iltutmish
TG
Hizabruddin (Zafar Khan), Almas Beg (kissing the feet of Monarch). Tughril Beg
(Ulugh Khan), Malik Kafur (Taj al-Din Izz revolted against Balban, Sultan of Delhi, Sol.297.(d) Iltutmish (1210 - 1236). He
al-Dawla), Nusrat Khan (Malik Nusrat and declared himself as an independent was a slave and son-in-law of
on
Jalesari). Muhammad bin Tughlaq ruler of Bengal in 1279. Qutubuddin Aibak, considered the real
(Jauna Khan): Introduced token currency. founder of Delhi Sultanate.
Q.294. Which of the following
ch
Q.290. Who among the following rulers departments of Delhi Sultanate was Q.298. Balban followed the tradition of
ruled before Prithviraj Chauhan over reorganized by Balban? ‘Sijda and Pabos’ from which of following
ar
Delhi? SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) traditions?
Se
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift) (a) Diwan-i-Ishtiaq (b) Diwan-i-Arz SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift)
(a) Ghiyasuddin Balban (c) Diwan-i-Risalat (d) Diwan-i-Mustakhraj (a) Persian (b) Roman
(b) Ananga Pala (c) Mangol (d) Chinese
(c) Jalaluddin Khalji Sol.294.(b) Diwan-i-Arz (Department of
(d) Qutbuddin Aibak Military). Central Departments of Delhi Sol.298.(a) Persian. 'Sijda' refers to the
Sultanates: ‘Diwan-i-Risalat’ - Department act of prostration or bowing down, and
Sol.290.(b) Ananga Pala Tomar - of Appeals, ‘Diwan-i-Bandagan’- 'Pabos' refers to the kissing of the
founded Delhi in 1052. An inscription of Department of Slaves, monarch's feet.
Vikram Samvat 1383 in the Delhi ‘Diwan-i-Qaza-i-Mamalik’ - Department of
Museum confirms the founding of Delhi Q.299. Who among the following Delhi
Justice, ‘Diwan-i-Ishtiaq’ - Department of
by the Tomars. Sultanate rulers took the policy of ‘blood
Pensions, ‘Diwan - i - Mustakhraj’-
and iron’ to deal with the Mewati
Departments of Arrears, ‘Diwan-i-Khairat’
Q.291. Who was the author of Tarikh - i - community?
- Department of Charity, ‘Diwan-i-Kohi’-
Mubarak Shahi which is a Persian SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
Department of Agriculture, ‘Diwan
language chronicle of the Delhi (a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Rajiya
-i-Wizarat’ - Head Wazir, ‘Diwan -i-Waqoof’
Sultanate? (c) Balban (d) Iltutmish
- Department of Revenue.
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) Jawahar-fi-Jawahir Sol.299.(c) Balban. The policy of 'blood
Q.295. Which of the following Sultans of
(b) Khazain-ul-Futuh and iron' implied being ruthless to the
Delhi primarily adopted a policy of
(c) Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi enemies, use of sword, harshness and
consolidation rather than expansion?
(d) Yahya bin Ahmad Sirhindi strictness and shedding blood. Ghiyas ud
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
din Balban was the ninth sultan of the
(a) Ibrahim Lodi (b) Balban
Sol.291.(d) Yahya bin Ahmad Sirhindi. Mamluk/Slave dynasty of Delhi.
(c) Alauddin Khalji (d) Bahlol Lodi
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.300. Mameluke style of architecture (d) Qutb ud-Din Aibak initially a slave who rose to become the
belongs to which dynasty? Sultan of Delhi, ruling from 1266 to 1287
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) Sol.304.(c) Nasiruddin Mahmud CE. He was known for his theory of
(a) Lodi dynasty (b) Slave dynasty (1246-1266 AD) - Eighth ruler of Slave kingship and strong centralized
(c) Khilji dynasty (d) Tughlaq dynasty dynasty (Mamluk dynasty). Minhaj -i-Siraj administration.
was his court historian. Balban
Sol.300.(b) Slave dynasty (1206 - 1290) - (1266-1287 AD) : He pursued the policy Q.309. Quwwat al-Islam mosque and
It is also known as the Mamluk Dynasty. of ‘blood and iron’. Razia Sultan minaret, built during the last decade of
Established by - Qutbuddin Aibak (1206 - (1236-1240 AD) : First muslim woman to the ______ century.
1210). Capitals - Lahore . Famous rule over Delhi sultanate. SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift)
buildings built by rulers of the slave (a) eleventh (b) thirteenth
dynasty: Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque, Qutub Q.305. Who among the following
(c) fourteenth (d) twelfth
Minar, Adhai Din ka Jhonpra, Tomb of revolted against Balban, Sultan of Delhi,
Nasir-ud-Din Mohammed, Tomb of and declared himself as an independent Sol.309.(d) Twelfth. Quwwat-ul-Islam
Shams-ud-Din Iltutmish. ruler of Bengal in 1279? Mosque (1192-1198) built by Qutubuddin
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (1st shift) Aibak. Other Monuments of Qutub
Q.301. The Delhi sultan, who succumbed (a) Muhammad Khan complex - Alai Darwaza (by Ala-ud-din
to injuries as a result of his fall from (b) Tughril Beg Khalji in 1311 AD). Tomb of Iltutmish
horse, was __________ . (c) Bughra Khan (1235). Tomb of Imam Zamin (1537).
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) (d) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (b) Behram Shah Q.310. What is the approximate height
(c) Balban (d) Iltutmish Sol.305.(b) Tughril Beg. Balban (in metres) of the Qutub Minar situated in
(Mamluk dynasty or Slave Dynasty) - Delhi ?
df
Sol.301.(a) Qutubuddin Aibak (Known as Ghiyas-ud-Din Balban appointed his own SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning)
Lakh Baksh). He was the slave of son Bughra khan as governor of Bengal. (a) 75 (b) 77 (c) 73 (d) 71
_p
Muhammad Ghori and was the first Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq also
sultan of Delhi Sultanate. He established known as Nasiruddin, was the last sultan Sol.310.(c) 73 (239.5 ft. approx). Qutub
na
the slave dynasty (Mamluk dynasty). of the Tughlaq dynasty. Minar has five storeys. It was started in
Famous Ruler of Slave Dynasty (1206 1199 by Qutb ud-Din Aibak, completed in
ap
AD-1290 AD): Qutbuddin Aibak Q.306. Who occupied Badaun (A.D. 1220 by his son-in-law Iltutmish.
(1206-1210), Shamsuddin Iltutmish 1197-98) and appointed Iltutmish as its UNESCO (1993). Other Important Minars
:@
(1210-1236), Raziya Sultan (1236-1240), first Muslim Governor? - Charminar, Hyderabad (1591) by
Balban (1266-1287). SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening) Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, height is
(a) Prithviraj Chauhan 48.7 m (160 ft).
TG
Q.302. The Tomb of Iltutmish was built in (b) Maharana Pratap
which year? (c) Muhammad Ghori Q.311. Who among the following was the
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) (d) Qutbuddin Aibak Wazir of Sultan Iltutmish?
on
(a) 1458 AD (b) 1388 AD Graduate Level 05/08/2022 ( Shift - 3)
(c) 1235 AD (d) 1199 AD Sol.306.(d) Qutbuddin Aibak {1206- (a) Sai’d Fakhr-I-Mudabbir
1210 (First ruler of Slave Dynasty (b) Malik Naik
ch
Sol.302.(c) 1235 AD. Iltutmish (Reign /Mamluk Dynasty)}: He established the (c) Nizam ul-Mulk Junaidi
1210 - 1236 AD) introduced silver coin first Muslim dynasty and was also known (d) Nusrat Khan
ar
(Tanka) and copper coin (Jital), and as Lakh Baksh. He died in Lahore,
completed the construction of Qutub
Se
Pakistan after falling from a horse ride. Sol.311.(c) Nizam ul-Mulk Junaidi.
Minar. He also constructed a large
Iltutmish is known as the real founder of
reservoir Hauz-i-Sultani just outside Q.307. Qutub Minar is an example of
Delhi Sultanate who occupied the throne
Dehli-i-Kuhna. ______ architecture.
in 1210 AD after KIlling Aram Bakshsh.
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q.303. Who started the practice of He shifted his capital from Lahore to
(a) Indo-Islamic (b) Dravidian
celebrating Nauroz during the Delhi Delhi.
(c) Sufi (d) Mauryan
Sultanate period?
Sol.307.(a) Indo - Islamic. Indo-Islamic Q.312. Ghiyasuddin Balban, ruler of the
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Sikandar Sur architecture is the architecture of the Slave dynasty, took up the title of _______.
(b) Shamsuddin Iltutmish Indian subcontinent produced for Islamic SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Morning)
(c) Ghiyasuddin Balban patrons and purposes. Famous (a) Nur-al-Din (light of the faith)
(d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq Examples - City of Mandu (Madhya (b) NurMahal (light of the palace)
Pradesh), Taj Mahal (Agra), Gol Gumbaz (c) Zil-i-Ilahi (shadow of God)
Sol.303.(c) Ghiyasuddin Balban. Nowruz (d) JahanPanah (protector of the world)
(Karnataka), Jama Masjid (Delhi) etc.
is the Iranian New Year, also known as
the Persian New Year. Q.308. Who had assumed the title of Sol.312.(c) Zil-i-Ilahi (shadow of God).
Balban? Ghiyas ud din Balban - Abolished
Q.304. Balban served as naib to which of Chahalghani (Council of 40 nobles),
SSC CGL Tier II (07/03/2023)
the following sultans of Delhi? Introduced Persian customs as sizdah
(a) Kabir Khan (b) Farid Khan
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (4th shift) (c) Ulugh Khan (d) Ayaz Khan (prostration), paibos (kissing feet of
(a) Iltutmish sultan), established Diwan-i-Ariz (defence
(b) Razia Sol.308.(c) Ulugh Kha, whose original
department).
(c) Nasiruddin Mahmud name was Ghiyas ud din Balban, was
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.313. In which of the following forts Sol.316.(c) Alauddin Khilji. Malik Kafur - SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening)
was Razia Sultan imprisoned by Malik also known as 'Hazar Dinari’ was a slave (a) Alauddin Khalji
Ikhtiyar-ud-din Altunia? of Ala-ud-din Khilji who led his army in (b) Balban
SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Evening) the battle against Ramachandra of (c) Iltutmish
(a) Qila Mubarak in Bathinda Devagiri. Administrative Reforms - (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(b) Jaigarh fort in Jaipur implemented the system of "dagh Pratha
(c) Golconda fort in Golconda ," branding horses, and "Huliya Pratha (a Sol.320.(a) Alauddin Khalji (1296 -
(d) Mehrangarh fort in Jodhpur system of ranks)" keeping records of 1316). He was the second ruler of Khilji
soldiers. dynasty after Jalaluddin Khilji (Founder -
Sol.313.(a) Qila Mubarak in Bathinda, ‘Khalji Dynasty’). He was also appointed
built by Raja Dab. Jaigarh fort in Jaipur Q.317. Which of the following Sultans of Arizi-i-Mumalik (Minister of War) during
was built in 1726 AD by Jai Singh II. Delhi set up the officers like Barid the reign of Jalaluddin Khilji and laid the
Golconda fort in Golconda was built by (intelligence officer) and Munhiyans foundation of his capital Siri in 1303 A.D.
Qutb Shahi dynasty. Mehrangarh fort in (secret spies) to control the market?
Jodhpur was built by Rao Jodha. Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Q.321. Who was the first to mention the
(a) Ghiyasuddin Balban incident of Jauhar in Persian ?
(b) Alauddin Khalji SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Khilji Dynasty (a) Ibn Batutah (b) Amir Khusrau
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(d) Shamsuddin Iltutmish (c) Ziauddin Barani (d) Hasan Nizami
Q.314. To control the prices, which of the
following Sultans of Delhi set up three Sol.321.(b) Amir Khusrau. ‘Jauhar’ - The
Sol.317.(b) Alauddin Khalji, ruler of the
different markets for different collective self-immolation by women in
Delhi Sultanate, is known for
commodities in Delhi ? order to escape capture and forced into
implementing significant market reforms
df
SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (3rd Shift) slavery by invaders in face of imminent
and establishing strict price controls and
(a) Alauddin Khalji defeat.
_p
market regulations.
(b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(c) Ghiyasuddin Balban Q.318. Who among the following Sultans Q.322. During Alauddin Khilji's reign, the
na
(d) Shamsuddin Iltutmish framed a series of regulations to weaken cloth market was known as______.
the power of nobles? SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (1st shift)
ap
Sol.314.(a) Alauddin Khalji. Alauddin set (a) Sarai-i-Adl (b) Mandi
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
up three different markets for different (c) Munhiyans (d) Shahna-i-Mandi
(a) Muhammad bin Tughluq (b) Balban
:@
commodities in Delhi. These markets
(c) Alauddin Khilji (d) Iltutmish Sol.322.(a) Sarai-i-Adl (Place of justice).
were the grain market (Mandi), cloth
market (Sarai Adl) and the market for Sol.318.(c) Alauddin Khilji (Khilji Dynasty Alauddin Khilji, under his market policy,
TG
horses, slaves, cattle, etc. To ensure 1290-1320): He made nobles pay land built three markets of foodgrain, precious
implementation, Alauddin appointed a tax for their holdings. This curbed the clothes and slave cattle near Kushke
superintendent (Shahna-i-Mandi) who excess of wealth owned by nobles. The Sabz (Hara Rajmahal) within the Badaun
on
was assisted by an intelligence officer. nobles were also ordered not to have gate in Delhi. These were government -
social gatherings or intermarriages aided markets.
Q.315. The first southern campaign of
ch
without his permission. The group of Q.323. Who was the first Sultan of the
Alauddin Khilji in 1307-08 AD was led to
nobles, called "The Forty". Delhi Sultanate to start military
which of the following regions?
ar
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.319. Who among the following expeditions into southern India?
Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
Se
(a) Devagiri (b) Warangal classical poets of the Sultanate period in
(c) Dwar Samudra (d) Madura India popularized Qawwali, a form of (a) Ghiyasuddin Balban
music which derived its name from the (b) Alauddin Khalji
Sol.315.(a) Devagiri (modern-day (c) Muhammad Tughluq
Arabic word ‘qaul’, meaning ‘to speak’?
Daulatabad, Maharashtra). This (d) Shamsuddin Iltutmish
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening)
campaign marked the beginning of the
(a) Jalal al-Din Muhammad Rumi
Delhi Sultanate's expansion into southern Sol.323.(b) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Amir Khusrau
India. Alauddin Khilji (1296 -1316) was (1296-1316):- He was the second ruler of
(c) Nizam al-Din Awliya
the second sultan of the Khilji dynasty. the Khilji dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate.
(d) Shams al-Din Muhammad Hafiz
Campaigns of Alauddin Khilji: Gujarat
Q.324. Which monument of Khilji dynasty
(1299), Ranthambore (1301), Chittor Sol.319.(b) Amir Khusrau - He was also
in Delhi has the utilization of red
(1303), Malwa (1305), Madurai (1311), known as Tuti-e-Hind (Parrot of India). He
sandstone?
Dwarasamudra (1310-1311). was the court musician of Alauddin Khilji.
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening)
He also lived in courts of different rulers
Q.316. Who amongst the following Delhi (a) Moti Masjid (b) Victoria memorial
such as Balban, Muhammad, Cakubad,
Sultanate rulers sent his army under (c) Charminar (d) Alai Darwaza
Jalaluddin Khilji, Mubarak Shah Khaliji,
Malik Kafur’s command to conquer
and Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq . He was also a Sol.324.(d) Alai Darwaza. Built by
South India?
disciple of Nizammuddin Auliya. Allaudin Khilji the Sultan of Delhi in 1311
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
AD. Moti Masjid - Aurangzeb (Delhi).
(a) Iltutmish Q.320. Which of the following Sultans of
Victoria memorial - George V (Kolkata).
(b) Ghiyas-ud-din Balban Delhi was appointed as Amir-i-Tuzuk
Charminar - Mohammed Quli Qutub
(c) Alauddin Khilji (Master of Ceremonies) before
Shah (Hyderabad).
(d) Qutub-al-din Aibak becoming the Sultan?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.325. Which officer under Alauddin Khilji (c) Diwan-i-Insha (d) Diwan-i-Risalat Sol.333.(d) Firuz Shah Tughlaq (1351 -
was required to maintain a register of 1388). He was known as the father of the
merchants to ensure an adequate supply Sol.329.(b) Diwan-i Amir-i kohi. The irrigation approach in India. Diwan
of goods? Diwan-i-Kohi aimed to increase land -e-Khairat which was built for collecting
SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023) under cultivation. Muhammad Tughlaq money for charitable work.
(a) Nazir (b) Rais Parwana also promoted agriculture by abolishing
(c) Muhtasib (d) Shahna-i-Mandi or reducing agrarian cesses and Q.334. Who amongst the following
introducing agricultural loans called raised the banner of revolt against
Sol.325.(d) Shahna-i-Mandi. Alauddin Sondhar. Nasiruddin Khusrau?
set up three markets at Delhi - First for SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift)
food-grains, the second for cloth, sugar, Q.330. Which amongst the following (a) Nasiruddin Tughlaq
ghee, oil, dry fruits and the third for Sultans shifted his capital from Delhi to (b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
horses, slaves and cattle. Daulatabad? (c) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) (d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Q.326. How many types of taxes were in (a) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
the reign of the ruler Alauddin Khalji? (b) Ibrahim Lodhi Sol.334.(d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq or
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift) (c) Sikandar Lodhi Ghazi malik (1320-1324 AD) - He was
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 2 (d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq the governor of Punjab during the reign
of Allauddin khilji. He was the founder of
Sol.326.(a) 3 types of taxes: Jaziya Sol.330.(d) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq: He the Tughlaq dynasty who fought against
(religious tax on Hindu community), shifted his capital from Delhi to the more Mongols, and started Tughlaqabad Fort
Ghari tax (tax on Houses), and Chari tax centrally located Devagiri in Maharashtra, construction.
(tax on cattles). which was renamed Daulatabad. His Five
df
Disastrous Projects are: Taxation in the Q.335. Who among the following
Tughlaq Dynasty Doab, Transfer of Capital, Khurasan appointed Aziz Khummar a wine distiller
_p
Expedition, Qarachil Expedition, to high administrative post?
Q.327. The Begumpuri mosque was built Introduction of Token Currency. SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
during the reign of which of the following
rulers of the Delhi Sultanate? na
Q.331. Who invaded India during the rule
(a) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Muhammad Tughluq
ap
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon) of Tughlaq Dynasty? (c) Jalaluddin Khalji
(a) Sikandar Lodhi SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) (d) Firuz Shah Tughluq
:@
(b) Firuz Shah Tughlaq (a) Timur
(c) Bahlul Lodhi (b) Chengiz Khan Sol.335.(b) Muhammad bin Tughluq
(d) Muhammad Tughlaq (c) Muhammad Ghori (1324 -1351) - He was the eldest son of
TG
(d) Mahmud of Ghazni Ghiyasuddin Tughluq (founder of the
Sol.327.(d) Muhammad Tuglaq . He was Tughlaq dynasty). He appointed Firuz
the eighteenth Sultan of Delhi, ruling Sol.331.(a) Timur. During the reign of Hajjam - A barber, Mank a Tabbakh - a
on
from February 1324 to 1351. The eldest Nasir-ud-din Mahmud Tughlaq, Timur cook, and two gardeners - Ladha and
son of Ghiyath al-Din Tughluq, founder of invaded India in 1398 A.D., leading to the Pira, to high administrative posts. He
decline of the Tughlaq dynasty.
ch
the Tughlaq dynasty, he built the also decided to transfer his capital from
Begumpur Mosque (Jam'i Masjid of Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad).
Q.332. Which of the following cities of
ar
Jahanpanah) in the capital, Jahanpanah.
Delhi was founded by Ghiyasuddin Q.336. Ziyauddin Barani wrote his
Se
Q.328. Who among the following was the Tughlaq ? chronicle first in 1356 and another
first sultan of Delhi Sultanate to visit the SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) version _____ years later.
Ajmer shrine of Khwaja Muinuddin (a) Siri (b) Jahanpanah SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Chishti? (c) Qila-i-Rai Pithora (d) Tughlaqabad (a) three (b) eight (c) two (d) five
SSC MTS 11/11/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.332.(d) Tughluqabad. Ghiyasuddin Sol.336.(c) Two. Ziauddin Barani
(a) Ghiyasuddin Balban
Tuglaq (reign period : 1320-1324) - (1285–1358 AD) was a prominent
(b) Jalaluddin Khalji
Founder of Tughlaq dynasty (1320-1414 Muslim political thinker of the Delhi
(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
AD). Tughalq was the longest-ruling Sultanate during the reigns of
(d) Khizr Khan
dynasty of Delhi sultanate. City and Muhammad bin Tughlaq and Firoz Shah.
Sol.328.(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq, founder: Siri - Alauddin khilji; Jahanpanah Other Books: Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi and
originally known as Junakhan, ascended - Muhammad bin Tughlaq; Qila-i-Rai Fatwa-i-Jahandari, Sana-i- Muhammadi,
the throne in 1324. He is remembered for Pithora - Prithviraj Chauhan. Tarikh-i-Barmaki, etc.
his efforts to maintain the administrative
and political unity of India. In 1327 A.D., Q.333. Who among the following was the Sayyid Dynasty
he successfully captured Warangal, a successor of Muhammad-Bin Tughlaq to
the throne? Q.337. The author of Tarikh-i-Mubarak
significant event in his reign.
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) Shahi, Yahya Sirhindi claims that the
Q.329. To promote agriculture, (a) Ghiyath-ud-din Tughlaq Shah II founder of ________ dynasty of Delhi
Muhammad Tughlaq founded which of (b) Abu Bakr Shah Tughlaq sultanate was a descendant of Prophet
the following new ministries? (c) Nais-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughlaq Muhammad.
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) (d) Firuz Shah Tughlaq SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
(a) Diwan-i-Arz (b) Diwan-i Amir-i kohi (a) Mamluk (b) Khalji (c) Sayyid (d) Lodhi
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Sol.337.(c) Sayyid. Khizr Khan defeated (c) Sayyid dynasty (d) Tughluq dynasty Mughal Period
Sultan Daulat Khan and occupied Delhi,
and founded the Sayyid dynasty in 1414. Sol.341.(a) Lodi dynasty (1451 - 1526). It
Q.346. Consider the following
Capital : Delhi. Tarikh-i-Mubarak Shahi was founded by Bahlul Lodi (1451 to statements in the context of the Mughal
contains the history of Muhammad Ghori 1489 AD). Sultan Sikandar Lodi founded Rule.
and his rulers up to the third ruler of the Agra in 1504. Famous Historic City and 1. The Mansabdari System was
Sayyid dynasty. their Founder: Fatehpur Sikri (Uttar introduced by Akbar in 1571.
Pradesh) - Akbar, Hampi (Karnataka) - 2. The Second Battle of Panipat was
Q.338. Who was the first ruler of the Harihara I and Bukka Raya I, Udaipur fought in 1556.
Sayyid Dynasty? (Rajasthan) - Udai Singh II, Warangal 3. Maharana Pratap Singh of Mewar was
SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Morning) (Telangana) - Kakatiya dynasty. a contemporary of Babur.
(a) Khizr Khan Which of the statements given above
(b) Alauddin Alam Shah Q.342. Which of the following is/are correct?
(c) Muhammad Shah mosques/masjids was built during the SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
(d) Mubarak Khan reign of Lodi dynasty of the Delhi (a) Only 2 (b) Both 1 and 2
Sultanate? (c) Both 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Sol.338.(a) Khizr Khan (In 1414 A.D) - He SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Sol.346.(b) Both 1 and 2. Maharana
captured the Delhi sultanate from the (a) Begumpuri mosque, Delhi
Pratap Singh was a contemporary of the
Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq (b) Quwwat al-Islam, Delhi
third Mughal emperor Akbar. He is
(Tughlaq dynasty) and founded the (c) Lal Masjid, Delhi
notable for leading the Rajput resistance
Sayyid Dynasty. He was succeeded by (d) Moth ki Masjid, Delhi
against Akbar's expansionist policies,
Mubarak Shah (first Sultan ruler to
Sol.342.(d) Moth ki Masjid, Delhi. It was including in the Battle of Haldighati
appoint Hindu nobles in the court of
df
built in 1505 by Wazir Miya Bhoiya. (1576) and the Battle of Dewair (1582).
Delhi) and constructed “Mubarakbad”
Begumpuri mosque (Delhi) - It was The Second Battle of Panipat was fought
_p
City.
constructed by Muhammad Tughluq . between Akbar and Hemu. The
Lodi Dynasty mansabdari system was basically a
na
Q.343. “Double Dome” feature of grading system in order to rank the
Indo-Islamic architecture was introduced officers based on their ranks and
Q.339. Which of the following dynasties
ap
by which dynasty of Delhi Sultanate? salaries.
of the Delhi Sultanate finally annexed
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Morning)
Jaunpur into the empire of Delhi
:@
(a) Slave Dynasty (b) Khilji Dynasty Q.347. Who among the following was the
Sultanate?
(c) Tughlaq Dynasty (d) Lodi Dynasty guru of Tansen?
SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
(a) Lodi dynasty (b) Khalji dynasty
TG
Sol.343.(d) Lodi Dynasty (1451-1526). (a) Abul Fazal (b) Shaukat Mian
(c) Tughlaq dynasty (d) Sayyid dynasty Double dome - Built of two layers. There (c) Makarand Mishra (d) Swami Haridasa
is one layer inside which provides a
Sol.339.(a) Lodi dynasty was founded by
ceiling to the interior of the building. The Sol.347.(d) Swami Haridasa. The
on
Bahlol Lodi, the last ruling dynasty of the
other layer is the outer one which crowns famous musician Tansen was one of the
Delhi Sultanate, ruling from 1451 to
the buildings. Example - Humayun's Navratnas (nine gems) in the court of
1526. In AD 1476, Bahlol Lodi defeated
ch
Tomb. Emperor Akbar, who bestowed the title
the Sultan of Jaunpur and annexed it to
'Mian' upon him.
ar
the Delhi Sultanate. He also brought the Q.344. Bahlol Lodi was succeeded by his
ruler of Kalpi and Dholpur under the son __________under the title of Sultan Q.348. Who among the following was
Se
Suzerainty of Delhi. Sikandar Shah in 1489. given the charge of looking after the
Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3) imperial household during the Mughal
Q.340. Who among the following was the
(a) Nizam Khan (b) Khizr Khan administration?
last sultan of Delhi sultanate?
(c) Bahlul Shah (d) Sher Shah SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift)
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) Mir Saman (b) Mir Bahri
(a) Firoz Shah Tughlaq Sol.344.(a) Nizam Khan {assumed the (c) Mir Bakshi (d) 'Mir-e-aatish'
(b) Sikandar Lodi title Sikandar Shah,founded Agra in 1504,
(c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq relocated the capital from Delhi to Agra, Sol.348.(a) Mir Saman. Mir Bahri
(d) Ibrahim Lodi pen name Gulrukh}. (mir-i-bahr) - Responsible for the
maintenance of the river and seaports.
Sol.340.(d) Ibrahim Lodi was the last Q.345. The _____ sultanate is ruled by the Mir Bakshi - Headed military department,
Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate Sharqi dynasty. nobility, information and intelligence
(1206–1526), he became Sultan in 1517 SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Afternoon) agencies. Mir-e-aatish - Head of the
after the death of his father Sikandar (a) Agra (b) Delhi ordinance department.
Khan Lodi. In 1526, he was defeated and (c) Jaunpur (d) Bharatpur
killed in the Battle of Panipat by Babur, Q.349. Name the French jeweler who
giving way to the emergence of the Sol.345.(c) The Jaunpur sultanate was traveled to India at least six times during
Mughal Empire in India. ruled by the sharqi dynasty. It was the Mughal period.
founded by Khwajah-i-Jahan Malik SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift)
Q.341. Which of the following dynasties of Sarwar in 1394. In 1479, Sultan Hussain (a) Antonio Monserrate
Delhi Sultanate founded Agra city? Khan was defeated by the forces of (b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Afghan chieftain Bahlul Lodhi and this (c) Seydi Ali Reis
(a) Lodi dynasty (b) Khalji dynasty dynasty came to an end. (d) Peter Mundy
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Sol.349.(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier. He actual collection. The Jama was the Q.359. Medini Rai of Chanderi, Hasan
came to India during the reign of Shah amount assessed whereas the Hasil was Khan of Mewat and Mahmud Lodi joined
Jahan. Antonio Monserrate : A Spanish the amount received or collected. Banjar Rana Sanga with their forces to fight
missionary, came during the reign of was the worst kind of land that was left against which of the following Mughal
Akbar. Seydi Ali Reis : He was a Turkish out of cultivation for five years or rulers?
traveler who visited India in the 16th upwards. SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
century. Peter Mundy : A European (a) Babur (b) Akbar
philosopher and foreign traveler came to Q.355. Which Mughal prince translated (c) Aurangzeb (d) Humayun
India during the reign of Shah Jahan. the Upanishads into Persian in 1657?
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Afternoon) Sol.359.(a) Babur. He was a descendant
Q.350. Who built the Pathar Ki Masjid in (a) Sultan Luftallah (b) Dara Shikoh of Genghis Khan and Timur, founded the
Patna, Bihar? (c) Murad Mirza (d) Shah Suja Mughal Empire in northern India .
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(a) Feroz shah Tughlaq (b) Parwez Shah Sol.355.(b) Dara Shikoh. He was the Q.360. The battle of Khanwa was fought
(c) Aurangzeb (d) Alauddin Khilji eldest son and heir-apparent of the between the forces of the Babur and the
Mughal emperor Shah Jahan. He Rajput forces led by:
Sol.350.(b) Parwez Shah (Son of Mughal completed the translation of fifty Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Emperor Jahangir) built “Pathar Ki upanishads from their original Sanskrit to (a) Ibrahim Lodi (b) Rana Sanga
Masjid” on the banks of River Ganga, Persian in 1657 so that they could be (c) Medini Rai (d) Mahmud Lodi
Patna (Bihar) in 1621. studied by muslim scholars.
Sol.360.(b) Rana Sanga.
Q.351. On 12 August ________ the Mughal Q.356. Who was the Mughal Emperor at
emperor appointed the East India the time of Battle of Plassey? Q.361. Who made the use of Gunpowder
df
Company as the Diwan of Bengal. SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Evening) common in North India to defeat
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (1st Shift) (a) Alamgir II (b) Siraj- Ud- Daulah enemies?
_p
(a) 1765 (b) 1768 (c) 1772 (d) 1760 (c) Mir Qasim (d) Shah Alam II SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
(a) Ibrahim Lodi (b) Babur
na
Sol.351.(a) On 12 August 1765, the Sol.356.(a) Aziz-ud-din Alamgir II. (c) Rana Sanga (d) Daulat Khan Lodi
Mughal emperor (Shah Alam II) Alamgir II (Reign - 1754-1759) was the
ap
appointed the East India Company as the fifteenth Mughal Emperor. Sol.361.(b) Babur (1526-1530): The first
Diwan of Bengal. Mughal emperor, succeeded to the
:@
throne of Ferghana in 1494, when he was
Babur
Q.352. _______ in Gujarat was the only 12 years old.
emporium of western trade during the Q.357. Which of the following battles Q.362. Who was the eldest of four sons
TG
Mughal Period. was fought between Babur and Rana
SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Evening) of Babur?
Sanga in 1527? SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening)
(a) Navasari (b) Narmada SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) (a) Askari (b) Humayun
on
(c) Porbandar (d) Surat (a) Battle of Bayana (c) Hindal (d) Kamran
Sol.352.(d) Surat. It grew famous for all (b) Battle of Khanwa
ch
types of textiles, particularly cotton (c) Second battle of Panipat Sol.362.(b) Humayun - The second ruler
textiles. (d) Battle of Chanderi of the Mughal empire. The Afghan
ar
soldier Sher Shah Suri defeated him at
Q.353. The Mughal court chronicles are Sol.357.(b) Battle of Khanwa : Babar the war in Chausa 1539 and Kannauj in
Se
written in _____ emerged victorious against Rana Sanga. 1540. Humayun was the first person who
SSC CGL 20/04/2022(Afternoon) Battles of Babar - First Battle of Panipat developed a citadel in Delhi, named as
(a) Arabic (b) Persian (c) Turkish (d) Urdu (1526) : Babar defeated Ibrahim Lodi. “Din Panah”.
Battle of Chanderi (1528): Babar won
Sol.353.(b) Persian. Mughal chronicles against Madiniray. Battle of Ghaghra Q.363. The first battle of Panipat took
such as the Akbar Nama were written in (1529): Babar triumphed over Mahmud place between Babur and _________.
Persian. Some of the famous Books Lodi. SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
during Mughal Reign are Humayun Nama (a) Medini Rai (b) Sikandar Lodi
was written by Gulbadan Begum, Tuzuk - Q.358. The real name of Babur, the (c) Ibrahim Lodi (d) Rana Sanga
E Babari - Babur, Akbar Nama- Abul Fazl, founder of Mughal dynasty in India was:
Tarikh E Akbari - Abul Fazl, Tahakik E SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.363.(c) Ibrahim Lodi. The First
Hind- Albiruni, Laila Majnu- Amir Khasuru, (a) Zahiruddin Muhammad Battle of Panipat was fought in 1526.
Shahnamah- Firdousi etc (b) Irfanuddin Muhammad Second Battle of Panipat (1556): Hemu
(c) Zainuddin Muhammad Vikramaditya and Akbar . Third Battle of
Q.354. With reference to the Land (d) Ruknuddin Muhammad Panipat (1761): Marathas and Ahmad
Revenue System of Mughal Empire, the Shah Abdali.
term ' was the amount assessed. Sol.358.(a) Zahiruddin Muhammad. Real
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) names of some Mughal emperors Q.364. Who among the following Mughal
(a) Banjar (b) Polaj (c) Hasil (d) Jama include: Humayun - Nasir al-Din Emperors had assumed the title of
Muhammed, Akbar - Jalal- ud-din Padshah?
Sol.354.(d) Jama. The arrangements for Muhammad Akbar, Jahangir - SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon)
collection of land revenue consisted of Muhammad Salim, Aurangzeb - (a) Jahangir (b) Babur
two stages : first assessment and then Muhi-ud-din-Muhammad. (c) Humayun (d) Akbar
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Sol.364.(b) Babur. He was the first was born Nasir-ud-Din Muhammad in the construction of sarais (shelter) for
Timurid ruler who, after his conquest of Kabul. Humayun was the second the convenience of travellers ?
Kabul (1507), assumed the title of Emperor of the Mughal Empire, ruling SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift)
Padshah which means "king of kings" or over present-day Pakistan, Northern (a) Babur (b) Sher Shah Suri
"emperor in persian". India, Afghanistan, and Bangladesh from (c) Akbar (d) Humayun
1530 to 1540 and again from 1555 to
Q.365. After years of wandering Babur 1556. Sol.374.(b) Sher Shah Suri (1540-1545):
seized Kabul in_________. Administrative reforms - Introduction of
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening) Q.370. In 1539, the Battle of Chausa was Rupiya, Built Grand-Trunk Road, Staged
(a) 1501 (b) 1504 (c) 1503 (d) 1502 fought between Humayun and ______. Dak-Chowkis in Sarais.
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.365.(b) 1504. (a) Ibrahim Lodhi (b) Sher Shah Suri Q.375. The historical Sher-Shah Suri
(c) Sikandar Suri (d) Rana Sanga Marg runs between ___________.
Q.366. The famous monument, Aram SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning)
Bagh, was built by Babur. It is located in Sol.370.(b) Sher Shah Suri (Farid Khan, (a) Kanpur and Kanyakumari
__________.
1540-1545) - Founder of the Sur Empire, (b) Delhi and Manali
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
constructed the Grand Trunk Road, (c) Delhi and Amritsar
(a) Delhi (b) Uttar Pradesh
introduced the first Rupee (silver coin, (d) Lucknow and Kolkata
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Bihar
Rupia). He defeated Humayun in 1539
Sol.366.(b) Uttar Pradesh. Aram Bagh - and 1540 in the battle of Chausa and Sol.375.(c) Delhi and Amritsar. The
Built by Babur in 1528 in Agra. Kannauj respectively. Grand Trunk Road (formerly known as
Monuments Built by Babur: The avenue Uttarapath, Sarak-e-Azam and Badshahi
Q.371. Sher khan defeated Humayun in Sarak) - Part of National Highway (12, 27,
garden in Kabul, the Panipat Mosque and
df
the battle of Chausa and Kanauj and 19, 44, 3) in India.
the Kabuli Bagh Mosque.
forced him to flee to________.
_p
Q.367. Where was Babur buried for the Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Q.376. Humayun’s Tomb situated in Delhi
first time in 1530 ? (a) Turkey (b) Iraq (c) Iran (d) Uzbekistan is built by ______ .
na
Graduate Level 02/08/2022 ( Shift - 3 ) SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (1st Shift)
Sol.371.(c) Iran. Sher Khan, an ethnic (a) Gulbadan Begum (b) Biga Begum
(a) Kabul (b) Agra (c) Delhi (d) Fargana
ap
Pashtun, defeated Humayun in the (c) Hamida Begum (d) Maham Begum
Sol.367.(b) Agra. On December 26, 1530, battles of Chausa (1539) and battles of
:@
Babur died at Agra. His body was first Bilgram/Kannauj (1540), forcing Sol.376.(b) Biga Begum. The architect
laid at Arambagh in Agra but was later Humayun to flee to Iran. After these was Mirak Mirza Ghiyath.
taken to Kabul, where it was buried. victories, Sher Khan crowned himself
Q.377. Mirza Kamran was the brother of
TG
Farid al-Dīn Sher Shah and founded the
which of the following Mughal emperors?
Humayun and Sher Shah Suri Sur Dynasty.
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(a) Humayun (b) Akbar
on
Q.372. Which of the following cities was
Q.368. Who among the following was the built by Humayun in Delhi? (c) Jahangir (d) Shah Jahan
successor of Mughal Emperor, Babur? SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift)
ch
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.377.(a) Humayun and son of Babur
(a) Akbarabad (b) Dinpanah
(a) Shahjahan (b) Humayun and Gulrukh Begum. He came to India in
(c) Muhammadabad (d) Siri
ar
(c) Jahangir (d) Aurangzeb 1538.
Sol.372.(b) Dinpanah. Humayun’s
Se
Sol.368.(b) Humayun. Babur (Founder of Contribution to Architecture: Humayun's Akbar
Mughal emperor) was descended from Tomb (UNESCO World Heritage Site in
Timur and Genghis Khan. Mughal 1993) - It was built by his widow Biga Q.378. Akbar’s first expedition towards
emperors chronologically : Babur → Begum (Hajji Begum), Purana Quila Deccan was sent to Ahmednagar under
Humayun → Akbar → Jahangir → (Delhi) - Built as a part of the new city the leadership of Prince Murad and _____.
Shah-Jahan → Aurangzeb etc. Dinpannah. SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) Birbal
Q.369. As per the Timurid tradition, Q.373. In which State of India is Sher (b) Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan
Humayun had to share power with his Shah's Tomb located? (c) Adham Khan
brothers. Humayun had the control of SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift) (d) Man Singh
Delhi, Agra and Central India, while his (a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh
brother Kamran controlled which of the (c) Punjab (d) Bengal Sol.378.(b) Abdul Rahim Khan-i-Khanan.
following regions? Akbar was the third Mughal emperor, and
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.373.(a) Bihar (Sasaram). Tombs of
he ruled over India from 1556 to 1605.
(a) Afghanistan and Punjab Mughal Emperors - Gardens of Babur
(b) Deccan (Kabul, Afghanistan), Humayun's Tomb Q.379. Who was the revenue minister
(c) Gujarat and Rajasthan (New Delhi), Akbar's Tomb (Sikandra, during the reign of Akbar?
(d) Bengal and Bihar Uttar Pradesh), Tomb of Jahangir SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(Lahore, Pakistan), The Taj Mahal (Agra), (a) Todar Mal (b) Abdul Rahim
Sol.369.(a) Afghanistan and Punjab. Tomb of Aurangzeb (Ahmednagar). (c) Mulla Do-Piyaza (d) Tansen
Kamran Mirza was the second son of
Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire. Q.374. Who among the following Sol.379.(a) Todar Mal. Navratnas of
He was the brother of Humayun, who medieval rulers focused his attention on Akbar : Abul Fazl - Prime Minister and
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
chief advisor. Faizi - Education Minister. called ‘Din-e-Ilahi’. The theory of It was founded by Malik Raja Faruqi.
Birbal - Foreign Minister. Raja Man Singh Din-e-Ilahi means belief in one God. The Major military campaigns by Akbar - In
- Chief of Staff of Akbar’s Mughal Army. first initiated disciples of Din-i-Ilahi during 1568 the Sisodiya capital of Chittor was
Tansen - Culture Minister and Singer. emperor Akbar included Birbal, Prince seized and in 1569 Ranthambore.
Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana - Defence Salim, and Abul-Fazl ibn Mubarak.
Minister. Mullah Do Piyaza - Home Q.388. Jaimal and Patta were the
Q.384. Who amongst the following warriors who were given charge of
Minister. Fakir Aziao-Din - Religious
Mughal emperors got classical Hindu defending the fort of ______
Minister.
mythological texts Ramayana and SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q.380. After the death of Humayun, the Mahabharata translated into Persian ? (a) Raisen (b) Ajmer
13 year-old Akbar was coronated in 1556 SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift) (c) Udaipur (d) Chittor
at Kalanaur in ________. (a) Jahangir (b) Aurangzeb
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) Akbar (d) Shahjahan Sol.388.(d) Chittor. Siege of Chittorgarh
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (1567 - 1568) - It was a military
Sol.384.(c) Akbar was the 3rd Mughal expedition of the Mughal Empire under
(c) Bengal (d) Punjab
emperor (1556 to 1605). The Akbar against the Mewar kingdom that
Sol.380.(d) Punjab. Akbar was crowned Mahabharata was translated by Faizi and commenced in 1567 during which the
at Kalanaur on February 14, 1556, `Abd al-Qadir Bada'uni and named Mughals successfully captured the fort
following the sudden death of Humayun, Razmnama. Literature under the rule of of Chittorgarh.
who died after falling from the stairs of Akbar: Akbarnama (Autobiography of
the Dinpanah library. At just 13 years old, Akbar) and Ain-i-Akbari written by Q.389. Tansen, the music legend, was a
Akbar came to power under the guidance Abu'l-Fazl. courtier in which of the following courts
of his guardian, Bairam Khan. He later before coming to Akbar ?
df
Q.385. Which of the following SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
defeated Hemu in the Second Battle of
statements about Akbar are true? (a) Rewa (b) Benaras
_p
Panipat, securing control over Delhi.
1 He introduced the Mansabdari system. (c) Gandhara (d) Maghad
Q.381. Who among the following was 2 He defeated and merged the state of
na
one of the Navratnas of Akbar? Bijapur in his empire. Sol.389.(a) Rewa. Tansen was initially
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) 3 He made Fatehpur Sikri his capital. the court singer of King Ram Chand. His
ap
(a) Purandar Das (b) Swami Haridas SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) original name was RamaTanu Pandey.
(c) Tansen (d) Amir Khusro (a) All 1, 2, 3 (b) Only 1 and 3 Tansen was the title given to him by Raja
:@
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 2 Vikramjit of Gwalior.
Sol.381.(c) Tansen. Mian Tansen,
originally named Ramtanu Pandey is a Sol.385.(b) Only 1 and 3. The Q.390. During the reign of Akbar,
TG
legendary figure in Hindustani Classical Mansabdari system was a system of _________ was the land that has lain
Music. He is known as the "Sangeet ranking government officials and military fallow for three or four years.
Samrat," or "Monarch of Hindustani generals in the Mughal Empire, which SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (1st shift)
on
Music. was introduced by Emperor Akbar in (a) Parauti (b) Polaj (c) Chachar (d) Banjar
1571. Aurangzeb, the sixth Mughal
Q.382. Who among the following was the Sol.390.(c) Chachar. Parauti - The land
emperor (1658-1707), sent his armies to
ch
Vakil under the reign of Mughal Emperor kept out of cultivation temporarily in
conquer the Deccan Sultanates. He
Akbar, who received the title of order to recoup its lost fertility. Polaj -
annexed Bijapur in 1685 and Golconda in
ar
Khan-i-Khanan ? The ideal and best type of land
1687.
throughout the empire and it was
Se
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) Mulla do-Piyaza (b) Birbal Q.386. When Akbar introduced cultivated always and was never allowed
(c) Raja Todar Mal (d) Bairam Khan Mansabdari system, _______ was the to lie fallow.
lowest grade of Mansabdar.
Sol.382.(d) Bairam Khan. A prominent Q.391. Which of the following cities was
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Mughal noble and military commander (a) fifty (b) one hundred the first planned city of the Mughals?
who served as Akbar's regent and chief (c) ten (d) one thousand SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening)
minister during the early years of his (a) Mirzapur (b) Fatehpur Sikri
Sol.386.(c) Ten. The term mansabdar (c) Lucknow (d) Lahore
reign.
refers to an individual who holds a
Q.383. Which amongst the following mansab, meaning a position or rank. It Sol.391.(b) Fatehpur Sikri. It is located
statements is correct about Mughal was a grading system used by the near Agra in Uttar Pradesh. It was built by
emperor Akbar? Mughals to fix rank, salary and military the Mughal Emperor Akbar in the 16th
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) responsibilities. During Akbar's reign, the century. Fatehpur Sikri was built during
(a) He founded a new religion called lowest rank allotted was 10, and the 1571 and 1585. Fatehpur Sikri was
‘Din-e Ilahi’. highest was that of 10,000. declared as UNESCO World Heritage
(b) He fought and won the third battle of Sites in 1986.
Q.387. When was Khandesh merged into
Panipat against the Hindu King Hemu Q.392. When was the Battle of Tukaroi
the Mughal empire by Akbar ?
(c) He was declared emperor in 1602. fought where Akbar defeated the
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
(d) He was highly educated and knew Sultanate of Bengal and Bihar?
(a) 1595 (b) 1601 (c) 1597 (d) 1605
many languages. SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Evening)
Sol.387.(b) 1601. Khandesh was (a) 1564 (b) 1582 (c) 1575 (d) 1591
Sol.383.(a) He founded a new religion
situated in the Tapti valley, Maharashtra.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Sol.392.(c) 1575. The Battle of Tukaroi Q.397. As described in ‘Ain-i-Akbari’ by Timurid dynasty, and held administrative
(Battle of Bajhaura/ Moghalmari) - Abul Fazl-i-Allami, ‘gaz’ (unit of and military posts under his father Shah
Fought at Balasore (Odisha) in which measuring length) was divided into equal Jahan (1628 – 1658).
Akbar (Mughal Emperor) defeated Daud parts called ______.
Khan Karrani (Ruler of Bengal). The battle SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning) Q.402. Who succeeded in securing
led to the Treaty of Katak in which Daud (a) tassuj (b) liksha (c) rajahkan (d) angul trading concessions for the East India
Khan Karrani ceded the whole of Bengal Company from Mughal Emperor
and Bihar, retaining only Odisha. Sol.397.(a) tassuj. Jahangir?
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Q.393. _________ administration became Q.398. Who among the following issued (a) John Mildenhall (b) Captain Hawkins
the model followed by the great emperor Mahzarnama in 1579 ? (c) Captain Best (d) Thomas Roe
Akbar when he consolidated the Mughal SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Evening)
Empire. (a) Humayun (b) Jahangir Sol.402.(d) Thomas Roe was an English
SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (4th Shift) (c) Shah Jahan (d) Akbar diplomat sent by the East India Company
(a) Sher Shah Suri's in 1615. John Mildenhall was the first
Sol.398.(d) Akbar issued Mahzarnama in British explorer to make an overland
(b) Alauddin Khalji's 1579. It is a declaration that gives
(c) Muhammad Tughluq's journey to India. Captain William
authority to change the religious laws of Hawkins was an English sea captain who
(d) Genghis Khan's Islam. visited the court of Jahangir in 1608.
Sol.393.(a) Sher Shah Suri's. Although Q.399. Which Mughal emperor built the
the Suri dynasty ruled for only a short Q.403. Who among the following wrote
city called 'Makhsudabad' later popularly the biography of Jahangir known as
period i.e. 15 years, it introduced an known as Murshidabad?
administration that borrowed elements Iqbalnama-i Jahangiri?
df
SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Afternoon) SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Morning)
from Alauddin Khilji and made them (a) Bahadur Shah Zafar (b) Humayun (a) Mutamid Khan (b) Inayat Khan
_p
more efficient. (c) Akbar (d) Shah Jahan (c) Abdul Rahim Khan (d) Abul Fazl
Q.394. Ain-i Akbari, a document on life of
na
Sol.399.(c) Akbar. Murshidabad was Sol.403.(a) Mutamid Khan. He was in the
Mughal ruler Akbar does not contain named by Nawab Murshid Qulī Khan.
information about _________ court of Mughal Emperor Jahangir (4th
ap
Akbar (reign - 1556 - 1605) - Constructed Mughal ruler, 1605 to 1627). ‘Iqbalnama-i
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (4th Shift) Fatehpur Sikri (made it his capital in
(a) Revenues (b) Ancestors Jahangiri’ book was written in Persian
:@
1569), Started a new religion Din-i Ilahi and it covers the first 19 years of
(c) Army (d) Administration (1582), His biography titled Akbarnama Jahangir's reign. Inayat Khan wrote”
Sol.394.(b) Ancestors. Abul Fazl (Wrote by Abul Fazl). Shajahanama”. Abdul Rahim Khan
TG
(Akbar’s court historian) wrote a Q.400. In the context of Mughal translated “Babarnama” to the Persian
three-volume history of Akbar’s reign, administration, which of the following is language.
titled Akbar Nama. The first volume the most appropriate definition of
on
(Akbar’s ancestors), second volume Q.404. Sarai Nurmahal is a centrally
‘Abwab’? protected monument of India. It is
(events of Akbar’s reign) and The third SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Evening) situated in which state of India?
ch
(the Ain-i Akbari). Ain-i Akbari is divided (a) A clerk in the government treasury
into five volumes . SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Afternoon)
(b) A court jester (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) West Bengal
ar
Q.395. Ajmer became the suba (c) A tax levied on the lands over and (c) Punjab (d) Himachal Pradesh
above the original rent
Se
headquarters under the ______.
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift) (d) A reward for good governance Sol.404.(c) Punjab (Jalandhar). Shalimar
(a) Pallavas (b) Cholas Bagh, the Begum Shahi Mosque, and the
Sol.400.(c) A tax levied on the lands over Bachcha Taj are the monuments built by
(c) Mughals (d) Delhi Sultanate and above the original rent in Mughal the Jahangir (Fourth Mughal emperor).
Sol.395.(c) Mughals. Ajmer Subah - One India all temporary and circumstantial
of the original 12 subahs of Mughal taxes and impositions levied by the Q.405. Mehrunnisa married Emperor
Empire (1526 - 1858). It was established government over and above regular taxes Jahangir in ______.
during Akbar's administrative reforms of were called “abwab”. SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Morning)
1572–1580. The last Mughal - Bahadur (a) 1620 (b) 1602 (c) 1611 (d) 1603
Shah Zafar. Jahangir Sol.405.(c) In 1611, Jahangir married
Q.396. In which year was Kashmir Mehrunnisa who was known as Nur
Q.401. The Sisodiya ruler of Mewar,
annexed to the Mughal Empire by Akbar? Jahan (Light of World). She encouraged
Amar Singh, accepted Mughal service
Graduate Level 01/08/2022 (Shift - 4) Persian art and culture in the court.
during the reign of_________.
(a) 1586 (b) 1590 (c) 1592 (d) 1580 Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(a) Jahangir (b) Shah Jahan
Shah Jahan
Sol.396.(a) 1586. Military Conquests of
(c) Aurangzeb (d) Akbar
Akbar (Mughal Emperor, 1556-1605): Q.406. Identify the Mughal emperor who
Malwa (conquered in 1562), Gondwana Sol.401.(a) Jahangir. Amar singh was was imprisoned for the rest of his life in
region of central India (1564), Gujarat the eldest son and successor of Agra after the war of succession among
(1573), Mewar (1576), both Bihar and Maharana Pratap. Akbar (1556–1605). his sons.
Bengal (1576). Aurangzeb belonged to the aristocratic Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
(a) Aurangzeb (b) Bahadur Shah I by the Mughals in_______ in the north-west against the Yusufzai
(c) Shah Jahan (d) Jahandar Shah SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift) and the Sikhs were temporarily
(a) 1627 (b) 1632 (c) 1630 (d) 1635 successful.
Sol.406.(c) Shah Jahan (Mirza
Shahab-ud-din Baig Muhammad Khan Sol.411.(b) In 1632, during the period of Q.416. Under which of the following
Khurram). He was the fifth Mughal Shah Jahan, Ahmednagar was merged Mughal emperors were the Marathas a
emperor and reigned from 1628 to 1658. into the Mughal empire. Malik Ahmed major challenge to the sovereignty of the
Aurangzeb declared himself emperor in was the founder of Ahmednagar Mughals?
1658 and imprisoned Shah Jahan in Agra (Maharashtra), who established the Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Fort until his death in January 1666. Nizam Shahi dynasty. (a) Humayun (b) Aurangzeb
(c) Jahangir (d) Babur
Q.407. Who among the following was Q.412. Who among the following had
chosen by Shahjahan as his successor to been given the title of ‘Sultan Buland Sol.416.(b) Aurangzeb (Reign :
the Mughal throne? Iqbal’ by Shah Jahan? 1658-1707) - He was the sixth Mughal
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Morning) Emperor and also known as Zinda Pir
(a) Murad Bakhsh (b) Aurangzeb (a) Shuja (b) Murad (living saint), Fakir, and Darbesh. He gave
(c) Shah Shuja (d) Dara Shikoh (c) Dara (d) Aurangzeb the French permission to build a factory
in Surat in 1667.
Sol.407.(d) Dara Shikoh. The Battle of Sol.412.(c) Dara Shikoh (Eldest Son of
Deorai was fought between Aurangzeb Shah Jahan). Sultan Buland Iqbal (Prince Q.417. Under whose reign was the
and Dara Shikoh. It was fought in 1659. of High Fortune) - Title given on 10 maximum number of books in Persian on
Dara Shikoh was defeated by Aurangzeb September 1642. His works - Majma classical Indian Music written?
in this Battle. -ul-Bahrain (Mingling of Two Oceans), SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (2nd shift)
df
Sirr-i-Akbar (Great Mystery). He was (a) Shah Jahan (b) Jahangir
Q.408. Who among the following has executed in 1659 by Aurangzeb in the (c) Akbar (d) Aurangzeb
_p
written the ‘Badshah Nama’? war of succession.
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 Sol.417.(d) Aurangzeb (1658 - 1707). He
na
(a) Babur (b) Abdul Hamid Lahori Aurangzeb reimposed Jizya and Pilgrim tax in 1679
(c) Inayat Khan (d) Abul Fazl and ended the celebration of Navroz.
ap
Q.413. Which Mughal ruler was
Sol.408.(b) Abdul Hamid Lahori - A responsible for the execution of Guru Q.418. Which Mughal Emperor has
:@
historian and traveler who later became a Tegh Bahadur in the year 1675 ? attempted to vandalise the Kailash
court historian of Shah Jahan. “Badshah SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift) Temple at Ellora?
Nama” (Padshahnama) is the official (a) Jahangir (b) Akbar SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Evening)
TG
history of Shah Jahan. (c) Aurangzeb (d) Shahjahan (a) Aurangzeb (b) Humayun
(c) Shah Jahan (d) Babur
Q.409. The mausoleum of the Taj Mahal Sol.413.(c) Aurangzeb. Guru Tegh
was designed by ____________. Sol.418.(a) Aurangzeb {Alamgir, original
on
Bahadur was the ninth Sikh Guru, often
SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift) venerated as the ‘Protector of Humanity’ name MuḥI al-Din Muḥammad (1658 to
(a) Bhaktiyar Lahori (Srisht-di-Chadar) by the Sikhs. He 1707)} - He stopped music and alcohol in
ch
(b) Mohammad Isha founded Anandpur Sahib. the court and also the activities of
(c) Shah Jahan ‘jharokha’ (public audience).
ar
(d) Ustad Ahmad Lahori Q.414. Under whose rule did the Mughal
empire achieve its largest territorial Sikh Guru
Se
Sol.409.(d) Ustad Ahmad Lahori was the limits?
chief Mughal architect during the reign of SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) Q.419. Gurpurab is celebrated to
Shah Jahan. He was responsible for the (a) Shah Jahan (b) Bahadur Shah II commemorate the birthday of Guru
construction of the Taj Mahal in Agra and (c) Akbar (d) Aurangzeb Nanak dev ji. He was the _________ guru
the Red fort in Delhi. of Sikhs?
Sol.414.(d) Aurangzeb (1658 - 1707)
Q.410. The art of decoration, called SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift)
ascended the throne in 1658 after
Pietra dura became popular during (a) second (b) first (c) fourth (d) third
eliminating all competitors, including
whose reign? Dara Shukoh, Shuja, and Murad, in a war Sol.419.(b) First. Guru Nanak Dev, the
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (4th shift) of succession. founder of Sikhism, was born on April 15,
(a) Jahangir (b) Sher Shah Suri 1469, in Talwandi, now known as
(c) Shah Jahan (d) Akbar Q.415. Which Mughal rulers intervention
Nankana Sahib, Pakistan.
in the succession and internal politics of
Sol.410.(c) Shah Jahan. Pietra dura - An the Rathor Rajputs of Marwar led to their Q.420. After the death of Shri Guru
inlay technique using cut and fitted, rebellion? Gobind Singh, the Sikhs revolted against
highly polished colored stones to create Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) the ______ under the leadership of Banda
images. Some other buildings and (a) Aurangzeb (b) Babur Bahadur.
monuments by Shah Jahan:- Red Fort (c) Akbar (d) Shah Jahan SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Afternoon)
(Delhi), Jama Masjid (Delhi), Shish (a) Gurkhas (b) Mughals
Mahal (Agra) and Shalimar Bagh Sol.415.(a) Aurangzeb (1658-1707). His
(c) British (d) Marathas
(Lahore). Military Campaigns : In the north-east,
the Ahoms were defeated in 1663, but Sol.420.(b) Mughals. Guru Gobind Singh
Q.411. Ahmadnagar was finally annexed rebelled again in the 1680s. Campaigns is famous for his creation of the Khalsa
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
(Pure) , the military brotherhood of the Vishwanath. He was the Seventh Peshwa Q.428. Which of the following was the
Sikhs. (Prime Minister) of the Maratha Empire last dynasty of the Vijayanagara Empire?
and one of the greatest exponents of SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift)
Q.421. Who among the following Sikh Guerrilla tactics after Shivaji. Maratha (a) Tuluva dynasty (b) Saluva dynasty
spiritual gurus is said to have assisted families: Shindes (Gwalior), Holkars (c) Sangam dynasty (d) Aravidu dynasty
Khusrau, the rebellious son of Jahangir? (Indore), Gaikwads (Baroda), Bhosles
SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Morning) Sol.428.(d) Aravidu dynasty. The
(Nagpur), Peshwas (Poona).
(a) Guru Angad Dev (b) Guru Ramdas Vijayanagara Empire had four dynasties:
(c) Guru Amar Das (d) Guru Arjun Dev Q.425. Who among the following was a Sangama dynasty (1336-1485 CE),
famous ruler of the Maratha dynasty? Saluva dynasty (1485-1505 CE), Tuluva
Sol.421.(d) Guru Arjan Dev assisted SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (2nd Shift) dynasty (1505-1570 CE), Aravidu dynasty
Khusrau, the rebellious son of Jahangir. (a) Porus (1570-1646 CE).
He compiled the first official edition of (b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
the Sikh scripture called the Adi Granth, Q.429. Which of the following kings of
(c) Man Singh
which later expanded into the Guru Vijayanagara took the title of ‘establisher
(d) Prithviraj Chauhan
Granth Sahib. He completed the of the Yavana kingdom’?
construction of the Golden Temple in Sol.425.(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Amritsar. The Maratha Empire formerly existed (a) Vira Narasimha Raya
from 1674 with the coronation of (b) Achyuta Deva Raya
Q.422. Who among the following Sikh Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and ended in (c) Krishna Deva Raya
Gurus laid the foundation of ‘Khalsa 1818 with the defeat of Peshwa Bajirao II (d) Sada Siva Raya
Panth’ ? at the hands of the British East India
SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Afternoon) Sol.429.(c) Krishna Deva Raya : He
Company. Wars fought by Shivaji - Battle
df
(a) Guru Gobind Singh (b) Guru Arjan Dev founded a suburban township near
of Pratapgad (1659), Battle of Purandar
(c) Guru Teg Bahadur (d) Guru Nanak Dev Vijayanagar called Nagalapuram after his
_p
(1665), Battle of Sinhagad (1670), Battle
Mother. He wrote the epic Telugu poem
Sol.422.(a) Guru Gobind Singh laid the of Sangamner(1679), etc.
Amuktamalyada.
na
foundation of ‘Khalsa Panth’ on April 13,
1699, situated in Punjab. It is a name Vijaynagar Empire Q.430. The Vijayanagara empire included
ap
given to the religious structure and the people from different cultural regions.
community that manages the affairs of Q.426. The founders of Vijayanagar Which of the following regions was NOT
:@
the global Khalsa community. empire, Harihara and Bukka Raya were a part of it?
the ministers of: Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Maratha Empire SSC MTS 18/10/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Tamil (b) Karnataka
TG
(a) Kampili (b) Kadamba (c) Telugu (d) Maratha
Q.423. Twenty five percent of the land (c) Western Chalukya (d) Eastern Ganga
Sol.430.(d) Maratha. The Vijayanagara
revenue collected by Marathas in the
on
Sol.426.(a) Kampili. The Vijayanagara Empire primarily included the regions of
Deccan was __________ .
Empire was established in 1336 by the Tamil, Karnataka, and Telugu-speaking
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning)
brothers Harihara and Bukka Raya of the areas. Maratha region was ruled by the
ch
(a) Bhoga (b) Sardeshmukhi
Sangama dynasty, who belonged to the Yadava Dynasty and later the Bahmani
(c) Chauth (d) Bhaga
Yadava clan of the Chandravamsa Sultanate during Vijayanagara's peak.
ar
Sol.423.(c) Chauth - It was paid to the lineage. Between 1336 and 1565,
Vijayanagara was ruled by three different Q.431. What was the dominant source of
Se
Marathas in order to avoid the Maratha
dynasties: the Sangama, Saluva, and income in the Vijaynagar Empire?
raids. It was levied on the lands which
Tuluva dynasties. The last dynasty was SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
were under the nominal Mughal rule.
the Aravidu dynasty, which ruled until the (a) Mining (b) Industrial duty
Sardeshmukhi was an additional ten
seventeenth century. (c) Land revenue (d) Import duty
percent levy on lands on which the
Marathas claimed hereditary rights. Sol.431.(c) Land revenue. Vijayanagar
Q.427. Who among the following
Bhoga (Gupta period) refers to the tax on empire: Sources of income - Land
Portuguese travellers visited the
gifts, flowers, wood, fruits, etc. Bhaga Revenue, tributes, and gifts from vassals
Vijayanagar empire during the reign of
(Mauryan period) - Tax on agricultural and feudal chiefs, customs at ports.
Krishnadevaraya ?
land levied at the rate of 1/6th.
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.432. Who among the following
Q.424. Baji Rao I or Baji Rao Ballal was (a) Domingo Paes
Vijaynagar rulers married his daughter to
the son of ________. (b) Nicolo de Conti
Firuz Shah Bahmani?
SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Afternoon) (c) Ludovico de Varthema
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift)
(a) Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath (d) Athanasius Nikitin
(a) Deva Raya II (b) Deva Raya I
(b) Raghunath Rao (c) Krishna Deva Raya (d) Bukka I
Sol.427.(a) Domingo Paes. Foreign
(c) Shivaji
Travellers in India: Megasthenes, Greece Sol.432.(b) Dev Raya I. In 1406 -07, Firuz
(d) Madhav Rao
(Chandragupta Maurya); Deimachus, Shah the ruler of the Bahmani Sultanate,
Sol.424.(a) Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath Greece (Bindusara); Fa-Hien, China defeated Deva Raya-I, the ruler of the
(1713- 1720). He was the first of a line of (Chandragupta II); Niccolò de' Conti, Italy Vijayanagara Empire. Dynasty and Ruler:
hereditary Peshwas from the Bhat family. (Devaraya I); Fernao Nuniz (Achyuta Deve Sangama Dynasty - Harihara I and Bukka
Baji Rao I (1720-40) - Succeeded Balaji Raya). ; Saluva dynasty - Narasimha Deva Raya,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Thimma Bhupala, Narasimha Raya II. (c) ordinary peasants Sol.442.(a) Vijayanagar Empire
Tuluva dynasty- Krishnadeva Raya. (d) military commanders Architectural Wonders of Vijayanagara:
Queen’s Bath, Lotus Mahal, Elephant
Q.433. The founders of Vijayanagara Sol.438.(d) Military commanders. They stables, Royal platform, Water tanks.
Empire were the feudatories of which of were given territories to govern by the
the following dynasties? Raya and used to collect taxes and other Q.443. The Anantraj Sagar Tank was
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift) dues from the peasants, traders and built by the __________rulers.
(a) Hoysala (b) Pandya craftspersons of the area. Gramas SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(c) Kakatiya (d) Chola (villages), Gauda (village headman), (a) Vijayanagara (b) Maratha
Sthalas (sub districts), Nadus (districts), (c) Pala (d) Chola
Sol.433.(c) Kakatiya. {Mandalams or rajyas (provinces)}, Land
tax (sist). Sol.443.(a) The Vijayanagara empire
Q.434. The origin of 'Carnatic music' is built the Anantraj Sagar water storage
related to which of the following Q.439. While historians use the term tank using a 1.37 km long dam on the
Dynasties ? Vijayanagara Empire and contemporaries Maldevi river. Maldevi river runs through
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift) of this empire described it as the _______. the Nellore district in the Indian state of
(a) Bahamani (b) Chola SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 3rd shift) Andhra Pradesh and empties into the
(c) Pandya (d) Vijayanagar (a) Gajapati Samarajya Pennar river.
Sol.434.(d) Vijayanagar. Carnatic Music: (b) Karnataka Samrajyamu
Purandara Dasa - A poet-composer of (c) Andhra Samarajyu Wars and Treaties
Vijayanagar is the ‘Father of Carnatic (d) Sthalapati Samrajya
Q.444. Which Peshwa signed the treaty
Music’. Sol.439.(b) Karnataka Samrajyamu. of Bassein with the East India Company?
df
Vijayanagara Empire (1336 -1646) - SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
Q.435. Vijayanagara emperor
Established by Harihara and Bukka on
_p
Krishnadeva Raya founded a suburban (a) Raghunath Rao (b) Narayan Rao
the banks of river Tungabhadra. (c) Baji Rao II (d) Madhav Rao
township near Vijayanagara called
na
Nagalapuram after his __________. Q.440. Raichur doab, the land between Sol.444.(c) Baji Rao II. The Treaty of
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (4th shift) Krishna and Tungabhadra was a reason Bassein (1802): It was signed between
ap
(a) father (b) teacher (c) sister (d) mother of conflict between the kings of Lord Wellesley and Baji Rao II. Other
Vijayanagar and _________ . Treaty: Treaty of Surat (1775) was signed
Sol.435.(d) Mother.
:@
Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4) between Raghunath Rao and the British.
Q.436. The local communities of (a) Malwa (b) Golconda
The Treaty of Salbai (1782) was signed
merchants were known as _________ in (c) Bahamani (d) Bengal
between the Maratha Empire and the
TG
the Vijayanagara empire. Sol.440.(c) Bahamani . The Bahmani British East India Company.
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift) -Vijayanagar conflict started during the
(a) Rachavarus (b) Narapattis Q.445. Which king of Punjab signed a
period of HariHara Raya I. Both kingdoms
on
(c) Kudirai Chettis (d) Gajapattis tripartite treaty with Shah Shujah and the
wanted to control the fertile and rich
English Company ?
Raichur doab lying between rivers
Sol.436.(c) Kudirai Chettis (Horse SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
ch
Krishna and Tungabhadra.
merchants). Rachavarus (Rajulu) - (a) Ranjit Singh (b) Lal Singh
Associated with the ruling dynasty (rulers (c) Kharak Singh (d) Dileep Singh
ar
Q.441. Which battle led to the
and generals were actually Sudras). destruction of the Vijayanagara empire?
Sol.445.(a) Ranjit Singh. The Tripartite
Se
Narapati (Rayas) - Lord of Men. Gajapati - SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening)
lord of elephants. Treaty was signed by Shah Shujah, Ranjit
(a) Battle of Raichur
Singh and Lord Auckland (Governor
(b) Battle of Haldighati
Q.437. The 'Pattanulkars' migrated from -General of India) in 1838.
(c) Battle of Talikota
the Gujarat region to the Vijayanagar
(d) Battle of Arcot Q.446. In 1850, Kashmir was sold under
state. They Were ___________ .
SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 3rd shift) Sol.441.(c) Battle of Talikota which of the following treaties to the
(a) goldsmiths (b) cotton traders (Rakshasi–Tangadi) - It was fought on 23 Dogra dynasty of Jammu ?
(c) silk weavers (d) diamond makers January 1565 between the Vijayanagara SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Empire and an alliance of the Deccan (a) Treaty of Allahabad
Sol.437.(c) silk weavers. Important (b) Treaty of Sugauli
sultanates. Aliya Rama Raya (King of the
terms related to Medieval history:- (c) Treaty of Amritsar
Vijaynagar Empire) was defeated and
Bargir - Cavalrymen, Din - Religion, (d) Treaty of Purandar
killed in the battle, which eventually led to
Gomashta - Commercial agent, Shiqdar -
the political collapse of the Vijayanagara
Head of Administrative unit (Shiqq), Sol.446.(c) Treaty of Amritsar - It was
Empire. The Battle of Raichur - Fought
Subhas - Provinces, Zawabit - Secular executed by the British East India
between the Vijayanagara Empire and the
law. Company and Raja Gulab Singh of
Sultanate of Bijapur in 1520.
Jammu after the First Anglo-Sikh War.
Q.438. The Amara-Nayakas were Treaty of Allahabad : Signed in - 1765
Q.442. Provida style of architecture
in the Vijayanagara Empire. between the Mughal emperor Shah Alam
belongs to which empire?
SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 1st shift) II and Lord Clive of the British East India
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Evening)
(a) forced laborers Company. Treaty of Sugauli - signed
(a) Vijayanagar Empire (b) Gupta Empire
(b) finance officers (c) Mauryan Empire (d) Bahmani Empire between Nepal and the East India
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Company in 1815 and ratified by 4 March British East India Company led by Robert the invasion of which of the following
1816. Treaty of Purandar – Signed Clive and the Nawab of Bengal aggressors against India?
between Jai Singh I and Chhatrapati Siraj-ud-daula and his French allies. The SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Shivaji Maharaj in 1665. Battle of Sindhuli was part of the (a) Nadir Shah (b) Nasir Khan
unification of Nepal led by Prithvi (c) Ahmad Shah Abdali (d) Shah Shuja
Q.447. French possessions in India were Narayan Shah, King of Gorkha (later King
restored after the Battle of Wandiwash of Nepal). Battle of Tiruvannamalai Sol.454.(a) Nadir Shah. The Battle of
by the Treaty of __________ signed in the (1767) - Fought between the forces of Karnal - Fought between Nadir Shah
year 1763 between Britain and France. the East India Company and the Kingdom (Persian Empire of the Afsharid dynasty)
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) of Mysore, led by Hyder Ali. and Muhammad Shah (Mughal Emperor)
(a) Purandar (b) Paris in 1739. Nadir Shah emerged victorious
(c) Tordesillas (d) Surat Q.451. Which of the following in the battle. He took the famous Koh - i -
Anglo-Maratha wars resulted in merging Noor diamond and Shah Jahan's
Sol.447.(b) Paris. The Battle of the Peshwas' territories with the Bombay jewel-studded Peacock Throne. He was
Wandiwash was fought in Vandavasi, Presidency? the founder of the Afsharid dynasty of
Tamil Nadu between the French and the SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift) Iran.
British in 1760. This battle was part of (a) Fourth (b) Third (c) Second (d) First
the Third Carnatic War. The British Q.455. Who was the Mughal emperor
defeated the French. Sol.451.(b) Third (1817-1819). Anglo during the third battle of Panipat?
-Maratha war (The Great Maratha War) - SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (4th shift)
Q.448. The seven years of war in the The War was fought over territorial (a) Akbar II
18th century was fought between Britain disputes, political dominance, and (b) Shahalam II
and ________. control over resources. First (1775-1782) (c) Bahadur Shah I
df
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) - The Marathas won, Second (1803-1805) (d) Bahadurshah Jafar
(a) Germany (b) Portugal
_p
- The British won.
(c) France (d) Spain Sol.455.(b) Shahalam II (Ali Gauhar) -
Q.452. Mir Qasim name is associated Son of Alamgir II. Third Battle of Panipat
na
Sol.448.(c) France. The Seven Years’ with which of the following battles of (14 January, 1761): Between Maratha
War, which took place between India? Empires and Ahmad Shah Abdali.
ap
1756-1763, was a global conflict that SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift) (Victory - Ahmad Shah Abdali).
spanned five continents, though it was (a) Battle of Kirkee (b) Battle of Buxar
:@
known in America as the ‘French and (c) Battle of Plassey (d) Battle of Lahore Q.456. The Battle of Khatoli fought was
Indian War’. It solidified Britain’s stance in 1517 between the kingdom of Mewar
as the most dominant European country Sol.452.(b) Battle of Buxar (1764) : It under Rana Sanga and ______.
TG
in the world. Reason behind the Seven was fought between the forces of the SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening)
Years War - Both England and France British East India Company (led by (a) Sikander Lodi (b) Babur
wanted territories in North America. Hector Munro) and the combined army (c) Ibrahim Lodi (d) Mahmud Lodi
on
of an alliance of Shuja-ud-Daulah,
Q.449. Who was the Iranian ruler who Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II and Mir Sol.456.(c) Ibrahim Lodhi. The Lodi
attacked the city of Delhi and took away dynasty (1451 - 1526, an Afghan dynasty
ch
Qasim. The Treaty of Allahabad (1765)
an immense amount of wealth in 1739 ? was signed after this Battle. was the fifth and final dynasty of the
SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Delhi Sultanate.
ar
(a) Ahmad Shah Qajar (b) Nadir shah Q.453. The second Anglo-Mysore War
Q.457. In which of these battles the
Se
(c) Ahmad Shah Abdali (d) Abbas | came to an end by signing which of the
following treaties? involvement of the Mughal army was not
Sol.449.(b) Nadir Shah. Battle of Karnal SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift) there?
(1739) : Fought between - Nadir Shah (a) The Treaty of Arcot SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening)
and Muhammad Shah. Victory - Nadir (b) The Treaty of Madras (a) Battle of Haldighati
Shah easily outnumbered the Mughal (c) The Treaty of Wandiwash (b) Battle of Buxar
forces and the Mughal emperor (d) The Treaty of Mangalore (c) Second Battle of Panipat
surrendered. Nadir Shah took the famous (d) Battle of Aliwal
Kohinoor diamond from India and Shah Sol.453.(d) The Treaty of Mangalore
Jahan's jewel studded peacock from the (1784). The second Anglo-Mysore War Sol.457.(d) Battle of Aliwal (1846) -
throne. (1780 - 84) was fought by Hyder Ali, the British (led by Sir Harry Smith) defeated
Nizam and the Marathas against the Sikh forces (led by Ranjodh Singh
Q.450. Which of the following was the British. Anglo-Mysore Wars : First (1767 Majithia).
first major and decisive victory for the - 69) - Between Hyder Ali and the British,
East India Company on the soil of India? Q.458. Which of the given statements is
concluded with the Treaty of correct?
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Madras.Third (1790 - 92) - The British,
(a) Battle of Sindhuli I. When Alivardi Khan died in 1756,
the Nizam and the Marathas fought Siraj-ud-daulah became the nawab of
(b) First Anglo-Maratha War together against Tipu Sultan, concluded
(c) Battle of Plassey Bengal.
with the Treaty of Seringapatam. Fourth II. In 1757, Robert Clive led the
(d) Battle of Tiruvannamalai (1798 - 99) - Between Arthur Wellesley company’s army against Siraj-ud-daulah
Sol.450.(c) Battle of Plassey (1757). and Tipu Sultan (Died). at Plassey.
This battle was fought between the Q.454. The Battle of Karnal is known for SSC MTS 07/07/2022 (Afternoon)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
(a) Only II (b) Neither I nor II Sol.463.(c) British. After Malhar Rao II Sol.468.(b) Siraj-ud-Daula . The Treaty
(c) Only I (d) Both I and II was defeated in the battle of Mahidpur of Alinagar was signed on 9 February
(1817) the treaty of Mandsaur was 1757 between Robert Clive of the British
Sol.458.(d) Both I and II. Battle of signed. East India Company and the Nawab of
Plassey (23 June 1757) - Bengal (led by Bengal, Mirza Muhammad Siraj Ud Daula.
Siraj ud-Daulah - last independent Nawab Q.464. Which of the following battles did Based on the terms of the accord, the
of Bengal) annexed by the British East Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah fight, defeating Nawab would recognize all the
India Company (led by Robert Clive - First the forces under Henry Lawrence? provisions of Mughal Emperor
British Governor of the Bengal SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Evening) Farrukhsiyar farman of 1717.
Presidency). (a) Battle of Kintoor
(b) Battle of Saragarhi
Q.459. In which year did Tipu Sultan die (c) Battle of Chinhat
Miscellaneous
defending his capital Seringapatam? (d) Battle of Najafgarh
SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Afternoon) Q.469. The Dravidian style of temple
(a) 1799 (b) 1802 (c) 1792 (d) 1794 Sol.464.(c) Battle of Chinhat. In the architecture can be largely seen from
Battle of Chinhat, Barkat Ahmad was which part of India?
Sol.459.(a) 1799. He is known as Tiger declared Chief Army Officer of the rebels. SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
of Mysore. Tipu Sultan was inspired by The Battle of Chinhat was fought on the (a) Western India (b) Northern India
the Ideals of the French Revolution. Daria morning of 30 June 1857, between (c) Eastern India (d) Southern India
Daulat Bagh is known as Tipu Sultan’s British forces and Indian rebels.
Summer Palace. He was finally defeated Sol.469.(d) Southern India. Dravidian
at the hands of Lord Wellesley. Q.465. In the Battle of Swally (1612) the style of temple Features: Vimana,
British fought against the ______. Shikhara, Gopurams. Hindu temples can
df
Q.460. Who emerged victorious in ‘The SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Morning) be characterised under 3 broad
Siege of Arcot’ in 1751 AD ? (a) Danish (b) Portuguese categories - Nagara Style (northern
_p
SSC MTS 05/10/21 (Afternoon) (c) French (d) Dutch India), Dravida, and Vesara style
(a) French (b) Dutch (combination of both Nagara and
na
(c) Portuguese (d) British Sol.465.(b) Portuguese. The battle took Dravida, its superstructure is
place on 29–30 November 1612 off the bell-shaped).
ap
Sol.460.(d) British. The Siege of Arcot
coast of Suvali, a village near Surat city.
was the battle between British and Q.470. Diwan-I-Am, containing the
This relatively small naval battle is
:@
combined forces of French and Nawab marble canopy ornamented with
historically important as it marked the
of Arcot. Robert Clive captured the Arcot beautiful panels of pietra dura work, is a
beginning of the end of Portugal’s
after the battle. The war ended with the part of which monument?
commercial monopoly over India and the
TG
Treaty of Pondicherry in 1754 which SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
beginning of the ascent of the English
made Mohammad Ali Khan Walajah as (a) Bibi ka Makbara (b) Red Fort
East India Company’s presence in India.
Nawab of Arcot. (c) Taj Mahal (d) Humayun Tomb
on
Q.466. The Battle of Bedara was fought
Q.461. In which year was the Treaty of Sol.470.(b) Red Fort. The Diwan-i-Am
between the British Army and the Dutch
Versailles signed? (Hall of Public Audience) is part of the
Army in:
ch
SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Evening) Red Fort in Delhi. It is a significant
SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Afternoon)
(a) 1921 (b) 1919 (c) 1933 (d) 1940 structure that was used by the Mughal
(a) 1760 (b) 1759 (c) 1772 (d) 1764
ar
emperors for public meetings. Pietra
Sol.461.(b) 1919. The defeated Germany
Sol.466.(b) 25 November 1759, during
Se
dura is an Italian term that refers to a
after the First World War signed the
the Seven Years' War between a force of decorative art technique of inlaying cut,
Treaty of Versailles on 28 June 1919.
British troops mainly of the British East polished, colored stones into marble or
Q.462. Which of the following regions India Company and a force of the Dutch other hard surfaces to create images.
was annexed by the British East India East India Company.
Q.471. Which red and buff sandstone is
Company through the Treaty of Yandabo Q.467. The British annexed Punjab after the tallest tower in India built in the
(1826) ? defeating the Sikhs in the Anglo-Sikh War thirteenth century?
SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Morning) in the year ______. SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Assam (b) Kashmir SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Evening) (a) Shaheed Minar (b) Chand Minar
(c) Odisha (d) Ladakh (a) 1835 (b) 1839 (c) 1849 (d) 1845 (c) Jhulta Minar (d) Qutub Minar
Sol.462.(a) Assam. Treaty of Yandabo Sol.467.(c) 1849. This war resulted in Sol.471.(d) Qutub Minar (Delhi). It has a
was the peace treaty that resulted at the the fall of the Sikh Empire and The East diameter of 14.32 m at the base and
end of the First Anglo Burmese War. It India Company annexed Punjab and it about 2.75 m on the top with a height of
was signed between the British and became part of North West Frontier 72.5 m. Qutbu'd-Din Aibak laid the
Burmese. Province. foundation of Minar in AD 1199.
Q.463. In 1818, the Holkar Dynasty Q.468. Who signed the treaty of Alinagar Q.472. Which of the following
signed the Treaty of Mandsaur with the with the British? statements is/are correct temples of
______. SSC CGL 09/03/2020 (Afternoon) Khajuraho?
SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Evening) (a) Mir Qasim (b) Siraj-ud-Daula a) Equal importance is given to human
(a) Danish (b) Dutch (c) British (d) French (c) Alivardi Khan (d) Mir Jafar experience and spiritual pursuit.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
b) Jain and Hindu temples are also found SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Q.479. Who was the founder of the
at Khajuraho. (a) Isami (b) Hasan Nizami Bahmani Sultanate?
c) Chausanth Yogini temple is one of the (c) Ibn Batuta (d) Al Biruni SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift)
important temples here. (a) Muhammad Shah
SSC MTS 11/11/2024 (3rd Shift) Sol.475.(c) Ibn Battuta, a traveler from (b) Feroz Shah Bahmani
(a) All a, b and c (b) Only a and b Morocco, authored a book of travels (c) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
(c) Only c and a (d) Only b and c called Rihla, which is written in Arabic (d) Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah
and provides rich and fascinating details
Sol.472.(a) All a, b and c. Khajuraho’s about the social and cultural life in the Sol.479.(d) Alauddin Hasan Bahman
temples are also known for their subcontinent during the 14th century. Shah founded the Bahmani Sultanate in
extensive erotic sculptures. Khajuraho’s Muhammad Bin Tughlaq was the ruler of 1347. Its capital was Ahsanabad
sculptures are highly stylised with typical the Delhi sultanate when Ibn Batuta (Gulbarga) from 1347 to 1425, later
features. Notable examples include the came to India. The Sultan was impressed shifted to Muhammadabad (Bidar).
Kandariya Mahadeo temple, dedicated to by his scholarship, and appointed him
Lord Shiva, and the Lakshmana temple, the qazi or judge of Delhi. Q.480. Which State was founded by
dedicated to Vishnu. Nizam-ul-Mulk in 1724?
Q.476. Chand Bardai’s famous literary SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Q.473. The title of ‘Chief of the work ________, mentions Prithviraj (a) Mysore (b) Hyderabad
Merchants’ or ‘Malikut-Tujjar’ was Chauhan‘s love story and heroic deeds. (c) Bengal (d) Awadh
conferred on Mahmud Gawan by which SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
of the following Bahamani kings ? (a) Harakeli Nataka Sol.480.(b) Hyderabad. Nizam-ul-Mulk
SSC MTS 12/11/2024 (2nd Shift) (b) Abhidhana Chintamani Asaf Jah (Chin Qilich Khan) was one of
(a) Mohammad Shah the most powerful members at the court
(c) Prithviraj Raso
df
(b) Humayun Shah of the Mughal Emperor Farrukh Siyar. He
(d) Rajamartanda
(c) NizamuddinAhmad III was entrusted first with the governorship
_p
(d) Bahman Shah Sol.476.(c) Prithviraj Raso. It is a Braj of Awadh, and later given charge of the
language epic poem about the life of Deccan.
na
Sol.473.(b) Humayun Shah. Mahmud
Prithviraj Chauhan. Other Ancient Books
Gawan (Khawaja Mahmud Gilani), a Q.481. Under the Bahmani kingdom, the
and Authors : ‘Ain-i-Akbari’ - Abul Fazl,
ap
Persian trader who arrived in Deccan, provinces were administered by_______
‘Mahabharata’ - Vyasa, ‘Ramayana’ -
rose to prominence in the Bahmani SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Valmiki, ‘Shakuntala’ - Kalidasa, and
:@
kingdom. Under Humayun Shah's reign, (a) Amirs (b) Afaquis
‘Mudrarakshas’ - Vishakhadatta.
he was appointed as Prime Minister with (c) Khalisa (d) Tarafdars
complete control over military affairs and Q.477. Who among the following rulers
TG
received the title 'Malik-ut-Tujjar' (Chief of Sol.481.(d) Tarafdars. The Bahmani
built five astronomical observatories at
Merchants). Kingdom, established in 1347 by
different places in north India?
Ala-ud-din Hassan Bahman Shah after
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
on
Q.474. Match the following books with revolting against the Delhi Sultanate. It
(a) Sawai Mansingh
their respective authors. was divided into four administrative
(b) Maharana Pratap
Book Author regions known as "taraf." These regions
ch
(c) Sawai Jaisingh II
a) Tajul Ma'asir i) Yahya bin Ahmad included Daulatabad, Bidar, Berar, and
(d) Madho Singh
Sirhimdi Gulbarga, each governed by a tarafdar or
ar
b) Khazain-ul Futuh ii) Hasan Nizami Sol.477.(c) Sawai Jaisingh II founded subedar.
Se
c) Tarikh-i-Firuzshahi iii) Ziauddin Barani the city of Jaipur on 18 November 1727
Q.482. Who among the following is
d) Tarikh-i- iv) Amir Khusrav AD. He was appointed the Subedar
known as Tuti-e-Hind ?
Mubarakshahi (governor) of Agra in 1722. He
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) established five Jantar Mantar
(a) Surdas (b) Tansen
(a) a-iii; b-i; c-iv; d-ii (b) a-ii; b-iv; c-iii; d-i observatories, located in Delhi, Jaipur,
(c) Amir Khusro (d) Naubat Khan
(c) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii (d) a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv Ujjain, Mathura, and Varanasi.
Sol.482.(c) Amir Khusro is one of India's
Sol.474.(b) a-ii; b-iv; c-iii; d-i. Some Q.478. Which of the following dynasties’
greatest Persian-language poets. His
other ancient books and their authors : genealogy was found in the Bijolia
books - Tughlaq Nama, Khazain-ul-Fatuh.
‘Akbar-Namah’ - Abul Fazal, inscription?
Other writers: Surdas - Sur Sagar,
‘Buddhacharita’ - Ashvaghosha, ‘Prithviraj SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift)
Sur-Saravali. Tansen -
Raso’ - Chand Bardai, ‘Geet Govinda’ - (a) Gahadavala (b) Parmara
Tashrih-ul-moosiqui.
Jaidev, ‘Rajtarangini’ - Kalhana, (c) Chandela (d) Chahamana
‘Kumarasambhavam’ - Kalidasa, Q.483. Which of the following forts was
Sol.478.(d) Chahamana. Bijoliya
‘Ashtadhyayi’ - Panini, and ‘Mahabhasya’ - built by Raja Rai Singh in 1588?
Inscription reveals that Chauhans are
Patanjali. Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Vats Gotriya Brahman. This inscription
(a) Junagarh Fort (b) Amer Fort
Q.475. According to which of the provides information about the names of
(c) Sonar Kila (d) Kumbhal Garh
following foreign travellers, people of Jabalipur, Shakmbhari, Srimal. An
Delhi used to write letters containing inscription of Vikram Samvat 1226 Sol.483.(a) Junagarh Fort. It is located in
abuses to the Sultan, therefore, in order Falgun Krishna Tritiya is inscribed on a Bikaner, Rajasthan. It was originally
to punish them Sultan decided to shift rock near the northern wall of the ancient called Chintamani and later renamed to
the capital? Parshvanath temple located in Bijolia. mean "Old Fort." Amer Fort: It is situated
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
in Amer near Jaipur, was initially built by Q.488. Select the INCORRECT pair of a Q.492. Who composed 'Shahnama" ?
Raja Man Singh and expanded by Sawai famous minaret and its construction year SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift)
Jai Singh. Kumbhalgarh Fort: It is located in India. (a) Abdulla (b) Alberuni
in Rajsamand district, was constructed SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) (c) Ferdowsi (d) Utbi
by Rana Kumbha in the 15th century, with (a) Shaheed Minar–1828 CE
chief architect Mandan showcasing his (b) Char Minar–1664 CE Sol.492.(c) Ferdowsi (Court poet of
style in Raja Vallabh. (c) Chand Minar–1435 CE Mahmud of Ghazni) - A Persian poet and
(d) Jhulta Minar–1452 CE the author of Shahnameh ("Book of
Q.484. After the breakup of the Bahmani Kings''), which is one of the world's
kingdom, how many independent states Sol.488.(b) Char Minar–1664 CE. It was longest epic poems created by a single
arose? built by Sultan Mohammed Quli Qutb poet, and the greatest epic of
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning) Shah in 1591. It was built in honour of his Persian-speaking countries.
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 5 wife, Bhagmati in Hyderabad. Shaheed
Minar: It was built in the memory of Q.493. Malik Ambar, who resisted
Sol.484.(d) 5. After the death of Major-general Sir David Ochterlony, Mughals in Deccan, was an able
Muhammad Shah-III (ruler) in 1482, the commander of the British East India administrator of which state?
Kingdom was disintegrated into five Company. SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (1st shift)
kingdoms: Bijapur, Ahmednagar, Bera, (a) Bidar (b) Bijapur
Golconda and Bidar. Q.489. What did the term 'bhoga' refer to (c) Golconda (d) Ahmednagar
during the medieval period?
Q.485. Who among the following SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift) Sol.493.(d) Ahmednagar. Malik Ambar
Bahmani sultans transferred his capital (a) Revenue assignments was an African-origin statesman and
from Gulbarga to Bidar? (b) Donations to temples military leader who served as the regent
df
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) (c) A festival of the Nizam Shahi dynasty in the
(a) Ahmad Shah (b) Humayun Deccan, of Ahmednagar (now part of
_p
(d) Religious function
(c) Mujahid Shah (d) Firuz Shah Maharashtra).
Sol.489.(a) Revenue Assignment. Other
na
Sol.485.(a) Ahmad Shah (1422-1435). Type of Tax : Kara - It was a generic term Q.494. The Imadshahi family was known
Bahmani sultanate was established by used for taxes. Hiranya - Tax on special for the foundation of which state?
ap
Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah (Zafar produce taken in cash. Chat - Security SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (1st shift)
Khan) in 1347. Bahmani kingdom Tax. Prataya -Toll Tax. (a) Berar (b) Bidar
:@
comprises the parts of the current day’s (c) Ahmednagar (d) Golkonda
Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Andhra Q.490. Joseph Francois Dupleix was the
Pradesh. Governor General of which of the Sol.494.(a) Berar (Maharashtra). Imad
TG
following East India companies in India? Shahi Dynasty: Established by - Fathullah
Q.486. Europeans entered India with a SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift) Imad Ul Mulk (1490). He fortified
mindset of trading only. This streak was (a) Dutch (b) French Gavilgad and Narnala. Berar Sultanate
on
initiated by which of the following (c) English (d) Portuguese was annexed by Sultan Murtaza Shah of
European nations ? Ahmednagar Kingdom in 1574. Capital -
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.490.(b) French (Last European to Ellichpur.
ch
(a) Dutch (b) French arrive in India). Governor-General Dupleix
(c) British (d) Portuguese was appointed in 1742. French East India Q.495. In the 15th century, a text called
ar
Company : Established in - 1664. The _____ is ascribed popularly to Lochan Kavi.
Sol.486.(d) Portuguese - They were the SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Se
First French Factory - Surat (1668),
first Europeans to come to India by Sea Second Factory - Masulipatam (1669), (a) Hridayprakash (b) Sangeet Darpan
routes in 1498, led by Vasco da Gama at Headquarters - Pondicherry. Europeans (c) Anup Vilas (d) Raag Tarangini
Calicut (Kerala). European nations in India - Portuguese (1498), Dutch
arrived in India after Portuguese: Dutch, Sol.495.(d) Raag Tarangini - Initiated an
(1602), British (1608), Danes (1616). alternative system of the division of rags,
English, Danish, and French. The
Portuguese were also the last to leave Q.491. Rajaram was the leader of which 'the Thaat system'. Lochan Kavi (Lochan
India in 1961. of the following revolts against the Panḍit) belonged to the Mithila region
Mughlas? (Bihar). “Sangeet Darpan” was written by
Q.487. Who succeeded Alivardi Khan as SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift) Damodar Pandit. “Anup Rag Vilas” is
Nawab of Bengal ? (a) Satnami (b) Bundela written by Kumar Gandharva.
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) (c) Jat (d) Munda
(a) Shaukat Jang (b) Siraj-ud-Daulah Q.496. Who founded the independent
(c) Mir Kasim (d) Mir Jaffar Sol.491.(c) Jat revolt (Mathura). In 1669 State of Bengal?
CE against Aurangzeb. Satnami revolt SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (4th shift)
Sol.487.(b) Siraj-ud-Daulah (Reign: 1756 (1672) - The Satnamis were a sect (a) Alivardi khan (b) Murshid Quli Khan
-1757) - Last independent Nawab of comprising peasants, artisans and (c) Sarafraz Khan (d) Shuja-ud-Din
Bengal. Alivardi Khan - Nawab of Bengal untouchables who rebelled against the
from 1740 to 1756. He is known for his Sol.496.(b) Murshid Quli Khan (Zamin Ali
Aurangzeb in Narnaul (Haryana).
victory during the battle of Burdwan Quli) was born as Surya Narayan Mishra;
Bundela Rebellion (1842) - Jawahar
against Maratha Empire during the the first Nawab of Bengal (1717 to 1727).
Singh Bundela of Chandrapur and
Maratha invasion of Bengal. Mir Qasim - He built the Katra Masjid (1723-1724)
Madhukar Shah of Narhat were the
Nawab of Bengal (1760-1763). where he was buried after his death.
leaders of the revolt.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.497. Who among the following was the Sol.501.(a) Dark Schist Stone. The (c) Chanting (d) Ritual
Maharana of Mewar and composed a temples were known for its pillared hall
book on music called 'Sangeet Raj' ? and stellate plan. Capital of Hoysala - Sol.506.(a) Dancing. Medieval Terms
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (1st shift) Dorasamudra (Dwarasamudra). and Meaning: Amils (Revenue), Bargir
(a) Maharana Sanga (Cavalrymen), Daam (Coin), Dhimmis
(b) Maharana Pratap Q.502. Udaipur was founded by _________ (Non-Muslims people), Din (Religion),
(c) Maharana Kumbha after the fall of Chittor to Akbar in 1568. Diwan (Function of finance), Wilayat (The
(d) Maharana Udai Singh SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Afternoon) spiritual territory of a Sufi).
(a) Sawai Jai Singh (b) Raja Bharmal
Sol.497.(c) Maharana Kumbha (c) Man singh (d) Rana Udai Singh Q.507. Bhakti saints, Nayanars were
(1433-1468 AD) belonged to the Sisodia devotees of which of the following gods?
clan of Rajputs. Titles of Maharana Sol.502.(d) Rana Udai Singh. Udaipur is SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Morning)
Kumbha: Abhinav Bhattacharya, Rajguru, known as 'Venice of the East' and the city (a) Murugan (b) Shiva (c) Vishnu (d) Indra
Daanguru, Halguru, Rano Raso. of lakes.
Sol.507.(b) Shiva. The Nayanars were a
Q.498. Name the Bhakti Saint from South Q.503. Which architectural style of India group of 63 saints devoted to Lord Shiva
India who was initially a Jaina and a was distinguished by the use of who lived during the 6th to 8th centuries
minister in the court of a Chalukya king in overhanging balconies and arched CE. The Alwars were Tamil poet-saints of
the twelfth century. cornices? South India who espoused devotion to
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift) SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Evening) Lord Vishnu.
(a) Karaikkal Ammaiyar (a) Rajput (b) Sikh (c) Nagar (d) Mughal
Q.508. Which among the following forts
(b) Basavanna
Sol.503.(a) Rajput. The Rajput fort ‘Hawa was principal capital of Qutb Shahi
(c) Eknath
df
Mahal’ (Jaipur) is an example of Rajput dynasty in Hyderabad?
(d) Tallapaka Annamacharya
Architecture. Hawa Mahal was built by SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (1st Shift)
_p
Sol.498.(b) Basavanna - Founder of Maharaja Sawai Pratap Singh in Jaipur. (a) Chiktan Fort (b) Rajgad Fort
Lingayatism; Prime minister of Sikh Style - The Harimandir Sahib (c) Red Fort (d) Golconda Fort
na
Kalachurya king Bijjala (1157-1167); (Golden Temple). Mughal Style - Taj
Founded the Anubhava Mantapa. Mahal, Humayun’s Tomb, Agra Fort. Sol.508.(d) Golconda Fort - It was built
ap
by the Kakatiya Dynasty. It was the
Q.499. The eleventh century structure of Q.504. Ananga Pala was a ruler of which principal capital of the Qutb Shahi
:@
Bhojshala in the state of Madhya dynasty ? dynasty in Hyderabad. Rajgad Fort -
Pradesh was constructed under the SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Evening) Pune ( Maharashtra). Chhatrapati Shivaji
patronage of which dynasty? (a) Rajput Dynasty renovated this fort and made it his
TG
Graduate Level 27/06/2023 ( Shift - 4) (b) Gurjara-Pratihara Dynasty capital in 1674 AD. Chiktan Fort - Kargil
(a) Chandela (b) Paramara (c) Pallava Dynasty (Ladakh).
(c) Nanda (d) Gurjara-Pratihara (d) Khilji Dynasty
Q.509. Which of the following books was
on
Sol.499.(b) Paramara. 'Bhojshala' is an Sol.504.(a) Rajput Dynasty - It was written by the Roman writer Pliny the
ancient and the only temple of Mata founded by Simharaj, who is famously elder?
ch
Saraswati. It is located in Dhar district of known as the founder of the city of SSC CGL Tier II (03/03/2023)
Madhya Pradesh. The Paramara dynasty Ajmer. Ananga Pala - He was a king of (a) Indica
ar
(Rajput) ruled Malwa and the adjacent the Tomara dynasty, who ruled over (b) Natural History
regions in west-central India from the 9th areas of Delhi in India. (c) Geographica
Se
century to the 14th century. Founder - (d) Periplus of the Erythraean Sea
Upendra or Krishnaraja. Q.505. The Ahom Kingdom in India was
located in the _______. Sol.509.(b) Natural History. Important
Q.500. In which of the following places is SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning) Books and Authors: “Gathasaptashati” -
the Tomb of Ahmad Shah Al Wali (a) Chota Nagpur plateau Hala, “Indica” - Megasthenes,
Bahmani built ? (b) Vindhayas “Geographica” - Strabo, “Periplus of the
Graduate Level 30/06/2023 ( Shift - 1) (c) Brahmaputra valley Erythraean Sea:” - William H Schoff,
(a) Fatehpur Sikri (b) Agra (d) Coastal Odisha “Kathasaritsagara” - Somadeva,
(c) Ashtoor (d) Ajmer “Mudrarakshasa” - Vishakhadatta,
Sol.505.(c) Brahmaputra valley. “Rajtarangini” - Kalhana.
Sol.500.(c) Ashtoor. Ahmed Shah Al Wali Chaolung Sukapha founded the Ahom
Bahamani (1422 to 1436, Bahmani kingdom (13th century) that ruled Assam Q.510. Which of the following cities
Sultanate) - Ashtoor is an important for six centuries. It was annexed by became the capital of Bengal in 1704 ?
center of Indo-Saracenic monuments. British India in 1826 with the signing of SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (4th Shift)
Twelve imposing mausoleums are the Treaty of Yandaboo. Lachit (a) Howrah (b) Murshidabad
located at Ashtur east of Bidar. Borphukan (military general of Ahom (c) Kharagpur (d) Kolkata
kingdom) defeated mughal forces in the
Q.501. The Hoysaleshvara temple was Sol.510.(b) Murshidabad. Murshid Quli
Battle of Saraighat 1671.
built with which of the following stones Khan (Zamin Ali Quli) transferred his
by a Hoysala king in 1150? Q.506. What did the medieval term capital to the then Mukhsusabad later
Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1) "Raqs" mean ? came to be known after Murshid Quli
(a) Dark Schist Stone (b) White Marble SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Evening) Khan as Murshidabad in 1704 A.D.
(c) Sandstone (d) Grey Basalt (a) Dancing (b) Singing Murshidabad (West Bengal) on the banks
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
of the Bhagirathi became the center of (a) Henry Irwin Q.518. Who among the following was
silk. Murshid Quli Khan (1717-1727) was (b) William Emerson given the title of ‘Uttarapatha Swamin’ ?
the first Nawab of Bengal. (c) Frederick William Stevens SSC MTS 15/07/2022 (Afternoon)
(d) Edwin Lutyens (a) Mahipala (b) Devapala
Q.511. Which of the following statement (c) Dharmapala (d) Gopala
is correct with respect to the Prashastis Sol.514.(a) Henry Irwin. Mysore Palace
and land grants? (also known as Amba Villas) is a Sol.518.(c) Dharmapala assumed the
I. Prashastis were composed by learned historical palace at Mysore in Karnataka. title of Uttarapatha Swamin, Parama
Brahmanas. It was the official residence of the Bhattaraka, Paramesvara, and
II. Kings often rewarded Brahmanas by Wadiyar dynasty. Mysore Palace was Maharajadhiraja. He was the successor
grants of land which were recorded on constructed in Indo-Saracenic style of Gopala (founder of the Pala empire).
copper plates. architecture. He was a pious Buddhist. He founded
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (1st Shift) Vikramshila University in Bhagalpur,
(a) Only I (b) Both I and II Q.515. The Vimana in the Dravidian style Bihar.
(c) Only II (d) Neither I nor II of temple architecture is usually in which
shape? Q.519. Who was the ruler of Mysore in
Sol.511.(b) Both I and II. Prashastis Higher Secondary 01/08/2022 (Shift - 3) 1761 ?
(metal plates) were written by Brahmans (a) Semi-Circular (b) Cylindrical SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Afternoon)
in Sanskrit or any regional language. (c) Pyramidal (d) Rectangular (a) Baji Rao (b) Murshid Quli Jafar Khan
They have been written in the 1st (c) Hyder Ali (d) Nizam-ul-Mulk
millennium and onwards in the form of Sol.515.(c) Pyramidal. Gopuram
(entrance gateway in the center of the Sol.519.(c) Hyder Ali. In 1769, he
prose or poetry. Example: Allahabad
front wall). Antarala (vestibular tunnel), defeated the British forces several times
Pillar Inscription Sanskrit poem (by
df
garbhagriha (the innermost sanctuary of and reached the Madras walls. In the
Harishena in praise of King
a Hindu and Jain temple). Famous second Anglo-Mysore War, he died in
_p
Samudragupta). Agrahara (Agraharam,
Dravidian Temples - Rajarajeswara or 1782 and was succeeded by his son
Ghatoka, Boya) refers to the land, village,
Brihadeshwara temple (Rajaraja Chola at Tipu.
na
or fields that were given to Brahmans.
Thanjavur), Gangaikondacholapuram
Q.520. In 1590, the Govind Deva temple
Q.512. The craftspersons of Bidar were temple (Rajendra I), Annamalaiyar
ap
of Vrindavan, near Mathura was
so famed for their inlay work in ______. Temple (Tiruvannamalai, Tamil Nadu),
constructed from ______ sandstone.
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift) Meenakshi Temple (Tamil Nadu),
:@
SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Morning)
(a) Gold and Bronze (b) Bronze and Silver Airavatesvara Temple (Tamil Nadu) etc.
(a) yellow (b) black (c) white (d) Red
(c) Gold and Copper (d) Copper and Silver
Q.516. Consider the following
TG
Sol.520.(d) Red. The Govind Deva temple
Sol.512.(d) Copper and Silver. Work of statements about a fort:
was built by the king of Jaipur, Man
Bidar (Karnataka) craftsperson called 1. It was originally known as Mankal.
Singh, in 1590 in Vrindavan in Uttar
BIdri. Bidar was the capital of Bahmani 2. It was built on a hilltop in 1143.
Pradesh.
on
Kingdom in the 14th century. Bidar fort In the above mentioned sentences, forts
was built by Ahmad Shah Wali Bahman. is being talked about? Q.521. The book ‘Man Kautuhal’ was
ch
Bidar is also considered one of the SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Evening) compiled by which of the following kings
holiest places for Sikh pilgrimage. (a) Chitradurg Fort (b) Daulatabad Fort of Medieval India?
ar
(c) Fort Aguada (d) Golconda Fort SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Morning)
Q.513. In 1342, one of the nobles, Haji
(a) Raja Mansingh Tomar
Se
Ilyas Khan united Bengal and became its Sol.516.(d) Golconda fort (Hyderabad;
(b) Krishna II
ruler under the title of __________and laid Built by the Qutb shahi dynasty).
(c) Parantaka Viranarayana
the foundation of the Ilyas Shah dynasty. Chitradurga fort (Karnataka; built by the
(d) Rajashekhara Varman
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning) Chalukyas and Hoysalas, later the
(a) Shams-ud-din Iliyas Shah Nayakas of Chitradurga of the Sol.521.(a) Raja Mansingh Tomar. He
(b) Ghiyasuddin Azam Vijayanagar Empire. Daulatabad fort was the ruler of Gwalior. He was a patron
(c) Sultan Abu al-Mujahid (Maharashtra; built by Yadava dynasty), of the Dhrupad genre from Hindustani
(d) Sultan Sayf ad-Din and Aguada Fort (Goa; built by Classical Music. He built Gwalior fort
Portuguese). (Gujari Mahal and Man Mandir Palace).
Sol.513.(a) Shams-ud-din Ilyas Shah The founder of the Tomar dynasty in
{(founder of Bengal Sultanate and Ilyas Q.517. The ancient Neemrana Baori is India was Anangapala I.
Shahi dynasty (First dynasty of Bengal)}. located in which of the following districts
Dynasties of Bengal Sultanate - Ilyas of Rajasthan? Q.522. King Lalitaditya Muktapida ruled
Shahi (1342-1415), Ganesha (1414 SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Evening) over ______.
-1435), Restorer of Ilyas Dynasty (a) Ajmer (b) Alwar (c) Bikaner (d) Jaipur SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Evening)
(Nasiruddin Mahmud Shah-I, 1435 (a) Gujarat (b) Sikkim
-1487), Habshi rule (Shahzada Barbak, Sol.517.(b) Alwar. Famous Baori in India (c) Kerala (d) Kashmir
1487-1494) and Hussain Shahi dynasty - Chand Baori (Rajasthan), Agrasen Ki
Baoli (New Delhi), Rani ki Vav (Gujarat), Sol.522.(d) Kashmir. Aḥmad Shah I was
(Alauddin Hussain Shah - 1494-1519).
Pushkarani (Karnataka), Baoli Ghaus Ali the first independent sultan of Gujarat,
Q.514. Who was the architect of the Shah (Haryana), Mata Bhavani ni Vav who founded Ahmedabad (1411).The
famous Mysore Palace in Karnataka? (Gujarat), Rajon ki Baoli (New Delhi), Chogyal (king who governs with
Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Surya Kund (Gujarat). righteousness) Palden Namgyal Thodup
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
was crushed in 1975 and Sikkim merged Rang Ghar, constructed by the Ahom SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Morning)
with India as its 22nd state. King King Swargadeo Promotta Singha. (a) Alfred Foucher (b) HH Cole
Mahabali ruled over Kerala. (c) John Marshall (d) Rajendra Lal Mitra
Q.528. Who among the following was the
Q.523. Chandannagar was established founder of the Bhakti sect named Sol.533.(b) HH Cole. He was a British
as a French colony in 1673, obtaining 'Pushtimarg'? civil servant and inventor who facilitated
permission from______ the then Nawab SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Morning) many innovations in commerce and
of Bengal, to establish a trading post on (a) Vallabhacharya (b) Kabir Education.
the right bank of the river Hooghly. (c) Shankaracharya (d) Ramanuja
SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Evening) Q.534. Who among the following was a
(a) Mansur Ali Khan Sol.528.(a) Vallabhacharya founded the Portuguese writer who wrote about the
(b) Murshid Quli Khan Krishna-centered PushtiMarg sect of trade and society in South India?
(c) Ibrahim Khan Vaishnavism in the Braj region of India, SSC CHSL 10/08/2021 (Morning)
(d) Mir Zafar and the philosophy of Shuddha advaita (a) Niccolao Manucci
(Pure Nondualism). Pushtimarg is a form (b) Francois Bernier
Sol.523.(c) Ibrahim Khan. French of Krishna worship for adoration. (c) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
Colonies In India- Pondicherry, Karaikal, (d) Duarte Barbosa
Yanam (Andhra Pradesh) on the Q.529. Who among the following was the
Coromandel Coast, Mahe on the Malabar founder of the Suryavamsi Gajapati Sol.534.(d) Duarte Barbosa was the
Coast and Chandernagor in Bengal. dynasty that ruled parts of Orissa and Portuguese writer who visited India
Andhra Pradesh in the 15th century? during (1500-1516) and wrote about the
Q.524. Hafiz (Hafez) was a ______ SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Morning) trade and society in South India in his
century poet whose collection of poems (a) Bhanu Deva (b) Vasu Deva manuscript, ‘The Book of Duarte
df
is known as 'Diwan' or 'Diwan-e-Hafiz'. (c) Surendra Deva (d) Kapilendra Deva Barbosa’.
SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Morning)
_p
(a) 14th (b) 15th (c) 16th (d) 17th Sol.529.(d) Kapilendra Deva was the Q.535. Who among the following was the
founder of the Suryavamsi Gajapati first Portuguese viceroy of India?
na
Sol.524.(a) 14th-century '. Hafez was an dynasty that ruled parts of Orissa and SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
Iranian poet. His collection of poems Andhra Pradesh in the 15th century (a) Alfonso de Albuquerque
ap
‘Diwan’ is in Persian language. Most of (1434–66 CE). (b) Duarte de Menezes
the parts of ‘Diwan’ are Ghazals. (c) Francisco de Almeida
:@
Q.530. Who among the following was the (d) Lopo Soares de Albergaria
Q.525. In the context of Sufi traditions, Nizam of Hyderabad in 1947?
what is the meaning of the word 'sama'? SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Morning) Sol.535.(c) Francisco de Almeida was
TG
SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Evening) (a) Mir Mahbub Ali Khan (b) Osman Ali the first Portuguese viceroy of India in
(a) recitation of sacred songs (c) Akbar Ali Khan (d) Nasir Jung 1505. He was given the credit of
(b) Magical feat Portuguese possession in India. His
Sol.530.(b) Osman Ali. He was the last
on
(c) disciple policy was to maintain a strong naval
(d) Ashram Nizam (ruler) of the Princely State of army over the Indian ocean. Portuguese
Hyderabad. He ruled the Kingdom of Governor Afonso de Albuquerque
ch
Sol.525.(a) recitation of sacred songs. Hyderabad between 1911 and 1948. captured Goa from the Adil Shahis in
Sufism (tasawwuf) is a mystic sect of 1510 AD.
ar
Islam that emphasizes introspection and Q.531. Which of the following is the
spiritual closeness with God. meaning of ‘Pishtaq’ in the context of
Se
medieval Indo-Islamic Architecture? Modern History
Q.526. ______ was one of the first Indian SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Morning)
rulers to lead an armed rebellion against (a) Dome (b) Tall gateway
The Revolt of 1857
the British East India Company in 1824 (c) True arch (d) Water tank
against the implementation of the
Sol.531.(b) tall gateway. Pishtaq is a Q.536. With reference to Sepoy Mutiny of
Doctrine of Lapse.
Persian/Farsi word that means ‘front of 1857, on which of the following dates did
SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Morning)
arch’. It is a rectangular frame around an the soldiers at Meerut start their journey
(a) Kittur Chennamma (b) Titumir
arched opening of a building like to Delhi?
(c) Jayi Rajaguru (d) Pazhassi Raja
mosques and palaces. SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.526.(a) Kittur Chennamma was one (a) 10 May (b) 19 April
of the first Indian rulers to lead an armed Q.532. Prophet Muhammad founded the (c) 2 June (d) 29 March
rebellion against the British East India faith of Islam in the ______ century.
SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Morning) Sol.536.(a) 10 May. The Revolt of 1857,
Company in 1824 against the
(a) sixth (b) eighth (c) seventh (d) ninth the first major rebellion against the
implementation of the Doctrine of Lapse.
British East India Company, began in
Q.527. 'Rang Ghar', one of Asia's oldest Sol.532.(c) Seventh century. Islam is the Meerut. The immediate cause of this
amphitheatres, was built by the king of 2nd largest religion in the world. Largest revolt was the introduction of the Enfield
the ___dynasty. religion - Christianity. rifle and its greased cartridges. In March
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Evening) 1857, Mangal Pandey, a sepoy in
Q.533. Who among the following was
(a) Sen (b) Ahom (c) Mughal (d) Gupta Barrackpore, refused to use the new
appointed as the curator of ancient
cartridges because of the rumor that
Sol.527.(b) Ahom Dynasty. monuments in 1880?
they were greased with pork and beef fat,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
which violated their religious beliefs, and Q.541. Who among the following leaders Company, making the revenue payable to
he attacked his officers, which led to his led the Revolt of 1857 in Bihar? the company a permanent, unchanging
execution on April 8. On 9th May, 85 SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift) sum.
soldiers in Meerut refused the new rifles (a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Devi Singh
and were imprisoned. Lord Canning was (c) Rajkumar Shukla (d) Kunwar Singh Q.547. Who among the following devised
the British viceroy during the revolt. the system of ‘Subsidiary Alliance’?
Sol.541.(d) Kunwar Singh. SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.537. The revolution of 1857 started in (a) Lord Wellesley
May from which of the following Q.542. Nana Sahib, a rebel at Kanpur (b) Lord Canning
cantonments in India? was the son of which of the following (c) Lord William Bentinck
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) Peshwas? (d) Lord Dalhousie
(a) Kanpur (b) Jhansi SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (4th shift)
(c) Lucknow (d) Meerut (a) Baji Rao I (b) Balaji Baji Rao Sol.547.(a) Lord Wellesley : He devised
(c) Baji Rao II (d) Balaji Vishwanath the Subsidiary Alliance as a system in
Sol.537.(d) Meerut. The 1857 Revolution, 1798. Under this system, Indian rulers
also known as the Indian Mutiny, began Sol.542.(c) Bajirao II (10 January 1775 –
were required to maintain British forces
in Meerut on May 10 and spread to Delhi, 28 January 1851) was the last Peshwa of
within their territory and adhere to British
Agra, Kanpur, and Lucknow. It was the Maratha Empire.
political advice. States that accepted the
suppressed after the rebels were Q.543. Which Mughal ruler contributed to alliance included Hyderabad (1798),
defeated in Gwalior on June 20, 1858. the revolt of 1857 ? Mysore (1799), Awadh (1801), Peshwa
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (4th shift) (1802), Bhosle and Scindia (1803).
Q.538. When did the first War of Indian
Independence (Sepoy Mutiny) start? (a) Shahalam II (b) Bahadur shah I
Q.548. Which Governor-General of British
df
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) (c) Alamgir II (d) Bahadur shah II
India helped Raja Ram Mohan Roy legally
(a) 1839 (b) 1857 (c) 1887 (d) 1819 abolish the Sati practice?
_p
Sol.543.(d) Bahadur Shah II (Bahadur
Shah Zafar). He was the twentieth and SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.538.(b) 1857. The revolt began on
(a) Lord Ripon
na
May 10, 1857, at Meerut as a sepoy last Mughal Emperor of India. In 1857
Bahadur Shah II was deposed by the (b) Lord Curzon
mutiny. It occurred during the reign of
(c) Lord Cornwallis
ap
Governor-General Lord Canning. British and exiled to Rangoon.
(d) Lord William Bentinck
Q.539. Which military officer led the Q.544. The sepoys of Meerut arrived at
:@
the Gates of Red Fort to meet the Mughal Sol.548.(d) Lord William Bentinck. He
British forces in the Battle of Chinhat
emperor, Bahadur Shah on _____________. was appointed Governor of Madras in
fought in 1857?
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Evening) 1803 and assumed the office of
TG
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) 11 March, 1857 (b) 10 March, 1857 Governor-General in 1828. He passed the
(a) Robert Maclagan
(c) 10 May, 1857 (d) 11 May, 1857 Bengal Sati Regulation on December 4,
(b) Charles Ellice
1829, which banned the practice of Sati
(c) Henry Lawrence
on
Sol.544.(d) 11 May, 1857. throughout British India.
(d) James George Smith
Q.545. Whose proclamation of Q.549. The Doctrine of Lapse was an
Sol.539.(c) Henry Lawrence. The Battle
ch
November 1, 1858 declared that annexation policy devised by which of
of Chinhat took place on the morning of
thereafter India would be governed by the following Governor-Generals of India?
ar
June 30, 1857, near the village of Chinhat
and in the name of the British Monarch SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
in Awadh (now Uttar Pradesh),
through a Secretary of State?
Se
specifically at Ismailganj, where British (a) Lord Wellesley (b) Lord Dalhousie
SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Morning) (c) Lord Mayo (d) Lord Canning
forces clashed with Indian rebels during
(a) King Louis’ (b) King Philips’
the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
(c) Queen Victoria’s (d) Queen Elizabeth’s Sol.549.(b) Lord Dalhousie. The Doctrine
Q.540. Post 1857 revolt, the Peel of Lapse was an annexation policy used
Sol.545.(c) Queen Victoria’s. by the British East India Company to
commission was set up to give
recommendations on____ reorganisation expand its empire in India. Under this
of British India. Governors and Viceroys policy, if a ruler of a dependent state died
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) without a male heir, the state would be
(a) military (b) land revenue Q.546. The Permanent Settlement annexed by the British. States annexed
(c) telecom (d) trade introduced by Cornwallis was NOT under the policy: Satara (1848), Jaitpur
prevalent in which of the following and Sambalpur (1849), Baghat (1850),
Sol.540.(a) Military. Reforms After 1857: regions of India? Udaipur (1852), Jhansi (1854), Nagpur
The Peel Commission was established to SSC MTS 14/10/2024 (2nd Shift) (1854), Tanjore, and Arcot (1855).
recommend changes in the organization (a) Bengal (b) Bihar
of the colonial armed forces. The (c) Odisha (d) Punjab Q.550. Who asked James Rennel to
proportion of Europeans in the British prepare the map of Hindustan?
Indian Army was increased, and artillery Sol.546.(d) Punjab. The Permanent SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
was placed exclusively under the Settlement, introduced by Lord (a) Lord Ripen (b) Warren Hastings
command of British officers. Additionally, Cornwallis in 1793, established the (c) Lord Dalhousie (d) Robert Clive
the Arms Act of 1878 was enacted to zamindars as the primary landowners
restrict the possession of weapons by and fixed the amount of land revenue Sol.550.(d) Robert Clive served twice as
'unlawful' elements. they had to pay to the East India Governor of Bengal (1758-60 and
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
1764-67) and also led the Battle of introduce the railway line in British India ? (a) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
Plassey on behalf of the British East SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) (b) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3
India Company in 1757. James Rennel (a) 1853 (b) 1861 (c) 1870 (d) 1849 (c) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
was the first Surveyor General of Bengal (d) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D – 4
(1767-1777) and conducted the first Sol.554.(a) 1853. Lord Dalhousie
comprehensive geographical survey of (1848-1856), known as the father of Sol.558.(c) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4.
much of India. He is best known for his Indian Railways, played a key role in the The first Governor of Bengal - Robert
"Bengal Atlas" (1779) and "Memoir of a establishment of the railway network. Clive. The first Governor General of
Map of Hindoostan" (1782). The first railway line in India covered 21 Bengal in 1773 - Warren Hastings
miles (34km), from Bombay to Thane. (1772-1785). The first Governor General
Q.551. The Daroga system in 1792 was The first railway line in South India was of India - William Bentinck. The first
introduced by whom among the opened in 1856. The first railway minister Viceroy of India - Lord Canning.
following Governor- Generals in India? of India was John Mathai.
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.559. Identify the INCORRECTLY
(a) Lord Cornwallis Q.555. In the context of British rule in matched pair(s) of the British Governor -
(b) Lord Minto India, who among the following Governor Generals of India and the events with
(c) Lord Mayo - Generals created a professional cadre which they are associated.
(d) Lord William Bentinck of company servants making provisions i) Lord Dalhousie - Revolt of 1857
for them for generous salaries? ii) Lord Auckland - First Afghan War
Sol.551.(a) Lord Cornwallis (1786-93): Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) iii) Lord Canning - Wood’s Despatch 1854
The system of Daroga as part of Police (a) Lord Mayo (b) Lord Cornwallis SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
reforms. Police of each district were (c) Lord Dalhousie (d) Warren Hastings (a) Only (ii) and (iii) (b) Only (ii)
placed under District Judge. Each district (c) Only (i) and (iii) (d) Only (i)
df
Sol.555.(b) Lord Cornwallis (1786 -
was divided into Thanas/Police circles
1793). He is also regarded as the 'Father Sol.559.(c) Only (i) and (iii). Governor
_p
which were headed by Daroga. He also
of Civil Service in India' for his role in general and the related events: Lord
abolished District Faujdari Courts and set
shaping the civil service system. Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856) - Doctrine of
na
up circuit courts in Calcutta, Dacca,
Mayo, Viceroy of India from 1869 to Lapse policy, Wood’s Despatch 1854.
Murshidabad, and Patna. During his
1872, is known for introducing the first Lord Cornwallis (1786 - 1793) -
ap
tenure, the Third Mysore War (1790-92)
regular census in 1872. Introduction of the Charter Act of 1793,
and Treaty of Seringapatam (1792).
the Third Anglo-Mysore War began and
:@
Q.556. Whom did Lord Curzon entrust as
Q.552. Who is called the father of Local ended with the Treaty of Seringapatam.
architect for Victoria Memorial Hall?
Self - Government in India? Warren Hastings (1772 - 1785) -
Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) Introduction of the Regulating Act of
TG
(a) Robert Chisholm (b) William Emerson
(a) Lord Cornwallis 1773 by the British Parliament, First
(c) Herbert Baker (d) Henry Irwin
(b) Lord Wellesley Anglo-Maratha War began (ended with
(c) Lord Ripon the Treaty of Salbai). Lord Wellesley
on
Sol.556.(b) William Emerson. The
(d) Lord William Bentinck Victoria Memorial, built between 1906 (1798–1805) - The Second Anglo -
and 1921 in Kolkata, West Bengal, was Maratha War began and ended with
ch
Sol.552.(c) Lord Ripon. During Lord multiple treaties.
conceptualized by Viceroy George
Ripon’s tenure (1880-84), key reforms
Curzon to commemorate Queen
ar
included the repeal of the Vernacular Q.560. English as the official language of
Victoria's 25-year reign in India. The
Press Act (1881) and a resolution on India for higher education was
foundation stone was laid by the Prince
Se
local self-government (1882). His period incorporated in the resolution
of Wales, later King George V, in 1906,
also saw the Ilbert Bill controversy formulation by _______.
and it was opened to the public in 1921.
(1883) and the formation of the Hunter SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Commission on Education (1882). Q.557. Who among the following was the (a) Lord Hastings (b) Lord Wellesley
Viceroy of British India when the Shimla (c) Lord Macaulay (d) Lord Dalhousie
Q.553. Which of the following
conference was held in 1945?
Governor-Generals of British India was in Sol.560.(c) Lord Macaulay - Considered
Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
favour of free press and repealed the to be the founder of the British education
(a) Lord Linlithgow (b) Lord Willingdon
press regulations of 1823? system in India. He was also the
(c) Lord Irwin (d) Lord Wavell
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) chairman of the first Law Commission of
(a) Lord Ellenborough (b) Lord Lytton Sol.557.(d) Lord Wavell (1944 to 1947). pre - independent India.
(c) Lord Ripon (d) Lord Metcalfe The Shimla Conference was held from Q.561. The Vernacular Press Act was
Sol.553.(d) Lord Metcalfe (1835-36) is June 25 to July 14, 1945, at Viceregal enacted during the regime of which
also known as the Liberator of Indian Lodge in Shimla, India. viceroy of India?
Press. Licensing Regulation ordinance SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift)
Q.558. Match List-I with List-II.
1823 was brought out by acting (a) Lord Dalhousie (b) Lord Hastings
List-I (Governor General) List-II (Period)
Governor-General John Adams. Other (c) Lord Ripon (d) Lord Lytton
A. Warren Hasting 1. 1772-1785
Governor generals: Lord Ellenborough
B. Lord Cornwallis 2. 1786-1793 Sol.561.(d) Lord Lytton (1876-1880).
(1842–1844) abolished the slavery act in
C. Sir John Shore 3. 1793-1798 Vernacular Press Act (The gagging Act)
India in 1843.
D. Lord Wellesley 4. 1798-1805 1878. The act allows the government to
Q.554. In which year did Lord Dalhousie SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 confiscate the assets of newspaper in
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
case of publishing anything (d) Bombay paramount or supreme, hence its power
“objectionable” was greater than that of Indian states.
Sol.566.(d) Bombay. Elphinstone: Known SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q.562. Who among the following signed for the compilation of the Elphinstone (a) Lord Amherst (b) Lord Cornwallis
a Tripartite treaty on behalf of the British code (a uniform scheme of criminal law). (c) Lord Hastings (d) Lord Auckland
Government to interfere in the affairs of In 1808 he was sent to negotiate an
Afghanistan? alliance with the Afghan ruler Shah Shoja Sol.570.(c) Lord Hastings (Anglo-Nepal
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (2nd shift) to prevent a Napoleonic advance upon War took place between 1814 and 1816).
(a) Lord Mayo (b) Lord Auckland India.
(c) Lord Wellesly (d) Lord Canning Q.571. “A History of British India” is a
Q.567. The Viceroy who took keen work published by ______.
Sol.562.(b) Lord Auckland (1836 - interest in the restoration and protection SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (1st Shift)
42).Tripartite treaty (1838): It was signed of historical monuments was . (a) Lord Canning (b) Lord Dalhousie
between Governor - General Lord SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 1st shift) (c) James Mill (d) Warren Hastings
Auckland (British), Maharaja Ranjit Singh (a) Lord Ellenborough (b) Lord Auckland
(Sikhs), and Shah Shuja (who had been (c) Lord Lytton (d) Lord Curzon Sol.571.(c) James Mill in 1817, a
deposed from the Afghan throne in 1809 Scottish economist and political
and had been living since then as a Sol.567.(d) Lord Curzon (1899-1905): philosopher, published a massive
British pensioner at Ludhiana). Lord Passed the Ancient Monuments three-volume work "The History of British
Mayo (1869 - 1872) - He ordered the first Preservation Act in 1904. Archaeological India". In his book history was divided
census of India in 1871. Survey of India (ASI) - Founded in 1861 into three periods: Hindu, Muslim, and
by Alexander Cunningham; British.
Q.563. Which of the following Headquarters: New Delhi. Lord
df
Commissions was appointed by Lord Ellenborough (1842-1844) - Annexation Q.572. In 1856, Governor-General ______
Curzon to enquire into the working of the Of Sindh (1843). Lord Auckland (1836 - decided that Bahadur Shah Zafar would
_p
police administration? 1842) - The first Anglo-Afghan war be the last Mughal king and after his
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift) occurred during his reign. Lord Lytton death none of his descendants would be
na
(a) Kitchener Commission (1876-1880) - The Great Indian Famine recognised as kings – they would just be
(b) Hunter Commission of 1876-1878. called princes.
ap
(c) Frazer Commission SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
(d) MacDonnell Commission Q.568. The policy of dual system of (a) Canning (b) Cornwallis
:@
government of Bengal was the brainchild (c) Hastings (d) Munro
Sol.563.(c) Frazer Commission (The of which Governor-General?
Indian Police Commission of 1902-03) - SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift) Sol.572.(a) Lord Canning (1856-1862) -
TG
Established by the British. Headed by - (a) Lord Hastings (b) Lord Clive (Last Governor-General and first viceroy
Sir Andrew Frazer and Lord Curzon. (c) Lord Lytton (d) Lord Dalhousie of India) - introduced Indian Penal Code
(IPC), withdrew Doctrine of Lapse.
on
Q.564. Who among the following has Sol.568.(b) Lord Clive (First governor of
been accused of committing the judicial Bengal in 1765). Dual system - The Q.573. Who among the following was the
murder of Raja Nand Kumar? administration of Bengal was divided into Viceroy of India during the formation of
ch
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift) two parts : Diwani - The right to collect the Indian National Congress?
(a) Lord Wellesly (b) Lord Dalhousie revenue was given to the company, and SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening)
ar
(c) Lord Cornwallis (d) Warren Hastings Nizamat - Administrative rights were (a) Lord Lytton (b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Dufferin (d) Lord Mayo
Se
given to Nawab. Warren Hastings
Sol.564.(d) Warren Hastings. Raja Nand
abolished this system in Bengal in 1772. Sol.573.(c) Lord Dufferin (1884-1888).
Kumar (Nuncomar) was an Indian tax
collector and he was the first Indian to be Q.569. Governor general Lord Dalhousie Q.574. Which of the following Viceroys
executed by hanging. described the Kingdom of _______"as a of British India took the first step to
cherry that will drop into our mouth one separate provincial finance from central
Q.565. _______ announced the bifurcation
day". finance and introduced financial
of the British Indian Empire into a secular
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening) decentralisation in India in 1870?
India and Islamic Pakistan.
(a) Ahom (b) Mysore Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3 )
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(c) Awadh (d) Maratha (a) Lord Chelmsford (b) Lord Northbrook
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Dalhousie Sol.569.(c) Awadh. Lord Dalhousie said (c) Lord Mayo (d) Lord Dufferin
(c) Lord Louis Mountbatten this in 1851. Awadh Kingdom was Sol.574.(c) Lord Mayo’s Resolution of
(d) Lord Curzon formally annexed to the British Empire in 1870 on Financial Decentralisation
1856. The doctrine declared that if an visualised the development of local
Sol.565.(c) Lord Louis Mountbatten (last
Indian ruler died without a male heir his self-government institutions.
Viceroy of India).
kingdom would “lapse”, that is, become
Q.566. Elphinstone was the Governor of part of Company territory Q.575. Which of the following
which province of India during 1819-27 ? statements is correct?
Q.570. Under ________ (Governor General I. Robert Clive had come to Madras from
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift)
from 1813 to 1823) a new policy of England in 1743 at the age of 18.
(a) North West Frontier province
"paramountcy" was initiated. Now the II. After the battle of Buxar, the East India
(b) Madras
Company claimed that its authority was Company appointed Residents in Indian
(c) Bengal
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
states. Q.579. What was the term of the Central Q.582. With reference to Morley-Minto
SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Evening) Legislative Assembly under the Reforms of 1909, consider the following
(a) Only I (b) Neither I nor II Government of India Act of 1919? statements.
(c) Only II (d) Both I and II SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning) a) They are also called the Indian
(a) Three year (b) Five year Councils Act, 1909.
Sol.575.(d) Both I and II. Robert Clive (c) Two year (d) Seven year b) They increased the strength of
was a soldier and first British Legislative Councils.
administrator of Bengal, who was one of Sol.579.(a) Three year. The elections to
c) The right to separate electorate was
the creators of British power in India. the two Houses of the Indian Legislature
given to the Muslims.
were held under the Government of India
Which of the above statements is/are
Q.576. Which of the following British Act, 1919, and the new Legislative
correct ?
officers issued the infamous ‘crawling Assembly was inaugurated on 9 February
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
order’ whereby Indians had to crawl on all 1921. The First and the Second
(a) b, c (b) a, b, c (c) c, a (d) a, b
fours to pass an alley? Assemblies were dissolved within their
SSC CGL 21/04/2022(Afternoon) life term of three years. The life of the Sol.582.(b) a, b, c. The Indian Councils
(a) General Dyer (b) Warren Hastings Third, Fourth and the Fifth Assemblies Act of 1909 was introduced by the British
(c) Lord Irwin (d) Lord Curzon were extended beyond their normal government in India as a step toward
terms. The Fifth Assembly had the including Indians in governance. Named
Sol.576.(a) General Dyer. He was longest inning of ten years. The Sixth after Viceroy Lord Minto and Secretary of
responsible for the Jallianwala Bagh Assembly 1946-1947 was, in fact, not State John Morley, the Act considerably
massacre in Amritsar. dissolved but automatically ceased to increased the size of the legislative
exist on 14 August 1947 under section 8 councils, both at the Central and
Q.577. Which of the following Viceroys
df
of the Indian Independence Act, 1947. provincial levels. The number of
of India addressed the Bengal famine of
1943 by ordering the army to distribute members in the Central Legislative
_p
Q.580. Which of the following Acts
relief supplies to the starving rural Council was raised from 16 to 60. The
provided for a system of tribunals and a
Bengalis? act declared Delhi as the capital of
na
ban on strikes?
SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Evening) British India in place of Calcutta.
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Lord Wavell (b) Lord Mountbatten
ap
(a) The Trade Disputes Act, 1929 Q.583. Wood’s Dispatch of 1854
(c) Lord Willington (d) Lord Linlithgow (b) Government of India Act, 1912 primarily dealt with which of the
(c) Age of Consent Act, 1891
:@
following subject matters?
Sol.577.(d) Lord Linlithgow was the (d) Indian Partnership Act, 1932 SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
viceroy of India during the Bengal famine
Sol.580.(a) The Trade Disputes Act, (a) Education (b) Railways
1943. It is believed that the Bengal
TG
1929 was a law that aimed to resolve (c) Finance (d) Health
famine of 1943 which is estimated to
have killed up to three million people was industrial disputes by establishing Sol.583.(a) Education. The Wood's
not caused by drought but instead was a tribunals to investigate and settle them. Despatch of 1854 was a formal letter
on
result of a "complete policy failure" of the Government of India Act, 1912 related to sent by Sir Charles Wood to Lord
then-British Prime Minister Winston the appointment of a separate Governor Dalhousie, the Governor-General of India,
ch
Churchill. of Bengal Province. The Age of Consent that outlined a plan for educational
Act, 1891 raised the age for the reform in India. It recommended that
ar
consummation of marriage for women to
British Acts and Policies primary schools use vernacular
12 years. Indian Partnership Act, 1932 languages, secondary schools use both
Se
define and amend the Law Relating to English and vernacular languages, and
Q.578. In which year did the government
Partnership. colleges use English. It is often referred
of British India pass a law according to
which those who converted into Q.581. Under which of the following Acts to as the “Magna Carta of English
Christianity got the right in their ancestral was the power to rule India, transferred Education in India.”
property? from the English East India Company to Q.584. Under which of the following
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening) the British Crown? Acts, the Board of Control was
(a) 1855 (b) 1846 (c) 1839 (d) 1850 SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) established in England to control and
(a) Charter Act of 1833
Sol.578.(d) 1850. The Lex Loci Act of supervise the administration of British
(b) Regulating Act 1773
1850 was an Indian law that allowed India?
(c) Pitt's India Act 1784
people who converted to a different faith SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(d) Government of India Act 1858
to inherit their ancestral property. The (a) Charter Act of 1813
Caste Disabilities Removal Act, 1850, Sol.581.(d) Government of India Act (b) Regulating Act of 1773
was a law passed in British India under 1858 had the following key provisions : (c) Charter Act of 1793
East India Company rule, that abolished The English East India Company was (d) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
all laws affecting the rights of people abolished, and India came directly under
Sol.584.(d) Pitt’s India Act of 1784. It
converting to another religion or caste. British Crown rule. A new position, the
was introduced during the tenure of Lord
The new Act allowed hindus who Secretary of State for India, was created
Warren Hastings against the backdrop of
converted from Hindu religion to another in the British government to manage
growing concerns about the East India
religion equal rights under new law, Indian affairs. A 15-member council was
Company's mismanagement and
especially in the case of inheritance. established to assist the Secretary of
corruption in India. Provisions: It gave the
State.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
British government control over the East repealed in 1952. Indian Slavery Act, is a law that regulates the printing,
India Company. The Act was also called 1843: Abolished slavery in British India. publishing, and registration of books and
‘half-loaf system. newspapers in India. The Act was
Q.588. The British Government passed a passed during the colonial era and was
Q.585. Which of the following Acts law in the year 1856. It was meant for intended to limit free speech by imposing
introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ by which among the following social many procedural requirements for
discontinuing the application of dyarchy? reforms? publishing.
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift) SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Government of India Act, 1919 (a) Widow Remarriage Q.592. Under the Charter Act of 1833 in
(b) Charter Act of 1813 (b) Abolition of the Practice of Sati British India, the East India Company’s
(c) India Council Act, 1909 (c) Abolition of Practice of Child monopoly on trade with which of the
(d) Government of India Act, 1935 Marriage following countries was abolished?
(d) Law against Murdering of Female SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Sol.585.(d) Government of India Act,
Child (a) China (b) Burma
1935. The Act introduced responsible
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Nepal
government in provinces, meaning the Sol.588.(a) Widow Remarriage. The
governor was required to act on the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act of 1856 Sol.592.(a) China. Charter Act of 1833:
advice of ministers responsible to the was enacted with the efforts of Ishwar This act marked the end of the
provincial legislature. Government of Chandra Vidyasagar. The draft of the company’s commercial operations,
India Act, 1919: Introduced dyarchy. Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856 transitioning it into an administrative
Charter Act of 1813: Ended the East India was prepared by Lord Dalhousie and body overseeing British territories in
Company's trade monopoly and allowed passed by Lord Canning. India. This Act made the
Christian missionaries to promote moral Governor-General of Bengal as the
df
and religious reforms in India. Q.589. Which Act was enacted by the Governor-General of India. Lord William
British which regulated the manufacture,
_p
Bentinck - The first Governor - General of
Q.586. Which Act was passed by the sale, possession and transport of India.
British Parliament in the year 1773 AD to firearms?
na
regulate the activities of the East India SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift) Q.593. In 1883, which of the following
Company? (a) Indian Arms Act, 1878 allowed Indians to try Europeans in
ap
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (b) The Arms Act,1857 courts of law?
(a) Pitt’s India Act (c) The Arm Rules, 1839 Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
:@
(b) Indian Slavery Act (d) The Firearms Act, 1871 (a) Christian Personal Law
(c) Age of Consent Act (b) Ilbert Bill
(d) Regulating Act Sol.589.(a) Indian Arms Act, 1878. It (c) Indian Penal Code
TG
was enacted under the authority of Lord (d) Murderous Outrage Regulation
Sol.586.(d) Regulating Act. This Act was Lytton, the then Viceroy of India. It
passed in June 1773. It was a response prohibited Indians from possessing, Sol.593.(b) Ilbert Bill. The Ilbert Bill,
on
to the East India Company's producing, or selling firearms without a introduced by Sir Courtenay Ilbert in
semi-sovereign status in Bengal, Bihar, government license. The Act was 1883, during the viceroyship of Lord
and Orissa, which was created after the
ch
discriminatory as it did not apply to Ripon. It sought to empower Indian
battles of Plassey and Buxar. The act British, Anglo-Indians, Europeans, and judges to try British and European
was intended to address the company's
ar
certain government personnel. citizens in criminal cases.
administration, but it wasn't a long-term
Se
solution. In 1784, the Pitt's India Act was Q.590. Warren Hastings became the Q.594. By the Act of _________, the
passed as a more radical reform. Governor-General of Bengal from Governor General in Council was given
Governor of Bengal after the passing of the power to legislate for the whole of
Q.587. Which of the following Acts gave which of the following Acts ? the British territories in India.
the government enormous powers to SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift) Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
repress political activities, and allowed (a) Charter Act, 1813 (a) Charter Act of 1833
detention of political prisoners without (b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 (b) Charter Act of 1793
trial for two years? (c) Indian Council Act of 1861 (c) Charter Act of 1853
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (d) Regulating Act, 1773 (d) Charter Act of 1813
(a) India Contract Act, 1872
(b) Rowlatt Act, 1919 Sol.590.(d) Regulating Act, 1773. The Sol.594.(a) Charter Act of 1833. It
(c) Criminal Tribes Act, 1871 act was the first step taken by the British established the Governor General of
(d) Indian Slavery Act, 1843 government to control and regulate the Bengal as the Governor General of India,
affairs of East India company in India. centralizing control over military and civil
Sol.587.(b) Rowlatt Act, 1919 : This Act administration.
passed on March 10, 1919, was Q.591. The Press and Registration of
introduced by British colonial authorities Books (PRB) Act was enacted in which Q.595. The Ryotwari system, devised by
to suppress nationalist and revolutionary year? Thomas Munro, in which peasant
movements in India. The Act opposed by SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift) cultivators had to pay annual taxes
Mahatma Gandhi. India Contract Act, (a) 1857 (b) 1877 (c) 1887 (d) 1867 directly to the government, was prevalent
1872: Regulates contracts and in which of the following present-day
Sol.591.(d) 1867. The Press and states/provinces?
agreements in India. Criminal Tribes Act,
Registration of Books (PRB) Act of 1867 Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
1871: Targeted "criminal tribes" and was
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Odisha Warren Hastings was appointed as the (b) Ricardian theory of rent
(c) Rajasthan (d) Punjab Governor-General of the Presidency of (c) Malthusian theory of rent
Fort William (Bengal). (d) Marx's theory of rent
Sol.595.(a) Tamil Nadu. The Ryotwari
System (1820) was devised by Captain Q.599. When was the Defence of India Sol.603.(b) Ricardian theory of rent -
Alexander Read and Sir Thomas Munro. Act enacted? The land of higher fertility gets higher
Under the Ryotwari system, the land SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (2nd Shift) rent than less fertile land. Ryotwari
revenue was paid by the farmers directly (a) 1920 (b) 1918 (c) 1915 (d) 1921 System - The peasants or cultivators
to the state. It was prevalent in most of were regarded as the owners of the land.
southern India, first introduced in Tamil Sol.599.(c) 1915. The Defence of India The cultivators had to pay annual taxes
Nadu. It was later extended to Act (1915) - It was an emergency law directly to the government. Introduced by
Maharashtra, Berar, East Punjab, Coorg that gave the British government in India Thomas Munro and Alexander Read in
and Assam. Mahalwari System (1822) wide powers to suppress dissent and 1820 in the Madras and Bombay
was devised by Holt Mackenzie. maintain public order during World War I. presidency.
It was passed by the then Governor
Q.596. Match the following Acts/Policies General of India Lord Hardinge. Q.604. When was the Secretary of State
with the respective years in which they for India made responsible for the
were put into place. Q.600. Which Act declared that British Government of British India by bringing
rule in India would end by 30 June 1948? about changes in the Home
Acts/Policies Year
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift) Government?
A. Pitt’s India Act 1. 1784
(a) Act of 1858 (b) Act of 1947 SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (3rd shift)
B. Permanent Settlement of 2. 1793
(c) Act of 1892 (d) Act of 1961 (a) 1858 (b) 1833 (c) 1857 (d) 1813
Bengal
df
C. Introduction of the 3. 1798 Sol.600.(b) Act of 1947. The Indian Sol.604.(a) 1858. Charter Act 1858 -
Subsidiary Alliance System Independence Act 1947 was an Act of The term Governor General changed to
_p
D. Abolition of Sati 4. 1829 Parliament of the United Kingdom that Viceroy for the British crown. The first
SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 granted independence to British India. viceroy was Lord Canning. The act ended
na
(a) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D - 1 The Act was passed on July 18, 1947, ‘The Doctrine of Lapse’. It ended the Dual
(b) A – 2, B - 1, C – 4, D – 3 and came into effect on August 15, 1947. government scheme initiated due to
ap
(c) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D- 4 The Act divided British India into two Pitt’s India Act.
(d) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4 independent dominions, India and
:@
Pakistan. Q.605. In 1942, the British government
Sol.596.(d) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4 sent the___________mission to India.
Q.601. In India which Act divided the SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift)
Q.597. The Provincial elections were held
TG
powers between the Central and units in (a) Cripps (b) Linlithgow
for the first time in _______ under the
terms of three lists? (c) Cabinet (d) Lansdowne
Government of India Act, 1935.
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
on
(a) 1862 (b) 1919 (c) 1909 (d) 1935 Sol.605.(a) Cripps. It was sent to India to
(a) 1935 (b) 1937 (c) 1936 (d) 1938
secure Indian cooperation for the British
Sol.601.(d) 1935. Government of India war efforts. It was headed by Sir Richard
Sol.597.(b) 1937, Indian provincial
ch
Act, 1935 : Contain three lists, Federal Stafford Cripps. Gandhi called it 'A
elections: Elections were held in eleven
List (for Centre containing 59 items), post-dated cheque drawn on a failing
provinces - Madras, Central Provinces,
ar
Provincial List (for provinces containing bank'.
Bihar, Orissa, the United Provinces, the
54 items) and the Concurrent List (for
Se
Bombay Presidency, Assam, the
both containing 36 items). Q.606. The result of the English
North-West Frontier Province, Bengal,
Education Act of 1835 was to make
Punjab and Sind. The Indian National Q.602. In which of the following years did ________ as a medium of instruction for
Congress (INC) won the majority of seats the East India Company abolished the ___________ education.
in the provincial elections, and formed diarchy system of Bengal? SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning)
governments in seven provinces. SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift) (a) vernacular, higher
(a) 1772 (b) 1765 (c) 1757 (d) 1779 (b) English, primary
Q.598. Under the Regulating Act of 1773,
the King-in-Council created a Supreme Sol.602.(a) 1772. The system of Dual (c) English, higher
Court in which of the following places? Government: Introduced in Bengal by (d) vernacular, primary
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) Robert Clive of British East India
Sol.606.(c) English, Higher. English
(a) Madras (b) Bombay Company. It lasted from 1765 to 1772.
Education Act (1835) was proposed by
(c) Calcutta (d) Delhi Under this system, the administration of
William Bentinck on the Advice of
Bengal was divided into Nizamat and
Sol.598.(c) Calcutta. Regulating Act Macaulay. Reforms by William Bentick :
Diwani. The Diwani was carried out by
1773 - It was passed by the British The abolition of Sati, the suppression of
the company and the Nizamat by the
Parliament to control the territories of the female infanticide and Thuggee, the
Nizam.
East India Company majorly in Bengal. abolition of lawlessness, and the
The act provided for the appointment of Q.603. Ryotwari system of revenue abolition of human sacrifices.
a Governor-General along with four collection in India, introduced by the
Q.607. The Charter Act of 1813 extended
Councillors in the Presidency of Fort British, was based on the_______.
the East India Company's rule in India to
William (Calcutta), jointly called the SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
another _________ years.
Governor-General in Council. As per this, (a) Smith's theory of rent
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Afternoon) ancestors. The Charter Act of 1813 (c) Government of India Act of 1935
(a) 15 (b) 5 (c) 20 (d) 10 allowed Chirstian missionaries to enter (d) Charter Act of 1853
India and Preach Christianity. This Act
Sol.607.(c) 20. The Charter Act of 1813 asserted the Crown's sovereignty over Sol.615.(c) Government of India Act
(The East Indian Company Act 1813) - British possessions in India. 1935 were as follows: Abolition of
Features: It ended the monopoly of the provincial dyarchy and introduction of
East India Company over commercial Q.612. Which of the following Indian dyarchy at centre. Abolition of Indian
trade except trade with China and trade states was the first to sign a subsidiary Council and introduction of an advisory
in tea with India. alliance with the British? body in its place. Provision for an All
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon) India Federation with British India
Q.608. The objective of Simon (a) Hyderabad (b) Cochin territories and princely states.
Commission was to________. (c) Travancore (d) Maratha
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Morning) Q.616. Which Act was passed in 1929
(a) decide India's Political future Sol.612.(a) Hyderabad. In this system, prohibiting marriage of girls below 14
(b) decide India's Religious future an Indian ruler had to maintain British and boys below 18 years of age?
(c) decide India's Educational future troops in his state, either by giving some SSC MTS 15/07/2022 (Afternoon)
(d) decide India's economic future of his territories or by paying for the (a) Pitt’s India Act (b) Sharda Act
maintenance of the troops. It was first (c) Vernacular Press Act (d) Rowlatt Act
Sol.608.(a) Simon Commission - It was
introduced by the French East India
appointed by the British Government in Sol.616.(b) Sharda act. The act fixed the
Company Governor Joseph Francois
1927 under the chairmanship of John marriageable age for girls at 14 years
Dupleix, Later used by Lord Wellesley,
Simon (other members were Pathick and 18 years for boys. It was sponsor by
Governor-General of India (1798 to
Lawrence and Clement Atlee) to review Harbilas Sarda. Pitt’s India act (1784),
1805).
df
the workings of Government of India Rowlatt Act (1919), Vernacular press act
(GOI) Act, 1919 and suggest measures. Q.613. What is the original name of the (1878).
_p
Empress of India Act and when was it
Q.609. Which act of the British Q.617. In which year through the Indian
instituted?
na
Parliament was also known as East India Official Secrets Act was freedom of
Higher Secondary 04/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
Company Act 1793? press curbed?
(a) The Royalty Act of 1876
ap
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Morning) SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Evening)
(b) The Royal Titles Act of 1876
(a) The Government of India Act, 1793 (a) 1919 (b) 1921 (c) 1904 (d) 1909
(c) The Royal Titles Act of 1877
:@
(b) The Charter Act, 1793
(d) The Titles Act of 1875 Sol.617.(c) 1904. It was enacted during
(c) The Regulating Act, 1793
(d) The Indian Councils Act, 1793 Sol.613.(b) The Royal Titles Act 1876 the time of Lord Curzon, Viceroy of India
TG
was an Act of the Parliament of the from 1899 to 1905 curbed the freedom
Sol.609.(b) The Charter Act, 1793. The of Press. Later this act was replaced by
United Kingdom which officially
act was passed by the British Parliament the Official Secrets act 1923.
recognized Queen Victoria (and
to renew the charter of the East India
on
subsequent monarchs) as “Empress of Q.618. In 1877, which of the following
Company to trade within India for next 20
India”. This act was introduced by viceroys organized a durbar to
years. It was passed during the tenure of
ch
Benjamin Disraeli. It was repealed on 22 acknowledge Queen Victoria as the
Sir John Shore (1793 -1798).
June 1948. Empress of India?
ar
Q.610. In __________, the British SSC MTS 12/10/2021(Evening)
Q.614. Which of the following Acts of
government enacted a legislation (a) Lord Lytton (b) Lord Ripon
Se
1947 regulates the Indian labor law with
banning the use of printed cotton textiles (c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Dufferin
regard to trade unions as well as
- chintz - in England. Interestingly, this
individual workmen? Sol.618.(a) Lord Lytton organized a
Act was known as the Calico Act.
SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Afternoon) durbar to acknowledge Queen Victoria as
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(a) Indian Councils Act the Empress of India. This was the
(a) 1720 (b) 1700 (c) 1740 (d) 1730
(b) Charter Act culmination of the transfer of control of
Sol.610.(a) 1720. The cotton textiles (c) Rowlatt Act British India from the East India
which the Portuguese took back to (d) Industrial Disputes Act Company to the Crown.
Europe, along with the spices, came to be
Sol.614.(d) Industrial disputes Act 1947. Q.619. The capital of the British Indian
called "calico". Calico Act , Reason -
The Rowlatt Act 1919 authorized the Empire was transferred from Calcutta to
Textile makers in England were Unable to
arrest, for 2 years without trial, of any Delhi in:
compete with Indian textiles. Highest
person suspected of terrorism living in SSC MTS 13/10/2021(Afternoon)
cotton producing state (Gujarat).
British India. Indian Council acts (1861, (a) 1911 (b) 1905 (c) 1907 (d) 1909
Q.611. In which year was a law passed in 1892, and 1909). Charter Acts (1793,
India to make conversion to Christianity 1813, 1833, and 1853). Sol.619.(a) 1911. The British
easier? government believed that ruling India
Q.615. Which Act passed by British from Delhi was easier and more
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
Government of India abolished the convenient than from Calcutta.
(a) 1845 (b) 1850 (c) 1830 (d) 1840
Council of India? Therefore, Delhi was officially announced
Sol.611.(b) 1850. This law allowed SSC MTS 14/07/2022 (Afternoon) as the capital of British Raj by Emperor
Indians who had converted to (a) Indian Independence Act of 1947 George V, on December 12, 1911.
Christianity to inherit the property of his (b) India Council Act of 1892
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.620. By which British statute were known as the Indian Councils Act of SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon)
Indian representatives, for the first time, 1909, were a set of constitutional (a) Wellington Square, Calcutta
allocated seats for election in Indian changes in British India that aimed to (b) Calcutta Town Hall
Legislative Councils? increase Indian participation in the (c) Kanai Dhar Lane, Calcutta
SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Evening) legislature. (d) Bengal National College, Calcutta
(a) Government of India Act, 1833
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1892 Q.624. What was the Swadeshi Sol.627.(b) Calcutta Town Hall. The
(c) Government of India Act, 1915 Movement called in the state of Andhra Swadeshi movement was a direct fallout
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1861 Pradesh? of the decision of the British India
SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift) government to partition Bengal. The
Sol.620.(b) Indian Councils Act, 1892. (a) Gadar Movement features of the Swadeshi movement :
The act made a limited and indirect (b) Quit India Movement encourage the use of indigenous goods,
provision for the use of election in filling (c) Khilafat Movement boycott foreign goods. The partition of
up some of the nonofficial seats both in (d) Vande Mataram Movement Bengal was annulled in 1911 by Lord
the Central and provincial legislative Sol.624.(d) Vande Mataram Movement. Hardinge to curb the revolutionaries.
councils. The Swadeshi Movement started in
Q.628. Which of the following parties
August 1905 from Calcutta Town Hall
Q.621. Which law was imposed in India supported the move for partition of
against Lord Curzon’s decision of
during the command of General Dyer? Bengal?
dividing the province of Bengal. The
SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Evening) SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Afternoon)
partition led to protest meetings in
(a) Preventive detention (a) Gadar Party
Bengal under which the pledge to boycott
(b) Discrimination law (b) Forward Bloc
foreign goods was first taken. Leaders of
(c) Simon law (c) All India Muslim League
df
the movement - Poona and Bombay
(d) Martial law (d) Communist Party of India
(Lokmanya Tilak), Punjab (Lala Lajpat Rai
_p
Sol.621.(d) Martial law. General Dyer and Ajit Singh), Delhi (Syed Haider Raza), Sol.628.(c) All India Muslim League
enacted an Act on April 13, 1919, called Madras (Chidambaram Pillai). supported the move for partition of
martial law
people can
stating that no more than 2
form a group and meet at a na
Q.625. What is the official reason given
Bengal. Founders of All India Muslim
League are Muhammad Ali Jinnah, Aga
ap
by Britishers after partition of Bengal in
place. Khan III, Khwaja Salimullah, Hakim Ajmal
1905?
Khan, Waqar-ul-Mulk. It was founded on
:@
Q.622. In which year was the office of the SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning)
30 December 1906.
first Accountant General established in (a) Easy Movement of army
India? (b) To check on Extremist activities Q.629. Moved by the Swadeshi
TG
SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Morning) (c) Economic Progress Movement, ______ painted his famous
(a) 1858 (b) 1845 (c) 1890 (d) 1867 (d) Administrative Convenience image of Bharat Mata portraying her as
an ascetic figure.
Sol.625.(d) Administrative Convenience.
on
Sol.622.(a) In 1858 (the year the British SSC MTS 05/10/2021(Morning)
took over administrative control of India The real reason for the partition was to
(a) Satyendranath Tagore
from the East India Company) the office divide and weaken the growing
ch
(b) Abanindranath Tagore
of the first Accountant General was nationalist movement in Bengal. After
(c) Jyotirindranath Tagore
established in India. Partition Swadeshi movement gained
ar
(d) Dwijendranath Tagore
even more momentum, and the British
were forced to revoke the partition in
Se
Partition of Bengal and Sol.629.(b) Abanindranath Tagore
1911. painted his famous image of Bharat
Swadeshi Movements
Mata portraying her as an ascetic figure
Q.626. Before the Partition of Bengal in
in 1905. The painting is depicted as a
Q.623. In 1905, Hindus and Muslims tied 1905, Bengal was the biggest province of
saffron-clad divine woman, holding a
‘Rakhi’ on each other’s hands to show British India. It consisted of parts of
book, sheaves of paddy, a piece of white
their unity and their protest against the which of the following states?
cloth, and a rosary in her four hands.
_________. SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (2nd Shift) (a) Uttar Pradesh and Orissa
(a) Partition of Punjab (b) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar Gandhian Era
(b) Rowlatt Act (c) Bihar and Orissa
(c) Morley-Minto Reforms (d) Bihar and Chhattisgarh Q.630. Which of the following places is
(d) Partition of Bengal Sol.626.(c) Bihar and Orissa. Partition related to Gandhi’s Satyagraha of the
of Bengal in 1905 {Lord Curzon year 1917?
Sol.623.(d) Partition of Bengal. SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift)
announced the partition of Bengal on
Rabindranath Tagore encouraged Hindus (a) Kheda (b) Ahmedabad
20th July 1905, reorganization separated
and Muslims to tie rakhis as a symbol of (c) Champaran (d) Bardoli
the largely Muslim eastern areas from
unity and resistance against the Partition
the largely Hindu western areas}. Sol.630.(c) Champaran. India's first Civil
of Bengal, promoting a beautiful
message of harmony and togetherness. Q.627. At which of the following places Disobedience movement, launched by
Rowlatt Act 1919 was passed to curb the was the formal proclamation of the Mahatma Gandhi in 1917, was prompted
growing nationalist upsurge in British Swadeshi movement made on 7 August by Pandit Raj Kumar Shukla, who urged
India. The Morley-Minto Reforms, also 1905 ? him to address the plight of Indigo
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
farmers. Mahatma Gandhi organised the did Mahatma Gandhi, along with other (a) Gandhi-Ambedkar Pact
Kheda Satyagraha (1918) in Gujarat. Indians, establish the Natal Congress to (b) Gandhi-Jinnah Pact
Gandhi also led the Ahmedabad Mill fight against racial discrimination? (c) Jinnah-Nehru Pact
Strike (1918) after returning from South SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (d) Ambedkar-CR Das Pact
Africa. The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) (a) South Africa (b) India
Sol.637.(a) Gandhi-Ambedkar Pact. The
was led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel for (c) England (d) France
Communal Award was announced by the
the farmers of Bardoli.
Sol.634.(a) South Africa. The Natal British Prime Minister, Ramsay
Q.631. Who was the Viceroy of India Indian Congress, founded by Mahatma MacDonald, on 16 August 1932, based
when Mahatma Gandhi started Dandi Gandhi in 1894, aimed to combat on the report of the Indian Franchise
March on 12 March 1930? discrimination against Indians in South Committee (Lothian Committee). This
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Africa. Gandhiji, born on 2 October 1869, award accorded separate electorates for
(a) Lord Chelmsford (b) Lord Minto II returned to India on 9 January 1915. Muslims, Europeans, Sikhs, Indian
(c) Lord Irwin (d) Lord Willingdon Christians, Anglo-Indians, Depressed
Q.635. Which important event that classes (78 seats), and even to the
Sol.631.(c) Lord Irwin (1926-1931). started in 1930 played a significant role Marathas for some seats in Bombay.
Other Events During his tenure: Simon in motivating and mobilizing Indians to Gandhi - Ambedkar Pact is also known
Commission to India (1927); Harcourt join the non - violent movement for as the Poona Pact. Madan Mohan
Butler Indian States Commission (1927); independence? Malaviya signed it on behalf of Gandhi. It
Nehru Report (1928); Deepavali SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) provided for the Joint electorate,
Declaration (1929); Lahore session of the (a) Salt Satyagraha reserved seats (147) for depressed
Congress (Purna Swaraj Resolution) (b) Quit India Movement classes and 18% seats reserved for the
(c) Gadar Movement
df
1929; First Round Table Conference central legislature.
(1930); Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931). (d) Swadeshi movement
_p
Mahatma Gandhi led the Dandi March Q.638. Mahatma Gandhi called a halt to
Sol.635.(a) Salt Satyagraha. The Dandi
(Salt March) in 1930, accompanied by a the Non-Cooperation Movement after the
March, or Salt Satyagraha, was initiated
na
group of 78 followers, as a nonviolent Chauri Chaura incident. Where among
by Mahatma Gandhi from Sabarmati
protest against the British salt monopoly. the following places is Chauri Chaura
Ashram on March 12, 1930, and lasted
ap
located?
until April 5, 1930, reaching Dandi
Q.632. In which year was the Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
(Navsari district). C. Rajagopalachari
:@
Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed ? (a) Lucknow (b) Mathura
organized the Vedaranyam Salt March
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) Meerut (d) Gorakhpur
along the east coast, while Gandhi led
(a) 1935 (b) 1929 (c) 1931 (d) 1941
the march on the west coast. The protest Sol.638.(d) Gorakhpur. Chauri Chaura, a
TG
Sol.632.(c) 1931. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was against the British salt tax, and town in Uttar Pradesh was the site of a
was signed on March 5, 1931, between Gandhi defied it by collecting natural salt violent clash on February 4, 1922, during
Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, the from the shore. In the Salt Satyagraha, the Non-Cooperation Movement.
on
Viceroy of India (1926-1931). The pact Sarojini Naidu persuaded Mahatma Protestors set a police station on fire,
ended the Civil Disobedience Movement, Gandhi to allow women to join the resulting in the deaths of 22 policemen
ch
initiated by Gandhi with the Salt March, movement. inside.
and was signed before the Second
Q.636. Which of the following leaders Q.639. The result of which of the
ar
Round Table Conference in London.
had gone to Lucknow to invite Mahatma following movements/satyagrahas was
Se
Q.633. In the second Round Table Gandhi to see the plight of the peasants the abolishment of the Tinkathia System
Conference, Mahatma Gandhi in Champaran? under which the farmers were asked to
represented which of the following SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) cultivate indigo in 3/20th of their holdings
parties? (a) Hasan Mohani (b) Raj Kumar Shukla ?
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) Rajendra Prasad (d) JB Kripalani Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(a) Communist Party of India (a) Khilafat Movement
Sol.636.(b) Raj Kumar Shukla. The local (b) Kheda Satyagraha
(b) Indian National Congress
Congress leaders Brajkishore Prasad and (c) Champaran Satyagraha
(c) All India Forward Bloc
Raj Kumar Shukla first met Mahatma (d) Ahmedabad Satyagraha
(d) Muslim League
Gandhi at the Lucknow session of the
Sol.633.(b) Indian National Congress. Indian National Congress in 1916 and Sol.639.(c) Champaran Satyagraha
Mahatma Gandhi attended only the invited Mahatma Gandhi to have (1917) was Gandhi's first protest in India
Second Round Table Conference in first-hand experience of the plight of against forced indigo farming.
London in September 1931, presided Champaran peasants. Gandhi arrived in Brajkishore Prasad and Raj Kumar Shukla
over by Ramsay MacDonald. The Champaran on April 15, 1917, to address first met Mahatma Gandhi at the
Conference in London was inconclusive, the grievances of the peasants who were Lucknow session of the Indian National
so Gandhiji returned to India and forced to grow indigo under oppressive Congress in 1916 and invited him to have
resumed civil disobedience. Dr. B.R. conditions. first-hand experience of the plight of
Ambedkar and Tej Bahadur Sapru Champaran peasants.
attended all three Round Table Q.637. Which of the following Pacts
succeeded the Communal Award of Q.640. Which of the following options is
Conferences.
1932? not related to the non-cooperation
Q.634. In which of the following places Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1) movement started by Mahatma Gandhi?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Sol.643.(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale. He Q.648. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi
(a) Signing of the resolution of Poorna was a mentor to both Mahatma Gandhi successfully led a strike of ________.
Swaraj in Lahore and Mohammed Ali Jinnah. SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening)
(b) Boycott of foreign goods (a) Army Soldiers (b) Dalits
(c) Distribution of spinning wheels Q.644. In which year was Mohandas (c) Mill workers (d) Traders
(d) Picketing at liquor shops Karamchand Gandhi born?
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift) Sol.648.(c) Mill workers. Ahmedabad
Sol.640.(a) The resolution for Poorna (a) 1659 (b) 1869 (c) 1889 (d) 1879 Mill Strike (1918) - This is considered
Swaraj (complete independence) was the first hunger strike led by Gandhi.
Sol.644.(b) 1869. Mahatma Gandhi: Born
passed at the Lahore session of the Q.649. In Kheda, Gujarat, Patidar
on 2nd October (observed as
Indian National Congress in December peasants organised non-violent
International Day of Non-violence). He
1929, under the leadership of Jawaharlal campaigns against which of the
came back to India on 9th January
Nehru. He hoisted the Indian tricolor flag following demand of the British?
(celebrated as ‘NRI day’ or ‘Pravasi
on the banks of the Ravi river. The SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Bhartiya Divas’ since 2003) 1915 from
non-cooperation movement was (a) Low labour rates
South Africa.
launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 to (b) Long working hours
persuade Indians to withdraw their Q.645. Who was the founder of Harijan (c) High land revenue
cooperation from the British government Sevak Sangh founded in 1932? (d) Low price for crops
and advocate for self-governance. SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Sol.649.(c) High land revenue. Kheda
Q.641. Gandhiji gave his slogan of ‘Do or Satyagraha of 1918 was a satyagraha
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
Die’ during which of the following movement in the Kheda district of
(c) Jyotiba Phule
Movements/Satyagrahas? Gujarat in India organized by Mahatma
df
(d) BR Ambedkar
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Gandhi during the period of the British
_p
(a) Civil Disobedience Sol.645.(b) Mahatma Gandhi. Raj. The peasant-Patidar community of
(b) Kheda Satyagraha Organisation Founded by MK Gandhi: Kheda, who refused to accept a 23
na
(c) Champaran Satyagraha Majdoor Mahajan (1916) in Ahmedabad. percent tax increase imposed on them
(d) Quit India It was related to the labour movement or despite a devastating crop failure and an
ap
textile movement in Gujarat. All-India outbreak of plague and cholera, served
Sol.641.(d) The Quit India Movement
Spinners Association (1925), All-India as the focal point of this satyagraha.
(also known as the August Movement)
:@
Village Industries Association (1934).
was launched by the Indian National Q.650. When did depressed classes get
Congress on August 8, 1942. Other key Q.646. The famous scientist, Albert the reserved seats in provincial and
movements by Mahatma Gandhi include Einstein was inspired by whose idea on
TG
central legislative councils, but they were
the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930), non-violence? to be voted in by the General electorate?
the Kheda Satyagraha (1918) in Gujarat, SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift) SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
demanding relaxation in revenue (a) Mahatma Gandhi
on
(a) September 1930 (b) November 1932
collection for peasants, and the (b) Vardhaman Mahavira (c) November 1930 (d) September 1932
Champaran Satyagraha (1917), opposing (c) Gautam Buddha
ch
the Tinkathia system, which forced (d) B.R. Ambedkar Sol.650.(d) September 1932. Poona
peasants to grow indigo on 3/20th of Pact - Agreement between Mahatma
Sol.646.(a) Mahatma Gandhi. His Ideas -
ar
their land. Gandhi and Dr. B. R. Ambedkar - Seats
Truth and nonviolence, Satyagraha, reserved for the depressed classes were
Se
Q.642. Vallabhbhai Patel and ________ Sarvodaya (Progress of All), Swaraj increased from 71 to 147 in provincial
helped Gandhi in Kheda by organising his (self-rule), Trusteeship (Wealthy people legislatures and 18 percent of the total in
tour of the villages and urging the to look after the welfare of the people). the Central Legislature.
peasants to stand firm against the
government. Q.647. Who among the following Q.651. Gandhiji, aged ______, arrived in
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) returned his/her medal of Kaisar-i-Hind in India in 1915 from South Africa.
(a) Motilal Nehru 1920 ? SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 ( Shift - 3) (a) 52 (b) 46 (c) 28 (d) 34
(c) Indulal Yajnik (a) S Subramania iyer
(b) Sarojini Naidu Sol.651.(b) 46. Gandhiji (born on 2nd
(d) Jamunalal Bajaj
(c) Rabindranath Tagore October 1869 in Porbandar, Gujarat) went
Sol.642.(c) Indulal Yajnik. Mahatma (d) Mahatma Gandhi to South Africa in 1893 as a lawyer,
Gandhi returned to India on 9 January settling first in Durban before moving to
1915. Sol.647.(d) Mahatma Gandhi. Kaiser - e - Johannesburg.
Hind title was given to Mahatma Gandhi
Q.643. On whose advice did Gandhi by Governor-General of India Lord Q.652. Which of the following Indian
spend a year traveling around British Hardinge in 1915 for his services during freedom fighter said that "Be the change
India to know the people of India? the Boer War (1899 - 1902). Gandhi you wish to see in the world" ?
SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (1st Shift) returned his title in response to the SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
(a) Krishna Shankar Pandya Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13th April (a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah 1919). Rabindranath Tagore returned his (b) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(c) Shrimad Rajchandra Knighthood title in response to the (c) Surendranath Banerjee
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale massacre. (d) Mahatma Gandhi
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Sol.652.(d) Mahatma Gandhi. His other Sol.656.(c) The Hunter Commission (c) Kushal Konwar
Famous Quotes: “A man is but the came to India in 1919 under the (d) Kanaiyalal Maneklal Munshi
product of his thoughts. What he thinks, leadership of William Hunter to
he becomes.”, “Nobody can hurt me investigate the Jallianwala Bagh Sol.660.(c) Kushal Konwar. Facts of Quit
without my permission.” massacre. Another Hunter Commission India Movement - The Quit India
was on Indian Education, prepared in Resolution was passed by the Congress
Q.653. In which of the following years, 1882 by William Wilson Hunter. Working Committee on 8 August 1942 in
did Subhas Chandra Bose refer to Bombay. ‘Quit India’ or ‘Bharat Chodo
Mahatma Gandhi as the “Father of the Q.657. Which of the following is NOT a 'slogan was given in this movement .
Nation”? reason for slowing down the Gandhiji gave the slogan to the people –
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Non-cooperation Movement? ‘Do or die’; It is also known as the India
(a) 1942 (b) 1944 (c) 1939 (d) 1941 SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Morning) August Movement or August Kranti.
(a) Due to the absence of alternative
Sol.653.(b) 1944. Subhas Chandra Bose Indian institution, boycott of British Q.661. Which Newspaper was founded
called Mahatma Gandhi the ‘Father of the Institutions posed a problem. by Mahatma Gandhi in South Africa in
Nation’ in a radio address from (b) Leaders of the movement shifted 1903?
Singapore on 6 July 1944. their focus towards domestic work SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Evening)
thus created a void. (a) Young India (b) Indian Opinion
Q.654. The All-India Khilafat Conference (c) Swaraj Hind (d) Navajivan
in November 1919 took place at: (c) Many lawyers resigned but then
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning) absence of income for a longer Sol.661.(b) Indian Opinion.
(a) Lucknow (b) Delhi period of time compelled them to The Indian Opinion was an important
(c) Bombay (d) Lahore rejoin. newspaper established in 1903 in
df
(d) Khadi cloth was often more Durban, South Africa, by Mahatma
Sol.654.(b) Delhi. In early 1919, the All expensive than mass-produced Gandhi and M. H. Nazar. It was a primary
_p
India Khilafat Committee was formed mill cloth and poor people could not communication organ of the Natal Indian
under the leadership of the Ali brothers afford to buy it. Congress.
na
(Maulana Muhammad Ali and Shaukat
Ali), Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Ajmal Sol.657.(b) Mahatma Gandhi started the Q.662. C Rajagopalachari led the Salt
ap
Khan and Hasrat Mohani, to force the Non- Cooperation Movement on 4 Satyagraha in which of the following
British Government to change its attitude September 1920. Lord Chelmsford was states ?
:@
to Turkey. the viceroy of British India during the SSC CGL 20/08/2021(Morning)
Non-Cooperation Movement. The Chauri (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra
Q.655. Who among the following called -Chaura incident was the driver of (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Rajasthan
TG
Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose a patriot of subsequent withdrawal of the Non
patriots? -Cooperation Movement. Sol.662.(c) Tamil Nadu. Salt March
Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3) (Dandi Satyagraha, 12th March 1930 to
Q.658. In which of the following years
on
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru 6th April, 1930 ) was an act of nonviolent
(b) Chittaranjan Das was the civil disobedience campaign civil disobedience led by Mohandas
(c) Mahatma Gandhi completely Ceased ? Karamchand Gandhi. Other leaders - K.
ch
(d) Pattabhi Sitaramayya SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Evening) Kelappan (Malabar), Gopabandhu
(a) 1917 (b) 1934 (c) 1923 (d) 1943 Chaudhary (Orissa).
ar
Sol.655.(c) Mahatma Gandhi.
Rabindranath Tagore called Subhash Sol.658.(b) 1934. It began with the
Se
Chandra Bose a 'Desh Nayak'. The famous Dandi March of Gandhiji, on 12 Expansion of British Rule
famous slogan given by Subhas Chandra March 1930.
Q.663. Which of the following
Bose: “Dilli Chalo, Jai Hind”, "Give me Q.659. Who among the following personalities had the key role in fighting
blood, I will give freedom". Subhas freedom fighters hoisted the Indian flag against the British East India Company in
Chandra Bose Autobiography: “The at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Mumbai the Battle of Porto Novo?
Indian Struggle”. during the Quit India Movement ? SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.656. Which of the following events SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Afternoon) (a) Hyder Ali (b) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
occurred as an after-effect of the (a) Aruna Asaf Ali (c) Alamgir-II (d) Gopala Nayaker
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13th April (b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Tara Rani Srivastava Sol.663.(a) Hyder Ali. The Battle of Porto
1919) ?
(d) Matangini Hazra Novo (1781) was fought between Hyder
SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Afternoon)
Ali and the East India Company (EIC), led
(a) Hunger strike to settle disputes Sol.659.(a) Aruna Asaf Ali. Aruna Asaf by Sir Eyre Coote. Hyder Ali was a key
between the mill owners and the Ali popularly known as the 'Grand Old figure in the Anglo-Mysore Wars. The
workers Lady' of the Independence Movement. First Anglo-Mysore War (1767–1769)
(b) Individual princes could sign a
was fought between Hyder Ali and the
separate agreement with the British Q.660. Who among the following was the
EIC. The Second Anglo-Mysore War
(c) Hunter Commission was appointed only martyr of the Quit India phase of the
(1780–1784) also saw Hyder Ali leading
by the British Government freedom movement who was hanged ?
the Mysore forces; however, he died
(d) Popularisation of Charkha and Khadi SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Evening)
during the conflict, after which his son,
and Jail Bharo by Congress (a) Potti Sreeramulu
Tipu Sultan, continued the war.
volunteers. (b) Senapati Bapat
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.664. Which of the following battles is India. The first iron and steel mill was Q.672. The British East India Company
considered the formal beginning of the established in 1907, in Jamshedpur by captured Pondicherry (Puducherry) from
British Raj in India? Tata Iron and Steel Company. the French in the year ______.
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift) SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Morning)
(a) First Carnatic War Q.668. In the 18th century, the (a) 1761 (b) 1699 (c) 1674 (d) 1738
(b) Battle of Plassey development of cotton industries in
(c) Battle of Wandiwash Britain resulted in _________ . Sol.672.(a) 1761. Pondicherry got its
(d) Battle of Buxar SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning) freedom from the French on 1st
(a) Increase in demand of Indian textile November 1954. The Union Territory of
Sol.664.(b) The Battle of Plassey took in Britain Puducherry comprises the erstwhile
place in Bengal on June 23, 1757. British (b) Decline of textiles production in India French colonies viz. Puducherry, Karaikal,
East India Company troops, led by Robert (c) Increase in demand of Indian textile Mahe and Yanam.
Clive, confronted the forces of in India
Siraj-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal, (d) Decline of British textiles industries in Q.673. Which monument was built in
along with his French allies. The British India 1924 to welcome King George V and
East India Company won this battle. Queen Mary?
Sol.668.(b) Reason for decline: Export of SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Morning)
Q.665. In which year was the battle of textiles to England became more and (a) Gateway of India (b) Bombay Castle
Buxar fought? more difficult because the British (c) Victoria Memorial (d) Chattri Brighton
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Government imposed high duties on
(a) 1793 (b) 1777 (c) 1764 (d) 1757 Indian textiles. Thorp Mill (1764) - The Sol.673.(a) Gateway of India. The
first water-powered cotton mill in the Gateway of India is an Arch-Monument
Sol.665.(c) 1764. Battle of Buxar : world was constructed at Royton, built in the early 20th century in the city
df
Fought between the British East India Lancashire (England). The first cotton of Mumbai.
Company and the combined armies of
_p
textile mill (India) - Established at Fort
Mir Qasim (Nawab of Bengal), Glastor near Kolkata (1818). The Revolutionaries
Shuja-ud-Daulah (Nawab of Awadh), and
na
the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II. The Q.669. In 1600, the East India company Q.674. Tirot Sing was the leader of which
British East India Company was led by acquired a charter from_________. of the following revolts?
ap
Hector Munro. The Britishers won this SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Evening) SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
battle. The Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II (a) Queen Elizabeth I (b) King Edward VI (a) Khasi uprising
:@
- granted the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and (c) King Henry IV (d) Queen Victoria (b) Sanyasi Revolt
Orissa to the East India Company. (c) Poligars’s Revolt
Sol.669.(a) Queen Elizabeth I. By the (d) Singpho’s Rebellion
TG
Q.666. Where was the first jute mill set Charter (1600 A.D), they got the sole
up in India? right to trade with the East, without Sol.674.(a) Khasi uprising. Tirot Sing,
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift) competition from other British traders. also known as U Tirot Sing Syiem, was a
on
(a) Mumbai (b) Rishra The Company's ships first arrived in Khasi chief in the early 19th century. The
(c) Chennai (d) Haryana India, at the port of Surat, in 1608. Khasi uprising (Anglo-Khasi War) was a
conflict between the Khasi people and
ch
Sol.666.(b) Rishra (West Bengal, 1855). Q.670. The first English factory was set the British Empire that took place from
First Jute mill (Acland Mill) - Established up on the banks of the river _______ in 1829 to 1833. The Sanyasi Uprisings
ar
by British entrepreneur George Acland 1651. took place in Bengal between the periods
Se
and Bengali financier Babu By Sumber SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift) of 1770- 1820s. Poligar Revolt fought
Sen in Bengal Presidency. Central (a) Son (b) Yamuna (c) Ganga (d) Hugli between the British and the Poligars,
Research Institute for Jute and Allied feudal lords in southern India. The
Fibers is located in West Bengal. Sol.670.(d) Hugli. First English factory
Singpho Rebellion of 1830 took place in
National jute Board formed by National (Temporary) in India - Masulipattam
Assam.
Jute board Act, 2008 under the Ministry (1611). First English factory (Permanent)
of Textile. In 1854, the first modern in India - Surat (1613). First factory of Q.675. The planned large-scale
cotton mill was established in Mumbai other European Companies in India: disruption of rail communications and
by Cowaszee Nanabhoy Davar. Dutch - Masulipatnam (Andhra Pradesh) the seizure of arms in Bengal were
in 1605, Portuguese - Calicut (Kerala) in undertaken under the leadership of _____.
Q.667. Which of the following modern 1500, French - Surat (Gujarat) in 1668. SSC MTS 13/11/2024 (3rd Shift)
industries were in operation in India (a) Aurobindo Ghose
during the British Rule ? Q.671. Which of the following pairs is
(b) Surendranath Banerjee
a. Cotton b. Jute c. Iron and Steel correct regarding the East India
(c) Chittaranjan Das
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (1st shift) Company army?
(d) Jatin Mukherjee
(a) All of a, b and c (b) Both a and b I. Sawar — Men on horses
(c) Only a (d) Only c Il. Musket — A heavy gun used by infantry Sol.675.(d) Jatin Mukherjee, also known
soldiers as Bagha Jatin, was a prominent
Sol.667.(a) All of a, b and c. British rulers SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (3rd Shift) revolutionary leader in Bengal during the
never permitted modernization nor did (a) Only l (b) Only ll early 20th century who fought against
they encourage the growth of industries. (c) Both l and lI (d) Neither I nor Il British colonial rule. He was a key
The unbalanced and lopsided growth member of the Anushilan Samiti, a
structures were a legacy of British rule in Sol.671.(c) Both l and II.
revolutionary organization that planned
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
large-scale armed resistance against the who collaborated to promote Indian S.H. Chiplonkar and Mahadev Govind
British. independence from British rule. Shyamji Ranade.
Krishna Varma founded the Indian Home
Q.676. Under the leadership of which of Rule Society, India House, and The Indian Q.683. What was the name of the
the following revolutionaries was the Sociologist in London. Vinayak Damodar campaign led by the Ali brothers and
Chittagong Armoury Raid conducted? Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Maulana Abul Kalam Azad to save the
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Damodar Savarkar established the Ottoman Caliphate as a symbol of unity
(a) Rash Behari Bose (b) Badal Gupta Abhinav Bharat Society, also known as among the Muslim community?
(c) Hemu Kalani (d) Surya Sen the Young India Society, in 1904. SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Faraizi Movement
Sol.676.(d) Surya Sen is also known as
Q.680. Which of the following (b) Ahmadiya Movement
Master Da. He founded The Indian
groups/parties was started in San (c) Wahabi Movement
Republican Army. The Chittagong
Francisco, United States of America (d) Khilafat Movement
Armoury Raid took place on April 18,
during the Indian National Movement?
1930, in Chittagong (now in Bangladesh). Sol.683.(d) Khilafat Movement. It was a
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Ras Bihari Bose was the founder of the political campaign that took place from
(a) Hindustan Socialist Republican
'Indian Independence League’. He 1919 to 1922 in British India. It was a
Association
chaired the Indian Independence League protest against the British government's
(b) Swaraj Party
in 1942 to formally launch the Indian policies towards Turkey and the planned
(c) Khilafat Committee
National Army. dismantling of the Ottoman Empire after
(d) Ghadar Party
World War I. The Faraizi movement was
Q.677. Sido and Kanhu were leaders of Sol.680.(d) Ghadar Party : Founded in started by Haji Shariatullah in 1818. The
which of the following tribal rebellions? 1913 in the U.S. as the Hindi Association Ahmadiyya movement was founded by
df
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) of the Pacific Coast, it aimed to free India Mirza Ghulam Ahmad in 1889. Syed
(a) Moplah Rebellion
_p
from British rule. It was founded by Ahmed Barelvi started the Wahabi
(b) Santhal Rebellion Sohan Singh Bhakna and Lala Har Dayal. Movement in the 1820s.
(c) Kol Rebellion
na
(d) Munda Rebellion Q.681. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee wrote Q.684. Who was executed as an
a novel Anand Math based on which of accomplice to the murder of AMT
ap
Sol.677.(b) Santhal Rebellion (Hul revolt)
the following rebellions/revolts? Jackson ?
began in 1855, led by Sidhu, Kanhu,
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
:@
Chand, Bhairav, and their sisters Phulo
(a) Paika Rebellion (b) Sanyasi Rebellion (a) Krishnaji Gopal Karve
and Jhano. The Malabar rebellion
(c) Kuki Revolt (d) Mappila Rebellion (b) Matangini Hazra
(Moplah rebellion) was an armed
(c) Khudiram Bose
TG
uprising by the Mappila Muslims of Sol.681.(b) Sanyasi Rebellion. The
(d) Hemu Kalani
Kerala in 1921. The Kol rebellion Sanyasi Uprisings took place in Bengal
(1829-39) was led by Buddhu Bhagat, between the periods of 1770- 1820s. The Sol.684.(a) Krishnaji Gopal Karve.
on
Madara Mahato, and Joa Bhagat in the Sanyasis rose in rebellion after the great Jackson murder case also known as
Chota Nagpur region. The Munda famine of 1770 in Bengal which caused Nasik Conspiracy (Year 1909). Anant
Rebellion, led by Birsa Munda, took place acute chaos and misery. However, the Laxman Kanhere shot Jackson, the
ch
in the Ranchi area in 1899-1900. immediate cause of the rebellion was the Collector of Nashik, at Vijayanand
restrictions imposed by the British upon theatre. Kanhere was a member of the
ar
Q.678. In which of the following years
pilgrims visiting holy places among both Abhinav Bharat society. The event led to
was VD Savarkar sent to Andaman Jail
Se
Hindus and Muslims. The national song the arrest of Savarkar. Abhinav Bharat
by the British?
of India, 'Vande Mataram’, is an excerpt Society was a secret society founded by
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
taken from the novel Anand Math written Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his
(a) 1910 (b) 1922 (c) 1923 (d) 1911
by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in
Sol.678.(d) 1911. Vinayak Damodar 1904.
Savarkar was sent to the Cellular Jail on Q.682. Who founded the Bombay
the punishment of 'Kala Pani’ under the Presidency Association in 1885 along Q.685. Which of the following
Nashik Conspiracy Case for the murder with Pherozeshah Mehta and KT Telang? revolutionists was associated with the
of the Collector of Nashik District, SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) Anushilan Samiti?
Jackson. While serving his sentence in (a) AK Fazlul Haq SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
the Cellular Jail, he wrote the epic (b) Badruddin Tyabji (a) Rajguru
'Kamala' on the prison walls. (c) Behramji M Malabari (b) Bhagat Singh
(d) Zakir Husain (c) Jatindra Mohan Sengupta
Q.679. In 1910, The United India House (d) Sukhdev
Sol.682.(b) Badruddin Tyabji was the
at Seattle, USA, was set up by _________.
third President (in 1887) of the Indian Sol.685.(c) Jatindra Mohan Sengupta.
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Shyamji Krishna Varma National Congress and the first Muslim Anushilan Samiti was founded by Satish
(b) Tarak Nath Das and GD Kumar to hold that position. Other Political Chandra Bose and Barrister Praanath
(c) Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki organisations and founder: London Mitra. Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and
(d) VD Savarkar and Ganesh Indian Society (1865) - Dadabhai Sukhdev were members of the Hindustan
Naoroji. East India Association (1866) - Socialist Republican Association (HSRA),
Sol.679.(b) Tarak Nath Das and GD Dadabhai Naoroji. Poona Sarvajanik involved in the Lahore Conspiracy Case
Kumar. They were Indian revolutionaries Sabha (1870) - G.V. Joshi, S.H. Sathe, of 1929.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.686. In 1908 Khudiram Bose along Q.689. Who among the following (b) Bhagat Singh and Ram Prasad Bismil
with _________ was involved in throwing a founded the Khudai Khidmatgars or the (c) Bhagat Singh and Batukeshawar Dutt
bomb at a carriage believing it to be Red Shirts, a powerful non-violent (d) Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev
occupied by Kingsford, the then sitting movement?
judge of Muzaffarpur. Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Sol.692.(c) Bhagat Singh and
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan Batukeshwar Dutt. They threw bomb
(a) Rajguru (b) Sukhdev (b) BR Ambedkar against the passage of the Public Safety
(c) Prafulla Chaki (d) Bhagat Singh (c) Subhas Chandra Bose Bill and the Trade Disputes Bill which
(d) Mahatma Gandhi would reduce the civil liberties of
Sol.686.(c) Prafulla Chaki was an Indian citizens. They were members of the
revolutionary associated with the Sol.689.(a) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, Hindustan Socialist Republican
Jugantar group of revolutionaries. also known as 'Frontier Gandhi' and Association. On 23rd March, 1931
Khudiram Bose was among the youngest 'Bacha Khan', was a prominent freedom Bhagat Singh was hanged in the Lahore
martyrs of India's freedom struggle fighter and advocate of non-violence. He jail at the age of 23.
against the British. At just 15, he had became the first non-Indian to receive
joined Anushilan Samiti and took part in Bharat Ratna in 1987. B.R. Ambedkar Q.693. Who is regarded as the 'Mother of
several revolutionary activities against was the first Law Minister of India and Indian Revolution' ?
the British Raj. He was executed on the architect of the Indian Constitution. SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
August 11, 1908, in Muzaffarpur jail in Subhas Chandra Bose was an Indian (a) Annie Besant (b) Usha Mehta
Bihar. nationalist and the founder of the All (c) Madame Cama (d) Kasturba Gandhi
India Forward Bloc. Mahatma Gandhi Sol.693.(c) Madame Cama : She is
Q.687. During British rule in India, who was an Indian lawyer and anti-colonial famous for hosting the precursor to the
among the following unfurled the flag of
df
nationalist, renowned for his principles of Indian National Flag on foreign soil
India in Germany in 1907? non-violence. (Stuttgart in Germany).
_p
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Annie Besant Q.690. The 'Servants of India Society' Q.694. Which great leader died due to his
na
(c) Sucheta Kriplani (d) Bhikaji Cama was the brainchild of which of the injuries in the Anti-Simon Commission
following leaders ? Protest of 1928?
Sol.687.(d) Madam Bhikaji Cama. She
ap
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift)
founded the ‘Paris Indian Society’. Annie
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (a) Lala Lajpat Rai (b) Lala Hardayal
Besant (British socialist) - Founded
:@
(b) BR Ambedkar (c) Bhagat Singh (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Home rule league in India and she was
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
first woman president of Indian National
(d) Chittaranjan Das Sol.694.(a) Lala Lajpat Rai (Freedom
Congress (INC). Sarojini Naidu - First
TG
fighters). He was also called ‘Punjab
Indian woman president of the INC. Sol.690.(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale Kesari’ and 'Lion of Punjab'. Bal
Sucheta Kriplani holds the distinction of founded - Ranade Institute of Economics Gangadhar Tilak - Founded the Home
being India's first female Chief Minister, (1908). He started an English weekly
on
Rule League in 1916. Simon Commission
serving the state of Uttar Pradesh. newspaper, The Hitavada (The people's - Indian Statutory Commission, group of
paper). Servants of India Society was seven Members, not a single Indian
Q.688. Who among the following
ch
founded in 1905. Chitranjan Das is member in it, Headed by Sir John Simon.
revolutionaries was one of the
popularly known as Deshbandhu. Lala Simon Commission came to India in
co-founders of the Hindustan Socialist
ar
Lajpat Rai - Punjab National bank. 1928.
Republican Association (HSRA) which
Se
got established in 1928 at Ferozeshah Q.691. ‘Mitra Mela’ was a revolutionary Q.695. Who among the following, along
Kotla in Delhi? organisation founded by: with her close associates, started the
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale secret congress radio during the Quit
(a) Bhupendra Nath Bose India Movement?
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh (b) Khudiram Bose
(c) Bhagat Singh SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (4th shift)
(c) Vinayak Savarkar (a) Bhikaiji Cama (b) Lakshmi Sehgal
(d) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Sisir Kumar Bose (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Usha Mehta
Sol.688.(c) Bhagat Singh. The Hindustan Sol.691.(c) Vinayak Savarkar. Mitra Mela
Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), Sol.695.(d) Usha Mehta. Awards -
was founded in the year 1899 in Nashik. Padma Vibhushan (1998).
formerly known as the Hindustan He and his brother Ganesh Damodar
Republican Army (HRA) was founded by established the society (later renamed Q.696. The statement- "We shall die to
Ram Prasad Bismil, Sachindra Nath Abhinav Bharat Society or the Young awaken the nation" was made by.
Bakshi, Sachindranath Sanyal, and India Society). It believed in the concept SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Evening)
Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee. HRA was of Armed rebellion to overthrow the (a) Bagha Jatin
established in October 1924 in Kanpur, British. (b) Pingali Venkayya
Uttar Pradesh, by revolutionaries (c) Bir Tikendrajit Singh
including Ram Prasad Bismil, Jogesh Q.692. On 8th April 1929, who among the (d) Surya Sen
Chatterjee, Chandrashekhar Azad, following two revolutionists threw a
Yogendra Shukla, and Sachindranath bomb in the Central Legislative Sol.696.(a) Bagha Jatin (Jatindranath
Sanyal. HRA took to socialist ideas, Assembly? Mukherjee) - Born on 7th December 1879
under Chandrashekhar Azad leadership, SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (1st Shift) in Kayagram (Nadia district) present-day
in 1928. (a) Bhagat Singh and Rajguru Bangladesh. He acquired the moniker
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
‘Bagha Jatin’ when he single-handedly SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) Q.704. The Koraput Revolution occurred
killed a Bengal tiger in 1906. Bir (a) Bhagat Singh in ______ during the Quit India Movement.
Tikendrajit Singh - He was a prince of the (b) Surya Sen Graduate Level 02/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
independent Kingdom of Manipur. (c) Sachindra Nath Sanyal (a) Orissa (b) the United Provinces
(d) Barindra Kumar Ghosh (c) Bihar (d) Bengal
Q.697. Which freedom fighter was
involved in the Kakori Train Action in Sol.700.(a) Bhagat Singh and Sol.704.(a) Odisha. Koraput revolution
1925, for which the British government Batukeshwar Dutt threw a bomb in the {On August 25, 1942, 19 people died on
condemned him to death? Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April the spot in police firing at Paparandi in
SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Morning) 1929. Sachindra Nath Sanyal was Nabarangpur (Odisha). More than a
(a) Ram Prasad Bismil co-founder of the Hindustan Republican thousand were jailed in Koraput district
(b) Lala Hardayal Association (HRA) in 1924. Barindra (Odisha). Veer Lakhan Nayak (Gandhi of
(c) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar Kumar Ghosh (younger brother of Sri Odisha) was hanged}. Quit India
(d) Mahatma Gandhi Aurobindo) published the Bengali weekly movement (8 August 1942 - 1944) - led
Jugantar patrika (1906). by Mahatma Gandhi.
Sol.697.(a) Ram Prasad Bismil. Kakori
Train Action - It was a train robbery (part Q.701. Who among the following Q.705. Which of the following
of Kakori Conspiracy) that took place on revolutionaries was associated with statements about Bharat Naujawan
9 August 1925, near Lucknow. It was Swadesh Bandhav Samiti? Sabha is INCORRECT?
organised by the Hindustan Republican SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Graduate Level 05/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
Association (HRA). Ram Prasad Bismil, (a) Chandrasekhar Azad (a) It was founded in Punjab
Ashfaqulla Khan, and Roshan Singh were (b) Bhagat Singh (b) Bhagat Singh became its founding
hanged on 19 December 1927. Rajendra (c) Rajguru secretary
df
Nath Lahiri hanged on December 17, (d) Ashwini Kumar Dutta (c) It was established in 1927
_p
1927. Sol.701.(d) Ashwini Kumar Dutta (d) It started political work among the
founded the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti on youth, peasants, and workers
Q.698. The Revolutionary Socialist Party
na
was established in ________. 6th August 1905 in Barisal district Sol.705.(c) Bharat Naujawan Sabha was
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (4th Shift) (Bangladesh). Weekly paper: Barisal founded in Lahore (1926) by Bhagat
ap
(a) 1936 (b) 1925 (c) 1940 (d) 1929 Hitaishi. He was responsible for the Singh.
creation of the Cooperative Hindustan
Sol.698.(c) 19 March 1940 by Tridib
:@
Bank in 1908. Q.706. Who among the following led the
Chaudhuri. It has its roots in the Bengali famous Indigo Revolt in Bengal?
liberation movement Anushilan Samiti Q.702. Who among the following SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Afternoon)
TG
and the Hindustan Socialist Republican organized the armed rebellion against (a) Mahatma Gandhi
Association . The first general secretary the British Raj in 1879 in Maharashtra? (b) Bishnu Charan Biswas and Digambar
of the party was Jogesh Chandra SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon) Biswas
(a) Vasudev Balwant Phadke
on
Chatterjee. (c) Vasudev Balwant Phadke
(b) Birsa Munda (d) Madari Pasi
Q.699. Who said the following words? (c) Buddhu Bhagat
ch
“Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab hamare dil me (d) Tikendrajit Singh Sol.706.(b) Digambar Biswas and Bishnu
hai, dekhna hai zor kitna baazu-e-qaatil Biswas of Nadia district Bengal led the
ar
mein hai” Sol.702.(a) Vasudev Balwant Phadke - Indigo revolt. This Revolt began as a
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift) Known as the First Revolutionary and nonviolent strike in March 1859, as the
Se
(a) Ramprasad Bismil also the ‘Father of militant nationalism ryots of a village in Bengal's Nadia
(b) Bhagat Singh in India.’ Birsa Munda also known as district all agreed to refuse to grow any
(c) Ras Bihari Bose Dharti Aaba (Father of Earth), belonged more indigo.
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose to the Munda tribe in the Chotanagpur
Plateau area. Q.707. Which of the following
Sol.699.(a) Ramprasad Bismil (poet,
revolutionaries was arrested by the
writer, freedom fighter) - He participated Q.703. The Communist Party of India British as an accused in the Alipore
in the Mainpuri Conspiracy of 1918, and was founded at ________ in October 1920. Bomb Conspiracy Case?
the Kakori Conspiracy of 1925. Subhash SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning) SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon)
Chandra Bose - “Jai Hind” & “Tum Mujhe (a) Calcutta (b) Britain (a) Kanailal Dutta (b) Rajendra Lahiri
Khoon Do, Mai Tumhe Azadi Dunga”. (c) Lahore (d) Tashkent (c) Roshan Singh (d) Ashfaq Ullah Khan
Mahatma Gandhi - “Karo ya Maro”.
Sol.703.(d) Tashkent. M.N. Roy Sol.707.(a) Kanailal Dutta was among
Muhammad Iqbal - “Sare Jahan Se
(Manabendra Nath Roy), Abani Mukherji, the 33 revolutionaries who got arrested
Achha Hindustan Hamara”. Bankim
founded the Communist Party of India in the Emperor vs Aurobindo Ghosh
Chandra Chatterjee - “Vande Mataram”.
(CPI) in 1920 in Tashkent (now the (Alipore Bomb Case). The Alipore Bomb
Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya -
capital of Uzbekistan). The Communist case was a historic trial in which the
“Satyameva Jayate”.
Party of India was officially formed British Government tried to implicate Sri
Q.700. Which of the following (1925) in Kanpur. Its founders included Aurobindo in various revolutionary
revolutionaries stated during his trial that M. N. Roy, his wife Evelyn Trent, Abani activities.
"he did not wish to glorify the cult of the Mukherji, and M. P. T. Acharya
bomb and pistol but wanted a revolution (Mandayam Parthasarathi Tirumal Q.708. At which of the following jails was
in society"? Acharya). Khudiram Bose sent to the gallows?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening) struggle led by the Rani of Jhansi, Tantia 1916, Tilak founded the Indian Home
(a) Chittagong (b) Barishal Tope, Kunwar Singh and others had Rule League, with its headquarters in
(c) Muzaffarpur (d) Alipore subsided. Poona. The league's first meeting was
held in Belgaum. In September 1916,
Sol.708.(c) Muzaffarpur. Khudiram Q.713. Who was the first general Annie Besant founded the All-India Home
Bose was arrested for trying to secretary of the All India Farmer’s Rule League, based in Madras.
assassinate British judge Douglas Congress? Organizations and their founders : Indian
Kingsford, he was executed on August SSC CGL 17/08/2021(Afternoon) Association - Surendranath Banerjee and
11, 1908, in Muzaffarpur jail in Bihar. (a) Acharya Narendra Dev Ananda Mohan Bose; Theosophical
(b) Swami Sahjanand Saraswati Society - Helena Blavatsky, Henry Steel
Q.709. Who among the following
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel Olcott, William Quan Judge.
persons was associated with the
(d) N.G. Ranga
Chittagong Armoury Raid?
Q.717. Which of the following events
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Evening) Sol.713.(d) NG Ranga. He was a
took place in the United Provinces in
(a) Vishnu Sharan Dublish freedom fighter from Andhra Pradesh
February, 1922?
(b) Sachindra Nath Bakshi and also received Padma Vibhusan from
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(c) Manmath Nath Gupta the President of India for his
(a) Quit India (b) Chauri Chaura
(d) Ardhendu Dastidar contributions to the peasants'
(c) Khilafat Movement (d) Kakori Incident
movement.
Sol.709.(d) Ardhendu Dastidar.
Sol.717.(b) Chauri Chaura Incident took
Q.714. Who among the following was a
Q.710. Who among the following killed place at Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur
leader who led a revolt against British
Michael O'Dwyer, the British officer district of United Provinces (now Uttar
rule from North East India?
Pradesh) in British India. The police there
df
responsible for the Jallianwala Bagh SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Afternoon)
massacre? fired upon a large group of protesters
(a) Pritilata Waddedar
_p
SSC MTS 08/10/2021(evening) participating in the non-cooperation
(b) Rani Gaidinliu
(a) Ram Prasad Bismil movement. In retaliation, the
(c) Durgawati Devi
na
(b) Udham Singh demonstrators attacked and set fire to a
(d) Matangini Hazra
(c) Chandrashekhar Azad police station, killing all of its occupants.
ap
(d) Bhagat Singh Sol.714.(b) Rani Gaidinliu was a Naga The incident led to the deaths of three
spiritual and political leader who led a civilians and 22 policemen. Mahatma
:@
Sol.710.(b) Udham Singh. O'Dwyer, was revolt against British rule in India. At the Gandhi halted the non-cooperation
shot dead at a joint meeting of the East age of 13, she joined the Heraka religious movement on 12th February 1922 after
India Association and the Central Asian movement established by her cousin the Chauri Chaura incident.
TG
Society in Caxton Hall, in retaliation for Haipou Jadonang in Manipur.
the massacre in Jallianwala Bagh Q.718. Indian National Army was formed
Amritsar. in which of the following countries?
Struggle for Independence SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
on
Q.711. Who among the following (a) Singapore (b) Germany
assassinated Sir William Hutt Curzon Q.715. Where of the following was Bal (c) London (d) Japan
ch
Wyllie in London? Gangadhar Tilak’s Home Rule Movement
SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Afternoon) active? Sol.718.(a) Singapore. The Indian
National Army (INA), also known as the
ar
(a) Surya Sen SSC MTS 29/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
(b) Madan Lal Dhingra (a) Bihar (b) Maharashtra Azad Hind Fauj, was a collaborationist
Se
(c) Sukhdev Thapar (c) Madras (d) Punjab armed unit of Indian supporters that
(d) Khudiram Bose fought under the command of the
Sol.715.(b) Maharashtra. Bal Gangadhar Japanese Empire. It was founded by
Sol.711.(b) Madan Lal Dhingra was an Tilak launched his Home Rule Movement Mohan Singh in September 1942 during
Indian revolutionary independence in 1916. It was primarily centered in World War II.
activist. While studying in England, he Maharashtra, which was his home base.
assassinated Sir William Hutt Curzon He had significant influence and Q.719. Being the President of the Indian
Wyllie, a British official, cited as one of following in this region. He published his National Congress, who among the
the first acts of revolution in the Indian ideas through his newspapers "Kesari" following had called for complete
independence movement in the 20th (in Marathi) and "Mahratta" (in English) independence from the British Raj in
century. from Maharashtra. 1929?
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.712. Veer Surendra Sai was a freedom Q.716. Which of the following (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
fighter from: organisations, divided into two branches, (b) Subhas Chandra Bose
SSC CGL 13/08/2021(Afternoon) was established by Lokmanya Bal (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(a) Nagaland (b) Sikkim Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant? (d) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Telangana (d) Odisha SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Indian Association Sol.719.(a) Jawaharlal Nehru. He was an
Sol.712.(d) Odisha. Veer Surendra Sai (b) Theosophical society Indian freedom fighter who later became
started his revolt against British rule long (c) East Indian Association the first Prime Minister of India. In
before 1857 and continued his guerrilla (d) Home Rule League December 1929, he was chosen as the
war against the British authority from President of the Indian National
1857 till 1864 long after 1857 the Sol.716.(d) Home Rule League. In April Congress during its annual session in
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Lahore. At this event, he raised the (a) Syed Ahmed Khan (b) CV Raman Nehru, raised the Indian National Flag
tricolour flag on the banks of the Ravi (c) Rabindranath Tagore (d) JC Bose above the __________ of Red Fort in Delhi.
River. SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Sol.723.(c) Rabindranath Tagore. The (a) Delhi Gate (b) Kashmiri Gate
Q.720. On 31 October 1940, who among Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred on (c) Ajmeri Gate (d) Lahori Gate
the following was arrested for offering April 13, 1919, when British troops, led by
individual Satyagraha to protest against General Dyer, fired on a peaceful crowd in Sol.727.(d) Lahori Gate. The National
India’s forced participation in the Second Amritsar, killing hundreds. In protest, Flag of India was adopted on 22 July
World War ? Mahatma Gandhi returned the 1947, Designed by Pingali Venkayya.
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift) Kaiser-i-Hind title in 1920. The Hunter
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Commission was set up in 1919 to Q.728. Who moved the resolution
(b) Saifuddin Kitchlew investigate the incident. proposing that the National Flag of India
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru be a 'horizontal tricolor of saffron, white
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose Q.724. Who among the following was and dark green in equal proportion '?
one of the founders of the Swaraj Party? SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Sol.720.(c) Jawaharlal Nehru. On 31 Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
October 1940, Jawaharlal Nehru was (a) Subhas Chandra Bose (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
arrested for participating in individual (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (c) Mahatma Gandhi
Satyagraha, protesting against India’s (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru (d) Dr Rajendra Prasad
forced involvement in the Second World (d) Chittaranjan Das
War. During this period, Nehru also Sol.728.(b) Jawaharlal Nehru. The
engaged in limited Civil Disobedience Sol.724.(d) Chittaranjan Das. The Swaraj Tricolour was adopted as our national
and spent approximately nine years in jail Party, initially called the Congress flag at a Congress Committee meeting in
df
between 1921 and 1945. Khilafat Swaraj Party, was established in Karachi in 1931.
1923 by Chittaranjan Das and Motilal
_p
Q.721. Who among the following was Nehru. This formation took place after Q.729. Who among the following was the
primarily an integral part of the Indian the Gaya Annual Conference of the founder of 'Tiger Legion' or 'Free India
na
National Army (INA)? Indian National Congress in December Legion'?
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) 1922. Other important organizations and SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
ap
(a) Rabindranath Tagore their founders: Indian National Congress (a) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose (1885): Founded by A.O. Hume. All India (b) Subhas Chandra Bose
:@
(c) Chittaranjan Das Kisan Sabha (1936): Sahajanand (c) Sohan Singh Bhakhna
(d) Abanindranath Tagore Saraswati. Azad Hind Fauj (1943): Netaji (d) Lala Hardayal
Subhash Chandra Bose.
TG
Sol.721.(b) Subhas Chandra Bose. Sol.729.(b) Subhas Chandra Bose -
Indian National Army (INA) was a Q.725. Which of the following founder of 'Azad Hind Fauj'. 'Tiger Legion'
collaborationist armed unit of Indian Satyagrahas was started by Dr B R was formed in 1941 with the help of the
on
collaborators that fought under the Ambedkar in 1927? German Government to fight against the
command of the Japanese Empire. It SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) British.
ch
was founded by Mohan Singh in (a) Nasik Temple Satyagraha Q.730. The authorities of which country
September 1942 in Southeast Asia (b) Dharasana Satyagraha denied permission to land the ship
ar
during World War II. Some notable people (c) Mulshi Satyagraha Komagata Maru, carrying Indians?
associated: Mohan Singh, Habib ur (d) Mahad Satyagraha SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (1st shift)
Se
Rahman, Lt. Col Hori Lal Verma. (a) New Zealand (b) America
Sol.725.(d) Mahad Satyagraha: It is also
Q.722. What is the name of the famous known as the Chavdar Tank Satyagraha, (c) Australia (d) Canada
British social reformer known for begun in Mahad (Raigad), Maharashtra. It Sol.730.(d) Canada. The Komagata Maru
founding the Indian Home Rule League in centered around the Chavdar Tank, a was a coal-transport steamship that had
1916 ? public water source that was reserved been converted into a passenger ship by
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift) exclusively for upper castes. Hong Kong-based businessman Gurdit
(a) Anne Knight (b) Maria Rye Singh. It set off from Hong Kong in April
(c) Catherine Osler (d) Annie Besant Q.726. Who among the following leaders
founded the women's wing of Congress 1914, reaching Vancouver’s harbour a
Sol.722.(d) Annie Besant. Annie Besant, in 1940 ? month later with 376 people on board,
an Irish theosophist, started the Home SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) most of them Sikhs. The steamship
Rule movement in India in 1916, (a) Aruna Asaf Ali (b) Sucheta Kriplani eventually ended up back in India on 29th
demanding self-government similar to (c) Lakshmi Sangal (d) Sarojini Naidu Sep 1914 at Budge Budge, Calcutta.
the Irish Home Rule League. She founded Q.731. The origin of Directive Principles
the Home Rule League in Madras in Sol.726.(b) Sucheta Kriplani (First
female Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh of State Policy can be traced to which of
September 1916 and established over the following?
200 branches across India. from 1963 - 67). She sang Vande
Mataram on 14th August 1947 in the SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Q.723. Who among the following opening session of Parliament. (a) Gandhi Irwin Pact
personalities renounced his knighthood (b) Poona Pact
after the Jallianwala Bagh massacre? Q.727. On 15 August 1947, the first (c) Second Round Table Conference
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1) prime minister of India, Jawaharlal (d) Karachi Resolution
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Sol.731.(d) Karachi Resolution (1931). Sol.735.(c) 1879-1880. The Koya (a) C Natarajan Annadurai
The Karachi Session of Congress in 1931 Revolts rose under Tomma Sora during (b) SK Patil
was presided by Sardar Vallabhbhai 1879-80. Other important revolts are Kol (c) Atulya Ghosh
Patel. Gandhi Irwin Pact - 5 March 1931. Mutiny (1831), Ho and Munda Uprisings (d) Ram Manohar Lohia
It marked the end of civil disobedience. (1820-1837), The Santhal Rebellion
(1855-56), Ramosi Uprising (1822- 1829), Sol.740.(d) Ram Manohar Lohia.
Q.732. Who among the following etc. Congress Socialist Party (Socialist
freedom fighters was one of the caucus within the Indian National
founders of the Fergusson College in Q.736. In which of the following regions Congress) - Founded in 1934. Other
Pune in 1885 ? did Baba Ramchandra mainly lead the founders - Jayaprakash Narayan and
SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Afternoon) peasant struggle during colonial rule? Acharya Narendra Dev.
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Evening)
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (a) Awadh (b) Mysore Q.741. In which city was the Jhanda
(c) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (c) Jodhpur (d) Hyderabad Satyagraha or Flag Satyagraha of 1923
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai held?
Sol.736.(a) Awadh. He led a peasant SSC CGL 04/03/2020 (Afternoon)
Sol.732.(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Other movement in Awadh against Talukdars (a) Bombay (b) Nagpur
Co-founding members of Fergusson and Landlords. (c) Calcutta (d) Ahmedabad
College :- Vaman Shriram Apte,
Vishnushashtri Chiplunkar, Mahadeo Q.737. At which of the following places Sol.741.(b) Nagpur. Flag Satyagraha is a
Ballal Namjoshi and Gopal Krishna did C. Rajagopalachari break the salt law part of civil disobedience during the
Agarkar. in the year 1930 ? Indian independence movement.
SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Morning)
df
Q.733. Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das gave up (a) Vedaranyam (b) Tiruchi Q.742._______was executed at Lahore in
their legal practices during which (c) Tirupati (d) Madurai November 1915 for his role in the Ghadar
_p
Movement ? Conspiracy in February 1915.
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Morning) Sol.737.(a) Vedaranyam. SSC CGL 09/03/2020 (Evening)
na
(a) Self-respect Movement C. Rajagopalachari broke the salt law in (a) Kartar Singh Sarabha
(b) Quit India Movement 1930 at Vedaranyam, a small coastal (b) Tantia Mama
ap
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement town in the then Tanjore District. The first (c) Maganbhai Patel
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement Indian governor of free India was C. (d) Vijay Singh Pathik
:@
Rajagopalachari.
Sol.733.(c) Non-Cooperation Movement Sol.742.(a) Kartar Singh Sarabha.
(1920 - 1922). It was organized by Q.738. What was the name of the Ghadar Conspiracy (1915) - Plan to
TG
Mahatma Gandhi to obtain self women's regiment in the Indian National initiate a pan-India mutiny in the British
governance. Many lawyers gave up their Army founded by Subhash Chandra Indian Army during World War by the
practices such as Motilal Nehru, Bose? Ghadar Party (United States), the Berlin
on
C.Rajagopalachari, Saifuddin Kitchlew, SSC CGL 18/08/2021(Evening) Committee (Germany), the Indian
Vallabhbhai Patel, Asaf Ali, T. Prakasam (a) Rani of Jhansi Regiment revolutionary underground in British India
and Rajendra Prasad. (b) Rani Ahilyabai Regiment and the German Foreign Office.
ch
(c) Rani Padmawati Regiment
Q.734. When was Alluri Sitarama Raju (d) Rani of Didda Regiment Socio Religious Reforms
ar
arrested ending a two-year armed tribal
struggle? Sol.738.(a) Rani of Jhansi Regiment.
Se
Q.743. Consider the following
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(a) May 1924 (b) January 1921 Q.739. Which maharaja of Manipur statements with regard to Satnami
(c) April 1919 (d) December 1929 signed the Instrument of Accession with Movement of Central India.
the Government of India? a) The movement was founded by
Sol.734.(a) May 1924. He was publicly SSC CHSL 05/08/2021 (Afternoon) Ghasidas.
executed in Koyyuru on May 7 after being (a) Kulachandra Singh b) The movement was to improve the
tied to a tree and shot. His final resting (b) Bodhchandra Singh condition of leather workers.
place (tomb) is at Krishna Devi Peta, 111 (c) Nara Singh Which of the above statements is/are
km from Visakhapatnam. In August (d) Gambhir Singh correct?
1922, he launched the Rampa Rebellion SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon)
(Manyam Rebellion) against the British. Sol.739.(b) Bodhchandra Singh, signed
(a) Only a (b) Both a and b
During this rebellion, he was helped by the Instrument of Accession on 11
(c) Neither a or b (d) Only b
Bobbili Dora. The Prime Minister has August 1947, with the assurance of
unveiled a bronze statue of Alluri Manipur's internal autonomy. This Sol.743.(b) Both a and b. Guru Ghasidas,
Sitharama Raju in Andhra Pradesh to agreement marked Manipur's entry into a 19th-century advocate of the Satnami
celebrate 125th birth anniversary on 4th the Union of India, though full integration sect, founded the Satnami community in
July 2022. followed with the Manipur Merger Chhattisgarh, promoting Satnam (truth)
Agreement in 1949. and equality. His teachings share
Q.735. In which year, the Koya rebellion similarities with Hinduism and
took place in the eastern Godavari tract? Q.740. Who among the following was
Buddhism. The Satnami movement was
SSC CGL Tier II (07/03/2023) one of the founders of the Congress
led by non-Brahman leaders who worked
(a) 1882-1883 (b) 1874-1875 Socialist Party?
to empower marginalized communities.
(c) 1879-1880 (d) 1887-1888 SSC CHSL 20/10/2020 (Morning)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.744. Who among the following was (1875), Jamia Millia Islamia (1920), in Amritsar?
NOT one of the founders of the Ahrar Darul Uloom Deoband (1866), Osmania SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Movement in British India? University (1918). (a) Babbar Akali Movement
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Evening) (b) Akali Movement
(a) Hasan Imam Q.748. Which of the following social (c) Singh Sabha Movement
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad reformers of 19th century India was the (d) Gurudwara Movement
(c) Maulana Muhammad Ali author of 'Stree Purush Tulana'?
(d) Hakim Ajmal Khan SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.751.(c) Singh Sabha Movement. It
(a) Tarabai Shinde was a reform organization for Sikhs, with
Sol.744.(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (b) Swarnakumari Devi the first Sabhas established in Amritsar
was an Indian independence activist, (c) Pandita Ramabai in 1873 and Lahore in 1879. The Babbar
writer, and a senior leader of the Indian (d) Usha Mehta Akali Movement: It was founded at the
National Congress. After India’s Sikh Educational Conference in
Sol.748.(a) Tarabai Shinde (1850-1910)
independence, he became the first Hoshiarpur in 1921. The Gurudwara
: She was a pioneering Indian social
Minister of Education. The Ahrar Reform Movement (Akali Movement)
reformer and writer who advocated for
Movement was started by Muslims who was started in Amritsar in 1920.
women's rights. Her notable work, "Stree
had lost faith in the Khilafat Movement. It
Purush Tulana" (A Comparison Between Q.752. Who founded the Arya Samaj in
was founded by Maulana Muhammad Ali,
Women and Men), published in 1882, Mumbai in 1875 ?
Hakim Ajmal Khan, Hasan Imam,
critiqued the patriarchal society and SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Maulana Zafar Ali Khan, and
argued for gender equality. (a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Mazhar-ul-Haq .
Swarnakumari Devi : She was the first (b) Debendranath Tagore
Q.745. Who among the following Indian Woman editor (the editor of the (c) Swami Vivekanand
df
participated in the All-World Religious women’s journal Bharati). Usha Mehta (d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
_p
Conference (Parliament of Religions) wrote the book “Mahatma Gandhi and
Humanism”. Pandita Ramabai : She Sol.752.(a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati,
held in 1893 in Chicago?
an Indian philosopher, is known for his
na
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 wrote the High Caste Hindu Women,
Stree Dharma Neeti, American Encounter. work Satyarth Prakash and the slogan
(a) Swami Dayanand
“Go Back to the Vedas.” He also initiated
ap
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Q.749. Samata Sainik Dal was formed in the Shuddhi Movement. Debendranath
(c) Swami Shahjananda 1927 by whom among the following Tagore founded the Tattvabodhini Sabha
:@
(d) Swami Vivekananda personalities?
in 1839 and joined the Brahmo Samaj
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.745.(d) Swami Vivekananda was a (a) Savitribai Phule (b) BR Ambedkar (founded by Raja Rammohan Roy in
disciple of Ramakrishna. He gave his 1828) in 1842. The Ramakrishna Mission
TG
(c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Narayana Guru
famous speech at the Parliament of was established by Swami Vivekananda
World Religions in Chicago in 1893. He Sol.749.(b) BR Ambedkar. He founded in May 1897 at Belur Math, West Bengal.
established the Belur Math in West ‘Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha' in 1924 to
on
promote and uplift the education of Q.753. With reference to Ishwar Chandra
Bengal, and Ramakrishna Mission in
untouchables. Mahatma Gandhi founded Vidyasagar, consider the following
1897.
statements.
ch
- Harijan Sevak Sangh in 1932. Narayana
Q.746. Who founded the Prarthana Guru founded the Sree Narayana Dharma i) He protested child marriage and
polygamy.
ar
Samaj in Mumbai in 1867? Paripalana Yogam (SNDP) in 1903.
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) ii) Due to his efforts, the first Hindu
Se
(a) Atmaram Pandurang Q.750. Who among the following Widow Remarriage Act, 1856, was
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded the Atmiya Sabha in 1814? introduced.
(c) Shri Ram Bajpai SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) iii) He was primarily known for his
(d) Ram Mohan Roy (a) Keshab Chandra Sen scholarship in Persian language.
(b) Raja Rammohun Roy Which of the above statements is/are
Sol.746.(a) Atmaram Pandurang. (c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar correct?
Prarthana Samaj was founded with an (d) Debendranath Tagore SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
aim to make people believe in one God (a) i, ii, iii (b) i, ii (c) i, iii (d) ii, iii
and worship only one God. Sol.750.(b) Raja Rammohun Roy, known
as "the Father of Indian Renaissance," Sol.753.(b) i, ii. Ishwar Chandra
Q.747. When was a Madrasa opened in was an Indian reformer and writer who Vidyasagar's efforts led to the passage
Kolkata to promote the study of Arabic, co-founded the Brahmo Sabha in 1828, of the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act
Persian and Islamic law? leading to the formation of the Brahmo (Act XV) on July 16, 1856, legalizing
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Samaj, a significant socio-religious widow remarriage in India under East
(a) 1772 C.E. (b) 1783 C.E. reform movement. Honored with the title India Company rule. Drafted by Lord
(c) 1781 C.E. (d) 1774 C.E. of Raja by Mughal emperor Akbar II, his Dalhousie and enacted by Lord Canning,
influence marked the beginning of the law took effect on July 26, 1856.
Sol.747.(c) 1781 C.E. It was set up by
modern thought in Kolkata, particularly
Warren Hastings of the first Governor Q.754. Guru Ghasidas led which of the
with the establishment of the Atmiya
General of East India Company. Other following movements to improve the
Sabha in 1814.
universities and colleges: Aligarh Muslim social condition of leather workers in
University, originally as the Q.751. Which of the following Sikh British India?
Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College reform movements was started in 1873 SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
(a) Aravipuram Movement Sol.757.(c) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule. He campaigned for the freedom of thought
(b) Satyashodhak Samaj was a prominent social reformer from and expression.
(c) Nirankari Movement Maharashtra who dedicated his life to Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(d) Satnami Movement eradicating untouchability and caste (a) Young Christian Movement
discrimination. Together with his wife, (b) Young Men's Movement
Sol.754.(d) Satnami Movement. Guru Savitribai, he played a key role in (c) Young Radical Movement
Ghasidas, the Guru of Satnam Dharma, promoting women's education in India, (d) Young Bengal Movement
was a Satnami saint and renowned founding the first girls' school in 1848 at
scholar from Chhattisgarh in the early Bhidewada, Pune. Major Publications: Sol.760.(d) Young Bengal Movement.
19th century. He began preaching in the Tritiya Ratna, Gulamgiri, and Other Reform Organisations and its
deep forests of Chhattisgarh, spreading Shetkarayacha Aasud. Founders : The Brahmo Samaj (1828) -
his teachings. The Satnami movement, Raja Ram Mohan Roy, The Veda Samaj
also known as Satnampanth or Q.758. Match the following movements (1864) - Keshab Chandra Sen and K.
Sadhanpanth, was a social and religious with their respective founders: Sridharalu Naidu, The Prarthana Samaj
movement in India that challenged the a. Faraizi Movement I. Sayyid Ahmad of (1867) - Atmaram Pandurang.
caste system and the prevailing political Rae Bareli
and religious authorities. b. Mohammedan II. Sir Syed Ahmad Q.761. In which of the following years,
Literary Society Khan was the Self-Respect movement started
Q.755. Which was the first c. Indian Patriotic III. Nawab Abdul in Tamil Nadu region?
socio-religious organisation established Association Latif Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
in Bombay in 1840 to work for the d. Wahabi Movement IV. Haji Shariatullah (a) 1925 (b) 1916 (c) 1910 (d) 1930
annihilation of caste? SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift) (a) a - IV, b - III, c - Il, d - I Sol.761.(a) 1925. The Self-Respect
df
(a) Dharma Sabha (b) a - III, b - IV, c - II, d - I Movement was a social and political
movement in South India that sought to
_p
(b) Satyashodhak Samaj (c) a - Il, b - I, c - IV, D - III
(c) Paramhans Mandali (d) a - I, b - II, c - III, d - IV achieve equality and social justice for
people oppressed by the caste system.
na
(d) Vishwa Jain Sangathan
Sol.758.(a) a - IV, b - III, c - Il, d - I. Other The movement was initiated by E. V.
Sol.755.(c) Paramhans Mandali : Movement/Organisation and their Ramasamy (also known as Periyar).
ap
Founder - Durgaram Mehtaji. Dharma Founders: Bhoodan movement - Acharya
Sabha was formed in 1830 in Calcutta by Vinobha Bhave, Servants of India Society Q.762. Who among the following is
:@
Radhakanta Deb, primarily for the - GK Gokhale, Khudai Khidmatgar - Khan associated with the Theosophical
defense of Hindu orthodoxy. Abdul Gaffar Khan, Arya Samaj - Society?
Dayanand Saraswati, Self-respect Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
TG
Q.756. Which organisation was started in Movement - EV Ramaswamy Naicker, (a) Annie Besant (b) Tarabai Shinde
the Pune district of Maharashtra in the Tattvabodhini Sabha - Debendranath (c) Sarojini Naidu (d) Savitri Bai Phule
1870s with the aim of promoting Tagore, Abhinav Bharat - Vir Savarkar,
on
Sol.762.(a) Annie Besant had come to
education and social rights among the and Narmada Bachao - Medha Patkar.
India in 1893. She laid the foundation of
underprivileged group of the society?
Q.759. Who among the following the Central Hindu College in Benaras in
ch
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift)
founded the Muhammedan 1898. The Theosophical Society:
(a) Shoshit Seva Samaj
Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh for the Theosophy represents the wisdom at the
ar
(b) Deepalaya Samaj
spread of Western education? core of all religions when stripped of
(c) Prarthana Samaj
superstitions and excesses. It was
Se
(d) Satyashodhak Samaj SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan founded by Madame H. P. Blavatsky and
Sol.756.(d) Satyashodhak Samaj was (b) Badrudeen Tyabji Colonel Olcott in New York (United
founded by Jyotiba Phule in 1873, It is (c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad States) in 1875. In 1882, they shifted
also known as the Society of Seekers of (d) Syed Ameer Ali their headquarters to Adyar (Madras
Truth. Its aim was to access social rights Presidency).
and civil liberties for people of lower Sol.759.(a) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan. In
1875, he founded the Muhammadan Q.763. Who among the following is NOT
castes, underprivileged and women.
Anglo Oriental College on the pattern of associated with the Rahnumai
Jyotiba Phule (a social activist) -
Oxford and Cambridge universities. The Mazdayasnan Sabha?
Established the first school for girls in
college later grew into Aligarh Muslim Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
India in Pune in 1848. Dalit term was first
University. He started the Aligarh (a) Naoroji Furdunji
used by him.
movement to promote western education (b) SS Bengalee
Q.757. Who among the following was the among muslims. He established the (c) Syed Ahmed Khan
pioneer of widow remarriages in Scientific Society in 1864. (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Maharashtra and also started a girls'
Q.760. Henry Louis Vivian Derozio, a Sol.763.(c) Syed Ahmed Khan. The
school in Poona along with his wife?
teacher at Hindu College, Calcutta, in the Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha was a
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
1820s, promoted radical ideas and social reform organization founded in
(a) BR Ambedkar
encouraged his pupils to question all 1851 by Parsis in Bombay (now Mumbai)
(b) Gopal Hari Deshmukh Lokahitawadi
authority. Referred to as the _________ his to promote reform in the ancient
(c) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
students attacked tradition and custom, Zoroastrian religion. It was composed of
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
demanded education for women and Dadabhai Naoroji, J.B. Wacha, S.S
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Bengalee and Naoroji Furdonji, with the that worked against Brahmanical SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
funding from K.N. Kama. orthodoxy and tried to reform Hinduism? (a) Dr. Kanhaiyalal Maneklal Munshi
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) (b) Dr. Atmaram Pandurang
Q.764. Which of the following (a) Brahmo Samaj (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
statement(s) is/are correct about (b) Paramahansa Mandali (d) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
Prarthana Samaj? (c) Ramakrishna Mission
A. Prarthana Samaj or ‘Prayer Society’ in (d) Arya Samaj Sol.771.(a) Dr. Kanhaiyalal Maneklal
Sanskrit, was a movement for religious Munshi. Bhartiya Vidya Bhawan - A
and social reforms. Sol.767.(b) Paramahansa Mandali - It charitable public trust founded on
B. Prarthana Samaj was founded in 1863 was a secret socio-religious group, November 7, 1938.
by Dadoba Pandurang and his brother established in 1849, in Bombay and was
Atmaram Pandurang. closely related to Manav Dharma Sabha Q.772. Who had founded the first
SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 which was founded in 1844 in Surat. Women’s University in India ?
(a) Neither A nor B (b) Only A SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q.768. The Landholders Society was (a) Dhondo Keshav Karve
(c) Both A and B (d) Only B
founded to look after the interests of (b) Ashutosh Mukherjee
Sol.764.(b) Only A. The Prarthana Samaj which class? (c) William Hunter
was established in Bombay by Dr. Atma SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) (d) Sayed Ahmed Khan
Ram Pandurang in 1867. Aim - To (a) Traders (b) Labour
remove caste restriction, abolish child (c) Farmers (d) Landlords Sol.772.(a) Dhondo Keshav Karve
marriage, encourage women education (Maharishi Karve)- He founded the first
Sol.768.(d) Landlords. Landholders’ women university (SNDT Women's
and promotes widow remarriages. Society also known as the Zamindari
Members - R.C. Bhandarkar and Justice University) in 1916 in India. Awards -
df
Association is considered to be the first Bharat Ratna (1958), Padma Vibhushan
Mahadev Govind Ranade. political association of modern India. It (1955). The Widow Remarriage
_p
Q.765. Sree Narayana Guru considered was formally launched in Calcutta in Association was founded by Vishnu
the differences based on caste and March 1838. Raja Radhakant dev, Shastri Pandit.
na
religion as meaningless and advocated Dwarkanath tagore, Prasanna Kumar
the principle of ‘One Caste, one Religion Tagore, Rajkamal Sen and Bhabani Q.773. Who received the title Pandita
ap
and one God’ for all. He belonged to Charan Mitra were its founding from the faculty of Calcutta University for
which of the following organisations? members. her knowledge of Sanskrit?
:@
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Q.769. Who started the temple entry (a) Rokaya Sakhawat Hossain
(a) Veda Samaj movement in 1927 ?
(b) Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana (b) Ramabai Sarasvati
TG
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (c) Sarojini Naidu
Yogam (a) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(c) Brahmo Samaj (d) Rash Sundari Devi
(b) Bhimrao Ambedkar
(d) Arya Samaj
on
(c) Mahatma Gandhi Sol.773.(b) Ramabai Sarasvati was an
Sol.765.(b) Sree Narayana Dharma (d) Annie Besant Indian social reformer, a pioneer in the
education and emancipation of women
ch
Paripalana Yogam. Sree Narayana Guru: Sol.769.(b) Bhimrao Ambedkar. It was a
In 1888, he built a temple dedicated to in India. She was the first woman to be
movement to allow lower caste people to accorded the titles of Pandita. She was
ar
Lord Shiva at Aruvippuram which was enter temples. Dalits Movements led by
against the caste-based restrictions of one of the 10 women delegates of the
Bhimrao Ambedkar: The second biggest
Se
the time. Congress session of 1889. In the late
movement for the entry of untouchables 1890s, she founded Mukti Mission at
Q.766. Who among the following in the famous Kalaram temple of Nashik Kedgaon village, and established
pioneered the movement in the support in 1930. Mahad Satyagraha (1927) was a Sharada Sadan (Home of Wisdom), a
of widow remarriage and girls’ education movement for the Dalits to get the right school for widows, in Mumbai. In 1919,
in Andhra region? to drink water from the tank. the king of England bestowed on her the
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) Q.770. Visva Bharati a famous Kaiser-I - Hind award.
(a) Kandukuri Veeresalingam educational institute was founded in
(b) Chembeti Sridharalu Naidu Q.774. Who is known as the founder of
1921 by: the Widow Remarriage Association
(c) Sree Narayana Guru SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (1st Shift)
(d) C Rajagopalachari (1861)?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift)
Sol.766.(a) Kandukuri Veeresalingam (b) Vinoba Bhave (a) Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang
(1848-1919) was a social reformer and (c) Mother Teresa (b) RG Bhandarkar
writer from Andhra Pradesh. He is (d) Swami Chinmayananda (c) Dwarkanath Tagore
considered as the father of the Telugu Sol.770.(a) Rabindranath Tagore. (d) Mahadev Govind Ranade
Renaissance movement. He also fought Visva-Bharati University: It is located in
against child marriage and the dowry Sol.774.(d) Mahadev Govind Ranade.
Shantiniketan, West Bengal and became
system. Widow Remarriage Association - Started
the world's first "living heritage
by Vishnu Shastri Pandit in 1856. Aim -
university".
Q.767. Which of the following Promote widow remarriage and
organizations was founded in Poona, Q.771. Who established Bharatiya Vidya campaigned against Child Marriage.
Satara and other towns of Maharashtra Bhavan to promote education and culture? Karsondas Mulji - He started the 'Satya
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Prakash' in Gujarati in 1852 to promote British Government termed him as the Q.783. Who was the first social reformer
the remarriage of widows. Organization "Father of Indian Unrest". to view modern education as a vehicle
founded by Mahadev Govind Ranade - for the spread of modern ideas in the
Poona Sarvajanik Sabha (1870), Q.779. 'The Deccan Sabha' was founded country?
Vaktrutvottejak Sabha (1875). by which of the following nationalists? SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift)
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift) (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Q.775. In which language was the work (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) DK Karve
of Raja Ram Mohan Roy, 'Gift to (b) Pherozeshah Mehta (c) Savitribai Phule
Monotheists' originally written ? (c) Surendranath Banerjee (d) Swami Vivekananda
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (2nd shift) (d) Dadabhai Naoroji
(a) Arabic (b) Persian Sol.783.(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (Father
(c) Bengali (d) Sanskrit Sol.779.(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale. He
of modern India), Organizations founded
became president of Indian National
: Brahmo Samaj (1828, Kolkata), Atmiya
Sol.775.(b) Persian. Raja Ram Mohan Congress (INC) in Benaras session
Sabha (1815, Kolkata). He founded the
Roy: Father of Modern India’s (1905).
Vedanta College in 1825.
Renaissance. Given the title ‘Raja’ by
Akbar II (Mughal Emperor). Q.780. The Mohammedan Literary
Q.784. Who among the following was the
Society founded in Calcutta in 1863 was
founder of the Aligarh Movement, which
Q.776. Narayan Guru, a social reformer founded by:
was largely responsible for the revival of
from Ezhava caste and who propagated SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (4th shift)
Muslims in India?
an anti-caste movement, was born in (a) Nawab Abdul Latif
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (2nd shift)
which of the following states of India? (b) Mirza Ghulam Ahmad
(a) Mirza Ghulam Ahmad
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift) (c) Sayyid Ahmad
(b) Muhammad Iqbal
df
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala (d) Syed Ahmad Khan
(c) Abdul Gaffar Khan
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu
_p
Sol.780.(a) Nawab Abdul Latif (Father of (d) Sayyid Ahmad Khan
Sol.776.(b) Kerala. Shri Narayan Guru: muslim renaissance in Bengal). Lord
na
He led a reform movement against the Lytton gave him The title of "Nawab''. Sol.784.(d) Sayyid Ahmad Khan. Mirza
injustice in the caste-ridden society of Lord Dufferin gave him the title of Nawab Ghulam Ahmad - Founder of the
ap
Kerala in order to promote spiritual Bahadur. Mohammedan Literary Society Ahmadiyya movement. Muhammad
enlightenment and social equality. His was a literary society of Muslims in Allama Iqbal wrote the famous song
'Saare jahan se achha'. He is also known
:@
famous quote: "One caste, one religion British India.
and one god for all". for giving birth to the 'idea of Pakistan'.
Q.781. Rast-Goftar, a newspaper,
Q.777. Who among the following propagated the messages of socio Q.785. Ramakrishna Gopal Bhandarkar
TG
founded the Indian Association along -religious reforms for which of the and Mahadev Govind Ranade carried out
with Anand Mohan Bose? following societies? their work of religious reforms in
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift) SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift) Maharashtra through which of the
on
(a) Dada Bhai Naoroji (a) Hindu (b) Muslim (c) Sikh (d) Parsi following organisations?
(b) Gopal krishna Gokhale SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Sol.781.(d) Parsi. Rast Goftar ("The
ch
(c) Pheroze Shah Mehta (a) Prarthana Samaj
Truth Teller") was an Anglo-Gujarati
(d) Surendranath Banerjee (b) Atmiya Sabha
paper operating in Bombay that was
ar
(c) Theosophical Society
Sol.777.(d) Surendranath Banerjee. started in 1854 by Dadabhai Naoroji and
(d) Brahmo Samaj
Se
Indian Association of Calcutta (1876), Kharshedji Cama and championed social
Aimed to unify Indian people on a reform among Parsis in Western India. Sol.785.(a) Prarthana Samaj (1867).
common political programme and create Publishers and their Newspaper : James
a strong public opinion on political Augustus Hicky - “Bengal Gazette”, Pt. Q.786. Who among the following was
questions. Jugal Kishore Shukla - “Udant Martand”, one of the founders of Rahnumai
Raja Ram Mohan Roy - “Samvad Mazdayasnan Sabha or Religious Reform
Q.778. Who among the following Kaumudi” and “Mirat-ul-Akbar”, Association?
organized Sarvajanik Ganesh Utsav to Madhusudan Ray - “Hindoo Patriot”, SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 4th shift)
inculcate national sentiments among the Devendra Nath Tagore - “Indian Mirror”. (a) Keshab Chandra Sen
masses? (b) Dadabhai Naoroji
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift) Q.782. Who among the following (c) Muhammad Iqbal
(a) Lokmanya Tilak devoted his life for the upliftment of (d) Aatmarang Pandurang
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal widows and established the Widow
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh Remarriage Association in 1893? Sol.786.(b) Dadabhai Naoroji. He
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (3rd shift) presided over the second session of
(a) DK Karve (b) Annie Besant Indian National Congress at Kolkata
Sol.778.(a) Lokmanya Tilak (Bal
(c) KC Sen (d) BM Malabari (1886). Keshab Chandra Sen - He
Gangadhar Tilak): Tilak launched the
established Indian Reform association
Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 at Sol.782.(a) D K Karve. Karve’s
(1870), Member of Brahmo Samaj
Belgaum (Annie Besant launched the autobiographical works: Atmawrutta
(1828). Atmaram Pandurang: Founded -
Home Rule League in September 1916 at (1928) in Marathi, and Looking Back
Prarthana Samaj (1867) with the help of
Madras). His famous declaration “Swaraj (1936) in English. Awards - Bharat Ratna
Keshab Chandra Sen.
is my birthright, and I shall have it”. The (1958), Padma Vibhushan (1955).
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.787. 'Back to Vedas' was the slogan of Indian and Western culture was ________ . Reform Movement).Namdhari Movement
which Reform Movement? Graduate Level 28/06/2023 ( Shift - 3) (Kuka Movement) - A Sikh reform
SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 1st shift) (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy movement that began in the Punjab
(a) Dev Samaj (b) Brahmo Samaj (b) Keshab Chandra Sen region of India (Founded by Baba Ram
(c) Prarthana Samaj (d) Arya Samaj (c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar Singh in 1857). Ghadar Movement:
(d) Devendranath Tagore President - Sohan Singh Bhakna,
Sol.787.(d) Arya Samaj.
Founded - 15 July 1913, Dissolved -
Sol.792.(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar January 1948, Preceded by - Pacific
Q.788. Karsondas Mulji and Dadoba
("Father of Bengali Prose"). Hindu Widow Coast Hindustan Association. Nirankari
Pandurang were associated with______,
Remarriage Act of 1856 was enacted Movement - It was a social reform
which worked against evils like caste
with the efforts of Ishwar Chandra movement for Sikhism (founded by Baba
system and encouraged widow
Vidyasagar. Dyal Das in 1851).
remarriage.
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (1st shift) Q.793. Rani Gaidinliu is associated with Q.796. The Ahmadiyya forms a sect of
(a) Paramahansa Mandali which of the following movements? Islam which originated from India. It was
(b) Arya samaj Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1) founded by___________in 1889.
(c) Brahmo Samaj (a) Heraka (b) Meira Paibi SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Morning)
(d) Ramakrishna Mission (c) Nupi Lan (d) Nisha Bandh (a) Mir Nisar Ali
Sol.788.(a) Paramahansa Mandali: A (b) Haji Shariatullah
Sol.793.(a) Heraka was a socio-religious
secret socio-religious group, established (c) Shah Walliullah
movement that arose in the 1920s in the
in 1849 in Mumbai. (d) Mirza Ghulam Ahmad
Zeliangrong territory. Meira Paibi : This
Q.789. Who founded the Tattvabodhini movement was founded in 1977 in Sol.796.(d) Mirza Ghulam Ahmad. The
df
Sabha that was set up to explore spiritual Kaching district. Nupi Lan : There were Ahmadiyya Movement was founded on
two demonstrations led by women
_p
truth? liberal principles and principles of a
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (2nd shift) against the colonial authorities in universal religion for all humanity. After
Manipur, British India. In 1904, The
na
(a) Keshab Chandra Sen his death the movement was led by
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy second Nupi Lan began in 1939 in elected successor Hakeem Noor-ud-din.
response to rice exports during World
ap
(c) Debendranath Tagore Mir Nisar Ali (Titu mir) - Narkelbaria
(d) Dayanand Saraswati War II. Nisha Bandh : The women's movement, 1831. Haji Shariatullah -
movement developed in the late 1970s.
:@
Faraizi movement. Shah Walliullah -
Sol.789.(c) Debendranath Tagore (Father Its origin is attributed to the Meitei Wahabi movement.
of Rabindranath Tagore) founded the women's activism to fight against
Tattvabodhini Sabha in 1839. He joined alcoholism and drug addiction. Q.797. Who among the following
TG
the Brahmo Samaj in 1842. founded the Widow Remarriage
Q.794. Some of Swami Dayanand's Association?
Q.790. Who among the following is NOT followers started a network of schools SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Evening)
on
associated with Brahmo Samaj? and colleges called D.A.V. What does 'A' (a) Raja Rammohan Roy
Graduate Level 27/06/2023 ( Shift - 4) stand for in D.A.V.? (b) Pandit Vishnu Shastri
(a) Atmaram Panduranga
ch
Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4) (c) Swami Vivekananda
(b) Keshav Chandra Sen (a) Author (b) Angel (c) Anglo (d) Accept (d) Keshav Chandra Sen
(c) Debendranath Tagore
ar
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy Sol.794.(c) Anglo. The acronym DAV Sol.797.(b) Pandit Vishnu Shastri.
Se
translates as 'Dayanand Anglo Vedic', the
Sol.790.(a) Atmaram Pandurang melange of the Vedas and Modernity. Q.798. Lala Lajpat Rai was an active
founded Prartahana Samaj (1867), Other Mahatma Hansraj established the first member of which organisation?
members - R.C. Bhandarkar and Justice DAV School at Lahore on June 1, 1886. SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Mahadev Govind Ranade. Objective - Other Educational Establishments in (a) Arya Samaj (b) Brahmo Samaj
Women Education, Widow remarriage India: 1835 - Calcutta Medical College (c) Brahmo Sabha (d) Prathana Sabha
and Disapproval of caste system. and the Elphinstone College of Bombay.
1857 - University of Bombay, Calcutta, Sol.798.(a) Arya Samaj. It promoted the
Q.791. The Veda Samaj of Madras was study of the Vedas and the Upanishads,
and Madras. 1882 - The University of
inspired by the________. and it advocated for social reform,
Punjab. 1887 - The University of
Graduate Level 27/06/2023 ( Shift - 4) including the abolition of caste
(a) Brahmo Samaj Allahabad.
discrimination.
(b) Arya Samaj
Q.795. The ________ was started by the
(c) Deoband Movement Q.799. Who was the founder of Dharma
Sikh reformers to purify their religious
(d) Wahabi Movement Sabha ?
places by removing the evil social
practices that had slowly crept into them. SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Morning)
Sol.791.(a) Brahmo Samaj (1828). It
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning) (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
denounced polytheism and opposed
(a) Namdhari Movement (b) Dadoba Pandurang
idolatry. Deobandi Movement (1866) :
(b) Akali Movement (c) R.G. Bhandarkar
Founder - Mohammad Qasim Nanotavi
(c) Ghadar Movement (d) Radhakanta Deb
and Rashid Ahmed Gangohi.
(d) Nirankari Movement Sol.799.(d) Radhakanta Deb founded it
Q.792. The Principal of a Sanskrit
Sol.795.(b) Akali Movement (Gurdwara in 1830 in Calcutta. The Dharma Sabha
College who represented a blend of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
was a conservative Hindu society. It Q.804. The first session of All India Q.808. Vishnushastri Chiplunkar started
campaigned against the Hindu Widow Depressed Classes congress was held at a monthly Marathi magazine __________,
Remarriage Act, 1856. Chief public organ __________ in 1930. in 1874 for the cause of social reform.
- Bengali newspaper “Samachar SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Graduate Level 04/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
Chandrika” {Editor - Bhabani Charan (a) Nagpur (b) Surat (c) Delhi (d) Kanpur (a) Prabhakar (b) Kesari
Bandyopadhyay (Secretary of Dharma (c) Nibandhmala (d) Pudhari
Sabha)}. Sol.804.(a) Nagpur. 'Bahishkrit Hitkarini
Sabha (Outcastes Welfare Association)’, Sol.808.(c) Nibandhmala. Gopal Hari
Q.800. Annie Besant laid the foundation 1923. Deshmukh is writer of Prabhakar
of the Central Hindu College in______ in newspaper. Kesari (Marathi newspaper,
1898 where both Hindu religion and Q.805. Who founded the Arya Mahila 1881, Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak).
Western scientific subjects were taught. Samaj? Pudhari (Marathi daily, 1937).
SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Evening) Graduate Level 01/08/2022 (Shift - 4) (Newspaper/ Journal – Founder):-
(a) Pune (b) Chennai (a) Sarojini Naidu Udbodhan, 1899, Swami Vivekananda.
(c) Banaras (d) Kolkata (b) Sarla Devi Chaudhurani Independent, 1919, Motilal Nehru. Tahzib
(c) Pandita Ramabai -ul-Akhlaq, 1871, Sir Syed Ahmed Khan.
Sol.800.(c) Banaras. Annie Besant: A (d) DK Karve
British socialist, educationist and Q.809. The Bahishkrit Hitakarini Sabha
women’s rights activist. She came to Sol.805.(c) Pandita Ramabai (women's was established at ___________.
India in 1893. rights & education activist). She was the Graduate Level 04/08/2022 ( Shift - 2)
first woman to be awarded the titles of (a) Hyderabad (b) Bombay
Q.801. When was the Dev Samaj Pandita as a Sanskrit scholar and (c) Delhi (d) Nasik
founded in Lahore by Shiv Narayan Sarasvati after being examined by the
df
Agnihotri? faculty of the University of Calcutta. She Sol.809.(b) Bombay.
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Morning)
_p
was awarded with the Kaiser-i-Hind
(a) 1892 (b) 1887 (c) 1876 (d) 1863 Q.810. The Vidhava Vivaha Uttejaka
Medal for community service in 1919.
Mandal (Society for Encouragement of
na
She was one of the ten women delegates
Sol.801.(b) 1887. Dev Samaj is a Hindu Widow Marriage) was established in
of the Congress session of 1889.
reform movement that was founded in __________ in the second half of the
ap
response to the perceived ills of orthodox Q.806. In 1930, _________ led a nineteenth century.
Hinduism. satyagraha for the rights of Graduate Level 05/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
:@
untouchables’ entry to the Kalaram (a) Calcutta Presidency
Q.802. Who among the following started (b) Bombay Presidency
temple at Nasik.
the Kuka Movement? (c) the Central Provinces
Graduate Level 01/08/2022 ( Shift - 4 )
TG
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (1st Shift) (d) the United Provinces
(a) MC Rajah
(a) Thakur Singh Sandhawalia
(b) Dr. BR Ambedkar
(b) Baba Dayal Das Sol.810.(b) Bombay Presidency. It was
(c) Madan Mohan Malaviya
on
(c) Balak Singh established by Vishnushastri Pandit in
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Satguru Ram Singh 1866. Hindu Widow Remarriage Act
Sol.806.(b) Dr B.R. Ambedkar. In 1920, (1856) was passed by Lord Canning with
ch
Sol.802.(d) Satguru Ram Singh. The the efforts of Ishwar Chandra
he began the publication of the weekly
Kukas, a sect within Sikhism, formed Vidyasagar. Sati Practice was abolished
Mooknayak (Leader of the Silent) in
ar
with a motive to purify Sikhism. Baba by William Bentinck in 1829 with the
Mumbai with the help of Shahu of
Dayal Das: founded the Nirankari
Se
Kolhapur. His important writings: ‘The efforts of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
Movement. Balak Singh: An Indian Sikh
Annihilation of Caste’, ‘Who Were the
religious leader who founded the Q.811. The Begums of Bhopal founded a
Shudras’, ‘The Untouchables’, ‘Riddles in
Namdhari sect. Thakur Singh primary school for girls in the early
Hinduism’, etc.
Sandhawalia: Founder of Singh sabha. twentieth century at _____.
Q.807. Which of the following was SSC MTS 07/07/2022 (Evening)
Q.803. Who emphasized the worship of (a) Lahore (b) Bombay
God as Nirankar (Formless) in Punjab? known as the forerunner of the Brahmo
Samaj? (c) Aligarh (d) Pune
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(a) Maharaja Ranjit Singh Graduate Level 02/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Sol.811.(c) Aligarh. The Begums of
(b) Baba Ram Singh (a) Prarthana Sabha (b) Atmiya Sabha Bhopal played a vital role, from the early
(c) Baba Dayal Das (c) Paramhansa Sabha (d) Hindu Sabha 20th century, in promoting education
(d) Guru Gobind Singh among Muslim women. They founded a
Sol.807.(b) Atmiya Sabha. Brahmo
primary school for girls at Aligarh.
Sol.803.(c) Baba Dayal Das - Founder of Samaj {Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded
Nawab Begum was the founding
the Nirankari Movement. He emphasized Brahmo Sabha in 1828, Aim - worship of
Chancellor of Aligarh Muslim University.
the worship of god as Nirankar the eternal God. It split into two in 1866
(formless). Baba Ram Singh - The leader (Brahmo Samaj of India led by Keshub Q.812. Who among the following was
of the Kuka movement in Punjab. Chandra Sen and Adi Brahmo Samaj led one of the founders of the Deccan
Maharaja Ranjit Singh (“Sher-e-Punjab” or by Debendranath Tagore), Prominent Education Society (1884)?
"Lion of Punjab") - First Maharaja of the Leaders: Debendranath Tagore, Keshub SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Afternoon)
Sikh Empire. Guru Gobind Singh - The Chandra Sen, Pt. Sivnath Shastri, and (a) Dadoba Pandurang (b) V R Shinde
tenth and last Sikh Guru. Rabindranath Tagore}. (c) Tulsi Ram (d) G G Agarkar
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Sol.812.(d) GG Agarkar. Paramhansa in 1880. He was one of the first Muslim Q.820. The Indian National Congress
Sabha was founded by Dadoba in nineteenth century India to embrace formally took up the Swadeshi call in its
Pandurang. V R Shinde founded the the idea of modernization. Benaras session of 1905 under the
Depressed Class Mission in Mumbai in presidentship of _________.
1906. Radha Swami Satsang was Indian National Congress and SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
founded by Tulsi Ram in 1861. (a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Its Sessions
(b) Rajendra Prasad
Q.813. Who among the following wrote (c) Motilal Nehru
the Brahmo Covenant, which was a Q.817. Who among the following was the
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
statement of the creed of the Brahmo President of the Belgaum Session of the
Samaj and made a list of the duties and Indian National Congress held in 1924? Sol.820.(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale. INC
obligations of its members? SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sessions and its President : First Session
SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Afternoon) (a) Mahatma Gandhi (Bombay in 1885) - W.C. Bannerjee,
(a) Keshab Chandra Sen (b) Vallabhbhai Patel Second Session (Calcutta in 1886) -
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (c) Subhas Chandra Bose Dadabhai Naoroji, 1919 (Amritsar) and
(c) Debendranath Tagore (d) Jawaharlal Nehru 1928 (Calcutta) - Motilal Nehru, 1929
(d) Rammohan Roy (Lahore) - Jawaharlal Nehru, 1934
Sol.817.(a) Mahatma Gandhi. The 39th
(Bombay) - Rajendra Prasad.
Sol.813.(c) Debendranath Tagore. He session of INC at Belgaum was held on
was the founder in 1848 of the Brahmo December 26, 1924. INC Sessions: Q.821. The Quit India Resolution was
religion, which today is synonymous with Bombay, 1885 (W.C. Banerjee) - First ratified in the_________ session of Indian
Brahmoism. In 1863 he founded session; Madras, 1887 (Badruddin National Congress to launch the
Shantiniketan (“Abode of Peace”). Tayabji) - First Muslim President; movement.
df
Allahabad, 1888 (George Yule) - First Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Q.814. Who among the following was
_p
English President; Lahore, 1929 (a) Bombay (b) Bankipur
NOT a Nayanar saint?
(Jawaharlal Nehru); Haripura, 1938 (c) Lucknow (d) Nagpur
SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Evening)
na
(Subhas Chandra Bose) - Bose’s first
(a) Sundarar (b) Appar
term as President. Sol.821.(a) Bombay session. This
(c) Sambandar (d) Andal
session took place at the Gowalia Tank
ap
Sol.814.(d) Andal. The Nayanars were a Q.818. Where was the 1912 session of Maidan (August Kranti Maidan), on
group of 63 poet-saints living in Tamil the India National Congress held in August 8, 1942, where Mahatma Gandhi
:@
Nadu during the 6th to 8th centuries CE Bihar? gave his famous "Do or Die" speech. The
who were devoted to the Hindu god SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) resolution was moved by Jawaharlal
(a) Sahasaram (b) Gaya Nehru.
TG
Shiva. Along with the Alwars, their
contemporaries who were devoted to (c) Bankipore (d) Madhubani
Q.822. In which of the following places
Vishnu, they influenced the Bhakti
Sol.818.(c) Bankipore. The 27th session the Indian National Congress passed the
on
movement in early medieval South India.
of the Indian National Congress in 1912 resolution of Purna Swaraj?
Q.815. Which of the following is NOT a was presided over by Raghunath Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
ch
correct match of Dargah and its Narasinha Mudholkar. In December 1922, (a) Lahore (b) Madras
respective location? the session was held in Gaya under (c) Bombay (d) Karachi
ar
SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Evening) Chittaranjan Das, while the 53rd session
took place in 1940 at Ramgarh, near Sol.822.(a) Lahore. On 19 December
(a) Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya Dargah -
Se
Ranchi, led by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. 1929, the Indian National Congress
Agra
passed the historic ‘Poorna Swaraj’ (total
(b) Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki
Q.819. Who amongst the following independence) resolution at its Lahore
Dargah - Delhi
became the president of the second session, with Jawaharlal Nehru elected
(c) Haji Ali Dargah - Mumbai
session of the Indian National Congress as its President. A public declaration was
(d) Shaikh Muinuddin Sijzi (chishti)
held in Calcutta in December 1886 ? made on 26 January 1930, a day the
Dargah - Ajmer
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Congress urged Indians to celebrate as
Sol.815.(a) Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya (a) P Ananda Charlu ‘Independence Day.’
Dargah is the Dargah of the Sufi saint (b) Badruddin Tyabji
Khwaja Nizamuddin Auliya. It is located Q.823. __________ was elected as the
(c) Dadabhai Nauroji
in the Nizamuddin West area of Delhi president of the third session of Indian
(d) William Wedderburn
National Congress.
Q.816. Who among the following is Sol.819.(c) Dadabhai Nauroji. The first Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
known as the 'father of Muslim session of the Indian National Congress (a) KT Telang
renaissance' in Bengal? was held in Bombay in December 1885 (b) Pherozeshah Mehta
SSC CGL 04/03/2020 (Evening) with seventy-two delegates. W.C. (c) Badruddin Tyabji
(a) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan Banerjee served as its first president, (d) AO Hume
(b) Ameer Ali while A.O. Hume took office as the
(c) Nawab Abdul Latif Khan Sol.823.(c) Badruddin Tyabji. Wyomesh
General Secretary. Dadabhai Naoroji also
(d) Nawab Salimullah Khan Chandra Banerjee was the first president,
presided over the 9th session in 1893
presiding over the inaugural session in
Sol.816.(c) Nawab Abdul Latif Khan. His (Lahore), and the 22nd session in 1906
1885, while Annie Besant became the
title, Nawab, was awarded by the British (Calcutta).
first woman to hold the position in 1917.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.824. All India Kisan Sabha was (1925, Kanpur session) and the first to revive the Zoroastrian religion and
founded in 1936 at Indian National woman Governor of the United Provinces formed the London India Society in 1865.
Congress (INC) ________ Session as All in 1947. He became a member of the Legislative
India Kisan Congress. Council of Mumbai during 1885-88 and
Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Q.828. Which flag of the Indian National President of the Congress Party in 1886
(a) Lucknow (b) Agra Congress was adopted in 1931? (Calcutta), 1893 (Lahore) and 1906
(c) Bombay (d) Delhi SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (Calcutta).
(a) A two colour flag with charkha made
Sol.824.(a) Lucknow. Swami by cloth Q.832. Which Session of Congress and
Sahajananda Saraswati, who founded the (b) A tricolour flag made by Khadi with a Muslim League reached an
Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha in 1929, Charkha symbol understanding of creating a joint front
also led the formation of the All India (c) One colour flag with charkha symbol against the British regime?
Kisan Sabha (AIKS) during the Indian (d) A blue colour flag made by cloth SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift)
National Congress' Lucknow Session in (a) Bombay (b) Allahabad
1936. The AIKS, also known as the Akhil Sol.828.(b) Ad - Hoc Flag Committee : (c) Lucknow (d) Delhi
Bharatiya Kisan Sabha. Formed in 1947 under Rajendra Prasad.
Pingali Venkayya - Designer of National Sol.832.(c) Lucknow (1916) - President:
Q.825. Indian National Congress Flag of India (1921). The national flag A.C. Majumdar; Lucknow Pact signed
celebrated the first Independence Day in was adopted on July 22, 1947. Ratio of between Congress (Bal Gangadhar Tilak)
Colonial India on _____________ . the length to the breadth of the Indian and Muslim League (Muhammad Ali
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) Flag - 3:2. The national flag of India was Jinnah) to build political consensus;
(a) 2 October 1929 first hoisted on 7th August, 1906 in Unity between two factions - Moderates
(b) 29 December 1929 Kolkata at the Parsee Bagan Square and Extremists of Congress.
df
(c) 15 August 1930 (Green Park). The first Indian flag was
_p
(d) 26 January 1930 hoisted on a foreign land by Madame Q.833. Which among the following
Bhikaji Cama (1907 - Germany). sessions of Indian National Congress
Sol.825.(d) 26 January 1930. The Indian
na
was the first session to be presided by a
National Congress passed 'Complete Q.829. In the 1939 Tripuri Congress lady ?
Swaraj' in its Lahore session on 19 Presidential Election, Pattabhi
ap
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Afternoon)
December 1929. The president of this Sitaramayya was defeated by: (a) Calcutta - 1917 (b) Kanpur - 1925
session was Jawaharlal Nehru. SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift) (c) Lahore - 1929 (d) Surat - 1907
:@
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
Q.826. Who led the Indian National (b) Rajendra Prasad Sol.833.(a) Calcutta - (Annie Besant,
Congress at its first annual session? (c) Subhas Chandra Bose 1917).
TG
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
(a) Surendra Nath Banerjee Q.834. In _________ at its Madras session,
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji Sol.829.(c) Subhas Chandra Bose was the Indian National Congress set up an
on
(c) WC Banerjee elected as President of the Haripura All Parties Conference to draft a
(d) AO Hume Congress Session in 1938. He resigned Constitution for India.
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening)
ch
as congress president in April 1939. Dr.
Sol.826.(c) WC Banerjee. Important Rajendra Prasad replaced Subhas (a) 1922 (b) 1932 (c) 1927 (d) 1915
Congress sessions: First Session - held
ar
Chandra Bose as the new congress
at Bombay in 1885. Second Session - president. Sol.834.(c) 1927. Indian National
Se
held at Calcutta in 1886, President - Congress (INC) session 1927 (Madras):
Dadabhai Naoroji. Third Session - held at Q.830. The second annual session of President - M A Ansari. INC session 1915
Madras in 1887, President - Syed Indian National Congress was held at (Bombay): President - Satyendra
Badruddin Tyabji (first muslim which of the following places ? Prasanna Sinha. Importance -
President). Fourth Session - held at SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift) Constitution of the Congress was altered
Allahabad in 1888, President - George (a) Bombay (b) Delhi to admit the delegates from the
Yule (first English President). 1896 (c) Calcutta (d) Madras extremist section. INC session 1922
session (Calcutta) President - (Gaya): President - C R Das. Importance -
Rahimtullah Sayani, National Song Sol.830.(c) Calcutta (1886, Dada Bhai CR Das and other leaders broke away
‘Vande Mataram’ sung for the first time Naoroji). from INC, Formation of Swaraj Party. INC
by Rabindranath Tagore. Q.831. Self-Government or 'Swaraj' as session 1932 (Delhi): President - Amrit
the ultimate goal of the Indian National Ranchhorddas Seth.
Q.827. Who was the first Woman
President of Indian National Congress? Congress-this declaration was made by
Q.835. The split in Indian National
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Dadabhai Naoroji in which of the
Congress occurred in ________ .
(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Asaf Ali following sessions of the INC ?
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Evening)
(c) Annie Besant (d) Usha Mehta SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift)
(a) 1901 (b) 1905 (c) 1903 (d) 1907
(a) Bombay (b) Calcutta
Sol.827.(c) Annie Besant : First woman (c) Madras (d) Bankipur Sol.835.(d) 1907. The Surat Split was
who presided over the Calcutta session the splitting of Indian National Congress
(1917) of Indian National Congress. Sol.831.(b) Calcutta. Dadabhai Naoroji
into two groups - Moderates and
Sarojini Naidu - First Indian women (Grand Old Man of India) founded the
Radicals.
president of Indian national congress Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha in 1851
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Q.836. The Indian National Congress Congress in September 1923 and at the north - western and eastern areas of the
was established when 72 delegates from age of 35 became the youngest man to country
all over the country met at Bombay in be elected as the President of the SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (4th Shift)
December _______. Congress? (a) 1940 (b) 1942 (c) 1946 (d) 1935
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Morning) SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Morning)
(a) 1890 (b) 1858 (c) 1885 (d) 1872 (a) Mahadev Govind Ranade Sol.845.(a) 1940. All-India Muslim
(b) Ram Manohar Lohia League established in Dhaka in 1906.
Sol.836.(c) 1885. Founder: Allan Founder: Nawab Khwaja Salimullah. First
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Octavian Hume. First President: W.C. Honorary President: Aga Khan III.
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Bannerjee. First meeting - Gokuldas Headquarters: Lucknow. 1st Session:
Tejpal Sanskrit College (Bombay). Sol.841.(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. Karachi (1907).
Prominent delegates included Dadabhai He was also a noted writer, poet and
Naoroji, Surendranath Banerjee, journalist. He was a prominent political Q.846. Muslim League observed ______
Badruddin Tyabji, Pherozeshah Mehta, W. leader and was elected as Congress as ‘Direct Action Day’.
C. Bonnerjee, S. Ramaswami Mudaliar, S. President in 1923 and 1940. SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Evening)
Subramania Iyer, and Romesh Chunder (a) 16 August 1946 (b) 12 August 1946
Dutt. Q.842. Who was the President of the (c) 10 August 1946 (d) 14 August 1946
Indian National Congress when India
Q.837. Who among the following was the won its freedom in the year 1947 ? Sol.846.(a) 16 August 1946.
President of the Indian National Congress SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Evening) Muhammad Ali Jinnah declared 16
during the 1915 session? (a) Abul Kalam Azad (b) Vallabhbhai Patel August as 'Direct Action Day' and called
SSC CGL Tier II 06/03/2023 (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) J. B. Kripalani for Muslims all over the country to
(a) Satyendra Prasanna Sinha 'suspend all business'. Direct Action Day,
df
(b) Ambica Charan Mazumdar Sol.842.(d) J. B. Kripalani (Acharya also known as the 1946 Calcutta Killings.
Kriplani) was the president of the Indian
_p
(c) Bhupendra Nath Bose
(d) Madan Mohan Malaviya National Congress during the transfer of Miscellaneous
power. He was the husband of Sucheta
na
Sol.837.(a) Satyendra Prasanna Sinha. Kripalani, who was the first woman chief Q.847. Who among the following was the
1895 - Surendranath Banerjee, 1909 -
minister (Uttar Pradesh). first principal of the Bengal National
ap
Madan Mohan Malaviya, 1916 - Ambica
Charan Mazumdar. College started in 1906 ?
Muslim league SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning)
:@
Q.838. How many delegates participated (a) Satish Chandra Mukherjee
in the second session of Indian National Q.843. The All-India Muslim League, (b) Rash Behari Ghosh
Congress? popularly known as the Muslim League, (c) Aurobindo Ghose
TG
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (2nd Shift) was founded in _________ . (d) Subodh Chandra Mullick
(a) 434 (b) 628 (c) 212 (d) 190 Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
(a) 1910 (b) 1906 (c) 1908 (d) 1904 Sol.847.(c) Aurobindo Ghose was an
on
Sol.838.(a) 434, Held (December 27-30, Indian philosopher, yogi, poet, and
1886, Calcutta), President (Shri Dadabhai Sol.843.(b) 1906. The All-India Muslim nationalist. He also worked as a
Naoroji), Congress decided to set up
ch
League was formed during the tenure of journalist, editing newspapers such as
Provincial Congress Committees across Lord Minto II, who served as the Viceroy Bande Mataram. The Alipore Bomb Case,
the country.
ar
of India from 1905 to 1910. The League also known as the Muraripukur
was founded in Dhaka, British India Conspiracy or Manicktolla Bomb
Q.839. In which of the following sessions
Se
(Bangladesh), in 1906 and supported the Conspiracy, was a significant criminal
of the Indian National Congress did
partition of Bengal. It sought separate trial in India in 1908, involving several
George Yule become the President in
electorates for Muslims, a demand that Indian nationalists.
1888?
was conceded by the government in
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Evening) Q.848. When was the All Bengal
1909.
(a) Calcutta (b) Allahabad Students Conference held in the
(c) Madras (d) Bombay Q.844. The Lucknow Pact was signed in chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru?
____________ by Congress and the Muslim SSC MTS 01/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.839.(b) Allahabad.
League to work in alliance for (a) 1928 (b) 1939 (c) 1934 (d) 1920
Q.840. In which of the following years representative government.
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.848.(a) 1928. All Bengal Students
did the resolution at the Karachi Session
(a) 1916 (b) 1918 (c) 1920 (d) 1914 Conference - It was organized in
of the Indian National Congress dwell on
response to the expulsion of students
how Independent India’s Constitution
Sol.844.(a) 1916. INC session Lucknow from Kolkata colleges for "unruly
should look?
(1916) - President: A.C. Majumdar. conduct" and the subsequent student
SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Afternoon)
Lucknow Pact was signed between protests. The conference led to the
(a) 1931 (b) 1928 (c) 1946 (d) 1945
Congress (Bal Gangadhar Tilak) and formation of the All-Bengal Students
Sol.840.(a) 1931. In 1928, Motilal Nehru Muslim League (Muhammad Ali Jinnah) Association to unite and organize
and other Congress leaders drafted a to build political consensus. students across the region.
constitution for India.
Q.845. In __________ the Muslim League Q.849. In 1927, where was the
Q.841. Who among the following had moved a resolution demanding conference against colonial oppression
presided over the special session of “Independent States” for Muslims in the and imperialism, in which Jawaharlal
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Nehru participated on behalf of Indian Sol.853.(b) 15th August. India gained Sol.857.(c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i.
National Congress, held? independence from British rule on
SSC MTS 29/10/2024 (1st Shift) August 15, 1947, ending nearly two Q.858. In which of the following areas
(a) Bruges (b) Leuven centuries of colonial control. The transfer did the Uprising of Khurda in 1817 take
(c) Antwerp (d) Brussels of power also led to the partition, place?
creating India and Pakistan. SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.849.(d) Brussels. Pt. Jawaharlal (a) United Province (b) Odisha
Nehru became General Secretary of the Q.854. Who among the following has (c) Madras (d) Bengal
All India Congress Committee in 1923. In authored the play ‘Nil Darpan’ ?
1926, he toured several countries, SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.858.(b) Odisha. The Khurda Revolt of
including Belgium, where he attended the (a) Motilal Nehru (b) Chittaranjan Das 1817 was an armed uprising against the
Congress of Oppressed Nationalities in (c) Dinabandhu Mitra (d) Sarojini Naidu British, sparked by the rapid and
1927. He also participated in the 10th disruptive changes introduced by the
anniversary of the October Revolution in Sol.854.(c) Dinabandhu Mitra. Nil East India Company, which agitated the
Moscow. At the 1927 Madras Congress, Darpan is a Bengali-language play written local population. This revolt also
Nehru advocated for full independence. in 1858-59 by Dinabandhu Mitra, impacted other districts of Odisha, such
depicting the oppression of indigo as Cuttack. It is also known as the Paika
Q.850. What is the year of foundation of farmers by British planters in Bengal. His Rebellion or Paika Bidroha, and it was led
the Women’s Indian Association (WIA)? other works include ‘Nabin Tapasvini’, by Bakshi Jagabandhu.
SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (1st Shift) ‘Biye Pagla Budo’, ‘Sadhabar Ekadashi’,
(a) 1927 (b) 1917 (c) 1907 (d) 1937 and ‘Kamale Kamini’. Other authors and Q.859. Where was the Hindu College
their works : Sarojini Naidu - ‘The Golden established in the year 1791?
Sol.850.(b) 1917. Women’s Indian SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Threshold’, ‘The Bird of Time’.
df
Association, a heritage welfare (a) Mathura (b) Kolkata
Chittaranjan Das - ‘India for Indians’,
organization of the women by the (c) Benaras (d) Patna
_p
‘Freedom Through Disobedience’.
women for the women. It was formed on
8th May 1917 at Adyar, Chennai by Annie Sol.859.(c) Benaras. The Hindu College
Q.855. Who among the following
na
Besent. It was the first organization to was founded by Jonathan Duncan, a
freedom fighters of India is the author of
create an overall awakening among British officer, and Raja Rameshwar
the book, 'The Indian Struggle' ?
ap
women and to train them to shoulder Singh, the Maharaja of Banaras. The
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
their responsibility in public services. college was originally known as the
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
:@
Sanskrit College, and it was dedicated to
(b) Motilal Nehru
Q.851. Which of the following national the study of Sanskrit language and
(c) Vallabhbhai Patel
leaders of India inaugurated the first literature. In 1958, the Sanskrit College
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose
TG
Akhil Bhartiya Kalidas Samman Samaroh became a university and was renamed
held in Ujjain in 1958? Sol.855.(d) Subhas Chandra Bose. His Sampurnanand Sanskrit University in
SSC MTS 11/11/2024 (3rd Shift) Books : An Indian Pilgrim, Jaruri Kichu 1974. Raja Ram Mohan Roy established
on
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Lekha, Famous Speeches and Letters of the Hindu College in Calcutta in 1817,
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri Subhas Chandra Bose. which is now known as Presidency
(c) Rajendra Prasad University, Kolkata.
ch
Q.856. Which of the following books is
(d) Sardar Patel
INCORRECTLY paired with its respective Q.860. In 1936, The Independent Labour
ar
Sol.851.(c) Rajendra Prasad. The Akhil author? Party was founded by _______.
Bharatiya Kalidas Samaroh is an annual SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Se
cultural festival held in Ujjain, Madhya (a) Hind Swaraj – Mahatma Gandhi (a) Mohan Singh Bhakhna
Pradesh, since 1958, celebrating the (b) Gitanjali – Rabindranath Tagore (b) BR Ambedkar
works of poet Kalidasa. (c) The Discovery of India – Subhash (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Chandra Bose (d) Bhagat Singh
Q.852. Who became the Nawab of
(d) Why I am an Atheist – Bhagat Singh
Bengal after the death of Alivardi Khan in Sol.860.(b) BR Ambedkar was an Indian
the year 1756? Sol.856.(c) ‘’The Discovery of India’’ is a jurist and social reformer who served as
SSC MTS 12/11/2024 (1st Shift) book by Jawaharlal Nehru. the first Minister of Law and Justice and
(a) Shuja-Ud-Daulah (b) Siraj-Ud-Daulah was the chief architect of the
Q.857. Match the following institutes
(c) Saadat Ali Khan (d) Wazir Ali Constitution of India. He was awarded
with their respective founders of British
Sol.852.(b) Siraj-Ud-Daulah. Following India. the Bharat Ratna posthumously in 1990.
Alivardi Khan's death in 1756, Institutes Their respective Organizations and Founders: Swatantra
Sirajuddaulah became Nawab of Bengal founders Shramik Party (B.R. Ambedkar), Swarajya
but faced conflict with the British, who a. Asiatic Society of i. Warren Hastings Party (Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan
aimed to install a puppet ruler. Bengal Das), Muslim League (Agha Khan &
b. Sanskrit College of ii. Lord Wellesley Salimullah), Indian National Congress
Q.853. On which of the following dates Benaras (A.O.Hume).
did the British Empire transfer its powers c. Fort William College iii. Jonathan Duncan
to the Constituent Assembly in India? d. Calcutta Madrasa iv. Sir William Jones Q.861. When was the All India Trade
SSC MTS 13/11/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) Union Congress (AITUC) established?
(a) 2nd October (b) 15th August (a) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (b) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) 14 November (d) 26th January
th (c) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (d) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (a) 1926 (b) 1924 (c) 1928 (d) 1920
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Sol.861.(d) 1920. All India Trade Union (d) Gulamgiri remembered as the Butcher of Amritsar
Congress (AITUC) was formed in for his role in the Jallianwala Bagh
Bombay. The AITUC was a broad-based Sol.864.(d) Gulamgiri (Marathi massacre in 1919 ?
organisation involving diverse ideologies. Language), also known as Slavery, SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
The main ideological groups were the summarizes the sufferings of (a) William Slim (b) Robert Clive
communists led by S.A. Dange and M.N. lower-caste people and is written in (c) William Birdwood (d) Reginald Dyer
Roy, the moderates led by M. Joshi and Marathi. Phule formed the Satyashodhak
Samaj in 1873. He, together with his wife Sol.868.(d) Reginald Dyer. The
V.V. Giri and the nationalists which
Savitribai Phule, opened a girls' school in Jallianwala Bagh massacre (Amritsar
involved people like Lala Lajpat Rai and
Poona. massacre) took place on April 13, 1919
Jawaharlal Nehru.
(spring festival of Baisakhi) in Punjab. It
Q.862. Who founded the Theosophical Q.865. In his ‘Drain of Wealth’ argument, happened under the rule of Lt. Governor
Society in New York in 1875? who among the following stated that of Punjab, Michael O’Dwyer, and viceroy
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Britain was completely draining India? of India, Lord Chelmsford. People
(a) Naoroji Furdunji and Satyendra Nath SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) gathered there to protest against the
Bose (a) Badruddin Tyabji Rowlatt Act and arrests of pro-Indian
(b) Baba Dayal Das and Madan Lal (b) Lala Lajpat Rai independence leaders Dr. Saifuddin
(c) Ramabai Ranade and GK Devadhar (c) Dadabhai Naoroji Kitchlew and Dr. Satya Pal.
(d) Madame HP Blavatsky and Colonel (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Q.869. Vasco da Gama, who discovered
Olcott Sol.865.(c) Dadabhai Naoroji - He was the sea route from Europe to India,
Sol.862.(d) Madame HP Blavatsky and known as the "Grand Old Man of India”. belonged to which nation?
Colonel Olcott. The Theosophical He introduced thе 'drain thеory' in his SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
df
Society, emphasized the study of ancient rеnownеd book "Povеrty and thе (a) England (b) Portugal
Un-British Rulе in India”.
_p
Hindu, Buddhist, and Zoroastrian (c) Spain (d) Germany
philosophies. It advocated for universal
Q.866. Who is the author of the Indian Sol.869.(b) Portugal. Vasco da Gama
na
brotherhood based on principles from
national anthem? arrived in India at Calicut (Kozhikode) in
the Upanishads and Vedas. Annie Besant
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift) 1498 AD during the reign of the Zamorin,
ap
joined the society in 1889 and first came
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay a Hindu ruler. This event marked the
to India on 16 November 1893. Its
(b) Rabindranath Tagore discovery of the sea route from Europe to
:@
headquarters in India was established in
(c) Kazi Nazrul Islam India. He reached India by sea via the
Adyar, Madras (now Chennai). Ramabai
(d) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar "Cape of Good Hope". Francisco de
Ranade and G. K. Devadhar were both
Almeida was appointed as the first
TG
founders of the Poona Seva Sadan. Sol.866.(b) Rabindranath Tagore. He Portuguese governor in India. His policy
wrote the Indian national anthem, "Jana is known for implementing the "Policy of
Q.863. What gave a major impetus to the
Gana Mana" in Bengali in 1911, and it Blue Water," which aimed to establish
cotton textile industry in India after
on
was officially adopted as the national Portuguese dominance in maritime
Independence?
anthem of India on January 24, 1950. trade.
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
ch
(a) Partition of India in 1947 Q.867. Which Commission drew the Q.870. Tattvabodhini Patrika promoted
(b) Export of raw cotton to England boundary line between India and the study of India’s past in which
ar
(c) Swadeshi movement Pakistan? language?
(d) Development of railway network SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
Se
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Radcliffe Boundary Commission (a) Sanskrit (b) Hindi
Sol.863.(c) Swadeshi movement. The
(b) Gandhi Irwin Pact (c) English (d) Bengali
Swadeshi movement, led by Gandhiji,
(c) Hilton Young Commission
aimed to promote self-sufficiency by Sol.870.(d) Bengali. Tattvabodhini
(d) Bretton woods Commission
boycotting British goods and Patrika was a Bengali monthly that
encouraging Indian-made products. Sol.867.(a) Radcliffe Boundary started publishing from Calcutta (now
India's first cotton mill, the Bombay Commission. The "Radcliffe Line" Kolkata) in 1843 as a mouthpiece of
Spinning and Weaving Company, was became the border between India and Debendranath Tagore's Tattvabodhini
established in Mumbai on July 7, 1854. Pakistan the partition of India on 17 Sabha.
The world’s first cotton mill, the Upper August 1947. The Border Commission
Priory Cotton Mill, was founded by Lewis Q.871. Who among the following stated
headed by Sir Cyril Radcliffe.
Paul and John Wyatt in Birmingham, in 1902, India was not ruled for its
Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931 - 32) was an
England, in 1741. benefit, but rather for the benefit of its
agreement between Mahatma Gandhi
and Lord Irwin. The Hilton Young conquerors?
Q.864. ________ is one of the first SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Commission (1926) recommended the
criticism of the caste system written by (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
establishment of the 'Reserve Bank of
Mahatma Phule and published in the year (b) Lala Lajpat Rai
India'. The Bretton Woods Committee
1873. (c) Annie Besant
(BWC in 1944) created two organizations
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift) (d) Sarojini Naidu
- the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(a) Jati ka Unmoolan
and the World Bank. Sol.871.(c) Annie Besant first came to
(b) Bharat Mein Jaati Evam Prajaati
India on 16 November 1893. She joined
(c) Gulami Ki Kahani Q.868. Which British colonel is
the Theosophical Society in May 1889
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
and founded a weekly newspaper, committee : Formed - 29 August 1947, Modern India' or 'Father of the Bengal
Commonweal, in January 1914 for her Chairman - Dr. BR Ambedkar Total Renaissance'.
political work. Other personalities and member - 7.
their quotes: Bal Gangadhar Tilak - Q.881. In 1921-22, farmers of the
Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it. Q.877. The All India Forward Bloc was Malabar seacoast of Kerala undertook a
Lala Lajpat Rai - The shots that hit me founded by_______in 1939 after resigning great uprising, which is known as the __ .
are the last nails to the coffin of British from the Congress Presidentship Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
rule in India. SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Munda uprising (b) Moplah uprising
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (c) Santhal uprising (d) Kol uprising
Q.872. Sanskrit College at Benaras was (b) Mahatma Gandhi
founded by ________. (c) Jawaharlal Nehru Sol.881.(b) Moplah uprising - Led by
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (d) Subhash Chandra Bose Variyamkunnath Kunjahammed Haji,
(a) William Jones (b) James Mill against the British and the Hindu
Sol.877.(d) Subhash Chandra Bose. All landlords; Wagon tragedy - Moplah
(c) Jonathan Duncan (d) Thomas Munro
India Forward Bloc was a Political Party prisoners died of suffocation during
Sol.872.(c) Jonathan Duncan. The formed on May 3, 1939 in Makur Unnao, transportation in a closed freight wagon.
Sanskrit College at Varanasi was Uttar Pradesh. Its formation was
established in 1791. The Hindu College announced in Calcutta. Q.882. Who among the following social
(now Presidency University) in Kolkata reformers of British India is known as
Q.878. Who was the first Indian to qualify Lokhitwadi ?
was founded in 1817.
for Covenanted service? Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
Q.873. Who designed India Gate, also SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift) (a) Balshastri Jambhekar
called the All-India War Memorial? (a) Subhash Chandra Bose (b) Daboda Pandurang
df
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (c) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
(a) Charles Corey (b) John Tailor (c) Satyendra Nath Tagore (d) Gopal Hari Deshmukh
_p
(c) Fredrik Forsyth (d) Edwin Lutyens (d) Surendra Nath Banerjee
Sol.882.(d) Gopal Hari Deshmukh.
na
Sol.873.(d) Edwin Lutyens (an English Sol.878.(c) Satyendra Nath Tagore Balshastri Jambhekar (Father of Marathi
architect). Other buildings designed by Qualified in 1863. Indian Services Act, Journalism) - He started the very first
ap
him: Rashtrapati Bhavan, India Gate, The 1861 reserved certain positions for newspaper, ‘Darpan’, and revolutionized
Cenotaph Whitehall (London). The Old covenanted civil servants. It was enacted the journalism system in Maharashtra.
:@
Parliament of India was also designed by in 1861 during Lord Canning's
Herbert Baker and Lutyens. The Viceroyalty. Charles Cornwallis is known Q.883. Who among the following
foundation stone of India Gate was laid as ‘the father of Civil services in India’. founded the Asiatic Society in 1784 in
TG
by His Royal Highness, the Duke of Calcutta?
Q.879. The Hindu Mahasabha was Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
Connaught in 1921.
founded as a response to muslim (a) Jonathan Duncan (b) William Jones
on
Q.874. Who was the political guru of fundamentalism in which Year? (c) Warren Hastings (d) Charles Eyre
Subhash Chandra Bose? SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 3rd shift)
SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (a) 1917 (b) 1915 (c) 1925 (d) 1910 Sol.883.(b) William Jones. Asiatic
ch
(a) M.G. Ranade Society - It was started with the goal of
Sol.879.(b) 1915. Hindu Mahasabha promoting oriental studies. Jonathan
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
ar
(Founder - Madan Mohan Malaviya) First Duncan - He started Sanskrit College
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
All India Hindu Mahasabha Conference - (1791) at Varanasi to study Hindu Law
(d) Chittaranjan Das
Se
Haridwar (1915). In 1930, it emerged as a and Philosophy. He was the Governor of
Sol.874.(d) Chittaranjan Das distinct party under the leadership of Bombay.
(Deshbandhu). Vinayak Damodar Savarkar. Prominent
Leaders - Lala Lajpat Rai, Navin Chandra Q.884. The Social Service League was
Q.875. The name of the Brahmin priest Rai, Radha Mohan Das Agarwal, founded in Bombay by:
who later came to be known as Chandroji Angre, Mahant Avaidyanath. Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
Ramakrishna Paramahansa is: (a) Manabendra Nath Roy
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift) Q.880. Who among the following said that
(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(a) Gadadhar Chattopadhyaya "English education has enslaved us" ?
(c) Narayan Malhar Joshi
(b) Dayanand Saraswati Graduate Level 30/06/2023 ( Shift - 1)
(d) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(c) Shree Narayana Guru (a) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Narendra Nath Datta (b) Mahatma Gandhi Sol.884.(c) Narayan Malhar Joshi - He
(c) Muhammad Ali Jinnah was an Indian trade union leader,
Sol.875.(a) Gadadhar Chattopadhyay. (d) Muhammad Iqbal Founded social service league (1911). He
Q.876. When did the Drafting Committee Sol.880.(b) Mahatma Gandhi. started the All India Trade Union
publish the first draft of the Indian Muhammad Iqbal - He wrote the famous Congress (1920). He was the general
Constitution? song 'Saare jahan se achha', also known secretary of AITUC. Manabendra Nath
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift) for giving birth to the 'idea of Pakistan'. Roy - leader of India’s communists until
(a) June 1948 (b) May 1948 Muhammad Ali Jinnah was a barrister, the independence of India in 1947.
(c) January 1948 (d) February 1948 politician and the founder of Pakistan.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a religious and Q.885. When British rule ended in India in
Sol.876.(d) February 1948. Drafting social reformer, known as the 'Father of 1947 the literacy rate was just ______.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Afternoon) SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening) Sol.895.(b) 1905 at Paris under the
(a) 18 percent (b) 22 percent (a) Munda (b) Bhil (c) Gond (d) Bhutia patronage of Madam Bhikaji Cama,
(c) 20 percent (d) 12 percent Munchershah Burjorji Godrej and S. R.
Sol.890.(a) Munda. Birsa Munda was a Rana. It was a branch of the Indian Home
Sol.885.(d) 12 percent. The population tribal reformer, religious leader, and Rule Society which was established in
census, a Union subject under Article 246 freedom fighter. 15 November - Birsa London in 1905. Bhikaji Cama's
of the Indian Constitution, conducted its Munda’s birth anniversary (Jharkhand important publication is 'Vande Mataram'
first census of Independent India in 1951, carved out of Bihar on 15th November (1909).
listed as serial number 69 in the seventh 2000).
schedule. This census revealed the Q.896. In which year was India House
population of the country to be 36, 10, 88, Q.891. Dr. B.R Ambedkar was associated established by Shyamji Verma?
090. with which of the following SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (4th Shift)
communities? (a) 1905 (b) 1899 (c) 1902 (d) 1909
Q.886. What was the title given to the SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Morning)
late Sarojini Naidu? (a) Mahar (b) Berar (c) Santal (d) Sangoi Sol.896.(a) 1905. Other revolutionaries:
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon) V.D. Savarkar, Bhikaji Cama, V.N.
(a) Nightingale of India Sol.891.(a) Mahar. It is listed as the Chatterjee, Lala Har Dayal, V.V.S. Aiyar,
(b) Kite of India Scheduled Caste in India. Dr. B.R M.P.T. Acharya, P.M. Bapat, etc. Shyamji
(c) Sparrow of India Ambedkar - Architect of Indian Krishna Verma founded the Indian Home
(d) Hornbill of India Constitution. Rule Society and The Indian Sociologist
(Journal) in London. He became the first
Sol.886.(a) Nightingale of India (Bharat Q.892. Which freedom fighter of British
President of Bombay Arya Samaj.
Kokila). This title was given to Sarojini India is widely regarded as the "father of
df
Naidu by Mahatma Gandhi. Notable the two-nation theory" ? Q.897. Identify the freedom fighter who,
Works - The Golden Threshold, The SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon) as a child, hated going to school and
_p
Broken Wing. (a) Syed Ahmed Khan found it suffocating and oppressive.
(b) Muhammad Ali Jinnah SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
na
Q.887. The Deccan Riots of 1875 took (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (a) Mahatma Gandhi
place in ______ . (d) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
ap
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Morning) (c) Jyotiba Phule
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Bihar Sol.892.(a) Syed Ahmed Khan was the
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
:@
(c) West Bengal (d) Maharashtra founder of Aligarh Muslim University and
a forward looking Islamist reformer. Sol.897.(d) Rabindranath Tagore.
Sol.887.(d) Maharashtra. Deccan Riots: Mohammed Ali Jinnah - First governor - Rabindranath Tagore: Santiniketan
TG
Began at - Supa village (Poona) in 1875. general (1947–48) of Pakistan. (1901), Nobel Prize in Literature (1913,
The farmers’ main motive was to destroy Gitanjali), composed Jana Gana Mana
the account books of the moneylenders Q.893. Who among the following was a (India’s National Anthem) and Amar
Roman Catholic missionary who worked
on
and they also socially boycotted the Shonar Bangla (Bangladesh’s National
moneylenders. The movement was in Bengal for the majority of his/her life? Anthem). Other Works: Manasi (1890)
supported by the Poona Sarvajanik SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (3rd Shift) [The Ideal One], Sonar Tari (1894) [The
ch
Sabha (co-founded by M G Ranade). (a) Saint Bernadette (b) David of Basra Golden Boat], Gitimalya (1914) [Wreath
(c) Mother Teresa (d) Columba of Songs], and Balaka (1916) [The Flight
ar
Q.888. Editor of a Marathi newspaper of Cranes].
"Kesari” was . Sol.893.(c) Mother Teresa (from
Se
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Afternoon) Macedonia) - Nobel Peace Prize (1979), Q.898. The claim for ‘swarajya’ or
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal founded the Missionaries of Charity. self-government within the British
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh Saint Bernadette - French saint whose Empire, on the model of self-governing
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai visions led to the founding of the Marian colonies like Australia and Canada, was
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak shrine of Lourdes. put forward from the Congress platform
in 1905 by:
Sol.888.(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Q.894. When did Indigo revolt, a peasant
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
movement, start in India?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
Q.889. What happened in Bengal, India, SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (1st Shift)
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
in 1770 that resulted in the death of (a) 1857 (b) 1861 (c) 1859 (d) 1889
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
one-third of the population?
Sol.894.(c) 1859 (March). The Indigo (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening)
(a) Massacre (b) Famine Rebellion (Neel Bidroh) started in Bengal Sol.898.(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(c) Slavery (d) Chemical explosion and was a revolt by the farmers against (Diamond of India) was Political Guru of
British planters who had forced them to Gandhi, Congress President (1905),
Sol.889.(b) Famine. 1770 Bengal Famine grow indigo under terms that were established Servants of India Society in
- It affected Bengal and Bihar. Relief - greatly unfavorable to the farmers. 1905, English Newspaper (The Hitavada),
Attempts to prevent export and hoard or founded The Ranade Institute of
monopolize grain; 15,000 was spent on Q.895. The Paris Indian Society was an
Economics (1905), ‘Dharmatma Gokhale’
the import of food grains. Indian nationalist organisation founded
(Writer - Mahatma Gandhi).
in ______.
Q.890. Tribal leader Birsa was SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift) Q.899. Who among the following was the
associated with which tribe? (a) 1907 (b) 1905 (c) 1909 (d) 1900 founder of the Bhoodan Yojana (Land
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
Gift) movement? the year ______. (c) Danish (d) Portuguese
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Evening)
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Tarabai Shinde (a) 1918 (b) 1920 (c) 1921 (d) 1924 Sol.908.(a) French. Battle of
(c) Atmaram Joshi (d) Vinoba Bhave Chandernagore (1757) - Between French
Sol.903.(b) 1920. Oudh Kisan Sabha and British (led by Robert Clive) during
Sol.899.(d) Acharya Vinoba Bhave in (Oudh Farmers Association) was an the Seven Years' War (1756-1763).
1951, the Bhoodan Movement (first association formed by Baba Ram
started in Andhra Pradesh) was initiated Chandra. He was a trade unionist who Q.909. In which of the following years
at Pochampally village (Telangana). The organized the farmers of Oudh and led did Japan invade India resulting in the
Bhoodan movement attempted to the first protest against the landlords. Battle of Imphal?
persuade wealthy landowners to SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Morning)
voluntarily give a percentage of their land Q.904. India and Pakistan had signed the (a) 1944 (b) 1901 (c) 1862 (d) 1899
to landless people. ______, under which the two countries
agreed to sort out differences and Sol.909.(a) 1944. The outcome of the
Q.900. The first President of the All India disputes bilaterally. battle of Imphal was a turning point of
Trade Union Congress was _________. SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Morning) one of the most gruelling campaigns of
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) (a) Calcutta Pact (b) Shimla Pact the Second World War (1939-45).
(a) C Rajagopalachari (c) Lucknow Pact (d) Agra Pact Q.910. In which of the following years
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai was the Bombay Reorganization Act
(c) Chandra Shekhar Azad Sol.904.(b) Shimla Pact was signed in
1972 by Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto, the President passed?
(d) Motilal Nehru SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Evening)
of Pakistan, and Indira Gandhi, the Prime
Sol.900.(b) Lala Lajpat Rai. All India Minister of India. (a) 1980 (b) 1960 (c) 1956 (d) 1975
df
Trade Union Congress, AITUC (created Sol.910.(b) 1960. After this act, Bombay
on October 31, 1920 in Bombay) is the Q.905. What was the name of the
_p
operation that led to the annexation of State was dissolved and split on
first Central Trade Union of India and the linguistic lines into the two states of
second largest trade union federation in the Hyderabad State into India?
na
SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Afternoon) Gujarat (Gujarati speaking population)
India after the Indian National Trade and Maharashtra (Marathi speaking
union Congress. In India, Trade Unions in (a) Operation Sunrise
ap
(b) Operation Unity population).
India are registered under the Trade
Union Act (1926). (c) Operation Polo Q.911. Who among the following is one
:@
(d) Operation Gateway of the founder members of Bhartiya Jana
Q.901. Who among the following was the Sangh?
first Indian to be selected to the British Sol.905.(c) Operation Polo - The code
SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Morning)
TG
‘House of Commons’ on a Liberal Party name of the Hyderabad "police action" in
September 1948. It was a military (a) KM Munshi
ticket? (b) Minoo Masani
SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Afternoon) operation in which the Indian Armed
(c) Baldev Singh
on
(a) Chandra Shekhar Azad Forces invaded the Nizam-ruled princely
state, annexing it into the Indian Union. (d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
ch
(c) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar Q.906. With whom is the 'Patharughat Sol.911.(d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee.
(d) Bhagat Singh Uprising' associated? BJS was an Indian right-wing political
ar
SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Morning) party that existed from 1951 to 1977 and
Sol.901.(b) Dadabhai Naoroji. He was was the political arm of Rashtriya
(a) Lawyers' uprising
Se
known as India Gladstone. The first Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS), a Hindu
attempt to calculate National Income of (b) Soldiers’ uprising
(c) Teachers' uprising nationalist volunteer organization.
India was made by him. He was the first
Asian (Indian) member of the British (d) Peasants’ uprising Q.912. A large area of land demarcated
Parliament. He coined the name “Indian Sol.906.(d) Peasants’ uprising. It was as Damin-i-Koh in 1832 was declared as
National Congress” (INC). against the tax policies of the British in the land of the ______.
1894. Patharughat is a place in Assam SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Evening)
Q.902. Who among the following Indian (a) Warlis (b) Paharias
freedom fighters was fondly called and is currently known as Patharighat.
(c) Murias (d) Santhals
Gandhi Buri (Old Lady Gandhi) for her Q.907. The ______ movement was led by
dedication towards Gandhian principles? Chaudhary Devi Lal in 1987. Sol.912.(d) Santhals (Tribal who
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Afternoon) SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Evening) inhabited the forest of Rajmahal hills).
(a) Kamla Chaudhary (a) Sangharsh Yudh (b) Insaaf Yudh Damin-i-Koh - British promised
(b) Leela Roy (c) Maha Yudh (d) Nyaya Yudh non-interference in the land.
(c) Dakshayani Velayudhan
(d) Matangini Hazra Sol.907.(d) Nyaya Yudh. He founded the Q.913. Fort Saint Louis was a ______
Lok Dal party. fort that stood in Pondicherry on the
Sol.902.(d) Matangini Hazra. Matangini eastern coast of India.
Hazra was an Indian revolutionary and Q.908. Chandernagore (Chandannagar) SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Morning)
social activist who participated in the was a ______ colony captured by the (a) French (b) Danish (c) Dutch (d) British
Indian independence movement. British Navy on 23 March 1757.
SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Evening) Sol.913.(a) French.
Q.903. Avadh Kisan Sabha was set up in (a) French (b) Dutch Fort Saint Louis - Built by Francois Martin
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle History
and Destroyed by the Britishers in 1761. (c) Indore (d) Ujjain (c) MacDonell
(d) Max Muller
Q.914. What was the meaning of ‘Ryot’ in Sol.918.(b) Gwalior. The Samadhi of
British records in the 18th century? Rani Lakshmi Bai is situated at Phool Sol.923.(a) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Evening) Bagh. It is to commemorate the great in his book Satyarth Prakash propounded
(a) Peasants (b) Weavers warrior of Jhansi. that the original abode of the Aryans was
(c) Traders (d) Jobbers Tibet. The reasoning behind this was that
Q.919. The princely state due to the extreme cold in Tibet, sun and
Sol.914.(a) Peasants. Ryots were of Hyderabad was brought under the fire were worshiped and the flora and
Individual cultivators who had full rights Indian Union in the year ______. fauna described in the Rigveda were
regarding sale, transfer, and leasing of SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Morning) found in Tibet.
the land as long as they paid the rent (a) 1950 (b) 1952 (c) 1948 (d) 1963
under the Ryotwari system (Land revenue Q.924. Who among the following was
paid by the farmers directly to the state). Sol.919.(c) 1948. After the State NOT a minister of Cabinet Mission Plan,
Reorganisation Act 1956 Hyderabad was 1946 ?
Q.915. Who was the Nawab of Bhopal merged with Andhra state and later SSC CGL 06/03/2020 (Evening)
that ruled from 1868 to 1901? renamed as Andhra Pradesh. (a) Sir Stafford Cripps (b) Lord Wavell
SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Morning)
Q.920. Which leader gave us the C-R (c) Sir Pethick Lawrence (d) Alexander
(a) Shah Jahan Begum
(b) Begum Sajida Sultan Formula? Sol.924.(b) Lord Wavell. The members of
(c) Sikander Jahan Begum SSC CGL 06/03/2020 (Morning) the Cabinet Mission were Lord Penthick
(d) Sultan Kaikhusrau Jahan Begum (a) C.Rajagopalachari (b) Tilak Lawrence, Secretary of State for India, Sir
(c) C.R. Das (d) Mahatma Gandhi Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of
Sol.915.(a) Shah Jahan Begum. Nawab
df
Sol.920.(a) Rajagopalachari's formula Trade, and A.V Alexander, First Lord of
of Bhopal that ruled – Nawab Sikandar
Admiralty.
_p
Begum:- 1860-1868, Begum Sultan Shah (or C. R. formula or Rajaji formula) was a
Jehan:-1844-1860 and 1868-1901. proposal formulated by Chakravarti
na
Begum Kaikhusrau Jahan:- 1901-1926, Rajagopalachari to solve the political
Begum Sajida Sultan:- 1961-1995. deadlock between the All India Muslim
ap
League and the Indian National Congress
Q.916. Who among the following was on the independence of British India.
one of the speakers after Jawaharlal
:@
Nehru to address the Parliament on the Q.921. ______ was awarded the Nobel
midnight of 15 August 1947 ? Prize in 1913 and a knighthood in 1915.
SSC CGL 09/03/2020 (Evening)
TG
SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Morning)
(a) Rajendra Prasad (a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) C Rajagopalachari (c) Rabindranath Tagore
on
(d) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (d) Mother Teresa
ch
Sol.916.(d) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishan Sol.921.(c) Rabindranath Tagore
(1st Vice President of India) was one of became the first non-European to receive
ar
the three main speakers at the Central the Nobel Prize for his literary work. He
Hall of Parliament - Other than JL Nehru was awarded knighthood in 1915 by King
Se
(Tryst with Destiny Speech) and George V.
Chaudhary Khaliquzaman.
Q.922. Veteran freedom fighter, social
Q.917. Who was the chairman of the reformer and feminist Savithribai Phule
Economic Programme Committee (EPC) hailed from which of the following states
that was formed by the All India of India?
Congress Committee in 1947? SSC CGL 03/03/2020 (Morning)
SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Afternoon) (a) Maharashtra (b) Odisha
(a) Purshottamdas Thakurdas (c) Rajasthan (d) Gujarat
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
Sol.922.(a) Maharashtra. Savithribai
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
Phule - She was the first female teacher
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
of India and opened a school for women
Sol.917.(b) Jawaharlal Nehru. The aim in 1848, Married to Jyotirao Phule
of this committee was to make a plan (Founded Satya Shodhak Samaj in 1873
which could balance private and public in Pune).
partnership and urban and rural
Q.923. Who among the following
economies.
scholars is associated with the
Q.918. In which of the following cities is Tibet-home theory of the Aryans?
the tomb of Rani of Jhansi situated? SSC CGL 07/03/2020 (Evening)
SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Evening) (a) Dayanand Saraswati
(a) Jabalpur (b) Gwalior (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Sol.4.(c) Dual Citizenship. authority to legislate on Union List
Polity India’s commitment to the rule of law is subjects. Article 2 allows for the
grounded in the Constitution which admission or establishment of new
Constitution establishes India as a ‘Sovereign states, while Article 3 provides for the
Socialist Secular Democratic Republic’ formation of new states and the
Q.1. During the framing of the Indian with a Parliamentary form of alteration of existing states' areas,
Constitution, the Constituent Assembly Government. Other key features: Federal boundaries, or names.
held a total of eleven sessions, with system of governance between the Union
sittings spread over for how many days? and the States; Separation of powers Q.7. The Indian Constitution came into
SSC MTS 13/11/2024 (2nd Shift) between the three organs of the force on ___ and is celebrated as
(a) 180 (b) 165 (c) 115 (d) 132 Government; free and fair elections; Republic Day.
Equality before the law; A secular state SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Sol.1.(b) 165. The Constituent Assembly (a) 26 Jan 1950 (b) 26 Jan 1951
that recognizes freedom of conscience
of India began its first session on 9 (c) 26 Feb 1950 (d) 26 Jan 1948
and religion.
December 1946 in the Constitution Hall
(now Central Hall of Parliament). Over Q.5. Which of the following statements Sol.7.(a) 26 Jan 1950. The Constitution
nearly three years, it held 11 sessions, are INCORRECT vis-à-vis features of the of India was adopted by the Constituent
meeting for 165 days, including 114 days Indian Constitution? Assembly on 26th November 1949. The
focused on discussing the Draft 1) The Constitution empowers the Prime Drafting Committee, chaired by Dr.
Constitution. Minister to proclaim three types of Bhimrao Ambedkar, was established on
emergencies. 29th August 1947. A total of 284
Q.2. The Indian Constitution has members signed the Constitution, which
2) A reservation policy is there to uplift
established _________. took 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days to
df
the disadvantaged sections of society.
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) draft.
3) The Supreme Court has no power of
_p
(a) partial Judicial system
judicial review. Q.8. Secularism is a feature of the Indian
(b) dual judicial system
4) The Constitution provides for universal Constitution, which means:
na
(c) independent judicial system
adult suffrage. SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
(d) plural judicial system
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) (a) The State does not promote any
ap
Sol.2.(c) independent judicial system: It (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 religion.
means that the other organs of the (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 (b) The State promotes the religion of the
:@
government like the executive and minority community.
Sol.5.(a) 1 and 3. The Constitution
legislature must not restrain the (c) The State promotes the religion of the
empowers the President to proclaim
functioning of the judiciary in such a way majority community.
TG
three types of emergencies. National
that it is unable to do justice. (d) The State can promote any religion.
Emergency (Article 352), President’s Rule
Q.3. Who among the following, while (State Emergency) (Article 356), Sol.8.(a) In India, the term 'secularism'
on
praising the amending feature of the Financial Emergency (Article 360). was introduced in the year 1976 of the
Indian Constitution said that ‘This variety 42nd Amendment of the Constitution.
Q.6. Which of the following statement(s)
in the amending process is wise but is
ch
is/are INCORRECT vis-a-vis features of Q.9. In which year did the Indian
rarely found’?
the Indian Constitution? Constitution declare Hindi in Devanagari
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
ar
1) Though India has a federal system, the script to be the official language of the
(a) Granville Austin (b) Ivor Jennings
Constitution does not mention the word
Se
(c) K C Wheare (d) HM Seervai Union?
'federation'. SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)
Sol.3.(c) K C Wheare was an Australian 2) Article 5 of the Constitution says that (a) 1952 (b) 1951 (c) 1949 (d) 1955
academic who was an expert on the the Parliament by law can create a new
constitutions of the British state. Sol.9.(c) 1949. Under Article 343(1), the
Commonwealth. He also described the 3) On the subjects in the Union list, each official language of the Union shall be
Indian Constitution as Quasi federal. State Legislature can enact laws for the Hindi in Devanagari script, while Section
Granville Austin, a well-known scholar of State. 3 of the Official Language Act, 1963 talks
the Indian Constitution, said, “The 4)Both the Parliament and State about the continuance of the English
amending process has proved itself as Legislature can pass laws on subjects in language for official purposes of the
one of the most ably conceived aspects concurrent list. Union and for use in Parliament.
of the constitution”. Ivor Jennings said SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 Q.10. The Preamble of the Constitution
that ‘India is a federation with a strong
(c) Only 1 (d) 1 and 3 describes India as:
centralising tendency’.
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
Q.4. Which of the following is NOT a Sol.6.(b) 2 and 3. Article 1 of the Indian (a) an atheist state (b) a unitary state
feature of the Constitution of India? Constitution defines India, also known as (c) a secular state (d) a federal state
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Bharat, as a union of states. Although the
(a) Universal Adult Franchise term "federation" is not explicitly used, Sol.10.(c) A secular state. It does not
(b) Independent Judiciary India functions as a holding-together consider anyone's religion as an official
(c) Dual Citizenship type of federation where power religion. India is a Sovereign Socialist
(d) Blend of rigidity & flexibility distribution among states can be Secular Democratic Republic with a
unequal. The Parliament has exclusive Parliamentary form of government which
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
is federal in structure with unitary Q.14. Which of the following is NOT a Indian Constitution. Other names for the
features. Atheist State - No belief in basic feature of the Indian Constitution ? preamble: Soul of the Constitution: By
Gods. Unitary State - Central government SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Thakurdas Bhargav. Identity card of the
holds complete authority. Federal State - (a) Parliamentary system Constitution: By N.A. Palkhiwala. Keynote
Central and state governments share (b) Blend of rigidity and flexibility to the Constitution: By Sir Ernest Barker.
autonomy. (c) Lengthiest written Constitution
(d) Drawn from one source Q.17. When was the preamble to the
Q.11. Which of the following word Indian Constitution amended ?
sequences is correct as per the Sol.14.(d) Drawn from one source. The Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Preamble to the Constitution ? salient features of the Indian Constitution (a) 1981 (b) 1976 (c) 1974 (d) 1980
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) include: the lengthiest written
(a) Sovereign, socialist, secular, constitution, drawn from various sources, Sol.17.(b) 1976. The Preamble of the
democratic, republic a blend of rigidity and flexibility, a federal Constitution was amended only once, in
(b) Secular, democratic, secular, socialist, system with a unitary bias, a 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional
sovereign parliamentary form of government, a Amendment. The terms 'Socialist',
(c) Sovereign, secular, socialist, synthesis of parliamentary sovereignty 'Secular', and 'Integrity' were added to the
democratic, republic and judicial supremacy, rule of law, an preamble. 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were
(d) Socialist, secular, democratic, integrated and independent judiciary, added between 'Sovereign' and
republic, sovereign fundamental rights, directive principles 'Democratic'. 'Unity of the Nation' was
of state policy, fundamental duties, changed to 'Unity and Integrity of the
Sol.11.(a) The words "Socialist" and secularism, single citizenship, judicial Nation'.
"Secular" were added to the Preamble of review, and the basic structure doctrine. Q.18. When is Constitution Day observed
the Indian Constitution by the 42nd
df
in India ?
Amendment in 1976. Before this, India Q.15. Which of the following statements
Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
_p
was described as a Sovereign, are correct in the context of the Indian
(a) 12 January (b) 26 November
Democratic, Republic, and after the Constitution?
(c) 26 January (d) 31 October
na
amendment, it was changed to 1.There are three major organs of the
Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, government, namely Legislature, Sol.18.(b) 26 November. The ‘Purna
ap
Republic. Executive and Judiciary. Swaraj’ resolution, meaning total
2. A separation of functions rather than independence, was passed by the Indian
Q.12. In which of the following years was
:@
powers is followed. National Congress on 19 December
the National Anthem adopted in its Hindi 3.All organs of the government are 1929, during the Lahore session presided
version by the Constituent Assembly ? independent. by Jawaharlal Nehru. The pledge for
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift)
TG
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) independence was publicly announced
(a) 1947 (b) 1950 (c) 1954 (d) 1942 (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only on 26 January 1930. Nehru, along with
Sol.12.(b) 1950. The National Anthem of (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Congress members, marched to the
on
India, "Jana-Gana-Mana," was originally banks of the Ravi, taking an oath not to
Sol.15.(b) 1 and 2 only. In the context of rest until Purna Swaraj was achieved.
composed in Bengali by Rabindranath the Indian Constitution: Legislative
ch
Tagore and titled "Bharoto Bhagyo Function - Parliament (Lok Sabha and Q.19. Who among the following is called
Bidhata." It was first publicly sung on Rajya Sabha) makes laws, with the 'Father of Indian constitution'?
ar
December 27, 1911, at the Calcutta (now President giving assent to bills. Executive Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Kolkata) Session of the Indian National Function - The Prime Minister and the (a) Bhim Rao Ambedkar
Se
Congress. It was translated into Hindi by Council of Ministers execute laws and (b) P Subbarayan
Captain Abid Ali and set to music by are also part of the legislature, linking the (c) Gopinath Bordoloi
Captain Ram Singh. two branches. Judicial Function - The (d) Rajendra Prasad
Q.13. When was the ‘The Objective judiciary interprets laws and administers
Sol.19.(a) Bhim Rao Ambedkar. He
Resolution’ moved by Pt. Jawahar Lal justice, reviewing legislative and
played a pivotal role in drafting the
Nehru ? executive actions for constitutional
Constitution of India, serving as the
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) compliance. This system fosters
Chairman of the Constitution Drafting
(a) 13 December 1946 collaboration and interdependence
Committee. Gopinath Bordoloi was the
(b) 17 November 1946 among branches, with distinct functions
first Chief Minister of Assam. Rajendra
(c) 15 August 1947 but not complete separation of powers.
Prasad served as the first President of
(d) 16 November 1948 Q.16. Who called the preamble of the India. Paramasivan Subbarayan was the
Indian Constitution 'The Political first Minister of Madras Presidency.
Sol.13.(a) 13 December 1946.
The Objective Resolution outlines the Horoscope of our Constitution' ?
Q.20. Who was the designer of India’s
fundamental ideas and philosophy of our Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
national flag?
Constitution, defining the goals of the (a) Dr. KM Munshi
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Constituent Assembly. It serves as the (b) Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer
(a) BN Rau
basis for the preamble of the (c) M. Hidayatullah
(b) KM Munshi
Constitution. This important resolution (d) Sir Ernest Baker
(c) Pingali Venkayya
was adopted by the Assembly on Sol.16.(a) Dr. KM Munshi. He was a (d) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
January 22, 1947. member of the Drafting Committee of the
Sol.20.(c) Pingali Venkayya :
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
He presented the original design of the (d) Nand Lal Bose Commonwealth in May 1947.
Indian flag with red and green colors to (b) The Constituent Assembly adopted
Mahatma Gandhi in 1921. The National Sol.24.(c) Vasant Krishan Vaidya. The the National Anthem in January
Flag was adopted by the Constituent original version of the constitution was 1950.
Assembly of India on 22 July 1947. beautified and decorated by artists from (c) The Constituent Assembly adopted
Shantiniketan including Nand Lal Bose the National Song in January 1948.
Q.21. Who among the following and Beohar Rammanohar Sinha. (d) The Constituent Assembly adopted
personalities was appointed as the legal the National Flag in July 1949.
advisor of the Constituent Assembly that Q.25. The structural part of the Indian
drafted the document of the Constitution Constitution is, to a large extent, derived Sol.28.(b) The National Anthem of India
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift) from the Act of _____________. was adopted by the constituent
(a) HVR Iyengar (b) SN Mukherjee SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (4th shift) assembly on 24th January 1950. It was
(c) BR Ambedkar (d) BN Rau (a) 1909 (b) 1935 (c) 1947 (d) 1919 first sung on 27 December 1911 in the
Sol.25.(b) 1935. Government of India Kolkata session of INC. India joined the
Sol.21.(d) BN Rau. On 9 December 1946, Commonwealth in May 1949. The
the Constituent Assembly of India met Act, 1935 provides the establishment of
an All India federation consisting of Constituent Assembly adopted the Indian
for the first time. Temporary President of National Flag On July 22, 1947 and On
constituent assembly - Dr. provinces and princely states as units. It
divided the powers between the centre January 24, 1950, "Vande Mataram" was
Sachchidananda Sinha. Permanent adopted as the national song.
President - Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Vice - and units in terms of three lists- Federal
President - H C Mukherjee. list, provincial list and the concurrent list. Q.29. How many female members were
Jawaharlal Nehru called it a “machine part of the Constituent Assembly that
Q.22. The original Constitution of India with strong brakes but no engine”. He framed the Constitution of India?
df
was hand written in English by: also called it a “Charter of Slavery”. SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening )
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift)
_p
Q.26. Which is NOT a unitary feature of (a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 15
(a) HVR Iyenger
(b) Prem Behari Narayan Raizada the Constitution of India? Sol.29.(d) 15. The Constituent Assembly
na
(c) Vasant Krishan Vaidya Graduate Level 01/08/2022 ( Shift - 4 ) was formed on 6 December 1946. The
(d) SN Mukherjee (a) Bicameral Legislature idea for a Constituent Assembly was
ap
(b) Integrated Judicial System proposed in 1934 by M. N. Roy.
Sol.22.(b) Prem Behari Narayan Raizada (c) Single Citizenship
:@
- The calligrapher of the Indian (d) Appointment of the Governor by the Q.30. Who was the chairman of the
Constitution. The original constitution President House Committee of the Constituent
was handwritten by him in a flowing italic Assembly of India ?
TG
style. The original Indian Constitution Sol.26.(a) Bicameral Legislature. SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Afternoon)
was made up of 117,369 words with 251 (legislative body with two houses). At the (a) B Pattabhi Sitaramayy (b) AV Thakkar
pages. central level (Lok Sabha and Rajya (c) JB Kripalani (d) K.M. Munshi
on
Sabha). Other Unitary features of Indian
Q.23. Who among the following Constitution: Single Constitution for Sol.30.(a) B Pattabhi Sitaramayya. In
personalities was the chief draftsman of Union and States, Common All-India 1922, AV Thakkar founded the Bhil Seva
ch
the constituent assembly that drafted the Services, Inequality of Representation in Mandal. JB Kripalani was the president of
document of the Constitution? the Council of States, Centralised Indian National Congress during
ar
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift) Electoral Machinery, Special Powers of Independence. K M Munshi - Founder of
Se
(a) KM Munshi Council of State over State List, etc. Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan (1938), Member of
(b) Vasant Krishan Vaidya the Constituent Assembly of India,
(c) SN Mukherjee Q.27. Which of the following is NOT a Minister for Agriculture & Food (1952–53)
(d) HVR Iyenger federal feature of the Indian Constitution ?
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Morning) Q.31. GV Mavalankar was the Chairman
Sol.23.(c) SN Mukherjee. The drafting (a) Dual Government of the ______ of the Constituent Assembly
committee was formed under the (b) Division of Powers of India.
chairmanship of Dr B R Ambedkar by the (c) All India Services SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning)
Constituent Assembly on 29th August (d) Written Constitution (a) Advisory Committee on Fundamental
1947. The other six members of the Rights, Minorities and Tribal and
committee were K.M. Munshi, Sol.27.(c) All India Services. Federal Excluded Areas
Muhammed Sadullah, Alladi Features of the Indian Constitution - (b) Committee on the Functions
Krishnaswamy Iyer, N. Gopalaswami Division of powers, Supremacy of the (c) Order of Business Committee
Ayyangar, Devi Prasad Khaitan and BL constitution, Written constitution, Rigid (d) Ad hoc Committee on the National
Mitter. constitution, Independent Judiciary, Flag
Bi-cameral Legislature.
Q.24. Who among the following wrote in Sol.31.(b) Committee on the Functions.
calligraphic style the Hindi version of the Q.28. With reference to the Constituent GV Mavalankar was the first speaker of
original Indian Constitution? Assembly, which of the following Lok Sabha. Advisory Committee on
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift) statements is Correct ? Fundamental Rights, Minorities and
(a) SN Mukherjee SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Afternoon) Tribal and Excluded Areas - Vallabhbhai
(b) Prem Behari Narain Raizada (a) The Constituent Assembly ratified Patel. Ad hoc Committee on the National
(c) Vasant Krishan Vaidya India’s membership of the Flag - Rajendra Prasad.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Q.32. The total membership of the Citizenship, Cabinet system, Prerogative SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
Constituent Assembly was 389, of which writs, Parliamentary privileges, (a) The U.S. (b) Ireland
______ were representatives of princely Bicameralism. Ireland - Directive (c) South Africa (d) Canada
states. Principles of State Policy, Nomination of
SSC CGL 18/08/21 (Evening) members to Rajya Sabha, Method of Sol.39.(a) The U.S. Borrowed Features of
(a) 84 (b) 102 (c) 109 (d) 93 election of the President. Indian Constitution: US - Impeachment of
the president, Functions of president and
Sol.32.(d) 93. The total membership of Q.36. Which of the following vice president, Removal of Supreme
the Constituent Assembly was 389, of Constitutions inspired the law-making Court and High court judges.
which 292 were representatives of the process in India?
provinces, 93 represented the princely SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Q.40. The Indian Constitution borrowed
states and 4 were from the chief (a) Irish Constitution the concept of concurrent list from _____.
commissioner provinces of Delhi, (b) British Constitution SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British (c) US Constitution (a) USSR (b) Japan
Baluchistan. (d) Canadian Constitution (c) Germany (d) Australia
Q.33. The members of the Constituent Sol.36.(b) British Constitution. Borrowed Sol.40.(d) Australia. Borrowed Features
Assembly signed the Constitution of features of Indian Constitution: British - of Indian Constitution: Australia -
India on ______. Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, Freedom of trade, commerce and
SSC CHSL 16/04/21 (Afternoon) legislative procedure, single citizenship, intercourse, Joint-sitting of the two
(a) 26 November 1948 cabinet system, prerogative writs. US - Houses of Parliament. Japan - Concept
(b) 24 January 1950 Fundamental rights, independence of of Procedure established by law.
(c) 26 November 1949 judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of Germany - Suspension of Fundamental
df
(d) 24 January 1952 the President. Rights during emergency.
_p
Sol.33.(b) 24 January 1950. On that day, Q.37. The concept of ‘Independence of Q.41. From which of the following
the last meeting of the Constituent judiciary’ in the Indian Constitution is Constitutions is the idea of ‘Charter of
na
Assembly was held and the 'Constitution taken from the Constitution of: Fundamental Rights’ adopted in the
of India' ( with 395 Articles, 8 schedules, SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Indian Constitution?
ap
22 parts) was signed and accepted by (a) Ireland (b) France SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
all. (c) The USA (d) Britain (a) Brazilian Constitution
:@
(b) Spanish Constitution
Q.34. In which year did Motilal Nehru Sol.37.(c) The USA. Some features of (c) United States of America’s
(Chairman) and eight other Congress the Indian Constitution borrowed - From Constitution
TG
leaders draft a constitution for India? USA: Fundamental Rights, President’s (d) French Constitution
SSC CHSL 13/10/2020 (Evening) impeachment process, Office of the
(a) 1925 (b) 1950 (c) 1928 (d) 1930 Vice-President. Sol.41.(c) United States of America’s
on
Constitution. Borrowed Features of
Sol.34.(c) 1928. The Motilal Nehru Q.38. From which of the following Indian Constitution: US (United States) -
Report 1928 was made by a committee Constitutions has the India Constitution Independence of judiciary, Judicial
ch
headed by Pt. Motilal Nehru. This adopted the system of ‘First Past the review, Impeachment of the President,
committee was created when Lord Post’ ? Removal of Supreme Court and High
ar
Birkenhead, Secretary of State of India SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) Court judges, Post of vice-president.
Se
asked the Indian leaders to draft a (a) Irish Constitution France - Republic, Ideals of liberty,
constitution for the country. (b) French Constitution equality and fraternity in the Preamble.
(c) United States Constitution
(d) British Constitution Q.42. From which country were the
Sources of Indian Constitution ideals of justice of the Indian
Sol.38.(d) British Constitution. The First Constitution borrowed ?
Q.35. Which country has the Republic
Past the Post (FPTP) system, also known Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
feature of the Indian Constitution been
as the simple majority system, is used in (a) The USSR (b) The UK
borrowed from?
India for elections to the Lok Sabha and (c) The US (d) Japan
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
State Legislative Assemblies. Irish
(a) French Constitution Sol.42.(a) The USSR. Borrowed features
Constitution: Ireland uses the Single
(b) Irish Constitution of the Constitution : USSR (Now Russia) -
Transferable Vote (STV) system, a form
(c) British Constitution Fundamental duties, and The ideals of
of proportional representation. French
(d) Australian Constitution justice (social, economic, and political),
Constitution: France employs a
two-round system, where a candidate expressed in the Preamble.
Sol.35.(a) French Constitution. Borrowed
Features of Indian Constitution: France - must win an absolute majority (over 50%) Q.43. The emergency provisions of the
Ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in in the first round or a relative majority in Indian Constitution are borrowed from
Preamble. Australia - Concurrent list, the second round. the Government of India Act,____________.
Freedom of trade, commerce, and Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Q.39. Judicial Review, a salient feature of
intercourse, Joint - sitting of Parliament. (a) 1931 (b) 1940 (c) 1935 (d) 1933
the Constitution of India, has been
UK - Parliamentary government, Rule of
borrowed from which of the following Sol.43.(c) 1935. The Emergency
Law, Legislative procedure, Single
countries?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
provisions are enshrined in Part XVIII of Supreme court. Borrowed Features of (c) Article 257 (d) Article 123
the Constitution, from Articles 352 to Indian Constitution from Canada -
Sol.50.(c) Article 257 - Control of the
360. The Indian Constitution also Centrifugal form of federalism where the
Union over States in certain cases.
borrowed various features from the center is stronger than the states, To
Article 261 - Public acts, records and
Government of India Act of 1935, provide residuary powers to the Centre,
judicial proceedings.
including the federal scheme, the office Supreme Court’s advisory jurisdiction,
of the governor, the judiciary, and the and Appointment of state governors by Q.51. Article 77 of the Indian
public service commissions. the Centre. Constitution deals with the __________.
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.44. From which country has the
Article, Schedule, Parts and list (a) term of office of the Vice-President
concept of Martial Law, which restricts
(b) Vice - President of India
Fundamental rights, borrowed ?
Q.48. Which Articles of the Constitution (c) oath of office by the Vice-President
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
of India provide for a parliamentary form (d) conduct of business of the
(a) China (b) The UK
of government at the Centre ? Government of India
(c) Japan (d) The USSR
SSC MTS 07/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.51.(d) The President shall make rules
Sol.44.(b) The UK. The expression (a) Articles 74 and 75
for the more convenient transaction of
‘martial law’ has not been defined (b) Articles 71 and 72
the business of the Government of India,
anywhere in the Constitution. It refers to (c) Articles 79 and 80
and for the allocation among Ministers of
the suspension of ordinary law and the (d) Articles 76 and 77
the said business. Article 67 - Term of
government by military tribunals. office of Vice - President.
Sol.48.(a) Articles 74 and 75. Article 74:
Q.45. India is a parliamentary democracy Council of Ministers to aid and advise Q.52. Which of the following Articles of
df
based on the Westminster model of President.-[(1) There shall be a Council of the Indian Constitution mentions, about
_________ . Ministers with the Prime Minister at the
_p
the organisation of 'Village Panchayats'?
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) head to aid and advise the President who SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) the United States of America shall, in the exercise of his functions, act
na
(a) Article 31 (b) Article 38
(b) South Africa in accordance with such advice. Article (c) Article 36 (d) Article 40
(c) France 75 - Other provisions as to Ministers.-(1)
ap
(d) the United Kingdom The Prime Minister shall be appointed by Sol.52.(d) Article 40 : This article directs
the President and the other Ministers the state to organise village panchayats
:@
Sol.45.(d) The United Kingdom. shall be appointed by the President on and empower them to function as
Countries where the Westminster model the advice of the Prime Minister. self-governing units. Directive Principles
is used - Britain, Canada, New Zealand as of State Policy (DPSPs): Outlined in Part
TG
well as in many parts of Asia and Africa. Q.49. Which of the following articles of IV (Articles 36 - 51) of the Constitution,
British - Parliamentary form of the Constitution of India mentions that inspired by the Irish Constitution.
government, The idea of single every Minister and the Attorney-General
on
citizenship, The idea of the Rule of law, of India shall have the right to speak in Q.53. Which Article of the Constitution of
Writs, Institution of Speaker and his role, and participate in the proceedings of India deals with the conduct of business
either House of Parliament ? of the Government of a state ?
ch
Law making procedure, The Political Part
of the Indian Constitution, Bicameralism. SSC MTS 08/10/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) Article 86 (b) Article 87 (a) Article 177 (b) Article 167
ar
Q.46. The concept of "Amendment of the (c) Article 89 (d) Article 88 (c) Article 164 (d) Article 166
Se
Constitution" in the Indian Constitution
was borrowed from the constitution of Sol.49.(d) Article 88. Ministers and the Sol.53.(d) Article 166. Article 164 (1) -
which of the following countries? Attorney - General of India shall not be The Chief Minister shall be appointed by
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon) entitled to vote in either House of the the Governor and the other Ministers
(a) South Africa (b) Germany Parliament. Article 86 : Right of President shall be appointed by the Governor on
(c) Canada (d) Australia to address and send messages to the advice of the Chief Minister, and the
Houses. Article 87 : Relates to the Ministers shall hold office during the
Sol.46.(a) South Africa. Article 368 of special address by the President to the pleasure of the Governor.
Part XX - "Constitutional Amendment". Houses of Parliament at the
Indian Constitution Sources: South Africa commencement of the first session after Q.54. Which Article of the Indian
- Election of members of Rajya Sabha. each general election. Constitution provides that the State must
secure a social order to promote the
Q.47. Which of the following provisions Q.50. Which Article of the Constitution
welfare of people?
of the Indian constitution is borrowed explains that the executive power of
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
from the Constitution of Canada? every state shall be so exercised as not
(a) Article 37 (b) Article 38
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift) to impede or prejudice the exercise of the
(c) Article 39 (d) Article 36
(a) Independence of judiciary executive power of the Union, and the
(b) Concept of Republic executive power of the union shall extend Sol.54.(b) Article 38. Other Articles:
(c) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme to the giving of such directions to a state Article 36 : Defines the Directive
court as may appear to the Government of Principles of State Policy. Article 37:
(d) Concept of concurrent list India to be necessary for that purpose? States that DPSPs are not enforceable by
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) courts but are fundamental in
Sol.47.(c) Advisory jurisdiction of the (a) Article 261 (b) Article 247 governance, and the state is expected to
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
apply them in making laws. Article 39: Amendment Act, 1992, and came into SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Outlines specific principles for state effect on April 24, 1993. Part IV: Directive (a) Article 39(a) (b) Article 39(b)
policy that promote social and economic Principles of State Policy. Part VII: States (c) Article 39(c) (d) Article 39(d)
welfare, such as equal pay for equal in the First Schedule (now repealed).
work, protection of children, and Part X: The Scheduled and Tribal Areas. Sol.62.(b) Article 39(b). This article is
equitable distribution of resources. part of the Directive Principles of State
Q.59. Articles 52 to 78 in Part V of the Policy (DPSP), which outlines the guiding
Q.55. Which article of the Constitution of Indian Constitution deal with __________. principles for the state to follow while
India lays down that it shall be the duty SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) making policies. Article 39(a): Ensures
of the Advocate-General to give advice to (a) Finance Commission of India citizens have equal rights to an adequate
the Government of the State upon legal (b) Union Executive means of livelihood. Article 39(c):
matters? (c) Amendment of the Constitution Prevents concentration of wealth and
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (d) National emergency means of production. Article 39(d):
(a) Article 168 (b) Article 165 Advocates for equal pay for equal work
(c) Article 167 (d) Article 166 Sol.59.(b) Union Executive. Important for men and women.
Articles: Article 52 - President of India.
Sol.55.(b) Article 165. Other Important Article 53 - Executive power of the Union. Q.63. Which of the following Articles
Articles: Article 167 - Duties of Chief Article 54 - Election of President. Article and Parts of the Indian Constitution deal
Minister as respects the furnishing of 63 - The Vice-President of India. Article with the State Legislature ?
information to the Governor, etc. Article 64 - The Vice-President to be the SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift)
168 - Constitution of Legislatures in ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. (a) Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI
States. Article 72 - Power of President to grant (b) Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI
pardons. Article 74 - Council of Ministers (c) Articles 243 to 243-O in Part IX
df
Q.56. Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of the to aid and advise the President. Article (d) Articles 79 to 122 in Part V
Indian Constitution deal with the _______.
_p
76 - Attorney-General for India.
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.63.(b) Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI.
(a) emergency provisions Q.60. Which of the following articles of Other Articles : Articles 214 to 231 of the
(b) financial relations between the Centre
and the states parliament and its proceedings? na
the Indian constitution deals with the Indian Constitution cover
organisation, powers, and functions of
the
ap
(c) legislative relations between the SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the High Courts in India. Articles 243 to
Centre and the states (a) Article 51A (b) Article 36 to 51 243-O in Part IX pertain to Panchayats.
:@
(d) tribunals (c) Article 79 to 122 (d) Article 12 to 35 Articles 79 to 122 in Part V focus on the
Parliament of India.
Sol.56.(c) legislative relations between Sol.60.(c) Article 79 to 122. These
TG
the Centre and the states. Emergency articles in Part V of the Indian Q.64. Which Article of the Indian
Provisions - Part XVIII, Articles 352 - 360. Constitution deal with the provisions Constitution mentions about the
Tribunals - Part XIV-A Article 323A, and related to the Parliament of India, 'Promotion of educational and economic
on
Article 323B. Financial relations between including its organisation, composition, interests of Scheduled Castes,
the Centre and the states - Part XII, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker
ch
Articles 268 - 293. powers, and other related aspects. sections' ?
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.57. Which Article of the Indian Q.61. Which Article of the Indian
ar
(a) Article 45 (b) Article 48
Constitution mentions that ‘The State Constitution provides for protecting and (c) Article 47 (d) Article 46
Se
shall endeavour to promote cottage improving the environment and
industries on an individual or safeguarding forests and wildlife? Sol.64.(d) Article 46. Article 45 directs
co-operative basis in rural areas’ ? SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) the state to ensure early childhood care
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Article 47-A (b) Article 47-B and education for children under the age
(a) Article 44 (b) Article 49 (c) Article 48-A (d) Article 49-C of six. Article 48 provides guiding
(c) Article 43 (d) Article 42 principles for organizing agriculture and
Sol.61.(c) Article 48-A, which is part of animal husbandry in India. Article 47
Sol.57.(c) Article 43. Important Articles : the Directive Principles of State Policy outlines the state's duty to improve the
Article 42 - Provision for just and humane (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution, was standard of living and nutrition for its
conditions of work and maternity relief. added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. citizens.
Article 43A - Participation of workers in The DPSP are guidelines in the Indian
management of Industries. Article 43B - Constitution designed to establish a Q.65. Which Article of the Constitution
Promotion of co-operative societies. welfare state in India. They are borrowed mentions that "the Parliament consists
from the Irish Constitution. of the President and two Houses known
Q.58. Which part of the Constitution as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)
deals with the Panchayats ? Q.62. Which of the following Articles of and the House of the People (Lok
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) the Indian Constitution mentions that Sabha)" ?
(a) Part IV (b) Part IX ‘The State shall, in particular, direct its SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(c) Part VII (d) Part X policy towards securing that the (a) 79 (b) 82 (c) 73 (d) 70
ownership and control of the material
Sol.58.(b) Part IX. The Panchayats resources of the community are so Sol.65.(a) 79. Parliament is India’s top
(Articles 243-243O): This part was distributed as best to subserve the legislative body, with its structure and
inserted by the 73rd Constitutional common good’ ? functions defined as follows: Article 80:
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Composition of the Council of States. the Constitution of India provides (d) freedom of speech and expression
Article 81: Composition of the House of protection to the President and
the People. Article 82: Readjustment Governors and Rajpramukhs ? Sol.72.(b) Other important articles:
after each census. Article 70 : President’s SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) Article 16 - Equality of opportunity for all
functions in contingencies. Article 73: (a) Article 352 (b) Article 356 citizens in matters relating to
Extent of Union's executive power. (c) Article 361 (d) Article 370 employment or appointment. Articles 29
- The cultural and educational rights of
Q.66. In a situation wherein A (female) Sol.69.(c) Article 361. Other Articles: minorities. Article 30 - The right of
and B (male) are working in the same Article 352: Deals with the proclamation minorities to establish and administer
office, same designation, same nature of of Emergency due to war, external educational institutions of their choice.
work but unequal payment, which of the aggression, or internal disturbance. Article 19(1)(a) - Freedom of speech and
following Articles of the Constitution be Article 356: Relates to the President's expression.
applicable? rule in a state, where the President takes
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) over the governance of a state due to Q.73. Which of the following Articles of
(a) Article 48A (b) Article 39(d) failure of the constitutional machinery. the Indian Constitution are related to
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 18 Article 370: Provided special status to Fundamental Rights ?
the state of Jammu and Kashmir, which SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift)
Sol.66.(b) Article 39(d) of the was repealed in 2019. (a) 12-36 (b) 32-51 (c) 12-35 (d) 14-32
Constitution proclaims "equal pay for
equal work for both men and women" as Q.70. Which Article provides that all Sol.73.(c) 12-35. Fundamental Rights:
a Directive Principle of State Policy minorities have the right to establish and Right to equality (Articles 14-18), Right to
(DPSP). Article 21: Guarantees the administer educational institutions of freedom (Articles 19-22), Right against
fundamental right to protection of life their choice ? exploitation (Articles 23-24), Right to
df
and personal liberty. Article 18: Abolition SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) freedom of religion (Articles 25-28),
Cultural and educational rights (Articles
_p
of titles. (a) Article 26 (b) Article 24
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 30 29-30), Right to constitutional remedies
Q.67. Which Articles of the Constitution (Article 32). The Right to property was
na
deal with citizenship ? Sol.70.(d) Article 30. Other important removed from the list of fundamental
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) articles: Article 26 - It gives freedom to rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978
ap
(a) Articles 5 to 11 (b) Articles 5 to 8 manage religious affairs. Article 24 - It and it was made a legal right under
(c) Articles 5 to 10 (d) Articles 5 to 9 prohibits the employment of children Article 300-A in Part XII of the
:@
below the age of 14 years in any factory, Constitution.
Sol.67.(a) Articles 5 to 11. Part II of the mine, or hazardous occupation. Article
Constitution of India deals with 32 - It grants every individual the right to Q.74. 'Reservation in promotion' comes
TG
Citizenship: Article 5 - Citizenship at the move the Supreme Court for the under which Article of the Constitution?
commencement of the Constitution. enforcement of their fundamental rights. SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Article 6 - Rights of citizenship of certain (a) Article 19 (2) (b) Article 14 (4A)
on
persons who have migrated to India from Q.71. How many languages are included (c) Article 16 (4A) (d) Article 15 (3B)
Pakistan. Article 7 - Rights of citizenship in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution
of India as scheduled languages? Sol.74.(c) Article 16 (4A). Article 16(4)
ch
of certain migrants to Pakistan. Article 8
- Rights of citizenship of certain persons SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) allows the state to provide reservations
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 23 d) 21 for appointments or posts for any
ar
of Indian origin residing outside India.
Article 9 - Persons voluntarily acquiring backward class of citizens that is not
Sol.71.(a) 22. Part XVII of the Indian
Se
citizenship of a foreign State not to be adequately represented in state services.
constitution deals with the official Article 16: Equality of opportunity in
citizens. Article 10 - Continuance of
languages in Articles 343 to 351. Initially matters of public employment. The 77th
citizenship rights. Article 11- Parliament
14 were included in the Constitution. Amendment Act introduced clause (4A)
to regulate the right of citizenship by law.
Sindhi language was added by the 21st to Article 16, which specifically permits
Q.68. Under the discretionary power of Amendment Act of 1967. Konkani, reservations in promotions for Scheduled
which Article of the Indian Constitution Manipuri and Nepali were included by the Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) if
did the SC of India recognise sex work as 71st Amendment Act of 1992. they are underrepresented in the
a profession ? Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and services.
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) Santhali were added by the 92nd
(a) Article 140 (b) Article 142 Amendment Act of 2003. Q.75. Articles 344 (1) and 351 of the
(c) Article 141 (d) Article 143 Constitution of India are related to the:
Q.72. Article 15 of the Constitution of SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.68.(b) Article 142. Other Articles: India entails: (a) Eighth Schedule (b) Third Schedule
Article 140 - Ancillary powers of the SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) (c) Sixth Schedule (d) Fifth Schedule
Supreme Court. Article 141 - Law (a) equality of opportunity for all citizens
declared by the Supreme Court is binding in matters relating to employment or Sol.75.(a) Eighth Schedule. Article
on all courts. Article 143. Power of the appointment 344(1) provides for the constitution of a
President to consult the Supreme Court. (b) prohibition of discrimination against Commission by the President on
Article 144 - Civil and judicial authorities any citizen on grounds only of expiration of five years. Article 351 - It
must act in aid of the Supreme Court. religion, race, caste, sex or place of provides for the spread of the Hindi
birth language to develop it. The Eighth
Q.69. Which of the following Articles in (c) cultural and educational rights Schedule recognizes 22 official
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
languages. Schedule and subject: Third SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) the power to perform the duties of the
Schedule - Oaths or affirmations. (a) Article 171 (b) Article 175 Chairman in their absence.
(c) Article 172 (d) Article 176
Q.76. In which Article does the Finance Q.83. Which Article of the Indian
Commission of India find a mention ? Sol.79.(b) Article 175. Other Articles: Constitution mentions about the right of
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Article 171 - Composition of the the Advocate - General of a state to
(a) Article 292 (b) Article 375 Legislative Councils. Article 172 - speak in the State Legislature ?
(c) Article 280 (d) Article 370 Duration of State Legislatures. Article SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
173 - Qualification for membership of the (a) Article 183 (b) Article 179
Sol.76.(c) Article 280. The Finance State Legislature. Article 174 - Sessions (c) Article 177 (d) Article 181
Commission is a constitutional body, it is of the State Legislature, prorogation and
constituted by the President of India Sol.83.(c) Article 177. Article 183 of the
dissolution. Article 176 - Special address Indian Constitution addresses the
every five years. The Commission by the Governor.
consists of five members, including a resignation, vacation, and removal of the
chairperson. Article 292: Borrowing by Q.80. Which of the following parts of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the
the Government of India. Article 375: Indian Constitution is commonly referred Legislative Council. Article 181 stipulates
Courts, authorities and officers continue to as the ‘Magna Carta of India’? that neither the Speaker nor the Deputy
to function subject to the provisions of SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Speaker should preside over the
the Constitution. Article 370: Temporary (a) Part III (b) Part I (c) Part IV (d) Part II proceedings when their removal process
provisions with respect to the State of is underway. These provisions ensure
Jammu and Kashmir. Sol.80.(a) Part III - Fundamental Rights impartiality during key legislative
(Article 12 to 35). ‘Magna Carta’ is the processes.
Q.77. As per Article ____________ of the Charter of Rights issued by King John of
df
Indian Constitution, the Council of England in 1215 under pressure from the Q.84. Which Article of the Indian
Ministers are collectively responsible to barons. Constitution mentions that ‘The Council
_p
the Lok Sabha. of Ministers shall be collectively
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Q.81.Which Article of the Indian responsible to the Legislative Assembly
na
(a) 74(1) (b) 72(1) (c) 73(2) (d) 75(3) Constitution mentions about the salaries of the state’ ?
and allowances of the Chairman and SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
ap
Sol.77.(d) 75(3). Article 75 (1) - The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and (a) Article 164(3) (b) Article 164(1)
Prime Minister shall be appointed by the the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the (c) Article 164(2) (d) Article 164(4)
:@
President and the other Ministers shall Lok Sabha?
be appointed by the President on the SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.84.(c) Article 164(2). Article 164(1) -
advice of the Prime Minister. Article (a) Article 92 (b) Article 97 The Chief Minister is appointed by the
TG
75(2) - The Ministers shall hold office (c) Article 94 (d) Article 95 Governor, while other Ministers are
during the pleasure of the President. appointed on the Chief Minister's advice,
Sol.81.(b) Article 97. Other important and they hold office at the Governor's
on
Q.78. Biological Diversity Act 2002 was Articles: Article 92 - The Chairman or the pleasure. Article 164(3) - Before
passed by the Government of India. It Deputy Chairman not to preside while a assuming office, a Minister must take the
fulfilled ideals of which article of resolution for his removal from office is oaths of office and secrecy administered
ch
Directive Principles of State Policy in the under consideration. Article 94 - Vacation by the Governor, as specified in the Third
Constitution of India ? and resignation of, and removal from, the Schedule. Article 164(4) - A Minister who
ar
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker. is not a member of the State Legislature
Se
(a) Article 49 (b) Article 48A Article 95 - Power of the Deputy Speaker for six consecutive months will cease to
(c) Article 48 (d) Article 47 or other person to perform the duties of hold office at the end of that period.
the office of, or to act as, Speaker.
Sol.78.(b) Article 48A outlines the Q.85. Which Article specifies the
directive principle for environmental Q.82. Which of the following Articles of procedure for amending the Indian
protection and safeguarding forests and the Indian Constitution mentions that the Constitution ?
wildlife. It was added through the 42nd Vice - President of India shall be the ex SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Constitutional Amendment, 1976. The officio Chairman of the Council of (a) Article 365 (b) Article 366
Biological Diversity Act, 2002, was States? (c) Article 368 (d) Article 367
enacted to fulfill India's obligations under SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
the Convention on Biological Diversity. It (a) Article 89 (b) Article 90 Sol.85.(c) Article 368 (Part XX)
established the National Biodiversity (c) Article 91 (d) Article 92 Parliament may amend the Constitution
Authority (NBA), State Biodiversity by way of addition, variation or repeal of
Sol.82.(a) Article 89. Article 64 and any provision in accordance with the
Boards (SBB), and local Biodiversity Article 89(1) state that the Vice President
Management Committees (BMC) to procedure laid down for the purpose.
of India shall serve as the ex officio However, the Parliament cannot amend
regulate access to biological resources Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya
and ensure equitable benefit-sharing. those provisions which form the ‘basic
Sabha). Other related articles include: structure’ of the Constitution. This was
Q.79. Which Article of the Indian Article 90 - Specifies the conditions for ruled by the Supreme Court in the
Constitution mentions about the right of the vacation, resignation, and removal of Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
the Governor to address and to send the Deputy Chairman of the Council of
States. Article 91- Grants the Deputy Q.86. Which Article of the Indian
messages to the House (or Houses) of
Chairman or another designated person Constitution mentions about the salaries
the state legislature ?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
and allowances of members of the Sol.89.(c) Article 166(1). Other India ?
Legislative Assembly and the Legislative important Articles: Article 163(1) - There SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Council of a state? shall be a Council of Ministers with the (a) Article 120 (b) Article 116
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) Chief Minister at the head to aid and (c) Article 112 (d) Article 110
(a) Article 195 (b) Article 199 advise the Governor in the exercise of his
(c) Article 198 (d) Article 194 functions. Article 164(1) - The Chief Sol.92.(c) Article 112 - The President
Minister shall be appointed by the shall cause, in respect of each financial
Sol.86.(a) Article 195. Important Articles year, to be laid before each House of
Governor and the other Ministers shall be
in Part VI (The States): Article 168 - Parliament a statement of the estimated
appointed by the Governor on the advice
Constitution of Legislatures in States. receipts and expenditure of the
of the Chief Minister. Article 165(1) - The
Article 169 - Abolition or creation of Government of India for that year, which
Governor of each State shall appoint a
Legislative Councils in States. Article 170 is in this Part referred to as "the annual
person who is qualified to be appointed a
- Composition of the Legislative financial Statement". Other important
Judge of a High Court to be
Assemblies. Article 194 - Powers, Articles: Article 110 - Definition of
Advocate-General for the State.
privileges, etc., of the Houses of "Money Bills". Article 116 - Votes on
Legislatures and of the members and Q.90. Which Article of the Indian account, votes of credit and exceptional
committees thereof. Article 199 - Constitution mentions the qualification grants. Article 120 - Language to be used
Definition of “Money Bills”. for membership of the State Legislature? in Parliament.
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Q.87. Which Article of the Indian Q.93. ________ of the Indian Constitution
(a) Article 171 (b) Article 180
Constitution mentions that a person may sets qualifications for being a member of
(c) Article 173 (d) Article 179
be appointed as the Governor of two or Lok Sabha.
more states? Sol.90.(c) Article 173. The person must Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
df
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) be at least 25 years old for a seat in the (a) Article 74 (b) Article 84
_p
(a) Article 153 (b) Article 152 Legislative Assembly and at least 30 (c) Article 64 (d) Article 76
(c) Article 151 (d) Article 150 years old for a seat in the Legislative
Sol.93.(b) Article 84 outlines the
na
Council. Other important Articles : Article
Sol.87.(a) Article 153. The Seventh qualifications for being a member of the
171 - The total number of members in
Amendment Act, 1956, amended Article Lok Sabha. A person must: Be an Indian
ap
the Legislative Council of a State shall
153 to allow a governor to oversee two or citizen; Take an oath or affirmation
not exceed one-third of the total number
more states. Other important articles : before an authorized person appointed
:@
of members in the Legislative Assembly
Article 150 - Form of Accounts of The by the Election Commission; Be at least
of that State. Article 179 - Vacation and
Union and of The States. Article 151 - 25 years old; Meet any other
resignation of, and removal from, the
The audit reports of the Union and State qualifications set by the Parliament of
TG
offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
by the Comptroller and Auditor General India. Article 74 : Council of Ministers to
Article 180 - Power of the Deputy
of India. Article 152 - States about the aid and advise the President. Article 64 :
Speaker to perform the duties of
Definition of state. The Vice-President to be ex-officio
on
Speaker.
Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya
Q.88. Which Article of the Indian
Q.91. What Article of the Indian Sabha). Article 76 : It is to the
Constitution states that “There shall be a
ch
Constitution provides that the State appointment and responsibilities of the
High Court for each state” ?
Governor has the authority to reserve a Attorney-General for India.
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
ar
bill for the consideration of the President
(a) Article 275 (b) Article 245 Q. 94. Which of the following Articles of
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Se
(c) Article 214 (d) Article 125 the Indian Constitution are related to the
(a) Article 181 (b) Article 200
(c) Article 190 (d) Article 267 Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
Sol.88.(c) Article 214. Other important
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Articles: Article 215 - Every High Court
Sol.91.(b) Article 200. The Governor may (a) Article 147-150 (b) Article 148-154
shall be a court of record and shall have
also return the Bill with a message (c) Article 148-152 (d) Article 148-151
all the powers of such a court including
requesting reconsideration by the House
the power to punish for contempt of Sol.94.(d) Article 148-151. The CAG
or Houses. Article 201 - It states that
itself. Article 217 - Appointment and handles the audit of the accounts of the
when a Bill is reserved for the
conditions of the office of a Judge of a Union and State governments. Article
consideration of the President, the
High Court. Article 245 - Parliament may 148: Establishes the office of the
President may assent to or withhold
make laws for the whole or any part of Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
assent from the Bill. Article 190 - A
the territory of India. Article 275 - Article 149: Duties and powers of the
person cannot be a member of both
provides for the grants from the Union to Comptroller and Auditor-General. Article
houses of a state legislature. Article 181
certain States. 150: Form of accounts of the Union and
- The Speaker or the Deputy Speaker not
of the States. Article 151: Mandates the
Q.89. Which Article of the Indian to preside while a resolution for his
presentation of audit reports by the
Constitution mentions that ‘All the removal from office is under
Comptroller and Auditor General to the
executive action of the Government of a consideration. Article 267 - Contingency
President of India, which are then laid
state shall be expressed to be taken in Fund.
before Parliament.
the name of the Governor’ ?
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) Q.92. Which Article of the Indian
Q.95. Which Article of the Indian
(a) Article 163(1) (b) Article 165(1) Constitution deals with the annual
Constitution makes it clear that Directive
(c) Article 166(1) (d) Article 164(1) financial statement of the Government of
Principles of State Policy are
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
fundamental in the governance of the outlines the forms of oaths and Public Service Commission for the Union
country and it shall be the duty of the affirmations for various constitutional and a Public Service Commission for
state to apply these principles in making offices : President, Vice-President, Union each State” ?
laws? and State Ministers, Parliament and state SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) legislature candidates, Judges, (a) 315 (4) (b) 315 (1)
(a) Article 46 (b) Article 37 Comptroller and Auditor General. First (c) 315 (3) (d) 315 (2)
(c) Article 44 (d) Article 40 Schedule : Names of the States and
Union Territories, Second Schedule : Sol.101.(b) Article 315 (1). Article 315
Sol.95.(b) Article 37. Directive Principles Provisions for the emoluments, (2) - Two or more States may agree that
of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV of the allowances, privileges of certain there shall be one Public Service
Indian Constitution are based on the Irish constitutional authorities, and Fourth Commission for that group of States.
Constitution, which in turn was based on Schedule : Allocation of seats in the Article 315 (3) - Any such law as
the Spanish Constitution. Rajya Sabha and union territories. aforesaid may contain such incidental
and consequential provisions as may be
Q.96. Which of the following does NOT Q.99. Which Article of the Indian necessary or desirable for giving effect
come under the Concurrent List? Constitution mentions that ‘In the to the purposes of the law. Article 315 (4)
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) performance of his/her duties, the - UPSC can, if requested by a state
(a) Artificial Habitats Attorney - General for India shall have the government, conduct examinations and
(b) Medical Education right of audience in all the courts in the interviews to select candidates for state
(c) Protection of Wildlife territory of India’? government jobs.
(d) Population Control Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(a) Article 76(1) (b) Article 76(3) Q.102. Which of the following Articles of
Sol.96.(a) Artificial Habitats. the Constitution of India provides that
df
The Parliament and state legislatures (c) Article 76(4) (d) Article 76(2)
the Governor appoints the Chief Minister
can both make laws on matters listed
_p
Sol.99.(b) Article 76(3). Article 76 of the and later, the Chief Minister recommends
under the Concurrent List. As of now, the Indian Constitution addresses the the appointment of ministers to the
list includes 52 subjects (originally 47).
na
Attorney General of India. Under Article Governor?
Some Subjects in Concurrent list: 76(1), the President of India appoints the SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Bankruptcy and insolvency, Forests,
ap
Attorney General. Article 76(2) states (a) Article 163 (b) Article 165
Factories, Boilers, Electricity, that it is the duty of the Attorney General (c) Article 164 (d) Article 167
Newspapers, books and printing presses.
:@
to provide legal advice to the
Government of India and perform other Sol.102.(c) Article 164. Other
Q.97. In respect of Arunachal Pradesh, Appointments by Governor: State
the Governor has special responsibility legal duties. Article 76(4) specifies that
Election Commissioner (Article 243 K),
TG
under ________ of the Constitution of the Attorney General holds office at the
pleasure of the President and receives Vice-Chancellors of the universities in the
India with respect to law and order and in state (University Grants Commission
discharge of his functions in relation remuneration as determined by the
(UGC) Regulations, 2018), Advocate
on
thereto. President.
General for the State (Article 165) etc.
Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Q.100. Match the following subject Article 163 - Council of Ministers to aid
ch
(a) Article 359 A (b) Article 380 A matters with their concerned Articles. and advise the Governor of the State.
(c) Article 371 H (d) Article 361 H
a b
ar
Q.103. Which of the following Articles of
Sol.97.(c) Article 371 H. Under Article 1. Superintendence, direction
and control of elections to A) Article 329 the Indian Constitution empowers the
Se
359, during a national emergency, the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the
be Vested in an Election
President can suspend the right to move fundamental rights of the members of
commission.
courts for Fundamental Rights 2. Power of parliament to the armed forces, paramilitary forces,
enforcement, except for Articles 20 and make provision with respect B) Article 324 police forces, intelligence agencies and
21. Article 380, which once addressed to election to legislature. analogous forces ?
the President of India, was omitted by the 3. Bar of interference by SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) courts in electoral matters C) Article 327 (a) Article 33 (b) Article 31
Act of 1976. Article 361 provides (c) Article 37 (d) Article 35
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
protection to the President, Governors,
(a) 1 - C, 2 - B, 3 - A (b) 1 - A, 2 - C, 3 - B
and Rajpramukhs from being held Sol.103.(a) Article 33. Fundamental
(c) 1 - A, 2 - B, 3 - C (d) 1 - B, 2 - C, 3 - A
accountable in courts for actions taken rights are included in Part III (Article
while performing their duties. Sol.100.(d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A. Article 325 - 12-35) of the Constitution. It is described
No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, as the Magna Carta of India. Article 35 -
Q.98. Under which Schedule of the Indian Power to make laws to give effect to
or to claim to be included in a special,
Constitution is the form of oath or certain specified fundamental rights
electoral roll on grounds of religion, race,
affirmation for a Judge of the Supreme shall vest only in the Parliament and not
caste or sex. Article 328 - Power of
Court mentioned? in the state legislatures.
Legislature of a State to make provision
Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
with respect to elections to such
(a) Fourth Schedule (b) Second Schedule Q.104. As per Article 361 of the
Legislature.
(c) First Schedule (d) Third Schedule Constitution of India, who among the
Q.101. Which Article of the Constitution following shall NOT be answerable to any
Sol.98.(d) Third Schedule. The Third court for the exercise and performance
of India mentions that “there shall be a
Schedule of the Indian Constitution
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
of the powers and duties of his/her tenure and removal of CAG of India. Clause (b) grants the right to assemble
office? There are no specific qualifications peaceably and without arms; Clause (c)
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) required to become the CAG of India. The grants the right to form associations,
(a) Secretary (b) Chief Minister President of India appoints the CAG unions, or co-operative societies; Clause
(c) Prime Minister (d) Governor through a warrant under their hand and (d) grants the right to move freely
seal. The CAG serves a term of 6 years or throughout the territory of India; Clause
Sol.104.(d) Governor. Article 361 - The until the age of 65, whichever comes (e) grants the right to reside and settle in
President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh first. any part of the territory of India; Clause
of a State, shall not be answerable to any (g) grants the right to practise any
court for the exercise and performance Q.108. Which of the following profession or to carry on any occupation,
of the powers and duties of his office or statements is correct about Article 129 trade, or business.
for any act done or purporting to be done of the Constitution of India?
by him in the exercise and performance. SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Q.111. Which Articles of the Constitution
(a) It provides for the Supreme Court to of India deal with the Union and its
Q.105. Which schedule of the give advisory opinions to the President. territory ?
Constitution of India contains provisions (b) It provides for the Supreme Court to SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (1st Shift)
for disqualification of legislators on the be a court of original jurisdiction (a) Articles 5-11 (b) Articles 1-4
ground of defection? (c) It provides for the Supreme Court to (c) Articles 12-35 (d) Article 36-51
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) be a court of record.
(a) Schedule - X (b) Schedule - XI (d) It provides for the Supreme Court to Sol.111.(b) Articles 1-4. Article 1- Name
(c) Schedule - VIII (d) Schedule - IX be the highest court of appeal. and territory of the Union; Article 2 -
Admission or Establishment of New
Sol.105.(a) Schedule-X: Popularly known Sol.108.(c) Article 143 - Power of the States; Article 3 - Formation of New
df
as the Anti-Defection Act, was included President to consult the Supreme Court. States and alteration of areas,
in the Constitution via the 52nd
_p
Article 132 - Appellate jurisdiction of the Boundaries or Names of existing States;
Amendment Act, 1985. Schedule-IX (laws Supreme Court in appeals from High Article 4 : Laws made under articles 2
that are immune from judicial review) - It
na
Courts in certain cases. Articles 133 and and 3 to provide for the amendment of
was added by the First Amendment Act, 134 grant the Supreme Court appellate the first and the fourth schedules and
1951.
ap
jurisdiction in civil and criminal matters supplemental, incidental and
Q.106. Which Article of the Indian from High Courts. consequential matters.
:@
Constitution mentions that all the Q.109. How many schedules are there in Q.112. In India which of the following is a
authorities— civil and judicial— in the our Constitution as of June 2023? Gandhian principle of Directive Principles
territory of India shall act in aid of the SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (1st Shift) of State Policy ?
TG
Supreme Court ? (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 10 SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift)
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) (a) To Separate judiciary from executive
(a) Article 143 (b) Article 141 Sol.109.(c) 12 Schedules in Indian (b) To organise village panchayat
on
(c) Article 144 (d) Article 142 Constitution: First - List of States and UT; (c) To secure uniform civil code
Second - Emoluments, allowances, and (d) To provide equal pay for equal work
Sol.106.(c) Article 144. Article 142:
ch
privileges; Third - Oath and affirmation ;
Enforcement of decrees and orders of Fourth - Seat allocation of the Rajya Sol.112.(b) To organise village
the Supreme Court and orders as to
ar
Sabha; Fifth - Administration of panchayat. Article based on Gandhian
discovery, etc. Article 141: The law Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes; principles: 40 - Organise village
Se
declared by the Supreme Court shall be Sixth - Administration of Tribal Areas in panchayats. 43 - Living wage, etc., for
binding on all courts within the territory the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura workers. 43B - To promote voluntary
of India. and Mizoram; Seventh - Union list, State formation, autonomous functioning,
Q.107. Article 149 of the Constitution list and the concurrent list; Eight - List of democratic control of cooperative
deals with ___________ . recognized languages; Ninth - Land societies. 46 - promote educational and
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (1st Shift) reforms and regulations; Tenth - Anti economic interests of the weaker
(a) the qualifications required for the defection law; Eleventh - Panchayati Raj sections. 47 - To improve public health.
appointment of the Comptroller and and Twelfth - Municipalities. 48 - To prohibit the slaughter of cows,
Auditor-General of India calves and other milch. Other Groups -
Q.110. Which Clause of Article 19 of the Socialist Principle - Article (38, 39, 41, 42,
(b) the duties and powers of the Indian Constitution guarantees the 'right
Comptroller and Auditor-General of 43, 43A, 47). Liberal - Intellectual
to move freely throughout the territory of Principle - Article (44, 45, 48, 48A, 49, 50,
India India' ?
(c) the term of office of the Comptroller 51).
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
and Auditor-General of India (a) Clause (b) (b) Clause (c) Q.113. Which of the following Articles
(d) the appointment of the Comptroller (c) Clause (d) (d) Clause (a) says that double jeopardy which says
and Auditor-General of India that “no person shall be prosecuted or
Sol.110.(c) Clause (d). Article 19 - punished for the same offence more
Sol.107.(b) Part V (Chapter V) of the Protection of certain rights regarding
Indian Constitution (Articles 148-151) than once?
freedom of speech, etc. Other clauses of SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift)
deals with the Comptroller and Article 19(1): Clause (a) grants the
Auditor-General (CAG). Article 148: This (a) Article 21 (2) (b) Article 19 (1)
freedom of speech and expression; (c) Article 20 (2) (d) Article 22 (2)
article deals with the appointment, oath,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Sol.113.(c) Article 20 (2). Article 21 - Cooperation societies was inserted as Q.121. KA Najeeb Vs Union of India case
Protection of life and personal liberty. one of the DPSPs (Article 43-B). deals with violation of rights under_____
Article 19 (1) - The right to freedom of SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Q.117. The government is bound to
speech and expression. Article 22 - (a) Article 16 (b) Article 21
ensure observance of social welfare and
Protection Against Arrest and Detention (c) Article 14 (d) Article 19
labour laws enacted to secure for
in Certain Cases. Article 22(2) - A person
workmen a life compatible with human Sol.121.(b) Article 21 (Protection of life
who is arrested and detained must be
dignity, under _____ of the Indian and personal liberty). Important Cases
produced before a magistrate within 24
Constitution. related to Article 21: A.K Gopalan vs the
hours.
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift) State of Madras 1950 : The Supreme
Q.114. Under which Article of the (a) Article 17 (b) Article 15 court has taken a narrow interpretation
Directive Principles of State Policy, a (c) Article 19 (d) Article 21 of Article 21 in this case. Maneka Gandhi
working woman on maternity leave, must vs. Union of India, 1978: In this case, the
Sol.117.(d) Article 21. Article 15 -
receive all maternity benefits from the SC overruled its judgement of the
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds
employer? Gopalan Case by taking a wider
of religion, race, caste, sex or place of
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift) interpretation of Article 21.
birth. Article 19: Protection of certain
(a) Article 42 (b) Article 44
rights regarding freedom of Speech, etc. Q.122. Which part of the Constitution of
(c) Article 45 (d) Article 43
Article 17 - Abolition of Untouchability. India contains the provisions of the
Sol.114.(a) Article 42. Directive Union Executive?
Q.118. In the Indian Constitution which
Principles of State Policies are SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift)
of the following Articles deals with the
non-justiciable rights (which means that (a) Part V (b) Part III
right to move to the Supreme Court for
they cannot be enforced by a Court of (c) Part IV (d) Part VI
df
enforcement of Fundamental rights ?
Law). Article 43 - The State shall SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift) Sol.122.(a) Part V. Other parts of
_p
endeavour to secure all workers a living (a) Article 30 (b) Article 32 constitution: Part III - Fundamental Rights
wage and a decent standard of life. (c) Article 33 (d) Article 31 (Article 12 to 35), Part IV - Directive
na
Article 44 - Uniform civil code for the
Principle of State Policy (Article - 36 to
citizens. Sol.118.(b) Article 32 (Right to
51), Part VI - The States (Article 152 to
ap
Constitutional Remedies) - The ‘Heart
Q.115. 'The state shall endeavour to 237).
and Soul of the Constitution’ by Dr. B.R.
secure to all workers a living wage and a
:@
Ambedkar. Article 30 - Right of minorities Q.123. Fundamental duties were not
decent standard of life'. Which of the to establish and administer educational placed in Part III of the Indian
following is correct about the given institutions. Constitution because Part III is_________.
TG
statement in the context of India?
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift) Q.119. Poshan Abhiyaan is a programme
(a) non-justiciable (b) justiciable
(a) It is mentioned in the 43rd Article of to achieve nutritional status of children
(c) not enforceable (d) absolute
on
the Constitution. from 0 to 6 years. Which of the following
(b) It is mentioned in the 44th Article of Articles of the Indian Constitution Sol.123.(b) Justiciable. Part III Article
Constitution. provides for raising the nutrition level? (12-35): Fundamental Rights.
ch
(c) This is a Gandhian principle of SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) Fundamental duties (Part IVA Article
Directive Principles of State Policy. (a) Article 47 (b) Article 44 51A) added by the 42nd Amendment Act
ar
(d) This is a liberal principle of Directive (c) Article 46 (d) Article 45 (1976). These duties are non-justiciable,
Principles of State Policy.
Se
meaning they are not enforceable by a
Sol.119.(a) Article 47 - Duty of the State
court of law.
Sol.115.(a) Article 43 (Living wage, etc., to raise the level of nutrition and the
for workers). Directives based on standard of living and to improve public Q.124. Which of the following Articles of
Liberal-Intellectual Principles: Article 44, health comes under Directive Principles the Indian Constitution provides for a
Article 45, Article 48, Article 48A, Article of State Policy (Articles 36-51 under bicameral Parliament of India?
49, Article 50, Article 51. Part-IV). SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Article 49 (b) Article 59
Q.116. Which of the following articles is Q.120. Which of the following Articles of
(c) Article 79 (d) Article 89
related to the provision of Co-operative the Indian Constitution has the idea that
Societies in the Indian Constitution? 'No child below the age of fourteen years Sol.124.(c) Article 79 :- Constitution of
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) shall be employed to work in any factory Parliament - There shall be a Parliament
(a) 243 ZG to 243 ZJ (b) 243 P to 243 ZG or mine or engaged in any other of the Union consisting of the President
(c) 243 ZH to 243 ZT (d) 243 A to 243 hazardous employment? and two Houses known as the Council of
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift) States (Rajya Sabha, Article 80) and the
Sol.116.(c) 243 ZH to 243 ZT. Co -
(a) Article 22 (b) Article 24 House of the People (Lok Sabha, Article
operative Societies - A form of business
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 20 81). Article 49 - Protection of
organisation that is formed with the
objective of helping the society monuments and places and objects of
Sol.120.(b) Article 24. Article 22 -
members. Under 97th Amendment Act national importance. Article 59 -
Protection against arrest and detention
2011, the right to form cooperative Conditions of the President's office.
in certain cases. Article 19 - Protection of
societies was included as Right to certain rights regarding freedom of Q.125. As per Article 172 (2)_______of a
Freedom {Article 19(1)(c)}. Promotion of speech, etc. State shall NOT be subject to dissolution.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) Q.129. Which Article of the Indian Q.133. Provisions related to the seat of
(a) Legislative Assembly Constitution deals with the removal and the "Supreme Court of India" is
(b) Legislative Council suspension of a member of the Public mentioned in which Article?
(c) House of People Service Commission? SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning)
(d) Council of States Graduate Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 4) (a) Article 132 (b) Article 131
(a) Article 320 (b) Article 324 (c) Article 130 (d) Article 129
Sol.125.(b) Legislative Council (Saasana (c) Article 317 (d) Article 315
Mandali) - It is the upper house in those Sol.133.(c) Article 130. The Federal
states of India that have a bicameral Sol.129.(c) Article 317. Part XIV Court of India was established on 1
state legislature. Six States have a (Articles 315 to 323) - Establishment of October 1937. After Independence, the
Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, UPSC for Union and Public Service Federal Court was replaced as the
Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Commission for each state. Article 320 - Supreme Court of India (28 January
Maharashtra, Karnataka. Functions of Public Service 1950). Other related Articles : Article
Commissions. Article 315 - Public 124: Establishment and Constitution of
Q.126. Article 323 of the Indian Service Commissions for the Union and Supreme Court. Article 129: Supreme
Constitution deals with __________ . for the States. Court to be a Court of Record. Article
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (3rd shift) 131: Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme
(a) expenses of Public Services Q.130. Which part of the Indian Court. Article 132: Appellate Jurisdiction
Commissions Constitution deals with the organisation, of Supreme Court in appeals from High
(b) reports of Public Services composition and powers of the state Court in certain cases.
Commissions legislature?
(c) functions of Public Services Graduate Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 1) Q.134. Part XVI of the Indian constitution
Commissions (a) Part IV (b) Part VI deals with ___________ .
df
(d) power to extend functions of Public (c) Part III (d) Part V SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Morning)
_p
Services Commissions (a) Elections
Sol.130.(b) Part VI Article (152 to 237). (b) Special provisions related to certain
Sol.126.(b) reports of Public Services Article 168 Constitution of Legislatures
na
classes
Commissions. Articles 315 to 323 (Part in States. Article 169 deals with abolition (c) Constitutional amendments
XIV) of the Constitution of India establish or creation of Legislative Councils in
ap
(d) Special provisions related to
the Union Public Service Commission states. Article 170 - Composition of the municipal corporation
(UPSC) and State Public Service Legislative Assemblies. Article 171 -
:@
Commissions (SPSC). The UPSC Composition of the legislative Councils. Sol.134.(b) Special provisions related to
Chairman is appointed by the President Article 172 - Duration of State certain classes (Article 330 to 342A).
for a term of six years or until the age of Legislatures. Article 330 - Reservation of seats for
TG
65, whichever is earlier. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Q.131. Which of the following Articles of in the House of the People. Part XV
Q.127. Which Article of the Indian the Constitution of India provides that (Article 324-329): Elections. Part XX
on
Constitution empowers the Supreme there shall be a Legislative Assembly for (Article 368): Amendment of the
Court to review its own judgements or the National Capital Territory of Delhi? Constitution. Part IXA (Article
ch
orders ? Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) 243P-243ZG): The Municipalities.
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Article 231AA (b) Article 239AA
ar
(a) Article 138 (b) Article 135 (c) Article 233AA (d) Article 237AA Q.135. Which of the following Articles of
(c) Article 136 (d) Article 137 the Indian constitution provides for the
Se
Sol.131.(b) Article 239AA. The 69th National commission for Scheduled
Sol.127.(d) Article 137. Article 138 - Amendment Act (1991) - A special Castes ?
Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the status to the Union Territory of Delhi by SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning)
Supreme Court. Article 135 - Jurisdiction designing it as the National Capital (a) Article 337 (b) Article 344
and powers of the Federal Court under Territory of Delhi. Brahm Prakash was (c) Article 343 (d) Article 338
existing law to be exercisable by the the first chief minister of Delhi.
Supreme Court. Article 136 - Special Sol.135.(d) Article 338. National
leave to appeal by the Supreme Court. Q.132. Which among the following is a commission for Scheduled Castes is a
subject of Union Lists in the Constitution constitutional body.Other Commissions -
Q.128. Which Article of the Indian of India ? National Commission for Scheduled
Constitution empowers the Parliament to SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Morning) Tribes (Article 338A inserted by the 89th
establish additional courts for better (a) Liquor (b) Social planning Amendment Act 2003) and National
administration of laws made by it (c) Extradition (d) Boilers Commission for Backward Classes
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (3rd shift) (Article 338B). Article 343 - Official
(a) Article 246 (b) Article 248 Sol.132.(c) Extradition.The 7th Schedule
of the Indian Constitution consists of language of the Union. Article 344 -
(c) Article 253 (d) Article 247 Commission and Committee of
three lists: Union List: 100 items (e.g.,
Sol.128.(d) Article 247. Article 246 - Defence, Army, International Relations). Parliament on Official Language. Article
Subject-matter of laws made by State List: 61 items (e.g., Local 337 - Special provisions in terms of
Parliament and by the Legislatures of Government, Public Health, Prisons). educational grants/subsidies provided to
States. Article 248 - Residuary powers of Concurrent List: 52 items (e.g., the Anglo-Indian population of India.
legislation. Article 253 - Legislation for Education, Forest, Trade Unions). Q.136. Provisions related to the
giving effect to international agreements.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Municipalities are mentioned under Service Commission, etc. Concurrent list inquire into proceedings of the
which part of the Indian constitution? (52) - Education, Forest, Trade unions, Legislature. Article 214 - High Courts for
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening) population control and family planning, States.
(a) Part IXA (b) Part VII Marriage, Adoption, etc. Seventh
(c) Part V (d) Part XII schedule under Article 246 of the Q.143. Part V chapter II of the Indian
constitution deals with the division of constitution does not include which of
Sol.136.(a) Part IXA. The Municipalities powers between the union and the the following provisions?
(Urban Local Governments) is a system states. SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (1st Shift)
of Democratic Decentralisation. It was (a) Joint sitting of both house of
added through the 74th Constitutional Q.140. The part VII of the Indian Parliament in certain cases
Amendment Act of 1992. Part VII - constitution has been omitted. It is (b) Power of President to promulgate
Repealed by the Constitution (Seventh related with which of the following? Ordinances during recess of
Amendment Act, 1956). Part V - SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (4th Shift) Parliament
Provisions for the functioning of the (a) Provision relating to property (c) Language to be used in Parliament
Union Government. Part XII - Laws (b) States in part B of the first schedule (d) Restriction on discussion in
pertaining to Finance, Property, Contracts (c) Armed forces in states in part A of Parliament
and Suits for Republic of India. the second schedule
(d) Reservation for Anglo - Indian Sol.143.(b) Article 123 - Power of
Q.137. Which Article of the Indian communities in parliament President to promulgate Ordinances
constitution mentions that it is duty of during recess of Parliament. It is
the Union government to protect States Sol.140.(b) States in part B of the first included under chapter III of part V of
against external aggression and internal schedule. Provision relating to property - Indian constitution. Article 108 - Joint
disturbance? constitutional right under Part XII, Article sitting of both Houses in certain cases.
df
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift) 300A (Added by 44th Amendment Act, Article 120 - Language to be used in
_p
(a) 353 (b) 356 (c) 355 (d) 358 1978). The 104th Constitutional Parliament. Article 121 - Restriction on
Amendment Act of 2019 abolished the discussion in Parliament.
Sol.137.(c) Article 355. Other Articles -
na
reservation of seats for Anglo-Indians in
Article 353 - States about the Effect of the Parliament and State Legislatures of Q.144. Article 243K of the Indian
the proclamation of emergency. Article
ap
India in January 2020. The amendment constitution is related with which of the
356 - States about the Provision in case also extended reservations for following ?
of failure of constitutional machinery in SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
:@
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
the state (president rule). Article 358 - It for up to ten years. (a) Durations of panchayat, etc.
deals with the suspension of (b) Grounds of disqualification from
fundamental rights guaranteed under Q.141. The Indian parliament has power
TG
membership of Panchayat.
Article 19 of the constitution. to impose restrictions on trade, (c) Reservation of seats in Panchayat.
commerce and intercourse through (d) Election to the Panchayats.
Q.138. Which Article of the constitution which Article of the Indian constitution?
on
of India is related to the Comptroller and SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Sol.144.(d) Election to the Panchayats.
Auditor General of India Audit reports? (a) 304 (b) 300 A (c) 303 (d) 302 Panchayati Raj is a three-tiered
ch
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (1st Shift) administrative framework in India that
(a) 148 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 149 Sol.141.(d) Article 302. Part XIII (Article focuses on rural development. It consists
301-307) - Trade, Commerce and
ar
of Gram Panchayats at the village level,
Sol.138.(c) 151. Part V: The Union, Intercourse within the Territory of India. Panchayat Samitis at the block level, and
Se
Chapter V : Comptroller and Auditor - Article 304: Restrictions on trade, Zila Parishads at the district level. Article
General (CAG) of India (Article 148 - commerce and intercourse among 243E - Duration of Panchayats. Article
151). Article 150: Form of accounts of States. Article 303: Restrictions on the 243D - Reservation of seats in
the Union and of the States. Article 149: legislative powers of the Union and of the Panchayat. Article 243F - Grounds of
Duties and powers of the Comptroller States with regard to trade and disqualification from membership of
and Auditor-General. Article 148: commerce. Article 300A: Persons not to Panchayat.
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. be deprived of property save by authority
of law. Q.145. Article 350A of the Indian
Q.139. Central Bureau of Intelligence and
constitution is related with______.
Investigation comes under which list of Q.142. Which Article of the Indian
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution states that "Governor has
(a) Special officers for linguistic
constitution ? power to promulgate ordinances during
minorities
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift) recess of legislature"?
(b) Facilities for instruction in
(a) Union list (b) Concurrent list SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (4th Shift)
mother-tongue at primary stage
(c) State list (d) Transferred list (a) 212 (b) 214 (c) 213 (d) 210
(c) Direction for development of the Hindi
Sol.139.(a) Union list (100) - Defence, Sol.142.(c) Article 213.The governor can language
Army, International Relations, Ports, issue an ordinance when the state (d) Language to` be used in Supreme
Railways, Census, Communication, legislature is not in session, which must Court and High Courts of India
Central Bureau of Investigation etc. State be approved by the state legislature
Sol.145.(b) Article - 350 : Language to be
list (61) - Public order, Police, Public within 6 weeks of its reassembly. Article
used in representations for redress of
health and sanitation, Hospitals and 210 - Language to be used in the
grievances. Article - 350B: Special Officer
dispensaries, Agriculture, State Public Legislature. Article 212 - Courts not to
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
for linguistic minorities. Article- 351: (a) Article 126 (b) Article 127 Sol.153.(c) Part XIV. Union Public
Directive for development of the Hindi (c) Article 128 (d) Article 125 Service Commission (UPSC) is an
language. Article 348 (1)(a): All independent constitutional body. The
proceedings in the Supreme Court and in Sol.149.(b) Article 127. Article 125: talks provisions regarding the composition of
every High Court, shall be in English about the financial privileges and UPSC, the appointment, and removal of
language. allowances that are defined for the its members, and the powers and
judges of the Supreme Court. Article 126: functions of UPSC are provided in Part
Q.146. Which part of the Constitution of Appointment of acting Chief Justice of XIV of the Indian Constitution under
India consists of the idea of a Welfare India. Article 128: Attendance of retired Article 315 to Article 323.
State? judges at sitting of the Supreme Court.
SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023) Q.154. Article ______ of the Indian
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy Q.150. Which Article of the Constitution Constitution states that ‘there shall be a
(b) Fundamental Duties of India deals with the Sessions of the Commission for the socially and
(c) Fundamental Rights Parliament? educationally backward classes to be
(d) Preamble SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening) known as the National Commission for
(a) Article 85 (b) Article 89 Backward Classes’.
Sol.146.(a) Directive Principles of State (c) Article 90 (d) Article 101 SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Evening)
Policy is mentioned in Part IV, Article (a) 124 A (1) (b) 243S (1)
36–51. Article 38 gives the idea of a Sol.150.(a) Article 85 - Sessions of
Parliament, prorogation, and dissolution. (c) 243Y (1) (d) 338B (1)
Welfare State.
A session is a period during which a Sol.154.(d) Article 338B (1). Article
Q.147. Which Article of the Constitution House meets almost every day 243S(1) - There shall be constituted
does India mention that business in uninterruptedly to manage the business. Wards Committees, consisting of one or
df
Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or Article 90 - Vacation and resignation of more wards, within the territorial area of
English? (and removal from) the office of Deputy
_p
a Municipality having a population of
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Chairman. Article 101- Vacation of seats three lakhs or more.
(a) Article 120 (b) Article 121 in Parliament.
(c) Article 122 (d) Article 119
na
Q.151. Which chapter of the Constitution
Q.155. Which of the following Articles of
the Constitution of India states that Hindi
ap
Sol.147.(a) Article 120. Article 121 - of India, discusses the Articles of in Devanagari script shall be the official
Restriction on discussion in Parliament. Parliament ? language of the Union?
:@
Article 122 - Courts not to inquire into SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Morning) SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Morning)
proceedings of Parliament. Article 119 - (a) Chapter III (b) Chapter I (a) Article 343(2) (b) Article 354(2)
Regulation by law of procedure in (c) Chapter II (d) Chapter IV (c) Article 343(1) (d) Article 343(3)
TG
Parliament in relation to financial
business. Sol.151.(c) Chapter II (79-122). Part V - Sol.155.(c) Article 343(1). Article 343(2)
The Union of Indian Constitution Chapter -The Constitution adopted in 1950
on
Q.148. Which Article of Indian II deals with the Articles of Parliament . stipulated that English and Hindi would
constitution is related with the Special Chapter I (The Executive; Articles 52 to be used for the Union's official business
provisions with respect to the State of 78); Chapter III: Legislative powers of the
ch
for a period of fifteen years. Article 354
Sikkim? President; Article 123); Chapter IV (The deals with the application of provisions
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (1st Shift) Union Judiciary; Articles 124 - 147).
ar
related to the distribution of revenues
(a) Article 371C (b) Article 371 Chapter V (Comptroller and Auditor - while a Proclamation of Emergency is in
Se
(c) Article 371F (d) Article 371A General of India (CAG); Articles 148 to operation.
151).
Sol.148.(c) 371 F - Sikkim (36th Q.156. Which of the following Articles of
Amendment Act, 1975). Article 371 of Q.152. The Article of the Indian the constitution of India provides for the
the Constitution includes special Constitution that deals with all the creation of a GST Council ?
provisions for 11 states (6 states of the executive powers of the Governor is ____ SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Morning)
Northeast). Article 371 - provisions for SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Morning) (a) Article 246A (b) Article 279A
Maharashtra and Gujarat. Article 371 A - (a) Article 150 (b) Article 157 (c) Article 269A (d) Article 323A
Nagaland (13th Amendment Act, 1962). (c) Article 154 (d) Article 156
371 B - Assam (22nd Amendment Act, Sol.156.(b) Article 279A. It empowers
1969). 371 C - Manipur (27th Amendment Sol.152.(c) Article 154- Executive power the president to constitute a joint forum
Act, 1971). 371 D - Andhra Pradesh and of Governor. Article 150 - Form of of the central and states namely, Goods
Telangana (32nd. Amendment Act, 1973). accounts of the Union and of the States. and Services Tax Council. The GST
371 E - To establish Central University in Article 157 - Qualifications for Council is a constitutional body for
Andhra Pradesh. 371 G - Mizoram (53rd. appointment as Governor. Article 156 - making recommendations to the union
Amendment Act, 1986). 371 H - Term of office of Governor. and state government on issues related
Arunachal Pradesh (55th Amendment Act, to Goods and Service Tax.
Q.153. Which Part of the Indian
1986). 371 I - Goa.
Constitution provides for the Union Q.157. According to which of the
Q.149. Which Article of the Constitution Public Service Commission? following Articles of the Constitution of
of India deals with the appointment of ad SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Afternoon) India shall a Money Bill NOT be
- hoc judges? (a) Part X (b) Part VIII introduced in the Council of States ?
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) (c) Part XIV (d) Part XVI SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Afternoon)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
(a) Article 109 (b) Article 354 by a Section of the Population of a State. secures workers' participation in industry
(c) Article 298 (d) Article 193 management; and Article 48(A) protects
Amendments the environment and wildlife.
Sol.157.(a) Article 109. Rajya Sabha
(Council of States), the upper house of Q.165. Which of the following
Q.162. As per the Constitution (Ninety -
the Parliament of India. A money bill is a Constitution Amendment Bills is related
First Amendment) Act, 2003, the total
specific type of financial legislation that to the provision of modifying the list of
number of ministers, including the Prime
exclusively deals with matters related to Scheduled Caste in Tamil Nadu ?
Minister, shall NOT exceed:
taxes, government revenues, or SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
expenditures. (a) The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes)
(a) 20% of the total number of members
Order (Amendment) Bill, 2019
Q.158. As per Article ______ of the of the Lok Sabha
(b) The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes)
Constitution of India, English is the (b) 15% of the total number of members
Order Amendment Act, 2013
official language for all the high courts in of the Lok Sabha
(c) The Constitution (Scheduled Caste)
the country. (c) 10% of the total number of members
Order (Amendment) Bill, 2015
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening) of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Constitution (Scheduled Castes)
(a) 329 (1) (b) 336 (1) (d) 25% of the total number of members
Order (Amendment) Bill, 2021
(c) 315 (1) (d) 348 (1) of the Lok Sabha
Sol.165.(d) The Bill amends the
Sol.162.(b) 91st Amendment Act 2003:
Sol.158.(d) Article 348 (1). 329(a) the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order,
The total number of ministers in the
validity of any law relating to the 1950. The Constitution empowers the
Council of Ministers, including the Prime
delimitation of constituencies or the President to specify the Scheduled
Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total
allotment of seats to such Castes (SCs) in various states and union
df
number of members in the Lok Sabha.
constituencies, made or purporting to be territories. Further, it permits Parliament
The total number of ministers in a State
_p
made under Article 327 or Article 328, to modify this list of notified SCs. The
Council of Ministers, including the Chief
shall not be called in question in any Statement of Objects and Reasons of the
Minister, cannot exceed 15% of the total
na
court Bill states that the Bill has been
number of members in the Legislative
introduced to give effect to modifications
Q.159. Which of the following Articles of Assembly of that State.
ap
proposed by the state of Tamil Nadu.
the Constitution of India defines for a
Q.163. Part IV A of the Indian
separate secretarial staff for each House Q.166. Which of the following
:@
Constitution was inserted in the Indian
of the Parliament? Constitutional Amendment Acts led to
Constitution through______ Constitutional
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Evening) formation of the Goods and Services Tax
Amendment Act.
(a) Article 98 (b) Article 123 Council ?
TG
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) Article 155 (d) Article 34 SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) 44th (b) 46th (c) 48th (d) 42nd
(a) 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act
Sol.159.(a) Article 98. Article 155- (b) 100th Constitutional Amendment Act
on
Sol.163.(d) 42nd. The fundamental
Appointment of the Governor. Article 34- (c) 101st Constitutional Amendment Act
duties were incorporated in Part IV-A of
Restriction on rights conferred by third (d) 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act
the Constitution by the 42nd
ch
Part while martial law is in force in any
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on
area. Sol.166.(c) 101st Constitutional
the recommendations of the Swaran
ar
Amendment Act, 2016. Article 279A of
Q.160. Which of the following Articles of Singh Committee. Initially, there were 10
the Indian Constitution establishes the
Se
the Constitution of India states that there duties, but an additional duty was added
Goods and Services Tax Council (GST
would be no tax levied or collected by the 86th Constitutional Amendment
Council) chaired by the finance minister
EXCEPT by the authority of law? Act, 2002, bringing the total to 11 duties.
of India. 100th Constitutional Amendment
SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Evening) Act, 2015: Ratified the land boundary
Q.164. ____________ Directive principles
(a) Article 107 (b) Article 123 agreement between India and
of State Policy were added to the Indian
(c) Article 265 (d) Article 301 Bangladesh. The 102nd Constitutional
Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional
Sol.160.(c) Article 265. Article 107- Amendment Act of 1976. Amendment Act: Enhanced regulations
Provisions as to introduction and passing SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) to support backward classes in India.
of Bills. Article 301- Freedom of trade, (a) Two (b) Three (c) Five (d) Four The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act:
commerce and intercourse. Established a 10% reservation for
Sol.164.(d) Four. Economically Weaker Sections.
Q.161. Under which Article of the Indian These Directive Principles of State Policy
Constitution are special provisions (DPSP) are: Article 39(f) which provided Q.167. Which of the following Articles of
provided to language spoken in a section that “the State shall direct its policy the Constitution of India CANNOT be
of the population? towards securing for the children amended with a simple majority ?
SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Evening) opportunities and facilities to develop in SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Article 337 (b) Article 357 a healthy manner and in conditions of (a) 169 (b) 2 (c) 21 (d) 3
(c) Article 347 (d) Article 374 freedom and dignity and for protecting
children and youth from exploitation and Sol.167.(c) 21. Article 21 asserts that no
Sol.161.(c) Article 347 Under part XVII, against material abandonment”; Article person shall be deprived of their life
of the Indian constitution : Special 39(A) promotes equal justice and free except according to the procedure
Provision Relating to Language Spoken legal aid for the poor; Article 43(A) established by law. This means that
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
every individual has the right to live, and amended. Through this amendment, 10% SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
their life cannot be taken away except in reservation was provided in educational (a) secular (b) capitalist
accordance with the prescribed legal institutions and government jobs for the (c) aristocratic (d) oligarchic
procedures. It is a part of Fundamental economically weaker sections of the
rights (Part III). It can be amended only country. Sol.174.(a) secular. The term means that
by a special majority in both houses of all the religions in India get equal respect,
Parliament by two-thirds of members Q.171. In which of the following years protection and support from the state.
present and voting. did the Constitution (One Hundredth The Preamble was amended only once
Amendment) Act come into force ? by the 42nd Amendment Act to add
Q.168. Which of the following Articles SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift) ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and Integrity terms.
was amended by The Constitution (a) 2015 (b) 2020 (c) 2009 (d) 2001
Fiftieth Amendment Act, 1984? Q.175. 73rd Amendment Act 1992 makes
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) Sol.171.(a) 2015. The Constitution provisions for a 3 - tier system of
(a) Article 78 (b) Article 99 (100th Amendment) Act of 2015 ratified Panchayati Raj for all the states having
(c) Article 33 (d) Article 56 the Land Boundary Agreement between population of above:
India and Bangladesh. This amendment Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Sol.168.(c) Article 33 - the Power of gave effect to the acquisition and (a) 20 lakh (b) 10 lakh
Parliament to modify the rights conferred transfer of territories between the two (c) 15 lakh (d) 5 lakh
by this Part in their application to Forces, countries, pursuant to the Land Boundary
etc. Article 78 - Duties of the Prime Agreement of 1974 and its protocol of Sol.175.(a) 20 lakh. 73rd Constitutional
Minister as respects the furnishing of 2011. Amendment Act of 1992, enacted by the
information to the President, etc. Article Narasimha Rao government and
99 - Oath or affirmation by members of Q.172. Which of the following Articles effective from April 24, 1993, aimed to
df
the Parliament. Article 56 - Term of office was amended in the Constitution (Fifth strengthen local self-governance by
Amendment Act), 1955 ? establishing democracy at the
_p
of President.
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) grassroots level. Part IX of the
Q.169. On 9 August 2021, the Parliament (a) Article 3 (b) Article 45 Constitution outlines the Panchayati Raj
na
had passed the Limited Liability (c) Article 17 (d) Article 34 system, with Rajasthan implementing it
Partnership (Amendment) Bill, 2021. It first in Nagaur district on October 2,
ap
amended the: Sol.172.(a) Article 3 deals with the 1959. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) formation of new states and the recommended a three-tier structure: Zilla
:@
(a) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2004 alteration of areas, boundaries, or names Parishad (district level), Panchayat
(b) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 of existing states. Article 45 was Samiti (block level), and Gram Panchayat
(c) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2012 amended by the Constitution (village level).
TG
(d) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2016 (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act of 2002.
The amendment changed the subject Q.176 In which year did the 44th
Sol.169.(b) Limited Liability Partnership matter of Article 45 and made Amendment remove the right to property
on
Act, 2008. It was published in the official elementary education a fundamental from the list of fundamental rights?
Gazette of India on 9 January 2009 and right under Article 21. SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
has been in effect since 31 March 2009.
ch
(a) 1978 (b) 1975 (c) 1973 (d) 1981
LLP Amendment Bill, 2021 passed on Q.173. Which of the following
28th July 2021 by both house of Amendment Acts led to the insertion of Sol.176.(a) 1978. The right to property
ar
Parliament. 29 amendments were made Article 21 A ? was listed under Article 31 before its
Se
to LLP Act 2008 by LLP Amendment Bill SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) deletion. At present the right to property
2021. (a) Eighty-seventh Amendment Act, 2003 is listed under Article 300A as a legal
(b) Eighty-fourth Amendment Act, 2002 right.
Q.170. On 7 November 2022, the (c) Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002
Supreme Court of India upheld the (d) Eighty-fifth Amendment Act, 2002 Q.177. Which among the following is
reservations for the weaker sections INCORRECT about the salient features of
(EWS). Which of the following Sol.173.(c) Eighty-sixth Amendment the 73rd Amendment Act ?
amendments brought this reservation in Act, 2002. This Amendment Act, 2002 SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
the first place ? made the Right to Education a (a) The Act corresponds to Part III of the
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) fundamental right for children aged 6-14 Constitution of India.
(a) 101st Amendment of the Constitution by adding Article 21A in Part III of the (b) The Act gives a Constitutional status
(b) 102nd Amendment of the Constitution. The 87th Amendment Act, to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Constitution 2003 involved readjusting electoral (c) The Act has added the Eleventh
(c) 103rd Amendment of the Constitution constituencies based on the 2001 Schedule to the Constitution of India.
(d) 104th Amendment of the Constitution census. The 85th Amendment Act, 2002 (d) It contains 29 functional items of the
provided for promotion with Panchayats and deals with Article
Sol.170.(c) 103rd Amendment to the consequential seniority for government 243 to 243(O).
Constitution. The 103rd Amendment Act employees from Scheduled Castes and
of the Constitution, 2019 was enacted to Scheduled Tribes. Sol.177.(a) The 73rd Amendment Act - It
introduce reservation for the was enacted in 1992 and came into force
economically weaker sections (EWS). Q.174. The 42nd Amendment of the from April 1993. It added Part IX (Article
Under this amendment, Articles 15(6) Indian Constitution (1976) states that 243 - 243O) to the constitution. It was
and 16(6) of the Constitution were India is a/an ______ nation. enacted to implement the Directive
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Principles of State Policy under Article 40 Amendment Act empowering states and Sol.184.(b) 61st. It was done by
on the recommendation of L.M. Singhvi UTs to identify and specify Socially and amending Article 326 of the constitution
Committee. Educationally Backward Classes? in 1988. 81st Constitutional Amendment
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) Act 2000 was inserted to protect the
Q.178. How many types of the (a) 105th (b) 104th (c) 103rd (d) 102nd reservation for SCs and STs in backlog of
amendment are mentioned by the Indian vacancies. 52nd Constitutional
Constitution as per Article 368 ? Sol.181.(a) 105th. Reservation in India: Amendment Act 1985, known as
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) Other Backward Class (OBCs) were anti-defection law and 10th schedule
(a) Four (b) Two (c) Five (d) Three included in the ambit of reservation in added in the Indian constitution. 72nd
1991 on the recommendations of the Constitutional Amendment Act 1992
Sol.178.(b) Two. Article 368 (Part XX) Mandal Commission. It recommended a
grants Parliament the power to amend provides reservation to Scheduled Tribes
27% reservation quota for OBC. in Tripura State Legislative Assembly.
the Constitution. Amendments require Constitutional Provisions: Part XVI deals
either (1) a special majority or (2) a with reservation of SC and ST in Central Q.185. Which amendment in the Indian
special majority with ratification by at and State legislatures. 342A - Socially constitution is related to extension of
least half of the state legislatures by a and educationally backward classes. jurisdiction of High Courts to Union
simple majority. The amendment territories ?
procedure is inspired by the South Q.182. In which year was the Andhra SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
African Constitution. Pradesh Reorganisation Act passed? (a) 9th Amendment (b) 7th Amendment
Graduate Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 3) (c) 1st Amendment (d) 13th Amendment
Q.179. The Unlawful Activities (a) 2013 (b) 2012 (c) 2014 (d) 2015
(Prevention) Act, which provides for the Sol.185.(b) 7th Amendment.
more effective prevention of certain Sol.182.(c) 2014. This constitutional amendment was
df
unlawful activities of individuals and The States Reorganisation Act (1956), done in 1956 to reorganise the classes of
associations dealing with terrorist under the provisions of Part I (Article 3).
_p
states in the country and to change the
activities, was first put into effect in India The State Reorganisation Commission powers and functions of the state
in the year. (SRC) was constituted in 1953 appointed
na
governors. 1st Amendment (1951) - The
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift) by Jawahar Lal Nehru. It was headed by rights of property owners and made it
(a) 1991 (b) 1967 (c) 2014 (d) 1947 Sir Fazal Ali. The first state formed on the
ap
more difficult for the government to
linguistic basis is Andhra Pradesh (1 enact land reform measures. It also
Sol.179.(b) 1967. Unlawful Activities October 1953). Formation of other
:@
added the Ninth Schedule, which
(Prevention) Act - Its main objective is states: Gujarat and Maharashtra (1960), protected certain laws from being
dealing with activities directed against Karnataka (1956), Nagaland (1963), challenged in the courts. 9th Amendment
the integrity and sovereignty of India. It Haryana (1966), Sikkim (1975).
TG
(1960) - Facilitate the cession of the
assigns absolute power to the central
Berubari union. 13th Amendment (1962) -
government and provides for death Q.183. How many Directive Principles of
Nagaland was formed with special
penalty and life imprisonment of culprits. the original list in the Indian Constitution
on
status under Article 371A.
Related acts - Armed Forces Special were amended by the 44th Amendment
Powers Act (AFSPA) 1958; Prevention of Act of 1978 ? Q.186. The Seventy - First Amendment to
Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) the Indian Constitution included Konkani,
ch
Terrorism Act, 2002; The National
Investigation Agency Act, 2008; The Anti (a) Three (b) One (c) Two (d) Four Manipuri, and Nepali languages in the
Schedule.
ar
- Hijacking Act, 2016.
Sol.183.(b) One (Article 38(2): Requires SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Se
Q.180. The Family Courts (Amendment) the state to reduce inequalities in (a) Eighth (b) Sixth (c) Fifth (d) Seventh
Act 2022 has amended the Family Courts income, status, facilities, and
Act, 1984. The Act allows ________ to opportunities). Directive Principles of Sol.186.(a) Eighth Schedule.
establish Family Courts. State Policy: Part IV of the Constitution 22 languages in this schedule. 21st
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift) of India (Article 36–51). It was borrowed Amendment Act (1967) - Include Sindhi
(a) District Courts from the Irish Constitution. Article 38 (1) language. 92nd Amendment Act (2003) -
(b) State Governments - The State shall strive to promote the Include Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali
(c) Union Government welfare of the people by securing and language. 5th schedule - The President
(d) District Collector protecting as effectively as it may a can declare any such area or the whole
social order in which justice, social, state as a scheduled area. 6th schedule
Sol.180.(b) State Governments. Purpose economic and political, shall inform all - Deals with administration of tribal areas
of establishment of family court - To the institutions of national life. in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.
promote conciliation and secure speedy 7th Schedule - Deals with the division of
settlement of disputes relating to Q.184. Which among the following powers between the Union government
marriage and family affairs and for Constitutional Amendment Act of the and State governments
related matters. This bill was passed by Indian constitution reduced the age of
Lok Sabha on 26th July 2022. This bill voting from 21 to 18 for elections to the Q.187. The Eighty - ninth Amendment
has granted statutory cover to already Lok Sabha and to the Legislative Act, 2003 of the Indian Constitution
established family courts in Himachal Assemblies of states? established which of the following
Pradesh and Nagaland. SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Commission ?
(a) 81st (b) 61st (c) 52nd (d) 72nd SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Q.181. In August 2021, Ram Nath Kovind (a) Competition Commission of India
granted assent to which Constitution (b) National Commission for Backward
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Classes Dadra and Nagar Haveli in the Union of continuance in force of the Proclamation
(c) National Commission for Woman India as a Union Territory ? for a period up to two years.
(d) National Commission for Scheduled SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Afternoon)
Tribes (a) 19th (b) 14th (c) 12th (d) 10th Q.195. An amendment to the Hindu
Succession Act, 1956 was passed in the
Sol.187.(d) The National Commission for Sol.191.(d) The 10th Amendment (1961) year ______.
Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was added Dadra and Nagar Haveli as India’s SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon)
established by amending Article 338 and seventh Union Territories. The 12th (a) 2012 (b) 2005 (c) 2010 (d) 2008
inserting a new Article 338A in the Amendment (1962) incorporated Goa,
Constitution. Daman, and Diu as the eighth Union Sol.195.(b) 2005. The Hindu Succession
Territory, while the 14th Amendment Act, 1956 is an Act of the Parliament of
Q.188. Which among the following (1962) included Pondicherry as the ninth. India enacted to amend and codify the
constitutional amendments of the Indian The 19th Amendment (1966) abolished law relating to intestate or unwilled
Constitution deals with the formation of Election Tribunals, assigning election succession, among Hindus, Buddhists,
Sikkim as a state? petition trials to High Courts. Jains, and Sikhs.
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(a) 36th (b) 51th (c) 42nd (d) 30th Q.192. Who among the following Q.196. The 60th Amendment to the
presidents of India gave assent to the Constitution of India increased the
Sol.188.(a) 36th. 51st amendment: 100th Amendment of the Constitution of ceiling of profession tax from ₹ 250 p.a.
Reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha for India ? to ______ p.a.
Scheduled Tribes in Meghalaya, SSC CGL 12/04/2022(Morning) SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Afternoon)
Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and (a) Pranab Mukherjee (a) ₹7,000 (b) ₹5,000 (c) ₹1,000 (d) ₹2,500
Mizoram as well as in the Legislative (b) Ram Nath Kovind
df
Assemblies of Meghalaya and Nagaland. Sol.196.(d) ₹2,500 . The Sixtieth
(c) APJ Abdul Kalam Amendment of the Constitution of India
30th amendment: Abolished provision to
_p
(d) Pratibha Devisingh Patil Act, 1988, amended Article 276 of the
appeal to the Supreme Court on a civil
case related to a certain amount. Sol.192.(a) Pranab Mukherjee. The Constitution relating to taxes on
na
100th amendment in the Indian professions, trades, callings and
Q.189. Under which Amendment to the Constitution provides for the acquisition employments.
ap
Constitution Act was the reservation for of territories by India and transfer of
OBCs in educational institutions made? Q.197. The 40th Amendment Act of 1976
certain territories to Bangladesh.
:@
Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4) was applied to which Article of the
Constitution (100th Amendment) Act Constitution of India?
(a) 95th Amendment (b) 94th Amendment 2015 ratified the land boundary
(c) 93rd Amendment (d) 96th Amendment SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Evening)
agreement between India and
TG
(a) 297 (b) 248 (c) 245 (d) 226
Sol.189.(c) 93rd Amendment 2005. 95th Bangladesh.
(2009): Extended the reservation of seats Sol.197.(a) 40th amendment was
Q.193. The Government of National proposed to amend Article 297 of the
on
for the SCs and STs and special Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment)
representation for the Anglo-Indians in Constitution so as to provide that all
Bill, 2021, which was passed in March lands, minerals, and other things of value
the Lok Sabha and the state legislative
ch
2021 amended the Government of underlying the ocean within the exclusive
assemblies for a further period of ten National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, ___
years i.e., up to 2020 (Article 334). 96th economic zone of India and all other
ar
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Morning) resources of the exclusive economic
(2011): Substituted “Odia” for “Oriya”. (a) 1998 (b) 1994 (c) 1996 (d) 1991 zone of India shall also vest in the Union.
Se
Consequently, the “Oriya” language in the
Eighth Schedule shall be pronounced as Sol.193.(d) 1991. Delhi became the Q.198. Which of the following
“Odia”. 94th (2006), made provisions for capital of India on 12 December 1911. Amendment Acts of the Constitution of
the appointment of a Minister in charge India abolished the privy purses and
of tribal welfare in the states of Q.194. Which of the following
Amendments of the Constitution of India privileges of former rulers of princely
Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. states?
gave the status of state to Goa?
Q.190. Which Amendment to the SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning)
Constitution Act led to establishment of (a) 52nd Amendment (a) 25th Amendment Act 1971
National Judicial Appointments (b) 56th Amendment (b) 26th Amendment Act 1971
Commission in India ? (c) 59th Amendment (c) 28th Amendment Act 1972
Higher Secondary 04/08/2022 (Shift - 3) (d) 48th Amendment (d) 27th Amendment Act 1971
(a) 95th Amendment (b) 99th Amendment Sol.198.(b) 26th Amendment Act 1971.
(c) 96th Amendment (d) 97th Amendment Sol.194.(b) 56th Amendment. The 59th
Amendment Act, 1988- It empowered the 25th Amendment Act 1971- Restrict
Sol.190.(b) 99th Amendment 2014. Central Government to impose property rights and compensation in
97th amendment 2011- It gave special Emergency in Punjab when deemed case the state takes over private
constitutional status and protection to all necessary. Under the amendment, the property. 28th Amendment Act 1972,
the cooperative societies (Part IX-B) President's rule can be extended up to abolished the special privileges of ICS
prevailing in India. three years. 48th Amendment Act officers and empowered the Parliament
passed in 1984 with respect to the State to determine their service conditions.
Q.191. Which of the following of Punjab, Parliament may pass any 27th Amendment Act 1971-
Constitutional Amendments incorporated resolution with respect to the Reorganisation of Mizoram into a Union
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Territory with a legislature and council of Sol.201.(a) The idea of Fundamental and Quo-Warranto (by what authority or
ministers. Duties is inspired from the Constitution warrant).
of Russia. These were incorporated in
Q.199. Which amendment to the Part IV-A (Article 51A) of the Constitution Q.205. Which Article of the Indian
Constitution of India added a new subject by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Constitution prohibits providing of any
in the Union List called 'taxes on services’ Act, 1976 on the recommendations of religious instruction in the educational
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening) the Swaran Singh Committee. Originally institutions maintained by the State?
(a) 56th (b) 62nd (c) 78th (d) 88th 10 in number. The 86th Amendment Act SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
of 2002 added another duty (Article (a) Article 29 (b) Article 28
Sol.199.(d) 88th constitutional (c) Article 30 (d) Article 31
51A(k)) related to providing educational
amendment 2003. 62nd Amendment
opportunities for children between the Sol.205.(b) Article 28. Other Important
Act, 1989 - Extend reservation for SCs
ages of 6 and 14. Articles of Fundamental Rights (Part III,
and STs and nomination of Anglo Indian
members in Parliament and State Q.202. Which of the following is NOT the Articles 12-35) : Article 29 - Protects the
Assemblies for another ten years i.e. up feature of Fundamental Duties provided cultural and educational rights of
to 2000. 78th Amendment Act, 1995 - under the Constitution of India? minorities in India. Article 30 - The
Place land reform acts and amendments SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 Rights of Minorities to establish and
to these acts under Schedule 9 of the (a) Duties are inspired from erstwhile administer educational institutions.
constitution. USSR Article 31 (Right to Property) - The 44th
(b) Duties are non- justiciable in nature Amendment Act of 1978 repealed it and
Q.200. Which of the following made it a constitutional right under
(c) Duties are enforceable by the law
Amendments of the Constitution of India Article 300A.
(d) Duties are intended to secure the
amended Article 19 and inserted
df
country
provisions fully securing the Q.206. Which of the following Articles of
the Indian Constitution contains
_p
constitutional validity of zamindari Sol.202.(c) Duties are enforceable by
abolition laws in general and certain the law. Fundamental Duties are a set of Fundamental Duties?
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
na
specified State Acts in particular? moral and ethical obligations that are
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening) enshrined in Part IV-A (Article 51A) of the (a) 32A (b) 45A (c) 62B (d) 51A
ap
(a) Fourth Amendment Constitution of India. These duties are Sol.206.(d) 51A. Fundamental Duties
(b) First Amendment non-justiciable, meaning they are not (Part IV - Article 51A): Ten duties were
(c) Third Amendment
:@
enforceable by any court of law (unlike included by the 42nd Amendment Act of
(d) Second Amendment Fundamental Rights). 1976 based on the Swaran Singh
Sol.200.(b) The First Amendment (1951) Q.203. Right of a prisoner to speedy trial Committee's recommendations, and the
TG
introduced provisions for advancing will be categorised in which of the 11th duty was added by the 86th
socially and educationally backward following Fundamental Rights? Amendment Act of 2002.
classes, SCs, and STs, added the Ninth SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift)
on
Q.207. A student, on his school
Schedule to secure zamindari abolition (a) Right against Exploitation assignment, is taking a session on how
laws, and allowed reasonable restrictions (b) Right to Life to make compost at home for using it at
ch
on freedom of speech (Article 19) by (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies a park. Which fundamental duty is he
adding grounds such as public order, (d) Right to Equality performing?
ar
friendly relations with foreign states, and SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift)
incitement to an offence. It also upheld Sol.203.(b) Right to Life. Speedy trial is
(a) To strive towards excellence in all
Se
the state’s right to nationalise businesses an inalienable right under Article 21 of
spheres of individual and collective
without violating the right to trade. the constitution and hence no person
activity
shall be deprived of his life and liberty
(b) To safeguard public property and to
Fundamental Rights and Duties without the procedure of law and the
abjure violence
procedure of law must be 'fair',
(c) To develop the scientific temper,
Q.201. Which of the following duties is 'reasonable', and 'just'.
humanism and the spirit of inquiry
specified as the 10th Fundamental Duty (d) To protect and improve the natural
Q.204. Which article has a similar
in the Indian Constitution? environment
provision to that of Article 32 and deals
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
with writ jurisdiction?
(a) To strive towards excellence in all Sol.207.(d) Fundamental Duty (Part IVA -
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
spheres of individual and collective Article 51A). Related Article: Article
(a) Article 227 (b) Article 228
activity 51A(g) - To protect and improve the
(c) Article 225 (d) Article 226
(b) To provide opportunities for natural environment. Article 51A (h): To
education to his child or as the case Sol.204.(d) Article 226. In India, writs are develop the scientific temper, humanism
may be, ward between the age of six issued by the Supreme Court under and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
and fourteen years Article 32 of the Constitution of India and Article 51A(i): To safeguard public
(c) To cherish and follow the noble ideals by the High Courts under Article 226 of property and to abjure violence; Article
which inspired our national struggle the Constitution of India. There are 5 51A(j): To strive towards excellence in all
for freedom types of writs issued in India - Habeas spheres of individual and collective
(d) To develop the scientific temper, Corpus (to have the body of), Mandamus activity so that the nation constantly
humanism and the spirit of inquiry (we command), Certiorari (to be certified rises to higher levels of endeavour and
and reform or to be informed), Prohibition (to forbid) achievement.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Q.208. Which Article in the fundamental national struggle for freedom; (c) to Sol.213.(b) Fundamental Rights is
duty applies, when a construction worker uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity derived from the Constitution of the USA.
takes his 8-year son to the site rather and integrity of India; (d) to defend the Enshrined in Part III (Article 12 to 35) of
than sending him to school? country and render national service when the Indian Constitution.
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift) called upon to do so.
(a) Article 51A (h) (b) Article 51A (k) Q.214. If a 12-year-old is found to be
(c) Article 51A (j) (d) Article 51A (i) Q.211. Which of the following Articles of working in a factory manufacturing
the Indian Constitution CANNOT be carpets, which of the following Articles
Sol.208.(b) Article 51A (k) states that suspended even during an emergency of the Constitution of India will be
"Who is a parent or guardian, to provide declared on the grounds of war or violated?
opportunities for education to his child external aggression ? SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
or, as the case may be, ward between the SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Article 24 (b) Article 25
age of six and fourteen years." It was (a) Articles 15 and 17 (c) Article 23 (d) Article 26
added by the 86th Amendment Act, (b) Articles 20 and 21
2002. The Right to Education (RTE) Act, (c) Articles 14 and 16 Sol.214.(a) Article 24 - “No child below
2009, makes education compulsory for (d) Articles 30 and 32 the age of fourteen years shall be
children between 6-14 years. Child labor employed to work in any factory or mine
is prohibited under the Child Labour Sol.211.(b) Articles 20 and 21. Article 14 or engaged in any other hazardous
(Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986. - Equality before law. Article 15 - employment”. Other Articles: Article 23 -
Prohibition of discrimination on grounds Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
Q.209. Which of the following duties has of religion, race, caste, sex or place of forced labour. Article 25 - Freedom of
been NOT prescribed by the Indian birth. Article 16 - Equality of opportunity conscience and free profession, practice
Constitution as Fundamental Duties? in matters of public employment. Article
df
and propagation of religion. Article 26 -
1. To defend the country 17 - Abolition of Untouchability. Article 20 Freedom to manage religious affairs.
_p
2. To pay income tax - Protection in respect of conviction for
3. To cast the vote in election offences. Article 21 - Protection of life Q.215. In which part of the Constitution
na
4. To safeguard the public property and personal liberty. Article 30 - Right of will you find the six broad categories of
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) minorities to establish and administer Fundamental Rights?
ap
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only educational institutions. SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
(c) 2 and 3 both (d) 2 and 4 both (a) Part I (b) Part IV (c) Part II (d) Part III
Q.212. Which fundamental duty applies
:@
Sol.209.(c) 2 and 3 both. Fundamental to you when you see your college friends Sol.215.(d) Part III (Articles 12 to 35).
duties were incorporated into the start fighting with the canteen person Six broad categories of Fundamental
Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional when he passes a few anti-religious Rights : Right to Equality (Articles 14-18),
TG
Amendment Act of 1976 on the statements? Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22), Right
recommendations of the Swaran Singh SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) against Exploitation (Articles 23-24),
Committee. Article 51-A (d) states the (a) To promote harmony and spirit of Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles
on
duty to defend the country and render brotherhood 25-28), Cultural and Educational Rights
national service when called upon to do (b) To value and preserve the rich (Articles 29-30), Right to Constitutional
ch
so, while Article 51-A (i) emphasises the heritage Remedies (Article 32).
duty to safeguard public property and (c) To develop the scientific temper, Q.216. Writ of Mandamus is a
ar
abjure violence. humanism, and the spirit of inquiry Fundamental Right classifiable under:
(d) To protect and improve our natural
Se
Q.210. Which fundamental duty applies SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift)
environment (a) cultural and educational rights
on you when you see a few school
students, on their educational trip to (b) the right to freedom of religion
Sol.212.(a) This fundamental duty
Humayun’s tomb, writing their names on (c) constitutional remedies
encourages citizens to maintain harmony
the walls? (d) the right to equality
and foster a spirit of brotherhood among
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) all people, transcending religious, Sol.216.(c) Constitutional remedies.
(a) To safeguard public property linguistic, or regional differences. It Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article
(b) To defend the country and render applies in situations where religious 32) : This allows Indian citizens to
national service sentiments might cause conflicts. approach the Supreme Court to enforce
(c) To uphold and protect the their fundamental rights. B.R. Ambedkar
sovereignty, unity and integrity of Q.213. Which of the following
described it as the "heart and soul" of the
India statements is INCORRECT regarding
Constitution. The writ in the Indian
(d) To protect and improve the natural Fundamental Rights?
Constitution is borrowed from England.
environment SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
There are five types of writs : ‘Habeas
(a) Fundamental Rights can be enforced
Sol.210.(a) To safeguard public Corpus’, ‘Mandamus’, ‘Prohibition’ ,
by Law.
property. Article 51A —It shall be the duty ‘Certiorari’ , and ‘Quo Warranto’ .
(b) Fundamental rights are derived from
of every citizen of India—(a) to abide by the Britain Constitution. Q.217. Which of the following Articles
the Constitution and respect its ideals (c) The Fundamental Rights are prohibits traffic in human beings and
and institutions, the National Flag and mentioned in the constitution from forced labour ?
the National Anthem; (b) to cherish and article 12 to 35. SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift)
follow the noble ideals which inspired our (d) Article 21 provides the right to life. (a) Article 25 (b) Article 23
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
th
(c) Article 22 (d) Article 28 by the Constitution and respecting its 1) The 44 amendment Act introduced
ideals, as well as the National Flag and Fundamental duties in the Constitution.
Sol.217.(b) Article 23. National Anthem. Cherishing and 2) Fundamental Duties were expanded by
Article 22 - Protection against arrest and following the noble ideals that inspired the 86th amendment act.
detention in certain cases. Article 24 - India's struggle for freedom. Upholding 3) Article 51A (a) entails respect for its
Prohibition of employment of children in and protecting the sovereignty, unity, and ideals and institutions, national flag and
factories, etc. Article 25 - Freedom of integrity of India. Defending the country the national anthem.
conscience and free profession, practice and serving the nation when required. 4) Fundamental Duty obliges parents to
and propagation of religion. Article 28 - provide opportunities for education to
Freedom as to attendance at religious Q.221. ___________ has called the Right their child between 6-14 years of age.
instruction or religious worship in certain to Constitutional Remedy as the ‘Soul of SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
educational institutions. the Constitution’. (a) 1 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 3
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift)
Q.218. Which Clause of Article 20 (a) Jawaharlal Nehru Sol.224.(a) 1. The 44th Constitutional
incorporates the doctrine of double (b) Lala Lajpat Rai Amendment Act of 1978 was enacted to
jeopardy? (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak undo many changes made by the 42nd
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) (d) Dr. BR Ambedkar Amendment during the Emergency in
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4 India. Key provisions include restoring
Sol.221.(d) Dr. BR Ambedkar - the chief judicial review, protecting civil liberties,
Sol.218.(b) 2. Double Jeopardy is a legal architect of the Indian Constitution.
term and it means that a person can not and ensuring that the right to property is
Article 32 grants every individual the right no longer a fundamental right but a legal
be punished for the same offence more to move the Supreme Court for the
than once. Article 20(2) of the right.
enforcement of their fundamental rights.
df
Constitution of India and Section 300 of The Supreme Court has ruled that Article Q.225. How many fundamental duties
the Criminal Procedure Code say that no
_p
32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. were recommended to be inserted in the
person shall be prosecuted and punished Indian Constitution by the Swarna Singh
for the same offence more than once. Q.222. Certiorari comes under the:
na
Committee?
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Q.219. Article 20 of the Constitution of (a) right to religious freedom
ap
(a) 9 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 8
India is related to _____. (b) right to constitutional remedies
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) (c) right against exploitation Sol.225.(d) 8. The idea of Fundamental
:@
(a) equality of opportunities in matters of (d) right to equality Duties (Article 51-A) is inspired from the
public employment Constitution of the USSR (Russia). These
(b) protection in respect of conviction for Sol.222.(b) right to constitutional were incorporated in Part IV-A of the
TG
offenses remedies. Certiorari is a writ issued by Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional
(c) freedom to manage religious affairs the Supreme Court or a High Court to Amendment Act, 1976.
(d) abolition of titles review the decision or action of a lower
on
court or tribunal. Article 32 of the Indian Q.226. A ________ is issued to prevent an
Sol.219.(b) Article 20 provides three key Constitution is a fundamental right that inferior court or tribunal from exceeding
protections: Ex-Post Facto Laws: No its jurisdiction, which is not legally
ch
guarantees the right to constitutional
punishment for acts not punishable at remedies. This right allows individuals to vested, or acting without jurisdiction or
the time they were committed, nor acting against the principles of natural
ar
seek redressal from the judiciary when
penalties exceeding those in force. their fundamental rights are violated. justice.
Se
Self-Incrimination: Individuals cannot be SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)
compelled to confess or make Q.223. _______ Fundamental Duties were (a) writ of quo-warranto
self-harming statements; includes the added in Part-IV of the Constitution (b) writ of habeas corpus
right to remain silent. under Article 51-A in the year 1976 (c) writ of prohibition
Double Jeopardy: No one can be through the 42nd Constitutional (d) writ of mandamus
punished twice for the same offense. Amendment.
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) Sol.226.(c) Writ of prohibition. The
Q.220. Which of the following Articles of (a) Nine (b) Eight (c) Ten (d) Twelve Supreme Court and High Courts in India
the Constitution states that ‘It shall be have the power to issue the writs under
the duty of every citizen of India to Sol.223.(c) Ten. The Swaran Singh Article 32 (Supreme Court) and Article
promote harmony and the spirit of Committee in 1976 recommended 226 (High Courts) of the Constitution,
common brotherhood amongst all the Fundamental Duties, the necessity of respectively. The Constitution of India
people of India transcending religious, which was felt during the internal provides for five types of writs: Habeas
linguistic and regional or sectional emergency of 1975-77. The 11th Corpus (To have the body), Mandamus
diversities; to renounce practices Fundamental Duty, which is the provision (We Command), Prohibition (To forbid),
derogatory to the dignity of women.’? of educational opportunities for children Certiorari (To be certified), and Quo
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) between the ages of six and fourteen Warranto (By what authority).
(a) 51 A (b) (b) 51 A (c) years, was added by the 86th
(c) 51 A (e) (d) 51 A (d) Amendment Act of 2002. Q.227. A housemaid gets her 12-year-old
daughter to help in her work as a house
Sol.220.(c) 51 A (e). Fundamental Q.224. Which of the following cleaner at a residential colony instead of
Duties, outlined in Part IVA, Article 51A of statement(s) is/are INCORRECT vis-à-vis sending her to school. Which
the Indian Constitution, include: Abiding Fundamental Duties?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
fundamental duty is violated by the individual the right to move the Supreme by the Constitution and respect its ideals
housemaid ? Court for the enforcement of their and institutions, the National Flag and
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) fundamental rights. The five types of the National Anthem; (c) to uphold and
(a) To provide opportunities for writs that can be issued in India are: protect the sovereignty, unity and
education to his/her child Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, integrity of India; (f) to value and
(b) To promote harmony and the spirit of Prohibition, Quo-warranto. preserve the rich heritage of our
common brotherhood composite culture. Article 49 - Protection
(c) To defend the country and render Q.231. Which of the following of monuments and places and objects of
national service Fundamental Rights has been deleted national importance.
(d) To safeguard public property and to from the original list of fundamental
rights provided in the Constitution of Q.234. Which of the following is NOT
abjure violence
India? mentioned in fundamental duties
Sol.227.(a) To provide opportunities for SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) provided under the Indian Constitution ?
education to his/her child. Fundamental (a) Right to property SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift)
duty (Part IV-A, Article 51-A) incorporated (b) Cultural and educational rights (a) To safeguard public property
by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (c) Right to constitutional remedies (b) To develop scientific temper
Act, 1976 on the recommendations of (d) Right to freedom of religion (c) To join Defence forces
the Swaran Singh Committee. It (d) To respect the national flag
mandates that parents should provide Sol.231.(a) Right to property. It was
deleted by the 44th Constitutional Sol.234.(c) To join Defence forces. The
educational opportunities for their
amendment act 1978 from the list of Fundamental Duties, listed in Part IVA
children between the ages of six and
Fundamental Rights (FR) and was listed (Article 51A) of the Indian Constitution,
fourteen years (added by the 86th
under Article 300A as a legal right in Part were added by the 42nd Amendment in
df
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002).
XII. 1976 based on the Swaran Singh
_p
Q.228. Citizens are NOT discriminated Committee's recommendations. Initially
against on the basis of religion, caste or Q.232. Which of the following there were 10 fundamental duties, and by
Fundamental Rights is available for
na
sex because of: the 86th Amendment of 2002 one more
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) Indians as well as foreigners? fundamental duty (to provide right to
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift)
ap
(a) Right to Freedom education to all children of the age of 6
(b) Right against Exploitation (a) Right to protection of language, script to 14 years) was added.
and culture of minorities
:@
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion Q.235. Which writ literally means 'what
(d) Right to Equality (b) Equality of opportunity in matters of
public employment is your authority’?
Sol.228.(d) Right to Equality. (c) Right of minorities to establish and SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift)
TG
The Fundamental Rights (Part III, Articles administer educational institutions (a) Quo-Warranto (b) Prohibition
12-35). Right to equality (Articles 14–18). (d) Right to elementary education (c) Habeas Corpus (d) Mandamus
Article 14: Equality before the law. Article
on
Sol.232.(d) Right to elementary Sol.235.(a) Quo-Warranto. The Supreme
15: Prohibition of discrimination on Court and High Courts in India have the
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or education. Fundamental rights available
power to issue writs under Article 32 and
ch
place of birth. Article 16: Equality of to both citizens and foreigners (except
enemy aliens) include: Article 14, Article Article 226 of the Constitution,
opportunity in public employment. Article respectively. Five types of writs - Habeas
ar
17: Abolition of untouchability. Article 18: 20, Article 21, Article 21A, Article 22,
Article 23, Article 24, Article 25, Article Corpus (To have the body); Mandamus
Prohibition of titles, except for military or
Se
26, Article 27, and Article 28. (We Command); Prohibition (To forbid);
academic distinctions. Certiorari (To be certified).
Fundamental Rights Available Only to
Q.229. How many Fundamental Rights Citizens of India: Article 15, Article 16, Q.236. The original constitution did NOT
were initially provided in the Constitution Article 19, Article 29, and Article 30. mention any fundamental duty because:
of India? SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) Q.233. All historical monuments have
signages with instructions that public (a) initially fundamental duties were not
(a) Seven (b) Eight (c) Nine (d) Six expected to be performed
should not write on the walls. To which
Sol.229.(a) Seven. Currently there are 6 fundamental duty does the given (b) initially fundamental duties were
Fundamental Rights in the Indian statement belong? punishable as per the constitution
Constitution. The 44th Amendment of SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) (c) it was expected that the citizens of
1978 removed the right to property from (a) To defend the country and render the country would perform their
the list of fundamental rights, making it a national service duties willingly
legal right under Article 300A. (b) To safeguard public property and to (d) it was expected that the citizens of
abjure violence the country would perform their
Q.230. ______ of the Constitution of India (c) To develop the scientific temper duties forcefully
has provisions for legal enforcement of (d) To promote harmony and spirit of Sol.236.(c) The fundamental duties were
the fundamental rights. common brotherhood incorporated in Part IV-A of our
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift)
constitution through the 42nd
(a) Article 32 (b) Article 19 Sol.233.(b) Fundamental Duties outline
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. At
(c) Article 29 (d) Article 28 the responsibilities of every citizen of
present, there are eleven fundamental
India. These duties include: (a) to abide
Sol.230.(a) Article 32. It grants every duties under article 51 A of the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
constitution. Q.240. If a person who is arrested, is added by which Amendment?
NOT produced before the Magistrate Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Q.237. Which of the following is NOT a (a) 42nd Amendment 1976
within 24 hours from the time of arrest,
fundamental duty of an Indian citizen? (b) 86th Amendment 2002
he will be entitled to be released on the
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) (c) 84th Amendment 2000
writ of ________.
(a) To uphold and protect the (d) 44th Amendment 1978
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
sovereignty, unity and integrity of
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Prohibition
India Sol.243.(b) 86th Amendment 2002.
(c) Quo-warranto (d) Mandamus
(b) To safeguard public property and to Fundamental Duties (Part IV A, Article
abjure violence Sol.240.(a) Habeas Corpus. 51A): The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976
(c) To vote in public elections The Supreme Court and High Courts in added the first 10 Fundamental Duties to
(d) To value and preserve the rich India have the power to issue writs under the Indian Constitution, following the
heritage of our composite culture Article 32 and Article 226 of the recommendation of the Swaran Singh
Constitution, respectively. Five types of Committee. The 11th Fundamental Duty
Sol.237.(c) To vote in public elections.
writs - Habeas Corpus (To have the states that parents and guardians must
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added
body); Mandamus (We Command); provide opportunities for education to
10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian
Prohibition (To forbid); Certiorari (To be their children between the ages of six
Constitution, based on the
certified) and Quo Warranto (By what and fourteen.
recommendations of the Swaran Singh
authority).
Committee. The 86th Amendment Act of Q.244. Which Article of the Indian
2002 introduced the 11th Fundamental Q.241. The concept of limited Constitution mentions that every
Duty, requiring parents or guardians to government is a major advancement to religious denomination or section shall
provide educational opportunities to protect the _______ of the citizens from have the right to own and acquire
df
children aged 6 to 14. These duties are the ruling governments. movable and immovable property?
_p
outlined in Article 51A, under Part IV-A. SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) (a) Article 26(c) (b) Article 26(d)
(a) separation of power (c) Article 26(b) (d) Article 26(a)
Q.238. Abolition of titles is mentioned in
na
which Article of the Indian Constitution? (b) fundamental duties
(c) fundamental rights Sol.244.(a) Article 26(c). Article 26 of
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) the Constitution of India guarantees the
ap
(a) Article 24 (b) Article 18 (d) check and balance
freedom to manage religious affairs as a
(c) Article 23 (d) Article 13 Sol.241.(c) fundamental rights are fundamental right, part of the right to
:@
Sol.238.(b) Article 18 - Abolition of enshrined in Part III of the Constitution religion outlined in Articles 25 to 28.
titles—(1) No title, not being a military or (Articles 12-35). Right to equality Articles 26 - This freedom is subject to
(Articles 14–18); Right to freedom public order, morality, and health,
TG
academic distinction, shall be conferred
by the State. (2) No citizen of India shall (Articles 19–22); Right against allowing every religious denomination or
accept any title from any foreign State. exploitation (Articles 23–24); Right to any section thereof the right to: (a)
freedom of religion (Articles 25–28); establish and maintain institutions for
on
Other important Articles: Article 13: Laws
inconsistent with or in derogation of the Cultural and educational rights (Articles religious and charitable purposes, (b)
fundamental rights. Article 23: 29–30); Right to constitutional remedies manage its own affairs in matters of
ch
Prohibition of traffic in human beings and (Article 32).The Right to property (Article religion, (c) own and acquire movable
forced labour. Article 24: Prohibition of 31) was removed by the 44th and immovable property, and (d)
ar
employment of children in factories, etc. Amendment Act, 1978, and is now a legal administer such property according to
right under Article 300-A. law.
Se
Q.239. Article 21 is related to which of
the following fundamental rights? Q.242. Which of the following articles Q.245. Which Article of the Indian
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) guarantees the Right to Equality before Constitution mentions that ‘No person
(a) Freedom to Manage Religious Affairs the Law and the Right to Equal Protection shall be prosecuted and punished for the
(b) Protection of Language, Culture of of the Laws ? same offence more than once’?
Minorities Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
(c) Protection of Life and Personal (a) Article 14 (b) Article 16 (a) Article 20(3) (b) Article 20(2)
Liberty (c) Article 17 (d) Article 15 (c) Article 20(4) (d) Article 20(1)
(d) Freedom of Speech Sol.242.(a) Article 14. The right to Sol.245.(b) Article 20(2). This clause is
Sol.239.(c) Protection of Life and equality (Articles 14–18) is a known as the doctrine of "double
Personal Liberty. Fundamental Rights fundamental right (Part III , Articles jeopardy," which ensures that no
(Part III) : Right to Equality (Article 14 - 12-35). Article 15 prohibits individual is tried twice for the same
18), Right to Freedom (Article 19 - 22), discrimination against citizens on the crime. Other clauses: Article 20(1) : This
Right against Exploitation (23 - 24), Right grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or provision ensures that a person cannot
to Freedom of Religion (Article 25 - 28), place of birth. Article 16 provides for be convicted of any offense which was
Cultural and Educational Rights (Article equality of opportunity for all citizens in not in force at the time. Article 20(3)
29 - 30), Article 31 (now repealed) - matters of employment. Article 17 ensures that no person accused of an
Saving of Certain Laws related to abolishes the practice of untouchability offense shall be compelled to be a
property rights, Right to Constitutional in any form. witness against themselves.
Remedies (Article 32). Q.243. The 11th Fundamental Duty was Q.246. Which Committee had suggested
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
a penalty or punishment for the non - (a) It provides freedom to manage SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (2nd shift)
performance of Fundamental Duties ? religious affairs. (a) To establish a welfare state
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 (b) It provides freedom of worship. (b) To have an absolute independence
(a) Indira Gandhi Committee (c) It is mentioned in Articles 25 to 28. (c) To promote economic justice
(b) Morarji Desai Committee (d) It mentions that the state has its own (d) To establish political democracy
(c) Verma Committee religion.
(d) Swaran Singh Committee Sol.253.(d) To establish political
Sol.250.(d) The Right to Freedom of democracy. The fundamental rights in
Sol.246.(d) Swaran Singh Committee. Religion (Fundamental Right under Part the Indian Constitution aim to build a
The Swaran Singh Committee III) - Article 25 - Freedom of conscience democratic society by safeguarding
recommended that the duty to pay taxes and free profession, practice and individual liberty, equality, and protection
to be included in the fundamental duties. propagation of religion. Article 26 - against discrimination based on race,
The committee also recommended that Freedom to manage religious affairs. caste, sex, religion, or birthplace.
the legislatures should prescribe a law Article 27 - Freedom as to payment of
for imposing a penalty for violation of the taxes for promotion of any particular Q.254. Fundamental duties are ______
duties. But these recommendations were religion. Article 28 - Freedom as to and not enforceable by law but are taken
not included in Article 51A. attendance at religious instruction or into account by the courts while
religious worship in certain educational adjudicating any matter.
Q.247. Which Article of the Constitution institutions. SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift)
clarifies that policies like 'reservation' is (a) regulatory (b) non - statutory
not a violation of the right to equality? Q.251. Which statement is FALSE (c) statutory (d) common
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) regarding fundamental rights mentioned
(a) Article 16 (4) (b) Article 15 (2) in the Indian Constitution ? Sol.254.(c) Statutory. Fundamental Duties
df
(c) Article 14 (1) (d) Article 21 SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift) (Part IVA, Article 51A):- Adopted from the
Constitution of Russia (erstwhile Soviet
_p
(a) Only Article 20 and 21 can be
Sol.247.(a) Article 16 (4). Article 15 (2) - suspended during emergency Union). Fundamental duties - Non -
No citizen shall, on grounds only of justiciable in nature.
na
(b) They are justiciable
religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, (c) Some fundamental rights are
be subject to any disability, liability, Q.255. Which of the following Articles of
ap
negative in nature the Indian Constitution mentions the
restriction or condition with regard to. (d) Can be suspended during emergency
Article 21 - Protection of life and fundamental duty "sovereignty, unity and
:@
personal liberty. Sol.251.(a) 44th Amendment Act, 1978 integrity of India" is mentioned ?
limits the scope of Article 359 SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Morning)
Q.248. What is the purpose of the (suspension of the enforcement of the (a) Article 51A (b) (b) Article 51A (e)
TG
Cultural and Educational Rights? rights conferred by Part III during (c) Article 51A (c) (d) Article 51A (d)
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift) emergencies). All fundamental rights
(a) To promote a particular religion Sol.255.(c) Article 51A(c). The 42nd
except articles 20 and 21 can be
on
(b) To protect the language, culture, and Amendment Act of 1976 added 10
suspended only on the basis of National Fundamental Duties to the Indian
religion of the minority communities Emergency (Article 352). Constitution and created Part IVA.
ch
(c) To protect the majority community
(d) To prevent exploitation Q.252. The celebration of Christmas, Eid
Committee Reports
ar
and Holi in school is an example of
Sol.248.(b) Cultural and Educational making children learn fundamental
Se
Right (Article 29 - 30) : Article 29 - duties as well. Which of the following Q.256. The central bank of India or
Guarantees the Protection of Interests of fundamental duties advocates about this Reserve Bank of India was created
Minorities. Article 30 - Guarantees the type of ideals ? before Independence, in the year 1934.
right of minorities to establish and SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) The recommendation to create a central
administer educational institutions of (a) To defend the country and render bank was made by a commission called:
their choice. national service SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(b) To develop the scientific temper (a) Dr. Raja Chelliah Committee
Q.249. Which of the following is
(c) To safeguard public property and to (b) Kothari Commission
enforceable by the Indian Constitution?
abjure violence (c) Narasimham Committee
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(d) To promote harmony and spirit of (d) Hilton Young Commission
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental rights common brotherhood
Sol.256.(d) Hilton Young Commission. It
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy Sol.252.(d) Fundamental Duties: Part is also known as the Royal Commission
(d) Fundamental duties IV-A of the Indian constitution in Article on Indian Currency and Finance, was
51A. Article 51A(e) refers to the duty of established in 1926. The Reserve Bank of
Sol.249.(b) Fundamental Rights (Part III,
every citizen to promote harmony and India (RBI) is India's central bank and
Articles 12-35).
the spirit of common brotherhood regulatory body overseeing the Indian
Q.250. Which of the following amongst all the people of India. ' banking system. It manages the control,
statements is FALSE about the right to issuance, and supply of the Indian rupee.
freedom of religion mentioned in the Q.253. What is the aim of fundamental The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was
Indian Constitution ? rights mentioned in the Indian established on April 1, 1935, in
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift) Constitution ? accordance with the provisions of the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Fundamental Duties under Article 51A of Commission was formed in 2017 due to
the Indian Constitution. However, at the the supreme court’s order in the all India
Q.257. Which committee recommended time of incorporation, ten duties were judges association case, under article 32,
Constitutional recognition for the local added to Part IV-A by the 42nd i.e., constitutional remedies. Justice
government bodies in 1989? Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Verma Committee was constituted to
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Initially, there were 10 duties, and one recommend amendments to the Criminal
(a) Ashok Mehta Committee more was added by the 86th Law so as to provide for quicker trial and
(b) PK Thungon Committee Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, enhanced punishment for criminals
(c) Balwant Rai Committee making a total of 11 duties. accused of committing sexual assault
(d) Verma Committee against women. The Committee
Q.260. Which of the following submitted its report on January 23, 2013.
Sol.257.(b) P.K. Thungan Committee committees was associated with
recommended a constitutional Industrial Licensing Policy Inquiry? Q.263. Which report is NOT associated
amendment for regular elections, SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) with Fundamental Rights?
specific functions, and funding for local (a) Hazari Committee (b) Sen Committee SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon)
government institutions. Ashok Mehta (c) Gadgil Committee (d) Dutt Committee (a) Tej Bahadur Sapru Report
Committee: It was set up in 1977 by the
(b) Motilal Nehru Report
Janata government, studied the Sol.260.(d) Dutt Committee. The Hazari
(c) Sarkaria Commission Report
Panchayat Raj system in India. Balwant Committee was a committee in India that
(d) JB Kripalani Report
Rai Mehta Committee: It recommended studied the industrial licensing procedure
decentralizing power and functions at the under the Industries (Development and Sol.263.(c) Sarkaria Commission Report
divisional and sub-divisional levels. Regulation) Act, 1951. Abhijit Sen - This Commission is to examine and
Justice Verma Committee: It was formed Committee (2002) - Long Term Food review the working of the existing
df
to suggest changes to criminal law for Policy. The Gadgil commission was arrangements between the Union and
_p
faster trials and tougher punishments for formed to study the impact of population States as per the Constitution of India.
those accused of sexual assault against pressure, climate change and Tej Bahadur Sapru Report (1945) - It
na
women. development activities on the Western related to political and civil rights of the
Ghats. minorities.
Q.258. Which of the following
ap
commissions/committees identified the Q.261. In November 2022, the Supreme Q.264. Rangarajan Committee is
existence of legal provisions for Court upheld the 10% reservation of EWS associated with _______.
:@
implementation of some of the quota. This EWS reservation was granted SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening)
Fundamental Duties? on the basis of recommendations from (a) Election reforms
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) which of the following commissions ?
TG
(b) Educational reform
(a) Vasantrao Naik Committee SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) (c) Environmental protection
(b) Sarkaria Commission (a) Sarkaria commission (d) Estimation of poverty
(c) Rajamannar Commission (b) Kelkar commission
on
(d) Justice Verma Committee (c) Mandal commission Sol.264.(d) Estimation of poverty.
(d) Sinho commission Rangarajan Committee - To Review the
ch
Sol.258.(d) Justice Verma Committee. Methodology for Measurement of
The committee was set up in 1999. It Sol.261.(d) Sinho commission: Poverty in the country constituted by the
ar
identified the existence of following legal Constituted in 2005, and submitted its Planning Commission in June 2012 has
provisions - Prevention of Insults to report in 2010. In 2019, the Cabinet submitted its report on 30th June 2014.
Se
National Honour Act (1971), Protection decided to amend the Constitution As per the report submitted by C
of Civil Right Act (1955), Representation (103rd Amendment) to provide Rangarajan Committee: Persons
of People Act (1951), Wildlife Protection reservation to EWS. Sarkaria spending below Rs. 47 a day in cities
Act (1972) and Forest Conservation Act Commission (1983) - Reviewed should be considered poor. Committee
(1980). center-state relations. Kelkar related to poverty: Planning Commission
Commission (1953) - Also known as the Expert Group (1962), VM Dandekar and N
Q.259. Which of the following First Backward Classes Commission. Rath committee (1971), Y.K. Alagh
committees had recommended the Mandal Commission (1979) - The Committee (1979), Lakdawala
inclusion of a chapter on the Second Socially and Educationally Committee (1993), Suresh Tendulkar
Fundamental Duties in the Constitution Backward Classes Commission. Committee (2005).
of India and stressed that the citizens
should become conscious that, in Q.262. Which of the following persons Q.265. Which of the following
addition to the enjoyment of rights, they was appointed Chairman of the Second commissions recommended that “the
also have certain duties to perform ? National Judicial Pay Commission? appointment of Governor should be non -
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) partisan” ?
(a) JR Varma Committee (1996) (a) Justice PV Reddi SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) (b) Justice JS Verma (a) Fazal Ali Commission
(c) Swaran Singh Committee (1976) (c) Justice R Basant (b) Rajmannar commission
(d) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1976) (d) Justice AS Anand (c) Sarkaria commission
(d) Mandal commission
Sol.259.(c) Swaran Singh Committee Sol.262.(a) Justice PV Reddi. The
(1976) originally recommended eight second National judicial Pay Sol.265.(c) Sarkaria commission (1983).
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
The States Reorganisation Commission Minister Morarji Desai. It was headed by (a) four (b) two (c) three (d) one
(Fazal Ali Commission, 1953). Rajmannar BP Mandal.
Sol.272.(d) one. Parliamentary
commission set up by the then DMK
committees are of two types—Standing
Government of Tamil Nadu in 1969 under Parliament Committees and Ad Hoc Committees.
the Chairmanship of Dr P.V. Rajamanar.
Standing Committees are permanent and
Q.266. Constitution Review Commission Q.269. Which of the following options is function on a continuous basis. In
chaired by______recommended some the legislative organ of the Union contrast, Ad Hoc Committees are
initiatives to be taken by the government government? temporary and cease to exist once they
for successful implementation of SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) complete the task assigned to them.
Fundamental Duties. (a) Judiciary (b) Legislative assembly Examples - The Joint Committee on
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning) (c) Executive (d) Parliament Bofors Contract and the Joint Committee
(a) PK Joshi (b) MN Venkatachaliah on Fertilizer Pricing.
Sol.269.(d) Parliament. The Indian
(c) UC Banerjee (d) Michael G Aguinaldo
Parliament is a bicameral legislature, Q.273. Which of the following
consisting of two houses : the Lok Sabha statements are correct regarding State
Sol.266.(b) MN Venkatachaliah
(House of the People) and the Rajya Legislatures?
Commission was set up by Government
Sabha (Council of States), along with the A. Notwithstanding anything in part XVII,
resolution in 2000 to Review the Working
President. The three organs of the Union but subject to the provisions of Article
of the Constitution. He got Padma
Government of India are the legislative, 348, business in the Legislature of a
Vibhushan In 2004. Justice U.C.Banerjee
executive (Implements the laws enacted State shall be transacted in the official
headed the Commission report on
by the legislature), and judiciary language or languages of the State or in
Godhra incident.
(interprets the laws made by Parliament). Hindi or in English.
df
Q.267. How many members are there in B. The Speaker of the Legislative
Q.270. Which of the following is NOT a
the Committee on Public Undertakings in
_p
Assembly or Chairman of the Legislative
device of parliamentary proceedings?
India? Council can permit any member to speak
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4)
na
in his mother tongue.
(a) Half - an - hour discussion
(a) 22 (b) 15 (c) 35 (d) 30 C. Only the Supreme Court is entitled to
(b) Zero - hour discussion
ap
inquire into the proceedings of the State
Sol.267.(a) 22. Financial Committees:- (c) Two - hour (short) discussion
Legislature.
Public Accounts Committee - 1921, (d) Full - day discussion
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
:@
Members (22) (15 from Lok Sabha and 7
Sol.270.(d) Full-day discussion. In (a) B and C only (b) A and C only
from Rajya Sabha), Term of Office (One
parliamentary proceedings, there are (c) A, B and C (d) A and B only
year), Function - to examine the annual
TG
various devices used to facilitate
audit reports of the Comptroller and Sol.273.(d) A and B only.
discussions and manage time effectively.
Auditor General of India (CAG). State Legislature is mentioned in Chapter
These include: Half-an-hour discussion -
Estimates Committee (Post III of Part VI (The States) of the Indian
on
A device used to discuss matters of
Independence) - 1950, Members (30) All Constitution. Related Articles: Article 178
urgent public importance. It usually lasts
from Lok Sabha , Term of Office (One - The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the
for 30 minutes. Zero-hour discussion - A
ch
Year), Function - to examine the Legislative Assembly. Article 179 -
device where members can raise issues
estimates included in the budget. Vacation and resignation of, and removal
without prior notice, typically after the
ar
Committee on Public Undertakings – from, the offices of Speaker and Deputy
Question Hour, which allows for
1964, Members-22 (15 from Lok Sabha Speaker. Article 180 - Power of the
Se
unscheduled discussions. Two-hour
and 7 from Rajya Sabha), Term of Office Deputy Speaker or other person to
(short) discussion - This is also a formal
(One Year), Function – to examine the perform the duties of the office of, or to
discussion where specific issues are
reports and accounts of the Public act as, Speaker.
debated for two hours.
Sector Undertakings.
Q.274. In which year was the Jammu and
Q.271. Who has the power to regulate
Q.268. Which Commission recommended Kashmir Legislative Council abolished?
the right of citizenship in India ?
27% reservation for OBC candidates in all Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
levels of government services ? (a) 2018 (b) 2020 (c) 2019 (d) 2017
(a) Parliament (b) President
SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Morning)
(c) Supreme Court (d) Governor Sol.274.(c) 2019. The Jammu & Kashmir
(a) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Mandal Commission Legislative Council was abolished
Sol.271.(a) Parliament. Citizenship (Part
(c) Balwant Commission through the Jammu and Kashmir
II, Articles 5 to 11) : Article 5 - Citizenship
(d) Kothari Commission Reorganisation Act, 2019, which reduced
at the commencement of the
the State of Jammu and Kashmir to the
Constitution. Article 6 - Rights of
Sol.268.(b) The Mandal Commission Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir
citizenship of certain persons who have
(Second Backward Class Commission) and Ladakh. The Act also repealed
migrated to India from Pakistan. Article
recommended that members of OBCs be Article 370, which had granted Jammu
11 - Parliament to regulate the right of
given 27 percent reservations for jobs and Kashmir unique status.
citizenship by law.
under the Central government and public
sector undertakings. This commission Q.275. How many Members of
Q.272. The parliamentary standing
was established in India in 1979 by the Parliament were elected to the 17th Lok
committees have a tenure of _____ years.
Janata Party government under Prime Sabha from Odisha?
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 21 (d) 20 the Chairman of the Committee on the Sol.282.(c) 6 years. The Rajya Sabha is a
Functions of the Constituent Assembly permanent body and is not subject to
Sol.275.(c) 21.The 2024 Indian general of India. Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar dissolution. However, one-third of its
election was held in Odisha in 4 phases has been conferred the title of 'Father of members retire every two years. The
from 13 May 2024 to 1 June 2024 to Lok Sabha' by Jawaharlal Nehru. M. A. Vice-President of India serves as the
elect 21 members of the 18th Lok Sabha. Ayyangar was the first deputy speaker of ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Bharatiya Janata Party clean sweeped the Lok Sabha. Meira Kumar was the first The House has a maximum of 250
the state by winning 20 out of 21 seats. woman speaker of Lok Sabha (2009 - members, with 238 elected members
Q.276. One-third of the members of the 2014). from states and union territories, and 12
State Legislature Council retire every nominated by the President.
Q.280. Which of the following options is
_____years. INCORRECT? Q.283. Who elects the Presiding Officer
Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) In order to become a member of Vidhan (the speaker) in the State legislature?
(a) sixth (b) fourth (c) fifth (d) second Sabha, a person must: Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Sol.276.(d) Second. The Legislative Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (a) Council of Minsters
Council (Vidhan Parishad) has a (a) have his/her name in the voters’ list (b) Members of Vidhan Sabha
permanent structure and is not subject to (b) have attained the age of 21 years (c) Member of Vidhan Parishad
dissolution. The Legislative Assembly (c) be a citizen of India (d) Chief Minster
(Vidhan Sabha) of a state consists of not (d) not hold any office of profit
Sol.283.(b) Members of Vidhan Sabha.
more than 500 and not less than 60 Sol.280.(b) The minimum age to be a There is a Legislative Assembly (Vidhan
members. It may be dissolved after five member of the Legislative Assembly ( Sabha) in every State. It represents the
years or earlier. Vidhan Sabha) is 25 years. Legislative people of the State. The members of
df
Q.277. When a non-minister proposes a Assembly of a state consists of not more Vidhan Sabha are directly elected by
_p
bill, it is called : than 500 and not less than 60 members people on the basis of universal adult
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) (Legislative Assembly of Sikkim has 32 franchise. The Speaker presides over the
na
(a) Money Bill members vide Article 371F of the meetings of the House and conducts its
(b) Government Bill Constitution) chosen by direct election proceedings. He maintains order in the
ap
(c) Private Member’s Bill from territorial constituencies in the House, allows the members to ask
(d) Non - Money Bill state. questions and speak. Article 178 - The
:@
Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the
Sol.277.(c) Private Member’s Bill. It can Q.281. How many state Legislative Legislative Assembly.
be introduced only on Fridays. Money Council members are elected by
graduates of three years standing and Q.284. The First hour of a sitting of the
TG
Bill: This type of bill deals specifically
with financial matters, such as taxation residing within the state? House allotted for asking and answering
or government spending. Money bills are Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2) of questions is called as __________ .
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
on
1 1 1 1
introduced by ministers only in the Lok (a) th (b) th (c) th (d) rd
Sabha. Government Bill: A bill introduced
4 6 12 3 (a) Censure motion (b) Zero hour
by a minister on behalf of the (c) Privilege motion (d) Question hour
Sol.281.(c) 1/12th. In the legislative
ch
government. It typically reflects the council, members are elected as follows: Sol.284.(d) Question hour. Censure
government's policies. One-sixth by the governor from
ar
motion - A motion to express
individuals with knowledge in science, disapproval of the conduct of the
Q.278. How many Lok Sabha seats are
Se
art, literature, the co-operative government or a minister. Zero hour - The
there for the state of Meghalaya?
movement, and social service; One-third first hour of a sitting of the House, when
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
by local body members (corporations, MPs can raise matters of urgent public
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
municipalities, and Zila Parishads); importance without notice. Privilege
Sol.278.(b) Two. Meghalaya has two Lok one-third shall be elected by the motion - A motion to protect the
Sabha seats, namely Shillong and Tura. members of the Legislative Assembly of privileges of the House or its members.
The state also has one Rajya Sabha seat. the State from amongst persons who are
Additionally, Meghalaya has 60 not members of the Assembly; Q.285. A money bill under Article 111 of
legislative assembly seats. Other states one-twelfth by graduates residing in the the Constitution of India, presented to
and their Lok Sabha seats: Manipur (2), state for three years; and One twelfth are the President for assent, has to be
Nagaland (1), Mizoram (1), Assam (14), elected by teachers who had spent at endorsed by a Certificate of the
Arunachal Pradesh (2), Tripura (2), least three years in teaching in ________signed by him/her that it is a
Sikkim (1). educational institutions within the state money bill.
not lower than secondary schools, SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Q.279. Who was the first speaker of the including colleges and universities. (a) Secretary General of the Lok Sabha
Lok Sabha after India’s Independence? (b) Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Q.282. Members of the Rajya Sabha are (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(a) Ganesh V Mavalankar elected for a term of how many years ? (d) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) Meira Kumar Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
(c) M Ananthasayanam (a) 5 years (b) 3 years Sol.285.(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) MA Ayyangar (c) 6 years (d) 4 years Articles related to Money Bill: Article 107
- Provisions as to introduction and
Sol.279.(a) Ganesh V Mavalankar was
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
passing of Bills. Article 108 - Joint sitting Question-hour, zero hour, calling attention or appropriation from and out of the
of both Houses in certain cases. Article motion, adjournment motion, censure Consolidated Fund of India
109 - Special procedure in respect of motion, and other discussions. B. Demand for Grants - Earmarking of
Money Bills. Article 110 - Definition of budgetary allocation for meeting only
Q.289. What is the maximum time gap
“Money Bills”. Article 197 - Restriction on planned expenditure of a
between two sessions of the State
powers of Legislative Council as to Bills Ministry/Department
Legislature ?
other than Money Bills. C. Short Duration Discussion - For raising
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
a discussion on a matter of urgent public
Q.286. After how many days of absence (a) Three months (b) Two months
importance for which a notice has to be
from Parliament without permission will (c) Six months (d) One year
given by a Member and supported by 50
a Member of Parliament be disqualified? Members.
Sol.289.(c) Six months. Article 174 (1) -
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift)
The Governor shall from time to time
(a) 60 days (b) 30 days (a) A, B and C (b) B and C only
summon the House or each House of the
(c) 50 days (d) 20 days (c) A only (d) A and C only
State Legislature to meet at such time
Sol.286.(a) 60 days. Disqualifications of and place as he thinks fit. Article 85 (1)
Sol.292.(c) A only. Demand for Grants is
Members of parliament : Article 101 - of the Constitution empowers the
the form in which estimates of
Vacation of seats. Article 102 - President to summon and prorogue
expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
Disqualifications for membership. Article either house of Parliament or to dissolve
(included in the annual financial
103 - Decision on questions as to the Lok Sabha. Three types of Sessions
statement and required to be voted upon
disqualifications of members. Article 104 in the Parliament of India: Budget
in the Lok Sabha) are submitted in
- Penalty for sitting and voting before session (February - May), Monsoon
pursuance of Article 113 of the
making oath or affirmation under article session (July - September) and Winter
df
Constitution. Short Duration Discussion
99 or when not qualified or when session (November - December) are held
is a procedural device to enable
_p
disqualified. in a calendar year.
members to raise discussion on matters
Q.287. What is the bicameral legislature Q.290. When was the first general of urgent public importance without a
na
of the Indian Constitution ? election for Lok Sabha held in India ? formal motion on a matter of urgent
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift) public importance. The Speaker can allot
ap
(a) It is a legislative body with four (a) 1950 - 51 (b) 1949 - 50 two days in a week for such discussions.
houses. (c) 1948 - 49 (d) 1951 - 52
:@
Q.293. Which of the following can make
(b) It is a legislative body with two provisions for Ancillary powers of the
Sol.290.(d) 1951-52. First Lok Sabha:
houses. Supreme Court?
Jawaharlal Nehru (Indian National
(c) It is a legislative body with one house.
TG
Congress) became India’s first SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (1st shift)
(d) It is a legislative body with three (a) President of India
democratically elected Prime Minister.
houses. (b) Law Commission of India
18th Lok Sabha Election (2024):
on
Sol.287.(b) The bicameral legislature of Narendra Modi (Bharatiya Janata Party) (c) Minister of Law & Justice
the Indian Constitution refers to a became Prime Minister. Lok Sabha Seat: (d) Parliament of India
543 Parliamentary Constituencies (At
ch
legislative body with two houses: the Lok Sol.293.(d) Parliament of India. Ancillary
Sabha (House of the People) and the present). First Panchayati Raj Election in
powers of the Supreme Court (Article
India was held on 2nd of Oct 1959 in the
ar
Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Lok 140): The Parliament, through legislation,
Sabha: The lower house, consisting of Nagaur district of Rajasthan.
can grant the Supreme Court additional
Se
directly elected members. Rajya Sabha: powers that are in line with the
Q.291. How long can a person remain a
The upper house, consisting of Constitution's provisions. These extra
minister without being a member of
representatives elected by the members powers should help the Court better fulfill
either House of the State Legislature ?
of the state legislative assemblies and by its constitutional jurisdiction. President
SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift)
members of the Lok Sabha, along with of India : Articles 52 - 62 (Part V),
(a) 15 days (b) 6 months
nominated members. Parliament of India : Articles 79-122 (Part
(c) 1 year (d) 2 months
Q.288. What is the most powerful V), Supreme Court : Articles 124-147
Sol.291.(b) 6 months. Articles 163-164 (Part V).
weapon that enables the Parliament to
deals with the Council of Ministers (CoM)
ensure executive accountability ?
in states. The articles 75 (5) and 164 (4) Q.294. In India, during a meeting of the
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
state that a minister who for any period Legislative Assembly or Council, if there
(a) Approval or refusal of laws
of six consecutive months is not a is no quorum, it shall be the duty of the
(b) The no-confidence motion
member of either house of Parliament or ________ to adjourn the House or suspend
(c) Confirmation of treaties
state legislature respectively shall cease the meeting.
(d) Deliberation and discussion
to be such minister at the expiration of Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
Sol.288.(b) The no-confidence motion. It that period. (a) Chairman/Governor
moved in the Lok Sabha (and not in the (b) Speaker/Chairman
Q.292. Which of the following pairs (c) Governor/Chief Minister
Rajya Sabha) to test the confidence of
is/are correctly matched regarding the (d) Speaker/Chief Minister
the government. It needs the support of
terminology used in the Parliament?
50 members to be admitted. Other ways
A. Appropriation Bill - A Money Bill Sol.294.(b) Speaker/Chairman. Article
to ensure executive accountability:
passed for providing for the withdrawal 100 - Voting in Houses, power of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Houses to act notwithstanding vacancies Sol.298.(b) 17 April 1952. The First Lok Sol.301.(d) Long Notice Question.
and quorum. Quorum - It refers to the Sabha lasted for a full five years tenure Starred Questions are those for which an
number of members that must be and was dissolved on 4 April 1957. oral answer is expected. Non-starred
present for a house meeting to take Article 79 of the Constitution deals with questions are those for which a written
place. Article 189 (3) - The quorum to the Parliament consisting of the reply is expected. Short notice questions
constitute a meeting of the state President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. are those which are asked on matters of
legislature shall be ten members or First Lok Sabha Speaker - GV Mavlankar. urgent public importance and can be
one-tenth of the total number of asked on a shorter notice, less than 10
members of the house whichever is Q.299. Who runs the government at the days.
greater. national level under the parliamentary
system? Q.302. Which of the following is called
Q.295. A Money Bill should be returned SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (2nd Shift) 'the temple of the country's democracy'?
to the Lok Sabha within ___ days by Rajya (a) The President and Council of SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening)
Sabha, either with recommendations or Ministers (a) Raj Ghat (b) Supreme Court
without recommendations. (b) The Prime Minister and Council of (c) Ashok Pillar (d) Parliament
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening) Ministers
(a) 8 (b) 21 (c) 14 (d) 10 (c) The Prime Minister Sol.302.(d) Parliament (Article 79)
(d) The President consists of the President (Article 52),
Sol.295.(c) 14. Money Bill (Article 110) - Council of States (Article 80 - Rajya
It is involved with tax collection, public Sol.299.(b) The Prime Minister and the Sabha) and House of the People (Article
expense bills, and other significant costs Council of Ministers run the 81 - Lok Sabha).
associated with running the government. Parliamentary system (cabinet system or
Money Bill Types - Financial Bill and the Responsible government, Prime Q.303. The state legislative assembly
df
Appropriation Bill. The Speaker has the Minister Model) at the National level. has a strength of ____, with exceptions
for smaller states.
_p
authority to determine whether or not a Articles 74 and 75 (Part V) provide the
specific bill is a money bill. parliamentary system for the centre. SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Morning)
(a) 600 to 1000 (b) 60 to 500
na
Article 163 and 164 (Part VI) provides the
Q.296. Archana wishes to contest for parliamentary system for the states. (c) 50 to 400 (d) 10 to 100
Lok Sabha elections in India. What is the
ap
maximum limit of constituencies that Q.300. The Constitution provides for Sol.303.(b) 60 and 500 members .
can she contest? reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha and However an exception may be granted in
:@
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning) State Legislative Assemblies for the: the states of Goa, Sikkim, Mizoram, and
(a) One (b) Four (c) Three (d) Two SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) the union territory of Puducherry which
(a) scheduled tribes have fewer than 60 members. Maximum
TG
Sol.296.(d) Two. Candidates were (b) other backward classes seats (Uttar Pradesh; 403) and least
allowed to contest more than Two seats (c) differently abled number of seats (Puducherry; 30).
until 1996. As per, Section 33 (7) of the (d) women
on
RPA (Representation of the People Act) Q.304. According to the Indian
1951, one candidate can contest from a Sol.300.(a) Scheduled tribes. Constitution, the House of People shall
consist of not more than ______ members
ch
maximum of two constituencies. Section Article 366(25) of the Constitution deals
70 bars candidates from representing with Scheduled Tribes. There are over to represent the Union territories.
SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Evening)
ar
two constituencies in the Lok 705 tribes which have been notified. The
Sabha/state, which means candidates largest number of tribal communities are (a) thirty (b) twenty
Se
have to vacate one seat in case of found in Odisha. Related Committees to (c) fifteen (d) Thirty-five
winning both the seats. Schedule tribes: Xaxa Committee (2013), Sol.304.(b) Twenty. The Lok Sabha is
Bhuria Commission (2002-2004), Lokur composed of representatives of people
Q.297. What is the term of the State Committee (1965). The Fifth Schedule of
legislative assembly in India as per chosen by direct election on the basis of
the Constitution deals with adult suffrage. The maximum strength of
Indian constitution ? Administration and Control of Scheduled
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Afternoon) the House envisaged by the Constitution
Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states is now 550 (530 members to represent
(a) 3 years (b) 5 years other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
(c) 4 years (d) 7 years States, 20 to represent Union Territories)
and Mizoram. The Sixth Schedule deals
Sol.297.(b) 5 years. State Legislature with the administration of the tribal areas Q.305. How many organs of government
(Article 168 - 212) comprises Legislative in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and are there according to the Indian
Assembly and Legislative Council. Mizoram. Constitution?
Legislative Council members are elected SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Evening)
Q.301. Which of the following is NOT a (a) Two (b) Four (c) One (d) Three
for a term of 6 years. kind of question related to Indian
Q.298. The Lok Sabha (House of the Parliamentary Proceedings ? Sol.305.(d) Three Organs: the
People) was duly constituted for the first SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon) Legislature consists of the President and
time on _______ . (a) Starred Question two Houses, known as Council of States
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening) (b) Unstarred Question (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People
(a) 26 April 1950 (b) 17 April 1952 (c) Short Notice Question (Lok Sabha), the Executive consists of
(c) 18 January 1950 (d) 20 April 1951 (d) Long Notice Question the President, the Vice-President, and the
Council of Ministers with the Prime
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Minister as the head to aid and advise Bicameral Legislature, Political SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Afternoon)
the President. and the Judiciary consists Homogeneity, No fixed term. (a) 1972 (b) 1982 (c) 1977 (d) 1979
of the Supreme Court, High Court,
District Court or Subordinate Court. Q.310. An alliance formed by political Sol.313.(c) 1977. Second Schedule of
parties after elections when no party has the Indian Constitution deals with the
Q.306. __________ is a motion moved by a been able to get adequate seats to form provisions in relation to allowances,
member to cut short the debate on a a clear majority is called_____. privileges, emoluments of : The President
matter before the House. SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Evening) of India, Governors of Indian States,
SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Morning) (a) coalition (b) appropriation Speaker of Lok Sabha & Deputy Speaker
(a) Closure (b) No-Confidence (c) allegiance (d) prorogation of Lok Sabha etc. The leader of the
(c) Privilege (d) Censure largest Opposition party having not less
Sol.310.(a) A coalition government is a than one-tenth of the seats of the total
Sol.306.(a) ‘Closure Motion’ . No form of government in which political strength of the House is recognized as
Confidence Motion’ also called as Motion parties cooperate to form a government. the leader of the Opposition in that
of No Confidence: A Vote of No Appropriation is when money is set aside House opposition cabinet.
Confidence is a formal proposal in Lok for a specific and particular purpose or
Sabha to evoke a decision of the house. purposes. Prorogation means the
termination of a session of the House by
President, Vice President and
Q.307. According to the Indian an order made by the President under Prime Minister
Constitution, what is the tenure of the Article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.
members of the State Legislative Council Allegiance, the tie that binds an individual Q.314. Which of the following is NOT a
in India? to another individual or institution. condition for the President’s office in
SSC MTS 14/07/2022 (Afternoon) India?
df
(a) 10 years (b) 3 years Q.311. The period between prorogation SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) 4 years (d) 6 years of Parliament and re-assembly in a new
_p
(a) He shall not be entitled, without
session is called______. payment of rent, to use his official
Sol.307.(d) 6 years. It is a permanent SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Afternoon)
na
residence
body and is not subject to dissolution. (a) adjournment (b) recess (b) He shall not be a member of either
The tenure of a Member of the (c) dissolution (d) cut motion
ap
House of the Parliament.
Legislative Council (MLC) is six years,
(c) The allowances shall not be
with one-third of the members retiring Sol.311.(b) Recess. An adjournment
:@
diminished during his term of office.
every two years. suspends the work in a sitting for a
(d) He shall not hold any office of profit.
specified time, which may be hours, days
Q.308. Who has the power to abolish or or weeks. A dissolution ends the very life Sol.314.(a) Article 59 of the Constitution
TG
create a legislative council in the state? of the existing House, and a new House of India outlines the conditions for the
SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Morning) is constituted after general elections are office of the President of India. Article 59
(a) Parliament held. Cut motion is a power given to the (3) - The President shall be entitled
on
(b) High court of the concerned State members of the Lok Sabha that enables without payment of rent to the use of his
(c) President its members to oppose any demand in a official residences and shall be also
(d) Chief minister of the concerned state
ch
Finance Bill proposed by a government entitled to such emoluments,
Sol.308.(a) Parliament. According to the allowances and privileges as may be
Q.312. In the absence of the Speaker and
ar
Article 169 of the Constitution of India, determined by Parliament by law.
the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, who
the Parliament of India can create or
Se
presides over the joint sitting of the two Q.315. Which Article of the Constitution
abolish the State Legislative Council of a houses of Parliament? of India expressly provides that the
state if that state's legislature passes a SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Afternoon) President is eligible for re-election?
resolution for that with a special majority. (a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.309. Which of the following is NOT a (b) Any senior member of Rajya Sabha (a) Article 58 (b) Article 56
feature of parliamentary government in (c) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha (c) Article 59 (d) Article 57
India? (d) Any senior member of Lok Sabha
Sol.315.(d) Article 57. Important articles
SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Evening) Sol.312.(c) Deputy Chairman of Rajya related to the President of India : Article
(a) Membership of the ministers in the Sabha. Article 93 - The Speaker and 52 - The President of India. Article 53 -
legislature, Deputy Speaker of the House of the Executive power of the Union. Article 54 -
(b) Undissolvable lower house People . Article 95 - Power of the Deputy Election of President. Article 55 - Manner
(c) Presence of nominal and real Speaker or other person to perform the of election of President. Article 56 - Term
executives duties of the office of, or to act as, of office of President. Article 58 -
(d) Collective responsibility of the Speaker. Article 96 - The Speaker or the Qualifications for election as President.
executive to the legislature Deputy Speaker not to preside while a Article 59 - Conditions of President’s
Sol.309.(b) Undissolvable lower house. resolution for his removal from office is office. Article 60 - Oath or affirmation by
Features of Parliamentary Government : under consideration. the President.
Nominal and Real Executives, Double Q.313. The salary and allowances of Q.316. In the state legislative assembly,
Membership, Collective Responsibility, leaders of opposition in parliament are the Money bill can be introduced with the
Secrecy of procedure, Prime Ministerial governed by the Act passed for the first prior permission of __________.
Leadership, Majority Party Rule, time by the parliament in the year ______. SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
(a) Governor (b) Auditor General one - third of the members retire, and at Advocate-General for the State. Term and
(c) Finance Minister (d) CAG the beginning of every third year, Remuneration: The Advocate-General
vacancies are filled through fresh holds office at the pleasure of the
Sol.316.(a) Governor. Money Bills in
elections and presidential nominations. Governor and receives remuneration as
State Legislatures : A Money Bill is a
determined by the Governor.
special type of financial bill that deals Q.320. The ________ of every state
with matters like taxation, borrowing, or unfurls the flag in its capital on the Q.324. Which Article deals with the
expenditure from the state's Republic Day. election of the President ?
Consolidated Fund. Article 198 of the SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Constitution of India deals with the (a) Judge of High Court (a) Article 72 (b) Article 54
special procedure for money bills in state (b) Chief Minister (c) Article 74 (d) Article 66
legislatures. Article 148 : Provision for (c) Governor
the appointment of the Comptroller and (d) Speaker Sol.324.(b) Article 54 - The President
Auditor General of India (CAG) by the shall be elected by the members of an
President. Sol.320.(c) Governor is the electoral college consisting of: (a) the
constitutional head of a state in India, elected members of both Houses of
Q.317. As per article 123, the ordinance appointed by the President. They Parliament; and (b) the elected members
making power is the most important represent the central government at the of the Legislative Assemblies of the
legislative power of ____________. state level. Article 153 - Governors of States.
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) States.
(a) President Q.325. As per article 158, the Governor
(b) Rajya Sabha Q.321. Which of the following Articles shall NOT be a member of either House
(c) Legislative council states that the Prime Minister should be of Parliament or of a House of the
df
(d) Chief Justice of India appointed by the President? Legislature of any State specified in
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) ___________ Schedule.
_p
Sol.317.(a) President. Article 123 of the (a) Article 71 (b) Article 66 SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Indian Constitution allows the President (c) Article 75 (d) Article 62 (a) Seventh (b) Fifth (c) First (d) Third
na
to issue ordinances when Parliament is
not in session, with approval required Sol.321.(c) Article 75. Article 62 - Time Sol.325.(c) First. If a member of either
ap
within six weeks of reassembly. The of holding the election to fill the vacancy House of Parliament or of a House of the
maximum life of an ordinance is six in the office of President and the term of Legislature of any such State be
:@
months and six weeks. Fakhruddin Ali office of the person elected to fill the appointed Governor, he shall be deemed
Ahmed issued the most ordinances in casual vacancy. Article 66 - Election of to have vacated his seat in that House on
India. Article 213 : Power of Governor to Vice-President. Article 71 - Matters the date on which he enters upon his
TG
promulgate Ordinances during recess of relating to, or connected with, the office as Governor. First Schedule - The
Legislature. election of a President or Vice-President. list of names of states and union
territories and their extent and territorial
on
Q.318. Which Article of the Constitution Q.322. Which of the following is the jurisdictions.
of India provides that ‘there shall be a most controversial Article in the Indian
Vice President of India’ ? Constitution, which provides for Q.326. Which part of the Indian
ch
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) President’s rule in any state? Constitution deals with the election of
(a) Article 61 (b) Article 63 SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the Vice President?
ar
(c) Article 65 (d) Article 62 (a) Article 358 (b) Article 356 SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Se
(c) Article 360 (d) Article 352 (a) Part IV (b) Part III
Sol.318.(b) Article 63. (c) Part VI (d) Part V
The Vice President of India is the Sol.322.(b) Article 356. Other Articles :
second-highest constitutional office in Article 352 - Proclamation of Emergency. Sol.326.(d) Part V (Article 52- 151).
India, after the President. Important Article 358 - Suspension of provisions of Article 66 - Election of Vice President.
Articles related to Vice President: Article article 19 during emergencies. Article The Vice-President shall be elected by
64 - The Vice-President to be ex officio 360 - Provisions as to financial the members of an electoral college
Chairman of the Council of States. emergency. consisting of the members of both
Article 65 - The Vice-President to act as Houses of Parliament in accordance with
Q.323. Who is considered the highest the system of proportional
President or to discharge his functions
law officer of the state in India? representation by means of the single
during casual vacancies in the office, or
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) transferable vote and the voting at such
during the absence, of President.
(a) Advocate general election shall be by secret ballot.
Q.319. How many members are (b) Attorney general
nominated by the President to the Rajya (c) Chief justice of high court Q.327. Who among the following was the
Sabha? (d) Auditor general shortest-serving Prime Minister of India?
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.323.(a) Advocate general. It is a (a) Chandra Shekhar
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 15
Constitutional post and its authority is (b) Gulzarilal Nanda
Sol.319.(a) 12. This right is granted to mentioned in article 165 of the Indian (c) Charan Singh
the President under the Fourth Schedule Constitution. Appointment: The Governor (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) of the of each State shall appoint a person
Constitution of India. Every two years, qualified to be a High Court Judge as the Sol.327.(b) Gulzarilal Nanda
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
was an Indian politician and economist 164, which states: "The total number of Sol.334.(c) Chief Minister. According to
specializing in labor issues. He served as Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in Article 164, the Governor appoints the
the Acting Prime Minister of India twice, the Council of Ministers of a State shall Chief Minister, who in turn advises the
for 13 days each, following the deaths of not exceed 15% of the total number of Governor on appointing other Ministers.
Jawaharlal Nehru in 1964 and Lal members of the Legislative Assembly of The Ministers hold office at the pleasure
Bahadur Shastri in 1966. Chandra that State." of the Governor.
Shekhar, known as Jananayak, was
Prime Minister from 10 November 1990 Q.331. Who has the power to prorogue Q.335. Who unfurls the flag at Rajpath on
to 21 June 1991. Chaudhuri Charan the House or either House of State the Republic Day?
Singh briefly served as Prime Minister Legislature from time to time ? Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (a) The Chief of Defence Staff
from 1979 to 1980. Atal Bihari Vajpayee,
(a) Speaker (b) Governor (b) The President of India
an Indian politician and poet, was Prime
(c) Chief Minister (d) Chairman (c) The Chief Minister of Delhi
Minister first for 13 days in 1996, then for
(d) The Prime Minister of India
13 months from 1998 to 1999, and finally Sol.331.(b) Governor. According to
for a full term from 1999 to 2004. Article 174 (1) The Governor shall from Sol.335.(b) The President of India takes
time to time summon the House or each the salute from various units of the Army,
Q.328. In case the President is satisfied
House of the Legislature of the State to Navy, Air force, Para-military, and Police
with the Governor’s report, he may
meet at such time and place as he thinks forces during the parade. This ceremony
declare President’s Rule under Article
fit, but six months shall not intervene commemorates the adoption of the
356 but such proclamation is initially for
between its last sitting in one session country's Constitution on January 26,
a period of ________.
and the date appointed for its first sitting 1950. The Prime Minister of India, on the
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
in the next session. Article 174 (2): The other hand, hoists the national flag on
df
(a) two months (b) one month
Governor may from time to time—(a) Independence Day at the Red Fort.
(c) six months (d) three months
_p
prorogue the House or either House; (b)
Q.336. The Governor’s emoluments are
Sol.328.(c) Six months. Article 356 dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
decided by the:
na
allows the President to issue a
Q.332. Who is considered as the ‘linchpin Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
proclamation if a state's government
of the Government’ ? (a) Prime Minister (b) President
ap
cannot function according to the
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) (c) State Legislature (d) Parliament
Constitution. The President can act
(a) President
:@
based on the governor's report or Sol.336.(d) Parliament. The Governor
independently. This proclamation must (b) Vice - President
(Part VI, Article 153 -167) serves as a
be approved by both Houses of (c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
titular or constitutional head and acts as
(d) Prime Minister
TG
Parliament within two months. It can be the agent of the central government. The
extended for a maximum of three years, Sol.332.(d) The Prime Minister acts as a Governor of State is appointed by the
with parliamentary approval every six link between the Council of Ministers on President. Article 158 (4) - The
on
months. the one hand and the President as well emoluments and allowances of the
as the Parliament on the other. It is this Governor cannot be diminished during
Q.329. Among the following, which is not
his term of office. Article 158(3A) - When
ch
a qualification for membership in the role of the Prime Minister which led Pt.
Nehru described him as 'the linchpin of the same person is appointed as the
Vidhan Sabha
Governor of two or more States, the
ar
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Government'.
emoluments and allowances payable to
(a) Not hold any office of profit
Se
Q.333. Which option is NOT correct in him are shared by the States.
(b) Have attained the age of 25 Years case of appointment of a Governor ?
(c) Citizen of India Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Q.337. The ministers in the state hold
(d) Knowledge of Politics (a) Citizen of India office during the pleasure of the:
(b) Cannot hold any office of profit during Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Sol.329.(d) Knowledge of Politics. The
his tenure (a) Deputy Chief Minister
Legislative Assembly, also known as the
(c) Appointed for six years (b) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Vidhan Sabha, consists of a maximum of
(d) Should be at least 35 years (c) Chief Minister
500 members and a minimum of 60. Its
(d) Governor
tenure is five years, but the Governor can Sol.333.(c) Appointed for six years.
dissolve it before the completion of the Governors in India are appointed by the Sol.337.(d) Governor. Under Article 164
period. President under Article 155 of the (1) The Chief Minister shall be appointed
Constitution, with a tenure of five years. by the Governor and the other Ministers
Q.330. The minimum strength of the
However, they serve at the President's shall be appointed by the Governor on
Council of Ministers in a state as per the
pleasure and can be removed at any the advice of the Chief Minister, and the
Indian Constitution is ________ .
time. Ministers shall hold office during the
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
pleasure of the Governor.
(a) 12 persons (b) 13 persons
Q.334. On whose advice does the
(c) 15 persons (d) 14 persons Q.338. In which year did Dr. Sarvepalli
Governor appoint the ministers ?
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Radhakrishnan assume office as the first
Sol.330.(a) 12 persons. As per the
(a) Prime Minister (b) President Vice-President of India ?
Constitution (91st Amendment) Act,
(c) Chief Minister (d) Vice-President Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
2003, clause 1A was inserted into Article
(a) 1954 (b) 1951 (c) 1952 (d) 1950
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Sol.338.(c) 1952. Dr. Sarvepalli Third - Sh. V.V. Giri (1967-1969). Fourth - membership of Parliament If he holds
Radhakrishnan served as first vice Sh. Gopal Swarup Pathak (1969-1974). any office of profit, unsound mind,
president of India from 1952 to 1962 and Fifth - Sh. B.D.Jatti (1974-1979). undischarged insolvent, Not a citizen of
the second president of India from 1962 India. Other provisions: Anti-Defections
to 1967. He received Bharat Ratna in Q.342. Who will cause every year, annual (10th Schedule), Section 8 of
1954. Teachers' Day is celebrated on financial statements to be laid before the Representation of People Act 1951.
September 5 in India to honor him. Legislative Assembly of the State?
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) Q.345. Who was the Prime Minister of
Q.339. Which Article of the Indian (a) President India when the Fundamental Duties were
Constitution mentions that ‘The (b) Governor first incorporated in the Constitution of
President shall, notwithstanding the (c) Deputy Chief Minister India?
expiration of his/her term, continue to (d) Chief Minister SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
hold office until his successor enters (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
upon his/her office’? Sol.342.(b) Governor: Financial Powers - (b) Indira Gandhi
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Money bill can only be introduced in the (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(a) Article 61 (b) Article 56 state legislature on his prior (d) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Article 58 (d) Article 50 recommendation. No demand for grant
can be made except on his Sol.345.(b) Indira Gandhi : 3rd Prime
Sol.339.(b) Article 56. The President recommendation. Money from the Minister of India and first and, to date,
shall hold office for a term of five years. contingency fund can be withdrawn after only female prime minister of India.
The President may, by writing under his his recommendation for meeting the
hand addressed to the Vice-President, unforeseen expenditures. He constitutes Q.346. Who holds the authority of
resign his office. Other important a finance commission for every 5 years transferring judges from one High court
df
Articles: Article 61 - Procedure for to review the financial situation of to another High Court?
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift)
_p
impeaching the President of India. Article municipalities and panchayats. Article
58 - Qualifications for election as a 112 - Annual financial statement. Article (a) The senior most judge of Supreme
Court
na
President of India. Article 50 - The 200 - Assent to Bills.
separation of the judiciary from the (b) The chief justice of india
Q.343. When the President of India (c) The president of india
ap
executive.
keeps a bill (except money bill and (d) The law minister of india
Q.340. Which Article of the Indian constitutional amendment bill) pending
:@
Constitution mentions that an election to for an indefinite period, it is called______. Sol.346.(c) The President of India
fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) (Article 52). Article 222 - Transfer of a
the term of office of the President shall (a) absolute veto of the President Judge from one High Court to another.
TG
be completed before the expiration of the (b) amendatory veto of the President Article 217 -Appointment and conditions
term? (c) pocket veto of the President of the office of a Judge of a High Court.
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4) (d) suspensive veto of the President Article 124 - Establishment and
on
(a) Article 59 (b) Article 62 constitution of the Supreme Court.
Sol.343.(c) Pocket veto of the President. Article 218 - Application of certain
(c) Article 61 (d) Article 60
Veto Power of the President of India is
ch
provisions relating to the Supreme Court
Sol.340.(b) Article 62. This article also guided by Article 111. Three types of to High Courts. Article 214 - High Courts
Veto Power: Absolute veto, Suspensive
ar
covers the scenario where a vacancy for States.
arises due to the President's death, veto and Pocket veto. Absolute Veto: It
Se
resignation, or removal, requiring the refers to the power of the President to Q.347. Which of the following
election to be held within six months. withhold his assent to a bill passed by statements are correct regarding
Other articles: Article 59: Conditions of the Parliament. The bill then ends and removal of the President of India ?
President’s office. Article 61: Procedure does not become an act. Suspensive A. The impeachment process can be
for impeachment of the President. Article Veto: The President uses a suspensive initiated in either House of Parliament.
60: Oath or affirmation by the President. veto when he returns the bill to the Indian B. The impeachment charges must be
Parliament for its reconsideration. signed by the one-third members of the
Q.341. Who was the second vice - House in which the process is initiated.
President of India? Q.344. The President of India decides on C. In the impeachment process, a 30
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 the question as to the disqualification of days' notice should be given to the
(a) VV Giri Members of Parliament in consultation President.
(b) Krishna Kant with the ____________. D. The impeachment resolution is passed
(c) Dr Zakir Hussain SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) by a majority of two-thirds of the total
(d) Dr S Radhakrishnan (a) Vice President membership of that House.
(b) Supreme Court of India SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Sol.341.(c) Dr Zakir Hussain (1962 (c) Parliament (a) B and C only (b) A, B and C only
-1967) - He was the third President of (d) Election Commission of India (c) A, B, C and D (d) A and D only
India from 1967-1969, and the first Indian
President to die in office in 1969. He was Sol.344.(d) Election Commission of Sol.347.(d) A and D only. Article 61:
awarded Bharat Ratna in 1963. First five India. Article 103 - It deals with the Procedure for impeachment of the
vice presidents of India : First - Dr. decisions of disqualifications of President. The impeachment charges
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (1952-1962). members of Parliament. Article 102 - It must be signed by not less than
provides for Disqualification for
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
one-fourth members of the house in (c) Appointment of the Speaker of the (c) Supreme Court Judge
which the process is initiated. A fourteen Legislative Assembly. (d) Prime Minister
day notice should be given to the (d) Appointment of Advocate General of
Sol.353.(b) President. Article 124 (2) -
president. Impeachment of the President the state in consultation with Attorney
Vests power on the President to appoint
was taken from the US Constitution. general.
every Judge of the Supreme Court
Q.348. Which of the following Sol.350.(a) Article 167 imposes on the including the Chief Justice of India.
statements are correct regarding the Chief Minister the responsibility of Article 124 - States the establishment of
State Executive ? keeping the Governor informed of all the Supreme Court. Article 124 (3) -
A. Article 152 of the Indian Constitution decisions made by the Council of Qualification of Supreme court Judge.
states 'Unless the context otherwise Ministers concerning administration and
Q.354. What is the minimum age (in
requires, the expression 'State' does not legislation. Article 178 - It deals with the
years) a person should be if he/she is
include Jammu and Kashmir'. corresponding position for Speaker and
willing to be appointed as the Governor
B. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Deputy Speaker of the Legislative
of a state in India ?
Act has provided for the appointment of Assembly of a state.
SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Afternoon)
the same person as Governor for two or
Q.351. Who among the following served (a) 28 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 40
more states.
C. The Supreme Court clearly mentioned the shortest tenure as the Prime Minister
Sol.354.(c) 35 years. Article 157 -
that the office of the Governor is under of India ?
Qualifications for appointment as
the control of the Central Government. SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (1st shift)
Governor (must be a citizen of India and
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (4th shift) (a) HD Deva Gowda (b) VP Singh
must have completed 35 years of age).
(a) B and C only (b) A and C only (c) Chandra Shekhar (d) IK Gujral
Article 153 - Governors of States. Article
df
(c) A, B and C (d) A and B only Sol.351.(c) Chandra Shekhar. Shri 154 - Executive power of State. Article
Gulzari Lal Nanda (11 January 1966 - 24 155 - Appointment of Governor. Article
_p
Sol.348.(d) A and B only. Part VI of
January 1966 and 27 May 1964 - 9 June 58 - The presidential candidate must
Constitution (functioning of state
1964) served the shortest tenure as PM. complete the age of 35 years. Article 84
na
government). Articles under Part VI :
H D Deva Gowda (June 1, 1996 - April 21, (b) - the minimum age for Lok Sabha
Article 153 - Governors of a state, Article
1997) - 11th Prime Minister of India. V. P. election shall be 25 years.
ap
154 - Executive power of the state, Article
155 - Appointment of governor, Article Singh (December 2, 1989 - November 10, Q.355. Who administers the Union
1990) - 7th Prime Minister of India.
:@
156 - Terms of office of governor, Article Territories of India?
159 - Oath or affirmation by the governor, Chandra Shekhar (10 November 1990 SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Morning)
Article 163 - Council of ministers to aid and 21 June 1991) - 8th Prime Minister (a) President
of India. The longest-serving prime
TG
and advise governor, Article 165 - (b) Prime Minister
Advocate general for the state. minister was Jawaharlal Nehru, (16 years (c) Chief Minister
and 286 days). (d) Member of Legislative Assembly
Q.349. The Governor of an Indian state
on
before entering upon his office takes an Q.352. The Inter-State Council consists Sol.355.(a) President. The administrator
oath or affirmation before ____________. of ______ ministers of Cabinet rank in the appointed by the President runs the
ch
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (4th shift) Union Council of Ministers nominated by administration on the behalf of the
(a) the Chief Justice of the High Court the Prime Minister of India. President. Part - VIII (Union Territories),
ar
exercising jurisdiction in relation to SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening) Article 239 (Administration of Union
the State (a) six (b) two (c) ten (d) four territories). Article 239A (Creation of
Se
(b) the President of India local legislatures or council of ministers
Sol.352.(a) Six. Inter-State Council - A
(c) the Chief Minister of the concerned or both for certain Union territories.
constitutional body established by the
state Example (Pondicherry). Article 239AA
President of India. Article 263
(d) the Prime Minister of India (Special provisions with respect to Delhi).
contemplates the establishment of an
Sol.349.(a) Article 159 - Oath or inter-state council to effect coordination Q.356. Which of the following
affirmation to the Governor by the Chief between the states and between centre statements are correct regarding the
Justice of the High Court and in his and states. Established by the President benefits of the retired President of India?
Absence, senior most Judge of that of India. Composition of the council - PM A. The former President of India will also
Court available. Article 155 - The as chairman, CM of all the states and be entitled to a monthly pension of ₹2.5
Governor of a State shall be appointed by UTS having legislative assemblies, lakh.
the President. Article 153 - Governors of Administrators of UTs not having B. He/She is entitled to a secretarial staff
States. legislative assemblies, Governors of comprising a private secretary, a
states under President’s rule, Five personal assistant, an additional private
Q.350. What is the duty of the Chief ministers of the cabinet rank are secretary, two peons, and office
Minister, as mentioned under Article 167 permanent invitees of the council. expenses up to ₹1 lakh per annum.
of the Indian Constitution? C. He/She is also entitled to free
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift) Q.353.Who appoints the Chief Justice of
highest-class travel anywhere in India,
(a) Communication of all decisions of the India?
accompanied by one person, by rail, air,
Council of Ministers to the Governor. SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon)
or steamer.
(b) Appointment and removal of Council (a) Vice - President
SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023)
of the Ministers. (b) President
(a) A and B only (b) B and C only
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
(c) A and C only (d) A, B and C (d) public accounts fund President is to be held within _____ of the
expiry of the term of office of the
Sol.356.(d) A, B and C. The President Sol.359.(c) Consolidated Funds - Article outgoing Vice - President.
{Article (52-62)} of India is the head of 266(1). Three types of funds of the SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Afternoon)
state of the Republic of India. First Central Government – Consolidated Fund (a) 90 days (b) 60 days
President - Rajendra Prasad (held office of India - Revenues received by the (c) 120 days (d) 75 days
for two terms, longest serving president government and expenses made by it,
of India). excluding the exceptional items. Sol.363.(b) 60 days. Article 66 of the
Contingency Fund of India (Article 267) - Constitution of India states the manner
Q.357. Who among the following the emergency fund for the nation and of election of the vice president.
Presidents of India was also the deputy Public Accounts of India (Article 266(2) -
chairman of the Planning Commission? those funds that are received on behalf
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Judiciary
of the Government of India.
(a) VV Giri
Q.364. Which of the following
(b) KR Narayanan Q.360. Which is NOT correct about the
statements is correct regarding the
(c) Ramaswamy Venkataraman powers of the Chief Minister?
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of
(d) Pranab Mukherjee Graduate Level 04/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
India?
(a) He allocates portfolios among
Sol.357.(d) Dr. Pranab Mukherjee (13th SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
ministers.
president). Other positions he hold were (a) Article 30 of the Constitution of India
(b) He presides over the meetings of the
Minister of Finance (2009 - 2012), gives the Supreme Court wide original
Council of Ministers.
Minister of Defence (2004 - 2006), jurisdiction.
(c) When he resigns or dies, it has no
Minister of External Affairs (2006 - 2009), (b) Original jurisdiction extends to any
effect in the functioning of the council
df
15th Leader of the Lok Sabha (2004 – dispute between the Government of
of ministers.
2012), Deputy Chairman of the Planning India and one or more states.
_p
(d) The Governor appoints ministers on
Commission (1991 - 1996), 14th Leader (c) The Supreme Court has very wide
His recommendations.
of the Rajya Sabha (1980 – 1984), advisory jurisdiction over all courts
na
Member of Parliament, Lok Sabha (2004 Sol.360.(c) The Governor appoints the and tribunals in India.
- 2012), and Member of Parliament, Rajya Chief Minister and other Ministers (d) The original jurisdiction of the
ap
Sabha (1969 - 1981). V.V Giri (4th (Article 164). The Chief Minister is the Supreme Court can be exercised by a
President), K.R Narayan (10th president). head of the State Council of Ministers certificate granted by the High Court.
:@
Ramaswamy Venkataraman (8th and the real executive head of state
government. Article 167 (Chief Minister Sol.364.(b) According to Article 131 of
president).
acts as a link between Governor and the Indian Constitution, the Supreme
TG
Q.358. Which of the following state council of ministers). Court has original jurisdiction over any
statements about the Vice President of dispute arising between the Government
India is INCORRECT? Q.361. Who among the following is NOT of India and one or more States.
on
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (2nd Shift) appointed by the President of India?
Graduate Level 05/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Q.365. In which year was the first-ever
(a) Members of State legislatures do not
(a) Ambassadors and High motion to remove a Supreme Court
ch
take part in his elections.
Commissioners Justice signed by the members of
(b) He acts as the ex-officio Chairman of
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of Parliament?
ar
the Rajya Sabha.
India SSC MTS 15/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
(c) The Vice President is elected for five
Se
(c) Attorney General of India (a) 1991 (b) 1988 (c) 1993 (d) 1995
years.
(d) He can be removed from his office by (d) Solicitor General of India
Sol.365.(a) 1991. The first motion to
the President approved through a Sol.361.(d) Solicitor General of India remove a Supreme Court Justice was
resolution passed by the Lok Sabha (the second - highest law officer of the signed in 1991 by 108 Parliament
and Rajya Sabha. country) is appointed by the members. It was filed against Justice V.
Appointments Committee of the Cabinet Ramaswami, accused of misconduct
Sol.358.(d) Vice president of India: The during his tenure as Chief Justice of the
vice president is elected for five years. (ACC). Attorney Generals of India (Article
Haryana and Punjab High Court from
Minimum age: 35. He acts as the 76). Comptroller and Auditor General of
November 1987 to October 1989.
ex-officio chairman of the Rajya sabha. In India (Article 148).
the electoral college for Vice President, Q.366. Which Article of the Constitution
Q.362. Who among the following was the
both elected and nominated members of of India grants power to the President to
third Vice - President of India?
both the Houses of Parliament take part. appoint Judges of the Supreme Court?
SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Morning)
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.359. The emoluments and allowances (a) BD Jatti (b) Zakir Hussain
(a) Article 124(2) (b) Article 123(1)
of the President and other expenditure (c) Gopal Swarup Pathak (d) V. V. Giri
(c) Article 127(3) (d) Article 128(4)
relating to his office is charged on the Sol.362.(d) V. V. Giri. Vice Presidents of
______ of India. Sol.366.(a) Article 124(2). It states that
India - 1st Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, 2nd-
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) every Supreme Court judge is appointed
Zakir Hussain, 4th Gopal Swarup Pathak,
(a) contingency fund by the President through a warrant, after
5th B D Jatti. 14th- Jagdeep Dhankhan.
(b) estimates fund consulting judges of the Supreme Court
(c) consolidated fund Q.363. The election of the next Vice - and High Courts as deemed necessary.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Judges hold office until the age of Article 21 and observed that ‘the Right to dispute between the Government of India
sixty-five. Additionally, the Chief Justice education flows directly from the ‘Right and one or more States or between the
of India must always be consulted for the to life’ ? Government of India and any State or
appointment of judges other than the SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) States on one side and one or more
Chief Justice. (a) Mohini Jain v State of Karnataka States on the other or between two or
(b) Neerja Choudhari v State of M. P. more States.
Q.367. The Supreme Court of India (c) Kharak Singh v State of UP B.Appellate Jurisdiction extends when
comprises the Chief Justice and not (d) Malak Singh v State of Punjab the Union plus some States are one side
more than ______ other Judges appointed and some other States on the other side
by the President of India. Sol.370.(a) Mohini Jain v State of
of the dispute.
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift) Karnataka. The Supreme Court declared
C.Under Articles 129 and 142 of the
(a) 37 (b) 35 (c) 38 (d) 33 that it was impermissible for any
Constitution, the Supreme Court has
educational institution to charge
Sol.367.(d) 33. The judges of supreme been vested with the power to punish for
capitation fees as a consideration for
court are appointed by the president contempt of court.
admission. Neeraja Chaudhary vs. State
under the Article 124 (2) of the Indian D. As of now, the International
of Madhya Pradesh - addressed the issue
Constitution. Supreme Court Judges Commercial Arbitration cannot be
of bonded labor. Kharak Singh v State of
retire at the age of 65. As per Article 124 initiated in the Supreme Court.
UP - focused on the constitutional review
(3) - In order to be appointed as a Judge SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
of Uttar Pradesh Police Regulations.
of the Supreme Court, a person must be (a) B and D only (b) A and C only
a citizen of India and must have been, for Q.371. Which of the following (c) A, B, C and D (d) A and B only
at least five years, a Judge of a High organisations said that India CANNOT
Sol.373.(b) A and C only. Advisory
Court or an Advocate of a High Court for have a parallel judicial system - one for
df
Jurisdiction (Article 143) - The President
at least 10 years or he must be, in the the rich and the other for the poor?
to seek the opinion of the Supreme
_p
opinion of the President, a distinguished SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
Court. The appellate jurisdiction of the
jurist. (a) Gujarat High Court
Supreme Court can be invoked by a
na
(b) Supreme Court
Q.368. Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI of certificate granted by the High Court
(c) Himachal High Court
the Indian Constitution deal with the ____. concerned under Article 132(1), 133(1) or
ap
(d) Kerala High Court
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift) 134 of the Constitution. The Supreme
(a) High Courts Sol.371.(b) Supreme Court (SC). Court (Article 124) of India is the apex
:@
(b) District Courts Important Judgements of SC: Navtej judicial body under the Constitution of
(c) Subordinate Courts Singh Johar vs. Union Of India (2018) - India. Inaugurated - On January, 28, 1950.
(d) Supreme Court Decriminalized homosexuality by striking
TG
down parts of Section 377 of the IPC. Q.374. The advisory board under
Sol.368.(a) High Courts. Articles 214 to K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India provisions of Article 22 of the
231 in Part VI of the Constitution deal (2017) - Recognized the right to privacy Constitution is to be consisted of
on
with the organization, independence, as a fundamental right under Article 21. persons who are, or have been or are
jurisdiction, powers, and procedures of Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug Vs. Union qualified to be appointed as __________.
the high courts. SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
ch
of India (2011) - Upheld the
constitutionality of passive euthanasia. (a) Judges of Supreme court
Q.369. Which writ is issued by a high (b) Judges of Lower court
ar
court or supreme court when a lower Q.372. Which Article of the Indian (c) Judges of High court
court has considered a case going
Se
Constitution mentions that the law (d) Judges of District court
beyond its jurisdiction? declared by the Supreme Court shall be
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift) binding on all the courts within the Sol.374.(c) Judges of High court.
(a) Quo Warrant (b) Habeas Corpus territory of India? Related Articles : Article 214 - High
(c) Certiorari (d) Prohibition SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Courts for States. Article 215 - High
(a) Article 151 (b) Article 147 Courts to be courts of record. Article 216
Sol.369.(d) Prohibition. Writs are issued
(c) Article 137 (d) Article 141 - Constitution of High Courts. Article 217
by the Supreme Court under Article 32
- Appointment and conditions of the
and by the High Court under Article 226 Sol.372.(d) Article 141. Other Articles: office of a Judge of a High Court. Article
of the Indian Constitution. The five types Article 137 - Review of judgments or 218 - Application of certain provisions
of writs in India are: Habeas Corpus: orders by the Supreme Court. Article 147 relating to the Supreme Court to High
Ensures that a detained person is - Any substantial question of law as to Courts. Article 219 - Oath or affirmation
brought before the court. Mandamus: the interpretation of the Constitution by Judges of High Courts. Article 220 -
Directs a public official to perform a duty. shall be construed as including Restriction on practice after being a
Certiorari: Transfers a case for review by references to any substantial question of permanent Judge.
a higher court. Prohibition: Prevents a law as to the interpretation. Article 151 -
lower court from exceeding its Audit reports. Q.375. The Federal Court of India was
jurisdiction. Quo-Warranto: Questions the established in Delhi by the Act of ______.
legal authority of someone holding a Q.373. Which of the following Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
public office. statements are correct regarding the (a) 1908 (b) 1919 (c) 1905 (d) 1935
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of
Q.370. In which judgement did the India? Sol.375.(d) 1935. The Federal Court of
Supreme Court extend the scope of A.Original jurisdiction extends to any India was a judicial body that operated
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
from 1937 to 1950, when it was replaced preventive detention. Sajjan Singh vs July 2022.
by the Supreme Court of India. The State of Rajasthan - Involved a challenge 2. The Bill amends the Family Courts Act,
Federal Court had jurisdiction to solve to the validity of the Constitution (26th 1984.
disputes between provinces and federal Amendment) Act. 3. The Act allows state governments to
states. Calcutta High court is the oldest establish Family Courts.
Q.379. The State of Kerala Vs Leesamma
high court in India (established in the 4. The Act is not applicable in Punjab and
Joseph case deals with __________.
year 1862). Justice Harilal Jekisundas Tamil Nadu.
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Kania was the first (Indian) Chief Justice (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(a) dowry
of India. (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(b) the economic weaker section
Q.376. Which Article of the Indian (c) education Sol.382.(a) 1, 2 and 3. Family Courts
Constitution mentions that there shall be (d) persons with disabilities (Amendment) Bill 2022 seeks to amend
a Supreme Court of India? the Family Courts Act, 1984 to establish
Sol.379.(d) persons with disabilities.
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3) family courts in Himachal Pradesh and
This case was related to Article 16 (equal
(a) Article 123 (b) Article 121 Nagaland. Family Court Act, 1984 -
opportunity in the workplace). The SC
(c) Article 122 (d) Article 124 Enacted for the establishment of Family
held that persons with physical
Courts with a view to promote
Sol.376.(d) Article 124. Article 121 - disabilities have the right to reservation
conciliation, and secure speedy
Restriction on discussion in Parliament. in promotions. Other Important Cases -
settlement of disputes relating to
Article 122 - Courts not to inquire into Kesavananda Bharati case: The Supreme
marriage and family affairs and for
proceedings of Parliament. Court gave the doctrine of the ‘Basic
related matters.
Structure’ of the constitution. Shayara
Q.377. Disputes between two or more Bano vs Union of India: The Supreme Q.383. The High court of Delhi was
df
states come under the _______ of the Court struck down the practice of triple
Supreme Court. established in _______.
_p
talaq and declared it unconstitutional. SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening)
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
(a) original jurisdiction Q.380. The Supreme Court of India came (a) 1962 (b) 1947 (c) 1951 (d) 1966
na
(b) advisory jurisdiction into existence on ___________ .
Sol.383.(d) 1966. The High Court of
(c) Appellate Jurisdiction SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift)
ap
Delhi was established with four Judges.
(d) writ jurisdiction (a) 30 January 1935 (b) 26 January 1950
They were Chief Justice K.S.Hegde,
(c) 15 August 1947 (d) 2 October 1952
Justice I.D. Dua, Justice H.R.Khanna and
:@
Sol.377.(a) Original jurisdiction - The
power to hear and determine a dispute in Sol.380.(b) 26 January 1950. Justice S.K.Kapur. Before 1966 under the
the first instance. It is provided under The Supreme Court was inaugurated in States Reorganisation Act, 1956 Delhi
TG
Article 131 of the Indian Constitution. the Chamber of Princes in the Parliament was under the jurisdiction of the Punjab
Article 143 of the Indian Constitution House on January 28, 1950. The High Court.
confers upon the Supreme Court foundation stone of the Supreme Court
Q.384. The first High Court in India was
on
advisory jurisdiction. Article 133 - building was laid by the first President of
established in ______________ .
Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court India, Rajendra Prasad, on October 29,
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning)
in appeals from High Courts in regard to 1954. The 50th Chief Justice of India is
ch
(a) 1860 (b) 1862 (c) 1867 (d) 1857
civil matters. Dhananjaya Y. Chandrachud.
Sol.384.(b) 1862. Calcutta High Court: It
ar
Q.378. In which of the following cases Q.381. Till which year did the High Court
was brought into existence under the
the Supreme Court, while laying out the of Delhi continue to exercise jurisdiction
Se
High Court's Act (1861). Location -
'basic structure' of the Constitution held over Himachal Pradesh?
Esplanade Row West (Kolkata).
that the democratic character of the SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Jurisdiction - West Bengal and the
polity was an essential component of the (a) 1969 (b) 1967 (c) 1971 (d) 1968
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Bombay
'basic structure" ?
Sol.381.(c) 1971. The Indian High Courts High Court {(14 August 1862) (Indian
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
Act (1861) established High Courts of High Courts Act 1861)}, Madras High
(a) Romesh Thappar vs State of Madras
Calcutta, Madras and Bombay. The first Court {(15 August 1862, Indian High
(b) AK Gopalan vs State of Madras
high court of India was established in Courts Act 1861}.
(c) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of
Kerala Kolkata and formally it was called the
Q.385. In which of the following cases
(d) Sajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan High Court of Judicature at Fort William.
did the Supreme Court of India
India has 25 High Courts (now). Article
Sol.378.(c) This judgement was pronounce the theory of the ‘Basic
214 - High Court for each State. Article
delivered on 24 April 1973. The case was Structure’ of the Constitution?
226 - Power of high court to issue certain
filed by Sri Kesavananda Bharati (head of SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift)
writs. Article 216 - Constitution of High
a Hindu religious mutt in Kerala), (a) Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973
Court.
challenging the constitutional validity of (b) Golaknath Case, 1967
the 24th, 25th and 29th Amendments to Q.382. Which of the following (c) Minerva Mills Case, 1980
the Indian Constitution. Romesh Thappar statements are true regarding the Family (d) Swarn Singh Case, 1989
vs State of Madras: Freedom of speech Courts (Amendment) Bill, 2022? Sol.385.(a) Kesavananda Bharati Case,
and expression includes Freedom of Graduate Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 4) 1973 - Parliament can not amend or alter
press. AK Gopalan vs State of Madras - 1. The Family Courts (Amendment) Bill the ‘Basic Structure’ of the constitution.
Deals with the constitutionality of was introduced in Lok Sabha on 18 Golaknath Case, 1967 - Parliament
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
cannot take away or abridge any of the majority as per Article 249 requires a Sol.392.(b) 4. The Finance Commission
Fundamental Rights. Minerva Mills Case, majority of 2/3rd members present and is a constitutional body set up by the
1980 - Parliament can amend any part of voting. For example, if out of the 245 President of India under Article 280 of
the Constitution but it cannot change the members in Rajya Sabha, only 150 are the Indian Constitution. Its primary
“Basic Structure” of the Constitution. present and voting, then the special function is to recommend the distribution
Swarn Singh Case, 1998 - In this case, majority required as per Article 249 of financial resources between the Union
the SC held the UP Governor's pardon of would be 101. Simple majority refers to a (Central Government) and States. The
a convict unconstitutional. majority of more than 50% of the Commission is set up for a period of five
members present and voting in the years.
Q.386. What is the structure of the Indian House. Majorities in the Constitution can Q.393. In which of the following years
judiciary? be categorised into four Types : was the Election Commission of India
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift) Absolute, Effective, Simple and Special. founded?
(a) One-tier (b) Two-tier
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) Three-tier (d) Five-tier Q.390. Which is NOT correct about the
(a) 1955 (b) 1952 (c) 1950 (d) 1947
independence of the judiciary in our
Sol.386.(c) Three-tier. The structure of country? Sol.393.(c) 1950. Election Commission
the judiciary - Supreme Court (Article SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) of India (ECI) is a permanent
124) at the top, High Courts (Article 214) (a) The judiciary has the power to Constitutional Body. The Commissioners
below them and session’s courts at the penalise those who are found guilty have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to
lowest level. of contempt of court. the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Q.387. A judge of the Supreme Court can (b) The judges are financially dependent
on both the executive and legislature Q.394. What is the tenure of office for the
be removed only on the grounds of ______
Chief Election Commissioner?
df
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) for their salaries and allowances.
(c) The Constitution prescribes a very SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) disrespect of the Constitution
_p
difficult procedure for removal of (a) 6 years or up to the age of 65 years
(b) proven misbehaviour or incapacity
judges. (b) 5 years or up to the age of 65 years
(c) murder charges
na
(d) The legislature is not involved in the (c) 5 years or up to the age of 60 years
(d) lack of knowledge
process of appointment of judges. (d) 6 years or up to the age of 60 years
ap
Sol.387.(b) Proven misbehaviour or
Sol.390.(b) Judges salaries and Sol.394.(a) 6 years or up to the age of
incapacity. Article 124 - There shall be a
:@
allowances are fixed and not subject to 65 years. Article 324 - Superintendence,
Supreme Court of India. Article 143 -
legislative approval. Supreme Court direction and control of elections to be
Power of the President to consult the
Judges {The Salaries, Pension and vested in an Election Commission : (2)
Supreme Court.
TG
Allowances are charged upon the The Election Commission shall consist
Q.388. Which of the following Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266 of the Chief Election Commissioner and
jurisdictions of the Supreme Court allows (1)}, High Court Judges {Salaries and such number of other Election
on
it to settle disputes between the centre Allowances are charged upon the Commissioners, if any, as the President
and state and amongst states ? Consolidated Fund of the States and the may from time to time fix and the
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift) Pension is charged on the Consolidated appointment of the Chief Election
ch
(a) Appellate (b) Advisory Fund of India} . Commissioner and other Election
(c) Writ (d) Original Commissioners shall, subject to the
ar
Q.391. The Indian judicial system is provisions of any law made in that behalf
Sol.388.(d) Original. The Supreme Court based on: by Parliament, be made by the President.
Se
(Articles 124 to 147, Part V) has Original SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
(Article 131), Appellate (Article 133-136), (a) both integrated and dual system Q.395. Who among the following is NOT
and Advisory (Article 143) jurisdiction. (b) dual court system a member of the National Human Rights
Under Original Jurisdiction, SC can hear (c) multiple court system Commission?
the following cases: Any dispute (d) single integrated system SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
between the Indian Government and one (a) District Magistrate
or more States, Any dispute between the Sol.391.(d) single integrated system. (b) Former Chief Justice of the High
Indian Government and one or more The judiciary is the watchdog of Court
States on one side and one or more democracy, and also the guardian of the (c) Former Chief Justice of the Supreme
States on the other side, Any dispute Constitution. Structure of Indian Court
between two or more States. Judiciary {Supreme Court at the top, High (d) Former Judge of the Supreme Court
Courts are below the SC, and below them
Q.389. A Supreme Court or High Court are the district and subordinate courts}. Sol.395.(a) District Magistrate : They are
judge can be removed by the Parliament administrative officers who are
by: Government Bodies responsible for maintaining law and
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon) order in their respective districts.
(a) simple majority National Human Rights Commission
Q.392. How many other members are
(b) both simple and two third majority (NHRC): It is a statutory body established
there in the Finance Commission
(c) special majority on October 12, 1993.
EXCEPT, Chairman ?
(d) two third majority SSC MTS 21/10/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.396. Which part of the Indian
(a) 6 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 5 Constitution deals with the Election
Sol.389.(c) Special majority. Special
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Commission? (b) Ministry of Home Affairs recommend the distribution of tax
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs revenues between the central
(a) Part XV (b) Part XII (d) Ministry of Rural Development government and the states. The first
(c) Part IV (d) Part XI finance commission was constituted in
Sol.399.(b) Ministry of Home Affairs.
1951. It is constituted for every five
Sol.396.(a) Part XV (Article 324-329). Registrar General and Census
years.
The Election Commission of India (ECI, Commissioner of India, founded in 1961
Established - 25th January 1950) is an by the Government of India, Ministry of Q.402. Which Article of the Indian
autonomous constitutional authority Home Affairs, for arranging, conducting Constitution mentions about the
responsible for administering Union and and analysing the results of the recommendations of the Finance
State election processes in India. demographic surveys of India including Commission?
Originally the commission had only one Census of India and Linguistic Survey of Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
election commissioner but after the India. Headquarters - Delhi. (a) Article 281 (b) Article 283
Election Commissioner Amendment Act (c) Article 282 (d) Article 284
Q.400. Who among the following are
1989, it was made a multi-member body.
eligible for free legal aid under the Sol.402.(a) Article 281 - The President
Q.397. UPSC is a Constitutional Body to National Legal Services Authority? shall cause every recommendation made
conduct examinations for appointments A. A member of a Scheduled Caste or by the Finance Commission under the
to the services of the Union and the Scheduled Tribe. provisions of this Constitution together
services of the State, respectively, under B. A victim of trafficking in human beings with an explanatory memorandum as to
Article ________ or beggar as referred to in Article 23 of the action taken thereon to be laid before
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) the Constitution each House of Parliament. Article 282 -
(a) 320 (b) 324 (c) 328 (d) 332 C. An industrial workman Expenditure defrayable by the Union or a
df
D. A person under circumstances of State out of its revenues. Article 283 -
Sol.397.(a) Article 320. Article 324
_p
undeserved want such as being a victim Custody, etc., of Consolidated Funds,
establishes a single Commission to of a mass disasters Contingency Funds and moneys credited
oversee elections to the Central
na
E. To file any case in Supreme Court, if to the public accounts.
Legislature, including both the Upper and any person needs free legal aid, the
Lower Houses. Article 328 grants state Q.403. What is the maximum age for a
ap
person’s annual income must be below
legislatures the authority to create 10 lakhs. member of a joint public service
provisions for elections to their commission to hold his/her office as per
:@
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
respective legislatures, including the (a) A, B, C and D only (b) A, B and E only the Constitution of India ?
preparation of electoral rolls, delimitation (c) B, C and D only (d) A, B, C, D and E SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening)
of constituencies, and other (a) 62 years (b) 66 years
TG
arrangements for the constitution of the Sol.400.(a) A, B, C and D only. (c) 65 years (d) 60 years
legislature. Article 332 reserves seats in According to the National Legal Services
state legislative assemblies for Authority (NALSA), the following Sol.403.(a) 62 years. Joint State Public
on
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. individuals are eligible for free legal aid: Service Commission (JSPSC) - It can be
women and children, mentally ill or created by an act of Parliament at the
Q.398. The establishment of Union
ch
disabled persons, and victims of mass request of the state legislatures
Public Service Commission, State Public concerned. It is a statutory body. Its
disasters, violence, floods, droughts,
Service Commissions and Joint Public
ar
earthquakes, and industrial disasters. chairman is appointed by the President.
Service Commission falls under which of A member of a Public Service
NALSA was founded in 1995 under the
Se
the following features of the Constitution Commission shall hold office for a term
Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987 to
of India ? of six years. In the case of the Union
provide free legal services to the weaker
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) Commission, his or her minimum age is
sections of society. Its headquarters is
(a) Parliamentary Government 65 years to attain the office.
located in New Delhi.
(b) Federalism
(c) Fundamental Rights Q.401. The Finance Commission of India Q.404. Who was the first chairman of
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy consists of ________. Finance Commission of India?
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning)
Sol.398.(b) Federalism : It refers to a
(a) a Chairperson and four other (a) K Santhanam
form of government in which power is
members (b) KC Neogy
distributed among different layers of
(b) a Chairperson and three other (c) Ashok Kumar Chanda
government. Union Public Service
members (d) PV Rajamannar
Commission is a central recruitment
(c) a Chairperson and two other
agency, while State Public Service Sol.404.(b) KC Neogy.
members
Commission is responsible for state level The Finance Commission of India is an
(d) a Chairperson and five other
recruitment. These are constitutional independent constitutional body that is
members
bodies. set up by the President of India after
Sol.401.(a) A Chairperson and four other every five years or earlier to make
Q.399. The Office of the Registrar
members. The Finance Commissions are recommendations on the distribution of
General and Census Commissioner, India
periodically constituted by the President financial resources between the Union
comes under the:
of India under Article 280 of the Indian and the states.
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
(a) Ministry of Finance Constitution. Its main function is to
Q.405. Under which of the following Acts
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
was the National Commission for (b) Election Commission C. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution
Women established? (c) President talks about the recommendations of the
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) (d) Prime Minister Finance Commission.
(a) The National Commission for Women SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift)
Sol.408.(b) Election Commission -
Act, 1988 (a) A and B only (b) A, B and C
established in 1950. Part XV Election
(b) The National Commission for Women (c) A only (d) B and C only
Commission (324 - 329): Article 326 -
Act, 1990
Elections to the House of the People and Sol.411.(c) A only. Finance Commission
(c) The National Commission for Women
to the Legislative Assemblies of States (FC) is a constitutional body under
Act, 1989
to be on the basis of adult suffrage. Article 280. It is set up after every five
(d) The National Commission for Women
Act, 1987 years or earlier to make
Q.409. In India, which Ministry issues the
recommendations on the distribution of
coins of all denominations ?
Sol.405.(b) The National Commission for financial resources between the Union
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift)
Women is a statutory body set up in and the states.
(a) Ministry of External Affairs
January 1992 under the National
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs Q.412. Which of the following is NOT a
Commission for Women Act, 1990 to
(c) Ministry of Mines Constitutional Body in India?
review the constitutional and legal
(d) Ministry Of Finance Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
safeguards for women; recommend
remedial legislative measures; facilitate (a) Election Commission of India
Sol.409.(d) Ministry of Finance. The
redressal of grievances and advise the (b) State Human Rights Commission
Government of India has the sole right to
Government on all policy matters (c) State Public Service Commission
mint coins. The responsibility for coinage
affecting women. The First Commission (d) Union Public Service Commission of
vests with the Government of India in
India
df
was constituted on 31st January 1992 accordance with the Coinage Act, 1906
with Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik as the as amended from time to time. The Sol.412.(b) State Human Rights
_p
Chairperson. designing and minting of coins in various Commission - It is a Statutory body,
Q.406. Which of the following is denominations is also the responsibility established under protection of human
na
responsible for attending to disputes of the Government of India. Coins are right act 1993. The Chairman and the
concerning recruitment and conditions of minted at the four Indian Government members of the State Commission are
ap
service of public personnel at the Centre? Mints at Mumbai, Alipore (Kolkata), appointed by the Governor. Tenure -
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Saifabad (Hyderabad), Cherlapally Three years or till they reach the age of
:@
(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (Hyderabad) and Noida (UP). It is issued 70 years.
(b) The Settlement and Appellate for circulation only through the Reserve
Tribunal Bank in terms of the RBI Act. Q.413. In which year did the Election
TG
(c) The Competition Appellate Tribunal Commission of India for the first time in
Q.410. The Chairman of a State Public its history become a multi member body?
(d) Joint Administrative Tribunal
Service Commission can be removed by Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
on
Sol.406.(a) Central Administrative the order of the __________ . (a) 2004 (b) 2014 (c) 1995 (d) 1989
Tribunal (CAT) - It is a Statutory body, SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift)
established under Administrative (a) Prime Minister (b) President Sol.413.(d) 1989.
ch
Tribunals Act, 1985. It comes under the (c) Governor (d) Chief Minister The Election Commission of India (ECI)
purview of Article 323-A (Added by 42nd is a constitutional body. The Election
ar
Sol.410.(b) President. Provisions Commissioner Amendment Act, 1989
amendment act 1976). Its chairman and
regarding the composition of SPSC
Se
members are appointed by the President (adopted on 1 January 1990) turned the
provided in Part XIV of the Article 315 - commission into a 3-member
after consulting the Chief justice of India.
323. Article 317: Removal and Commission. The ECI body administers
Q.407. Who appoints the State Election suspension of a member of both the elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha,
Commissioner ? UPSC or SPSC. Article 316 (Appointment State Legislative Assemblies, State
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (1st Shift) and terms of office of Members) : The Legislative Councils and the offices of
(a) Governor (b) Speaker Chairman and other members of the the President and the Vice President of
(c) Chief Minister (d) Advocate General SPSC are appointed by the Governor of the country.
the State. Term of Office: A member of
Sol.407.(a) Governor. The State Election Q.414. The Gram Sabha is a meeting of
the SPSC shall hold office for a term of
Commissioner (SEC) is appointed by the all adults who live in the area covered by
six years or till the age of 62 years,
Governor on the recommendation of a a ___________.
whichever is earlier.
collegium, comprising the Chief Minister, SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon)
the Speaker of the State Legislative Q.411. Which of the following (a) district (b) city
Assembly and the Leader of Opposition statements is/are correct regarding the (c) state (d) panchayat
in the Legislative Assembly. Power of Finance Commission of India?
SEC - To conduct free, fair and impartial A. The Finance Commission consists of Sol.414.(d) Panchayat. The term Gram
elections to the local bodies in the state. a Chairman and four other members. Sabha is defined in the Constitution of
B. The recommendations made by the India under Article 243(b). Gram Sabha is
Q.408. Who conducts elections for both
Finance Commission are binding on the the primary body of the Panchayati Raj
the houses of Parliament in India?
government and government needs to system and by far the largest. It is a
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
grant funds according to the advice of permanent body. The power to annul a
(a) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
the Commission. decision of the Gram Sabha rests with
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
the Gram Sabha only. Related Articles - SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (4th Shift) Polity of neighbouring
243A - Constitution of Gram Sabha. (a) 5, state government
countries
(b) 5, central government
Q.415. The Bureau of Indian Standard is (c) 2.5, state government
a statutory body working under the aegis Q.422. What is the official language of
(d) 2.5, central government
of which union ministry? Bangladesh, a neighbouring country of
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift) Sol.418.(a) 5, state government. India ?
(a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry According to Article 243 (I), the Governor SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening)
(b) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium of a State shall establish a State Finance (a) Bengali (b) Urdu
Enterprises Commission (constitutional body) every (c) Dzongkha (d) Hindi
(c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs 5 years (73rd Amendment Act 1992). It
Sol.422.(a) Bengali. Bangladesh: Capital
(d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food distributes state resources to Panchayati
- Dhaka. Currency - Bangladeshi Taka
and Public Distribution Raj institutions at all three levels in the
Other Nation’s Official Languages: Urdu
form of taxes, duties, and levies to be
Sol.415.(d) The Ministry of Consumer (Pakistan), Dzongkha (Bhutan), Hindi
collected by the state and local
Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. It (India), Tamil (Sri Lanka), Mandarin
governments.
operates various schemes like Product (China), Burmese (Myanmar), Dari and
Certification (ISI mark), Management Q.419. In which year was the National Pashto (Afghanistan), Nepali (Nepal) and
Systems Certification, Hallmarking of Commission for Protection of Child Dhivehi (Maldives).
Gold and Silver Jewellery/Artefacts and Rights established?
Q.423. Sri Lanka got independence in the
Laboratory Services. Bureau of Indian SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
year:
Standards (BIS), earlier known as the (a) 2014 (b) 2007 (c) 2005 (d) 2010
Higher Secondary 04/08/2022 ( Shift - 3 )
Indian Standards Institution (ISI), was
df
Sol.419.(b) 2007. (a) 1948 (b) 1950 (c) 1947 (d) 1949
founded in 1947.
The National Commission for Protection
_p
Sol.423.(a) 1948. Sri Lanka got
Q.416. Which of the following is NOT one of Child Rights (NCPCR) is an Indian
independence on February 4, 1948.
of the objectives of the NITI Aayog ? statutory body established by an Act of
na
National animal of Sri Lanka - Elephant,
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift) Parliament, the Commission for
National flower - Blue Water Lily, The
(a) To develop mechanisms to formulate Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act,
ap
national sport - Volleyball. Myanmar (4
credible plans at the village level 2005. The Commission works under the
January, 1948). Bangladesh (26 March
(b) To design and print new currency aegis of Ministry of Women and Child
:@
1971).
notes and to bring them in circulation Development, GoI.
(c) To pay special attention to the Q.424. To which neighbouring country
sections of our society that may be at Q.420. What is the tenure of the
TG
was the Indian Peace Keeping Force
risk of not benefiting adequately from Chairperson of National Human Rights
(IPKF) sent in the year 1987?
economic progress. Commission?
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening)
(d) To evolve a shared vision of national Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
on
(a) Nepal (b) Sri Lanka
development priorities (a) Three Years (b) Five Years
(c) Bhutan (d) Burma
(c) Six Years (d) Four Years
ch
Sol.416.(b) NITI Aayog: National Sol.424.(b) Sri Lanka. It was formed
Institution for Transforming India, Sol.420.(a) Three years (or until they
under the mandate of the 1987 Indo-Sri
attain the age of 70 years). National
ar
Established: 1 January 2015, Chairman: Lankan Accord that aimed to end the Sri
Prime Minister of India, First Chairman: Human Rights Commission: Statutory
Lankan Civil War between Sri Lankan
Se
Narendra Modi, First CEO (Chief body, Founded: 12 October, 1993,
Tamil militant groups such as the
Executive Officer): Sindhushree Khullar, Composition: chairperson, five full-time
Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE)
First Vice - Chairperson: Arvind Members and seven deemed Members,
and the Sri Lankan military.
Panagariya. Appointed by the President.
Q.425. In which year was a new
Q.417. The elections to the Panchayati Q.421. In which year was the National
Constitution adopted in Sri Lanka
Raj institutions are conducted by the Commission for Women established in
creating the 'Democratic The Socialist
________. India ?
Republic of Sri Lanka'?
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (3rd Shift) Higher Secondary 02/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Evening)
(a) Central election commission (a) 1992 (b) 1994 (c) 1993 (d) 1991
(a) 1978 (b) 1965 (c) 1982 (d) 1980
(b) State government Sol.421.(a) 1992. Other Commissions -
(c) State election commission Sol.425.(a) 1978. The Constitution of the
The National Commission for Scheduled
(d) Central government Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri
Castes (2004). National Commission for
Lanka has been the constitution of the
Sol.417.(c) State election commission Scheduled Tribes (2004), National
island nation of Sri Lanka since its
functions - Conducting elections to the Commission for Minorities (1993),
original promulgation by the National
Panchayati Raj institutions, Preparation National Commission for Backward
State Assembly on 7 September 1978.
of Electoral Rolls, Appointment of Dates Classes (1993).
for Nominations, Fixing Time for Poll, Q.426. In which year did Nepal adopt its
Counting of Votes, etc. first democratic constitution?
SSC CHSL 11/8/2021 (Evening)
Q.418. The State Finance Commission is (a) 2010 (b) 2015 (c) 2013 (d) 2017
appointed every_____ years by the_______
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Sol.426. (b) 2015. (c) Socialist Party (d) Liberal Party Supreme Court of India
Nepal's first democratic constitution (d) Status of party is accorded by the
came into effect on Sept 20, 2015. The Sol.430.(b) Labour Party. In the 1945 Parliament.
constitution of Nepal is divided into 35 general elections in Britain, the Labour
parts, 308 Articles, and 9 Schedules. Party, under the leadership of Clement Sol.434.(b) Multi-party system: More
Attlee, achieved a decisive victory, than two parties have a reasonable
defeating Winston Churchill's chance of coming to power either on
Miscellaneous
Conservative Party. Democratic Party is their own strength or in alliance with
one of the two major political parties, others. As of September 2024, there are
Q.427. On which date did Punjab abolish
alongside the Republican Party, in the six National parties in India : BJP, INC,
the Legislative Council?
United States. Communist Party of India - Marxist
SSC MTS 30/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(CPI-M), Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP),
(a) 1 January 1971 (b) 1 January 1977 Q.431. The concept of Public Interest National People's Party (NPP) and Aam
(c) 1 January 1975 (d) 1 January 1970 Litigation originated in _______________. Aadmi Party (AAP).
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.427.(d) 1 January 1970. The Punjab
(a) Switzerland (b) Iceland Q.435. In which of the following years
Legislative Council (Abolition) Act, 1969
(c) USA (d) New Zealand was the Right of Persons with Disabilities
abolished the Legislative Council of
Act passed?
Punjab, leading to the cessation of its Sol.431.(c) USA. Public Interest SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift)
members' positions. It amended Article Litigation (PIL) means litigation filed in a (a) 2010 (b) 2002 (c) 2016 (d) 2019
168 of the Constitution, removing court of law, for the protection of “Public
reference to Punjab, and made changes Interest”, such as Pollution, Terrorism, Sol.435.(c) 2016. The Rights of Persons
to the Representation of the People Act, Road safety, Constructional hazards etc. with Disabilities (RPwD) Act came into
df
1950. The concept of PIL was initially sown in force from 19th April, 2017. It replaced
India by Justice Krishna Iyer, in 1976 in the Persons with Disabilities (Equal
_p
Q.428. The ‘Rule of Law’ is a key feature
Mumbai Kamagar Sabha vs. Abdul Thai. Opportunities, Protection of Rights and
of the Indian Constitution which is a
Full Participation) Act, 1995. Objective -
na
doctrine ascribed to _____________. Q.432. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar described To ensure that all persons with
SSC MTS 14/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Directive Principles of State Policy as disabilities can lead their lives with
ap
(a) Plato (b) Adam Smith __________of the Indian constitution. dignity, without discrimination and with
(c) Albert Venn Dicey (d) Karl Marx SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) equal opportunities.
:@
(a) soul of the state
Sol.428.(c) Albert Venn Dicey was a Q.436. When did a States Reorganisation
(b) identity card of the constitution
British Whig jurist and constitutional Commission was set up, which
(c) The most precious part of the
TG
theorist. Adam Smith is most famous for recommended the creation of linguistic
constitution
his 1776 book, "The Wealth of Nations." States on the basis of larger linguistic
(d) a novel feature of the constitution
Karl Marx is best known for his theories groups?
on
that led to the development of Marxism. Sol.432.(d) a novel feature of the Indian SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift)
His books, "Das Kapital" and "The constitution. (a) December 1963 (b) December 1953
Communist Manifesto," formed the basis (c) December 1956 (d) December 1958
ch
of Marxism. Plato was an ancient Greek Q.433. The British Parliament introduced
philosopher. the Indian High Courts Act in which year? Sol.436.(b) December 1953. India faced
ar
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) demands to reorganise states based on
Q.429. The National Population Register (a) 1860 (b) 1861 (c) 1859 (d) 1858 regional languages after independence.
Se
was created under the provisions of In November 1956, India underwent
___________ and ___________ . Sol.433.(b) 1861. The India High Courts
division into 14 states and six union
a. the Citizenship Act, 1965 Act 1861 was enacted to create High
territories through the implementation of
b. the Citizenship Rules, 2004 Courts for various provinces and
the State Reorganisation Act. The Andhra
c. the Citizenship Act, 1955 abolished Supreme Courts at Calcutta,
State held the distinction of being the
d. the Citizenship Rules, 2003 Madras and Bombay and also the Sadar
first state of Independent India, and it
SSC MTS 05/11/2024 (3rd Shift) Adalats in Presidency towns. The first
was later transformed into Andhra
(a) a; c (b) a; b (c) b; d (d) c; d High Court was established in Calcutta
Pradesh on the 1st of November 1956.
on July 1, 1862. The Supreme Court of
The State Reorganisation Commission
Sol.429.(d) c; d. The Citizenship Act, India was established by the Regulating
was chaired by Fazal Ali, and two other
1955 provides for the acquisition and Act of 1773.
members, namely K. M. Panikkar and H.
loss of citizenship after the
Q.434. Which of the following N. Kunzru.
commencement of the Constitution.
Originally, the Act 1955 also provided for statements is correct with respect to the Q.437. Which of the following states is
Commonwealth Citizenship. But, this political parties in India? one of those states that have no
provision was repealed by the Citizenship SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Panchayati Raj Institution at all?
(Amendment) Act, 2003. (a) A political party symbol is assigned SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
by the President of India. (a) Assam (b) Gujarat
Q.430. Which party formed the (b) India has a multi-party system (c) Nagaland (d) Punjab
government in Britain in the year 1945? classified as national, state or
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) regional level Sol.437.(c) Nagaland. Panchayats (Part
(a) Democratic Party (b) Labour Party (c) All parties are registered with the IX, Articles 243 to 243-O): It is the system
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
of local self-government of villages in Q.441. Which directive principle has been way to acquire citizenship in India ?
rural India. Rajasthan was the first state implemented in establishing Handloom SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift)
to implement Panchayati Raj in India (on and Handicrafts Boards? (a) Incorporation of territory
October 2nd, 1959, in Nagaur district), SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift) (b) Renunciation
followed by Andhra Pradesh later in (a) Participation of workers in (c) Registration
1959. 24th April - National Panchayati management of Industries (d) Birth
Raj Day. Currently, the Panchayati Raj (b) Provision for just and humane
system exists in all states except condition of work Sol.444.(b) Renunciation. There are five
Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, and (c) Protection and improvement of recognized ways to acquire citizenship in
in all Union Territories except Delhi. environment India under the Citizenship Act, 1955: By
(d) Promote cottage industries on Birth - A person born in India can acquire
Q.438. The Citizenship Act, 1955 does cooperative basis citizenship by birth. By Descent - A
NOT deal with ____________. person born outside India to Indian
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.441.(d) The All India Handloom parents can acquire citizenship. By
(a) acquisition (b) determination Board (AIHB) and the All India Registration - Certain persons, such as
(c) election (d) termination Handicrafts Board (AIHB) were two foreign nationals married to Indian
boards in India aimed to promote and citizens, can acquire citizenship through
Sol.438.(c) election. The Citizenship Act, develop cottage industries, such as registration. By Naturalization - Foreign
1955 deals with the acquisition, handlooms and handicrafts, through nationals can acquire citizenship after
determination, and termination of Indian cooperative efforts and support. The All fulfilling certain residency requirements.
citizenship. Citizenship Acquisition: The India Handicrafts Board was set up in By Incorporation of Territory - If a foreign
Act provides for the acquisition of 1952 whereas the All India Handloom territory becomes part of India.
citizenship by birth, descent, registration,
df
Board was established in 1992. However,
naturalization, and incorporation of the government decided to abolish the Q.445. Which of the following is NOT a
_p
territory. Citizenship Determination: The board in 2020 as part of its vision of condition for acquiring the citizenship of
Act defines how to determine Indian "Minimum Government and Maximum India?
na
citizenship. Citizenship Termination: The Governance". SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Act provides for the termination and (a) Registration (b) Descent
ap
deprivation of citizenship. Election Q.442. Which south-eastern Dravidian (c) Domicile (d) Holding property
Commission of India: PART XV (Article language has been approved by Odisha
Sol.445.(d) Holding property.
:@
324-329) of the Constitution. state to be included in the Eighth
Schedule of the Constitution of India, on The Citizenship Act of 1955 is the
Q.439. Which Section of the fundamental law governing the
10th July 2023 ?
Representation of People’s Act (RPA), acquisition and termination of Indian
TG
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift)
1951 deprives the prisoners of their right citizenship. It outlines five ways to
(a) Kui (b) Malto (c) Tulu (d) Kodagu
to vote? become an Indian citizen: birth, descent,
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.442.(a) Kui. It is spoken by the registration, naturalisation, and
on
(a) Section 10 (4) (b) Section 72 (5) Kandhas community. It is closely related incorporation of territory. Citizenship
(c) Section 62 (5) (d) Section 15 (3) to the Gondi and Kuvi languages. Some (Amendment) Act, 2019: It provides an
ch
other languages included in the eighth accelerated pathway for the citizenship
Sol.439.(c) Section 62 (5) : A person
schedule are: Sindhi was introduced in of the members of six communities
cannot vote in an election if they are in
ar
1967. Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali in (Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis,
prison or in police custody. However, this
1992. Santali, Dogri, Maithili, and Bodo in and Christians) from Pakistan,
Se
rule does not apply to those in preventive
2003. Bangladesh, and Afghanistan if they have
detention. Even if someone cannot vote
arrived before December 31, 2014.
due to imprisonment, they still remain an Q.443. Which of the following
elector if their name is on the electoral organisation’s initiative is ‘India Justice Q.446. Which of the following is a
roll. Report’? feature of Directive Principles of State
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift) Policy, and also distinguishes it from
Q.440. The proclamation of which Act by (a) HCL Foundation Fundamental Rights ?
the King of England in 1773 paved the (b) Infosys Foundation SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
way for the establishment of the (c) Tata Trusts (a) It is justiciable.
Supreme Court at Calcutta? (d) Azim Premji Foundation (b) It protects the interest of the
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Sol.443.(c) Tata Trusts. The India individual.
(a) Pitt’s India Act (b) Indian Councils Act
Justice Report (IJR) is an initiative by (c) It is non - justiciable.
(c) Regulating Act (d) Charter Act
Tata Trusts, in collaboration with the (d) It is prohibitive in nature.
Sol.440.(c) Regulating Act. The Centre for Social Justice, Common
Regulating Act of 1773 led to the Sol.446.(c) It is non - justiciable.
Cause, and the Commonwealth Human Difference Between Fundamental Rights
establishment of the Supreme Court at Rights Initiative, among others. It was
Calcutta, which included a chief justice and DPSP: DPSP are positive as they
first published in 2019. Karnataka was require the State to do certain things
(Elijah Impey) and three other judges. An the top-ranked state in the 2022 India
amendment in 1781 exempted the while FR are negative as they impose
Justice Report (IJR). limitations on the working of the state.
Governor-General, the Council, and
government officials from its jurisdiction Fundamental Rights do not require any
Q.444. Which of the following is NOT a legislation for their implementation. They
while performing their duties.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
are automatically enforced while DPSP SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) public tranquility. The act allowed the
requires legislation for their (a) 70 (b) 50 (c) 75 (d) 60 District Magistrate or Commissioner of
implementation. They are not Police to prohibit public meetings in
automatically enforced. Sol.450.(d) 60. The Central Legislature certain areas if they believed the meeting
was made more powerful and more would promote sedition or disaffection.
Q.447. Any citizen of India can make a representative by the Government of
declaration renouncing his/her Indian India Act, 1919. The Act made the Q.454. The entire salaries, allowances
citizenship under the ________. Governor-General the chief executive and pensions of the chairman and
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift) authority. 26 nominated; 34 elected (20 members of the Union Public Service
(a) Citizenship Act, 1985 General, 10 Muslims, 3 Europeans and 1 Commission are charged on the ______.
(b) Citizenship Act, 1965 Sikh). Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(c) Citizenship Act, 1955 (a) Consolidated fund of India
(d) Citizenship Act, 1975 Q.451. Which of the following was widely (b) Special Fund of the UPSC
considered as the ‘heaven born service’ (c) Contingency fund of India
Sol.447.(c) Citizenship Act, 1955. It is an for Indians during British rule? (d) Reserve Bank of India
Act to provide for the acquisition and SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
determination of Indian citizenship. Part (a) Military service on the Burma front Sol.454.(a) Consolidated fund of India :
II of the Indian Constitution deals with (b) The Indian Civil Service or ICS The salaries, allowances, and pensions
citizenship from Articles 5 to 11. (c) The Indian Judicial Service of the chairman and members are
Citizenship can be acquired by: Birth, (d) The British Indian Army charged to the Consolidated Fund of
Descent, Registration, Naturalization, and India to ensure their financial
incorporation of territory. Sol.451.(b) The Indian Civil Service or independence and security, preventing
ICS. It was brought into existence by executive influence, as their expenses
df
Q.448. Which of the following Sections Lord Cornwallis (1786-93) to check the don't require Parliament's approval.
of the Indian Penal Code deals with corruption in the East India company
_p
'rape'? (EEIC). The Charter Act of 1853 provided Q.455. Who among the following was the
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift) for Open competition for ICS first chairperson of National Commission
na
(a) Section 370 (b) Section 375 examination. Satyendranath Tagore was for Women and a senior congress leader
(c) Section 380 (d) Section 385 the first Indian to join ICS in 1863. who passed away in 2022?
ap
Aitchson commission (1886) and Lee Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Sol.448.(b) Section 375. Section 370 of
commission (1926) is related to reform (a) Ambika Soni (b) Sushmita Dev
:@
the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with
in ICS. (c) Jayanti Patnaik (d) Sheila Dikshit
the crime of human trafficking. Section
380 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals Q.452. During a National Emergency, the Sol.455.(c) Jayanti Patnaik.
TG
with theft in a dwelling house, tent, or term of Lok Sabha can be extended for: The National Commission for Women
vessel that is used as a human dwelling Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1) (NCW) is a statutory body of the
or for the custody of property. Section (a) three months at a time Government of India, primarily focused
on
385 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals (b) six months at a time on advising the government on all policy
with putting someone in fear of injury to (c) one year at a time matters affecting women. Established on
commit extortion. According to BNS
ch
(d) two years at a time 31 January 1992 under the Indian
(Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita) Section for Constitution, it was defined by the 1990
Rape is Section 63 and for Punishment Sol.452.(c) One year at a time. During a
ar
National Commission for Women Act.
for rape is Section 64. National Emergency in India, the term of The first head of the commission was
Se
the Lok Sabha can be extended by the Jayanti Patnaik, and as of 24 February
Q.449. Who is the Chief Executive Head Parliament. According to Article 83 of the 2024, Rekha Sharma serves as the
of the State ? Indian Constitution, the normal term of chairperson.
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) the Lok Sabha is five years. However,
(a) President (b) Governor (c) CM (d) PM under Article 352, if a National Q.456. Which of the following is the
Emergency is declared, the term of the proposed successor to the Information
Sol.449.(b) Governor. He is appointed by
Lok Sabha can be extended beyond five Technology Act, 2000?
the President for a five-year term and
years. The extension can only be done Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
holds office at the President's pleasure.
for one year at a time and cannot extend (a) Digital India Bill (b) Cyber India Bill
The Governor has several key powers,
beyond six months after the emergency (c) Optical India Bill (d) Multimedia Bill
including appointing the Chief Minister
has ceased to operate.
and other Ministers (Article 164), Sol.456.(a) Digital India Bill. The Digital
assenting or withholding assent to bills Q.453. The Prevention of Seditious India Act (DIA) aims to regulate the
(Article 200), promulgating ordinances Meetings Act was passed in ________ by digital ecosystem, including
(Article 213), and granting pardons the colonial Government. cybersecurity, digital governance, and
(Article 161). Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4) internet intermediaries. The Information
(a) 1898 (b) 1903 (c) 1912 (d) 1907 Technology Act, 2000 (ITA-2000), notified
Q.450. How many members (elected and on 17 October 2000, is India's primary
nominated) were there in the Council of Sol.453.(d) 1907. The Prevention of law addressing cybercrime and
State under the Government of India Act Seditious Meetings Act was brought e-commerce. Secondary legislation
1919 passed by the Parliament of the under the tenure of Lord Minto. The act includes the Intermediary Guidelines
United Kingdom to expand participation was intended to prevent public meetings Rules, 2011, and the IT (Intermediary
of Indians in the government of India? that could promote sedition or disturb
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics founded an expatriate Communist Party 2. This Act was divided into two separate
Code) Rules, 2021. of India at Tashkent in 1920? acts for the India and Burma
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) Government.
Q.457. Which of the following does NOT (a) Jolly Kaul (b) M.N. Roy 3. This act commenced from 1 April
come under Directive Principles of State (c) P.C. Joshi (d) Shripad Amrut Dange 1935.
Policy? Select the correct statement(s) using the
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Sol.460.(b) M.N. Roy (Father of Indian code given below.
(a) Promotion of the Welfare of the Communism). He was the first person to SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
People give the idea of a Constituent Assembly (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Promotion of Indian Local Languages for India and the creator of the Mexican (c) Both 2 and 3 (d) Both 1 and 3
(c) Uniform Civil Code Communist Party. Communist Party of
(d) Promotion of Cottage Industries India (CPI) - It is the oldest communist Sol.463.(a) Both 1 and 2.
party in India. Founded - in modern-day The Government of India Act 1935
Sol.457.(b) Promotion of Indian Local Kanpur on 26 December 1925. First (Commenced in 1937): It provided for the
Languages is primarily governed by the General Secretary - S.V. Ghate . establishment of an All India Federation
provisions of Part XVII of the Indian Headquarters - Ajoy Bhavan (New Delhi). consisting of provinces and princely
Constitution, which deals with official states as units. It divided the powers
languages (Articles 343 to 351). Directive Q.461. Which of the following Acts between the Centre and units in terms of
Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is prevents disrespect to the National Flag three lists, Federal List, Provincial List
covered under Articles 36-51 of Part IV of and National Anthem? and Concurrent List.
the Indian Constitution. Article 38: SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Promotion of the Welfare of the People. (a) Prevention of insults to National Q.464. Who propounded the concept of
Article 44: Uniform Civil Code. Article 43: Honour Act, 1971 'Rule of Law'?
df
Promotion of Cottage Industries. (b) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
_p
2006 (a) AV Dicey (b) CK Daphtary
Q.458. The ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya (c) Protection of National Honour Act, (c) Austin (d) AK Sen
Yojana’ (‘PM-JAY’) scheme of the
na
1996
government is associated with which of (d) Civil Liberties Act, 2001 Sol.464.(a) AV Dicey. Rule of Law - It
the following Directive Principles of State means all laws apply equally to all
ap
Policy ? Sol.461.(a) Prevention of Insults to citizens of the country and no one can be
SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 National Honour Act, 1971: Insults to above the law. Three principles of Rule of
:@
(a) Participation of workers in the Indian National Flag and Constitution of Law given by A.V. Dicey : Supremacy of
management of industries India - Whoever in any public place or in law, Equality before law, Individual rights.
(b) Promotion of co-operative societies any other place within public view burns, Chander Kishan Daphtary - First solicitor
TG
(c) Equal justice and free legal aid mutilates, defaces, disfigures, destroys, general of India (1950-63).
(d) Duty of State to raise the level of tramples upon or into contempt the
nutrition and the improvement of Indian National Flag or the Constitution Q.465. In which of the following years
on
public health of India or any part thereof, shall be was the Child Marriage Restraint Act
punished with imprisonment for a term passed?
ch
Sol.458.(d) Article 47 - Duty of the State which may extend to three years, or with SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
to raise the level of nutrition and the fine, or with both. (a) 1856 (b) 1947 (c) 1878 (d) 1929
ar
improvement of public health. Part IV -
Directive Principles of State Policy Q.462. In the Interim Government formed Sol.465.(d) 1929. Child Marriage (The
Se
(Article 36 to 51): Article 38 - State to on 2 September 1946, Liaquat Ali Khan marriage of a girl or a boy before the age
secure a social order for the promotion was given the charge of: of 18 years). Prohibtion of Child Marriage
of welfare of the people. SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Act (PCMA), 2006 :- It replaced the Child
(a) the External Affairs Ministry Marriage Restraints Act, 1929. The
Q.459. Certain provisions of the Benami (b) the Finance Ministry marriageable age to be 18 and 21 for
Transactions (Prohibition) Act were (c) the Defence Ministry girls and boys respectively Other laws to
struck off by the Supreme Court. In (d) the Home Ministry protect the child :- Juvenile Justice (Care
which year was this law originally and Protection of Children) Act, 2015,
enacted? Sol.462.(b) The Finance Ministry. Interim Domestic Violence Act, 2005 and the
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) Government (1946): Headed by Jawahar Protection of Children from Sexual
(a) 1998 (b) 1980 (c) 1999 (d) 1988 Lal Nehru. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel held Offences Act, 2012.
the Home Affairs, Information, and
Sol.459.(d) 1988. Benami Transactions Broadcasting. Rajendra Prasad held the Q.466. Who described the Indian federal
(Prohibition) Act (Name changed to portfolio of Agriculture and Food. C system as a bargaining federalism?
Prohibition of Benami Property Rajagopalachari was the Education and SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (4th shift)
Transactions Act, 1988 by Section 3 of Arts Minister. Jagjivan Ram held the (a) KC Wheare (b) Ivor Jennings
the 2016 amendment) - It is an Act to Labour Ministry. Jogendra Nath Mandal (c) Granville Austin (d) Morris Jones
prohibit benami transactions and the was the Law Minister.
right to recover property held benami and Sol.466.(d) Morris Jones. Federalism - A
for matters connected therewith or Q.463. Consider the following statement system of government in which powers
incidental. about the Government of India Act, 1935. are divided between two or more levels
1. This act was enacted by the British of government, such as the centre and
Q.460. Who among the following Parliament. the state or provinces. Described - “Quasi
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
federalism” (KC Wheare). “Cooperative to equality under Article 14 does not the elected legislative assembly
federalism” (Granville Austin). override the fundamental right to religion {Assembly Seats (70), Lok Sabha seats
'Federalism with Centralising tendency' under Article 25. The notions of rationality (7)}. The Assembly has all the powers
(Ivor Jenning). Federalism concept cannot be invoked in matters of religion. under the State and Concurrent Lists
borrowed from ‘Canada’. The Supreme Court struck down with the exception of public order, police,
provisions of the Kerala Hindu Places of and land.
Q.467. ‘The Constitution of free India Public Worship (Authorisation of Entry)
must be framed, without outside Rules, 1965, and allowed women, Q.473. Offences for which the police can
interference by a constituent assembly irrespective of their age, to enter arrest a person without an order from the
elected on the basis of adult franchise’. Sabarimala temple and worship the deity. court are called _________.
Who made this statement? SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning)
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift) Q.470. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) (a) Cognizable offences
(a) MN Roy (b) Jawaharlal Nehru Act, 2021, amends the Income Tax Act of (b) Detention offences
(c) Sardar Patel (d) Mahatma Gandhi ________. (c) Non Cognizable offences
Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) (d) Cross offences
Sol.467.(b) Jawaharlal Nehru - Made (a) 1961 (b) 1974 (c) 1995 (d) 1988
this statement on behalf of the Indian Sol.473.(a) Cognizable offenses - It
National Congress (INC) in 1938. The Sol.470.(a) 1961. Taxation Law includes murder, rape, theft, kidnapping,
idea of Constituent Assembly for India Amendment Act, 2021 - It aims to counterfeiting, etc. Detention - The act of
was first given by M.N.Roy in 1934. withdraw tax demands made using a temporarily holding individuals in
Constituent Assembly : Formed in 1946. 2012 retrospective legislation to tax the custody or confinement, typically by a
Role - Elected to write the Constitution of indirect transfer of Indian assets. Income government or governing authority by
India. Committees with their chairman : Tax Act (1961) - It provides an elaborate removing their freedom or liberty at that
df
Union Constitution Committee - mechanism for the levying of taxes, their time. Non-Cognizable offences - An
_p
Jawaharlal Nehru. Drafting committee - administration, collection & recovery. It offence for which a Police officer has no
Dr. B R Ambedkar. Provincial Constitution has 298 sections & 14 schedules. authority to arrest without warrant. These
na
Committee - Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. include offences like cheating, assault,
Q.471. The Constitution (One Hundred defamation etc.
Q.468. As per the responsibilities defined and Twenty Seventh Amendment) Bill,
ap
in National Food Security Act, 2013, 2021, was introduced in the Lok Sabha Q.474. Which act has been amended by
which of the following is a responsibility by the ______ in August 2021. the Supreme Court of India to provide
:@
of the state/UT government? Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift - 2) equal rights to daughters in their
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift) (a) Minister of Social Justice and ancestral property ?
(a) Transportation of foodgrains up to Empowerment SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Morning)
TG
designated depots in each state/UT (b) Minister of Minority Affairs (a) The Contempt of Courts Act
(b) Allocation of required foodgrains to (c) Minister of Tribal Affairs (b) Hindu Succession Act
states/UTS (d) Minister of Rural Development (c) Hindu Marriage Act
on
(c) Delivery of foodgrains from (d) Sharda Act
designated FCI godowns Sol.471.(a) Minister of Social Justice
and Empowerment - By Dr. Virendra Sol.474.(b) Hindu Succession Act
ch
(d) Identification of eligible households
Kumar. 102 Amendment Act, 2018: (1956) - It governs the inheritance of
Sol.468.(d) Identification of eligible
ar
Constitutional status was provided to the property by Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, and
households. The National Food Security National Commission for Backward Sikhs. Contempt of Courts Act (1971) - It
Se
Act (2013) - 75% of Rural and 50% of Classes under Article 338B. Articles 338 defines the power to punish for contempt
Urban population is entitled to receive and 338A - The National Commission for of court and regulates their procedure.
highly subsidised foodgrains under two Scheduled Castes (SC) and National Hindu Marriage Act (1955) - It defines
categories of beneficiaries – Antodaya Commission for Scheduled Tribes (ST), the minimum age of 18 years for the
Anna Yojana (AAY) households and respectively. 103rd Amendment Act, bride and 21 years for the groom.
Priority Households (PHH). Public 2019:- Reservations for the Economic
Distribution System (PDS) is governed by Q.475. The Union Finance Ministry
Weaker Section and amendment in
provisions of the National Food Security issued a notification amending the
Articles 15(6) and 16(6), provide 10%
Act, 2013 (NFSA). Electoral Bonds Scheme to allow the sale
reservation in public employment.
of electoral bonds for extra _______ days
Q.469. Justice Indu Malhotra penned a Q.472. When were the general elections in the year of general elections to the
dissenting opinion in which of the to the Legislative Assembly of the Legislative Assembly of States and UTs
following landmark judgements? National Capital Territory held for the first with legislature.
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) time? SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) Basic structure doctrine Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2) (a) 45 (b) 35 (c) 15 (d) 25
(b) Preamble part of the Constitution (a) 1990 (b) 1993 (c) 1992 (d) 1991
(c) Entry of women to Sabarimala Sol.475.(c) 15. Electoral Bonds Scheme:
(d) Land reforms in India Sol.472.(b) 1993. The 69th amendment Launched - 2018 . Bonds are issued only
act, 1991 inserted Article 239AA, which to those political parties that are
Sol.469.(c) Entry of women to registered under section 29A of the
declared the Union Territory of Delhi to
Sabarimala. Justice Indu Malhotra opined Representation of the People Act, 1951.
be administered by a Lieutenant
that religious practices cannot be solely Electoral bonds were a mode of funding
Governor who works on aid and advice of
tested on the basis of Article 14. The right for political parties in India from their
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
introduction in 2018 until they were individuals. Objective - To consolidate Q.484. The detention of a person cannot
struck down as unconstitutional by the and amend all existing insolvency laws, exceed ________ unless an advisory board
Supreme Court on 15 February 2024. to simplify and expedite the Insolvency consisting of judges of a High Court
and Bankruptcy Proceedings, to promote reports sufficient cause for extended
Q.476. In which year was the Dowry entrepreneurship. detention.
Prohibition Act passed in India? SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Q.480. What are the two most essential (a) one month (b) three months
(a) 1973 (b) 1982 (c) 1961 (d) 1954 rights of a democracy? (c) six months (d) two months
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
Sol.476.(c) 1961. Dowry Prohibition Act: (a) Exploitation, preventive detention Sol.484.(b) three months. Article 22
It extends to the whole of India except (b) Equality, Freedom (Part III) grants protection to persons
the State of Jammu and Kashmir. (c) Freedom, preventive detention who are arrested or detained (available
Important Acts in India - Hindu Widow (d) Equality, Exploitation to both citizens and foreigners).
Remarriage Act 1856, Child Marriage Preventive detention means the
Restraint Act 1929, Muslim Women Sol.480.(b) Equality, Freedom. Democracy detention of a person without trial and
Protection of Rights on Marriage Act is a form of government in which rulers are conviction by a court.
2019 (Triple Talaq Act), Rights of elected by the people in a free and fair
Persons with Disabilities Act 2016, elections, on universal adult franchise and Q.485. When was the National
National Security Act 1980. governed on the basis of certain Emergency declared for the first time
fundamental rules like a constitution. under Article 352 ?
Q.477. In which year was the Arms Act Types of Democracy: Direct democracy SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
passed in India? and Representative democracy. (a) 1963 - 69 (b) 1961 - 65
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift) (c) 1961 - 67 (d) 1962 - 68
df
(a) 1951 (b) 1955 (c) 1959 (d) 1964 Q.481. In which year was the Indian
Parliamentary Group established? Sol.485.(d) 1962-68. The National
_p
Sol.477.(c) The Indian Arms Act of SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (4th Shift) Emergency has been declared 3 times in
1959: As per the preamble, this Act aims (a) 1950 (b) 1949 (c) 1948 (d) 1951 India : 1962 to 1968 {During the
na
to consolidate and amend the law India-China war, when “the security of
relating to arms and ammunition. The Sol.481.(b) In 1949, The Indian India” was declared as being “threatened
ap
main objective of this Act is to regulate Parliamentary Group was an autonomous by external aggression”, President
and restrict the circulation of arms and body formed in the year 1949 in (Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan)}. 1971
:@
ammunition, which were illegal. It was pursuance of a motion adopted by the {During the Indo - Pakistan war, President
enacted by the Indian government after Constituent Assembly (Legislative) on (V.V.Giri), Prime Minister (Indira Gandhi)}.
independence, recognizing that certain 16th August 1948. Speaker of Lok Sabha 1975 to 1977 {The emergency was
TG
law-abiding citizens must own and use is its ex-officio President. declared on the basis of “internal
firearms for sports, crop protection, and disturbance”, President (Fakhruddin Ali
self-defence. Q.482. If the State government dissolves
Ahmed), Prime Minister (Indira Gandhi)}.
on
the Panchayati Raj Institutions before the
Q.478. In which year was the Special end of their five-year term, fresh elections Q.486. How many religious communities
Marriage Act passed in India? should ordinarily be held within _____.
ch
are notified as minorities by the
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift) SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift) Government of India?
(a) 1958 (b) 1954 (c) 1962 (d) 1950 (a) one month (b) six months
ar
Graduate Level 01/08/2022 (Shift - 4)
(c) one year (d) three months (a) Three (b) Five (c) Six (d) Four
Sol.478.(b) 1954. Special Marriage Act
Se
(SMA) is an Indian law that provides a Sol.482.(b) Six months. Under Article Sol.486.(c) Six {Muslims, Christians,
legal framework for the marriage of 243 E - An election to constitute a Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, and Jains
people belonging to different religions or Panchayat shall be completed - Before (added in 2014), National Commission
castes. The applicability of the Act the expiry of its duration specified in on Minorities Act 1992}. According to the
extends to the people of all faiths, clause (1) or before the expiration of a 2011 Census {Hindu (79.8%), Muslim
including Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, period of six months from the date of its (14.2%), Christian (2.3%), Sikh (1.7%),
Christians, Jains, and Buddhists, across dissolution. Buddhist (0.7%), Jain (0.4%).
India. The minimum age to get married
under the SMA is 21 years for males and Q.483. Which freedom is considered as Q.487. In which year was the National
18 years for females. the ‘Hallmark of Democracy’? Youth Policy launched by the
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Government of India ?
Q.479. In India, according to the Insolvency (a) Right against exploitation Higher Secondary 05/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the process of (b) Right to freedom of religion (a) 2015 (b) 2014 (c) 2016 (d) 2017
insolvency resolution for companies (c) Freedom of assembly
should be completed in how many days? (d) Freedom of speech and expression Sol.487.(b) 2014. It seeks to define the
SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023) Vision of the Government of India for the
(a) 180 (b) 150 (c) 170 (d) 120 Sol.483.(b) The Right to freedom of Youth of the Country. The first youth
Religion (Article 25-28) is considered the policy was released in 1988. National
Sol.479 (a) 180. The Insolvency and Hallmark of Democracy. Fundamental Youth Day is held every year on 12th
Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) - A rights are mentioned in Part III (Article January to observe the birth anniversary
time-bound process for resolving 12-35) of the Constitution. of Swami Vivekananda.
insolvency in companies and among
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Polity
Q.488. Which freedom fighter abolished Sol.492.(b) 1956. The States Q.497. On the night of ______ 1975, Indira
the Zamindari System in Uttar Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major Gandhi recommended the imposition of
and was elected as the Home Minister in reform of the boundaries of India's states Emergency to president Fakhruddin Ali
1955? and territories, organising them along Ahmed.
SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Morning) linguistic lines. The Government divided SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
(a) Lala Hardayal the country into 14 states and 6 union (a) 1st June (b) 22nd May
(b) Govind Ballabh Pant territories under the State Reorganisation (c) 25th June (d) 1st July
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale Act.
(d) Jyotiba Phule Sol.497.(c) 25th June. The third
Q.493. Which of the following Acts was emergency of India started at the mid
Sol.488.(b) Govind Ballabh Pant passed by the Government of India to night of 25th June 1975 and was
successfully abolished the exploitative inquire into allegations of corruption extended till 23 March 1977. The main
Zamindari system and revolutionised against certain public functionaries? reason for this emergency was “internal
laws pertaining to women’s inheritance SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Afternoon) disturbances”. First emergency of India
and marriage. He was appointed Minister (a) Delimitation Act was started on 26 October 1962
of Home Affairs in the Union Cabinet on (b) Prevention of Money Laundering Act (India-China war). The second
10 January 1955 in New Delhi by Nehru. (c) Central Vigilance Commission Act emergency was during the India-Pakistan
He started a weekly paper called ‘Shakti’. (d) The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act war from 3-17 December 1971.
In 1957, he was awarded the Bharat
Ratna. Sol.493.(d) The Lokpal and Lokayukta Q.498. Which of the following is the
Act was passed by the Government of expanded form of the abbreviation 'Rep.'
Q.489. As per the coding convention of India to inquire into allegations of used in the text of the Constitution of
India Census, how many digit code is corruption against certain public India?
df
used for showing state code? functionaries. SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Evening)
_p
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Afternoon) (a) Repealed (b) Republic
Q.494. The Indian Forest Act 1927 was (c) Report (d) Representative
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
enacted after repealing which of the
Sol.489.(c) 2. The coding convention following Indian forest acts?
SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Morning) na Sol.498.(a) Repealed. The meaning of
Repeal is to rescind or annul by
ap
used: State code (2 digits); District code
(3 digits); Sub-district code (5 digits); (a) Indian Forest Act, 1882 authoritative act; especially : to revoke or
Village code (6 digits). (b) Indian Forest Act, 1922 abrogate by legislative enactment.
:@
(c) Indian Forest Act, 1865
Q.490. On which day was the National (d) Indian Forest Act, 1878 Q.499. ______ is a set of norms and
Emblem of India adopted ? guidelines to be followed by the political
TG
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Morning) Sol.494.(d) Indian Forest Act, 1878. The parties and contesting candidates during
(a) 15th August 1952 Indian Forest Act of 1878 divided Indian election time.
(b) 26th January 1950 forests into reserved forests (completely SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Afternoon)
on
(c) 15th August 1947 government-controlled), protected (a) Constitutional Norms
(d) 26th January 1959 forests (partially government-controlled) (b) Constitutional Rules
ch
and village forests (controlled by (c) Code of Conduct
Sol.490.(b) 26th January 1950. The abutting villages). (d) Rigging
state emblem is an adaptation from the
ar
Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Motto- Q.495. One-third of the members of the Sol.499.(c) Code of Conduct is a set of
Se
Satyameva Jayate ("Truth Alone Vidhan Parishad retire every ______ years. rules outlining the norms, rules, and
Triumphs") is taken from the "Mundaka SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Morning) responsibilities or proper practices of an
Upanishad", a part of Upanishads. (a) four (b) one (c) three (d) two individual party or an organisation.
Q.491. The Right of Children to Free and Sol.495.(d) two years. Vidhan Parishad Q.500. In 1977, who became then
Compulsory Education Act 2009 is an Act or Legislative Council is a permanent President of the Janata Party, which
of Parliament which came into force in: body, which can be formed or abolished formed a coalition government at the
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening) when the Legislative Assembly passes a centre with Morarji Desai as the Prime
(a) 2012 (b) 2011 (c) 2009 (d) 2010 special resolution. Minister?
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Afternoon)
Sol.491.(d) 2010. The Act makes Q.496. Which was the first part of India (a) Charan Singh
education a fundamental right of every to hold an election based on universal (b) George Fernandes
child between the ages of 6 and 14 and adult franchise ? (c) Chandra Shekhar
specifies minimum norms in elementary SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Morning) (d) Madhu Dandavate
schools. (a) Assam (b) Tripura
(c) Manipur (d) Bihar Sol.500.(c) Chandra Shekhar. He was
Q.492. In which of the following years
President of the Janata Party from 1977
was an Act enacted to provide for the Sol.496.(c) Manipur (June 1948). to 1988. Chandra Shekhar was sworn in
reorganisation of the states of India and Maharaja of Manipur Bodhchandra Singh as the ninth Prime Minister of India on
for matters connected therewith? signed the instrument of accession with November 10, 1991 and remained in
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon) the Indian government on the assurance office until June 21, 1991, for a period
(a) 1947 (b) 1956 (c) 1959 (d) 1962 that the internal autonomy of Manipur spanning 223 days.
would be maintained
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
constellation best seen in the northern (a) It is a gas giant made up mostly of
Geography hemisphere during the summer and fall hydrogen and helium and the density
months around September is: is less than that of water
Solar System And Its Planets SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) (b) Its surface is reddish in colour.
(a) Cygnus (b) Ursa Major (c) It was the seventh planet discovered
Q.1. Who gave the expanding universe
(c) Pegasus (d) Cassiopeia in the Solar System.
hypothesis?
(d) Its cloud-like outer regions consist of
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Evening) Sol.5.(a) Cygnus. It is a northern methane in the gaseous form and
(a) Galileo Galilei constellation on the plane of the Milky ammonia in crystalline form.
(b) Edwin Hubble Way, deriving its name from the Latinized
(c) James Clerk Maxwell Greek word for swan. Sol.9.(a) Saturn's density (0.70 gm/cm3)
(d) CV Raman is less than that of water, making it the
Q.6. The colour of the surface of Mars is least dense planet in the solar system. If
Sol.1.(b) Edwin Hubble. The most red because of the presence of large there were a body of water large enough,
popular argument regarding the origin of amounts of chemical compounds in it. Saturn would theoretically float. The
the universe is the Big Bang Theory. It is What is the name of that compound ? presence of methane and ammonia is
also called the expanding universe SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift) more characteristic of Uranus and
hypothesis. Edwin Hubble, in 1920, (a) Magnesium oxide (b) Tin oxide Neptune.
provided evidence that the universe is (c) Iron oxide (d) Nitrogen oxide
expanding. As time passes, galaxies Q.10. Which of the following is NOT a
move further and further apart. Galileo Sol.6.(c) Iron oxide. Mars appears moon of Jupiter ?
Galilei is known for his contributions to reddish due to the presence of ferric iron SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift)
astronomy, particularly with the use of in the form of red hematite (Fe2O3). The (a) Callisto (b) Europa
df
the telescope. surface pressure of Mars is 610 Pascals, (c) Ganymede (d) Triton
and its gravity is about one - third of
_p
Q.2. Geoid is the ________ of earth. Earth's. A Martian day lasts 24 hours and Sol.10.(d) Triton (largest moon of
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) 37 minutes. Mars has two moons: neptune). Jupiter: It is the fifth planet
na
(a) orbit (b) axis (c) colour (d) shape Phobos and Deimos. from the Sun. Revolution - 11 years and
11 months, Rotation - 9 hours 56
ap
Sol.2.(d) shape. The Earth looks Q.7. Which dwarf planet orbits the sun in minutes. Natural Satellites of planets (As
spherical in shape, but it is not a perfect 310 years at a distance between 38.5 to of October 2024) - Jupiter (95), Saturn
:@
sphere. It is slightly flattened at the top 53 AU ? (146), Earth (1, Moon), Uranus (28),
and bottom (near the South and North SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) Neptune (16).
Poles) and bulges at the Equator due to (a) Eris (b) Ceres (c) Makemake (d) Pluto
TG
the outward force caused by the rotation Q.11. Which of the following rocky
of the Earth. The Geoid shape is not Sol.7.(c) Makemake. It is the third-largest planets is the fastest planet in our solar
perfectly spherical. and second-brightest known dwarf planet. system – traveling through space at
on
It was discovered in 2005. Pluto was about 29 miles (47 kilometers) per
Q.3. Which is, by far, the closest dwarf discovered in 1930. It was initially second?
planet orbiting at only 2.8 times Earth’s classified as the ninth planet of the Solar
ch
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift)
distance from the sun ? System but was reclassified as a dwarf (a) Earth (b) Mercury (c) Venus (d) Mars
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift) planet in 2006. Pluto has a natural
ar
(a) Ceres (b) Makemake satellite named 'Charon'. Sol.11.(b) Mercury. It is the nearest to
(c) Eris (d) Pluto
Se
the sun. It takes only about 88 days to
Q.8. Which of the following is the second complete one round along its orbit.
Sol.3.(a) Ceres is the largest object in nearest star to Earth? Venus: It is considered as ‘Earth’s - twin’
the asteroid belt between Mars and SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift) because its size and shape are very
Jupiter, and it is the only dwarf planet (a) Proxima Centauri (b) Polaris much similar to that of the earth. Venus
located in the inner solar system. It was (c) Sirius (d) Delta Velorum is also known as Lucifer. Earth is the fifth
the first member of the asteroid belt to
Sol.8.(a) Proxima Centauri. It is the largest planet (in size). It is slightly
be discovered when Giuseppe Piazzi
closest star to the sun, at a distance of flattened at the poles and its shape is
spotted it in 1801.
4.24 light - years. A light - year is the described as a Geoid. Mars - The fourth
Q.4. A ________ is a cloud of dust and gas distance light travels in one year, which is planet from the Sun and it is a dusty,
inside a galaxy. about 9.461 x 1012 kilometers. Polaris cold, desert world with a very thin
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) (North Star) is located nearly directly atmosphere.
(a) black hole (b) photosphere above Earth's North Pole along its Q.12. Which of the following planets’
(c) nebula (d) chromosphere rotational axis. Sirius (Dog Star) is the atmosphere is made up of thick white
brightest star in Earth's night sky. Delta and yellowish clouds of sulphuric acid ?
Sol.4.(c) nebula. A nebula is an
Velorum is a triple star system in the SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift)
interstellar cloud of dust, hydrogen,
southern constellation of Vela. (a) Venus (b) Jupiter
helium and other ionized gases.
Originally, nebula was a name for any Q.9. Which of the following statements (c) Mars (d) Neptune
diffuse astronomical object, including most accurately describes the planet Sol.12.(a) Venus, the second planet from
galaxies beyond the Milky Way. Saturn? the Sun, is the hottest and known as the
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift) "morning star." Mars' atmosphere is
Q.5. A distinctive cross - shaped
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
95.32% carbon dioxide, with methane system, and it is the second coldest SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
and sulfur dioxide. Uranus is the coldest planet. It was discovered in 1846. It is the (a) Saturn (b) Jupiter (c) Earth (d) Uranus
planet. The coldest planet in the Solar windiest planet in our solar system. One
System is Uranus. day on Neptune takes about 16 hours. Sol.21.(a) Saturn. Our Solar System has
eight planets which orbit the sun. In order
Q.13. Which of the following is one of the Q.17. The point in the orbit of an object of distance from the sun they are:
largest spiral galaxies? (such as a satellite) orbiting the earth Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter,
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) that is at the greatest distance from the Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. Largest to
(a) NGC 6872 (b) Milky Way centre of the earth is known as: smallest: Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus,
(c) Cygnus A (d) Maffei 1 SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) Neptune, Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury.
(a) perigee (b) apogee Saturn moon Titan is the second largest
Sol.13.(a) NGC 6872, which is one of the (c) perihelion (d) aphelion moon after Ganymede (Jupiter’s moon).
largest spiral galaxies, spanning 522,000
light-years across, approximately five Sol.17.(b) Apogee. Perigee: The moon's Q.22. _________ oblong orbit overlaps the
times the size of the Milky Way. It is orbit closest to the Earth. Perihelion: The orbit of Neptune.
located 212 million light-years from Earth Earth closest to the Sun on 3rd January. SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift)
in the southern constellation Pavo. Aphelion: The Earth farthest from the (a) Jupiter’s (b) Pluto’s (c) Venus’ (d) Mars’
Sun on 4th July.
Q.14. The length of a day on ______ is Sol.22.(b) Pluto’s. Neptune is the
approximately 16 hours. Q.18. A flat ring of small, icy bodies that outermost Jovian planet in the solar
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift) revolve around the sun beyond the orbit system. Until 2006 Pluto was the farthest
(a) Venus (b) Mercury of the planet Neptune is called: planet from the Sun. In 2006, The
(c) Mars (d) Neptune SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) International Astronomical Union (IAU)
df
(a) Oort Cloud (b) Bow Shock downgraded the status of Pluto to that of
Sol.14.(d) Neptune. Planet and Day (c) Asteroid Belt (d) Kuiper Belt a dwarf planet. The Jovian planets are
_p
Length in hours: Mercury (1,408), Venus Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune,
(5,832), Earth (24), Mars (25), Jupiter Sol.18.(d) Kuiper Belt, named after
which are also known as the gas giants.
na
(10), Saturn (11), Uranus (17). Mercury is Gerard Kuiper, is a region beyond
nearest to the sun. It takes only about 88 Neptune in the outer solar system, Q.23. Which of the following statements
ap
days to complete one round along its proposed by him in 1951. The asteroid about planet Saturn is true?
orbit. belt lies between the orbits of Mars and SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
:@
Jupiter. (a) Saturn is the fourth planet from the
Q.15. Who was the first to develop a Sun and the largest planet in our solar
mathematical predictive heliocentric Q.19. The Big Dipper is an asterism
formed by the seven brightest stars in system.
TG
model of the solar system ? (b) Satellites like Enceladus and Titan of
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) the constellation:
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift) Saturn are home to internal oceans,
(a) Nicolaus Copernicus could possibly support life.
(a) Ursa Major (b) Cassiopeia
on
(b) Galileo Galilei (c) Saturn's environment is conducive to
(c) Pierre-Simon Laplace (c) Leo Major (d) Orion
life.
(d) Immanuel Kant
ch
Sol.19.(a) Ursa Major (Great Bear) is the (d) Saturn is a massive ball made up
Sol.15.(a) Nicolaus Copernicus. third - largest constellation in the sky and mostly nitrogen.
ar
Although Aryabhatta (5th century A.D.) the largest constellation in the Northern
Hemisphere. Orion is three bright stars Sol.23.(b) Saturn is the second largest
hinted at astronomical ideas, Copernicus
Se
close together in an almost-straight line. planet, composed of hydrogen and
(1473 - 1543) developed the first helium. It has 146 moons. Titan - It is the
mathematical heliocentric model, where Cassiopeia is a large constellation
located in the northern sky. The Leo largest moon of Saturn and the second
planets revolved around a fixed Sun. largest moon in our solar system.
Galileo supported this model, and constellation lies in the northern sky.
Enceladus - It is the second nearest of
Johannes Kepler later refined it by Q.20. A constellation of the northern sky the major regular moons of Saturn and
introducing elliptical orbits, now known easily recognised by a group of five the brightest of all its moons. It was
as Kepler's laws. bright stars forming a slightly irregular discovered in 1789 by the English
‘W’ is called: astronomer William Herschel. It is found
Q.16. Who calculated the approximate
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) that Titan has methane in its atmosphere
location of the planet Neptune by
(a) Cassiopeia (b) Orion and Enceladus has a liquid ocean with
studying gravity- induced disturbances in
(c) Ursa Major (d) Cygnus erupting plumes of gas and water.
the motion of Uranus?
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) Sol.20.(a) Cassiopeia. It is a prominent Q.24. Which star is also known as the
(a) John Couch Adams constellation in the northern sky. It is ‘Pole Star’ ?
(b) Percival Lowell visible during winter in the early part of SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
(c) Johann Gottfried Galle the night. It looks like a distorted letter W (a) The East star (b) The South star
(d) Urbain-Jean-Joseph Le Verrier or M. (c) The West star (d) The North star
Sol.16.(d) Urbain - Jean - Joseph Le Q.21. Which planet is the second largest Sol.24.(d) The North star. Polaris, also
Verrier. He was a French astronomer and planet in our solar system and also has known as the North Star, is located
mathematician. Neptune is the eighth the biggest and the brightest rings almost directly above Earth's north pole
and most distant planet in our solar around it ? along our planet's rotational axis. The
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
imaginary line that runs through the Planets - Mercury, Venus, Earth and (a) 7456 km (b) 6371 km
Earth from the North Pole to the South Mars. They are categorised into the (c) 5619 km (d) 4728 km
Pole is called the Earth's axis of rotation. following: Silicate Planets, Iron Planets,
The Earth rotates around this axis, Coreless Planets, Carbon (diamond) Sol.33.(b) 6371 km. Earth Distance from
similar to how a top spins around its Planets. the Sun (150 million km), Surface area:
spindle. 510.1 million km², Land area: 149 million
Q.29. Which trend is found about the km², Gravity: 9.8 m/s².
Q.25. In 1905, who concluded with distance between the galaxies?
Thomas Chamberlain that the planets of SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) Q.34. Each orbit of the International
the Solar System originated from an (a) Unpredictable (b) Decreasing Space Station (ISS) takes _____minutes .
encounter between the Sun and another (c) Constant (d) Increasing SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
star? (a) 80 - 82 (b) 85 - 87 (c) 90 - 93 (d) 83 - 86
Sol.29.(d) Increasing. In 1929, Edwin
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Sol.34.(c) 90-93. In 24 hours, the space
Hubble announced that almost all
(a) James Hutton (b) Inge Lehmann station makes 16 orbits of Earth,
galaxies appeared to be moving away
(c) Charles Lyell (d) Forest Moulton traveling through 16 sunrises and
from us. He found that the universe was
Sol.25.(d) Forest Moulton. He was an expanding - with all of the galaxies sunsets.
American astronomer and moving away from each other. This
Q.35. In approximately how much time
mathematician known for his phenomenon was observed as a redshift
does Mars complete one spin on its
contributions to celestial mechanics. He of a galaxy's spectrum.
axis?
co-developed the Chamberlin-Moulton
Q.30. On which planet has a rotating oval SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (1st Shift)
planetesimal hypothesis, which proposed
of clouds, twice as wide as Earth, called (a) 16 hours (b) 8 hours
a model for the formation of the solar
df
the 'Great Red Spot' been observed for (c) 1 day 18 hours (d) 1day
system. According to this hypothesis,
more than 300 years ?
_p
planets formed from smaller bodies Sol.35.(d) 1 day. One spin on the axis of
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (1st shift)
called planetesimals through the process other planets (approximate) : Earth (1
(a) Neptune (b) Mercury
na
of accretion. day - 23 hours 56 min), Jupiter (9 hours
(c) Jupiter (d) Venus
56 minutes), Saturn (10 hours 40
Q.26. Perihelion is when Earth is ______.
ap
Sol.30.(c) Jupiter is the largest planet in minutes), Uranus (17 hours 14 minutes)
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
the solar system. It is made mostly of and Neptune (16 hours 7 minutes).
(a) under the sun
:@
(b) farthest from the sun hydrogen and helium.
Q.36. Which among the following is not a
(c) nearest to the sun Q.31. Which scientist thought of the type of solar eclipse?
(d) above the sun concept of the steady state of the SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (4th Shift)
TG
Sol.26.(c) nearest to the sun. On 3rd universe? (a) Annular (b) Partial
January, the earth is the nearest to the SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift) (c) Penumbral (d) Total
(a) Harold Jeffrey (b) Edwin Hubble
on
sun (147 million km). Aphelion is the Sol.36.(c) Penumbral (Lunar eclipse). A
point of the Earth’s orbit that is farthest (c) Fred Hoyle (d) Pierre - Laplace
solar eclipse occurs when the Moon
away from the Sun.
ch
Sol.31.(c) Fred Hoyle. Steady - State passes between the Earth and the Sun.
Q.27. Which is the most widely accepted Theory : It is a theoretical model in which Types of solar eclipse: Total (Completely
ar
model to explain the formation and the Universe is constantly expanding but blocking the face of the Sun), Hybrid (the
evaluation of the solar system? with a fixed average density. The theory Moon is farther away from Earth, it
Se
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) was put forward by three scientists Sir appears smaller than the Sun and does
(a) Cloud hypothesis Hermann Bondi, Thomas Gold, and Sir not completely cover the Sun) and
(b) Gas hypothesis Fred Hoyle in 1948. Annular (when Sun is at or near its
(c) Nebular hypothesis farthest point from Earth).
Q.32. Cosmic snowballs of frozen gases,
(d) Solar hypothesis rock and dust that orbit the Sun are Q.37. In early 1610, who discovered with
Sol.27.(c) Nebular hypothesis - The known as_______. his newly invented telescope that Jupiter
planets were formed out of a cloud of SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Morning) has four moons?
material associated with a youthful sun, (a) Meteors (b) Star SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift)
which was slowly rotating. The theory (c) Meteorites (d) Comets (a) Simon Marius (b) Tycho Brahe
was developed by Immanuel Kant. But (c) Galileo Galilei (d) Johannes Kepler
Sol.32.(d) Comets. Meteors are bits of
Mathematician Laplace revised it in
rock and ice that are ejected from Sol.37.(c) Galileo Galilei. He was an
1796. Other Hypothesis: Big Bang Theory
comets as they move in their orbits Italian astronomer and scientist. He
- Propounded by George Lamaitre related
about the Sun. Meteorites - When a described the rings of Saturn, the phases
to the origin of the universe.
meteoroid survives its trip through the of Venus, sunsets, and the bumpy lunar
Q.28. Terrestrial planets are composed atmosphere and hits the ground, it’s surface. The four moons he discovered
of _______. called a meteorite. Meteorites typically were: Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto.
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) range between the size of a pebble and a
(a) metals and air (b) rocks and metals fist. Q.38. Who was the first to accurately
(c) metals and gas (d) rocks and gas describe the rings of Saturn as a disc
Q.33. What is the radius of the earth? around the planet in 1655?
Sol.28.(b) Rocks and metals. Terrestrial SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (4th Shift) SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(a) Hideki Yukawa Northern Hemisphere during the night Q.47. In which month is the InterTropical
(b) Galileo Galilei and predawn hours. They are also known Convergence Zone (ITCZ) located around
(c) Christiaan Huygens for their bright fireball meteors. The 20°N-25°N latitude (over the Gangetic
(d) Giovanni Cassini Quadrantids can produce over 100 plain) ?
meteors per hour in a moonless sky. SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.38.(c) Christiaan Huygens. His other (a) May (b) August (c) June (d) July
inventions include the pendulum clock, Q.43. In which of the following months
centrifugal governor, and magic lantern. may the meteor shower named Lyrids be Sol.47.(d) July. The Inter Tropical
seen from Earth? Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is a low
Q.39. The moon completes _________ SSC MTS 20/10/2021(Afternoon) pressure zone located at the equator
rotation on its axis as it completes one (a) April (b) February (c) June (d) August where trade winds converge, and so, it is
revolution around the Earth. a zone where air tends to ascend. The
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) Sol.43.(a) April. The radiant point for the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone located
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4 Lyrid meteor shower is near the around 20°N-25°N latitudes (over the
constellation Lyra, which has the bright Gangetic plain) in July month is
Sol.39.(c) 1. The Moon is Earth's only star Vega in the east.
natural satellite circling the planet at an sometimes called the monsoon trough.
average distance of 384,400 kilometers. Q.44. How many degrees does the Earth Q.48. Which of the following statements
The Moon's presence helps stabilize our rotate about its own axis in one hour? is INCORRECT regarding the Coriolis
planet and moderate our climate. The SSC CGL 06/03/2020(Afternoon) force?
radius of the Moon is 1.74 × 106 m. (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 15 SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Huygens is the Moon's tallest mountain. (a) It deflects the wind to the right in the
Sol.44.(d) 15. On its axis, the earth
north and left in the south.
df
Q.40. Which of the following statements rotates 360 degrees every 24 hours.
regarding the moon is correct? (b) It is directly proportional to the angle
_p
of altitude
I. The size of the illuminated part of the Longitudes and Latitudes
moon visible from the Earth increases (c) Deflection is less when the wind is
na
each day after the new moon day. high
Q.45. The torrid zone lies between ____.
II. After the full moon day, the sunlit part (d) It is absent at the equator.
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
ap
of the moon visible from the Earth (a) Antarctic Circle and Tropic of Sol.48.(c) Deflection is less when the
decreases in size every day. Capricorn wind is high. Coriolis force : An apparent
:@
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) (b) North Pole and Arctic Circle force caused by the earth’s rotation. The
(a) Both I and II (b) Only I (c) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the
(c) Neither I nor II (d) Only II Capricorn pressure gradient force (pressure
TG
(d) Arctic Circle and Tropic of Cancer gradient force is perpendicular to an
Sol.40.(a) Both I and II. When there are
two full moons within a month, the isobar). It is maximum at the poles and is
Sol.45.(c) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of
absent at the equator. The Coriolis force
on
second full moon is called a Blue Moon, Capricorn. The Torrid Zone is the thermal
When a full moon occurs at its perigee also affects ocean currents.
zone located between the Tropic of
(the moon is closest to the earth) it is Cancer (23.5°N) and the Tropic of
ch
Q.49. Which is the Standard Meridian of
called a Supermoon. Capricorn (23.5°S). It experiences high India?
temperatures year-round due to direct
ar
Q.41. The ______ radiation belts are giant SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift)
sunlight. The Temperate Zones lie (a) 81°30ʹ E (b) 82°30ʹ E
swaths of magnetically trapped highly
Se
between the Tropics and the Arctic Circle (c) 83°30ʹ E (d) 84°40ʹ E
energetic charged particles that surround
(66.5° N) and Antarctic Circle (66.5° S),
Earth. Sol.49.(b) 82°30ʹ E. The Standard
characterized by moderate temperatures
SSC CGL 13/04/2022(Morning) Meridian of India, which passes through
with distinct seasons. The Frigid Zones
(a) Van Allen (b) Aurora Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh, also crosses
are found beyond the Arctic and
(c) Kuiper (d) Chinook the following states: Madhya Pradesh,
Antarctic Circles, extending to the North
Sol.41.(a) Van Allen. An aurora is a and South Poles, where temperatures are Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Andhra
natural phenomenon which is extremely cold year-round. Pradesh.
characterized by a display of a
Q.46. At what latitude does the easterly Q.50. Which is the waterbody that
natural-coloured (green, red, yellow or
jet stream blow over peninsular India separates Andaman Islands and Nicobar
white) light in the sky.
during the summer months? Islands?
Q.42. In which of the following periods is SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift)
the meteor shower named Quadrantids (a) 24°N (b) 30°N (c) 14°N (d) 28°N (a) Eight Degree Channel
generally visible from Earth? (b) Eleven Degree Channel
Sol.46.(c) 14°N. The Jet Stream is a (c) Nine Degree Channel
SSC MTS 20/10/2021(Afternoon)
geostrophic wind blowing horizontally (d) Ten Degree Channel
(a) August/September
through the upper layers of the
(b) October/November
troposphere, generally from west to east. Sol.50.(d) Ten Degree Channel. The 8
(c) May/June
The tropical easterly jet stream, located Degree Channel (north latitude)
(d) December/January
between 8 and 35 degrees north latitude, separates the islands of Minicoy (India)
Sol.42.(d) December / January. is connected to the southwest monsoon and Maldives. The 9 Degree Channel
Quadrantids are best viewed in the in India. (north latitude) separates the Minicoy
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
from the main Lakshadweep archipelago. 22nd December. This period is called westernmost point (Ghuar Moti in Kutch).
The 11 degree channel (north latitude) Dakshinayan. From 22nd December to The easternmost point (Kibithu in
separates the Amindivi Islands subgroup 21st June, the sun keeps on moving Arunachal Pradesh). Indira Col
from the Cannanore Islands in towards the north. This period is called (northernmost point). Indira Point (Great
Lakshadweep Islands. Uttarayan. Nicobar Island, Andaman sea) is the
Southernmost point of India while
Q.51. Identify a factor that does NOT Q.54. The southern part of India lies in Kanyakumari is the southernmost point
determine the temperature of ocean the _________ belt. of the Indian Mainland.
waters. SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Afternoon
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1) (a) rain (b) temperate (c) polar (d) warm Q.58. What is the zone between the
(a) Unequal distribution of land and arctic circle and north pole called?
water Sol.54.(d) Warm. The Tropic of Cancer SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (1st Shift)
(b) Latitude passes through the middle of India. The (a) Torrid zone
(c) Longitude southern parts being closer to the (b) Frigid zone
(d) Ocean currents Equator, experience high temperatures (c) North temperate zone
throughout the year. The northern parts (d) South temperate zone
Sol.51.(c) Longitude. Factors on the other hand lie in the warm
determining ocean water temperature : temperate zone. Sol.58.(b) Frigid zone. The North Frigid
Latitude - Affects the amount of solar Zone, between the North Pole at 90° N
radiation received. Unequal distribution Q.55. Tropic of Cancer (23°30′ N) passes and the Arctic Circle at 66°33′48.7" N,
of land and water - Affects heat through__________ state of India. covers 4.12% of Earth's surface.
absorption and distribution. Ocean SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift)
currents - Transport heat and cold water (a) Punjab (b) Maharashtra Q.59. 1° latitude is equal to approximately
df
masses globally. Longitude does not (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Kerala ______ km.
SSC CHSL 16/10/2020(Afternoon)
_p
directly influence ocean water Sol.55.(c) Chhattisgarh. The Tropic of
temperature. (a) 111 (b) 145 (c) 133 (d) 122
Cancer passes through eight states in
na
Q.52. Which of the following sets of India - Gujarat (Jasdan), Rajasthan Sol.59.(a) 111 km. This distance
statements are correct about Inter (Kalinjarh), Madhya Pradesh (Shajapur), decreases marginally as one travels to
ap
Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) ? Chhattisgarh (Sonhat), Jharkhand poles and increases marginally as one
a. The ITCZ is a broad trough of low (Lohardaga), West Bengal (Krishnanagar), goes towards the equator.
:@
pressure in equatorial latitudes. Tripura (Udaipur) and Mizoram
(Champhai). Q.60. Lines joining located at equal travel
b. This is where the northeast and the
time from a common centre are called:
southeast trade winds converge.
TG
Q.56. On which of the following two SSC CHSL 21/10/2020(Morning)
c. The ITCZ is the equatorial trough
dates does the equinox fall ? (a) Isohalines (b) Isochrones
normally positioned about 5°N of the
SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (3rd Shift) (c) Isobar (d) Isobronts
equator and remains there throughout
on
(a) 21 June and 23 September
the year. Sol.60.(b) Isochrones. Isohaline - A line
(b) 21 March and 21 June
d. The ITCZ moves over to the plane of drawn on a map to indicate connecting
(c) 21 March and 23 September
ch
Ganga in Summer. points of equal salinity in the ocean.
(d) 23 September and 22 December
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Isonomal - A line on a chart connecting
ar
(a) Only a and c (b) a, b and c Sol.56.(c) 21 March and 23 September. points of equal abundance values of a
(c) Only b and c (d) a, b and d Equinox is the situation when the equator plant species sampled in different
Se
receives the vertical rays of the Sun and sections of an area. Isobronts - A line
Sol.52.(d) a, b and d. Intertropical
day and night are equal. Spring equinox - drawn through geographical points at
Convergence Zone (ITCZ) - The region
21st March, Autumn equinox - 23 which a given phase of thunderstorm
that circles the Earth, near the equator,
September. 21st June (winter solstice in activity occurred simultaneously.
where the trade winds of the Northern
Southern Hemisphere, Summer solstice
and Southern Hemispheres come
together. Seasonal shifts in the location
in Northern hemisphere) - The rays of the Continents and Oceans
sun fall directly on the Tropic of Cancer.
of the ITCZ drastically affects rainfall in
22 December (Summer solstice in Q.61. Which is the largest sea located in
many equatorial nations, resulting in the
Southern hemisphere, winter solstice in the North Indian Ocean, covering an area
wet and dry seasons of the tropics rather
Northern Hemisphere) - The rays of the of about 3.86 million square kilometres?
than the cold and warm seasons of
sun fall directly on the Tropic of SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning)
higher latitudes.
Capricorn. (a) Java Sea (b) Andaman Sea
Q.53. During October-November, the (c) Red Sea (d) Arabian Sea
apparent movement of the sun is Q.57. From the north most to south most
towards the _____. point of India, what is the extent of India? Sol.61.(d) Arabian Sea. The North Indian
SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Afternoon) SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (4th Shift) Ocean is a region of the Indian Ocean
(a) North (b) North-East (a) 4109 km (b) 2914 km that includes the Bay of Bengal and the
(c) North-West (d) South (c) 3214 km (d) 3785 km Arabian Sea. The Arabian Sea shows
higher salinity due to high evaporation
Sol.53.(d) South. The position of the Sol.57.(c) 3214 km. Extent of India: East and low influx of fresh water. The Red
rising sun keeps on moving towards the to west (2,933 km), land frontier (15,200 Sea is located between Africa and Asia.
south in the period from 21st June to km), coastline (7,516.6 km). The The Java Sea is located in Indonesia,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
between the islands of Java and Borneo. the world's largest saltwater lake by SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
The Andaman Sea is located in the volume. The Aral Sea is located between (a) Louis Agassiz
northeastern part of the Indian Ocean. Kazakhstan to the north and Uzbekistan (b) Georges Cuvier
to the south. (c) Abraham Ortelius
Q.62. Which of the following is the (d) Dan Peter McKenzie
largest crustal plate on Earth with an Q.65. Which ocean is encircling the
area of over 103,000,000 km2 ? continent of Antarctica and extends Sol.68.(c) Abraham Ortelius was a Dutch
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) northward to 60 degrees south latitude? mapmaker who proposed in his work
(a) South American plate SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Thesaurus Geographicus that the
(b) African plate (a) Atlantic Ocean (b) Indian Ocean continents were once joined together.
(c) Eurasian plate (c) Pacific Ocean (d) Southern Ocean This idea laid the groundwork for the
(d) Pacific plate continental drift theory, later fully
Sol.65.(d) Southern Ocean. It is the developed by Alfred Wegener in 1912.
Sol.62.(d) Pacific plate : It is the largest newest of the world's five oceans, Wegener suggested that all continents
oceanic plate. Plate Tectonics theory officially designated as a separate ocean formed a single landmass called
given by McKenzie, Parker and Morgan by the International Hydrographic Pangaea ("all earth"), surrounded by a
in 1967. It proposes that the earth’s Organization (IHO) in 2000. The Atlantic vast ocean known as Panthalassa ("all
lithosphere is divided into seven major Ocean is between the Americas and water").
and some minor plates. Major plates : Europe/Africa. The Indian Ocean is
Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic between Africa, Asia, and Australia. The Q.69. Which of the following is NOT a
plate; North American (with western Pacific Ocean is between Asia and the part of the ocean floor?
Atlantic floor separated from the South Americas. Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
American plate along the Caribbean (a) The continental shelf
df
islands) plate; South American (with Q.66. The name of the strait between the (b) The continental slope
Pacific and Arctic oceans, separating the
_p
western Atlantic floor separated from the (c) The deep sea shelf
North American plate along the Chukchi Peninsula of the Russian Far (d) The deep sea plain
East from the Seward Peninsula of
na
Caribbean islands) plate; Pacific plate;
India-Australia-New Zealand plate; Africa Alaska, is the : Sol.69.(c) The deep sea shelf. A
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) continental shelf is the submerged edge
ap
with the eastern Atlantic floor plate;
Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate. (a) Davis Strait (b) Florida Strait of a continent beneath the ocean. The
(c) Bering Strait (d) Messina Strait continental slope extends seaward from
:@
Q.63. In the context of water bodies, the shelf to the upper edge of a
Neap Tides occur : Sol.66.(c) Bering Strait. Davis Strait : It is continental rise or the point where the
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift) located between Greenland and Baffin slope begins to flatten. An abyssal plain,
TG
(a) when the earth, moon and sun line up Island in Canada. It connects Baffin Bay or deep sea plain, is a flat region on the
in a straight line with the Labrador Sea and is part of the ocean floor, typically found at depths
(b) when the sun and moon are on the Northwest Passage in the Arctic. Florida between 3,000 and 6,000 meters.
on
opposite sides Strait : It is a channel of water located Oceanic deeps are the deepest parts of
(c) when there is so much interference by between the Gulf of Mexico and the the ocean, covered with fine-grained
ch
continents Atlantic Ocean, separating the Florida sediments such as clay and silt.
(d) when the sun and moon are at right Keys and Cuba. Strait of Messina : It is a Examples of oceanic landforms : Abyssal
ar
angles to each other narrow passage between the eastern plains, Submarine canyons, Deep ocean
coast of Sicily and the western coast of trenches, Guyots, Seamounts, Mid-ocean
Se
Sol.63.(d) During neap tide, gravitational Calabria in southern Italy. It connects the ridges, Abyssal plains, etc.
and centrifugal forces are divided. The Tyrrhenian Sea with the Ionian Sea.
high tides of a neap tide are lower than Q.70. The thermocline layer is the ______
the average high tide and the low tides of Q.67. The peninsular plateau of India layer of the ocean.
a Neap tide are higher than the average was a part of which continent earlier? Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
low tide. Spring tides - When the sun, the SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) (a) second (b) third (c) fourth (d) first
moon and the earth are in a straight line, (a) North America (b) Europe
(c) South America (d) Africa Sol.70.(a) Second. Scientists have
the height of the tide will be higher.
divided the ocean into five main layers.
These are called spring tides, and they
Sol.67.(d) Africa. The Peninsular Plateau Epipelagic Zone - The surface layer from
occur twice a month.
is roughly triangular in shape. The the surface to 200 meters. Mesopelagic
Q.64. Which of the following is a peninsular plateau of India was a part of Zone - The twilight zone or the midwater
landlocked Salt Lake in South-West Asia the supercontinent Gondwana, which zone. Bathypelagic Zone - The midnight
between Israel and Jordan? included Africa, South America, Australia, zone or the dark zone. Abyssopelagic
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) and Antarctica. After breaking up from Zone - The water temperature is near
(a) Don Juan Pond (b) Aral Sea Gondwana, the Indian subcontinent freezing, and there is no light at all.
(c) Caspian Sea (d) Dead Sea drifted northwards and collided with Hadalpelagic Zone - The deepest point in
Eurasia which formed the Himalayas. the ocean is located in the Mariana
Sol.64.(d) Dead Sea. Its salinity of 340
Trench.
grams per litre of water. The Dead Sea Q.68. In 1596, who suggested in his work
seawater has a density of 1.240 kg/L, 'Thesaurus Geographicus' that the Q.71. In 1962, who published 'The
which makes swimming in its waters continents of the earth were not always History of Ocean Basins', which outlined
similar to floating. The Caspian Sea is located in their present positions ? the theory of how tectonic plates could
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
move, later called 'sea floor spreading' ? average gradient of: of trade winds in a region. La Nina (Little
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) Girl in Spanish) - The periodic cooling of
(a) Alfred Wegener (a) 1° or even less (b) 2° or even less ocean surface temperatures in the
(b) Louis Bauer (c) 8° or even less (d) 5° or even less central and east-central equatorial
(c) Harry Hammond Hess Pacific.
(d) George Edward Backus Sol.74.(a) 1° or even less. The
Continental Shelf is the extended margin Q.78. Which of the following oceans is
Sol.71.(c) Harry Hammond Hess, an of each continent occupied by relatively surrounded by the continent of North
American geologist and naval officer. He shallow seas and gulfs. About America and South America to the east?
discovered that the oceans were Continental Shelf : The shelf typically SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (1st Shift)
shallower in the middle and identified the ends at a very steep slope, called the (a) Pacific Ocean (b) Atlantic Ocean
presence of Mid Ocean Ridges, raised shelf break. Their width varies globally, (c) Indian Ocean (d) Arctic Ocean
above the surrounding generally flat sea with an average of about 80 km, but can
floor (abyssal plain) by as much as 1.5 be narrower or even absent in some Sol.78.(a) Pacific Ocean (world’s largest
km. Seafloor spreading is a geologic regions, such as the coasts of Chile and and deepest ocean): It represents 45
process in which tectonic plates—large the west coast of Sumatra. percent of the global ocean surface. The
slabs of Earth's lithosphere—split apart International Date Line (established in
from each other. Q.75. Living organisms have been on 1884) passes through the mid-Pacific
Earth for how much percent of Earth's Ocean. The Atlantic Ocean is surrounded
Q.72. Which is the deepest point of history? by the continents of North and South
Earth's oceans with a depth of 11,022 SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) America to the west, and Europe and
metres? (a) 60% (b) 40% (c) 80% (d) 20% Africa to the east. The Indian Ocean is
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) bordered by Asia to the north, Africa to
df
(a) Pacific Ocean's Mariana Trench Sol.75.(c) 80%. Taking Earth's age as the west, and Australia to the east.
nearly 4.6 Billion Years (BY), instead of
_p
(b) Indian Ocean's Java Trench
(c) Atlantic Ocean's Puerto Rico Trench 13.7 BY from the Big Bang, unicellular life Q.79. Which of the following oceans
appeared nearly 3.8 BY ago. This extends into the Mediterranean Sea ?
na
(d) Arctic Ocean's Eurasian Basin
percentage is 3.8/4.6 X 100 = 82.6%, SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Sol.72.(a) Pacific Ocean's Mariana nearly. (a) Indian Ocean (b) Pacific Ocean
ap
Trench. Trenches are long, narrow (c) Atlantic Ocean (d) Arctic Ocean
depressions on the seafloor that form at Q.76. Choose the correct statement(s)
:@
the boundary of tectonic plates where related to ‘continentality’. Sol.79.(c) Atlantic Ocean is the 2nd
one plate is pushed, or subducts, a. The sea exerts a moderating influence largest ocean in the world. The
beneath another. Other Trenches: Puerto on climate. Mediterranean is an intercontinental sea
TG
Rico Trench (8,400 m) - Atlantic Ocean; b. As the distance from the sea spread between Europe, North Africa,
Tonga Trench (10,882 m) - Southwestern increases, the people experience extreme and Western Asia and connected to the
Pacific Ocean; South Sandwich Trench weather conditions. Atlantic Ocean through the strait of
on
(7,432 m) - Southern Ocean; Java Trench c. As one goes from the surface of the Gibraltar.
(7,187 m) - Indian Ocean. earth to higher altitudes, the atmosphere
Q.80. The mohororvicic (Moho)
ch
becomes less dense and temperature
Q.73. Which of the following is the decreases. discontinuity separates ?
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
ar
correct match between column-A and SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening)
column-B ? (a) b and c (b) Only c (a) Earth's lithosphere and
Se
(c) a and c (d) a and b asthenosphere
Column - A Column - B
(b) Earth's atmosphere and hydrosphere
(Elements in earth (Total % in earth
Sol.76.(d) a and b. Continentality (i.e. (c) Earth's crust and the inner core
crust) crust)
very hot during summers and very cold (d) Earth's crust and the mantle
i. Oxygen a. 8%
during winters) found in inland areas.
ii. Silicon b. 28% Sol.80.(d) Earth's crust and the mantle.
Continental climates are common
iii. Aluminium c. 47% Moho discontinuity - It occurs at an
between 40° and 70° north latitude and
iv. Iron d. 5% average depth of about 8 kilometers
experience large temperature differences
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) between day and night. beneath the ocean basins and 32
(a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (b) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d kilometers beneath continental surfaces.
(c) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d (d) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d Q.77. What does El Niño refer to ?
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (1st Shift) Q.81. Due to the attraction of the sun and
Sol.73.(c) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d. Abundances (a) Hot water current the moon, what is the frequency of up
of other Element in the Earth’s Crust: (b) Pressure water current and falls of ocean water in a day ?
Calcium (Ca) - 3.63%, Sodium (Na) - (c) High air pressure SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift)
2.83%, Potassium (K) - 2.59%, (d) Low air pressur (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) One
Magnesium (Mg) - 2.09% and others -
Sol.77.(a) Hot water current. The term El Sol.81.(a) Two. When the Earth, Sun, and
1.41%. Earth has three layers: crust
Nino (Little Boy in Spanish) - Warming of Moon line up, their gravitational power
(upper layer), mantle (middle layer), and
the ocean surface, or above-average sea combines to make exceptionally high
core (lower layer).
surface temperatures, in the central and tides where the bulges occur, called
Q.74. Continental Shelf which is the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean on the spring tides, as well as very low tides
shallowest part of the ocean has an coast of Peru. El nino leads to weakening where the water has been displaced.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
When the Sun is at a right angle to the continental crust has an average of 2.7 classified into ______ types.
Moon, moderate tides, called neap tides. g/cm3. The mass of the continental crust SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Evening)
There are generally three types of tides: is 2.195. The continental crust (about 30 (a) three (b) two (c) five (d) Six
Diurnal - One high and low tide each day, km) is composed of lighter (felsic)
Semi-diurnal - Two high and low tides sodium potassium aluminum silicate Sol.90.(a) three. The movement of the
each day, and Mixed - Two high and low rocks, like granite. The oceanic crust plates creates three types of tectonic
tides each day of different heights. (about 5 km) is composed of dense boundaries: convergent, where plates
(mafic) iron magnesium silicate igneous move into one another; divergent, where
Q.82. Which is the correct sequence of rocks, like basalt. plates move apart; and transform, where
oceans according to size (from largest to plates move sideways in relation to each
smallest) ? Q.86. Movement of fault lines can cause: other.
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (2nd shift) SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening)
(a) Pacific Ocean > Antarctic Ocean > (a) a flood (b) sudden rain Q.91. Ocean acidification is the ongoing
Indian Ocean > Atlantic Ocean (c) an earthquake (d) a storm decrease in the pH of the Earth’s oceans,
(b) Pacific Ocean > Indian Ocean > caused by the uptake of ______ from the
Antarctic Ocean > Atlantic Ocean Sol.86.(c) An earthquake. It is a sudden atmosphere.
(c) Pacific Ocean > Atlantic Ocean > shaking or trembling of the earth which SSC MTS 15/07/2022 (Afternoon)
Indian Ocean > Antarctic Ocean lasts for a very short time. Earthquakes (a) Methane (b) carbon dioxide
(d) Pacific Ocean > Indian Ocean > tend to occur at the boundaries of earth’s (c) nitrogen (d) argon
Atlantic Ocean > Antarctic Ocean plates. These boundaries are known as
fault zones. Over 80 percent of Sol.91.(b) Carbon dioxide. Ocean
Sol.82.(c) Pacific Ocean, the world's earthquakes occur around the edges of acidification is the worldwide reduction
largest, was named by Ferdinand the Pacific Ocean, an area known as the in the pH of seawater as a consequence
df
Magellan. The International Date Line 'Ring of Fire'. Instrument used for of the absorption of large amounts of
carbon dioxide by the oceans. It results
_p
passes through it. measuring Earthquake: Seismograph.
in the alteration of marine food chains
Q.83. The percentage of earth's water Q.87. What is the average salinity of the and food supply to humans.
found in the oceans is _________.
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (4th Shift)
Indian ocean?
na
Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Q.92. The lowest known point on earth is
ap
(a) 94 percent (b) 97.2 percent (a) 350 o/oo (b) 35 o/oo called ________, which is present in the
(c) 90.2 percent (d) 92.2 percent (c) 3.5 o/oo (d) 3 o/oo Pacific Ocean.
:@
SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Morning)
Sol.83.(b) 97.2 percent. Water covers 71 Sol.87.(b) 35 o/oo (35 parts per (a) Factorial Deep (b) Challenger Deep
percent of Earth's surface. Distribution of thousand). Salinity is the amount of salt (c) Great Blue Hole (d) Great Barrier Reef
TG
Earth’s water: Oceans (97.2%), Glaciers present in 1000 grams of water. A
(2.1%), Groundwater (0.61 percent); salinity of 24.7 % has been regarded as Sol.92.(b) Challenger Deep. It is located
Freshwater lakes (0.009 percent), Inland the upper limit to fix ‘brackish water’. beneath the western Pacific Ocean.
on
seas (0.008 percent), Soil Moisture Factorian Deep is the new deepest point
(0.005 percent), Atmosphere (0.001 Q.88. Tsunami is NOT caused by: in Antarctica's Southern Ocean. The
Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4) Great Blue Hole is a giant marine
ch
percent), Rivers (0.0001 percent). 2.7 %
of earth’s water is fresh. (a) Hurricanes sinkhole off the coast of Belize. The
(b) volcanic eruptions great barrier reef is the world’s largest
ar
Q.84. How thick is the lithosphere? (c) undersea landslides coral reef located in Australia.
Se
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (1st Shift) (d) Earthquakes
(a) 25 to 45 km (b) 10 to 25 km Q.93. In coastal areas, during the night,
(c) 10 to 200 km (d) 5 to 10 km Sol.88.(a) Hurricanes. Tsunamis are wind blows from land to sea because:
giant waves caused by earthquakes or SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Morning)
Sol.84.(c) 10 to 200 km. The lithosphere volcanic eruptions under the sea. (a) low pressure is created on land
is the outermost and mechanical layer of (b) land cools slower than water
Q.89. Which of the following is a warm
the Earth that consists of the entire crust (c) water cools slower than land
current?
and the top-most portion of the mantle. (d) high pressure is created at sea
SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Afternoon)
Mechanically, the earth’s layers can be
(a) Labrador current (b) Falkland current Sol.93.(c) water cools slower than land.
divided into lithosphere, asthenosphere
(c) Canary current (d) Gulf stream The wind blowing from land towards the
(80-200 km), mesospheric mantle, outer
core, and inner core. Sol.89.(d) Gulf stream current in the sea is the Land breeze. The wind blowing
North Atlantic and the Kuroshio Current from the sea towards the land is a sea
Q.85. The crust is the Earth's outermost breeze. Both are induced by differences
in the North Pacific are warm currents.
layer that is less than ______ percent of that occur between the heating or
Warm Currents - Alaskan Current,
Earth by mass, with oceanic crust and cooling of the water surface and the
Tsushima Current, Brazilian Current etc.
continental crust often consisting of adjacent land surface.
Cold Current - Labrador Current, Canary
more felsic rocks.
Current, Benguela Current, Falkland Q.94. The process of seepage of water
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift)
Current, South Indian Ocean Current, into the ground is called ____.
(a) 5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d)10
Okhotsk Current, Humboldt or Peruvian SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Morning)
Sol.85.(b) 1. The average density of Current etc. (a) Infiltration (b) depletion
oceanic crust is 3.0 g/cm3, while Q.90. The plate movements on earth are (c) Storage (d) replenishment
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Sol.94.(a) Infiltration occurs when Antarctica. (c) Bhutan and West Bengal
surface water enters the soil. (d) Bhutan and Assam
Q.100. What is the normal air pressure at
Q.95. Which water body covers an area sea level? Sol.104.(b) Bhutan and Meghalaya. The
2
of 1,55,58,000 𝑘𝑚 and makes up only SSC CHSL 19/03/2020(Morning) Indian states of West Bengal (183 km),
4.3% of the global ocean? (a) 1013.25 millibars (b) 886.13 millibars Arunachal Pradesh (217 km), Sikkim (32
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022(Morning) (c) 985.14 millibars (d)1100.12 millibars km), and Assam (267 km) share their
(a) Atlantic Ocean (b) Arctic Ocean boundaries with Bhutan. The Kingdom of
Sol.100.(a) 1013.25 millibars. The air Bhutan and the Republic of India are
(c) Southern Ocean (d) Indian Ocean
pressure decreases as the altitude separated by a 699 km long, regional
Sol.95.(b) Arctic Ocean is the smallest increases. border.
and shallowest of the world's five major
Q.101. India is divided into how many Q.105. Which of the following countries
oceans.
earthquake zones (seismic zones)? has the highest Hindu population after
Q.96. Which is the largest continental SSC CHSL 19/03/2020(Morning) India?
shelf in the world? (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022(Evening) (a) Bhutan (b) Sri Lanka
Sol.101.(b) 4. The Bureau of Indian
(a) The shelf of India (c) Myanmar (d) Nepal
Standards has classified regions in India
(b) The Indian Ocean shelf
into 4 seismic zones on the basis of Sol.105.(d) Nepal. After India, the next
(c) The shelf in the Pacific Ocean
historical seismic activity. These are nine countries with the largest Hindu
(d) The Siberian shelf in the Arctic Ocean
zones II, III, IV and V. Zone V is the most populations are, in decreasing order :
Sol.96.(d) The Siberian shelf in the seismically active region and Zone II is Nepal, Bangladesh, Indonesia, Pakistan,
df
Arctic Ocean. A continental shelf is the the least active. The magnitude scale Sri Lanka, the United States, Malaysia,
edge of a continent that lies under the used to measure earthquakes ranges the United Arab Emirates and the United
_p
ocean. Example of a Continental Shelf from 1 to 12. Kingdom.
Landform: Siberian Shelf, Arctic Ocean.
na
Q.102. The _____ is responsible for Q.106. The New Moore Island is in
Q.97. Which of the following is a group Earth's magnetic field. geographic proximity to:
ap
of islands found in the tropical oceans SSC CHSL 16/10/2020(Morning) SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
consisting of coral reefs and a central (a) inner core (b) mantle (a) Pakistan (b) Myanmar
:@
depression? (c) outer core (d) crust (c) Bangladesh (d) Sri Lanka
SSC CGL 19/04/2022(Morning)
Sol.102.(c) outer core. On Earth, flowing Sol.106.(c) Bangladesh. New Moore
(a) Guyots (b) Atoll
liquid metal in the outer core of the
TG
(c) Seamount (d) Lagoon Island, also known as South Talpatti, is
planet generates electric currents. The located in the Bay of Bengal and is
Sol.97.(b) Atoll. List of atolls: Great rotation of Earth on its axis causes these geographically closest to Bangladesh. It
electric currents to form a magnetic field
on
Chagos Bank, Macclesfield Bank, lies near the maritime boundary between
Thiladhunmathi, Sabalana Islands. which extends around the planet. India and Bangladesh.
Guyot is an undersea mountain. Lagoons
ch
are shallow bodies of water that are Neighbouring Countries of Q.107. Maldives are located to the south
of which island of India?
separated from the ocean by a barrier India
ar
reef. Seamounts are underwater SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Japan (b) Lakshadweep
Se
mountains that rise above the ocean Q.103. Which of the following is in
floor but do not reach the surface. geographical proximity to Sri Lanka? (c) Sri Lanka (d) Andaman and Nicobar
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Q.98. Name the only sea in the world that Sol.107.(b) Lakshadweep. Maldives : Its
(a) Only Karaikal (b) Karaikal and Yanam
does NOT have a land boundary. capital is Male. The Maldives are a group
(c) Only Mahe (d) Only Yanam
SSC MTS 13/10/2021(Evening) of coral atolls that were formed from the
(a) Sargasso Sea (b) Pechora Sea Sol.103.(a) Only Karaikal. Karaikal is a crowns of an ancient volcanic mountain
(c) Amundsen Sea (d) Iroise Sea town in the Union Territory of range.
Puducherry. Sri Lanka, formerly known as
Sol.98.(a) Sargasso Sea. It is a part of Q.108. McMahon Line is the boundary
Ceylon, is an island nation in South Asia.
the Atlantic Ocean. It is named so line between India and _________ .
Located in the Indian Ocean, southwest
because of the presence of brown Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
of the Bay of Bengal, it is separated from
Sargassum seaweed. (a) Nepal (b) China
the Indian peninsula by the Gulf of
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Pakistan
Q.99. Which of the following was NOT a Mannar and the Palk Strait. Sri Lanka
part of Gondwanaland? shares a maritime border with the Sol.108.(b) China. Pakistan shares a
SSC CGL 23/08/2021(Evening) Maldives to the southwest and India to border with India, defined by the Radcliffe
(a) Australia (b) South America the northwest. Line (International Border) and the Line
(c) India (d) North America of Control. India has 15,106.7 Km of land
Q.104. Which of the following pairs do
Sol.99.(d) North America. The ancient NOT share any borders? border and a coastline of 7,516.6 Km
supercontinent Gondwana incorporated SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) including island territories. India shares
present-day South America, Africa, (a) Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh the longest border with Bangladesh
Madagascar, India, Australia, and (b) Bhutan and Meghalaya about 4,096.7 km and Shortest with
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Afghanistan about 106 km. The Durand Pass is a mountain pass in the Khyber and Kabul River.
line separates Pakistan and Afghanistan. Pakhtunkhwa province of Pakistan, on
the border with Afghanistan. Pangsau Q.118. Which of the following rivers
Q.109. Which trek in Bhutan is Pass lies on the crest of the Patkai Hills flows north of the Tropic of Cancer in
considered to be the crown jewel of on the India–Myanmar border. Zojila India?
Bhutanese trekking? Pass is the strategic link connecting SSC MTS 30/10/2024 (1st Shift)
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Ladakh to Srinagar and the rest of India. (a) Mahanadi (b) Tapi
(a) Jumolhari Trek (c) Penganga (d) Yamuna
(b) Dagala Thousand Lakes Trek Q.114. Which of the following is the
(c) Snowman Trek highest mountain in Bhutan? Sol.118.(d) Yamuna. Originates -
(d) Laya Gasa Trek SSC MTS 02/11/2021(Evening) Yamunotri Glacier, Flows through the
(a) Gangkhar Puensum (b) Kula Kangri Himalayan foothills before entering the
Sol.109.(c) Snowman Trek. It is a 27 day (c) Jomolhari (d) Gipmochi Indo-Gangetic Plain. Tributaries - Tons,
track. Other Treks in Bhutan - Jumolhari Hindon, Chambal, Sind, Betwa, and Ken.
Trek, Dagala Thousand Lakes trek, Laya Sol.114.(a) Gangkhar Puensum (7,570 The Yamuna River joins the Ganges River
Gasa Trek, Druk Path Trek, Tsaluna Trek, meters). Other Mountains of Bhutan : near Prayagraj (Allahabad). The Mahi
etc. Treks in India - Kalindi Khal Trek, Kula Kangri (7538 m), Jomolhari. Bhutan River is the only river in India that crosses
Stok Kangri Trek, Auden's Col Trek, : Capital - Thimphu, Currency - Ngultrum. the Tropic of Cancer twice. Originates in
Chadar Trek, etc. the Vindhya Mountains in Madhya
Indian Drainage System Pradesh, flows through Madhya Pradesh,
Q.110. Nepal does NOT share its Rajasthan, and Gujarat, and drains into
boundary with which of the following the Arabian Sea.
Q.115. Trishulganga is a stream of the
states in India?
river:
df
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening) Q.119. What is the salt measurement in
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Evening)
(a) Sikkim (b) Bihar hypersaline lagoons?
_p
(a) Ghaghara (b) Beas
(c) West Bengal (d) Manipur SSC MTS 14/11/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) Godavari (d) Gandak
(a) 30 to 35 (b) Less than 5
na
Sol.110.(d) Manipur. Nepal is located to (c) Less than 100 (d) More than 100
Sol.115.(d) Gandak. It comprises two
the North of India. It shares a border with
streams, namely Kaligandak and
ap
five Indian states: Uttarakhand, Uttar Sol.119.(d) More than 100. Hypersaline
Trishulganga. It rises in the Nepal
Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Sikkim. lagoons are extreme environments with
Himalayas between the Dhaulagiri and
:@
The total length of the India-Nepal border salt concentrations significantly higher
Mount Everest and drains the central part
is about 1,751 kilometers. than typical seawater. While normal
of Nepal. It enters the Ganga plain in
ocean salinity is around 35 parts per
TG
Q.111. With which neighbouring country Champaran district of Bihar and joins the
Ganga at Sonpur near Patna. thousand (3.5%), hypersaline lagoons
does India share the Sunderbans forest?
can have salt concentrations exceeding
SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Q.116. Select the odd one from the 100 parts per thousand (10%). These
on
(a) China (b) Pakistan
following saltwater lakes on the basis of environments are typically found in arid
(c) Bangladesh (d) Nepal
their formation? regions with high evaporation rates and
ch
Sol.111.(c) Bangladesh. Sunderban forest SSC MTS 09/10/2024 (3rd Shift) limited water input, such as the Dead
is a part of the world's largest delta and (a) Pulicat lake (b) Kolleru lake Sea.
ar
home to the largest mangrove forests. It is (c) Chilika lake (d) Sambhar lake
Q.120. In which state of India is kund or
the only mangrove habitat in the world for
Se
Sol.116.(d) Sambhar lake: The largest Tanka used for water harvesting ?
Panthera tigris species.
inland saltwater lake in India situated in SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.112. The Sino - Indian border is divided Rajasthan. Pulicat lake (Andhra Pradesh (a) Rajasthan (b) Andhra Pradesh
into how many sectors? and Tamil Nadu), Kolleru lake (Andhra (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Punjab
SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (1st Shift) Pradesh), and Chilika lake (Odisha) - are
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3 all coastal saltwater lakes, formed by the Sol.120.(a) Rajasthan. This region faces
seawater entering the lake through extreme arid conditions and low rainfall,
Sol.112.(d) 3. The Indian Military has creeks or rivers. so local communities have developed
divided the LAC (Line of Actual Control) innovative systems to conserve and
Q.117. The Zaskar and the Nubra are
into 3 sectors - Western sector across store water. Water harvesting structures
tributaries of which river?
Ladakh and the Chinese-held Aksai Chin, in other States: Kere (large tanks) in
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift)
The central sector across Himachal Karnataka, Cheruvu in Andhra Pradesh,
(a) Mahanadi (b) Ganga
Pradesh and Uttrakhand states, and the Bandharas and Tals in Maharashtra,
(c) Indus (d) Kaveri
eastern sector across Sikkim and Surangam in Kerala, Eris (tanks) in Tamil
Arunachal Pradesh states. Sol.117.(c) Indus (Sindhu) originates Nadu, Bhundis in Madhya Pradesh and
from a glacier near Bokhar Chu in the Uttar Pradesh.
Q.113. Which of the following is a hill
Tibetan region at an altitude of 4,164 m
pass located between India and China? Q.121. Which of the following is the
in the Kailash Mountain range.
SSC MTS 26/10/2021(Afternoon) transboundary river between India and
Tributaries - Chenab River, Jhelum River,
(a) Khyber Pass (b) Pangsau Pass Pakistan?
Ravi River, Satluj River, Beas River, Shyok
(c) Karakoram Pass (d) Zojila Pass SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
River, Gilgit River, Hunza River, Swat River,
(a) Indus (b) Ravi (c) Beas (d) Jhelum
Sol.113.(c) Karakoram Pass. The Khyber Kunnar River, Kurram River, Gomal River,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Sol.121.(b) Ravi. This river flows through Q.125. Which of the following peninsular are its principal tributaries. The Mahi
north-western India and eastern rivers falls into the Arabian Sea? (Origin, Northern slope of Vindhyas),
Pakistan. It, along with the Beas and SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Narmada (Origin, Amarkantak), and Tapi
Sutlej rivers, was allocated to India under (a) Mahanadi river (b) Krishna river (Origin, Betul) rivers flow westward,
the Indus Water Treaty. Indus River : This (c) Sabarmati river (d) Godavari river draining into the Arabian Sea.
river originates in western Tibet, passes
through Kashmir, and flows into Pakistan Sol.125.(c) Sabarmati river. It is one of Q.129. ‘Bhagirathi’ and ‘Alaknanda’ rivers
before falling into the Arabian Sea. It, the major west-flowing rivers in India. It confluence at:
along with the Chenab and Jhelum rivers, originates from Aravalli hills. Mahanadi SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
was allocated to Pakistan under the river: Origin - Sihawa (South of (a) Joshimath (b) Haridwar
Indus Water Treaty of 1960. Amarkantak) near Raipur (Chhattisgarh). (c) Karanprayag (d) Devaprayag
It flows through Chhattisgarh and Odisha
Q.122. In which state of India was the and drains into the Bay of Bengal. Sol.129.(d) Devaprayag. The Five
Neeru-Meeru programme introduced for Prayags are sacred river confluences in
construction of water harvesting Q.126. In the ancient temple of Mahadev Uttarakhand. At Devaprayag, the
structures? at Mahabaleshwar, the spout emerging Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers meet. At
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) from the mouth of a cow statue is the Rudraprayag, the Mandakini and
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Rajasthan source of which river basin? Alaknanda rivers converge. At
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Punjab SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Nandaprayag, the Nandakini joins the
(a) Kaveri (b) Krishna Alaknanda. At Karnaprayag, the Pindar
Sol.122.(a) Andhra Pradesh. (c) Godavari (d) Narmada meets the Alaknanda, and at
The Neeru-Meeru (Water and You) Vishnuprayag, the Dhauliganga merges
program was launched by the Water Sol.126.(b) Krishna. It is the second with the Alaknanda.
df
Conservation Mission (WCM), on May 1, largest east flowing Peninsular river
which rises near Mahabaleshwar in Q.130. Which state of India has the
_p
2000. It was a Water conservation and
poverty alleviation initiative. Sahyadri. Origin of rivers : Kaveri - maximum number of large dams?
originates at Talakaveri, which is located SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
na
Q.123. Identify a water-harvesting on the Brahmagiri range in the Kodagu (a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh
system found in Jaisalmer. (Coorg) district of Karnataka. Godavari - (c) Odisha (d) Rajasthan
ap
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift) rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik
(a) Guls (b) Johads (c) Khadins (d) Kuls district of Maharashtra. Narmada - rises Sol.130.(a) Maharashtra leads in large
:@
from Maikala range near Amarkantak in dams, followed by Madhya Pradesh and
Sol.123.(c) Khadins. ‘Rooftop rainwater Gujarat. Major dams in Maharashtra
harvesting’ was commonly practised to Madhya Pradesh.
include Jayakwadi, Koyna, and
TG
store drinking water, particularly in Q.127. Which of the following are west Radhanagari. India's first dam, Kallanai,
Rajasthan. In arid and semi-arid regions, flowing rivers? was built over 2,000 years ago. Notable
agricultural fields were converted into SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) post-independence dams include
on
rain fed storage structures that allowed (a) Godavari and Mahanadi Hirakud (1957), Gandhisagar (1960),
the water to stand and moisten the soil (b) Krishna and Kaveri Bhakra-Nangal (1963), and Nagarjuna
like the ‘khadins’ in Jaisalmer and
ch
(c) Ganga and Yamuna Sagar (1967).
‘Johads’ in other parts of Rajasthan. In (d) Mahi and Sabarmati
hill and mountainous regions, people Q.131. In which group of states does the
ar
built diversion channels like the ‘guls’ or Sol.127.(d) Mahi and Sabarmati. Mahi Luni River flow?
Se
‘kuls’ of the Western Himalayas for River originates from Vindhyachal Hills, SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
agriculture. Madhya Pradesh and meets in Bay of (a) Bihar and West Bengal
Khambhat. Major West-flowing rivers - (b) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
Q.124. Which of the following rivers
Indus, Narmada, and Tapi. Major (c) Rajasthan and Gujarat
marks
East-flowing rivers: Ganga, (d) Maharashtra and Karnataka
the eastern-most boundary of the
Brahmaaputra, Mahanadi, Krishna, and
Himalayas ? Sol.131.(c) Rajasthan and Gujarat. The
Godavari. Major peninsular rivers -
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Luni River begins near Pushkar valley in
Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri,
(a) Kali (b) Teesta two branches called the Saraswati and
Narmada, and Tapti.
(c) Satluj (d) Brahmaputra the Sabarmati. These two branches
Q.128. Which of the following rivers is an merge at Govindgarh, and from there, the
Sol.124.(d) Brahmaputra River flows
east flowing river? river flows out of the Aravalli as the Luni.
through the northeastern part of India,
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) It continues westward until Telwara, then
originating from the Angsi Glacier in
(a) Mahi river (b) Narmada river turns southwest to join the Rann of Kutch
Tibet and passing through Arunachal
(c) Godavari river (d) Tapi river (Gujarat).
Pradesh before entering Assam. The
Teesta River rises in the Pauhunri Sol.128.(c) Godavari river. It rises in the Q.132. Which of the following is NOT a
Mountain of the eastern Himalayas and Nasik district of Maharashtra and tributary of the Ganga?
flows through the Indian states of Sikkim discharges its water into the Bay of SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
and West Bengal. The Satluj River Bengal. It is 1,465 km long with a (a) Yamuna (b) Gandak (c) Kosi (d) Lohit
originates in Raksas Tal near Mansarovar catchment area spreading over 3.13 lakh
in Tibet. The Kali River flows through the square kilometers. The Penganga, the Sol.132.(d) Lohit is a tributary to the
Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka. Indravati, the Pranhita, and the Manjra Brahmaputra River. Ganga’s Tributaries
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
include: Yamuna, Son, Gomti, Ghaghra, Sol.136.(c) Pennar river. It originates in d) NW-5 4. Sadiya- Dhubri
Gandak, and Kosi rivers. the Nandi Hills, Karnataka, and flows 5. Talcher - Dhamra
through Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Q.133. The Aryans lived in the land SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift)
before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
known as ‘Sapta Sindhu’ (Land of the (a) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-5 (b) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-5
The Somasila dam is situated in the
Seven Rivers). Which of the following (c) a-4, b-3, c-5, d- 1 (d) a-2, b-5, c-3, d-1
Nellore district (Andhra Pradesh).
was NOT a part of it? Famous dams and the rivers they are Sol.140.(b) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-5. NW-1 is
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) built on: Koyna Dam (Koyna River), Idukki the longest waterway in India, stretching
(a) Indus (b) Shipra (c) Ravi (d) Jhelum Dam (Periyar River). 1,620 kilometers from Haldia to
Sol.133.(b) Shipra. The Shipra (Kshipra), Allahabad. NW-69 is the smallest (5 km)
Q.137. The Bist Doab Canal System and
a 195 km tributary of the Chambal River waterway in India. It is part of the
Makhu Canal System are associated with
in Madhya Pradesh, flows across the Manimuthar River in Tamil Nadu.
which state of India?
Malwa Plateau, passing through Ujjain, SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) Q.141. The Chilika Lake is located to the
Ratlam, and Mandsaur before joining the (a) Punjab (b) Assam south of the ________ delta.
Chambal. The Sapta Sindhu, mentioned (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Gujarat SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift)
in Vedic literature, refers to the "Land of
(a) Mahanadi (b) Narmada
Seven Rivers" in Punjab, home to early Sol.137.(a) Punjab. Bist Doab lies
(c) Godavari (d) Cauvery
Aryan settlements. The seven rivers between the Satluj and Beas rivers. The
include: Indus, Sutlej (Sutudri), Ravi Makhu Canal System, built in 1950, is 92 Sol.141.(a) Mahanadi. Chilika Lake,
(Parusni), Chenab (Asikni), Jhelum km long and draws water from the Sutlej. Asia’s largest and the world’s
(Vitasta), Beas (Vipas), and Saraswati. Punjab's Doab systems include: Doab second-largest lagoon, spans Puri,
Chaj (Chenab and Jhelum), Doab Rachna Khurda, and Ganjam districts in Odisha. It
df
Q.134. Which of the following rivers (Ravi and Chenab), Doab Bari (Beas and is India's largest saltwater lake and the
originates from the Himalayas?
_p
Ravi, also called Majha), and Suj Doab first Ramsar wetland site (1981).
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (Satluj and Yamuna, part of the Malwa Nalabana Island, a bird sanctuary, lies in
(a) Godavari (b) Tapi
na
region). the middle of Chilika Lake, while
(c) Narmada (d) Ganga
Satapada, where the lake meets the Bay
Q.138. The largest inland salt lake
ap
Sol.134.(d) Ganga. Origin: Gangotri of Bengal, is home to Irrawaddy dolphins.
‘Sambhar’ is located in the ______of India.
glacier near Gaumukh (3,900 m) in the SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) Q.142. Delhi ridge is the water divide
:@
Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand. Here, (a) north - east (b) north - west between which of the following rivers?
it is known as the Bhagirathi. It cuts (c) south - west (d) south - east SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
through the Central and the Lesser
TG
(a) Ganges and Sind
Himalayas in narrow gorges. At Sol.138.(b) north - west. Sambhar Salt
(b) Indus and Mahi
Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Lake (located in Rajasthan) spans 230
(c) Ganges and Indus
Alaknanda; hereafter, it is known as the square kilometers. It is a significant
on
(d) Ganges and Yamuna
Ganga (length 2,525 km). Other river depression in the Aravalli Range and is
origin: Godavari - Brahmagiri hills; Tapi - commonly referred to as the salt lake of Sol.142.(c) Ganges and Indus. The uplift
Rajasthan. The lake receives water from
ch
Satpura range; Narmada - Maikal ranges. of the Potwar Plateau during the
six rivers: Mantha, Rupangarh, Khari, Pleistocene upheaval in the western
Q.135. Subansiri, Jia Bharali, Dhansiri Khandela, Medtha and Samod.
ar
Himalayas rises the Delhi ridge. The
and Puthimari are the major tributaries of major water dividers of India: Vindya
Q.139. Which of the following rivers is
Se
which river? range: Divided the Ganga drainage basin
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) called ‘Singi Khamban’ in Tibet?
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) and Narmada river valley. Satpuda range:
(a) Godavari (b) Mahanadi Divided Narmada river and tapi river
(c) Brahmaputra (d) Bhagirathi (a) Indus (b) Brahmaputra
(c) Kosi (d) Sutlej valley.
Sol.135.(c) Brahmaputra. The principal Q.143. Which of the following pairs of
Sol.139.(a) Indus. It enters Pakistan near
tributaries of the rivers are as follows: Indian rivers is west flowing?
Chilas in the Dardistan region.
Godavari: Pravara, Purna, Manjra, SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Brahmaputra: Originates from the
Penganga, Wardha, Wainganga, Pranhita (a) Krishna and Kaveri
Chemayungdung glacier in the Kailash
(the combined flow of Wainganga, (b) Mahanadi and Krishna
range and is known as Tsangpo in Tibet.
Penganga, and Wardha), Indravati, Maner, (c) Narmada and Tapi
Sutlej: Originates near Mansarovar in
and Sabri. Mahanadi: Seonath, Hasdeo, (d) Mahanadi and Godavar
Tibet, where it is called Langchen
Mand, and Ib join Mahanadi from the left,
Khambab. River Kosi: Originates near
while Ong, Tel, and Jonk join from the Sol.143.(c) Narmada and Tapi. Narmada
Mount Everest and is known as the
right. Bhagirathi: Bhilangna River, Kedar River (Rewa River), the longest
sorrow of Bihar due to frequent flooding.
Ganga, Jadh Ganga, etc. west-flowing river, originates from the
Q.140. Match the pair correctly: Maikal ranges and flows through Gujarat,
Q.136. On which river in India was the Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra. The
National
Somasila Dam built? Stretch Tapi River, the second-largest west
Waterways
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) flowing river, originates from Betul
a) NW-1 1. Kakinada - Puducherry
(a) Krishna river (b) Tapti river district in Madhya Pradesh and flows
b) NW-2 2. Kottapuram- Kallam
(c) Pennar river (d) Sabarmati river parallel to the Narmada. Other important
c) NW-3 3. Allahabad - Haldia
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
west-flowing rivers include Periyar, the south. c. The Mahanadi rises in the highlands of
Bharathappuzha, Netravati, Sharavathi, Chhattisgarh.
and Mandovi. Q.147. Which river flows into the Wular d. The Krishna rises from a spring near
lake in the north and then into Mahabaleshwar.
Q.144. Match the following dams with Baramulla? SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
the rivers on which they are built. SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) (a) Only a, b and c (b) Only a, c and d
a. Hirakud Dam (i) Chambal river (a) Beas (b) Sutlej (c) Jhelum (d) Ravi (c) a, b, c and d (d) Only b, c and d
b. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam (ii) Narmada River
c. Sardar Sarovar Dam (iii) Krishna River Sol.147.(c) Jhelum River originates from Sol.150.(d) Only b, c and d. The
d. Tehri Dam (iv) Mahanadi a spring at Verinag in the southeastern Narmada River rises from the
river part of the Kashmir Valley. It first flows Amarkantak Plateau in Anuppur district
e. Rana Pratap Sagar (v) Bhagirathi river northward into Wular Lake, located in the in Madhya Pradesh. The Peninsular
dam northwestern part of the valley. After drainage system : It is older than the
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) leaving Wular Lake, it changes direction, Himalayan river. These rivers are
(a) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-v, e-i flowing southwards. At Baramulla, the characterised by fixed course, absence
(b) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-v, e-iv river enters a gorge in the hills, carving a of meanders and non-perennial flow of
(c) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i, e-v steep-sided narrow passage through the water. Most of the major rivers (except
(d) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-v, e-i Pir Panjal Range below Baramulla. Narmada and Tapi which flow east to
Eventually, it merges with the Chenab west) flow from west to east. The
Sol.144.(a) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-v, e-i. The River at Trimmu. Chambal, the Sind, the Betwa, the Ken,
Hirakud Dam, one of the longest in the
Q.148. Which river originates from the Son, originating in the northern part
world, is located near Sambalpur District,
‘Rakshastal north-western tip’ near of the Peninsula belong to the Ganga
Odisha. The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam, a
df
Mansarovar ? river system.
masonry dam, spans the border between
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
_p
Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. The Q.151. Which of the following
Sardar Sarovar Dam, a concrete gravity (a) Sutlej River (b) Narmada River statements is NOT correct about River
(c) Ravi River (d) Tapti River
na
dam, is situated near Kevadiya in Ganga ?
Gujarat's Narmada District. The Tehri SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.148.(a) Sutlej River enters India
ap
Dam, a multi-purpose rock and earth-fill (a) River Ganga flows from the
through the Shipki La Pass in the Kinnaur
embankment dam, is in New Tehri, Himalayas all the way to the Bay of
district of Himachal Pradesh. It is an east
:@
Uttarakhand. The Rana Pratap Sagar Bengal.
bank tributary of the Indus River, meeting
Dam, a gravity masonry dam, stands 53.8 (b) River Ganga in India is more than
the Indus at Mithankot in Pakistan. Also
meters high in Rawatbhata, Rajasthan. 2500 km long and is the most
known as Shatadru in ancient times, the
TG
Satluj is the only Indus tributary populated river basin in the world.
Q.145. Which of the following rivers is
originating from Tibet. The (c) River Ganga and its river basin
joined by river Chambal from the south?
Bhakra-Nangal Dam is built across the support lots of wonderful wildlife,
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
on
Satluj, and the Indira Gandhi Canal also particularly river dolphins, otters,
(a) Kosi (b) Yamuna (c) Teesta (d) Ganga
draws water from it. freshwater turtles, and gharials.
Sol.145.(b) Yamuna. It rises from the (d) The water level of River Ganga never
ch
Yamunotri Glacier in the Himalayas. It Q.149. In which of the following districts depends on monsoon and climatic
flows parallel to the Ganga and as a right is Baira Siul Dam located ? condition of the Himalaya.
ar
the bank tributary meets the Ganga at SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.151.(d) The Ganga river depends on
Se
Allahabad. Its biggest tributary is (a) Bilaspur (b) Chamba
(c) Kinnaur (d) Mandi the rains brought by the southwesterly
Chambal River on the right. Other
monsoon winds from July to October as
important tributaries include the Hindon,
Sol.149.(b) Chamba. The Baira Siul well as on the flow from melting
Sarda, and Giri rivers on the right and
hydroelectric plant is an operational Himalayan snow. The Wildlife Institute of
Betwa and Sindh on the left.
hydroelectric power facility located in India conducted a survey revealing that
Q.146. Choose the coasts that are Chaurah, Himachal Pradesh. It is a type 49% of the Ganga River has high
running along the Arabian sea. of Earthen / Gravity & Masonry dam. biodiversity.
a. Northern Circars, b. Malabar, Length: 160m and Height: 53m. River:
Baira + Bhaled + Siul / Ravi. Other dam of Q.152. In which district of Uttarakhand
c. Konkan, d. Coromandel
Himachal Pradesh and district: Pandoh does the Ramganga river originate from
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Dam and Bassi Dam (Mandi), Kol Dam the Doodhatoli ranges?
(a) Only a and c (b) a, b and c
and Bhakra dam (Bilaspur), SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
(c) b, c and d (d) Only b and c
Karchham-Wangtoo Dam (Kinnaur), (a) Almora (b) Champawat
Sol.146.(d) Only b and c. The western (c) Chamoli (d) Pauri Garhwal
Chamera Dam (Chamba), Parbati Dam
coast, between the Western Ghats and
(mandi). Sol.152.(d) Pauri Garhwal. The
the Arabian Sea, is a narrow plain with
three sections: Konkan (Mumbai to Goa) Q.150. Choose the correct statement Ramganga is a smaller river that begins
in the north, Kannad Plain in the center, about the peninsular rivers. near Gairsain in the Garhwal mountains.
and Malabar Coast in the south. On the a. The Narmada rises in the Malwa It changes direction to the southwest
Bay of Bengal side, the plains are wide plateau. after crossing the Shiwalik and enters the
and level, called the Northern Circar in b. The Godavari rises from the slopes of plains of Uttar Pradesh near Najibabad. It
the north and the Coromandel Coast in the Western Ghats near Nashik. eventually joins the Ganga near Kannauj.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Q.153. Trishulganga is a stream of the covers the states of Jharkhand, SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening)
river: Chhattisgarh and Orissa and has a (a) Jammu and Kashmir
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) Drainage area of 39,033 sq km ? (b) Sikkim and Manipur
(a) Godavari (b) Ghaghara SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) (c) Arunachal Pradesh and Assam
(c) Beas (d) Gandak (a) Sarada (b) Baitarani (d) Punjab and Himachal
(c) Brahmani (d) Nagavali
Sol.153.(d) Gandak. It comprises two Sol.160.(c) Arunachal Pradesh and
streams, namely Kaligandak and Sol.157.(c) Brahmani river (second Assam. Dihang River - The Brahmaputra
Trishulganga. It rises in the Nepal largest river in Odisha): It is formed by rises in Tibet, where it is known as
Himalayas between the Dhaulagiri and the confluence of the Shankh and Koel Tsangpo and crosses over into India in
Mount Everest. rivers, both join at Veda Vyasa near Arunachal Pradesh under the name of
Rourkela (Odisha). Baitarani: It originates Dihang. Lohit River - It originates in
Q.154. The drainage basin of the from Gonasika hills and drains into the eastern Tibet, in the Zayal Chu range and
Godavari river is present in which of the Bay of Bengal. Nagavali (Langulya): It surges through Arunachal Pradesh for
following states of India ? rises in the Eastern Ghats. Sarada: 200 km, before emptying into the
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) Originated from Kalapani in the Brahmaputra river in the plains of Assam.
(a) Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Himalayas and flows along Nepal's
Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu western border with India and joins Q.161. The _______ port was developed
(b) Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Andhra Ghaghra River. after Independence to ease the volume
Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, of trade on the Mumbai port.
and Odisha Q.158. Which ports belong to the SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
(c) Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, western coast of India ? (a) Kandla (b) Kolkata
Kamataka, and Tamil Nadu SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) (c) Chennai (d) Visakhapatnam
df
(d) Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, (a) Kandla port, Mormugao port, Kochi
Sol.161.(a) Kandla (Deendayal port). It is
_p
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Odisha port
(b) Kandla port, Mormugao port, Chennai located on the Gulf of Kutch (Gujarat). It
Sol.154.(b) Godavari River (Dakshin was constructed in the 1950s as the
na
port
Ganga) - Second longest river in India (c) Kandla port, Mormugao port, Kolkata chief seaport serving western India, after
after the Ganges River. Origin - the partition of India from Pakistan left
ap
port
Trimbakeshwar near Nashik in (d) Kandla port, Haldia port, Kochi port the Karachi port in Pakistan.
Maharashtra. It has the largest
:@
Peninsular River system and falls into the Sol.158.(a) Ports in India: West Coast - Q.162. Which river basin originates from
Bay of Bengal. Mumbai, Jawaharlal Nehru the Western Ghats range of Karnataka
(Maharashtra), New Mangalore state and has many tributaries such as
TG
Q.155. With which neighbouring country (Karnataka). East Coast - V. O. the Noyyal, Kabini, Arkavathi and
did India sign the Farakka Treaty in 1996 Chidambaranar formerly Tuticorin, Amaravati?
for sharing of the Ganga Waters and on Ennore, Chennai Port (Tamil Nadu), SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift)
on
augmenting its flows? Paradip (Orissa), Kolkata, Haldia (West (a) Sabarmati (b) Brahmani
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) Bengal), Port Blair, Haddo (Andaman and (c) Kaveri (d) Periyar
ch
(a) Afghanistan (b) Bhutan Nicobar Islands).
(c) Nepal (d) Bangladesh Sol.162.(c) Kaveri river basin falls in 3
Q.159. The drainage system formed States (Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala)
ar
Sol.155.(d) Bangladesh. Farakka water when rivers discharge their waters from and a Union Territory (Puducherry). It
Se
-sharing treaty - It was signed by then PM all directions in a lake or depression, as originates in the foothills of Western
H. D. Deve Gowda (India) and PM Sheikh in the case of Loktak Lake in Manipur, is Ghats at Talakaveri. Tributaries -
Hasina Wajed (Bangladesh). India’s called ________. Shimsha, Hemavati, Bhavani, Lokapavani.
treaty with its Neighbours: Nepal Treaty - SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Mahakali treaty (1996), and Pakistan - (a) radial (b) centripetal Q.163. The Jog Falls, one of the highest
Indus Waters Treaty (1960). (c) dendritic (d) trellis waterfalls in India is the cataract of
which river?
Q.156. Identify the dam that is located in Sol.159.(b) Centripetal. Radial drainage SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift)
South India. pattern: When the rivers originate from a (a) Narmada (b) Tungabhadra
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) hill and flow in all directions. Example - (c) Sharavati (d) Cauvery
(a) Gandhi Sagar dam (b) Tilaiya dam Narmada. Trellis Drainage Pattern: This
(c) Mettur dam (d) Rihand dam pattern develops in folded topography Sol.163.(c) Sharavati - It originates at a
where hard and soft rocks exist parallel place called Ambutheertha in the
Sol.156.(c) Mettur dam: Built on Kaveri to each other. Example - The rivers in the Thirthahalli taluk (Karnataka).
river and located at Mettur, Salem District upper part of the Himalayan region Indus, Tungabhadra River is formed by the
(Tamil Nadu). Gandhi Sagar dam - Built Ganga. Dendritic Drainage Pattern : Most confluence of the Tunga River and the
on Chambal River and located in the common form and resembles the Bhadra River, The two rivers originate in
Mandsaur district (Madhya Pradesh). branching pattern of tree roots. Example Mudigere Taluk of Chikmagalur District
Tilaiya dam - Constructed by Damodar - The rivers of the northern plains, Indus, (Karnataka).
Valley Corporation across Barakar River, Ganga and Brahmaputra.
in Koderma district (Jharkhand). Q.164. With a stretch of about 724 km,
Q.160. Dihang and Lohit are rivers in which river is one of the most important
Q.157. Which east-flowing river basin which of the following regions? rivers of peninsular India ?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift) lowland region that forms where Earth’s (a) Mahanadi (b) Krishna
(a) Tapi (b) Beas (c) Palar (d) Bhavani tectonic plates move apart. Famous rift (c) Godavari (d) Cauvery
valleys : Great Rift Valley (East Africa),
Sol.164.(a) Tapi River - It flows through East Rift Valley or Hualien - Taitung Sol.172.(a) Mahanadi - The largest river
the states of Madhya Pradesh, (Taiwan), Baikal Rift Valley (Southern of Odisha state. Krishna River originates
Maharashtra, and Gujarat. The river Siberia). near Mahabaleshwar in the Satara
originates in the Satpura Mountains in district of Maharashtra. It flows through
Madhya Pradesh and flows westwards Q.169. Which tributary of the Indus River Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and
before emptying into the Arabian Sea. originates near the Rohtang Pass at an Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the
altitude of 4,000 meters above mean sea Bay of Bengal.
Q.165. Which river originates from the
level ?
southern part of Devarayanadurga hill in Q.173. Which of the following states is
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Tumkur district, and flows for about 221 NOT a part of the Tapi Basin?
(a) Chenab (b) Musi (c) Beas (d) Indravati
km before joining Kaveri? SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (2nd shift) Sol.169.(c) Beas. The ancient name of (a) Rajasthan (b) Maharashtra
(a) Shimsha river (b) Girna river the river Beas was Vipasha. Tributaries (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Gujarat
(c) Ghataprabha river (d) Waghur river of the Beas river : Parbati, Banganga,
Tirthan, Suketi, Sainj, Gaj, Chakki and Sol.173.(a) Rajasthan. Tapti River - A
Sol.165.(a) Shimsha River (a tributary of river in central India that flows
Uhaul.
the river Kaveri). Shimsha has a waterfall westwards before draining into the
at Shimshapura in Malavalli Taluk Q.170. Which is the biggest tributary of Arabian Sea. Origin - In Satpura range in
(Mandya district, Karnataka). the upper Brahmaputra that originates in the Gawilgarh hills of the northern part of
Devarayanadurga is a small hill station the Tibetan Himalayas and winds its way the Deccan Plateau (In Betul district,
df
located in the Indian state of Karnataka. into India through Arunachal Pradesh ? Madhya Pradesh). Flows through the
Girna River - It originates near Kem Peak SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) states - Maharashtra, Gujarat, and
_p
in western ghats of Maharashtra and is a (a) Subansir (b) Yerla (c) Musi (d) Aner Madhya Pradesh. The Tapi river is known
tributary of Tapti river. Ghataprabha River as the 'Gateway of International trade' as
na
- Right bank tributary of the Krishna River. Sol.170.(a) Subansiri. Tributaries of it conducts much international trade.
Waghur River - It originates near Ajanta in Brahmaputra River: Ronganadi, Dikrong, Narmada, Periyar and Tapti are only
ap
the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra. Buroi, Borgong, Jiabharali, Dhansiri rivers which form estuaries.
(North), Puthimari, Manas, Beki, Sonkosh
:@
Q.166. Which glacier is the source of are the main tributaries on the North Q.174. Which of the following is not a
river Gori Ganga which is an important while the Noadehing, Buridehing, Desang, freshwater lake in India?
tributary of river Kali? Dikhow, Bhogdoi, Dhansiri (South), Kopilli, SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift)
TG
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (3rd shift) Kulsi, Krishnai, Dhdhnoi, Jinjiran are the (a) Pulicat (b) Loktak
(a) Tipra Glacier (b) Milam Glacier main tributaries on the South. (c) Bhimtal (d) Nainital
(c) Namik Glacier (d) Kafni Glacier
on
Q.171. What is the name of a type of Sol.174.(a) Pulicat Lake (Andhra
Sol.166.(b) Milam Glacier. Indian Rivers
waterfall with an enormous volume of Pradesh) is the second largest brackish
that Originate from Glaciers: Chenab -
water? water lagoon in India, (after Chilika Lake,
ch
Bara-lacha la Glacier (Himachal
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (3rd shift) Odisha).
Pradesh). Mandakini River - Chorabari
(a) Cascade (b) Rapid
ar
Glacier (Uttarakhand). Lidder River - Q.175. Which state ranks first with a total
(c) Cataract (d) Chute
Kolahoi Glacier (Himalayas). Pushpawati length of 31.2 thousand km of rivers and
Se
- Tipra Glacier. Ram Ganga - Namik Sol.171.(c) Cataract. Types of Waterfalls: canals, which is about 17% of the total
glacier. Horsetail - Descending water maintains length of rivers and canals in the
some contact with bedrock. Plunge - country?
Q.167. Which of the following lakes is SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (4th shift)
Water descends vertically, losing contact
the longest in India? (a) Kerala (b) West Bengal
with the bedrock surface. Block - Water
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift) (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
descends from a relatively wide stream
(a) Vembanad lake (b) Kanjia lake
or river. Multi-step - A series of waterfalls
(c) Ansupa lake (d) Wular lake Sol.175.(c) Uttar Pradesh - Fourth
one after another of roughly the same
largest state according to area and 1st
Sol.167.(a) Vembanad lake (Kerala) : size each with its own sunken plunge
state in population. Longest canal in
Length 83.72 km and Width 14.48 km. It pool. Segmented - Distinctly separate
India - Indira Gandhi Canal, Longest river
is connected to the Arabian Sea. The lake flows of water form as it descends.
- Ganga River (2525 km), Origin -
is known for its backwaters (a network of Cascade - Water descends a series of
Gangotri. Longest canal of Uttar Pradesh
canals and waterways). Kanjia Lake - rock steps. Punchbowl - Water descends
- Sharda Canal.
Odisha. Ansupa Lake - Odisha. in a constricted form and then spreads
out in a wider pool. Q.176. Tila, Seti and Beri are the
Q.168. Which river from the following tributaries of :
flows through a rift valley? Q.172. Which of the following rivers SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift)
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift) originates near Sihawa in Raipur district (a) Tamsa (b) Ghaghara
(a) Tapi (b) Brahmaputra of Chhattisgarh, flows through Odisha, (c) Mahi (d) Sabarmati
(c) Sabarmati (d) Ganga and eventually empties into the Bay of
Bengal ? Sol.176.(b) Ghaghara. It originates in the
Sol.168.(a) Tapi. Rift valley : It is a SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift) glaciers of Mapchachungo and a major
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
left - bank tributary of the Ganges River. Lake (Rawok-Tso) - Largest lake of (c) Ken river (d) Betwa river
Its Tributaries: The left bank tributaries - Eastern Tibet (Pasho). Yamdrok Lake
Bheri, Sarju, Kuwana, Rapti, Chhoti (Freshwater lake inTibet). Sol.185.(b) Mahanadi. Rivers of Malwa
Gandak and the right bank tributaries - plateau - Mahi River, Ken river, Shipra River,
Seti, Dahawar, Sarda, Budhi Ganga. Q.181. The Almatti Dam of Karnataka is Chambal River, Betwa River.
built over which of the following rivers?
Q.177. What is the name of the branch of SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening) Q.186. Kadana Dam of Gujarat is built
river Godavari that joins the Bay of (a) Periyar (b) Sutlej (c) Kaveri (d) Krishna over which of the following rivers?
Bengal flowing through the Yanam SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
enclave of the union territory of Sol.181.(d) Krishna. Other dams on (a) Mahi (b) Manjira (c) Tapti (d) Sabarmati
Puducherry? Krishna river - Achakdani (Maharashtra),
Achler (Maharashtra). River (Dams) : Sol.186.(a) Mahi River. Indian Rivers and
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift)
Kaveri {Alalur (Karnataka), Amaravathi, Dams: Sabarmati River - Dharoi Dam
(a) Kapila (b) Indravati
(Tamil Nadu)}, Periyar {Mullaperiyar (Gujarat). Tapti River - Hatnur Dam
(c) Gautami (d) Bhavani
(Kerala)}. (Maharashtra), Ukai Dam (Gujarat), Girna
Sol.177.(c) Gautami. The Godavari basin Dam (Maharashtra), Dahigam Weir
extends over states of Maharashtra, Q.182. Which of the following (Maharashtra). Krishna River - Nagarjuna
Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and statements is correct regarding large sagar Dam (Telangana). Manjira River -
Odisha in addition to smaller parts in dams? Singur Dam and Nizam Sagar dam
Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Union I. They have social problems because (Telangana). Banas River - Bisalpur Dam
territory of Puducherry. Projects - they displace a large number of peasants (Rajasthan).
Polavaram Irrigation Project, and tribals without adequate
compensation or rehabilitation. Q.187. Which of the following rivers
Kaleshwaram, Sadarmat Anicut,
df
Il. They have Environmental problems forms the Dhuandhar falls?
Inchampalli, Sriram Sagar.
because they contribute enormously to SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (4th Shift)
_p
Q.178. Which of the following rivers does deforestation and the loss of biological (a) Tapi (b) Narmada
NOT flow in Kerala State? diversity. (c) Godavari (d) Mahanadi
na
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (3rd shift) SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Sol.187.(b) Narmada. The Dhuandhar
(a) Bharathapuzha (b) Periyar (a) Only l (b) Both l and Il
ap
Falls is located in the Jabalpur district of
(c) Pamba (d) Penner (c) Only ll (d) Neither I nor Il Madhya Pradesh.
:@
Sol.178.(d) Penner - It rises in Nandi Sol.182.(b) Both I and II. Advantages of Q.188. Which among the following lakes
Hills in Chikballapur District of Karnataka Dams - Irrigation, tourist attraction, flood connects the twin cities of Hyderabad
and falls into the Bay of Bengal. control, hydro power generation, etc. and Secunderabad?
TG
Bharathapuzha (Ponnani) river is Kerala's Disadvantages of dams - High SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
second longest West Flowing River, construction cost, unbalanced (a) Kanwar (b) Salim Ali
draining into the Arabian Sea. sedimentation, deforestation, ecological (c) Hussain Sagar (d) Periyan
on
Q.179. A long, winding ridge of stratified imbalance, endangered aquatic life etc.
sand and gravel is known as: Sol.188.(c) Hussain Sagar: A heart -
Q.183. Which of the following rivers
ch
Graduate Level 27/06/2023 ( Shift - 4) shaped lake in Hyderabad, Telangana,
originates in Rajasthan? built by Ibrahim Quli Qutb Shah; Fed by
(a) whorl (b) esker (c) lop (d) arch SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
ar
the River Musi. Salim Ali lake -
Sol.179.(b) Esker. These are ridges (a) Mahi (b) Narmada (c) Tapi (d) Banas Aurangabad, Kanwar lake - Bihar, Periyar
Se
made of sands and gravels, deposited by Sol.183.(d) Banas. The river originates lake - Kerala.
glacial meltwater flowing through tunnels from the Khamnor hills of the Aravali
within and underneath glaciers, or Q.189. The region of Ganga Brahmaputra
range. It is a tributary of the Chambal
through meltwater channels on top of basin lies in____.
River. It is also known as “Van ki Asha”.
glaciers. Other depositional landforms: SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Length of Banas: 512 km. Tributaries:
Drumlins are smooth oval shaped ridge (a) 10°N to 10°N latitude
Kothari, Dai, Dheel, Menali etc.
-like features composed mainly of glacial (b) 30°N to 50°N latitude
till with some masses of gravel and sand. Q.184. Jabalpur is located on the banks (c) 5°N to 10°N latitude
of which of the following rivers? (d) 10°N to 30°N latitude
Q.180. Which is a saltwater lake located SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (1st Shift)
in the Tibet Autonomous Region, China, Sol.189.(d) 10°N to 30°N latitude. The
(a) Ganga (b) Godavari
to the west of Lake Mansarovar and to Brahmaputra originates in the north of
(c) Chambal (d) Narmada
the south of Mount Kailash? the Himalayas near Mansarovar Lake in
Graduate Level 30/06/2023 ( Shift - 1) Sol.184.(d) Narmada (Reva River, 1312 the Purang district of Tibet (Known as
(a) Lake Yamdrok Tso (b) Lake Rawok km): India’s 5th longest and largest Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet), (other names
(c) Lake Rakshastal (d) Lake Basum Tso west-flowing river, running through a rift : Siang/Dihang River) India, and
valley between the Vindhya and Satpura Bangladesh (Jamuna River). The Delta
Sol.180.(c) Lake Rakshastal. Pangong ranges. formed by Ganga Brahmaputra is
Lake - World's highest saltwater lake. Sunderban Delta (largest delta in the
Loktak Lake (Floating lake, Manipur) is Q.185. Which of the following is not an
world).
famous for phumdi and Keibul Lamjao important river of Malwa plateau?
National Park is the only floating national SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift) Q.190. In which state of India is Tawa
park in the world located on it. Ranwu (a) Chambal river (b) Mahanadi river dam located?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening) Western Himalayas), Kullu Valley (formed floor
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Haryana by the Beas River between Manali and (d) The higher level tributary
(c) Rajasthan (d) Madhya Pradesh Larji). Other famous valleys in Himachal
Pradesh: Solang Valley, Spiti Valley, Sol.197.(b) A moraine is material left
Sol.190.(d) Madhya Pradesh - Indra Tirthan Valley, Kinnaur valley, Green behind by a moving glacier. This material
Sagar dam, largest in state (Narmada Valley, Barot Valley, Lahaul Valley, Pabbar is usually soil and rock. Moraines are
river), Gandhisagar Dam (Chambal River), Valley, etc. divided into four main categories: lateral
Bargi Dam (Narmada River). Uttar moraines, medial moraines, supraglacial
Pradesh - Rihand dam also known as Q.194. Which state in India is the source moraines, and terminal moraines.
Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar. Haryana - of river Ghaggar?
Kaushalya Dam (Yamuna River), Higher Secondary 02/08/2022 ( Shift - 2 ) Q.198. Which of the following ports is
Anangpur Dam (Hakra River). Gujarat - (a) Uttar Pradesh (b)Uttarakhand known as ‘Diamond Harbour’?
Sardar Sarovar Dam (Narmada River). (c) Haryana (d) Himachal Pradesh SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Evening)
Rajasthan - Rana Pratap Sagar (Chambal (a) Port Blair (b) Kochi
river). Sol.194.(d) Himachal Pradesh (Shivalik (c) Kolkata (d) Mangalore
hills). It flows through Punjab, Haryana
Q.191. Arrange the following rivers as and then into Rajasthan. It flows only Sol.198.(c) Kolkata Port (Haldia seaport)
they occur in the North-South direction in during the monsoon season. It is known is the only riverine Major Port situated on
India. Beas, Indus, Chenab, Satluj, Ravi as Hakra river in Pakistan. The main the Hugli river in West Bengal. Cochin
Higher Secondary 01/08/2022 ( Shift - 3 ) tributaries of the Ghaggar are the Port or Kochi port lies on two islands in
(a) Satluj, Indus, Chenab, Ravi, Beas Kaushalya river, Markanda, Sarsuti, the Vembanadu Lake; Willingdon Island
(b) Indus, Ravi, Beas, Chenab, Satluj Tangri and Chautang. and Vallarpadam and is important for the
(c) Satluj, Ravi, Indus, Chenab, Beas export of spices and salt.
df
(d) Indus, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Satluj Q.195. India and Sri Lanka are joined by
a group of islets forming ______. Q.199. Which lake of India is the result of
_p
Sol.191.(d) Indus (Sindhu) river - Source SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Evening) tectonic activity?
(Lake Manasarovar), Satluj (Lake (a) Mahatma Gandhi Setu SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Morning)
na
Rakshastal in Tibet), Ravi (Multhan tehsil (b) Sisseri River Bridge (a) Wular lake (b) Barapani lake
of Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh), (c) Bhupen Hazarika Bridge (c) Dal lake (d) Loktak lake
ap
Chenab (Baralacha Pass in Himachal (d) Adam’s Bridge Sol.199.(a) Wular Lake, one of Asia's
Pradesh) etc.
:@
Sol.195.(d) Adam's Bridge (Rama Setu), largest freshwater lakes, is fed by the
Q.192. Which is a major watershed for is a chain of limestone shoals, between Jhelum River and located in Bandipora,
the headwaters of the Yamuna River lies Pamban Island (Rameswaram Island), Jammu and Kashmir. Barapani lake
TG
in the western Garhwal region of Tamil Nadu, India, and Mannar Island, Sri located in Meghalaya.
Uttarakhand? Lanka. Mahatma Gandhi Setu (Bihar), Q.200. Tsomgo Lake is a glacial lake
Graduate Level 01/08/2022 ( Shift - 4 ) Sisseri River Bridge (Arunachal Pradesh), located in which of the following states?
on
(a) Dokriani glacier Bhupen Hazarika bridge (Connects SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Evening)
(b) Bandarpunch glacier Assam and Arunachal Pradesh). (a) Meghalaya (b) Punjab
ch
(c) Kafni glacier (c) Sikkim (d) Gujarat
(d) Doonagiri glacier Q.196. Pushkar lake is situated in which
district of Rajasthan? Sol.200.(c) Sikkim. Tsongmo Lake
ar
Sol.192.(b) Bandarpunch glacier (part of SSC MTS 14/07/2022 (Evening) (Changu Lake) remains frozen during the
Se
Sankari range and lies within the Govind (a) Jaipur (b) Ajmer (c) Bikaner (d) Alwar winter season. It is revered as a holy lake
Pashu Vihar National park and by the people of Sikkim.
Sanctuary). Dokriani glacier {located in Sol.196.(b) Ajmer. Freshwater Lakes in
the Bhagirathi basin of the central Rajasthan: Ajmer - Ana Sagar Lake, Lake Q.201. The Ganga plain extends between
Himalaya, Uttarkashi district Foy Sagar; Alwar - Siliserh Lake; two rivers?
(Uttrakhand)}. Kafni Glacier {located in Banswara - Anand Sagar Lake and Dailab SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Evening)
the upper reaches of the Kumaon Lake; Bundi - Jait Sagar Lake, Kanak (a) Yamuna and Teesta
Himalayas, to the southeast of Nanda Sagar Lake, and Nawar Sagar Lake; (b) Ghaggar and Teesta
Devi, gives rise to the Kafni River Dungarpur - Gaib Sagar Lake; Jaisalmer - (c) Ghaggar and Bhagirathi
(tributary of the Pindar River)}. Doonagiri Gadsisar Lake; Jodhpur - Balsamand (d) Ganga and Teesta
Glacier {Garhwal Himalayas, Dhauli Lake, Kailana Lake; Kota - Kishore Sagar
Lake; Rajsamand - Rajsamand Lake; Sol.201.(b) Ghaggar and Teesta. Six
ganga system of Glaciers}. Physiographic Divisions of India - 1. The
Udaipur - Doodh Talai, Fateh Sagar Lake,
Q.193. In which state of India is the Jaisamand Lake, Udai Sagar Lake, and Himalayan Mountains 2. The Northern
Kangra and Kullu valley located? Pichola Lake. Plains 3. The Peninsular Plateau 4. The
Graduate Level 01/08/2022 (Shift - 4 ) Indian Desert 5. The Coastal Plains 6.
(a) Uttar Pradesh Q.197. What is the meaning of the term The Islands. The Western part of the
(b) Jammu and Kashmir Moraine? Northern Plain is referred to as the
(c) Himachal Pradesh SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Morning) Punjab Plains. Brahmaputra plain lies in
(d) Uttarakhand (a) Melting of accumulated snow the state of Assam.
(b) Material transported and deposited
Q.202. Which river basin covers an area
Sol.193.(c) Himachal Pradesh. Kangra by glacier 2
Valley (river valley situated in the (c) Valley with vertical sides and wide of 65,145 𝑘𝑚 , of which about 80% lies in
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Maharashtra? Pondicherry. Sol.212.(a) Dudhsagar Falls is a
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Morning) four-tiered waterfall on the Mandovi
(a) Krishna (b) Narmada Q.207. The Hundru Fall lies along the River. Duduma Falls lies on the border of
(c) Godavari (d) Tapi course of which of the following rivers? Koraput (Odisha) and Visakhapatnam
SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Afternoon) (Andhra Pradesh). Gokak Falls is on the
Sol.202.(d) Tapi Basin is situated in the (a) Damodar (b) Sone Ghataprabha River in Belagavi,
northern part of the Deccan Plateau. (c) Mahanadi (d) Subarnarekha Karnataka. Shivasamudram Falls is
Nearly 80% of the basin lies in the State located in Chamarajanagar and Mandya
of Maharashtra. Sol.207.(d) Subarnarekha. It is located in
Ranchi District. Rajrappa waterfalls occur districts, Karnataka.
Q.203. Which state does the at the confluence of River Bhairavi and Q.213. Which of the following is the
Brahmaputra river enter when it takes a U river Damodar. largest west flowing river in Rajasthan?
turn at Namcha Barwa? SSC MTS 13/10/2021(Evening)
SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Evening) Q.208. River Ken is one of the major
rivers of the Bundelkhand region of (a) Luni (b) Chambal
(a) Mizoram (b) Assam (c) Banganga (d) Banas
(c) Nagaland (d) Arunachal Pradesh central India and flows through two
states, Madhya Pradesh and ______. Sol.213.(a) Luni River originates in the
Sol.203.(d) Arunachal Pradesh. The SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening) Pushkar valley, Aravalli Range, flows
catchment area of the Brahmaputra (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra through the Thar Desert, and ends in the
(Tsangpo) river falls in four countries (c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh Rann of Kutch, Gujarat.
(Tibet, Bhutan, India, and Bangladesh).
Sol.208.(d) Uttar Pradesh. River Ken It is Q.214. In which of the following states is
Q.204. Which river basin covers an area a tributary of the Yamuna. The important the Bhambavli Vajrai Waterfall located?
df
2
of 8,60,000 𝑘𝑚 and is spread across 11 tributaries of Ken - Alona, Bearma, Sonar, SSC MTS 14/10/2021(Evening)
Indian states? Mirhasan, Shyamari, Banne, Kutri, Urmil, (a) Odisha (b) Andhra Pradesh
_p
SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Morning) Kail and Chandrawal. (c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra
(a) Mahanadi basin (b) Ganga basin
na
Q.209. Which of the following rivers form Sol.214.(d) Maharashtra. This waterfall
(c) Indus basin (d) Brahmaputra basin
Kunchikal waterfall in Karnataka? is situated in the district of Satara in
ap
Sol.204.(b) Ganga Basin - 11 States. SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Evening) western Maharashtra. Famous waterfalls
Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Madhya (a) Mandavi (b) Varahi in Maharashtra - Malshej Falls,
:@
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Jharkhand, (c) Urmodi (d) Kabini Pandavkada waterfall, Randha Falls,
Rajasthan, West Bengal, Haryana, Chinaman's Falls, Dhobi Waterfall,
Sol.209.(b) Varahi. Kunchikal Falls is
Himachal Pradesh and Delhi. Indus Basin Sahastrakund waterfalls, Zenith Falls,
located in Nidagodu village near
TG
- Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Vihigaon Waterfall.
Masthikatte in Shimoga district of state
Rajasthan and Jammu & Kashmir.
Karnataka. It cascades down rocky Q.215. Which of the following states has
Brahmaputra Basin - Arunachal Pradesh,
boulders and the total height of fall is
on
Assam, West Bengal, Meghalaya, the largest catchment area of Godavari
455 meters. Basin?
Nagaland, Sikkim.
SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Morning)
ch
Q.210. The river Indus was called ______
Q.205. Which river rises near Mhow in (a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra
by the Iranians and the Greeks about
the Malwa plateau of Madhya Pradesh? (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Telangana
ar
2500 years ago.
SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Morning)
SSC MTS 06/10/2021 (Morning) Sol.215.(b) Maharashtra. Banganga,
Se
(a) Chambal (b) Mahi
(a) Vitasta (b) Karnali Kadva, Shivana, Purna, Kadam, Pranahita,
(c) Varuna (d) Betwa
(c) Vipasa (d) Hindos Indravati, Taliperu, Sabari, Nasardi,
Sol.205.(a) Chambal. Varuna River Pravara, Sindphana, Manjira, Manair,
Sol.210.(d) Hindos. This word is derived
(Tributary of Ganga River originates in Kinnerasani are tributaries of Godavari
from the Sanskrit word "Sindhu'', which
Phulpur in the Prayagraj district). Betwa river.
means "river".
River (originates from Hoshangabad,
Q.216. In which Indian state will you find
Vindhya Range, Madhya Pradesh. Q.211. On which of the following rivers is
the river Muhuri?
Pakistan constructing a dam named
Q.206. In ancient times, which river was SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Morning)
Diamer Basha' dam?
also known as 'Pooni' in Tamil which is (a) Punjab (b) Madhya Pradesh
SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Morning)
the fourth largest river flowing in the (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Tripura
(a) Indus (b) Jhelum (c) Sutlej (d) Chenab
southeast direction through the states of
Sol.216.(d) Tripura. Muhuri is a
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu ? Sol.211.(a) Indus. It is located between
transnational river between India and
SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Evening) Kohistan district in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
Bangladesh. Rising in Tripura, It flows
(a) Kaveri River (b) Satluj River and Diamer district in Gilgit Baltistan,
into Bangladesh where it merges with the
(c) Ravi River (d) Tapi River Pakistan administered Kashmir.
Feni near the latter's mouth to the Bay of
Sol.206.(a) Kaveri River. It is a sacred Q.212. Which of the following waterfalls Bengal.
river in southern India. It rises on is in the state of Goa? Q.217. In which Indian state is the
Brahmagiri Hill of the Western Ghats in SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Evening) 'Bhushi Lake' located?
southwestern Karnataka state and drains (a) Dudhsagar (b) Duduma SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Evening)
into the Bay of Bengal through (c) Gokak (d) Shivasamudram (a) Punjab (b) Rajasthan
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(c) Gujarat (d) Maharashtra (c) watershed (d) reservoir damming, diversion, or dewatering and
construction of a permanent structure in
Sol.217.(d) Maharashtra. Popular Lakes Sol.223.(c) Watershed. Types (In hectare) a dry area. A detention dam is built to
in Maharashtra - Upvan Lake, Vihar Lake, : Macro watershed (> 50,000), catch surface runoff and stream water
Powai Lake, Rankala Lake, Panshet Lake, Sub-watershed (10,000 to 50,000), flow to regulate the water flow in areas
Ganesh Lake, Venna Lake, Lonar Lake. Milli-watershed (1000 to 10000), Micro below the dam. Detention dams are
watershed (100 to 1000), Mini watershed commonly used to reduce the damage
Q.218. Which Indian state is the source (1-100).
of the rivers Brahmani, Kharkai and caused by flooding or to manage the flow
Subarnarekha? Q.224. A channel of a canal where water rate through a channel.
SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Evening) flows under the influence of gravity is Q.229. Suryadhar lake is located in which
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Bihar called ______. of the following states?
(c) Jharkhand (d) Uttar Pradesh SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Evening) SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Evening)
(a) lift channel (b) command area (a) HimachalPradesh
Sol.218.(c) Jharkhand. Other rivers in (c) warabandi system (d) flow channel
Jharkhand - Sone, Barakar, Damodar, (b) Arunachal Pradesh
Ajay, South Koel, Shankh, and North Koel Sol.224.(d) flow channel. It is the flow of (c) Uttarakhand
river. water induced by the effect of gravity. (d) Meghalaya
The surface of the flowing liquid is at Sol.229.(c) Uttarakhand. Famous Lakes
Q.219. Gurdwara Patalpuri Sahib is atmospheric pressure and free to air. The
located on the bank of river ______. in Uttarakhand - Auli Artificial Lake,
example of open channel flow includes Baraadsar Lake, Bedni Kund , Bhalu Dam,
SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Morning) flow in canal, river, etc.
(a) Yamuna (b) Ganga (c) Sutlej (d) Beas Bhimtal Lake, Bhulla Tal, Bisurital,
Brahmatal Trek etc.
df
Q.225. On which river is Peacock Island
Sol.219.(c) Sutlej. Gurdwara Patalpuri located? Q.230. In which of the following states is
_p
Sahib located in Rupnagar district of SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Afternoon)
Punjab. Guru Hargobind Ji in 1644 as the Sirki Waterfall located?
(a) Mahanadi (b) Ganga SSC CHSL 06/8/2021 (Afternoon)
na
well as Guru Har Rai Ji in 1661 were (c) Brahmaputra (d) Yamuna
cremated here. (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
ap
Sol.225.(c) Brahmaputra. Peacock
Q.220. Which of the following is a Island or Umananda Island is the
tributary of the river Brahmaputra that Sol.230.(a) Arunachal Pradesh. Other
:@
smallest inhabited river island in the Waterfalls - The Nuranang Waterfall, the
flows through Bhutan? middle of river Brahmaputra, flowing
SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Evening) Bap Teng Kang Waterfall.
through the city of Guwahati. Its name
(a) Wang Chhu River (b) Sittaung River
TG
derives from Assamese Uma. It is also Q.231. Which river has the tributaries by
(c) Ayeyarwady River (d) Chindwin River known as Bhasmachal. the name of Mayurakshi, Damodar,
Sol.220.(a) Wang Chhu River. Bhutan Kangsabati and Rupnarayan ?
Q.226. Which of the following is
on
has four major rivers, named Drangme SSC CHSL 11/8/2021 (Morning)
Uttarakhand’s first gravity dam? (a) Godavari (b) Yamuna
Chhu, Mo Chhu, Wang Chhu and Torsa SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Morning) (c) Hooghly (d) Brahmaputra
ch
Chhu. The Brahmaputra is one of the (a) Tehri dam (b) Baigul dam
largest rivers of the Indian Subcontinent. (c) Dhora dam (d) Song dam Sol.231.(c) Hooghly. It is the eastern
ar
Q.221. In which of the following states is distributary of the Ganges River in West
Sol.226.(d) Song dam which is to be built Bengal.
Se
Anchar Lake located? on the foothills of Mussoorie on the Song
SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Evening) river to meet the water shortage of the Q.232. Chulia waterfall is situated on
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Assam state during the summers. Chambal River in ______.
(c) Bihar (d) Meghalaya SSC CHSL 11/8/2021 (Afternoon)
Q.227. Which one of the following is the (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Gujarat
Sol.221.(a) Jammu and Kashmir. It is longest river of Nepal ?
located near the Soura area in the city of (c) Rajasthan (d) Madhya Pradesh
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Evening)
Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. The lake (a) River Koshi (b) River Narayani Sol.232.(c) Rajasthan. State and
is connected with the famous Dal Lake. (c) River Karnali (d) River Seti Waterfall : Uttar Pradesh - Lakhaniya Dari
Q.222. Yerla, Warna and Dindi are Falls; Gujarat - Shankar Waterfall;
Sol.227.(c) River Karnali also called Madhya Pradesh - Dhuandhar Falls.
tributaries of the ______ river system.
Ghaghara is a perennial transboundary
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening)
river originating on the Tibetan Plateau Q.233. Rain is liquid ______.
(a) Brahmaputra (b) Godavari
near Lake Manasarovar. SSC CHSL 12/8/2021 (Morning)
(c) Kaveri (d) Krishna
(a) precipitation (b) condensation
Q.228. Which type of dam is a temporary (c) decantation (d) sedimentation
Sol.222.(d) Krishna.
dam constructed to exclude water from
Q.223. A/an __________ is a natural geo - the specific area? Sol.233.(a) Precipitation is any product
hydrological unit of land, which collects SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Afternoon) of the condensation of atmospheric
water and drains it through a common (a) Coffer (b) Impounding water vapor that falls under gravitational
point by a system of streams. (c) Detention (d) Debris pull from clouds. The main forms of
SSC CGL 24/08/2021(Morning) precipitation include drizzling, rain, sleet,
(a) warabandi (b) aquifer Sol.228.(a) coffer. It is built to permit snow, ice pellets, graupel and hail.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Q.234. Which of the following dams is by river erosion. A waterfall is where Tanzania, Burundi, Rwanda, Congo
located in Jharkhand? water drops vertically over a ledge. A (Kinshasa), Kenya. Other important rivers
SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Morning) delta forms at a river's mouth where it of the world : Lena River : Origin - Baikal
(a) Koyna (b) Maithon meets the sea or ocean. range, Drains - Laptev Sea. Amazon
(c) Mettur (d) Sardar Sarovar River : Origin - Andes Mountains, Drains -
Q.239. Which of the following has the Atlantic Ocean. Congo River (cross the
Sol.234.(b) Maithon dam is on the river highest salinity? equator twice) : Origin - Africa Rift, Drains
Barakar in the district Dhanbad of SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift) - Atlantic Ocean.
Jharkhand. It has an underground power (a) Great salt lake (b) Lake Van
station, the first of its own kind in the (c) Red sea (d) Dead sea Q.243. Where are Huka Falls located ?
whole of SouthEast Asia. SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Sol.239.(b) Lake Van. Being the largest (a) Germany (b) Spain
Q.235. The mouth of which of the lake in Turkey, it has the highest salinity (c) New Zealand (d) Australia
following rivers lies to the north of the (330%). As a saline soda lake fed by
Tropic of Cancer ? small streams, it is one of the few Sol.243.(c) New Zealand. Huka Falls is
SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Morning) endorheic lakes over 3,000 square on the Waikato River. Major Waterfalls:
(a) Mahanadi (b) Krishna kilometers. High salinity usually prevents New Zealand - Kitekite Falls, Dawson
(c) Indus (d) Godavari it from freezing, despite high altitude and Falls, Taranaki Falls, Owharoa Falls.
winter temperatures below 0 °C (32 °F). Germany - Triberger Waterfall, Todtnau
Sol.235.(c) Indus. Mahanadi, Krishna falls. Spa. Australia - Wallaman Falls,
and Kaveri are all rivers of the South so Q.240. As of 2021, which is the world's Millaain - Salto del Nervion, Fervenza do
they lie to the south of tropic of cancer. largest drainage basin with an area of Ezaro Millaa falls, Liffey Falls, Russell
about 70,00,000 km2 ? Falls. Angel Falls in Venezuela is the
df
Q.236. What kind of depositional SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
landforms are formed when streams highest waterfall in the world.
(a) Congo basin (b) Amur basin
_p
flowing from higher levels break into foot (c) Amazon basin (d) Nile basin Q.244. Where is Red Lake found ?
slope plains of low gradient? SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
na
SSC CHSL 19/10/2020 (Morning) Sol.240.(c) Amazon basin. The Amazon (a) Japan (b) UK (c) USA (d) China
(a) Point bars (b) Flood plains Basin, formed by numerous tributaries,
ap
(c) Alluvial fans (d) Natural levees drains parts of Brazil, Peru, Bolivia, Sol.244.(c) USA. Country and Lakes:
Ecuador, Colombia, and a small section USA - Abert, Ontario, Erie, Huron,
:@
Sol.236.(c) Alluvial fans. A point bar is a of Venezuela. It lies directly on the Michigan. India - Chilka Lake, Sambhar
depositional feature made of alluvium equator and experiences a hot, humid Salt Lake, Loktak Lake, Wular Lake.
that accumulates on the inside bend of climate year-round, with both day and Canada - Aberdeen Lake, Lake Abitibi.
TG
streams and rivers below the slip-off night feeling equally warm and sticky. Brazil - Agua Vermelha. Australia - Lake
slope. An alluvial fan is a triangle-shaped High rainfall, high temperature, and high Alexandrina, Lake Amadeus. Scotland -
deposit of gravel, sand, and even smaller humidity are the features of the basin. Loch Lomond.
on
pieces of sediment, such as silt.
Q.241. Which of the following is the Q.245. Which of the following is the
Q.237. Where is the Baglihar Dam largest artificial lake of Asia? highest navigable lake in the world?
ch
located? SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Evening) (a) Naini Lake (b) Bhopal Lake (a) Huron (b) Titicaca
ar
(a) Gujarat (c) Dal Lake (d) Chilika Lake (c) Superior (d) Como
(b) Himachal Pradesh
Se
(c) Jammu & Kashmir Sol.241.(b) Bhopal Lake, also known as Sol.245.(b) Titicaca - Situated 3810 m
(d) Telangana Bhojtal, was created in the 11th century above sea level and is situated between
by King Bhoja of the Paramara dynasty. It Peru to the west and Bolivia to the east,
Sol.237.(c) Jammu and Kashmir. is situated in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, South America.
Baglihar dam is a run-of-the-river power and is constructed on Kolans river. Lakes
project on the Chenab river. Important in Madhya Pradesh: Sangram Sagar, Q.246. Which is the correct sequence of
Dams - Kadana Dam (Gujarat), Chamera Shahpura lake. Dal Lake - It is often lakes according to depth (from maximum
Dam (Himachal Pradesh), Singur Dam referred to as Srinagar's Jewel, is a to minimum) ?
(Telangana). freshwater lake located in Srinagar, SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Jammu and Kashmir. (a) Caspian Sea > Tanganyika > Vostok >
World Drainage System Baikal
Q.242. Which river originates south of (b) Baikal > Caspian Sea > Tanganyika >
Q.238. A river is capable of forming the equator and flows north through Vostok
which of the following landscapes when north-eastern Africa to drain into the (c) Baikal > Tanganyika > Caspian Sea >
the river is in its middle course? Mediterranean Sea? Vostok
SSC MTS 07/10/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) (d) Caspian Sea > Baikal >Tanganyika >
(a) Waterfalls (b) A delta (a) Lena River (b) Nile River Vostok
(c) V shaped valley (d) A meander (c) Amazon River (d) Congo River
Sol.246.(c) Baikal (world’s deepest lake):
Sol.238.(d) A meander is a U-shaped Sol.242.(b) Nile River. Its length is about Depth - 5,387 ft, Location - Russia.
bend in a river formed by erosion and 6,695 kilometers (4,160 miles). The Nile Tanganyika: Depth - 4,823 ft, Location -
deposition. A V-shaped valley is created basin is huge and includes parts of Central Africa on the borders of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Tanzania, the Democratic Republic of river of both China and Asia. It rises in (a) Anthracite (b) Lignite
Congo, Zambia and Burundi. Caspian the mountains of Qinghai province of (c) Bituminous (d) Peat
Sea: Depth - 3,363 ft, Location - China.
Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran, Sol.254.(c) Bituminous is a type of coal
Azerbaijan, and Russia. Vostok: Depth - with a carbon content ranging from 60%
Minerals and Energy Resources to 80% and a relatively low moisture
about 3000 ft, Location - Antarctica.
in India content, making it highly efficient for
Q.247. What is the total number of rivers energy production. It has a high calorific
including tributaries in Bangladesh? Q.251. Which of the following river value. The Damodar Valley, located in the
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift) valleys is NOT known for coal deposits in states of Jharkhand and West Bengal in
(a) About 1000 (b) About 800 India ? eastern India, is renowned for its
(c) About 700 (d) About 500 SSC MTS 15/10/2024 (1st Shift) extensive bituminous coal deposits. This
(a) Mahanadi (b) Satluj region is part of the Jharia and Raniganj
Sol.247.(c) About 700. Bangladesh : It (c) Godavari (d) Son coalfields, which are significant
has four major river systems – The contributors to India's coal production.
Brahmaputra - Jamuna, the Ganges - Sol.251.(b) Satluj. The Satluj originates
Padma, the Surma - Meghna and the in the 'Raksas tal' near Mansarovar at an Q.255. Which of the following is an
Chittagong region river system. altitude of 4,555 m in Tibet where it is inosilicate amphibole mineral used in
Chittagong is the largest and most known as Langchen Khambab. Satluj, is highway construction and as railroad
important seaport in Bangladesh. the longest of the five rivers that flow ballast?
through the historic crossroads region of SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.248. Which sea, located in the north Punjab in northern India and Pakistan. (a) Shale (b) Olivine
-western part of the Indian Ocean, joins The Damodar Valley is particularly rich in (c) Geyserite (d) Hornblende
df
the Gulf of Oman in the north-west and coal and is known as the "Ruhr of India"
the Gulf of Aden in the south-west and Sol.255.(d) Hornblende: It is an
_p
because of its similarities to the coal-rich
covers a total area of 1,491,000 square Ruhr region of Germany. inosilicate amphibole mineral. Uses:
miles? Highway construction: As an aggregate
na
Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 4) Q.252. Which of the following is a for road bases and surfaces. Railroad
(a) Arabian Sea (b) Mediterranean Sea precious mineral? ballast: To provide drainage and stability
ap
(c) Caribbean Sea (d) Coral Sea SSC MTS 18/10/2024 (2nd Shift) under railroad tracks.
(a) Hematite (b) Mica
:@
Sol.248.(a) Arabian Sea forms part of (c) Bauxite (d) Platinum Q.256. Which coal is low-grade, brown
the sea route between Europe and India. and soft with high moisture content?
Name of Straits and Joining Seas - Strait Sol.252.(d) Platinum. It is used in hard SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
TG
of Gibraltar (Atlantic Ocean with the disk drives, thermocouples, optical fibers, (a) Metallurgical (b) Lignite
Mediterranean Sea), Sunda Strait (Java LCDs, turbine blades, and spark plugs. (c) Bituminous (d) Anthracite
Sea and Indian Ocean), Mesina Strait ( Hematite: A common iron ore used in
on
island of Sicily and the southern tip of iron production. Platinum-based drugs Sol.256.(b) Lignite. Bituminous:
mainland Italy), Bab-el-Mandeb Strait cisplatin, carboplatin, and oxaliplatin are Medium-grade, black, and less moisture
widely used for chemotherapeutic content than lignite, used for electricity,
ch
(Red Sea and Gulf of Aden), North
Channel (Irish Sea and Atlantic Ocean). eradication of cancer. Mica: A group of industrial, and domestic purposes.
silicate minerals used in various Anthracite: High-grade, hard, black, and
ar
Q.249. Which of the following channels industrial applications, including very low moisture content, used for
Se
or straits is located between the Great electronics and construction. Bauxite: residential heating and industrial
Nicobar Island and Indonesia's Sumatra The primary ore of aluminum. processes. Tamil Nadu is the largest
Island? producer of lignite in India.
SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Evening) Q.253. The Panchpatmali mineral
(a) 10 degree channel deposit region is located in which state Q.257. Match the following renewable
(b) Palk Strait from the following? sources of energy with their producing
(c) Grand channel SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift) regions in India correctly.
(d) 9 degree channel (a) Haryana (b) Odisha Renewable source Regions in India
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Rajasthan of energy
Sol.249.(c) Grand Channel. The Coco 1. Tidal energy a. Gulf of Khambhat
Strait is between the North Andaman Sol.253.(b) Odisha. Panchpatmali 2. Wind energy b. Nagercoil
islands and the Coco Islands of deposits in Koraput district are the most 3. Geo Thermal c. Puga valley
Myanmar. Sumatra and Java are important bauxite deposits in the state. energy
separated by the Sunda Strait. Important Mines deposit in India:
Balaghat mines (Madhya Pradesh), Khetri SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Q.250. The city of _________ is located at mines (Rajasthan), Maikal hills (Madhya (a) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a (b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
the mouth of the Yangtze River. Pradesh and Chhattisgarh), Nellore mica (c) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c (d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
SSC CGL 03/03/2020 (Evening) belt (Andhra Pradesh), Kudremukh mines Sol.257.(b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c. Renewable
(a) Shanghai (b) Beijing (Karnataka). energy comes from natural sources that
(c) Lhasa (d) Guangzhou
Q.254. Which type of coal is found in are regenerated more quickly than they
Sol.250.(a) Shanghai. Yangtze river Damodar valley? are used up. They are natural and
(approximately 6300 km) is the longest SSC MTS 14/11/2024 (1st Shift) self-replenishing, and usually have a low-
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
or zero-carbon footprint. Examples of uranium, and pyrite. Jharkhand ranks 1st Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
renewable energy sources include wind in the production of coal, mica, kyanite, (a) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation
power, solar power, bioenergy (organic and copper in India. Major coal fields Limited
matter burned as a fuel) and include Jharia, Bokaro, Karanpura, Hutar, (b) Gas Authority of India Limited
hydroelectric. Auranga, Daltonganj, Deoghar, and (c) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
Rajmahal. Chhattisgarh: A leading (d) Oil and Natural Gas Commission
Q.258. The district of Shivamogga that is producer of coal, dolomite, bauxite, and
famous for its Iron-Ore and Manganese iron ore. Major coal-producing areas Sol.265.(b) Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur
mineral is located in which state of India? include Korea, Korba, Raigarh, and (HVJ) is India's first cross-country natural
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) Sarguja districts. gas pipeline commissioned in 1987-88
(a) Karnataka (b) Jharkhand with compressor stations at Hazira,
(c) Maharashtra (d) Rajasthan Q.262. The Salal Project, also called the Jhabua (Madhya Pradesh), Vijaipur
Salal Hydroelectric Power Station, is on (Madhya Pradesh) and Auraiya (Uttar
Sol.258.(a) Karnataka. Other famous which river? Pradesh). It transports natural gas from
mines in India: Panna and Bunder Project SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift) Hazira in Gujarat to Jagdishpur in Uttar
- Madhya Pradesh. West Singhbhum, (a) Chenab (b) Krishna Pradesh.
Pahadia, Kunderkocha and Parasi - (c) Ganga (d) Ravi
Jharkhand. Bailadila iron ore and Q.266. According to the Indian Mineral
Dalli-Rajhara - Chhattisgarh. Ratnagiri - Sol.262.(a) Chenab. Salal Hydroelectric Yearbook 2018, which state alone
Maharashtra. Sundergarh, Joda, Keonjhar Power Station is a run-of-the-river power accounts for 72% of the magnetite
and Jajpur - Odisha. project in the Reasi district of Jammu deposits in India?
and Kashmir. The project has a capacity Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Q.259. Where is the Narora Nuclear of 690 MW. The beneficiary states are (a) West Bengal (b) Maharashtra
df
Power plant located? Uttar Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)
_p
Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Himachal
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Uttar Pradesh Pradesh, Chandigarh & Rajasthan. Sol.266.(d) Karnataka is the leading
(c) Maharashtra (d) Karnataka producer of iron ore in India, with major
na
Important hydel power stations and the
rivers on which they are located: Bhakra deposits located in the Bellary-Hospet,
Sol.259.(b) Uttar Pradesh. Operational Chitradurga, and Shimoga regions. Other
ap
Nuclear power plants in India: Kakrapar Nangal (Sutlej River), Gandhi Sagar Dam
(Chambal River), and Nagarjuna Sagar significant iron ore-producing states
Atomic Power Station (Gujarat), Madras include Odisha, Jharkhand, and
:@
Atomic Power Station (Tamil Nadu), Dam (Krishna River).
Chhattisgarh.
Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant (Karnataka), Q.263. Identify a conventional source of
Rajasthan Atomic Power Station energy from the following options. Q.267. NALCO is an Indian government
TG
(Rajasthan), Tarapur Atomic Power SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) enterprise, dealing with which of the
Station (Maharashtra), Kudankulam (a) Geothermal energy (b) Atomic energy following minerals?
Nuclear Power Plant (Tamil Nadu). (c) Cattle dung (d) Solar power Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
on
(a) Bauxite (b) Iron (c) Mica (d) Copper
Q.260. The Mundra Thermal Power Plant Sol.263.(c) Cattle dung. Mineral fuels
is located in which district of Gujarat? Sol.267.(a) Bauxite. National Aluminium
ch
like coal, petroleum and natural gas
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) (known as fossil fuels), nuclear energy Company Limited (NALCO), a ‘Navratna’
(a) Jamnagar (b) Kutch public sector undertaking (PSU)
ar
minerals, are the conventional sources of
(c) Kheda (d) Gandhinagar energy. These conventional sources are established in 1981. Headquarters -
Se
exhaustible resources. Bhubaneswar, Odisha. Odisha has the
Sol.260.(b) Kutch. The Mundra Thermal largest bauxite reserves in India.
Power Plant in Gujarat. Other Power Q.264. The Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur iron Lohardaga in Jharkhand is known as the
plants in Gujarat: Jhanor-Gandhar ore belt lies in _____ states. land of bauxite mines.
Thermal Power Station, Kawas Thermal Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Power Station, Essar Power Gujarat (a) Maharashtra and Karnataka Q.268. Which of the following are major
Limited, Kutch Lignite Thermal Power (b) Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra coal fields in India?
Station, Sabarmati Thermal Power (c) Maharashtra and Telangana Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Station, Sikka Thermal Power Station, (d) Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand (a) Jharia and Raniganj
Surat Lignite Thermal Power Station, (b) Jhunjhunu and Alwar
Ukai Thermal Power Station, Wanakbori Sol.264.(b)Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra. (c) Satara and Pune
Thermal Power Station. The Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur iron ore belt (d) Coimbatore and Madurai
stretches across the Durg and Bastar
Q.261. Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh Sol.268.(a) Jharia and Raniganj.
districts in Chhattisgarh and the
states are rich with ____________ material Jharkhand is home to several significant
Chandrapur district in Maharashtra. Iron
deposits. coalfields, including Jharia (the largest),
ore mines in India: Bailadila (Chhattisgarh),
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift) Bokaro, Dhanbad, Giridih, Karanpura,
Joda (Odisha), Noamundi (Jharkhand),
(a) gold (b) petroleum Ramgarh, and Daltonganj. Major coal
and Kudremukh (Karnataka).
(c) silicon (d) coal fields : West Bengal - Dalingkot
Q.265. Which of the following agencies (Darjeeling) Birbhum, Chinakuri. Madhya
Sol.261.(d) Coal. Jharkhand - 40% of the is responsible for the operation and Pradesh - Singrauli, Suhagpur. Odisha -
country's total mineral resources are maintenance of the Hazira- Vijaypur- Talcher. Other Minerals in India : Copper -
available here. It produces coking coal, Jagdishpur pipeline? Found in Jhunjhunu and Alwar in
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Rajasthan. Limestone - Commonly found commercial or traditional source of (Khetri), Jharkhand (Singhbhum). Largest
in Coimbatore and Madurai in Tamil energy, primarily used for domestic Copper producer (World) - Chile. Top
Nadu. purposes such as cooking and heating. Minerals Producers (India) - Bauxite
Commercial sources of energy are (Odisha), Gold (Karnataka), Silver
Q.269. Which is the world’s largest PV typically: Fossil fuels (petroleum, coal, (Rajasthan), Coal (Jharkhand), Uranium
Solar Park located in one of the Indian natural gas), Electricity (produced from a (Andhra Pradesh).
states ? variety of energy sources), Hydropower
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) (electricity generated from water Q.277. Which of the following is an open
(a) Pavagada Solar Park resources). pit copper mine ?
(b) Bhadla Solar Park SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift)
(c) Dholera Solar Park Q.273. The Mumbai High region in the (a) Malanjkhand (b) Bastar
(d) Harshad Solar Park Arabian Sea is known for mining _______ . (c) Singhbhum (d) Ballari
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Sol.269.(b) Bhadla Solar Park. It is (a) uranium (b) coal Sol.277.(a) Malanjkhand (Madhya
located in Rajasthan's Jodhpur district, (c) copper (d) mineral oil Pradesh). Open-pit mining (opencast
spans 14,000 acres. The Pavagada Solar mining) - A surface mining technique that
Park, located in Karnataka's Tumkur Sol.273.(d) Mineral Oil. Other oil extracts minerals from an open pit in the
district. It was developed by Karnataka cities/states in India : Digboi is known as ground. Copper Mines in India : Khetri
Solar Power Development Corporation the Oil City of Assam where the first oil (Rajasthan), Singhbhum (Jharkhand),
(KSPDCL). Dholera Solar Park - Gujarat. well in Asia was drilled. Surma Valley Kolihan (Rajasthan), Surda (Jharkhand)
Harshad Solar Park - Gujarat. (Assam), Rajasthan (Largest producer of etc.
Petroleum in India), Gujarat.
Q.270. Tertiary coals occur in which of Q.278. Which of the following regions in
df
the following states in India ? Q.274. The Gua and Noamundi mines are India is nicknamed as the storehouse of
Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3) located in with state of India? minerals?
_p
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Meghalaya SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift) SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift)
(c) Bihar (d) Haryana (a) Assam (b) Haryana (a) Deccan Plateau (b) Western Ghats
Sol.270.(b) Meghalaya. Tertiary coals,
(c) Rajasthan
na
(d) Jharkhand (c) Chota Nagpur (d) Himalayas
ap
which include lignite and sub-bituminous Sol.274.(d) Jharkhand. Noamundi and Sol.278.(c) Chota Nagpur Plateau is a
coal, occur in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Gua are Iron ore Mines. Iron ore mines in rich source of minerals, including mica,
:@
Meghalaya and Nagaland. It is extracted Jharkhand: Kiriburu, Meghahatuburu, bauxite, copper, limestone, iron ore, coal,
from Darangiri, Cherrapunji, Mewlong and Chiria. Major reserves of haematite iron manganese ore, and chromite.
Langrin (Meghalaya); Makum, Jaipur and in India: Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh,
TG
Nazira (Assam); Namchik - Namphuk Karnataka and Goa. Iron ore mines in Q.279. What are the main energy sources
(Arunachal Pradesh) and Kalakot India: Bailadila (Chattisgarh), Balda for earth's internal heat engine?
(Jammu and Kashmir). The brown coal Block, Joda (Odisha). SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (4th shift)
on
or lignite occurs in the coastal areas of (a) Radiogenic heat and oceanic tide
Tamil Nadu, Pondicherry, Gujarat and Q.275. According to the Indian Minerals heat
Yearbook 2020, which state has the (b) Heat from volcanoes and solar heat
ch
Jammu and Kashmir.
highest production of manganese in (c) Solar heat and oceanic tide heat
Q.271. Koderma Gaya Hazaribagh belt is India ? (d) Radiogenic heat and primordial heat
ar
known for the production of which of the SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift)
Sol.279.(d) The Earth's heat is the
Se
following minerals? (a) Karnataka (b) Madhya Pradesh
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (c) Odisha (d) Maharashtra internal heat that arises from two
(a) Bauxite (b) Mica (c) Coal (d) Copper sources : The decay of radioactive
Sol.275.(b) Madhya Pradesh (33%), isotopes in crustal rocks and the mantle,
Sol.271.(b) Mica deposits are found on followed by Maharashtra (24%) and and primordial heat left over from the
the northern edge of the Chota Nagpur Odisha (18%). Other Mineral producing planet's fiery formation. Geothermal
Plateau, with the Koderma - Gaya - states: Iron Ore - Odisha, Chhattisgarh energy is the heat produced deep in the
Hazaribagh belt in Jharkhand leading and Karnataka. Chromite - Odisha, Earth's core.
production. Major mica-producing Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Nickel -
regions include Gaya, Hazaribagh, Ajmer, Odisha, Jharkhand. Cobalt - Jharkhand, Q.280. The Bailadila range of
Beawar, Bhilwara, Udaipur, Dungarpur, Odisha, Nagaland. Coal - Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh is famous for which of the
Banswara, and Nellore. The main Orissa, Chattisgarh. Petroleum - following minerals ?
mica-producing states are Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Gujarat. SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Rajasthan, and Andhra Pradesh. (a) Copper (b) Bauxite
Q.276. Which district of Madhya Pradesh (c) Iron ore (d) Coal
Q.272. Which of the following is NOT is a leading producer of copper?
among the commercial sources of SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) Sol.280.(c) Iron ore. Types of Iron Ore –
energy? (a) Balaghat (b) Jabalpur Haematite, Magnetite, Limonite and
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (c) Bhopal (d) Gwalior Siderite. Mines and Iron deposit in India:
(a) Petroleum (b) Electricity Chhattisgarh - Dalli-Rajhara; Jharkhand -
(c) Fuel wood (d) Hydropower Sol.276.(a) Balaghat (Largest producer Noamundi mines; Karnataka -
district of copper in India). Other Copper Kemmangundi (Baba Budan hills),
Sol.272.(c) Fuel wood. It is a non - producing States (India) - Rajasthan Sandur (Bellary); Rajasthan - Jaipur,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, state. Naharkatiya and Moran-Hugrijan bituminous coal.
Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa and Banswara; are important oil fields of the state. The (c) Lignite is a low-grade brown coal,
Andhra Pradesh - Kurnool, Guntur, largest producer of petroleum in India is which is soft with high moisture
Cuddapah, Anantapur, Nellore; Kerala - Rajasthan, followed by Gujarat and content.
Naduvallur, Eleyettimala, Nanminda, Assam. Oil fields of Rajasthan: Mangla, (d) Metallurgical coal is high grade lignite
Alampara; Tamil Nadu - Kanjamalai, Bhagyam, Kameshwari. Gujarat oil fields: coal which has a special value for
Mudumalai Hills (Salem district). Ankleshwar, Kalol. smelting iron in blast furnaces.
Q.281. The approximate amount of silica Q.285. Kawas Thermal Power Station is Sol.288.(d) Coal is the most important
present in cement is: located in which of the following states? and abundant fossil fuel in India. It is
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (2nd shift) SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Morning) variously referred to as the 'black gold' or
(a) between 27% and 35% (a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra 'black diamond'. It contains carbon,
(b) between 37% and 45% (c) West Bengal (d) Rajasthan volatile matter, moisture, and ash.
(c) between 17% and 25%
(d) between 47% and 55% Sol.285.(a) Gujarat. Thermal power Q.289. Which of the following is NOT a
station in India: Gujarat - Kutch, Sikka, major iron ore belt in India?
Sol.281.(c) Between 17% and 25%. Dhuvaran. Maharashtra - Bhusawal, SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Cement - It was first introduced in Trombay, Khaparkheda. Rajasthan - (a) Maharashtra - Goa belt
England in 1824 by Joseph Aspdin. Chhabra, Barsingsar, Suratgarh, Kota. (b) Haryana - Rajasthan belt
Composition of Cement: Lime (60-65%), West Bengal - Farakka Super, Kolaghat, (c) Odisha - Jharkhand belt
Silica (17-25%), Alumina (3-8%), Bakreshwar. (d) Durg - Bastar - Chandrapur belt
Magnesia (1-3%), Iron oxide (0.5-6%),
Calcium Sulfate (0.1-0.5%), Sulfur Q.286. The main mineral constituents of Sol.289.(b) Haryana-Rajasthan belt. The
df
Trioxide (1-3%), Alkaline (0-1%). the continental mass are ____ and _____ . major iron ore belts in India are Odisha-
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning) Jharkhand belt : High grade haematite
_p
Q.282. The Gulf of Khambhat, the Gulf of (a) silica, magnesium ore is found in Badampahar mines in the
Kutch and Sundarbans region provide (b) silica, alumina Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar districts.
ideal conditions for utilizing ___________
energy in India.
(c) oxygen, carbon
(d) alumina, magnesium na Q.290. The largest wind farm cluster of
ap
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (1st shift) India is located in ______.
(a) wind (b) thermal (c) tidal (d) solar Sol.286.(b) Silica, alumina. It is often SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
:@
termed Sial (Si-silica and Al - aluminum). (a) Gujarat (b) Tamil Nadu
Sol.282.(c) Tidal energy is a renewable Earth (three layers): Crust, Mantle, and (c) Maharashtra (d) Karnataka
energy source that harnesses the power Core. Crust (outermost) - It is about 5
TG
of the ocean's tides to generate km thick under the oceans and about 30 Sol.290.(b) Tamil Nadu. The name of
electricity. As of September 2024, Gujarat km thick under the continents. Mantle - this wind farm is Muppandal Wind Farm,
has the largest installed wind power The major constituent elements are located in Muppandal, Kanyakumari
on
generation capacity in India. Rajasthan silicon and Magnesium. Core (mostly district, Tamil Nadu. It is an onshore wind
ranks 1st among Indian states in terms Iron and nickel) - This is the innermost farm with a capacity of 1,500 MW. The
largest wind farm in the world is the
ch
of installed capacity of solar energy. layer of the earth.
Gansu Wind Farm in China.
Q.283. Which stone could convert all Q.287. Which state among the following
ar
baser metals like iron into gold? has the largest reserves of gold ore in Q.291. The major resources of Gondwana
coal, which are metallurgical coal is
Se
Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 ( Shift - 2) India as of 2021?
(a) Philosopher’s stone (b) Emerald SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (2nd Shift) located in______.
(c) Jade (d) Copper stone (a) Jharkhand (b) Rajasthan SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(c) Bihar (d) Karnataka (a) Damodar valley (b) Chambal valley
Sol.283.(a) Philosopher’s stone. It is a (c) Krishna valley (d) Narmada valley
legendary substance that was believed to Sol.287.(c) Bihar. Karnataka (Land of
Sol.291.(a) Damodar valley (West Bengal
have the power to transform base metals Gold) produces 80% of the gold in India.
-Jharkhand). Jharia, Raniganj, Bokaro are
like iron into gold and also to grant Three goldfields in India - Kolar Gold
important coalfields. The Godavari,
immortality. Emerald is a gemstone and Field (Karnataka), Kolar Hutti Goldfield
Mahanadi, Son and Wardha valleys also
a variety of the mineral beryl colored (Karnataka) and Ramgiri Gold Fields
contain coal deposits.
green by trace amounts of chromium or (Andhra Pradesh). Largest producer of
sometimes vanadium. Jade is a green Gold in the world - China. The largest Q.292. Peat coal has ____ carbon and
coloured precious stone or a mineral producers of gold ore - Bihar (44%), ____ moisture content?
used in jewelry and as an ornament. Rajasthan (25%), Karnataka (21%), West SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Bengal (3%) and Jharkhand (2%). (a) High, Low (b) Low, high
Q.284. Which is the oldest oil producing
(c) High, High (d) Low, Low
state of India? Q.288. Which of the following statements
Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 4) regarding coal is NOT correct? Sol.292.(b) Low, high. Peat is a soft, dark
(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (2nd Shift) brown coal that is formed from dead and
(c) Assam (d) Telangana (a) Anthracite is the highest quality hard decaying organic matter. It has an energy
coal. density of 15 MJ/kg. It has a low heating
Sol.284.(c) Assam. India's first oil (b) Coal that has been buried deep and capacity. India has the fifth-largest coal
reserve is located in Digboi city of Assam subjected to increased temperatures is reserves in the world. Coal India Limited
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(CIL) (Public Sector Undertaking) was (c) Kerala (d) Gujarat are: Black tea, Regular tea, Green tea,
established on 1 November 1975 under Herbal tea, Masala tea, and Lemon tea.
the ownership of the Ministry of Coal. Sol.297.(a) Odisha. Manganese deposits The majority of the tea exported out of
Headquarters: Kolkata. are available in Sundargarh, Keonjhar, India is black tea which makes up about
Rayagada, and Balangir districts in 96% of the total exports.
Q.293. In which of the following states of Odisha. Dolomite is available in plenty
India, the reserves of silver are NOT only in the district of Sundergarh. Q.302. The people of Himachal Pradesh
found? make channels to bring water from a
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) Q.298. Which of the following states has glacier or rainwater to villages for the
(a) Odisha (b) Jharkhand one of the richest monazite deposits in function of mainly irrigation. These
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Gujarat India? channels are locally known as:
SSC CHSL 20/10/2020 (Evening) SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.293.(d) Gujarat. Silver mines in (a) Kerala (b) Gujarat (a) Khadins (b) Guls or Kuls
India: Zawar mines and Sindesar Khurd (c) Jharkhand (d) Rajasthan (c) Johads (d) Baori
Mine (Rajasthan), Tundoo Lead Smelter
and Moubandar smelter (Jharkhand), Sol.298.(a) Kerala. The world's richest Sol.302.(b) Guls or Kuls. In hill and
Kolar fields and Hutti Mine (Karnataka), monazite deposits occur in the Palakkad mountainous regions, people built
Vizag Zinc smelter (Andhra Pradesh). and Kollam districts of Kerala. Nuclear diversion channels like the ‘guls’ or ‘kuls’
minerals in India primarily comprises of the Western Himalayas for agriculture.
Q.294. Which of the following is a large Thorium and very few reserves of Water harvesting system: ‘Rooftop rain
group of rock-forming silicate minerals Uranium. water harvesting’ was commonly
that constitutes more than 50% of the practised to store drinking water,
Earth's crust and is widely used in the Agriculture particularly in Rajasthan. In arid and
df
glass and ceramic industries? semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were
SSC CHSL 6/06/2022 (Afternoon)
_p
Q.299. In which of the following states is converted into rain fed storage structures
(a) Amphibole (b) Feldspar shifting agriculture locally called Penda ? that allowed the water to stand and
(c) Zeolites (d) Pyroxene
na
SSC MTS 17/10/2024 (1st Shift) moisten the soil like the ‘khadins’ in
Sol.294.(b) Feldspars are a group of (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Orissa Jaisalmer and ‘Johads’ in other parts of
ap
rock-forming aluminum tectosilicate (c) West Bengal (d) Madhya Pradesh Rajasthan. Roof top rain water harvesting
minerals, containing sodium, calcium, is the most common practice in Shillong,
Sol.299.(a) Andhra Pradesh. In India,
:@
potassium, or barium. They are used as Meghalaya.
shifting agriculture is called ‘Bewar’ or
fluxing agents in ceramics and glass
‘Dahiya’ in Madhya Pradesh, ‘Podu’ or Q.303. Which of the following states is
applications, and also are used as
‘Penda’ in Andhra Pradesh, ‘Pama Dabi’ the biggest producer of Pulses?
TG
functional fillers in the paint, plastic,
or ‘Koman’ or ‘Bringa’ in Odisha, ‘Kumari’ SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
rubber and adhesive industries.
in Western Ghats, ‘Valre’ or ‘Waltre’ in (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Haryana
South-eastern Rajasthan, ‘Khil’ in the (c) Punjab (d) Bihar
on
Q.295. Which of the following minerals is
NOT found in rivers (alluvial placers) and Himalayan belt, ‘Kuruwa’ in Jharkhand,
Sol.303.(a) Madhya Pradesh. Based on
on the coast, especially beaches (beach and‘Jhumming’ in the North-eastern
the production estimates for the year
ch
placers)? region.
2022-23, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Afternoon)
and Rajasthan are the top three pulses
ar
Q.300. The term 'Aus', 'Aman' and 'Boro'
(a) Tin (b) Bauxite (c) Platinum (d) Gold
are associated with which crop in India? producing states in the country. India is
Se
Sol.295.(b) Bauxite deposits are formed SSC MTS 17/10/2024 (3rd Shift) the largest producer of pulses in the
by the decomposition of a wide variety of (a) Maize (b) Wheat (c) Jute (d) Paddy world.
rocks rich in aluminium silicates. Q.304. Which of the following
Sol.300.(d) Paddy is basically a tropical
Q.296. Which of the following is an crop. 'Aus', 'Aman' and 'Boro' are grown in statements correctly defines the green
Export Processing Zone (EPZ) set up in states like Assam, West Bengal, and revolution?
West Bengal? Odisha throughout the year. Aus: Sown in SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Morning) the summer, along with pre-monsoonal (a) It is a new strategy in agriculture to
(a) Farakka (b) Falta rains, and harvested in the autumn. produce food grains, especially
(c) Haldia (d) Midnapur Aman: Sown in the monsoon and wheat and rice.
harvested in the winter. Boro: Sown in the (b) It is a new strategy to increase the
Sol.296.(b) Falta. An Export Processing winter and harvested in the summer. share of the forest.
Zone (EPZ) is a Customs area where one (c) It is a new strategy to use green
is allowed to import plant, machinery, Q.301. Which type of tea in large amount colour for all purposes.
equipment and material for the is exported from India to importing (d) It is a new strategy to use only herbal
manufacture of export goods under countries? products.
security, without payment of duty. SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) Herbal tea (b) Regular tea Sol.304.(a) The Green Revolution,
Q.297. In which of the following states starting in the 1960s, aimed to achieve
(c) Green tea (d) Black tea
are the Sundargarh deposits of food security and reduce food imports,
Manganese located? Sol.301.(d) Black tea. India is the world's particularly in India. It involved the
SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Evening) second largest tea producer after China. introduction of high-yielding variety
(a) Odisha (b) Maharashtra The types of tea exported through India seeds, mechanized farming, improved
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
irrigation, and the use of pesticides and National Mission for Sustainable mid-1980s), the HYV technology spread
fertilizers. Agriculture (NMSA) has been made to a larger number of states and
operational from the year 2014-15 which benefited more variety of crops. The
Q.305. According to the Agricultural and
aims at making agriculture more spread of green revolution technology
Processed food products Export
productive, sustainable, remunerative enabled India to achieve self-sufficiency
Development Authority (APEDA)
and climate resilient by promoting in food grains.
2020-2021, which state of India has the
location specific integrated /composite
first rank in grapes production? Q.312. Which of the following
farming systems; soil and moisture
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift) movements created regional disparities
conservation measures; comprehensive
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka between large and small farmers in
soil health management; efficient water
(c) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh India?
management practices and
mainstreaming rainfed technologies. SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.305.(a) Maharashtra. APEDA was
(a) Green revolution (b) Yellow revolution
established in 1986, operates under the
Q.309. What was a significant negative (c) Pink revolution (d) Blue revolution
Ministry of Commerce and Trade to
environmental impact of the Green
promote the export of agricultural and Sol.312.(a) Green revolution in India
Revolution?
processed food products. started with the aim of increasing India's
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) Deforestation agricultural production to make India
Q.306. The green revolution technology
(b) Soil degradation self-sufficient in food grains.
resulted in an increase in production of
cereal production from 72.4 million tons (c) Increase in air pollution Q.313. Which of the following
in 1965-66 to ________ million tons in (d) Ozone layer depletion statements is/are correct?
1978-79. i. The first green revolution led to
Sol.309.(b) Soil degradation. The Green
df
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) over-exploitation of natural resources.
Revolution caused soil fertility loss
(a) 150.8 (b) 165.9 (c) 131.9 (d) 141.2 ii. The second Green Revolution was
_p
through the use of chemical fertilizers.
Sol.306.(c) 131.9. The cereal production Chemical fertilizers also kill bacteria and more focused on Southern India.
iii. The second green revolution ensured
na
was increased due to three factors: (i) other microorganisms in the soil. Green
Increase in net area under cultivation; (ii) Revolution also led to groundwater in achieving sustainable livelihood
security.
ap
Growing two or more crops in a year on depletion due to extensive tubewell
the same piece of land; and (iii) Use of irrigation, impacting long-term SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) i and iii (b) Only ii
:@
HYV seeds. environmental resources.
(c) ii and iii (d) i and ii
Q.307. The headquarters of the second Q.310. How was the growth in all food
Green Revolution cell was in ________. grains after the Green Revolution? Sol.313.(a) i and iii. The Second Green
TG
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift) SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Revolution focuses on sustainable
(a) Raipur (b) Patna (a) Unitary (b) Proportionate agriculture in eastern India, rainfed areas,
(c) Kolkata (d) Bhubaneswar (c) Unpredictable (d) Disproportionate and small farmers, promoting
on
climate-resilient practices and livelihood
Sol.307.(b) Patna. The headquarters of Sol.310.(d) Disproportionate. Larger security.
the Second Green Revolution (SGR) Cell farmers with more resources were able
ch
is located at ICAR-Research Complex for to afford the necessary inputs, like Q.314. What action was taken by the
Eastern Region (RCER), Patna. The SGR high-yield variety (HYV) seeds, fertilizers, government to celebrate the
ar
Cell was created by the Ministry of and irrigation, and thus reaped greater achievement of the Green Revolution in
Se
Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare, benefits. Smaller farmers often lacked agriculture?
Government of India to improve access to these resources and faced SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
agricultural productivity and livelihood in higher risks, as the HYV crops were more (a) Released a regular salary for the
the Eastern region of India because the vulnerable to pests, potentially causing farmers
benefits of first Green Revolution were severe losses. About 65 percent of the (b) Distributed free food to all the people
mainly confined to north-western states country’s population continued to be (c) Released a special stamp, ‘Wheat
of Haryana, Punjab and western Uttar employed in agriculture even as late as Revolution’
Pradesh. 1990. (d) Distributed green vegetables to the
people
Q.308. Which of the following Q.311. What was the main objective of
statements about the aims of National the Second Green Revolution in India? Sol.314.(c) Green Revolution : The term
Mission for Sustainable Agriculture SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) was first used by William Gaud, with
(NMSA) of India is/are correct? (a) Ensuring food security in the western Norman Borlaug recognized as its global
1.To make agriculture more productive. states father and M.S. Swaminathan was the
2.To make agriculture more sustainable. (b) Promoting conventional agricultural father of the Green Revolution in India.
3.To promote organic farming. practices India adopted a new agricultural strategy,
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (c) Focusing on holistic development in boosting wheat and rice production. In
(a) Only 1 is correct. agriculture July 1968, Prime Minister Indira Gandhi
(b) Only 2 and 3 are correct. (d) Increasing the use of chemical commemorated its success by releasing
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct. fertilizers and pesticides a special stamp titled "Wheat Revolution."
(d) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
Sol.311.(c) In the second phase of the Q.315. What is the economic justification
Sol.308.(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct. green revolution (mid-1970s to for subsidies in the agriculture sector?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) crop. Revolution - To increase agricultural
(a) It is mostly used to provide benefits productivity, White Revolution - Milk
for rich farmers. Q.319. Which of the following types of production, Black Revolution - Petroleum
(b) It is a part of government expenditure crops are sown after the end of the products, Brown Revolution - Leather /
in the service sector. monsoon season? Cocoa / Non-Conventional Products,
(c) It is an incentive to provide the SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) Golden Fiber Revolution - Jute
benefits of advanced technology and (a) Kharif crops (b) Zaid crops Production, Silver Revolution - Egg
decrease the cost of production. (c) Rabi crops (d) Vital crops Production / Poultry Production, Red
(d) It is used to provide benefits for Sol.319.(c) Rabi crops. It is an Revolution - Meat Production / Tomato
capital goods producers in agricultural crop that is sown in the Production.
agriculture. winter and harvested in the spring. Q.323. Which of the following types of
Sol.315.(c) Agricultural subsidies Q.320. Which of the following is NOT one crops are sown at the beginning of the
support food security and development of the consequences of the Green monsoon season?
by helping farmers boost production, Revolution? SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift)
improve food availability, and reduce SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) (a) Rabi crops (b) Kharif crops
poverty. Input subsidies lower costs, (a) Employment of agricultural workers (c) Vital crops (d) Zaid crops
incentivize adoption, increase increased
productivity, and stimulate economic Sol.323.(b) Kharif crops. These crops
(b) Rising prices and a shift in the mode are typically planted during June to
growth. of payment of agricultural workers September and harvested in the
Q.316. In West Bengal, how many rice from payment in cash to payment in post-monsoon season (October to
crops are grown in a year? kind (grain) November). Examples of Kharif crops
df
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) Wages of agricultural workers include rice, maize, cotton, and sorghum.
increased
_p
(a) Three (b) Two (c) Four (d) One Rabi crops are sown after the monsoon
(d) The rich grew richer and many of the season, usually in the winter months
Sol.316.(a) Three. In states like Assam, poor stagnated or grew poorer
na
(October to December), and harvested in
West Bengal, and Odisha, three paddy the spring (March to May). Zaid crops are
crops are grown annually: Aus, Aman, Sol.320.(b) Impact of Green Revolution :
ap
Positive - Increase in production and grown in the intervening period between
and Boro. Kharif and Rabi seasons, typically in the
productivity of food grains, reduction in
:@
Q.317. Which state in India was the most hunger, and technological advancements summer months (March to June).
transformed by the Green Revolution? in agriculture. Negative - Decline in Soil Q.324. Which of the following
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift) fertility, High production costs, Regional statement/s about the Green Revolution
TG
(a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra disparities। is/are CORRECT?
(c) West Bengal (d) Punjab i. India became self-sufficient with the
Q.321. Match the following names of
introduction of the Green Revolution.
on
Sol.317.(d) Punjab. The Green primitive forms of cultivation in different
Revolution primarily benefited Punjab, states correctly. ii. The Green Revolution led to loss of
Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh in nutrients in the soil from farming the
Name of Primitive
ch
States same crop over and over again.
the north, and Andhra Pradesh and Tamil form of cultivation
Nadu in the south. It had minimal impact iii. The Green Revolution led to depletion
1. Madhya Pradesh a. Penda
ar
on the eastern region, including Assam, of fresh ground water.
2. Andhra Pradesh b. Bewar
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Se
Bihar, West Bengal, Orissa, and the arid 3. Odisha c. Kuruwa
regions of western and southern India. (a) Only i and iii (b) Only i and ii
4. Jharkhand d. Bringa
(c) i, ii and iii (d) Only ii
Q.318. In the given main characteristics SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift)
of farming which is NOT a characteristic (a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c (b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c Sol.324.(c) i, ii and iii. The Green
of the Indian commercial farming? (c) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d (d) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d Revolution resulted in a great increase in
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift) production of food grains (especially
Sol.321.(b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c. wheat and rice) due to the introduction
(a) Slash and burn
(b) Insecticides and pesticides into developing countries of new,
Q.322. Match the items in List I with
(c) Chemical fertilisers high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds. The
those in List II.
(d) High yielding variety seeds green revolution enabled the government
List I List II to procure sufficient amounts of food
Sol.318.(a) Slash and burn farming is a i. Blue revolution a. Oilseeds grains to build a stock which could be
form of shifting agriculture where natural ii. Yellow revolution b. Overall used in times of food shortage.
vegetation is cut down and burned to horticulture
clear the land for cultivation. In iii. Round revolution c. Fish Q.325. Which of the following
commercial farming, higher doses of iv. Golden revolution d. Potato statements are true about the positive
modern inputs are used to obtain higher impact of the Green Revolution (GR) on
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift)
productivity. The degree of yield levels in India?
(a) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a (b) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
commercialization in agriculture varies i. During the post GR period, the yield of
(c) i-c, ii-a, iii -d, iv-b (d) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
from one region to another. For example, rice grew at a much faster rate than that
rice is a commercial crop in Haryana and Sol.322.(c) i-c, ii-a, iii -d, iv-b. of wheat.
Punjab, but in Odisha, it is a subsistence Agricultural Revolutions in India: Green ii. GR technology had penetrated more in
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
wheat crop than in the rice crop. Ratna (1998). Q.331. Which of the following is NOT
iii. During post GR period, the area under true with regard to the Green Revolution?
rice achieved a relatively slow growth Q.328. Identify the crop which is grown SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
when compared to the area under wheat. in Kharif cropping season in Northern (a) Cultivation became more intensive in
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) States of India. nature.
(a) Only ii and iii (b) Only i and iii SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) (b) In its second phase, there was a shift
(c) Only i and ii (d) i, ii and iii (a) Mustard (b) Rice (c) Gram (d) Barley to from dry to wet (irrigated)
Sol.328.(b) Rice. Kharif is sown during cultivation in dry and semi-arid
Sol.325.(a) Only ii and iii. The Green regions of India.
Revolution technology had a greater the rainy season, typically from June to
September in India. Examples include (c) Cultivation became more extensive in
impact on wheat crops than on rice nature.
crops. Important Crops in the Revolution: paddy, maize, soybean, groundnut, and
cotton. Rabi grows in the winter season, (d) There was change in the cropping
Main crops were - Wheat, Rice, Jowar, pattern and types of crops grown in
Bajra and Maize. Non-food grains were from October to March. Examples
include wheat, gram, peas, mustard, and its second phase.
excluded from the ambit of the new
strategy. Wheat remained the mainstay linseed. In between the rabi and the Sol.331.(c) The Green Revolution did not
of the Green Revolution for years. kharif seasons, there is a short season focus on expanding the area under
Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan is during the summer months known as the cultivation but rather on making the
known as the "Father of India's Green Zaid season. Examples are watermelon, existing land more productive (intensive
Revolution" for his work to increase food muskmelon, cucumber. cultivation), using modern inputs and
production and alleviate world hunger. Q.329. In which of the following ways technology.
Q.326. Which of these is NOT true of the were farmers encouraged to begin to use Q.332. Which crops are benefitted from
df
second phase of the green revolution? high yielding variety seeds ? the temperate cyclones arising from the
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
_p
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift) Mediterranean Sea that cause rainfall in
(a) It was adopted by farmers living in dry (a) Farmers’ children were given free Punjab?
education in government colleges
na
and semi-arid regions of India. Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(b) It was launched in areas with a and universities. (a) Cash crops (b) Kharif crops
(b) Agricultural labourers were paid
ap
significant shift from dry to wet (c) Rabi crops (d) Zaid crops
(irrigated) cultivation. wages directly by the government.
(c) Farmers were given monetary support Sol.332.(c) Rabi crops. Temperate
:@
(c) It covered the period of the 1960s and
1970s. in cash to cultivate food grains. cyclones cause rainfall in Punjab,
(d) It covered the period of the 1980s. (d) The government provided seeds and Haryana, Delhi and western Uttar
other inputs at prices lower than Pradesh. The precipitation is in the form
TG
Sol.326.(c) The use of HYV seeds was those prevailing in the market. of snowfall in the lower Himalayas. It is
restricted to the more affluent states this snow that sustains the flow of water
Sol.329.(d) Farmers were encouraged to
such as Punjab, Andhra Pradesh and in the Himalayan rivers during the
on
use high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds
Tamil Nadu in the 1st Phase(Mid 1960s summer months. The precipitation goes
during the Green Revolution through
to mid-1970s). In the second phase of on decreasing from west to east in the
various forms of support from the
ch
the green revolution (mid-1970s to plains and from north to south in the
government. The government made HYV
mid-1980s), the HYV technology spread mountains.
seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and
ar
to a larger number of states and
irrigation systems available at subsidized Q.333. In July 1968, Indira Gandhi, the
benefited more variety of crops.
Se
prices, meaning they were cheaper than then Prime Minister of India, officially
Q.327. Who among the following is NOT market rates. This helped reduce the recorded impressive strides of the Green
associated with the Green Revolution? financial burden on farmers and Revolution in agriculture by releasing a
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift) incentivized them to adopt new special stamp entitled _________ .
(a) Norman Borlaug agricultural technologies. HYV seeds are SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
(b) P Chidambaram resistant to insects and diseases and are (a) Wheat Revolution (b) Fasal Kranti
(c) Chidambaram Subramaniam known for their high yields. (c) Harit Kranti (d) Green Revolution
(d) MS Swaminathan
Q.330. Which of the following is NOT an Sol.333.(a) Wheat Revolution (Part of
Sol.327.(b) P Chidambaram. Green agro-based industry? Green Revolution) was initiated under the
Revolution: Initiated by - Norman Borlaug SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) Third Five Year Plan (1961-66) by
(1960s). He is known as the ‘Father of (a) Jute (b) Fertiliser introducing high-yielding varieties of
Green Revolution’ in world. He received (c) Sugar (d) Edible oil seeds of rice and wheat.
the Nobel prize (1970) for developing Sol.330.(b) Fertiliser. Agro-based Q.334. Which of the following reasons
High yielding varieties (HYVs) of wheat. industries depend on agricultural raw can be attributed to the excessive
M.S. Swaminathan (Father of Green materials, producing mainly consumer pressure on agricultural land in India?
Revolution in India). The Green revolution goods. Major industries include cotton, a) Right of inheritance
came under the third five year plan jute, textiles, and edible oil. India's first b) Size of unprofitable land holding
(1961-66). Chidambaram Subramaniam sugar mill was established in Pratappur, c) Division of land
was an Indian politician and agricultural Uttar Pradesh, in 1903. The Sugar Cane d) Multiple cropping
scientist who played a crucial role in Act of 1934 allowed state governments SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
India's Green Revolution. Award - Bharat to set the minimum price for sugarcane. (a) Only a and b (b) b, c and d
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(c) a, c and d (d) a, b and c level with the help of pumps and other SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift)
equipment. Flow system - The type of (a) hybrid cultivation
Sol.334.(d) a, b and c. Reasons that irrigation in which water is available at a (b) extensive cultivation
cause pressure on Agriculture: The right higher level to enable supply to the land (c) intensive cultivation
of inheritance, Division of land, Rising by gravity flow. Warabandi - It is a system (d) capitalist cultivation
population, Use of Excessive Chemical of rotation of supply of water according
Fertilizer, Salinization of soil, to a predetermined schedule as per area Sol.342.(b) Extensive cultivation - The
Desertification, Urbanisation, and crop needs specifying the day, time crop yield depends on the natural fertility
Waterlogging, Climate Change, Droughts, and duration of supply to each holding to of the soil, terrain, climate, availability of
Pollution etc. ensure equitable water distribution water. Example - Grain Farming, shifting
among farmers of an outlet command. cultivation. Hybrid cultivation - It involves
Q.335. Which of the following countries the use of hybrid seed varieties (created
is related with high yielding variety seeds Q.339. _______ land is suitable for regular by crossbreeding two or more genetically
that are used as part of Green Revolution cropping. distinct plants). Example - Wheat -
policies in India? SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona, Rice - Jaya
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) (a) Arable (b) Barren and Ratna.
(a) Russia (b) Mexico (c) Marginal (d) Urban
(c) China (d) The US Q.343. Which of the following crops is
Sol.339.(a) Arable land is the land under classified as fine grain?
Sol.335.(b) Mexico. Green Revolution - A temporary crops, temporary meadows SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift)
period that began in the 1960s during for mowing or for pasture, land under (a) Bajra (b) Ragi (c) Maize (d) Wheat
which agriculture in India was converted market or kitchen gardens, and
into a modern industrial system by the temporary fallow. It is capable of being Sol.343.(d) Wheat. India produces a
df
adoption of technology (The use of high ploughed and used to grow crops. Barren variety of cereals, which are classified
yielding variety (HYV) seeds, mechanised into fine grains (rice, wheat) and coarse
_p
land - Land that normally cannot be
farm tools, irrigation facilities, pesticides, brought under cultivation with the grains (jowar, bajra, maize, ragi, etc.).
and fertilizers).
na
available technology. Marginal land - Q.344. Which of the following is the
Q.336. Which of the following varieties of Land that has little or no agricultural most suitable application of rainwater
ap
rice is known as the miracle rice for India Value. harvesting?
and was first harvested in 1967 with Q.340. Which group of crops belong to SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift)
:@
exceptional yield? fibre crops and are produced on a large (a) Used in cooking
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) scale in India ? (b) Irrigation
(a) IR9 (b) IR8 (c) PETA (d) DGWG SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift) (c) Water for pets
TG
(a) Gram and tur (b) Jute and hemp (d) Use for industrial purposes
Sol.336.(b) IR8. It is a high-yielding
semi-dwarf rice variety developed by the (c) Tea and coffee (d) Wheat and rice Sol.344.(b) Irrigation. Rainwater
on
International Rice Research Institute Sol.340.(b) Jute and Hemp. Jute is harvesting is the process of collecting,
(IRRI). IR8 is also called miracle rice, known as Golden Fibre. It grows well on storing, and purifying rainwater from
which helped save India from a massive rooftops, parks, roads, and open
ch
well-drained fertile soils in the
famine. Golden rice: A transgenic rice floodplains. MajorJute producing states grounds. It is used for drinking, domestic
having a gene for carotene. It was first needs, livestock, small irrigation, and
ar
(West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Odisha and
introduced in 1999 by Ingo Potrykus and Meghalaya). replenishing groundwater levels.
Se
Peter Beyer. It contains pro-vitamin A
which upon ingestion is converted to Q.341. Which of the following crops is Q.345. What is meant by subsistence
vitamin A in the human body. the only genetically modified (GM) crop agriculture ?
approved for commercial cultivation in SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Q.337. For Kharif crops, the temperature India? (a) Agricultural output is sufficient for
required for farming is above 25 degrees SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift) the country.
Celsius with high humidity and annual (a) Bt Brinjal (b) Mustard (b) Agriculturists produce primarily for
rainfall above ________ cm. (c) Bt Cotton (d) Tomato themselves.
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) (c) Agriculture generates sufficient
(a) 16 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 35 Sol.341.(c) Bt Cotton. GM crops : These income.
are derived from plants whose genes are (d) Agriculturists produce primarily for
Sol.337.(c) 100. Kharif crops are sown
artificially modified, usually by inserting the market.
during the monsoon season, which lasts
genetic material from another organism.
from June to September in India. Sol.345.(b) Types of Subsistence
India approved the release of Bt cotton
Farming : Primitive subsistence farming
Q.338. The agricultural land below the (Cry 1 AC) for commercial cultivation in
or shifting cultivation (oldest form of
main canal water level forms the 2002 - Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat,
agriculture) - It happens on a
________. Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh,
self-sufficient basis, and farmers raise
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu. The best
food according to their family’s needs.
(a) command area (b) lift system known variety of GM rice is golden rice.
The trees are cut down and burnt and the
(c) flow system (d) warebandi
Q.342. Cultivating large farms with cleared land is cultivated. Other names:
Sol.338.(a) command area. Lift system - moderately low inputs of labour and Shifting cultivation or slash and burn
Water is lifted from lower level to higher capital is referred to as ________. cultivation. Intensive subsistence
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
farming - The farmer cultivates a small (b) High temperature and low humidity Agricultural Census” (2021-22)
plot of land using simple tools and more. (c) High temperature and high humidity Launched by The Ministry of Agriculture
More than one crop is cultivated during a (d) Low temperature and high humidity & Farmers' Welfare.
year.
Sol.349.(c) High temperature and high Q.353. Which of the following is termed
Q.346. Which of the following states of humidity. Fertile riverine alluvial soil is as "sericulture" ?
India still uses the ancient bamboo drip best for rice cultivation. It is a type of SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Afternoon)
irrigation method? Kharif crop. West Bengal is the largest (a) Cultivation of grapes
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift) rice-producing state in India. China is the (b) Growing of fruits
(a) Telangana (b) Meghalaya world's largest producer of rice followed (c) Breeding of fish
(c) Maharashtra (d) Chhattisgarh by India. Methane is the gas produced by (d) Commercial rearing of silk worms
the rice field.
Sol.346.(b) Meghalaya. Bamboo drip Sol.353.(d) Commercial rearing of
irrigation system is tapping stream and Q.350. The cultivation of ________ was silkworms. ‘Bombyx mori', ‘Eri’, ‘Muga’
spring water by using bamboo pipes. introduced on the Baba Budan Hills in and ‘Tasar’ are silkworm species used in
Types of Irrigation systems: Well and India. sericulture. These are used to produce
Tube well, Canal, Tank, Drip, Sprinkler, SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift) silk fiber (protein) from their silk glands .
Furrow, Surge, Ditch. The word (a) silk (b) tea (c) coffee (d) cardamon Moriculture refers to the cultivation of
Meghalaya means “abode of clouds”. mulberry plants. Other types of farming :
‘Krem Liat Prah’ Longest cave of India is Sol.350.(c) Coffee. Baba Budan Aviculture (birds), Apiculture (bees),
in Meghalaya. Hills: Garo, Khasi, Jaintia. introduced the coffee plant to Pisciculture (fish), Viticulture (grapes),
Chikkamanglur, Karnataka in 1670. Fungiculture (mushroom), Arboriculture
Q.347. Which of the following Growth of coffee was encouraged during (tree), Silviculture (fodder crops),
df
classification bases of industry applies the time of General Sir Mark Cubbon in
to the products - cotton, jute, wool, silk Olericulture (vegetables).
1834. Types of coffee bean : Arabica,
_p
textile, rubber, tea, sugar, coffee, edible Robusta, Excelsa and Liberica. Coffee Q.354. There are regions where farmers
oil ? producer country: 1st - Brazil. 2nd - specialize in vegetables only. This type of
na
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift) Vietnam. farming is known as ______.
(a) Key industries SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Morning)
ap
(b) Consumer industries Q.351. Dr D.S. Athwal was known as the (a) Mixed farming (b) Pastoral farming
(c) Agro based industries 'Father of___________Revolution in India'. (c) Dairy farming (d) Truck farming
:@
(d) Mineral based industries SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (1st shift)
(a) Oilseed (b) Rice (c) Millet (d) Wheat Sol.354.(d) Truck farming. Mixed
Sol.347.(c) Agro-based industries use
farming includes crop cultivation and
TG
plant and animal products as raw Sol.351.(d) Wheat. Father of Agricultural raising animals. Pastoral farming
materials. Mineral-based industries, like revolutions in India: Green Revolution involves livestock, such as cattle, sheep,
iron and steel, copper smelting, and (Agriculture) - M.S. Swaminathan, White and goats, while dairy farming focuses
on
cement, use mineral ores. Consumer Revolution or Operation flood (Milk/ Dairy on milk production from cows.
industries produce goods for direct products) - Dr. Varghese Kurien, Blue
consumer use, such as sugar, Revolution (Fish and Aqua) - Dr. Arun Q.355. Which among the following terms
ch
toothpaste, paper, sewing machines, and Krishnan and Dr. Harilal Chaudhari, means growing of fruits?
fans. Golden Revolution (Fruits, Honey, SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening)
ar
Horticulture) - Nirpakh Tutaj, Silver (a) Apiculture (b) Arboriculture
Q.348. 54.6% of the total workforce is
Se
Revolution (Eggs) - Indira Gandhi, Yellow (c) Pomiculture (d) Sericulture
engaged in _________ and allied sector
Revolution (Oil Seeds) - Sam Pitroda,
activities (Census of India 2011). Sol.355.(c) Pomiculture. Apiculture - The
Pink Revolution (Pharmaceuticals,
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) maintenance of honeybees and hives.
Prawns, Onion) - Durgesh Patel, Brown
(a) Hunting and gathering Arboriculture - Cultivation of trees,
Revolution (Leather, Coco) - Hiralal
(b) Manufacturing shrubs, and woody plants for shading
Chaudri, Red Revolution (Meat, Tomato) -
(c) Agriculture and decorating.
Vishal Tewari.
(d) Mining
Q.352. "Agricultural Census" is conducted Q.356. It is a tropical as well as a
Sol.348.(c) Agriculture. Census 2011 in India at an interval of _____. subtropical crop. It grows well in hot and
was conducted by the Registrar General SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Evening) humid climates with a temperature of
of India. The total number of agricultural (a) six years (b) five years 21°C to 27°C and an annual rainfall
workers in the country : 263.1 million (c) four years (d) ten years between 75cm and 100cm. Which of the
(118.8 million cultivators and 144.3 crops is being talked about in the
million agricultural labourers) in 2011. Sol.352.(b) Five years. The Agriculture information given above?
The workforce participation rate for Census in India is conducted following SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
females was 25.51% against 53.26% for the broad guidelines of the decennial (a) Sugarcane (b) Cotton
males. World Census of Agriculture (WCA) (c) Maize (d) Rubber
developed by the Food and Agriculture
Q.349. Cultivation of rice needs high Organization (FAO) of the United Nations. Sol.356.(a) Sugarcane. India is the
rainfall ________. The Agriculture Census has been second-largest producer of sugarcane
SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Afternoon) conducted by the Ministry of Agriculture after Brazil. Maize - Grown in tropics,
(a) Low temperature and low humidity since 1970-71. “The Eleventh sub-tropics and temperate regions.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Rubber - Equatorial crop produced Western Himalayan Region, Eastern Belagavi (Karnataka), Jammu, Kakinada
primarily for the manufacture of latex for Himalayan Region, Lower Gangetic (Andhra Pradesh), and Bhopal (Madhya
industrial use. Plains Region, Middle Gangetic Plains Pradesh), and two Flood Management
Region, Upper Gangetic Plains Region, Studies Centre: Guwahati (Assam) and
Q.357. Cotton requires ____ temperature, Trans Gangetic Plains Region, Eastern Patna (Bihar).
light rainfall or irrigation,_____ frost - free plateau and Hills Region, Central Plateau
days and bright sun-shine for its growth. and Hills, Western Plateau and Hills, Q.366. DDT adversely affects our
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift) Southern Plateau and Hills, East Coast environment because:
(a) high, 210 (b) low, 150 Plains and Hills, West Coast Plains and SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Evening)
(c) low, 210 (d) high, 150 Ghats Region, Gujarat Plains, Western (a) it can kill beneficial insects like honey
Dry Region, Island region. bees
Sol.357.(a) High, 210. Cotton crop (b) it can allow growth of harmful insects
requires light rainfall or irrigation and Q.362. Which crop does not require high (c) it can promote growth of harmful
bright sunshine for its growth. It comes rainfall and high temperature? insects
under the Kharif Crop. SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift) (d) it can kill harmful insects
Q.358. In India initially HYVP was (a) Rice (b) Jute (c) Maize (d) Cotton
Sol.366.(a) DDT, Dichloro - diphenyl -
implemented in about how much area? Sol.362.(c) Maize (Queen of cereals) is a trichloroethane (C14H9Cl5) is an
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (4th Shift) kharif crop which requires a temperature insecticide used in agriculture. Its usage
(a) 5 million hectares between 21°C to 27°C and grows well in started in the 1940s to combat diseases
(b) 3 million hectares old alluvial soil. Rice is a kharif crop like Malaria. High amounts of DDT
(c) 4 million hectares which requires high temperature (above exposure can lead to problems with the
(d) 2 million hectares 25°C) and high humidity with annual nervous system and liver. The US banned
df
Sol.358.(d) 2 million hectares. HYVP rainfall above 100 cm. it in 1972 and it was banned worldwide.
_p
(High Yielding Variety Programme) was India produced it in the year 2009 to
Q.363. Soilless agriculture is called ____. control visceral leishmaniasis and
restricted to only five crops – Wheat, rice, SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Morning)
na
jowar, bajra and maize. The high yielding insect-born malaria disease.
(a) hydroponics (b) shifting agriculture
variety of seeds (resistant to insects and (c) dry farming (d) pastoral farming Q.367. India lost a large proportion of ___
ap
diseases) played an important role in the growing area to Pakistan during partition.
Green Revolution of India. Sol.363.(a) Hydroponics. In shifting SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Evening)
:@
agriculture, a clearing is made in the (a) sunflower (b) jute
Q.359. In rainforests which kind of forest, usually on the slopes of hills. Dry
cultivation is practiced? (c) soyabean (d) cotton
farming is the cultivation of crops
TG
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (4th Shift) without irrigation in regions of limited Sol.367.(d) Cotton is a key fiber and cash
(a) Dry farming (b) Vertical farming moisture, typically less than 20 inches of crop in India, with Gujarat and
(c) Terrace farming (d) Slash and burn precipitation annually. Maharashtra as leading producers. The
on
Sol.359.(d) Slash and burn cultivation or first cotton mill, Bombay Spinning and
Q.364. The word agriculture is derived
swidden cultivation, is commonly Weaving Company, was established in
from the Latin words ager and culture.
ch
practiced in rainforest areas. Bombay on 7 July 1854. Madhya Pradesh
What does ‘ager’ mean?
is the largest producer of soybeans,
SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Evening)
ar
Q.360. The Purple revolution was Karnataka of sunflower, and West Bengal
launched by the Union Ministry of (a) Rocks (b) Soil (c) Water (d) Plants
of jute.
Se
Science & Technology in Jammu and Sol.364.(b) Soil. The English word
Kashmir. This revolution is related to Q.368. Which of the following is the main
agriculture derives from the Latin ager
cultivation of which crop? food crop of the semi-arid areas of
(field) and colo (cultivate) signifying,
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (2nd Shift) central and southern India?
when combined, the Latin agricultura:
(a) Marigold (b) Kashmiri Rose SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning)
field or land tillage. Agriculture is the art
(c) Lavender (d) Himalayan Indigo (a) Jowar (b) Maize (c) Bajra (d) Ragi
and science of cultivating the soil,
Sol.360.(c) Lavender. The Purple growing crops and raising livestock. It is Sol.368.(a) Jowar is mainly concentrated
Revolution was initiated in 2016 through the backbone of the Indian economy. in the peninsular and central India.
the Aroma Mission of the Council of Karnataka is the highest maize producer.
Q.365. What is the percentage of land
Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). Rajasthan is the state with the highest
used for agriculture in India as per the
In India, the lavender crop is cultivated in yield of bajra in India. Karnataka is the
2009 data by National Institute of
low rainfall regions and on the slopes of leading producer of ragi in the country
Hydrology?
hills of Himachal Pradesh (HP) and Uttar followed by Tamil Nadu, Uttarakhand,
SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Evening)
Pradesh (UP). Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.
(a) 51.09% (b) 50.09%
Q.361. The Planning commission of (c) 59.09% (d) 59.01% Q.369. Which of the following is a well -
India has divided India into how many Sol.365.(a) 51.09%. In India, land is known variety of coffee initially brought
Agro-climatic Zones? 21.81% under forest and 3.92% under to India from Yemen?
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (2nd Shift) pasture. National Institute of Hydrology SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Morning)
(a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 18 (d) 20 has been in IIT- Roorkee, Uttarakhand (a) Gesha (b) Arabica
since 1978. Its four Regional centers: (c) Canephora (d) Charrieriana
Sol.361.(a) 15. Agro-climatic zones -
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Sol.369.(b) Arabica is grown in nitrogen, phosphate, and calcium, SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift)
Karnataka (Kodagu, Chikkamagaluru, making them less fertile naturally. (a) Black soil (b) Alluvial soil
Hassan), Kerala (Malabar region), and However, after adding manures and (c) Laterite soil (d) Red and Yellow soil
Tamil Nadu (Nilgiris, Yercaud, fertilizers, they are suitable for tree crops
Kodaikanal). like cashew nuts. Sol.377.(b) Alluvial soil is deposited by
surface water, commonly found in river
Q.370. Which of the following is a variety Q.374. Which of the following factors is valleys and northern plains. It is highly
of oilseed? primarily responsible for soil formation? fertile and rich in humus and lime. Crops
SSC CHSL 16/04/2021(Evening) SSC MTS 18/10/2024 (1st Shift) cultivated on it include sugarcane, rice,
(a) Taramira (b) Arabica (a) Weathering (b) Irrigation maize, wheat, oilseeds, and pulses.
(c) Robusta (d) Liberica (c) Degradation (d) Mining
Q.378. Which is the largest part of the
Sol.370.(a) Taramira is an important Sol.374.(a) Weathering : It involves the northern plains and is formed of older
oilseed crop of drier regions of breakdown of rocks and minerals into alluvium?
north-western India. The oil is not directly smaller particles through exposure to SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift)
eaten, although it is mixed with mustard environmental factors like wind, water, (a) Terai (b) Bhabar
oil to increase the pungency of the latter. ice, temperature fluctuations and others. (c) Bhangar (d) Khadar
Arabica, Robusta, and the less common Irrigation : It supports agriculture and
Liberica and Excelsa are the four main affects soil moisture. Degradation : This Sol.378.(c) Bhangar. It is characterized
types of coffee beans. refers to the deterioration of soil quality. by slightly elevated terraces and is
Mining : It can disturb existing soils. composed of older, more compact
Q.371. The _________ water utilization is sediments compared to the newer and
very high in the states of Punjab, Q.375. Which plateaus are very fertile more fertile alluvial deposits found in the
df
Haryana, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu. because they are rich in black soil that is Khadar regions. The Bhangar area is less
SSC CPO 24/11/2020(Evening) very good for farming? fertile due to the presence of calcareous
_p
(a) river (b) sea (c) ground (d) rain SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) deposits known as "Kankar."
(a) African plateau
na
Sol.371.(c) Ground. The reason behind (b) Ethiopian plateau Q.379. Which unit is used to measure the
this is these states are advanced (c) Katanga plateau concentration of contaminants in soil
ap
agricultural states and the share of the (d) Deccan lava plateau and sediment?
agriculture sector in water utilisation is SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
:@
much higher than any other sectors. Sol.375.(d) Deccan lava plateau is a (a) DPMO (b) TDS (c) PPBB (d) PPM
Punjab in terms of land under irrigation volcanic plateau in west-central India
leads in the country's States and UT's that was formed by the solidification of Sol.379.(d) PPM (Parts per million) is
TG
with 98.8 % of its cropland. lava from deep within the Earth. It is a commonly used to express very dilute
triangular landmass that lies to the south concentrations of substances in various
Q.372. A policy which involves fixing the of the river Narmada. The African plateau environmental contexts, including soil
on
maximum size of land which could be is famous for gold and diamond mining. and sediment analysis.
owned by an individual is called _______. The Katanga Plateau in the Democratic
SSC CPO 25/11/2020(Evening) Republic of the Congo is known for its Q.380. In which of the following
ch
(a) Land mapping (b) Land jamming rich deposits of copper and uranium. processes nutrients or contaminants are
(c) Land ceiling (d) Land capping carried away by water or moved into the
ar
Q.376. Which of the following is the main lower layer of the soil ?
Sol.372.(c) Land Ceiling. It minimizes cause of land degradation in Jharkhand SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Se
inequality in land ownership and thus and Chhattisgarh? (a) Leaching (b) Bleaching
reduces inequality of income. The Urban SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) Sowing (d) Ploughing
Land Ceiling Act that was passed in 1976 (a) Intensive use of manure
Sol.380.(a) Leaching: It occurs as
proposed that there should be an equal (b) Over-irrigation
excess water removes water-soluble
distribution of land in urban (c) Deforestation due to mining
nutrients out of the soil, by runoff or
agglomerations to subserve the common (d) Overgrazing
drainage. It is an environmental problem
good.
Sol.376.(c) Deforestation due to mining. for agricultural professionals whether
Human activities like deforestation, chemical-heavy fertilisers or chemicals
Soil are swept out and find their way into
over-grazing, mining, and quarrying
significantly contribute to land water bodies.
Q.373. In a laterite soil profile, which of
the following elements is present in an degradation. Deforestation due to mining
Q.381. The black soil of the Deccan
excessive amount? has severely impacted states like
Plateau lacks which of the following
SSC MTS 17/10/2024 (2nd Shift) Jharkhand and Odisha. Over-grazing
minerals?
(a) Iron (b) feldspar (c) Nitrogen (d) Lime affects Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Madhya
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening)
Pradesh, while excessive irrigation
(a) Iron (b) Potash
Sol.373.(a) Iron. Laterite soil contains causes waterlogging and soil
(c) Phosphorous (d) Lime
excess iron due to intense leaching in degradation in Punjab, Haryana, and
high rainfall and temperature areas. The western Uttar Pradesh. Sol.381.(c) Phosphorous. Black soil is
leaching process removes lime and rich in Iron, lime, calcium, potassium,
silica, leaving iron oxide and aluminum Q.377. Which type of soil is found on aluminum and magnesium and is
compounds. These soils are poor in about 40% of the total area of India? deficient in Nitrogen and organic matter.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Black soil or cotton soil is good for of silt and dust ? soil.
moisture and good for growing cotton, SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (2nd shift)
sugarcane, wheat, jawar, rice, citrus (a) Loam (b) Marl (c) Loess (d) Podsol Q.389. Arid soils are characteristically
fruits, sunflower, linseed, etc. Black soil developed in ___________. which exhibit
requires minimum tillage because of its Sol.385.(c) Loess. Properties : Colour - characteristic arid topography.
self-cultivating feature. Yellowish Brown, Homogeneous and SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Highly Porous. Mostly Found (India) - (a) Southern Uttar Pradesh
Q.382. Laterite soil develops as a result Kashmir Valley. Loam - The type of Soil (b) Western Uttar Pradesh
of which of the following reasons ? composed of sand, silt, and clay soil. (c) Western Rajasthan
SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Marl - The type of soil composed of (d) Southern Rajasthan
(a) Compaction Clays and Slit. Podsol - The soil derives
(b) Leaching from either quartz-rich sands and Sol.389.(c) Western Rajasthan. In India,
(c) High temperature only sandstone or sedimentary debris from the Indian Council of Agricultural
(d) Sedimentation magmatic rocks. Research (ICAR) has classified soils into
8 categories. They are: Alluvial Soil, Black
Sol.382.(b) Leaching - It is used to Q.386. The colour of the alluvial soils Cotton Soil, Red & Yellow Soil, Laterite
extract the substances from the solids. varies from ________. Soil, Mountainous or Forest Soil, Arid or
Laterite Soil: It develops in areas with SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Morning) Desert Soil, Saline and Alkaline Soil,
high temperature and high rainfall. These (a) pale white to warm white Peaty and Marshy Soil.
are the result of intense leaching due to (b) light orange to dark orange
tropical rains. It is commonly found in (c) orange to red Q.390. Which of the following pairs of
Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya (d) light grey to ash grey 'soil - characteristics' is correct?
Pradesh and the hilly areas of Odisha I. Sandy - proportion of fine particles is
df
and Assam. Laterite Soil is most suitable Sol.386.(d) light grey to ash grey. relatively higher
Alluvial soils are formed by the II. Clayey - greater proportion of big
_p
soil for growing coffee in India
deposition of sediments from rivers and particles
Q.383. The black soil area of the _______ streams. These sediments are typically SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (4th Shift)
is known as the Deccan Trap.
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift) na
composed of sand, silt, and clay, which
are all light-coloured materials. The
(a) Only I
(c) Both I and II
(b) Neither I nor II
(d) Only II
ap
(a) Northern Plains colour of the alluvial soils can also be
(b) Peninsular Plateau affected by the presence of organic Sol.390.(b) Neither I nor II. Sandy Soil :
:@
(c) Coastal Plains matter, which can give them a darker Consists of small particles of weathered
(d) Himalayan Mountains colour. Light orange to dark orange is the rock; One of the poorest types of soil for
colour of laterite soils. Orange to red is growing plants (very low nutrients and
TG
Sol.383.(b) Peninsular Plateau. It is an the colour of red soils. poor water holding capacity); Good for
ancient landmass composed mainly of the drainage system; Usually formed by
igneous and metamorphic hard Q.387. Which of the following is an the breakdown or fragmentation of rocks
on
crystalline rocks. It was formed due to example of micronutrient supplied by soil ? like granite, limestone and quartz. Clay
the breaking and drifting of SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Afternoon) Soil : Smallest particles (tightly packed
ch
Gondwanaland. Deccan Plateau - A (a) Potassium (b) Iron together with each other with very little or
triangular landmass that lies to the south (c) Calcium (d) Sulphur no airspace); Good water storage
ar
of the river Narmada. Black Soil Covers qualities; Very sticky to touch when wet
most of the deccan plateau which Sol.387.(b) Iron. Soil is a major source of but smooth when dried; Densest and
Se
includes part of Maharashtra, Madhya nutrients needed by plants for growth. heaviest type of soil which does not drain
Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Macronutrients in soil - Nitrogen (N), well or provide space for plant roots to
some part of Tamil Nadu. Phosphorus (P), Potassium (K), Calcium flourish.
(Ca), Magnesium (Mg) and Sulphur (S).
Q.384. In which of the following states of Micronutrients in soil - Chlorine (Cl), Q.391. Which of the following factors of
India is the maximum extent of alluvial Boron (B), Iron (Fe), Manganese (Mn), soil formation determines the
soil found? Copper (Cu), Zinc (Zn), Nickel (Ni) and accumulation of the soil ?
SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Molybdenum (Mo). SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (1st Shift)
(a) Telangana (b) Uttar Pradesh (a) Fauna (b) Flora
(c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra Q.388. Which of the following statements (c) Relief (d) Parent rock
is NOT correct regarding fertilizers ?
Sol.384.(b) Uttar Pradesh. Alluvial Soil SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.391.(c) Relief: Altitude and slope,
found in northern plains and the river (a) They are prepared in factories determine accumulation of soil. Other
valleys. It is rich in potash but poor in (b) They are very rich in plant nutrients Factors: Fauna is all of the animal life
phosphorus. Two types of alluvial soil : (c) They provide humus to the soil present in a particular region or time.
Khadar - New alluvium, deposited by (d) They are man-made inorganic salt Flora is all the plant life present in a
floods annually, which enriches the soil particular region or time, generally the
Sol.388.(c) Humus is the organic
by depositing fine slits. Bhangar - Old naturally occurring native plants.
component of soil that is formed by the
alluvium, deposited away from the flood
decomposition of plant and animal Q.392. In which of the following soil
plains. Alluvial soils are intensively
matter. It can be produced naturally or conservation methods different crops are
cultivated.
through a process called composting. grown in alternate rows and are sown at
Q.385. What is the type of soil composed Manures are used to provide humus in different times to protect the soil from
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
rain wash ? (c) Bulk density (d) Buffering capacity mafic igneous bedrock.
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (2nd Shift) SSC CHSL 16/04/2021(Afternoon)
(a) Shelter belts (b) Contour ploughing Sol.396.(b) Bearing capacity is the (a) Arid (b) Pedocal
(c) Terrace farming (d) Intercropping capacity of soil to support the loads that (c) Laterite (d) Saline
are applied to the ground above. Field
Sol.392.(d) Intercropping. Its most capacity is the amount of soil moisture Sol.400.(c) Laterite. Arid soils are
common goal is to produce a greater or water content held in the soil after formed from the fragmentation of
yield on a given piece of land. Terrace excess water has drained away and the adjacent rocks and are largely blown
farming - An agricultural practice where rate of downward movement has from the Indus valley area and coastal
farmers employ on steep slopes, hilly decreased. Bulk density is defined as the regions. Saline soils are formed
areas, and higher altitudes. Contour mass of the many particles of the whenever climate, soil, and hydrological
ploughing - Process of cutting furrows material divided by the total volume they conditions favor the accumulation of
into the slope of the land in order to occupy. Buffer capacity refers to the soluble salts in the root zone.
control the flow of water. amount of acid or base a buffer can
neutralise before the pH changes by a Q.401. As per ‘Soils of India, National
Q.393. In which of the soil conservation large amount. Bureau of Soil Survey and Land Use
methods in the coastal and dry regions, Planning report: Publication Number 94’
rows of trees are planted to check the Q.397. __________ develops on crystalline which type of soil (order) is most
wind movement to protect soil cover? igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in abundantly available?
SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (1st Shift) the eastern and southern part of the SSC CHSL 16/04/2021(Evening)
(a) Mulching (b) Shelter belts Deccan Plateau. (a) Mollisols (b) Alfisols
(c) Rock dam (d) Contour barriers SSC CGL 20/04/2022(Evening) (c) Inceptisols (d) Aridisols
(a) Red soil (b) Black soil
df
Sol.393.(b) Shelterbelts. Mulching: The (c) Alluvial soil (d) Arid soil Sol.401.(c) Inceptisols: A soil order in
bare ground between plants is covered USDA soil taxonomy. They form quickly
_p
with a layer of organic matter like straw. Sol.397.(a) Red soil. It contains a high through the alteration of the parent
It helps to retain soil moisture. Contour percentage of iron content, which is material. They are more developed than
barriers: Stones, grass, soil are used to
build barriers along contours. Trenches
responsible for its colour.
na Entisols.
ap
are made in front of the barriers to Q.398. Which part of the soil contains Q.402. Which of the following soils is
collect water. humus? found in areas of heavy rainfall and high
:@
SSC MTS 06/10/2021(Afternoon) humidity?
Q.394. Identify the step that is NOT a (a) A-horizon (b) C-horizon SSC CHSL 10/8/2021(Evening)
part of decomposition. (c) Bedrock (d) B-horizon (a) Saline soil (b) Peaty soil
TG
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (3rd Shift) (c) Red soil (d) Yellow soil
(a) Leaching (b) Humification Sol.398.(a) A-horizon. This layer is the
(c) Catabolism (d) Soil erosion top layer of soil which is also known as a Sol.402.(b) Peaty soil or marshy soils
on
humus layer and is mainly rich in organic are a result of waterlogging and
Sol.394.(d) Soil erosion is the materials. B-horizon is typically a mineral anaerobic conditions. They are found in
denudation or wearing away of the upper subsurface horizon and is a zone of areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity,
ch
layer of soil. It is a form of soil accumulation, called illuviation. where there is a good growth of
degradation. There are five steps of C-horizon : This soil layer lies beneath vegetation.
ar
decomposition. These are fragmentation, the B horizon and consists essentially of
Q.403. In which year was the Soil Survey
Se
leaching, catabolism, humification, and the more or less weathered parent rock.
mineralization. Bedrock: Bedrock in geology is a solid of India established to carry out scientific
rock that lies under loose softer material surveys of soils?
Q.395. Which of the following factors within the crust of Earth or another SSC CHSL 18/03/2020(Evening)
does NOT affect the formation of soil? terrestrial planet. (a) 1962 (b) 1950 (c) 1947 (d) 1956
SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Evening)
(a) Climate (b) Parent material Q.399. ___________ are thick deposits of Sol.403.(d) 1956.
(c) Landslides (d) Topography glacial clay and other materials
Q.404. Robert has sandy soil in his fields.
embedded with moraines.
Sol.395.(c) Landslides. Climate affects The ideal crop for his field is:
SSC CGL 18/08/2021(Morning)
the soil due to temperature and rainfall. SSC CHSL 15/10/2020(Morning)
(a) Karewas (b) Bhabars
Parent material is the foundation of soil (a) Gram (b) Corn (c) Cabbage (d) Wheat
(c) Duars (d) Duns
formation, different materials develop Sol.404.(a) Gram can be grown on a
different soil types. Topography affects Sol.399.(a) Karewas are lacustrine wide range of soil. But well drained
soil formation by influencing factors like deposits (deposits in a lake) in the valley medium to black cotton soils are very
drainage, erosion, and accumulation of of Kashmir and in the Bhaderwah valley suitable. It can also be grown in light
sediments. of the Jammu division of Jammu and alluvial soils which are rich in organic
Kashmir. These are the flat-topped matter.
Q.396. What do you call the weight a soil mounds that border the Kashmir valley
can withstand before severe damage on all sides. Q.405. The process that moves, elevates
occurs to the structure of the soil? or builds up portions of the earth’s crust
SSC CGL 18/04/2022(Afternoon) Q.400. _______ is a deep red soil found in is called:
(a) Field capacity (b) Bearing capacity tropical regions and often developed on SSC CHSL 16/10/2020(Afternoon)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(a) denudation (b) volcanism Q.409. Sundari trees are found in which and scrub forests are a type of natural
(c) weathering (d) diastrophism type of forests in India? vegetation found in regions that receive
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift) less than 70 cm of annual rainfall. These
Sol.405.(d) Diastrophism. Denudation is (a) Mangrove forests regions typically experience dry and arid
the process of wearing away the Earth's (b) Tropical deciduous forests climatic conditions, and the vegetation
surface by weathering and erosion. (c) The thorn forests and scrubs here has adapted to conserve water and
Volcanism is the process of molten rock (d) Tropical evergreen forests withstand harsh environments. It is
(magma) erupting onto the Earth's found in parts of northwestern India,
surface. Sol.409.(a) Mangrove forests. Sundari central Deccan Plateau, and parts of the
tree is the most abundant tree in the Thar Desert. The main plant species
Vegetation mangrove forests of the Sunderban delta include Acacia (Babool), Cactus,
in West Bengal and the Andaman and Euphorbias, and Palms.
Q.406. The Ebony, Mahogany, Cinchona Nicobar Islands. The Sunderbans are
etc. are trees found in which type of named after the Sundari tree. Mangrove Q.413. Which of the following
forests in India? forests grow only at tropical and statements is NOT true about the moist
SSC MTS 17/10/2024 (1st Shift) subtropical latitudes near the equator deciduous forests of India?
(a) Tropical Deciduous Forests because they cannot withstand freezing SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
(b) Thorny Forests temperatures. Uppu ponna, Boddu (a) They grow in regions with rainfall of
(c) Mangrove Forests ponna, Urada, Mada, Telli Mada, Gundu 100-200 cm.
(d) Tropical Evergreen Forests mada, Kadili, Palm, coconut, keora, agar (b) They are found in the foothills of
and Bella are some of the typical Himalayas.
Sol.406.(d) Tropical Evergreen Forests vegetation of the mangroves. (c) They are found in the plains of Bihar
are restricted to heavy rainfall areas of
df
and Uttar Pradesh.
the Western Ghats and the island groups Q.410. Which of the following states has (d) Sal, amla, shisham and mahua are
_p
of Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar, mangrove forests? some of the main species of these
upper parts of Assam and Tamil Nadu SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) forests.
na
coast. Other trees are rosewood, and (a) Telangana (b) Andhra Pradesh
rubber. Tropical Deciduous Forests - (c) Rajasthan (d) Manipur Sol.413.(c) Moist deciduous forests
ap
Teak, Bamboos, sal, shisham. Thorny exist mostly in the eastern part of the
Sol.410.(b) Andhra Pradesh. Mangroves country – northeastern states, along the
Forests - Acacias, palms, euphorbias and
are practically evergreen with thick
:@
cacti. Mangrove Forests - Sundari trees, foothills of the Himalayas, Jharkhand,
leathery leaves. Such types of forests are West Odisha and Chhattisgarh, and on
Palm, Coconut.
found in the deltas of Sundarbans, the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats.
Mahanadi, the Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri
TG
Q.407. Magnolia and Laurel trees are The dry deciduous forests are found in
found in which type of forest in India? rivers and in the Andaman and Nicobar areas having rainfall between 100 cm
SSC MTS 29/10/2024 (1st Shift) Islands. and 70 cm. These forests are found in
(a) Tropical Thorn Forests
on
the rainier parts of the Peninsular plateau
Q.411. In which of the following regions
(b) Montane Forests and the plains of Bihar and Uttar
is the tropical evergreen forests found in
(c) Mangrove Forests Pradesh.
ch
India?
(d) Tropical Deciduous Forests
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Q.414. In the Himalayas, the ________
ar
Sol.407.(b) Montane Forests. In (a) Eastern Ghats (b) Western Ghats temperature with increasing altitude
mountainous areas, temperature (c) Rann of Kutch (d) Thar Desert causes the change in vegetation.
Se
decreases with altitude, leading to a SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Sol.411.(b) Western Ghats. Tropical
change in vegetation. Between (a) increasing (b) decreasing
evergreen forests are found on the
1000–2000 meters, wet temperate (c) fluctuating (d) stable
western slopes of the Western Ghats,
forests with evergreen broad-leaf trees
northeastern hills, and Andaman and Sol.414.(b) decreasing. The Himalayan
like oaks and chestnuts are found.
Nicobar Islands. They thrive in warm, ranges show change in vegetation from
Between 1500–3000 meters, coniferous
humid areas with over 200 cm of annual tropical to tundra. Since air is less dense
trees such as pine, deodar, and cedar
rainfall and temperatures above 22°C. at higher altitudes, its molecules are
dominate, mainly on the southern slopes
These forests are dense, with tall trees spread farther apart than they are at sea
of the Himalayas. Higher elevations
reaching up to 60 meters and remain level. These molecules have fewer
feature temperate grasslands, and above
green year-round. Common species collisions, so they produce less heat. At
3600 meters, alpine vegetation takes
include rosewood, mahogany, and ebony. the bottom of the mountain, the
over with trees like silver fir, junipers, and
pines. temperature is high year-round while it is
Q.412. In which of the following parts of
much cooler at the top due to which it is
India are thorn forests and scrub forests
Q.408. ________ leaves are used to make covered with snow.
found?
bidis.
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) Q.415. Under which strata do trees fall ?
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) South-eastern India SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) Neem (b) Champa (c) Betel (d) Tendu
(b) North-eastern India (a) Second vertical (b) Top vertical
(c) North-western India (c) Bottom vertical (d) Middle vertical
Sol.408.(d) Tendu tree (Diospyros
(d) South-western India
melanoxylon Roxb.) belonging to Family Sol.415.(b) Top vertical. Strata are layers
Ebenaceae. Sol.412.(c) North-western India. Thorn of vegetation that are defined by the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
height of the plants. Second vertical - It Himalayas? Q.422. Plant varieties like bamboo,
contains the second-tallest plants in a SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift) epiphytes, aini, semul, gutel and
forest ecosystem, such as shrubs and (a) Temperate (b) Tundra mundane are found in which type of
small trees. Bottom vertical - It contains (c) alpine (d) Deciduous Indian forest?
the shortest plants in a forest SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift)
ecosystem, such as mosses and ferns. Sol.419.(d) Deciduous. This is an (a) Alpine forest
Middle vertical - It contains the plants evergreen forest where a majority of the (b) Montane temperate forest
that are in between the top and bottom trees remain “green” throughout the year (c) Moist tropical forest
vertical strata, such as medium-sized because they shed leaves not seasonally (d) Dry tropical forest
shrubs and trees. but at various periods of the year.
Example - Maple, oak, and elm. Sol.422.(c) Moist tropical forests have
Q.416. The natural vegetation of India is Temperate - Forest found between the 200-250 cm annual rainfall, 24-27°C
broadly divided into ______ groups. tropical and boreal regions, located in the temperature. Alpine forest - Common in
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) temperate zone. Example - Fir, oak. both the main Himalayan regions as well
(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 5 Tundra - Found in the Arctic and on the as the barren cold deserts of the Trans
tops of mountains, where the climate is Himalaya. Examples - Black juniper and
Sol.416.(d) 5. Vegetation of India – cold and windy, and rainfall is scant. willow. Montane temperate forest -
Tropical evergreen forest, Tropical Example - Arctic Willow. Alpine - Occur Mainly generated in Northern middle
deciduous forest, Thorny bushes, all along the Himalayas at altitudes Himalayas ranges (1801 to 3001 m) and
Mountain vegetation and Mangrove ranging between 2,900 to 3,500 m. Southern Niligiri higher Mountain ranges.
forests. Example - Spruce and birch. Examples - Ferns, oak and maple. Dry
Q.417. In which type of forests are wild tropical forest - Mainly found in Indian
Q.420. Which of the following is the
df
donkeys and camels found in India? Northern Hilly regions and some states
most widespread forest type in India? of Southern India. Examples - Sal, acacia,
SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
_p
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift) mangoes.
(a) Tropical evergreen forest (a) Littoral and Swamp Forest
(b) Mountain forest
na
(b) Tropical Thorn Forests Q.423. Which of the following states is
(c) Thorny forests and bushes (c) Montane Forests associated with the tropical thorn
(d) Mangrove forest
ap
(d) Tropical Deciduous Forests forests?
Sol.417.(c) Thorny forests and bushes. Graduate Level 30/06/2023 ( Shift - 1)
Sol.420.(d) Tropical Deciduous Forests
:@
Animals found in different forests in (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(Monsoon Forests): It Found in India (b) West Bengal
India: Tropical Evergreen Forests - along the Equator belt between the tropic
Elephants, Monkeys, Lemurs and Deer. (c) Madhya Pradesh
of Cancer and the tropic of Capricorn,
TG
Montane Forests - Leopard, Yak, Sheep (d) Mizoram
(Major states - Madhya Pradesh, Uttar
and Goat. Mangrove forest - Royal Pradesh, Chattisgarh, Odisha, Some Sol.423.(c) Madhya Pradesh. Tropical
Bengal Tiger. In terms of area, Madhya Parts of Maharashtra). Thorn Forests and Scrubs (receive
on
Pradesh has the largest forest area in the rainfall less than 50 cm) - It includes
country. It is followed by Arunachal Q.421. What type of vegetation is found semi - arid areas of south west Punjab,
ch
Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and in the plateau of Meghalaya, Sahyadri Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya
Maharashtra. and the central and southern islands of Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. Trees like –
ar
the Nicobar group? Babool, ber, wild date palm, Khair tree.
Q.418. Sal, acacia and bamboo, which SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Se
are types of Dry Tropical Forest, receive (a) Dry Tropical Deciduous Vegetation Q.424. Mosses and lichens are found in
what amount of annual rainfall? (b) Dry Tropical Thorny Vegetation which kind of forest?
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift) (c) Alpine Vegetation SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning)
(a) From 51 cm to 151 cm (d) Moist Tropical Semi - Evergreen (a) Tropical Rainforest
(b) Between 200 and 250 cm Vegetation (b) Temperate Forest
(c) 251 cm or more (c) Coniferous Forest
(d) Below 25 cm Sol.421.(d) Moist Tropical Semi - (d) Tundra Forest
Evergreen Vegetation are transitional
Sol.418.(a) From 51 cm to 151 cm. forests between tropical wet evergreen Sol.424.(d) Tundra Forest - It has
Tropical forests (rainforests): A forests and tropical deciduous forests. relatively little rain and extremely cold
rainforest is an area of tall, mostly Examples - Laurel, rosewood, mesua, temperatures. It is composed of dwarf
evergreen trees and a high amount of white cedar. Tropical Dry Deciduous shrubs, sedges, and grasses.
rainfall, Earth’s oldest living ecosystems, Vegetation - Occurs in an irregular wide
with some surviving in their present form strip running from the foot of the Q.425. Major plantations are found in the
for at least 70 million years. Types of Himalayas to Kanyakumari except in __________ region of the world.
Tropical forests - Evergreen Rain (200 Rajasthan, Western Ghats and West SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Morning)
cm or more), Monsoon Deciduous (100 Bengal. Example - Teak, bamboo. (a) Tropical (b) Grassland
to 200 cm), Tropical Savanna (50 to 100 Tropical Thorn Forests - Found in (c) Temperate (d) Desert
cm), Dry Thorny Scrub (Semi-arid) (25 to Rajasthan, south-western Punjab,
50 cm), Desert (Arid) (Below 25 cm). Sol.425.(a) Tropical. Plantation crops - A
western Haryana, Kachchh and type of commercial farming where a
Q.419. Which of the following forest neighbouring parts of Saurashtra. single crop of tea, coffee, sugarcane,
types is found on the foothills of the Example - Babool, neem, cactii. cashew, rubber, banana or cotton are
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
grown. Major plantations - Rubber in (a) Above 24° C (b) 7°C to 17°C latitudinal coastal region is__________
Malaysia, coffee in Brazil, tea in India and (c) Below 7°C (d) 17°C to 24°C SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
Sri Lanka. Major food crops - Wheat, rice, (a) Tropical rainforest
maize and millets. Jute and cotton are Sol.429.(d) 17°C to 24°C. Natural (b) Mediterranean vegetation
fibre crops. vegetation - The plant life that grows in (c) Monsoon forest
an area without the influence of human (d) Temperate evergreen forest
Q.426. Which of the following is an activity. Types - Forests, Grasslands
example of a terrestrial ecosystem? (divided into savannas, steppes and Sol.433.(d) Temperate evergreen
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Evening) prairies, depending on the climate and forests. They are commonly found on the
(a) Ponds (b) River other environmental factors), Deserts eastern edges of continents, such as in
(c) Grasslands (d) Oceans (These are arid regions with very little southeastern America, southern China,
rainfall and sparse vegetation), Tundra and southeastern Brazil. Tropical
Sol.426.(c) Grasslands. Terrestrial (This is a cold, treeless region found in rainforests are mainly located in the
ecosystem - It is a land-based the Arctic and on high mountain slopes), tropics, between the latitudes of 23.5°N
community of species that includes Wetland (These are areas with (the Tropic of Cancer) and 23.5°S (the
biotic and abiotic interactions in a water-logged soil, such as marshes). Tropic of Capricorn)—the tropics.
specific area. Examples - Forest,
Grasslands, Tundra, Desert. Aquatic Q.430. Which of the following pairs of Q.434. The birds like pheasant and
ecosystem - It is related to water. It countries - name of grassland is correct? monals are found in which type of
includes Freshwater ecosystem (Pond, I. Argentina - Pampas, II. Brazil - Steppe forest?
lake, river) and Marine ecosystem SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
(Ocean, sea or estuary). Kelp is a type of (a) Neither I nor II (b) Only II (a) Temperate deciduous forest
large, brown seaweed that grows in (c) Only I (d) Both I and II (b) Tropical evergreen forest
df
shallow, nutrient-rich saltwater near (c) Temperate evergreen forest
Sol.430.(c) Only I. Steppe - Europe and
_p
coastal fronts around the world. (d) Mediterranean forests
North Asia, Brazil - Campos, Pustaz-
Q.427. In the higher latitudes (50° - 70°) Hungary, Prairies - USA, Veld - South Sol.434.(a) Temperate deciduous forest.
of Northern hemisphere the spectacular
Coniferous forests are found. These are na
Africa, Downs - Australia, Canterbury -
New Zealand, Savannah - Africa, Taiga -
As we go towards higher latitudes, there
are more temperate deciduous forests.
ap
also called as ______ . Europe and Asia. These are found in the north eastern part
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (3rd Shift) of the USA, China, New Zealand, Chile
:@
(a) Veld (b) Tundra (c) Llanos (d) Taiga Q.431. The wet temperate type of forests and also found in the coastal regions of
are found between a height of _______ Western Europe. They shed their leaves
Sol.427.(d) Taiga - Trees found are metres. in the dry season. Common trees include
TG
mainly cone-bearing trees like spruce, SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (1st Shift) oak, ash, and beech. Animals commonly
pine, fir, and hemlock. Veld - Open, (a) 2000 and 3000 (b) 1500 and 3000 found in these forests are deer, foxes,
uncultivated country or grassland in (c) 1000 and 2000 (d) 500 to 1000 and wolves.
on
southern Africa. Tundra - A vast, flat,
treeless Arctic region of Europe, Asia, Sol.431.(c) 1000 and 2000. Wet Q.435. A species of grass named ______
temperate forests: Average annual
ch
and North America in which the subsoil is on the verge of extinction due to its
is permanently frozen. Llanos - A vast rainfall and temperature in wet temperate insensitivity towards the environment.
forests are 150-300 cm and 11°C-14°C
ar
tropical grassland plain situated to the SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
east of the Andes in Colombia and respectively. The relative humidity is over (a) Helianthus annuus
Se
Venezuela, in northwestern South 80% on average. Oak trees and chestnut (b) Saccharum officinarum
America. trees are found here. Other important (c) Hubbardia heptaneuron
species include Chilauni, Indian chestnut, (d) Bellis perennis
Q.428. In India, trees of which forest type Deodar, Machilus, Cinnamomum, Litsea,
shed their leaves for about six to eight Plum, Blue pine, Birch, Oak, Hemlock, etc. Sol.435.(c) Hubbardia heptaneuron. The
weeks in dry summer? native range of this species is India
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift) Q.432. Thorny bushes are found in _____ (Karnataka). It is an annual and grows
(a) Tropical Deciduous Forests region. primarily in the seasonally dry tropical
(b) Tropical Evergreen Forests SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (2nd Shift) biome. Helianthus annuus (Common
(c) Montane Forests (a) mediterranean (b) polar Sunflower).
(d) Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs (c) dry desert (d) high rainfall
Q.436. The National Commission on
Sol.428.(a) Tropical Deciduous Forests. Sol.432.(c) dry desert. In areas where Agriculture (1976) of India has classified
These forests spread over regions which there is less than 70 cm of rainfall, thorn social forestry into how many
receive rainfall between 70-200 cm. forests and shrubs are found in the categories?
Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, natural vegetation. This type of SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
axlewood, etc are the common trees of vegetation is found in the north-western (a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
these forests. parts of the country, which include the
semi-arid regions of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Sol.436.(c) 3. Social forestry means the
Q.429. In India, what is the mean annual Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar management and protection of forests
average temperature in subtropical Pradesh and Haryana. and afforestation on barren lands with
vegetation zone ? the purpose of helping in the
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (1st Shift) Q.433. The type of forests located in mid environmental, social and rural
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
development. Three categories are Urban Sol.441.(d) Climate
forestry, Rural forestry and Farm forestry. Temperate deciduous forests.
Q.446. Tropical cyclones originate over
Q.437. Which biome is found in the Q.442. Which type of biome is located in
which of the following regions?
northern parts of Asia, Europe and North Eastern North America, Western Europe,
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Morning)
America where 300 to 900 millimeters and Northeast Asia?
(a) Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and the
(12 to 35 in) of rain can be expected per SSC CHSL 31/05/2022(Evening)
Indian Ocean
year? (a) Tropical Rainforest Biomes
(b) Mediterranean Sea, Pacific Ocean and
Graduate Level 02/08/2022 ( Shift - 3 ) (b) Coniferous Forest Biomes
the Indian Ocean
(a) Taiga forests (c) Aquatic Biomes
(c) Bay of Bengal, Arabian Sea and the
(b) Temperate deciduous forests (d) Deciduous Forest Biomes
Atlantic Ocean
(c) Coniferous forest
Sol.442.(d) Deciduous Forest Biomes - (d) Mediterranean Sea, Arabian Sea and
(d) Mediterranean forests
This biome experiences all four seasons, the Indian Ocean
Sol.437.(c) Coniferous forest these forests are divided into five zones
(composed primarily of cone-bearing based on the heights of the trees. The Sol.446.(a) A tropical cyclone is formed
needle-leaved or scale-leaved evergreen soil is particularly fertile and nutrient-rich over warm ocean waters near the
trees, Pines, spruces, firs, and larches are and is located in North America (Canada, equator. The centre of a cyclone is very
the dominant trees in coniferous the United States, and Mexico), Europe, calm and clear with very low air pressure.
forests). and western regions of Asia (Japan, The average speed is 120 kmph. They
China, North Korea, South Korea, and move from east to west under the
Q.438. The climatic conditions of thorn parts of Russia). influence of trade winds.
forests and scrubs are the most ideal for
df
which of the following plant species? Q.443. Which of the following statements Q.447. Which of the following
SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Evening) about forests is INCORRECT? statements regarding orographic rainfall
_p
(a) Rosewood (b) Teak SSC MTS 06/10/2021(Afternoon) is correct?
(c) Juniper (d) Euphorbia (a) In a forest, trees form the uppermost SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
na
layer of vegetation. (a) It occurs mainly during summer and
Sol.438.(d) Euphorbia. It is a perennial is common over equatorial doldrums
(b) Forests protect the soil from erosion.
ap
herb that grows to 30 cm tall in the dry in theCongo basin.
(c) In a forest, shrubs form the lowest
grasslands of Siberia, Mongolia, China, (b) This type of precipitation
layer of vegetation.
:@
Korea, and Japan. occurs when warm, humid air
(d) Forests influence climate, water cycle
Q.439. Temperate grasslands are ideal and air quality. strikes on a mountain range.
(c) This precipitation is heavy but
TG
for _______ cultivation.
SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Morning) Sol.443.(c) The layer of vegetation in the of short duration, highly
(a) grape (b) apple (c) cotton (d) wheat forest which is just below the shrub layer localised and is associated
is called the herb layer. The herb layer with minimum amount of
on
Sol.439.(d) wheat. Viticulture or grape consists mainly of herbs, ferns and cloudiness.
cultivation is a speciality of the grasses. This layer is the lowest layer of (d) This type of precipitation is
ch
Mediterranean region. Grapes are vegetation in the forest (having leafy characterised by seasonal
cultivated on a very wide range of soils plants). Very little sunlight remains for reversal of winds that carry
ar
from gravelly sands to clays that can be the plants in the herb layer. oceanic moisture.
of high or poor fertility.
Se
Q.444. Coringa is a beautiful _____ forest Sol.447.(b) Orographic rainfall occurs
Q.440. Which of the following is a where the Godavari joins the backwaters when moist air hits a mountain and is
temperate grassland in Russia? of Bay of Bengal. forced to rise. As the air ascends, it
SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CHSL 12/8/2021(Morning) cools, leading to condensation and
(a) Amazon (b) Prairies (a) evergreen (b) coniferous saturation. The excess moisture then
(c) Congo (d) Steppes (c) mangrove (d) deciduous falls as precipitation on the windward
slopes.
Sol.440.(d) Steppes. Temperate Sol.444.(c) Mangrove. Coringa is the
grasslands have cold winters and warm second largest mangrove formation in Q.448. The climatic diversity of India is
summers with some rain. Examples India, next to Sundarbans. The Coringa characterised by its distinctiveness, and
include Eurasian steppes, North mangroves are bordered on the northern one of the following factors does NOT
American prairies and Argentine side by Kakinada Bay. contribute to it is ___________.
pampas. SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.445. Which of the following trees will (a) longitudinal extent
Q.441. What type of forests are found you find in the Littoral forests? (b) latitudinal extent
north and south of the equator between SSC CHSL 19/10/2020(Afternoon) (c) topography
40° and 60° where rainfall is high, (a) Chinar (b) Ebony (d) vegetation
between 500-1500 mm in a year? (c) Sundari (d) Cypress
SSC CHSL 25/05/2022(Afternoon) Sol.448.(b) The latitudinal extent
(a) Taiga forests Sol.445.(c) Sundari tree is found in influences temperature and rainfall
(b) Coniferous forests Sundarbans delta in West Bengal in patterns due to variations in solar energy
(c) Mediterranean forests Mangrove forest (Littoral forests). and atmospheric density. However, it is
(d) Temperate deciduous forests not a major factor contributing to India's
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
climatic diversity compared to less rainfall in summer, but heavy rainfall of annual rainfall, blowing from the sea
longitudinal extent, topography, and in winter season due to the retreating to land across the Indian Ocean, Arabian
vegetation. north easterly winds? Sea, and Bay of Bengal. In contrast, the
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift) northeast monsoon (winter monsoon)
Q.449. Which state lies in the rain (a) Southern coastal region blows from land to sea.
shadow region of the Arabian Sea branch (b) Western coastal region
of the southwest monsoon? (c) Northern coastal region Q.456. Which of the following group of
SSC MTS 11/11/2024 (3rd Shift) (d) Eastern coastal region months is the coldest in North India?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Gujarat SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(c) Goa (d) Kerala Sol.452.(d) Eastern coastal region (a) February and March
stretches from West Bengal in the north (b) September and October
Sol.449.(a) Tamil Nadu. The Bay of to Tamil Nadu in the south and passes (c) December and January
Bengal monsoon branch strikes through Andhra Pradesh and Odisha. The (d) October and November
Myanmar and southeast Bangladesh, but retreating or North-East monsoon brings
the Arakan Hills deflect much of it heavy rainfall to the Coromandel coast Sol.456.(c) In December and January,
towards India. It enters West Bengal and from October to December. This temperatures decrease from south to
Bangladesh from the south - southeast, monsoon, blowing from land to sea, north, with the Northern Plains averaging
splitting into two branches. One moves gathers moisture and causes rain, 10°C to 15°C, while Chennai on the
westward along the Ganga plains to the making it the primary rainy season for eastern coast sees averages of 24°C to
Punjab plains, while the other ascends southeastern India, including Tamil Nadu. 25°C. Days are warm, and nights are cold
the Brahmaputra valley, causing rains in The Coromandel coast lies between during this period.
the northeast. A sub-branch hits Pulicat Lake and Kanyakumari.
Meghalaya's Khasi hills. The Tamil Nadu Q.457. Which of the following parts of
df
coast remains dry as it lies parallel to the Q.453. Which is the colloquial term to the mountain will receive the most
rainfall from moisture-laden winds?
_p
Bay of Bengal monsoon branch and in describe the occurrence of pre-monsoon
the rain-shadow region of the Arabian rains in India especially in parts of Kerala, SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) Windward side (b) Leeward side
na
Sea branch. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu?
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) Upward side (d) Relief side
Q.450. In which part of India does the
ap
(a) Mango showers (b) Kalbaisakhi Sol.457.(a) Windward side - The
hot wind ‘Loo’ blow? (c) Nor Westers (d) Orange showers
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) on-shore moisture laden winds are
:@
(a) West and Southwestern Sol.453.(a) Mango showers. These are forced to rise after striking against the
(b) North and Northwestern pre-monsoon rains that occur at the end mountains and give heavy rainfall on the
(c) East and Northeastern of the summer season, helping the windward side. Leeward side - It receives
TG
(d) South and Southwestern mangoes ripen; These are also called little to no rainfall and is known as the
April rains. rain shadow area. Orographic rainfall
Sol.450.(b) North and Northwestern. occurs when saturated air mass comes
on
Loo - These are strong, gusty, hot, dry Q.454. The tropical cyclones in Australia across a mountain.
winds blowing during the day over the are known as ________.
Q.458. Which theory describes the
ch
north and northwestern India. In West SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Bengal, similar storms are known as (a) hurricanes (b) willy-willies collective effects of changes in Earth's
movements on its climate over
ar
‘Kaal Baisakhi’. They blow in the summer (c) cyclones (d) typhoons
season. Other hot winds - Foehn thousands of years?
Se
(Europe), Chinook (USA), Santa Ana Sol.454.(b) willy-willies. Tropical SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift)
(USA), Sirocco (North Africa and South cyclones are intense low-pressure areas (a) Milankovitch theory
Europe), Harmattan (Guinea coast), that form in the atmosphere between 30° (b) Copernicus' heliocentric theory
Khamsin (Egypt). N and 30° S latitudes. They can extend (c) Plate tectonics theory
up to 1,000 km horizontally and 12–14 (d) Continental drift theory
Q.451. The climate of a place is NOT km vertically from the surface. Tropical
affected by which of the following? cyclones rotate counterclockwise in the Sol.458.(a) Milankovitch theory.
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in Copernican heliocentrism, proposed by
(a) Relief (b) Type of soil the Southern Hemisphere. Their names Copernicus in 1543, positions the Sun at
(c) Location (d) Distance from the sea in different countries : Hurricanes - the center, with Earth and other planets
United States, Typhoons - China Sea and orbiting it. Plate tectonics is a scientific
Sol.451.(b) Type of soil. Climate refers Pacific Ocean, Cyclones - Indian Ocean. theory that explains how major
to the long-term conditions of a specific landforms are created as a result of
region. The changes in climate within a Q.455. What is the duration of monsoon Earth's subterranean movements.
region are influenced by its atmospheric in India?
and environmental conditions. The six SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) Q.459. Which of the following groups of
major factors that influence the climate (a) 100-120 days (b) 40-60 days places in India has little differences in
of a location are latitude, altitude, (c) 150-200 days (d) 50-80 days day and night temperatures?
pressure, and wind systems, distance SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift)
from the sea (continentality), ocean Sol.455.(a) 100-120 days. The monsoon (a) Chennai and Thiruvananthapuram
currents, and relief features. season in India lasts from June to (b) Jaipur and Jaisalmer
September. The southwest monsoon (c) Bhopal and Indore
Q.452. Which region in India receives (summer monsoon) brings the majority (d) Jammu and Kashmir
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Sol.459.(a) following characteristics is associated are useful for tea, jute and rice
Chennai and Thiruvananthapuram. with 'Group E' ? cultivation. In Assam, these storms are
Thar desert experiences the highest SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) known as “Bardoli Chheerha”. Some
diurnal range of temperature. This is (a) The average temperature of the Famous Local Storms: Blossom Shower:
because of the fact that sand (found in coldest month is –3°C or below Useful for coffee flowers blooming in
ample quantity in this region) gains and (b) The average temperature for all Kerala. Loo : Hot, dry and oppressing
loses heat very quickly. As a result of this months is below 10°C winds blowing in the Northern plains.
phenomenon, there is a wide difference (c) The average temperature of the
between day and night temperatures in coldest month is higher than –3°C Q.465. Which of the following
this region. The day temperature may but below 18°C States/Union Territories of India receives
rise to 50°C and drop down to near 15°C (d) The average temperature of the the highest average annual rainfall ?
the same night. There is no sea closer to coldest month is 18°C or higher SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
this area and hence there is no (a) Rajasthan (b) Ladakh
moderating effect. Sol.462.(b) Climatic Groups According to (c) Meghalaya (d) Delhi
Koeppen: A - Tropical: Average
Q.460. Which of the following temperature of the coldest month is 18° Sol.465.(c) Meghalaya. The maximum
statements about climate is C or higher. B - Dry Climates: Potential rainfall of this season is received in the
INCORRECT? evaporation exceeds precipitation. C - north-eastern part of the country.
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) Warm Temperate: The average Mawsynram in the southern ranges of
(a) India’s climate has characteristics of temperature of the coldest month of the the Khasi Hills receives the highest
tropical as well as subtropical (Mid-latitude) climates is higher than average rainfall in the world.
climates. minus 3°C but below 18°C. D - Cold Snow Mawsynram, the wettest place on the
earth is also reputed for its stalagmite
df
(b) Coastal areas of India experience Forest Climates: The average
less contrasts in temperature temperature of the coldest month is and stalactite caves. Rainfall in the
_p
conditions as compared to the minus 3° C or below. H - High Land: Cold Ganga valley decreases from the east to
interior of the country. due to elevation. the west. Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat
na
(c) ‘Monsoon’ type of climate is found get scanty rainfall.
mainly in south and southeast Asia. Q.463. El Nino is a climate pattern that
Q.466. One term for the continuous
ap
(d) India experiences comparatively describes the unusual warming of
surface waters in which ocean? movement of water through the
stronger winters as compared to lithosphere, atmosphere and
:@
central Asia. SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) Indian Ocean (b) Pacific Ocean hydrosphere is:
Sol.460.(d) Central Asia generally (c) Atlantic Ocean (d) Arctic Ocean SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) hydro equilibrium cycle
TG
experiences stronger winters compared
to India due to its continental location Sol.463.(b) Pacific Ocean. El Nino is a (b) hydrological cycle
and lack of moderating influences like complex weather system that occurs (c) hydrostatical equilibrium
every 3-7 years, causing droughts, floods, (d) water circulation
on
large bodies of water. The Climate of
India is the tropical monsoon climate and extreme weather globally. It involves
warm ocean currents off Peru's coast in Sol.466.(b) hydrological cycle.
type with regional variations in
ch
the Eastern Pacific, affecting various Components of the Hydrological Cycle :
temperature, precipitation, and amount Evaporation - Water changes from liquid
of rainfall because of the large regions, including India. El Nino is an
ar
extension of the warm equatorial current to gas, primarily from bodies of water.
geographical area.
that temporarily replaces the cold
Se
Q.467. Identify a type of season that is
Q.461. Western disturbances are Humboldt (Peruvian) Current, increasing NOT a part of the four seasons of India.
responsible for: water temperatures by 10°C. Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift) (a) The southeast monsoon season
(a) dusty storms in eastern coastal area Q.464. In the context of local storms of
hot weather season, Nor'Westers are: (b) The southwest monsoon season
of India (c) The hot weather season
(b) hot winds during summers in SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) the pre-monsoon showers that are a (d) The cold weather season
northern India
(c) extremely chilled weather of north - common phenomenon in Kerala and Sol.467.(a) The southeast monsoon
east India coastal areas of Karnataka season. Four main seasons can be
(d) rainfall during winters in north - (b) the dreaded evening thunderstorms in identified in India : The hot weather
western part of India Bengal and Assam season (March to May), The southwest
(c) the hot, dry and oppressing winds monsoon season (June to September),
Sol.461.(d) The western cyclonic blowing in the Northern plains from The post - monsoon or retreating
disturbances which enter the Indian Punjab to Bihar with higher intensity monsoon season (October to December),
subcontinent from the west and the between Delhi and Patna The cold weather season (January to
northwest during the winter months, (d) a nearby wind that blows coffee February).
originate over the Mediterranean Sea and flowers in Kerala
are brought into India by the westerly jet Q.468. What is the name of the cold
stream. Sol.464.(b) Nor Westers : Their notorious phase of the ENSO climate pattern that
nature can be understood from the local describes the unusual cooling of the
Q.462. According to Koeppen's Scheme nomenclature of ‘Kalbaisakhi’, a calamity surface waters of the region ?
of classification of climate, which of the of the month of Baisakh. These showers Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(a) NINO-3 region (b) ENSO-neutral divided into types, indicated by small Mediterranean: The region which
(c) Trans-Nino (d) La Nina letters that describe seasonality: f (no includes the Mediterranean Sea and
dry season), m (monsoon), w (winter seven Member States, either partially
Sol.468.(d) La Nina. In La Nina, the dry), and s (summer dry). Climatic (France, Portugal, Italy, Spain) or
tropical Pacific trade winds become very Regions of India: Amw, As, Aw, BShw, completely (Greece, Malta, Cyprus).
strong and an abnormal accumulation of BWhw, Cwg, Dfc, Et, E.
cold water occurs in the central and Q.475. Which winds blow across the
eastern Pacific Ocean. El Nino is a Q.472. How many controls are there Asian continent at latitudes north of the
climate pattern that describes the globally that influence the climate of a Himalayas roughly parallel to the Tibetan
unusual warming of surface waters in particular zone? highlands ?
the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. El SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
Nino is the “warm phase” of a larger (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 3 (a) Trade winds (b) Jet streams
phenomenon called the El Nino-Southern (c) Southwest winds (d) Northwest winds
Oscillation (ENSO). Sol.472.(a) 6. There are six major
controls of the climate of any place. They Sol.475.(b) Jet streams - A narrow belt
Q.469. Sea ice helps determine Earth's are: latitude, altitude, pressure and wind of high altitude (above 12,000 m)
climate. According to this, what system, distance from the sea westerly winds in the Troposphere. Their
percentage of the sunlight falling on sea (continentality), ocean currents and relief speed varies from about 110 km/h in
ice is reflected back into space ? features. summer to about 184 km/h in winter. The
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) polar jet is located between the 50°-60°
(a) 80% (b) 70% (c) 75% (d) 85% Q.473. When was the Indian latitude lines in both the northern and
Meteorological Department, which southern hemispheres. The subtropical
Sol.469.(a) 80%. Sea ice reflects a collects data on temperature, rainfall, jet is located around the 30° latitude line.
df
significant portion of sunlight, which is wind, etc., and makes weather forecasts,
essential for regulating Earth’s established by the Government of India? Q.476. What type of climate is found in
_p
temperature. As sea ice diminishes, more SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) North Western Europe, West Coast of
solar energy is absorbed by the ocean, (a) 1873 (b) 1879 (c) 1876 (d) 1875 North America, North of California,
resulting in higher temperatures. This
change affects global climate patterns na
Sol.473.(d) 1875. Indian Meteorological
Southern Chile, South-eastern Australia
and New Zealand?
ap
Department - An agency of the Ministry
and contributes to the acceleration of SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
of Earth Sciences of the Government of
climate change. Albedo is the percentage (a) Tropical wet and dry climate
:@
India. It is the principal agency
of solar radiation reflected by a given (b) Cold snow forest climate
responsible for meteorological
surface. (c) Marine west coast climate
observations, weather forecasting and
(d) Subtropical steppe climate
TG
Q.470. Who is best known for his seismology. Formed - 15 January 1875.
testimony on climate change to Headquarters - New Delhi. Regional Sol.476.(c) Marine west coast climate -
congressional committees in the 1980s, offices - Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata, Under the Koppen Climate Classification,
on
which helped raise wider awareness of Nagpur, Guwahati and New Delhi. it comes under Warm Temperate
the global warming issue? (Mid-Latitude) Climates (Group C) and is
Q.474. Choose the INCORRECT
ch
Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2) represented by ‘Cfb’.
statement related to monsoon.
(a) James Hansen (b) Shen Kuo
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) Q.477. Choose the INCORRECT
ar
(c) Joseph Fourier (d) Svante Arrhenius
(a) The intensity and position of the statement out of the following.
high-pressure area, east of
Se
Sol.470.(a) James Hansen. He is SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening)
referred to as the “father of global Madagascar, affects the Indian (a) There is an increase in rainfall
warming” because of his early warnings Monsoon generally from east to west in the
about the phenomenon in the 1980s. (b) The Southwest Monsoon winds blow Northern Plains.
over the warm oceans, gather (b) Most parts of the country receive
Q.471. According to the Koppen climate moisture and bring widespread rainfall from June to September.
classification system, ‘Am’ is the code for rainfall over the mainland of India. (c) The annual precipitation in Meghalaya
which type of climate? (c) The difference in pressure over is over 400 cm.
Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Tahiti (Pacific Ocean), and Darwin in (d) Some parts like the Tamil Nadu’s
(a) Tropical wet and dry climate northern Australia (Indian Ocean) is coast gets a large portion of its rains
(b) Tropical monsoon climate computed to predict the intensity of during October and November.
(c) Humid subtropical climate the monsoons.
(d) Marine west coast climate (d) The western cyclonic disturbances Sol.477.(a) Rainfall decreases from the
occur due to withdrawal or the retreat east to the west in Northern India
Sol.471.(b) Tropical monsoon climate. because there is a decrease in the
of the monsoon
Koeppen’s Classification of Climatic moisture content of the winds. The
Regions of India is based on mean Sol.474.(d) Western Cyclonic monsoon approaches the Indian
annual and monthly temperature and Disturbances are weather phenomena of landmass in two branches: The Arabian
precipitation data. He identified five the winter months brought in by the Sea branch (The monsoon winds
major climatic groups: four based on westerly flow from the Mediterranean originating over the Arabian Sea) and the
temperature (A, C, D, E for humid region. They usually influence the Bay of Bengal branch.
climates) and one on precipitation (B for weather of the north and north-western
dry climates). These groups are further regions of India. It originates over the Q.478. In which type of rainfall, winds
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
move out from a high-pressure area with the north and north -western part of (c) Tropical semi-arid (steppe) climate -
wind direction clockwise in the northern India. Karnataka, central Maharashtra, some
hemisphere, and anti-clockwise in the parts of Tamil Nadu and Andhra
southern hemisphere ? Q.482. The target for the first Pradesh
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) commitment period of the Kyoto (d) Hot desserts, arid climate - rajasthan
(a) Cyclones (b) Convection Protocol is to reduce emissions of and some parts of Gujarat
(c) Anticyclone (d) Orography greenhouse gasses by 5.2% from 1990
levels? Sol.485.(a) Montane climate - Found in
Sol.478.(c) Anticyclone - It is the center SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift) Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Meghalaya,
of high pressure, surrounded by closed (a) 6 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 7 Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, Higher hills
isobars. Due to Coriolis force, blowing of Tamil Nadu.
winds are deflected from their paths to Sol.482.(a) 6. Kyoto Protocol: It was
the right in the Northern hemisphere adopted on 11 December 1997 and Q.486. The centre of a cyclone is a calm
(Clockwise) and left in the Southern entered into force on 16 February 2005. It area. It is called the_______of the storm.
hemisphere (Anti clockwise). Cyclones was adopted in Kyoto, Japan. It was the SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 4th shift)
that develop in the mid and high result of the Rio-1992 and the United (a) base (b) focal point
latitudes, beyond the tropical regions, are Nations Framework Convention on (c) eye (d) trigger point
referred to as middle latitude or Climate Change (UNFCCC). Kyoto
Protocol cover emissions of the six main Sol.486.(c) Eye. The eye of a storm is
extratropical cyclones. usually circular and typically 25-40 miles
greenhouse gases Carbon dioxide (CO2),
Q.479. According to the Koppen methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), in diameter. It is surrounded by an
classification, Which regions experience hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), eyewall, where the most severe weather
cold humid winters with short summers? perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulfur of a cyclone occurs.
df
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) hexafluoride (SF6). Q.487. What would happen if the
_p
(a) South of Goa difference in pressure in Tahiti was
(b) Western Rajasthan Q.483. In the context of mapping climate
data, what term refers to a line drawn negative?
na
(c) Arunachal Pradesh SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(d) Northern Madhya Pradesh through all points on a map that contain
the same amount of cloud? (a) Above average late monsoon
ap
Sol.479.(c) Arunachal Pradesh. Koeppen SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift) (b) Drought
identified a close relationship between (a) Isohels (b) Isocheim (c) Below average and late monsoon
:@
the distribution of vegetation and (c) Isonephs (d) Isochalaz (d) Above average and early monsoon
climate. Sol.487.(c) The difference in pressure
Sol.483.(c) Isonephs. Isocheim - A line
TG
Q.480. What is the usual term used to on a map connecting points having the over Tahiti (Pacific Ocean) and Darwin in
describe the climate of India ? same average temperature in winter. Northern Australia (Indian Ocean) is
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Isohel - A line on a map connecting computed to predict the intensity of the
on
(a) Polar climate (b) Tropical monsoon points having the same duration of monsoons. Factors Affecting Monsoon -
(c) Desert climate (d) Arid climate sunshine. Isochalaz - A line of constant The shift of the position of Inter Tropical
frequency of hail storms. Convergence Zone (ITCZ); The presence
ch
Sol.480.(b) Tropical monsoon. A of the high-pressure area, east of
monsoon is a seasonal change in the Q.484. According to Koeppen's Scheme, Madagascar; Heating of The Tibetan
ar
direction of the prevailing, or strongest, which type of climate is denoted by 'Cwg' plateau in summers; The movement of
Se
winds of a region. It always blows from in India? the jet streams; Southern Oscillation (SO)
cold to warm regions. The Indian SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (2nd shift) - Change of pressure between south
Meteorological Department (IMD) (a) Monsoon with dry winter Pacific Ocean and eastern Indian Ocean.
designates four official seasons: Winter (b) Semi-arid steppe climate
(December to early April); Summer or (c) Polar type Q.488. What type of climate occurs
pre-monsoon (April to June); Monsoon or (d) Monsoon with dry summer along the west coast of continents in
rainy (June to September) and subtropical latitudes between 30°-40°
Sol.484.(a) Monsoon with dry winter - It latitudes, covering Central California,
Post-monsoon (October to December).
is mostly found in the Ganga Plain, Central Chile along the coast in South
Q.481. What is 'Mahawat' in India ? eastern Rajasthan, Assam, and the East and South Western Australia?
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Malwa Plateau. Amw (Monsoon type Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
(a) Cold waves during the winter season with a short dry winter season): This (a) Subtropical steppe climate
(b) Cloud burst during the monsoon climate is found in the western coastal (b) Humid subtropical climate
season region, south of Mumbai. (c) Mediterranean climate
(c) Cyclonic rainfall during the winter (d) Marine west coast climate
Q.485. Which of the following is
season
incorrectly matched? Sol.488.(c) Mediterranean climate: Clear
(d) Hot and dry winds during the summer
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift) skies and high temperatures; hot, dry
season
(a) Montane climate - Uttar Pradesh, summers and cool, wet winters. The
Sol.481.(c) Mahawat is the total amount Bihar and Jharkhand climate is not extreme because of
of rainfall in the cold weather season, (b) Tropical monsoon climate - The cooling from water bodies. This unique
that is the winter season which is caused Western Ghats, the Malabar Coast seasonal pattern makes it ideal for
by the western cyclonic disturbances in And Southern Assam growing crops like olives, grapes, and
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
citrus fruits. this trough. InterTropical Convergence continental climate.
Zone (ITCZ) - Low pressure region 2. The snowfall in the nearby Himalayan
Q.489. What is the average temperature around which the southeast trade winds ranges creates a cold wave situation.
usually in the hills of the western ghats? and the northeast trade winds converge. 3. Around February, the cold winds
Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 3) coming from the Caspian Sea and
(a) Above 35°C (b) Below 15°C Q.493. The day to day condition of the Turkmenistan bring a cold wave along
(c) Below 25°C (d) Above 25°C atmosphere at a place with respect to with frost and fog over the northwestern
the temperature, humidity, rainfall, wind parts of India.
Sol.489.(c) Below 25°C. Western Ghats - speed etc. is called _______ at that place.
These are also known as the Sahyadri SSC CGL Tier II 07/03/2023
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening) (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Hills. It covers six states - Gujarat, (a) climate (b) weather
Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Tamil (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
(c) environment (d) ecology
Nadu, and Kerala. Sol.496.(c) 1, 2 and 3. Coastal areas
Sol.493.(b) Weather. Climate - It is the have moderate temperatures because
Q.490. Which winds are also known by long-term average of weather conditions,
the name of 'Roaring Forties' ? the land absorbs and radiates heat much
including temperature, humidity, faster than sea. So, during the day cool
SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Evening) precipitation, wind patterns, and other
(a) Polar easterlies (b) westerly winds air from the sea rushes towards the land
atmospheric elements, in a particular and during the night cool air from the
(c) Polar winds (d) Trade winds region over an extended period, typically land rushes towards the sea.
Sol.490.(b) Westerly Wind. The polar 30 years or more.
easterlies are one of the five primary Q.497. Low annual range of temperature
Q.494. Which of the following pressure and high annual rainfall are
wind zones, known as wind belts, that belts is known as the horse latitude? characteristics of a _________.
df
make up our atmosphere's circulatory SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
system. Polar winds begin near the North SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(a) Equatorial Low Pressure
_p
and South Poles. The trade winds are air (a) Mediterranean climate
(b) Sub - Polar Low Pressure (b) temperate climate
currents closer to Earth's surface that (c) High Pressure
na
blow from east to west near the equator. (c) tropical humid climate
(d) Sub - Tropical High Pressure (d) cold climate
ap
Q.491. Which among the following wind Sol.494.(d) Subtropical high pressure
is associated with extreme cold and Sol.497.(c) Tropical Humid Climate: Low
belts (Horse latitude) extend 30° N and range of temperature, Rainfall exceeds
:@
dryness? 30° S. It is formed because the warm air
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening) evapotranspiration for at least 270 days
rising from the equator moves towards in a year, between Tropic of Cancer and
(a) Monsoon Winds (b) Westerlies the tropics in both hemispheres. Capricorn.
TG
(c) Trade Winds (d) Polar Easterlies Equatorial Low - Pressure belt extends Q.498. Which of the following codes
Sol.491.(d) Polar Easterlies. They from 0 to 5° North and South. The signify the Cold Climate with Dry Winters
emanate from the polar highs, areas of subpolar low pressure belt extends according to Koeppen?
on
high pressure around the North and around latitudes 60° to 70° North and SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
South Poles. They flow to low-pressure South. High Pressure belts are located at (a) EF (b) Df (c) ET (d) Dw
ch
areas in sub-polar regions. Easterlies 70°- 90° North and South latitudes. There
are majorly seven Pressure Belts on the Sol.498.(d) Dw. Koeppen recognised six
(blow from the east) - It is the name of
major climatic groups based on
ar
the permanent winds that come from the surface of Earth i.e., the Equatorial Low,
two Subtropical Highs, two Subpolar seasonal precipitation and temperature
direction of their origin. Monsoon Winds -
Se
Lows, and two Polar Highs. patterns. The six main groups are A
They are caused when the air over land
(tropical), B (arid), C (temperate), D
gets heated and rises, causing winds to Q.495. When the grains of sand are very (continental), E (polar) and H (highland).
blow from the ocean toward land. fine and light , the wind can carry it over a
Westerlies - Prevailing winds from the very long distance . When such sand is Q.499. The cold snow forest climate is
west toward the east in the middle deposited in large areas, it is called_____. found largely in the continental region in
latitudes. SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (2nd Shift) the Northern Hemisphere between
(a) loess (b) moraines _______ northern latitudes in Europe, Asia
Q.492. The summer months experience
(c) mushroom (d) stacks and North America
__________ in the northern part of India.
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning)
SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Evening) Sol.495.(a) Loess. It is a clastic, (a) 40°- 70° (b) 30°- 50°
(a) rising air pressure predominantly silt-sized sediment that is (c) 80°- 110° (d) 15°- 20°
(b) falling air pressure formed by the accumulation of wind -
(c) decreasing temperature blown dust. Sol.499.(a) 40°-70°. India has a tropical
(d) heavy rain climate because of the Himalayan
Q.496. Consider the following mountain.
Sol.492.(b) Falling air pressure. An statements about the main reasons for
elongated low-pressure area develops in the excessive cold in north India during Q.500. In early November, the low
the region extending from the Thar the cold weather season and identify Pressure conditions shift over the Bay of
Desert in the northwest to Patna and which of the statements are correct. Bengal. This transfer is related to
Chotanagpur plateau in the east and 1. States like Punjab, Haryana and cyclonic low pressure, which originates
southeast towards the end of May. Rajasthan, being far away from the over ________.
Circulation of air begins to set in around moderating influence of sea, experience SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Morning)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(a) Andaman Sea (b) Sea of Japan characteristics, especially growth rings. integrated steel plant located in Burnpur
(c) Caspian Sea (d) Pacific Ocean SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon) (West Bengal) and is part of Steel
(a) Bioclimatology Authority of India Limited (SAIL).
Sol.500.(a) Andaman Sea (Burma sea in
(b) Historical- climatology
Thai) is a body of water to the southeast Q.507. Identify the group of districts that
(c) Geo climatology
of the Bay of Bengal, south of Myanmar, are NOT an example of industrial
(d) Dendroclimatology
west of Thailand and east of the districts of India.
Andaman Islands; it is a part of the Sol.504.(d) Dendroclimatology. SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Indian Ocean. Bioclimatology (biometeorology) is the (a) Cuttack and Kota
study of the relationships between (b) Kanpur and Agra
Q.501. Which climate zone has an
climate (weather) and living organisms. (c) Alwar and Bhiwani
average temperature of over 64°F (18°C)
Historical climatology is the study of (d) Jabalpur and Bhopal
throughout the year and more than 59
historical changes in climate and their
inches of rainfall each year? Sol.507.(c) Alwar and Bhiwani. Cuttack
effect on civilization from the emergence
SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Afternoon) (Odisha) is known for textile and
of hominids to the present day. Geo
(a) Tropical zone (b) Temperate zone handicraft industries, especially the silver
climatology is the study of climate which
(c) Dry zone (d) Continental zone filigree (Tarakasi) work. Kota (Rajasthan)
defines how it changes over time.
is famous for its engineering and
Sol.501.(a) Tropical Zone. The tropics
chemical industries. Kanpur is a
are regions of the Earth that lie roughly in Industries
significant industrial hub, historically
the middle of the globe. The temperature
known for its leather and textile
remains high throughout the year. There Q.505. Select the INCORRECT statement
industries. It is sometimes called the
is no marked winter season. from the following.
"Manchester of the East." Agra is widely
df
SSC MTS 21/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.502. What type of climate do the two known for its tourism, but it also has
(a) The development of the cotton textile
_p
island regions of India, Lakshadweep and industries related to leather goods,
industry in Britain led to the decline
Andaman and Nicobar Islands footwear, and marble stone carving.
of Indian textile producers.
na
experience? Jabalpur (Madhya Pradesh) is known for
(b) Cotton clothes made in England had
SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Morning) ordnance factories, defense-related
driven Indian clothes out of the
ap
(a) Humid subtropical climate industries, and manufacturing units.
markets of Europe and America in
(b) Hot semi-arid climate Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh) is a major
the beginning of the 20th century.
:@
(c) Tropical warm climate industrial center with industries like
(c) The Sale and Devang communities of
(d) Subtropical highland climate electrical goods, chemicals, and the
South India were famous for weaving.
famous Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
(d) The first cotton textile mill in India
TG
Sol.502.(c) Tropical warm climates with (BHEL).
was established in Bombay in 1854.
average temperatures ranging between
27° C - 32° C. Lakshadweep (an Q.508. Which of the following is a public
Sol.505.(b) By the beginning of the 20th
sector industry ?
on
archipelago of 36 islands in the Arabian century, India was not competing in
Sea). Hot semi-arid climate - Thar Desert. SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
European and American markets
(a) BHEL (b) Reliance (c) Tata (d) Adani
because British policies had already
ch
Q.503. What type of precipitation is
eliminated Indian textile exports to these Sol.508.(a) BHEL (Bharat Heavy
common at the equatorial depression in
regions by the 19th century. The decline Electricals Limited) was established in
ar
the Congo Basin, the Amazon Basin, and
of Indian textiles in international markets 1964 and is headquartered in New Delhi.
the islands of South-east Asia?
Se
occurred much earlier, during the late Reliance Industries Limited is an Indian
SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Morning)
18th and 19th centuries, following the multinational company based in Mumbai,
(a) Conventional precipitation
Industrial Revolution in Britain. Maharashtra. It was founded by
(b) Monsoonal precipitation
(c) Orographic precipitation Dhirubhai Ambani. The Tata Group is one
Q.506. Identify the oldest iron and steel
(d) Frontal precipitation of India's oldest and largest business
company of India from the following
conglomerates. It was founded in 1868
options.
Sol.503.(a) Conventional precipitation by Jamsetji Tata. The Adani Group is an
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift)
occurs when the energy of the sun (or Indian multinational conglomerate based
(a) Tata Iron & Steel Company (TISCO)
insolation) heats the earth's surface and in Ahmedabad, Gujarat. It was founded in
(b) Visvesvaraiya Iron & Steel Works
causes water to evaporate, changing to 1988 by Gautam Adani.
(c) Indian Iron & Steel Company (IISCO)
water vapor. Most of India's rainfall is
(d) Mysore Iron & Steel Works Q.509. Which of the following is an
conventional. It is prevalent in equatorial
example of a major industrial region of
regions. Orographic precipitation occurs Sol.506.(a) Tata Iron and Steel Company
India?
when a topographic barrier like a (TISCO): Founded by Jamsetji Tata and
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
mountain blocks the path of a movement Dorabji Tata in 1907, It is located in
(a) Chota Nagpur region
of air horizontally. Frontal precipitation Jamshedpur (Jharkhand). Visvesvaraya
(b) Bhojpur-Munger
occurs along the zone of contact Iron and Steel Plant: Founded in 1923,
(c) Jaipur- Ajmer
between a warm and cool air mass. this plant is situated in Bhadravathi
(d) Bilaspur-Korba
(Karnataka), and specializes in the
Q.504. ___is concerned with constructing
production of pig iron and steel. Indian Sol.509.(a) Chota Nagpur region. India
records of past climates and climatic
Iron and Steel Company (IISCO): has several industrial regions like
events by analysis of tree growth
Established in 1918, IISCO is an Mumbai- Pune cluster, Bangalore-Tamil
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Nadu region, Hugli region, Ahmedabad Fertilizer, Cement, Steel, and Electricity Sol.517.(a) Digboi and Naharkatiya.
-Baroda region, Chottanagpur industrial generation. Digboi Oilfield : One of the oldest oil
belt, Vishakhapatnam-Guntur belt, fields in Asia, discovered in 1867, and
Gurgaon -Delhi-Meerut region and the Q.514. Select the INCORRECT pair of the home to Asia's oldest oil refinery
Kollam-Thiruvanathapuram industrial location of the refinery and its state from (Established in 1901). It is located in
cluster. the following Tinsukia district, Assam. Naharkatiya
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift) Oilfield : Discovered in 1953, with oil
Q.510. Where was the first successful (a) Bina Refinery - Madhya Pradesh production starting in 1954. It is located
textile mill established in India? (b) Numaligarh Refinery - Assam in Dibrugarh district, Assam. Other Oil
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) Koyali Refinery - Gujarat Refineries in Assam - Noonmati Refinery,
(a) Kolkata (b) Surat (d) Tatipaka Refinery - Telangana Numaligarh Refinery, and Bongaigaon
(c) Mumbai (d) Jaipur Refinery. Kosamba, Lunej, Mehsana,
Sol.514.(d) Tatipaka Refinery -
Sol.510.(c) Mumbai. The first successful Telangana. Tatipaka Oil Refinery is Nawagam, Ankleshwar and Kalol are
textile mill in India was the Bombay located in the East Godavari district in oil-producing regions located in Gujarat.
Spinning and Weaving Company, Andhra Pradesh. It was set up on 3rd Q.518. Which of the following cities is
established in 1854 in Bombay (now September 2001. Some list of oil called the Silicon Valley of India due to
Mumbai) by Cowasjee Nanabhoy Davar, a refineries: Vadinar Refinery (Gujarat), its prominence in the IT industry ?
Parsi businessman and banker. Located Kochi Refinery (Kerala), Mangalore Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
in Tardeo, Bombay, it began production in Refinery (Karnataka), Paradip Refinery (a) Bengaluru (b) Dehradun
1856. (Odisha), Barauni Refinery (Barauni in (c) Hyderabad (d) Gurugram
Bihar).
Q.511. Where is the oldest centre of lace Sol.518.(a) BengaluruI. Nicknames of
df
work located in Gujarat? Q.515. Which group of states was Indian Cities: Hyderabad - City of Pearls;
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift) concentrated in the cotton production in
_p
Gurugram - Millennium City; Korba -
(a) Kutch (b) Rajkot the early years to develop textile Power Hub of India; Jamshedpur - Steel
(c) Jamnagar (d) Ahmedabad industry?
na
Capital of India; Nalanda - The Land of
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift) Knowledge; Guntur - Land of Chillies;
Sol.511.(c) Jamnagar. Crafts Centers of (a) West Bengal and Odisha
ap
Gujarat : Kutch - Known for its rich Kashmir - Switzerland of India;
(b) Punjab and Haryana Pondicherry - Paris of the East;
tradition in embroidery and textile crafts. (c) Maharashtra and Gujarat
:@
Surat - It is an important silk weaving Coimbatore - Manchester of South India;
(d) Bihar and West Bengal Chennai - Detroit of Asia.
center of India and is famous for silk
brocades. Rajkot - It is popular for Sol.515.(c) Maharashtra and Gujarat. Q.519. Which of the following is the only
TG
traditional and folk silver jewelry. Palitana Cotton is a tropical crop and it is raised vertically-integrated, primary copper
- Known for making bronze sculptures. in India as a Kharif crop. Climatic producer in India ?
Ahmedabad (Manchester of India) - condition - Temperatures between 21 SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
on
Famous for cotton textile works. The first degrees Celsius and 30 degrees Celsius. (a) Sterlite Industries
cotton textile mill was started in 1861. It grows best in Black soil. India grows (b) Jhagadia Copper Limited
ch
both short staple (Indian) cotton as well (c) Hindalco Industries (Birla Copper)
Q.512. There is a cable manufacturing as long staple (American) cotton called
facility at HCL in Rupnarainpur. It belongs (d) Hindustan Copper Limited
ar
‘narma’ in north-western parts of the
to which state? country. Sol.519.(d) Hindustan Copper Limited. It
Se
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift) is a public sector undertaking under the
(a) Haryana (b) Assam Q.516. Where was the first cement plant Ministry of Mines. The company was
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) West Bengal located in India in the year 1904 ? incorporated on 9th November 1967,
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1) under the Companies Act, 1956.
Sol.512.(d) West Bengal. West Bengal (a) Jaipur (b) Rajkot Headquarters - Kolkata.
along with their notable industries: (c) Chennai (d) Hyderabad
Durgapur (Iron and Steel), Kharagpur Q.520. At which of the following places
(Chemicals), Haldia (petrochemicals), Sol.516.(c) Chennai. South India was the shipbuilding industry started in
Darjeeling (tea), Chittaranjan (Electric Industries Limited in Madras, made an 1941?
locomotives), Asansol (Coal, Iron and initiative to manufacture Portland SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Steel), Kalyani (Heavy Engineering), cement. India entered into the Cement (a) Damodar (b) Vishakhapatnam
Rishra (Textiles). Era in 1914, when the Indian Cement (c) Eluru (d) Kurnool
Company Ltd. started manufacturing
Q.513. According to the Department of Cement in Porbandar in Gujarat. Sol.520.(b) Visakhapatnam. Hindustan
Industrial Policy and Promotion, which of Shipyard Limited (Visakhapatnam): It
the following is NOT a core industry ? Q.517. Which group of oilfields among was set up by Scindia Steam Navigation
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) the following is located in Assam? Company and the first ship was launched
(a) Jute (b) Fertilisers Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1) in 1948. It was taken over by the
(c) Crude oil (d) Electricity (a) Digboi and Naharkatiya Government in 1952 and was renamed
(b) Ankaleshwar and Kalol as Hindustan Shipyard Ltd. In 1962, the
Sol.513.(a) Jute. The eight core (c) Mehsana and Nawagam shipyard became a central public sector
industries are- Coal, Crude oil, Natural (d) Kosamba and Lunej enterprise. Cochin Shipyard Limited
Gas, Petroleum refinery products, (Kochi) - Incorporated in 1972 as a
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
company fully owned by the Government. Sol.525.(a) Karnataka. Kudremukh Q.529. Which of the following is NOT an
Mines is an iron ore mine located in the example of a minor industrial region of
Q.521. The Kolar region of Karnataka is Bellary, Chitradurga, Chikkamagaluru, India?
famous for which mineral from the Tumkur belt. Other Iron ore mines : Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
following ? Chhattisgarh - Rowghat Mines, Bailadila. (a) Ambala-Amritsar region
SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (1st Shift) Odisha - Balda Block, Joda East, (b) Durg-Raipur region
(a) Coal (b) Gold Gorumahisani, Jajang Rungta. Madhya (c) Hugli region
(c) Petroleum (d) Copper Pradesh - Agaria Iron Ore mine. (d) Northern Malabar region
Sol.521.(b) Gold. Kolar - Golden City of Q.526. In which of the following regions Sol.529.(c) Hugli region. Minor Industrial
India. It is popularly known as the land of in India are there high-grade iron ore regions : Jaipur- Ajmer, Indore- Dewas-
Silk, Milk, Mango, Gold. Other Gold mines deposits? Ujjain, Saharanpur-Muzaffarnagar- Bijnor,
- Hutti Gold Mines (Karnataka), Kolar SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (3rd shift) Kolhapur- South Kannada, Middle
Gold Fields (Karnataka), Lava Gold Mines (a) Western Rajasthan Malabar, Adilabad - Nizamabad, Prayag-
(Jharkhand), Sonbhadra Mine (Uttar (b) Southern Punjab Varanasi- Mirzapur, Bhojpur- Munger,
Pradesh), Parasi (Jharkhand), Dadam (c) Eastern Uttar Pradesh Bilaspur- Korba, Brahmaputra valley.
(Haryana). (d) Northern Odisha Major Industrial Regions of India: Kolkata
Q.522. Which state in India has the - Hugli, Mumbai - Pune Belt, Bengaluru -
Sol.526.(d) Northern Odisha. The iron Tamil Nadu Belt, Kollam -
highest number of aluminium smelting ore mines are located near the coal fields
plants? Thiruvananthapuram Belt,
in the northeastern plateau region. Visakhapatnam - Guntur Belt,
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift) Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh,
(a) Odisha (b) Tamil Nadu Chotanagpur Plateau Belt, Ahmedabad -
Karnataka, Goa, Telangana, Andhra
df
(c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh Vadodara Belt, Gurugram - Delhi - Meerut
Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu account for Belt.
_p
Sol.522.(a) Odisha. Aluminum smelting approximately 95% of total iron ore
plants - Korba, Alupuram, Renukoot, reserves. Iron Ore and Percentage of iron Q.530. Match the industrial plant with its
na
Mettur, Hirakud, Angul, Jharsuguda and : Magnetite - 72 %, Hematite - 60-70 %, location.
Faridabad. Aluminium Companies in Limonite - 40 to 60%, Siderite - 48 %. Name of industrial Related Location
ap
India - Hindustan Aluminium Company Plant
Q.527. Which is the first integrated steel
(Mumbai, Maharashtra), Vedanta Limited 1. BALCO (A) Burnpur
plant in the public sector in India?
:@
(Jharsuguda, Odisha), Sacheta Metals 2. IISCO (B) Chennai
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (1st shift)
(Mumbai, Maharashtra). 3. NFL (C) Korba
(a) The Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel
4. ICF (D) Bhatinda
Limited
TG
Q.523. Which of the following industries
(b) Rourkela Steel Plant SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (1st Shift)
is its own major consumer in India?
(c) The Salem Steel Plant (a) 1-A,2-B,3-C,4-D (b) 1-C,2-A,3-B,4-D
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift)
(d) Indian Iron and Steel Company (c) 1-C,2-A,3-D,4-B (d) 1-D,2-A,3-B,4-C
on
(a) Iron and steel (b) Aviation
(c) Automobile (d) Chemical Sol.527.(b) Rourkela Steel Plant Sol.530.(c) BALCO (Bharat Aluminium
Company Limited, 1965) has two
ch
Sol.523.(d) Chemical. India is the 6th (Odisha - 1959). Established with the
help of West German Industrial working units, one in Korba (Chattisgarh)
largest producer of chemicals in the
and one in Bidhanbag (West Bengal). ICF
ar
world and 3rd in Asia. Also the Corporations. Steel plants built in India
during the Second Five Year Plan (FYP): (Integral Coach Factory, 1955) is located
fourth-largest producer of agrochemicals
Se
Durgapur Steel Plant (West Bengal - in Perambur, Chennai, Tamil Nad.
after the United States, Japan and China.
Britain Cooperation), Bhilai Steel Plant Q.531. In the beginning of the 19th
Q.524. Which city in India is known as (Chattisgarh - USSR Cooperation). century cotton mills in India were mostly
the ‘Detroit of India’ due to its automobile
Q.528. Which is the oldest aluminium located in which of the following states?
industry?
refinery plant in India? SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift)
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift) (a) Assam (b) Punjab
(a) Chennai (b) Mumbai
(a) The Damanjodi Plant (c) Maharashtra (d) Haryana
(c) Bengaluru (d) Pune
(b) The Muri Alumina Plant
Sol.531.(c) Maharashtra. The first cotton
Sol.524.(a) Chennai - It is contributing (c) The Mettur Plant
mill in India was set up as a spinning mill
more than 40% of the country's auto (d) The Belgaum Plant
in Bombay in 1854. By 1900, over 84
parts and vehicles. The World's major
Sol.528.(b) The Muri Alumina Plant - mills (mostly by Parsi and Gujarati
automotive giants that operate in
Situated near Chota Muri at Swarnarekha businessmen) started operating there.
Chennai are TVS, Ashok Leyland, Royal
Enfield, TI Cycle, TAFE, Hyundai, River in Ranchi (Jharkhand). It was
Q.532. With respect to value addition in
Mitsubishi etc. commissioned in 1948. Its capacity is
the textile industry, knitting is followed by
450 Kilo tonne per annum (present). The
which procedure?
Q.525. The Kudremukh Mines are Mettur Plant, Tamil Nadu. Damanjodi -
SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Morning)
located in which of the following states? Located in the Koraput district (Odisha),
(a) Garment manufacture
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift) famous for discovery of bauxite mines
(b) Spinning
(a) Karnataka (b) Chhattisgarh and setting up of NALCO (National
(c) Fiber production
(c) Maharashtra (d) Odisha Aluminium Company Limited).
(d) Dyeing and finishing
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Sol.532.(d) Dyeing and finishing. In the Q.538. In which state is Kawal Wildlife Sol.541.(b) Campbell Bay National Park,
textile industry, the process begins with Sanctuary located ? established in 1992, spans 426.23
fiber production, followed by spinning to SSC MTS 01/10/2024 (2nd Shift) square km and is part of the Great
create yarn, and then knitting or weaving (a) Telangana (b) Gujarat Nicobar Biosphere Reserve. Other
to form fabric. Next comes dyeing, (c) Odisha (d) Maharashtra notable parks include Raimona National
printing, and finishing to enhance the Park in Assam (famous for elephants
fabric, and finally, garment Sol.538.(a) Telangana. Kawal Tiger and tigers), Mouling National Park in
manufacturing, involving cutting and Reserve is located at Adilabad district in Arunachal Pradesh (known for temperate
sewing. Thus, the step following knitting Telangana. It was declared a wildlife forests and Himalayan wildlife), and
is dyeing and finishing. sanctuary in 1965 and later became part Papikonda National Park in Andhra
of the Kawal Tiger Reserve under Project Pradesh (noted for Eastern Ghats
Q.533. Which of the following is dark Tiger in 2012. Other wildlife sanctuaries biodiversity).
reddish coloured stone used as raw in Telangana - Pranahita wildlife
material in aluminum smelting? sanctuary, Shivaram wildlife Sanctuary, Q.542. In which state of India is Tadoba
SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Afternoon) Nagarjuna Sagar-Srisailam Tiger National Park located?
(a) Mica (b) Gypsum Reserve, Kinnerasani, and Manjira SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) Bauxite (d) Conglomerate Wildlife Sanctuary. (a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Kerala
Sol.533.(c) Bauxite. Q.539. The Betul, Hoshangabad and
Chhindwara districts of Madhya Pradesh Sol.542.(a) Maharashtra. Tadoba
Q.534. The Paithani saree weaving is a part of which of the following National Park is located in the
industry is in which state? Biosphere Reserves? Chandrapur District. In 1955, it was given
SSC MTS 06/10/2021(Evening) SSC MTS 18/10/2024 (2nd Shift) the designation of a National Park. Other
df
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (a) Manas (b) Seshachalam National Parks of Maharashtra are
(c) Maharashtra (d) Assam
_p
(c) Agasthyamalai (d) Pachmarhi Chandoli National Park, Navegaon
Sol.534.(c) Maharashtra. They are National Park, Gugamal National Park,
Sol.539.(d) Pachmarhi Biosphere
na
woven by hand. They are made from very Sanjay Gandhi National Park.
Reserve is recognized for its rich
fine mulberry silk. biodiversity and has been designated as Q.543. In which state is the Nanda Devi
ap
Q.535. Imphal valley of Manipur is an a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve in 2009. Biosphere Reserve located?
The Satpura mountain ranges across SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
:@
important center of ________ craft.
SSC MTS 07/10/2021(Morning) India from west to east and Pachmarhi (a) Assam (b) Himachal Pradesh
(a) Kauna (b) Godna (c) Butta (d) Mirijims lies directly in its centre. It comprises (c) Odisha (d) Uttarakhand
three protection sites: the Bori Sanctuary,
TG
Sol.535.(a) Kauna. Godna (Chattisgarh), Satpura National Park and Pachmarhi Sol.543.(d) Uttarakhand. Nanda Devi
Butta (Andhra Pradesh), and Miri Jims Sanctuary. Other Biosphere Reserve: Biosphere Reserve included in UNESCO
(Assam). Manas (Assam), Seshachalam (Andhra World Heritage site in 1988. Some
on
Pradesh), Agasthyamalai (Kerala and biosphere reserves in India: Cold Desert
Q.536. Which is the second most Tamil Nadu). (Himachal Pradesh), Khangchendzonga
ch
important metallurgical industry in India? (Sikkim), Dihang - Dibang (Arunachal
SSC MTS 07/10/2021(Morning) Q.540. As of the June 2021, how many Pradesh), Manas (Assam), Dibru -
ar
(a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Aluminium (d) Zinc biosphere reserves are established in Saikhowa (Assam), Nokrek (Meghalaya),
India? Panna (Madhya Pradesh), Pachmarhi
Se
Sol.536.(c) Aluminium (after the iron and SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (Madhya Pradesh).
steel industry). It is light, resistant to (a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 26 (d) 15
corrosion, a good conductor of heat, Q.544. Select the natural habitat of the
malleable, and becomes strong when it is Sol.540.(a) 18. The Government of India Asiatic Lion from the following.
mixed with other metals. It is used to started the Biosphere Reserve scheme in SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift)
manufacture aircraft, utensils, and wires. 1986. This is guided by the UNESCO (a) Gir forest
MAB programme, as India is a signatory (b) Sundarbans
Biosphere Reserves to the landscape approach supported by (c) Kanha National Park
MAB. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was (d) Saranda forest
Q.537. Match the following. the first and Oldest biosphere reserve in
India established in 1986. Sol.544.(a) Gir forest. Asiatic lions are
1. Ranthambore National (a) Tamil Nadu an endangered species and their
Park Q.541. Which national park in the availability is restricted only to the Gir
2. Bandipur National (b) Rajasthan Andaman and Nicobar Islands is home to National Park situated in Gujarat. India is
Park species like Megapode, crab-eating the only country in the world to have both
3. Mudumalai National (c) Karnataka Macaque, Nicobar Pigeon, and Giant tigers and lions. Tigers are found in the
Park Robber Crab? forests of Madhya Pradesh, the
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sundarbans of West Bengal. Number of
(a) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b (b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c (a) Raimona National Park Lions in India - 674. The first tiger
(c) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a (d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a (b) Campbell Bay National Park reserve in India was established in 1973
(c) Mouling National Park (Project Tiger).
Sol.537.(d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a.
(d) Papikonda National Park
Q.545. Which of the following
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
statements is/are correct iv) Kaziranga d) Elephants Seshachalam (Andhra Pradesh),
I – Maximum National Parks in India are National Park Khangchendzonga (Sikkim), Pachmarhi
located in the state of Madhya Pradesh. (Madhya Pradesh).
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
II – Mudumalai National Park is located
(a) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a (b) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b Q.554. In which state is Gorumara
in Kerala.
(c) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a (d) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d National Park located?
III – The Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology
and Natural History is located in Tamil SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift)
Sol.549.(c) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a. Jim
Nadu. (a) Assam (b) West Bengal
Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand) -
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) (c) Uttarakhand (d) Bihar
Tiger; Sundarban National Park (West
(a) Both I and II are correct Bengal) - Bengal tiger; Dudhwa National Sol.554.(b) West Bengal. Gorumara
(b) Both I and III are correct Park (Uttar Pradesh) - Swamp deer and National Park was established in 1994. It
(c) Only III is correct Tiger; Silent Valley National Park (Kerala) is primarily known for its population of
(d) Only I is correct. - Lion Tailed Macaque; Orang National Indian rhinoceros. Other National Parks :
Park (Assam) - One Horned Rhinoceros West Bengal - Jaldapara, Sunderban,
Sol.545.(b) Both I and III are correct.
and the Royal Bengal Tiger. Singalila, Neora. Assam - Kaziranga,
Q.546. Which biosphere of Southern Nameri, Manas. Uttarakhand - Jim
Q.550. Match the wildlife sanctuaries in
Andhra Pradesh is home to many Corbett, Rajaji, Gangotri. Bihar - Valmiki.
column A with their corresponding states
endemic species including the famous Rajasthan - Ranthambore, Keoladeo.
in column B.
Red Sanders and Slender Loris? Madhya Pradesh - Kanha, Van Vihar,
Column A Column B
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Satpura.
(Wildlife Sanctuaries) (States)
(a) Cold Desert (b) Pachmarhi
1. Tansa a. Tamil Nadu
(c) Seshachalam (d) Agasthyamalai Q.555. The famous Nelapattu Bird
df
2. Guindy b. Maharashtra
Sanctuary is located in which of the
Sol.546.(c) Seshachalam. It is a 3. Orchha c. Madhya Pradesh
following states?
_p
Biosphere Reserve situated in the 4. Kaziranga d. Assam
SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Evening)
Seshachalam Hill ranges of the Eastern SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh
na
Ghats in southern Andhra Pradesh, (a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d (c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh
covering a total area of 4755.9 km². (c) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c (d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
ap
Seshachalam SLBR was designated in Sol.555.(b) Andhra Pradesh. Nelapattu
2011. It is known for its large reserves of Sol.550.(b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d. Bird Sanctuary - It is an important
:@
Red Sandalwood. Q.551. Which of the following is declared breeding site for spot-billed pelicans
as a Wild Ass Sanctuary? (Pelecanus philippensis). Other bird
Q.547. The Keoladeo National Park is
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift) sanctuaries in Andhra Pradesh - Kolleru,
TG
located in the state of _______.
(a) Ladakh (b) Sunderbans Uppalapadu, Telineelapuram and
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
(c) Spiti Valley (d) Rann of Kachchh Telukunchi. Tamil Nadu - Karikili Birds
(a) Gujarat (b) Rajasthan
Sanctuary, Chitrangudi. Karnataka -
on
(c) Odisha (d) Madhya Pradesh Sol.551.(d) Rann of Kachchh (Gujarat). It Ranganathittu, Attiveri. Madhya Pradesh -
Sol.547.(b) Rajasthan. Keoladeo is the only home to wild ass in India. The Ghatigaon, Karera Bustard Sanctuary.
sanctuary was set up in 1972.
ch
National Park in Bharatpur district was
Q.556. Which country is the only country
declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site Q.552. Which of the following is the in the world to have both tigers and
ar
in 1985. States and National Parks: closest wild relative of domestic cattle lions?
Rajasthan - Ranthambhore, Sariska. protected in some of the famous
Se
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon)
Gujarat - Gir, Marine. Odisha - Simlipal. national parks of India like Nagarhole (a) Kenya (b) South Africa
Madhya Pradesh - Bandhavgarh, Fossil, and Bandipur? (c) India (d) China
Madhav, Sanjay-Dubri. SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift)
(a) Red angus (b) Asiatic buffalo Sol.556.(c) India. The natural habitat of
Q.548. Correctly match the following.
(c) Nilgai (d) Gaur the Indian lion is the Gir forest in Gujarat.
States Bio-reserve
Tigers are found in the forests of Madhya
1. Assam a. Pachmarhi Sol.552.(d) Gaur. First population Pradesh, the Sundarbans of West Bengal.
2. Madhya Pradesh b. Nokrek estimation exercise of the Indian Gaur Number of Lions in India - 674. In 2023,
3. Odisha c. Manas (Bison) was carried out in the Nilgiris the tiger population in India was recorded
4. Meghalaya d. Similipa Forest Division (Tamil Nadu). at 3682.
SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 Q.553. In which Biosphere Reserve is the
(a) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b (b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c Q.557. The Eld's deer subspecies, which
largest endangered marine mammal
(c) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (d) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d is classified as endangered in the IUCN
Dugong and sea turtles also found?
Red List, is found only in the:
SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 3rd shift)
Sol.548.(a) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b. SSC CHSL 26/05/2022(Afternoon)
(a) Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve
(a) Hemis National Park in Ladakh
Q.549. Match the following. (b) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
(b) Ranthambore National Park in
i) Gir National Park a) Rhinos (c) Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve
Rajasthan
ii) Rajaji National b) Siberian cranes (d) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
(c) Keibul Lamjao National Park in
Park Manipur
Sol.553.(d) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere
iii) Keoladeo c) Lions Reserve (Tamil Nadu, India’s first marine (d) Pench National Park in Madhya
NationalPark biosphere reserve). Biosphere Reserves- Pradesh
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Sol.557.(c) Keibul Lamjao National Park Sol.562.(d) Chhattisgarh (Balodabazar Q.568. Which wildlife sanctuary is a
in Manipur. IUCN Headquarter is at district). It was established in 1976 under tri-state protected area in northern India?
Gland, Switzerland. The 7 categories of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The It is also famous for the Critically
the IUCN Red List are Data Deficient Jonk River flows through the sanctuary, Endangered gharial, the red-crowned
(DD), Least Concern (LC), Near which is a tributary of the Mahanadi river. roofed turtle and the Endangered Ganges
Threatened (NT), Vulnerable (VU), river dolphin?
Q.563. In which of the following states is
Endangered (EN), Critically Endangered SSC CHSL 20/10/2020(Afternoon)
Kali Tiger Reserve located ?
(CR), Extinct In The Wild (EW), Extinct (a) National Chambal Sanctuary
SSC CHSL 16/04/2021(Morning)
(EX). (b) Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Karnataka
(c) Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary
Q.558. The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West (c) Telangana (d) Assam
(d) Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary
Bengal is threatened by the ongoing:
Sol.563.(b) Karnataka. Kali Tiger
SSC MTS 05/10/2021(Morning) Sol.568.(a) National Chambal Sanctuary
Reserve is a protected area and tiger
(a) dolomite mining (b) copper mining is located on the Chambal River near the
reserve in Uttara Kannada district, in
(c) magnetite mining (d) hematite mining tri-point of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh
Karnataka. The park is a habitat of
and Uttar Pradesh.
Sol.558.(a) Dolomite mining. Bengal tigers, black panthers, and Indian
Deforestation and large-scale elephants, amongst other distinctive Q.569. In which district of Karnataka is
developmental projects are the main fauna. The Kali River flows through the the Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary
reasons for the depletion of the Buxa whole tiger reserve. located?
Tiger Reserve. SSC CGL 03/3/2020 (Afternoon)
Q.564. Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary is
situated in which of the following states ? (a) Hassan (b) Mandya
Q.559. In which of the following states is
(c) Udupi (d) Kodagu
df
the Srivilliputhur Elephant Reserve SSC CHSL 16/04/2021(Afternoon)
located? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Meghalaya Sol.569.(d) Kodagu (Coorg). Brahmagiri
_p
SSC MTS 20/10/2021(Afternoon) (c) Punjab (d) Kerala Wildlife Sanctuary is situated on the
(a) Karnataka (b) Telangana border between Wayanad District of
na
Sol.564.(d) Kerala. Other Wildlife
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh Sanctuaries in Kerala : Eravikulam, Kerala state on the south and Kodagu
District in Karnataka on the north side.
ap
Sol.559.(c) Tamil Nadu. There are 33 Periyar, Shendurney, Chinnar,
Elephant Reserves in India. The very first Parambikulam, Idukki, Wayanad,
Q.570. Which National Park among the
:@
elephant reserve or elephant sanctuary Thattekad.
following is the largest protected area in
was the Singhbhum Elephant Reserve of Q.565. Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary is the Eastern Himalayan sub-region?
Jharkhand. located in which of the following states? SSC CGL 05/3/2020 (Morning)
TG
SSC CHSL 05/08/2021(Morning) (a) Keibul Lamjao National Park
Q.560. Baghmara Pitcher Plant
(a) Karnataka (b) Jharkhand (b) Namdapha National Park
Sanctuary is located in which of the
(c) Sikkim (d) Kerala (c) Jim Corbett National Park
on
following states?
(d) Bandipur National Park
SSC CGL 13/08/2021(Morning) Sol.565.(a) Karnataka.
(a) Meghalaya (b) Goa Sol.570.(b) Namdapha National Park
ch
(c) Karnataka (d) Assam Q.566. The wetland of Ashtamudi is (Arunachal Pradesh). It has more than
located in: 1,000 floral and about 1,400 faunal
ar
Sol.560.(a) Meghalaya (South Garo Hills SSC CPO 25/11/2020(Morning) species. It is a biodiversity hotspot in the
District). The sanctuary is named after a (a) Assam (b) Tamil Nadu
Se
Eastern Himalayas.
rare insectivorous Pitcher Plant that is (c) Kerala (d) Karnataka
endemic to this region only. Physiographic Division of India
Sol.566.(c) Kerala (in Kollam District). It
Q.561. Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary lies has a unique wetland ecosystem and a
Q.571. Select the correct order of the
on the southern bank of which river in the large palm shaped waterbody.
following plateaus and ranges from
northeastern states of India ? Ashtamudi Wetland is included in the list
south to north in India.
SSC CHSL 13/04/2021(Morning) of wetlands of international importance.
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
(a) Barak (b) Brahmaputra
Q.567. Which sanctuary is famous for (a) Malwa Plateau, Vindhya Range,
(c) Subansiri (d) Gomti
endangered Estuarine Crocodiles Satpura Range and Deccan Plateau
Sol.561.(b) Brahmaputra. Laokhowa conservation in India? (b) Deccan Plateau, Vindhya Range,
Wildlife Sanctuary is protected area SSC CHSL 13/10/2020(Morning) Satpura Range and Malwa Plateau
located in the state of Assam. This (a) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary (c) Deccan Plateau, Satpura Range,
wildlife sanctuary covers 70.13 km2, on (b) Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, Vindhya Range and Malwa Plateau
the south bank of the Brahmaputra River Odisha (d) Malwa Plateau, Satpura Range,
in Nagaon district. (c) Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary, Kerala Vindhya Range and Deccan Plateau
(d) Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary, Karnataka
Q.562. In which of the following Indian Sol.571.(c) Deccan Plateau: The
states is the Barnawapara Wildlife Sol.567.(b) Bhitarkanika Wildlife southernmost plateau, covering parts of
Sanctuary located? Sanctuary (Odisha) is a Ramsar site and Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh,
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021(Afternoon) is one of India’s biggest estuarine and Telangana. Satpura Range: Located
(a) Assam (b) Karnataka crocodile habitats and a major coastal to the north of the Deccan Plateau and
(c) Sikkim (d) Chhattisgarh ecosystem. runs through Madhya Pradesh and
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Maharashtra. Vindhya Range: Lies further Garhwal. The Purvanchal Himalayas, also (a) Sikkim Himalayas
north of the Satpura Range, stretching known as the Eastern Hills, are a (b) Arunachal Himalayas
across Madhya Pradesh and separating mountain range in northeastern India. (c) Uttarakhand Himalayas
the northern plains from the southern This range includes the Patkai Hills, the (d) Kashmir Himalayas
plateaus. Malwa Plateau: Located to the Naga Hills in Nagaland, the Manipur Hills
north of the Vindhya Range, covering in Manipur, and the Mizo Hills in Sol.579.(d) Kashmir Himalayas. Karewa
parts of Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Mizoram. - thick deposits of glacial clay and
moraines. These are the flat topped
Q.572. In which of the following types of Q.576. Which of the following hills is mounds that border the Kashmir Valley
regions, is the maximum temperature located in the Eastern Ghats? on all sides. The other Himalayan
variation observed between a day and SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift) sub-divisions are: Uttarakhand
the same night? (a) Naga hills (b) Khasi hills Himalayas: Between the Ravi and Kali
SSC MTS 13/11/2024 (2nd Shift) (c) Shevaroy hills (d) Anamudi hills rivers. Arunachal Himalayas: Between
(a) Coastal area (b) Island the Tista and Brahmaputra rivers. Sikkim
Sol.576.(c) Shevaroy hills. The Eastern
(c) Desert (d) Peninsula Himalayas: Between the Kali and Teesta
Ghats are a series of discontinuous low
rivers.
Sol.572.(c) Desert like the ‘Thar Desert’ hills with an average elevation of 600
experience extreme temperature meters. They extend parallel to the east Q.580. The Lushai Hills are also known
variations due to low moisture, sparse coast, from the southern part of the as _________.
vegetation, and clear skies. Daytime Mahanadi valley to the Nilgiri hills. The SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
temperatures can reach up to 50°C, while highest peak in this region is Jindhagada (a) Khasi Hills (b) Mizo Hills
nights drop to around 15°C, creating a Peak (1,690 meters). Notable hills in the (c) Naga Hills (d) Patkai Hills
difference of about 35°C in 24 hours. Eastern Ghats include : Mahendragiri and
df
Niyamgiri hills in Odisha, Nallamala hills Sol.580.(b) Mizo Hills (Mizoram and
Q.573. Which physical feature of India Manipur). The highest point of Mizo hills
_p
(Andhra Pradesh), and Kollimalai and
prevents the cold winds from central Pachaimalai hills in Tamil Nadu. is the Blue Mountain. Eastern Hills (The
Asia from entering the Indian Purvanchal) are the southward extension
na
subcontinent? Q.577. In the southern ranges of which of Himalayas running along the
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift) hills is Mawsynram, which receives the north-eastern edge of India.
ap
(a) Indian plains (b) Indian desert highest rainfall in the world, located?
(c) Coastal area (d) Himalayas SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Q.581. The central stretch of the Western
:@
(a) Shevaroy hills (b) Mizo hills Coastal Plains of India is known as the:
Sol.573.(d) Himalaya : It acts as a SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(c) Khasi hills (d) Naga hills
natural barrier, blocking cold winds from (a) Coromandel coast (b) Konkan coast
TG
Central Asia and protecting the climate Sol.577.(c) Khasi hills: These are part of (c) Malabar coast (d) Kannad plains
of India. This mountain range effectively the Meghalaya subtropical forests
protects the subcontinent, and maintains ecoregion and, along with the Garo and Sol.581.(d) Kannad plains (Between Goa
on
its relatively warm temperatures. Coastal Jaintia Hills, contribute to the state of and Mangalore). Malabar coast - Extends
area : Allows winds from the sea to enter Meghalaya, meaning "abode of the from the southern part of Goa to
India. clouds" in Sanskrit. Mawsynram, located Kanyakumari.
ch
about 16 kilometers west of Cherrapunji, Q.582. The Himalayas' outermost range
Q.574. In which of the following districts
is recognized as the wettest place on
ar
of Rajasthan are the ‘Barchans’ found? is called __________.
Earth, receiving a higher annual average SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift)
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Se
rainfall than Cherrapunji. (a) Shiwaliks (b) Kanchenjunga
(a) Udaipur (b) Jaisalmer
(c) Bhilwara (d) Alwar Q.578. What is the name of the highest (c) Dhaula Dhar (d) Pir Panjal
Sol.574.(b) Jaisalmer. Barchan, peak of the Eastern Ghats? Sol.582.(a) Shiwaliks. They extend over
crescent-shaped sand dune produced by SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) a width of 10-50 Km and have an altitude
the action of wind predominately from (a) Kangchenjunga (b) Mahendragiri varying between 900 and 1100 metres.
one direction. The Indian desert lies west (c) Khasi (d) Anamudi They have low hills like Jammu Hills, etc.
of the Aravali Hills, with sandy plains and Pir Panjal and Dhauladhar are important
Sol.578.(b) Mahendragir. This hill was
sand dunes. It receives very low rainfall ranges of lesser Himalayas.
once believed to be the highest peak in
(below 150 mm annually) and has an arid the Eastern Ghats. However, in April Q.583. In which direction is the general
climate with sparse vegetation. 2011, a team led by Mr. Venkat Reddy Y elevation of the peninsular plateau of
Q.575. Purvanchal Himalayas does NOT found that the elevation of Mahendra Giri India?
comprise of : Hill is actually 1,501 meters. Jindhagada SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift)
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) Peak: After this discovery, it was (a) From North to South
(a) Naga hills (b) Pir Panjal range determined that the highest peak in the (b) From South to North
(c) Manipur hills (d) Mizo hills Eastern Ghats is Jindhagada Peak, which (c) From West to East
stands at 1,690 meters. It is located in (d) From East to West
Sol.575.(b) Pir Panjal Range in the the Araku Valley in Andhra Pradesh.
Himalayas is a part of the Lesser Sol.583.(c) From West to East. The
Himalayas. The Pir Panjal Range starts Q.579. Which sub-division of Himalayas Peninsular Plateau of India lies south of
near PatniTop in Jammu and Kashmir are famous for Karewa formations ? the Northern Plains, with an average
and runs through Himachal Pradesh to SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift) elevation of 600-900 m. It consists of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
smaller plateaus and hill ranges with from the erosion of the Himalayas and Sol.591.(b) Aravalli range. It runs
river basins and valleys. The plateau is Shivalik uplands. Major duns in the approximately 670 km (430 mi) in a
divided into three groups: Central region include Dehra, Kohtri, Chaukham, south-west direction, starting near Delhi,
Highlands (e.g., Malwa, Bundelkhand), Patli, and Kota, with Dehradun being the passing through southern Haryana and
Deccan Plateau (e.g., Maharashtra, largest at 35 km long and 25 km wide. Rajasthan, and ending in Gujarat. The
Karnataka), and Northwestern Plateau highest peak is Guru Shikhar at 1,722
Q.588. The Himalayas have uplifted from
(e.g., Aravalli, Vindhya, Satpura ranges). metres (5,650 ft). Vindhya range forms a
which of the following geosynclines?
dividing line between the Ganges Plain
Q.584. Which of the following hills is SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
and the Deccan Plateau. Satpura range is
located in the Eastern most part of India? (a) Tethys geosynclines
situated between two west flowing rivers
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift) (b) Appalachians geosynclines
- Narmada and Tapi.
(a) Jaintia Hills (b) Khasi Hills (c) Caledonian geosynclines
(c) Garo Hills (d) Patkai Bum Hills (d) Aravalli geosynclines Q.592. Choose the correct statements
about the Western Ghats.
Sol.584.(d) Patkai Bum Hills. Patkai Hills Sol.588.(a) Tethys geosynclines. The
a. The height of the Western Ghats
(Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Upper northward drift of the Indian Plate
progressively increases from north to
Burma region of Myanmar). Western resulted in the collision of the plate with
south.
Ghats {Anamudi (highest peak), the much larger Eurasian Plate. Due to
b. Mahendragiri is the highest peak in the
Mannamala, Meesapulimala, Doddabetta this collision, the sedimentary rocks
Western Ghats.
peak, Kolaribetta Peak, etc). The Mizo which were accumulated in the
c. The Western Ghats are higher than the
Hills, located in the southeastern geosyncline known as the Tethys were
Eastern Ghats.
Mizoram state, were formerly called folded to form the mountain system of
d. The height of the Western Ghats
Lushai Hills. western Asia and Himalaya.
df
progressively decreases from north to
Q.585. What is the average elevation of Q.589. What is the name of the northern south.
_p
the Eastern Ghats of India? part of the western coastal plain SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) between Mumbai and Goa? (a) b, c and d (b) a and b
na
(a) 400 metres (b) 200 metres SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) (c) a and c (d) Only c and d
(c) 600 metres (d) 900 metres (a) Coromandel coast (b) Malabar coast
ap
Sol.592.(c) a and c. The highest peak in
(c) Kannad plain (d) Konkan coast
Sol.585.(c) 600 metres. Eastern Ghats the Western Ghats is Anamudi (2,695
metres).
:@
comprises the discontinuous and low Sol.589.(d) Konkan coast. The central
hills that are highly eroded by the rivers stretch of Arabian Sea is called the
Q.593. Which triangular plateau region of
such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Kannad Plain, while the southern stretch
India lies south of the river Narmada?
TG
Krishna, the Cauvery, etc. The Eastern is known as the Malabar coast. In the
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Ghats are a mesmerising mountain range Bay of Bengal, the northern part is called
(a) Deccan plateau
that extends across the states of Odisha, the Northern Circar, and the southern
(b) Marwar plateau
on
Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, part is the Coromandel Coast.
(c) Baghelkhand plateau
and Tamil Nadu. Q.590. Which of the following (d) Malwa plateau
ch
Q.586. Choose the correct statements physiographic divisions of India has
extensive alluvial soil ? Sol.593.(a) Deccan plateau. Its broad
about the islands of India. base is flanked by the Satpura Range to
ar
a. Lakshadweep Islands are composed SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
(a) The North Indian Plain the north, while the Mahadev, Kaimur
of coral islands.
Se
(b) The Island Group Hills, and Maikal Range extend to the
b. Andaman and Nicobar islands are east. The Deccan Plateau is higher in the
composed of coral islands. (c) The Himalayan Range
(d) The Great Indian Desert west and slopes gently eastwards.
c. It is believed that Lakshadweep
islands are an elevated portion of Sol.590.(a) The North Indian Plain is Q.594. Geologically, which of the
submarine mountains. formed by alluvial deposits brought by following physiographic divisions of India
d. It is believed that Andaman and rivers such as the Indus, Ganga, and is supposed to be one of the most stable
Nicobar islands are an elevated portion Brahmaputra. These plains stretch about land blocks?
of submarine mountains. 3,200 km from east to west and are Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) divided into three zones: Bhabar, Tarai, a) The Northern Plains
(a) b and c (b) a and b and Alluvial plains. Bhabar is a narrow (b) The Himalayas
(c) a and d (d) c and d belt near the Shiwalik foothills, while (c) The Peninsular Plateau
Tarai lies south of it. The alluvial plains (d) The Indian Desert
Sol.586.(c) a and d.
include the Khadar (new alluvium) and Sol.594.(c) The Peninsular plateau is a
Q.587. What is the name of the physical Bhangar (old alluvium). tableland composed of the old
feature that is the longitudinal valley lying crystalline, igneous and metamorphic
Q.591. The Great Indian desert/Thar
between the Lesser Himalayas and the rocks. This plateau consists of two broad
desert is located on the western margin
Siwalik in India? divisions, namely, the Central Highlands
of which of the following mountain
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) and the Deccan Plateau. The part of the
ranges?
(a) Duns (b) Doab (c) Bhabhar (d) Terai Peninsular plateau lying to the north of
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Sol.587.(a) Duns are structurally formed (a) Vindhya range (b) Aravalli range the Narmada river. The Indian desert lies
valleys covered with boulders and gravel (c) Eastern ghats (d) Satpura range towards the western margins of the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Aravali Hills. It is an undulating sandy (a) Rajasthan (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Kochi (d) Vijayawada
plain covered with sand dunes. The (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
northern plain is formed of alluvial soil. Sol.603.(b) Daman. Radhanagar Beach
Sol.599.(a) Rajasthan. Indian states (Havelock Island, Andaman). Juhu
The Himalayas, geologically young and
biggest in terms of area: Rajasthan, Beach, Mumbai. Ramakrishna Beach
structurally fold mountains stretch over
Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Uttar (Andhra Pradesh), Candolim Beach
the northern borders of India.
Pradesh, Gujarat. Smallest state (in (Goa). Marina beach (Chennai) is India's
Q.595. With reference to the physical terms of area) - Goa. Smallest Union longest and the world's second longest
features of India, the ‘Kayals’ are Territories (in terms of area) - beach. Puri Beach (Golden beach),
_________. Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Odisha.
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) Chandigarh, Puducherry, Dadra and
Nagar Haveli, Delhi. Q.604. Which of the following factors are
(a) Hillocks (b) backwaters
responsible for railways having not
(c) mountain passes (d) valleys
Q.600. India's total length of coastline of developed much in the north-eastern
Sol.595.(b) Backwaters: The inland the mainland including Andaman and parts of India?
water bodies, often formed by the Nicobar and Lakshadweep is ________ (1) Highly dissected topography
merging of rivers and lakes or by the SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon) (2) Dense forests
backflow of seawater, creating a network (a) 7416.6 km (b) 7616 km (3) Low population density
of interconnected waterways. In Kerala, (c) 7516.6 km (d) 7716 km (4) Heavy rainfall and frequent flooding
these backwaters are locally known as SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning)
Sol.600.(c) 7516.6 km. Length of
kayals. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 3 and 4
Coastline of the Indian mainland - 6100
(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Q.596. Which of the following physical km. The Coast of the Indian mainland is
df
divisions of India is densely populated? surrounded by Arabian Sea in the west, Sol.604.(d) 1,2 and 4. The northeastern
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift) Bay of Bengal in the east , and Indian part of India is marked by the presence
_p
(a) The North Indian Plains Ocean in the south. India's coastline of big rivers, dissected relief, dense
(b) The islands extends to Nine states (Gujarat, forests, frequent floods, landslides,
na
(c) The Himalayan Range Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, international frontiers, etc. The first
(d) The Thar Desert Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and railway proposals for India were made in
ap
West Bengal). Largest coastline - Gujarat Madras in 1832. As a result, the country
Sol.596.(a) The North Indian Plains has (1214 km). got its first train in the form of the Red
:@
been formed by the interplay of the three Hill Railway which was built with the sole
major river systems, namely the Indus, Q.601. The plains from Ambala to the
purpose of transporting granite for
the Ganga and the Brahmaputra along Sunderban stretch over nearly 1800 km,
road-building in 1837.
TG
with their tributaries, which makes its soil but the fall in its slope is hardly ________
highly fertile. Alluvial soil is the major soil metres. Q.605. Which of the following is a
found in the plains. The swampy belt of SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift) mountain pass in the Pir Panjal range at
on
the plains is known as terai. (a) 550 (b) 300 (c) 600 (d) 450 a maximum altitude of 2832 meters that
connects the Kashmir Valley in the Union
Sol.601.(b) 300. In other words, there is
Q.597. India accounts for what percent Territory of Jammu and Kashmir with the
ch
a fall of just one meter for every 6 km.
of the total geographical area of the Outer Himalayas and the plains in the
Therefore, the river develops large
world ? south?
ar
meanders. Ambala is located on the
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Afternoon) SSC CHSL 26/05/2022(Evening)
water divide between the Indus and the
Se
(a) 3.2 % (b) 5.2 % (c) 4.8 % (d) 2.4 % (a) Mana Pass (b) Banihal Pass
Ganga river systems.
(c) Bara-Lacha Pass (d) ZojiLa Pass
Sol.597.(d) 2.4 %. The land mass of
Q.602. When the river approaches sea it
India has an area of 3.28 million square Sol.605.(b) Banihal pass (Jammu and
breaks up into a number of distributaries,
km. India is the seventh largest country Kashmir) is situated in the Pir - Panjal
each distributary forms its own mouth.
in the world. Largest countries in the Range. It connects Banihal with
The collection of sediments from all the
world: Russia, Canada, China, United Qazigund. Mana Pass (Uttarakhand) is
mouths forms _______.
States, Brazil, Australia, etc. located in the Greater Himalayas and
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (4th Shift)
connects Tibet with Uttarakhand. Bara
Q.598. The Standard Meridian of India (a) meanders (b) floodplains
lacha pass - Connects Himachal
(82°30’E) passes through _______ state of (c) delta (d) levee
Pradesh's Lahaul area with Ladakh. Zojila
India.
Sol.602.(c) Delta. Meander is a Pass connects Leh and Srinagar.
SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening)
pronounced curve or loop in the course
(a) Karnataka (b) Madhya Pradesh Q.606. With reference to the major
of a river channel. Floodplains are an
(c) West Bengal (d) Punjab regions of the northern plains, Bhabar is:
area of low-lying ground adjacent to a
SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Evening)
Sol.598.(b) Madhya Pradesh. The river, formed mainly by flooding of rivers
(a) the older alluvium along the river beds
Standard Meridian - A longitude that and the deposition of sand sediments on
forming terraces higher than the
determines a standard time for the whole the riverbanks.
floodplain
country.
Q.603. Devka Beach, a beautiful expanse (b) a narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km that
Q.599. Which of the following Indian of black sand is located in______ runs in the west-east direction along
states is biggest in terms of area? SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening) the foot of the Himalayas from the
SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Evening) (a) Mumbai (b) Daman river Indus to Teesta
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(c) composed of newer alluvium and SSC CHSL 11/8/2021 (Morning) Sol.616.(a) 67,956 km. The length of the
forms flood plains along the river (a) Manipur (b) Nagaland Indian Railways network, according to
banks (c) Mizoram (d) Arunachal Pradesh the Railway Yearbook 2019-20 : Broad
(d) a broad long zone of northern India gauge - The distance between the rails is
and southern Nepal running parallel Sol.611.(d) Arunachal Pradesh. 1.676 meters, with a total length of
to the lower ranges of the Himalayas Himalayas in the Darjeeling and Sikkim 63,950 km. Metre gauge - The distance
regions lie in an east-west direction. between the rails is 1 meter, with a total
Sol.606.(b) Bhabar is a narrow belt lying
Q.612. Which of the following mountain length of 2,402 km. Narrow gauge - The
parallel to the slopes of the Shiwaliks in
is situated in the state of Uttarakhand? distance between the rails is either 0.762
Uttarakhand. It is narrow in the east and
SSC CHSL 11/8/2021 (Afternoon) meters or 0.610 meters, with a total
wide in the western and northwestern
(a) Nathu La Pass length of 1,604 km.
hilly regions. It comprises gravel and
un-assorted sediment deposits. Crop (b) Baralacha La Pass Q.617. According to the Indian Railways
cultivation is not possible in this tract, (c) Bomdi La Pass (2019-2020), which state has the largest
only giant trees with deep roots grow. (d) Mangsha Dhura Pass railway track in India?
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Q.607. In which of the following regions Sol.612.(d) Mangsha Dhura Pass. Other
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana
of India is the natural habitat of passes in Uttarakhand: Kalindi Pass,
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
White-bellied Heron largely distributed? Lipulekh Pass, Mana Pass, Auden's Col,
SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Evening) Muling La, Nama Pass, Niti Pass, Traill's Sol.617.(d) Uttar Pradesh. The longest
(a) North-east (b) Northern plains Pass. railway track in India is the
(c) Deccan plateau (d) Western coast Dibrugarh-Kanyakumari Vivek Express
Q.613. Which among the following (approx 4200 km), running from
df
Sol.607.(a) North-east India, the states does NOT share its border with Dibrugarh in Assam to Kanyakumari in
easternmost region of the country, Odisha? Tamil Nadu. The shortest railway line is
_p
comprises eight states: Arunachal SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Morning) the 3-kilometer route between Nagpur
Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, (a) Chhattisgarh (b) Jharkhand and Ajni in Maharashtra. The five states
na
Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura, and Sikkim. (c) Bihar (d) West Bengal with the largest route kilometers are
Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra,
ap
Q.608. Deserts, rain,forests, coral reefs, Sol.613.(c) Bihar. Odisha is surrounded
Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh.
and mangroves are features of ________ by 4 states: Andhra Pradesh from the
:@
diversity. south, Chhattisgarh from the west and Q.618. In which of the following states
SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Evening) Jharkhand and West Bengal from the is the development of rail transport less,
(a) genetic (b) cultural north. due to its geographical conditions?
TG
(c) species (d) ecological SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.614. River Sutlej enters India through
(a) Sikkim (b) Haryana
Sol.608.(d) Ecological diversity includes which pass?
(b) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh
SSC CHSL 16/10/2020 (Afternoon)
on
species diversity, genetic diversity, and
ecosystem diversity. They are collectively (a) Shipki la (b) Lipulekh Sol.618.(a) Sikkim is predominantly
considered biodiversity. It is the sum of (c) Zoji la (d) Nathula mountainous, characterized by steep
ch
all kinds of animals and plants living on slopes and rugged terrain, which
Sol.614.(a) Shipki La - From here, Satluj
this earth along with their habitat. complicates the construction of rail
ar
traverses through many Himalayan
infrastructure.
Q.609. Which of the following is a valleys before it merges with Chenab in
Se
district-cum-tourism hotspot of Pakistan before landing into Indus. Q.619. Through which routes is the
Arunachal Pradesh? majority of India’s international trade
Q.615. Which among the following is a
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Afternoon) carried out?
western coast island?
(a) Kalimpong (b) Alipurduar SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Evening)
(c) Jalpaiguri (d) Tawang (a) Railway and air (b) Sea and air
(a) Pamban (b) Elephanta
Sol.609.(d) Tawang. Kalimpong, (c) Only Railway (d) Sea and railway
(c) Parikud (d) Sriharikota
Alipurduar, and Jalpaiguri are the
districts in West Bengal. Sol.615.(b) Elephanta island is located in Sol.619.(b) Sea and air. India has a
Mumbai Harbour of the Arabian Sea. coastline of approximately 7,516.6 km,
Q.610. The archaeological site of Pamban (between peninsular India and making maritime transport essential for
Atranjikhera is located in _______. Sri Lanka), Parikud (Odisha), and international trade. According to the
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Afternoon) Sriharikota (Andhra Pradesh). Ministry of Shipping, about 95% of India's
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand trade by volume and 70% by value is
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Maharashtra conducted via sea routes. A smaller
Transportation
Sol.610.(c) Uttar Pradesh. This site was portion of trade occurs through land
first identified by Sir Alexander Q.616. What is the length of the Indian routes to neighboring countries,
Cunningham in 1862 but excavated by R Railways network, according to the including Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, and
C Gaur in 1962. Railway Yearbook 2019-20 ? Pakistan.
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Q.620. According to the Ministry of Road
Q.611. In the state of ______, the general
(a) 67,956 km (b) 1,604 km Transport and Highways’ annual report
direction of the Himalayas is from
(c) 63,950 km (d) 2,402 km (2020-2021), which position does India
southwest to northeast.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
have in terms of road networks in the and both air and waterways contribute range of the Himalayas on the
world? SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) approximately 0.5% each, as per the Leh-Manali Highway in Himachal
(a) First (b) Second (c) Fourth (d) Third Ministry of Road Transport and Pradesh. It reduces the distance between
Highways. Solang Valley and Sissu by approximately
Sol.620.(b) Second. India has the 46 km. Pir Panjal Railway Tunnel - India's
second largest road network in the world Q.624. Which of the following is an longest transportation railway tunnel.
after the USA. India’s road network example of an eastern coast port?
stands at over 63,71,847 km. This SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) Q.628. Match the following ports with
comprises National Highways, (a) Mumbai Port their related states correctly.
Expressways, State Highways, Major (b) Chennai Port Ports States
District Roads, other District Roads and (c) Mormugao Port
1. Mormugao port a. West Bengal
Village Roads (Ministry of Road (d) New Mangalore Port
2. Paradip Port b. Odisha
Transport & Highways Annual Report FY
Sol.624.(b) Chennai Port started its 3. Haldia Port c. Tamil Nadu
2021-22).
commercial operations in 1881. The 4. Tuticorin Port d. Goa
Q.621. As of Financial year 2019, which major ports on the eastern coast : SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift)
of the following states has the highest Tuticorin - Tamil Nadu, Ennore - Tamil (a) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c (b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
road density in India? Nadu, Chennai - Tamil Nadu, Haldia and (c) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c (d) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) Kolkata - West Bengal, Paradip - Odisha,
(a) Haryana (b) Tamil Nadu Visakhapatnam - Andhra Pradesh, Port Sol.628.(a) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c. Other
(c) Kerala (d) Punjab Blair - Andaman and Nicobar Islands. major ports of India: Andhra Pradesh -
Visakhapatnam Port. Tamil Nadu -
Sol.621.(c) Kerala. As of the financial Q.625. Which of the following ports was Kamarajar Port, Chennai Port, Tuticorin
df
year 2019, Kerala had the highest road developed as a Satellite port to relieve Port.
density among states, with 6.7 thousand the pressure at the Mumbai port?
_p
kilometers of roads per one thousand SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.629. When was air transport
square kilometers. Among union (a) New Mangalore Port nationalised in India?
na
territories, Chandigarh had the highest (b) Marmagao Port SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift)
road density in India, with over 22.6 (c) Deendayal Port Authority (a) 1950 (b) 1952 (c) 1951 (d) 1953
ap
thousand kilometers per one thousand (d) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
square kilometers. Road density refers to Sol.629.(d) 1953. The Air Corporations
:@
the total length of all roads in a country, Sol.625.(d) Jawaharlal Nehru Port Act of 1953 led to the nationalization of
including highways, national roads, and (Nhava Sheva), established on 26 May Indian airlines and the formation of two
city or rural roads, compared to the 1989, is India's second-largest container corporations: Indian Airlines for domestic
TG
country's land area. port, following Mundra Port. New routes and Air India International for
Mangalore Port, in Karnataka, is operated international routes.
Q.622. By which National Waterways
by the New Mangalore Port Trust.
on
(NW) of India, are the delta channels of Q.630. Match the railway zones in
Mormugao Port, commissioned in 1885,
Mahanadi and Brahmani rivers and East column A with their headquarters in
is located on Goa's western coast.
Coast Canal connected? column B.
ch
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) Q.626. In which year was the Konkan
Column A Column B
(a) NW 1 (b) NW 3 (c) NW 2 (d) NW 5 Railway constructed?
(Railway zones) (Headquarters)
ar
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.622.(d) NW 5. It connects the states 1. Central a. New Delhi
(a) 1998 (b) 1978 (c) 1988 (d) 2008
Se
of Odisha and West Bengal, stretching 2. Northern b. Mumbai CST
623 km in total, with 91 km in West Sol.626.(a) 1998. Indian Railways 3. Eastern c. Chennai
Bengal and 532 km in Odisha. National founded the Konkan Railway on 19th July 4. Southern d. Kolkata
Waterway-1 (NW-1) spans the 1990. Konkan Railways crosses 146 river
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system streams, nearly 2000 bridges, and 91
(a) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c (b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
from Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh, to Haldia, tunnels. The states of Maharashtra, Goa,
(c) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c (d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
West Bengal. National Waterway-2 and Karnataka are partners in this
covers 891 km of the Brahmaputra River undertaking. Sol.630.(c) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c.
between the Bangladesh border near Q.631. The Howrah bridge was officially
Q.627. The Atal Tunnel has been built by
Dhubri and Sadiya in Assam. National opened in the year _______.
Border Road Organisation at an altitude
Waterway-3, also known as the West SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
of 3000 metres. Which places are
Coast Canal, is a 168 km route in Kerala (a) 1935 (b) 1930 (c) 1948 (d) 1943
connected by this tunnel?
from Kollam to Kottapuram.
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift) Sol.631.(d) 1943. The Howrah Bridge is
Q.623. About what percentage of (a) Manali to Shimla a balanced steel bridge over the Hooghly
passenger traffic is carried by roads in (b) Shimla to Srinagar River in West Bengal, India. At the time it
India? SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (c) Shimla to Ladakh was built the name given to it was the
(a) 77% (b) 87% (c) 57% (d) 67% (d) Manali to Lahaul-Spiti New Howrah Bridge. It was renamed
Sol.623.(b) 87%. The Road Transport Sol.627.(d) Manali to Lahaul-Spiti. Atal Rabindra Setu in 1965 after the great
Sector handles about 60% of freight Tunnel (also known as Rohtang Tunnel) Bengali poet Rabindranath Tagore. But it
traffic in India. For passenger traffic, is a highway tunnel built under the is still popularly known by the name
roads account for 87%, railways for 12%, Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal Howrah Bridge.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Q.632. What is the total length of the Brahmani rivers and East Coast canals Energy Efficiency, Reduces Congestion.
Golden Quadrilateral, built by the (588 km). Naharkatia-Noonmati -Barauni Pipeline is
National Highways Authority of India the first crude oil pipeline constructed in
(NHAI)? SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Q.635. How many major ports are there India. Jamnagar-Loni LPG Pipeline is
(a) 5978 km (b) 4658 km in India for maritime transportation? India's longest pipeline.
(c) 5790 km (d) 5846 km SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) 21 (b) 15 (c) 18 (d) 13 Q.639. Which of the following is NOT a
Sol.632.(d) 5846 km. The Golden part of the six communication mail
Quadrilateral is a major highway network Sol.635.(d) 13. Ports and State : Chennai channels in India?
connecting four megacities in India: Port (Tamil Nadu), Ennore Port (Tamil SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, and Mumbai. The Nadu), Shyama Prasad Mukherji Port (a) Metro channel (b) Monthly channel
routes are Delhi-Kolkata via NH-2, (West Bengal), Deendayal Port (Gujarat), (c) Rajdhani channel (d) Business channel
Mumbai-Delhi via NH-8, Mumbai-Chennai Kochi Port (Kerala), Port Blair (Andaman
and Nicobar Islands), New Mangalore Sol.639.(b) Monthly Channel. The six
via NH-4, and Chennai-Kolkata via NH-5.
Port (Karnataka), Mormugao (Goa), communication mail channels in India:
The National Highways Authority of India,
Mumbai Port (Maharashtra), Paradip Port Rajdhani (Yellow colored mailboxes are
established in 1988, operates under the
(Odisha), Tuticorin Port (Tamil Nadu). installed at post offices), Metro (Blue
Ministry of Road Transport and
colored mailboxes are installed at post
Highways. Q.636. The historical Sher Shah Suri offices), Green (Green colored mailboxes
Q.633. Pipelines as a means of transport Marg is called the National Highway no. are installed at post offices in large and
are looked after by the _________ of the _________ between Delhi and Amritsar. metropolitan cities), Business (Physical
Government of India. Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3) mail that is commercial in nature),
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) (a) 9 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 7 Periodical (Intended for newspapers,
df
(a) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural magazines, and other periodical
Sol.636.(c) 1. Sher Shah Suri built the
_p
Gas publications) and Bulk (Consists of
Shahi (Royal) Road to strengthen and
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs letters, newsletters, leaflets, and other
consolidate his empire from the Indus
na
(c) Ministry of Railways similar products).
Valley to Bengal's Sonar Valley. This road
(d) Ministry of Road Transport and was renamed the Grand Trunk (GT) Road Q.640. Which of the following is NOT a
ap
Highways during British rule, connecting Kolkata characteristic of National Highways in
Sol.633.(a) Ministry of Petroleum and and Peshawar. Currently, it extends from India?
:@
Natural Gas. Some major pipelines in Amritsar to Kolkata and is divided into SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (2nd shift)
India: Hazira-Bijaypur-Jagdishpur two segments: National Highway (NH)-1 (a) Meant for inter-state transport
Pipeline - India's longest gas pipeline, from Delhi to Amritsar and NH-2 from (b) Connect state capitals and major
TG
which runs from Gujarat to Uttar Delhi to Kolkata. cities
Pradesh. Jamnagar-Loni LPG Pipeline - It (c) Construction of border roads in high
Q.637. In which of the following years altitude areas
transports LPG from Jamnagar to Loni
on
was the air transport in India launched? (d) Maintained by the Central
near Delhi. Naharkatia-Nunmati-Barauni SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Pipeline - India's first crude oil pipeline, Government
(a) 1948 (b) 1932 (c) 1954 (d) 1911
ch
which runs from Assam to the Barauni Sol.640.(c) Border Roads Organisation
refinery. Sol.637.(d) 1911. Air Transportation: Air (BRO): Functions under the control of the
ar
transport in India was launched between Ministry of Defence. Formation - 1960.
Q.634. As of 2022, which of the following Allahabad and Naini (10 km). George
Se
Headquarters - Seema Sadak Bhawan
is the longest national waterway in India? Light started Air Transport in India. The (New Delhi). National Highways Authority
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) first airmail flight was piloted by French of India - Formed under the NHAI
(a) Allahabad-Haldia stretch pilot Henri Pequet. Air transport was (National Highways Authority of India
(b) Sadiya-Dhubri stretch nationalised and two Corporations, Air Act) in 1988. Headquarters - New Delhi. It
(c) Godavari-Krishna stretch India International and Indian Airlines operates under the Ministry of Road
(d) Kottapuram-Kollam stretch were formed in 1953. Transport and Highways.
Sol.634.(a) Allahabad-Haldia stretch Q.638. In India, which of the following Q.641. Which project aims to develop
(1,620 km). It is divided into three parts modes of transportation reduces state roads along coastal border areas,
for developmental purposes - (i) trans-shipment losses and delays in including connectivity of non-major
Haldia-Farakka (560 km), (ii) supply of petroleum and gas? ports? SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift)
Farakka-Patna (460 km), (iii) Patna SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) (a) Golden Quadrilateral
Allahabad (600 km). National Waterways (a) Waterways (b) Railways (b) Setubharatam Pariyojana
(NW) of India : NW 2 - Sadiya-Dhubri (c) Pipeline (d) Roadways (c) District Headquarters Connectivity
stretch (891 km). NW 3 -
Scheme
Kottapuram-Kollam stretch (205 km). NW Sol.638.(c) Pipelines are cost-effective
(d) Bharatmala
4 - Specific stretches of Godavari and and can transport large volumes of
Krishna rivers along with liquids or gasses over long distances Sol.641.(d) Bharatmala. This centrally
Kakinada-Puducherry stretch of canals with minimal environmental impact. funded project is an ecosystem of road
(1078 km). NW 5 - Specified stretches of Advantages - Dedicated Infrastructure, development which includes
river Brahmani along with Matai river, Minimized Handling, Continuous Flow, development of tunnels, bridges,
delta channels of Mahanadi and Cost-Effective, Environmental Benefits, elevated corridors, flyovers, overpasses,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
interchanges, bypasses, ring roads etc. (b) Centre for Railway Information Sol.648.(d) National Waterway (NW) -
Golden Quadrilateral - Highway network System (CRIS) 99. NW - 1 (Ganga - Bhagirathi -
which links 4 largest metropolises: Delhi (c) Inland Waterways Authority of India Hooghly): The longest waterways in India
(north), Kolkata (east), Mumbai (west), (IWAI) (Prayagraj to Haldia) - Uttar Pradesh,
and Chennai (south). Setu Bharatam - To (d) National Highways Authority of India Bihar, Jharkhand & West Bengal. NW - 2
make all National Highways free of (NHAI) (Brahmaputra River) - Assam. NW - 3
railway level crossings. (West Coast Canal and Champakara and
Sol.645.(d) National Highways Authority
Udyogamandal Canals) - Kerala. NW - 98
Q.642. Which two cities of India are of India (NHAI) - Operationalised in 1995
(Sutlej River) - Punjab and Himachal
connected by the Grand Trunk Road ? and established under the National
Pradesh. NW - 10 (Amba River) -
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) Highways Authority of India Act, 1988.
Maharashtra. NW - 93 (Simsang River) -
(a) Amritsar-Kolkata Headquarters - New Delhi. Other
Meghalaya. NW - 83 (Rajpuri Creek) -
(b) Karachi-Kolkata organizations:- Border Roads
Maharashtra. NW - 111 (Zuari River) -
(c) Mumbai-Kolkata Organization (BRO) - Formed, 7 May
Goa. NW - 73 (Narmada River) - Gujarat
(d) Amritsar-Peshawar 1960. Headquarters - New Delhi. Center
and Maharashtra. NW - 97 (Sundarbans
for Railway Information System (CRIS) -
Waterways) - West Bengal.
Sol.642.(a) Amritsar-Kolkata. Grand Founded, July 1986. Headquarters - New
Trunk Road (built by Sher Shah Suri) - Delhi. Inland Waterways Authority of Q.649. In India, roads are classified in the
One of the oldest road routes in India. India (IWAI) - Founded, 27 October 1986 _____ classes according to their capacity.
Length - 2400 km. It links Central Asia to and headquartered - Noida (Uttar SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Afternoon)
the Indian Subcontinent. The route was Pradesh). (a) seven (b) four (c) three (d) six
called Uttarapatha. NH-44 - India’s
Q.646. Which of the following is the only Sol.649.(d) Six. Classification of Roads :
longest highway. NH-548 - India’s
df
rack railway in India that was declared a Expressways, National highways, State
shortest highways.
highways, District roads, Rural roads, and
_p
UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2005?
Q.643. Which waterway provides SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 3rd shift) Border roads or Project roads. NH-44 is
the longest national highway in India with
na
connectivity with mainland India through (a) Nilgiri Mountain Railway
the India - Bangladesh Protocol route? (b) Kangra Valley Railway a length of 3745 Kilometers running from
Srinagar in the north to Kanyakumari in
ap
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (3rd shift) (c) Matheran Hill Railway
(a) NW-10 (b) NW-15 (c) NW-2 (d) NW-83 (d) Kalka–Shimla Railway the south.
:@
Q.650. _______ is the deepest landlocked
Sol.643.(c) NW - 2 (891 Km) Between Sol.646.(a) Nilgiri Mountain Railway.
and well - protected port.
Sadiya and Dhubri on river Brahmaputra. Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (In
SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Evening)
Pandu port (Assam) is the largest river UNESCO list in 1999), Kalka Shimla
TG
(a) Kandla (b) Mumbai
port in Assam. NW - 1 (1620 km): Ganga Railway (2008) and Chhatrapati Shivaji
(c) Visakhapatnam (d) Paradip
- Bhagirathi - Hooghly River (Allahabad - Terminus, Mumbai (2004). There are 43
Haldia). It is the longest and oldest World Heritage Sites in India. Out of Sol.650.(c) Visakhapatnam - It is a major
on
National Waterways in India. NW-10: these, 35 are cultural, seven are natural, port (total 13 in India) located in Andhra
Amba River. NW-69: It is the smallest and one, Khangchendzonga National Pradesh coast of Bay of Bengal. It is a
ch
waterway (5 km). Park, is of mixed type (As of October natural harbor. The major commodities in
2024). this port include Iron ore, manganese ore,
Q.644. Asansol, Howrah, Malda and
ar
steel products, general cargo, coal and
Sealdah division come under which Q.647. Select the natural port of India
crude oil.
Se
railway zone of India? from the following.
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (1st shift) Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 ( Shift - 3) Q.651. The Vadhavan Port is located in
(a) West Central Railway (a) Mumbai Port (b) Chennai Port _____. SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(b) Northern Railway (c) Deendayal Port (d) Kolkata Port (a) Kerala (b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Central Railway (c) West Bengal (d) Maharashtra
Sol.647.(a) Mumbai Port - India’s largest
(d) Eastern Railway Sol.651.(d) Maharashtra. It will be India's
natural port. Chennai Port (Madras Port)
Sol.644.(d) Eastern Railway. Formed on - - It is a man-made, all-weather harbor 13th port. Other ports of India: Largest
14 April 1952 by amalgamating three with wet docks, the largest port in the Port - Mumbai Port. Deepest Sea Port -
lower divisions of the East Indian Bay of Bengal. Deendayal Port (Kandla Gangavaram Port (Andhra Pradesh).
Railway: Howrah, Asansol and Danapur, Port) - Largest port of India by volume of Largest Artificial Port - Jawaharlal Nehru
the entire Bengal Nagpur Railway (BNR) cargo handled. Kolkata Port (Shyama Port.
and the Sealdah division of the erstwhile Prasad Mookerjee Port) - Oldest Q.652. Which among the following is
Bengal Assam Railway. Headquarters - operating port in India, built by East India India's first corporatised port?
Kolkata. Kalka Mail of Eastern Railway is Company. SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
the oldest running train in the history of (a) Kochi (b) Kandla
Q.648. Which of the following National
Indian Railways. (c) Mangalore (d) Ennore
Waterways is located in Tamil Nadu?
Q.645. Which autonomous body was Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 1) Sol.652.(d) Ennore (Kamarajar port).
operationalised under the Ministry of (a) National Waterway-97 Located - Coromandel Coast, Tamil
Surface Transport in 1995 ? (b) National Waterway-93 Nadu. The Kochi International Container
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (4th shift) (c) National Waterway-98 Transshipment Terminal (ICTT), locally
(a) Border Roads Organization (BRO) (d) National Waterway-99 known as the Vallarpadam Terminal, is
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
the first transshipment terminal in India Q.658. Which of the following ancient SSC MTS 16/10/2024 (1st Shift)
and the first container terminal to ports was situated on the Malabar (a) Both (a) and (b) are correct
operate in a SEZ (Special Economic Coast? SSC CPO 25/11/2020(Morning) (b) Only (b) is correct
Zone). (a) Barygaza (b) Muziris (c) Only (a) is correct
(c) Tamralipti (d) Palur (d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
Q.653. In Trans-Siberian railway system
Vladivostoclies on_________coast. Sol.658.(b) Muziris Port. It became Sol.662.(a) According to the 2011
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (3rd Shift) popular when Babylonians, Assyrians, Census of India, the overall literacy rate
(a) Atlantic (b) Antarctic and Egyptians came to the Malabar is 74.04%, with the youth literacy rate
(c) Arctic (d) Pacific Coast in search of spices in 3000 BC. being about 9% higher than the adult
rate. The female literacy rate is 65.46%.
Sol.653.(d) Pacific. Trans-Siberian Q.659. What is the approximate length of
Railway is the longest railway, connecting the navigable inland waterways of India? Q.663. As per Census 2011, which of the
St. Petersburg to Vladivostok on the SSC CHSL 17/03/2020(Evening) following states recorded negative
Pacific coast. (a) 14,500 km (b) 15,600 km growth in child sex ratio ?
(c) 16,400 km (d) 12,800 km SSC MTS 18/10/2024 (1st Shift)
Q.654. Through which of the following (a) Maharashtra (b) Himachal Pradesh
states does the National Waterway-96 Sol.659.(a) 14,500 km. To promote (c) Punjab (d) Haryana
pass? Inland Water Transport (IWT), 111
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) waterways (5 existing and 106 new) were Sol.663.(a) Maharashtra recorded a
(a) Assam (b) Uttar Pradesh declared National Waterways under the significant decline in child sex ratio, from
(c) Odisha (d) Madhya Pradesh National Waterways Act, 2016, effective 913 girls per 1,000 boys in 2001 to 894
from 12th April 2016. girls per 1,000 boys in 2011. According to
df
Sol.654.(c) Odisha. National Waterway - the 2011 census, India's sex ratio was
96 passes through the states of Q.660. What was National Highway 66 943 females per 1,000 males, and the
_p
Jharkhand, Orissa, and West Bengal. (NH 66) previously known as? child sex ratio was 919 females per
SSC CGL 06/03/2020(Evening) 1,000 males.
na
Q.655. On the basis of the track width of
(a) NH2 (b) NH8 (c) NH5 (d) NH 17
Indian Railways, what type of gauge is Q.664. When the analysis of population
ap
Matheran Hill Railways? Sol.660.(d) NH 17. It connects Panvel in density is done by calculating it through
SSC CHSL 26/05/2022(Morning) Maharashtra to Kanyakumari in Tamil net cultivated area, then the measure is
(a) Narrow gauge (b) Medium gauge
:@
Nadu state. termed as :
(c) Broad gauge (d) Standard gauge SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.655.(a) Narrow gauge. There are Population (a) Agricultural density
TG
mainly four types of railway gauge used (b) Physiological density
Q.661. How many phases are involved in (c) Gross density
in India: Broad Gauge- wide gauge or
the census operations in India? (d) Net density
large line - 5 ft 6 inches (1676 mm).
on
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
1 Sol.664.(b) Physiological density.
Standard gauge (Delhi Metro)- 4 ft 8 (a) One (b) Two (c) Four (d) Three
2 Density of population is expressed as the
ch
3 Sol.661.(b) Two. First -
inches (1435 mm). Meter Gauge- 3 ft 3 number of persons per unit area.
8
Houselisting/Housing Census under Physiological density =
inches or 1,000 mm. Narrow Gauge
ar
which details of all buildings, permanent 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑝𝑜𝑝𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
(Small Line)- 2 ft 6 in (762 mm). . Agricultural density
or temporary, are noted with their type, 𝑛𝑒𝑡 𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎
Se
Q.656. The ancient port, Sopara is amenities, and assets. Second - is the number of farmers per unit of
located in which of the following states ? Population Enumeration where more arable land. The agricultural population
SSC MTS 22/10/2021(Morning) detailed information on each individual includes cultivators and agricultural
(a) Maharashtra (b) Kerala residing in the country, Indian national or labourers and their family members.
(c) Odisha (d) Tamil Nadu otherwise is noted. The first
Q.665. According to Census of India
non-synchronous census was conducted
Sol.656.(a) Maharashtra. The ancient 2011, in rural India, which state has the
in 1872 under Lord Mayo's
port, Sopara (capital of the ancient maximum female workforce participation
administration, while the first
Aparanta) - In ancient times, it was the rate? SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
synchronous census took place in 1881
largest township on India's west coast, (a) Arunachal Pradesh
under W.C. Plowden. The 16th Census
trading with Mesopotamia, Egypt, Cochin, (b) Uttar Pradesh
(2021) was postponed due to the
Arabia and Eastern Africa. (c) Himachal Pradesh
COVID-19 pandemic.
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Q.657. National Highway No. 7 connects:
Q.662. Which of the following Sol.665.(c) Himachal Pradesh. As per
SSC CHSL 11/8/2021(Afternoon)
statements is/are correct according to Census 2011, the workforce participation
(a) Fazilka to Mana
the Census of India-2011? rate for females is 25.51% against
(b) Kashmir to Kanyakumari
(a) A person aged seven years or above, 53.26% for males. Rural sector has a
(c) Varanasi to Kanyakumari
who can both read and write with better female workforce participation
(d) Kanpur to Silchar
understanding in any language, is treated rate of 30.02% compared with 53.03% for
Sol.657.(a) Fazilka to Mana. Fazilka as literate. males whereas for the urban sector. In
(Punjab) - Rishikesh - Badrinath - Mana (b) A person who can only read but Rural, Himachal Pradesh has the highest
(Uttarakhand). cannot write is not literate. female workforce participation rate
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(47.4) whereas Tamil Nadu has max 2011, the percentage of adolescent with Hindus comprising 96.63 crores
(21.8) among major states. population (10-19 years) from the total (79.8%), Muslims 17.22 crores (14.2%),
population is how much? Christians 2.78 crores (2.3%), Sikhs 2.08
Q.666. As per the definition of Census of SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift) crores (1.7%), Buddhists 0.84 crores
India, a ‘marginal worker’ is a person who (a) 22.9% (b) 21.9% (c) 20.9% (d) 19.9% (0.7%), Jains 0.45 crores (0.4%) and
works for: Religion Not Stated 0.29 crores (0.2%).
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Sol.669.(c) 20.9%. The population of the
(a) less than 183 days (or six months) in country as per the provisional figures of Q.673. According to Census 2011, which
a year Census 2011 is 1210.19 million of which district displays the highest population?
(b) more than 183 days (or six months) in 623.72 million (51.54%) are males and SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
a year 586.46 million (48.46%) are females. The (a) Kollam (b) Ajmer (c) Thane (d) Pune
(c) eight months in a year proportion of Child Population in the age Sol.673.(c) Thane is a district located in
(d) 83 days in a year group of 0-6 years to total population is the state of Maharashtra. It is often
13.1 percent. From 2001 to 2011, the referred to as the "City of Lakes" due to
Sol.666.(a) The population of India
population in the 0-6 age group its large number of water bodies.
according to their economic status is
registered minus 3.08 percent growth
divided into three groups, namely; main Q.674. Who published the logistic
with minus 2.42 for males and minus
workers, marginal workers and equation model of population growth in
3.80 for females.
non-workers. A Main Worker is a person 1838 ?
who works for at least 183 days (or six Q.670. According to the Census of India SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
months) in a year. Marginal Worker is a 2011, which group of Union Territories (a) Howard Thomas Odum
person who works for less than 183 days recorded the highest sex ratio? (b) Alfred Russel Wallace
(or six months) in a year. The proportion SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) Pierre François Verhulst
df
of workers (both main and marginal) is (a) Puducherry, Delhi, Andaman and (d) George Evelyn Hutchinson
_p
only 39.8 per cent (2011) leaving a vast Nicobar Islands
Sol.674.(c) Pierre François Verhulst. He
majority of about 60 percent as (b) Puducherry, Lakshadweep, Andaman
was a Belgian mathematician who
na
non-workers. and Nicobar Islands
earned a doctorate in number theory
Q.667. The Accelerated Female Literacy (c) Chandigarh, Puducherry,
from the University of Ghent in 1825. He
ap
Programme was initiated in districts Lakshadweep
is renowned for the logistic growth
where the female literacy rate, based on (d) Chandigarh, Puducherry, Delhi
model, which is widely applied in
:@
the 2001 census, was _______. Sol.670.(b) The sex ratio. In the union population growth modeling. This model,
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) territories, the sex ratios were as follows: first proposed by Pierre-François Verhulst
(a) below 35% (b) below 45% Puducherry (1,037), Lakshadweep (946), in 1838, states that the reproduction rate
TG
(c) below 30% (d) below 50% Andaman and Nicobar Islands (876). is proportional to both the existing
Sol.667.(c) below 30%. According to the Among the states, the highest sex ratios population and the available resources,
were found in Kerala (1,084), Tamil Nadu assuming all else is equal.
on
2001 Census, 47 districts in India had a
female literacy rate below 30%. Most of (996), and Andhra Pradesh (993). Q.675. According to the Census of India
these districts were located in Bihar, 2011, which group of Union Territories
ch
Q.671. According to Census of India
Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Odisha. has the highest density of population?
2011, which Union Territory has the
The Accelerated Female Literacy SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
ar
highest slum population?
Programme aims to empower women by (a) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu and
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift)
helping them develop literacy skills and
Se
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands Puducherry
gain access to information and services. (b) Delhi, Chandigarh and Daman and Diu
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Puducherry (c) Delhi, Chandigarh and Puducherry
Q.668. According to Census of India
(d) Delhi (d) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu and
2011, what is the gap between male and
Chandigarh
female literacy rate in India?
Sol.671.(d) Delhi. Slum Population -
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.675.(c) Delhi, Chandigarh and
Census 2011 : India - 5.41%. Maharashtra
(a) 21.59 % (b) 18.30 % Puducherry. In 2011, the population
(10.54%) has the highest slum
(c) 24.84 % (d) 16.68 % density of India was 382 persons per
population in India. The Dharavi slum in
square kilometer, with Arunachal
Sol.668.(d) 16.68%. According to the Mumbai is considered one of the most
Pradesh having the lowest density at 17
2011 Census of India, the overall literacy educated slums in India, with an
persons per square kilometer; Bihar had
rate was 74.04%. The literacy rate for estimated literacy rate of 69%.
the highest density at 1,106 persons per
males was 82.14%, while for females, it
Q.672. According to the Census of India square kilometer, followed by West
was 65.46%. Literacy rates for States and
2011, ‘Other Religions and Persuasions Bengal (1028), Kerala (860), Uttar
Union Territories (UTs) : Kerala - 94%
(ORP)’ comprise how much of the Pradesh (829), and Haryana (573).
(highest among states), Bihar - 61.80%
(lowest among states), Lakshadweep - population? Q.676. What was India's annual
91.85% (highest among UTs), Dadra and SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) exponential growth rate as per the 2011
Nagar Haveli - 76.24% (lowest among (a) 3.9 million (b) 7.9 million Census?
UTs), Mizoram - 91.33%, Goa - 88.70% (c) 5.9 million (d) 9.9 million SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
and Delhi - 86.21%. Sol.672.(b) 7.9 million (0.7%). The total (a) 1.10% (b) 1.64% (c) 4.34% (d) 3.54%
Q.669. According to the Census of India population in 2011 was 121.09 crores, Sol.676.(b) 1.64%. The 2011 Census
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
was the 15th census in India and the 7th India-2011, which state has the largest remained ________.
since the country gained Independence. gap between male and female literacy SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Its slogan was “Our Census, Our Future”. rates? (a) 15.30% (b) 14.25%
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) (c) 17.64% (d) 18.30%
Q.677. According to Census of India (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Assam
2011, female adolescents in the age (c) Rajasthan (d) Karnataka Sol.685.(c) 17.64%. The Census 2011 is
group of 10-19 years had a share of: the 15th National census survey
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.681.(c) Rajasthan. conducted by the Census Organization of
(a) 52.7% (b) 47.3% (c) 31.3% (d) 20.9% India. Mr. C. Chandramouli is the
Q.682. According to Census of India Commissioner & Registrar General of the
Sol.677.(b) 47.3%. 2011, how many districts are there in Indian 2011 Census. Top Growth Rated
India? States/UTs: Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Q.678. According to the Census of India SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift)
2011, most people had out-migrated (55.88%), Daman and Diu (53.76%),
(a) 630 (b) 640 (c) 610 (d) 620 Puducherry (28.08%), Meghalaya
from ________ to other states in India.
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) Sol.682.(b) 640. As per 2011 census, (27.95%), Arunachal Pradesh (26.03%).
(a) Rajasthan and Gujarat India has 28 States, 640 districts, 5,924 Q.686. According to the Census of India
(b) Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh sub-districts, 7,935 Towns and 6,40,867 2011, which of the following states is the
(c) Maharashtra and Gujarat Villages. There is an increase of 47 most urbanised?
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar Districts, 461 Sub Districts, 2774 Towns SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift)
(242 Statutory and 2532 Census Towns) (a) Kerala (b) Goa
Sol.678.(d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. and 2279 Villages in Census 2011 as
According to the 2011 Census, Uttar (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Punjab
compared to Census 2001.
df
Pradesh and Bihar are responsible for the Sol.686.(b) Goa. It has the highest urban
most number of migrants as 20.9 million Q.683. According to the Census of India population among states, at 62.2%,
_p
people migrated outside the state from 2011, which group of states has the least followed by Kerala at 47.7%. The
the two states. Reason for Migration : urban population? National Capital Territory of Delhi (97.5%)
na
Lack of Employment opportunities, Lack SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) and Chandigarh (97.25%) are the most
of proper Educational and Healthcare (a) Madhya Pradesh and Bihar urbanized Union Territories. Himachal
ap
Facilities, Marriage. Uttar Pradesh has (b) Himachal Pradesh and Meghalaya Pradesh has the lowest urban population,
the highest share of out-migrants while (c) Himachal Pradesh and Bihar at 10%, followed by Bihar at 11.3%.
:@
Maharashtra has the highest share of (d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
in-migrants. Q.687. On the basis of highest
Sol.683.(c) Himachal Pradesh and Bihar.
population growth rate (Census, 2011),
TG
Q.679. The growth rate of India's According to the 2011 census of India :
select the option that arranges the
population has been declining since ____. Urban Population - 31.16%. Rural
following states in descending order.
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) Population - 69%. Goa is the most
(A) Bihar (B) Arunachal Pradesh
on
(a) 1991 (b) 1951 (c) 1981 (d) 1971 urbanized state with 62.17% of the
(C) Meghalaya
population living in urban areas. The total
Sol.679.(c) 1981. The pace of population SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift)
population percentage of people that
ch
growth is slowing down in the country. (a) A, B, C (b) C, A, B
lived in urban regions of Himachal
Two major reasons behind this decline: a (c) C, B, A (d) B, C, A
Pradesh is 10.03%, Bihar is 11.29%,
ar
decrease in the fertility rate and Odisha is 16.69%, and Rajasthan is Sol.687.(c) C, B, A. As per Census 2011:
improvements in family planning 24.87%.
Se
Highest Populated State - Uttar Pradesh
practices. The population growth rate (19.98 crore), Least Populated State -
Q.684. According to Census of India
was 23.6% in the decade 1981-1991, Sikkim. Highest Populated Union territory
2011, what was the sex ratio recorded in
which declined to 21.5% in 1991-2001. - National Capital Territory of Delhi, Least
the Union Territory of Puducherry?
This rate declined further to 17.6% in the Populated Union territory - Lakshadweep.
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
decade 2001-2011. Bihar has experienced the largest
(a) 890 females/1000 males
Q.680. After independence, the Census (b) 980 females/1000 males decadal population growth among the
Act was enacted in India in the year (c) 1037 females/1000 males main states (25.4%).
__________. (d) 1095 females/1000 males
Q.688. According to Census of India
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift)
Sol.684.(c) 1037 females/1000 males. 2011, which district in India has the
(a) 1960 (b) 1962 (c) 1955 (d) 1948
According to the Census , the sex ratio in lowest literacy rate in India?
Sol.680.(d) 1948. The first census of India has increased from 933 females SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Independent India was conducted in per 1,000 males in 2001 to 943 females (a) Aizawl (b) Alirajpur
1951, which was the seventh census in per 1,000 males in 2011, with Kerala (c) Rampur (d) Madhubani
its continuous series. The enumeration recording the highest sex ratio at 1,084
period of this Census was from 9th to and Haryana recording the lowest sex Sol.688.(b) Alirajpur : It is considered
28th, February 1951. The Census Act, ratio among states at 879, while Delhi one of the poorest cities in India, with
1948 - An Act to provide for certain had the lowest sex ratio among Union over 70% of the population living below
matters in connection with the taking of Territories at 868. the poverty line. According to the 2011
Census. Census, the female literacy rate in
Q.685. As per the Census-2011, the Alirajpur (in Madhya Pradesh) is 31.0%,
Q.681. According to the Census of population growth during the decade while the male literacy rate is 43.6%. In
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
contrast, Serchhip, a town in Mizoram, Chhattisgarh (969), Lowest in Haryana SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift)
was the most literate district, with an (834). (a) Both 1 and 4 (b) Only 2
average literacy rate of 98.23%. (c) Only 1, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2, 3 and 4
Q.693. As per Census of India 2011, in
Q.689. As per the Census of India-2011, which of the following states was the Sol.696.(c) Only 1, 3 and 4. Pull factors
the density of population per km2 was total population less than 10 lakh? attract migrants to an area, like better job
________ persons. SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) opportunities or quality of life. Push
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) (a) Telangana (b) Sikkim factors drive people to leave, such as
(a) 382 (b) 394 (c) 345 (d) 320 (c) Tripura (d) Goa poor living conditions or lack of jobs.
Sol.689.(a) 382. The density of Sol.693.(b) Sikkim (6.71 lakhs). Census Q.697. What is the literacy rate of males
population is the ratio between the 2011: India's most populated state is in India as per the report published in the
numbers of people to the size of land. It Uttar Pradesh (19.98 crores, 829 National Survey of India-2022 ?
is usually measured in persons per people/square km), followed by SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift)
square kilometer. As per Census of India Maharashtra (11.24 crores, 365 (a) 81.2% (b) 83.4% (c) 86.3% (d) 84.7%
2011, Bihar has the highest population people/square km), Bihar (10.41 crores,
density (1,106) in India while Arunachal 1106 people/square km), West Bengal Sol.697.(d) 84.7%. According to the
Pradesh has the lowest population (9.13 crores, 1028 people/square km), National Survey of India 2022, the overall
density in India with 17 people per and Andhra Pradesh (8.46 crores, 308 literacy rate in India is 77.7%, with female
square kilometer. people/square km). literacy at 70.3%.
Q.690. According to the Census 2011 of Q.694. As per the Census-2011, the total Q.698. The __________ results from an
India, which metropolitan has the second absolute increase in population during increase in the proportion of workers
df
highest population ? the decade is ________. relative to nonworkers in the population.
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift)
_p
(a) Chennai (b) Delhi (a) 18.19 crore (b) 16.41 crore (a) age structure of population
(c) Kolkata (d) Mumbai (c) 17.21 crore (d) 15.23 crore (b) population momentum
na
(c) old-age dependency ratio
Sol.690.(b) Delhi. Census 2011: Highest Sol.694.(a) 18.19 crore. The population (d) demographic dividend
ap
populated metropolitan city - Mumbai (18 density in India in 2011 was 382 people
million), Second - Delhi (16 million), per square kilometer. Bihar has the Sol.698.(d) Demographic dividend refers
:@
followed by Kolkata (14 million). Mumbai, highest population density (1106 people to the economic growth potential from
Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Pune, per square kilometer), followed by Bengal changes in a population's age structure,
Ahmedabad, Surat and Hyderabad are (1028) and Kerala (860). The state with typically when the working-age
TG
the metropolitan cities of India with a the lowest population density is population grows larger relative to
population of more than four million. Arunachal Pradesh (17 persons/square dependents. Population momentum
km) and the Union Territory with the describes the potential for growth or
Q.691. According to the census of India
on
lowest density population is Andaman & decline based on age structure, even with
2011, which state has the lowest constant fertility, mortality, and migration
population growth rate ? Nicobar Islands.
rates. The old-age dependency ratio
ch
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift) Q.695. According to the Census of (OADR) is the number of people aged
(a) Jharkhand (b) Punjab India-2011, what is the sex ratio 65+ compared to those aged 20–64, the
ar
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Nagaland (Females per 1000 males) of India? working - age group.
Se
Sol.691.(d) Nagaland (-0.58%). Census SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
(a) 934 (b) 927 (c) 933 (d) 943 Q.699. According to the Census of India
2011: India's population growth rate 2011, which of the following states has
17.64%. States/UTs with top population Sol.695.(d) 943. The sex ratio is the ratio the largest Buddhist population?
growth rates: Dadra and Nagar Haveli of males to females in a population, SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
(55.88%), Daman and Diu (53.76%), usually expressed as the number of (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
Puducherry (28.08%), Meghalaya females per 1000 males. States with (c) Maharashtra (d) West Bengal
(27.95%), Arunachal Pradesh (26.03%). Highest Sex Ratio (census 2011): Kerala
India's decadal growth rate was 13.31% (1084), Puducherry (1037), Tamil Nadu Sol.699.(c) Maharashtra. As per Census
from 1941 to 1951. (996), Andhra Pradesh (993), 2011: Among 121.09 crores population
Chhattisgarh (991). Haryana has the (religions) are: Hindu 96.63 crores
Q.692. What was the Child Sex Ratio in
lowest sex ratio (877) in Indian states (79.8%), Muslim (14.2%), Christian
the country as per the Census of India
while in union territory Daman & Diu has (2.3%), Sikh (1.7%), Buddhist (0.7%), Jain
2011 ?
lowest sex ratio of 618. (0.4%), others (0.9%). Muslims (14.2%)
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
form the largest religious minority in
(a) 189 (b) 981 (c) 919 (d) 911
Q.696. Consider the following: India.
Sol.692.(c) 919. As per the Census, the Which of the following reasons may be
child sex ratio has decreased from 927 considered as India’s pull factors for Q.700. With regard to the component of
females per thousand males in 2001 to migration? population density, which state is the odd
919 females per thousand males in 1) Labour demand one out of the following?
2011. Child sex ratio 2011: Highest in 2) Natural disaster SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
Kerala (964), Puducherry (967), Tamil 3) Protection of human and civil rights (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Bihar
Nadu (943), Andhra Pradesh (939), 4) High consumption and living standards (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Sol.700.(c) Arunachal Pradesh. Q.704. As per Census 2011, what is the (a) Sample Registration System (SRS)
According to the 2011 census, Arunachal percentage of rural population in India? (b) Enumeration of Human Resource
Pradesh had a population density of 17 SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) system (EHRS)
people per square kilometer, while the (a) 52.4% (b) 59.3% (c) 65.2% (d) 68.8% (c) Direct Recruitment System (DRS)
average for India was 382 people per (d) Creation and bifurcation System
square kilometer. Some other states and Sol.704.(d) 68.8%. Census 2011 : Urban (CBS)
Union Territories had the following Population in India : 31.16%. Level of
densities: Uttar Pradesh (829), urbanization increased from 27.81% in Sol.708.(a) The SRS employs a dual
Maharashtra (365), Bihar (1,106), West the 2001 Census to 31.16% in the 2011 record system with a part-time
Bengal (1,028), Delhi (11,320), Census. The proportion of the rural enumerator and a full-time supervisor.
Puducherry (2,547), Andaman and population declined from 72.19% to The enumerator continuously tracks
Nicobar Islands (46), and Sikkim (86). 68.84%. births and deaths in sample villages and
urban blocks, while the supervisor
Q.701. What is the national female Q.705. The density of population is the conducts an independent survey every
workforce participation rate as per the crude relationship between humans and six months. Data from both sources is
Census of India 2011? _________ . matched, and unmatched events are
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1) re-verified. It was launched by the Office
(a) 53.26% (b) 30.02% (a) land (b) family (c) growth (d) capital of the Registrar General, India as a pilot
(c) 25.51% (d) 53.03% in 1964-65, the SRS became fully
Sol.705.(a) land. Population density is
Sol.701.(c) 25.51%. As per the 2011 calculated by dividing the total operational in 1969-70.
Census, female workforce participation population of a region by the total land Q.709. Which of the following is
is 25.51% compared to 53.26% for area. This gives an idea of how crowded expressed as the total number of deaths
df
males. Rural areas have higher female or sparsely populated a region is. per thousand population per year in
participation (30.02%) than urban areas. According to Census 2011, the
_p
India?
In Rural, Himachal Pradesh has the population density of India is 382 (per Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
maximum female workforce participation square km). State with highest
na
(a) Death Rate
rate (47.4) whereas Tamil Nadu has population density - Bihar (1106 person (b) Age Specific Death Rate
maximum (21.8) among major states. per square km). State with lowest
ap
(c) Incidence Rate
There is a significant gap between rural population density - Arunachal Pradesh (d) Infant Mortality rate
and urban female workforce (17 person per square km).
:@
participation, though male participation Sol.709.(a) Death Rate. Age-specific
is similar in both sectors. Q.706. As per the 2011 census, what is mortality rate is defined as the number of
the density of population in Arunachal deaths in a specific age group per
TG
Q.702. According to Census 2011, which Pradesh?
of the following languages is spoken by thousand populations in the same
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4) age-group in a given year. The Crude
the least population in India ? (a) 19 persons/km² (b) 18 persons/km² Death Rate (CDR) is defined as Number
on
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) (c) 20 persons/km² (d) 17 persons/km²
(a) Sanskrit (b) Dogri of deaths per thousand population.
(c) Assamese (d) Konkani Sol.706.(d) 17 persons/km². As per Infant mortality rate refers to the number
ch
census 2011, Arunachal Pradesh has of deaths under one year of age divided
Sol.702.(a) Sanskrit. The 2011 census by 1000 live births in a given year.
lowest Population density. Bihar has the
ar
identified 31 languages with over 1 Maternal Mortality Ratio refers to the
highest population density (1106) among
million native speakers. Sanskrit is the number of women who die as a result of
Se
states. The population density of India
only scheduled language having fewer complications of pregnancy or
was 382. The 2011 Census motto was
than 1 million speakers. According to the childbearing in a given year per 100,000
"Our Census, Our Future." The first
census, 43.63% of Indians speak Hindi as live births in that year.
successful Census occurred in 1881
their mother tongue, followed by Bengali
under Lord Ripon, and since then, it has Q.710. According to Census 2011, what
at 8.03%, Marathi at 6.86%, Telugu at
been conducted every ten years. is the estimated percentage of people
6.7%, and Tamil at 5.7%.
Population density, defined as the below the poverty line in rural areas?
Q.703. Which Union Territory has the number of persons per square Kilometer. Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
lowest literacy rate, according to the (a) 27.09% (b) 13.04%
Census of India 2011? Q.707. What is the density of population
(c) 18.90% (d) 25.70%
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) in NCT of Delhi as per the 2011 Census?
(a) Dadra and Nagar Haveli Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Sol.710.(d) 25.70%. In 2011-12, the
(b) Delhi (a) 11320 (b) 11342 (c) 10265 (d) 10567 poverty rate was estimated at 13.7% in
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands urban areas, and 21.9% nationwide. The
Sol.707.(a) 11,320.
(d) Lakshadweep Below Poverty Line (BPL) is an economic
Q.708. What is the name of the benchmark that identifies individuals and
Sol.703.(a) Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
large-scale demographic survey households that are economically
According to census 2011, its literacy
conducted to provide reliable estimates disadvantaged and may need
rate is 76.24% (Male 85.17, female
of birth and death rates and other fertility government assistance. It is a minimum
64.32). Top Literate States : Kerala
and mortality indicators at the national level of income required to maintain a
(94.00%), Lakshadweep (91.85%),
and sub-national levels? basic standard of living.
Mizoram (91.33%), Goa (88.70%), Tripura
(87.22%). Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1) Q.711. How many components of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
population change are there which are % of population 2011, the female literacy rate was
core to the domain of population States recorded as ___________.
below poverty line
studies? 1. Gujarat a. 8.06 SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (a) 75.35% (b) 65.46%
2. Haryana b. 11.16
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 4 (c) 55.84% (d) 70.24%
3. Himachal c. 16.63
Sol.711.(a) 3. The three components of Pradesh Sol.719.(b) 65.46%. As per Census 2011:
population change (i) Birth (ii) Death and SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) Literacy rate in India (74.04%) - Male
(iii) Migration are core to the domain of (a) 1- c, 2- a, 3- b (b) 1- a, 2- b, 3- c (82.14%). Highest in Kerala (Male: 96.1%,
population studies. The word (c) 1- b, 2- c, 3- a (d) 1- c, 2- b, 3- a Female: 92.07%). Lowest in Bihar (Male:
Demography has been derived from the 71.2%, Female: 51.5%).
Sol.715.(d) 1- (c), 2- (b), 3- (a). The
Greek words ‘Demos’ and ‘Graphy’ which
Planning Commission of India estimated Q.720. According to Census of India
mean 'Population' and ‘Science’. Thus,
the poverty rate in India for 2011-12 to be 2011, what was the total population of
demography is the scientific study of the
21.9%, based on the Tendulkar poverty India (approx)?
human population.
line. SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Q.712. What is the percentage share of (a) 131 Crore (b) 121 Crore
Q.716. The _________ birth rate indicates
the population working in the agricultural (c) 111 Crore (d) 101 Crore
the number of live births occurring during
sector as per Census of India 2011?
the year per 1000 population estimated Sol.720.(b) 121 Crore. Census 2011:
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
at midyear. 833.5 million persons live in rural areas
(a) 0.567 (b) 0.58 (c) 0.546 (d) 0.503
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) and 377.1 million persons live in urban
Sol.712.(c) 0.546. As per Census 2011, (a) neutral (b) positive areas.
df
the total number of agricultural workers (c) negative (d) crude
in the country has increased from 234.1 Q.721. Which of the following states had
_p
million (127.3 million cultivators and Sol.716.(d) crude. Birth rate is the total the highest percentage of Scheduled
106.8 million agricultural labourers) in number of live births in a particular area Tribes in the country as per census
na
2001 to 263.1 million (118.8 million (an entire country, a state, a district or 2011?
cultivators and 144.3 million agricultural other territorial unit) during a specified SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift)
ap
labourers) in 2011. However, the share of period (usually a year) divided by the (a) Rajasthan (b) Maharashtra
the workforce engaged in the agriculture total population of that area in (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh
:@
sector (comprising cultivators and thousands. Death rate is expressed as
the number of deaths in a given area Sol.721.(c) Madhya Pradesh. As per
agricultural labourers) has come down
during a given time per 1000 population. Census 2011: Punjab, Haryana,
from 58.2 per cent in 2001 to 54.6 per
TG
Rate of natural increase refers to the Chandigarh, Delhi and Puducherry have
cent in 2011.
difference between the birth rate and the no population of Scheduled tribes. Uttar
Q.713. According to the Census of death rate. Pradesh has the largest Scheduled Caste
on
India-2011, which of the following population.
options represents a group of the most Q.717. According to the Census of India
2011, which State/Union Territory has the Q.722. According to Census of India
urbanized union territories in India?
ch
lowest sex ratio? 2011, which state in India has the highest
SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift) female literacy rate ?
(a) Chandigarh and Lakshadweep
ar
(a) Punjab (b) Lakshadweep SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift)
(b) Delhi and Chandigarh
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Kerala
Se
(c) Puducherry and Delhi (c) Daman and Diu (d) Haryana
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra
(d) Lakshadweep and Puducherry Sol.717.(c) Daman and Diu (618). Sex
Sol.722.(b) Kerala (94.0%): Literacy rate
Sol.713.(b) Delhi and Chandigarh. As per ratio is used to describe the number of
(male: 96.1%, female 92.7%).
Census 2011, the most urbanized state - females per 1000 of males.
Goa. Q.723. The population density of India as
Q.718. As per the Census of India 2011,
per the Census of 1951 is _______.
Q.714. According to the census of India which Union Territory recorded the
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift)
2011, which group of Union Territories of lowest population growth rate?
(a) 117 per sq km (b) 324 per sq km
India has the highest literacy rate ? SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
(c) 103 per sq km (d) 382 per sq km
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning) (a) Lakshadweep (b) Delhi
(a) Lakshadweep and Daman and Diu (c) Daman and Diu (d) Chandigarh Sol.723.(a) 117 per sq km. There has
(b) Daman and Diu and Delhi been a steady increase of more than 200
Sol.718.(a) Lakshadweep. Census of
(c) Andaman and The Nicobar Islands persons per sq km over the last 50 years.
India 2011- Lowest Population Growth
and Puducherry The density of population in India (2011)
Rate : States - Nagaland, Kerala, Goa,
(d) Chandigarh and Daman and Diu is 382 persons per sq km. Population
Andhra Pradesh. UT - Lakshadweep,
density of States (2011) : Arunachal
Sol.714.(a) Lakshadweep (91.85 %) and Andaman and Nicobar, Chandigarh, New
Pradesh (17, Lowest), Bihar (1106.
Daman and Diu (87.10 %). Delhi. Highest Population Growth Rate :
Highest), West Bengal (1028), Uttar
States - Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh,
Q.715. Match the following states with Pradesh (829), Kerala (860), Tamil Nadu
Bihar. UT - Dadra and Nagar Haveli,
the percentage of population below the (555), Delhi - (11,320, Most dense UT),
Daman and Diu, Puducherry.
poverty line. According to the Planning Andaman and Nicobar Islands (46, Least
Commission of India (2011-12). Q.719. According to the Census of India Dense UT).
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Q.724. What is the Crude Death Rate of Q.729. Which of the following periods is (c) Sikhs (d) Muslim
India as per Census 2011? known as the period of population
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift) explosion in India? Sol.733.(a) Christians.
(a) 10% (b) 8.5% (c) 5.9% (d) 7.1% SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 4th shift) Q.734. According to the Union Home
(a) 1981-2021 (b) 1931-1961 Ministry, the census 2021 (which got
Sol.724.(d) 7.1%. Percentage of infant (c) 1921-1951 (d) 1951-1981
deaths to total death - 13.6, Crude Birth postponed due to COVID 19) was
Rate - 21.8 (Rural - 23.3, Urban - 17.6), Sol.729.(d) 1951-1981. During this supposed to collect data for _________ for
General Fertility rate - 81.2, Percentage period the population of India grew the first time.
distribution of population by broad age rapidly from 361 million (1951) to 683 SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (afternoon)
group: (0 - 14) - 29.5, (15 - 59) - 62.5, million (1981). The average annual (a) Schedule Tribes
(60+) - 8.0. growth rate of this period was 2.14 (b) Schedule Castes
percent. (c) Economically weaker sections
Q.725. What was the percentage of (d) Other Backward Castes
Q.730. What does the Lincoln index
India's population that belonged to the
measure? Sol.734.(d) Other Backward Castes.
Muslim religion in 2011?
Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 4) Fifteenth Census (2011). The Socio -
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift)
(a) Population Size Economic and Caste Census (SECC) was
(a) 14.2% (b) 11.9% (c) 16.4% (d) 18.5%
(b) Population Natality Rate conducted in 2011 for the first time since
Sol.725.(a) 14.2%. (c) Population Mortality Rate 1931. 29 questions canvassed during
(d) Population Density Population Enumeration in census 2011.
Q.726. On the basis of tribal population
(2011), identify the option that arranges Sol.730.(a) Population Size. Lincoln Q.735. As per census 2011, What is the
index described by Frederick Charles
df
the following states in ascending order. Total Fertility Rate in India? (provide an
A. Madhya Pradesh B. Maharashtra Lincoln (in 1930). Population Natality approximate range)
_p
C. Odisha Rate - The number of births per unit of SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Afternoon)
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift) time in a population, often expressed as (a) 3.1 - 3.9 (b) 2.1 - 2.9
na
(a) (C), (B), (A) (b) (B), (A), (C) births per 1,000 individuals per year. (c) 4.1 - 4.9 (d) 5.1 - 5.9
(c) (C), (A), (B) (d) (B), (C), (A) Population Mortality Rate - The number
ap
of deaths per unit of time in a population, Sol.735.(b) 2.1 - 2.9.
Sol.726.(a) Madhya Pradesh has the often expressed as deaths per 1,000 Q.736. The long term objective of
:@
highest and Punjab has the lowest tribal individuals per year. National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 is
population in India as per 2011 census.
Q.731. The population of a nation in the to achieve a stable population by ______
Tribal population percentage of these
working age group is generally grouped with sustainable economic growth, social
TG
states to total ST population in India :
between _________. development and environmental
Madhya Pradesh - 14.7, Maharashtra -
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Evening) protection.
10.1, Odisha - 9.2.
(a) 18-62 years (b) 16-60 years SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Afternoon)
on
Q.727. Which of the following periods is (c) 15-59 years (d) 14-58 years (a) 2045 (b) 2035 (c) 2025 (d) 2055
referred to as a period of stagnant or
Sol.731.(c) 15-59 years. The 2011 Sol.736.(a) 2045. The immediate
ch
stationary phase of growth of India's
Census has divided the working objective of the National Population
population?
population of India into four major Policy (NPP) 2000 is to address the
ar
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (2nd shift)
categories: Cultivators, Agricultural unmet needs for contraception, health
(a) 1921-1941 (b) 1901-1921
Se
Labourers, Household Industrial Workers, care infrastructure, and health personnel,
(c) 1961-1981 (d) 1941-1961
Other Workers. The NYP (National Youth and to provide integrated service delivery
Sol.727.(b) 1901-1921. The year 1921 is Policy) – 2014 has defined ‘youth’ as for basic reproductive and child health
known as the year demographic divide persons in the age group of 15–29 years. care.
because it is the only census year when
Q.732. In which of the following decades, Q.737. If Birth rate of a country is more
there was a decrease in the growth of
there was a negative growth rate in the than the death rate then the population
population.
Indian population? will ___________.
Q.728. India can be considered to be a SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Evening) SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening)
country with Demographic Dividend due (a) 1911-1921 (b) 1941-1951 (a) decrease by 50%
to _______. (c) 1961-1971 (d) 1921-1931 (b) decrease gradually
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) (c) increase
(a) high population above 70 years Sol.732.(a) 1911-1921. Decadal Growth (d) remain constant
(b) high population between 15 - 64 years Rates in India: Census year (% of Growth)
- 1911 (+ 5.75), 1921 (- 0.31). Percentage Sol.737.(c) increase. Birth Rate - The
(c) high population between 10 - 20 years
growth in 2001-2011 is 17.64%; males number of babies born every year per
(d) high total population
17.19% and females 18.12%. 1000 people in a population. Death Rate -
Sol.728.(b) This working age group must The number of deaths every year per
support itself as well as those outside Q.733. According to census 2011, which 1000 people in a population. If Birth Rate
this age group (i.e., children and elderly is the second largest religious minority of > Death Rate: Population will increase,
people) who are unable to work and are India? Birth rate = Death rate: Population will
therefore dependents. SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning) remain constant, Birth rate < Death rate:
(a) Christians (b) Buddhist Population will decrease.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Q.738. Which of the following factors Q.742. As per census 2011, which households and allows the ranking of
can affect distribution of population? among the following states has the households based on predefined
I. Geographical factors highest sex ratio? parameters.
II. Social factors SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Evening)
III. Cultural factors (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra Q.746. According to the Census 2011,
IV. Economic factors (c) Meghalaya (d) Uttar Pradesh which of the following is the third-lowest
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Morning) state in terms of literacy rate ?
(a) I, II, III only (b) I and II only Sol.742.(c) Meghalaya. According to SSC MTS 15/07/2022 (Evening)
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) II and III only Census 2011: Sex Ratio of North East (a) Bihar (b) Madhya Pradesh
States (Highest to Lowest) - Meghalaya (c) Rajasthan (d) Sikkim
Sol.738.(c) Geographical Factors - (989), Manipur (985), Mizoram (976),
Availability of water, Landforms, Climate, Tripura (960), Assam (958), Arunachal Sol.746.(c) Rajasthan. According to the
Soils. Economic Factors - Minerals, Pradesh (938), Nagaland (931). 2011 Census, States having the least
Urbanisation, Industrialisation. Social literacy rate are Bihar (61.80%),
and Cultural Factors - Religious beliefs Q.743. Which of the following states has Arunachal Pradesh (65.38%), Rajasthan
attract people, better housing, health the highest fertility rate in India (66.11%), and so on.
facilities, educational institutions and according to the 2011 census?
SSC CGL Tier II 03/03/2023 Q.747. Half of India’s population lives in
transport systems etc.
(a) Kerala (b) Punjab just five states. Which of the following is
Q.739. Settlements in which houses are one of those states?
(c) Maharashtra (d) Bihar
built close to each other are called SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Morning)
________. Sol.743.(d) Bihar. Total fertility rate (a) Uttarakhand (b) Kerala
SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Afternoon (TFR): Total number of children born or (c) Gujarat (d) West Bengal
df
(a) Scattered settlement likely to be born to a woman in her
(b) Compact settlement lifetime if she were subject to the Sol.747.(d) West Bengal. As per 2011
_p
(c) Line settlement prevailing rate of age-specific fertility in Census, five states - Uttar Pradesh,
(d) Grid settlement the population. Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal, and
na
Andhra Pradesh.
Sol.739.(b) Compact settlement. Grid Q.744. Why is there low population
ap
settlements are settlements in which growth in a society that is Q.748. Growth rate of population refers
houses are built in a grid pattern, such as underdeveloped and technologically to the:
:@
cities. Scattered settlements are backward? SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Morning)
settlements in which houses are spaced SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Afternoon) (a) difference between birth rate and
apart, such as forests or deserts, rural (a) Because both death rate and birth GDP
TG
areas. Line settlements are settlements rate are high (b) addition of birth rate and death rate
in which houses are built along a road or (b) Because both death rate and birth (c) difference between birth rate and
river and canals. rate are low death rate
on
(c) Because such countries usually have (d) difference between death rate and
Q.740. Officially, the first recorded data GDP
strict government policies related to
on transgenders in India was collected in
ch
population growth Sol.748.(c) Population growth rate is the
which census?
(d) Because people migrate from change in the number of individuals over
SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Afternoon
ar
underdeveloped countries a specific period of time. The rate of
(a) 2011 (b) 2001 (c) 1991 (d) 1981
population growth is the rate of natural
Se
Sol.740.(a) 2011 - It was the 15th Sol.744.(a) The first stage is that of low
population growth in society because increase combined with the effects of
census and 7th after independence. The migration.
Registrar General of India (RGI), during both the death rate and the birth rate are
Enumeration of Census 2011, for the first very high so the difference between the Q.749. The distribution of the population
time provided three codes; these are two (or the net growth rate) is low. Stage according to different types of
Male-1, Female-2 and other-3 for II (Higher than death rate), Stage III (Low occupation is known as __________.
enumeration. birth rate; Curves of both death and birth SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Afternoon)
rate get closer; Population growth rate- (a) occupational structure
Q.741. According to census 2011, what Very low), and Stage IV (Birth rate curve (b) age composition
is the population (nearest value) of further dips, more than the death rate (c) adolescent population
tribals in India? curve; Net population goes down). (d) Migration
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) 16.45 crore (b) 14.45 crore Q.745. According to the Socio-Economic Sol.749.(a) Occupational structure refers
(c) 10.42 crore (d) 12.45 crore Census 2015, which state has the largest to the aggregate distribution of the
population of households with ‘destitute population according to different
Sol.741.(c) 10.42 crore. According to the
/ living on alms’? occupations in society, defined by skill
2011 census, 'Scheduled Tribes' (ST) -
SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Evening) level, and economic status. The age
8.6% of the total population of the
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Bihar composition refers to the number of
country. The state and Union Territory
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Odisha people in different age groups in a
with the largest tribal population -
country.
Madhya Pradesh, and Lakshadweep. The Sol.745.(d) Odisha. Socio-Economic
population density in India is 382 per Census 2015 is a study of the Q.750. Which period in India is referred
km2. socio-economic status of rural and urban to as a steady population growth period?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
SSC CHSL 9/06/2022(Morning) (d) falling death rates and high birth SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) 1921-1951 (b) 1921-1941 Rates (a) mist (b) blizzard (c) frost (d) smog
(c) 1921-1961 (d) 1921-1931
Sol.754.(a) The demographic transition Sol.757.(d) smog. Fog forms when an air
Sol.750.(a) 1921-1951. Four phases of model has four stages: pre-industrial, mass with high water vapor suddenly
population growth in India: Stagnant urbanizing/industrializing, mature cools, causing condensation on fine dust
population (1901-1921), Steady growth industrial, and post-industrial. particles. It is essentially a cloud at or
stage (1921-1951), Rapid growth stage near the ground, leading to poor visibility,
(1951- 1981) and high growth with often reduced to zero. Fog is denser and
Atmosphere
definite signs of slowing down thicker than mist. Fog reduces visibility
(1981-2011). to less than one kilometer, while mist
Q.755. Atmospheric temperature usually
reduces visibility to one to two
Q.751. What is the percentage of rural decreases with altitude, but sometimes
kilometers. Frost forms on cold surfaces
child population to the total child this phenomenon gets reversed in the
when condensation takes place below
population of the country in India as per troposphere. This phenomenon is known
freezing point (00C), i.e. the dew point is
Provisional Population Totals of Census as _________.
at or below the freezing point.
2011? SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
SSC CGL 11/04/2022(Afternoon) (a) Temperature Inversion Q.758. The upper portion of the earth is
(a) 74.05 % (b) 79.03% (b) Adiabatic Lapse Rate known as:
(c) 62.45% (d) 55.23% (c) Global Warming SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(d) Temperature Convection (a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere
Sol.751.(a) 74.05%. (c) Lithosphere (d) Mesosphere
Sol.755.(a) Temperature Inversion
df
Q.752. The number of deaths during the occurs when the normal pattern of Sol.758.(c) Lithosphere. It is bounded by
first 28 completed days of life per 1000 temperature decreasing with altitude is the atmosphere above and the
_p
live births in a given year or period is reversed, and the air becomes warmer as asthenosphere (another part of the upper
defined as __________. you go higher. This phenomenon can mantle) below. The stratosphere is the
na
SSC CGL 11/04/2022(Evening ) lead to air pollution problems and is second-lowest layer of Earth's
(a) neonatal mortality rate often seen in valleys or areas with atmosphere. The troposphere, the lowest
ap
(b) age-specific mortality rate stagnant air. Adiabatic lapse rate: layer of the atmosphere, contains about
(c) crude mortality rate Change of temperature with a change in 75-80% of the atmospheric mass. Most
:@
(d) infant mortality rate altitude of an air parcel without gaining clouds form in the troposphere, where
or losing any heat to the environment nearly all weather occurs. The
Sol.752.(a) neonatal mortality rate. An surrounding the parcel. Temperature mesosphere is the third highest layer,
TG
age-specific mortality rate is a mortality Convection - The process by which heat situated between the stratosphere and
rate limited to a particular age group. The is transferred through the movement of the thermosphere.
crude death rate is calculated as the fluid (like air or water) due to
on
number of deaths in a given period Q.759. The zone separating the
temperature differences.
divided by the population exposed to risk troposphere from the stratosphere is
of death in that period. The infant Q.756. What kind of radiation is called the __________.
ch
mortality rate is the number of infant absorbed by the ozone layer? SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift)
deaths for every 1,000 live births. SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) (a) Tropopause (b) stratospause
ar
(a) Green radiation (c) Stratomerge (d) Tropomerge
Q.753. What was the estimated national
Se
(b) Infrared radiation
mortality rate of children under the age Sol.759.(a) Tropopause. The air
(c) Visible radiation
of five in the country as per Census of temperature at the tropopause is about -
(d) Ultraviolet radiation
India 2011? 80o C over the equator and about - 45o C
SSC CGL 18/04/2022(Afternoon) Sol.756.(d) Ultraviolet radiation. The UV over the poles. The temperature in this
(a) 34 (b) 55 (c) 76 (d) 13 radiation spectrum is divided into three region is nearly constant, and hence, it is
types : UVA, UVB and UVC. These rays called the tropopause. The stratosphere
Sol.753.(b) 55. As per Census 2011, the can affect our skin in different ways. is found above the tropopause and
share of children (0-6 years) accounts for Ozone layer : It is a region in the Earth's extends up to a height of 50 km. One
13.1 % of the total population in the stratosphere that contains a high important feature of the stratosphere is
Country. concentration of ozone (O3) gas. This that it contains the ozone layer.
layer acts as a shield, protecting the Q.760. All the changes in climate and
Q.754. As per the theory of demographic
Earth from the Sun's harmful ultraviolet weather takes place in _________.
transition, the post-transitional stage of
(UV) radiation. Infrared radiation (IR), SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
demographic transition is characterised
also known as thermal radiation, is that (a) mesosphere (b) Troposphere
by ______.
band in the electromagnetic radiation (c) Thermosphere (d) stratosphere
SSC CGL 19/04/2022(Morning)
spectrum with wavelengths above red
(a) low and nearly equal birth and death Sol.760.(b) Troposphere. It is the
visible light between 780 nm to 1mm
rates lowermost layer of the atmosphere and
(0.78 μm to 1000 μm).
(b) falling birth rates and high death is often referred to as the "region of
rates Q.757. A dense mass of water drops on mixing”. Its average height is 13 km and
(c) high and nearly equal birth and death smoke or dust particles in the lower extends roughly to a height of 8 km near
rates atmosphere layers is referred to as: the poles and about 18 km at the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
equator. Stratosphere (contains the Q.764. Which of the following Season) December to February}, and
ozone layer) - 2nd layer of the Earth's statements is NOT correct regarding the Summer {(Hot Weather Season) March
atmosphere, extending from about 10 to stratosphere ? to May}.
50 km in altitude. Mesosphere - 3rd layer SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Q.769. At what height do the Jet Streams
of the Earth's atmosphere, extending (a) It lies above the mesosphere.
blow in India during winter months?
from about 50 to 85 km in altitude. Most (b) It extends up to a height of 50 km.
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening)
meteors burn up in this atmospheric (c) It contains a layer of ozone gas.
(a) 9-15 km (b) 9-17 km
layer. Thermosphere - 4th layer of the (d) This layer is almost free from clouds.
(c) 9-16 km (d) 9-13 km
Earth's atmosphere, extending from
Sol.764.(a) Stratosphere - Its height of
about 85 to 500 km in altitude. Sol.769.(d) 9-13 km. Jet Streams
the bottom varies with latitude and with
(geostrophic wind) are relatively narrow
Q.761. Which of the following claims the seasons. Aviation & Jet Streams fly in
bands of strong wind. Types: Polar-Night
about chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) is the Stratosphere.
Jet Stream, SubTropical Jet Streams
accurate?
Q.765. In which layer of atmosphere (westerlies), Tropical Easterly Jet
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
does the meteorites burn up on entering Stream.
(a) CFCs are used as repairers of the
from space?
troposphere Q.770. The climate of Assam can be
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (1st Shift)
(b) CFCs are used as fuel for air crafts described as:
(a) Stratosphere (b) Thermosphere
(c) CFCs are used as repairers of the SSC CPO 25/11/2020(Evening)
(c) Mesosphere (d) Exosphere
ozone layer (a) subtropical humid climate
(d) CFCs are used as refrigerants Sol.765.(c) Mesosphere. Meteorites are (b) mountain climate
space rocks that fall to Earth's surface. (c) tropical dry climate
Sol.761.(d) CFCs, banned in India for
df
Meteorites are the last stage in the (d) tropical monsoon rainforest climate
depleting the ozone layer, were used in
existence of these types of space rocks.
_p
plastic foams, cleaning electronics, and Sol.770.(d) Tropical Monsoon Rainforest
aerosol cans. They are now replaced by Q.766. Which layer of atmosphere helps Climate. Tropical monsoon climates
na
HFCs, which have an ozone depletion in radio transmission? have monthly mean temperatures above
potential of 0. SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (3rd Shift) 18 °C (64 °F) in every month of the year
ap
(a) Exosphere (b) Thermosphere and a dry season. Tropical monsoon
Q.762. What is the purpose of the Earth's (c) Mesosphere (d) Stratosphere climate is the intermediate climate
magnetic field?
:@
between the wet Af (or tropical wet
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (2nd shift) Sol.766.(b) Thermosphere. It is a layer of
climate) and the drier Aw (or tropical
(a) To provide an energy source for life Earth's atmosphere that is directly above
savanna climate).
on Earth the Mesosphere and below the
TG
(b) To control the Earth's climate Exosphere. The temperature starts Q.771. __________ is a naturally occurring
(c) To shield the Earth from solar wind increasing again with increasing height in phenomenon that is responsible for the
and cosmic radiation this layer. Aurora and satellites occur in heating of the Earth’s surface and
on
(d) To cause the tides in the ocean this layer. atmosphere.
SSC CPO 25/11/2020(Evening)
Sol.762.(c) Earth's magnetic field Q.767. What is the average temperature
ch
(a) Radiation (b) Global warming
(Geomagnetic field) - The magnetic field of Chennai in the cold season?
(c) Greenhouse effect (d) Global heating
that extends from Earth's interior out into SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening)
ar
space, where it interacts with the solar (a) 20° - 21° Celsius (b) 32° - 33° Celsius Sol.771.(c) Greenhouse Effect. When the
Sun's energy reaches the Earth's
Se
wind, a stream of charged particles (c) 24° - 25° Celsius (d) 29° - 30° Celsius
emerging from the Sun. Earth’s atmosphere, some of it is reflected back
Sol.767.(c) 24o - 25o Celsius. Chennai
Magnetism - Generated by convection to space and the rest is absorbed and
has warm temperatures year round
currents of molten iron and nickel in the re-radiated by greenhouse gases. The
ranging between 29°C (84°F) and 37°C
earth’s core. These convection currents absorbed energy warms the atmosphere
(98°F). {Coldest month (January - 29°C
are caused by heat escaping from the and the surface of the Earth.
(84°F)}. Chennai features a tropical wet
core, a natural process called a and dry climate. Chennai lies on the Q.772. The term ‘monsoon’ is derived
geodynamo. thermal equator and is also coastal, from a/an:
Q.763. What is the main objective of the which prevents extreme variation in SSC CHSL 21/10/2020 (Afternoon)
'Graded Response Action Plan'? seasonal temperature. (a) Italian word (b) Latin word
SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Afternoon (c) Arabic word (d) Greek word
Q.768. In India, from June to September
(a) legalizing illegal colonies which type of weather prevails? Sol.772.(c) Arabic word 'mausim',
(b) To control the cases of malaria SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) meaning weather, was first used in
(c) introduction of electric vehicles (a) Autumn (b) Winter English in British India to refer to
(d) controlling air pollution (c) Spring (d) Monsoon / Rainy season seasonal changes in wind direction.
Sol.763.(d) Controlling air pollution. Sol.768.(d) Monsoon / Rainy season.
Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP): It
Rocks
Major seasons in India: Rainy
was formulated in 2016 and notified in {(Southwest Monsoon Season) June to Q.773. The igneous, sedimentary and
2017 for Delhi and the National Capital September}, Autumn {(Season of metamorphic rocks are interconvertible
Region (NCR) by the Ministry of Retreating Monsoon) October and through a continuous process called:
Environment, Forest and Climate Change. November}, Winter {(Cold Weather SSC MTS 08/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(a) lithification (b) metamorphism Sol.776.(a) Physical weathering is evolution
(c) rock cycle (d) weathering and erosion caused by the effects of changing (d) the cause of volcano formation
temperature on rocks, causing the rock
Sol.773.(c) rock cycle. It is a series of to break apart. The process is Sol.779.(c) Petrology is the science of
processes that create and transform the sometimes assisted by water. Exfoliation rocks. Rock: Any natural mass of mineral
types of rocks in Earth's crust. occurs as cracks develop parallel to the matter that makes up the Earth's crust.
Lithification: This is specifically the land surface, a consequence of the
process by which sediments are Q.780. Which of the following is a
reduction in pressure during uplift and yellowish green to green coloured
compacted and cemented to form erosion.
sedimentary rocks. Metamorphism is the gemstone often found in mafic and
process by which existing rocks Q.777. The outermost part of the Earth is ultramafic igneous rocks such as basalt,
(Igneous, Sedimentary, or even other known as __________. gabbro, dunite, diabase and peridotite?
Metamorphic rocks) are transformed into SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift)
metamorphic rocks under high pressure, (a) volcano (b) the crust (a) Bornite (b) Olivine
and temperature. Weathering and (c) the core (d) the mantle (c) Tremolite (d) Garnet
erosion: These are processes that break Sol.780.(b) Olivine. The mineral olivine is
Sol.777.(b) the crust. The Earth's crust is
down existing rocks into smaller a magnesium iron silicate with the
the thinnest of all its layers, about 35 km
particles. chemical formula (Mg,Fe)2SiO4. It is a
thick on the continental masses and only
Q.774. The layer made up of 5 km on the ocean floors. The main type of nesosilicate or orthosilicate.
unconsolidated rock, dust, soil, etc. that minerals in the continental crust are Bornite, also known as peacock ore, is a
is deposited on a bed rock surface like a silica and alumina, while the oceanic sulfide mineral with a chemical
blanket is known as: crust consists primarily of silica and composition of Cu5FeS4.
df
SSC MTS 09/10/2024 (2nd Shift) magnesium. Beneath the crust lies the
Q.781. The steep rocky coast rising
_p
(a) Talus (b) Regolith mantle, which extends to a depth of 2900
almost vertically above sea water is
(c) Scree (d) Protolith km. The innermost layer is the core, with
called ______.
na
a radius of about 3500 km, made mostly
Sol.774.(b) Regolith. It can be found SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Morning)
of nickel and iron.
both at the surface and at varying (a) sea caves (b) sea cliff
ap
depths. This layer of fragmented soil Q.778. Which of the following is the (c) sea arches (d) ox-bow lake
material forms the outermost covering of correct match between column-A and
:@
Sol.781.(b) Sea cliffs are steep faces of
the land and is present almost column-B?
rock and soil that are formed by
everywhere, covering the underlying Column-A Column-B
destructive waves. A sea cave is a cave
bedrock. Regolith is primarily inorganic (Type of rock) (Method of formation)
TG
formed on a cliff by the wave action of an
and acts like a blanket over unbroken i. Sedimentary a. Transformed its
ocean or lake. A sea arch is a natural
rock. Rock chemical qualities
arch or bridge made of stone that has
from other type of
on
been created when water wears away the
Q.775. Layers of varying thickness are rocks
underside of a rock, leaving just the top
found in which type of rock? ii. Metamorphic b. Derived from magma
behind.
ch
SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Rock that was poured out
(a) Igneous rock or ejected at the Q.782. The core of the Great Himalayas
ar
(b) Sedimentary rock Earth's Surface is composed of ______.
(c) Metamorphic rock iii. Igneous c. Formed from SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Morning)
Se
(d) Volcanic rock Rock fragments of other (a) Slate (b) Granite
rocks or the remains (c) Sandstone (d) Limestone
Sol.775.(b) Sedimentary rocks are
of plants or animals
formed by the deposition and Sol.782.(b) Granite rock (Igneous rock).
compaction of sediments over time, SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) Lesser Himalaya consists of
often in layers. These layers, also called (a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c (b) i-b, ii-a, iii-c metamorphosed sedimentary rocks
strata. Examples - Sandstone, (c) i-c, ii-a, iii-b (d) i-a, ii-c, iii-b (quartzite, marble, slate, phyllite, schist
conglomerate, limestone, shale, loess. and gneiss).
Sol.778.(c) i-c, ii-a, iii-b. The rock cycle
Igneous rocks (primary rocks) form out
is a web of processes that outlines how Q.783. Which of the following
of magma and lava from the interior of
each of the three major rock types - determines the colour, texture,chemical
the earth. Examples - Granite, gabbro,
igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary - properties, mineral, content and
pegmatite. Metamorphic Rocks form
form and break down based on the permeability of the soil?
under the action of pressure, volume and
different applications of heat and SSC MTS 22/07/2022 (Morning)
temperature changes. Examples -
pressure over time. (a) Parent rock (b) Time
Gneissoid, granite, syenite, slate.
Q.779. Structural geology deals with: (c) Relief (d) Climate
Q.776. Exfoliation is a form of _________.
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.783.(a) Parent rock . The color in the
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(a) the age of rocks soil is mainly due to two factors –
(a) physical weathering
(b) the components and chemical nature organic content and the chemical nature
(b) chemical weathering
of soil of iron compounds found in the soil.
(c) mass wasting
(c) the form, classification, mechanism,
(d) biochemical weathering
and causes of rock structures’ Q.784. How many types of igneous rocks
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
are there? Sol.788.(b) Karst regions contain SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Afternoon) aquifers that are capable of providing (a) Assam valley (b) Barak basin
(a) Four (b) Two (c) Six (d) Five large supplies of water. Typical karst (c) Surma basin (d) Meghalaya plateau
forms include sinkholes, caves, natural
Sol.784.(b) Two. Based on the texture of Sol.792.(d) Meghalaya Plateau. The
bridges and sinking streams.
rocks, igneous rocks are classified into plateau is separated from the main block
Intrusive igneous rocks (Plutonic rocks) of the peninsular plateau by a gap called
Mountain the Garo-RajMahal gap. It is located on
and Extrusive igneous rocks (Lava or
Volcanic rocks). the northeastern flank of Peninsular
Q.789. Which of the following mountain
India. It is one of the rainiest, most
peaks is located in the Karakoram
Q.785. Mushroom rocks are formed due tectonically active areas in the world.
Range?
to _____. Hills in North East India - Lushai Hills or
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Evening) Mizo Hills (Mizoram and Tripura), Chin
(a) Trishul (b) Nanda Devi (c) K (d) Kamet
(a) glacial deposition Hills (Manipur to Chin State of Myanmar),
(b) deposition of sea waves Sol.789.(c) K2, also known as Mount Japfu Mountain Range (Nagaland), Barail
(c) running water erosion Godwin Austen (8,611 meters), is the Range (Assam), Dafla Hills and Abor Hills
(d) wind erosion world’s second-highest peak in the (Arunachal Pradesh).
Karakoram range, spanning Pakistan,
Sol.785.(d) Wind erosion. A mushroom Q.793. The holy mountain 'Kailash' is
China, India, and extending into
rock (perched rock) is a typical located in which neighbouring country of
Afghanistan and Tajikistan. Trishul Peak
mushroom-shaped landform that is India ?
is in the Himalayas, while Kamet Peak
formed by the action of wind erosion. SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
(7,756 meters) is the highest in the
These rocks are mostly found in arid (a) Pakistan (b) Afghanistan
df
Zanskar range. Nanda Devi (7,817
regions. Such rocks are found in the Thar (c) Bangladesh (d) China
meters) is the third-highest peak in the
Desert of India.
_p
Himalayas. Sol.793.(d) China. Mount Kailash -
Q.786. What type of rocks were once Located near Lake Mansarovar and Lake
Q.790. Which of the following mountains
na
igneous or sedimentary, but have Rakshastal. The Indus River originates
of India is famous for tea and coffee
metamorphosed as a result of intense from Mansarovar lake (Tibet). Some
production?
ap
heat and/or pressure within the Earth's highest mountain peaks : India -
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
crust? Kanchenjunga (8598m), Nanda Devi
(a) Nilgiri (b) Aravali
:@
SSC CHSL 25/05/2022(Afternoon) (7817m). Nepal - Mount Everest (8848.86
(c) Himalaya (d) Vidhyanchal
(a) Granite (b) Quartzite m), Dhaulagiri (8172m). Hindu temple
(c) Sandstone (d) Basalt Sol.790.(a) Nilgiri Hills are where the outside India : Nepal - Pashupatinath
TG
Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats meet. Temple, Indonesia - Prambanan Temple,
Sol.786.(b) Quartzite. Granite is a They are located at the tri-junction of Bangladesh - Dhakeshwari temple,
coarse-grained (phaneritic) intrusive Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. The Cambodia - Angkor Wat.
on
igneous rock composed mostly of highest peak in this region is Doda Betta.
quartz, alkali feldspar, and plagioclase. The Aravalli Range is known for its Q.794. Name an oval-shaped range of
Sandstone is a clastic sedimentary rock mineral resources, such as copper and hills sculpted by glacial flow.
ch
composed mainly of sand-sized silicate zinc. The Himalayas are famous for SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (1st shift)
grains. Basalt is a mafic extrusive rock, is (a) Sandur (b) Drumlins
ar
saffron cultivation in the Kashmir region.
the most widespread of all igneous (c) Moraines (d) Esker
Se
rocks, and comprises more than 90% of Q.791. What is the name of the highest
Sol.794.(b) Drumlins - It is formed by the
all volcanic rocks. peak of Indian Garhwal Himalayas
filling of heavy rocky debris in the glacial
located in Chamoli district of
Q.787. Which of the following rocks crevices and its stay under the ice. One
Uttarakhand state with a height of 7,816
floats in water? end of the drumlins facing the glacier
metres ?
SSC MTS 26/10/2021(Evening) called the stoss end and the other end
Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
(a) Granite (b) Obsidian called tail. Eskers: When glaciers melt in
(a) Trisul (b) Hardeol
(c) Pumice (d) Slate summer, the water flows on the surface
(c) Mukut Parbat (d) Nanda Devi
of the ice. These waters accumulate
Sol.787.(c) Pumice is a light-colored, Sol.791.(d) Nanda Devi. It is the beneath the glacier and flow like streams
extremely porous igneous rock that second-highest mountain in India, after in a channel beneath the ice.
forms during explosive volcanic Kangchenjunga (8598 m), and the
eruptions. Obsidian has been used for Q.795. The Shevaroy Hills are located in
highest entirely within the country. It
tools and ornaments. Granite is a hard which state of India?
ranks as the 23rd highest peak in the
igneous rock made of quartz, feldspar, SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift)
world. The Garhwal Himalayas lie
and mica. Slate is a metamorphic rock. (a) Chhattisgarh (b) Odisha
between the Sutlej and the Kali river and
(c) Rajasthan (d) Tamil Nadu
is 320 km long. It is a part of the
Q.788. ________ plains are formed due to
Himalayan Shivalik Hills (outermost hills Sol.795.(d) Tamil Nadu (Aanna Malai,
the weathering of soluble rocks such as
of the Himalayas found in Himachal Doddabetta, Nilgiri). Famous hills:-
limestone and dolomite.
Pradesh and Uttarakhand). Chhattisgarh - Tulasi Dongar, Bailadila,
SSC CHSL 04/08/2021(Morning)
(a) Glacial (b) Karst Q.792. The Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills Balaraja Gutta. Odisha - Devmali, Turia
(c) Deposition (d) Desert are a subdivision of: Konda, Mahendragiri, Devagiri. Rajasthan
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
- Guru Shikhar, Mt. Abu, Sunda. Pradesh). State and Highest Peak - Aravalli Range (oldest range) are all
Kangchenjunga (Sikkim) - Highest Gujarat (Girnar Peak), Rajasthan (Guru active fold mountains. Rhine Valley
mountain peak in India. Shikhar), Andhra Pradesh (Arma Konda), (Germany) is the valley of the river Rhine
Haryana (Karah Peak), Karnataka in Europe. It is also known as Alpine
Q.796. Which among the following is the (Mullayanagiri Peak). Rhine. The Appalachian Mountains are
highest peak of West Bengal? found in North America.
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening) Q.800. Which of the following
(a) Sandakphu (b) Saramati statements is NOT correct? Q.804. The approximate length of the
(c) Doddabetta (d) Deomali SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift) Great Himalayan range, also known as
(a) Mahendragiri is the highest peak in the the central axial range, is _________ km
Sol.796.(a) Sandakphu (3636 m). It is Eastern Ghats. from east to west.
located on the border between India and (b) The height of the Western Ghats SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
Nepal, belongs to the Singalia Mountain progressively decreases from north to (a) 2800 (b) 2500 (c) 3000 (d) 2100
ranges. It is a part of the Purvanchal south.
range. Doddabetta (2637 m) - It is the (c) The Western Ghats cause orographic Sol.804.(b) 2500. The great Himalayan
highest peak of Tamil Nadu and a part of rain. range width varies between 160-400 km
Nilgiri Mountain Range. (d) The Eastern Ghats stretch from the from north to south. Famous peaks of
Mahanadi Valley to the Nilgiris in the Himalayas: Mount Everest (8848 m), Mt.
Q.797. The Himalayan Mountain range Kanchenjunga (8598 m), Mt. Makalu
south.
was formed by the collision of ________. (8481 m), Mt. Dhaulagiri (8172 m). The
SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Evening) Sol.800.(b) The height of the Western Himalayas consist of three parallel
(a) African Plate and Australian Plate Ghats progressively increases from north ranges - Himadri (Great Himalayas or the
(b) Indian Plate and African Plate to south. The highest peaks of Western Higher Himalayas), Himachal (Lesser
df
(c) Eurasian Plate and African Plate Ghats include the Anai Mudi (2,695 Himalayas or the Lower Himalayas) and
(d) Indian Plate and Eurasian Plate
_p
metres) and the Doda Betta (2,637 Shiwaliks (Outer Himalayas).
Sol.797.(d) Indian Plate and Eurasian meters).The Western Ghats, also known
Q.805. What is the average height of
na
Plate. Plates - They are large, rigid pieces as the Sahyadri Hills, Mainly traverse the
States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, inner Himalayas?
of the Earth's lithosphere that fit together
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
ap
like a jigsaw puzzle, and their Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat.
(a) 6000 metres (b) 4500 metres
movements are responsible for shaping Q.801. Which among the following is the (c) 5200 metres (d) 7100 metres
:@
the Earth's surface through processes largest of all the duns of the Shiwaliks
such as earthquakes and the formation mountain range in India? Sol.805.(a) 6000 metres. The Himalayas
of mountains. Major plates (7) - African SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (2nd Shift) consist of three parallel ranges, the
TG
Plate, Antarctic Plate, Eurasian Plate, (a) Patli Dun (b) Jammu Dun Greater Himalayas or the Inner
North American Plate, South American (c) DehraDun (d) Kotli Dun Himalayas or the Himadri, the Lesser
Plate, Pacific Plate and Indo-Australian Himalayas called the Himachal (with an
on
Plate. Sol.801. (c) Dehradun (Length - 35-45 average height of 3,700 to 4500 meters),
km, Width - 22-25 km). Dun- Valleys that and the Shivalik hills (with an average
Q.798. Dhinodhar Hills is located in
lie between the Shivalik and Lesser
ch
height of 900 to 1100 meters), which
which Indian state/Union Territory?
himalaya. Other duns of Uttarakhand - comprise the foothills.
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift)
Kota dun, Patli dun, Har ki dun. Kotli dun -
ar
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands Q.806. Asia is separated from Europe by
Himachal Pradesh. Kashmir Himalayas -
(b) Maharashtra
Se
Jammu dun and Pathankot dun. ______ mountains.
(c) Gujarat SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
(d) West Bengal Q.802. Kalsubai peak is located in which (a) Himalayan (b) Andes Mountains
of the following Indian states? (c) Alps (d) Ural
Sol.798.(c) Gujarat. Dhinodhar Hill is a
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (1st Shift)
tourist and pilgrimage spot. Other hills in Sol.806.(d) Ural. It is formed as a result
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
Gujarat - Chotila, Pavagadh, Palitana, of the compression of tectonic plates,
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Himachal Pradesh
Saputara, Girnar, Bardo, Gabbar. Hills : leading to the formation of large fold-like
Maharashtra - Mahabaleshwar, Panchgani, Sol.802.(b) Maharashtra. Kalsubai structures on the Earth's crust. Alps
Matheran, Lonavala, Amboli etc. West (Everest of Maharashtra) is the highest mountain (natural boundary between
Bengal - Gorgaburu Hill, Ajodhya Hills, peak of Maharashtra’s Ahmednagar France and Italy), Andes Mountains
Susunia Hill etc. Andaman and Nicobar district in Akola taluka. range (South American countries of Chile
Islands - Ross Island, Barren Island, Saddle and Argentina), Himalaya (plains of the
Peak, Katchal, Narcondam Island etc. Q.803. Which of the following is NOT a
Indian subcontinent from the Tibetan
type of a fold mountain?
Q.799. Which among the following peaks Plateau). Caucasus mountains (Asia and
SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
is the highest peak of Jharkhand? Europe).
(a) Aravali range (b) The Rhine Valley
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(c) Appalachians (d) Ural Mountains Q.807. Which of the following have
(a) Kangto (b) Girnar
mountain range young fold mountains?
(c) Anamudi (d) Parasnath Sol.803.(b) Rhine Valley. Fold mountains
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (1st Shift)
are the most common type of mountain
Sol.799.(d) Parasnath. It is named after (a) Appalachians mountain range
in the world. The rugged, soaring heights
Lord Parshvanath (23rd Jain (b) Alps mountain range
of the Himalayas, Andes, Alps and
Tirthankara). Kangto peak (Arunachal (c) Aravali mountain range
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(d) Ural mountain range oldest fold mountain systems in the Q.816. Which of the following is a
world. mountain peak that rises above the
Sol.807.(b) Alps mountain range. Fold III- Mt. Kilimanjaro in South America is surrounding peaks at the mountainous
mountains form when two or more of the an example of Volcanic Mountain border of the Indian state of Nagaland
Earth's tectonic plates collide. Types - SSC CGL 11/04/2022(Evening ) and the Sagaing region of Myanmar?
Anticline, Syncline, Monocline, Isocline. (a) Only I and II (b) Only II SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Evening)
Features - Rugged relief, imposing height (c) I, II and III (d) Only I (a) Mount Kalsubai (b) Mount Doddabetta
(lofty), high conical peaks. Examples are (c) Mount Saramati (d) Mount Dhupgarh
the Rockies, the Andes, the Alps, the Sol.811.(a) Only I and II. Mount
Himalayas, etc. Old fold Mountain - An Kilimanjaro is a dormant volcano in Sol.816.(c) Mount Saramati. Doddabetta
Appalachian mountain range, Aravali Tanzania. It is the highest mountain in is the highest mountain in the Nilgiri
mountain range, and Ural mountain Africa . It was formed when molten rock Mountains at 2,637 meters. Kalsubai
range. from the depths of the earth rose from (highest point) is a mountain in the
the crust and piled up on its own. Top Western Ghats, located in the Indian
Q.808. The uplifted blocks of block mountains in Africa:- Mount Kenya, state of Maharashtra.
mountains are called ______. Mount Stanley, Mount Speke, Mount
SSC MTS 14/07/2022 (Morning) Baker, Mount Emin. Q.817. Generally, a steep hill with an
(a) horsts (b) grabens elevation of more than _______ meters is
(c) slopes (d) cones Q.812. The Deomali is the highest classified as a mountain.
mountain peak of ______. SSC MTS 02/11/2021(Morning)
Sol.808.(a) Horsts. Block mountains SSC CGL 12/04/2022(Morning) (a) 600 (b) 500 (c) 1000 (d) 800
are formed due to the upward movement (a) Assam (b) West Bengal
of the middle block between two normal Sol.817.(a) 600. Within the earth, a
(c) Bihar (d) Odisha
df
faults. The up-thrown block is also called continuous movement is taking place.
a horst. Graben is bounded by normal Sol.812.(d) Odisha. The Deomali peak The internal process leads to the
_p
faults dipping toward each other. These height is 1,762 m. The Borail Range is the upliftment and sinking of the earth's
mountains include the Great African Rift highest Mountain Ranges in Assam. surface at several places. The external
na
Valley , the Rhine Valley (graben) in Someshwar Fort is the highest peak of process is the continuous wearing down
Germany, etc. Bihar. It is part of Shivalik hill. and rebuilding of the land surface. Eg:
ap
Erosion and Deposition.
Q.809. Fotu La, the Great Mountain Pass, Q.813. In which Indian state will you find
:@
at an altitude of 4108 m above sea level, Mount Tiyi? Q.818. _______ is created by the collision
is the highest point of which Indian SSC CGL 12/04/2022(Evening) of convergent plate boundaries.
state/UT? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Odisha SSC CGL 16/08/2021(Morning)
TG
SSC CHSL 09/06/2022(Morning) (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Nagaland (a) Mid-ocean ridge (b) Land erosion
(a) Ladakh (c) Oceanic trench (d) Mountain building
(b) Jammu and Kashmir Sol.813.(d) Nagaland. Some other
on
mountains: Japfu Peak, Changkikong Sol.818.(d) Mountain building. A
(c) Himachal Pradesh
Range, Mount Saramati, Veda Peak, convergent boundary is an area on earth
(d) Sikkim
Ongpangkong Range. where two or more lithospheric plates
ch
Sol.809.(a) Ladakh. Fatu La is a converge or collide and one plate
mountain pass on the Srinagar-Leh Q.814. In which of the following Indian eventually slides beneath the other.
ar
highway in the Zanskar Range of the states is the Gorichen peak located?
SSC CGL 13/04/2022(Evening) Q.819. 'Pidurutalagala' is the highest
Se
Himalayas in Ladakh, UT. It is one of two
(a) Madhya Pradesh mountain peak in ______.
high mountain passes between Leh and
(b) Arunachal Pradesh SSC CHSL 15/04/2021(Evening)
Kargil, the other being Namika La.
(c) Himachal Pradesh (a) Bhutan (b) Sri Lanka
Q.810. Which of the following is also (d) Nagaland (c) Myanmar (d) Nepal
known as the ‘White Mountain’?
Sol.814.(b) Arunachal Pradesh. Sol.819.(b) Sri Lanka. Pidurutalagala
SSC CGL 11/04/2022(Morning)
Gorichen Peak (6858 m) is the highest (Mount Pedro) is the tallest mountain in
(a) Cho Oyu (b) Makalu
peak in Arunachal Pradesh, Dhupgarh is Sri Lanka, standing at 2,524 m in Nuwara
(c) Dhaulagiri (d) Lhotse
the highest in Madhya Pradesh, and Reo Eliya.
Sol.810.(c) Dhaulagiri is in west-central Purgyil is the highest in Himachal
Q.820. Which of the following hills is
Nepal. Cho Oyu lies on the Nepal-Tibet Pradesh.
situated in Assam?
border. Makalu is southeast of Everest,
Q.815. Mountaineers refer to altitudes SSC CHSL 15/04/2021(Evening)
on the Nepal-Tibet border. Lhotse is on
above about _______ meters as the ‘death (a) Aravali Hills (b) Karbi Anglong Hills
the border between Tibet and Nepal's
zone’. (c) Javadi Hills (d) Shevaroy Hills
Khumbu region.
SSC CGL 19/04/2022(Evening)
Sol.820.(b) Karbi Anglong Hills. Javadi
Q.811. Which of the following (a) 5,800 (b) 8,000 (c) 6,700 (d) 7,200
Hills and Shevaroy Hills are located in
statement(s) is/are correct regarding
Sol.815.(b) 8,000. The death zone Tamil Nadu.
mountains?
I - Mountains may be arranged in a line refers to altitudes where oxygen pressure
Q.821. Where is Mount Diavolo, an
known as range. is too low to sustain human life for
important mountain peak in the
II- The Aravali range in India is one of the extended periods.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Located?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
SSC CHSL 05/08/2021(Morning) (a) Nallamala Hills (b) Horsley Hills World Geography and Map
(a) Great Nicobar (b) North Andaman (c) Nagari Hills (d) Ananthagiri Hills
(c) Middle Andaman (d) South Andaman Q.830. Where is the Gulf of Mannar
Sol.826.(d) Ananthagiri Hills. Borra
Sol.821.(d) South Andaman. It has an located?
Caves, also called Borra Guhalu, are
elevation of 295 meters. Middle SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
located on the East Coast of India, in the
Andaman is separated from North (a) Between the south-eastern tip of India
Ananthagiri hills of the Araku Valley of
Andaman Island by Austen Strait, and and the eastern coast of Sri Lanka
the Visakhapatnam district in Andhra
from Baratang Island at the south by (b) Between the south-eastern tip of
Pradesh.
Homfray's Strait. India and the western coast of Sri
Lanka
Q.822. Mount Jopuno is situated in Volcano (c) Between the south-eastern tip of India
which of the following states? and the north-western coast of Sri
SSC CHSL 09/8/2021(Evening) Q.827. Which of the following types of
Lanka
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Sikkim volcanic eruptions of Earth’s volcanoes
(d) Between the south-eastern tip of
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d)Himachal Pradesh are most explosive?
India and the southern coast of Sri
SSC MTS 12/11/2024 (3rd Shift)
Lanka
Sol.822.(b) Sikkim. Mount Jopuno, (a) Caldera (b) Lapolith
located in western Sikkim at 5,603 (c) Dykes (d) Flood basalt provinces Sol.830.(b) Gulf of Mannar: It is located
meters, is situated within in the Coromandel Coast region. The Gulf
Khangchendzonga National Park. Sol.827.(a) Caldera. A caldera eruption is
of Mannar is separated from the Palk Bay
the most explosive type of volcanic
by a chain of islands and coral reefs
Q.823. Which of the following hills is activity, occurring when a volcano's
known as Adam's Bridge or Ram Setu. It
situated in Andhra Pradesh?
df
magma chamber empties and the
is bound to the northeast by
SSC CHSL 10/8/2021(Afternoon) ground above collapses, forming a large,
Rameswaram (island), Adam’s (Rama’s)
_p
(a) Kaimur Hills (b) Pachmarhi Hills circular depression. Example:
Bridge (a chain of shoals), and Mannar
(c) Nagari Hills (d) Girnar Hills Yellowstone Caldera. Dykes: It is a
Island.
na
vertical or steeply inclined geological
Sol.823.(c) Nagari hills. Other hill
formation that occurs when magma cuts Q.831. Which of the following is the
stations in Andhra Pradesh include
ap
through rock layers and solidifies. Flood largest inhabited riverine island in the
Tirumala, Araku Valley, Horsley Hills,
basalt provinces: Flood basalt refers to world?
Lambasingi, Nallamala Hills.
:@
large, extensive lava flows that spread SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Q.824. In which of the following states is out over vast areas. Example: Deccan (a) Peacock (b) Majuli
the Shatrunjaya Hills located? Traps in India. (c) Bhavani (d) Lakshadweep
TG
SSC CHSL 10/8/2021(Evening)
Q.828. What is the name of the process Sol.831.(b) Majuli is a famous island in
(a) Gujarat (b) Andhra Pradesh
of gases being outpoured from the the River Brahmaputra, flowing in the
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka
on
interior of the solid earth ? state of Assam. It is the biggest district
Sol.824.(a) Gujarat. Other prominent hills Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1) island in the country and is quite close to
in Gujarat include– Bhujia Hill, Dhinodhar, (a) Evaporation (b) Transpiration Jorhat. The island is formed by the
ch
Girnar, Kalo Dungar, Pavagadh Hill, (c) Degassing (d) Gas evolution Brahmaputra River in the south and the
Thaltej-Jodhpur Tekra, Wilson Hills. Kherkutia Xuti, an anabranch of the
ar
Sol.828.(c) Degassing is the process by
Brahmaputra, joined by the Subansiri
Q.825. Which of the following mountains which gases are released from the
Se
River in the north.
is situated near the Siachen region of interior of the solid Earth, typically
Ladakh in India? through volcanic activity or other Q.832. A long, winding ridge of stratified
SSC CHSL 20/10/2020(Afternoon) geological processes. This includes sand and gravel is known as:
(a) Kirat Chuli Mountain gases such as water vapor, carbon SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
(b) Kabru Mountain dioxide, sulfur dioxide, and others that (a) Moraine (b) esker
(c) Kanchenjunga Mountain are expelled from magma or other (c) Aquifer (d) Erratic
(d) K12 Mountain subsurface materials.
Sol.832.(b) Esker. An esker is formed by
Sol.825.(d) K12 Mountain. Kirat Chuli Q.829. Which of the following meltwater flowing beneath a retreating
Mountain or Tent Peak is a mountain in statements is best related to the 'pacific glacier or ice sheet during the last Ice
the Himalayas. Kabru is a mountain in ring of fire'? Age. This debris was deposited through
the Himalayas on the border of eastern SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (2nd Shift) tunnels and channels under the ice,
Nepal and India. Kanchenjunga is part of (a) Known for thermal power station leaving behind a hill or mound once the
the Great Himalaya Range. K12 is the (b) Known for volcano and earthquakes ice melted. Eskers are commonly found
second highest peak in the Saltoro (c) Known for only glacial formations in regions that were once glaciated, such
Mountains, a subrange of the Karakoram (d) Known for tropical rainforests as Canada, Northern Europe, and parts of
range in the Siachen region, in Ladakh. the United States.
Sol.829.(b) The 'ring of fire' is a ring of
Q.826. Borra Caves are situated on the volcanoes in the Pacific Ocean. Q.833. How much percentage of Earth's
East Coast of India in which of the water make up the oceans?
following hills? SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
SSC CGL 03/3/2020(Afternoon) (a) 57% (b) 7% (c) 37% (d) 97%
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Sol.833.(d) 97%. Water covers 71 Sea (Indian Ocean) and the South China America (Largest Coal Reserves).
percent of Earth's surface. Distribution of Sea (Pacific Ocean). Largest coal producer (1st China, 2nd
Earth’s water: Oceans (97.2%), Glaciers India). Jharia Coal Field (Jharkhand)
(2.1%), Groundwater (0.61 percent); Q.837. Mid-latitude deserts (BWK) are produces the highest coal in India.
Freshwater lakes (0.009 percent), Inland found between 35° and _________N and S, Central Institute of Mining and Fuel
seas (0.008 percent), Soil Moisture which are poleward of subtropical high- Research (2007) - Dhanbad. Largest
(0.005 percent), Atmosphere (0.001 pressure areas. Producer: Bauxite (Australia), Gold
percent), Rivers (0.0001 percent). SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift) (China), Diamond (Russia), Silver
(a) 70° (b) 60° (c) 79° (d) 40° (Mexico), Chromium (South Africa),
Q.834. Which of the following are some Copper (Chile), Uranium (Kazakhstan),
regions in the world, known for their Sol.837.(b) 60°. Mid-latitude deserts -
An excessively dry region with an arid Thorium (India).
thriving citrus fruit production?
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 climate. Location - Found in the interior Q.841. "Eskimos" are associated with
(a) Africa (b) Equatorial regions parts of the continents. Examples - which geographical region?
(c) Caribbean (d) Mediterranean regions Argentina's Patagonian Desert SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning)
(Argentina), Gobi Desert (China and (a) Arid Region
Sol.834.(d) Mediterranean regions - Mongolia), Turkestan (Kazakhstan), (b) Polar Region
These are known as ‘Orchards of the Ladakh (Jammu and Kashmir). Crops - (c) Savanna Grassland
world’. Plants grow in Mediterranean Cacti, Prickly Shrubs, Long-rooted wiry (d) Tropical Rainforest Region
regions - Citrus fruits like lemons, orange grasses.
and grapefruit, Rosemary, Olive. Sol.841.(b) Polar Region (the area
Mediterranean woodlands are found in Q.838. According to the World Bank, around the Earth’s North Pole or the
the Mediterranean Sea region, Central what was the density of the population of South Pole). Igloo (small hut-like house
df
Chile, the Southwest United States, Sri Lanka in 2020? made of snow where Eskimos live). Arid
SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 4th shift)
_p
Australia, and Africa. regions are dry and have little rainfall.
(a) 554 Persons per sq . km. Example - Central and western Asia,
Q.835. Copacabana beach is situated in (b) 300 Persons per sq . km.
na
North and South America, central and
__________. (c) 354 Persons per sq . km. northwest Australia.
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) (d) 364 Persons per sq . km.
ap
(a) Australia (b) Brazil Q.842. Which sea separates Africa from
(c) Peru (d) Mexico Sol.838.(c) 354 Persons per sq . km. the Arabian peninsula ?
:@
Other Countries' population density SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening)
Sol.835.(b) Brazil. Copacabana beach: It (Food and Agriculture Organization and (a) Red Sea (b) Black Sea
is located in the South Zone of the city of World Bank population estimates in (c) White Sea (d) Caspian Sea
TG
Rio de Janeiro. Some famous Beaches in 2020) in square Km:- India (470), China
the world: Praia do Cassino (“Cassino (150), Myanmar (82), Nepal (205), Sol.842.(a) Red Sea. It extends
beach”) is the longest beach in the world, Bangladesh (1286), New Zealand (19). southeast from Suez, Egypt (initially as
on
located in Brazil. Monolithi beach, Greece the Gulf of Suez), for about 1,200 mi
(longest beach of Europe), Marina beach, Q.839. Which of the following (1,930 km) to the Strait of Mandeb, which
combinations of "animal" and "area they
ch
Chennai (longest beach in Asia). connects with the Gulf of Aden and then
Beaches in India - Puri Beach (Odisha), found" is INCORRECT ? with the Arabian Sea. The Black Sea
SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 4th shift)
ar
Rushikonda Beach (Andhra Pradesh), separates Europe from Asia. White Sea -
Eden Beach (Puducherry), Radhanagar (a) Kangaroo - Australia A southern inlet of the Barents Sea
Se
beach (Andaman and Nicobar), Minicoy (b) Orangutan - Caribbean islands located on the northwest coast of
Thundi beach (Lakshadweep). (c) Ostrich - Savanna and desert regions, Russia. The Caspian Sea - The world's
(d) Lemurs - Madagascar largest inland water body.
Q.836. What is the name of the
geographic feature that serves as a Sol.839.(b) Orangutans - Caribbean Q.843. Which is the highest plateau in
boundary between Europe and Africa ? islands. Scientific name (Pongo), Family the world ?
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (Hominidae). These are large, SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(a) Bosporus Strait (b) Strait of Gibraltar orange-haired apes that are native to the (a) East African Plateau
(c) Dardanelles Strait (d) Malacca Strait rainforests of Borneo and Sumatra. (b) Deccan plateau
Kangaroos: Scientific name (c) Western plateau
Sol.836.(b) Strait of Gibraltar separates (Macropodidae), Phylum (Chordata). (d) Tibet plateau
Morocco and Spain. It joins the Ostriches: Phylum (Chordata), found in
Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic savanna and desert regions. Lemurs: Sol.843.(d) Tibet plateau (Roof of the
Ocean. Bosporus Strait (the narrowest Scientific name (Lemuroidea), Phylum world) is the largest and highest plateau
strait of the world)- It is a natural strait (Chordata), found in Madagascar. in the world. It is a vast elevated plateau
connecting the Black Sea to the Sea of located at the intersection of Central,
Marmara. Dardanelles strait (separates Q.840. As of 2020, which country has the South and East Asia.
Asian Turkey from European Turkey) - It largest proven coal reserves in the
world? Q.844. In ‘Andes Mountain’ of South
connects the Aegean Sea with the Sea of
SSC CHSL Tier II (26/06/2023) America animals which are used for
Marmara. Malacca Strait (Separates
(a) India (b) China (c) USA (d) Russia transportation is ______ .
Malay Peninsula and Indonesian Island
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
of Sumatra) - Connects the Andaman Sol.840.(c) The United States of (a) Bullocks (b) Camels
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(c) Donkeys (d) Llamas Miscellaneous nine tiger reserves. International Tiger
Day is celebrated annually on July 29.
Sol.844.(d) Llamas {Scientific name: The Wildlife Protection Act was passed
Q.849. A section of an active fault that
Lama glama, Trophic level: Herbivorous}. in 1972. Projects in India related to
has produced earthquakes in the past
Longest Mountain Ranges: Andes (South animals :Project Hangul (1970), Project
but is now quiet and is believed that the
America, longest continental mountain}, Crocodile (1975), Project Elephant
fault segment is capable of producing
Rockies (North America), Great Dividing (1992), Project Rhino (2005), Project
earthquake on some other basis is
Range (Australia), Transantarctic Gangetic Dolphin - (2009), Project Snow
known as:
Mountains (Antarctica), Atlas Mountains Leopard (2009), Project Great Indian
SSC MTS 14/10/2024 (1st Shift)
(Africa) etc. Bustard (2012).
(a) Hypocenter (b) Seismic Gap
Q.845. Death Valley is a desert valley in (c) Epicenter (d) Seismic Wave
Q.852. Which of the following can be
the ________ that is the hottest and driest
Sol.849.(b) Seismic Gap - A section of an represented as a functional unit of
place with a world record highest air
active fault which has the potential to nature?
temperature of 134°F.
produce significant earthquakes. SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Afternoon)
Hypocenter: The point of origin of an (a) Vehicles (b) Ecosystem
(a) Mojave Desert of California
earthquake beneath the Earth's surface (c) Humans (d) Plants
(b) Atacama Desert of Chile
where the fault rupture begins,
(c) Lut Desert of Iran Sol.852.(b) Ecosystem. This is because
representing the actual location where
(d) Sahara Desert of Africa an ecosystem encompasses all living
seismic energy is first released.
organisms (plants, animals, and
Sol.845.(a) Mojave Desert of California. Epicenter: The point on the Earth's
microorganisms) interacting with each
Death Valley is a desert valley in the surface directly above the hypocenter,
other and with the non-living
df
northern Mojave Desert, bordering the marking the geographical location where
components (like air, water, and soil)
Great Basin Desert. Rivers: Furnace an earthquake's shaking is typically most
_p
within their environment. These
Creek; Amargosa River. intense and first felt. Seismic Wave: The
interactions allow for energy flow,
energy waves generated and propagated
na
Q.846. Which country has the most time nutrient cycling, and the maintenance of
through the Earth's crust during an
zones in the world? life-supporting processes, which are
earthquake, which can be classified into
ap
SSC MTS 13/10/2021(Evening) critical functions of nature.
different types like P-waves, S-waves,
(a) France (b) United States of America and surface waves that cause ground Q.853. Which of the following is a
:@
(c) Russia (d) United Kingdom motion. man-made ecosystem?
Sol.846.(a) France (12). Russia has 11 SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Q.850. The earthquakes that are
(a) Aquarium (b) Dessert
TG
time zones, the United Kingdom has 1 generated due to the explosion of
time zone and India has only one-time (c) Forest (d) Grassland
chemical or nuclear devices are known
zone. as: Sol.853.(a) Aquarium. It is a facility or
on
SSC MTS 11/11/2024 (2nd Shift) park where a collection of aquatic
Q.847. A major portion of 'Sufed Koh'
(a) Collapse earthquakes animals and plants is maintained for
mountain range lies in ______.
(b) Explosion earthquakes
ch
SSC CHSL 09/8/2021(Morning) study, conservation, and public display. A
(c) Tectonic earthquakes man-made ecosystem, also known as an
(a) Pakistan (b) China
(d) Reservoir-induced earthquakes
ar
(c) India (d) Myanmar artificial or anthropogenic ecosystem,
refers to a human-created environment
Sol.850.(b) Explosion earthquakes.
Se
Sol.847.(a) Pakistan. Safed Koh is a where biotic and abiotic components
Types of Earthquakes: In regions with
mountain range on the Pakistan interact to sustain life. Examples of
heavy mining activity, the collapse of
-Afghanistan border. It parallels the Kabul man-made ecosystems include tree
underground mine roofs can cause minor
River. A spur of the range is crossed by plantations, urban landscapes, crop
tremors, known as collapse earthquakes.
the Khyber Pass. fields, managed ponds, zoos, and
The most common type is tectonic
gardens.
Q.848. A mass of snow and ice that earthquakes, which result from the
moves slowly under the influence of movement of rocks along a fault plane. A Q.854. Which of the following are the
gravity along a confined course away subcategory of tectonic earthquakes, two basic categories of an ecosystem?
from its place of accumulation is called a known as volcanic earthquakes, occur in SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
______. areas with active volcanoes. Additionally, (a) Forest and Aquatic
SSC CHSL 09/8/2021(Evening) reservoir-induced earthquakes are (b) Terrestrial and Aquatic
(a) lagoon (b) glacier triggered in regions where large (c) Lakes and Ponds
(c) block mountain (d) plateau reservoirs are present. (d) Forest and Rivers
Sol.848.(b) Glacier is a slowly moving Q.851. In which year was Project Tiger
Sol.854.(b) Terrestrial and Aquatic. An
mass or river of ice formed by the launched in India?
ecosystem is a chain of interactions
accumulation and compaction of snow SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
between organisms and their
on mountains or near the poles. A (a) 1985 (b) 1973 (c) 1972 (d) 1970
environment. The term "ecosystem" was
plateau is a flat area of land that is first coined by English botanist A.G.
Sol.851.(b) On April 1, 1973, Project
elevated above sea level. Tansley in 1935. A terrestrial ecosystem
Tiger was officially launched at the
Corbett Tiger Reserve, initially including refers to a land-based community of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
organisms and the interactions between (c) Supreme Court for his recapitulation theory, stating that
biotic and abiotic components in a (d) local municipalities an organism's development mirrors its
specific area. An aquatic ecosystem species' evolutionary history.
involves interacting organisms that rely Sol.858.(b) Central Government. The
on each other and their water Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was Q.862. Which of the following is the
environment for nutrients and shelter. enacted to safeguard and enhance the characteristics of epilimnion?
environment. The Central Government SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Q.855. Which branch of ecology deals has the authority to: protect and improve (a) Middle layer of a pond
with the characteristics of the ancient the environment, set emission and (b) Bottom layer of a river
environment and their relationship with discharge standards, regulate industrial (c) Bottom layer of a lake
ancient plants and animals? locations, manage hazardous wastes, (d) Top-most layer in a thermally
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) and protect public health and welfare. stratified lake
(a) Demecology (b) Ichthyology Some key environmental acts include the
(c) Paleoecology (d) Mycology Biological Diversity Act (2002), Wild Life Sol.862.(d) Thermal stratification occurs
(Protection) Act (1972), Forest when the water in a lake forms distinct
Sol.855.(c) Paleoecology studies past Conservation Act (1980), Indian Forest layers through heating from the sun. It
ecosystems and their changes over time Act (1927), and Energy Conservation Act led to the separation of the lake into
using fossils and geological data. Other (2001). three layers. Epilimnion: The upper layer
branches: Demecology (ecology of of warmer water. Metalimnion: The
populations), Ichthyology (study of Q.859. Who introduced the concept of middle layer with a zone of gradual
fishes), and Mycology (study of fungi). virtual water? decrease in temperature. Hypolimnion:
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift) The bottom layer of colder water.
Q.856. Which of the following is the best (a) MS Swaminathan
df
definition of ecological efficiency? (b) Glubler Triplets Q.863. The depositional pattern of
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) CaCO3 and other materials that extend
_p
(c) John Anthony Allan
(a) The amount of energy utilised at (d) Norman Borlaug upwards from the floor of a limestone
different trophic levels in a food chain cavern is known as:
(b) The amount of energy stored at
different trophic levels in a food chain na
Sol.859.(c) John Anthony Allan. Virtual
water is the freshwater used to produce
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) Stalactite (b) Dripstone
ap
(c) The ratio between the mass and the goods or services, which is then traded (c) Stalagmite (d) Hatectite
energy flow at different trophic levels internationally as part of those products.
:@
in a food chain Sol.863.(c) Stalagmite. It rises up from
(d) The ratio between energy flows at Q.860. In which of the following regions the floor of the caves. Stalactite - It is an
different points in a food chain of India is the Mundari language spoken? icicle-shaped formation that hangs from
TG
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift) the ceiling of a cave and is produced by
Sol.856.(d) Ecological efficiency (a) Chota-Nagpur plateau the precipitation of minerals from water
describes the efficiency with which (b) Baghelkhand dripping through the cave ceiling. The
on
energy is transferred from one trophic (c) Thar desert stalagmites and stalactites eventually
level to the next. The number of trophic (d) Malwa plateau fuse to give rise to columns and pillars of
ch
levels in the grazing food chain is different diameters.
restricted as the transfer of energy Sol.860.(a) Chota-Nagpur plateau. This
plateau covers parts of Jharkhand, Q.864. Epilimnetic, metalimnetic, and
ar
follows 10 percent law - only 10 percent
of the energy is transferred to each Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and West Bengal. hypolimnetic water strata are example
Se
trophic level from the lower trophic level. Mundari is a Munda language, belonging of:
to the Austroasiatic language family. SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Q.857. The record obtained by the Chhota Nagpur plateau is called the (a) different layers of underground water
measurement of earthquake is called a: “Heart of industrial India” because it is (b) typical thermal stratification of a lake
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) rich in minerals and power fuels. The (c) typical layers of hard rock
(a) seismograph (b) seismogram highest mountain peak of Chota Nagpur (d) various ecological phases
(c) seismology (d) seismic wave Plateau is Parasnath.
Sol.864.(b) typical thermal stratification
Sol.857.(b) seismogram. Earthquakes Q.861. Which Greek term was first used of a lake. These layers are referred to as
are classified into three zones based on by Ernst Haeckel in 1866 to refer to ‘the Epilimnion (warm surface waters) -
depth: shallow (0-70 km), intermediate relation of animals to both the organic as Top-most layer in a thermally stratified
(70-300 km), and deep (300-700 km). well as the inorganic environment’? lake and Hypolimnion (cold bottom
The vibrations produced during an SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) waters) which are separated by the
earthquake are known as seismic waves. (a) Ethnologie (b) Ecophagie metalimnion, or thermocline layer, a
(c) Oekologie (d) Oologie stratum of rapidly changing temperature.
Q.858. The Environment (Protection)
Act, 1986 empowers the _________ to Sol.861.(c) Oekologie. Ernst Haeckel, a Q.865. In which of the following
establish authorities charged with the German biologist and philosopher, made schedules of the Wildlife (Protection)
mandate of preventing environmental significant contributions to evolutionary Act, 1972 is the most common wild cat
pollution in all its forms. biology. He coined terms like "ecology," in India 'Felis chaus' listed?
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) "phylogeny," and "Protista" and is known SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
(a) State Government (a) Schedule I (b) Schedule III
(b) Central Government (c) Schedule IV (d) Schedule II
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Sol.865.(d) Schedule II. Under this 0.68%, Lakes- 0.1%, Soil moisture- development, Crop rotation, Contour
schedule, the species receives 0.005% , Atmosphere- 0.001% , Streams ploughing, etc.
protection, and poaching or capturing it and river- 0.0001% , Biosphere- 0.00004%
without proper authorization is . India accounts for about 2.45% of the Q.872. The Vienna Convention is related
prohibited. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, world's surface area, 4% of the world's to ____________.
1972 is an Indian law enacted to protect water resources, and approximately 16% Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
plant and animal species. of the global population. a) protection of wild life
(b) protection of ozone layer
Q.866. What is a population (or Q.869. The highly viscous, (c) Disposing of harmful electronic waste
subspecies or race) that is adapted to mechanically-weak and ductile region of (d) sustainable agriculture
local environmental conditions called? Earth's upper mantle is called:
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Sol.872.(b) protection of ozone layer.
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) lithosphere (b) asthenosphere The Vienna Convention multilateral
(a) Niche (b) Ecotype
(c) mesosphere (d) exosphere environmental agreement was signed in
(c) Prototype (d) Biome
1985, came into effect in 1988, and
Sol.866.(b) Ecotype is a genetically Sol.869.(b) Asthenosphere. Lithosphere achieved universal ratification by 2009.
distinct group within a species adapted : The rigid outer layer of Earth, consisting The primary goal of the Vienna
to specific environmental conditions. An of the crust and the uppermost part of Convention is to safeguard human health
ecological niche describes how a the mantle. It is divided into tectonic and the environment from the harmful
species interacts within an ecosystem. A plates. Mesosphere : The mesosphere is effects caused by ozone layer depletion.
biome refers to a community of plants the third highest layer of atmosphere and
occupies the region above the Q.873. Select the correct statement.
and animals naturally occurring in a
stratosphere and below the Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
region with shared characteristics.
df
thermosphere. Exosphere : The (a) The pyramid of energy is always
Q.867. Identify whether the given upright.
_p
outermost layer of Earth's atmosphere,
statements about an earthquake are where air is extremely thin, and particles (b) The pyramid of biomass is always
correct or incorrect. inverted.
na
can escape into space.
Statement 1 : When the stress on the (c) The pyramid of mass is always
edge overcomes the friction, there is an Q.870. ____________ is the study of the upright.
ap
earthquake that releases energy in waves distribution and movement of water both (d) The pyramid of number is always
that travel through Earth's crust and on and below the Earth’s surface, as well upright.
:@
causes the shaking that we feel. as the impact of human activity on water
availability and conditions. Sol.873.(a) The pyramid of energy is
Statement 2 : An earthquake cannot be
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) always upright, and can never be
identified as a foreshock until after a
TG
(a) Biology (b) Hydrology inverted. According to the 10% law
larger earthquake in the same area
(c) Anthology (d) Ecology proposed by Raymond Lindeman of
occurs.
energy flow, only 10% of energy is
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
on
Sol.870.(b) Hydrology. Different transferred from one trophic level to
(a) Only Statement 1 is correct Branches and Their Studies: Bryology - another and 90% of the energy remains
(b) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct The Study of Bryophytes. Biology - The at the former trophic level for its needs
ch
(c) Only Statement 2 is correct study of living things and their vital like respiration and digestion processes.
(d) Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect processes. Floriculture - The Study of The direction of energy flow in an
ar
Sol.867.(b) Both Statements 1 and 2 are flowers and flowering plants. Ecology - ecosystem is always unidirectional.
Se
correct. When lithospheric plates move, The Study of inter-relationship between
living and their environment. Q.874. Select the correct statement
the Earth's surface vibrates, causing about climax community.
earthquakes. The point inside the crust Q.871. Which of the following is NOT Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
where movement begins is called the considered a method of conservation of (a) It is an ecological community in
focus, while the point directly above it on natural resources? which populations of plants or
the surface is the epicenter. Vibrations Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3) animals, which are very unstable and
spread outward from the epicenter, with (a) Extraction (b) Afforestation exist for very few time.
the strongest impact near this point, (c) Recycling (d) Terrace farming (b) It is a very first community of the
decreasing as they move away. ecosystem.
Sol.871.(a) Extraction refers to the
Q.868. Of the total water content (c) It consists of only plant population
process of removing natural resources
available globally, how much percentage that makes a new ecological system.
from the Earth, such as mining, drilling
of water is received from freshwater (d) It is an ecological community in which
for oil, or harvesting timber. Conservation
resources? populations of plants or animals remain
is the proper management of a natural
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) stable and exist in balance with each
resource to prevent its exploitation,
(a) 0.5% (b) 4.5% (c) 3.5% (d) 2.5% other and their environment.
destruction or degradation. Method of
Sol.868.(d) 2.5%. Although 71% of the conservation of Natural Resources : Sol.874.(d) A climax community is the
Earth's surface is covered by water, only Reforestation, Rainwater Harvesting, “endpoint” of succession within the
2.5% of it is freshwater. Out of total water Treatment of Industrial Effluents, In-Situ context of a particular climate and
resources on earth Ocean comprises conservation of Biodiversity, Ex-Situ geography. The climax community
97.25%, Ice caps- 2.05%, Groundwater- conservation of Biodiversity, Sustainable remains stable as long as the
environment remains unchanged.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
Q.875. Which concept was proposed by Q.879. The Karewa formations are found Sol.882.(b) David Tilman. Edward O.
Hutchinson in 1957 to express the in the __________ . Wilson - Father of biodiversity. Karl
relationship of an individual or population SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) Möbius - First to develop the concept of
to all aspects of its environment? (a) North Easter Hills ecological community, biocenosis, or
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) (b) Kashmir Himalayas living community.
(a) Ecological stratification (c) Uttaranchal Himalayas
(b) Ecological pyramid (d) Terai Region Q.883. Which hypothesis was proposed
(c) Ecological succession by Paul Ehrlich to suggest the
(d) Ecological niche Sol.879.(b) Kashmir Himalayas. The importance of species richness in the
Karewa term means “elevated table maintenance of ecosystems ?
Sol.875.(d) Ecological niche - A term for land”. Firstly, this term was used by SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (1st shift)
the position of a species within an Godwin Austin in 1859. “Vudr” is the local (a) Portfolio hypothesis
ecosystem. It refers to the name for it in Kashmiri language. Karewa (b) Redundancy hypothesis
Interrelationship of a species with all the formations are useful for the cultivation (c) Predation hypothesis
biotic and abiotic factors affecting it. of Zafran (Saffron), almond, walnut, (d) Rivet popper hypothesis
apple, and orchards in Kashmir valley.
Q.876. Which of the following companies Sol.883.(d) Rivet popper hypothesis.
had constructed Asia’s first cross - Q.880. Siachen in Himalayas is: The hypothesis suggests the importance
country pipeline as a mode of transport SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) of species richness in the maintenance
for liquids and gasses over long (a) a glacier (b) a dam of the ecosystem. Redundancy
distances ? (c) a national park (d) a lake hypothesis - It predicts that the species
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning) redundancy in a plant community
(a) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Sol.880.(a) A glacier. The Siachen enhances community stability. Predation
df
(b) Indian Oil Corporation Glacier is located in the Eastern hypothesis - It predicts that group-living
Karakoram range in the Himalayas. It is
_p
(c) Bharat Petroleum animals are adapted to make alarm calls
(d) Oil India Limited the world's highest battlefield. Nubra that distract or confuse predators.
river originates from Siachen Glacier. It is
Sol.876.(d) Oil India Limited. Naharkatia
(Assam)-Barauni (Bihar) Pipeline (First na
situated to the North of Nubra Valley. Q.884. Which states are involved in the
joint venture of the Chambal Project?
ap
cross-country pipeline). The Pipeline Q.881. ____________ is characterized by SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift)
between Naharkatia and Nunmati abundant dissolved oxygen, sunlight, (a) Rajasthan and Haryana
:@
became operative in 1962 and that nutrients, generally high wave energies (b) Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh
between Nunmati and Barauni in 1964. and water motion, and, in the intertidal (c) Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
subzone, alternating submergence and (d) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
TG
Q.877. The term physical geology was exposure.
coined by __________. SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.884.(d) Rajasthan and Madhya
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) (a) The Lentic Zone Pradesh. Chambal Project : Initiated in -
on
(a) William Hopkins (b) Georgius Agricola (b) The Limnetic Zone 1954. Aim - Harnessing the Chambal
(c) Louis Agassiz (d) Aziz Ab'Saber (c) The Littoral Zone River for irrigation, Power generation and
ch
(d) The Benthic Zone for prevention and control of soil erosion
Sol.877.(a) William Hopkins. Fathers of
in the valley.
Various Fields - Economics (Adam Sol.881.(c) The Littoral Zone - It is an
ar
Smith), Telephone (Alexander Graham area close to the shore and submerged in Q.885. In the context of ecology, the
Se
Bell), Modern Chemistry (Antoine water to some degree. Lentic Zone - given equation shows the relationship
Lavoisier), Classification/ Taxonomy Ecosystem entails a body of standing between the size of an area and the
(Carl Linnaeus), Evolution (Charles water, ranging from ditches, seeps, number of species present in it.
Darwin), Geography (Eratosthenes). ponds, seasonal pools, basin marshes Accordingly, by which letter is the
and lakes. Benthic Zone - The lowest regression coefficient denoted?
Q.878. Who was the first ecologist to
ecological zone in a water body. Limnetic log S = log C + Z log A
describe the specific shape of
zone - The top layer of lake water distant SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift)
eco-trophic interactions, which he called
from the coast, and extends only as deep (a) S (b) A (c) Z (d) C
the pyramid of numbers, in the 1920s ?
as sunlight can penetrate (200 m).
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) Sol.885.(c) Z. The species-area
(a) Ernst Haeckel Q.882. Which ecologist showed in a relationship is often evaluated in
(b) Howard Thomas Odum long-term experiment on outdoor plots conservation science in order to predict
(c) Edward O Wilson that biodiversity is of central importance extinction rates in the case of habitat
(d) Charles Elton to the productivity, stability, resistance to loss and habitat fragmentation. The
the invasion of ecosystems and fertility equation: log S = log C + Z log A, where S
Sol.878.(d) Charles Elton. He introduced
of their soils? = species richness, A = area, C =
the concept of food web, food chain and
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (2nd shift) Y-intercept.
ecological niche in the classic textbook
(a) Karl Mobius
“Animal Ecology” in 1927. Ernest Haeckel Q.886. In the 1930s, which of the
(b) David Tilman
- He coined the term ‘Ecology’ in 1866. following theories was propounded by
(c) Herbert Spencer
Edward O Wilson - Proponent of Arthur Holmes about the mantle ?
(d) Edward Osborne Wilson
Sociobiology. SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift)
(a) Theory of Faunal Succession
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
(b) Slab Pull Theory modern ecology). Alexander von Sol.894.(d) Dravidian (Dravida). Major
(c) Convectional Current Theory Humbolt - Father of ecology. Arthur G. Dravidian Languages - Tamil, Telugu,
(d) Theory of Faulting Tansley - First to coin the term Kannada and Malayalam. They are
ecosystem in 1935. Vladimir Vernadsky - mainly spoken in southern India, central
Sol.886.(c) Convectional current Theory. Founded the biosphere concept. India, north-east Sri Lanka.
The Convectional currents are generated
due to radioactive elements causing Q.891. Which of the following is the Q.895. The point on the surface, nearest
thermal differences in the mantle scientific discipline concerned with the to the focus of the earthquake, is called
portion. Arthur Holmes - The first earth description and classification of the _______.
scientist to grasp the mechanical and Earth's topographic features? SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Morning)
thermal implications of mantle SSC CHSL Tier-2 26/06/2023 (a) hypocentre (b) epicenter
convection, which led eventually to the (a) Geomorphology (b) Acarology (c) centripiece (d) semi centre
acceptance of plate tectonics. (c) Ethology (d) Meteorology
Sol.895.(b) Epicenter. Hypocenter - A
Q.887. Name a unit designed for wet and Sol.891.(a) Geomorphology is a term point beneath the Earth's surface where
dry bulb thermometers to protect that studies change in the earth’s surface the vibrations of an earthquake originate.
temperature sensors from being affected due to these exogenic and endogenic Richter scale is the most common
by direct or reflected sunlight. forces, where exogenic forces are the standard of measurement for
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift) external forces originating within the earthquakes. The Richter Magnitude - It
(a) Stevenson screen (b) Skywarn screen earth’s atmosphere and endogenic is a measure of the amount of energy
(c) Clarinet screen (d) Cardinal screen forces are internal forces generated from released during an earthquake and
within the earth. Acarology - Study of expressed by the Richter scale.
Sol.887.(a) Stevenson screen - It is also mites and ticks. It also involves the study
df
known as a cotton region shelter, an of the Acarina order - it means study of Q.896. Identify the southernmost range
instrument shelter, a thermometer of the Himalaya from the following.
_p
arachnids like spiders, scorpions,etc.
shelter, a thermoscreen, or a SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
thermometer screen. Skywarn screen - It Q.892. _______ species are those species (a) Shiwaliks Range
na
is a national network of volunteer severe of plants and animals which are found (b) Trans Himalaya Range
weather spotters. It was established to exclusively in a particular area. (c) Lesser Himalaya Range
ap
obtain critical weather information by the SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Morning) (d) Greater Himalaya Range
National Weather Service. (a) Endemic (b) Endangered
:@
(c) Threatened (d) Critically Endangered Sol.896.(a) Siwaliks Range. Himalayan
Q.888. Which state is also known as the Ranges: Himadri (Greater Himalayas or
'Molasses basin', which is made up of Sol.892.(a) Endemic. Example of Inner Himalayas), Himachal (Lesser
TG
soft unconsolidated deposits? Endemic Species - Kangaroos originally Himalayas), Shiwaliks (Outer Himalayas).
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) endemic to Australia and found nowhere Divisions (West to east) : Punjab
(a) Mizoram (b) Manipur else in the world. Endemic Species of Himalayas (between rivers Indus and
on
(c) Nagaland (d) Meghalaya India - Asiatic Lion (Gir Forest), Kashmir Sutlej), Kumaon Himalayas (Between
Stag (Kashmir Valley), Purple Frog Sutlej and Kali rivers), Nepal Himalayas
Sol.888.(a) Mizoram (The Land of rolling (Western Ghats), Sangai Deer (Loktak (between rivers Kali and Teesta), Assam
ch
mountains). Manipur is known as ‘The Lake), Nilgiri Tahr (Nilgiri Hills). Himalayas (between rivers Tista and
Jewel of land’ in India. Nagaland - The Dihang), Purvanchal (beyond the Dihang
ar
Q.893. In countries like Japan, _________
falcon capital of the world. Meghalaya - river).
birth rates make the population pyramid
Se
The Abode of Clouds.
_______ at the base. Q.897. The western Ghats and the
Q.889. In which year was an approach SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Morning) Eastern Ghats meet at which of the
and program named Joint Forest (a) Low, Broad (b) High, Broad following places in southern India?
Management (JFM) launched in the (c) Low, Narrow (d) High, Narrow SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift)
context of National Forest Policy? (a) Satpura Hills (b) Nallamala Hills
Sol.893.(c) Low, Narrow. A population
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift) (c) Nilgiri Hills (d) Mahendragiri Hills
pyramid is a way to visualize age and sex
(a) 1965 (b) 1988 (c) 1996 (d) 1947
of a specific population. Decreased
Sol.897.(c) Nilgiri Hills: Highest Peak -
Sol.889.(b) 1988. Joint Forest Death rates allow numbers of people to
Doda Betta. Located at the tri-junction of
Management is about involving local reach old age. A country in which birth
the states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil
communities in the management and and death rates are high, the pyramid is
Nadu. Named after the Neelakurinji
restoration of degraded forests. broad at the base and rapidly narrows
flowers (purplish-blue flowers) found in
towards the top (Kenya).
Q.890. Eugene Odum is well known for: Shola forests. Satpura Hills - The range
Graduate Level 30/06/2023 ( Shift - 1) Q.894. Which is the second largest begins in eastern Gujarat and runs east
(a) contribution in ecology family in modern Indian languages? through Maharashtra and Madhya
(b) contribution in animal hormonal SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening) Pradesh before ending in Chhattisgarh.
balance (a) Sino-Tibetan (Kirata) Nallamala Hills - Andhra Pradesh,
(c) contribution in plant stress regulation (b) Indo-European (Aryan) eastern ghats. Mahendragiri Hills is
(d) contribution in animal physiology (c) Austric (Nishada) located in the district of Gajapati, Odisha
(d) Dravidian (Dravida) (eastern ghats).
Sol.890.(a) Contribution in ecology.
Eugene Pleasants Odum (Father of Q.898. Which of the following earthquake
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Geography
waves are longitudinal waves? the theory of how tectonic plates could
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (2nd Shift) move, later called 'sea floor spreading'? Sol.906.(a) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(a) L waves (b) P waves SSC CGL Tier II 03/03/2023 (Amazon forest). They are categorized
(c) N waves (d) S Waves (a) George Edward Backus under the genus Eunectes (great
(b) Alfred Wegener swimmers) and family (Boidae). They
Sol.898.(b) P waves. They vibrate (c) Louis Bauer thrive very well in hot, humid places with
parallel to the direction of the wave. This (d) Harry Hammond Hess dense foliage. Tropical rainforests are
exerts pressure on the material in the found in South America, Africa, and
direction of the propagation. Earthquake Sol.902.(d) Harry Hammond Hess. Southeast Asia around the equator.
waves (Seismic waves) are vibrations in According to the theory of plate
tectonics, the earth’s lithosphere is Q.907. Which floating fern damages
the earth that transmit energy.
broken into distinct plates which are aquatic ecosystems by outgrowing and
Q.899. ___________species are the species floating on a ductile layer called replacing native plants that provide food
which are not found after searches of asthenosphere. and habitat for native animals and
known or likely areas where they may waterflow?
occur. Q.903. The national census does NOT Graduate Level 01/08/2022 ( Shift - 4 )
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (3rd Shift) recognise ________ groups within India. (a) Salvinia minima (b) Osmunda regalis
(a) Extinct (b) Endangered SSC CGL Tier II 06/03/2023 (c) Giant salvinia (d) Azolla pinnata
(c) Normal (d) Vulnerable (a) tribal (b) ethnic
(c) religious (d) scheduled caste Sol.907.(c) Giant salvinia (aquatic fern,
Sol.899.(a) Extinct. An endangered native to south-eastern Brazil, Scientific
species is a type of organism that is Sol.903.(b) Ethnic. Census is the process name - Salvinia molesta). Salvinia
threatened by extinction. Examples: of collecting, analyzing, and sharing minima (common salvinia or water
df
Black Rhino, Tiger, Whale, Red Panda, demographic, economic, and social data spangles), Osmunda regalis (Royal fern),
of all people in a country or specific Azolla pinnata (mosquito fern, feathered
_p
Chimpanzee, Asian Elephant etc.
region at a given time. mosquito fern and water velvet).
Q.900. Which of the following is a
na
vulnerable species? Q.904. Which of the following mountains Q.908. ___________ refers to a sanitation
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (2nd Shift) is formed as a result of the compression system in which toilets collect human
ap
(a) Himalayan brown bear of tectonic plates, leading to the excreta in sealable, removable
(b) Horn bill formation of large fold-like structures on cartridges that are transported to
:@
(c) Asiatic cheetah the Earth's crust? treatment facilities.
(d) Asiatic elephant SSC CHSL 25/05/2022(Evening) SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening)
(a) Ural mountain in Russia (a) Ecological sanitation
TG
Sol.900.(d) Asiatic elephant. A (b) Vosges mountain in Europe (b) Container-Based sanitation
vulnerable species is a species which (c) Mt.Kilimanjaro in Africa (c) Community-led total sanitation
has been categorized by the International (d) Harz mountains in Germany (d) Dry sanitation
on
Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
as being threatened with extinction. Sol.904.(a) Ural mountain in Russia. Sol.908.(b) Container Based Sanitation.
Fold Mountains - Himalayan Mountains Ecological sanitation is that protects
ch
Q.901. Which of the following pairs of in Asia, the Alps in Europe, the Andes in human and ecosystem health while
"term - definition" is correct? South America, the Rockies in North preventing water pollution, conserving
ar
I. Strait - a narrow strip of land joining America. energy, and capturing nutrients.
two landmasses
Se
II. Isthmus - a narrow passage of water Q.905. Which of the following mountains Q.909. Which of the following mountain
connecting two large water bodies were formed when molten rock from the ranges is home to the second highest
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (4th Shift) depths of the earth rose from the crust peak of the world, K2?
(a) Only II (b) Both I and II and piled up on its own? SSC MTS 02/11/2021(Afternoon)
(c) Neither I nor II (d) Only I SSC CHSL 31/05/2022(Evening) (a) Karakoram Range (b) Ladakh Range
(a) Mount Kilimanjaro in Africa (c) Pir Panjal Range (d) Zanskar Range
Sol.901.(c) Neither I nor II. Strait - (b) Rockies in North America
Narrow body of water that connects two (c) Ural mountain in Russia Sol.909.(a) Karakoram Ranges is known
larger bodies of water, Examples - Cook (d) Alps in Europe as the 'backbone of high Asia'. It is also
strait (New Zealand), Malacca strait known as Krishnagiri which is situated in
(Indonesia-Malaysia), Mesina strait Sol.905.(a) Mount Kilimanjaro in Africa the northernmost range of the
(Italy-Sicily), Bering strait (Alaska (Tanzania). Top mountains in Africa:- Trans-Himalayan ranges.
-Russia), Hormuz strait (Gulf of Mount Kenya, Mount Stanley, Mount
Persia-Gulf of Oman), etc. Isthmus - Speke, Mount Baker, Mount Emin.
Narrow strip of land that connects two
Q.906. 'Anaconda' , one of the world's
larger landmasses and separates two
largest snakes, is found in _______.
bodies of water, Examples - Isthmus of
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Panama, Isthmus of Suez.
(a) Tropical evergreen forest
Q.902. In 1962, who published 'The (b) Monsoon forest
History of Ocean Basins', which outlined (c) Temperate evergreen forest
(d) Temperate grasslands
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
government's goals and priorities for (c) Both service and agriculture sector
Economics industrial development, providing (d) Agriculture sector
guidelines for industrial licensing, foreign
Basics of Economy investment, technology transfer, and Sol.7.(d) Agriculture sector: As countries
other key aspects. develop, their economies shift from
Q.1. Cotton is used in making clothes. In agriculture to industry, and later, to
this example, cotton is which type of Q.4. When a person is NOT paying services, reducing agriculture's share in
good ? anything for public goods, this is known GDP while boosting industry and
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Afternoon) as ________. services. Agriculture has lower
(a) Giffen (b) Capital SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift) productivity growth, so technological
(c) Intermediate (d) Inferior (a) Non - excludable (b) Rivalrous advances lead to fewer workers needed
(c) Free rider (d) Private good for food production, allowing labor to
Sol.1.(c) Intermediate goods that are shift to higher-value jobs.
used to produce final goods and are sold Sol.4.(c) Free rider. In the context of
between industries. Examples: Wheat - public goods, a free rider is able to use or Q.8. In 2011–12, what percentage of
Used to make bread or biscuits. Steel - enjoy the benefits of the public good Indian workforce was engaged in
Used in making automobiles. The goods without contributing to its cost. This is secondary sector?
that increase consumption as the price possible because of the nature of public SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
increases are known as the Giffen goods. goods, which are typically (a) 30.0% (b) 60.4% (c) 24.3% (d) 15.8%
Capital goods refer to assets like non-excludable. Example: Using public
parks without paying for them. Sol.8.(c) 24.3%.Trends in Employment
machinery or equipment used to produce Pattern (Sector-wise) in 2011–12 :
other goods and services. Inferior goods Q.5. Which of the following is/are an Primary sector (48.9%), Secondary sector
df
are products that see reduced demand example of public goods? (24.3%), and Service sector (26.8%).
as income rises. a) Defense b) House Status-wise : Self-employed (52%),
_p
Q.2. Which of the following statements is SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) Regular Salaried Employees (18%), and
(a) Both a and b (b) Only b Casual Wage Labourers (30%).
na
correct about the composition of the
agriculture sector and employment in (c) Neither a nor b (d) Only a
Q.9. Industries of strategic and national
ap
GDP post- independence ? Sol.5.(d) Only a. Public goods are those importance are usually placed in the ___
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift) that are non-excludable (difficult or sector.
:@
(a) The proportion of employment has impossible to restrict people from using Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
declined significantly but not the them) and non-rivalrous (can be (a) Public (b) Co-operative
share of the agriculture sector in GDP. consumed by many people without (c) Private (d) Joint
TG
(b) The proportion of both the agriculture reducing the supply of the good). For
sector and employment in GDP has example: National Defence, Public Sol.9.(a) Public. Industries of strategic
increased significantly. transportation, Roads, and rivers. Private and national importance—such as
on
(c) The proportion of both the agriculture Goods: Excludable and rivalrous. For defence, railways, nuclear power, and
sector and employment in GDP has example : Ice cream, Houses, Cars etc . large-scale infrastructure—are typically
declined significantly. placed in the public sector for the
ch
(d) The proportion of GDP contributed by Q.6. Which sector promotes following reasons: National Security,
the agricultural sector declined modernisation and stable employment in Public Welfare and Economic Stability,
ar
significantly but not the employment the economy ? Long-Term Investment and Regulatory
Se
depending on the agriculture sector. SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) Control, etc,.
(a) Service sector (b) Agriculture sector
Sol.2.(d) In India, agriculture's (c) Energy sector (d) Industrial sector Q.10. Which of the following is NOT a
contribution in GDP dropped from 47.6% part of the infrastructure sector ?
in 1960-61 to 14.4% in 2010-11, due to Sol.6.(d) Industrial sector. The industrial SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
structural changes and increased sector is directly associated with the (a) Agriculture (b) Dams
employment in other sectors. But still adoption of new technologies, (c) Highways (d) Power
according to the Periodic Labour Force mechanization, and innovations in
Survey (PLFS) about 45.76% of the total production processes. The industrial Sol.10.(a) Agriculture : It falls under the
workforce is engaged in agriculture and sector tends to offer more stable, primary sector of the economy.
allied sector during 2022-23. long-term employment opportunities, Infrastructure is defined as the basic
more predictable work and regular physical systems of a business, region,
Q.3. Which of the following documents income compared to sectors like or nation and often involves the
provides a framework, rules and agriculture, which is often seasonal and production of public goods or production
regulations for setting up public and highly dependent on factors such as processes. Examples - Transportation
private industries in India? weather and harvest cycles. systems, Communication networks,
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sewage, Water, and School systems etc.
(a) Industrial policy Q.7. At higher levels of development,
(b) Annual report of the trade union which sector of the economy contributes Q.11. The shares of the public sector and
(c) Company’s financial statement less to the GDP ? the private sector in the production of
(d) Union Budget SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) steel during 1990-91 were ________ ,
(a) Industrial sector respectively.
Sol.3.(a) Industrial policy. It outlines the (b) Service sector SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
(a) 40% and 60% (b) 46% and 54% characteristic of durable goods? leading to tax evasion and unrecorded
(c) 49% and 51% (d) 55% and 45% SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift) transactions. This typically includes
(a) They are capable of repetitive use. income that is underreported or not
Sol.11.(b) 46% and 54%. During the (b) They are not extinguished by declared at all, and is often associated
1950-60 and 1960-70, the average annual immediate consumption. with illegal or semi-legal activities.
growth rate of steel production exceeded (c) They are meant for repetitive
8%. During 1970-80, the growth rate in purchases. Q.18. Which of the following statements
steel production came down to 5.7% per (d) They have a relatively long life. is/are FALSE with respect to simple
annum and increased to 6.65% per model of the circular flow of economy ?
annum during 1990-2000. During Sol.15.(c) Durable goods (Consumer i. The aggregate consumption is more
2000-01, the shares of the public sector durables) : Those products that are used than the aggregate expenditure.
and the private sector in the production repeatedly over a period of time. The life ii. There is government intervention.
of steel was 32% and 68% respectively. of these products is high and the price iii. There are no trade activities with the
paid to possess these products are also rest of the world.
Q.12. During the year 1991-92, the high. Example - Refrigerators, air SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (3rd shift)
industrial production recorded a conditioners, tools, computers, (a) Only i and iii (b) Only i
______growth of ______. televisions, jewellery, home and office (c) Only iii (d) Only ii and iii
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) furnishings. Non - Durable goods : These
(a) negative; 1.1 Percent goods have a shelf life of less than three Sol.18.(b) Only i. In a simple model of
(b) positive; 1.1 Percent years and many can be recycled. the circular flow, aggregate consumption
(c) negative; 0.9 Percent Example - Milk, vegetables, meat, fruit, is equal to aggregate expenditure. All the
(d) positive; 0.6 Percent paperboard, magazines. income earned by households is spent
on goods and services produced by
df
Sol.12.(d) positive; 0.6 Percent. In Q.16. Which of these is a component of firms, so there is no discrepancy
1991-92, India's industrial production
_p
the tertiary sector of an economy? between consumption and expenditure.
barely grew, achieving a rate of only SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift) Circular Flow in a Two-sector Economy
0.6%. The mining and manufacturing
na
(a) Mining and quarrying (with Financial Market) - Households and
sectors performed poorly, which slowed (b) Water supply Firms. Three-sector Economy - Between
down overall industrial growth. This low
ap
(c) Electricity Households and Government, Between
growth rate highlighted the economic (d) Hotels and restaurants Firms and Government. Four-sector
challenges the country was facing during
:@
Economy - Households, Firms,
that time. Sol.16.(d) Hotels and restaurants. Government, Foreign Sector.
Sectors of Indian Economy: The primary
Q.13. Which of these is not the reason sector depends on natural resources like Q.19. In which industrial policy was the
TG
why ‘final’ goods are called so? minerals, land, and water to carry out investment limit for a tiny industry/unit
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift) essential activities like agriculture, increased to ₹2 lakh ?
(a) They are meant for final use. mining, and forestry. Secondary sector - SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
on
(b) They are the last to be consumed. The sector of the economy that revolves (a) 1977 (b) 1991 (c) 1980 (d) 1956
(c) They will not pass through any more around manufacturing. Examples -
Sol.19.(c) 1980. Industrial Policy 1980 :
ch
stages of production. Construction, fabrication, assembly,
(d) They are not processed or This Policy focused on the promotion of
distillation, and purification. Tertiary
economic federation and restoration of
ar
transformed further. Sector (service sector) - It is responsible
the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade
for providing services to both the primary
Se
Sol.13.(b) Final Goods - An item that is Practices (MRTP) Act. Some other
meant for final use and will not pass and secondary sector. Examples - Trade,
Industrial policies (IPs) : IP, 1948 - It
through any more stages of production transport, communication, banking,
ushered a mixed economic model in the
or transformations. Types of final goods : education, health, tourism, insurance, etc.
country. IP, 1991 - Foreign Direct
consumption goods and capital goods. Q.17. Which of the following can be investment allowed, Amendment of the
Examples : Television, Ready-to-eat considered a part of a parallel economy? Monopolies and Restrictive Trade
foods, Medicines. SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift) Practices (MRTP) Act. The main goals of
(a) Under declared income. the New Industrial Policy (1991) were: L -
Q.14. What was the percentage of
(b) Value of domestic work done by the Liberalisation, P - Privatisation, G -
women working in the primary sector of
housewife. Globalisation.
India as of 2011 - 2012 ?
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift) (c) Payments made to domestic helpers
Q.20. How many industries were listed in
(a) 61% (b) 63.08% (c) 64.5% (d) 62.8% or housekeepers.
Schedule A of Industrial Policy, 1956 ?
(d) Payments for private tuition.
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (1st shift)
Sol.14.(d) 62.8%. Distribution of Women
Sol.17.(a) Under declared Income. Under (a) 16 (b) 17 (c) 10 (d) 12
Workforce by Industry, in 2011-2012 :
Primary Sector (68.2%), Secondary declared Income : It refers to income that Sol.20.(b) 17. The 1956 policy divided
Sector (20%), and Tertiary Sector is partially hidden or underreported to the industries into 3 categories based on
(17.2%). Men Workforce : Primary Sector evade taxes. A parallel economy (also management. Schedule A Industries: It
(43.6%), Secondary Sector (25.9%), and known as the black economy or shadow consisted of 17 industrial areas which
Tertiary Sector (30.5%). economy) refers to economic activities were under the Central Government.
that are not fully reported to the Schedule B Industries : It consisted of 12
Q.15. Which of these is NOT a government or the tax authorities, industries that were left to the state
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
government to follow up with the private into two categories - Primary Market trade are essential services and
sector that includes compulsory (New company shares issued (IPO) and functions that assist the business which
licensing provisions. Schedule C Secondary Market (Stock Exchange)). include transport, banking, warehousing,
Industries: It consisted of those The secondary market is the market for insurance, advertising etc. Five distinct
industries which were left out of the sale and purchase of previously examples of economic activities are
Schedule A and B and were with the issued securities. producing, supplying, buying, selling, and
private sectors and subject to licensing the consumption of goods and services.
and regulation under the IDR Act. Q.24. Macroeconomics deals with which
of the following studies? Q.28. In the Industrial Policy Resolution
Q.21. Which of the following can be I. Reasons behind the unemployment of of 1948, which of the following was NOT
considered as an example of flow resources the monopoly of the Central
variable? ll. Determination of total output Government?
(i) Production of rice (ii) Import of cloth SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (3rd Shift) SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (4th Shift)
(iii) Change in capital (a) Only l (b) Only ll (a) Iron and Steel
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (1st shift) (c) Neither I nor II (d) Both l and Il (b) Atomic energy
(a) None of (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) Railway
(b) Only (iii) Sol.24.(d) Both I and II. (d) Arms and ammunition
(c) All of (i), (ii) and (iii) Macroeconomics looks at the economy
(d) Only (i) and (ii) as a whole and studies aggregate Sol.28.(a) Iron and Steel. Industrial
phenomena such as overall economic Policy Resolution (1948) declared the
Sol.21.(c) All of (i), (ii) and (iii). Flow output (e.g. GDP), unemployment rates, Indian economy as a Mixed Economy.
variable - A quantified variable that is inflation, and national income. Four categories: The exclusive monopoly
measured over a specified period of of central government (arms and
df
time. It is time bounded and expressed Q.25. A free - market economy is a ammunitions, production of atomic
crucial aspect of _______ .
_p
as per unit of time. Examples - Income, energy, and management of railways);
expenditure, depreciation, production, SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (2nd Shift) New undertakings were undertaken only
(a) Socialism (b) Capitalism
na
consumption, exports, rent, profit, by the state (coal, iron and steel, aircraft
interest. Stock variable - A quantity which (c) Feudalism (d) Functionalist manufacturing, shipbuilding, telegraph,
ap
is measurable at a particular point of Sol.25.(b) Capitalism is an economic telephone, etc.); Industries to be
time. Examples - Capital, wealth, foreign system where the means of production regulated by the government (Industries
:@
debts, loan. are privately owned and organized to of basic importance); Open to private
make profits. In a capitalist economy, the enterprises, individuals, and cooperatives
Q.22. In migration the factors which (remaining).
cause people to leave their place of government has a limited role, and the
TG
residence or origin are called ________. free market determines the supply, Q.29. What is the emigration of a
SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Evening) demand, and prices of products. significant proportion of a country’s
(a) Pull factors (b) Regular factors highly skilled, highly educated
on
Q.26. Name the two states in which land
(c) Push factors (d) Irregular factors reform was successful ? professional population to other
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift) countries offering better economic and
ch
Sol.22.(c) Push factors. These are the social opportunities called ?
(a) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
factors that drive people away from their SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon)
(b) West Bengal and Kerala
ar
place of origin, such as war, political (a) Carrying capacity
(c) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
instability, or economic hardship. Pull (b) Brain drain
Se
(d) Karnataka and West Bengal
factors are the factors that attract people (c) Demographic transition
to a new place, such as better economic Sol.26.(b) West Bengal and Kerala. The (d) Closed population
opportunities, better education, or a more Kumarappan committee (1949) was
favourable climate. appointed to study and recommend Sol.29.(b) Brain Drain is the movement
comprehensive land reform measures for of highly skilled and educated people to
Q.23. Which among the following a country where they can work in better
independent India. Land reforms refer to
statements is incorrect ? conditions and earn more money.
change in the ownership of landholdings
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift)
through abolishment of intermediaries
(a) Industrial Securities Market is also Q.30. Which of the following statements
and to make the tillers the owners of
known as the gilt-edged market. is related to positive economics ?
land. Land Reforms consisted of four
(b) The secondary market is the market SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening)
elements : The Abolition of the
for the sale and purchase of (a) Inflation is better than deflation.
Intermediaries, Tenancy Reforms, Fixing
previously issued securities. (b) Inequalities in the distribution of
Ceilings on Landholdings and
(c) RBI plays a dominant role in the wealth and incomes should be
Consolidation of Landholdings.
gilt-edged market through its 'Open reduced.
Market Operations'. Q.27. Aid or auxiliary to trade includes (c) More production of luxury goods is
(d) The primary market is also known as which of the following? not good for a less developed
the new issue market SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) country.
(a) Production (b) Selling (d) An increase in money supply implies
Sol.23.(a) Gilt-edged market is known as (c) Buying (d) Warehousing a price rise in an economy.
the government securities market. The
Industrial Securities Market is divided Sol.27.(d) Warehousing. Auxiliaries to Sol.30.(d) An increase in money supply
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
implies a price rise in an economy : This concepts of wages, rent, interest and (a) Soft pegged exchange rate
is a positive statement, as it is an profit are studied under Microeconomics. (b) Floating exchange rate
objective observation about the (c) Hard pegged exchange rate
relationship between money supply and Concepts of Demand and Supply (d) Fixed exchange rate
prices. It can be tested and validated
using economic data. Sol.38.(b) Floating exchange rate : The
Q.34. What is the relationship between
market in which national currencies are
interest rate and demand for money?
Q.31. People like small farmers and traded for one another is known as the
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
seasonal workers who regularly move in foreign exchange market (Forex). It can
(a) No relationship exists (b) Inverse
and out of poverty are categorised as be determined through many ways.
(c) Direct (d) Proportionate
________ . Flexible / Floating Exchange Rate :
SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Evening) Sol.34.(b) Inverse. Interest rate and Determined by the market forces of
(a) occasionally poor (b) churning poor demand for money have an inverse demand and supply. Fixed Exchange
(c) always poor (d) usually poor relationship, meaning that demand for Rate : Government fixes the exchange
money decreases as interest rates rate at a particular level. Managed / Dirty
Sol.31.(b) Churning poor. Churning poor : Floating Exchange Rate : It is a mixture of
increase, and increases as interest rates
Their poverty status changes depending a flexible and a fixed rate system.
decrease.
on external circumstances such as
harvest seasons or job availability. Q.35. Money supply is a _____ concept. Q.39. What happens in case of market
Occasionally poor : People fall into SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) equilibrium :
poverty rarely or due to specific, (a) stock (b) measurable (A) Market demand = market supply
temporary reasons (e.g., a sudden illness (c) non-measurable (d) flow (B) There is no excess supply in the
or economic downturn). Always poor : market
df
People live in chronic poverty and remain Sol.35.(a) stock. The total stock of SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift)
_p
poor regardless of external conditions. money in circulation among the public at (a) Neither (A) nor (B) (b) Only (B)
Usually poor : People who are poor most a particular point of time is called money (c) Only (A) (d) Both (a) and (b)
na
of the time but may occasionally rise supply. RBI publishes figures for four
above the poverty line. alternative measures of money supply : Sol.39.(d) Both (A) and (B). Market
equilibrium is a market state where the
ap
M1, M2, M3 and M4.
Q.32. 'Income and employment theory' is supply in the market is equal to the
the other name for which branch of Q.36. As compared to monopolistic demand in the market. The equilibrium
:@
Economics? competition, the demand curve in a price is the price of a good or service
SSC CHSL 16/10/2020 (Afternoon) monopoly is : when the supply of it is equal to the
(a) International economics SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) demand for it in the market.
TG
(b) Public finance (a) more elastic (b) equally elastic
(c) Microeconomics (c) infinitely elastic (d) less elastic Q.40. Competitive behaviour and
(d) Macroeconomics competitive market structure are _____
on
Sol.36.(d) less elastic. In a monopoly, related.
Sol.32.(d) Macroeconomics, as a there is only one seller and no close SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift)
substitutes for the product. Because of
ch
separate branch of economics, emerged (a) not (b) inversely
after the British economist John this, the demand curve is less elastic (c) directly (d) proportionately
than in monopolistic competition, where
ar
Maynard Keynes published his
celebrated book “The General Theory of there are many sellers and close Sol.40.(b) inversely. A perfectly
Se
Employment, Interest and Money” in substitutes for the product. competitive market has been defined as
1936. It focuses on the aggregate one where an individual firm is unable to
Q.37. If there is a fall in the demand of a influence the price at which the product
changes in the economy such as
good, the equilibrium price is expected is sold in the market. The more
unemployment, growth rate, gross
to: competitive the market structure, the
domestic product, and inflation.
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift) less competitive the behaviour of the
Q.33. ______ is defined as the study of (a) first rise, and then fall sharply firms. On the other hand, the less
behaviour of individual decision-making (b) fall competitive the market structure, the
units, such as consumers, resource (c) Rise more competitive is the behaviour of
owners and firms. (d) neither fall nor rise firms towards each other. Pure monopoly
SSC CHSL 09/10/2020 (Morning) is the most visible exception.
Sol.37.(b) fall. When demand falls, it
(a) Microeconomics
means consumers are willing to buy less Q.41. According to the law of demand,
(b) Macroeconomics
of the goods at any given price, which the consumer's demand for a good must
(c) Health economics
naturally pushes the price downwards to be ______.
(d) Econometrics
reach a new equilibrium point where SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (1st Shift)
Sol.33.(a) Microeconomics is a branch quantity demanded equals quantity (a) directly related to the supply of the
of economics that studies the behaviour supplied. good
of individuals and firms in making (b) inversely related to the price of the
Q.38. Which of the following exchange
decisions regarding the allocation of good
rates is determined by the market forces
scarce resources and the interactions (c) directly related to the price of the
of demand and supply ?
among these individuals and firms. The good
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
(d) inversely related to the supply of the leftwards. (Or) Change in Inventories = Production
good III. Supply curve shifts rightward and during the year - Sales during the year.
demand curve shifts leftward.
Sol.41.(b) The law of demand and supply SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (3rd Shift) Q.47. In cost theory, the usual shape of
given by Adam Smith. Law of demand : (a) Only I (b) I, II and III the ____ curve is a rectangular hyperbola.
An economic principle explaining the (c) I and II (d) II and III SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift)
negative correlation between the price of (a) total cost (b) fixed cost
a good or service and its demand. If all Sol.44.(b) I, II and III. When both curves (c) variable cost (d) average fixed cost
other factors remain the same, when the shift rightward, the equilibrium quantity
price of a good or service increases, the increases, but the equilibrium price may Sol.47.(d) average fixed cost (AFC)
quantity of demand decreases, and vice increase, decrease or remain unchanged. curve is typically a rectangular hyperbola,
versa. When Both curves shift towards the left, which means it has a downward-sloping
the equilibrium quantity decreases but shape. As output increases, the average
Q.42. If ex ante aggregate demand and the equilibrium price may increase, fixed cost decreases, but the rate of
ex ante aggregate supply are plotted decrease or remain the same. When decrease slows down. Average fixed cost
together in a graphical diagram, then at demand curve shifts right and supply (AFC) equals total fixed cost (TFC)
which point equilibrium will be reached? curve to the left, the equilibrium price
𝑇𝐹𝐶
divided by output (Q) : AFC = .
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (1st Shift) increases but the equilibrium quantity
𝑄
(a) Where ex ante aggregate demand is may increase, decrease or remain the Q.48. Which of the following statements
equal to ex ante aggregate supply same. All depending on the magnitude of is/are true about private goods?
(b) Where ex ante aggregate demand is shift in the two curves. I. Rivalrous in consumption
zero
II. Non-excludability
(c) Where ex ante aggregate demand is
df
less than ex ante aggregate supply
Cost, Production, Consumption III. Negative marginal cost
and Market SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
_p
(d) Where ex ante aggregate demand is
(a) Only III (b) Only I
more than ex ante aggregate supply
(c) Both II and III (d) Only II
na
Q.45. Which of the following goods
Sol.42.(a) The aggregate demand / needs further transformation in the
aggregate supply model is a model that Sol.48.(b) Only I. A private good is both
ap
economic process? excludable and rivalrous, and it is
shows what determines total supply or SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
total demand for the economy and how consumed by one person or household.
:@
(a) Consumer durable goods This means that one person’s
total demand and total supply interact at (b) Finished goods
the macroeconomic level. Aggregate consumption of the good prevents others
(c) Intermediate goods from consuming it, and the provider can
supply is the total quantity of output
TG
(d) Capital goods exclude others from using it. Examples
firms will produce and sell, in other
words, the real GDP. Aggregate demand Sol.45.(c) Intermediate goods : The include food, clothing, and cars. Public
is the amount of total spending on materials that a firm buys from another goods are characterised by
on
domestic goods and services in an firm which are completely used up in the nonexcludability and nonrivalrous
economy. Equilibrium point is E and process of production. Consumer consumption. Examples - National
defense, Street lights, Public Parks, etc.
ch
equilibrium level of income is OY1 durable goods can be used repeatedly
and have a long life. An item that is Q.49. Trade liberalisation has helped
Q.43. If the price elasticity of demand is
ar
meant for final use and will not pass India improve its _________ in industries
less than one, then the demand for the
through any more stages of production
Se
goods is said to be _______. with medium-to-high technology content.
or transformations is called a final good. SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(a) Perfectly inelastic (b) Inelastic Q.46. What correctly defines change of (a) imports
(c) Perfectly elastic (d) Unitary-elastic inventories of a firm during a year ? (b) comparative advantage
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (c) fuel efficiency
Sol.43.(b) Inelastic. Price Elasticity of (d) labour intensity
(a) Production of the firm during the year
Demand is a measurement of the change
– Sale of the firm during the year Sol.49.(b) Comparative advantage -It
in the consumption of a product in
(b) Production of the firm during the argues that countries can benefit from
relation to a change in its price. If price
previous year – Sale of the firm trading with each other by focusing on
elasticity is greater than 1 then the good
during the year making the things they are best at
is elastic, if less than 1 then it is inelastic,
(c) Sale of the firm during the year – making, while buying the things they are
if the price elasticity is infinite then a
Production of the firm during the year not as good at making from other
good is perfectly elastic, and If the
(d) Production of the firm during the year countries. Theory of Comparative
good's price elasticity is 0 then it is
– Sale of the firm during the previous Advantage given by David Ricardo in
perfectly inelastic.
year 1817. Trade liberalization - The removal
Q.44. The simultaneous shifts of both or reduction of barriers, such as tariffs
the demand curve and the supply curve Sol.46.(a) The change in inventories of a
firm during a year represents the and quotas, to encourage free and open
can happen in which of the following exchange of goods and services
ways ? difference between the goods produced
or purchased and the goods sold. It can between nations for economic growth.
I. Supply curve shifts leftward and
demand curve shifts rightward. be calculated as : Change in Inventories Q.50. Factor cost is also known as:
II. Both supply and demand curves shift = Ending Inventory - Beginning Inventory SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
(a) market cost (b) ex-factory cost estimation suggested a minimum calorie Ordinal utility : It explains that the
(c) input cost (d) output cost consumption of 2400 calories for rural satisfaction level after consuming any
areas (with a consumption expenditure goods or services cannot be scaled in
Sol.50.(c) Input cost : The actual cost
of 49.1 Rs per capita per month) and numbers.
incurred on goods and services produced
2100 calories for urban areas (with a
by industries and firms. Factor costs Q.58. Which of the following statements
consumption expenditure of Rs 56.64 per
include all the costs of the factors of is correct regarding the production
capita per month). Some committees for
production to produce a given product in possibility frontier ?
poverty line - Lakdawala Committee
an economy. It includes the costs of land, I. It gives the combinations between two
(submitted report in 1993), Tendulkar
labour, capital and raw material, goods that can be produced when the
Committee (2009), Rangarajan
transportation etc. resources of the economy are fully
Committee (2014).
utilised.
Q.51. Import substitution strategy is
Q.55. The production function can be II. It illustrates the production
commonly called ________.
expressed as_________ (where L is labour possibilities of the economy.
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift)
and C is capital and Q is the maximum SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(a) make in India campaign
output that can be produced) (a) Only I (b) Only II
(b) outward looking trade strategy
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift) (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
(c) balanced trade strategy
(a) Q = f(C) (b) L = f(Q,C)
(d) inward looking trade strategy Sol.58.(c) Both I and II. The production
(c) Q = f(L) (d) Q = f(L,C)
possibility frontier (PPF) is a curve on a
Sol.51.(d) Inward Looking Trade
Sol.55.(d) Q = f(L,C). Production function graph that illustrates the possible
Strategy - Trade and Economic policy
refers to the functional relationship quantities that can be produced of two
that advocates replacing foreign imports
between the quantity of a good produced products if both depend upon the same
df
with domestic production. Example -
(output) and factors of production finite resource for their manufacture.
Instead of importing vehicles made in a
_p
(inputs). Mathematically, such a basic
foreign country, industries would be Q.59. In India, which of the following is
relationship between inputs and outputs
encouraged to produce them in India NOT an objective of the National
na
may be expressed as: Q = f( L, C, N ).
itself. Manufacturing Policy?
Where Q = Quantity of output, L = Labour,
SSC CGL Tier II (03/03/2023)
ap
Q.52. The consumption of fixed capital is C = Capital, N = Land.
(a) To increase the sectoral share of
also known as _________.
Q.56. Which of the following statements manufacturing in the GDP to at least
:@
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
is correct regarding the features of a 25% by 2022.
(a) depreciation (b) net investment
perfectly competitive market? (b) To double the exports of manufacturing
(c) appreciation (d) gross investment
I. The market consists of a large number goods by 2022.
TG
Sol.52.(a) depreciation - Means loss of of buyers and sellers. (c) To increase the rate of job creation so
fixed assets overtime due to wear and II. Information is perfect. as to create 100 million additional
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (4th Shift) jobs by 2022.
on
tear. Fixed capital consists of assets that
are not consumed or destroyed in the (a) Only I (b) Neither I nor II (d) To enhance global competitiveness,
production of a good or service and can (c) Both I and II (d) Only II domestic value addition, techno -
ch
be used multiple times. logical depth and environmental
Sol.56.(c) Both I and II. Other features of sustainability of growth.
ar
Q.53. Commercialisation of agriculture is a perfectly competitive market : 1. Each
an indication of _________ . firm produces and sells a homogenous Sol.59.(b) The Department of Industrial
Se
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (1st shift) product. i.e. the product of one firm Policy and Promotion (DIPP) under the
(a) income surplus cannot be differentiated from the product Ministry of Commerce and Industry has
(b) producers' surplus of any other firm. 2. Entry into the market notified the National Manufacturing
(c) consumer surplus as well as exit from the market are free Policy (NMP) on November 4, 2011.
(d) marketable surplus for firms. National Investment & Manufacturing
Zones (NIMZs) : An important
Sol.53.(d) Marketable surplus - Q.57. Which of the following statements instrumentality of the manufacturing
Difference between the total output is correct regarding the marginal utility of policy; have been conceived as large
produced by a farmer and his self a commodity ? integrated industrial townships.
consumption from that output. Producer I. It is the change in total utility due to
surplus - Total amount that a producer consumption of one additional unit of a Q.60. A higher _______ index reflects
benefits from producing and selling a commodity. inequality in income distribution.
quantity of a good at the market price. II. It diminishes with increase in SSC CHSL 16/10/2020 (Morning)
consumption of the commodity. (a) CPI (b) Gini (c) GDP (d) NDP
Q.54. What was the minimum
SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
consumption expenditure (₹ per capita Sol.60.(b) Gini coefficient measures
(a) Both I and II (b) Only II
per month) set as a benchmark of the inequality in income distribution (0-
(c) only I (d) Neither I nor II
poverty line for rural India in 1979? perfect equality; 100- perfect inequality).
Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 4) Sol.57.(a) Both I and II. Marginal utility :
(a) 49.09 (b) 43.5 (c) 56.7 (d) 62.1 It is a measure that defines the additional
satisfaction a customer receives from
Sol.54.(a) 49.09. 1979 Planning
one more unit of a product or service.
Commission task force on poverty
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
National Income, Inflation, Revenue deficit= 2.80% of GDP Revenue Q.67. Which of the following is NOT
expenditure= 10.80% of GDP correct with regards to the history of
Budget, Taxation And GDP
SSC MTS 30/09/2024 (2nd Shift) calculating National Income (NI) in India?
(a) 12.80 (b) 8.00 (c) 13.60 (d) 2.70 SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Q.61. In the context of a consumption
(a) First attempt to compute NI was
function for an economy, if MPC = 0.6, Sol.64.(b) 8.00. To calculate the Revenue made by Dadabhai Naoroji.
then what is the likely value of MPS? Receipts, we need to use the given (b) First official attempt to compute NI
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Morning) information about the Revenue Deficit was made by PC Mahalanobis.
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.36 (c) -0.6 (d) 0.16 and Revenue Expenditure as percentages (c) Dadabhai Naoroji divided the Indian
of GDP. economy into two parts: primary
Sol.61.(a) 0.4. The Marginal Propensity
Formula for Revenue Deficit: Revenue sector and secondary sector.
to Save (MPS) is related to the Marginal
Deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue (d) First scientific method to compute NI
Propensity to Consume (MPC) by the
Receipts was used by Dr VKRV Rao.
equation: MPC + MPS = 1. Given that
Given: Revenue Deficit = 2.80% of GDP
MPC = 0.6, we can find MPS as follows:
Revenue Expenditure = 10.80% of GDP Sol.67.(c) Dr. VKRV Rao in 1931, divided
MPS = 1− MPC = 1−0.6 = 0.4.
Now, We can set up an equation: the Indian economy into two sectors: the
Q.62. The Primary Deficit is zero in which 2.80% = 10.80% - Revenue Receipts agricultural sector and the corporate
of the following situations? To find Revenue Receipts: sector. The agricultural sector
A. Fiscal Deficit is zero. Revenue Receipts = 10.80% - 2.80% encompassed fishing, hunting, forests,
B. Interest payment is equal to Fiscal = 8.00% and agriculture, while the corporate
Deficit. sector included industries, business,
Q.65. While estimating Gross Domestic transport, construction, and public
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Afternoon)
Product, the monetary value of only final
df
(a) Neither A nor B (b) Only A services. Dadabhai Naoroji estimated
goods are considered because _________. India's National Income at Rs. 340 crore
(c) Both A and B (d) Only B
_p
a. its immobility, the active economic and per capita income at Rs. 20 in
Sol.62.(d) Only B. If interest payments flow is ended. 1867-68 in his book "Poverty and
na
are equal to the fiscal deficit, then the b. of the issues of double counting Un-British Rule in India."
fiscal deficit is entirely due to interest c. the value added at each stage of the
ap
payments, and there is no additional production process is included Q.68. The CSO adopted the concept of
borrowing for current activities. SSC MTS 07/10/2024 (2nd Shift) Gross Value Added in ___________ .
:@
Therefore, the primary deficit is zero (a) Only b (b) Only a SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
because no new debt is being incurred (c) All a, b and c (d) Only b and c (a) January 2012 (b) January 2015
for current expenditure. If the fiscal (c) January 2017 (d) January 2013
Sol.65.(a) Only b. Gross Domestic
TG
deficit is zero, it doesn't necessarily
Product (GDP) - Aggregate value of Sol.68.(b) January 2015. Central
mean the primary deficit is zero because
goods and services produced within the Statistics Office (CSO) : The CSO is a
the fiscal deficit could be zero due to
domestic territory of a country. While government agency under the Ministry of
on
interest payments being offset by other
estimating GDP, the monetary value of Statistics and Programme
revenues or savings. Thus, this does not
only final goods is considered to avoid implementation.
guarantee a zero primary deficit.
ch
the problem of double counting. The CSO replaced GDP at factor cost
Q.63. Section 56 (2) (vii b) in the Income with GVA at basic prices to better
ar
Q.66. Why are wealth taxes and gift estimate economic activity. It follows the
Tax Act is referred to as:
taxes treated as paper taxes in India? United Nation's System of National
Se
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Evening)
SSC MTS 21/10/2024 (1st Shift) Accounts (SNA). As per the SNA, GVA is
(a) Angel Tax (b) Angel Fund
(a) It is not mandatory for the defined as the value of output minus the
(c) Normal Taxin (d) Normal Investments
government to collect these taxes. value of intermediate consumption and
Sol.63.(a) Angel Tax. The concept of (b) They do not generate much revenue is a measure of the contribution to
Angel tax was introduced in the union in comparison to others . growth made by an individual producer,
budget 2012, to curb money laundering (c) Tax payers need to fill out forms only industry or sector.
of funds in the India economy. ‘Angel Tax’ in paper and submit returns.
refers to section 56 (2) (vii b) of the (d) They are paid only by government Q.69. Match the concepts in column A
Indian Income Tax Act, 1961, wherein the employees, members of the with their respective descriptions in
Income Tax Authorities are challenging Parliament and Legislative column B.
additional taxes from Start-up assemblies Column A Column B
Companies who have received financial a. Devaluation 1. decline in the market rate
Sol.66.(b) Wealth taxes and gift taxes in of exchange
support from Indian Angel Investors at a
India have limited scope and are difficult b. Depreciation 2. contraction of home currency
valuation higher than what can be
to collect effectively. Many wealthy c. Deflation 3. foreign exchange rationing
ascertained for an early stage start-up
individuals evade these taxes, and the d. Exchange 4. contraction of imports
venture. Angel investors are wealthy
revenue generated is much lower control
individuals who invest in business
compared to taxes like income tax or 5. official reduction in external
ventures and provide capital for startups
GST. The Wealth-tax Act was introduced value of the currency
that need quick funding.
in 1957 but was abolished in 2016 due to SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.64. Calculate the revenue receipts its inefficiency. The Gift Tax was (a) a-5, b-1, c-2, d-3 (b) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
from the following information. introduced in 1958. (c) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 (d) a-5, b-3, c-2, d-1
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
Sol.69.(a) a-5, b-1, c-2, d-3. Devaluation (d) Value-added tax (MODVAT) was introduced in India in
refers to the intentional downward 1986 to streamline the indirect tax
adjustment of a country's currency value Sol.72.(a) Fees and fines. Non-tax system. Service Tax was introduced in
relative to another currency or standard. revenue refers to income generated by India in 1994 by Chapter V of the Finance
Depreciation, on the other hand, allows a the government through sources other Act, 1994.
business to allocate the cost of a than taxes. Examples of non-tax revenue
tangible asset over its useful life for include : Fees - Licence fees, registration Q.76. Which of the following is a correct
accounting and tax purposes. Deflation fees, tuition fees, etc. Fines - Penalties statement?
occurs when prices decrease over time, imposed for violating laws or regulations. SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
contrasting with inflation, which signifies Interest receipts - Interest earned on (a) National Income is GNP at FC.
rising prices. Exchange controls are government investments or loans. (b) National Income is NDP at MP.
governmental restrictions placed on the Dividends - Earnings from government - (c) National Income is GDP at MP.
buying and selling of currencies. owned companies. Grants - Receipts (d) National Income is NNP at FC.
from international organisations or
Q.70. What is net investment ? foreign governments. Sol.76.(d) National Income is NNP at FC.
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) Net National Product at factor cost is
(a) Sum of all the investments in a Q.73. If GNP is 16% higher than the last equal to sum total of value added at
country year and the rate of inflation is 9%, factor cost or net domestic product at
(b) Gross investment + depreciation production in the economy has grown by: factor cost and net factor income from
(c) Gross capital investment - indirect SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) abroad. NNP at Factor Cost = NNP at
taxes (a) 4% (b) 6% (c) 5% (d) 7% Market Price – Net Indirect tax.
(d) Gross investment - depreciation Sol.73.(d) 7%. To determine the real Q.77. Which of the following is NOT
df
Sol.70.(d) Gross investment - growth in production, we need to adjust correct regarding circular flow of
the increase in Gross National Product income?
_p
depreciation. Net Investment: It refers to
the actual addition to the capital stock of (GNP) for inflation. The real growth rate SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
can be approximated by subtracting the (a) Savings as well as government
na
a country or business, accounting for the
depreciation of existing assets. Gross inflation rate from the nominal growth expenditure are injections to the
rate. Real Growth Rate = Nominal Growth circular flow
ap
Investment: This is the total expenditure
on new assets, including new buildings, Rate - Inflation Rate (16% - 9% = 7%). (b) The income of one sector becomes
the expenditure of the other.
:@
machinery, equipment, and inventory. Q.74. What is subtracted from GDP to (c) In a circular flow, leakages are equal
Q.71. Match the concepts in column A arrive at NDP ? to injections.
with their respective descriptions in SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (d) The real flow and monetary flow
TG
column B. (a) Subsidies move in a circular manner in an
Column A Column B (b) Depreciation opposite direction.
a. Gross national 1. Annual income received (c) Net indirect taxes
on
product by the individual's (d) Net factor income from abroad Sol.77.(a) Savings are considered a
production in leakage from the circular flow of income
a given period Sol.74.(b) Depreciation. Net Domestic
ch
because they represent income that is
b. Net national 2. After the tax of personal Product at factor cost (NDP at FC) is the not immediately spent on goods and
product income income earned by the factors in the form
ar
c. Personal income 3. Money value of the
services. Government expenditure is an
of wages, profits, rent, interest etc. NDP injection, as it adds to the overall
national output
Se
(Net Domestic Product) at FC (Factor demand in the economy.
d. Disposable 4. Net production of goods
personal income services during the year Cost) = GDP (Gross Domestic product)
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift) at FC minus Depreciation. Gross Q.78. In which of the following situations
(a) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4 (b) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4 Domestic Product - Final monetary value does the government run a deficit
(c) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 (d) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 of the goods and services produced budget?
within the country during a specific SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.71.(c) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2. Gross period of time. It is released by the (a) When the government expenditure
National Product (GNP) = Gross National Statistical Office (NSO). and revenue both are zero.
Domestic Product (GDP) + Net income (b) When the government expenditure
from abroad. Net national product (NNP) Q.75. Identify the sequence of
exceeds revenue.
= GNP − Depreciation. Personal Income = implementation of the following taxes.
(c) When the government expenditure
National Income − Corporate Taxes − I. Land revenue II. Sales tax
equals revenue.
Retained Earnings + Transfer Payments. III. MODVAT IV. Service tax
(d) When the government revenue
Disposable personal income (DPI) = SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
exceeds expenditure.
Personal Income − Personal Taxes. (a) III, II, IV, I (b) II, IV, I, III
(c) IV, II, I, III (d) I, II, III, IV Sol.78.(b) A budget deficit is a fiscal
Q.72. Which of the following is an
situation in which a government's total
example of a non-tax revenue source for Sol.75.(d) I, II, III, IV. Land revenue is the
expenditures exceed its total revenues
the government ? oldest form of taxation in India, it was
over a specific period, resulting in a
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) prevalent even before the British era.
negative balance. Surplus Budget : When
(a) Fees and fines Sales tax was introduced in India through
the government revenue exceeds
(b) Personal income tax the Central Sales Tax (CST) Act, 1956.
expenditure. Balanced Budget : When the
(c) Corporate income tax The Modified Value Added Tax
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
government expenditure equals revenue. and consumption levels? factor cost is called National Income.
The Union Budget of India, also referred SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) National income = NDP at factor cost +
to as the Annual Financial Statement in (a) Poverty band (b) Poverty limit net factor income from abroad. National
Article 112 of the Constitution of India. (c) Poverty bar (d) Poverty line Income at Constant Prices refers to the
measurement of a country’s total income
Q.79. Which of the following options Sol.82.(d) Poverty line. Poverty while adjusting for inflation. This is done
best describes the primary cause of the Estimation in India : It is based on the by using prices from a base year
per capita income decline? income or consumption levels and if the (2011-12) as a reference, rather than the
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) income or consumption falls below a prices prevailing during the current year.
(a) Equitable distribution of income given minimum level, then the household
(b) Increase in the population growth is said to be Below the Poverty Line Q.86. Which cost is considered for
(c) Decline in the population growth (BPL). calculating the national income in India?
(d) Decline in the gross domestic product SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Q.83. Which of the following is the (a) Product cost (b) Factor cost
Sol.79.(b) Increase in the population correct formula for calculating NNP ? (c) Market cost (d) Sunk cost
growth. Per capita income is calculated SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
by dividing a country's total income (a) NNP = GNP – DEPRECIATION Sol.86.(b) Factor cost refers to the cost
(GDP) by its population. If the population (b) NNP = GNP + DEPRECIATION of factors of production such as labor,
grows rapidly while the economy (GDP) (c) NNP = GDP – DEPRECIATION capital, and entrepreneurship. Market
doesn't grow at the same pace, the per (d) NNP = GDP – INCOME cost : The cost of a product or service in
capita income decreases because the the market, influenced by supply and
same amount of wealth is distributed Sol.83.(a) NNP = GNP – Depreciation. demand. Sunk cost : A cost that has
among a larger number of people. Net National Product (NNP) - Total value already been incurred and cannot be
df
of finished goods and services produced changed or avoided.
Q.80. Each of the following statements by a country's citizens overseas and
_p
includes two terms. In three cases, the domestically, minus depreciation. Gross Q.87. What is the use of Net National
two terms mean the same as each other. National Product (GNP) is Gross Product (NNP) ?
na
In which of the following cases do the Domestic Product (GDP) plus net factor SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
two terms NOT mean the same as each income from abroad. Depreciation is an (a) To calculate exports
ap
other? annual decrease in the price of a capital (b) To calculate balance of payments
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) goods over a year due to wear and tear (c) To calculate per capita income
:@
(a) Nominal GDP and GDP at current and some other reasons. (d) To calculate imports
prices Sol.87.(c) To calculate per capita
(b) The base period and the reference Q.84. _____ at Market Price refers to the
TG
income. If we deduct depreciation from
period sum total of factor incomes earned by
Gross National Product (GNP) the
(c) Changes in real GDP and the GDP residents of a country during an
measure of aggregate income that we
deflator accounting year including net indirect
on
obtain is called Net National Product
(d) Real GDP and GDP at constant prices taxes.
(NNP). Thus, NNP = GNP – Depreciation.
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift)
Per Capita Income (PCI) =
ch
Sol.80.(c) Changes in real GDP and the (a) Net National Product (NNP)
𝑁𝑒𝑡 𝑁𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡 (𝑁𝑁𝑃) 𝑎𝑡 𝐹𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡
GDP deflator. Changes in real GDP (b) Net Domestic Product (NDP) 𝑃𝑜𝑝𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
ar
measure the actual growth in economic (c) Gross National Product (GNP)
output, adjusted for inflation, over time. (d) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) Q.88. Price control and rationing are
Se
The GDP deflator measures the change direct control measures to check _____.
in overall price levels (inflation) in an Sol.84.(a) Net National Product (NNP). It SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift)
economy by comparing nominal and is at Factor Cost, also known as national (a) deflation (b) reflation
real GDP. These two terms describe income. When calculated at factor cost, (c) inflation (d) disinflation
different aspects of economic the NNP includes the sum of wages,
Sol.88.(c) Inflation:Inflation refers to the
performance — One is about growth, rents, interests, and profits distributed in
general rise in the price levels of goods
and the other is about inflation. an economy but excludes indirect taxes
and services over time. When inflation
while including subsidies. Thus, it
becomes excessive, it can reduce the
Q.81. The financial year in India starts reflects the income earned through the
purchasing power of consumers and
from 1st April and ends on_________ productive activities of the country's
destabilise the economy. To control
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) normal residents.
inflation, governments use various fiscal
(a) 31st May (b) 30th June
st Q.85. National income at constant prices policies : Price control and rationing,
(c) 31 March (d) 31st July
means: Reduction in Public Spending, Increase in
Sol.81.(c) 31st March. A financial year, SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) Taxes, and Subsidy Cuts.
also known as a fiscal year, is a (a) income estimated at current year Q.89. Calculate personal income (in ₹
12-month period used by governments, prices crore) from the given data.
businesses, and organizations for (b) income estimated at base year prices
Particulars ₹ (in crore)
accounting and financial reporting (c) income estimated for next year prices
Private income 1800
purposes. (d) income estimated at any year prices
Net retained 500
Q.82. Which of the following methods Sol.85.(b) income estimated at base earnings of private
measures poverty on the basis of income year prices. Net National Product at enterprises
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
Corporation tax 250 tax - A tax that takes the same income - The total value of all the final
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) percentage of income from all income services and goods produced in an
(a) 1000 (b) 950 (c) 2050 (d) 1100 groups. Vertical equity - The concept that economy during a specific period of
people in different income groups should time. Gross income - Total income
Sol.89.(c) 2050. Personal Income = pay different rates of taxes or different earned by an individual on a paycheck
Private Income + Net Retained Earnings percentages of their incomes as taxes. before taxes and other deductions.
of Private Enterprises − (Corporation Disposable income - Personal income
Tax) Q.93. Which of the following statements minus Taxes.
Now applying the formula : about transfer payments are correct ?
Personal Income = 1800 + 500 − (250) 1) Transfer payments are made by the Q.96. Which of the following is the
Personal Income = 2300 - 250 government to households. correct formula for calculating Net
Personal Income = ₹ 2050 crore 2) Pension, scholarship etc. are not a Indirect Taxes ?
part of the transfer payments. SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q.90. Taxes like gift tax, wealth tax etc 3) Transfer payments are often used as a (a) Direct Taxes + Subsidies
are also referred to as which type of means of redistributing income within a (b) Indirect Taxes − Subsidies
taxes? society. (c) Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 (d) Direct Taxes − Subsidies
(a) Rich taxes (b) Paper taxes (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Paperless taxes (d) Direct taxes Sol.96.(b) Indirect Taxes - Subsidies.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Net Indirect Taxes : Taxes that are levied
Sol.90.(b) Paper taxes - Wealth tax and Sol.93.(d) 1 and 3 only. Transfer on services and products and are
gift tax are often called paper taxes payments are the receipts which the collected by the seller. Examples - Sales
because they are difficult to enforce and residents of a country get for ‘free’, tax, Value-added tax (VAT), Excise tax,
df
frequently evaded. Wealth Tax : Hard to without having to provide any goods or Customs duty, Service tax. Subsidies :
_p
assess the true value of assets, as services in return. They consist of gifts, Financial assistance provided by the
people hide wealth through offshore remittances, grants, Unemployment government to reduce the cost of certain
na
accounts or other means. Gift Tax : Allowance, Social Security Payments, Old goods or services for consumers.
Easily avoided by transferring assets in age Pension, scholarship etc,.
Q.97. A government budget shows a
ap
ways that don’t trigger the tax. These
taxes exist on paper but are challenging Q.94. Which of the following statements primary deficit of ₹6,900 crore. The
to implement effectively. about GDP and Welfare are correct? revenue expenditure on interest payment
:@
1) GDP of a country is an indicator of the is ₹400 crore. Fiscal deficit is equal to:
Q.91. Why are the intermediate goods welfare of the people. SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
NOT included in the National Income? 2) If GDP is rising, welfare may not rise (a) ₹6,500 crore (b) ₹6,900 crore
TG
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) equally. (c) ₹7,100 crore (d) ₹7,300 crore
(a) Intermediate goods increases the 3) GDP and Welfare both are not related Sol.97.(d) ₹7,300 crore. Fiscal Deficit =
income. to each other.
on
Primary Deficit + Interest Payment = Rs.
(b) Intermediate goods decreases the SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 6,900 crore + Rs. 400 crore = Rs. 7,300
income. (a) Only 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 crore. Fiscal deficit - It is the expenditure
ch
(c) For the prevention of double (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 2 of a government that is more than the
accounting.
Sol.94.(d) Only 1 and 2. GDP reflects the revenue generated by the government in
ar
(d) Intermediate goods are not reliable.
total economic output of a country and a given fiscal year. Interest payment - It is
Se
Sol.91.(c) For the prevention of double serves as a general indicator of the cost of borrowing money. The
accounting. Intermediate goods are used economic well-being. However, it does borrower makes these payments in
in the production of final goods, and their not capture non-economic factors like addition to paying back the principal on a
value is already reflected in the final income distribution, environmental loan.
product. For example, steel used to quality, or social welfare. GDP growth Q.98. Expenditure of the government on
manufacture cars means that if both the does not necessarily lead to proportional health facilities, education and
production of steel and the production of welfare improvements. Rising GDP may fixed-asset acquisition is termed as ____ .
cars were counted, it would result in be accompanied by increased inequality SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
double counting. Therefore, to avoid this or environmental degradation. GDP and (a) revenue expenditure
distortion in calculating national income, welfare are related, but the relationship is (b) non-plan revenue expenditure
only the value of final goods is included. not direct or perfect. (c) capital expenditure
Q.92. If tax rate decreases with increase Q.95. Which of the following options (d) plan expenditure
in taxable base, then this type of taxation represents the total income earned by Sol.98.(c) Capital expenditure: It
is called: individuals from all the sources before involves the spending of government
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) deduction of personal income taxes? funds on the acquisition of assets that
(a) regressive (b) increasing SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 have long-term value and contribute to
(c) progressive (d) degressive (a) Disposable income the overall development of the country.
(b) Personal income Example - Construction of school and
Sol.92.(a) regressive. Progressive tax - A
(c) Gross income Buildings. Revenue expenditure: It refers
tax that takes a larger percentage of
(d) National income to the government's spending on
income from high-income groups than
from low-income groups. Proportional Sol.95.(b) Personal income. National day-to-day operational costs and current
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
expenses such as salaries, wages, bonds Price Index) x 100. If nominal GDP and
interest payments, and subsidies. (d) Tax revenue collected from citizens real GDP are the same, the price index
equals 100, not 200.
Q.99. Which of the following is NOT Sol.102.(a) Non-debt capital receipts :
included in inventory investment when Those money receipts which are received Q.106. Usually, the reduction in the taxes
calculating national income ? by the government from the sale of old will have _____multiplier effect compared
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) assets. It refers to the incoming cash to an increase in government spending
(a) Change in sales during the year flows and not treated as liabilities of the on aggregate demand.
(b) Change in stock of semi-finished government. Example: Recovery of loans SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift)
goods and advances, disinvestment, and issue (a) no (b) smaller
(c) Change in stock of raw material of bonus shares. (c) higher (d) equivalent
(d) Change in stock of finished goods
Q.103. Which of the following methods is Sol.106.(b) Smaller. Aggregate demand
Sol.99.(a) Change in sales during the used to calculate national income by is a term used in macroeconomics to
year. The stock of unsold finished goods, summing up the total spending on final describe the total demand for goods
or semi-finished goods, or raw materials goods and services in an economy? produced domestically, including
which a firm carries from one year to the SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (2nd Shift) consumer goods, services, and capital
next is called inventory. Inventories are (a) Value-added method goods. Formula :- AD = C + I + G + (X -
treated as capital. Its addition to the (b) Output method M), AD = Aggregate demand, C =
stock of capital of a firm is known as (c) Expenditure method Consumption, I = Investment, G =
investment. (d) Income method Government spending, X = Total exports,
M = Total imports.
Q.100. Calculate the GDP at factor cost Sol.103.(c) Expenditure method.
df
given in the following data. Formula, GDP = 𝐶 + 𝐼 + 𝐺 + (𝑋-𝑀 ). C : Q.107. Calculate the NNP (₹ in crore) at
GDP at market price = 600 crores Consumption expenditure (household market price from the given data
_p
Consumption of fixed capital = 100 crores spending on goods and services). I : Particulars Value (₹in crore)
Indirect taxes = 200 crores Investment expenditure (business NDP at factor cost - 1,25,250
na
Subsidies = 50 crores spending on capital goods). G : Net income from abroad - (-) 581
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Government expenditure (spending on Net indirect taxes - 18,120
ap
(a) 850 crores (b) 450 crores infrastructure, salaries, etc.). X - M : Net SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (2nd shift)
(c) 950 crores (d) 350 crores exports (exports minus imports). (a) 1,25,831 (b) 1,42,789
:@
(c) 1,43,951 (d) 1,24,669
Sol.100.(b) 450 crores. Q.104. What do you mean by balanced
GDP at factor cost = GDP at market price budget ? Sol.107.(b) 1,42,789. NNP (Net National
TG
+ Subsidies - Indirect Tax. SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift) Product) at market price = NDP (Net
GDP at factor cost = 600 + 50 - 200 (a) Expenditure not equal to revenue Domestic Product) at factor cost - Net
GDP at factor cost = 450 (b) Expenditure equal to revenue Income (from abroad) + Net Indirect
on
(c) Expenditure more the revenue taxes = 1,25250 - 581 + 18,120 =
Q.101. Assessment of the country’s GDP (d) Expenditure is less than revenue 1,42,789.
growth, external balance and fiscal
ch
balance are presented in which part of Sol.104.(b) Balanced Budget is an ideal Q.108. NDP at FC plus net factor income
the budget document? approach to achieve a balanced from abroad is equal to _______ .
ar
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) economy and maintain fiscal discipline. SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift)
(a) NNP at MP (b) NNP at FC
Se
(a) Macroeconomic Framework Surplus Budget - When income or
Statement revenue exceeds expenditures. Deficit (c) GDP at FC (d) GNP at MP
(b) Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement Budget - When government expenses Sol.108.(b) NNP at FC. Net Domestic
(c) Appropriation bill exceed revenue. Product (NDP) at factor cost (FC) is the
(d) Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement income earned by the factors in the form
Q.105. Which of the following
Sol.101.(a) The Macro-Economic statements (s) is true ? of wages, profits, rent, interest, etc.,
Framework Statement, was presented to A) Higher inflation means lower real GDP, within the domestic territory of a country.
Parliament as per the Fiscal ceteris paribus NDP at FC = NDP at Market Price -
Responsibility and Budget Management B) Price Index is 200 if nominal GDP and Indirect Cases + Subsidies. Net National
Act, 2003. The FRBM instructs the real GDP are the same Product (NNP) at market price − Net
government to make an assessment of SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift) factor income from overseas = Net
the growth prospects of the economy (a) Only B (b) Both A and B domestic product at market price. Gross
with specific underlying assumptions. (c) Only A (d) Neither A nor B National Product (GNP) at market price
is the market value of all final goods and
Q.102. Which of the following is an Sol.105.(c) Only A. Real GDP : An services produced in a country's
example of a non-debt capital receipt in inflation -adjusted measure that reflects domestic territory by ordinary citizens
the government budget ? the value of all goods and services during an accounting year, including net
SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (1st Shift) produced by an economy in a given year. factor income from abroad.
(a) Sale of government-owned land Real GDP is expressed in base-year
(b) Loans from international financial prices. Nominal GDP is the GDP given in Q.109. According to David Ricardo,
institutions current prices, without adjustment for during a high deficit situation taxation
(c) Interest payment on government inflation. Real GDP = (Nominal GDP / and borrowings are _____ means of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
spending. (d) Final consumption expenditure by Rangarajan Committee. Non-Plan
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (1st shift) households Revenue Expenditure refers to the
(a) prudent (b) differentiated recurring expenses incurred by the
(c) equivalent (d) subsidised Sol.112.(c) Export plus import government that are not associated with
expenditure. Formula for calculating any specific development plan or project.
Sol.109.(c) Equivalent. Ricardian National income by expenditure method, Examples include Interest Payments,
equivalence is an economic theory that GDP = C + I + G + (X − M) Salaries and Wages, Subsidies, Pensions,
says that financing government spending Where, C : Consumption expenditure Defense Revenue Expenditure, Other
out of current taxes or future taxes (and (household spending on goods and Administrative Expenses, etc.
current deficits) will have equivalent services). I : Investment expenditure
effects on the overall economy. This (business spending on capital goods). G : Q.116. In the estimation of national
means that attempts to stimulate an Government expenditure (spending on income, which of the following items will
economy by increasing debt-financed infrastructure, salaries, etc.). X — M : Net be subtracted from NNP at market price?
government spending will not be exports (exports minus imports). SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift)
effective because investors and (a) Depreciation
consumers understand that the debt will Q.113. ________ is the income of the (b) Net product taxes and net production
eventually have to be paid for in the form Government, which arises out of the taxes
of future taxes. property left by the people without a legal (c) Net indirect taxes
heir. (d) Depreciation and net product taxes
Q.110. Which of the following is an SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (1st shift)
objective of the Government Budget? (a) Escheat (b) Moot (c) Felony (d) Lien Sol.116.(c) Net indirect taxes: Net
A) GDP Growth National Product (NNP) at factor cost is
B) Reallocation of Resources Sol.113.(a) Escheat. Felony - Felonies also known as national income. NNP at
df
C) Balanced Regional Growth are the most serious offences that a Factor Cost = NNP at Market Price — Net
person or corporation can commit
_p
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (1st shift) Indirect Taxes. Thus, Net Indirect Taxes
(a) Only A (b) All - A, B and C against another. Moot - Unsettled, open must be subtracted from NNP at Market
to argument or debatable. Lien - A legal
na
(c) Only A and C (d) Only B Price to arrive at National Income (NNP
claim or legal right which is made at Factor Cost).
Sol.110.(b) All - A, B and C.The objective against the assets that are held as
ap
of the Government Budget is to outline collaterals for satisfying a debt. Q.117. Proportional taxes would help to
the government's revenue and reduce the autonomous expenditure
:@
Q.114. The stabilisation function of the multiplier because _____________ .
expenditure for a specific period, to
government budget mainly includes ____. SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift)
achieve various economic and social
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift) (a) taxes increase the MPC
goals.
TG
(a) allocation of resources (b) MPC does not have any role in it
Q.111. Identify the true statement. (b) intervention to expand or reduce the (c) taxes and MPC become equal
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (2nd shift) demand (d) taxes reduce the MPC
on
(a) If real GDP is 240 and price index is (c) production of public goods
120, nominal GDP is 200. (d) distribution of income in society in a Sol.117.(d) Taxes reduce the MPC. MPC
fair way (marginal propensity to consume) - It is
ch
(b) If real GDP is 500 and price index is
200, nominal GDP is 250. the change in consumption per unit
Sol.114.(b) Stabilisation policy seeks to change in income. Proportional taxes
ar
(c) If real GDP is 500 and price index is
limit erratic swings in the economy's take a constant fraction of income as
200, nominal GDP is 700.
total output (measured by the Gross
Se
(d) If real GDP is 240 and price index is tax, reducing the disposable income
domestic product), Controlling surges in available for consumption. Since
120, nominal GDP is 288.
inflation or deflation. Two forms : households have less disposable income
Sol.111.(d) Real GDP (Gross Domestic Expansionary policy - Government moves after taxes, the amount they consume
Product) is an inflation-adjusted measure to lower taxes or increase spending to from additional income decreases. Thus,
that reflects the value of all goods and boost the economy. Contractionary the autonomous expenditure multiplier
services produced by an economy in a policy - When the Government increases will reduce.
given year. Nominal GDP - It is given in taxes or reduces spending to slow the
current prices, without adjustment for economy and reduce inflation. Q.118. CBIC stands for ________.
inflation. SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Q.115. Which of the following items is (a) Central Bureau of Investigation and
𝑃𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒 𝐼𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥
Nominal GDP = Real GDP × NOT a part of the non-plan revenue Committee
100
expenditure of the government budget ? (b) Central Board on Issues Related to
120
= 240 × = 288. SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift)
100 Caste
(a) Salaries and pensions (c) Central Board of Information and
Q.112. Which of these is NOT the (b) Subsidies Communication
correctly stated component of the (c) Defence services (d) Central Board of Indirect Taxes and
expenditure method of measuring (d) Central assistance for states and Customs
national income ? union territories
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (4th shift) Sol.118.(d) Central Board of Indirect
(a) Final investment expenditure by firms Sol.115.(d) The distinction between Plan Taxes and Customs (erstwhile Central
(b) Final government expenditure and Non-Plan expenditure was abolished Board of Excise and Customs). It is one
(c) Export plus import expenditure in 2016 on the recommendation of C. R. of the Boards constituted under the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
statute the Central Boards of Revenue measure of surplus accruing from Q.126. ____is an item for which both, GST
Act, 1963 and is subordinate to the production of the output before and central excise duty are applicable in
Department of Revenue under the deducting property income from it like India.
Ministry of Finance. It deals with the profits, rent, and interest. It is a SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (2nd shift)
tasks of formulation of policy concerning component of value added and gross (a) Alcohol for human consumption
levy and collection of customs, central domestic product. (b) Tobacco and tobacco products
excise duties, Central Goods & Services (c) Petroleum products
Tax (CGST) and Integrated GST (IGST). Q.122. What is the basic difference in the (d) All the agricultural commodities
aggregates at market price and factor
Q.119. Which country first introduced cost ? Sol.126.(b) Tobacco and tobacco
zero-based budgeting? SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift) products. GST (Goods and Services Tax)
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift) (a) Depreciation (b) Indirect taxes : Implemented - 1st July 2017.
(a) India (b) Germany (c) Net indirect taxes (d) Direct taxes Amendment - 101st Amendment Act,
(c) The US (d) The UK 2016. Article - 279 A. The primary GST
Sol.122.(c) Net indirect taxes. Factor slabs for any regular taxpayers are
Sol.119.(c) The U.S. Zero based cost - The total cost of all the factors of presently pegged at 0% (nil-rated), 5%,
budgeting (ZBB) : A method of budgeting production in manufacturing a good, 12%, 18% & 28%. However, petroleum
in which all expenses are evaluated each which does not account for the subsidies products, alcoholic drinks, and electricity
time a Budget is made and expenses received and taxes paid. are not taxed under GST and instead are
must be justified for each new period. It taxed separately by the individual state
was introduced by Peter Pyhrr in 1970’s. Q.123. Identify the correct match.
A) Pension to retired government governments.
In India, the ZBB was introduced in the
department of science and technology in employees - Revenue Receipt Q.127. While computing Net Economic
df
1983, and adopted by the Indian B) Purchase of Machinery in Railways - Welfare (NEW), which of the following
Capital Expenditure
_p
Government in 1986. It was promoted items is subtracted from GNP ?
during the Seventh Five-Year Plan. In SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift) SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (4th shift)
(a) Both A and B (b) Only A
na
India, Maharashtra is the first state to (a) Value of leisure time
implement Zero-based budgeting. (c) Neither A nor B (d) Only B (b) Adjustments for congestion of urban
ap
Sol.123.(d) Only B. Capital expenditure : life
Q.120. Match List I with List II and (c) Do-it-yourself activities
choose your answer from the code Expenditure that either creates an asset
:@
or reduces the liability of the (d) The underground economy
below:
government. Example : Purchases of Sol.127.(b) Net Economic Welfare (NEW)
List - I List - II
property, equipment, land, computers, : It is a broader concept than Gross
TG
i. Service tax a. Capital receipt
furniture, and software. National Product (GNP) to measure
ii. Interest receipt b. Revenue expenditure
iii. Sale of shares c. Non-tax revenue Q.124. Exports of mangoes by India is a economic welfare. NEW = GNP + Value
of PSUs of Housewives Services + Value of
on
part of _____ method of measurement of
iv. Salaries and d. Tax revenue its national income. leisure – Expenditure on defence – Cost
pension
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) of Environment Degradation.
ch
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift) (a) circular income (b) value added Q.128. Revenue expenditure minus
(a) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a (b) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d (c) expenditure (d) income
ar
revenue receipts is _________.
(c) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b (d) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b
Sol.124.(c) Expenditure. This method SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift)
Se
Sol.120.(c) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b. Tax (a) revenue deficit (b) budget deficit
adds up Consumer spending, Investment,
revenue: Income tax, corporate tax, (c) always negative (d) always positive
Government expenditure, and Net
customs duties, VAT, etc. Non-tax
exports. Formula (Expenditure method Sol.128.(a) Revenue deficit refers to the
revenue: Interest on loans provided by
for national income): C + I + G + (X - M), excess of revenue expenditure over
the government, dividends from public
where C = Consumer spending, I = revenue income in a financial year.
sector enterprises, fees for services, etc.
Investment, G = Government spending, X Budget Deficit = Total Expenditures by
Capital receipt: Borrowing from the
= Exports and M = Imports. the government – Total Income of the
public, sale of government assets,
disinvestment of shares in PSUs, etc. Q.125. When did the Government of India government.
Revenue expenditure: Spending on bring the gender sensitivities of the Q.129. Which of the following
government salaries, pensions, budgetary allocation in its statement for statements is/are FALSE ?
subsidies, interest payments on loans, the first time ? A) The impact of externality is always
etc. SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (2nd shift) positive.
(a) 2004-05 (b) 2007-08 B) Real national income means national
Q.121. Which of the following is NOT
(c) 2006-07 (d) 2005-06 income at constant prices
included in 'Operating Surplus' ?
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift) Sol.125.(d) 2005-06. India introduced SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift)
(a) Rent (b) Profit Gender-Responsive Budgeting (GRB) to (a) Only B (b) Only A
(c) Interest (d) Wages in cash design public spending in a way that (c) Neither A nor B (d) Both A and B
ensures that the benefits accrue as much Sol.129.(b) Only A. Externalities refer to
Sol.121.(d) Wages in Cash. Operating
to the country's women as they do to the the positive or negative effects of an
Surplus : Concept used in national
men. economic activity on third parties who
accounts statistics which refers to the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
are not directly involved in the (Article 112)} - A statement of the (c) Infinity (d) Negative
transaction. Positive Externalities : It estimated receipts and expenditure of
does not only benefit a single person but the Government in a financial year. It Sol.137.(a) Positive. Gross primary
also the society. Examples include contains Estimates of revenue and Deficit = Gross fiscal Deficit - Net interest
Education, Vaccination, Public Parks, capital receipts, ways and means to raise liabilities. Deficit - The amount by which
Pollution control, etc. Negative the revenue, details of the actual receipts the spending done in a budget surpasses
Externalities : When a benefit of an and expenditure of the closing financial the earnings.
economic activity adversely impacts a year with reasons for any deficit or Q.138. When was the Direct Tax Code Bill
third party that is not involved in the surplus in that year, the economic and introduced in the Parliament of India?
transaction. Examples include Pollution, financial policy of the coming year SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Green House Gas emission, Smoking, (taxation proposals, prospects of (a) 2010 (b) 2005 (c) 2020 (d) 2015
Overfishing, Deforestation, etc,. revenue, spending programme and
introduction of new schemes). Sol.138.(a) 2010. Direct tax: It is directly
Q.130. Which of the following is an paid to the authority imposing the tax. It
example of direct tax? Q.134. Which of the following is NOT an is levied on taxable income earned by
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift) example of factor payment? individuals and corporate entities.
(a) Escheat SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift) Example - Income tax, real property tax,
(b) Income Tax (a) Interest (b) Wages (c) Rent (d) Pension personal property tax, and taxes on
(c) Custom Duty assets, corporation tax, gift tax,
(d) Goods and Services Tax Sol.134.(d) Pension.
Factor payments : It is the sum total of inheritance tax.
Sol.130.(b) Income Tax. It is a type of tax remunerations earned by the four factors Q.139. If there are N firms in the
governments impose on income of production. Rent is paid for land.
df
economy, each assigned with a serial
generated by businesses and individuals Wages are paid for labour. Interest is number from 1 to N, then as per the
_p
within their jurisdiction. paid for capital. Profit is the payment for product method, GDP can be written as
entrepreneurship. _____ .
Q.131. GDP deflator = _______
na
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift) Q.135. In national income accounting, SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(a) (Nominal GDP × Real GDP) × 100 GVA stands for (a) 𝐺𝑉𝐴1 - 𝐺𝑉𝐴2 .... - 𝐺𝑉𝐴𝑁
ap
(b) (Nominal GDP + Real GDP) × 100 SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Evening) (b) 𝑁𝑉𝐴1 + 𝑁𝑉𝐴2 ..... + 𝑁𝑉𝐴𝑁
(c) (Nominal GDP − Real GDP) × 100 (a) General vesting added
:@
(c) 𝐺𝑉𝐴1 + 𝐺𝑉𝐴2 ..... + 𝐺𝑉𝐴𝑁
(d) (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) × 100 (b) General visited account
(d) 𝐺𝑉𝐴1+ 𝑁𝑉𝐴2 + 𝐺𝑉𝐴3 + 𝑁𝑉𝐴4.....
(c) Gross value accounting
Sol.131.(d) (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) × (d) Gross value added
TG
100. The GDP deflator also known as Sol.139.(c) 𝐺𝑉𝐴1 + 𝐺𝑉𝐴2..... + 𝐺𝑉𝐴𝑁.
implicit price deflator is an indicator of Sol.135.(d) Gross value added (GVA) - A Value added or product method (𝐺𝑉𝐴1 +
inflation. This helps in measuring the significant macroeconomic indicator that
on
𝐺𝑉𝐴2..... + 𝐺𝑉𝐴𝑁), where GVA represents
actual increase in GDP. measures the value of goods and
services produced in an economy, after gross value added by the firms. The
Q.132. In which union budget was India's Value Added Method (Product method) :
ch
deducting the cost of inputs and raw
first sovereign wealth fund named materials used in the production In the product method we calculate the
'National Investment and Infrastructure aggregate annual value of goods and
ar
process. Gross Value Added = GDP +
Fund (NIIF)' announced ? subsidies on products - taxes on services produced. The value added of a
Se
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift) products. firm is, value of production of the firm –
(a) 2015-16 (b) 2021-22 value of intermediate goods used by the
(c) 2017-18 (d) 2019-20 Q.136. Duties levied on goods produced firm.
within the country are _______.
Sol.132.(a) 2015-16. NIIF is a SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning) Q.140. Assume that the exchange rate
government-backed entity established to (a) anti - dumping taxes (b) excise taxes between the US Dollar and Indian Rupee
provide long-term capital to the country’s (c) custom duties (d) wealth taxes is $1 = 55. Now if this exchange rate
infrastructure sector. Headquarter - increases to $1 = ₹60, then in this case
Mumbai. The Budget Division of the Sol.136.(b) Excise taxes. Custom duties the Indian Rupee has _____in comparison
Department of Economic Affairs in the - It is a tax collected on imports and to the US dollar.
Finance Ministry is the nodal body exports by the customs authorities of a SSC CGL Tier II (07/03/2023)
responsible for preparing the Budget. country. Anti - dumping duty is a tariff (a) depreciated (b) appreciated
imposed on imports manufactured in (c) Demonetised (d) overvalued
Q.133. ____expenditure and ____ receipts foreign countries that are priced below
are shown by the government budget. the fair market value of similar goods in Sol.140.(a) Depreciated. Currency
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (4th shift) the domestic market. Depreciation - The loss of value of a
(a) Estimated; actual country's currency with respect to one or
(b) Actual; estimated Q.137. If the value of gross fiscal deficit more foreign reference currencies.
(c) Actual; actual will be more than net interest liabilities,
(d) Estimated; estimated the value of gross primary deficit will be Q.141. The subject of the Study of
___________ . Macroeconomics is based on which
Sol.133.(d) Estimated; estimated. SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Evening) principle?
Budget {Annual Financial Statement (a) Positive (b) Zero SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (1st Shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
(a) The principle of National Income Sol.144.(a) PC Mahalanobis (chairman SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Afternoon)
(b) The principle of Consumer of Indian Statistical Institute). The (a) Consumption angle
(c) The principle of Producer National Income Committee (NIC) (b) Expenditure angle
(d) The principle of Investment (1949) calculated the National Income of (c) Income distribution angle
India and compiled statistics. Members (d) Production angle
Sol.141.(a) The principle of National of NIC : VKRV Rao and DR Gadgil.
Income. Macroeconomics - It explains Sol.149.(c) Income distribution angle
how the economy as a whole operates Q.145. The difference between a National income is the sum of all the
and how aggregate demand and supply farmer's output over and above his factor income (Wage, Rent, Interest,
are used to generate the level of national on-farm consumption is known as ______. Profit) that is generated during a
income and employment. SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening) production year.
(a) consumer surplus
Q.142. Which of the following (b) marketable surplus Q.150. Which of the following
organisations of the Government of India (c) foreign consumption statements is/are correct ?
has been reporting the GDP at factor (d) domestic consumption I. Only marketed goods are considered
cost and at market prices? while estimating Gross Domestic
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (3rd Shift) Sol.145.(b) Marketable Surplus. Product (GDP).
(a) Reserve Bank of India Consumer surplus occurs when the price II. The work done by a woman at her
(b) National Sample Survey Organisation consumers pay for a product or service home is outside the purview of Gross
(c) National Statistics Office is less than the price they are willing to Domestic Product.
(d) NITI Aayog pay. Domestic consumption products III. In estimating GDP, only final goods
and services that are bought and used in and services are considered.
Sol.142.(c) National Statistical Office. It the country that makes them. SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Morning)
df
also compiles the Index of Industrial (a) Only II and III (b) I, II and III
Production (IIP), Annual Survey of Q.146. In 1950-51, what percentage of
_p
(c) Only I and III (d) Only II
Industries (ASI) and all-India Economic GDP of India was contributed by the
Censuses. It conducts nationwide industrial sector ? Sol.150.(b) I, II and III. GDP is the value
sample surveys to gather data on
employment, consumer expenditure,
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening)
na
(a) 22 % (b) 28 % (c) 13 % (d) 16 %
of all final goods and services produced
within a country during a particular year.
ap
housing conditions, environment, literacy, Unpaid domestic work, like cooking or
health, nutrition, and family welfare. Sol.146.(c) 13%. In 1950-51, the caregiving at home, is valuable but not
:@
The National Sample Survey Office Agriculture sector contributed 59% to included in GDP because it is not traded
(NSSO, founded in 1950) is merged with India’s GDP, and the Service sector in markets.
the Central Statistical Office (CSO, contributed 28% to India’s GDP.
TG
founded in 1951) under the Ministry of Q.151. The value of the Gross Domestic
Q.147. Which of the following Product (GDP) of India is published by
Statistics and Programme commodities are exempted from GST ?
Implementation to form the National PIB in ______.
on
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Morning)
Statistical Office (NSO) in 2019. (a) Hand sanitisers (a) US Dollar (b) Yen
(b) Pens
ch
Q.143. Which type of tax acts as an (c) Yuan (d) Indian Rupee
automatic stabiliser in the economy? (c) Alcohol for human consumption
(d) Ventilators Sol.151.(d) Indian Rupee. The GDP of
ar
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (4th Shift)
(a) Professional tax India is typically measured and published
Sol.147.(c) Alcohol for human
Se
(b) Wealth tax in Indian Rupees, as it is the official
consumption. Other Goods not covered currency of the country.
(c) Capital gains tax under Goods and Services Tax (GST) :
(d) Proportional income tax Petrol, high-speed diesel, aviation turbine Q.152. ______ is a tax system that
Sol.143.(d) Proportional income tax. fuel, crude oil, Electricity, and Natural collects a greater share of income from
The proportional income tax acts as an Gas. those with high incomes than from those
automatic stabiliser – a shock absorber with lower incomes.
Q.148. GDP that takes into account the
because it makes disposable income, SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Evening)
costs in terms of environmental pollution
and thus consumer spending, less (a) Proportional tax (b) Regressive tax
and exploitation of natural resources is
sensitive to fluctuations in GDP. When (c) Payroll tax (d) Progressive tax
called __________.
GDP rises, income taxes reduce SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Evening) Sol.152.(d) Progressive tax is a tax
disposable income, limiting excessive (a) white GDP (b) green GDP system that collects a greater share of
spending. During recession, income falls (c) brown GDP (d) blue GDP income from those with high incomes
less sharply, and consumption does not than from those with lower incomes.
drop as much as it, because tax liability Sol.148.(b) green GDP. The Green Gross
Payroll tax can be defined as the tax that
has been fixed. Domestic Product is an indicator of
is withheld, charged, or levied on the
economic growth with environmental
Q.144. Who among the following headed payroll of the employer.
factors taken into consideration along
the National Income Committee? with the standard GDP of a country. Q.153. According to the Output Method,
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (2nd Shift) GDP is calculated as:
(a) PC Mahalanobis (b) VKRV Rao Q.149. Which of the following angles of
the flow of factor payments forms the SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Evening)
(c) DR Gadgil (d) BR Ambedkar (a) GDP at Constant Prices – Taxes +
basis to estimate the national income?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
Subsidies different items. Basis for credit - It is the owners. The formula for computing
(b) GDP at Constant Prices + Subsidies used as a basis for credit. net worth is : Assets - Liabilities = Net
(c) GDP at Constant Prices – Taxes Worth.
(d) GDP at Constant Prices + Taxes – Q.156. Which of the following is referred
Subsidies to as ‘Near Money’ ? Q.160. Which of the following definitions
SSC MTS 18/10/2024 (3rd Shift) best describes the concept of
Sol.153.(a) GDP at Constant Prices – (a) Coins microfinance ?
Taxes + Subsidies. The output method is (b) Currency notes SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
also known as the value-added method. (c) National savings deposits (a) A microfinance institution is a
(d) Bank money company registered under the
Q.154. Which of the given statements
Companies Act, 1956, and engaged in
about the Union Budget is/are true? Sol.156.(c) National savings deposits. the business of loans and advances
a) Vote on Account deals only with the 'Near money' refers to assets that are not and acquisition of shares/stocks
expenditure side of the government in the form of cash but can easily be /bonds/debentures /securities issued
budget. converted into cash or used for by the government.
b) Vote on Account and Interim Budget transactions. National savings deposits (b) Microfinance is a banking service
are not the same. are considered 'near money' because provided to unemployed or
c) An Interim Budget gives a complete they can be quickly converted into cash, low-income individuals or groups,
financial statement, similar to a full similar to liquid assets, though they are who otherwise would have no other
budget. not immediately spendable like currency access to financial services.
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Evening) notes or coins. (c) A microfinance institution is a
(a) Only a (b) Only c
Q.157. In which year was the Shri Mahila digital-only and mobile-first bank
(c) a, b and c (d) a and b
df
SEWA Sahakari Bank established ? (d) Microfinance refers to providing
Sol.154.(c) Budget (Annual financial SSC MTS 05/11/2024 (1st Shift) banking services to individuals living
_p
statement, Article 112) is a statement of (a) 1971 (b) 1974 (c) 1975 (d) 1972 in rural areas.
the estimated receipts and expenditure
na
Sol.157.(b) 1974. Self-Employed Sol.160.(b) Microfinance loans are small,
of the government in a financial year (1st
Women's Association (SEWA), meaning unsecured loans given to low-income
April - 31st March). A vote-on-account is
ap
"service" in several Indian languages, is a borrowers for starting or expanding
Parliament's approval to the Centre for
trade union based in Ahmedabad. small businesses or for basic needs like
withdrawal of money from the
:@
Headquarters - Ahmedabad, Founder - education and healthcare. The Reserve
Consolidated Fund of India for a
Ela Bhatt. Bank of India regulates microfinance in
specified expenditure to be incurred for a
India. Types of Microfinance Institutions
particular period. The Union Budget
TG
Q.158. ________is an industry association (MFIs) include credit unions, NGOs, and
2021-22, presented by Finance Minister
and self-regulatory organisation (SRO) commercial banks. Notable MFIs include
Nirmala Sitharaman, was India's first
whose primary objective is to work Bandhan Bank, Ujjivan Small Finance
paperless budget.
on
towards the robust development of the Bank, Annapurna Finance, and Muthoot
microfinance sector. Microfin.
Money Banking and Financial SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
ch
Institutions (a) Self-help Group Association Q.161. Which of the following
(b) Microfinance Institutions Network institutions has contributed mainly in
ar
Q.155. Which of the following (c) Microfinance and Investments improving the economic status of the
statements regarding the functions of poor women in rural areas ?
Se
Regulatory Authority
money is/are correct ? (d) NABARD SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
1. Money as a unit of account means (a) Indira Awas Yojana
that it is a standard numerical unit of Sol.158.(b) Microfinance Institutions (b) Integrated Development Project
measurement of the market value of Network (MFIN) was established in (c) Self-help Group
goods, services and other transactions. 2009. In 2014, the Reserve Bank of India (d) Rural Health Scheme
2. Money as a standard of deferred (RBI) recognized MFIN as a
Self-Regulatory Organization (SRO) for Sol.161.(c) Self-Help Groups are
payment is not an important function
the NBFC-MFI, making MFIN the first informal associations of people who
because modern economies rarely use
industry association to be accorded choose to come together to find ways to
money for future payments.
recognition as an SRO by the RBI. improve their living conditions. They help
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
the poor and marginalized by building
(a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 2
Q.159. If assets of a bank are greater skills for employment and income
(c) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
than liabilities, it will be recorded as: generation. SHGs also provide loans
Sol.155.(a) Only 1. Money as a standard SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) without requiring collateral.
of deferred payments means that money (a) liabilities (b) net worth
acts as a standard for payments which (c) reserves (d) assets Q.162. Which of the following is a
are to be made in future. Functions of component of the SHG-bank linkage
Money: Medium of exchange - Money is Sol.159.(b) net worth. The amount by program in India?
used to buy and sell goods and services. which the value of the assets exceed the SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Store of value - It can be saved and used liabilities is the net worth (equity) of the (a) Microfinance institutions providing
to build wealth over time. Unit of account business. The net worth reflects the loans directly to SHGs
- It is used to compare the value of amount of ownership of the business by (b) Banks providing loans to individual
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
members of SHGs (a) Dr. C Rangarajan; 1996 - It is issued by large companies for
(c) Non-governmental organisations (b) Dr. YV Reddy; 1998 short-term funding at lower interest
providing capacity building training to (c) Dr. KV Kamath; 1995 rates, with maturities of 15 days to one
SHGs (d) Dr. PK Mohanty; 1998 year. Treasury bills - They are short-term
(d) State government providing subsidies government securities maturing in less
to SHGs for credit Sol.165.(b) Dr. YV Reddy; 1998. NM2 than one year.
(Narrow Money 2) measures the money
Sol.162.(b) The SHG-BL Project was supply in an economy, including currency, Q.169. What is the primary aim of
launched by NABARD in 1992-93, has demand deposits, and time deposits. It Regional Rural Banks in India ?
now become the largest microfinance indicates liquidity and helps guide SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
programme in the world. The SHG-Bank monetary policy and economic (a) Development of urban economy
Linkage Model involves banks regulation. Central banks, such as the (b) Development of semi-urban economy
(Commercial, Rural, and Cooperative) RBI, use NM2 to control inflation and (c) Development of rural economy
directly lending to SHGs, which manage manage economic growth, reflecting (d) Development of metropolitan
and guarantee loans for members. broader money supply aspects for policy economy
decisions.
Q.163. Which of the following is Fisher's Sol.169.(c) Development of rural
equation of exchange? Q.166. The term ‘Microfinancing’ was economy. The Regional Rural Banks
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) first used in the 1970s during the (RRBs): Established in 1975 under the
(a) M V = P T (b) M T = V P development of Grameen Bank of Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976 on the
𝑀 𝑇 Bangladesh, which was founded by _____. recommendations of the Narsimham
(c) M = S + I (d) =
𝑉 𝑃 SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) Committee. The first RRB was Prathama
(a) Muhammad Yunus (b) Adam Smith Bank, with its head office in Moradabad,
df
Sol.163.(a) MV = PT. Fisher Equation
(c) Jeremy Bentham (d) Alfred Marshall Uttar Pradesh. In India, the Reserve Bank
states that the nominal interest rate is
_p
of India (RBI) oversees the entire banking
equal to the sum of the real interest rate Sol.166.(a) Muhammad Yunus. system, while NABARD supervises rural
plus inflation. It lies at the heart of the Muhammad Yunus is a Bangladeshi
na
financial institutions, including RRBs
Quantity Theory of Money. MV = PT, economist, entrepreneur, politician, and under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.
where M = Money Supply, V = Velocity of civil society leader. He is the founder of
ap
circulation, P = Price Level, and T = modern micro finance. He was awarded Q.170. The Central Office of the Reserve
Transactions. the Nobel Peace Prize in 2006 for Bank of India was initially established in
:@
founding the Grameen Bank and which present city in 1935 ?
Q.164. Which of the following is a
pioneering microcredit and microfinance. SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift)
difference between self-help groups
(a) Mumbai (b) Chennai
TG
(SHGs) and microfinance institutions Q.167. In 2000-01, NABARD instituted (c) Delhi (d) Kolkata
(MFIs) in India? Micro Finance Development Fund with a
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) corpus of ________. Sol.170.(d) Kolkata. Reserve Bank of
on
(a) SHGs are non-profit organisations, SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) India was established on 1 April 1935 on
while MFIs are for-profit (a) ₹189 crores (b) ₹245 crores the recommendations of Hilton Young
organisations Commission. Headquarters : Mumbai,
ch
(c) ₹150 crores (d) ₹100 crores
(b) SHGs provide only credit, while MFIs Maharashtra. Nationalization: On 1
provide a range of financial services. Sol.167.(d) ₹100 crores. The Micro January 1949. Currency: Issues all
ar
(c) SHGs are typically small, Finance Development Fund was currency notes except for one rupee.
Se
community-based organisations, established to support and promote the Initially, the Central Office of the RBI was
while MFIs are larger and more microfinance sector in India. The fund established in Calcutta but later on
formal institutions. aimed to support microfinance moved to Mumbai in 1937.
(d) SHGs rely on government subsidies institutions and promote self-help groups
for funding, while MFIs rely on (SHGs) across India. NABARD (National Q.171. Which of the following refers to
commercial sources of funding. Bank for Agriculture and Rural the purchase and sale of government
Development) established on 12 July securities ?
Sol.164.(c) Self-Help Groups (SHGs) in 1982. SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift)
India, started in the late 1980s by NGOs, (a) Bank rate
typically consist of 10 to 20 women, Q.168. Which of the following is issued (b) Open market operations
serving as financial intermediaries. by commercial banks at a discount on (c) Reserve ratio
Examples include Amba Foundation, face value? (d) High powered money
ASRLM, and Chamoli SHG. Microfinance SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift)
institutions (MFIs), like Ujivan Financial (a) Commercial papers Sol.171.(b) Open market operations. The
Services and Annapurna Finance, provide (b) Treasury bills purchase and sale of government
banking services to low-income groups, (c) Certificates of deposits securities (G-Sec) is entrusted to the
playing a key role in poverty alleviation. (d) Promissory notes Central bank on behalf of the
Government.Open market operations
Q.165. The Working Group under the Sol.168.(c) Certificates of deposits are (OMOs) are a key tool used by central
chairmanship of_______in the year_______ unsecured, negotiable, short-term banks to control the money supply and
proposed a new intermediate monetary instruments in bearer form, issued by interest rates in an economy. To increase
aggregate to be referred to as NM2. commercial banks and development the money supply, RBI purchases G-sec
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) financial institutions. Commercial papers from the market and to reduce the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
money supply, RBI sells G-Sec in the liquidity or money supply, it will sell (a) Finance Ministry
market. securities and suck funds from the (b) NABARD
system. (c) State Government
Q.172. Rotating Savings and Credit (d) Reserve Bank of India
Association (ROSCA) was introduced by Q.176. Assume that the value of the cash
Shirley Ardener in the year ________. reserve ratio is 25%. What will be the Sol.179.(d) Reserve Bank of India.
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) value of the money multiplier ? Microfinance institution - An organisation
(a) 1964 (b) 1970 (c) 1963 (d) 1955 SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) that offers microloans, microsavings and
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 2 microinsurance services to low income
Sol.172.(a) 1964. ROSCA is an populations. In India, loans below one
alternative financial vehicle in which a Sol.176.(c) 4. The Cash Reserve Ratio lakh rupees are defined as microloans.
group of individuals fills the role of an (CRR) - The minimum percentage of total The RBI defined microfinance as
informal financial institution. deposits that commercial banks are collateral free loans given to households
required to retain as cash reserves with having annual income up to Rs. 3 lakh.
Q.173. The velocity of circulation of the RBI. This is determined by the RBI, as
money will be higher when the ____is less a limit to money or credit creation by Q.180. When RBI decides to decrease the
than the requirements of the economy. banks. Money Multiplier repo rate, money supply will _________.
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift) 1 SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
(a) demand for money =
𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑅𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑒 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 (𝐶𝑅𝑅) (a) decrease
(b) supply of money 1 1 (b) increase
(c) velocity of money = = =4
25% 0.25 (c) remain unaffected
(d) elasticity of money (d) initially stay constant and then
Q.177. What distinguishes a bank from
decrease
df
Sol.173.(a) demand for money. It is other financial institutions?
people's desire to hold liquidity money or SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.180.(b) increase. Repo rate : It refers
_p
cash, rather than investing it in other (a) Lending to the rate at which commercial banks
asset forms. Money supply : It refers to (b) Accepting deposits borrow money by selling their securities
na
the total quantity of money held by the (c) Providing long term loans to the Reserve bank of India (RBI) to
public in various forms at any point of (d) Accepting loans and borrowings maintain liquidity, in case of shortage of
ap
time in an economy. Velocity of money is funds or due to some statutory
a measurement of the rate at which Sol.177.(b) Accepting deposits.
measures. It is one of the main tools of
:@
money is exchanged in an economy. The Accepting deposits is the primary
RBI to keep inflation under control. If
velocity of money is typically higher in function of banks that sets them apart
Repo Rate increases then money supply
expanding economies and lower in from other financial institutions. Banks
will decrease.
TG
contracting economies. accept deposits from the public, provide
safe-keeping for these funds, and allow Q.181. For providing a non-microfinance
Q.174. Which of the following banks is in depositors to withdraw their money on loan to a low-income household, there is
on
charge of India’s banking and monetary demand. Lending and Borrowing is also a a limit of ____on monthly loan repayment
system? function of Banks but it is also obligations of a household as a
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) performed by other financial institutions
ch
percentage of monthly household
(a) Union Bank (b) RBI (c) BOB (d) SBI such as Non-Banking financial income.
institutions (NBFC), Microfinance
ar
Sol.174.(b) RBI. The Reserve Bank of SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
companies, Self-Help groups, investment (a) 25% (b) 50% (c) 75% (d) 40%
India (RBI) is the central authority
Se
firms, etc.
responsible for regulating the circulation Sol.181.(b) 50%. This limit is set by the
of the Indian rupee, monetary policy, and Q.178. If the value / percentage of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to protect
the banking system within the Indian cash reserve ratio falls, then the value of low-income households from
economy. money multiplier ________. over-indebtedness.
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Q.175. Selling of bonds by the RBI will Q.182. ________ is an instrument under
(a) falls (b) None of the above
cause money supply to __________. the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) at
(c) remains stable (d) rises
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) which RBI lends to commercial banks.
(a) increase Sol.178.(d) rises. The money multiplier is SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
(b) No relationship exists between selling inversely related to the cash reserve ratio (a) Repo rate (b) Reverse repo rate
bonds and money supply (CRR). If the CRR falls, banks are required (c) Bank rate (d) Cash reserve ratio
(c) fluctuate to keep a smaller percentage of their
(d) decrease deposits as reserves. This means they Sol.182.(a) Repo rate. Reverse repo rate
can lend out more money, which - The rate at which the central bank of a
Sol.175.(d) Decrease. Open Market country borrows money from
increases the overall money supply. An
Operations (OMOs) refer to the buying commercial banks. Bank rate - It is a rate
increase in a cash reserve ratio prevents
and selling of government securities by at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
the banks from lending more money and
RBI to regulate the short-term money provides the loan to commercial banks
reduces the money multiplier.
supply. If RBI wants to induce liquidity or without keeping any security. Cash
more funds in the system, it will buy Q.179. Who issued guidelines for the reserve ratio - The percentage of a bank's
government securities and inject funds microfinance institutions in India? total deposits that it needs to maintain
into the system. If RBI wants to reduce SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 as liquid cash.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
Q.183. The maximum limit on (b) Issue of currency (RBI). The Government of India set up the
microfinance loans for NBFCs other than (c) Banking facilities to the government first mutual fund by an Act of Parliament
NBFC-MFIs is _________. (d) Credit control in 1963.
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
(a) 75% of the total assets Sol.186.(a) Credit creation - Process by Q.190. What is the difference between a
(b) 25% of the total assets which commercial banks create new debit card and a credit card ?
(c) 85% of the total loans money by lending to businesses and SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (1st Shift)
(d) 25% of the total equity individuals. Other functions of (a) Debit cards are used for online
Commercial banks : Accepting deposits, transactions, while credit cards are
Sol.183.(b) 25% of the total assets. The Providing loans, Facilitating payments, used for in-person purchases.
Reserve Bank of India has increased the etc. The function of Reserve bank of (b) Credit cards require a PIN, while debit
maximum limit on microfinance loans India includes, Issue of currency, Banking cards require a signature.
given by NBFCs that are not qualified as facilities to the government, Credit (c) Debit cards withdraw money directly
NBFC-MFIs to 25% from 10% earlier. RBI control, Managing foreign exchange, from a bank account, while credit
has also given a breather to NBFC-MFIs Issuing banking licenses. cards allow borrowing up to a certain
by reducing the minimum requirement of limit.
microfinance loans of total loan assets Q.187. In India all loans that are below (d) Debit cards have higher interest rates
to 75 % from 85% earlier, in sync with the _______ are considered as micro loans. than credit cards.
harmonisation of microfinance regulation SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning)
for all lenders. (a) one lakh rupees (b) four lakh rupees Sol.190.(c) Debit cards (Plastic Money)
(c) two lakh rupees (d) three lakh rupees and credit cards look nearly identical, and
Q.184. In the concept of money supply, both can give a fast and convenient way
M4 refers to ________. Sol.187.(a) one lakh rupees. to pay - no matter whether you’re paying
df
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) Non-Banking Financial Company - Micro in person, online or over the phone.
Finance Institution (NBFC-MFI) : A type
_p
(a) currency with the public
of financial institution that provides Q.191. Which of the following is NOT a
(b) M1+ post office saving deposits
financial services, including microloans characteristic of money?
na
(c) M3+ total post office deposits
and other financial products, to SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (1st Shift)
(d) M1+ time deposits of the public with
low-income and economically vulnerable (a) Portability (b) Perishability
ap
banks
individuals, especially in rural and (c) Divisibility (d) Durability
Sol.184.(c) M3+ total post office underserved areas. The regulator of
:@
Sol.191.(b) Perishability - A
deposits. The Reserve Bank of India Micro Finance in India is the Reserve
characteristic of products and services
(RBI) releases data for four different Bank of India.
that do not allow for the product or
metrics representing money supply,
TG
Q.188. Which of the following service to be stored for sale at a future
namely M1, M2, M3, and M4. M2 = M1 +
microfinance institutions was date. Money - Any object that is generally
Savings deposits with Post Office
established in India at the time of accepted as payment for goods and
savings banks. M3 = M1 + Net time
on
independence ? services and repayment of debts in a
deposits of commercial banks.
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) given country or socio-economic context.
ch
Q.185. Identify the correct statement in (a) Self Help Group
Q.192. What is a dimension related to
the context of money supply (b) Grameen Model Bank
the sustainability of microfinance
ar
(i) Money supply refers to the total (c) Rural Cooperatives
institutions in India?
volume of money held by public at a (d) Joint Liability Group
Se
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
particular point of time
Sol.188.(c) Rural Cooperatives. Bandhan (a) Dependency on donor funding
(ii) Money supply is a flow concept
Bank became the first microfinance (b) Limited social impact
(iii) M1 is the most liquid measure of
company to get a bank licence in 2014. (c) High-profit margins
money supply
Grameen Bank - It was the brainchild of (d) Excessive interest rates
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) Only (ii) (b) Only (i) Nobel Laureate Prof. Muhammad Yunus
Sol.192.(a) Dependency on donor
(c) Only (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (i) and (iii) in Bangladesh in the 1970s.
funding. Sustainability of microfinance
Sol.185.(d) Only (i) and (iii). The money Q.189. Which of the following options is institutions (MFIs) refers to their ability to
supply is the entire stock of currency and not an example of small savings? operate independently and efficiently in
other liquid instruments in a country's SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) the long term without relying on external
economy as of a particular time. M1, M2, (a) Mutual Funds financial aid or donor funding. If an MFI
M3, M4 is the measure of money supply. (b) Kisan Vikas Patras heavily depends on donor funding, its
M1 is the most liquid and makes (c) National Savings Certificates operations and growth become uncertain
transactions the easiest, while M4 is the (d) Post Office Deposits once the donor funds dry up. Hence,
least liquid. M1, M2 - Narrow Money. M3, reducing this dependency is crucial for
Sol.189.(a) Mutual Funds - A mutual the sustainability of MFIs in India.
M4 - Broad Money.
fund is a type of investment vehicle
Q.186. Which of the following is a consisting of a portfolio of stocks, Q.193. What is the main role of
function performed by commercial banks bonds, or other securities. The mutual commercial banks in the economy?
in India? funds in India are regulated by the SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) Securities and Exchange Board of India (a) To promote economic growth and
(a) Credit creation (SEBI) and the Reserve Bank of India development
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
(b) Regulating the stock market SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift) economist. Famous quotes in
(c) control on inflation (a) State Bank of India (SBI) economics: Adam Smith - "Economics is
(d) Management of foreign exchange (b) Bandhan Bank the science of wealth", Alexander
reserves (c) ICICI Bank Hamilton - "A national debt, if it is not
(d) HDFC Bank excessive, will be to us a national
Sol.193.(a) Other functions of blessing" , Gita Gopinath - “Any policy
commercial Banks : Accepting Deposits Sol.197.(b) Bandhan Bank. Microfinance maker’s tool kit must have enough room
(Savings, Currents, Fixed), Lend money to companies in India - Annapurna Finance for fiscal policies because they are of
people and businesses, Provide Locker (2009), Asirvad Microfinance (2007), paramount importance”.
to Customers, Deals with foreign Bandhan Financial Services (1995),
exchanges etc. Commercial Banks are Fusion Microfinance (2010), Cashpor Q.201. What is the main purpose of a
regulated by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Micro Credit (2002). bank statement ?
under Banking Regulation Act, 1949. SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q.198. What is the main source of (a) To track income and expenses
Q.194. What is the main function of income for commercial banks? (b) To transfer funds to another account
money in an economy ? SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (3rd Shift) (c) To advertise new banking products
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift) (a) Donations from customers (d) To have locker facility in the bank
(a) To regulate interest rates (b) Profits from stock market
(b) To create wealth investments Sol.201.(a) A bank statement is a
(c) To facilitate exchange (c) Government grants summary provided by a bank that shows
(d) To control inflation (d) Interest earned on loans and all the transactions in a customer’s
advances account over a specific period. Its main
Sol.194.(c) To facilitate exchange. purpose is to help customers : Track their
df
Primary functions of money : Medium of Sol.198.(d) The commercial bank is a income and expenses (deposits,
exchange, measure of value. Secondary financial institution whose purpose is to
_p
withdrawals, transfers, and payments);
Functions / Derivative functions : Store of accept deposits from people and provide Check their account balance and verify
value, deferred payment, Transfer of loans and other facilities.
na
transactions; Monitor for any
Value / Purchasing Power. Banks collect deposits from customers unauthorised or fraudulent activity.
and pay interest on these savings.
ap
Q.195. What is the meaning of the term Similarly, they charge interest when Q.202. Women SHG member appointed
'Collateral' in banking ? providing loans to borrowers. The as a banking agent is called _________ .
:@
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift) primary source of a bank's income is the SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift)
(a) An investment portfolio difference between the interest earned (a) Bank Mitra (b) Bank Dost
(b) A type of credit card on loans and the interest paid on (c) Bank Sakhi (d) Bank NGO
TG
(c) A form of digital payment deposits. Typically, banks charge higher
(d) An asset pledged as security for a Sol.202.(c) Bank Sakhi. Qualification for
interest rates on loans than what they
loan Bank Sakhi : A woman SHG member for
offer on deposits, creating a profit
on
at least 12 months; Preferably in the age
Sol.195.(d) Collateral is an asset that the margin.
group of 22-45 years; Preferably a literate
borrower owns (such as land, building, person with a Minimum 10th/8th
ch
Q.199. What does the term 'Overdraft'
vehicle, livestocks, deposits with banks) mean in banking? standard pass (Good in writing and
and uses this as a guarantee to a lender reading skills;) Representative of the
ar
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
until the loan is repaid. If the borrower (a) The process of transferring funds community but not the bank. Whenever
Se
fails to repay the loan, the lender has the between bank accounts members of SHG visit the bank to
right to sell the asset or collateral to (b) The maximum withdrawal limit from deposit/ withdraw money, the bank Sakhi
obtain payment. Property such as land an ATM should help the SHGs in Filling
titles, deposits with banks, livestock are (c) Short-term financing facility transaction slips/ bank challans; and In
some common examples of collateral (d) The interest charged on loans accounting of cash – segregation by
used for borrowing. denomination.
Sol.199.(c) Short-term financing facility.
Q.196. What is the purpose of a savings Bank overdraft is a type of financial Q.203. In 2014, Bandhan Financial
account? instrument that is provided to some Services, microlender with Headquarters
SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (1st Shift) customers by the bank in the form of an at ____, was granted in-principal approval
(a) Obtaining a mortgage loan extended credit facility, which comes into by RBI to start a universal bank
(b) Earning interest on deposits effect once the main balance of the SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift)
(c) Making day-to-day transactions account reaches zero. It is mainly used (a) Kolkata (b) Mumbai
(d) Paying bills online for covering short term cash (c) Pune (d) Lucknow
Sol.196.(b) Earning interest on deposits requirements. Sol.203.(a) Kolkata. Bandhan Finance
: It is paid by a bank or financial Q.200. Who said the following ? Service : Established - 2001. Founder -
institutions to account holders who have "Money is what money does." Chandra Shekhar Ghosh.Banks and their
deposited with them. SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (3rd Shift) headquarters : Jana Small Finance Bank
(a) Prof. Seligman (b) Prof. Cole (Bengaluru), Ujjivan Small Finance Bank
Q.197. Which of the following is an (Bengaluru), Equitas Small Finance Bank
(c) Prof. Walker (d) Prof. Robertson
example of a microfinance institution (Chennai), AU Small Finance Bank
(MFI) in India? Sol.200.(c) Prof. Walker - American (Jaipur), Suryoday Small Finance Bank
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
(Navi Mumbai) etc,. Sol.207.(c) Irving Fisher (American It measures the number of times that the
economist) : Term ‘Money Illusion’ first average unit of currency is used to
Q.204. When the general interest rate coined by him in his book “Stabilising the purchase goods and services within a
reaches a very low level, which of the Dollar.” Money illusion is the belief that given time period. Formula (The velocity
following statements will be correct money has a fixed value and the effects of money) : V = PQ / M. Where, V =
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift) of inflation are ignored. The concept of Velocity of Money, PQ = Represents the
(a) Most people will expect the interest money illusion was popularised by John GDP (Nominal Gross Domestic Product),
rate to rise in the future. Maynard Keynes. Adam Smith was a M = Money Supply. Hoarded money - It is
(b) Most people will prefer to hold bonds. Scottish economist who wrote the book not used to purchase goods and
(c) Most people will speculate a further "The Wealth of Nations". Dennis services, so the income velocity of
decline in the rate of interest. Robertson was a British economist hoarded money is zero.
(d) Any increase in the money supply will known for his work on monetary
cause the interest rate to fall further economics and his contributions to Q.211. Which of the following
Keynesian economics. statements is/are correct regarding
Sol.204.(a) When interest rates are very liquidity trap?
low, they are unlikely to fall further and Q.208. Due to which of the following i. It is the point where speculative
are more likely to rise over time. reasons can money be differentiated demand for money is infinitely inelastic
Historically, low interest rates are seen from other physical assets that can and the liquidity preference curve
as temporary, and people anticipate perform the function of store of value? becomes perfectly elastic.
increases in interest rate due to factors SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift) ii. It is the point where speculative
like inflation or central bank policies. (a) Money has common acceptability. demand for money is infinitely elastic
(b) Money possesses liquidity. and the liquidity preference curve
Q.205. NABARD launched a special pilot
df
(c) Money is neutral. becomes perfectly inelastic.
project in 2004-05 called ______ mainly to
(d) Money is easy to store. iii. It is the point where speculative
fulfil the credit needs of the small and
_p
marginal farmers and tenant farmers. demand for money is infinitely elastic
Sol.208.(d) Money is easy to store.
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift) and the liquidity preference curve
na
Three main functions of money : Primary
(a) JLGs (b) MEDP becomes perfectly elastic.
function - Money is used as a medium of
(c) SGSY (d) BLP programme iv. It is the point where speculative
ap
exchange and it is the measure of value.
demand for money and the liquidity
Secondary function - It is the standard of
Sol.205.(a) JLGs (Joint Liability Groups). preference curves are not related.
:@
deferred payments, the transfer, and the
Financing of JLGs was introduced as a SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift)
store of value. Contingent function - The
pilot project in 2004-05 by NABARD in 8 (a) Only statement i is correct
distribution of national income,
States with the support of 13 RRBs. The (b) Only Statement iii is correct
TG
maximum profit to the producers, and
scheme was later mainstreamed for the (c) Only Statement iv is correct
maximum satisfaction to the consumers,
banking system in the year 2006. JLGs (d) Only Statements i and ii are correct
basis of credit and liquidity.
are informal groups of 4-10 members
on
who are engaged in similar economic Sol.211.(b) Liquidity Trap : A situation in
Q.209. In which year did RBI introduce
activities and who are willing to jointly which prevailing market interest rates are
the regulatory framework for
so low that an increase in money supply
ch
undertake to repay the loans taken by the microfinance loans?
Group from the Banks. has no effect on interest rates. A liquidity
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift)
preference curve is a demand curve for
ar
(a) 2021 (b) 2022 (c) 2020 (d) 2019
Q.206. Which of the following is not an money because a household's or
Se
example of fiat money in India? Sol.209.(b) 2022. Regulatory Framework business's value of liquidity is the same
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift) for Microfinance Loans 2022 : There is as its demand for cash.
(a) ₹500 currency note no requirement of treating all members
(b) ₹200 bank cheque of the household as borrowers of a loan Q.212. Which of the following is NOT a
(c) ₹20 coin which can be provided to an individual common product offered by
(d) ₹10 coin member; All collateral-free loans to microfinance institutions in India ?
individual/s belonging to low-income SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift)
Sol.206.(b) ₹200 bank cheque. Fiat households, i.e., households having (a) Credit cards
money : Currency issued by the annual income up to ₹3,00,000 are (b) Personal loans
Government that is not backed by a treated as microfinance loans; Limit of (c) Insurance products
commodity such as Gold. Examples : 50 per cent on monthly loan repayment (d) Savings accounts
Paper currency, Coins, and Demand obligations of a household as a
drafts. Legal tender : A type of currency Sol.212.(a) Credit cards are used to
percentage of monthly household borrow money with the agreement to pay
or medium of exchange that can be in income.
the form of a coin or a banknote that is back the borrowed money with the
recognized by law as an acceptable Q.210. In any economy, the income interest.
means for settling debts or obligations. velocity of the hoarded money (idle) by Q.213. In 1987, an Action Research
the public is equal to ______ Programme was launched by NABARD
Q.207. Who gave the concept of 'money SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift)
illusion' for the first time? with______based on which a pilot project
(a) one (b) greater than one for linking 500 SHGS with banks was
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift) (c) zero (d) greater than zero
(a) Robertson (b) Adam Smith launched.
(c) Irving Fisher (d) JM Keynes Sol.210.(c) Zero. The velocity of money - SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
(a) MYRADA (b) IREDA (a) 2019 (b) 2012 (c) 2016 (d) 2009 SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (4th shift)
(c) AMFI (d) PFRDA (a) liabilities - assets
Sol.216.(c) 2016. Reserve Bank of India (b) (reserves + loans) - liabilities
Sol.213.(a) MYRADA (Mysore (RBI) - India's central bank and regulatory (c) interest + liabilities
Resettlement and Development Agency) : body responsible for regulation of the (d) (reserves + loans) + liabilities
Founded in 1968. Other Associations of Indian banking system. It is also known
NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture as the 'lender of the last resort”. Function Sol.220.(b) (Reserves + Loans) -
and Rural Development) - Rural - To operate the currency and credit Liabilities. Bank Assets - Anything that
Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) system in India. First Governor - Osborne the bank owns. Example: Loans given to
by Government of India (1995-96), Smith. bank customers, Deposits made to the
Warehouse Infrastructure Fund (WIF) in central bank. Bank liabilities - Anything
2013-14, Designed Kisan Credit Card Q.217. Under the current regulatory that the bank owes to someone else.
Scheme (KCC) 1998, Launched E-Shakti framework, what is the maximum tenure Example: Loans taken from the central
for digitisation of Self Help Groups SHGs of a microfinance loan in India? bank, Interest paid to customers for
in 2015. SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift) savings and fixed deposits.
(a) 24 months (b) 12 months
Q.214. Which of the given statements (c) 18 months (d) 36 months Q.221. In India, credit creation is done
is/are correct with respect to NAFED? by:
i. NAFED is registered under the Sol.217.(d) 36 months. Microfinance A) Ministry of Finance
Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act. loans are financing options that help B) Reserve Bank of India
ii. It was set up with the objective of people with low or no regular income C) Commercial Banks
promoting Cooperative marketing of gather funds to meet their financial SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (3rd shift)
agricultural produce to benefit farmers. requirements. Top Microfinance (a) Only C (b) Only B
df
iii. It was established in 1956. Companies in India - Equitas Small (c) All-A, B and C (d) Only A
Finance, ESAF Microfinance and
_p
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift)
(a) i, ii and iii (b) Only ii Investments, Fusion Microfinance, Sol.221.(a) Credit creation - A process
Annapurna Microfinance. where a bank uses a part of its
na
(c) Only ii and iii (d) Only i and ii
customers' deposits to offer loans to
Sol.214.(d) NAFED (National Agricultural Q.218. How many digits does the MMID other individuals and businesses.
ap
Cooperative Marketing Federation of code of any commercial bank have? Commercial banks create credit by
India): Founded - 2 October 1958 and SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift) advancing loans and purchasing
:@
registered under Multi-State Co-operative (a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 8 securities.
Societies Act 2002, Headquarters - New
Sol.218.(a) 7. Mobile Money Identifier Q.222. Which of the following is the
Delhi. Objective - To organise, promote
TG
(MMID) Code : Each mobile banking most problematic and primary difficulty
and develop marketing, processing, and
account has a unique MMID allotted to of barter exchanges as against
storage of agricultural, horticultural and
the user by the bank itself. The first four money-based exchanges?
forest produce.
on
digits - Unique identification number of SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift)
Q.215. With regard to the Currency the bank offering IMPS (Immediate (a) Bartered exchanges involve difficulty
Deposit Ratio (CDR), all of the following Payment Service). Every bank account in preserving value.
ch
is true, EXCEPT: has only one MMID. Along with the (b) Barter exchanges may result in an
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (2nd shift) mobile number, MMID identifies a bank incorrect valuation of the goods
ar
(a) It depends on seasonal pattern of account. Different MMID can be linked to transacted.
Se
expenditure. the same Mobile Number. (c) Barter exchanges may be imperfectly
(b) It is a behavioural parameter. divisible.
Q.219. In which of the following
(c) During festive season the CDR (d) Barter exchanges require a double
economic accounts are transfer
typically declines. coincidence of wants.
payments included ?
(d) It reflects people's preference for
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) Sol.222.(d) Barter System - An act of
liquidity.
(a) Government account trading goods or services between two or
Sol.215.(c) The currency Deposit Ratio (b) Household account more parties without the use of money.
(CDR) - The ratio of money held by the (c) Appropriation account Drawbacks of the Barter system: Lack of
public in currency to that they hold in (d) Production account Common Measure of Value, Problems in
bank deposits. CDR = CU/DD. For Storing Wealth, and Division of Certain
example - CDR increases during the Sol.219.(a) Government account.
Products is not possible. Advantages of
festive season as people convert Transfer payment : It is a redistribution of
Barter system: suitable in international
deposits to cash balance for meeting income and wealth by means of the
trade, No real concentration of power No
extra expenditure during such periods. government making a payment, without
overexploitation of Natural Resources,
Factors affecting CDR - Interest rates, goods or services being received in
Proper division of labour.
Inflation, Economics conditions, Banking return. Example: Social security benefits,
regulations. state pension, unemployment benefits, Q.223. 'BFSI' stands for Banking,
civil service benefits, survivor benefits, Financial Services and _________ in India.
Q.216. In which year did RBI accord public health services. It is a broad term for industries that offer
approval to Equitas Holdings to launch a financial products and services.
small finance bank? Q.220. The net worth of any bank is SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (4th shift)
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift) equal to_________. (a) Inflation (b) Investment
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
(c) Insurance (d) Index Fund SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Evening) Sol.231.(d) Base rate. Repo rate - The
(a) deposits (b) economic rent rate at which the RBI lends funds to
Sol.223.(c) Insurance. BFSI is the (c) assets (d) loans banks.
industry's umbrella term for companies
that provide a range of such financial Sol.227.(a) Deposits - money held in a Q.232. Which among the following was
products or services. bank account or with another financial set up in 1956 by the Indian government
institution that requires a transfer from by nationalising all the existing private
Q.224. The central bank may________ to one party to another. sector life insurance companies?
discourage credit in the economy. SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Evening)
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (1st shift) Q.228. Which law of economics states (a) United India Insurance Company
(a) decrease CRR "Bad money drives out good money" ? Limited
(b) buy securities in open market SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening) (b) General Insurance Corporation of
(c) reduce SLR (a) Baxter's Law (b) Ohm's Law India
(d) increase bank rate (c) Gresham's Law (d) Gauss's Law (c) New India Assurance Company
Sol.224.(d) Increase bank rate. Bank Sol.228.(c) Gresham's Law. It is a Limited
rate - rate at which the Reserve Bank of principle in economics named after Sir (d) Life Insurance Corporation of India
India (RBI) lends money to commercial Thomas Gresham, an English financier, Sol.232.(d) Life Insurance Corporation
banks without any security or collateral. which states that when there are two of India - A government-owned insurance
forms of money in circulation, people and investment firm in India. Established
Q.225. Which of the following tend to hoard or use the better-quality
committees was constituted to study the - 1 September 1956, Headquartered -
money and spend or circulate the Mumbai. United India Insurance
issues and concerns in the Micro lower-quality money. Baxter's law (also Company Limited - Established - 18
df
Finance Institution in 2010? known as the Bell doctrine) is a law of
SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 1st shift) February 1938 and Nationalised in 1972,
economics that describes how a
_p
(a) Ghosh Committee Headquarters - Chennai (Tamil Nadu).
monopoly in a regulated industry can General Insurance Corporation of India -
(b) Sivaraman Committee extend into, and dominate, a non -
na
(c) Malegam Committee Incorporated on 22 November 1972
regulated industry. under Companies Act, 1956.
(d) Khan Committee
ap
Q.229. Which among the following is the Headquarters - Mumbai. New India
Sol.225.(c) Malegam Committee. The oldest joint stock bank in India? Assurance Company Limited - Founded
:@
Sub-Committee was under the SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Evening) by Sir Dorabji Tata in 1919, and
chairmanship of Y.H. Malegam. Ghosh (a) Allahabad Bank Nationalised in 1973, Headquarters -
Committee (1991) - It inquired into the (b) Bank of Baroda Mumbai.
TG
various aspects of frauds and (c) Yes Bank
malpractices in the bank and to make Q.233. Small Industries Development
(d) Punjab National Bank Bank of India (SIDBI) is regulated by ____.
recommendations to reduce such
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening)
on
instances. Sivaraman Committee (1979) Sol.229.(a) Allahabad Bank (1865). The
- Recommended the establishment of first variety of joint-stock banks was the (a) State Bank of India (b) Indian Bank
NABARD. Khan Committee (1997) - Bank of Bombay, established in 1720 (c) Reserve Bank of India (d) ICICI Bank
ch
Examined the financial system's (Bombay). Yes Bank: Founded - 2004 Sol.233.(c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
effectiveness for the small-scale sector (Mumbai), Founder- Rana Kapoor, Ashok
ar
SIDBI was set up in 1990 under an Act of
and the role of primary dealers. Kapoor. Punjab National Bank: Founded - Parliament as an All India financial
Se
1894, Founder - Dyal Singh Majithia. institution (AIFI).
Q.226. As of 2022, what was the
highest-denomination currency note Q.230. Money multiplier uses which of Q.234. Α _______ account is one which is
printed by the Reserve Bank of India? the following monetary instruments for maintained by an Indian Bank in the
SSC CHSL Tier II (26/06/2023) its calculation? foreign countries, usually in the currency
(a) ₹2,000 (b) ₹10,000 SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening) of that country for the purpose of
(c) ₹5,000 (d) ₹20,000 (a) Repo rate (b) Cash reserve ratio carrying out transactions there.
(c) Reverse repo rate (d) Bank rate SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
Sol.226.(b) ₹10,000. It was printed in
1938 and demonetized in January, 1946. Sol.230.(b) Cash reserve ratio - The (a) NOSTRO (b) VOSTRO
₹10,000 note was again introduced in percentage of total deposits a bank must (c) LIBOR (d) MIBOR
1954 and demonetized in 1978. On have in cash to operate risk-free. The Sol.234.(a) NOSTRO. VOSTRO: An
November 8, 2016 : Rs 500, Rs 1000 Reserve Bank of India decides the account that domestic banks hold for
notes were demonetised. Fifteen amount and is kept with them for foreign banks in the former's domestic
languages are appearing on both sides financial security. currency. LIBOR : London Inter-Bank
of banknotes. The symbol (₹) of Indian Offered Rate. It is a benchmark interest
Rupee was accepted by the Government Q.231. The minimum rate below which
banks are not allowed to lend money rate at which major global banks lend to
of India on 15th July 2010. The symbol one another in the international interbank
of Indian Rupee is designed by Udaya except in cases specified by the Reserve
Bank of India is called . market for short-term loans. MIBOR :
Kumar. Mumbai Interbank Offered Rate. It is the
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Evening)
Q.227. For a bank, the main liability is (a) repo rate (b) reverse repo rate overnight lending offered rate for Indian
the__________ (c) cash rate (d) base rate commercial banks.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
Q.235. _______ became the first bank to SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (1st Shift) government expenditure multiplier can
get Reserve Bank of India's approval for (a) Rs 1 lakh (b) Rs 2 lakhs be expressed as _______.
rupee trade. (c) Rs 5 lakhs (d) Rs 4 lakhs SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (4th Shift) 1 1 −1
Sol.238.(c) Rs 5 lakhs. The Reserve (a) c (b) (c) (d)
(a) SBI Bank (b) Axis Bank 1− 𝑐 𝑐 𝑐
(c) UCO Bank (d) ICICI Bank Bank of India, established (1 April 1935)
by RBI Act 1934. It regulates all Indian 1
Sol.242.(b) Expenditure Multiplier =
Sol.235.(c) UCO bank (United banks. It is also known as the bank of 1−𝑐
Commercial Bank): One of the banks. The expenditure multiplier shows what
nationalised banks in India under the impact a change in autonomous
ownership of the Ministry of Finance, Q.239. A type of loan that allows spending will have on total spending and
Government of India. Headquarters : borrowers to make low payments in the aggregate demand in the economy.
Kolkata; Founded : 6 January 1943, initial phases but repayment of the
balance amount in lump sum at maturity Q.243. ______are those where a monthly
Kolkata; Founder : Ghanshyam Das Birla.
is known as ________. installment is deposited in the accounts
Axis Bank : Founded: 1993, in
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (1st Shift) every month.
Ahmedabad; Headquarters: Mumbai.
(a) Balloon Mortgage SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
ICICI Bank (Industrial Credit and
(b) English Mortgage (a) savings bank deposits
Investment Corporation of India) :
(c) Income - Sensitive Payment (b) reinvestment deposits
Founded: 1994, in Vadodara,
(d) Payday Loans (c) fixed deposits
Headquarters: Mumbai.
(d) recurring deposits
Q.236. The National Payments Sol.239.(a) Balloon mortgage. Types of
mortgage: Simple Mortgage, Mortgage Sol.243.(d) Recurring Deposit is the
Corporation of India was set up under the
df
by Conditional Sale, English Mortgage, savings through regular monthly
provisions of which act?
Fixed - Rate Mortgage, Usufructuary deposits of a fixed sum over a period. A
_p
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Mortgage, Anomalous Mortgage, Savings bank deposit is held at a
(a) The SARFAESI Act, 2002
Reverse Mortgage, Equitable Mortgage. financial institution that provides
na
(b) Payment and Settlement Systems
The Income - Sensitive Repayment Plan principal security and a modest interest
Act, 2007
is available to low-income borrowers who rate.
ap
(c) Government Securities Act, 2006
(d) Companies Act, 2013 have Federal Family Education Loan
Q.244. The _______ and ______ determine
(FFEL) Program loans. A payday loan is a
:@
the corridor for the daily movement in the
Sol.236.(b) Payment and Settlement type of short-term borrowing where a
weighted average call money rate.
Systems Act, 2007 : It is an Act to lender will extend high-interest credit
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
provide for the regulation and based on income.
TG
(a) Reverse repo, discount rate
supervision of payment systems in India
Q.240. The Reserve Bank of India (b) Marginal standing facility, Reverse
and to designate the Reserve Bank of
introduced a comprehensive regulatory repo rate
India as the authority for that purpose
on
framework for (c) Liquidity adjustment facility, repo rate
and for matters connected therewith or
NBFC-MFI on __________. (d) Bank rate, repo rate
incidental thereto. National Payments
ch
Corporation of India - Founded in 2008. SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023)
Sol.244.(b) Marginal standing facility
Industrial Finance Corporation of India - (a) 10 December 2015
(MSF), Reverse repo rate. MSF is a penal
ar
Founded in 1948 (b) 2 December 2011
rate (above the repo rate) at which banks
(c) 8 December 2013
can borrow money from RBI when they
Se
Q.237. ________ is a legal declaration of a (d) 5 December 2012
are completely exhausted of all
person who is unable to pay off debts.
Sol.240.(b) 2 December 2011. Capital borrowing assistance.
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift)
(a) Bankruptcy (b) Credit Crunch adequacy ratio for a NBFC-MFI is 15% of Q.245. ______is the currency in the hands
(c) Amortisation (d) Bancassurance the aggregate risk weighted assets. of the public plus commercial bank
reserves, also called ‘high-powered
Sol.237.(a) Bankruptcy - In India, it is Q.241. ________ is a record of assets and
money’.
declared by the Insolvency and liabilities of any firm.
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening)
Bankruptcy board through Insolvency SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(a) Desired reserve ratio
and Bankruptcy Code 2016. Credit (a) Bill file (b) Balance of payment
(b) Excess reserves
crunch is a reduction in the availability of (c) Balance sheet (d) Bank bailout
(c) Monetary base
credit independent of a rise in official
Sol.241.(c) Balance sheet - A financial (d) Money multiplier
interest rates. Amortisation is the
process of reducing or paying off a debt statement that reports a company's
Sol.245.(c) Monetary base (M0) is the
with regular payments. Bancassurance is assets, liabilities, and shareholder equity
total amount of a currency that is either
an agreement between a bank and an at a moment in time. A bailout is an
in general circulation in the hands of the
insurance company to sell insurance to injection of money from a business,
public or in the form of commercial bank
bank customers. individual, or government into a failing
deposits held in the central bank's
company to prevent its demise and the
reserves.
Q.238. A bank that has a paid-up capital ensuing consequences.
of and above qualifies for the Q.246. Which one of these organisations
schedule bank category as listed in the Q.242. If marginal propensity to
issues one rupee currency notes and
RBI Act 1934. consume is denoted by c, then
coins in India?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Morning) Q.250. For a NBFC - MFI, the maximum (b) Export Import Bank of India
(a) Imperial Bank of India variance permitted for individual loans (c) Industrial Finance Corporation of
(b) Industrial Finance Corporation of between the minimum and maximum India
India interest rate ___________. (d) Industrial Development Bank of
(c) Ministry of Finance SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Evening) India
(d) Central Bank of India (a) cannot exceed 4 per cent
(b) cannot exceed 2 per cent Sol.254.(c) Industrial Finance
Sol.246.(c) The Ministry of Finance (c) cannot be less than 2 per cent Corporation of India founded on 1st July
issues coins (under the coinage Act (d) cannot be less than 4 per cent 1948. National Housing Bank was
2011) and the one rupee note (bears the founded on 9th July 1988. Export Import
signatures of the Finance Secretary), Sol.250.(a) cannot exceed 4 per cent. Bank of India was founded in March
while other notes are printed by the NBFCs cannot offer interest rates higher 1982. Industrial Development Bank of
Reserve bank of India (which bears the than the ceiling rate prescribed by RBI India was founded on 1st July 1964.
signatures of the RBI governor). The from time to time. The present ceiling is
Coinage Act, 2011, allows issue of coins 12.5 per cent per annum. Q.255. The Regional Rural Banks were
up to the denomination of ₹ 1000 in established on the recommendations of
India. Q.251. ________ is the money which is the ______ on Rural Credit.
accepted as a medium of exchange SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Afternoon)
Q.247. Open Market Operations because of the trust between the payer (a) Rekhi Committee
conducted by the Reserve Bank of India and the payee. (b) Kelkar Committee
(RBI) are of ______ types. SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Morning) (c) Tandon Committee
SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Afternoon) (a) Credit money (b) Fiduciary money (d) Narasimham Committee
(a) two (b) three (c) five (d) four (c) Fiat money (d) Full bodied money
df
Sol.255.(d) ‘Narasimham Committee’.
Sol.247.(a) two. Open market operations Sol.251.(b) Fiduciary money. Credit
_p
‘Rekhi Committee’ - A Tribunal should be
refer to central bank purchases or sales money refers to a future monetary claim set up to deal with problems between
of government securities in order to against an individual who has used the taxpayers and tax collectors. ‘Kelkar
expand or contract money in the banking
system and influence interest rates. Two na
credit facility to buy goods and services.
Full-bodied money refers to any unit of
committee’ was set up to study and
evaluate the extant public-private
ap
Types - Outright Purchase is permanent money, whose intrinsic value and face partnership (PPP) model in India.
and involves the outright selling or value are equal.
:@
Q.256. The 'Clean Note Policy' was
buying of government securities.
Q.252. Which of the following has been announced by the Reserve Bank of India
Repurchase Agreement is a form of
designated as the self-regulatory in the year ______.
short-term borrowing for dealers in
TG
organisation for Micro finance SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Evening)
government securities.
institutions in India? (a) 1992 (b) 1999 (c) 1997 (d) 1995
Q.248. What is the total stock of money SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Afternoon)
on
Sol.256.(b) 1999. The objective of the
in circulation among the public at a (a) Jan-Dhan (b) Sab-Dhan
Reserve Bank's Clean Note Policy is to
particular point of time called? (c) Dhan (d) Sa-Dhan
give the citizens good quality currency
ch
SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Afternoon)
Sol.252.(d) Sa-Dhan (Association of notes and coins while the soiled notes
(a) Money order (b) Money supply
Community Development Finance are withdrawn out of circulation.
ar
(c) Short money (d) Money laundering
Institutions) is designated as the Q.257. In which year was the Securities
Se
Sol.248.(b) The money supply is all the self-regulatory organisation for Appellate Tribunal (SAT) established in
currency and other liquid instruments in Microfinance institutions in India. India?
a country's economy on the date SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Afternoon)
measured. A money order is a certificate, Q.253. At a Regional Rural Bank, the
(a) 1990 (b) 1992 (c) 1994 (d) 1997
usually issued by a government or share of the Government of India
banking institution, that allows the stated is______. Sol.257.(b) 1992 . Securities Appellate
payee to receive cash on demand. SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Morning) Tribunal was mainly established to hear
(a) 40% (b) 60% (c) 50% (d) 20% an appeal against the order passed by
Q.249. Commercial banks keep their the SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board
deposits with RBI. These deposits are Sol.253.(c) 50%. Sponsored bank share
of India) or by an adjudicating officer
called ______. is 35%, and state Government share is
under the SEBI Act, 1992.
SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Morning) 15%. Regional Rural Bank was founded
(a) liability (b) loans on 2nd October 1975. Regional Rural Q.258. The Central Board of Directors of
(c) inheritance (d) reserves Banks (RRBs) are government owned the RBI (Reserve Bank of India) is
scheduled commercial banks. Scheduled appointed/nominated for a period of
Sol.249.(d) Reserves. A liability is banks are banks that are listed in the 2nd _____ years.
something a person or company owes, schedule of the Reserve Bank of India SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Evening)
usually a sum of money. A loan is a form Act, 1934. (a) five (b) six (c) three (d) four
of debt incurred by an individual or other
Q.254. Which of the following was the Sol.258.(d) four. RBI is India's central
entity. An inheritance is a financial term
first development bank in India? bank and regulatory body under the
describing the assets passed down to
SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Morning) jurisdiction of Ministry of Finance. It is
individuals after someone dies.
(a) National Housing Bank responsible for the issue and supply of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
the Indian rupee and the regulation of the by the government, including Q.267. Identify which of the following
Indian banking system. government-controlled enterprises. BHEL statements are correct.
is a government-owned company that 1. Hindustan Copper Limited (HCL) was
Q.259. In which year was the State Bank specializes in manufacturing electrical incorporated on 9 November 1967.
of India created following the passage of equipment. It was established in 1964. 2. The Khetri Copper Complex (KCC) is
the Imperial Bank of India into state Other PSUs: Steel Authority of India Ltd located in Rajasthan.
ownership ? (SAIL), ONGC, and OIL etc. 3. The headquarters of Mineral
SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Afternoon) Exploration Consultancy Ltd. is located in
(a) 1947 (b) 1965 (c) 1955 (d) 1950 Q.264. Which of the following is an Jaipur.
example of private sector industry in SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023)
Sol.259.(c) 1955. The State Bank of India?
India - Headquarters - State Bank (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Bhawan, Nariman Point, Mumbai. (a) Steel Authority of India Limited
Q.260. The Reserve Bank of India also (b) Tata Iron and Steel Company Sol.267.(a) 1 and 2 only. Hindustan
acted as the central bank for _______ till (c) Oil India Limited Copper Limited (HCL) - a public sector
April 1947. (d) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited undertaking (under the administrative
SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Morning) control of the Ministry of Mines).
Sol.264.(b) Tata Iron and Steel Company Headquarters - Kolkata. The
(a) Burma (b) Nepal (TISCO). Jamsetji Tata founded TISCO
(c) Bhutan (d) Sri Lanka headquarters of Mineral Exploration
on August 26, 1907 in Jamshedpur, Consultancy Ltd. is located in Nagpur.
Sol.260.(a) Central bank for Burma. Jharkhand. Headquarters - Mumbai
Burma (Myanmar) seceded from the (Maharashtra). In 2005, TISCO changed Q.268. ONGC _____is a subsidiary of the
its name to Tata Steel Ltd. Indian public sector enterprise, Oil and
df
Indian Union in 1937 but the Reserve
Bank continued to act as the Central Natural Gas Corporation.
Q.265. Correctly match the following.
_p
Bank for Burma till the Japanese SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Evening)
Type of Industries Name of Company
Occupation of Burma and later up to (a) Vishesh (b) Videsh
1. Public sector a. Tata Iron and Steel
na
1947. Company (c) Vinesh (d) Vighnesh
2. Private sector b. Bharat Heavy Electricals
Sol.268.(b) Videsh. ONGC Videsh is a
ap
Q.261. In which of the following years Limited
did the Reserve Bank of India liberalise 3. Joint sector c. Oil India Ltd subsidiary of the Indian public sector
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift) enterprise, Oil and Natural Gas
:@
the licensing policy for Urban
(a) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a (b) 1-b, 2-c, 3-а Corporation and it is working globally for
Co-operative Banks?
(c) 1-b, 2-a, 3-с (d) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c the energy security of India.
SSC CHSL 10/08/2021 (Evening)
TG
(a) 1993 (b) 1998 (c) 1995 (d) 2001 Sol.265.(c) 1-b, 2-a, 3-с. Public sector Q.269. Which of the following public
companies are owned by the government sector enterprises falls under the status
Sol.261.(a) 1993. It was a significant
like NTPC Limited, Power Grid ‘Maharatna’ ?
step aimed at expanding the reach of
on
Corporation of India, Steel Authority of SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Evening)
banking services in urban and
India Limited etc. Private sector (a) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited
semi-urban areas.
companies are owned by individuals or
ch
(b) Steel Authority of India Limited
Q.262. Which Section of the RBI Act private groups like Infosys, Wipro, etc. (c) Mahanagar Telephone Nigam
ar
empowers the Central Government to Joint sector industries are owned and Limited
supersede the RBI board and issue operated by the state and individuals or a (d) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
Se
directions considered to be ‘necessary in group of individuals. Maruti Udyog
public interest’ to the RBI, after Limited is the example of the joint sector Sol.269.(b) Maharatna Company : Steel
consulting the Governor of the bank ? industry. Authority of India Limited, Bharat Heavy
SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Morning) Electricals, Bharat Petroleum
Q.266. Which of the following is a joint Corporation, Coal India, GAIL India,
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 3 (d) 1
sector industry in India ? Hindustan Petroleum Corporation, Indian
Sol.262.(b) Section 7. SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) Oil Corporation, NTPC, Oil & Natural Gas
(a) NALCO (b) TISCO Corporation, Power Finance Corporation,
(c) Dabur (d) Oil India Limited Power Grid Corporation of India, Rural
Navratna /Maharatna/PSUs
Electrification Corporation, Oil India.
Sol.266.(d) Oil India Limited (OIL). OIL
Q.263. Which of the following is an (Maharatna Company) is a state-owned Q.270. Which of the following pairs is
example of public sector industry in enterprise of the Government of India, INCORRECTLY matched ?
India? under the administrative control of the SSC CHSL 13/10/2020 (Evening)
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas. It (a) Indian Oil Corporation Limited –
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited was incorporated in 1959. Headquarters Maharatna
(b) Bajaj Auto - Noida. National Aluminium Company (b) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited –
(c) Dabur Limited (NALCO) established in 1981. Navratna
(d) Tata Iron Steel Company Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) (c) Airport Authority of India –
founded by Jamsetji Nusserwanji Tata Navratna
Sol.263.(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals and established by Sir Dorabji Tata in (d) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited –
Limited. The public sector is the part of 1907 in Jamshedpur. Dabur was founded Miniratna
the economy that is owned and managed by Dr. SK Burman in 1884.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
Sol.270.(c) Airport Authority of India – Q.274. Which of the following (a) PM KUSUM
Navratna. The government has divided institutions conducts the survey on (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
all the Public Sector Undertakings mainly employment and unemployment? Employment Guarantee Act
in three categories namely Maharatna, SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Afternoon) (MGNREGA)
Navratna and Miniratna. Airport Authority (a) NITI Aayog (c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
of India is a Miniratna. (b) National Institution of Economic and (d) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
Social Research (PMKVY)
International Organizations (c) National Council of Applied
Economic Research Sol.277.(d) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal
(d) National Sample Survey Organisation Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) was launched in
Q.271. The analysis of the
2015 with the objective to deliver skills to
interrelationship between the economy
Sol.274.(d) National Sample Survey the youth of the country through Short
and the environment in the economic
Organisation (NSSO). It is the largest Term Training (STT) and Recognition of
environmental accounting system was
independent organisation since 1950 in Prior Learning (RPL).
put forward by______ .
the country for conducting the
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift) Q.278. ‘NISHTHA’ stands for _________.
socio-economic survey.
(a) Central Statistical Office SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
(b) National Environmental Engineering (a) National Initiative for School Heads’
Institute
Government Schemes
and Teachers’ Holistic Assessment
(c) Directorate of Economics and (b) National Inauguration for School
Statistics Q.275. The RBI launched the Lead Bank
Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic
(d) United Nations Statistical Office Scheme (LBS) to mobilise deposits and
Advancement
step-up lending to weaker sections of the
(c) National Initiative for School Heads’
df
Sol.271.(d) United Nations Statistical economy. When was the scheme
and Teachers’ Holistic Advancement
Office. The System of Environmental launched?
_p
(d) National Inauguration for School
Economic Accounting (SEEA) - A SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning)
Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic
statistical system that measures the (a)1958 (b)1962 (c) 1969 (d)1973
na
Assessment
condition of the environment, the
contribution of the environment to the Sol.275.(c) 1969. The Lead Bank Sol.278.(c) NISHTHA was launched on
ap
economy and the impact of the economy Scheme was introduced on the basis of 21st August, 2019 by the Department of
on the environment. the recommendations of both the Gadgil School Education and Literacy, Ministry
:@
Study Group and Banker's Committee of Education to improve learning
Q.272. Which of the following (Nariman Committee). It envisages outcomes at the Elementary level.
Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) assignment of lead roles to individual
TG
seeks to ‘Protect, restore and promote banks for the districts allotted to them. Q.279. What are the three components
sustainable use of terrestrial The Nariman Committee endorsed the of the empowerment model in SAPAP of
ecosystems, sustainably manage forests, idea of an ‘Area Approach’ in its report SHGs ?
on
combat desertification, and halt and (November 1969), that each bank should SSC MTS 30/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
reverse land degradation and halt concentrate on certain districts where it (a) Social mobilisation, economic
biodiversity loss’ ? should act as a 'Lead Bank'. development, and education
ch
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon) (b) Collective empowerment, capital
(a) SDG12 (b) SDG 7 Q.276. In 1992, which organisation formation, and poverty eradication
ar
(c) SDG 17 (d) SDG 15 launched the Self Help Group – Bank (c) Public resource allocation, capacity
Se
Linkage Programme? building, and microfinance
Sol.272.(d) SDG 15. SDG 12: Ensure SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (2nd Shift) (d) Social mobilisation, capital formation,
sustainable consumption and production (a) SEBI (b) NABARD (c) SBI (d) RBI and capacity building of the poor
patterns. SDG 7 focuses on global efforts
to ensure access to affordable, reliable, Sol.276.(b) NABARD. It is a statutory Sol.279.(d) The SAPAP model of SHG
sustainable and modern energy for all. body established in 1982 under the (Self Help Groups) is also known as the
Parliamentary act-National Bank for International Model. In 1995, SAPAP
Q.273. The UN’s Sustainable Agriculture and Rural Development Act, piloted 20 poor mandals of Andhra
Development Goal 6 aims to ______. 1981. The Self Help Group – Bank Pradesh. The SAPAP model
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Evening) Linkage Programme Project has contemplated the process of social
(a) ensure healthy lives and promote blossomed into the world's largest mobilization as an institutional
well-being for all at all ages microfinance project. Under this mechanism to mobilise the poor into
(b) ensure availability and sustainable programme, banks were allowed to open SHGs (Self Help Groups). SAPAP is
management of water and sanitation savings accounts for SHGs. SEBI - implemented in collaboration with local
for all Established on April 12, 1988. SBI - NGOs and state governments. This is
(c) end poverty in all forms everywhere Founded: 1 July 1955. The Reserve Bank also a microfinance plus model.
(d) take urgent action to combat climate of India was established on April 1, 1935.
change and its impact Q.280. Which of the following is the main
Q.277. Which of the following objective of the DWCRA model of SHGs?
Sol.273.(b) SDG 1 - end poverty in all government initiatives focuses on skill SSC MTS 05/11/2024 (2nd Shift)
forms everywhere. SDG 13 - take urgent development to reduce open (a) To provide education opportunities
action to combat climate change and its unemployment among youth in India? for rural children
impact. SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (2nd Shift) (b) To provide housing support for rural
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
families (d) i (c), ii (d), iii (b), iv (a) along with the SEZ Rules in 2006.
(c) To provide self-employment
opportunities for rural women Sol.283.(a) i (b), ii (d), iii (a), iv (c). The Q.286. Which of the following is NOT a
(d) To provide healthcare services to Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya (KGBV) characteristic of the National Investment
rural women is a government-run residential school and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) of
for girls from weaker sections of society. India?
Sol.280.(c) Development of Women and The Mid-Day Meal Scheme (MDM) SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift)
Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA), a provides free, nutritious meals to school (a) A special purpose vehicle will be
sub-scheme of IRDP, was started in children across India. The National constituted to take care of the
1982-83 with the primary objective of Assessment and Accreditation Council functioning of NIMZs.
providing the women members of rural (NAAC) accredits higher education (b) The state government will provide
families below poverty line with institutions, while the All India Council for power connectivity, water and other
opportunities of self – employment. It is Technical Education (AICTE) oversees infrastructural facilities.
funded by the Centre and the States in technical education under the (c) It prescribes a minimum area of
the ratio 50:50. Department of Higher Education. 10000 hectares for establishing
NIMZs.
Q.281. When was the Duty-Free Tariff Q.284. What is the primary objective of (d) At least 30% of the total land area
Preference (DFTP) Scheme for Least the Micro, Small, and Medium proposed for the NIMZ is to be
Developed Countries (LDCs) announced Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act utilized for manufacturing units.
by India? of 2006 in India?
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.286.(c) National Investment and
(a) 2010 (b) 2009 (c) 2006 (d) 2008 (a) To regulate foreign companies Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) are
(b) To focus on large-scale industries special areas in India that aim to attract
df
Sol.281.(d) 2008. Duty Free Tariff only investments and promote
Preference (DFTP) scheme of 2008 :
_p
(c) To increase import tariffs to protect manufacturing. They provide good
Prime Minister Manmohan Singh MSMEs infrastructure and support for
announced the DFTP scheme at the
na
(d) To promote and facilitate the businesses. Focus Areas of NIMZ: To
India-Africa Forum Summit on April 8, development of MSMEs provide a conducive environment for
2008. India became the first developing
ap
businesses to operate. To attract
country to extend this facility to Least Sol.284.(d) Currently, MSMEs (Micro, investment from domestic and foreign
Developed Countries (LDCs). Small, and Medium Enterprises) are
:@
companies. Nodal ministry - The Ministry
defined under the Micro, Small and of Commerce and Industry. The
Q.282. When was the Rashtriya Medium Enterprises Development Act,
Swasthya Bima Yojana introduced to government notified the National
2006. The Act classifies them as micro,
TG
provide health insurance to people below Manufacturing Policy (NMP) in 2011.
small and medium enterprises based on:
the poverty line? (i) investment in plant and machinery for Q.287. Under the Sukanya Samriddhi
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) enterprises engaged in manufacturing or Account Yojana, minimum how much
on
(a) 2017 (b) 2009 (c) 2014 (d) 2008 production of goods, and (ii) investment money needs to be deposited in one
in equipment for enterprises providing financial year?
Sol.282.(d) 2008. Rashtriya Swasthya
ch
services. SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
Bima Yojana (RSBY) has been launched
(a) ₹150 (b) ₹250 (c) ₹200 (d) ₹100
by the Ministry of Labour and
ar
Q.285. Which of the following
Employment. Objective: To provide statements is/are FALSE about the Sol.287.(b) ₹250. The Sukanya
Se
protection to BPL households from Special Economic Zones (SEZs) of India? Samriddhi Account (Girl Child Prosperity
financial liabilities arising out of health i. One of the main objectives of the Account) is a Government of
shocks that involve hospitalization. Other Zones Act was promotion of exports of India-backed savings scheme aimed at
related schemes in India aimed at goods and services. parents of girl children. The scheme
improving healthcare access: Ayushman ii. The Government of India announced encourages parents to save for the future
Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya the Special Economic Zones (SEZs) education and marriage of their
Yojana (2018), and National Rural Health Policy in the year 2011. daughters. It was launched by Prime
mission (2005). iii. The SEZ Rules provided for different Minister Narendra Modi on 22 January
minimum land requirement for different 2015 as part of the Beti Bachao, Beti
Q.283. Match the following items.
classes of SEZs. Padhao campaign. The minimum deposit
List I List II
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift) is ₹250, and the maximum deposit is
i. Kasturba Gandhi Balika a. 1994 ₹1.5 lakh in a financial year. The account
(a) Only i and ii (b) Only ii and iii
Vidyalaya Scheme can be opened in the name of a girl child
(c) Only iii (d) Only ii
ii. Mid-Day Meal Scheme b. 2004 until she attains the age of 10 years.
iii. The National Accreditation c. 1945 Sol.285.(d) Only ii. SEZs are to have
Assessment Council world class facilities: electricity, water, Q.288. How much percentage of the
iv. All India Council for d. 1995 roads, transport, storage, recreational capital of MUDRA is contributed by
Technical Education and educational facilities. Companies SIDBI?
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) who set up production units in the SEZs SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) i (b), ii (d), iii (a), iv (c) do not have to pay taxes for an initial (a) 75 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 90
(b) i (d), ii (a), iii (b), iv (c) period of five years. The SEZ Act was Sol.288.(c) 100. The Micro Units
(c) i (b), ii (c), iii (d), iv (a) passed in 2005 and came into force Development and Refinance Agency
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
(MUDRA) was set up in 2015, as a wholly under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan. Improvised Technology in Village Areas):
owned subsidiary of the Small Industries Launched on April 24, 2020, which is also
Development Bank of India (SIDBI). Q.292. In which year did the Ministry of celebrated as National Panchayat Day.
MUDRA provides refinancing support to Health and Family Welfare of India
financial institutions for lending to micro launch the Weekly Iron and Folic Acid Q.297. In which year was the Twenty
and small enterprises. The categorised Supplementation (WIFS) program to Point Programme (TPP) launched?
loans: Shishu (up to ₹50,000), Kishore meet the challenge of high prevalence SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (2nd shift)
(₹50,000 to ₹5 lakh), and Tarun (₹5 lakh and incidence of anaemia among (a) 2006 (b) 1975 (c) 1986 (d) 1982
to ₹20 lakh). adolescent girls and boys (56% girls and
30% boys) ? Sol.297.(b) 1975. Twenty Point
Q.289. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) Programme (TPP) : The programme was
Employment Guarantee Act (2005) (a) 2014 (b) 2013 (c) 2011 (d) 2012 first revised in 1982 and again in 1986.
provides work for how many days? TPP - 1986 restructured in 2006 to align
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Sol.292.(d) 2012. WIFS: Objective - To with economic reforms, liberalisation,
(a) 300 (b) 200 (c) 100 (d) 125 reduce the prevalence and severity of and globalisation. It is a package of
nutritional anaemia in adolescent government programs, with the aim of
Sol.289.(c) 100. The Mahatma Gandhi population (10-19 years). improving the quality of life in rural areas.
National Rural Employment Guarantee
Act (MGNREGA), passed in September Q.293. How many cities are covered Q.298. Which of the following options
2005, is a labor law that guarantees the under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation best describes the objective of Pradhan
'Right to Work' and was officially and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana
launched on 2 February 2006. Initially scheme? (PMRPY) Scheme, 2016?
proposed by P.V. Narasimha Rao in 1991, SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (1st shift)
df
its name was changed from NREGA to (a) 500 (b) 200 (c) 400 (d) 300 (a) To provide financial assistance to
entrepreneurs
_p
MGNREGA on 2 October 2009. Sol.293.(a) 500. AMRUT (Atal Mission (b) To provide free healthcare services to
Q.290. The ‘Urban Self Employment for Rejuvenation and Urban the unemployed
na
Programme’ and the ‘Urban Wage Transformation) scheme launched on (c) To provide employment opportunities
Employment Programme’ are the two 25th June 2015. Ministry - Housing and for rural women
ap
special components of which poverty Urban Affairs. (d) To encourage employers to create
alleviation programme of India? new jobs
:@
Q.294. When was the Prime Minister’s
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Employment Generation Programme Sol.298.(d) Pradhan Mantri Rojgar
(a) Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rozgar
(PMEGP) launched ? Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY). Objective -
Yojana
TG
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) To incentivise employers for creation of
(b) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
(a) 2012 (b) 2008 (c) 2006 (d) 2009 employment. Nodal Ministry - Ministry of
(c) Antyodaya Anna Yojana
(d) Rural Employment Generation Sol.294.(b) 2008. The PMEGP scheme is Labour and Employment.
on
Programme implemented by Khadi and Village Q.299. Which of the following
Industries Commission (KVIC). Aim - To programmes of the Government of India
Sol.290.(a) The Self-Employment
ch
provide continuous and sustainable aims to provide connectivity to
Scheme run by the Central government
employment. unconnected habitations as part of a
provides financial and educational
ar
benefits to its citizens. It motivates them Q.295. The government of India poverty reduction strategy?
Se
to be self-employed. launched a new programme called the SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift)
New India Literacy Programme (NILP) for (a) Prime Minister Rural Development
Q.291 Which of the following schemes Fellows Scheme
five years, from FY's ________ to _______
adopts the One District One Product (b) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
with a budget of ₹1,037.90 crores.
(ODOP) approach to reap the benefit of (c) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift)
scale in terms of procurement of inputs, (d) National Rural Livelihoods Mission
(a) 2023-24 to 2026-27
availing common services and marketing
(b) 2022-23 to 2026-27 Sol.299.(c) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak
of products?
(c) 2022-23 to 2024-25 Yojana (PMGSY) : Launched by Atal
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
(d) 2021-22 to 2025-26 Bihari Vajpayee in 2000. Ministry -
(a) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada
Yojana Sol.295.(b) 2022-23 to 2026-27. New Ministry of Rural Development. National
(b) Micro and Small Enterprises Cluster India Literacy Programme (NILP) - Aims Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) -
Development Programme (MSE-CDP) to cover a target of 5 crore non-literates Launched in 2011.
(c) Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of in the age group of 15 years and above. Q.300. What is the full form of MEDP ?
Micro Food Processing Enterprises
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(PMF ME) Q.296. Which of the following schemes
(a) Micro Enterprise Development
(d) Production Linked Incentive Scheme aims to provide an integrated property
Programme
For Food Processing Industry (PLISFPI) validation solution for rural India ?
(b) Medium Enterprise Development
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Sol.291.(c) PMFME: Launched in 2020. Programme
(a) WDF (b) SVAMITVA (c) NRLM (d) PIDF
It is a centrally sponsored initiative. It (c) Microfinance Entity Development
was launched by the Ministry of Food Sol.296.(b) SVAMITVA (Survey of Programme
Processing Industries (MoFPI) in India Villages Abadi and Mapping with (d) Micro Enterprise District Project
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
Sol.300.(a) National Bank For Agriculture Natural Gas. PAHAL (Pratyaksh aimed to ensure the farmers earn a
And Rural Development (NABARD) since Hanstantrit Labh) scheme - Direct benefit sustainable livelihood through different
2006, has been supporting need-based Transfer for LPG. It was launched on livestock farming activities. Launched on
skill development programmes (MEDPs) June 1, 2013. The scheme aims to - 10th August 2022.
for matured SHGs which already have reduce diversion and eliminate duplicate
access to finance from Banks. or bogus LPG connections. This scheme Q.309. Rural Employment Generation
is acknowledged as the world's largest Programme (REGP) was launched in ___ .
Q.301. The Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti cash transfer program (households) by SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening)
Bima Yojana is for Indian citizens in the the Guinness Book of World Records. (a) 1997 (b) 1991 (c) 1993 (d) 1995
age group of ___________ .
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift) Q.305. Under the Atal Pension Yojana, Sol.309.(d) 1995. The Khadi & Village
(a) 40 to 70 years (b) 18 to 50 years the pension returns are given after the Industries Commission (KVIC) launched
(c) 29 to 55 years (d) 35 to 60 years subscriber turns ________ . the Rural Employment Generation
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon) Programme (REGP) on 1st April, 1995 for
Sol.301.(b) 18 to 50 years. Pradhan (a) 60 (b) 55 (c) 50 (d) 65 generation of two million jobs under the
Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana KVI sector in the rural areas of the
(PMJJBY): Launched: 9 May 2015. It is a Sol.305.(a) 60. The Atal Pension Yojana country.
life insurance plan that has to be (APY) was launched on 09 May 2015. In
renewed every year, which is provided this Scheme, pensioners would receive Q.310. PM SVANidhi Scheme aims to
with the benefits of the insurance plan in the guaranteed minimum monthly empower _________ .
case of death due to any reason. pension of Rs 1000 and maximum Rs SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon)
5000 at the age of 60 years. The age of (a) Street Vendors
Q.302. Which of the following is NOT an the subscriber should be between 18 - 40 (b) BPL Families
df
initiative by the government for years. (c) Pregnant women
development of the microfinance sector (d) Small Businessman
_p
in India ? Q.306. The National Family Benefit
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift) Scheme was started in August ______ by Sol.310.(a) Street Vendors. The PM
na
(a) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana the Government of India. Street Vendor’s Atma Nirbhar Nidhi
(b) E-Shakti Initiative SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Morning) Scheme - It was launched on 1st June
ap
(c) Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (a) 1995 (b) 2000 (c) 2002 (d) 2005 2020 is a micro credit scheme for urban
(d) India Microfinance Equity Fund street vendors that aims to provide
:@
Sol.306.(a) 1995. Launched under the collateral-free working capital loans up to
Sol.302.(a) Pradhani Mantri Jan Dhan National Social Assistance Programme ₹50,000.
Yojana (Launched in 2014 by the Ministry (NSAP). Restricted to BPL families. ₹
TG
of Finance). Aim - To provide banking 20000/- will be given as a lump sum Q.311. Start Up India Scheme which
facilities to all the families across the assistance to such surviving members of aims at developing an ecosystem that
country by opening bank accounts for the household of the deceased poor, who promotes and nurtures entrepreneurship
on
every family. after local inquiry, is found to be the head across the country was launched in
of the household. _________.
Q.303. Stand Up India scheme aims at SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (4th Shift)
ch
Q.307. The UMEED Scheme of Rural
supporting entrepreneurship to _________ (a) 2016 (b) 2020 (c) 2012 (d) 2018
Livelihoods Mission is providing help to
community of India
ar
the aspirations of rural women in the Sol.311.(a) 2016. Start Up India Scheme
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Union Territory, who aspire to become - Under the Ministry of Commerce and
Se
(a) Below Poverty Line
economically independent. Industry.
(b) Construction workers
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Evening)
(c) Scheduled caste Q.312. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar
(a) Daman and Diu
(d) Business person Yojana (SGSY) was launched in_________.
(b) Lakshadweep
Sol.303.(c) Scheduled caste (SC). Stand (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Morning)
Up India scheme: Launched on 5th April (d) Jammu and Kashmir (a) 1994 (b) 1999 (c) 1992 (d) 1995
2016 (by the Ministry of Finance), For Sol.312.(b) 1999. Swarnajayanti Gram
Sol.307.(d) Jammu and Kashmir. UMEED
financing schedule caste, schedule tribe Swarozgar Yojana focused on poverty
Scheme - Launched in 2018 and was
and women Entrepreneur. alleviation by setting up a large number
sponsored by the central government
Q.304. LPG subsidy to domestic under the Jammu Kashmir State Rural of Micro enterprises in rural areas of our
consumers under PAHAL Scheme is Livelihood Mission (JKSRLM). Aim - To country. It is an employment generation
given by _______. encourage women to be self dependent programme in India.
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning) and self sufficient.
(a) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Q.308. Rural Backyard Piggery Scheme
Five-Year Plans
Gas was launched by which state
(b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Q.313. Which of the following
government?
Affairs statements is correct ?
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening)
(c) Ministry of Finance SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) Meghalaya (b) Jharkhand
(d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs (a) The five-year plan focuses mostly on
(c) Punjab (d) Assam
private intervention in the economy.
Sol.304.(a) Ministry of Petroleum and Sol.308.(a) Meghalaya. The Scheme is (b) The five-year plan always focused on
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
the growth of the tertiary sector. (d) Seventh Five-Year Plan SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
(c) The five-year plan permits long-term (a) Both b and c (b) Both a and b
Sol.316.(a) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969
intervention by the government in the (c) Both a and c (d) Only a
- 74): Objective - Growth with stability and
economy.
progressive achievement of self-reliance. Sol.319.(b) Both a and b. The First
(d) A five-year plan always stresses
It was introduced under the Prime Five-Year Plan was launched in 1951.
market-oriented activities.
Ministership of Indira Gandhi. The The Second Plan (1956-1961), known as
Sol.313.(c) The Five Year Plans were government nationalized 14 major Indian the Mahalanobis Plan, had a target
formulated, implemented and regulated Banks and the Green Revolution boosted growth rate of 4.5% and achieved 4.3%.
by a body known as the Planning agriculture. Implementation of Family The Third Plan (1961-1966) aimed to
Commission. The National Development Planning Programmes. The target growth make the economy self-sufficient. Due to
Council (NDC) was the final authority to rate was 5.7%, but the actual growth rate the Indo-China war, Indo-Pakistan war,
approve Five Year Plans (FYPs). The was 3.3%. Joseph Stalin was the first and severe droughts, a "Plan Holiday"
Five-Year Plans in India were primarily person to introduce a five year plan in the was observed from 1966 to 1969. The
focused on government intervention, not Soviet Union. India borrowed features of Fourth Plan (1969-1974), under Indira
private intervention, although some plans the Five-year plan from the USSR. Gandhi, focused on growth and included
did encourage private sector Family Planning Programmes.
Q.317. In which five-year plan was the
participation. It focused on the growth of
'food, work, and productivity' slogan Q.320. Which of the following
all sectors depending on the needs of the
used? statements are true?
economy. Five-Year Plans were not
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift) i. The First Five-Year Plan was based on
always focused on market-oriented
(a) Sixth (b) Fifth (c) Fourth (d) Seventh the PC Mahalanobis model.
activities.
ii. The First Five-Year Plan laid emphasis
df
Sol.317.(d) Seventh Plan (1985-90): It
Q.314. Which Five-Year Plan primarily on agriculture development.
focused on accelerating food grain
_p
focused on the 'Garibi Hatao' initiative? iii. The Five-Year planning model in India
production, increasing employment
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) was borrowed from Russia.
opportunities, and raising productivity
na
(a) Sixth Five-Year Plan SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift)
with an emphasis on "food, work, and
(b) Fourth Five-Year Plan (a) Only i and iii (b) Only ii and iii
productivity." It was quite successful,
ap
(c) Fifth Five-Year Plan (c) Only i and ii (d) i, ii and iii
achieving a 6% growth rate, surpassing
(d) Third Five-Year Plan
the target of 5%, especially during a time Sol.320.(b) Only ii and iii. The First
:@
Sol.314.(c) Fifth Five-Year Plan. "Garibi when the 1980s were trying to overcome Five-Year Plan (1951 - 1956) was based
Hatao" was a slogan coined by Indira the so-called "Hindu Rate of Growth." on the Harrod-Domar model, and focused
Gandhi, aimed at poverty alleviation and on sectors like agriculture, price stability,
TG
Q.318. Which of the following
job creation for a better life. The 5th Five statements about the second five-year power, and transport to address food
Year Plan (1974-1979) had a targeted plan is INCORRECT ? shortages and promote economic
growth rate of 4.4% and achieved 4.8%. It growth. The Mahalanobis model,
on
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
was terminated a year early, in March (a) The plan stressed the rapid focused on industrialization, was
1978. The plan's final draft, prepared by industrialisation of heavy and basic introduced in the Second Five-Year Plan
ch
D.P. Dhar, focused on eliminating poverty industries. (1956 - 1961).
and achieving self-reliance. (b) Electricity, Railway, Steel etc. Q.321. Which of the following years were
ar
Q.315. The Harrod Domar model was the industries were established during the considered plan holidays in Independent
Se
main idea behind the ____ Five Year Plan. plan. India?
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) The plan was based on the Keynesian SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Third (b) First (c) Second (d) Fourth Model. (a) 1964-1967 (b) 1969-1972
(d) The socialist pattern of the society (c) 1966-1969 (d) 1990-1992
Sol.315.(b) First Five-Year Plan was reflected in the plan.
(1951-1956) aimed for a growth rate of Sol.321.(c) 1966-1969. This period was
2.1% but achieved 3.6%. It focused on Sol.318.(c) The Second Five-Year Plan a gap between the Third Five-Year Plan
agriculture, investing in dams and (1956-1961) was based on the (1961-1966) and the Fourth Five-Year
irrigation, with significant funds allocated Mahalanobis model, named after Indian Plan (1969-1974). During this time, there
for the Bhakra Nangal Dam. Third Five statistician Prasanta Chandra was no formal five-year plan, and the
Year Plan (1961-66) aimed to establish Mahalanobis. The target growth rate was government focused on annual plans to
India as a self-reliant and self-generating set at 4.5%, while the actual growth address the economic challenges faced
economy. achieved was 4.3%. by the country.
Q.316. The Drought Prone Area Q.319. The five-year plans for India with Q.322. Which of the following options is
Programme (DPAP) for providing their duration are given below. Which of INCORRECT?
employment to people in drought prone the following is correctly matched? SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift)
areas was started by the Government of (a) Second five-year plan 1956 - 57 to (a) The Planning Commission of India
India during the _______. 1960 - 61 was set up in 1950.
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (b) Third five-year plan 1961- 62 to (b) India borrowed the idea of five-year
(a) Fourth Five-Year Plan 1965 - 66 plans from the former Soviet Union.
(b) Sixth Five-Year Plan (c) Fourth five-year plan 1966 - 67 to (c) The chairmanship of the Planning
(c) Third Five-Year Plan 1970 - 71 Commission of India was given to the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
Prime Minister. concept of planning based on five year List - 1 List - 2
(d) Distinguished economists from India plans from 1951-2017. The Five Year (Prime Ministers) (Five-Year Plans)
i. Jawaharlal Nehru a) Second Five-Year Plan
and abroad were invited to advise on Plans were formulated, implemented and
ii. Manmohan Singh b) Tenth Five-Year Plan
India's economic development during regulated by a body known as the
iii. Atal Bihari Vajpayee c) Eleventh Five-Year Plan
the first five-year plan period. Planning Commission. Plan and
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
Aim/Goal : First Plan (Economic
Sol.322.(d) India's Five-Year Plans (FYPs) (a) i-b, ii-c, iii-a (b) i-c, ii-b, iii-a
development), Second Plan (Rapid
were centralized national economic (c) i-b, ii-a, iii-c (d) i-a, ii-c, iii-b
industrialization - heavy & basic
programs initiated after independence, industries), Third Plan (‘Self-reliant' and Sol.328.(d) i-a, ii-c, iii-b. Five year plans
with the first plan starting in 1951. ‘self-generating' economy), Fourth Plan and Prime Ministers and : First (1951-56)
Influenced by Prime Minister Nehru's (Growth with stability and progressive - Jawaharlal Nehru. Second (1956-1961)
socialist vision, the Planning achievement of self reliance), Fifth Plan - Jawaharlal Nehru. Third (1961-1966) -
Commission was established in March (Removal of poverty' and 'attainment of Jawaharlal Nehru. Plan Holidays
1950 to oversee these plans. self reliance'). (1966-1969). Fourth (1969-1974) - Indira
Q.323. Match the items in List I with Gandhi. Rolling Plan (1978-1980). Fifth
Q.326. Which Five Year Plan period saw
those in List II. Plan (1974-79) - Indira Gandhi. Sixth
the initiation of the Hill Area
List I List II (1980-1985) - Indira Gandhi. Seventh
Development Programme?
i. Garibi Hatao a. Fifth Five-Year (1985-1990) - Rajiv Gandhi. Annual Plans
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Plan (1990–1992). Eighth (1992-1997) - P.V.
(a) Sixth Five Year Plan
ii. LPG policies b. Ninth Five-Year Narasimha Rao. Ninth (1997-2002) - Atal
(b) Fourth Five Year Plan
Plan Bihari Vajpayee. Tenth (2002-2007) - Atal
(c) Eighth Five Year Plan
iii. Rolling Plan c. 1978-80 Bihari Vajpayee and Manmohan Singh.
df
(d) Fifth Five Year Plan
iv. Growth with d. Eighth Five-Year Eleventh (2007-2012) - Manmohan
_p
justice and equity Plan Sol.326.(d) Fifth Five Year Plan Singh. Twelfth (2012-2017) - Manmohan
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) (1974-1979) was terminated in 1978 by Singh and Narendra Modi.
na
(a) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b (b) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a the Morarji Desai government. Key
Q.329. During the Second Five Year Plan,
(c) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a (d) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b initiatives during this period included the
how many integrated steel plants were
ap
amendment of the Electricity Supply Act
Sol.323.(a) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b. Garibi set up with foreign collaboration?
(1975), the launch of the Twenty-point
Hatao: This slogan was part of Indira SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
:@
Program, the Minimum Needs
Gandhi’s agenda during the Fifth (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 9
Programme (MNP), and the Indian
Five-Year Plan (1974-1979). LPG policies:
National Highway System. The Planning Sol.329.(b) 3. Second Five-Year Plan
The Liberalization, Privatization, and
TG
Commission, which formulated and (1956-1961): It was based on the
Globalization reforms were introduced in
regulated these plans, was established Mahalanobis model. It focused on rapid
1991, during the Eighth Five-Year Plan
on March 15, 1950, and replaced by NITI industrialization and the public sector.
(1992-1997). Rolling Plan: The Rolling
on
Aayog in 2015. The three steel plants at Bhilai, Durgapur,
Plan was introduced during the Janata
and Rourkela were established with the
Party government in the period 1978-80. Q.327. Growth, as envisaged in the
help of the Soviet Union (USSR), Britain
ch
Growth with justice and equity: This was five-year plans, refers to:
(United Kingdom) and Germany
a theme of the Ninth Five - Year Plan SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
respectively.
ar
(1997-2002). (a) increase in the country’s capacity to
produce the output of goods and Q.330. Before the launch of which
Se
Q.324. The 10th Five-Year Plan aimed at
services within the country Five-Year Plan did India introduce
reducing poverty by:
(b) improvement in the state of equity in structural adjustment policies ?
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift)
the country SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) 8% (b) 9% (c) 2% (d) 5%
(c) improvement in the level of education (a) Seventh Five-Year Plan
Sol.324.(d) 5%. The Tenth Five-Year Plan and primary health in the country (b) Eighth Five-Year Plan
was from 2002 to 2007, under the (d) self-reliance in producing all goods (c) Sixth Five-Year Plan
leadership of Atal Bihari Vajpayee and and services it requires, within its (d) Ninth Five-Year Plan
Manmohan Singh. Target Growth - 8% geographical boundaries
and Actual Growth - 7.6%. The first Sol.330.(b) Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992 -
Sol.327.(a) The goals of the five year 97) : Target Growth 5.6 %, Actual Growth
five-year plan in India was launched in
plans (FYP) were growth, modernisation, 6.8%. Introduction of fiscal & economic
1951 and since then, India has witnessed
self-reliance and equity. India launched a reforms including liberalisation under the
twelve Five Year Plans.
series of FYP after independence to build leadership of Prime Minister Shri P V
Q.325. Which of the following is NOT one its economy and attain development. The Narasimha Rao. Adoption of Indicative
of the four primary explicit goals of FYP was formulated, implemented and Planning (1st Adopted in France)
five-year plans? regulated by the Planning Commission,
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) and was replaced by a think tank called Q.331. The five-year plans in India laid
(a) Equity (b) Education NITI AAYOG in 2015. down not only specific objectives to be
(c) Self-reliance (d) Growth attained in the five years of a plan, but
Q.328. Match the following Prime also what was to be achieved over a
Sol.325.(b) Education. The model of the Ministers of India with the Five - Year period of 20 years. This long-term plan is
Indian Economy was premised on the Plans they initiated. called a _________ .
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) government to formulate and implement the Annual PLFS Reports.
(a) perpetual plan (b) two-decade plan effective economic development
Q.338. Which of the following is NOT the
(c) twenty-year plan (d) perspective plan policies. The "mixed economy" model
socio-economic objective of Industrial
was embraced, where the State and
Sol.331.(d) Perspective plan. The Idea of Policy Statement 1980 ?
private sector collaborated to boost
Planning as a process of rebuilding the SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
production and employment.
economy gained prominence in the (a) Higher employment generation
1940s-50s. Joseph Stalin was the first Q.335. In which Five-year plan was the (b) Consumer protection against high
person to implement the Five-Year Plan following statement quoted? prices and bad quality
in the Soviet Union in 1928. The model of “The urge to bring economic and social (c) Promotion of export-oriented
the Indian Economy was premised on the change under present conditions comes industries
concept of planning based on five-year from the fact of poverty and inequalities (d) Allowing the maximum foreign direct
plans from 1951-2017. in income, wealth and opportunity”. investment
Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
Q.332. Which of these is NOT among the Sol.338.(d) Industrial Policy Resolution
(a) Second Five-year plan
reforms related to agriculture undertaken of 1956 : It aimed to accelerate
(b) Fourth Five-year plan
under the five year plans ? economic growth and promote
(c) First Five-year plan
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift) industrialization for a socialist society,
(d) Third Five-year plan
(a) Introduction of the policy of land to with comprehensive revisions made after
the tiller' Sol.335.(c) First Five year plan (1951- the Constitution's adoption. To address
(b) Introduction of theLand Ceiling Act 56) - Its president was Jawaharlal Nehru new challenges, it was further modified
(c) Launch of the high yielding variety and Vice-president was Gulzarilal Nanda. through statements in 1973, 1977, and
seed technology 1980. Industrial Policy Statement of
df
(d) Formation of Rent Authority Department Indian Economy : Central 1980 : It aimed for higher employment
_p
generation, consumer protection,
Problems and Planning
Sol.332.(d) Formation of Rent Authority promotion of export-oriented industries,
Department. The first five-year plan
na
Q.336. Which of the following steps encouragement of small-scale and
(1951-56) the highest priority was cottage industries, regional balance and
promoted the growth of the economy as
accorded to increase agricultural
ap
a whole by stimulating the development decentralization, and self-reliance
production. through import substitution.
of industrial and tertiary sectors?
:@
Q.333. The global financial crises SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening) Q.339. What were the main obstacles
overlapped which five year plan in India? (a) Green Revolution (b) Planning during the industrial development of
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift) (c) Independence (d) Colonial rule India at the time of independence?
TG
(a) Ninth Five year Plan SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.336.(b) Planning. After
(b) Tenth Five year Plan (a) Market for industrial produce
independence, India adopted a planned
(c) Twelfth Five year Plan (b) Capital investment in industries
on
economy, which was primarily aimed at
(d) Eleventh Five year Plan (c) Employment required for industries
boosting industrialization and service
(d) Land for industrial establishment
Sol.333.(d) Eleventh Five Year Plan sectors. The Five-Year Plans were
ch
(2007-2012) - Under the leadership of introduced to guide and stimulate growth Sol.339.(b) Capital investment in
Manmohan Singh. Its main theme was in various sectors. These plans included industries. At independence, India faced
ar
“rapid and more inclusive growth”. Tenth infrastructure development, the challenges like illiteracy, poverty, low per
establishment of industries, and the
Se
Five Year Plan (2002 to 2007) - Under the capita income, industrial backwardness,
leadership of Atal Bihari Vajpayee and expansion of services, all of which and unemployment. The government
Manmohan Singh. This plan aimed to contributed to the overall economic implemented industrial policies that
double the Per Capita Income of India in growth. marked a turning point in India's
the next 10 years. Ninth Plan (1997 - industrial history.
Q.337. Which of the following options is
2002): This Plan focussed on “Growth
the most appropriate cause for Q.340. What is the primary benefit
With Social Justice & Equality“.
unemployment in India ? offered to businesses in Special
Q.334. Which of these is NOT one of the SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Economic Zones (SEZs) ?
reasons why the public sector played a (a) Over population SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift)
dominant role in establishing the (b) Environment conditions (a) Tax and duty concessions
Industrial sector in India post - (c) High educational systems (b) Guaranteed market share
Independence ? (d) Lack of labour force (c) Mandatory government contracts
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift) (d) Unlimited foreign investment
Sol.337.(a) Over population leads to a
(a) Poor savings capacity of the public Sol.340.(a) Tax and duty concessions.
surplus of labor in the job market, often
(b) To avoid generation of private profit The incentives and facilities offered to
outpacing the availability of jobs, which
(c) Absence of large enough market for the units in SEZs for attracting
contributes significantly to
output investments into the SEZs, including
unemployment. In India, the estimated
(d) Lack of adequate capital with private foreign investment include:- Duty free
Unemployment Rate on usual status for
industrialists import/domestic procurement of goods
persons of age 15 years and above was
Sol.334.(b) In 1950, a Planning 4.2%, 4.1% and 3.2% during 2020-21, for development, operation and
Commission was established by the 2021-22 and 2022-23, respectively as per maintenance of SEZ units.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
Q.341. Which industrial policy marked (a) Stable unemployment corporations (MNCs). Peter Sutherland is
the beginning of liberalisation in the (b) Stable import known as the 'father of globalization'.
Indian industry, reducing the restrictions (c) Stable employment Globalization in India (1991) was done by
on private companies? (d) Stable export Manmohan Singh under leadership of PV
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Narasimha Rao. The three main pillars of
(a) Industrial Policy 1991 Sol.344.(c) Stable employment - Reform were: Liberalization,
(b) Industrial Policy 1980 ensures that a significant portion of the Globalization, and Privatization.
(c) Industrial Policy 1977 population has a steady income, which
(d) Industrial Policy 1956 drives consumption, improves living Q.348. With progressive delicensing of
standards, and supports economic industries as part of liberalisation, which
Sol.341.(a) Industrial Policy 1991. It was growth. of the following is the industry that is
introduced as part of the broader removed from the requirement of
economic reforms initiated by the Q.345. The Industrial Policy Resolution, license?
government of P.V. Narasimha Rao, with 1948 mainly categorised the large-scale SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Dr. Manmohan Singh as the Finance industries into ________ fragments. (a) Cigars and cigarettes of tobacco, and
Minister. This policy marked a paradigm SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) manufactured tobacco substitutes
shift from the previous regime of (a) two (b) four (c) three (d) five (b) Industrial explosives
licenses, permits, and regulations to a (c) Hazardous chemicals
Sol.345.(b) Four. The Industrial Policy
more open and market-oriented (d) Coal and lignite
Resolution of 1948 was India's first major
economy. Important features included :
policy document on industries after Sol.348.(d) Coal and lignite. Mineral
Abolition of industrial licensing for most
independence. It was announced by Dr. Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2020 provides
industries, Liberalization of foreign
Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, the then that prior approval of the central
df
technology agreements, and Abolition of
Industry Minister, in the Parliament on government will not be required by the
the MRTP Act (Monopolies and
April 6, 1948. Four categories: Exclusive
_p
Restrictive Trade Practices Act). state government in granting licenses for
monopoly of central government, New coal and lignite. Industries subject to
undertaking undertaken only by the state,
na
Q.342. Which of the following sectors in compulsory licensing in India: Tobacco
India faces seasonal unemployment? Industries to be regulated by the items, Defense aerospace and warships,
government, Open to private enterprise,
ap
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) Hazardous chemicals, Industrial
(a) Agriculture individuals and cooperatives. explosives.
:@
(b) Manufacturing
Q.346. Which of the following was a Q.349. Which of the following was NOT
(c) Medical
feature of the Indian economy before the an advantage of privatisation?
(d) Information technology
British rule? SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
TG
Sol.342.(a) Agriculture. Seasonal SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) (a) Reduced competition
unemployment occurs when people are (a) Independent economy (b) Overall improved performance
jobless during specific seasons when (b) Prosperous economy (c) Additional source of revenue for the
on
labor demand is low. It arises from a (c) Self-reliant economy government
mismatch between the skills of the (d) Dependent economy (d) Low interference of political motives
ch
workforce and those required for
Sol.346.(a) Independent economy. A
available jobs. Sol.349.(a) Privatization generally aims
prosperous economy is a successful
ar
to enhance competition by allowing
Q.343. Which of the following is NOT system of trade and industry that usually
private entities to enter markets, which
Se
associated with the Industrial Policy earns a lot. A self-reliant economy is an
can lead to improved efficiency and
Resolution, 1956 ? economy that is less dependent on other
innovation. The other options listed are
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) countries and does not require aid from
commonly recognized advantages of
(a) Regional equality was promoted. outside the country. Economic
privatization.
(b) A system of licenses for the private dependence in the context of a country's
sector was introduced. economy refers to a situation where a Q.350. The Suresh Tendulkar committee
(c) It classified industries into three nation heavily relies on another country was formed in 2005 for_________.
categories. or countries for its economic growth and Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(d) It formed the basis of the Third Five development. (a) economic reform (b) foreign policy
Year Plan. (c) poverty estimates (d) employment
Q.347. Which of the following is a
Sol.343.(d) The Industrial Policy feature of globalisation? Sol.350.(c) Poverty estimates. Other
Resolution, 1956 formed the basis for the SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) committees : Sukhamoy Chakravarty
Second Five Year Plan, which aimed to (a) Self-reliance Committee (1985) - Examined issues
build the foundation for a socialist (b) Restrictions on expansion of public related to monetary policy and economic
pattern of society. IPR was the first sector reforms. Chelliah Committee (1991) -
comprehensive statement on India's (c) Liberalisation of import licensing Recommended economic reforms and
industrial development. (d) Disinvestment liberalization policies. Janaki Ballabh
Patnaik Committee (2005) - Reviewed
Q.344. Which of the following is more Sol.347.(c) Liberalisation of import
the implementation of the National Rural
important to promote modernisation and licensing. Globalization is the integration
Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA).
overall prosperity of a country ? between countries through foreign trade
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift) and foreign investments by multinational Q.351. The main worker is a person who
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
works for at least _______ days in a year. : Long-term unemployment due to Q.358. According to the Planning
Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1) fundamental changes in the economy Commission of India (2011-12), what is
(a) 145 (b) 167 (c) 115 (d) 183 (e.g., industry decline). the percentage of the population below
the poverty line in Chandigarh?
Sol.351.(d) 183 (or six months). The Q.355. Which of the following types of SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
population of India according to their unemployment arises from a mismatch (a) 2.77% (b) 9.86% (c) 21.81% (d) 9.91%
economic status is divided into three between the jobs available in the market
groups, namely; main workers, marginal and the skills of the available workers in Sol.358.(c) 21.81%. Poverty is measured
workers (who work less than 183 days) the market? based on consumer expenditure surveys
and non-workers. The proportion of Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2) of the National Sample Survey
workers (both main and marginal) is only (a) Frictional (b) Disguised Organisation. Poverty line in 2011-12
39.8 percent (2011) leaving a vast (c) Structural (d) Seasonal (Tendulkar Methodology): State: Highest
majority of about 60 percent as - Chhattisgarh (39.93 %). Lowest - Goa
non-workers. Sol.355.(c) Structural. Frictional (5.09 %). Union Territory: Highest - Dadra
unemployment occurs when workers and Nagar Haveli (39.31%).
Q.352. Which of the following states has transition between jobs while searching
the largest net - out migrants ? for new opportunities. Seasonal Q.359. Which of these is one of the fall
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) unemployment happens when workers out of the industrial licensing system?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Uttar Pradesh are jobless during certain seasons, SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(c) Haryana (d) Gujarat especially in agriculture, tourism, and (a) Large industrial houses availed
retail. Disguised unemployment occurs licences to prevent competition
Sol.352.(b) Uttar Pradesh. A net when more workers are employed than (b) Most licences were used up by
out-migrant state is one where more needed, leading to reduced productivity, backward states
df
people migrate out of the state than commonly seen in agriculture and family (c) Most licences were for importing
those that migrate into the state. As of
_p
businesses. goods
2011, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar were the (d) Many small private firms appropriated
largest source of inter-state migrants Q.356. What is the percentage of people
na
licences
while Maharashtra and Delhi were the below the poverty line in India according
largest receiver states. Around 83 lakh to Government of India, planning Sol.359.(a) The Industrial licensing was
ap
residents of Uttar Pradesh and 63 lakh commission 2013 ? abolished for all projects except for a
residents of Bihar had moved either Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4) short list of industries through the
:@
temporarily or permanently to other (a) 5.09% (b) 13.98% amendments in NIP (New Industrial
states. Around 60 lakh people from (c) 23.67% (d) 21.92% Policy) in the year 1991.
across India had migrated to
TG
Maharashtra by 2011. Sol.356.(d) 21.92%. According to the Q.360. The estimation of poverty line in
Planning Commission, the percentage of India is based on the survey conducted
Q.353. _________ is a state of deprivation people below the poverty line in urban by which of the following?
on
that reflects the inability of an individual areas was 13.7% in 2011-12, while in SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift)
to satisfy basic needs for a sustained, rural areas it was 25.7%. The current (a) Ministry of Finance
ch
healthy and reasonably productive living. methodology for poverty estimation is (b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2) based on the recommendations of an (c) Ministry of Rural Development
ar
(a) Ignorance (b) Illiteracy Expert Group to Review the Methodology (d) National Statistical Office (NSO)
(c) Poverty (d) Bondage for Estimation of Poverty (Tendulkar
Se
Committee) established in 2005. Sol.360.(d) National Statistical Office
Sol.353.(c) Poverty. Ignorance : This (NSO). Poverty estimation in India is
refers to a lack of knowledge, Q.357. According to the Planning carried out by NITI Aayog's task force
information, or awareness about a Commission of India (2011-2012), which through the calculation of the poverty
particular subject or situation. Bondage : of the following group of states has the line based on data captured by the
This refers to the condition of being a highest percentage of population below National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
slave or being in a state of servitude. the poverty line? under the Ministry of Statistics and
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) Programme Implementation (MOSPI).
Q.354. ______ unemployment refers to (a) Gujarat and Haryana
the time lag between jobs when an (b) Kerala and Punjab Q.361. The national poverty line for
individual is searching for a new job or is (c) Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand 2011-12 was estimated at____ per capita
switching between jobs. (d) Bihar and Odisha per month for urban areas of India.
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (1st shift)
(a) Seasonal (b) Technological Sol.357.(c) Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. (a) ₹ 3,000 (b) ₹ 1,000
(c) Frictional (d) Structural Poverty Line Calculation: Poverty (c) ₹ 2,000 (d) ₹ 1,500
estimation in India is now carried out by
Sol.354.(c) Frictional. Seasonal NITI Aayog’s task force through the Sol.361.(b) ₹ 1,000. For rural areas the
Unemployment : Unemployment due to calculation of poverty line based on the national poverty line using the Tendulkar
seasonal fluctuations in industries (e.g., data captured by the National Statistical methodology is estimated at Rs. 816 per
winter tourism). Technological Office (NSO) under the Ministry of capita per month.
Unemployment : Unemployment caused Statistics and Programme
by technological advancements Q.362. In India, what type of
Implementation (MOSPI). unemployment is created due to lack of
replacing jobs. Structural Unemployment
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
employable skills among the educated the first person to discuss the concept of statements is correct?
youths in India? the poverty line? I. The Family Welfare Program has sought
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift) SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Evening) to promote responsible and planned
(a) Structural unemployment (a) M.K Gandhi parenthood on a mandatory basis.
(b) Educated unemployment (b) Mahadev Govind Ranade II. The National Population Policy 2000
(c) Cyclical unemployment (c) B.R. Ambedkar provides a policy framework to provide
(d) Technological unemployment (d) Dadabhai Naoroji free and compulsory education up to the
age of 14 years.
Sol.362.(b) Educated unemployment. Sol.366.(d) Dadabhai Naoroji (Grand old SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Structural unemployment - It is a category man of India). He criticised the britisher's (a) Neither I nor II (b) I only
of unemployment arising from the policy of economic exploitation of India (c) II only (d) Both I and II
mismatch between the jobs available in through his book “Poverty and Un-british
the market and the skills of the available rule in India” in which he made the Sol.370.(c) II only. The Family Welfare
workers in the market. Technological earliest estimation of the poverty line Programme (launched in 1952) seeks to
unemployment - It is the loss of jobs due (₹16 to ₹35 per capita per year). promote responsible and planned
to changes in technology. Cyclical parenthood through voluntary (not on a
unemployment - It occurs with changes in Q.367. If unemployment continues for mandatory basis) choice of family
economic activity over the business cycle. long-term in a country, it is called _______ planning methods.
unemployment.
Q.363. _____ unemployment refers to the SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift) Q.371. The government of India initiated
lowest unemployment level a healthy (a) casual (b) technological the comprehensive family planning
economy can sustain without causing (c) frictional (d) Chronic programme in the year _____________
inflation. SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (4th Shift)
df
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.367.(d) Chronic unemployment. (a) 1960 (b) 1991 (c) 1952 (d) 1982
Casual Unemployment: when the worker
_p
(a) Structural (b) Disguised
(c) Natural (d) Frictional is employed on a day-to-day basis for a Sol.371.(c) 1952. India was the first
contractual job and has to leave it once country in the world to have launched a
na
Sol.363.(c) Natural. Disguised the contract terminates. National Programme for Family Planning.
Unemployment is a kind of
ap
unemployment in which there are people Q.368. Which of the following Q.372. A person is said to be in marginal
who are visibly employed but are actually statements is NOT correct with respect employment if she/he has worked for
:@
unemployed. to the poverty line? fewer than ______ months in the year
I. In India, it is normally estimated after preceding the Census.
Q.364. Formula to find the every ten years. SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Afternoon)
TG
unemployment rate is . II. The proportion of people below the (a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 9
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Evening) poverty line is not the same for all social
(a) (Unemployed male workers/Total groups and economic categories in India. Sol.372.(b) 6. Those who had not
on
labour force) × 1000 SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (2nd Shift) worked for the major part of the year (
(b) (Unemployed workers/Total labour (a) Both I and II (b) Only II i.e. those who had worked for less than 6
force) × 100 (c) Neither I nor II (d) Only I months or less than 183 days in a year)
ch
(c) (Employed workers/Total labour were termed as marginal workers.
force) × 100 Sol.368.(d) Only I. Below Poverty Line
ar
(d) (Employed workers/Male labour (BPL) - Benchmark used by the Q.373. The poverty line in India is
government of India to identify normally estimated ______ by conducting
Se
force) × 100
individuals and households in need of sample surveys.
Sol.364.(b) (Unemployed workers/Total government assistance and aid. SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Evening)
labour force) × 100. Statistics on (a) every ten years (b) every five years
unemployment in India had traditionally Q.369. Which of the following is NOT an (c) every six years (d) twice a year
been collected, compiled and advantage of E-Commerce?
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (4th Shift) Sol.373.(b) every Five years. These
disseminated once every ten years by the
(a) Cost saving and price reduction surveys are carried out by the National
Ministry of Labour and Employment
(b) Late response to customer needs Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO).
(MLE).
(c) Wider choice Q.374. The system of MSP (Minimum
Q.365. Which among the following types (d) Improved customer services Support Price) was first introduced for
of unemployment is also known as the
______ in 1966-67 and later expanded to
real wage unemployment? Sol.369.(b) E-Commerce is a business
include other essential food crops.
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening) model that lets firms and individuals buy
SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Evening)
(a) classical (b) seasonal and sell things over the Internet.
(a) jowar (b) bajra (c) wheat (d) ragi
(c) structural (d) frictional Advantages: increased productivity and
perfect competition, cuts the product Sol.374.(c) Wheat. Minimum Support
Sol.365.(a) Classical. Real wage distribution chain, managing business Price (MSP) is a form of market
unemployment occurs when wages are easy and simple. Disadvantage : chance intervention by the Government of India
set above the equilibrium level causing of fraudulent financial transactions and to insure agricultural producers against
the supply of labour to be greater than loss of sensitive financial information. any sharp fall in farm prices. Crops
demand.
covered by MSPs include: 7 types of
Q.370. Which of the following
Q.366. In pre-independent India, who was cereals (paddy, wheat, maize, bajra,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
jowar, ragi and barley), 5 types of pulses Direct Investment (FDI) in India are the (a) No requirement to develop new
(chana, arhar/tur, urad, moong and Automatic Route (Without government products
masoor), 7 oilseeds (rapeseed-mustard, approval) and the Government Route (b) Incentive to produce efficiently
groundnut, soyabean, sunflower, (With prior approval of Government). (c) Expansion of foreign market
sesamum, safflower, niger seed), 3 (d) Saving of foreign exchange reserves
commercial crops (cotton, copra, raw Q.378. What is the balance of trade of a
jute,). Fair Remunerative Prices- country? Sol.381.(b) Incentive to produce
Sugarcane. SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift) efficiently. Other Advantages of Foreign
(a) Ratio of international trade Competition: Lower prices, Increased
Q.375. Who among the following was the (b) Number of imports efficiency, Increased consumer choice,
Chairperson of the Disinvestment (c) Difference between imports and Increased trade, Increased innovation.
Commission, Ministry of Industry exports Disadvantages: Job losses, Decreasing
(Department of Public Enterprises) (d) Number of exports profit margins, Loss of market share,
established in 1996? Dependency on foreign countries.
SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Morning) Sol.378.(c) Difference between imports
(a) Arundhati Roy (b) NK Singh and exports. The Balance of Trade (BoT) Q.382. Which of the following is NOT a
(c) Arvind Mehta (d) GV Ramakrishna is the difference between a country's component of investment ?
exports and imports over a specific SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift)
Sol.375.(d) GV Ramakrishna was the period, typically a year. Conditions of BoT (a) Addition to residential construction
Chairperson of the Disinvestment : (i) If exports > imports, the country has (b) Money spent on purchasing shares of
Commission, Ministry of Industry a trade surplus (positive balance). (ii) If a company
(Department of Public Enterprises) imports > exports, the country has a (c) Machinery and equipment employed
established in 1996. trade deficit (negative balance). by a firm
df
(d) Inventories of raw materials stocked
Q.379. Which of the following is the
_p
Stock, Debentures and Foreign most traditional mode of entering into
by a firm
Trade the foreign market? Sol.382.(b) Buying shares of a
na
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) company- It is not deemed an
Q.376. What challenge does foreign (a) Exporting investment as it does not directly
ap
investment often face in India? (b) Undertaking portfolio investment enhance productive capacity. Share
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) Mergers and acquisitions purchase grants ownership in the
:@
(a) Excessive foreign competition (d) Setting up fully owned manufacturing company but not in its capital goods,
(b) Inconsistent regulatory environment facilities which the company might acquire with
(c) Lack of skilled labour share-sale funds.
TG
(d) Lack of consumer base Sol.379.(a) Exporting involves the sale of
domestically produced goods to Q.383. The country can improve its
Sol.376.(b) Inconsistent regulatory international buyers. It allows companies balance of payments by devaluation
on
environment can lead to difficulties in to expand their reach with low risk and when the sum of elasticity of demand for
compliance and planning for investors, investment. Exporting can take various exports and imports is .
ultimately affecting their confidence and forms, including direct sales and online SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (1st shift)
ch
willingness to invest in the country. platforms, and is often the first step for (a) less than unity (b) equal to unity
Foreign investment refers to when an businesses seeking to internationalize. (c) greater than unity (d) zero
ar
investor from one country purchases
Q.380. Special Drawing Rights are also Sol.383.(c) Greater than unity. It is called
Se
ownership of an asset or business in
another country. known as ________. the Marshall-Lerner condition in
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) economics. If the domestic currency
Q.377. The Government of India allowed (a) Golden Papers devalues, imports become more
automatic approval of _____% of FDI by (b) International Reserves Money expensive, and exports become cheaper
Reserve Bank of India in nine categories (c) Paper Gold due to the change in relative prices.
of industries. (d) Gold Papers Balance of Payment (BoP) : It is a
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift) statement of all transactions made
(a) Up to 51 (b) Up to 60 Sol.380.(c) Paper Gold. The SDR
between entities in one country and the
(c) Up to 41 (d) Up to 74 (Special Drawing Rights) is an
rest of the world over a defined period,
international reserve asset. The SDR is
Sol.377.(d) Up to 74. Foreign Direct such as a quarter or a year. Two main
not a currency, but its value is based on a
Investment (FDI) refers to an investment accounts in the BoP: Current account - It
basket of five currencies - the US dollar,
made by a company or individual in one includes a nation's net trade in goods and
the euro, the Chinese renminbi, the
country into business operations or services. Capital account - It consists of
Japanese yen, and the British pound
assets in another country. The Foreign a nation's transactions in financial
sterling. SDR created by the IMF in 1969.
Investment Facilitation Portal (FIFP) instruments and central bank reserves.
The SDR serves as the unit of account of
provides single-window clearance for FDI the IMF and other international Q.384. The index titled SENSEX of BSE
applications under the approval route. It organizations. (erstwhile Bombay Stock Exchange) is an
is managed by the Department for index of trading of top ____companies in
Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Q.381. Which of the following is an terms of their volume of trade and their
(DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce advantage of foreign competition? share prices.
and Industry. The two routes for Foreign SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift) SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Afternoon)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
(a) ten (b) thirty (c) hundred (d) fifty (a) To increase exports (c) Increases the induced expenditure
(b) To increase excise duty multiplier
Sol.384.(b) thirty. The full form of (c) To reduce fiscal deficit (d) Increases the autonomous
SENSEX is the Stock Exchange Sensitive (d) To reduce subsidies expenditure multiplier
Index. Published on 1 January 1986, the
BSE SENSEX is regarded as the pulse of Sol.388.(c) To reduce fiscal deficit. The Sol.391.(b) Proportional taxes reduce
the domestic stock markets in India. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget the autonomous expenditure multiplier
Management (FRBM) Act is a law because taxes reduce the marginal
Q.385. In which year was the Foreign enacted by the Government of India in propensity to consume out of income.
Exchange Management Act (FEMA) 2003 to ensure fiscal discipline – by Marginal propensity to consume (MPC)
enacted to replace the Foreign Exchange setting targets including reduction of is the fraction of additional income that a
Regulation Act (FERA) ? fiscal deficits and elimination of revenue person or household spends. When taxes
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Evening) deficit. Enacted - 26 August 2003. increase, disposable income decreases,
(a) 1999 (b) 1988 (c) 2014 (d) 1992 Introduced by Mr. Yashwant Sinha. which in turn reduces the MPC.
Sol.385.(a) 1999. The Parliament has Q.389. _____is defined as excess of total Q.392. What is a revenue deficit in the
enacted the Foreign Exchange expenditure over total receipts excluding government budget?
Management Act,1999 to replace the borrowings during a fiscal year. SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973. SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift) (a) The excess of expenditure over
This Act came into force on the 1st day (a) Gross Primary deficit revenue, excluding interest payments
of June, 2000. (b) Fiscal deficit on debt
(c) Income deficit (b) The excess of expenditure over
Q.386. Bombay Stock Exchange became
(d) Structural deficit revenue, including interest payments
df
the first stock exchange in India to
launch commodity derivatives contracts Sol.389.(b) Fiscal deficit is the on debt
_p
in gold and ______. difference between the government’s (c) The excess of revenue over
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Morning) total expenditure and its total receipts expenditure, excluding interest
na
(a) diamond (b) silver excluding borrowing. The gross fiscal payments on debt
(c) platinum (d) equity deficit is a key variable in judging the (d) The excess of revenue over
ap
financial health of the public sector and expenditure, including interest
Sol.386.(b) silver. BSE was established the stability of the economy. Gross payments on debt
:@
in 1875 by cotton merchant Premchand Primary Deficit is the fiscal deficit minus
Roychand and is located in Dalal Street, Sol.392.(b) A revenue deficit occurs
interest payments on previous when revenue falls short of covering
Mumbai. It is the oldest Stock Exchange borrowings. day-to-day operational expenses.
TG
in Asia. It is the first stock exchange of
Asia. The Dutch East India Company Q.390. Intervention by the monetary Revenue expenditure covers the costs of
(founded in 1602) was the first authority of a country in the money maintaining operations and generating
revenue. Interest payments are
on
joint-stock company to get a fixed capital market to keep money supply stable
stock. against exogenous or sometimes compensation made by borrowers to
external shocks is called _____. lenders for using borrowed money.
ch
Fiscal Policy and Monetary SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift)
Q.393. Which of the following measures
(a) neutralisation (b) capitalisation
ar
Policy (c) conservation (d) sterilisation
can be adopted by the government to
reduce revenue deficit?
Se
Q.387. The Flexible Inflation Targeting Sol.390.(d) Sterilisation. It refers to the SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
Framework (FITF) was introduced in actions taken by a monetary authority, (a) Tax reforms
India post the amendment of the Reserve such as a central bank, to offset the (b) Increasing subsidies
Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 in_______. effects of foreign exchange operations (c) Offering freebies
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) on the domestic money supply. For (d) Increasing money supply
(a) 2014 (b) 2010 (c) 2016 (d) 2020 instance, if a central bank experiences an
Sol.393.(a) Tax reforms. A revenue
inflow of foreign exchange, it might
Sol.387.(c) 2016. The Reserve Bank of deficit occurs when a business' sales or
conduct an open market sale of
India (RBI) Act, 1934, was amended to government revenue isn't enough to
government securities to absorb the
provide a statutory basis for the Flexible cover its basic operations. The fiscal
excess money and maintain the stability
Inflation Targeting (FIT) framework. FIT deficit in the economy will be zero if
of the money supply. This process helps
is a monetary policy strategy employed there is no provision for borrowings in
to protect the economy from external
by the RBI to maintain inflation within a the budget. A budget deficit occurs when
shocks and prevent inflationary or
specified range, allowing for flexibility. expenses exceed revenue, and it can
deflationary pressures.
This approach enhances stability and indicate the financial health of a country.
transparency in monetary policy Q.391. What is the impact of
Q.394. Reserve ratio and money supply
decisions. proportional taxes?
have ________ relationship.
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift)
Q.388. What is the main objective of SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
(a) Increases the marginal propensity to
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget (a) no (b) a negative
consume
Management Act (FRBMA), 2003 ? (c) a linear (d) a symmetrical
(b) Reduces the autonomous expenditure
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift) multiplier Sol.394.(b) a negative. As the reserve
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
ratio increases, the money supply interest payments are doubled? of the country.
decreases, and vice versa. The Cash SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift) SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Evening)
Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the percentage of (a) Increase by 100% (a) Marginal Standing Facility
a bank's Net Demand and Time Liabilities (b) Increase by 200% (b) Moral Suasion
(NDTL) that must be maintained as cash (c) Decrease by 50% (c) Credit Rationing
reserves with the central bank. (d) Decrease by 100% (d) Margin Requirements
Quantitative tools of monetary policy -
SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio), Repo rate, Sol.398.(a) Increase by 100%. Primary Sol.402.(b) Moral Suasion. Marginal
Reverse Repo Rate, Bank Rate. deficit - It is defined as the fiscal deficit Standing Facility (MSF): Facility under
of the current year minus interest which scheduled commercial banks can
Q.395. Which of the following is a payments on previous borrowings. borrow additional amounts under
selective credit instrument? overnight facility by dipping in their
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) Q.399. Gross primary deficit is equal to 'Statutory Liquidity Ratio' (SLR) portfolio
(a) CRR ________. up to a certain limit.
(b) Bank rate SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (1st shift)
(a) difference between gross fiscal Q.403. Who chairs the Monetary Policy
(c) Variable reserve ratio
deficit and interest payments Committee in India?
(d) Credit rationing
(b) difference between total expenditure SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening)
Sol.395.(d) Credit rationing. It means and total receipts (a) Union Finance minister
limiting the availability of credit in the (c) difference between net borrowings (b) Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of
market. It is a qualitative measure and net capital receipts India
through which the central bank fixes the (d) difference between revenue deficit (c) Comptroller and Auditor General of
credit limit for different business and capital expenditure India
df
activities in the economy. The variable (d) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
Sol.399.(a) Gross Primary Deficit is
_p
reserve ratio is a monetary policy tool
Gross Fiscal Deficit less interest Sol.403.(d) Governor, Reserve Bank of
that central banks use to control credit
payments. India. The Monetary Policy Committee
na
and the money supply in the economy.
(MPC) is a statutory body constituted as
It's made up of two components: the Q.400. The general target of the per Section 45ZB under the RBI Act of
ap
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and the monetary policy is to ensure ___________ . 1934 by the Central Government.It
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). A) price stability in the economy consists: - RBI Governor as its ex officio
:@
Q.396. The RBI act provides for how B) greater tax collections for the chairperson, Deputy Governor in charge
many members in RBI Monetary Policy government of monetary policy, member ex officio, An
Committee (MPC) ? C) employment generation in the rural officer of the Bank nominated by the
TG
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) areas Central Board as member ex officio,
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) 4 SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift) Three persons are appointed by the
(a) Both B and C (b) Only C central government.
on
Sol.396.(a) 6. The Reserve Bank of India (c) Both A and B (d) Only A
Act, 1934 (RBI Act) has been amended Q.404. Which of the following
Sol.400.(d) Only A. Monetary policy - combinations of tenors of Treasury bills
ch
by the Finance Act, 2016 to provide for a
statutory and institutionalized framework Actions and strategies adopted by a issued by the Government of India is
central bank to control the money supply, correct ?
ar
for a MPC. MPC (Monetary Policy
Committee) members: RBI Governor interest rates, and credit availability in an SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Se
(chairperson), Deputy Governor in charge economy, aiming to achieve stable prices (a) 82 days , 182 days , 345 days
of monetary policy, An officer of the Bank and sustainable economic growth. (b) 91 days, 152 days , 356 days
to be nominated by the Central Board, (c) 91 days , 182 days , 364 days
Q.401. In which year did the Government (d) 61 days , 145 days , 360 days
Three persons to be appointed by the of India bring FRBM (Fiscal
central government. Responsibility and Budget Management) Sol.404.(c) 91 days, 182 days, and 364
Q.397. Which deficit reflects the Act into effect ? days. Treasury Bills are short-term
borrowing needs of the government? SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift) financial instruments issued by the
SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (1st Shift) (a) 2015-16 (b) 2012-13 government to meet its expenditure.
(a) Capital loss (b) Revenue deficit (c) 2004-05 (d) 2008-09
Q.405. The monetary policy instrument
(c) Primary deficit (d) fiscal deficit Sol.401.(c) 2004-05. The Fiscal called 'bank rate' is aligned to ______.
Sol.397.(d) Fiscal deficit : The difference Responsibility and Budget Management SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
between total revenue and total (FRBM) Act 2003 envisages the setting (a) Liquidity adjustment facility
expenditure of the government. Fiscal of limits on the Central government’s (b) Cash Reserve ratio
Deficit = Total expenditure of the debt and deficit. The Centre and states (c) Discount rate
government (Capital and Revenue are mandated to reduce their fiscal (d) Marginal standing facility rate
expenditure) – Total income of the deficit to 3 percent of GDP.
Sol.405.(d) Marginal standing facility
government (Revenue receipts + recovery Q.402. ______refers to a method adopted rate. It is a scheme launched by the RBI
of loans + other receipts). by the Central Bank to persuade or in 2011-12. Liquidity adjustment facility
Q.398. What is the change in fiscal convince the commercial banks to is a monetary policy tool used by the RBI
deficit if both the primary deficit and advance credit in the economic interest in India through which it absorbs liquidity
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
in the banking system. It was introduced Sol.409.(c) 2013. The Companies Act, (b) Decennial surveys
by the Narasimham Committee (1998). 2013 is divided into 29 chapters, 470 (c) Quinquennial surveys
Discount Rate is the interest rate at sections, and 7 schedules. The Act (d) Monthly surveys
which the central bank lends to enables the Central Government
commercial banks to meet their liquidity (Ministry of Corporate Affairs) to make Sol.412.(c) Quinquennial surveys.
needs. rules through subordinate legislation. Before the introduction of the Periodic
The Act also explains the process of Labour Force Survey (PLFS), the National
Q.406. Which of the following forming a company, including the name, Statistical Office (NSO) conducted
statements is correct regarding the charter, members, purpose, and share quinquennial surveys under the National
government securities in the economy? capital. Sample Survey (NSS) program to collect
I. It is a tradable instrument issued by the employment and unemployment data.
Central Government or the State Q.410. Match the following microfinance These surveys, conducted every five
Governments. concepts with their descriptions. years, provided detailed insights into
II. They are called risk-free gilt-edged List I (Concepts) List II (Descriptions) labor force participation and
instruments. (a) Microcredit (i) Small, often peer - unemployment trends. The first such
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift) monitored savings survey was conducted in 1972–73 during
(a) Neither I nor II (b) Only I products designed for the 27th round of the NSS.
low-income individuals
(c) Only II (d) Both I and II
(b) Microsavings (ii) Financial protection Q.413. A famous organisation
Sol.406.(d) Both I and II. A Government against specific perils for Self-Employed Women’s Association
low-income populations (SEWA) is related with which of the
Security (G-Sec) is a tradable instrument
(c) Microinsurance (iii) The use of group following states?
issued by the Central Government or the
responsibility as a
State Governments. It acknowledges the SSC MTS 12/11/2024 (3rd Shift)
df
guarantee for loan
Government’s debt obligation. G-Secs (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Gujarat
repayment
_p
carry practically no risk of default and, (d) Social Collateral (iv) Small loans provided
(c) Haryana (d) Uttar Pradesh
hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged to entrepreneurs too
Sol.413.(b) Gujarat. Self-Employed
na
instruments. poor to qualify for
Women’s Association (SEWA) is a trade
traditional bank loans
Q.407. Who is the Chairman of Financial union based in Gujarat, founded in 1972
ap
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
Stability and Development Council by Ela Bhatt.
(a) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(FSDC) of India?
:@
(b) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) Q.414. What is the empirically fitted
SSC MTS 14/07/2022 (Morning) (c) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) relationship between the rate of change
(a) Finance Minister (d) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv) of money, wage, and rate of
(b) Human Resource Development
TG
unemployment known as ?
Minister Sol.410.(a) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii).
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(c) Home Minister (a) Friedman’s model
Q.411. Which among the following data
(d) Skill Development Minister
on
was used to compute the estimates in (b) Keynesian model
Sol.407.(a) Finance Minister. Financial the national Multidimensional Poverty (c) Baumol hypothesis
Index (MPI) Baseline Report? (d) Phillips curve
ch
Stability and Development Council
(FSDC) is a non-statutory apex council SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.414.(d) Phillips curve states that
(a) Economic Survey data
ar
under the Ministry of Finance constituted inflation and unemployment have an
by the Executive Order in 2010. (b) National Census data
inverse relationship; higher inflation is
Se
Raghuram Rajan committee (2008) (c) Annual Employment-Unemployment
associated with lower unemployment
proposed its creation. It is chaired by the Survey data
and vice versa. This concept was first
Finance Minister and its sub-committee (d) National Family Health Survey (NFHS-4)
proposed by Alban William Phillips.
is headed by the Governor of RBI. Friedman’s model: Milton Friedman's
Sol.411.(d) National Family Health
Q.408. When the government resorts to Survey (NFHS-4). National monetary policy model, focusing on
borrowing only to clear the backlog if Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is monetary supply and demand. Keynesian
interest payments, it is referred to as : a tool that measures poverty in India in model: John Maynard Keynes'
SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Evening) multiple dimensions, beyond income. macroeconomic model, emphasizing
(a) zero revenue deficit The MPI is developed by NITI Aayog in government intervention and aggregate
(b) zero primary deficit collaboration with the United Nations demand. Baumol hypothesis: William
(c) zero fiscal deficit Development Programme (UNDP) and Baumol's theory on the relationship
(d) excess budget deficit the Oxford Poverty and Human between inflation and economic growth.
Development Initiative (OPHI).
Sol.408.(b) Zero primary deficit. Q.415. Match the following items.
Q.412. Before the introduction of List I List II
Miscellaneous Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), i. Global System of Trade Preferences a. 2021
what type of surveys did the National ii. India-Gulf Cooperation Council b. 1988
Q.409. The Companies Act, ____ is an Act Statistical Office (NSO) conduct for Free Trade Agreement
to consolidate and amend the law employment and unemployment iii. The India-Republic of Korea c. 2004
indicators in India? Comprehensive Economic
relating to companies.
Partnership Agreement
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Morning) SSC MTS 05/11/2024 (2nd Shift)
iv. 7th Trade Policy Review d. 2010
(a) 2020 (b) 2005 (c) 2013 (d) 2017 (a) Biennial surveys
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) of using small-scale industries for Foreign Investment Promotion Board
(a) i (d), ii (a), iii (b), iv (c) promoting rural development. (FIPB) was replaced by the Foreign
(b) i (b), ii (a), iii (d), iv (c) SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift) Investment Facilitation Portal (FIFP) in
(c) i (c), ii (d), iii (a), iv (b) (a) Kelkar Committee May 2017.
(d) i (b), ii (c), iii (d), iv (a) (b) Sarkaria Committee
Q.421. What was the main purpose of
(c) Karve Committee
Sol.415.(d) i (b), ii (c), iii (d), iv (a). establishing the Agricultural Prices
(d) Chakravarty Committee
Global System of Trade Preferences Commission in 1965 ?
(1988) - Promotes trade among Sol.418.(c) Karve Committee. Other SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
developing countries. India-Gulf committees are: Kelkar Committee - It (a) To determine the prices for various
Cooperation Council Free Trade was formed in 2002 under the farm products purchased by the
Agreement (2004) - Aims to liberalize chairmanship of Vijay Kelkar. The Kelkar government
trade relations and explore a Free Trade Committee was re-constituted in 2015 to (b) To determine the price of seeds used
Agreement. India-Republic of Korea study and evaluate the Public Private in agriculture
Comprehensive Economic Partnership Partnership (PPP) model in India. (c) To determine the prices for various
Agreement (2010) - Enhances economic Sarkaria Committee (1983) formed under farm products for sale in the open
cooperation by reducing tariffs on goods. the chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria market
7th Trade Policy Review (2021) - A WTO to review the question of center-state (d) To determine the price of fertiliser
mechanism for regularly reviewing relations. The S. Chakravarty Committee and electricity paid by farmers
member countries' trade policies. (1982) was set up to review the working
Sol.421.(a) The Commission for
of the monetary system.
Q.416. During 2015, in ______ sector, Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is
Government of India had allowed about Q.419. Match the items in List I with an attached office under the Ministry of
df
49% of FDI. those in List II. Agriculture & Farmers Welfare,
_p
List I List II Government of India, that recommends
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift)
i. Balanced Growth Theory a. Rosenstein Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for
(a) defence
Rodan
na
(b) education select crops. It was established in 1965
ii. Big Push Theory b. Feldman-
(c) manufacture of medical devices as the Agricultural Prices Commission,
Mahalanobis
ap
(d) food products and was given its present name in 1985.
iii. Secular Deterioration c. Ragnar Nurkse
iv. Capital Goods and d. Prebisch-Singer Q.422. For which of the following
Sol.416.(a) defense. FDI Policy Reforms
:@
Heavy Industry sources of financial resources may
in sectors listed under Make in India
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift) financial intermediation NOT be
since May 2014-15 : India has liberalized
(a) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (b) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c required?
FDI policies in various sectors including
TG
(c) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b (d) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
food retail, rail infrastructure,
construction, and manufacturing, Sol.419.(c) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b. The (a) Raising equity via public offering
allowing up to 100% foreign investment doctrine of balanced growth states that (b) Borrowing from banks
on
to boost economic growth and job there should be balanced growth of all (c) Family funds
creation. sectors of the economy simultaneously. (d) Borrowing from All India Development
ch
The Big Push theory is a development Financial Institutions
Q.417. Which of the following
economics concept that suggests a Sol.422.(c) Family funds. Financial
statements is/are true with respect to
ar
large, coordinated investment in key intermediation refers to the process
MRTP Act ?
areas can lead to sustained economic
Se
i) The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade where financial institutions act as
growth. Capital Goods refer to products intermediaries between savers and
Practices Act (MRTP Act) was repealed
that are used in the production of other borrowers, facilitating the flow of funds.
and replaced by the Competition Act,
products but are not incorporated into Raising equity through public offerings,
2002.
the new product. borrowing from banks, and obtaining
ii) The asset limit for MRTP companies
was fixed at Rs. 25 crores by the Q.420. In which year was the Foreign funds from All India Development
first/original Monopolies and Restrictive Investment Promotion Board Financial Institutions all involve financial
Trade Practices Act (MRTP Act). established ? intermediation. Banks itself acts as
iii) The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) intermediaries between depositors and
Practices Act (MRTP Act) was first (a) 1960 (b) 1968 (c) 1965 (d) 1991 borrowers.
passed in 1969.
Sol.420.(b) 1968. The Foreign Q.423. Which organisation in India holds
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Investment Promotion Board (FIPB), the responsibility for setting the
(a) Only iii (b) Only i and iii
housed in the Department of Economic maximum residue limits (MRLs) of
(c) Only i and ii (d) Only ii and iii
Affairs, Ministry of Finance, is an pesticides in food materials?
Sol.417.(b) Only i and iii. The MRTP Act inter-ministerial body, responsible for SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
was indeed first passed in 1969 and was processing of FDI proposals and making (a) Indian Statistical Institute (ISI)
later repealed and replaced by the recommendations for Government (b) Food Safety and Standards Authority
Competition Act, 2002 . However, the approval. In 1996, it was transferred to of India (FSSAI)
asset limit for MRTP companies was the Department for Promotion of (c) Ministry of Food Processing
fixed at Rs. 100 crores. Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) in the Industries
Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The (d) Food Corporation of India (FCI)
Q.418. In 1955, _____noted the possibility
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
Sol.423.(b) (FSSAI) - It is an autonomous Research and Education in India? 1999 (FEMA) with effect from June 1,
statutory body established under the SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (1st shift) 2000.
Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. It (a) Food Corporation of India (FCI)
Q.431. A Plan of Economic Development
comes under the Administrative control (b) Agricultural and Processed Food
for India' is also known as________
of the Ministry of Health & Family Products Export Development
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Welfare. Headquarter - New Delhi. Authority (APEDA)
(a) Delhi Plan (b) Gujarat Plan
(c) National Bank for Agricultural and
Q.424. What is the name of the (c) Surat Plan (d) Bombay Plan
Rural Development (NABARD)
Comprehensive Household Survey (d) Indian Council of Agricultural Sol.431.(d) Bombay Plan - Proposed by
providing labour force statistics in India, Research (ICAR) eight leading Indian industrialists and
which was first conducted in 1955 ?
technocrats (J.R.D. Tata, Ghanshyam Das
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) Sol.427.(d) Indian Council of
Birla, Ardeshir Dalal, Lala Shri Ram,
(a) Area Frame Establishment Survey Agricultural Research (ICAR) :
Kasturbhai Lalbhai, Ardeshir Darabshaw
(AFES) Autonomous organization under the
Shroff, Sir Purshottamdas Thakurdas and
(b) Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) Department of Agricultural Research and
John Mathai). It was published in two
(c) Quarterly Employment Survey (QES) Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture
parts : The first volume was released in
(d) Employment-Unemployment Survey and Farmers Welfare, Government of
1944 and the second in 1945.
(EUS) India. Headquarter : New Delhi.
Q.432. Which of the following
Sol.424.(d) Employment-Unemployment Q.428. Who said 'PURA is one of the
statements is correct?
Survey (EUS). It was first conducted in mechanisms which will be utilized for
I. Death rate in India is 7.2 per 1000 in
the 9th round of the National Sample transforming our villages into productive
2011.
Survey (NSS) in 1955. The current format economic zones'?
df
II. Life expectancy at birth is 72.6 years in
of quinquennial (every 5 years) surveys SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (1st shift)
2012.
_p
started in the 27th round in 1972-73, (a) APJ Abdul Kalam
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
based on the M. L. Dantwala Committee (b) Manmohan Singh
(a) Only II (b) Both I and II
na
Report. (c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Neither I nor II (d) Only I
(d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Q.425. When was the 8th round of the
ap
Sol.432.(d) Only I. Life expectancy at
General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade Sol.428.(a) APJ Abdul Kalam. PURA
birth has increased from 36.7 years in
(GATT), the so-called 'Uruguay Round' (Provision of Urban Amenities to Rural
:@
1951 to 67.9 years in 2012. The birth rate
which led to the establishment of World Areas). Objective : Provision of livelihood
in a period is the total number of live
Trade Organization (WTO) completed ? opportunities and urban amenities in
births per 1,000 population divided by the
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) rural areas to bridge the rural - urban
TG
length of the period in years.
(a) 1992 (b) 1993 (c) 1991 (d) 1994 divide.
Q.433. In India, which of the following
Sol.425.(d) 1994. The General Q.429. Which of the following is NOT an
on
statements is true about the National
Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) approach for measuring unemployment
Investment Fund?
was signed in Geneva in 1947 by 23 in India?
Statements:
ch
countries, entered into force on 1 SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (3rd shift)
I. It was created in 2005.
January 1948. The Uruguay Round of (a) Weekly Status Approach
II. 75% of its annual income was to be
ar
Conference (1987 to 1994), culminated (b) Monthly Status Approach
used for schemes promoting health,
in the Marrakesh Agreement, which led to (c) Daily Status Approach
education and employment.
Se
the establishment of the World Trade (d) Usual Status Approach
III. It was dissolved in 2018.
Organization (1 January 1995).
Sol.429.(b) Monthly Status Approach. SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023)
Q.426. ____ is the one organisation which Unemployment rate = (Unemployed (a) Only statement I
is representing the entire cooperative Workers/Total labour force) × 100. The (b) Only statement II
movement in India. National Sample Survey Organization (c) Only statements I and III
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift) (NSSO) defines employment and (d) Only statements I and II
(a) NCUI (b) NFCSF unemployment.
Sol.433.(d) Government constituted the
(c) TRIFED (d) NABARD
Q.430. Which of the following Acts was National Investment Fund (NIF) in
Sol.426.(a) NCUI (National Cooperative introduced to regulate Foreign Exchange November 2005 into which the proceeds
Union of India) : Establishment - 1929, in India in 1973 ? from disinvestment of Central Public
Headquarters - New Delhi. The SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (4th shift) Sector Enterprises were to be
Cooperation Ministry was formed on 6 (a) FERA (b) FEMA channelized. The corpus of the National
July 2021. First Cooperation minister - (c) FRBM (d) SARFAESI Investment Fund will be of a permanent
Amit Shah. The National Federation of nature .
Sol.430.(a) FERA (Foreign Exchange
Cooperative Sugar Factories Limited
Regulation Act) - It came into effect on Q.434. Joint Liability Group is usually an
(NFCSF) Founded in 1960.
01 January 1974. This act was passed to informal group that consists of _________
Q.427. Which organization formerly regulate and monitor foreign securities individuals who seek loans against
known as the Imperial Council of and exchange transactions. It was mutual guarantee.
Agricultural Research and founded on repealed and replaced by a new law - the SSC CGL 08/12/ 2022 (2nd Shift)
July 16, 1929, is in charge of Agricultural Foreign Exchange Management Act, (a) 1 - 3 (b)15 - 20 (c) 4 - 10 (d) 20 - 30
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Economics
Sol.434.(c) 4-10. The loans are usually SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Afternoon) (b) Environmental degradation and
taken for agricultural purposes or (a) David Ricardo (b) John Stuart Mill per capita income
associated activities. JLG is a credit (c) Adam Smith (d) Karl Marx (c) Inequality and tax revenue
oriented group whereas Self help group (d) Inequality and per capita income
Sol.439.(d) Karl Marx popularised the
is a savings oriented group.
following phrase: "From each according Sol.443.(b) The environmental Kuznets
Q.435. Who released a special stamp to his ability, to each according to his curve depicts the relationship between
entitled ‘Wheat Revolution’ in July 1968 ? needs”. He is famous for his theories environmental degradation and per
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (3rd Shift) about capitalism and communism. capita income.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi Famous work - "The Communist
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru Manifesto" (Written by Karl Marx and Q.444. Which economic thought talks
(c) Indira Gandhi Friedrich Engels), "Das Kapital". about methodological individualism or the
(d) Motilal Nehru idea that people will act in meaningful
Q.440. Which economist took the subject ways which can be analyzed ?
Sol.435.(c) Indira Gandhi. The Wheat of economics away from approaches SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Afternoon)
Revolution (Green Revolution) was that focus exclusively on income, growth, (a) Washington consensus
initiated in the 1960s {under the Third and utility, with an increased emphasis (b) Keynesian theory
Five Year Plan (1961-66)} by introducing on individual entitlements, capabilities, (c) Monetarist
high-yielding varieties of rice and wheat. freedoms, and rights? (d) Austrian economic thought
SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Afternoon)
Q.436. Which of the following shows (a) Robert Lucas (b) Amartya Sen Sol.444.(d) Austrian economic thought.
modernization to increase the production (c) Milton Friedman (d) Adam Smith This doctrine was introduced as a
of goods and Services ? methodological precept for the social
df
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon) Sol.440.(b) Amartya Sen is famous for sciences by Max Weber.
(a) Adoption of old technique with large his significant contributions to welfare
_p
scale economics (for which he was awarded
(b) Adoption of same technique in the 1998 Nobel Prize in economics).
different way
(c) Following western culture na
Q.441. What is the objective of the
ap
'Doughnut Model' of development ?
(d) Adoption of new technology
SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Morning)
:@
Sol.436.(d) Adoption of new technology. (a) It envisions total abandonment of
Technology adoption refers to the technology to live at peace with the
process of accepting, integrating, and environment.
TG
using new technology in society. (b) It envisions the food processing
industry as the center of
Q.437. The Bankruptcy Legislative development.
on
Reforms Committee (BLRC) was set up (c) It envisions rapid development at an
in which of the following years? environmental cost, then makes up
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning) for it later.
ch
(a) 2010 (b) 2009 (c) 2014 (d) 2012 (d) It envisions a world in which people
and the planet can thrive in balance.
ar
Sol.437.(c) 2014. Chairman of the
committee - Dr. T. K. Viswanathan. Other Sol.441.(d) The Doughnut model of
Se
Facts - The Insolvency and Bankruptcy economics was proposed by Kate
Board of India (IBBI) was established in Raworth.
2016. .
Q.442. According to Malthusian theory,
Q.438. Bhagwati Committee (1973) which of the following grows in
presented a report on ____________. geometric progression?
SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Morning) SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Evening)
(a) unemployment (b) poverty (a) Poverty (b) Employment
(c) population growth (d) commerce (c) Population (d) Food supply
Sol.438.(a) Unemployment and Public Sol.442.(c) Population. This theory,
Welfare. Upon recommendations of the proposed by Malthus who stated that the
Dantwala Committee, 3 approaches are human population increases
used for measurement of unemployment geometrically, while food production
in India, such as Usual Status Approach, increases arithmetically.
Weekly Status Approach, and Daily
Status Approach. Q.443. What are the two variables whose
relationship is given by the environmental
Q.439. Which classical economist Kuznets curve?
popularised the following phrase: "From SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Evening)
each according to his ability, to each (a) Environmental degradation and tax
according to his needs” ? revenue
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
Q.4. Who proposed that ‘Light is made Sol.7.(b) Aperture. Collimator - A device
Physics up of waves propagating perpendicular which narrows a beam of particles or
to the direction of its movement’ ? waves. Apostilb - An obsolete unit of
Light and Optics SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift) luminance. Meniscus - A C-shaped piece
(a) Kepler (b) Huygens of tough, rubbery cartilage that acts as a
Q.1. A small object is placed on the (c) Pauli (d) Newton shock absorber between the shinbone
focus on the left side of a convex lens. and the thigh bone.
Where will be the image formed? Sol.4.(b) According to Huygens' theory,
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift) light travels as waves, with the Q.8. White light is an example of :
(a) At the centre on the right side of the wavefronts propagating perpendicular to SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (2nd shift)
lens. the direction of motion. In contrast, (a) laser light
(b) At infinity on the left side of the lens. Newton supported the particle theory of (b) plane polarized light
(c) At infinity on the right side of the lens. light. (c) monochromatic light
(d) At the focus on the right side of the (d) polychromatic light
Q.5. Which part of the bifocal lens
lens.
facilitates near vision? Sol.8.(d) Polychromatic light - The light
Sol.1.(c) At infinity on the right side of SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift) consists of a broad range of
the lens. Object Position and Image (a) Upper part with concave lens wavelengths. Example - Mercury Light,
Formation by Convex Lens: When an (b) Lower part with concave lens Sunlight, Laser-pumped plasma light.
object is placed between F and 2F, the (c) Upper part with convex lens Monochromatic light - The light consists
image is real, inverted, and magnified. At (d) Lower part with convex lens of only one specific wavelength. Example
2F, the image is real, inverted, and the - Laser beam, Sodium lamps, Spark
Sol.5.(d) Lower part with convex lens. A lamps.
same size as the object. Beyond 2F, the
df
common type of bi-focal lenses consists
image is real, inverted, and reduced. An
of both concave and convex lenses. The Q.9. Which telescope was invented by
_p
object at infinity forms an image at the
upper portion consists of a concave lens. Isaac Newton in the 17th century by
focus (F) of the lens.
It facilitates distant vision. The lower part using a concave mirror to collect light
Q.2. Name the phenomenon where an
opaque object on the path of light na
is a convex lens. It facilitates near vision. instead of a simple lens which produces
false colors due to the dispersion of
ap
Q.6. A concave spherical mirror has a
becomes very small and where light has light?
radius of curvature of 30 cm. An object
a tendency to bend around it and not SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
:@
was placed 15 cm away from the pole in
walk in a straight line. (a) Reflecting telescope
front of the mirror on the principal axis.
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) (b) Infrared telescope
Choose the correct option for the
(c) Monocular telescope
TG
(a) Reflection of light
position, size and nature of the image
(b) Diffraction of light (d) Graphic telescope
formed, respectively.
(c) Angle of refraction
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning) Sol.9.(a) Reflecting telescope. Two
(d) Angle of incidence
on
(a) Behind the mirror, enlarged, virtual major types of telescopes : Reflecting
Sol.2.(b) Diffraction of light. Examples and erect Telescopes and Refracting Telescopes
of Diffraction of light: (i) Bending of light (b) At infinity, highly enlarged, real and
ch
(used lenses to magnify objects).
around a sharp edge. (ii) Passing through inverted Infrared telescope : Uses infrared light to
(c) Between Focus and Centre,
ar
narrow slits or pinholes. (iii) Observing detect celestial bodies.
light through a fog or mist. Angle of diminished, real and inverted
Se
refraction - Angle between refracted light (d) At the focus, highly diminished Q.10. The minimum distance of distinct
and normal to the surface. Angle of point-sized, real and inverted vision for a young adult person with no
incidence - Angle between incident light defect in eyes is :
Sol.6.(b) At Infinity, highly enlarged, real SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift)
and normal to the surface.
and inverted. We know that, focus of a (a) 20 m (b) 25 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 25 m
Q.3. Identify the INCORRECT pair mirror, f = R/2, where R is the radius of
regarding the material media and their curvature of the mirror. Here in this case, Sol.10.(b) 25 cm. For a normal eye, the
refractive index ? f = - 30/2 = -15 cm. Also, distance of the far point is at infinity and the near point
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) object from the mirror, u = -15 cm. It of distinct vision is about 25 cm in front
(a) Kerosene – 1.44 (b) Benzene – 2.42 means that the object is placed at the of the eye. Hypermetropia (far -
(c) Sapphire – 1.77 (d) Ruby – 1.71 focus of the mirror. When an object is sightedness) : When the point goes
positioned at the focus of a concave farther from 25 cm. Lens used : Convex.
Sol.3.(b) Benzene – 2.42. The refractive Myopia (Nearsightedness): Near objects
mirror, the resulting image is formed at
index of an optical medium is a appear clear, but objects farther away
infinity. This image will be significantly
dimensionless number that gives the look blurry. Lens used : Concave.
enlarged and will have a real and inverted
indication of the light bending ability of
nature.
that medium. Absolute refractive index of Q.11. Which colour of light from
some material media : Benzene - 1.50, Q.7. In optics, which term refers to the VIBGYOR has minimum energy ?
Rock salt - 1.54, Carbon disulphide - 1.63, opening of the diaphragm of a lens that SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift)
Dense flint glass - 1.65, Diamond - 2.42, spatially limits the propagation of light ? (a) Green (b) Violet (c) Yellow (d) Red
Crown glass - 1.52, Turpentine oil - 1.47, SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Water - 1.33, Alcohol - 1.36, Fused quartz (a) Collimator (b) Aperture Sol.11.(d) Red. It has the longest
- 1.46, Air - 1.0003. (c) Apostilb (d) Meniscus wavelength and least energy of the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
visible colors of light. Wavelength - The (b) Between C and F - Beyond C - reflect light in all directions like reading a
distance between two successive crests Enlarged newspaper.
or troughs. Violet has the shortest (c) Beyond C - Between F and C -
wavelength. Frequency - It refers to the Diminished Q.19. Apart from the red and green
number of waves passing through a (d) At infinity - At C - Highly diminished wavelengths of sunlight, which other
point per second. Violet has the highest wavelength of sunlight is absorbed by
frequency. The white light consists of 7 Sol.15.(d) At infinity - At C - Highly water molecules in the ocean?
colors VIBGYOR (Violet - Indigo - Blue - diminished. Image formation by Concave SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Morning)
Green - Yellow - Orange - Red). Mirror (Object Position - Image Position - (a) Orange (b) Blue (c) Violet (d) Yellow
Image Nature and Size) : (At Infinity - At
Q.12. Why can you not see objects in a F - Real - Point size); (Beyond Center C - Sol.19.(d) Yellow. When sunlight hits the
dim lit room when you come from a Between C and F (Focus) - Diminished - ocean, some of the light is reflected back
brightly lit room? Real and Inverted); (On Centre - Real, directly but most of it penetrates the
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (4th shift) inverted and same size); (Between ocean surface and interacts with the
(a) The iris dilates the eye lens to allow Centre (C) and Focus (F) - Beyond Centre water molecules.
less light to enter the eye. - Real, inverted and larger); (On Focus - Q.20. Which of the following types of
(b) The iris contracts the pupil to allow Infinity - Real, inverted and enlarged); (On mirrors show a lateral inversion of light?
less light to enter the eye. Focal length (Between Pole and Focus) - SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Afternoon)
(c) The vitreous humour dilates the pupil Behind Mirror - Virtual, straight and (a) Convex mirror (b) Concave mirror
to allow less light to enter the eye. enlarged). (c) Rectangle mirror (d) Plane mirror
(d) The cornea contracts the pupil to
allow less light to enter the eye. Q.16. If ‘u’ is the object-distance, ‘v’ is the Sol.20.(d) Plane mirror. Lateral inversion
image-distance and ‘f’ is the focal length
df
is the reversal of a mirror image where
Sol.12.(b) Iris - It gives a distinct color to of a spherical mirror then which of the the right side of the object appears on
_p
the eyes. The eyeball is spherical in following is a correct expression for the the left side behind the mirror.
shape having a diameter of 23 mm. mirror formula? Characteristics of a Plane mirror -
na
Vitreous humor present in between lens SSC MTS 07/07/2022 (Morning) Images are Virtual and Erect. Image is
and retina. Retina contains three layers (a) 1/v + 1/u = –1/f (b) 1/v – 1/u = 1/f formed behind the mirror. The size of the
ap
of neural cells (ganglion cells, bipolar (c) 1/v + 1/u = 1/f (d) 1/v – 1/u = –1/f image is equal. The distance of image
cells, photoreceptor cells). Cornea - The and mirror is equal to the distance of
Sol.16.(c) 1/v + 1/u = 1/f. There are two
:@
front most and transparent covering of object and mirror.
types of spherical mirrors : Concave
the eye. Light enters the human eye
mirrors (If the reflective surface is on the
through the cornea. Q.21. The color of the clear sky is blue
side curved inwards) and Convex mirrors
TG
due to the phenomenon of :
Q.13. What will be the focal length of a (if the reflective surface is curved
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Morning)
convex lens with the power of a +2.5 outwards). The lens formula is 1/v - 1/u =
(a) dispersion of light (b) reflection of light
Diopter? 1/f.
on
(c) scattering of light (d) refraction of light
Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 ( Shift - 2)
Q.17. The splitting of white light into its
(a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 40 cm (d) 5 cm Sol.21.(c) Scattering of light. CV Raman
component colours is called ______.
ch
was awarded the Nobel prize in Physics
Sol.13.(c) 40 cm. Given, Power (P) = + SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Morning)
in 1930 for his discovery of Raman effect
(a) refraction (b) reflection
ar
2.5 diopters. Using the formula, focal (Scattering of light). The Tyndall effect is
length of convex Lens, f = 1/P = 1 / 2.5 = (c) scattering (d) dispersion
the phenomenon of the scattering of
Se
0.4 meters = 40 centimeters. Focal Sol.17.(d) Dispersion. light by colloidal particles.
length of convex lens is always positive Refraction - Redirection of a wave as it
and of concave lens is always negative. passes from one medium to another. Q.22. The total number of images
Reflection - When a ray of light formed by two mirrors inclined at 120°
Q.14. An image formed by the convex symmetrically to each other is ______.
mirror is always _________. approaches a smooth polished surface, it
bounces back. SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Afternoon)
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 3
(a) virtual and inverted (b) real and erect Q.18. The reflection on a bathroom
(c) virtual and erect (d) real and inverted mirror, the lake and the glare on a pair of Sol.22.(b) 2. The number of images
glasses are caused by which type of formed when two mirrors are placed at
Sol.14.(c) Virtual and erect. Convex an angle theta (θ) to each other is given
mirror (Diverging Mirror) - It has a reflection?
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Evening) by : n = (360° / θ) - 1
reflecting surface that bulges outwards, So, here, we have the mirrors placed at
and away from the centre of curvature. (a) Multiple reflection
(b) Specular reflection an angle θ = 120°
Uses - Rear view mirrors, Street light No. of images formed, n = ( 360° /120° ) -
reflector, etc. (c) Glossy reflection
(d) Diffused reflection 1= 3-1=2
Q.15. Which of the following pairs of So, a total of two images will be formed.
position of object – position of image – Sol.18.(b) Specular reflection is defined
size of image, is NOT correct for concave as light reflected from a smooth surface
mirror ? at a definite angle like a reflection on a
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning) bathroom mirror. Diffuse reflection is
(a) At F - At infinity - Highly enlarged produced by rough surfaces that tend to
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
Heat and Thermodynamics Sol.27.(b) advection. Some other mode produced by an electric current is directly
of heat transfer - Conduction : Heat proportional to the resistance of the
Q.23. Calorimeter is a small container transfer through direct contact between conductor, the square of the current, and
made of a thin sheet of _________ with materials. Convection : A process in the time for which it flows.
good thermal conductivity. which heat is carried from place to place SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Afternoon)
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) by the bulk movement of a fluid and (a) Hooke's (b) Charles's
(a) silver (b) platinum gases. (c) Faraday's (d) Joule's
(c) copper (d) cesium
Q.28. In which method of cooking is food Sol.31.(d) Joule's. Joule's law of heating,
Sol.23.(c) copper. A calorimeter is a heated slowly over a source of heat and H = I2Rt, where, H - Heat, I - Current, R -
device used to measure heat. It consists cooked by high heat and air convection Resistance, t - time. Hooke's law (law of
of a metallic vessel and stirrer, often depending on the position of the food in elasticity) - Discovered by the English
made of copper or aluminum, which relation to the fire ? scientist Robert Hooke in 1660, which
absorb minimal heat while effectively SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (2nd shift) states that, for relatively small
conducting it. (a) Spit - roasting (b) Braising deformations of an object, the
(c) Poaching (d) Stewing displacement or size of the deformation
Q.24. The variation between a high air is directly proportional to the deforming
temperature and a low temperature that Sol.28.(a) Spit - roasting. Braising - The force or load.
occurs during the same day is called cooking of meat or vegetables by heating
_______ temperature. them slowly with oil and moisture in a Q.32. Tensile or compressive stress can
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) tightly sealed vessel. Poaching - A moist also be termed as _______.
(a) diurnal (b) annual heat method of cooking by submerging SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Morning)
(a) longitudinal stress
df
(c) wet bulb (d) durian food in some kind of liquid and heating
at a low temperature. (b) tangential stress
_p
Sol.24.(a) diurnal. Wet bulb temperature (c) hydraulic stress
is the lowest temperature to which air Q.29. Who coined the term 'zeroth law of (d) shearing stress
na
can be cooled by the evaporation of thermodynamics' in 1931, which asserts
water into the air at a constant pressure. that two bodies in equilibrium with a third Sol.32.(a) Longitudinal stress (axial
stress). Other types of stress : Tangential
ap
are in equilibrium with each other ?
Q.25. Which of the following statements stress is a type of stress that acts
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift)
is INCORRECT regarding water remaining perpendicular to the surface of an object.
:@
(a) James Clerk Maxwell
colder in an earthen pot (matka) ? Hydraulic stress is a type of stress that is
(b) Max Planck
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) caused by the pressure of a fluid.
(c) Josiah Willard Gibbs
(a) Water gets evaporated at the surface Shearing stress is a type of stress that
TG
(d) Ralph H. Fowler
of the earthen pot. acts parallel to the surface of an object.
(b) The earthen pot is porous. Sol.29.(d) Ralph H Fowler.
(c) Environmental water vapour enters Q.33. In which of the following ways of
on
Thermodynamics deals with the relations
the pot through pores. heat transfer no medium is required ?
between heat and other forms of energy.
(d) The water oozes out through the SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
James Clerk Maxwell - Theory of
ch
pores in an earthen pot. (a) Radiation and Conduction both
electromagnetism. Max Planck - The
(b) Conduction
quantum of action (Planck's constant).
Sol.25.(c) Water in earthen pots cools
ar
(c) Convection
Josiah Willard Gibbs - Gibbs energy
through evaporation from the clay’s tiny (d) Radiation
(Available energy in a system).
Se
pores, which absorbs heat and lowers
the temperature, especially in summer. Sol.33.(d) Radiation : Energy that comes
Q.30. Triple point can be defined as:
Additionally, the alkaline clay helps from a source and travels through space
Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
balance body acidity, promoting a healthy at the speed of light. It has wave-like
(a) the condition of temperature under
pH and reducing stomach issues. properties and can be called
which the gaseous and liquid phases
“electromagnetic waves”. Conduction :
of a substance can exist in
Q.26. How much will be 59°F in Celsius ? Process by which heat energy is
equilibrium
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) transmitted through collisions between
(b) the temperature at which solid is
(a) 30°C (b) 15°C (c) 45°C (d) 59°C neighbouring atoms or molecules.
converted into liquid
Sol.26.(b) 15°C. To convert 59°F to (c) the condition of pressure under which Q.34. What is the Steam Point on the
Celsius, we use the formula: the solid and liquid phases of a Fahrenheit scale ?
5 5 substance can exist in equilibrium SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Morning)
C= × (F − 32) = × (59 − 32)
9 9 (d) the condition of temperature and (a) 32°F (b) 100°F (c) 212°F (d) 80°F
5 pressure under which the gaseous,
C= × 27 = 15.
9 liquid and solid phases of a Sol.34.(c) 212°F. Steam point is the
substance can exist in equilibrium temperature at which the maximum
Q.27. The transfer of heat through
vapour pressure of water is equal to one
horizontal movement of air is called ____. Sol.30.(d) The triple point of water is at atmosphere. It has a value of 100°C on
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4) 273.16 kelvin (0.01 °C or 32.02 °F) and a the Celsius scale.
(a) conduction (b) advection pressure of 611.7 Pascals.
(c) variation (d) convection Q.35. Heat, in ________ is a type of energy
Q.31. According to_________ law, heat transfer from a warmer substance to a
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
colder one. SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) Case 3 - 3 resistances are connected in
SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Morning) (a) Daniel Bernoulli parallel and one in series.
(a) gravity (b) friction (b) Evangelista Torricelli 1 1 1 1 3
= + + =
(c) thermodynamics (d) magnet (c) Blaise Pascal 𝑅𝑝 𝑅 𝑅 𝑅 𝑅
(d) Marie Poiseuille 𝑅
Sol.35.(c) Thermodynamics. 𝑅𝑝 =
3
During energy transfer, the energy moves Sol.39.(a) Daniel Bernoulli. Pascal's law -
𝑅
from the hotter object to the colder The pressure applied to an enclosed fluid 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = + R = 1.33 R
3
object. This means that the hotter object will be transmitted without a change in Case 4 - 2 resistances are connected in
will cool down and the colder object will magnitude to every point of the fluid and series and 2 in parallel.
warm up. The energy transfer will the walls of the container. Poiseuille's 1 1 1
continue until both objects are at the law - It gives the pressure drop in an = +
𝑅𝑝 𝑅 𝑅
same temperature. Heat is measured in incompressible and Newtonian fluid in
𝑅𝑝 = 0.5 R
joules (J). laminar flow flowing through a long
cylindrical pipe of a constant cross - Rs = R + R = 2 R
Q.36. _______ expansion makes the Eiffel section. 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = Rs + 𝑅𝑝 = 2 R + 0.5 R = 2.5 R
Tower taller during summers.
The value 2𝑅 cannot be achieved by
SSC CGL 04/03/2020 (Morning) Q.40. _______ forces water through a
using all four resistors in any
(a) thermal (b) slope semipermeable membrane and removes
configuration.
(c) gravitational (d) chemical contaminants.
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift) Q.43. An electric iron requires a ________
Sol.36.(a) Thermal expansion is a (a) Boiling (b) Distillation fuse to prevent short circuiting.
phenomenon due to which the metal (c) Reverse Osmosis (d) Filtration SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
df
expands when heated and contracts
(a) 4 A (b) 3 A (c) 2 A (d) 5 A
when cooled. The Eiffel Tower gets taller Sol.40.(c) Reverse Osmosis. Filtration is
_p
by up to 6 inches during the summer. the process in which solid particles in a Sol.43.(d) 5 A. An electric iron requires a
liquid or gaseous fluid are removed. fuse rated slightly higher than the
na
Fluid Mechanics Boiling is the process by which a liquid operating current to prevent
turns into a vapor when it is heated to its short-circuiting. For example, an iron
ap
Q.37. Who discovered a principle that boiling point. Distillation is a process consuming 1 kW of power at 220 V has
involving the conversion of a liquid into an operating current of approximately
:@
states that the buoyant force on an
object is equal to the weight of the fluid vapor that is subsequently condensed 4.55 A. Thus, a 5 A fuse is appropriate as
displaced by the object ? back to liquid form. it allows normal operation without
blowing.
TG
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Q.41. What is the relative density of silver
(a) Isaac Newton (b) Niels Bohr
SSC CHSL 19/03/2020 (Evening) Q.44. In the Right-Hand Thumb Rule, the
(c) Archimedes (d) Galileo Galilei
(a) 9.5 (b) 7.2 (c) 10.4 (d) 10.8 thumb is directed towards the direction
on
of :
Sol.37.(c) Archimedes. Formula, F = ρ × Sol.41.(d) 10.8. Relative density is a SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
g × V where F is the buoyant force, ρ is comparative measure of the density of a (a) current
ch
the density of the fluid, V is the substance to the density of a reference (b) electric field
submerged volume and g is the substance (Usually water).
ar
(c) motion of the conductor
acceleration due to gravity.
(d) magnetic field
Se
Q.38. In 1851, who founded the science Electric Current and Its Effects
Sol.44.(a) current. The right-hand thumb
of hydrodynamics with his law of
Q.42. Four resistors of equal resistance rule states that if you hold a
viscosity describing the velocity of a
R each are connected in various possible current-carrying wire with your right hand,
small sphere through a viscous fluid?
ways both in series and/or parallel to get with your thumb pointing in the direction
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift)
different combined resistances. Which of of the electric current, the direction your
(a) Daniel Bernoulli
the following values of resistance cannot fingers curl indicates the direction of the
(b) George Gabriel Stokes
be achieved by using all the four magnetic field lines. This rule helps
(c) Evangelista Torricelli
resistors? visualize the relationship between
(d) Heinrich Gustav Magnus
SSC MTS 08/10/2024 (2nd Shift) current and magnetic fields.
Sol.38.(b) George Gabriel Stokes. (a) 0.25 R (b) 1.33 R (c) 2 R (d) 2.5 R Q.45. If a bar magnet is hung from a
Heinrich Gustav Magnus - Known for string, in which direction does its north
Magnus effect, an observable Sol.42.(c) 2 R.
pole point?
phenomenon that is commonly Case 1 - All resistances are connected in
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
associated with a spinning object series.
(a) West (b) North (c) East (d) South
moving through the air or a fluid. Req = R + R + R + R = 4 R
Case 2 - All resistances are connected in Sol.45.(b) North. When a bar magnet is
Q.39. Whose law states that total energy parallel. hung freely from a string, its north pole
per unit mass of flowing fluid, at any 1 1 1 1 1 4 aligns with the Earth's magnetic field and
= + + + =
point in the subsurface, is the sum of the 𝑅𝑒𝑞 𝑅 𝑅 𝑅 𝑅 𝑅 points toward the Earth's magnetic north
kinetic, potential, and fluid-pressure 𝑅𝑒𝑞 = 0.25 R pole. This happens because opposite
energy and is equal to a constant value? magnetic poles attract; since the Earth's
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
magnetic north pole is actually a Q.50. Identify the device used to change (c) downward (d) towards south
magnetic south pole, it attracts the north the resistance in an electric circuit.
pole of the magnet, causing it to point SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) Sol.54.(a) upward.
north. (a) Ammeter (b) Rheostat The proton is projected towards east and
(c) Conductor (d) Voltmeter the direction of magnetic force on the
Q.46. A circular coil having ‘n’ turns proton is along the south. Using the right
produces a field _______ times large as Sol.50.(b) Rheostat. Ammeter is a device hand thumb rule, the direction of the
that produced by a single turn used to measure either alternating or magnetic field is vertically upwards. The
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift) direct current. Insulators are those induced current is found to be the
(a) 2n (b) 3n (c) 4n (d) n substances through which electricity highest when the direction of motion of
cannot flow easily. the coil is at right angles to the magnetic
Sol.46.(d) n. The magnetic field
field.
produced by a circular coil depends on Q.51. _________ is commonly represented
the number of turns, the current passing by the Greek letter ρ (rho). Q.55. Using Fleming’s right-hand rule, in
through the coil, and other factors like SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) which direction will the current flow if the
the radius of the coil and the medium in (a) Electrical resistivity direction of magnetic field is towards
which the coil is placed. For a given (b) Current north and the conductor is moving
current and coil geometry, the strength of (c) Flow of charges vertically upward ?
the magnetic field at the center of a coil (d) Electrical conductivity Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
is proportional to the number of turns in (a) Towards west
the coil. Sol.51.(a) Electrical resistivity.
(b) Towards south-west
The SI unit of resistivity is the ohm-meter
(c) Towards east
Q.47. In an electrical circuit, the ammeter (Ω-m). Current is usually denoted by ‘I’;
(d) Towards south
df
reading decreases to ______when the unit - Ampere (A). Electrical conductivity
length of the wire is doubled. is denoted by the Greek letter sigma (σ); Sol.55.(a) Towards west. If the forefinger
_p
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift) unit - siemens per metre (S/m) or mho. indicates the direction of the magnetic
(a) one - sixth (b) one - half field and the thumb shows the direction
na
(c) one - fourth (d) one - third Q.52. Which of the following is a poor
of motion of the conductor, then the
conductor of electricity ?
middle finger will show the direction of
ap
Sol.47.(b) one-half. According to Ohm's Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
induced current. This simple rule is
law, the resistance 𝑅 of a conductor is (a) Tap water
called Fleming’s right-hand rule.
:@
directly proportional to its length 𝑙 and (b) Water from pond
inversely proportional to its area of (c) Water from hand pump Q.56. An electric generator and an
cross-section 𝐴. Doubling the length (d) Distilled water electric motor work in the principle of:
TG
increases the resistance, which reduces SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
the current, leading to a halving of the Sol.52.(d) Distilled water is a poor (a) Fleming's right - hand rule
ammeter reading. That is, R ∝ 𝑙 and R ∝ conductor of electricity because it lacks (b) Fleming's left and right - hand rule,
on
1 𝑙 𝑙 dissolved salts and minerals that respectively
. We get R ∝ or, R = ρ . enhance conductivity. Good conductors
𝐴 𝐴 𝐴 (c) Fleming's left-hand rule
of electricity are materials that facilitate (d) Fleming's right and left - hand rule,
ch
Q.48. Which device is used to measure the easy flow of electric current, typically respectively
the current flow using needle deflection containing free-moving electrons. In
ar
caused by a magnetic field force acting contrast, poor conductors resist the flow Sol.56.(d) Fleming's right and left-hand
upon a current-carrying wire ? rule respectively - A right hand and left
Se
of electric current, making it difficult for
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift) electricity to pass through them. hand is stretched so that the thumb,
(a) Galvanometer (b) Ammeter middle finger, and index finger form a
(c) Psophometer (d) Potentiometer Q.53. Which metallic element is called 90-degree angle with each other. The
‘ferromagnetic’ because of its strong thumb then represents the direction of
Sol.48.(a) Galvanometer : An electrical attraction ? motion or force (F), the middle finger the
measuring instrument used to detect Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) direction of current (I), and the index
current flow by measuring the needle (a) Iron (b) Molybdenum
finger the direction of magnetic field (B).
deflection caused by the magnetic field (c) Gold (d) Aluminium
acting on a current-carrying wire. The Q.57. The neutral point in the magnetic
Sol.53.(a) Iron (Symbol : Fe, Atomic
deflection is proportional to the current. field of a horizontally positioned bar
Number : 26) exhibits strong magnetic
magnet is the :
Q.49. Which of the following is used for properties and is strongly attracted to
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift)
determining the value of 1 ampere. magnets. Ferromagnetism is the ability
(a) point where the magnetic field
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) of materials like iron, cobalt, and nickel to
changes direction
(a) A = 1C/s (b) C = A/2s be magnetized and influenced by
(b) point where the magnetic field is the
(c) A = 2C/s (d) C = A × 2s magnetic fields.
weakest
Sol.49.(a) A = 1C/s. 1 Ampere = 1 Q.54. An argon positive ion fired towards (c) point where the magnetic field is the
Coulomb/second. This equation shows east gets deflected towards south by a strongest
that one ampere is equal to one coulomb magnetic field. The direction of magnetic (d) point where the magnetic field is zero
of electric charge flowing per second. field is :
Ampere (A) is the SI unit of Electric Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Sol.57.(d) Neutral point : It is a point
Current. (a) upward (b) towards north where the magnetic field produced due
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
to a bar magnet is completely balanced SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift) through each resistor is same. Voltage
by the horizontal component of Earth's (a) Faraday’s law (b) Coulomb’s law drop across each resistor is proportional
magnetic field. Magnetic Field - The (c) Kirchhoff’s laws (d) Laplace’s law to its resistance. The total resistance is
region around a magnetic material or a equal to the sum of the individual
moving electric charge within which the Sol.60.(a) Faraday's law. Laplace's law - resistances. Equivalent resistance Rn = R1
force of magnetism acts. Types of The tension in the walls of a hollow + R2 + R3 + R4 = 3 Ω + 4 Ω + 5 Ω + 6 Ω =
magnets : Permanent magnet, temporary sphere or cylinder is dependent on the 18Ω.
magnet and electromagnet. pressure of its contents and its radius.
Q.65. When will you find the magnetic
Q.58. In 1834, who proposed a law that Q.61. Which of the following is the field stronger?
states that the current induced by a proper number of electrons in 1 A of Graduate Level 30/06/2023 ( Shift - 1)
change in flow opposes the effect current ? (a) When field lines are crowded
producing the change ? SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift) (b) When the lines are together
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift) (a) 6.25 × 1021 (b) 6.25 × 1018 (c) When the field lines are not seen
19
(a) David Brewster (c) 6.25 × 10 (d) 6.25 × 1015 (d) When the poles are together
(b) Henry Moseley
Sol.61.(b) 6.25 × 1018. Electric Current - Sol.65.(a) Magnetic fields (Symbol B or
(c) Christian Johann Doppler
The rate of flow of electrons in a H, Unit - Tesla) : William Gilbert
(d) Heinrich Friedrich Lenz
conductor. SI Unit - Ampere (A). discovered that the Earth is a magnet.
Sol.58.(d) Heinrich Friedrich Lenz. Conductors are defined as the materials The strength of magnetic field lines
Lenz’s law - An induced electric current or substances that allow electricity to depends on how close the magnetic field
flows in a direction such that the current flow through them. Examples - Human lines are. Some properties related to
opposes the change that induced it. body, aqueous solutions of salts and magnetic field lines are: Strongest near
df
Lenz’s law is used in electromagnetic metals like iron and silver. the poles (N or S), never crosses each
_p
brakes and induction cooktops. It is also other, always make closed loops.
Q.62. Which of the following has the
applied to electric generators, AC
highest value of resistivity ? Q.66. Which of the following materials is
na
generators. Sir David Brewster - Brewster
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift) a conductor of electricity ?
law is a statement that says that when
(a) Silver (b) Nichrome SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Afternoon)
ap
unpolarized light falls on an interface, the
(c) Chromium (d) Iron (a) Silver (b) Glass (c) Mica (d) Ebonite
reflected light is completely polarized if
:@
the angle of incidence is a specific angle Sol.62.(b) Nichrome. Resistivity - It is the Sol.66.(a) Silver.
called the Brewster's angle. measure of the resistance ability of a The material that allows flow of electric
material to oppose the flow of current. current with little or no resistance are
Q.59. Which of the following options is
TG
Electrical resistivity is the reciprocal of called conductors. Examples - Copper,
correct for Coulomb's law ?
electrical conductivity. High Resistivity Aluminum, human body. Glass, mica,
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Materials - Ebonite, Tungsten, Carbon. rubber and ebonite are insulators.
(a) Valid for both point and distributed
on
High conductivity materials - Copper,
charges
iron, aluminium, and silver. Q.67. Which device is used to either
(b) Valid for only distributed charge
break an electric circuit or to complete it?
ch
(c) Valid for only point charge Q.63. Which of the following elements is SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning)
(d) Valid for neither point charge nor highly effective for making a permanent (a) Insulators (b) Wires (c) Switch (d) Bulb
ar
distributed charge magnet ?
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (2nd shift) Sol.67.(c) Switch - It is a device used to
Se
Sol.59.(c) Valid for only point charge.
(a) Zinc (b) Aluminum (c) Copper (d) Steel interrupt the flow of electrons in a circuit.
Coulomb’s Law : The electrical force
Insulator - A material in which electric
between two charged objects is directly Sol.63.(d) Steel. Permanent magnets are current does not flow freely. Examples -
proportional to the product of the made from special alloys (ferromagnetic Glass, air, wood, plastic and rubber.
quantity of charge on the objects and materials) such as iron, nickel and cobalt,
inversely proportional to the square of several alloys of rare-earth metals and Q.68. Identify the correct statement.
the separation distance between the two minerals such as lodestone; Used in SSC CGL Tier II 02/03/2023
𝑘 𝑄1 𝑄2 headphones, loudspeakers, MRI (a) Resistance of a wire depends on the
objects. F = 2 , where {Q1 - quantity Scanners, hard disc drives, generators, length and density of the wire.
𝑑
of charge on object 1 (in Coulombs), Q2 - transducers. Magnetite (Fe3O4) - An ore (b) Specific resistance is the same for all
quantity of charge on object 2 (in of iron that has magnetic properties conductors.
Coulombs), and d - distance of (ferrimagnetic). (c) Resistance of a wire depends on the
separation between the two objects (in length and cross-section of the wire.
Q.64. If four resistors of 3 Ω, 4 Ω, 5Ω and (d) Specific resistance is dependent on
meters). k - proportionality constant (the 6Ω are connected in series, what will be
Coulomb's law constant)}. Value of k - the cross-sectional area of the wire.
the combined resistance of the four
8.988 × 109 Nm2/C2 . resistors? Sol.68.(c) The resistance of a wire is
Q.60. Which of the following laws state Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2) directly proportional to its length and
that “The magnitude of the induced EMF (a) 3Ω (b) 9Ω (c) 18Ω (d) 10Ω inversely proportional to its cross
in a circuit is equal to the time rate of -sectional area. Resistance is a measure
Sol.64.(c) 18Ω. In series connection of of the opposition to current flow in an
change of magnetic flux through the resistors (Here, 3 Ω, 4 Ω, 5 Ω, 6 Ω), Current
circuit”? electrical circuit. It is measured in ohm
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
(Ω). Factors affecting resistance - Kirchhoff's first law (Kirchhoff's junction (a) It stops (b) It increases
Material's conductivity, Length, rule). Kirchhoff's second law (Kirchhoff's (c) It decreases (d) It stays the same
Cross-sectional area and Temperature. loop rule) - The directed sum of the
potential differences (voltages) around Sol.76.(c) It decreases. The magnitude
Q.69. A light bulb working on a 18V any closed loop is zero. Victor Franz of the magnetic field produced at a given
battery draws a current of 3A. What will Hess discovered cosmic rays. point increases as the current through
be the resistance of the bulb? the wire increases. Magnetic field is the
SSC CGL Tier II 02/03/2023 Q.73. Wheatstone bridge is an region around a moving charge that
(a) 6 Ω (b) 2 Ω (c) 4 Ω (d) 3 Ω arrangement of _________ resistors used generates a field. SI Unit of Magnetic
for accurate measurement of resistance. Field Intensity - Tesla (T).
Sol.69.(a) 6 Ω. Voltage = 18 V, Current = 3 SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
A. Since, Voltage (V) = Resistance (R) × (a) three (b) six (c) five (d) four Q.77. The amount of work done in
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 moving a charge of 4C across two points
Current (I). Resistance = .
𝐶𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 Sol.73.(d) four. A Wheatstone bridge having a potential difference of 6V is
18 circuit {invented by Samuel Hunter ______ .
Resistance = = 6 Ω.
3 Christie (1833), popularized by Sir SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Evening)
Charles Wheatstone (1843)} consists of (a) 48 J (b) 12 J (c) 36 J (d) 24 J
Q.70. The induced current is the highest
four arms (two arms - known
when the direction of motion of the coil is: Sol.77.(d) 24 J. Potential difference
resistances, an unknown resistance and
SSC CGL Tier II 06/03/2023 defined as the work done to move unit
a variable resistance}. It works on the
(a) not at right angles to the magnetic field electric charge from one point to another
principle of null deflection, i.e., when the
(b) at right angles to the electricity in an electric circuit. It is given by V =
Wheatstone bridge is balanced the ratio
(c) at right angles to the electric source W/Q; i.e. W = V × Q; W = 6 × 4 = 24
of their resistances are equal and no
df
(d) at right angles to the magnetic field joules.
current flows through the galvanometer.
_p
Sol.70.(d) at right angles to the Q.78. What is the coil of wire in the
Q.74. Which of the following statements
magnetic field. The induced current is electric room heater known as?
is correct regarding fuse wire?
na
highest when the direction of motion of SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Afternoon)
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening)
the coil is at 90° or perpendicular with (a) Cell (b) Fuse (c) Switch (d) Element
(a) It has a low melting point and low
ap
respect to the magnetic field, as the flux
conductivity. Sol.78.(d) Element. Nichrome wire is
cutting is maximum in this case. While it
(b) It has a high melting point and low
:@
is minimum when the direction of motion used as a heating element because it is
conductivity very stable, even at high temperatures.
of the coil is at 180° or parallel with
(c) It has a low melting point and high
respect to the magnetic field, as here the
conductivity. Q.79. In the symbol for the electric cell,
TG
flux cutting by the coil will be minimum.
(d) It has a high melting point and high the thicker, shorter line represents the:
Q.71. If Q = net charge, t = time, then conductivity. SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Afternoon)
(a) positive terminal (b) ring terminal
on
which of the following equations is
Sol.74.(c) The commonly used wire in (c) negative terminal (d) neutral terminal
correct?
the fuse is an alloy of tin (Sn) and lead
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
ch
(Pb). An electrical fuse is a circuit safety Sol.79.(c) Negative terminal. The longer,
𝑄
(a) T = Q × I (b) I = device to protect electrical systems. thinner line represents the positive
𝑡
ar
terminal. An electric cell is a device,
𝐼 Q.75. Why do atoms and nonpolar
(c) Q = (d) I = Q × t which converts chemical energy into
𝑡
Se
molecules have no dipole moment ? electrical energy.
Sol.71.(b) I = Q/t. The S.I unit of charge Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
(a) Because their electronic charge cloud Q.80. Which of the following statements
is coulomb, time is second, then current
is missing is correct ?
in units of coulomb per second is
(b) Because their electronic charge cloud SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Morning)
'ampere'. Another formula for calculating
is scattered (a) Magnetic flux is a vector quantity.
current is I = V/R (derived by Ohm’s law),
(c) Because their electronic charge cloud (b) Two magnetic field lines may
where I = current flowing through the
is asymmetrically distributed intersect.
conductor, V = Voltage, and R =
(d) Because their electronic charge cloud (c) The net magnetic flux through any
Resistance (at constant temperature).
is symmetrically distributed closed surface is zero.
Q.72. Whose law states that at a junction (d) Earth's magnetic poles coincide with
in an electric circuit, the sum of the Sol.75.(d) A dipole moment (vector the geographic poles.
currents flowing into the junction is equal quantity) is a measurement of the
separation of two opposite electrical Sol.80.(c) Magnetic field lines are
to the sum of the currents flowing out of
charges. Dipole moment (μ) = q × r (q = continuous loops, all closed surfaces
the junction?
charge, r = distance between the have as many magnetic field lines going
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
charges). Direction is from negative in as coming out. Hence, the net
(a) Michael Faraday
charge to positive charge. magnetic flux through a closed surface is
(b) Georg Simon Ohm
zero.
(c) Victor Francis Hess Q.76. What happens to the magnetic
(d) Gustav Robert Kirchhoff field produced by a given current in the Q.81. What is the total charge of an
conductor when the distance increases? electric dipole?
Sol.72.(d) Gustav Robert Kirchhoff. Graduate Level 05/08/2022 (Shift - 3) SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Morning)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
(a) −10 (b) +1 (c) 0 (d) 10 Other examples : Oscillatory motion - move. It can stop a moving body or slow
Pendulum, swing, vibrating string. it down. It can accelerate the speed of a
Sol.81.(c) 0. An electric dipole is a pair Periodic motion - Wave motion, planetary moving body.
of equal and opposite charges, therefore orbits. Rotatory motion - Merry-go- round,
the total charge in an electric dipole will wheel rotation. Translatory motion - Car Q.88. Which of the following is NOT an
be zero. moving on a straight road, projectile example of inertia at rest?
motion. SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
Force and Pressure (a) Falling down backward when a
Q.85. What happens when two forces act vehicle starts immediately
2 in the opposite directions on an object? (b) Falling down of dust particle while
Q.82. Find the acceleration (in m/𝑠 ) of a
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) dusting a cloth
body which accelerates from 5 m/s to 10
(a) The net force acting on the object is (c) The detachment of leaves/fruits due
m/s in 2 seconds.
the difference between the two to shaking
SSC MTS 14/11/2024 (2nd Shift)
2 2
objects. (d) The sudden application of brakes in a
(a) 5 m/se𝑐 (b) 7.5 m/se𝑐 (b) The net force acting on the object is vehicle
2 2
(c) 10 m/se𝑐 (d) 2.5 m/se𝑐 the difference between the two
forces. Sol.88.(d) The sudden application of
Sol.82.(d) 2.5 m/sec2. The formula for (c) The net force acting on the object is brakes in a vehicle. Newton's First Law
(𝑣 − 𝑢) the total of the two forces. of Motion, also known as the law of
acceleration is: a = ,
𝑡 (d) The net force acting on the object is inertia, states that an object will remain
where: a = acceleration the sum of the two objects. at rest or in uniform motion in a straight
v = final velocity line unless acted upon by an external
u = initial velocity Sol.85.(b) When two forces act in force. Inertia is the body's resistance to
df
t = time taken opposite directions on an object, the net changes in its state. Inertia of rest
_p
Given values: force (or resultant force) is the difference means a body at rest stays at rest until
Initial velocity (u) = 5 m/s between the magnitudes of the two an external force acts on it. Inertia of
na
Final velocity (v) = 10 m/s forces. This is because the forces are motion means a body in motion
Time (t) = 2 seconds opposing each other. For example, if a 5 continues moving until an external force
ap
Putting these into the formula: N force acts to the right and a 3 N force stops it.
(10 − 5) acts to the left, the net force would be:
a= Q.89. Which of the following forces can
:@
2 Net force = 5 N - 3 N = 2 N (to the right).
5 only be applied when in contact with an
a= ⇒ a = 2.5 m/s². Q.86. Which of the following is the object ?
2
correct relationship ? SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift)
TG
Q.83. A javelin thrown by an athlete is in SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) (a) Frictional force
________ motion. (a) F = ma (b) F = m/a (b) Gravitational force
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) F = m2a (d) F = a/m (c) Electrostatic force
on
(a) oscillatory (b) periodic (d) Magnetic force
(c) rectilinear (d) curvilinear Sol.86.(a) F = ma. Newton's second law
ch
is often stated as F = ma, which means Sol.89.(a) Frictional force is defined as
Sol.83.(d) curvilinear. This is because the force (F) acting on an object is equal the force produced between the two
the javelin follows a curved trajectory due
ar
to the mass (m) of the object times its surfaces that oppose the motion when
to the influence of gravity and the initial acceleration (a). This means the more they come in contact with each other.
Se
angle of release. Curvilinear motion mass an object has, the more force you Some examples: Walking, Writing,
refers to the motion of a particle along a need to accelerate it, and the greater the Skating, etc.
curved path. Periodic motion: Motion force, the greater the object's
repeating in regular intervals (Example - acceleration. SI unit of Force = Newtons Q.90. A bus moving on a straight road at
Rotation of the earth around the sun). (N). a speed of 10 km/h increases its speed
Rectilinear motion: Motion in a straight to 70 km/h in 2 minutes. Find its average
line (Example - An object falling straight Q.87. Which of the following is NOT acceleration.
down). applicable to force ? SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (2nd shift) (a) 1 km/minute2 (b) 0.5 km/minute2
Q.84. Identify the INCORRECT pair (a) Force may increase the mass of the (c) 2 km/minute2 (d) 30 km/minute2
regarding motion and their examples? object
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (b) Force may change the direction of a Sol.90.(b) 0.5 km/minute2. Given : Final
(a) Translatory motion – A ball falling 7
moving object velocity, v = 70 km/h = km/min. Initial
from the cliff 6
(c) Force may make an object move
(b) Periodic motion – Hands of a clock 1
(d) Force may change the shape of an velocity, u = 10 km/h = km/min. Time
6
(c) Oscillatory motion – Earth moving object
around the sun period, t = 2 min. We know that, Average
7 1
(d) Rotatory motion – Blades of a fan Sol.87.(a) Force can only change the – 6
𝑣−𝑢 6
speed, shape, and direction of the motion acceleration, a = =
𝑡 2
Sol.84.(c) Oscillatory motion involves but is not able to change the mass. Force
1
repeated back - and - forth movement (F) : S.I unit – Newton (N) or kg m s-2. = = 0.5 km/min2.
2
around a fixed point, like a pendulum. Force can make a body that is at rest to
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
Q.91. What is the metric unit of pressure of the container? (c) Speed (d) Intensity
that is equal to 0.986923 atm? SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (3rd shift)
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) (a) Magnus's Law (b) Graham's Law Sol.98.(c) Speed. Centripetal
(a) Yard (b) Quart (c) Bar (d) Gallon (c) Pascal's Law (d) Torricelli's Law acceleration - That is directed towards
the center of the circle. It is caused by
Sol.91.(c) Bar. The ‘atm’ is mostly used Sol.95.(c) Pascal’s law. Graham’s law of the change in direction of the velocity
for measuring and describing diffusion : It describes the relationship vector as the object moves around the
atmospheric pressure. ‘bar’ is also used between the rate of diffusion and the circle. Centripetal Acceleration (ac)
for atmospheric pressure but is also densities of gases. R1/R2 = (M2/M1)1/2, formula: ac = v2/r (where v is the speed, r
used to measure the pressure inside where R1, R2 are diffusion rates of gases is the radius). Dimensional formula of
vessels. 1 bar = 0.986923 atm. 1 atm = 1 and 2, and M1 and M2 their respective centripetal acceleration = [ M0L1T-2 ].
1.01325 bar. Other units: 1 Quart = 32 molecular masses. The law is a simple
fluid ounces or 4 cups, 1 Yard = 3 feet or consequence of kinetic theory. Q.99. What is another name for center -
36 inches (0.9144 meters), 1 Gallon = seeking force ?
3.785 liters. Q.96. The suitability of post tensioning is Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
good for : (a) Van der Waals (b) Centrifugal
Q.92. By observing the motion of objects SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (3rd shift) (c) Gravitational (d) Centripetal
on an inclined plane __________ deduced (a) longs spans (b) end spans
that objects move with a constant speed (c) break spans (d) edge spans Sol.99.(d) Centripetal.
when no force acts on them. Examples of Centripetal Force - Loop of
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) Sol.96.(a) long spans. Post tensioning is Roller Coaster, Orbiting Planets. Van der
(a) Archimedes (b) Johannes Kepler a technique for reinforcing concrete, in Waals forces - Weak intermolecular
(c) Galileo (d) Michael Faraday which prestressing steel cables inside forces of attraction between molecules,
df
plastic ducts are positioned in the forms arising from temporary fluctuations in
Sol.92.(c) Galileo. The law of inertia was before the concrete is placed. electron density.
_p
inferred by Galileo from observations of Pretensioning - The technique in which
Q.100. Newton's first law of motion is
motion of a ball on a double inclined we are imparting tension in strands
na
also known as ______.
plane. Galileo concluded that an object before placing the concrete. It is more
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening)
moving on a frictionless horizontal plane durable and reliable.
ap
(a) Law of magnitude (b) Law of reaction
must neither have acceleration nor
Q.97. Select the option that is true (c) Law of Inertia (d) Law of masses
retardation, i.e. it should move with
:@
regarding the following two statements
constant velocity. Sol.100.(c) Law of Inertia. Newton's first
labelled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
(A): An object slips less on a rough law of motion - A body remains in the
Q.93. The measure of the force that can
TG
surface than a smooth surface. state of rest or uniform motion in a
cause an object to rotate about an axis is
(R): When a surface is rough, frictional straight line unless and until an external
called:
force increases. force acts on it.
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening)
on
(a) power (b) moment of inertia SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift) Q.101. Which type of friction is
(c) centripetal force (d) torque (a) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) considered as a self - adjusting force?
is false.
ch
SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Morning)
Sol.93.(d) Torque = Force × Distance, SI (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) (a) Kinetic Friction (b) Centripetal Friction
unit - newton-metre, Dimension - [M1L2 are the true but Reason (R) is not a
ar
(c) Rolling Friction (d) Static Friction
T-2]. Moment of inertia: The quantity correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Se
expressed by the body resisting angular (c) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) Sol.101.(d) Static Friction - Force that
acceleration. I = L/⍵. where; I = inertia, L is true. keeps an object at rest. Kinetic Friction -
= angular momentum, ⍵ = angular (d) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) It is a force that acts between moving
velocity. SI unit - kg⋅m2. Dimension - [M¹ are the true and Reason (R) is a surfaces. Centripetal Friction - The
L² T⁰]. correct explanation of Assertion (A). frictional force supplies the centripetal
force and is numerically equal to it.
Q.94. The forces exerted on a body Sol.97.(d) Frictional force
during a short period are known as: is the resistance encountered when two Q.102. The force exerted by a charged
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (3rd Shift) surfaces slide or attempt to slide against body on another charged or uncharged
(a) Impulse (b) Pressure each other, resulting from the interaction body is known as ______ .
(c) Surface tension (d) Tensile stress between their roughness and molecular SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Afternoon)
forces. Formula - F (friction force) = μ (a) angular force (b) electrostatic force
Sol.94.(a) Impulse. Surface tension - The (coefficient of friction) × N (normal (c) pressure (d) muscular force
property of the surface of a liquid that force). Normal Force - The force that
allows it to resist an external force, due Sol.102.(b) Electrostatic force - This
surfaces exert to prevent solid objects
to the cohesive nature of its molecules. force between two charged particles is
from passing through each other.
Tensile stress - Capacity of a material to directly proportional to the product of the
endure a pulling (tensile) force. Q.98. The given equation provides the charges and inversely proportional to the
property of the motion of an object, square of the distance between the
Q.95. Which law was developed in the traversing a circular path. What is 'v' in particles. The same charge on two
1600s to describe that any force applied this equation ? (ac = v²/R) particles - the force will be repulsive and
to a confined fluid is transmitted equally SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 4th shift) the opposite charge on the particles - the
in all directions, regardless of the shape (a) Distance (b) Surface area force will be attractive.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
Q.103. The substances which reduce push or pull on an object with mass quantities. Velocity (Displacement-time
friction are called ________. causes it to change its velocity. SI unit of graph, vector quantity). Acceleration
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening) Force - Newton. Dimension of Force - (velocity - time graph, vector quantity),
(a) fluids (b) magnets [MLT-2 ]. CGS unit of Force - dyne. Displacement (vector quantity).
(c) springs (d) lubricants
Q.107. Which of the following is the Q.111. Which physical theory explains
Sol.103.(d) Lubricants - Any substance correct order of friction ? the generation of thrust by rocket
that is physically integrated for the SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (2nd Shift) engines, jet engines and deflating
purpose of reducing friction between two (a) Static > Rolling > Sliding balloons?
or more moving surfaces. Examples - (b) Rolling > Static > Sliding SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
Grease and oil. (c) Static > Sliding > Rolling (a) Newton’s laws of motion
(d) Sliding > Static > Rolling (b) Exclusion principle
Q.104. Which of the following (c) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic
statements is correct regarding air Sol.107.(c) Static > Sliding > Rolling. induction
pressure? Static Friction : A force that hinders the (d) Laws of thermodynamics
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift) movement of an object moving along the
(a) High pressure is associated with path. Sliding Friction : Resistance Sol.111.(a) Newton’s laws of motion.
cloudy skies and wet weather created by any two objects when sliding Third Law is often given as an
(b) Low pressure is associated with against each other. Rolling Friction : The explanation for the generation of thrust
clear and sunny skies. force resisting the motion of a rolling (to every action, there is an equal and
(c) The air always moves from high body on a surface. opposite reaction).
pressure areas to low pressure areas.
(d) The air pressure is lowest at sea level Q.108. Identify the correct statement Q.112. The range of ______ force is of the
df
and increases with height. about inertia. order of 10−16 m.
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (3rd Shift) SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Morning)
_p
Sol.104.(c) Air pressure is defined as the (a) Greater the mass, greater the inertia. (a) electromagnetic (b) gravitational
pressure exerted by the weight of air on (b) Lesser the weight, greater the inertia (c) strong nuclear (d) weak nuclear
the earth’s surface. When there is a larger
pressure difference between the na
(c) Lesser the mass, greater the inertia
(d) Greater the mass, lesser inertia Sol.112.(d) Weak Nuclear Force - Very
ap
pressure zones, the wind travels quicker Short 10-16 m, (Range), 10-13(Relative
and it travels from an area of high Sol.108.(a) Greater the mass, greater Strength). Gravitational Force - Infinite
:@
pressure to low pressure. the inertia. As inertia is directly (Range), 10-39 (Relative Strength),
proportional to the mass of the object (I Electromagnetic Force - Infinite (Range),
Q.105. A ball possesses 3000 units of = mr2) so Inertia will increase if mass 10-2 (Relative strength), Strong Nuclear
TG
momentum. What would be the ball's increases. Inertia is defined as a property Force - Short Nuclear size 10-15m
new momentum if its velocity was of matter by which it tries to maintain its (Range), 1(Relative Strength).
doubled? state of rest or of uniform motion along a
on
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift) straight line. Types of Inertia include Q.113. Acceleration is equal to the rate
(a) 3000 units (b) 6000 units Inertia of Rest, Inertia of Motion and of change of ______.
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening)
ch
(c) 20000 units (d) 9000 units Inertia of direction.
(a) momentum (b) position
Sol.105.(b) 6000 units. We know that Q.109. Motion of an object is ______ if its (c) displacement (d) velocity
ar
Momentum is directly proportional to the velocity is constant.
Sol.113.(d) Velocity. Acceleration
Se
object's mass (m) and velocity (v). SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
Momentum (p) = mass (m) × velocity (v). (a) only accelerating (b) only decelerating is defined as the rate at which an object
And if velocity is doubled, momentum is (c) non-uniform (d) uniform changes its velocity. It is a vector
also doubled. quantity. Unit of acceleration is the metre
Hence momentum Sol.109.(d) Uniform motion - When an per square second (𝑚/𝑠 ).
2
= 2 × 3000 = 6000 units. object covers equal distances in equal
intervals of time, then its motion is called Q.114. If two forces act on an object
Q.106. Which of the following is NOT an uniform motion. Example - Motion of the from opposite directions, then the
application of the third law of motion ? blades of a ceiling fan. Non-uniform magnitude of the net force acting on it is
SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (1st Shift) motion - Objects move with different the ______ of the magnitudes of the two
(a) A fielder pulls his hands gradually speeds and do not cover equal distances forces.
with the moving ball while holding a in equal intervals of time. Example - SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Morning)
catch. Speed of train. (a) product (b) sum (c) ratio (d) difference
(b) Colliding with a player while kicking a
football and feeling hurt. Q.110. ________time graph shows speed Sol.114.(d) Difference. Net force is the
(c) As the sailor jumps in the forward of an object. sum total of all the forces which are
direction, the boat moves backward . SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift) acting on the body. Forces applied on an
(d) A forward force on the bullet and (a) Velocity (b) Distance object in the same direction add to one
recoil of the gun. (c) Displacement (d) Acceleration another.
Sol.106.(a) Newton’s third law of Motion Sol.110.(b) Distance. In this graph, the Q.115. With what do you divide thrust in
- States that to every action, there is an slope of the line is equal to the speed of a liquid to obtain the value of pressure?
equal and opposite reaction. Force : The the object. Speed and distance are scalar SSC CGL 13/08/2021(Afternoon)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
(a) Volume (b) Area (c) Density (d) Mass Q.119. Among the following, in which SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
material the speed of sound is highest? (a) 1 (b) 0.01 (c) 0.1 (d) 10
Sol.115.(b) Area. Thrust acting per unit
(at 25°C)
area is known as pressure i.e. Pressure = Sol.123.(b) 1 kilohertz = 1000 oscillation
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (1st Shift)
Thrust/Area. per second. 10 oscillation per second =
(a) Nickel (b) Steel (c) Iron (d) Aluminium
10
= 0.01 kilohertz.
Sound Sol.119.(d) Aluminium. Speed of sound 1000
(meters/second) in different media at 25
Q.116. How long will a sound wave take Q.124. The sound of thunder is heard
ºC: Aluminium (6420 m/s), Nickel (6040
to travel 1.5 km, which has a frequency much later than the flash of light is
m/s), Steel (5960 m/s), Iron (5950 m/s),
of 5 kHz and wavelength of 6 cm? visible. What does it represent?
Brass (4700 m/s).
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) SSC MTS 27/10/2021(Afternoon)
(a) 2.5 seconds (b) 50 seconds Q.120. Which of the following (a) The speed of sound is much less than
(c) 5 seconds (d) 25 seconds statements is NOT correct regarding the speed of light.
sound? (b) The speed of sound is three times the
Sol.116.(c) 5 seconds. Given that, SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (4th Shift) speed of light.
Frequency (f) = 5 kHz = 5000 Hz. (a) Sound can travel through vacuum. (c) The speed of sound is twice the
Wavelength (λ) = 6 cm = 0.06 m. (b) In human beings, the vibration of speed of light.
Distance = 1.5 km = 1500 m. vocal cords produce sound. (d) The speed of sound is equal to the
The speed (v) of a wave is given by: (c) Unpleasant sounds are called noise. speed of light.
𝑣 = frequency × wavelength (d) Frequency is expressed in hertz.
𝑣 = 5000 Hz × 0.06 m = 300m/s. Sol.124.(a) The speed of sound in air is
The distance to be traveled is 1.5 km = Sol.120.(a) Sound is a mechanical wave about 346 meters per second. Light
df
1500 m. and needs a material medium like air, travels at a speed of 300,000 km/s
water, steel etc. for its propagation. It (186,000 mi/s) from a stationary source.
_p
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 1500 𝑚
Time = = cannot travel through vacuum. Audio Time taken by Light - Moon to Earth: 1.3
𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 300𝑚/𝑠
Frequency spectrum of the human ear is seconds and Sun to Earth (1 AU) : 8.3
na
= 5 seconds.
to be between 20 Hertz and 20,000 minutes.
Q.117. Which wave oscillates parallel to Hertz. Speed of sound in different
ap
the motion of the sound wave? mediums: Water (Sea) - 1531 m/s, Water Gravitation
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) (distilled) - 1498 m/s, Air - 346 m/s.
:@
(a) Mechanical wave Q.125. Two masses of 1 kg and 2 kg
(b) Electromagnetic wave Q.121. Loudness of sound is were dropped from a height of 3.2
(c) Transverse wave proportional to the _____ of the amplitude metres. Their respective velocities just
TG
(d) Longitudinal wave of the vibration producing the sound. before touching the ground will be:
SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Evening) (Assume acceleration due to gravity g =
Sol.117.(d) Longitudinal wave : In this, (a) cube root (b) Cube 10 m/s2)
on
the oscillations occur parallel to the (c) Square (d) square root SSC MTS 08/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
direction of the wave's motion.
(a) 8 m/s and 4 m/s (b) 3.2 m/s for both
Transverse wave : In this, the oscillations Sol.121.(c) Square. The loudness of
ch
(c) 4 m/s and 8 m/s (d) 8 m/s for both
occur perpendicular to the direction of sound is expressed in the units called the
the wave's motion. Examples include Decibel. The symbol of the decibel is dB.
ar
Sol.125.(d) 8 m/s for both. We can
water waves and waves on a string. The sound pressure level of audible calculate the velocities of the two
Se
Mechanical wave : These waves require a sound ranges from 0 dB through 120 dB. masses just before touching the ground
medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to travel using the equation of motion for free fall:
Q.122. What is the study of the
through. 𝑣 = 2𝑔ℎ
production and propagation of sound
Q.118. Among the given options, which waves called? Where:
one causes an echo? SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Evening) v = velocity just before touching the
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (1st Shift) (a) Optics (b) Photonics ground
(a) When sound is reflected (c) Astrophysics (d) Acoustics g = acceleration due to gravity (10 m/s2)
(b) When sound waves travel through a h = height from which the masses were
Sol.122.(d) Acoustics. Optics is the dropped (3.2m)
solid medium
branch of physical science that deals For both masses (1 kg and 2 kg), the
(c) When sound waves travel through a
with the properties and phenomena of velocity will be the same because the
liquid medium
both visible and invisible light. Photonics equation is independent of mass:
(d) When sound waves travel through a
is the study of light and other types of v= 2✕10✕3. 2
vacuum
radiant energy whose quantum unit is the
𝑣 = 64
Sol.118.(a) When sound is reflected. photon. Astrophysics is a branch of
𝑣 = 8 m/s
Echo : The sound is heard more than space science that applies the laws of
Hence, the velocities of both masses just
once because of the time difference physics and chemistry to seek to
before touching the ground will be 8 m/s.
between the initial production of the understand the universe.
sound waves and their return from the Q.126. Identify the INCORRECT
Q.123. If an object executes 10
reflecting surface. Applications of echo - statement for the universal law of
oscillations per second, then its
Measuring Depth and Height, Measuring gravitation.
frequency in kilohertz is equal to :
Distance, Medical Diagnosis. SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
(a) It is the force that binds us to earth SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening) Ratio of PE to KE = 100 J : 100 J = 1:1
(b) It is the force causing tides due to the (a) Thomas Alva Edison (b) GalileoGalilei
stars and earth. (c) Albert Einstein (d) Isaac Newton Q.133. What kind of energy does a yo-yo
(c) It is the force that keeps motion of have before it is released?
planets around the Sun. Sol.129.(b) Galileo Galilei (father of SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
(d) It is the force that assists motion of observational astronomy, modern (a) Potential energy (b) Light energy
the moon around earth. physics and the scientific method). He is (c) Chemical energy (d) Kinetic energy
known for observations of the Moon,
Sol.126.(b) Newton's law of universal phases of Venus, moons around Jupiter, Sol.133.(a) Potential energy. The energy
gravitation - Any particle of matter in the sunspots. possessed by a body due to its position
universe attracts another one with a and configuration is called potential
force varying directly as the product of Q.130. Which instrument was used to energy. Potential energy = mgh (where m
the masses and inversely as the square detect gravitational waves for the very = mass of an object, g = acceleration due
of the distance between them. G’ is first time? to gravity, and h = height).
denoted as the gravitational constant. SSC CHSL 17/03/2020 (Evening)
(a) WIGO (b) LIGO (c) TRIGO (d) GIGO Q.134. Match list I and list II.
Value of G = 6.67×10-11 Nm2/kg2. Tides
List I List II
are caused by the combined gravitation Sol.130.(b) LIGO (Laser Interferometer a) Potential energy i) Solar thermal
attraction of the Sun and Moon on the Gravitational-Wave Observatory) is a b) Chemical energy ii) Wind turbine
Earth. large-scale physics experiment and c) Kinetic energy iii) Hydropower
Q.127. Identify the correct statement observatory to detect cosmic plant
about gravity. gravitational waves and to develop d) Radiation energy iv) Diesel generator
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) gravitational - wave observations as an SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023
df
(a) The unit of g is the same as that of astronomical tool. (a) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
_p
acceleration (b) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii). (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(b) The unit of g is the same as that of Work and Energy (c) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
na
velocity (d) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(c) The unit of g is the same as that of Q.131. Who was the first to use the term
Sol.134.(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii),
ap
mass. 'horsepower' that refers to the power
(d) The unit of g is the same as that of produced by an engine ? (d)-(i). Potential energy - The stored
energy in any object or system by virtue
:@
friction. SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift)
(a) Amedeo Avogadro (b) John Dalton of its position or arrangement of parts.
Sol.127.(a) Gravity : The universal force (c) Albert Einstein (d) James Watt Potential energy changes into Kinetic
of attraction acting between all matter in Energy when an object moves. Chemical
TG
the Universe. Anything that has mass, Sol.131.(d) James Watt was a Scottish energy - energy stored in the bonds of
also has gravity. Isaac Newton engineer and inventor. Watt defined one atoms and molecules. Examples of
discovered the laws of gravity and horsepower as the power required to lift chemical energy - Batteries, biomass,
on
motion. The value of the acceleration due 33,000 pounds by one foot in one minute, petroleum, natural gas, and coal.
to the gravity on earth is 9.8 m/s2. The SI which is equivalent to about 746 watts.
ch
unit of gravity is the newton (N). Albert Einstein was a physicist who is Q.135. What kind of energy is associated
best known for his theory of relativity and with falling coconuts, speeding cars,
Q.128. Which of the following laws
ar
the famous equation E = mc2. rolling stones and flying aircraft ?
represented by the formula T2∝R3, SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
Se
compares the orbital period and radius of Q.132. If an object of mass 2 kg is (a) Potential energy (b) Kinetic Energy
the orbit of a planet with that of other dropped from a height of 10 metres, (c) Radiant energy (d) Elastic energy
planets ? what will be the ratio of its potential
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (3rd shift) energy and kinetic energy at the height of Sol.135.(b) Kinetic Energy - The energy
(a) Hubble's Law (b) Coperncus's Law 5 metres (g = 10 m/sec2) an object has because of its motion.
(c) Kepler's Third Law (d) Bragg's Law SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) Radiant Energy : Energy of
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 electromagnetic and gravitational
Sol.128.(c) Kepler's Third Law : The
radiation. Examples - Produce heat, light,
square of the period of revolution of any Sol.132.(c) 1 : 1. When the object is rays. Elastic Energy : Energy stored in an
planet is directly proportional to the third dropped from a height of 10 meters, its object due to a force that temporarily
power of the semi-major axis of the potential energy (PE) is converted to changes its shape. Example -
elliptical orbit of that planet. Bragg's Law kinetic energy (KE) as it falls. At the Compressed spring, archer's stretched
: 2dsin(θ) = nλ, where, d (distance height of 5 meters, the object has lost bow.
between crystal lattice planes), θ (Angle half of its initial potential energy and has
of incidence), n (Integer), λ is the gained an equal amount of kinetic Q.136. What will be the average kinetic
wavelength of the X-rays. Copernicus’s energy. energy per molecule in SI units for an
Law : Proposed a heliocentric system, Initial Potential energy (PE) = mgh ideal gas at a temperature of 25°C ?
that the planets orbit around the Sun. = 2 kg × 10 m/s² × 10 m = 200 J SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
At 5 meters, Potential energy (PE) = mgh (a) 9.17 × 10−22 J (b) 6.17 × 10−21 J
Q.129. Who among the following was the
= 2 kg × 10 m/s² × 5 m = 100 J (c) 7.17 × 10−20 J (d) 8.17 × 10−22 J
first to conclude that in vacuum all
objects fall with the same acceleration g Kinetic energy (KE) = Initial PE - PE
Sol.136.(b) 6.17 × 10-21 J.
and reach the ground at the same time? = 200 J - 100 J = 100 J
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
3 points. Q.144. The photoelectric effect
Average kinetic energy (KE) = 𝐾𝑇
2 SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Morning) demonstrates which nature of light ?
Boltzmann constant is = K (a) Q= 1/W (b) W= Q/V SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift)
Temperature (T) = 25 0C (c) V = Q/W (d) V = W/Q (a) Crystalline nature (b) Particle nature
Value of degree Celsius to Kelvin (c) Dual nature (d) Wave nature
= T = 0C + 273 Sol.140.(d) V = W/Q . In an electrical
T = 25 + 273 ⇒ T = 298 K circuit, the potential between two points Sol.144.(b) Particle nature. Photoelectric
The value of Boltzmann constant (K) is (V) is defined as the amount of work effect is the phenomenon of emission of
1.38 x 10-23 J/K done (W) by an external agent in moving electrons from the surface of the metal
3 a unit charge (Q) from one point to when the light of suitable frequency falls
Average KE = 𝐾𝑇 another. on it. Concerned Nobel Prize - Albert
2
3 Einstein (1921) and Robert Andrews
Average KE = (1.38 x 10-23 J/K) (298K) Q.141. Hydroelectric power stations Millikan won Nobel (1923).
2
generate electricity by using the force of
Average KE = 6.17 x 10-21 J.
water that falls into the turbines and Q.145. Which pioneer scientist used
Q.137. If 7 N force is applied on a brick spins the shaft. By rotating the shaft of radio waves to transmit signals over
and it moves through 5 m, then what will the turbine, the potential energy of water distances of several kilometers in the
be the work done ? is converted into ________ energy. 1890s?
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (3rd Shift) SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (4th shift)
(a) 25 J (b) 40 J (c) 35 J (d) 35 Erg (a) chemical (b) thermal (a) Michael Faraday (b) Paul Langevin
(c) gravitational (d) kinetic (c) Guglielmo Marconi (d) Pierre Weiss
Sol.137.(c) 35 J. Given, Force applied on
a brick (F) = 7 N, Displacement (s) = 5 m. Sol.141.(d) Kinetic. In Hydropower Sol.145.(c) Guglielmo Marconi.
df
Angle (θ) = 0°. plants, a turbine converts the potential He transmitted radio waves across the
energy of water into kinetic energy, the English Channel. Award - The Nobel Prize
_p
Since, Work done = Force × displacement
× cos θ, kinetic energy of falling water into in Physics (1909). Scientists and Their
⇒ Work done = 7 × 5 × cos 0°, mechanical energy and then a generator Inventions : Michael Faraday -
(cos 0° = 1)
⇒ Work done = 35 joules. na
converts the mechanical energy into
electrical energy. Largest Hydroelectric
Electromagnetic induction. Telephone -
Alexander Graham Bell. Printing Machine
ap
power station in India: Koyna - Johannes Gutenberg. Marie Curie and
Q.138. What type of energy conversion Hydroelectric Project (Maharashtra); Pierre Curie are remembered for her
:@
takes place in a battery? First: Sidrapong Hydroelectric Power discovery of radium and polonium.
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning) Station (West Bengal).
(a) Chemical energy into light energy Q.146. The objects which repeats its
TG
(b) Chemical energy into electrical energy motion after some time is called
Wave SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Evening)
(c) Mechanical energy into chemical
energy (a) periodic motion
on
Q.142. What is the frequency (f) of a
(d) Chemical energy into sound energy (b) semi-circular motion
wave with a period of 0.04 seconds ?
(c) Rectilinear motion
Sol.138.(b) Chemical energy into SSC MTS 15/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
ch
(d) Circular motion
electrical energy. Energy conversion (a) 50 Hz (b) 25 Hz (c) 40 Hz (d) 100 Hz
devices : Electric Generator - Mechanical Sol.146.(a) Periodic motion : Examples -
ar
1
energy into electrical energy. Electric Sol.142.(b) 25 Hz. We know that 𝑓 = A rocking chair, a bouncing ball, a
𝑇
Se
motor - Electrical energy into mechanical vibrating tuning fork.
where 𝑓 = frequency and T = time period
energy. Microphone - Sound energy into
of the vibration Q.147. Which of the following
electrical energy. Loudspeaker - Electrical 1
𝑓= = 25 Hz. earthquake waves are surface waves?
energy into Sound energy. Sitar - 0.04
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
Mechanical energy into sound energy.
(a) P waves (b) L waves
Q.143. What is the wavelength range of
Q.139. The lifting of an object up and (c) S Waves (d) M waves
visible light ?
down, the parade of an army and the free SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift) Sol.147.(b) L waves. The S wave is about
fall of a heavy object are all examples of (a) 1 to 2 μm (b) 0.7 to 0.9 μm 1.7 times slower than the P wave. L
which motion? (c) 0.2 to 0.3 μm (d) 0.4 to 0.7 μm waves have long wavelengths, and lead
SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Afternoon)
most of the earthquake's structural
(a) Rectilinear motion Sol.143.(d) 0.4 to 0.7 μm. The visible
damage.
(b) Periodic motion spectrum encompasses all the colours
(c) Rotational motion perceivable by the human eye, from violet Q.148. In which year was the Doppler
(d) Oscillatory motion (shortest wavelength) to red (longest effect discovered by Austrian scientist
wavelength). Electromagnetic waves Christian Doppler, that describes the
Sol.139.(a) Rectilinear Motion is a linear
range: Radio (> 0.1 m), Microwave (0.1m change in frequency of any kind of sound
motion in which the direction of the
to 1 mm), Infra-red (1mm to 700 nm), or light wave produced by a moving
velocity remains constant and the path is
Light (700 nm to 400 nm), Ultraviolet source with respect to an observer?
a straight line like a parade of soldiers.
(400 nm to 1nm), X-rays (1 nm to 10–3 SSC CGL Tier II (03/03/2023)
Q.140. Identify the correct formula to nm), Gamma rays (< 10–3 nm). (a) 1846 (b) 1844 (c) 1842 (d) 1840
find the potential difference between two
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
Sol.148.(c) 1842. Applications of the wavelength and in the order of increasing crest and trough - A crest point on a
doppler effect : Sirens, Radar, Astronomy, energy and frequency. wave is the maximum value of upward
Medical Imaging, Blood Flow SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Afternoon) displacement within a cycle. A trough is
Measurement, Satellite Communication, (a) six (b) eight (c) seven (d) Five the opposite of a crest, so the minimum
Vibration Measurement, Developmental or lowest point in a cycle.
Biology, Audio, Velocity Profile Sol.151.(c) Seven.
Measurement etc. The common designations are - Radio
waves, Microwaves, Infrared (IR), Visible
Radioactivity
Q.149. What is the correct order of light, Ultraviolet (UV) light, X-rays, and
Q.155. Which type of radiation has very
radiations in descending order of Gamma-rays.
short (<10–3 nm) wavelengths, produced
frequencies ?
Q.152. Which of the following techniques by nuclear explosions, lightning and less
SSC CGL Tier II (03/03/2023)
uses a combination of a large magnet dramatic activity of radioactive decay?
(a) Infrared > Microwaves > Radio waves
and radio waves to view the organs and SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift)
> X-rays
structures inside our bodies? (a) Gamma (b) Infra - red
(b) Radio waves > X-rays > Microwaves >
SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Morning) (c) Microwave (d) Ultraviolet
Infrared
(c) X-rays > Infrared > Microwaves > (a) Computed Tomography
Sol.155.(a) Gamma. These rays possess
Radio waves (b) Fluoroscopy
the smallest wavelengths and the
(d) Infrared > Microwaves > X-rays > (c) Positron Emission Tomography
highest energy of all waves in the
Radio waves (d) Magnetic resonance imaging
electromagnetic spectrum. They are
Sol.152.(d) Magnetic resonance imaging generated by some of the most extreme
Sol.149.(c) X-rays > Infrared >
is a medical imaging technique used in and energetic phenomena in the
Microwaves > Radio waves. Gamma rays
df
radiology to form pictures of the universe, such as neutron stars, and
(smallest wavelength and highest
anatomy and the physiological supernova explosions. The
_p
frequency). Radio Waves (longest
processes of the body. Computed electromagnetic spectrum, ordered from
wavelength and lowest frequency).
tomography (CT) is an imaging long to short wavelengths, includes the
na
Wavelength is inversely proportional to
procedure that uses special x-ray following types of waves : Radio waves,
frequency. Frequency (f) : The number of
equipment to create detailed pictures, or microwaves, infrared, visible light,
ap
waves passing a point in a second. The
scans, of areas inside the body. ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma rays.
unit of frequency is measured in hertz
Fluoroscopy is an imaging technique that
:@
(Hz). Wavelength (λ) : The distance Q.156. For which discovery did Henri
traveled by the wave in one time period uses X-rays to obtain real-time moving
Becquerel receive the Nobel Prize in
of vibration of the particle of medium. Its images of the interior of an object. A
Physics in 1903 ?
positron emission tomography (PET)
TG
SI unit is a meter (m). SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift)
scan is an imaging test that can help
(a) Radioactive Elements
Q.150. Which type of radiation reveal the metabolic or biochemical
(b) Radium Emanation
designates a part of the electromagnetic function of your tissues and organs.
on
(c) Diagnostic Radiography
spectrum with frequencies
Q.153. A simple pendulum consists of a (d) Spontaneous Radioactivity
approximately from 300 GHz to 3 kHz, or
small metallic ball or a piece of stone
ch
equivalent, wavelengths approximately Sol.156.(d) Spontaneous Radioactivity.
suspended from a rigid stand by a
from 1 mm to 100km? Henri Becquerel shared the prize with
thread. The metallic ball is called the
ar
SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Morning) Pierre and Marie Curie for their work on
______ of the pendulum.
(a) Microwaves (b) Infrared waves
Se
SSC MTS 18/10/2021(Afternoon) this radiation.
(c) Radio waves (d) Ultraviolet rays
(a) bob (b) knob (c) hinge (d) head
Q.157. Which of the following isotopes is
Sol.150.(c) Radio waves. Examples - used as a fuel in nuclear power plants for
Sol.153.(a) bob. Other Terminology of
Cellular Networks, RADAR, Radio generating electricity ?
Pendulum : Pivot - The point of
Astronomy, Satellite Communication etc. SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
attachment from which a pendulum
Microwave is a form of electromagnetic (a) Arsenic - 74 (b) Carbon - 14
swings, Amplitude - The distance from
radiation with wavelengths ranging from (c) Uranium - 235 (d) Sodium - 24
which the pendulum is released from the
about one meter to one millimeter
vertical. A Pendulum is a mechanical
corresponding to frequencies between Sol.157.(c) Uranium- 235. It is also used
system, its motion is oscillatory motion.
300 MHz and 300 GHz respectively. in naval nuclear propulsion systems.
Ultraviolet rays is a form of Some isotopes and their uses:
Q.154. What is the rate at which a wave
electromagnetic radiation with Uranium-234 - in the making of nuclear
moves through the water, and is
wavelengths from 10 nm to 400 nm, weapons and nuclear fuels. Iodine-131 -
measured in knots ?
shorter than that of visible light, but Used in the treatment of thyroid
SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Evening)
longer than X-rays. Infrared waves are disorders. Cadmium-109 - Used to
(a) Wave height
electromagnetic radiation with analyze metal alloys. Phosphorus-33 -
(b) Wave crest and trough
wavelengths longer than those of visible Used in molecular biology and genetics
(c) Wave frequency
light. research.
(d) Wave speed
Q.151. The electromagnetic spectrum Q.158. What powers the Earth's internal
Sol.154.(d) Wave speed. Wave height -
describes the full range of light that is heat engine ?
the vertical distance between the trough
generally divided into ________ regions of SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (1st Shift)
of a wave and the following crest. Wave
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
(a) Solar Energy (b) Volcanoes (c) Discovery of electromagnetic Q.166. Which type of electromagnetic
(c) Radioactive energy (d) Tides induction radiation was discovered by Johann
(d) Discovery of natural radioactivity Wilhelm Ritter in 1801 ?
Sol.158.(c) Radioactive energy. The SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift)
process by which Earth makes heat is Sol.162.(c) Discovery of (a) X-rays (b) Infrared rays
called radioactive decay. It involves the electromagnetic induction. Faraday's law (c) Gamma rays (d) Ultraviolet rays
disintegration of natural radioactive states that an electromotive force is
elements inside Earth. Examples - generated in an electrical conductor Sol.166.(d) Ultraviolet rays.
Uranium and thorium. encircling a varying magnetic flux. Johann Wilhelm Ritter observed that a
Faraday's law of induction underpins the chemical reaction occurred beyond the
Q.159. With which of the following types operation of various devices, including violet end of the visible spectrum, leading
of fuels is the device named ‘tokamak’ generators, transformers, inductors, and to the discovery of UV radiation. X-rays
associated? electric motors. were discovered by Wilhelm Röntgen in
SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Morning) 1895. Infrared rays were discovered by
(a) Hydel (b) Tidal Q.163. In which year did Eric A. Cornell, William Herschel in 1800.
(c) Geothermal (d) Atomic Wolfgang Ketterle and Carl E. Wieman
receive the Nobel Prize in Physics for the Q.167. In which year did Galileo describe
Sol.159.(d) Atomic. Tokamak is a device achieving 'Bose-Einstein condensation in the regular, swinging motion of a
used in nuclear-fusion research for dilute gases of alkali atoms' ? pendulum by the action of gravity and
magnetic confinement of plasma. The SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) acquired momentum ?
fusion reaction in the Tokamak will be (a) 2001 (b) 2003 (c) 2002 (d) 2000 SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift)
powered with deuterium and tritium, two (a) 1600 (b) 1605 (c) 1602 (d) 1599
isotopes of hydrogen. Sol.163.(a) 2001.
df
A Bose-Einstein Condensate (BEC) is a Sol.167.(c) 1602 is when Galileo
Q.160. Which of the following represents
state of matter formed when particles described the pendulum's regular
_p
an alpha particle ?
known as bosons are cooled to swinging motion, influenced by gravity
SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Morning)
temperatures near absolute zero. This and momentum. A simple pendulum has
na
2 2 1 4
(a) 𝐻𝑒 (b)
1
𝐻𝑒 (c)
2
𝐻𝑒 (d)
1 2
𝐻𝑒 achievement allowed atoms to occupy a suspended bob, swinging under gravity.
the same quantum state, forming a new In non-inertial frames, pseudo forces
ap
4
Sol.160.(d) 2𝐻𝑒. Alpha particles consist state of matter and advancing quantum simplify motion analysis.
phenomena at ultra-low temperatures.
:@
of two Protons and two Neutrons bound Q.168. Who among the following
together into a particle exactly like a Q.164. In which year did Hans Christian confirmed Maxwell's theories with the
helium nucleus. They are generally Oersted discover that a compass needle discovery of radio waves and also
TG
produced in the process of alpha decay. gets deflected when an electric current became the first person to transmit and
passes through a metallic wire placed receive controlled radio waves in 1886 ?
Discoveries nearby ? SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift)
on
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) (a) Michael Faraday
Q.161. Who first stated the principle of (a) 1820 (b) 1824 (c) 1826 (d) 1822 (b) Guglielmo Marconi
refraction that postulates every
ch
(c) William Hopkins
substance has a specific bending ratio, Sol.164.(a) 1820. (d) Heinrich Hertz
"refractive index"? Hans Christian Oersted (1777–1851) one
ar
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift) of the leading scientists of the 19th Sol.168.(d) Heinrich Hertz. He was a
Se
(a) Dennis Gabor (b) Thomas Young century, played a crucial role in German physicist and mathematician
(c) Willebrord Snellius (d) David Brewster understanding electromagnetism. He best known for his discovery of what
later created technologies such as the became known as wireless waves. Hertz
Sol.161.(c) Willebrord Snellius. He was a radio, television and fiber optics. The unit is notable for the discovery of the
Dutch astronomer and mathematician, of magnetic field strength is named the photoelectric effect in 1887. Maxwell's
commonly known as Snell. The Snell’s Oersted in his honor. theory unifies electricity, magnetism, and
law of refraction states that: The incident
light, describing how electric and
ray, the refracted ray and the normal at Q.165. Who among the following
magnetic fields interact and propagate
the point of incidence, all lie in the same discovered that a wire carrying electric
as electromagnetic waves.
plane. The ratio of the sine of the angle current can attract or repel another wire
of incidence to the sine of the angle of next to it that's also carrying electric Q.169. For which of the following
refraction is constant for the pair of the current ? discoveries in 1827 was the German
given media. Dennis Gabor: known for SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift) physicist, Georg Simon Ohm best
inventing holography in 1947. Thomas (a) James Maxwell known?
Young : Demonstrated the wave nature of (b) Michael Faraday SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift)
light. (c) Guglielmo Marconi (a) For invention of the magnetometer,
(d) Andre-Marie Ampere which is a device capable of
Q.162. Which famous experiment was
measuring the direction and strength
done by Michael Faraday in 1831 ? Sol.165.(d) Andre - Marie Ampere. He
of a magnetic field
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) was a French mathematician and
(b) For clarifying the mathematical
(a) Discovery of quantum physicist who discovered the
relationship between electrical
magnetometers fundamental principles of
current, resistance and voltage
(b) Discovery of law of elasticity electromagnetism in 1820.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
(c) For measuring the magnetic Sol.172.(a) Dr. Mahendra Lal Sircar. The effect and established the mass-energy
properties of nuclear particles Indian Association for the Cultivation of equivalence relation through his special
(d) For developing a device capable of Science (IACS) in Calcutta was theory of relativity in 1905. JJ Thomson:
amplifying and modulating established on July 29, 1876. Recognized Discovered electrons and contributed to
electromagnetic signals that could as the oldest institute in India dedicated atomic physics.
also function as an oscillator to fundamental research, IACS focuses
on advancing knowledge in the frontier Q.176. Which device was invented by
Sol.169.(b) Ohm's Law states that the areas of basic sciences. Professor C V Carl Friedrich Gauss and Wilhelm Eduard
electric current through a conductor Raman worked at IACS during 1907 to Weber in 1833?
between two points is directly 1933, and it is here that he discovered SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
proportional to the voltage across the the celebrated Effect that bears his name (a) Transistor
two points, with resistance as the and for which he was awarded the Nobel (b) electromagnetic telegraph
constant of proportionality. The unit of Prize in Physics in 1930. (c) Optical maser
resistance, named after Georg Simon (d) Particle accelerator
Ohm, is the Ohm. The mathematical Q.173. When did the United Nations
equation is V = I × R. declare the World Physics Year, also Sol.176.(b) Electromagnetic telegraph.
known as the Einstein Year, to mark the Inventions and discoveries : Henry
Q.170. Who among the following 100th anniversary of the physicist Albert Moseley - The atomic battery. Pierre and
physicists invented the voltaic pile, the Einstein? Marie Curie - Radium. Percy Spencer -
forerunner of the modern battery, in Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Microwave. David Hughes and Thomas
1800? (a) 2005 (b) 2002 (c) 2006 (d) 2004 Edison - Carbon Microphone. John
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) Bardeen, Walter Brattain and William
(a) Andre - Marie Ampere Sol.173.(a) 2005. In 1905, Einstein Shockley - Transistor. Wilhelm Conrad
df
(b) George Simon published three groundbreaking papers, Roentgen - X Ray. Victor Francis Hess -
_p
(c) Alessandro Volta establishing the foundations of relativity, Cosmic radiation.
(d) Hans Christian Oersted quantum theory, and Brownian motion.
Q.177. When did Heinrich Hertz discover
na
The World Year of Physics celebrates the
Sol.170.(c) Alessandro Volta. Important role of physics in everyday life. Its goal is the photoelectric effect and observe that
Inventions and Discoveries: George shining ultraviolet light on the electrodes
ap
to increase global awareness of physics
Stephenson - In 1814, he constructed a and science. caused a change in voltage between
locomotive, called ‘The Blutcher’, that them?
:@
could pull a weight of 30 tons up a hill at Q.174. Who is credited with inventing the SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon)
4 mph. André-Marie Ampère - Well-known reflecting telescope? (a) 1990 (b) 1916 (c) 1902 (d) 1887
for his contributions to the field of Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
TG
electromagnetism (specifically Ampère's (a) Isaac Newton Sol.177.(d) 1887. Photoelectric effect -
law). (b) Johannes Kepler The emission of electrons from the
(c) Christiaan Huygens surface of a metal when light is incident
on
Q.171. Which physicist is known to (d) Galileo Galilei on it. Scientists and their discoveries :
establish the relationship between Michael Faraday - Electromagnetic
ch
mechanical work and heat transfer? Sol.174.(a) Isaac Newton. In 1668, he Induction. Thomas Edison - Incandescent
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) devised a reflecting telescope. Instead of light bulb, phonograph. Albert Einstein -
ar
(a) Hermann Helmholtz a lens, it used a single curved main Theory of Relativity.
(b) John Dalton mirror, together with a smaller flat mirror.
Se
(c) James Prescott Joule Scientists and Discoveries: Johannes Q.178. Who among the following
(d) William Henry Kepler - The three laws of planetary established a unit of horsepower that is
motion; Christiaan Huygens - The Wave equal to one horse doing 33,000
Sol.171.(c) James Prescott Joule : His foot-pounds of work in one minute?
theory of light.
Discoveries and Innovations include the SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
mechanical equivalent of heat, Joule’s Q.175. Which physicist is best known for (a) James Black (b) James Croll
law, the first law of thermodynamics, and his experiments on generating and (c) James Watt (d) James Dwight Dana
the Joule-Thomson effect. Hermann von confirming the existence of
Helmholtz invented the ophthalmoscope, electromagnetic waves ? Sol.178.(c) James Watt (Inventor of
a medical device used to examine the Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4) steam Engine). Horsepower : Unit of
interior of the eye, including the retina. (a) Isaac Newton measurement of power, or the rate at
(b) Albert Einstein which work is done, usually in reference
Q.172. Who among the following was the to the output of engines or motors. It is
(c) JJ Thomson
founder of the Indian Association for the calculated by multiplying the amount of
(d) Heinrich Rudolf Hertz
Cultivation of Science in 1876, an force (in pounds) by the speed (in feet
institution devoted to the pursuit of Sol.175.(d) Heinrich Rudolf Hertz. per second). 1 Hp - 746 watts (W) or
fundamental research in the frontier He demonstrated that radio waves could 0.746 kilowatts (kW).
areas of basic sciences? be produced and detected, laying the
Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2) foundation for the development of Q.179. Which physicist is known for
(a) Dr. Mahendra Lal Sircar modern wireless communication. Albert discovering that any periodic wave can
(b) Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize in be represented as an infinite number of
(c) Har Gobind Khorana 1921 for his work on the photoelectric weighted sinusoids, i.e., the sum of sine
(d) Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya and cosine waves?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (3rd shift) SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (2nd shift) Famous Nobel Prize Awardee in Physics
(a) Louis de Broglie (a) Maxwell and Hertz experiment : 1945 - Wolfgang Pauli (“for the
(b) Jean Baptiste Joseph Fourier (b) Faraday and Henry experiment discovery of the Exclusion Principle, also
(c) Joseph - Louis Lagrange (c) Michelson and Morley experiment called the Pauli Principle”); 1944 - Isidor
(d) Ernest Walton (d) Marconi and Thomson experiment Isaac Rabi (“for his resonance method
for recording the magnetic properties of
Sol.179.(b) Jean Baptiste Joseph Sol.182.(c) Michelson and Morley atomic nuclei”) ; 1950 - Cecil Frank
Fourier : Discovered “Green house effect” experiment - They tried to explain that Powell (“for his development of the
in 1824. Louis de Broglie : He was Earth moved around the sun on its orbit, photographic method of studying nuclear
awarded the 1929 Nobel Prize in Physics and the flow of substances like ether processes and his discoveries regarding
“for his discovery of the wave nature of across the Earth’s surface could produce mesons made with this method”).
electrons”. Joseph-Louis Lagrange : a detectable ‘ether wind’.
Contributed to the development of Q.186. Which scientist suggested that
celestial mechanics, calculus, algebra, Q.183. As per physicists and their major the magnet must also exert an equal and
number theory, and group theory. Ernest contributions/discoveries, which of the opposite force on the current-carrying
Walton : Won the 1951 Nobel Prize in following pairs is INCORRECT ? conductor?
Physics with his colleague John SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (3rd shift) SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023)
Cockcroft for producing the first artificial (a) John Bardeen – Theory of (a) Michael Faraday
nuclear disintegration in history. superconductivity (b) Andre Marie Ampere
(b) Louis Victor de Broglie – Wave nature (c) Joseph Henry
Q.180. In 1830, which American scientist of matter (d) William Gilbert
created the world's most powerful (c) Victor Francis Hess – Cosmic
electromagnet, the Albany magnet, which radiation Sol.186.(b) Andre Marie Ampere. He
df
could lift up to 750 pounds of metal at a (d) Paul Dirac – Liquid helium proposed that a current-carrying
_p
time? conductor creates a magnetic field, and
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift) Sol.183.(d) Paul Dirac Known for “Dirac that a magnet also exerts an equal and
equation” related to quantum theory.
na
(a) John Cockcroft (b) William Gilbert opposite force on the current-carrying
(c) Joseph Henry (d) Edward Purcell Physicist Heike Kamerlingh Onnes conductor. This is known as Ampere's
discovered liquid Helium. Edwin Hubble -
ap
law.
Sol.180.(c) Joseph Henry, renowned for Law of Cosmic Expansion. Archimedes -
his discovery of self-inductance in Buoyancy Principle. Heisenberg - Q.187. Who found an empirical
:@
electric circuits and his work on Uncertainty Principle. relationship between the half-life of alpha
electromagnets like Albany and Yale decay and the energy of the emitted
magnets. John Cockcroft was a British Q.184. In the early nineteenth century, alpha particles in 1911?
TG
physicist, who won the Nobel Prize who demonstrated that there are SSC CGL Tier II (07/03/2023)
(1951) in Physics for splitting the atomic fourteen space lattices, or regularly (a) Fermi and Meitner
nucleus. Edward Purcell, an American repeating arrangements of points in (b) Geiger and Nuttall
on
physicist, won the Nobel Prize (1952) for space, that differ in symmetry and (c) Chadwick and Lawrence
Physics for discovery of nuclear geometry? (d) Soddy and Aston
ch
magnetic resonance in liquids and SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (1st shift)
solids. (a) Auguste Bravais (b) William Bragg Sol.187.(b) Geiger and Nuttall. Alpha
ar
(c) Jerome Karle (d) Charles Frank decay spontaneously emits excessive
Q.181. In 1851, who discovered the energy by emitting the alpha particle, in
Se
phenomenon of Eddy currents which Sol.184.(a) Auguste Bravais. William which an atomic nucleus emits an alpha
flow in closed loops within conductors in Bragg : Won a Nobel Prize with his son particle (helium nucleus) and 'decays'
planes perpendicular to the magnetic Lawrence Bragg (1915) for their services into a different atomic nucleus. Ernest
field? in the analysis of crystal structure by Orlando Lawrence - Nobel Prize in
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (3rd shift) means of X-rays. Jerome Karle : He was Physics (1939) for the invention of
(a) David Hughes (b) Charles Townes awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in cyclotron. William Aston - Nobel Prize in
(c) Nicola Tesla (d) Leon Foucault 1985, for the direct analysis of crystal Chemistry (1922) for discovery by means
structures using X-ray scattering of a mass spectrograph of isotopes in
Sol.181.(d) Leon Foucault techniques. Charles Frank : known for his several non-radioactive elements.
also discovered the Gyroscope. Famous work on crystal growth, liquid crystals Frederick Soddy was the first to
scientists and discoveries: Nikola Tesla - and on the role of dislocations in announce the concept that atoms can be
AC Power (alternating current), Tesla crystals. identical chemically and yet have
Coil, Magnifying Transmitter. Albert different atomic weights.
Q.185. Hideki Yukawa, who received the
Einstein - Theory of relativity and the
Nobel Prize in 1949, is well known for Q.188. Evangelista Torricelli is famous
concept of mass-energy equivalence (E =
which discovery? for what discovery?
mc2).
Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4) SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Q.182. Which experiment was designed (a) Thermal ionization (a) Invention of spring balance
to trace the motion of the earth through (b) Cascade process of cosmic radiation (b) Invention of piezometer
the 'luminiferous aether", a theoretical (c) Theory of nuclear forces (c) Invention of mercury barometer
substance necessary for the (d) Measurement of electronic charge (d) Invention of vacuum gauge
transmission of light?
Sol.185.(c) Theory of nuclear forces.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
Sol.188.(c) Invention of mercury components in the presence of a static Sol.197.(d) Diopter. The prefix "yotta" is a
barometer. Spring Balance (a balance magnetic field? metric system unit that represents a
that measures weight by the tension of a SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Evening) factor of 1024. The katal is the SI unit of
spring) - Richard Salter. Piezometer (an (a) Bezold effect (b) Domino effect catalytic activity. A radian is a unit of
instrument for measuring the pressure of (c) Askaryan effect (d) Zeeman effect measuring angles.
a liquid or gas) - Hans Christian Oersted.
Vacuum Gauge (measures pressure Sol.193.(d) Zeeman effect. It is named Q.198. Which of the following two
below the atmospheric pressure) - after the Dutch physicist Pieter Zeeman, quantities have the same dimensions ?
Marcello Stefano Pirani. who discovered it in 1896 and received a SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Nobel prize for this discovery. (a) Work and torque
Q.189. In 1664, who discovered the fifth (b) Power and moment of inertia
star in the Trapezium, an asterism (mini- Q.194. Which scientist won the Nobel (c) Work and angular displacement
constellation) in the constellation Orion? prize in Physics in 1918 for the discovery (d) Power and radius of circular motion
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (2nd Shift) of ‘Energy Quanta’?
(a) George Willis Ritchey SSC CHSL 20/10/2020 (Afternoon) Sol.198.(a) Work and torque. Both work
(b) Giordano Bruno (a) Louis de Broglie and torque have the same dimensions,
(c) Johannes Kepler (b) Werner Heisenberg expressed as [ML2T−2]. Dimensional
(d) Robert Hooke (c) James Chadwick Formula: Force (newton)- [MLT–2], Power
(d) Max Karl Ernst Ludwig Planck (watt)- [ML2T–3], Moment of inertia
Sol.189.(d) Robert Hooke. (kgm2)- [ML2T0], Momentum (kgms–1) -
Sol.194.(d) Max Karl Ernst Ludwig [MLT–1]. Acceleration (m/s2)- [LT-2],
Q.190. In 1785, who used the calibrated Planck. Louis de Broglie (Physics 1929, Electric Capacitance (Farad)- [M-1L-2T4I2],
torsion balance to measure the force discovery of the wave nature of Energy (Joule)- [ML2T-2] , Electric Field
df
between electric charges ? electrons). Werner Heisenberg (Physics Strength (V/m) - [MLT-3I-1], Impulse
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning) 1932, Creation of quantum mechanics).
_p
(newton second)- [MLT–1].
(a) RA Millikan
(b) Hans Christian Oersted Q.195. Superconductivity was discovered Q.199. What is the SI unit of current ?
na
(c) John Michell by ______, who was also awarded the SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(d) Charles Augustin Coulomb Nobel Prize for Physics in 1911. (a) Ohm (b) Ampere (c) Metre (d) Volt
ap
SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Afternoon)
Sol.190.(d) Charles-Augustin Coulomb. (a) Robert Bunsen Sol.199.(b) Ampere. SI unit : Length -
:@
RA Millikan determines the magnitude (b) Johannes Diderik van der Waals Meter (m), Mass - Kilogram (kg), Time -
of the electron's charge by Oil drop (c) Heike Kamerlingh Onnes Second (s), Thermodynamic temperature
experiment (1909). (d) Gustav Kirchhoff - Kelvin (K), Amount of substance - Mole
TG
(mol), Luminous intensity - Candela (cd).
Q.191. Who was famous for the Sol.195.(c) Heike Kamerlingh Onnes.
invention of the vacuum pump in the Superconductivity - A phenomenon in Q.200. Which of the following is NOT a
on
17th century and also pioneered the which certain substances (conductor of unit of energy ?
concept of the absolute vacuum of electricity) offer zero resistance when it SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift)
space, measured the weight of air and cools below some temperature level (a) Joule (b) Calorie
ch
used air pressure to predict the weather? called (Tc) critical temperature. (c) Newton (d) Kilowatt hour
SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Morning) Examples of superconductors -
ar
(a) John Cockcroft (b) Otto von Guericke Aluminum, Niobium, Mercury. Sol.200.(c) Newton. The SI unit of force
is the Newton. Horsepower (hp) is a unit
Se
(c) Enrico Fermi (d) Valerianus Magnus
Q.196. Who among the following of measurement of power, with 1
Sol.191.(b) Otto von Guericke. John scientists invented the Cotton Gin? horsepower equaling 746 watts, where
Cockcroft and Ernest Walton developed a SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Evening) Watt is the SI unit of power. Joule is the
device, an accelerator, to generate more (a) George Washington Carver SI unit of energy, and kilowatt-hour is a
penetrating radiation. Enrico Fermi (b) Sonny Perdue commercial unit representing the energy
started the world's first man-made (c) Eli Whitney used by a 1-kilowatt device in one hour.
nuclear reactor in 1942. (d) Norman Borlaugh
Q.201. The most common rainfall
Q.192. In 1928, who discovered that Sol.196.(c) Eli Whitney (In 1794). Cotton measurement is the total rainfall depth
when a ray of coloured light enters a gin is a machine that revolutionized the during a given period, which is expressed
liquid, a fraction of the light scattered by production of cotton by greatly speeding in ________.
that liquid is of a different color? up the process of removing seeds from SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Evening) cotton fiber. (a) Kilopascal (kPa)
(a) Lord Rayleigh (b) CV Raman (b) Millimetres (mm)
(c) SN Bose (d) John Tyndall Units and Measurements (c) Hectopascal (hPa)
(d) Millibar (mbar)
Sol.192.(b) C V Raman was awarded the
Q.197. What is the unit of measurement
1930 Nobel Prize in Physics for his Sol.201.(b) Millimetres (mm). Rainfall is
for optical power of the lens ?
discovery of the Raman effect. measured using a rain gauge, also known
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
as a pluviometer or hyetometer.
Q.193. What do you call the effect of (a) Yotta (b) Katal
Kilopascal (kPa): A unit of pressure equal
splitting of a spectral line into several (c) Radian (d) Diopter
to 1,000 pascals. Millibar (mbar): A unit
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
of atmospheric pressure equal to 100 atom. Q.210. Which is the Gaussian unit of
pascals, commonly used in meteorology. kinematic viscosity ?
Q.206. Which of the following SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q.202. Which of the following statement/statements is/are true (a) Ampere (b) Joule
statements is NOT correct? regarding the light year? (c) Stokes (d) Darcy
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) 1. Light year is a unit of distance.
(a) Light year is the unit of distance. 2. Light is a unit of time. Sol.210.(c) Stokes (St) (physicist Sir
(b) Light year is the distance travelled by 3. A light year is the distance that light George Gabriel Stokes). Viscosity is a
light in one year. travels in one Earth year. fluid's resistance to flow, with high
(c) Light year is the unit of time. 4. Light year is the measurement of light viscosity indicating more internal friction.
(d) Angstrom is a unit of length. intensity. Its SI unit is Pascal second (kg·m⁻¹·s⁻¹),
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) and kinematic viscosity is in m²/s.
Sol.202.(c) A light year is the distance (a) Only 1 is correct
light travels in one year and serves as a (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct Q.211. The Units of Linear momentum
convenient unit for measuring large (c) Only 2 is correct are measured in __________.
astronomical distances, approximately 9 (d) Only 1 and 2 are correct SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (1st Shift)
trillion kilometers (9 × 10¹² km). An (a) kg2 m/s
2
(b) kg m/𝑠
astronomical unit (AU) is the mean Sol.206.(b) Only 1 and 3 are correct. (c) k2g m/s (d) kg m/s
distance from the Earth to the Sun, used Relative Speed of light: Air > Water >
to measure distances to planets, and is Glass > Diamond. In air (3 × 108 m/s), in Sol.211.(d) kg m/s. Linear momentum is
equal to 1.496 × 10¹¹ meters. water (2.26 × 108 m/s), in glass (2 × 108 the vector quantity and defined as the
m/s), in diamond (1.25 ×108 m/s). Light product of the mass of an object (m) and
Q.203. In the context of vernier calliper, radiation travels at a speed of its velocity (v). Units and Measurements
df
an internal jaw is used to measure: approximately 299,792,458 (m/s) or 3 × : Temperature - kelvin, Electric current -
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
_p
108 m/s in a vacuum. ampere, Luminous intensity - candela,
(a) the length correct up to 1 mm Plane angle - radian and Solid angle -
(b) the depth of a beaker Q.207. A ____ is one billionth of a metre.
na
steradian.
(c) the length of a rod and diameter of a Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
sphere (a) parsec (b) micrometre Q.212. Identify the vector quantity
ap
(d) the internal diameter of a hollow (c) angstrom (d) nanometre among these listed physical quantities?
cylinder and pipes SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (1st Shift)
:@
Sol.207.(d) nanometre. (a) Energy (b) Mass
Sol.203.(d) A Vernier Caliper is a In the International System of Units, the (c) Density (d) Gravitational Intensity
precision instrument used for accurate prefix "nano" means one-billionth, or 10-9.
TG
measurements in various applications. Special length units for short and large Sol.212.(d) Gravitational Intensity - Unit
Key parts include- Depth Probe: Used for lengths are: 1 micrometre (µm) = 10–6 m; 𝐹𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒
(N/kg), Formula ( ), Dimensional
measuring the depth of objects or holes. 1 fermi (f) = 10–15 m; 1 angstrom ( Å) = 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
on
Main Scale: Provides measurements in 10–10 m; 1 astronomical unit (AU) 0 1 −2
Formula [𝑀 𝐿 𝑇 ]. Vector Quantity - The
millimeters. Vernier Scale: Offers (average distance of the Sun from the physical quantity that has both direction
ch
measurements with an accuracy of up to Earth) = 1.496 × 1011 m. as well as magnitude. Examples -
one decimal place in millimeters. Displacement, velocity, Acceleration,
Q.208. Which of the following is the
ar
Force. Scalar Quantity - The physical
Q.204. What is the unit of specific correct statement ?
quantity that has only magnitude, no
Se
resistance? SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
direction. Examples - Length,
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) The unit of power is joule/newton.
Temperature, Direction, Speed, mass.
(a) Farad (b) Ampere (b) Joule is the unit of work
(c) Coulomb (d) Ohm meter (c) The unit of energy is the watt. Q.213. The number of significant figures
(d) Joule/ second is also a unit of energy. in 0.05800 are :
Sol.204.(d) Ohm meter. SI Derived Units :
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift)
Electric charge- Coulomb (C), Inductance Sol.208.(b) Joule is the unit of work.
(a) two (b) four (c) six (d) five
- Henry (H), Electric current- ampere (A), Some other SI Units : Energy - Joule,
Capacitor - Farad (F) , Magnetic flux Power - Watt, Force or Weight - Newton, Sol.213.(b) Four. First rule is that all
density- Tesla (T), Magnetic flux - Weber Frequency - Hertz, Resistance - ohm. non-zero digits are considered as
(wb). significant. The second rule is that Zeros
Q.209. 1 kilowatt is equivalent to:
between non-zero digits are also
Q.205. In 1960, which isotope was used SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
considered as significant. Example -
to define the standard measure of length (a) 7200 KJ/h (b) 3600 KJ/h
4.5006 has five significant figures. The
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift) (c) 7200 Joule (d) 3600 calorie
third rule can be given as, Zeroes at the
(a) Krypton-88 (b) Krypton-90
Sol.209.(b) 3600 KJ/h. 1 kilowatt-hour is end or on the right side of the number are
(c) Krypton-86 (d) Krypton-83
defined as the energy consumed by a also significant. Example - 0.500 has
device of power 1 kilowatt in 1 hour. A three significant figures.
Sol.205.(c) Krypton-86. In 1960, the
International System of Units (SI) defined kilowatt is a unit of Electric Power. 1Kw
Q.214. Seismograph is used to measure :
the meter as 1.65076373 × 106 times the is 1000 watts. Watt = Joule/Second. 1
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift)
wavelength of light emitted by the Horsepower = 746 watts.
(a) rain precipitation
orange-red spectral line of a krypton-86 (b) underground water level
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
(c) earthquakes SSC CHSL Tier II (26/06/2023) Sol.221.(b) Spherometer. A Viscometer
(d) underground mineral content (a) 1 - b, 2 - d, 3 - c, 4 - a (viscosimeter) is an instrument used to
(b) 1 - a , 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - c measure the viscosity of a fluid. Vernier
Sol.214.(c) Earthquakes. Richter scale - (c) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a caliper is used for the measurement of
It is used to measure the magnitude of (d) 1- c, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - a linear dimensions. The Screw gauge
earthquakes. Instruments and Uses : measures the diameter or radius or
Lactometer (Purity of milk), Venturimeter Sol.217.(b) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c. The first thickness of a thin wire or the thickness
(Flow rate of liquid in a pipe), Altimeter sextant was produced by John Bird. of a thin metal sheet with utmost
(Altitude), Manometer (Pressure in Thermopile was developed by Leopoldo accuracy.
pipes). Nobili and Macedonio Melloni. A
pyrometer, invented by Josiah Q.222. What is the defined value of kB in
Q.215. A non-SI unit called ‘nit’ is the unit Wedgwood. . the given equation?
of which of the following photometric KB= PV/TN
quantities used to measure a multitude Q.218. The unit of magnetic intensity in SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
of light intensity? the CGS (centimetre - gram - second) −23 −23
(a) 1.38 x 10 J K-1 (b) 1.08 x 10 J K-1
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift) system is _______ .
−23 −23
(a) Luminous exposure (b) Luminance SSC CHSL Tier II (26/06/2023) (c) 1.68 x 10 J K-1 (d) 0.38 x 10 JK-1
(c) Luminosity (d) Luminous emittance (a) gauss (b) candela −23
(c) weber (d) oersted Sol.222.(a) 1. 38×10 J K–1. The
Sol.215.(b) Luminance. One lux is the Boltzmann constant (KB) is introduced by
amount of illumination provided when Sol.218.(d) Oersted. Oersted's Law Max Planck and named after Ludwig
one lumen is evenly distributed over an states that when a steady electric current Boltzmann. The value of Boltzmann
area of one square meter. The candela is passes through a wire, it creates a constant is mathematically expressed as
df
the unit of luminous intensity. magnetic field around it. 𝑅
k = , Where, k is Boltzmann’s
_p
𝑁𝐴
Q.216. What is an instrument that sends Q.219. Which among the following is a
constant. NA is the Avogadro number, R
pulses of electromagnetic energy into unit of measurement that describes the
na
is the gas constant. The Boltzmann
the atmosphere to detect rainfall, rate at which the universe is expanding?
constant is the physical constant that
determine its speed and intensity, and SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (1st Shift)
ap
relates a gas subatomic particle's
identify precipitation types such as rain, (a) Faraday constant
average kinetic energy to its temperature.
snow or hail? (b) Planck's constant
:@
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift) (c) Electric constant Q.223. Which of the following is the
(a) Barometer (d) Hubble constant physical quantity for the expression
(b) Spectral pyranometer arc/radius?
TG
(c) 2D sonic anemometer Sol.219.(d) Hubble constant.
SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Morning)
(d) Doppler weather radar The Faraday constant represents the
(a) Surface tension (b) Velocity
amount of electric charge carried by one
(c) Linear momentum (d) Plane angle
on
Sol.216.(d) Doppler weather radar mole, or Avogadro's number, of electrons.
(weather surveillance radar); Designed 1 Faraday = F = e × NA ⇒ 9.64853321 × Sol.223.(d) Plane angle. It is measured
and developed by - ISRO and 104 Coulomb per mole. The Planck in radians (2π radians in a circle) or
ch
Manufactured by - Bharat Electronics constant (ML2T-1) and Angular degrees (360 degrees to a circle). Solid
Limited (BEL), Bengaluru. Barometer - momentum (ML2T-1) have the same
ar
Angle is measured in steradian.
Measures atmospheric pressure; dimension.
Se
invented by Evangelista Torricelli (1643). Q.224. Of the units mentioned in the
Spectral Pyranometer- Measures solar Q.220. What is the commercial unit of options, which one is the largest as
irradiance on a planar surface; 2D Sonic electric energy? compared to the others?
Anemometer - Detects the horizontal SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift) SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Evening)
component of the wind speed and wind (a) Watt-hour (b) Watt per hour (a) Hecto (b) Deca (c) Tera (d) Giga
direction. (c) Kilowatt hour (d) Kilowatt per hour
Sol.224.(c) Tera is a unit prefix in the
Q.217. Match the points under List I with Sol.220.(c) Kilowatt hour (KWh). metric system denoting multiplication by
those under List II. 1 kilowatt hour = 3.6 x 106 joules. one trillion, or 1012. Hecto means
Electrical Energy : {SI unit: Joule} The hundred or 102. Deca means 10. Giga
List I List II
energy derived from the flow of electric means 109.
(Instrument) (Use)
charge is called electrical energy.
1. Sextant a. Measures the angle
Q.225. Electron-volt is a unit of ______.
between two visible Q.221. Which measuring instrument SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Morning)
objects consists of a metal triangular frame (a) current (b) energy
2. Udometer b. Measures small supported on three legs, used to (c) power (d) potential difference
quantities of radiant measure the radius of curvature of an
heat object such as lenses and curved mirrors Sol.225.(b) Energy. It is commonly used
3. Thermopile c. Measures the which are spherical in shape? in atomic and nuclear physics. One
temperature of a SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (4th Shift) electron volt is equal to 1.602 × 10-12 erg,
surface (a) Viscometer (b) Spherometer or 1.602 × 10-19 joule. The SI unit of
4. Pyrometer d. Measures the amount (c) Vernier Caliper (d) Screw gauge Current is ‘ampere’, Power is ‘watt’ and
of rainfall Potential difference is ‘volt’.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
Q.226. "Svedberg Unit” is a unit of _____? famous mass - energy equivalence (b) Bernoulli's equation
SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Morning) relation. This equation (E = mc2) is part (c) Helmholtz equation
(a) Concentration (b) Size of his theory of Special Relativity and (d) Dirac equation
(c) Density (d) Time states that energy (E) is equal to mass
(m) multiplied by the square of the speed Sol.235.(d) Dirac Equation : It was
Sol.226.(d) Time. The Svedberg unit is a of light (c). It illustrates the profound formulated by physicist Paul Dirac, it
measurement of the sedimentation rate relationship between matter and energy, describes the behavior of relativistic
of a particle when it is centrifuged. It is showing that mass can be converted into electrons in quantum mechanics.
represented by the symbol S. It is energy and vice versa.
actually a measure of time and is defined Q.236. What is the name of the
as exactly 10−13 seconds. Q.232. What was the name of the wind thermionic electron tube used to
measuring instrument invented for the oscillate and amplify microwave
Q.227. In terms of SI prefixes 10−15 is first time in 1450? frequency signals?
called: SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift)
SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Afternoon) (a) Transmissometer (a) Neutrino (b) Beam tetrodes
(a) Yocto (b) Zepto (c) Atto (d) Femto (b) Dropsonde (c) Klystron (d) Thyratron
Sol.227.(d) Femto. The other SI prefixes (c) Anemometer Sol.236.(c) Klystron - Developed by
are - Zepto: 10-21, Atto: 10-18, Yocto : 10-24, (d) Ceiling Projector brothers Russell and Sigurd Varian. It is
Pico: 10-12. based on the principle of velocity
Sol.232.(c) Anemometer.
modulation.
Q.228. ‘mho’ is the unit of ______ of a It is an instrument that measures wind
substance. speed and wind pressure. A Q.237. Which of the following is the right
transmissometer measures the
df
SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Morning) relationship between geometric length
(a) conductance (b) resistivity attenuation of light as it passes through (Lg) and magnetic length (Lm) ?
_p
(c) resistance (d) conductivity a fluid, such as water or the atmosphere. SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (1st shift)
6
na
Sol.228.(a) Conductance. The SI unit of Q.233. Which of the following devices is (a) Lm = Lg (b) Lm = Lg
5
resistance is ohm. Resistance and used to accelerate charged particles to
5
(c) Lm = 2RY (d) Lm = Lg
ap
conductance are inverse of each other high velocities ? 6
1 SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift)
(mho = ). (a) cosmotron (b) cyclotron
:@
𝑜ℎ𝑚 5
Sol.237.(d) 𝐿𝑚 = 𝐿 . Magnetic Length
(c) copatron (d) cryotron 6 𝑔
Q.229. One calorie of heat energy is (𝐿𝑚) - The Magnetic length is the
equivalent to approximately ______ joules Sol.233.(b) Cyclotron. It is a device
TG
distance between the two poles of the
of mechanical Energy. invented by E.O. Lawrence in 1929, that is
magnet. Geometric length ( 𝐿𝑔) - It is the
SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Morning) used for accelerating charged particles
(a) 0.24 (b) 0.48 (c) 4.2 (d) 2.4 (such as protons, deutron or α–particles) actual length of the magnet. Magnetic
on
to high velocities. permeability (μ) is defined as the ratio of
Sol.229.(c) 4.2 joules. 1 calorie is magnetic induction (B) to the strength of
defined as the amount of heat required at Q.234. Which of the following is the
ch
magnetising field (H). SI unit of magnetic
1 standard atmospheric pressure to raise correct formula for moment of inertia? permeability - Henries per meter (H/m).
the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 ° SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
ar
centigrade. (a) I = m/ r2 (b) I = 2mr Q.238. The radius of curvature of a
Se
(c) I = mr2 (d) I = rm2 charged particle's passage in a
Q.230. 30˚Celcius = ______ Kelvin homogeneous magnetic field is
(approximately). Sol.234.(c) I = mr2. Where; I = moment of proportional to:
SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Morning) inertia, m = point mass, r = axis of SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift)
(a) 303 (b) –243 (c) 130 (d) –30 rotation. Moment of inertia - It is a (a) energy of particle
measure of an object's resistance to (b) charge of particle
Sol.230.(a) 303. changes in its rotation rate. It is a (c) momentum of particle
0˚Celsius = 273.15°Kelvin, So 30˚Celsius property that depends on both the mass (d) strength of the field
= (273.15°+ 30˚) Kelvin = 303.15 Kelvin ≅ distribution of the object and the axis of
303 Kelvin. rotation. The moment of inertia is Sol.238.(c) Momentum of Particles.
analogous to mass in linear motion i.e When a moving charged particle enters a
Miscellaneous the larger the moment of inertia, the magnetic field then the path followed by
more torque is required to produce a the charged particle is circular if the
Q.231. Who propounded the famous given angular acceleration. Unit - kg·m², magnetic field is perpendicular to the
equation E = mc2 in 1905? Dimension - [M L2 T0]. velocity of the particle. More the radius
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 of the path followed by the particle, the
Q.235. In 1928, which equation was lesser will be the curvature, and the
(a) Ernest Rutherford
derived and combines quantum theory lesser the radius, the more will be
(b) Isaac Newton
and special relativity to describe the curvature. The radius of the circular path
(c) Albert Einstein
behaviour of an electron moving at a 𝑚𝑣
(d) Werner Heisenberg in the magnetic field is given by : r =
relativistic speed? 𝑞𝐵
Sol.231.(c) Albert Einstein gave the SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) (where r = radius, m = mass, v = velocity,
(a) Lorentz equation
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Physics
B = strength of the magnetic field, q = (photovoltaic cell) is an electronic device SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Afternoon)
charge on the particle). that converts the energy of light directly (a) Brushing teeth
into electricity by the photovoltaic effect. (b) Making tea
Q.239. Which of the following claims Radio is the technology of signaling and (c) Ringing of an alarm clock
concerning the magnetic lines of force communicating using radio waves (d) Reading newspaper
inside a bar magnet is true? (frequency between 3 Hz and 3,000
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift) GHz). Sol.247.(c) Ringing of the alarm clock.
(a) Do not exist Quantum mechanics deals with the
(b) From S-pole to N-pole of the magnet Q.243. Air _____ on heating and ________ behavior of matter and light on a
(c) Depends on the cross-sectional area on cooling. subatomic and atomic level. Examples -
of the bar magnet SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon) lasers, electron microscopes, magnetic
(d) From N-pole to S-pole of the magnet (a) expands, contracts resonance imaging (MRI) devices and
(b) contracts, stabilizes the components used in computing
Sol.239.(b) Magnetic field lines are (c) expands, expands hardware.
imaginary lines around the magnet. The (d) contracts, expands
magnitude of a field is indicated by its Q.248. Which of the following cells is
line’s density. Near the South and North Sol.243.(a) Expands, contracts. Heating NOT used in watches ?
Pole of a magnet, the magnetic field is air causes the air molecules to gain SSC CHSL 10/08/2021 (Evening)
stronger and will get weaker when it thermal energy, move faster, and spread (a) Silver oxide cell (b) Mercury cell
moves away from the poles. Properties - out, resulting in the expansion of air and (c) Zinc air cell (d) Lead acid cell
They never intersect each other. It takes a decrease in air density. Cooling air
the least resistant path between the causes the air molecules to lose thermal Sol.248.(d) Lead-acid cell. It is a type of
opposite magnetic poles. The length of energy, slow down, and come closer rechargeable battery first invented in
df
together, leading to the contraction of air 1859 by French physicist Gaston Plante.
magnetic field lines will be the same.
_p
The magnetic field is a vector and an increase in air density Q.249. In the Millikan’s Oil Drop
quantity because it has both Q.244. What is the starting voltage of an experiment, the oil drop is subjected to
na
magnitude and direction. AA battery used for home gadgets such such forces whose nature does NOT fall
as remote controls, small toys, and under the category of:
ap
Q.240. Which equation was verified by SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Morning)
American scientists Nichols and Hull in wireless kitchen appliances?
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Afternoon) (a) electrostatic (b) viscous
:@
1903 by measuring the radiation (c) gravitational (d) magnetostatic
pressure of visible light? (a) 2.0 V (b) 1.5 V (c) 3.0 V (d) 2.5 V
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift) Sol.249.(d) Magnetostatic. Millikan's oil
Sol.244.(b) 1.5V.
TG
(a) Pr = C/N (b) P = L/M drop experiment measured the charge of
(c) P = F/A (d) P = U/C Q.245. ‘(gnomon)’ is a part of the ______. an electron. Electrically charged oil
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Morning) droplets entered the electric field and
Sol.240.(d) P = U/C. Radiation pressure -
on
(a) Solar Clock (b) Bolometer were balanced between two plates by
The mechanical pressure that is applied altering the field.
(c) Telescope (d) Transformer
on any surface due to the exchange of
ch
momentum between the electromagnetic Sol.245.(a) Solar Clock. The gnomon is Q.250. A set of equations involving
field and the object. the part of a sundial that casts the electric and magnetic fields, and their
ar
shadow, and it is probably also the sources, the charge and current densities
Q.241. The given equation describes the are known as ______ equations.
world's oldest astronomical instrument.
Se
2
_________ relation. s = u t +1/2 a 𝑡 Bolometer, instrument for measuring SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Morning) radiation by means of the rise in (a) Einstein’s (b) Newton’s
(a) position-time (b) distance-time temperature of a blackened metal strip in (c) Maxwell’s (d) Bhor’s
(c) position-velocity (d) velocity-time one of the arms of a resistance bridge.
Sol.250.(c) Maxwell's. Maxwell first used
Sol.241.(a) Position-time. There are the equations to propose that light is an
Q.246. ______ is used to measure the
three equations of motion (given by Issac electromagnetic phenomenon. Newton’s
pressure inside the eyes of a person.
Newton) that can be used to derive equation is related to kinematics and
SSC CGL 24/08/2021(Afternoon)
components such as displacement(s), motion Einstein’s equation is related to
(a) Tonometer (b) Machmeter
velocity (initial and final), time(t), and the Theory of relativity. Bohr's equation is
(c) Odometer (d) Viscometer
acceleration(a). They are First: v = u + at related to atomic physics.
(velocity-time), Second: s = ut + ½ at² Sol.246.(a) Tonometer. A viscometer is
Q.251. Which of the following elements
(position-time), Third: v2 = u2 + 2as used to measure the viscosity of fluids.
occurs most abundantly in our universe?
(position-velocity). An odometer is an instrument used to
SSC CHSL 14/10/2020 (Afternoon)
measure the distance traveled by a
Q.242. Identify an application in which (a) Nitrogen (b) Oxygen
vehicle like a bicycle or a car. A
solar cells are not used. (c) Hydrogen (d) Silicon
Machmeter is a flight instrument that
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift)
gives a ratio of airspeed and speed of Sol.251.(c) Hydrogen being the simplest
(a) Radio (b) Space probes
sound. element is the most abundant element in
(c) Lift system (d) Artificial satellites
the universe.
Q.247. Which everyday morning ritual is
Sol.242.(c) Lift system. A solar cell
part of quantum mechanics?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
experiment was performed by Robert A. Q.7. How many electrons does a
Chemistry Millikan and Harvey Fletcher in 1909. hydrogen molecule have in its K shell?
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Structure of Atom Q.4. Which of the following statements (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 3
are correct postulates of Dalton’s atomic
Q.1. Identify the element with an theory? Sol.7.(b) 2. A hydrogen molecule (H2)
electronic configuration 2,8,1 from A. All matter is made up of atoms. These consists of two hydrogen atoms, each
among the following options. atoms participate in chemical reactions. with one electron. Since hydrogen has
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Morning) B. Atoms might be created or destroyed only one electron in its K shell, a
(a) Chlorine (b) Hydrogen during a chemical reaction. hydrogen molecule will have two
(c) Magnesium (d) Sodium C. Atoms of different elements vary in electrons in total in the K shell, one from
mass and chemical properties. each atom.
Sol.1.(d) Sodium (Na), with an atomic
D. Compounds are combination of atoms
number of 11, is a soft, silvery-white, Q.8. The signs of charges of electron,
in the ratio of whole or fractional
highly reactive metal. It belongs to the proton and neutron are_____, respectively.
numbers.
alkali metal group. Chlorine (Cl): Atomic SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
E. A compound will always have constant
number 17; configuration 2,8,7. Hydrogen (a) negative, neutral and positive,
relative number and kind of atoms.
(H): Atomic number 1; configuration 1. (b) negative, positive and neutral,
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
Magnesium (Mg): Atomic number 12; (c) neutral, positive and negative,
(a) A, B, D (b) B, C, D (c) A, C, E (d) B, D, E
configuration 2 ,8, 2. (d) positive, negative and neutral,
Sol.4.(c) A, C, E. Dalton's atomic theory,
Q.2. The number of atoms in exactly 12 g Sol.8.(b) negative, positive and neutral.
proposed by John Dalton, states that all
of carbon-12 is known as: Protons and neutrons are collectively
matter is composed of extremely small
df
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 called nucleons. For an atom's electronic
particles called atoms. In chemical
(a) Rydberg constant stability, the number of electrons must
_p
reactions, atoms are combined,
(b) Planck’s constant equal the number of protons, as protons
separated, or rearranged. Compounds
(c) Faraday’s constant have a +1 charge and electrons a –1
na
are combinations of atoms in fixed,
(d) Avogadro’s constant charge. Neutrons, in contrast, are neutral
whole-number ratios, not fractional
and carry no charge.
ap
Sol.2.(d) Avogadro’s constant. The numbers.
number of particles (atoms, molecules or Q.9. What is the number of protons
Q.5. The space-filling model emphasises
:@
ions) present in one mole of any present in beryllium?
substance is fixed, with a value of 6.022 the relative size of each atom based on
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
× 1023. This number is called the its _______.
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 3
SSC MTS 04/11/2024 (1st Shift)
TG
Avogadro Constant or Avogadro Number,
named in honour of the Italian scientist, (a) covalent radius Sol.9.(a) 4. Beryllium (Be) is one of the
Amedeo Avogadro. Rydberg formula - It (b) ionic radius lightest metals and has one of the
(c) fixed radius for all atoms highest melting points among the light
on
is used to describe the wavelengths of
spectral lines and was formulated by the (d) van der Waals radius metals. Louis Nicolas Vauquelin
Swedish physicist Johannes Rydberg. discovered beryllium in the oxide form in
Sol.5.(d) van der Waals radius. It
ch
Planck's constant - It is the physical both beryl and emeralds in 1798.
represents the overall size of the atom
constant that relates the energy carried Beryllium : Neutrons (5), Electrons (4),
which includes its valence shell in a
ar
by a single photon to its corresponding Atomic Number (4), Mass Number (9),
nonbonded situation. Further, the van der
Electronic configuration (1s22s2).
Se
frequency. Faraday’s constant - It is Waals radius is half of the distance
defined as the magnitude of the electric between two similar atoms in separate Q.10. Which is the weakest
charge carried by one mole of electrons. molecules in a solid. The contribution intermolecular force, considered as the
from each atom is called the covalent Van der Waals force, often found in
Q.3. JJ Thomson is known for
radius of that atom. ionic radius is the halogens, noble gases and other
developing which model in 1898?
distance between the nucleus of an ion non-polar molecules?
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift)
and the outermost shell of the ion. Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
(a) Gold foil model
(a) London dispersion forces
(b) Plum pudding model Q.6. Ernest Rutherford used about ______ (b) Ion-dipole forces
(c) Double-slit model thick gold foil for alpha scattering (c) Dipole-induced dipole forces
(d) Oil drop model experiments. (d) Dipole - dipole forces
Sol.3.(b) Plum pudding model. SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) 500 atoms (b) 1000 atoms Sol.10.(a) London dispersion forces.
According to this model, the atom was
(c) 900 atoms (d) 700 atoms These forces are attractive and their
thought to consist of a positively charged
energy is inversely proportional to the
sphere with negatively charged electrons Sol.6.(b) 1000 atoms. Ernest Rutherford sixth power of the distance between the
embedded in it, similar to plums in a studied the atom by projecting two particles. These forces are
pudding. This model was later replaced alpha-particles on a thin gold foil. He significant only at short distances (~500
by Rutherford's nuclear model of the discovered that the atom consists mostly pm) and depend on the polarizability of
atom. The gold foil model was proposed of empty space and a small, dense, the particle.
by Ernest Rutherford in 1911. The positively charged nucleus at the center.
double-slit experiment conducted by This discovery improved the Q.11. In ethylene (C2H4), hybridisation of
Thomas Young in 1801. The oil drop understanding of atomic structure. carbon atoms is:
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2) nucleus. Azimuthal (l) - It is defined as Molar mass of a substance is the mass
(a) sp2 (b) sp3d (c) sp (d) sp3 the determination of the shape of an (in grams) of one mole of the compound.
orbital. Magnetic (m) - The subshell's
Sol.11.(a) sp2. In this hybridization, one overall number of orbitals and their Q.19. What is the maximum number of
's' and two 'p' orbitals combine to form orientation. Spin (s) - The values of n, l, electrons that the third orbit or M-shell
three new sp² hybrid orbitals, all with the and ml have no bearing on the electron. can have?
same shape and energy. Hybridization The 4s subshell contains 1 orbital and SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
refers to the process of merging two can hold up to 2 electrons. The 4p (a) 32 (b) 8 (c) 18 (d) 2
atomic orbitals to create new hybridized subshell contains 3 orbitals and can hold
orbitals. Sol.19.(c) 18 . The maximum number of
up to 6 electrons. The 4d subshell electrons accommodated in a shell
Q.12. Identify whether the given contains 5 orbitals and can hold up to 10 based on principal quantum number (n).
statements about ionisation energy are electrons.The 4f subshell has 7 orbitals It is represented by the formula 2n2.
correct or incorrect. and can hold up to 14 electrons. K shell, n = 1, Max Electron = 2 × 12 = 2.
Statement A: The ionisation energy of an Q.15. The correct electronic L shell, n = 2, Max Electron = 2 × 22 = 8.
atom is the amount of energy that is configuration of Cu is : M shell, n = 3, Max Electron = 2 × 32 = 18.
required to remove an electron from a SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (1st shift) N shell, n = 4, Max Electron = 2 × 42 = 32.
mole of atoms in the gas phase. (a) [Ar]3d94s2 (b) [Kr]3d94s2
Statement B : The ionisation energy Q.20. Which of the following statements
10 1
(c) [Kr]3d 4s (d) [Ar]3d104s1 is NOT correct regarding Rutherford's
increases from top to bottom in groups
and decreases from left to right across a Sol.15.(d) [Ar]3d104s1. Copper (Cu) - nuclear model of an atom?
period. Atomic number (29), Electronic SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) configuration - 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹ (a) The size of the nucleus is very large
df
(a) Only Statement B is correct 3d10 or [Ar]3d104s1. as compared to the size of the atom.
(b) The electrons revolve around the
_p
(b) Only Statement A is correct
(c) Both Statements A and B are correct Q.16. What does it mean when an object nucleus in circular paths.
has a positive charge ? (c) There is a positively charged centre in
na
(d) Both Statements A and B are
incorrect SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Morning) an atom called the nucleus.
(a) It has more electrons than protons (d) Nearly all the mass of an atom
ap
Sol.12.(b) Only Statement A is correct. (b) It has more protons than electrons resides in the nucleus.
The ionization energy decreases from (c) It has more neutrons than electrons
:@
top to bottom in groups, and increases (d) It has more neutrons than protons Sol.20.(a) According to Rutherford’s
from left to right across a period. Thus, nuclear model of an atom, nucleus is
helium has the largest ionization energy, Sol.16.(b) An electron is a negatively very small in size as compared to the
TG
while Caesium has the lowest. charged particle and protons are size of the atom. Rutherford explained
positively charged particles. the revolving of electrons around the
Q.13. In which year did Carl Anderson nucleus, however, he did not mention
on
discover a positively charged particle Q.17. Which of the following pairs of how the electrons were placed inside,
called "positron' whose mass appears to 'number - composition' is correct? which ended up making Rutherford’s
I. Atomic number - number of protons
ch
be equal to the mass of an electron? model an incomplete model of the atom.
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift) II. Mass number - Sum of number of
neutrons and protons Q.21. Which of the following pairs of
ar
(a) 1912 (b) 1932 (c) 1922 (d) 1942
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (4th Shift) 'elements - valency' is correct?
Se
Sol.13.(b) 1932. Electron - J.J. Thomson (a) Only I (b) Neither I nor II I. Boron - 2 II. Fluorine - 3
(1897). Proton - E. Rutherford. Neutron - (c) Both I and II (d) Only II SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (4th Shift)
James Chadwick (1932). (a) Neither I nor II (b) Both I and II
Sol.17.(c) Both I and II. As atomic (c) Only II (d) Only I
Q.14. Which are the four quantum number increases, subsequently mass
numbers for an electron present in 4f number also increases. Sol.21.(a) Neither I nor II. Valency -
orbital ? Combining power of an element. Valency
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift) Q.18. Which of the following is the of some elements : Aluminium (+3), Boron
1 correct representation of number of (+3), fluorine (-1).
(a) n = 4, 𝑙 = 3, m = +1, s = + atoms?
2
1 SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (4th Shift) Q.22. Which theory discusses the
(b) n = 3, 𝑙 = 2, m = - 2, s = + 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 relationship between ligand bonding and
2
(a) ( ) × 𝐴𝑣𝑜𝑔𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑜 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟
1 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 degradation of d orbitals in metal
(c) n = 4, 𝑙 = 4, m = - 4, s = - 𝐴𝑣𝑜𝑔𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑜 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 complexes and the geometry of metal
2
(b) ( ) × 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
1 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 complexes and the splitting of d orbitals?
(d) n = 4, 𝑙 = 3, m = +4, s = + 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
2
(c) ( ) × 𝐴𝑣𝑜𝑔𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑜 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (4th Shift)
𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 (a) Crystal field theory (CFT)
1 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
Sol.14.(a) n = 4, l = 3, m = + 1, s = + . (d) ( ) × 𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 (b) Ligand field theory (LFT)
2 𝐴𝑣𝑜𝑔𝑎𝑑𝑟𝑜 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟
(c) Valence bond theory (VBT)
There are four quantum numbers:
𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 (d) Molecular orbital theory (MOT)
Principal (n) - It refers to the electron Sol.18.(a) ( ) × Avogadro
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠
shell with the most electrons, giving the Sol.22.(a) Crystal field theory: (1929,
electron's likely distance from the number . Avogadro number: 6.022 × 10²³.
developed by physicist Hans Bethe)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
describes the breaking of orbital SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Calx (b) Calum (c) Coleus (d) Calcio
degeneracy in transition metal (a) Fluorine (b) Neon
complexes due to the presence of (c) Argon (d) Chlorine Sol.32.(a) Calx (calcium hydroxide).
ligands. Formula - Ca(OH)2. It is used in industrial
Sol.27.(c) Argon (Ag): a chemical settings, such as sewage treatment,
Q.23. What is the atomicity of element with atomic number 18. It is a paper production, construction, and food
Phosphorus? noble gas, meaning it is inert and does processing. Calum (calcium carbonate):
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening) not react with other substances. Formula - CaCO3.
(a) Poly-atomic (b) Monoatomic
(c) Diatomic (d) Tetra-atomic Q.28. What is the name of the seventh Q.33. Which element of Group 17 has
most abundant metal in the earth's crust, two isotopes of masses 35 and 37 amu
Sol.23.(d) Tetra-atomic. Atomicity is the which is derived from the medieval Latin with average abundance of 75.77% and
total number of atoms present in a word 'Kalium' ? 24.23%, respectively?
molecule. Polyatomic (composed of SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift)
three or more atoms). Phosphorus was (a) Aluminium (b) Magnesium (a) Chlorine (b) lodine
first made by Hennig Brandt in 1669. (c) Calcium (d) Potassium (c) Fluorine (d) Astatine
Q.24. Which formula is used to represent Sol.28.(d) Potassium. It makes up 2.4% Sol.33.(a) Chlorine. Element of Group 17
the three-dimensional structures of by mass of the Earth crust. Aluminium is : The halogens are located on the left of
molecules using a two-dimensional the most abundant metal and Oxygen is the noble gases on the periodic table.
surface like a sheet of paper or a the most abundant non-metal found in These five toxic, non-metallic elements
computer screen ? the earth's crust. Eight most abundant make up Group 17 of the periodic table
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening) elements in the Earth's crust are Oxygen and consist of : fluorine (9, F), chlorine
df
(a) Bond-line formula (O), Silicon (Si), Aluminium (Al), Calcium (17, Cl), bromine (35, Br), iodine (53, I),
(b) Lewis structure formula (Ca), Iron (Fe), Magnesium (Mg), Sodium and astatine (85, At).
_p
(c) Dash-wedge formula (Na), and Potassium (K).
(d) Condensed structural formula Q.34. Which among the following alloys
na
Q.29. An image of which of the following is a combination of gold and silver?
Sol.24.(c) Dash-wedge formula. Bond -
elements is shown by the map of Cyprus SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Evening)
ap
line formula is used for every bond
from which the element got its name ? (a) Bronze (b) Constantan
represented as a line in a zigzag manner.
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (c) Solder (d) Electrum
:@
(a) Silver (b) Cobalt
Metals, Non-metals and Alloys (c) Copper (d) Sulphur Sol.34.(d) Electrum. Some other alloys:
Steel (Carbon and Iron). Stainless steel -
TG
Q.25. What is the product formed when Sol.29.(c) Copper (Cu, Atomic no 29). It (Iron with Chromium and Nickel). German
zinc and sulphuric acid react? is a good conductor of heat and silver - (copper, zinc and nickel). Rose
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift) electricity. It is in group 11, period 4 and Metal - (Bismuth, Lead and Tin). Gun
on
(a) Zinc sulphate (b) Zinc hydroxide block ‘d’ of the periodic table. It was the Metal - (Cu + Sn + Zn + Pb). Dutch metal-
(c) Zinc sulphide (d) Zinc oxide first metal used by man on earth. (Cu and Zn). Constantan (Eureka) - Alloy
of 55% Copper and 45% Nickel. Solder - It
ch
Sol.25.(a) Zinc sulphate. Zinc reacts with Q.30. Which radioactive isotope has a is made up of Tin and Lead.
dilute Sulphuric acid to form Zinc half-life of 5770 years, which is
ar
sulphate and Hydrogen gas is evolved commonly used to estimate the age of Q.35. Which of the following is a non -
from the reaction. This is a single organic materials such as paper and metal that can exist in different form?
Se
displacement reaction of a non-metal by parchment ? SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning)
a metal. Both metals and nonmetals take SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (1st shift) (a) Mercury (b) Carbon
part in displacement reactions. Zn (s) + (a) 9C (b)12C (c) 14C (d) 17C (c) Lithium (d) Potassium
H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g).
Sol.30.(c) 14C - It is an unstable and Sol.35.(b) Carbon (C) . Atomic number -
Q.26. Which gas is evolved when iron weakly radioactive isotope of carbon. 6. Belongs to the 14th group. It is a
and water react ? Three Natural isotopes of carbon : 12C, tetravalent which makes a chemical
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) 13
C and 14C. bond with four electrons. Each form of
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen carbon is called an allotrope.
(c) Ammonia (d) Methane Q.31. Which metal ion released from the
tannery industry causes acute water Q.36. What is the characteristic of
Sol.26.(a) Hydrogen. When iron (Fe) pollution? isotopes ?
reacts with water (H2O), the reaction SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift) SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Afternoon)
produces hydrogen gas (H2). This is an (a) Mg (b) As (c) Cr (d) Zn (a) Same neutron and same proton
example of a metal- water reaction. (b) Same atomic number and different
Reaction: Fe (iron) + 2H2O (water) → Sol.31.(c) Chromium (Cr). Tannery mass number
Fe(OH)2 (ferrous hydroxide) + H2 Wastewaters: It contains Hairs, proteins, (c) Same atomic number and same mass
(hydrogen gas). acids, alkalis, chromium salts, sulphides, number
chlorides, tannins, solvents, dyes. (d) Same neutron and different proton
Q.27. Which of the following gases plays
an important role in welding titanium, Q.32. From which Latin word is the S Sol.36.(b) Isotopes – Atoms of the same
aluminium, stainless steel, and block element calcium derived ? element that have the same atomic
magnesium ? SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (3rd shift) number, but different mass numbers. For
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
example, the hydrogen atom has three Sol.40.(b) Aqua regia is a mixture of in each reaction, hydrogen gas is given
atomic isotopes, namely protium (11H), hydrochloric acid and nitric acid present off and the metal hydroxide is produced.
deuterium (21H or D) and tritium (31H or in the ratio 3:1.
T). The atomic number of each is 1, but Q.45. Identify the INCORRECT pair with
the mass numbers are 1, 2 and 3 Q.41. Which of the following statements respect to the substances and their
respectively. Isodiaphers - They are is NOT correct regarding the alkali specific heat capacity (J𝑘𝑔 𝐾 ) at
−1 −1
atoms of different elements that have metals ? room temperature and atmospheric
the same difference between the number SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) pressure.
of protons and the number of neutrons. (a) All the alkali metals are silvery white, SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Afternoon)
Example: Carbon-12 and Nitrogen-14. soft and light metals. (a) Aluminium – 900.0
(b) The ionization enthalpies of the alkali (b) Water – 1200
Q.37. Which of the following metals is metals are considerably low and (c) Carbon – 506.5
always a component in an amalgam? decrease down the group from. (d) Tungsten – 134.4
SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Morning) (c) Group 1 metals are known as alkali
(a) Strontium (b) Mercury metals. Sol.45.(b) Water has a specific heat
(c) Zinc (d) Aluminium (d) All the alkali metals have two valence capacity of 4186 Jkg-1K-1. Specific heat
electrons. of some substance - Iron/Steel - 450,
Sol.37.(b) Mercury. Amalgam is an alloy
Copper - 390, Silver - 230, Mercury - 140,
of mercury with one or more metals. The Sol.41.(d) Alkali metals have one Platinum - 130, Hydrogen - 14000, Air -
most common amalgam is dental electron in their valence shell. Group 1A 718, Ice - 2100, Sea Water - 3900 etc.
amalgam, which is used to fill cavities in of the periodic table are the alkali metals:
teeth. Dental amalgam is a mixture of Hydrogen (H, 1), Lithium (Li, 3), Sodium Q.46. The particles of which metal on
mercury, silver, tin, and copper. (Na, 11), Potassium (K , 19), Rubidium heating to the boiling point of 357°C go
df
(Rb, 37), Cesium (Cs, 55), and Francium from liquid state to gas state?
Q.38. Oxides of ____ and ______ dissolve
_p
(Fr , 87). Lithium was discovered in 1817, SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Afternoon)
in rain water and form acids which are
taking its name from the Greek word for (a) Mercury (b) Copper
called acid rain.
na
"stone". (c) Bronze (d) Gallium
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) phosphorous, sulphur Q.42. Choose the most reactive metal Sol.46.(a) Mercury (Hg, Atomic
ap
(b) sulphur, nitrogen from the options given below. Number-80) is also a good conductor of
(c) carbon dioxide, methane SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Evening) electricity, so it is a useful component of
:@
(d) calcium, magnesium (a) Copper (b) Zinc (c) Sodium (d) Iron electrical switches. Mercury is also used
Sol.38.(b) Sulphur, nitrogen. Acid Rain - in dental fillings, paints, soaps, batteries,
Sol.42.(c) Sodium. Reactive metals in and fluorescent lighting. It is commonly
TG
When the pH of the rain water drops
order: Potassium (Most reactive metal), known as quicksilver and was formerly
below 5.6, it is called acid rain. Acid rain
Sodium, Barium, Calcium, Magnesium, named hydrargyrum.
damages buildings and other structures
Aluminium, Zinc, Iron, Nickel, Tin, Lead,
on
made of stone or metal. The main reason Q.47. Which metal sulphate, composed
Hydrogen, Copper, Mercury, Silver, Gold,
for this is air pollution caused by the of potassium, aluminium, and sulphate
Platinum (Least Reactive).
burning of fossil fuels. The Taj Mahal has ions in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2, plays a role as a
ch
been affected by acid rain. Q.43. Which of the following statements flame retardant, a mordant and an
is INCORRECT ?
ar
Q.39. Which of the following statements astringent?
SSC MTS 15/07/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Evening)
is/are NOT correct ?
Se
(a) Metals react with oxygen to form (a) Gypsum (b) Potash alum
I. The property of metals by which they
basic oxides. (c) Epsom salts (d) Celestite
can be beaten into thin sheets is called
(b) Non-metals are malleable
malleability. Sol.47.(b) Potash alum (Potassium
(c) Non-metals do not produce any sound
II. The property of metal by which it can Aluminium sulphate). The chemical
(d) Metals have low ionisation enthalpy
being drawn into wires is called ductility. formula of potash alum is
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (4th Shift) Sol.43.(b) Physical Properties of Non K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O. It is also
(a) Neither I nor II (b) Both I and II metals: Poor conductors of electricity commonly referred to as ‘fitkari.’
(c) Only I (d) Only II and heat, Non-malleable nor ductile, Extracted from a mineral called alunite. It
Sol.39.(a) Neither I nor II. Malleability - Brittle solids, May be solids, liquids, or is used for the purification of impure
The property of metals to be beaten into gases at room temperature, These are water, stops bleeding, and is mordant for
thin sheets. Examples - Copper, silver. not sonorous, and Transparent. the dyeing industry, leather tanning,
Ductility - The property of metal to be fireproof textiles, and baking powder.
Q.44. Which of the following metals
drawn into wires. Examples - Gold, silver reacts violently with cold water ? Q.48. Ozone is an allotrope of ______.
and copper. Density and melting point of SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Morning)
metals is high. (a) Magnesium (b) Aluminium (a) carbon dioxide (b) oxygen
Q.40. Which of the following liquids can (c) Zinc (d) Potassium (c) hydrogen (d) nitrogen
dissolve noble metals such as gold and Sol.44.(d) Potassium and sodium react Sol.48.(b) Oxygen. Ozone (O3) is a
platinum? violently with cold water, where sodium triatomic allotrope of oxygen. Ozone is a
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) reacts slightly stronger than Potassium.
(a) Formic acid (b) Aqua regia powerful oxidant (far more so than
The reaction is exothermic in nature and dioxygen) and has many industrial and
(c) Acetic acid (d) Chloroform
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
consumer applications related to Acid , Bases and Salt SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (1st Shift)
oxidation. (a) Sodium Bisulphite
Q.54. The pH value of the curd is: (b) Sodium Thiosulphate
Q.49. Which of the following is a property (c) Sodium Chromate
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024
of silicon dioxide? (d) Sodium Bicarbonate
(a) higher than 7
SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Evening)
(b) lower than the pH value of milk Sol.57.(d) Sodium Bicarbonate
(a) It conducts electricity.
(c) higher than the pH value of milk (NaHCO3) is used as a pH buffering
(b) It is soft.
(d) nearly 7 agent, an electrolyte replenisher,
(c) It is soluble in water.
(d) It has a high melting point. systemic alkalizer and in topical
Sol.54.(b) lower than the pH value of
cleansing solutions. Sodium Bisulphite
milk. The pH value of curd is between 4.5
Sol.49.(d) Silicon dioxide (SiO2) has a (NaHSO3) appears as white crystals or
and 5.5, meaning it is more acidic than
high melting point. It has melting and crystalline powder used in food
fresh milk which has a pH of around 6.
boiling points as 1713º C and 2950º C, processing, photography.
When milk turns into curd, bacteria called
respectively. The density is about 2.648
Lactobacillus convert the sugar in milk Q.58. Which of the following is the most
g/cm3.
(lactose) into lactic acid, causing the acidic ?
Q.50. Which of the following minerals milk proteins to coagulate and forming SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
has kieserite as its ore ? curd. The pH levels of some common (a) HCOOH (b) C2H5COOH
SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Morning) substances: Baking soda (9), Borax (9.2), (c) C3H7COOH (d) CH3COOH
(a) Silver (b) Magnesium Lime water (12.4), Lemon juice (about
(c) Potassium (d) Iron 2.2), Gastric juice (about 1.2), Pure water Sol.58.(a) HCOOH (Formic acid). The
(7), Blood (7.4), Milk of magnesia (10), closer the pH is to 0, the stronger the
df
Sol.50.(b) Magnesium. Kieserite is a Sodium hydroxide solution (about 14). acid. According to the Arrhenius theory,
magnesium sulphate mineral. It is used acids increase the concentration of
_p
in the production of Epsom salt and as a Q.55. Which of the following raw hydrogen ions (H⁺) in water.
fertiliser in agriculture. materials is NOT used to prepare the Fluoroantimonic acid is recognized as
na
baking soda? the strongest acid ever discovered.
Q.51. Identify the alloy among the SSC MTS 21/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
ap
following of which lead is a component. (a) H2O (b) Na2CO3 (c) NaCI (d) NH3 Q.59. Why does the milkman add a very
SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Morning) small amount of baking soda to fresh
:@
(a) Alnico (b) Solder Sol.55.(b) Na2CO3. The raw materials milk ?
(c) Nickel (d) Constantan used to prepare baking soda are: Sodium SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift)
chloride (NaCl): Also known as common (a) To reduce the pH of the fresh milk
Sol.51.(b) Solder is a metal alloy usually
TG
salt, this is the source of sodium ions. from 6 to slightly more acidic
made of tin and lead. Alnico - aluminium Ammonia (NH₃): Reacts with carbon (b) To increase the pH of the fresh milk
(Al), nickel (Ni), and cobalt (Co). dioxide and water to form ammonium from 6 to slightly alkaline
Constantan - A copper-nickel alloy used
on
bicarbonate. Carbon dioxide (CO₂): (c) To maintain the pH of the fresh milk
in electrical work for its high resistance. Reacts with ammonium bicarbonate to at 6 for a longer time
precipitate out sodium bicarbonate. (d) To reduce the pH of the fresh milk
ch
Q.52. Which of the following is one of the
Water (H₂O): Used in the reaction. from 6 to slightly alkaline
metals used in LED semiconductor
Reaction: NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 →
ar
technology ? Sol.59.(b) A milkman adds a small
NH4CI + NaHCO3.
SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Afternoon) amount of baking soda (NaHCO3) to
Se
(a) Iron (b) Copper (c) Gallium (d) Zinc Q.56. Which of the following is a correct fresh milk to prevent its acidification,
order of basicity ? allowing him to store it for a longer time.
Sol.52.(c) Gallium is a metallic material
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift) This is because milk in an alkaline
that is found as a trace element in coal,
(a) LiOH>NaOH>KOH>CsOH condition does not curdle easily.
bauxite, and other minerals. Other metals
(b) LiOH>KOH>CsOH>NaOH
such as arsenic, indium, and the Q.60. Which acid is used as a souring
(c) KOH>CsOH>NaOH>LiOH
rare-earth elements (REEs) cerium, agent added to vinegar, pickled
(d) CsOH>KOH>NaOH>LiOH
europium, gadolinium, lanthanum, vegetables, and sauces, and as a raw
terbium, and yttrium are also used in LED Sol.56.(d) CsOH>KOH>NaOH>LiOH. This material for seasoning?
semiconductor technology. order is due to the increasing size of the SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
alkali metal ions, which leads to better (a) Citric acid (b) Acetic acid
Q.53. Which of the following is used as a
solvation and greater basicity. As you (c) Tartaric acid (d) Formic acid
substitute of mercury in thermometers?
move down the group, the basicity
SSC CGL 5/3/2020 (Evening) Sol.60.(b) Acetic acid (CH3COOH). It is a
increases because the larger alkali metal
(a) Selenium (b) Arsenic colorless, organic compound that is a
ions (like Cs⁺) can more easily dissociate
(c) Bromine (d) Galinstan carboxylic acid.
and interact with water compared to the
Sol.53.(d) Galinstan. An alloy composed smaller ions (like Li⁺). Q.61. In which year did Johannes
of gallium, indium, and tin which melts at Nicolaus Bronsted and Thomas Martin
Q.57. Which polyatomic ionic compound
−19 °C and is thus liquid at room Lowry propose the fundamental concept
is a white, crystalline powder used in fire
temperature. of acids and bases ?
extinguishers and to neutralise acids and
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
bases ?
(a) 1928 (b) 1921 (c) 1925 (d) 1923
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
Sol.61.(d) 1923. According to Sol.65.(d) The process of dissolving an Q.70. Which acid is predominantly
Bronsted-Lowry theory, acid is a acid or a base in water is a highly present in tomatoes?
substance which donates an H+ ion or a exothermic one. Care must be taken SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening)
proton and forms its conjugate base and while mixing concentrated nitric acid or (a) Carbonic acid (b) Acetic acid
the base is a substance which accepts sulphuric acid with water. The acid must (c) Oxalic acid (d) Tartaric acid
an H+ ion or a proton and forms its always be added slowly to water with
conjugate acid. constant stirring. Mixing an acid or base Sol.70.(c) Oxalic acid (C2H2O4). It is
with water results in a decrease in the found in leafy greens (such as spinach),
Q.62. The reaction of an acid and a metal concentration of ions (H3O+/OH–) per unit vegetables, fruits, cocoa, nuts, and
gives: volume. Such a process is called dilution seeds. Acetic Acid (CH3COOH) - Vinegar.
SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (4th shift) and the acid or the base is said to be Malic acid (C4H6O5) is found in apples
(a) hydrogen gas and salt diluted. and apricots. Formic acid or Methanoic
(b) carbon dioxide, salt and water acid (HCOOH) is found in bees, nettle
(c) salt and water Q.66. Match column A with column B. stings, ant stings and insects. Carbonic
(d) carbon dioxide, salt and hydrogen gas Column-A Column-B acid is found in all carbonated
i. Lemon a. Tartaric acid beverages.
Sol.62.(a) hydrogen gas and salt. When
ii. Milk b. Citric acid
an acid reacts with a metal, the products Q.71. Which among the following is a
iii. Vinegar c. Lactic acid
are typically a salt and hydrogen gas. For covalent compound?
iv. Tamarind d. Acetic acid
example, when sodium (Na) reacts with SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Morning)
hydrochloric acid (HCl), the reaction SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) (a) Hydrogen chloride
produces sodium chloride (NaCl) and (a) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a (b) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (b) Magnesium hydroxide
hydrogen gas (H₂). The balanced (c) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d (d) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a (c) Calcium carbonate
df
chemical equation is: 2 Na (s) + 2 HCl (d) Sodium chloride
Sol.66.(d) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a.
_p
(aq) → 2 NaCl (aq) + H2 (g).
Sol.71.(a) Hydrogen chloride. Covalent
Q.67. A 100 mL solution having 0.01
Q.63. Select olfactory indicator from the bond - Formed by the equal sharing of
na
moles of NaOH dissolved in it. The pH of
given options. electrons. Examples: Methane (CH4),
the solution is:
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (4th shift) Hydrochloric acid (HCl).
ap
SSC CHSL Tier II (10/01/2024)
(a) Turmeric (b) Petunia
(a) 13 (b) 1 (c) 10 (d) 2 Q.72. Which of the following is used as
(c) Clove oil (d) Cabbage juice
:@
an antacid to neutralise stomach acidity?
Sol.67.(a) 13. Concentration of OH ions
Sol.63.(c) Clove oil. An olfactory 0.01 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 0.01 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Afternoon)
indicator is a substance that smells = = = 0.1 M. (a) Iodoform (b) Morphine
TG
100 𝑚𝐿 0.1 𝐿
different when mixed with an acidic or −
Hence, [OH ] = 0.1 M. Now, pOH = −𝑙𝑜𝑔 (c) Chlorine (d) Magnesium Hydroxide
basic solution. Olfactory indicators are [OH—] pOH = −𝑙𝑜𝑔 (10–1). pOH = 1 𝑙𝑜𝑔 10
used in laboratories to determine if a Sol.72.(d) Magnesium Hydroxide
= 1. We know that, pH + pOH = 14
on
solution is acidic or basic, a process {Mg(OH)2}. It is an inorganic compound.
pH = 14 − pOH = 14 – 1 = 13.
called olfactory titration. Other olfactory It is naturally found as the mineral
Q.68. Which potassium salt is a mineral brucite. It can be used as an antacid.
ch
indicators: Onion, Vanilla.
supplement used to treat or prevent low
Q.73. When the litmus solution is neither
Q.64. What are bases that are soluble in
ar
levels of potassium in the blood ?
acidic nor basic, its colour is ______.
water called ? Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Afternoon)
Se
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) (a) Potassium chloride
(a) green (b) red (c) purple (d) blue
(a) Alkenes (b) Acids (b) Potassium iodide
(c) Alkalis (d) Alkanes (c) Potassium citrate Sol.73.(c) Purple. Litmus solution - It is
(d) Potassium nitrate extracted from lichen. Litmus paper (pH
Sol.64.(c) Alkalis. When a base
paper) - Made by treating the paper with
dissolves in water, it forms hydroxide Sol.68.(a) Potassium chloride (KCl).
natural dyes from lichens. The base turns
ions (OH⁻), which makes the solution Potassium iodide (KI) : A salt that can be
Red litmus to blue, while acid turns blue
basic with a pH greater than 7. Not all used to protect the thyroid gland from
litmus to red. Some natural Indicators -
bases are soluble, but those that are, like radioactive.Potassium citrate (K3C6H5O7).
Red cabbage leaves, turmeric, coloured
sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and potassium Potassium nitrate (KNO3).
petals of some flowers (Hydrangea,
hydroxide (KOH), are called alkalis.
Q.69. The reaction between an acid and Petunia and Geranium).
Q.65. What is the correct way to mix acid a base is known as_______.
Q.74. Which of the following acids
and water? SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Afternoon)
makes the pH of vinegar acidic?
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) (a) Condensation reaction
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) The water must be added to the acid. (b) Sub-alteration reaction
(a) Tartaric acid (b) citric acid
(b) The water must be heated before (c) Oxidation reaction
(c) Linoleic acid (d) acetic acid
mixing. (d) Neutralisation reaction
(c) The acid must be heated before Sol.74.(d) Acetic acid (CH3COOH).
Sol.69.(d) Neutralisation reaction. When
mixing. Vinegar is a liquid that is made by
a strong acid reacts with a strong base, it
(d) The acid must be slowly added to the fermenting alcohol. The fermentation
results in a salt which is neutral.
water. process produces acetic acid, which
Example : HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
gives vinegar its sour taste and acidic production of chlorides, fertilisers, and Sol.82.(a) Hydrogen is used in the
properties. It has a pH of around 2.4. dyes, in electroplating, and in the synthesis of ammonia and the
photographic, textile and rubber manufacture of nitrogenous fertilisers.
Q.75. Which of the following statements
industries ? The main function of phosphorus is in
is/are correct?
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Morning) the formation of bones and teeth.
I. Salts of a strong acid and weak base
(a) Perchloric Acid (b) Sulfuric acid Nitrogen is important to the chemical
are acidic with pH value less than 7.
(c) Hydrochloric acid (d) Nitric acid industry. It is used to make fertilisers,
II. When electricity is passed through an
nitric acid, nylon, dyes and explosives.
aqueous solution of sodium chloride Sol.78.(c) Hydrochloric acid. It is a
(called brine), it decomposes to form component of the gastric acid in the Q.83. Which of the following is NOT a
sodium oxide. digestive systems of most animal natural acid-base indicator?
SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (3rd Shift) species, including humans. Perchloric SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Morning)
(a) Neither I nor II (b) Both I and II acid (HClO4) is also called Hyperchloric (a) Geranium flowers
(c) Only II (d) Only I acid (HClO4). (b) Red cabbage leaves
(c) Petunia flowers
Sol.75.(d) Only I. Acids - That gives off Q.79. What does ‘p’ in pH stand for ?
(d) Thyme leaves
hydrogen ions in water and forms salts SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Afternoon)
by combining with certain metals. (a) Potenz (b) Potential Sol.83.(d) Thyme leaves is a herb and
Strongest acid - Fluoroantimonic acid. (c) Pleural (d) Potencial also has medicinal use. Geranium
Common strong acids: Hydrochloric Acid flowers, Petunia flowers, and Red
Sol.79.(a) Potenz. "pH" is a measure of
(HCl), Sulphuric Acid (H2SO4), Nitric Acid cabbage act as a pH indicator due to the
how acidic/basic water is. It was first
(HNO3). Base (pH value > 7) - That can presence of the water-soluble vacuolar
described by Danish biochemist Soren
accept hydrogen ions in water and can pigment named Anthocyanin.
df
Peter Lauritz Sorensen in 1909. The p
neutralise an acid. Common strong
stands for the power or concentration,
_p
bases: sodium hydroxide (NaOH),
and the H for the hydrogen ion (H+).
Metallurgy
potassium hydroxide (KOH), calcium
na
hydroxide {Ca(OH)2}. Q.80. Who synthesised acetic acid for Q.84. What are the best examples of
the first time ? Phyllosilicates?
Q.76. Which of the following statements
ap
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Afternoon) SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening)
is correct?
(a) Berthelot (b) F Wohler (a) Mercury, graphite, diamond
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (1st Shift)
:@
(c) Berzelius (d) Kolbe (b) Micas, chlorite, talc, and serpentine
(a) Living organisms can survive a wide
(c) Pyrite, galena, sphalerite
range of pH change. Sol.80.(d) Kolbe's work was historic
(d) Calcite, magnesite, dolomite.
(b) When pH of rain water is less than because he produced organic
TG
8.2, it is called acid rain. compounds from inorganic ones Sol.84.(b) Micas, chlorite, talc, and
(c) Our body works within the pH range artificially. Acetic acid is produced serpentine. The phyllosilicates, or sheet
of 7.0 to 7.8. synthetically as well as from bacterial silicates, are an important group of
on
(d) Tooth decay starts when the pH of fermentation. In nature it is found in ants minerals that includes clay minerals. The
the mouth is lower than 1.5. and some fruits. basic structure of the phyllosilicates is
ch
Sol.76.(c) The pH (Potential of Hydrogen) based on interconnected six member
Q.81. What happens when an acid or a
range goes from 0 - 14, with 7 being rings of SiO4-4 tetrahedra that extend
base is mixed with water?
ar
neutral. pH of less than 7 indicates acidity, outward in infinite sheets.
SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Morning)
whereas a pH of greater than 7 indicates a
Se
(a) Decrease in the concentration of ions Q.85. Which of the following is the most
base. Tooth decay begins when the pH of (H2O +/OH–) per unit volume widely used method for refining impure
the mouth falls below 5.5. (b) Decrease in the concentration of ions metals?
(H3O+/OH–) per litre volume SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q.77. Which of the following substances
(c) Increase in the concentration of ions (a) Poling Refining
has a pH value of about 14 ?
(H3O+/OH –) per unit volume (b) Vapour-Phase Refining
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
(a) Blood (d) Decrease in the concentration of ions (c) Liquidation Refining
(b) Sodium hydroxide (H3O+/OH–) per unit volume (d) Electrolytic Refining
(c) Milk of magnesia
Sol.81.(d) Acids in water dissociate H+ Sol.85.(d) Electrolytic Refining. It is a
(d) Lemon Juice
ions. When an acidic solution is diluted technique used for the extraction and
Sol.77.(b) Sodium hydroxide. pH Value: with water, the concentration of H+ ions purification of metals by the process of
Blood (7.35 to 7.45), Sodium hydroxide decreases and the pH of the solution electrolysis. Metals like copper, nickel,
(12.3), Milk of magnesia (10.5), Lemon increases towards 7. When an alkali is gold, lead, silver, and zinc can be purified
Juice (2.32), Vinegar (2.5), Washing Soda diluted with water, the concentration of using electrolytic refining.
(11). pH Indicator - Phenolphthalein OH– ions decreases, and the pH of the
(range pH 8.2 to 10.0; colourless to pink), alkali fall towards 7. Q.86. Which is the most common ore of
Bromthymol blue (range pH 6.0 to 7.6; oxidised mercury that occurs in granular
yellow to blue), and litmus (range pH 4.5 Q.82. Acidic nature of soil is shown by crusts or veins associated with volcanic
to 8.3; red to blue). high concentration of ______ . activity and hot springs?
SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Morning) SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q.78. Muriatic acid is another name of (a) hydrogen (b) phosphorous (a) Diaspore (b) Siderite
which compound is used in the (c) nitrogen (d) oxygen (c) Cinnabar (d) Corundum
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
Sol.86.(c) Cinnabar (HgS) - An ore of (a) Gum (b) Cellulose energies, shapes, and other properties.
Mercury (Hg). Diaspore {AlO(OH)} occurs (c) Pectin (d) Mucilage These hybrid orbitals are suited for
as platy masses in highly aluminous electron pairing to form chemical bonds.
metamorphic rocks associated with Sol.91.(b) Cellulose. Rayon - It is a
corundum. Siderite, also called chalybite, synthetic fibre made from wood and Q.95. The IUPAC name of CH3 -(CH2 )18
is iron carbonate (FeCO3), a widespread related agricultural products. -CH3 is ________.
mineral that is an ore of iron. Corundum, SSC MTS 01/10/2024 (1st Shift)
Q.92. According to a law postulated by (a) triacontane (b) decane
naturally occurring Aluminium oxide ______, the amounts of different
mineral (Al2O3) that is, after diamond, the (c) icosane (d) dodecane
substances liberated by the same
hardest known natural substance. quantity of electricity passing through Sol.95.(c) icosane. It is a waxy,
Q.87. The process in which metals are the electrolytic solution are proportional hydrophobic hydrocarbon lipid from the
extracted from their ores by heating to their chemical equivalent weights. alkane class, practically insoluble in
beyond the melting point is SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Evening) water, neutral, and with a high flash point.
called________ . (a) Joseph Fourier (b) John Dalton Used in phase change materials (PCMs)
SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening) (c) Michael Faraday (d) Alfred Nobel for thermal energy storage and
(a) Spinning (b) Smelting temperature control. The International
Sol.92.(c) Michael Faraday. Law of Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry
(c) Heaving (d) Extracting Electrolysis states that the amount of (IUPAC), which advances chemical
Sol.87.(b) Smelting. Roasting is a chemical change produced by current at sciences, is headquartered in the United
process of heating a sulphide ore to a an electrode-electrolyte boundary is States.
high temperature in the presence of air. proportional to the quantity of electricity
Calcination - A process of heating some used, and the amounts of chemical Q.96. The property by virtue of which
df
solid material or a substance in a changes produced by the same quantity carbon can form a C-C covalent bond is
of electricity in different substances are called _______.
_p
controlled environment. Spinning - The
process of converting staple or short proportional to their equivalent weights. SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) allotropy (b) covalency
na
lengths of fibre, such as cotton or rayon,
Q.93. With reference to metals and their (c) tetravalency (d) catenation
into continuous yarn or thread.
ores, which of the following pairs is
ap
Q.88. Which of the following is a tough, INCORRECT ? Sol.96.(d) Catenation is the property of
porous and black substance, and almost SSC CHSL 13/10/2020 (Morning) carbon that allows it to form long chains,
:@
a pure form of carbon ? (a) Gold (Au) – Calaverite branched structures, or rings through C-C
SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Morning) (b) Mercury (Hg) – Greenockite covalent bonds. This unique ability is due
(a) Coke (b) Bitumen (c) Aluminium (Al) – Cryolite to carbon's small size and strong
TG
(c) Coal tar (d) Coal gas (d) Cobalt (Co) – Smelite covalent bonding, which enables it to
form stable bonds with other carbon
Sol.88.(a) Coke. It is the purest form of Sol.93.(b) Mercury is either found as a atoms. Allotropy - The existence of an
on
carbon with 98 % carbon. It is a fuel with native metal (rare) or in cinnabar, element in different physical forms
few impurities and a high carbon content, metacinnabar, corderoite, living stoneite having similar chemical properties.
usually made from coal. and other minerals. Greenockite is a rare
ch
Tetravalency - The ability of an atom to
cadmium bearing metal sulphide mineral form four covalent bonds with other
Q.89. Dolomite is an ore of : consisting of cadmium sulphide in
ar
atoms. Carbon is a tetravalent element.
SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Morning) crystalline form. Major ores of aluminium Covalency - The number of chemical
(a) magnesium (b) aluminium
Se
are Bauxite, Corundum, Feldspar, Cryolite, bonds that an atom can form with other
(c) potassium (d) sodium Alunite and Kaolin. Smelite is an ore of atoms in a molecule.
Cobalt.
Sol.89.(a) Magnesium is found in
Q.97. To which of the following classes
minerals such as magnesite, dolomite,
Organic Chemistry of compounds does cyclohexane
brucite, serpentinite, etc. and is mostly
belong?
recovered from seawater, brines and
Q.94. In acetylene (C2H2), hybridzation of SSC MTS 29/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
bitterns.
carbon atoms is: (a) Non-benzenoid aromatic compound
Dolomite formula - MgCO3· CaCO3.
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening) (b) Heterocyclic compound
Q.90. ______ is a process of forming a (a) sp²d (b) sp2 (c) sp³ (d) sp (c) Benzenoid aromatic compound
thick oxide layer of aluminium. (d) Alicyclic compound
SSC CHSL 12/08/2021 (Morning) Sol.94.(d) sp. Acetylene appears as a
colorless gas with a faint garlic-like odor. Sol.97.(d) Alicyclic compound. They are
(a) Galvanisation (b) Ductility
Easily ignited and burned with a sooty organic compounds that are both
(c) Corrosion (d) Anodising
flame. In acetylene the carbon atoms aliphatic and cyclic. These are the
Sol.90.(d) Anodising. Aluminium oxide undergo sp hybridization, resulting in a saturated or unsaturated hydrocarbons
coat makes it resistant to further linear molecular geometry. This is containing non-aromatic rings of carbon
corrosion. It is also useful in architectural because the carbon atoms form a triple atoms. They have one or more aliphatic
finishing. bond with each other, which requires the side chains attached.
sp hybridization. Hybridization is the Examples: Cyclopropane, Cyclobutane,
Q.91. Which of the following fibres is Cyclopentane, Cyclopentene,
process of mixing atomic orbitals to
used to make rayon cloth ? Cyclohexane, Cyclohexene, etc.
create new hybrid orbitals with different
SSC CHSL 12/08/2021 (Afternoon)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
Q.98. 0.25 g of an organic compound Hillman reaction (a nucleophilic catalyst, (a) Nonane (b) Dodecane
gave 0.13 g of water after complete such as a tertiary amine or phosphine), (c) Nonadecane (d) Icosane
combustion. The percentage Cannizzaro reaction (ytterbium triflate).
composition of hydrogen is _________. Sol.104.(a) Nonane is a colorless liquid
SSC MTS 29/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Q.101. When haloalkanes and aryl and with a smell like gasoline. It's found in
(a) 11.11% (b) 52.00% vinyl halides react with magnesium metal gasoline, Stoddard solvent (It is a clear,
(c) 5.78% (d) 4.58% they yield which reagent ? colorless liquid made from petroleum.)
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Dodecane (C12H26), a constituent of
Sol.98.(c) 5.78%. To calculate the (a) Hinsberg reagent (b) Grignard reagent kerosene oil on heating to 973K in the
percentage of hydrogen: (c) Tollens’ reagent (d) Fehling reagent presence of platinum, palladium or nickel
Molecular weight of water (H₂O) : 2 (H) + gives a mixture of heptane and pentene.
16 (O) = 18 mol/g. Hydrogen's Sol.101.(b) Grignard reagent. The
2 1 chemical formula for Grignard reagents Q.105. Which of the following reactions
contribution in water = = . is R-Mg-X, where R represents an aryl or leads to the formation of glucose
18 9
Mass of hydrogen in 0.13 g of water: alkyl group and X represents a halogen pentaacetate from acetic anhydride ?
1 (Cl, Br, I). The Tollens reagent is used to SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (3rd shift)
0.13 × = 0.0144g.
9 test for the presence of aldehydes. (a) Acetylation of glucose (b) Reduction
Percentage of hydrogen in the organic Hinsberg Reagent is a chemical (c) Addition of ketone (d) Oxidation
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝐻𝑦𝑑𝑟𝑜𝑔𝑒𝑛 compound used in organic chemistry,
compound: × 100 Sol.105.(a) Acetylation of glucose.
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑑 specifically in the study of amines.
0.0144 Acetylation is a chemical reaction in
= × 100 = 5.78%.
0.25 Q.102. Which of the following is a which an acetyl group (CH3CO-) is
saturated hydrocarbon? introduced into a molecule. For glucose,
df
Q.99. How many covalent bonds are SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (3rd Shift) acetylation occurs when glucose reacts
present between the constituent atoms (a) C3H8 (b) C6H6 (c) C2H4 (d) C4H8 with acetic anhydride, producing glucose
_p
in the molecules of Butane and Hexane, pentaacetate. The reaction can be
respectively? Sol.102.(a) C3H8. represented as: Glucose + 5 Acetic
na
SSC MTS 14/11/2024 (3rd Shift) Saturated Hydrocarbons: Contain only Anhydride → Glucose Pentaacetate + 5
(a) 13 and 19 (b) 11 and 19 single covalent bonds, making them less Acetic Acid.
ap
(c) 14 and 20 (d) 10 and 16 reactive. Example: Alkanes (CnH2n+2).
Unsaturated Hydrocarbons: Contain at Q.106. What is the IUPAC name of the
:@
Sol.99.(a) 13 and 19. Structure of Butane least one double or triple carbon-carbon compound CH3NH2 ?
(C4H10): It has 4 carbon atoms arranged bond, making them more reactive. SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift)
in a chain, each bonded with single Examples: Alkenes (CnH2n) and Alkynes (a) 2-Methyl propan-l-amine
TG
covalent bonds. Each carbon atom is (CnH2n-2). (b) Propan-1-amine
also bonded to hydrogen atoms to (c) Ethanamine
satisfy the valency of 4. Covalent bonds Q.103. An organic reaction used to (d) Methanamine
on
in Butane: Carbon-carbon single bonds = convert an aryl diazonium salt into an
3. Carbon-hydrogen bonds = 10. Total = 3 aryl halide using a copper(I) halide Sol.106.(d) Methanamine. This
+ 10 = 13 covalent bonds. Structure of catalyst is called: compound consists of a single carbon
ch
Hexane (C6H14): It has 6 carbon atoms in SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) atom (from CH3) attached to an amine
a straight chain, each bonded with single (a) Finkelstein reaction group (-NH2), so its IUPAC name is
ar
covalent bonds, and bonded to hydrogen (b) Gattermann reaction derived from methane (one carbon) plus
Se
atoms to satisfy the valency of 4. (c) Sandmeyer reaction amine.
Covalent bonds in Hexane: (d) Balz-Schiemann reaction
Carbon-carbon single bonds = 5. Q.107. Why is the six membered cyclic
Carbon-hydrogen bonds = 14. Total = 5 + Sol.103.(c) Sandmeyer reaction is a type structure of glucose called a pyranose
14 = 19 covalent bonds. of substitution reaction that is widely structure ?
used in the production of aryl halides SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (2nd shift)
Q.100. Palladium on barium sulphate from aryl diazonium salts. The reaction (a) Pyran is a non-cyclic organic
(Pd/BaSO4) is also known as: was discovered in 1884 by Swiss compound, with one oxygen atom
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift) chemist Traugott Sandmeyer. and five carbon atoms in the ring.
(a) a Hillman reaction catalyst Balz–Schiemann reaction is a chemical (b) Furan is a five membered cyclic
(b) a Cannizzaro reaction catalyst reaction that converts primary aromatic compound, with one oxygen and four
(c) the Rosenmund catalyst amines into aryl fluorides. Gattermann carbon atoms.
(d) an aldol reaction catalyst reaction is a chemical reaction in which (c) Pyran is a cyclic organic compound,
aromatic compounds are formulated by with one oxygen atom and five carbon
Sol.100.(c) the Rosenmund catalyst. The a mixture of hydrogen cyanide (HCN) and atoms in the ring.
Rosenmund reduction is a hydrogenation hydrogen chloride (HCl) in the presence (d) Furan is a five membered non-cyclic
process in which an acyl chloride is of a Lewis acid catalyst such as AlCl3. compound, with one oxygen and four
selectively reduced to an aldehyde. The carbon atoms.
reaction was named after Karl Wilhelm Q.104. Name the straight chain alkane
Rosenmund. The Rosenmund catalyst having chemical formula C9H20, which is Sol.107.(c) The six membered cyclic
can be prepared by reduction of used as a research chemical and in structure of glucose is called pyranose
palladium(II) chloride solution in the making biodegradable detergents. structure in analogy with pyran. Pyran is
presence of BaSO4. Catalyst used : SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift) a cyclic organic compound with one
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
oxygen atom and five carbon atoms in (homocyclic). Sometimes atoms other foods such as crackers, microwave
the ring. The cyclic structure of glucose than carbon are also present in the ring popcorn, butter and chicken nuggets?
is more correctly represented by the (heterocyclic). Some examples of this SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Haworth structure. type of compounds are: Cyclohexane, (a) Tertiary butyl hydroquinone
Cyclohexene, Tetrahydrofuran. (b) Diethyltoluamide
Q.108. What is the name of the aromatic (c) Sodium hypochlorite
compound in the given figure ? Q.112. Which of the following is an open (d) 1,4-dichlorobenzene
chain organic compound?
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) Sol.116.(a) Tertiary butyl hydroquinone
(a) Acetaldehyde (b) Tetrahydrofuran {TBHQ (C10H14O2)} - Food preservative: In
(c) Benzene (d) Toluene foods, TBHQ is used as a preservative for
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) unsaturated vegetable oils and many
Sol.112.(a) Acetaldehyde (CH3CHO) : edible animal fats.
(a) Naphthalene (b) Tropone
IUPAC name - Ethanal. Acetaldehyde is
(c) Cyclohexene (d) Tetrahydrofuran Q.117. Tribromomethane is a synonym
used primarily as a starting material in
Sol.108.(a) Naphthalene is used in the manufacture of acetic acid, ethyl for which brominated organic solvent ?
mothballs, dye production, plastics, acetate, vinyl acetate, polymers and SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening)
(a) Bromoform (b) Diborane
insecticides, fungicides, and drugs. Benzene - C6H6. Toluene -
(c) Borazine (d) Bromosuccinimide
pharmaceuticals. C6H5CH3.
Aromatic hydrocarbons, or arenes, are Sol.117.(a) Bromoform is a colorless
Q.113. Match Column-A with Column-B.
compounds with a pleasant odor, often liquid with a sweet odor. Uses- including
containing a benzene ring. Column-A Column-B
fire extinguishers, fumigants, and
a. Alkanes i. Ethane solvents.
df
Q.109. Which of the following organic b. Alkenes ii. Butyne
_p
compounds is a benzenoid? c. Alkynes iii. Propene Q.118. Methyl ethyl ketone is also known
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) d. Aldehyde iv. Methanal as:
(a) Aniline (b) Hexane
na
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning)
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
(c) Propane (d) Acetaldehyde (a) methyl pentanone (b) 2-butanol
(a) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (b) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(c) 2-butanone (d) propanone
ap
Sol.109.(a) Aniline. Aromatic (c) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (d) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
compounds are special types of Sol.118.(c) 2-butanone. It is a colourless
:@
Sol.113.(b) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv. liquid with a sharp, sweet odour. It is a
compounds. These include benzene and
other related ring compounds common solvent and is used in a variety
Q.114. Which is a colourless, odourless
(benzenoid). Benzenoid aromatic of industrial and commercial
gas of the alkane series of hydrocarbons
TG
compounds: Benzene, Naphthalene. Like applications.
with a chemical formula of C3H8 ?
alicyclic compounds, aromatic Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4) Q.119. Which of the following does NOT
compounds may also have hetero atoms (a) Ethane (b) Butane
on
belong to the family of organic
in the ring. Such compounds are called (c) Propane (d) Pentane compounds?
heterocyclic aromatic compounds.
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning)
Sol.114.(c) Propane. Its main uses
ch
Example -Furan, Thiophene, Pyridine.
(a) Furan (b) Decane
include home and water heating, cooking
Q.110. Identify a substance that is NOT (c) Ammonia (d) Nonane
ar
and refrigerating food, clothes drying,
an allotrope of carbon. and powering farm and industrial Sol.119.(c) Ammonia (NH3) is an
Se
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) equipment. The chemical formula for inorganic compound of nitrogen and
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite ethane is C2H6, for butane is C4H10, and Hydrogen.
(c) Buckminsterfullerene (d) Phosphorus for pentane is C5H12.
Q.120. Which compound structure
Sol.110.(d) Phosphorus. Allotropes are Q.115. Which unsaturated aliphatic includes a saturated short-chain fatty
different forms of a chemical element in hydrocarbon composed of 20 carbon acid with 4-carbon molecules, commonly
the same physical state, arising from atoms is used to make candles and found in esterified form in animal fats
various atomic bonding arrangements. paraffin wax with solar energy storage and plant oils ?
Fullerene, discovered by Richard Smalley capacity? SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
in 1985, consists of a large spheroidal SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) (a) Propionic acid (b) Butyric acid
molecule made up of sixty or more (a) Octane (b) Eicosane (c) Succinic acid (d) Lactic acid
atoms, with buckminsterfullerene being (c) Nonane (d) Triacontane
the first known example. Sol.120.(b) Butyric acid (C4H8O2).
Sol.115.(b) Eicosane (C20H42) - It is a very Propionic Acid (C3H6O2) - A colourless
Q.111. Which of the following hydrophobic molecule, practically liquid with a sharp rancid odour. It is a
compounds is an Alicyclic compound? insoluble in water, and relatively neutral. short-chain saturated fatty acid
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) It is considered to be a hydrocarbon lipid comprising ethane attached to the
(a) Ethane (b) Isobutane molecule. carbon of a carboxy group. Succinic Acid
(c) Acetic acid (d) Cyclopropane (C4H6O4) - An alpha, omega-dicarboxylic
Q.116. Which synthetic aromatic organic acid resulting from the formal oxidation
Sol.111.(d) Cyclopropane. Alicyclic compound inhibits the chemical of each of the terminal methyl groups of
(aliphatic cyclic) compounds contain breakdown of food that occurs in the butane to the corresponding carboxy
carbon atoms joined in the form of a ring presence of oxygen, commonly used in group.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
Q.121. What is the IUPAC name of the manufacture during the fermentation bonds and strong carbon-hydrogen
organic compound depicted in the process? bonds. Example - Methane (CH4), Ethane
figure? SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift) (C2H6) .
(a) Potassium citrate
(b) Potassium bitartrate Q.130. Which of the following
(c) Potassium nitrate compounds having the molecular
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) (d) Potassium hydrogen adipate formula C2H is derived from the hydride
(a) 1-Methyl-2-Propylcyclohexane of acetylene ?
(b) 1-Methyl-1-Propylcyclohexane Sol.125.(b) Potassium bitartrate SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (2nd shift)
(c) 1-Methyl-3-Propylcyclohexane (KC4H5O6) : Common Name - Cream of (a) Ethynyl (b) Propargyl (c) Vinyl (d) Allyl
(d) 1-Methyl-4-Propylcyclohexane tartar. Uses - Additive, Stabilizer, pH
control agent. Sol.130.(a) Ethynyl. An organic radical
Sol.121.(c)1-Methyl-3-Propylcyclohexan and a terminal acetylenic compound.
e : Its molecular formula is C10H20 . Q.126. Lactitol is derived through the Uses: Fuel, Industrial applications,
hydrogenation of: Medical applications.
Q.122. Which of the following is a SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift)
primary arylamine in which an amino (a) maltose (b) lactic acid Q.131. Trichloromethane is better known
functional group is substituted for one of (c) lactose (d) glucose as:
the benzene hydrogens? SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (4th shift)
Sol.126.(c) Lactose (Milk sugar). It is a (a) Chloroform (b) butanes
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening)
disaccharide which is made by the (c) LPG (d) laughing gas
(a) Pyridine (b) Aniline
condensation of glucose and galactose.
(c) Toluidine (d) Quinoline
Examples : Butter, Cheese, Cream, Dried Sol.131.(a) Chloroform (CHCl3) - It is
df
Sol.122.(b) Aniline (C6H5NH2). Pyridine milk, Milk solids, Powdered milk, and used as an ideal anaesthetic. It is a
(C5H5N) is a colourless liquid with an Whey. colourless, sweet-smelling dense liquid.
_p
unpleasant smell. It is used to make Other names - Formyl Trichloride,
medicines, vitamins, food flavourings, Q.127. In which dialdehyde are two TriChloroform.
na
and paints. Toluidine (C7H9N) is used in formyl groups attached to adjacent
carbon centres on a benzene ring and Q.132. What is the product formed when
dyes, and in organic chemical
ap
from fluorescent conjugation products CH3CH2OH reacts with O2 ?
manufacturing.
with primary amines? SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift)
:@
Q.123. Which of the following is a white SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift) (a) H2O + heat
to yellowish solid with a weak aromatic (a) Phthalaldehyde (b) Acetaldehyde (b) CO2 + H2O + heat and light
odour purified by the process of (c) Valeraldehyde (d) Isobutyraldehyde (c) CO2 + H2O + light
TG
sublimation ? (d) CO₂ + heat and light
SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Sol.127.(a) Phthalaldehyde {C6H4(CHO)2}
: Uses - for the detection of biogenic Sol.132.(b) CO2 + H2O + heat and light.
(a) Titanyl (b) Orthovanadate
amines, peptides, proteins in nanogram
on
(c) Anthracene (d) Dysprosium Q.133. ________ is a naturally occurring
quantities in body fluids.
Sol.123.(c) Anthracene (C14H10). It is a organic compound with the formula
ch
colourless crystalline aromatic Q.128. Heating ethanol with excess (C6H5) 2CO .
hydrocarbon, and a three-fused benzene concentrated sulphuric acid produces: SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
ar
ring solid polycyclic aromatic SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift) (a) Methcathinone (b) Propiophenone
hydrocarbon (PAH). It is a component of (a) ethane (b) ethyne (c) Acetophenone (d) Benzophenone
Se
coal tar. Anthracene is used in the (c) butane (d) ethene
Sol.133.(d) Benzophenone.
production of the red dye alizarin and
Sol.128.(d) Ethene (C2H4). CH3CH2OH Benzophenone is used as an ultraviolet
other dyes.
(aq) + H2SO4 (conc.) → C2H4 + H2O. In curing agent, flavour ingredient,
Q.124. What is the systematic name of a this reaction Concentrated sulphuric acid fragrance enhancer and perfume fixative,
colourless gas with a faint, ethereal acts as a dehydrating agent. and as an additive for plastics, coatings
odour called acetylene, widely used for and adhesive formulations.
Q.129. Which of the following is a valid
welding ?
bond in Alkenes that connects carbon Q.134. Which element was arbitrarily
SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (1st Shift)
atoms? assigned a value of 4.0 in the ‘Halogens’
(a) Ethyne (b) Ethanoic anhydride
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift) section in 1922 by Linus Pauling, an
(c) Azoethane (d) Ethyl acetate
(a) Single bond (b) Double bond American scientist ?
Sol.124.(a) Ethyne (Formula - C2H2 , (c) Triple bond (d) Not connected SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift)
IUPAC Name - Acetylene): It is a (a) Fluorine (b) Iodine
hydrocarbon that is commonly used in Sol.129.(b) Double Bond. Alkene (CnH2n). (c) Astatine (d) Bromine
various industrial applications. It is a Example - Ethene (C2H4), Propene (C3H6),
colourless gas with a distinct odour and Butene (C4H8). Alkyne (CnH2n-2) - Sol.134.(a) Fluorine - It is an univalent
is highly flammable. Ethanoic anhydride Hydrocarbon consists of carbon bound poisonous gaseous halogen; Pale
(C4H6O3). Azoethane (C4H10N2). Ethyl to a carbon with a triple bond, and each yellow-green; Most chemically reactive
acetate (C4H8O2). carbon is then attached to zero or one and electronegative of all the elements.
hydrogen atom. Example - Ethyne (C2H2),
Q.125. Which potassium acid salt is Q.135. 1,3-Dimethylbenzene also known a:
Propyne (C3H4). Alkanes (CnH2n+2) -
obtained as a by-product of alcohol SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Contains strong carbon-carbon single
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
(a) BHC (b) m-Xylene composition of carbon is high and and soaps because of its hygroscopic
(c) toluene (d) terelene atmospheric oxygen is not enough to properties?
burn all the carbon present. Hence, SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Sol.135.(b) m-Xylene: An isomer of unburnt carbon particles are present in (a) Galena (b) Ethanol
dimethylbenzene. The three isomers of the flame giving it a sooty feel. Saturated (c) Freon (d) Glycerol
dimethylbenzene are commonly named hydrocarbons burn with blue flame. It
ortho-xylene, meta-xylene, and para Sol.144.(d) Glycerol (C3H8O3) - A
contains less carbon content, so there is
-xylene. colourless, odourless, sweet-tasting,
a complete combustion of these
viscous liquid that is non-toxic. IUPAC
Q.136. A class of organic compounds compounds.
name - Propane -1, 2, 3-triol.
that contain an oxygen between two alkyl Q.141. Butan - 2 - ol is a:
groups is called: Q.145. Identify a class of compounds
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (3rd shift)
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (2nd shift) that has a functional group -OH.
(a) tertiary alcohol (b) ketone
(a) alcohol (b) aldehyde SSC CGL Tier II (03/03/2023)
(c) primary alcohol (d) secondary alcohol
(c) ketone (d) ether (a) Alcohol (b) Ethane
Sol.141.(d) Secondary alcohol : Where (c) Ketone (d) Aldehyde
Sol.136.(d) Ether. They have the formula the carbon atom of the hydroxyl group is
R-O-R', with R's being the alkyl groups. Sol.145.(a) Alcohol. Functional Group,
attached to two alkyl groups on either
These compounds are used in dye, Formula, Suffix and Example : (Alcohol,
side. Examples - Propan-2-ol, Butan-2-ol,
perfumes, oils, waxes and industrial use. R-OH, -ol, Methanol), (Ketone, R-(CO)-R’,
Pentan-2-ol. Primary alcohols: The
-one, Butanone), (Aldehyde, R-CHO, -al,
Q.137. Which of the following organic carbon atom of the hydroxyl group (-OH)
Ethanal), (Acyl Halide, R-(CO)-X, -oyl
compounds is synonymous with olefiant is bonded to just one alkyl group.
halide, Ethanoyl Chloride), Carboxylate,
Examples - Methanol (CH3OH), Propanol
df
gas which is used to make anaesthetics, R-COO–, -oate, Sodium Ethanoate),
refrigerants and other chemicals? (C3H7OH), Ethanol (C2H5OH).
(Carboxylic Acid, R-COOH, -oic acid,
_p
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (1st shift) Q.142. Choose the correct set of the Ethanoic Acid), (Ester, R-(CO)-O-R’, Alkyl
(a) Ethylene (b) 1-Pentene names for the organic compounds in the alkanoate, Ethyl Butanoate), (Ether,
na
(c) Methane (d) Butane given figure. R-O-R’, Alkyl ether, Diethyl Ether).
ap
Sol.137.(a) Ethylene (C2H4): A colourless Q.146. In organic chemistry, which of the
flammable gas with a faint ‘sweet and following is an empirical rule used to
:@
musky’ odour when pure, Simplest form predict the regioselectivity of
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift)
of organic compounds and used in fruit electrophilic addition reactions of
(a) a: Furan, b: Toluene, c: Pyridine
ripening. alkanes and alkynes?
(b) a: Furan, b: Pyridine, c: Thiophene
TG
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift)
Q.138. Dry ice, ammonium chloride, (c) a: Furan, b: Thiophene, c: Aniline
(a) Cornforth's rules (b) Bredt's rule
naphthalene balls and camphor, all these (d) a: Anisole, b: Thiophene, c: Pyridine
(c) Markovnikov's rule (d) Baldwin's rules
compounds are an example of:
on
Sol.142.(b)
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift) Sol.146.(c) Markovnikov’s rule (Vladimir
a: Furan, b: Pyridine, c: Thiophene.
(a) Sublimable substances Markovnikov). Bredt's rule states that a
ch
(b) Cooling agents Q.143. What is the strength of a double bond cannot be placed at the
(c) Inflammable substances hydrogen bond determined by ? bridgehead of a bridged ring system
ar
(d) Solidifying agents Graduate Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 3) unless the rings are large enough.
Baldwin's rule (Jack Baldwin) states a
Se
(a) Interaction between the lone-pair
Sol.138.(a) Sublimable substances:
electrons of the electronegative atom series of guidelines outlining the relative
Sublimation is the process by which a
of one molecule and the hydrogen favorabilities of ring closure reactions in
solid directly transforms into a gas
atom of another molecule alicyclic compounds.
without passing through the liquid state.
(b) Interaction between the lone-pair Q.147. Name an alkylbenzene widely
Q.139. Pectin, which is responsible for electrons of the electropositive atom used as a chemical intermediate in the
the firmness and softness of fruits, is of one molecule and the hydrogen production of phenol.
mainly composed of which acid unit? atom of another molecule SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (1st shift) (c) Interaction between the lone-pair (a) Cumene (b) Furan
(a) Aspartic acid (b) Galacturonic acid electrons of the electronegative atom (c) Styrene (d) Toluene
(c) Lactic acid (d) Glutamic acid of one molecule and the oxygen atom
of another molecule Sol.147.(a) Cumene (isopropylbenzene)
Sol.139.(b) Galacturonic acid (C6H10O7) - (d) Interaction between the lone-pair is a constituent of crude oil and refined
An acidifying agent in foods and the electrons of the polar molecule and fuels. Uses: manufactures other
monomer of pectin molecules. the hydrogen atom of another chemicals (phenol, acetone, etc.),
molecule thinner in paints, a component of
Q.140. What is the colour of the flame
high-octane motor fuels, in
when unsaturated hydrocarbons burn? Sol.143.(a) Hydrogen bonding is a manufacturing of rubber, iron, steel, and
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (1st shift) special type of dipole-dipole attraction pulp and paper.
(a) Blue (b) Red (c) Green (d) Yellow between molecules.
Q.148. Which of the following is a strong
Sol.140.(d) Yellow. In the unsaturated Q.144. Which among the following reducing agent used to reduce
hydrocarbons, the percentage elements is used in moisturising creams aldehydes, ketones, esters, carboxylic
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
acid chlorides, carboxylic acids and even Sol.152.(d) LPG. Propane (C3H8) and Sol.157.(d) Chloroethane (CH3CH2Cl).
carboxylate salts to alcohols? butane (C4H10). Ethyl Mercaptan is added Chloromethane (CH3Cl),1- Chloropropane
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (3rd Shift) to the gas to make it smell like rotten (C3H7Cl), and 3- Chlorohexane (C6H13Cl).
(a) Titanium hydride eggs. Liquefied natural gas (LNG) and
(b) Lithium aluminium hydride Compressed natural gas (CNG) mainly Q.158. Which of the following is an
(c) Calcium hydride composed of methane (CH4). Biogas is a organic compound with the formula
(d) Bismuth hydride combination of two-thirds of methane C6H4Cl2 that is used as a fumigant
(CH4) and the rest is mostly carbon insecticide to control cloth moths?
Sol.148.(b) Lithium aluminium hydride dioxide (CO2). SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Evening)
(LiAlH4) is a strong, unselective reducing (a) Paradichlorobenzene
agent for polar double bonds. Strong Q.153. Isopentane, also called ________, is (b) Ethylbenzene
reducing agent : Sodium Borohydride a branched-chain saturated hydrocarbon (c) Benzoyl chloride
(NaBH4), Titanium hydride (TiH2), with the chemical formula 𝐶5𝐻12. (d) Chlorobenzene
Calcium hydride (CaH2), Bismuth hydride SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Afternoon)
(BiH3). Sol.158.(a) Paradichlorobenzene
(a) dimethylbutane (b) isobutane
(C6H4Cl2) is used as a fumigant
(c) 2-methylbutane (d) butadiene
Q.149. Identify the correct statement insecticide to control cloth moths.
with respect to unsaturated Sol.153.(c) 2-methylbutane. 2, 3 - Ethylbenzene (C6H5CH2CH3) is to
hydrocarbons. Dimethylbutane is an isomer of hexane. manufacture styrene, a compound used
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Isobutane is an alkane that is propane to make plastics.
(a) Compounds of carbon having a single substituted by a methyl group at position
bond between their carbon atoms are two. Butadiene is the raw material for Periodic Table
called unsaturated compounds.
df
many elastomers, ABS (acrylonitrile
(b) Compounds of carbon having double butadiene styrene polymer) and in low Q.159. Identify the INCORRECT
_p
bonds or triple bonds between their quantities for nylon and few others. statement regarding the halogens group
carbon atoms are called unsaturated in the periodic table.
na
compounds. Q.154. Find the correct chemical formula SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening)
(c) Compounds of carbon having single of nitromethane. (a) They have the largest atomic size in
ap
bonds between their oxygen atoms SSC CHSL 24/05/ 2022 (Evening) their period.
are called unsaturated compounds. (a) CH3NO (b) CH3NO2 (b) They are reactive non-metals.
:@
(d) Compounds of carbon having double (c) CH4NO2 (d) CH3NO3 (c) They form diatomic molecules in their
or triple bonds between their elemental states.
Sol.154.(b) CH3NO2 . Nitromethane is
hydrogen atoms are called (d) They are located on the left of the
used to make industrial antimicrobials
TG
unsaturated compounds. noble gases on the periodic table.
and pharmaceuticals, and is also used as
Sol.149.(b) Unsaturated hydrocarbons a soil fumigant and as a fuel in race car Sol.159.(a) Halogens, located in Group
are organic compounds that are entirely engines.
on
17, are situated toward the right of their
made up of carbon and hydrogen atoms period, giving them smaller atomic sizes
Q.155. Identify the method that is NOT
and consist of a double or a triple bond compared to elements on the left. They
used to purify organic compounds.
ch
between two adjacent carbon atoms. are reactive non-metals that form
SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Evening)
diatomic molecules (e.g., Cl2, F2) and are
ar
Q.150. Which of the following is NOT an (a) Sublimation (b) Crystallisation
(c) Distillation (d) Sedimentation found to the left of the noble gases in the
allotrope of carbon?
Se
periodic table. The largest atomic size in
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon)
Sol.155.(d) Sedimentation is the process a period is typically observed in the alkali
(a) Trisulfur (b) Diamond
in which particles separate from a liquid metals (Group 1), not in the halogens.
(c) Lonsdaleite (d) Graphite
because of gravity.
Q.160. Which property of an element is
Sol.150.(a)
Q.156. Which group was given the name inversely related to its ionisation energy?
Trisulfur. S3 is an allotrope of sulphur.
‘paraffin’ earlier? SSC MTS 09/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.151. Compounds with exactly two SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Morning) (a) Electronegativity (b) Atomic mass
double carbon – carbon bonds are (a) Aldehydes (b) Alkanes (c) Atomic radius (d) Electron affinity
known as ______. (c) Alcohols (d) Acids
Sol.160.(c) Atomic radius. Ionization
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
Sol.156.(b) Alkanes are a series of energy is the energy needed to remove
(a) Terpenes (b) Dienes
compounds that contain carbon and an electron from an atom. As the atomic
(c) Trialkyne (d) Dialkyne
hydrogen atoms with single covalent radius increases, the outer electrons are
Sol.151.(b) Dienes is a covalent bonds. farther from the nucleus, reducing the
compound that contains two double attraction between them and the
Q.157. Which chemical compound, with nucleus. This makes it easier to remove
bonds.
the chemical formula (CH3CH2Cl), is an electron, resulting in lower ionization
Q.152. Propane and butane are the main used as a blowing agent in foamed energy. Electronegativity is the ability of
components of which of the following plastics? an atom to attract shared electrons.
gases? SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Morning) Atomic mass is the sum of protons and
Higher Secondary 01/08/2022 (Shift - 3) (a) 3-Chlorohexane (b) 1-chloropropane neutrons, with minor contributions from
(a) LNG (b) LMG (c) CNG (d) LPG (c) Chloromethane (d) Chloroethane electrons. Electron affinity measures the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
attraction between an incoming electron SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) are defined as metals that have an
and the nucleus, with stronger attraction (a) Fa (b) Do (c) Re (d) Mi incomplete d subshell in either their
releasing more energy. neutral atom or in their ions. p-block
Sol.164.(b) Do. The Newland table was
elements are located in groups 13–18 of
Q.161. According to Newland’s Law of created by John Newlands in 1866 based
the periodic table. S-block elements are
Octaves, every eighth element has on his Law of Octaves. He observed that
in groups 1 and 2 of the periodic table.
properties similar to those of the first every eighth element exhibited properties
The f-block consists of elements in
element. Which of the following similar to the first, drawing an analogy to
which 4 f and 5 f orbitals are
elements has properties similar to those the octaves in music.
progressively filled. They are placed in a
of N ? separate panel at the bottom of the
Q.165. 'Au' is the symbol for which of the
SSC MTS 09/10/2024 (3rd Shift) periodic table.
following elements?
(a) P (b) Al (c) S (d) B
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Q.169. Which of the following is NOT a
Sol.161.(a) P. Newland's Law of Octaves (a) Gold (b) Aluminium
halogen gas?
states that when chemical elements are (c) Silver (d) Argon
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
arranged in order of increasing atomic
Sol.165.(a) Gold. It is derived from the (a) F (b) He (c) Cl (d) Br
weight, elements with similar properties
occur every eight elements. Nitrogen (N) Latin word "Aurum." Aluminium : Symbol
Sol.169.(b) Helium (He) is a chemical
is in the 7th position in the periodic table. is Al (from Latin "Alumen"). Silver:
element with atomic number 2. It is a
To find the element with similar Symbol is Ag (from Latin "Argentum").
colorless, odorless, tasteless, non-toxic,
properties, we need to add 8 to 7, which Argon: Symbol is Ar.
inert gas and the first in the Noble gas
gives us 15. The element in the 15th group in the periodic table.
Q.166. To which group do the alkaline
position is Phosphorus (P).
earth metals such as radium, barium and
df
Q.170. In the context of periodicity, a unit
Q.162. Moseley observed that the plot of strontium belong?
called picometre is used to measure the
_p
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
𝑣 against atomic number (Z) gave a __________.
(a) Group 5A (b) Group 2A
straight line. What does v indicate here ? SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift)
na
(c) Group 1A (d) Group 3A
SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) atomic radius
(a) Frequency of -rays emitted (b) molar mass
ap
Sol.166.(b) Group 2A. Alkaline earth
(b) Frequency of X-rays emitted metals belong to Group 2A (or Group II) (c) atomic density
(c) Frequency of γ-rays emitted (d) spin quantum number
:@
of the periodic table, including : Radium
(d) Frequency of α-rays emitted
(Ra), Barium (Ba), Strontium (Sr), Calcium
Sol.170.(a) atomic radius (Atomic Radii).
Sol.162.(b) Frequency of X-rays emitted. (Ca), Magnesium (Mg), Beryllium (Be).
It is the total distance from the nucleus
TG
Henry Moseley's 1913 experiment Group 3A (Boron Group) : This group
of an atom to the outermost orbital of its
involved studying the X-ray spectra of includes elements like boron (B),
electron. In chemistry, the molar mass of
various elements and led to the aluminum (Al), and gallium (Ga). Group
a chemical compound is defined as the
on
discovery of atomic numbers. He 5A (Nitrogen Group) : This group
ratio between the mass and the amount
observed that the frequency (ν) of the includes elements like nitrogen (N),
of substance of any sample of the
X-rays emitted by an element was phosphorus (P), and arsenic (As).
ch
compound. The atomic number density
directly proportional to the square of its
Q.167. Which of the following elements is the number of atoms of a given type
atomic number Z.
ar
is a metalloid ? per unit volume (V, cm3) of the material.
Q.163. The element with atomic number SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Se
Q.171. Identify a monoatomic molecule.
59 lies in which block of the Periodic (a) iron (b) Oxygen (c) Sodium (d) Silicon
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Table?
Sol.167.(d) Silicon. Metalloids are (a) carbon monoxide (b) Oxygen
SSC MTS 29/10/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) The s-block (b) The f-block elements that exhibit properties of both (c) Helium (d) Chlorine
(c) The p-block (d) The d-block metals and non-metals. The Modern
Sol.171.(c) Helium (He) is a noble gas
Periodic Table features a zig-zag line
Sol.163.(b) The f-block elements consist (Group 18 in the periodic table).
separating metals from non-metals.
of the lanthanoids (atomic numbers Molecules: These are made up of one or
Seven elements along this borderline
57–71) and actinoids (atomic numbers more atoms and can be classified into
exhibit intermediate properties and are
89–103). The lanthanoids include three types: Monatomic, Diatomic and
classified as metalloids or semi-metals :
Lanthanum (57), Cerium (58), Triatomic. Monatomic molecules :
Boron (B), Germanium (Ge), Arsenic (As),
Praseodymium (59), Neodymium (60), Contain a single atom without covalent
Antimony (Sb), Tellurium (Te), Polonium
and others up to Lutetium (71). The bonding, such as noble gases like Helium
(Po).
actinoids include Actinium (89), Thorium (He), Neon (Ne), and Argon (Ar).
(90), Uranium (92), Neptunium (93), and Q.168. Transition elements are the Diatomic molecule : Contains two atoms
others up to Lawrencium (103). These elements that are found in Groups 3-12 bonded together, for example hydrogen
elements are known for their unique of the modern periodic table, that and oxygen. Triatomic molecules : These
properties and are primarily found in the constitute the _____ are made up of three atoms, which may
rare-earth group. SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift) be the same or different elements, such
(a) d-block (b) s-block as ozone (O3).
Q.164. In which musical note did (c) p-block (d) f-block
Newland put the metals Co and Ni with Q.172. As per Mendeleev’s prediction,
halogens? Sol.168.(a) d-block. Transition metals atomic mass of eka-aluminium was :
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) following represents the Phosphorus
(a) 100 (b) 44 (c) 72 (d) 68 element ?
Sol.172.(d) 68. Mendeleev left gaps for SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
aluminum and silicon in his periodic (a) c (b) d (c) a (d) b
table and referred to them as SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Eka-Aluminum and Eka-Silicon. Sol.175.(a) c. Mendeleev published the
(a) b (b) a (c) c (d) d
Mendeleev’s Predictions for the Elements periodic table in 1869 which displayed 63
Eka-aluminium (Gallium) and Eka-silicon elements. His Periodic Table contains Sol.179.(c) c
(Germanium): He predicted the atomic vertical columns called ‘groups’ and
weight of Eka-Aluminum to be 68, while horizontal rows called ‘periods’.
the discovered atomic weight of gallium
Q.176. Identify the number of electrons
is 69.72. He also predicted the atomic
found in the outermost shell of halogen.
weight of Eka-Silicon to be 72, and the
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
found atomic weight of germanium is
(a) Two (b) One (c) Five (d) Seven
72.6.
Sol.176.(d) Seven. Group 17 of the
Q.173. In Newlands’ Octaves, the Q.180. Which of the following scientists
Periodic Table consists of the following
properties of lithium and ________ were grouped the elements into triads?
elements : Fluorine (F), Chlorine (Cl),
found to be the same. SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Bromine (Br), Iodine (I), Astatine (At).
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Dimitri Mendeleev
These elements are extremely reactive.
(a) sodium (b) aluminium (b) John Newlands
The common oxidation state of these
(c) magnesium (d) beryllium
df
elements is -1. However, the highest (c) Henry Moseley
oxidation state can be +7. They form (d) Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner
Sol.173.(a) sodium. In 1865, the English
_p
chemist J.A.R. Newlands proposed the oxides, hydrogen halides, interhalogen
Sol.180.(d) Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner
Law of Octaves. It states that when compounds, and oxoacids.
na
developed the concept of Dobereiner's
chemical elements are arranged by Triads in 1817. He observed that certain
Q.177. Which of the following depicts the
increasing atomic mass, elements with
ap
Modern Periodic Table? groups of three elements (triads) had
similar physical and chemical properties similar chemical properties, and the
appear after every interval of seven.
:@
atomic mass of the middle element was
Examples include Lithium (Li) and roughly the average of the other two.
Sodium (Na), as well as Beryllium (Be) This was an early attempt to classify
and Magnesium (Mg). Limitations : Only
TG
elements based on their properties.
applicable up to calcium, assumed only
56 elements existed in nature, and Q.181. Which metalloid in the carbon
became irrelevant after the discovery of group is chemically similar to its group
on
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift)
the Noble gases. (a) c (b) d (c) a (d) b neighbours tin and silicon?
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
ch
Q.174. According to Mendeleev's Sol.177.(b) d. The periodic table is an (a) Germanium (b) Flerovium
Periodic Table, which elements’ arrangement of chemical elements into (c) Lead (d) Arsenic
ar
properties matched up remarkably well rows ("periods") and columns ("groups"),
with eka-silicon? Sol.181.(a) Germanium (Ge) is a
showcasing periodic trends in their
Se
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) metalloid in the carbon group (Group 14)
properties. It reflects the periodic law,
(a) Gallium (b) Scandium of the periodic table, and it is chemically
which states that elements, ordered by
(c) Titanium (d) Germanium similar to its group neighbors tin (Sn) and
atomic number, show recurring
silicon (Si). This similarity arises because
properties. The table is divided into four
Sol.174.(d) Germanium. Russian all three elements share similar electron
blocks, with elements in the same group
chemist Dmitri Mendeleev predicted the configurations and chemical properties,
exhibiting similar characteristics.
existence of several undiscovered such as forming covalent bonds and
elements by leaving gaps in his periodic Q.178. The tendency of an atom or a having semiconductor characteristics.
table and naming them: eka-boron - Later functional group to attract a shared pair
named scandium (Sc); eka-aluminium - Q.182. Technetium, the first artificially
of electrons toward itself, is known as:
Later named gallium (Ga); eka-silicon - produced element used in many medical
SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
Later named germanium (Ge); diagnostic imaging scans, is found in
(a) electronegativity (b) electron affinity
eka-manganese - Later named which group of the periodic table?
(c) electro-positivity (d) electro attraction
technetium (Tc). Mendeleev believed that Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
the properties of elements are a periodic Sol.178.(a) Electronegativity is a (a) Group 7 (b) Group 12
function of their atomic weights. chemical property that measures an (c) Group 14 (d) Group 19
atom's ability to attract shared electrons
Sol.182.(a) Group 7. Technetium is a
Q.175. Which of the following figures in a molecule. The electronegativity of an
chemical element with atomic number
represents Mendeleev's Periodic Table atom is influenced by its atomic number
43, represented by the symbol (Tc). This
that was published in a German journal in and the distance of its valence electrons
silvery-gray radioactive metal resembles
1872 ? from the positively charged nucleus.
platinum and is typically found as a gray
Q.179. According to Dalton, which of the powder. Technetium dissolves in aqua
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
regia, nitric acid, and concentrated are called so because they are (except for He). The maximum oxidation
sulfuric acid, but is insoluble in chemically inert i.e. they do not readily state shown by a p-block element is
hydrochloric acid. Discovered by Carlo undergo chemical reactions easily. equal to the total number of valence
Perrier and Emilio Segre in 1937. Presence - 18th group. Elements - Helium electrons. In the P block of periodic table
[He - 2], Neon [Ne - 10], Argon [Ar - 18], the non-metallic character of elements
Q.183. Which artificial element has been Krypton [Kr - 36], Xenon [Xe - 54], Radon decreases down the group. In fact the
provisionally named seaborgium by [Rn - 86]. heaviest element in each p-block group is
American researchers in honour of Nobel the most metallic in nature.
Laureate Glenn T Seaborg? Q.187. Which of the following options
Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 1) are all transition metals? Q.190. Which of the following elements
(a) Element 103 (b) Element 106 SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) is a member of the actinide series?
(c) Element 90 (d) Element 97 (a) He, Ne, Ar, Au (b) F, Cl, Br, I SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
(c) Cu, Fe, Ni, Ti (d) Na, Mg, Al, Mn (a) Lutetium (b) Thorium
Sol.183.(b) Element 106. Seaborgium is (c) Magnesium (d) Lanthanum
a highly radioactive element, with its Sol.187.(c) Cu (copper), Fe (Iron), Ni
most stable isotope possessing a (nickel), Ti (titanium). Transition Sol.190.(b) Thorium. The 15 elements
half-life of only a few minutes. Its elements : Those elements which have that are part of the Actinides series are:
discovery was first reported in 1974 by a partially filled d-orbitals. The names Actinium (Ac), Thorium (Th),
team of scientists at the Lawrence transition metals and inner transition Protactinium (Pa), Uranium (U),
Berkeley National Laboratory in metals are often used to refer to the Neptunium (Np), Plutonium (Pu),
California. Notable elements include elements of d-and f-blocks respectively. Americium (Am), Curium (Cm), Berkelium
Element 103 - Lawrencium, Element 90 - Some Transition metals - Scandium (Sc), (Bk), Californium (Cf), Einsteinium (Es),
Thorium, and Element 97 - Berkelium. vanadium (V), chromium (Cr), Fermium (Fm), Mendelevium (Md),
df
manganese (Mn), cobalt (Co), zinc (Zn). Nobelium (No), and Lawrencium (Lr).
Q.184. The likelihood of a neutral atom
_p
gaining an electron is known as: Q.188. Which German chemist was the Q.191. Which chemical element of Group
Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2) first to show a graphical representation
na
18 of the periodic table is produced by
(a) electronegativity (b) electro attraction of the periodicity of an atomic volume the natural radioactive decay of uranium
(c) electron affinity (d) electro positivity plotted against atomic weight ?
ap
in soils and rocks ?
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
Sol.184.(c) Electron affinity. It refers to (a) William Ramsay (b) John Newlands (a) Neon (b) Radon
:@
the energy change when an electron is (c) Glenn T Seaborg (d) Lothar Meyer (c) Oganesson (d) Krypton
added to a neutral gaseous atom,
forming a negative ion. Electropositivity, Sol.188.(d) Lothar Meyer. William Sol.191.(b) Radon (Rn, 86). It is a
TG
mainly seen in alkali and alkaline earth Ramsay - British physical chemist who radioactive element. It is used in some
metals, is an atom's tendency to donate discovered four gases (neon, argon, hospitals to treat tumours by sealing the
electrons and form positive cations. krypton, xenon) and showed that they gas in minute tubes.
on
(with helium and radon) formed an entire
Q.185. The behaviour of lithium is similar family of new elements, the noble gases. Q.192. Which radioactive element with
to that of magnesium. This sort of Award: Nobel Prize (1904). Glenn T atomic number 43 in the modern periodic
ch
similarity is commonly referred to as : Seaborg: His work on isolating and table is unstable, and the half-lives of all
SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 identifying transuranium elements (those its isotopes are relatively short, from 4.2
ar
(a) same Zeff heavier than uranium). million years to 5.0 s ?
Se
(b) inert pair effect SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
(c) isoelectronic species Q.189. Identify whether the given (a) Promethium (b) Nobelium
(d) diagonal relationship statements about p-block elements are (c) Technetium (d) Neptunium
correct or incorrect.
Sol.185.(d) Diagonal relationship. Statement A: In p-block elements, the Sol.192.(c) Technetium. The half-life
Magnesium and Lithium are almost of last electron enters the outermost p (t1/2) is the time in which the
the same sizes and electronegativity orbital. concentration of a reaction or radioactive
values are nearly the same because both Statement B: The non-metals and substances is reduced to one-half of its
are found together in nature. A Diagonal metalloids exist only in the p-block of the initial concentration. t1/2 = 0.693/λ. Here
Relationship is said to exist between periodic table. λ is the disintegration constant. Other
certain pairs of diagonally adjacent SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) elements and their atomic number:
elements in the second and third periods (a) Both Statements A and B are correct Darmstadtium (Ds) -110, Nihonium (Nh) -
of the periodic table. These pairs (Li & (b) Only Statement A is correct 113, Nobelium (No) - 102, Einsteinium
Mg, Be & Al, B & Si, etc.) exhibit similar (c) Only Statement B is correct (Es) - 99, Fermium (Fm) - 100, Plutonium
properties. (d) Both Statements A and B are (Pm) - 61.
incorrect
Q.186. What are the elements in group Q.193. Which d-block element in the
zero commonly known as ? Sol.189.(a) There are six groups of periodic table is represented by the Greek
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023 p–block elements in the periodic table symbol 'alpha' and the metallic 'rays’ ?
(a) Reactive (b) Inert gases numbering from 13 to 18. Boron, carbon, SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift)
(c) Radioactive (d) Volatile nitrogen, oxygen, fluorine and helium (a) Lanthanum (b) Actinium
head the groups. Their valence shell (c) Rhenium (d) Tungsten
Sol.186.(b) Inert gases : These gases
electronic configuration is ns2 np1-6
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
Sol.193.(b) Actinium. It is a silvery Sol.198.(c) Nihonium (Nh) - It is an SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift)
radioactive metallic element that glows extremely radioactive synthetic chemical (a) Group-16 (b) Group-2
in the dark due to its intense radioactivity element with a stable isotope, atomic (c) Group-17 (d) Group-18
with a blue light. It was discovered in mass - 286 u, has a half-life of 10
1899 by André-Louis Debierne. Groups 3 seconds and is a transactinide element Sol.202.(a) Group -16. They are - Oxygen
to 12 elements are called d-block or in the p-block. (O), Sulphur (S), Selenium (Se), Tellurium
transition elements. (Te) and Polonium (Po), and Livermorium
Q.199. Identify the element one that (Lv).
Q.194. Which is the soft, malleable and does NOT belong to Group 1 of the
silvery-yellow metal with atomic number Modern Periodic Table. Q.203. What is the name of a metallic
59 in the lanthanide series ? SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift) radioactive transuranic element with
SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Sodium (b) Lithium atomic number 101 in the actinide series,
(a) Neodymium (b) Praseodymium (c) Hydrogen (d) Rubidium discovered in 1955 ?
(c) Promethium (d) Gadolinium SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (4th shift)
Sol.199.(c) Hydrogen (H). Alkali metals - (a) Seaborgium (b) Nobelium
Sol.194.(b) Praseodymium (Pr) - It can They form hydroxides on reaction with (c) Mendelevium (d) Rutherfordium
be found in houses in equipment such as water which are strongly alkaline in
colour televisions, fluorescent lamps, nature. Physical Properties of Alkali Sol.203.(c) Mendelevium (Md): It is a
energy-saving lamps and glasses. It is metals - Silvery white, soft, light, highly synthetic and radioactive element,
solid at room temperature. malleability, high thermal and electrical named after Dimtri Mendeleev (Father of
conductivity. the periodic table), formed by
Q.195. In which group of the Periodic bombarding einsteinium (99) with alpha
Table will you put the elements with Q.200. Identify the last element from the particles. Transuranic elements are
df
2
electronic configuration [He]2𝑠 2𝑝 ?
6 fifth period. members of the actinide series
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (2nd shift) beginning with neptunium (93) which are
_p
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 18 (d) 10 (a) Helium (b) Yttrium artificially produced in nuclear reactors,
(c) Rubidium (d) Xenon accelerators and all have several
na
Sol.195.(c) 18. Electronic configuration isotopes that emit alpha rays.
of some elements : Neon (Ne, Atomic Sol.200.(d) Xenon. Period - A horizontal
ap
number - 10) - [He], 2s2 2p6 (the last orbit row of the periodic table. Total Period - 7 Q.204. Identify the element that does
is completely filled). Lithium (Li, Atomic periods, with each one beginning at the NOT belong to Period 6 of Modern
:@
number - 3) - [He], 2s1 (last orbit is not far left. Group - A column of elements in Periodic Table.
completely filled). Sodium (Na, Atomic the periodic table of the chemical SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (3rd shift)
number - 11) - 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1 (or) [Ne] elements. Total Groups - 18. (a) Silicon (b) Tungsten
TG
3s1. (c) Rhenium (d) Platinum
Q.201. Identify the correct statement
Q.196. What is the name of the 87 th about Newlands' law of octaves. Sol.204.(a) Silicon (Si):- Atomic number
on
element on the periodic table that has no SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (2nd shift) - 14 , Group - 14, Period - 3. Uses: To
known biological role because it has a (a) He started with the element having make alloys including aluminium - silicon
half-life of only 22 minutes ? the highest atomic mass (hydrogen) and ferro - silicon (iron - silicon).
ch
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift) and ended at thorium which was the
Q.205. Lanthanides are often called:
56th element.
ar
(a) Meitnerium (b) Dubnium SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(c) Seaborgium (d) Francium (b) He started with the element having
(a) alkali metals (b) rare earth elements
Se
the lowest atomic mass (hydrogen)
(c) inert gases (d) d-block elements
Sol.196.(d) Francium (Fr): It is in liquid and ended at sodium.
form at room temperature. Second-most (c) He started with the element having Sol.205.(b) Rare earth elements.
electropositive element (after cesium). the lowest atomic mass (hydrogen) Lanthanides are the elements with
and ended at aluminium. atomic numbers from 57 to 71.
Q.197. What is the atomic number of
(d) He started with the element having Lanthanides and Actinides are located
Bohrium which is named after physicist
the lowest atomic mass (hydrogen) mostly in the "f-block" of the periodic
Niels Bohr, one of the founders of
and ended at thorium which was the table. The f-block, also known as inner
quantum theory ?
56th element. transition element, consists of elements
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift)
in which 4 f and 5 f orbitals are
(a) 117 (b) 107 (c) 113 (d) 101 Sol.201.(d) Newlands' law of octaves -
progressively filled.
when elements are arranged in
Sol.197.(b) 107. Symbol - Bh. The
increasing order of their atomic masses, Q.206. Which element in the modern
namesake of Bohrium, Niels Bohr, was
the properties of the eighth element are a periodic table has the same number of
awarded the Nobel Prize in 1922 for his
repetition of the properties of the first valence electrons as that of caesium?
work on the structure of atoms.
element. It was found that the Law of SSC CHSL Tier II (26/06/2023)
Q.198. Which element of group 13 has Octaves was applicable only upto (a) Aluminium (b) Barium
the atomic number 113 and its electronic calcium, as after calcium every eighth (c) Potassium (d) Calcium
configuration is [Rn] 5f146d107s27p1 ? element did not possess properties
Sol.206.(c) Potassium (K, 19). Valence
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) similar to that of the first.
electrons - 1. Caesium (Cs, 55), Valence
(a) Gallium (b) Indium electrons - 1. Valence electrons are
Q.202. Which of the following group
(c) Nihonium (d) Thallium electrons that are located in the
elements are called chalcogens?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
outermost electron shell of an atom. green LEDs and pressure sensors for SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Evening)
touch switches. (a) Group 6 (b) Group 9
Q.207. ________ is the heaviest naturally (c) Group 5 (d) Group 7
occurring element of the Periodic Table Q.212. Who conducted X-ray
with an atomic weight of 238. spectroscopic study of a large number of Sol.216.(b) Group 9 elements - cobalt,
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening) elements and showed that the frequency rhodium, iridium and meitnerium.
(a) Xenon (b) Uranium of X-rays emitted by an element is related
(c) Helium (d) Mercury to the atomic number, Z, rather than the Q.217. Which element’s symbol is
atomic mass? derived from the Greek name
Sol.207.(b) Uranium. Atomic number - SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift) hydrargyrum, meaning ‘liquid silver’ –
92, Symbol - U. The heaviest man made (a) Lothar Meyer (b) Dmitri Mendeleev indicating its shiny surface?
element - Oganesson with atomic (c) Henry Moseley (d) Johann Dobereiner SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Morning)
number 118, Atomic weight - 294, (a) Antimony (b) Zirconium
Symbol - Og. Hydrogen is the lightest Sol.212.(c) Henry Moseley. Lothar (c) Mercury (d) Silver
element with atomic number - 1, Symbol - Meyer proposed that in arranging the
H, atomic weight - 1.0078. Astatine is the elements to increase atomic weights, Sol.217.(c) Mercury (Symbol- Hg;
rarest element in Earth's crust, found only similarities appear in physical and Atomic Number- 80; Valence electrons-
as a decay product of heavier elements. chemical properties. In 1829, Johann 2). It is used in older thermometers,
Dobereiner recognised triads of fluorescent light bulbs, and some
Q.208. Which among the following is a elements with chemically similar electrical switches. Antimony (Sb; 51),
noble chemical element of science properties, such as lithium, sodium and Zirconium (Zr; 40), and Silver (Ag; 47).
periodic table ? potassium.
SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Morning) Q.218. Which element of Group 13 of the
df
(a) Nitrogen (b) Helium Q.213. In 1955, which synthetic element periodic table liquefies just above room
(c) Scandium (d) Cobalt is provisionally named Mendelevium in temperature?
_p
honour of Dmitri Mendeleev, who created SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Morning)
Sol.208.(b) Helium - It is a noble gas one of the first periodic tables? (a) Gallium (b) Indium
na
with Atomic number - 2, Atomic mass - 4, SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (3rd Shift) (c) Thallium (d) Aluminium
Symbol - He. (a) Element 90 (b) Element 101
ap
Sol.218.(a) Gallium is one of four metals
Q.209. Which artificial element has been (c) Element 103 (d) Element 106 (mercury, caesium, and rubidium) that
:@
provisionally named seaborgium by Sol.213.(b) Element 101. Mendelevium can be liquid near room temperature.
American researchers in honour of Nobel (named after Dmitri Mendeleev) is a Symbol- Ga; Atomic Number- 31; Valence
Laureate Glenn T Seaborg? synthetic element with the symbol Md Electrons- 3. It was discovered by French
TG
SSC CGL Tier II 06/03/2023 (formerly Mv). chemist Paul-Emile Lecoq de
(a) Element 97 (b) Element 106 Boisbaudran in 1875. It is used in
(c) Element 90 (d) Element 103 Q.214. Which atomic number element of electronic circuits, semiconductors, and
on
the periodic table is named after Alfred light-emitting diodes (LEDs).
Sol.209.(b) Element 106. Discovery - Nobel, the inventor of dynamite and the
Albert Ghiorso and named it after the founder of the Nobel Prize? Q.219. Identify the group of the periodic
ch
Nuclear chemist Glenn T. Seaborg (1974). SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening) table to which iron belongs.
(a) 102 (b) 100 (c) 105 (d) 108 SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Morning)
ar
Q.210. Hydrogen resembles the properties (a) Group 8 (b) Group 6
of which two groups of the periodic table? Sol.214.(a) 102 - Nobelium (No) (c) Group 5 (d) Group 7
Se
SSC CGL Tier II 06/03/2023 (radioactive element): Relative Atomic
(a) Group 2 and group 17 Mass - 259 u, Block - f, Period - 7, Group - Sol.219.(a) Group 8 elements- Iron (Fe),
(b) Group 1 and group 3 Actinide, Discovered by - Albert Ghiorso ruthenium (Ru), osmium (Os) and
(c) Group 1 and group 17 (1963). It is the tenth transuranic hassium (Hs).
(d) Group 2 and group 4 element.
Q.220. Why does the effective nuclear
Sol.210.(c) Group 1 and group 17. Q.215. Which of the following elements charge experienced by valence electrons
Hydrogen - Resembles alkali metals and has the largest atomic radii ? decrease down the group?
halogens. SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Morning) SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) Beryllium (b) Lithium (a) The elements are inert
Q.211. Which element of group 13 is a (b) The outermost electrons are closest
(c) Nitrogen (d) Carbon
soft metal with a low melting point to the nucleus
(303K) and is widely used in doping Sol.215.(b) Lithium. Atomic radius is the (c) The innermost electrons are farther
semiconductors and producing total distance from the nucleus of an away from the nucleus
solid-state devices such as transistors? atom to the outermost orbital of its (d) The outermost electrons are farther
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (1st Shift) electron. It increases from top to bottom away from the nucleus
(a) Aluminium (b) Boron in a group and decreases from left to
(c) Thallium (d) Gallium right across a period. Thus, helium is the Sol.220.(d) Metallic character decreases
smallest element, and francium is the across a period and increases down the
Sol.211.(d) Gallium (Ga, Atomic number: largest. group.
31, Atomic mass: 69.723 u, Discovered:
1875 ). It has important uses in Blue-ray Q.216. Identify the group of the periodic Q.221. Of the known elements in the
technology, mobile phones, blue and table to which cobalt belongs. periodic table, only ______ are gases
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
under normal atmospheric conditions. thorough investigation of the gas laws (a) Charles' Law (b) Boyle's Law
SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Afternoon) expressing the relationships of pressure, (c) Dalton's Law (d) Graham's Law
(a) 10 (b) 13 (c) 11 (d) 12 temperature and volume in carbon
Sol.228.(c) Dalton's Law. Charles' Law:
dioxide?
Sol.221.(c) 11 . These elements are The volume of an ideal gas at constant
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift)
Hydrogen, Helium, Nitrogen, Oxygen, (a) Thomas Andrews (b) Giulio Natta pressure is directly proportional to the
Fluorine, Chlorine, Neon, Argon, Krypton, (c) John Dalton (d) Marguerite Perey absolute temperature. Graham's Law:
Xenon, and Radon. The rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely
Sol.224.(a) Thomas Andrews - He was proportional to the square root of its
Ideal Gas Law an Irish physicist and chemist who is molecular weight.
best known for his work on the
Q.222. Which number is called liquefaction of gases. Q.229. In 1662, who described the
Avogadro's constant, named after the equation P1V1 = P2V2 , where P1 and V1 are
19th century scientist Amedeo Avogadro? Q.225. Who described in 1662 that when the initial pressure and volume values,
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift) a gas was pumped into an enclosed and P2 and V2 are the pressure and
(a) 6.022 × 1023 (b) 6.020 × 1020 space, it would shrink to fit in that space, volume values of the gas after the
(c) 6.032 × 1019 (d) 6.012 × 1021 but the pressure exerted by the gas on transformation?
the container would increase? Graduate Level 02/08/2022 (Shift - 3)
Sol.222.(a) 6.022 × 1023. The Avogadro SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Robert Boyle
constant is 6.022 × 1023 , representing (a) Jacques Charles (b) Amedeo Avogadro
the fixed number of particles (atoms, (b) Joseph Gay Lussac (c) Joseph Gay Lussac
molecules, or ions) in 1 mole of any (c) Amedeo Avogadro (d) John Dalton
substance. This value is experimentally (d) Robert Boyle
Sol.229.(a) Robert Boyle (Boyle’s law):
df
determined and symbolized as NA.
Amedeo Avogadro {Avogadro’s Sol.225.(d) Robert Boyle. French Joseph Gay Lussac {Gay- Lussac's law
_p
hypothesis (1811) states that the total physicist Jacques Charles (1746-1823) (1808) states that the pressure exerted
number of atoms /molecules of a gas is studied the effect of temperature on the by a gas (of a given mass and kept at a
na
directly proportional to the volume volume of a gas at constant pressure. constant volume) varies directly with the
occupied by the gas at constant absolute temperature of the gas}.
ap
Q.226. Which of the following is used as
temperature and pressure}.
a cooling medium for the Large Hadron Q.230. One mole of an ideal gas
Collider (LHC) and the superconducting occupies a volume of ______ litre at 273 K
:@
Q.223. Which of the following
statements best describes Le Chatelier's magnets in MRI scanners and NMR and 1 atm pressure.
principle? spectrometers? SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Evening)
TG
A. The law states that the total pressure SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift) (a) 21.2 (b) 25.1 (c) 20.3 (d) 22.4
of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum (a) Neon (b) Chlorine (c) Argon (d) Helium
Sol.230.(d) 22.4 litre . The ideal gas law,
of the partial pressures of the individual
Sol.226.(d) Helium (He). Atomic number also called the general gas equation, is
on
gases.
- 2, Group - 18 (Noble gas), Block - S, the equation of state of a hypothetical
B. The principle states that the rate of a
chemically inert. Other uses of Helium - ideal gas. PV=nRT, Where P= Pressure,
chemical reaction is directly proportional
ch
To keep satellite instruments cool, for arc V=Volume, n=Amount of Substance, R=
to the concentration of the reactants.
welding, to provide an inert protective Ideal Gas Constant, T= Temperature.
C. The principle states that a change in
ar
atmosphere for making fibre optics and
the variables describing a system at
semiconductors. Chemical Properties
Se
equilibrium causes a shift in the
equilibrium position to counteract the Q.227. The lowest temperature at which Q.231. What is the product of the
change. a substance catches fire is called its ___. following chemical reaction?
D. The principle states that the volume of SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Morning) NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3
a gas at constant temperature is (a) melting point SSC MTS 15/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
inversely proportional to its pressure. (b) explosion point (a) Bleaching powder (b) Baking soda
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3) (c) ignition temperature (c) Gypsum (d) Washing soda
(a) D (b) C (c) A (d) B (d) combustion temperature
Sol.231.(b) Baking soda. The reaction
Sol.223.(b) C. To determine the course Sol.227.(c) Ignition temperature. between sodium chloride (NaCl), water
of a reaction and make qualitative Kerosene has low and coal has a high (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), and
predictions about how changes in ignition temperature. Inflammable ammonia (NH3) produces sodium
conditions affect equilibrium, we use Le substance - Very low ignition bicarbonate (baking soda) as part of the
Chatelier’s principle. This principle states temperature, can easily catch fire with a Solvay process.The chemical equation
that a change in any of the factors that flame. Examples - Liquefied petroleum for this reaction is:
determine the equilibrium conditions of a gas, petrol, magnesium, kerosene. NaCl+H2O+CO2+NH,→NaHCO3+NH4Cl
system will cause the system to change Here, NaHCO3 is baking soda, and NH4Cl
in such a manner so as to reduce or to Q.228. According to which of the (ammonium chloride) is a by-product.
counteract the effect of the change. This following laws, the pressure of a mixture
is applicable to all physical and chemical of gases is equal to the sum of the Q.232. Which of the following
equilibria. partial pressures of the component decomposition reactions is NOT a redox
gases? reaction?
Q.224. Who, in the 1860s, undertook a SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (4th Shift) SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
(a) Decomposition of dihydrogen saturated with gas molecules. Chemical silver chloride is exposed to sunlight, the
monoxide decomposition, also known as chemical energy from the light causes the
(b) Decomposition of sodium hydride breakdown, is the process of breaking compound to break down into silver and
(c) Decomposition of potassium chlorate down a single chemical entity (such as a chlorine ions. The silver ions combine
(d) Decomposition of calcium carbonate molecule or reaction intermediate) into with other substances in the environment
two or more fragments. It is generally to form a white precipitate, which gives
Sol.232.(d) Decomposition of calcium considered the opposite of chemical the appearance of the silver chloride
carbonate. A redox reaction is defined as synthesis. turning white.
a reaction in which oxidation and
reduction take place simultaneously. The Q.236. The cause of a redox reaction is Q.239. Which of the following
decomposition of calcium carbonate the: statements are true based on the
(CaCO3) into calcium oxide (CaO) and SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) ?
carbon dioxide (CO2) does not involve a (a) transfer of electrons between two (i) N gets oxidized. (ii) O gets oxidized.
change in the oxidation states of the reactants (iii) N gets reduced. (iv) O gets reduced
elements involved, making it a non-redox (b) transfer of electrons between two SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
reaction. products (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) transfer of neutrons between two (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
Q.233. When electricity is passed reactants
through water, what kind of chemical (d) exchange of halogens between two Sol.239.(a) (i) and (iv). The reaction
reaction occurs ? reactants 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) is
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) an example of a redox reaction, which
(a) Decomposition Sol.236.(a) Transfer of electrons means it involves both oxidation and
(b) Displacement between two reactants. 2Na(s) + S(s) → reduction. The nitrogen in ammonia
df
(c) Double displacement Na2S(s) are redox reactions because in (NH3) is oxidized when oxygen is added.
_p
(d) Combination each of these reactions sodium is The oxygen (O2) is reduced when
oxidised due to the addition of either hydrogen is added to form water (H2O).
Sol.233.(a) Decomposition. This process
na
oxygen or more electronegative element Ammonia acts as a reducing agent.
is known as electrolysis which breaks to sodium. Simultaneously, chlorine, Oxygen acts as an oxidizing agent.
down water (H2O) into its constituent oxygen and sulphur are reduced because
ap
gases, hydrogen (H2) and oxygen (O2). to each of these, the electropositive Q.240. Which of the following chemical
Reactions in which a compound splits up element sodium has been added. reactions takes place when quicklime
:@
into two or more simpler substances are reacts with water?
known as decomposition reactions. Q.237. Which of the following gases SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
emits red light when electricity is passed (a) CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca + H2 (aq)
TG
Q.234. Which of the following statements through it ? (b) C(s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)
is INCORRECT ? SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (c) CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq)
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Neon (b) Hydrogen (d) CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O
on
(a) Fats and oils get reduced over time (c) Argon (d) Helium (g)
and smell bad
Sol.237.(a) Neon. Electric discharge in
ch
(b) Fats and oils are oxidised, they Sol.240.(c) CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2
become rancid. gases happens when electric current (aq). This reaction is known as slaking of
passes through a gaseous medium,
ar
(c) Antioxidants are added to foods lime, where quicklime (calcium oxide)
containing fats and oil to prevent leading to the ionization of the gas. This reacts with water to form calcium
Se
oxidation. process can produce visible light, with hydroxide.
(d) Chips manufacturers usually flush different elements emitting various
bags of chips with Nitrogen to wavelengths and colors as they return to Q.241. For a chemical reaction with a
prevent the chips from getting rancid. their ground states. Gas and Colour : rise in temperature by 10°, the rate
Hydrogen - Blue-violet, Helium - constant becomes nearly __________.
Sol.234.(a) When fats and oils are Pink-orange, Argon - Violet and Krypton - SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
oxidized, they undergo a process known Lavender. (a) Double (b) Triple
as rancidity, which results in an (c) one-fourth (d) half
unpleasant smell and taste. This occurs Q.238. Find out why white silver chloride
because the oxidation of fats leads to turns grey in sunlight. Sol.241.(a) Double. The rate constant is
the formation of compounds like SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) defined as the proportionality constant
aldehydes and ketones, which give rancid (a) Due to rusting of silver in presence of which explains the relationship between
products their off-flavor. oxygen the molar concentration of reactants and
(b) Due to redox reaction the rate of a chemical reaction.
Q.235. The decomposition of gaseous (c) Due to the decomposition of silver
Ammonia on a hot platinum surface is a Q.242. A chemical reaction in which the
chloride into silver and chlorine by
_________ order reaction at high pressure. rate of reaction is directly proportional to
light
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) the first power of the concentration of
(d) Due to the displacement of silver
(a) two (b) zero (c) three (d) one the reacting substance is called:
chloride to silver oxide
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.235.(b) zero. In this reaction, Sol.238.(c) Silver chloride (AgCl) is a (a) zero order reaction
platinum serves as a catalyst. Under high photosensitive compound, which means (b) third order reaction
pressure, the metal surface becomes it reacts to light by decomposing. When (c) second order reaction
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
(d) first order reaction is typically limited by factors other than gasoline.
the concentration of the reactants.
Sol.242.(d) first order reaction. Q.249. The method of separating a
Mathematically, this is represented as: Q.246. How many carbon dioxide and mixture of soluble solids by dissolving
Rate = k[A] water molecules will be there in the them in a suitable hot solvent and then
Where: Rate is the rate of reaction, k is product side, if the following equation is lowering the temperature slowly is called:
the rate constant, [A] is the concentration made balanced ? SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift)
of the reacting substance. SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) (a) azeotropic distillation
Zero-order reaction: Rate is independent C2H5OH + O2 → CO2 + H2O (b) sublimation
of concentration (Rate = k) (a) 3 and 6, respectively (c) dephlegmation
Second-order reaction: Rate is (b) 1 and 1, respectively (d) fractional crystallisation
proportional to the second power of (c) 2 and 3, respectively
concentration (Rate = k[A]2) (d) 3 and 2, respectively Sol.249.(d) fractional crystallisation.
Azeotropic distillation is the process of
Q.243. Which of the following is NOT a Sol.246.(c) 2 and 3, respectively. A separating all the components of an
physical change? chemical equation represents a chemical azeotropic mixture by the process of
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) reaction, with reactants on the left and distillation. Sublimation is the change of
(a) Heating of iron rod to red hot products on the right, using their solid state directly to gaseous state
(b) Curdling of milk respective chemical symbols. An without going through liquid state.
(c) Evaporation of diesel equation is considered balanced when
(d) Sublimation of NH4Cl Q.250. Which of the following is an
the number of each atom is equal on
example of a ‘solid in a liquid’ type of
both sides, adhering to the law of
Sol.243.(b) Curdling of milk. It is a solution ?
conservation of mass. This law states
df
chemical change because lactic acid SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift)
that atoms of the reactants are
bacteria changes the milk permanently to (a) Vinegar (b) Tincture of iodine
_p
rearranged to form products, while the
the curd. A change in which a substance (c) Brass (d) Bronze
total mass remains constant throughout
undergoes a change in its physical
na
the reaction. Sol.250.(b) Tincture of iodine. Iodine
properties is called a physical change. A
physical change is generally reversible. In tincture is considered an antiseptic. 2 - 3
ap
Q.247. Electrochemical cell is a device
such a change no new substance is % per cent solution of iodine in
which converts chemical energy into
formed. Examples include dissolving alcohol-water mixture is known as
electrical energy in a/an _____.
:@
sugar in water, sublimation of dry ice, tincture of Iodine. A solution is a mixture
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
crushing paper, melting wax, and boiling formed when a solid, liquid or gaseous
(a) oxidation reaction
water. substance is homogeneously mixed with
TG
(b) reduction reaction
a liquid. Examples of solid in a liquid:
(c) indirect redox reaction
Q.244. When you take Lead nitrate Muddy water, Salt and water, Sugar
(d) direct redox reaction
powder in a boiling tube and heat it, you solution.
on
will observe the emission of brown Sol.247.(c) indirect redox reaction. A
fumes that are of ____________ . Q.251. Which of the following
galvanic (or voltaic) cell is an
statements best describes the Hardy
ch
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift) electrochemical cell that converts the
(a) Nitrous oxide Schulze rule ?
chemical energy of a spontaneous redox
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift)
ar
(b) Nitric oxide reaction directly into electrical energy.
(c) Nitrogen dioxide (a) The amount of electrolyte required for
The Gibbs free energy from the redox
Se
(d) Dinitrogen trioxide the coagulation of a definite amount
reaction powers electrical work, which
of a colloidal solution is dependent
can be used to run devices such as
Sol.244.(c) Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂). When on the valency of the coagulating ion.
motors, heaters, or fans.
lead nitrate powder is heated in a boiling (b) This is applied to obtain a colloidal
tube, the brown fumes that are emitted Q.248. In which of the following liquids solution of metals such as gold, silver
are of nitrogen dioxide. Chemical would anthracene dissolve easily ? or platinum.
reaction: SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift) (c) The ions are removed from the
2Pb(NO3)2(s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g). (a) Methane (b) Water solution by the phenomenon of
(c) Benzene (d) Sodium chloride diffusion through a permeable
Q.245. The type of reaction that is membrane.
typically found when a material that is Sol.248.(c) Benzene (C6H6) - It is a (d) The partial pressure of a component
required for the reaction to proceed, such colorless or light yellow liquid at room in a liquid mixture is proportional to
as a surface or a catalyst, is saturated by temperature. It is widely used in the its mole fraction in that mixture.
the reactants is called a ________ order production of plastics, resins, synthetic
reaction. fibers, rubber, and lubricants. The Sol.251.(a) The Hardy-Schulze rule
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift) benzene molecule consists of alternating states that a precipitate ion’s coagulation
(a) first (b) second (c) zero (d) third single and double bonds between carbon power increases as its valency increases.
atoms, forming a total of 9 single bonds For instance, Al3+ > Ba2+ > Na+ is the
Sol.245.(c) zero-order reaction: It is a coagulation power series of Al3+, Na+, and
type of chemical reaction in which the and 3 double bonds. The structure is
planar, with a regular hexagonal shape Ba2+.
rate is independent of the concentration
of reactants, remains constant and bond angles of 120º. Additionally, Q.252. Name the white precipitate
regardless of reactant concentration, and benzene is used as an additive in formed in the reaction of sodium
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
sulphate and barium chloride. critical temperature of 31°C. Q.260. Which of the following
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) statements is correct ?
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Sodium oxide (a) nitrogen (b) carbon dioxide SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon)
(c) Barium hydroxide (d) Barium sulphate (c) lithium (d) hydrogen (a) Zinc oxide is a form of rust
(b) Chemically rust is hydrated ferric
Sol.252.(d) Barium sulphate. Sodium Sol.256.(b) Carbon dioxide is a colorless,
oxide
Sulfate (Na2SO4) and Barium Chloride odorless, and tasteless gas. It is
(c) Chemically rust is non-hydrated ferric
(BaCl2) remain in ionic form in their non-flammable and non-toxic. It is
oxide
aqueous solution. When the aqueous essential for plant life, but it is also a
(d) Copper can also turn into rust upon
solutions of these compounds are mixed, greenhouse gas that contributes to
hydration
a double displacement reaction takes climate change.
place involving the exchange of chloride Sol.260.(b) Rust is an iron oxide, a
Q.257. In July 2018, an experiment
and sulphate ions. The product formed is usually reddish-brown oxide formed by
aboard the International Space Station
a solid precipitate of Barium Sulphate the reaction of iron and oxygen in the
cooled a cloud of atoms of which
(BaSO4). The chemical equation for the catalytic presence of water or air
chemical element to one ten-millionth of
reaction is: Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → 2NaCl + moisture. Rust is a Hydrated Iron (III)
one Kelvin above absolute zero, forming
BaSO4. Oxide (Fe2O3 xH2O). Rusting mainly
a Bose-Einstein Condensate in space?
happens on surfaces of iron and its
Q.253. The dry cell is made up of an SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
(a) Rubidium (b) Radium alloys. Corrosion is a natural process
outer___container that acts as the anode. that converts a refined metal into a more
(c) Plutonium (d) Thorium
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2) chemically stable oxide.
(a) manganese (b) lead (c) nickel (d) zinc Sol.257.(a) Rubidium (Rb) - An alkali and
soft metal that ignites in air and reacts Q.261. The correct order of electron
df
Sol.253.(d) zinc. A dry cell is a type of affinity of halogens is:
violently with water and has atomic
zinc-carbon battery composed of the
_p
number 37 in the fifth period of the SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift)
following parts : Carbon Rod - Positioned (a) F<l<Br<Cl (b) I<Br<Cl<F
periodic table. Use: In the filaments of
centrally, this rod functions as the
na
photo-electric cells that convert light (c) I<Br<F<CI (d) I>Br>F<CI
cathode. Electrolyte - A paste made of
energy into electric energy.
ammonium chloride surrounds the zinc Sol.261.(c) I<Br<F<CI. They are very
ap
anode, facilitating the flow of ions. Q.258. Which odourless, colourless, reactive, the reactivity decreases from
Manganese Dioxide Shield - This shield tasteless and chemically unreactive gas fluorine to astatine. Electron affinity is
:@
surrounds the cell, helping to improve the was invented by Daniel Rutherford in one of the periodic properties of the
efficiency and longevity of the battery. 1772 and was independently isolated at elements. From top to bottom electron
affinity decreases, From left to right
TG
the same time by CW Scheele and H
Q.254. Which process of phase electron affinity increases.
Cavendish ?
transition is the reverse of deposition?
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) (a) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen Q.262. What is the popular name for
on
(a) Sublimation (b) Fusion (c) Argon (d) Fluorine mercury(I) chloride which is used as a
(c) Solidification (d) Vaporisation laboratory reagent and as a depolarizer
ch
Sol.258.(b) Nitrogen (N, 7): It is used to in dry batteries?
Sol.254.(a) Sublimation - The transition make fertilizers, nitric acid, nylon, dyes SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift)
of a substance directly from the solid to
ar
and explosives. Argon (Ar, 18): (a) Calomel (b) Phosgene
the gas state, without passing through Discovered by Lord Rayleigh and Sir (c) Galena (d) Saltpetre
Se
the liquid state. Examples - Ammonium William Ramsay in 1894, It is a
chloride (NH4Cl), iodine, camphor, colourless, odourless gas that is totally Sol.262.(a) Calomel (Hg2Cl2).
naphthalene, dry ice. inert to other substances. Fluorine (F, 9): Compounds and their popular names
Discovered by Henri Moissan in 1886. and uses: Carbonyl Chloride (COCl2) -
Q.255. The major component of granite Phosgene used in making organic
is: Q.259. From the given options, choose chemicals, dyestuffs, polycarbonate
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) the one which is NOT a product of the resins, and isocyanates for making
(a) MnO2 and PbSO4 (b) SiO2 and Al2O3 decomposition reaction of Lead nitrate. polyurethane resins.
(c) TiO2 and ZnSO4 (d) ZnSO4 and Al2O3 SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
(a) Oxygen (b) Lead oxide Q.263. Which of the following is a highly
Sol.255.(b) SiO2 and Al2O3. Granite is a electropositive element that readily gives
coarse-grained igneous rock composed (c) Nitrogen dioxide (d) Nitrogen
up an electron in order to obtain a stable
mainly of quartz, feldspar, and mica. Sol.259.(d) Nitrogen. A decomposition electronic configuration?
Quartz is a mineral made up of silicon reaction is a chemical reaction in which SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift)
dioxide (SiO2), and feldspar is a mineral one reactant breaks down into two or (a) CI (b) O (c) Na (d) N
made up of aluminium oxide (Al2O3), so more products. It can be both
these two minerals make up the majority endothermic or exothermic. Lead Nitrate Sol.263.(c) Na (Sodium) - Group 1A
of granite. Pb(NO3)2 on decomposition Produces (Alkali Metal). Electropositivity can be
Lead oxide (PbO), Oxygen molecule (O2), defined as the tendency of an atom to
Q.256. At normal temperature and donate electrons and form positively
atmospheric pressure, ____ has a density and Nitrogen dioxide (NO2). Balanced
Chemical equation - charged cations. Most Electropositive
of 1.87 kg/m3, which is 1.5 times heavier elements: Caesium. Most
than air and exists as a liquid below the 2 Pb(NO3)2 → 2 PbO + 4 NO2 + O2.
electronegative element - Fluorine.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
Q.264. Which of the following pairs of Q.268. What is the atomicity of Chlorine? carbon dioxide), it turns from its element
compounds - boiling point is correct? SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (2nd shift) colour of reddish-brown to green. Copper
I. Chloroform - 334K (a) Tetra-atomic (b) Diatomic sulphate is used in Benedict’s solution
II. Methane - 111K (c) Poly-atomic (d) Monoatomic and in Fehling’s solution, which is used in
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (4th shift) testing for reducing sugars.
Sol.268.(b) Diatomic. Types of Atomicity:
(a) Only I (b) Neither I nor II
Monoatomic - Elements which have only Q.273. What is the product of a reaction
(c) Only II (d) Both I and II
one atom and in which atoms do not join of calcium carbonate, water and carbon
Sol.264.(d) Both I and II. Boiling Point in to form a cluster. Example: Noble gases dioxide?
Celsius: Chloroform (CHCl₃) : 61.2°C and Helium (He), Neon (Ne), Argon (Ar), SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Methane (CH4) is -161.5°C. Some Krypton (Kr). Diatomic - Elements that (a) Calcium oxide
chemical elements and boiling points: have two atoms. Example: Hydrogen (b) Calcium hydroxide
Lowest boiling point element : Helium (H2), Nitrogen (N2), Fluorine (F2). (c) Hydrochloric acid
(-269°C). Aluminium (2467°C), Chlorine Triatomic - Elements that have 3 atoms. (d) Calcium hydrogen carbonate
(-34.04°C), Bromine (58.8°C). In the Example: Ozone(O3). Polyatomic -
Elements that have more than 3 atoms. Sol.273.(d) Calcium hydrogen carbonate
absence of other intermolecular forces,
Example: Sulphur (S8), {CaCO3 + CO2 + H2O → Ca(HCO3)2}. The
the higher the molecular weight of a
buckminsterfullerene (C60). reaction proceeds at room temperature.
compound, the higher its boiling point.
It is used as an antacid to alleviate
Q.265. Which of the following has the Q.269. Which of the following elements heartburn, acid indigestion.
highest boiling point ? has variable valency ?
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (3rd shift) Q.274. Which gas is used by chemical
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift)
(a) Iron (b) Sodium leaveners, such as baking powder and
(a) Alkenes (b) Alkanes
df
(c) Sulphur (d) Magnesium baking soda, to lighten and aerate baked
(c) Free carbon dioxide (d) Alkynes
goods ?
_p
Sol.269.(a) Iron. Variable valency is the SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
Sol.265.(d) Alkynes (CnH2n-2) - They have
ability of an atom to form different (a) Nitrogen (b) Carbon dioxide
higher boiling points than alkanes and
na
numbers of bonds with other atoms, (c) Helium (d) Hydrogen
alkenes due to their stronger London
which is determined by the number of
dispersion forces resulting from their
ap
unpaired electrons in the atom's Sol.274.(b) Carbon dioxide (CO2 ) is used
linear shape and increased electron as a refrigerant, in fire extinguishers, for
outermost energy level.
density from the triple bond. Example - inflating life rafts and life jackets,
:@
Ethyne (C2H2), Propyne (C3H4). Q.270. Which of the following is the blasting coal, foaming rubber and
correct descending order of nitrate ion plastics, promoting the growth of plants
Q.266. The valency of argentic is:
TG
(NO3–), chloride ion (CI–), bromide ion in greenhouses, immobilizing animals
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift)
(Br–) and iodide ion (I–) as per their basic before slaughter, and in carbonated
(a) + 3 (b) - 1 (c) - 2 (d) + 2
strength? beverages.
on
Sol.266.(d) +2. Argentic (relating to SSC CHSL Tier II 26/06/2023
(a) CI– > Br– > I– > NO3– Q.275. Which of the following is NOT a
compounds in which silver is bivalent). neutral oxide ?
(b) NO3– > CI– > Br– > I–
Valency - The combining capacity of one SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning)
ch
(c) I– > NO3– > Cl¯ > Br–
element with another element. It (a) N2O (b) Na2O (c) NO (d) CO
(d) Br– > I– > NO3¯ > CI¯
determines the number of electrons an
ar
Sol.275.(b) Na2O (Sodium oxide) - It is
element can donate or accept to form a Sol.270.(b) NO3– > CI– > Br– > I– .
basic in nature. Neutral oxides are oxides
Se
stable electronic configuration. The
Q.271. Which among the following has which are neither acidic nor basic.
element that exhibits lower valency will
the highest boiling point? Examples:- nitrous oxide (N2O), nitric
be suffixed with “ous” while the element
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (2nd Shift) oxide (NO), carbon monoxide (CO).
that exhibits higher valency will be
(a) NaCl (b) CaO (c) CaCl2 (d) LiCI
suffixed with “ic”. Silver (Ag) - Argentous Q.276. Which of the following is correctly
(Ag⁺¹) and Argentic (Ag⁺²). Sol.271.(b) CaO. Calcium oxide paired?
(Quicklime) Boiling point : 2850 oC, SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Evening)
Q.267. Which of the following acids Melting point : 2572 oC. NaCl (sodium (a) Cyanide ion - CN– (b) Ammonia - OH–
makes up 55-80% of olive oil, making it a chloride) Boiling point : 1465 oC, Melting (c) Bromide ion - F– (d) Fluoride ion - Cl–
good choice for most cooking methods? point : 801 oC. CaCl2 (calcium chloride)
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift) Boiling point: 1935 oC, Melting point : 772 Sol.276.(a) Cyanide ion - CN– are
(a) Lauric acid (b) Oleic acid o
C. LiCl (lithium chloride) Boiling point: chemical compounds which are fast
(c) Arachidic acid (d) Stearic acid 1382 oC, Melting point: 605 oC. acting poisons with a chemical formula
CN−. An ammonia molecule can bind
Sol.267.(b) Oleic acid (C18H34O2) - A Q.272. When an iron nail is dipped into a another proton (H+) and become an
mono-unsaturated omega-9 fatty acid ______ coloured copper sulphate solution, ammonium ion, NH4+.
found in various animal (chicken and its colour changes to ________.
turkey) and vegetable sources (soybean SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Q.277. The mineral Carnotite is an
oil, palm oil and corn oil); uses - An (a) green, blue (b) blue, green important source of:
excipient in pharmaceuticals and as an (c) blue, yellow (d) yellow, blue SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Morning)
emulsifying or solubilizing agent in (a) copper (b) zinc (c) uranium (d) iron
Sol.272.(b) Blue, green. Copper reacts
aerosol products.
with the elements (oxygen, water and Sol.277.(c) Uranium. Carnotite,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
radioactive, bright-yellow, soft, and earthy Sulfurous Acid (H2SO3) - Dihydrogen Foam - Froth, Whipped Cream, Soap
vanadium mineral that is an important trioxosulphate or trioxo sulphuric acid. Lather.
source of uranium. Carnotite is a bright Mass - 82.07 g/mol. Percent
to greenish-yellow mineral. The primary composition = (mass of element / Q.286. Which of the following techniques
uranium ore mineral is uraninite (UO2) molecular mass) x 100. Composition of can be used to separate the impurities in
(previously known as pitchblende). other compounds: Sulfuric acid (H2SO4) - Milk?
2.01 % H, 32.5 % S, 65.3 % O, Sodium SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Evening)
Q.278. What is the boiling point of water carbonate (Na2CO3) - 43.40% Na, 11.32% (a) Column chromatography
at sea level? (b) Microscopy
C, 45.28% O.
SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Morning) (c) Microtomy
(a) 250°C (b) 50°C (c) 150°C (d) 100°C Q.282. Whose research was fundamental (d) Autoclave
Sol.278.(d) 100°C. At lower pressure or in establishing the modern discipline
known as surface tension, Which Sol.286.(a) Column chromatography is a
higher altitudes, the boiling point is lower.
describes the properties of liquid and technique that is used to separate a
At sea level, pure water boils at 212 °F
solid surfaces and interfaces? single chemical compound from a
(100°C). At the lower atmospheric
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (3rd shift) mixture dissolved in a fluid.
pressure on the top of Mount Everest,
pure water boils at about 154 °F (68°C). (a) Gerty Cori (b) Nettie Stevens Q.287. What kind of substances are
(c) Lise Meitner (d) Agnes Pockels separated using the technique of steam
Q.279. Which of the following is a polar
Sol.282.(d) Agnes Pockels. Surface distillation?
molecule?
tension - A phenomenon in which the SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Morning)
surface of a liquid, where the liquid is in (a) Coloured substances
(a) Carbon tetrachloride
contact with a gas, acts as a thin elastic (b) Substances with many electrons
df
(b) Carbon dioxide
sheet. Example : Insects walking on (c) Coarse substances
(c) Benzene
(d) Substances that are steam volatile
_p
(d) Water water, Floating a needle on the surface of
the water. Sol.287.(d) Steam distillation is a
na
Sol.279.(d) Water. A polar molecule is a separation process that consists of
molecule containing polar bonds where Q.283. What is the ratio by mass of
distilling water together with other
carbon and oxygen in carbon dioxide?
ap
the sum of all the bond's dipole moments volatile and non-volatile components.
is not zero. Examples of Polar Molecules: Higher Secondary 30/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
The coarse substance feels rough and
Water (H2O), Ethanol (C2H5OH), Ammonia (a) 3 : 8 (b) 3 : 13 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 3 : 2
:@
hard, used by gymnasts as it increases
(NH3), Sulphur dioxide (SO2), Hydrogen the friction between the bar and the
Sol.283.(a) 3 : 8. One atomic mass unit
sulphide (H2S). gymnast's hands.
is defined as one twelfth of the mass of
TG
Solutions one carbon - 12 atom. The relative
Q.288. Which of the following techniques
atomic masses of all elements have
can be used for reducing the total
Q.280. Which of the following options been found with respect to an atom of
on
dissolved solids (TDS) in water?
are homogeneous mixtures? carbon-12. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) - The
(1) Ion Exchange
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) atomic mass of carbon and oxygen is
(2) Distillation
ch
(a) Solution, colloid, milk, toothpaste, salt 12u and 16u respectively. The ratio of
(3) Carding
water, brass carbon and oxygen in Carbon dioxide SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Afternoon)
ar
(b) Colloid, suspension, milk, toothpaste (CO2) = {12 : (16 × 2)} = (12 : 32) = (3 : 8). (a) Only 1 (b) Only 3
(c) Solution, colloid, suspension, milk, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Both 2 and 3
Se
Q.284. Which of the following colloid is
toothpaste, salt water, brass
an example of foam? Sol.288.(c) Both 1 and 2. The TDS (Total
(d) Solution, salt water, brass
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Dissolved Solids) level between 50-150 is
Sol.280.(d) Solution, salt water, brass. (a) Sponge (b) Butter (c) Cheese (d) Mist considered as the most suitable and
There are two types of mixtures: acceptable.
Sol.284.(a) Sponge. A colloid is a
Homogeneous and heterogeneous. A
mixture in which one substance Q.289. Which among the following is
mixture is a material composed of two or
microscopically dispersed insoluble NOT true about a solution and the solute
more simpler substances. Examples of
particles are suspended throughout other concerned?
homogeneous - air, wine, vinegar, coffee,
substances. SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Morning)
natural gas, steel. Examples of
heterogeneous - oil and water, concrete, (a) The particles of the solute do not
Q.285. Which of the following is an
scatter a beam of light
orange juice with pulp, sandy water, example of emulsion?
(b) The particles of the solute settle
cereal in milk, a sandwich, blood. SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Morning)
down at the bottom when the solution
(a) Milk (b) Mist (c) Gemstone (d) Clouds
Q.281. What is the percentage is kept undisturbed.
composition of the element of H2SO3 ? Sol.285.(a) Milk. Emulsion is a mixture (c) The particles of the solute cannot be
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) of two or more liquids in which one is seen with unaided eyes.
(a) 2.5% H, 58.5% S, 39% O present as droplets, of microscopic or (d) A solution is a homogeneous mixture
(b) 33% H, 16% S, 51% O ultramicroscopic size, distributed
Sol.289.(b) Only the particles of a Solute
(c) 58.5% H, 39% S, 2.5% O throughout the other. Example - Milk, Hair
in a Heterogeneous solution settle down
(d) 2.5% H, 39% S, 58.5% O Cream. Aerosol - Smoke, Dust, Fog, Mist,
at the bottom when the solution is left
Sol.281.(d) 2.5% H, 39% S, 58.5% O. Clouds. Gel - Cheese, Butter, Jellies.
undisturbed. In a homogenous solution
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
the solute gets dissolved completely in Sol.293.(a) Chloroform (CHCl3): IUPAC Coriander - Linalool, borneol, terpineol,
the solvent. For example salt or sugar in name - Trichloromethane. It is employed cumene. Saffron - Crocins, safranal,
water gets completely dissolved. as a solvent for fats, alkaloids, iodine and salicylic, vanillic acid. Mustard seeds -
other substances. Chronic chloroform Allyl isothiocyanate. Garlic - Allicin.
Q.290. Solubility of gases in liquids _____ exposure may cause damage to the liver Ginger - Gingerol. Cumin - Cumin
with decrease in temperature. (where chloroform is metabolised to aldehyde.
SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Evening) phosgene) and to the kidneys. It is slowly
(a) Remains constant oxidised by air in the presence of light to Q.297. Which chemical compound is
(b) First decreases and then increases an extremely poisonous gas, carbonyl present in hard plastic such as drinking
(c) Increases chloride. water bottles and many household
(d) decreases items?
Q.294. Which of the following gases are SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Sol.290.(c) Increases. Solubility of found in coal mines and marshy places ? (a) Bisphenol A (b) Trifluralin
gases in liquids increases with decrease SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) (c) Chrome alum (d) Heptachlor
in temperature and it decreases with the (a) Steam (b) Ozone
increase in temperature. Adding heat to (c) Nitrogen dioxide (d) Methane Sol.297.(a) Bisphenol A (BPA). Other
the solution provides thermal energy that uses - Used in beverage containers,
overcomes the attractive forces between Sol.294.(d) Methane gas (CH4) is compact disks, plastic dinnerware,
the gas and the solvent molecules. produced by anaerobic decay of organic impact - resistant safety equipment,
matter. Thus, it is found in biogas, coal automobile parts, and toys. BPA is toxic
Q.291. ________ Law of independent mines, the surface of marshy lands and for humans and animals. Uses of some
migration of ions states that limiting septic systems. It is an important compounds : Trifluralin - Used as
molar conductivity of an electrolyte can component of natural gas which is herbicide. Chrome alum - In the tanning
df
be represented as the sum of the widely used as a domestic fuel. It is a of leather. Heptachlor - As a soil and
individual contributions of the anion and
_p
greenhouse gas that traps heat in the seed treatment and for termite control.
cation of the electrolyte. atmosphere.
SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Evening) Q.298. Which of the following is NOT a
(a) Dirac (b) Feynman
(c) Schrodinger (d) Kohlrausch paprika? na
Q.295. What is the adulterant of hot food preservative?
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
ap
Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2) (a) Aqua regia (b) Sodium nitrite
Sol.291.(d) Kohlrausch Law is (a) Starch powder (b) Chalk powder (c) Vinegar (d) Sodium chloride
:@
dependent on the nature of the solvent (c) Saw dust (d) Sudan dye
and on the potential gradient but not on Sol.298.(a) Aqua Regia. Sodium Nitrate
the other ions present. Kohlrausch Law Sol.295.(d) Sudan dye. They are (Chile Saltpetre) - NaNO3. Vinegar (Acetic
TG
helps in determination of limiting molar synthetic chemical dyes with similar acid) - CH3COOH. Sodium Chloride (Salt)
conductivities for any electrolyte. Weak structures, characterized by an azo group - NaCl.
electrolytes have lower molar (-N=N-). Adulterants are substances
on
conductivities and lower degree of secretly added to compromise the safety Q.299. Which gas is the major
dissociation at higher concentrations. or quality of products like food, component of biogas?
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift)
ch
cosmetics, and pharmaceuticals.
(a) CNG (b) Methane
Chemistry in Everyday life Common examples include sand and
(c) Hydrogen (d) LPG
ar
filth to increase weight, water to dilute
Q.292. Which of the following contains milk or alcohol, high fructose corn syrup Sol.299.(b) Methane (CH4). It has a high
Se
small droplets of liquid or particles of in honey, roasted chicory in coffee, urea heat of combustion (CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 +
solid dispersed in a gas ? and melamine in protein products, 2H2O + heat). It is used as fuel. Biogas is
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift) cheaper fats replacing dairy fats, and formed by the decomposition of organic
(a) Aerosol (b) Gel (c) Vapour (d) Foam palm or soybean oils adulterating olive matter with the action of bacteria in the
oil. Even papaya seeds may be added to absence of oxygen. The major
Sol.292.(a) Aerosol . Gel is a semi-solid black pepper.
material that is a mixture of solid components of biogas - Methane
particles suspended in a liquid. Vapour is Q.296. Match List-I with List-II. (50-75%), Carbon dioxide (25-50%),
diffused matter (such as smoke or fog) Nitrogen (2-8%).
List-I List-II
suspended floating in the air and (Chemical compound) (Spices) Q.300. Hardness of water is expressed in
impairing its transparency. Foam is a A. Curcuminoids 1. Cardamom terms of:
colloidal system of gas bubbles B. 1, 8-cineole 2. Black pepper SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift)
dispersed in a liquid. C. Eugenol 3. Turmeric (a) mole (b) molarity
D. Piperine 4. Cloves (c) ppm (d) normality
Q.293. Which of the following
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
polyhalogen compounds is used in the Sol.300.(c) ppm (parts per million) -
(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
production of the freon refrigerant R-22 ? Ratio between the number of parts of
(b) A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift) solids/solute to a million parts of total
(a) Chloroform (c) A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 4
volume. Water hardness is the amount of
(b) Carbon Tetrachloride (d) A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2
dissolved calcium and magnesium in the
(c) Methylene Chloride water.
Sol.296.(b) A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2.
(d) Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane
Chemical Constituents of spices : Q.301. What kind of smell do Esters
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
have? Q.305. Which of the following chemicals Sol.309.(b) Halite. It is commonly known
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift) is used as a preservative to slow as rock salt, a type of salt, the mineral
(a) Sweet smell like fruits browning and discolouration in foods form of sodium chloride. Halite forms
(b) Rotten egg smell and beverages during preparation, isometric crystals.
(c) Floral smell storage and distribution ?
(d) Pungent smell SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift) Q.310. The characteristic garlicky odour
(a) Nitrous oxide (b) Phosgene of garlic is due to __________.
Sol.301.(a) Sweet smells like fruits. The (c) Sulphites (d) Chlorine SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (1st shift)
group of chemical compounds which are (a) iodine (b) copper
Sol.305.(c) Sulphites. Other Food
formed by bonding an alcohol group with (c) chlorine (d) sulphur
preservatives: Benzoic acid, Sodium
a group of organic acids by losing water
benzoate, nitrites, sodium sorbate and Sol.310.(d) Sulphur. Onions, leeks and
molecules is called Esters. Other
potassium sorbate. Nitrous oxide (N2O) - chives also contain Sulphur. Seafoods
chemical compounds and its Smell:
Laughing gas. Uses - Anaesthetic, are rich in iodine. Allicin, in particular, is
Terpenes - Floral, Rose, Lemon; Amines -
Semiconductor manufacturing industry, responsible for the pungent smell of
Fishy, Rotting meat; Aldehydes - Grassy,
Rocket motors as an oxidiser. garlic.
Floral; Chlorine gas - Pungent, Irritating
odour. Q.306. Which sodium compound is the Q.311. Which of the following food items
most popular additive to various items can be used as natural food
Q.302. Which of the following is the
such as sauces, salad dressings and preservatives ?
product as a result of the process of
beverages for its preservative action? Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
hydrolysis of orthoclase.
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Vinegar, ginger, apple and banana
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift)
(a) Sodium bicarbonate (b) Garlic, lemon, sugar and vinegar
df
(a) Limonite (b) Magnesite
(b) Sodium fluoride (c) Garlic, apple, salt and tamarind
(c) Gypsum (d) Kaolinite
(c) Sodium hypochlorite (d) Ginger, garlic, banana and tamarind
_p
Sol.302.(d) Kaolinite (Al2Si2O5(OH)4): A (d) Sodium benzoate
Sol.311.(b) Garlic, lemon, sugar and
na
clay mineral It's commonly found in soils Sol.306.(d) Sodium benzoate vinegar. Food preservatives - Prevent
and sedimentary rocks. Used in - Rubber, (C6H5COONa). Also known as benzoate food spoilage caused by microbial
ap
paint, paper making, and as a filler in of soda, a white crystalline chemical growth and increase the shelf life of
some products. Orthoclase (KAlSi3O8): A used in foods, such as soda, lemon juice, foods. Examples of food preservatives -
:@
common type of feldspar mineral (a pickles, jelly, salad dressing, soy sauce. sodium benzoate, sorbic acid and
group of rock-forming minerals).
propanoic acid salts, sulphur dioxide,
Q.307. Pepperonil, ethyl acetate,
Q.303. Which of the following metal salts sulfites, potassium nitrate, erythorbic
TG
butyraldehyde and nitrate are some
is responsible for permanent hardness in acid, calcium sorbate, nitrites and
common adulterants used in:
water? nitrates.
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (4th shift)
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (4th shift)
on
(a) honey (b) ice cream (c) oils (d) spices Q.312. Which compound is used to
(a) KCI (b) NaCl (c) Ca(HCO3)2 (d) CaCl2
remove the skins from tomatoes,
Sol.307.(b) Ice cream. Adulteration - A
Sol.303.(d) CaCl2 (Calcium chloride). potatoes and other fruits and vegetables
ch
practice of secretly mixing a substance
Hardness of water is due to the presence for canning and as an ingredient in food
with another. Other Food Products and
of soluble bicarbonates, chlorides and preservatives that helps prevent mould
ar
Adulterants: Honey - corn syrups, syrups
sulphates of calcium and magnesium. and bacteria from growing in food ?
of natural origin such as maple, cane
Se
Types of Hardness: Temporary (presence Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
sugar, beet sugar, and molasses. Sugar -
of magnesium and calcium (a) Sodium hydroxide
Chalk powder, washing soda, urea. Edible
bicarbonates) and Permanent (presence (b) Magnesium bisulphite
Oils - Mineral oil, Karanja oil, castor oil.
of soluble salts of magnesium and (c) Aluminium phosphide
calcium). Q.308. Which organic compound has a (d) Sodium bicarbonate
pleasant almond aroma that is
Q.304. What is the product of the commonly used to impart almond flavour Sol.312.(a) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) - It
reaction when anhydrite undergoes to chocolate and baked goods? is a strong base and also known as
hydration? SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (2nd shift) caustic soda or lye. Magnesium
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift) (a) Manzanate (b) Benzaldehydes bisulphite Mg(HSO3)2 is commonly used
(a) Limonite (b) Magnesite (c) Ethyl maltol (d) Isoamyl acetate in the food industry as a preservative and
(c) Kaolin (d) Gypsum antioxidant to prevent spoilage and
Sol.308.(b) Benzaldehydes (C7H6O). It is discoloration in food products.
Sol.304.(d) Gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O): found in several essential oils : hyacinth,
Calcium sulphate (CaSO4) and water citronella, orris, cinnamon, sassafras, Q.313. Which among the following
(H2O) make up gypsum. Limonite forms labdanum, and patchouli. chemicals is used to purify water as a
through the weathering of iron-bearing disinfectant?
Q.309. Which of the following SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Morning)
minerals such as pyrite, magnetite, and sedimentary minerals, known to everyone
hematite under conditions of low (a) Chlorine (b) Ethanol
as 'salt', usually forms in arid climates (c) Phosphorus (d) Teflon
temperature and low oxygen. Uses - where sea water evaporates?
Pigment, Cement, Soil conditioner, Water SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (1st shift) Sol.313.(a) Chlorine (Cl2):- It is a yellow
treatment, Scientific research. (a) Zeolite (b) Halite (c) Calcite (d) Pyrite -green gas at room temperature. Ethanol
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
(C2H6O) - It is an organic compound. It is Q.318. Silicon dioxide is found mostly in silver thiosulphate complex. Antidote
used as a solvent, in the manufacture of which of the following? agent against cyanide poisoning.
other organic compounds, and as an SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift) Dechlorination of small water bodies like
additive to automobile fuel. Teflon - The (a) Sand (b) Sugar (c) Salt (d) Slaked lime ponds, aquariums, etc. It is on the World
scientific name is polytetrafluoroethylene Health Organization's List of Essential
Sol.318.(a) Sand. Slaked lime or calcium
(PTFE). It is used in making waterproof Medicines. Sodium sulphate (Na2SO4) -
hydroxide, Ca(OH)2 : Soluble in glycerol,
fabric, non-stick cookware, anti-friction detergents, paper pulping, cattle feed.
high melting point (580° C), used in the
devices, etc.
paper industry, Pesticides. Silicon Q.323. Carbon dating means:
Q.314. Which among the following gases Dioxide or Silica, (SiO2) : Major SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
is used as an anaesthetic in dental constituent of Sand, used in food (a) a method to determine the density of
surgery. additives. fissile material.
SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Afternoon) (b) a method of calculating the remains
Q.319. An isotope of which of the
(a) Nitrous Oxide (b) Radon of sulphur and nitrogen in hard rock.
following is used in the treatment of
(c) Argon (d) Helium (c) a method of calculating the age of
cancer?
very old objects by measuring the
Sol.314.(a) Nitrous Oxide (N2O). Radon SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
amounts of different forms of carbon
(Rn, Atomic Number - 86) - An odourless, (a) Cobalt (b) Aluminium
in them.
invisible, radioactive gas used in Cancer (c) Nickel (d) Iron
(d) a method of determination of weight
therapy. Argon (Ar, Atomic Number - 18) - of a very old rock.
Sol.319.(a) Cobalt (Atomic number - 27).
Third-most abundant gas in Earth's
Isobars are atoms of different elements
atmosphere used in Electrical Light Sol.323.(c) Carbon-14 dating
with different atomic numbers but have
Bulbs. (radiocarbon dating), method of age
df
the same mass number. Example of a
determination that depends upon the
Q.315. Which among the following gases pair of isobar i.e.,40Ca20 and 40Ar18.
_p
decay to nitrogen of radiocarbon
is used in the artificial ripening of fruits? (carbon-14).The method was developed
Q.320. Which is the most popular coal in
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Morning)
na
commercial use? in 1946 by Willard Libby.
(a) Argon (b) Freon
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (1st Shift)
(c) Helium (d) Acetylene Q.324. Which of the following chemicals
ap
(a) Bituminous (b) Anthracite
are vastly used in gunpowder of
Sol.315.(d) Acetylene. Other use: (c) Peat (d) Lignite
fireworks?
:@
welding, cutting , producing rubber, flame Sol.320.(a) Bituminous coal (Dark SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon)
gouging, creating polymers and resins, brown, 45–86%). This coal is reviewed (a) Silver nitrate and charcoal
production of dyes and pigments. based on versatility, dampness (b) Silver nitrate and sulphur
TG
substance, instability and cinder content. (c) Potassium sulphate and Phosphorous
Q.316. What is the colour of the outer
Other types of coal: Peat ( precursor of (d) Potassium nitrate, sulphur and
zone of complete combustion of a
coal, 40% carbon), Lignite (25–35%, charcoal
on
candle flame?
brown coal), Anthracite (86–97%
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (1st Shift) Sol.324.(d) Potassium nitrate, Sulfur
carbon).
(a) Blue (b) Yellow (c) Black (d) Orange and Charcoal. The most important
ch
Q.321. Which of the following component of a firework is gunpowder
Sol.316.(a) Blue. It is the outer zone or
('black powder'). Aluminium is used to
ar
greenhouse gases is most abundant in
the non-luminous zone in candle flame,
the atmosphere? produce silver and white flames and
other zones are the Innermost zone or
Se
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (4th Shift) sparks. Antimony (glitter effects), Barium
the luminous zone (Black colour), Middle
(a) Nitrous Oxide (b) Water Vapour (green color), Calcium salts (orange
zone (Yellow colour). The burning of a
(c) Methane (d) Carbon Oxide color), Barium (bright greens), strontium
candle is both a physical and a chemical
(red), copper (blue), and sodium
change. The burning of the candle is an Sol.321.(b) Water vapour. Greenhouse (yellow). Carbon is used as a propellant
exothermic reaction. gases: carbon dioxide (CO2) 65% , in fireworks. It provides the fuel for
methane (CH4)16%, nitrous oxide (N2O), fireworks.
Q.317. What is the pH of normal milk ?
6% fluorinated gases
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
{(hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), Q.325. The lead chromate which is toxic
(a) 9.1 - 9.3 (b) 8.1 - 8.3
perfluorocarbons (PFCs) and Sulphur and carcinogenic, is used for the
(c) 5.4 - 5.6 (d) 6.7 - 6.9
Hexafluoride (SF6)} 2% and ozone (O3). adulteration of __________ powder.
Sol.317.(d) 6.7 - 6.9, pH - potential of SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon)
Q.322. Which of the following is used in (a) chili (b) garlic (c) turmeric (d) ginger
hydrogen. pH value of Gastric juice (1.0),
photography ?
Soft Drink (2.0 - 4.0), Lemon Juice (2.2 -
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (1st Shift) Sol.325.(c) Turmeric. Lead(II) chromate
2.4), Vinegar (2.4), Wine (2.8), Lime (2.8),
(a) Sodium bicarbonate (PbCrO4) is carcinogenic (causes
Apple juice (2.9 - 3.3), Soda water (3 - 4),
(b) Sodium thiosulphate cancer). Food adulteration can be
Orange juice (3.7), Butter (5), Curd (4.5 -
(c) Sodium hydroxide defined as the contamination or
5.5), Beer (4.5), Urine (4.5 - 8), coffee
(d) Sodium sulphate adulteration of food or food materials by
(5.0), Cheese (5.1 - 5.9), Tea (5.5), Saliva
adding harmful substances to it. Allicin
(6.2 - 7.6), Blood plasma (7.35 - 7.45), Sol.322.(b) Sodium thiosulphate compound (garlic's aroma). Phenolic
Alcohol (7.33), Oxygen (7.4), Baking Soda (Na₂S₂O₃) is used in photography to compounds in ginger are gingerols,
(9), Bleaching powder (11) etc. remove undecomposed AgBr as soluble shogaols, and paradols. Capsaicin is a
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
component of chili peppers. Turmeric pathogenic microorganisms in certain Sol.333.(d) Quinoline Yellow belongs to
bright yellow colour is due to the foods and beverages. Haelen processing the class of quinophthalone dyes. It is
presence of curcumin. technique uses pressure treatment generally used as a food colourant. Oil
instead of heat to kill harmful pathogens Red O is a fat-soluble dye that stains
Q.326. Which of the following chemical and prolong shelf life of milk. neutral triglycerides and lipids.
compounds is a naturally occurring Pascalization or high pressure
orange/yellow pigment extracted from processing (HPP) and pulsed electric Q.334. Titanium dioxide, which is used
turmeric, which is used as a spice, in field (PEF) are non-thermal processes as a white pigment in products such as
food colouring and as a traditional herbal that are also used to pasteurize foods. toothpaste, is derived from which
medicine? mineral?
Graduate Level 02/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Q.330. Eugenol is a major component of: SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) Carmoisine (b) Tartrazine Higher Secondary 04/08/2022 (Shift - 3) (a) Fluorite (b) Ilmenite (c) Silica (d) Mica
(c) Curcumin (d) Cochineal (a) turmeric (b) ginger
(c) clove essential oil (d) tamarind Sol.334.(b) Ilmenite. The principal natural
Sol.326.(c) Curcumin {(C21H20O6), source of titanium dioxide is mined
polyphenol with anti-inflammatory Sol.330.(c) Clove essential oil. It is an ilmenite ore, which contains 45-60 percent
properties and the ability to increase the aromatic oil extracted from cloves that is TiO2. From this or from titanium slag, pure
amount of antioxidants that the body used widely as a flavouring for foods and TiO2 can be produced using the sulphate
produces}. to treat toothache. or chloride process.
Q.327. Which sodium salt of glutamic Q.331. Which vegetable contains a Q.335. Which chemical compound is
acid is commonly added to Chinese food, chemical called anthocyanin that turns composed of magnesium, sulphur and
canned vegetables, soups and processed pink/reddish in the presence of acid, oxygen and is commonly used in detox
df
meats to enhance the flavour? turns purple when neutral and turns blue bath to relax muscles and relieve pain in
Graduate Level 04/08/2022 (Shift - 2) or green when mixed with alkaline the shoulders, neck, back and scalp?
_p
(a) Sodium carbonate substances? SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Afternoon)
(b) Monosodium glutamate SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Morning) (a) Epsom salt (b) Potash alum
na
(c) Gloxazone (a) Pomegranate (b) Red leaf lettuce (c) Rock salt (d) Glauber's salt
(d) Metasodium glutamate (c) Radish (d) Red cabbage
ap
Sol.335.(a) Epsom salt is also known as
Sol.327.(b) Monosodium glutamate Sol.331.(d) Red Cabbage. Dietary
magnesium sulphate. Potash alum is
sources of anthocyanins are generally
:@
(C₅H₈NO₄Na). Sodium carbonate
also known as potassium alum or
(Na2CO3), Uses – in the manufacture of easy to identify due to their red, blue, or
potassium aluminium sulphate. Rock salt
detergents, soaps, paper, water glass purple color. Examples include red
is the common name for halite. Glauber's
TG
(sodium silicate), borax, sodium /purple cabbage, berries and red-skinned
salt is the decahydrate form of sodium
phosphate, and many other sodium grapes, pears, and apples and various
sulphate. It is also known as mirabilite.
compounds. Gloxazone (C8H16N6OS2). vegetables such as radishes etc. Purple
on
fruits and vegetables are high in Q.336. The systematic name of which
Q.328. Which of the following chemical anthocyanin. compound is nitrogen trihydride that is
compounds is used as a yeast de-foaming
widely used in many industrial
ch
agent, commonly found in butter, meat, Q.332. Which inorganic compound is
processes, and as a fertiliser and
cereals, chewing gum, baked goods, used to manufacture soap, rayon, paper,
refrigerant?
ar
snack foods, dehydrated potatoes and explosives, dyes, and petroleum
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Afternoon)
beer? products ?
Se
(a) Potash (b) Urea
Graduate Level 04/08/2022 (Shift - 2) SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Morning)
(a) NaOCl (b) NaOH (c) Phosphine (d) Ammonia
(a) Butylated hydroxyanisole
(b) Chlorobenzoate (c) CaOCl2 (d) NaHCO3 Sol.336.(d) Ammonia (NH3) is used as a
(c) Potassium Nitrate (PN) Sol.332.(b) NaOH (Sodium Hydroxide) . fertiliser (max usage), refrigerant gas, for
(d) Benzene hexachloride Sodium chlorite (NaClO2) is a chemical purification of water supplies, and in the
Sol.328.(a) Butylated hydroxyanisole compound used in the manufacturing of manufacture of plastics, pesticides, dyes,
(C11H16O2). Chlorobenzoate (C7H4ClO2). paper and as a disinfectant. Calcium etc.
Potassium Nitrate (KNO3), Uses - food hypochlorite Ca(ClO)2 is the main active
Q.337. Which of the following is used as
preservatives, fertilizers, tree stump ingredient of commercial products called
a pesticide or fumigant for cereals and
removal, rocket propellants, and bleaching powder, chlorine powder, or
as an igniting agent in flares?
fireworks. Potassium nitrate is a chlorinated lime, used for water
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Afternoon)
common active ingredient in toothpaste, treatment and as a bleaching agent.
(a) Ethanoic acid
exerting an anti-sensitivity action. Q.333. Which of the following artificial (b) Magnesium bisulphite
Q.329. At what temperature is milk colouring agents is used in dietary (c) Aluminium phosphide
boiled for 15 to 30 seconds in the supplements, sauces, soups and broths, (d) Hydrogen peroxide
pasteurisation process? bakery, dairy fats and oils, seafood,
condiments, breath fresheners, desserts, Sol.337.(c) Aluminium phosphide (AIP)
Higher Secondary 01/08/2022 (Shift - 3) is a highly toxic inorganic compound,
(a) 80° C (b) 72° C (c) 45° C (d) 60° C convenience foods and beverages?
SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Afternoon) primarily used as a pesticide, a wide
Sol.329.(b) 72°C. Pasteurization is a (a) Acid fuchsin (b) Orange G band gap semiconductor, and a
heat-treatment process that destroys (c) Oil red O (d) Quinoline yellow fumigant.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
Q.338. Saw dust is used to adulterate: widely used as a fertiliser, a feed water disinfectant is used after filtration.
SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Evening) supplement, and a starting material in Disinfectant, however, is NOT used for
(a) vinegar (b) cheese the manufacture of drugs and plastics. It removing:
(c) coriander powder (d) milk is used as a nitrogen-release fertiliser. SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Morning)
(a) viruses (b) parasites
Sol.338.(c) Coriander powder. Saw dust Q.343. In the flocculation method of (c) minerals (d) bacteria
(wood dust) of various colours to water treatment ______ chemical is added
adulterate turmeric, coriander and cumin. to water. Sol.347.(c) Minerals present in the water
It is a waste product of woodworking SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Afternoon) are calcium, Magnesium, potassium,
operations such as sawing, sanding, (a) electro-neutral sodium, bicarbonate, iron, zinc.
milling, planing, and routing. A major use (b) low negatively charged Chlorination is the process of adding
of sawdust is for particleboard; coarse (c) positively charged chlorine to drinking water to kill
sawdust may be used for wood pulp. (d) high negatively charged parasites, bacteria, and viruses. Chlorine
levels up to 4 milligrams per litre (mg/L
Q.339. In the early 1980s, an aspartic Sol.343.(c) Positively charged. or 4 parts per million (ppm)) are
acid-containing dipeptide sweetener was Aluminium sulphate or alum (Al2(SO4)3), considered safe in drinking water.
discovered that was about 2000 times ferric chloride (FeCl3) and ferric sulphate
sweeter than sucrose. What is the name (Fe2(SO4)3) are the most widely used Q.348. Hot water can be a pollutant if it
of that sweetener? flocculants. comes from:
SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Afternoon) 1. A hot spring 2. A power plant 3. An
(a) Alitame (b) Saccharin Q.344. Which of the following is NOT a industry
(c) Aspartame (d) Sucralose chemical coagulant used in water SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Evening)
treatment? (a) Both (2) and (3) (b) Only (3)
df
Sol.339.(a) Alitame (C14H25N3O4S) was SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Morning) (c) Only (1) (d) Only (2)
developed by Pfizer and is currently (a) Polyaluminium chloride (PAC)
_p
marketed in some countries under the (b) Aluminium sulphate (Alum) Sol.348.(a) Both (2) and (3). It raises the
brand name Aclame. It is 2000 times (c) Aluminium chloride temperature of the water body and
sweeter than sucrose, 12 times sweeter
than aspartame (C14H18N2O5), and six
(d) Nitrogen dioxide
na causes harm to the plants and living
organisms. Some of the air pollutants are
ap
times sweeter than saccharin Sol.344.(d) Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) is Carbon Monoxide, Lead, Nitrogen Oxides,
(C7H5NO3S). Sucralose (C12H19Cl3O8). one of a group of highly reactive gases Ozone, Particulate Matter, Sulphur
:@
known as oxides of nitrogen or nitrogen Dioxide etc.
Q.340. Which of the following oxides (NO2).
compounds in petroleum can cause Q.349. Synthetic fibres catch fire easily.
TG
corrosion to parts of internal combustion Q.345. Acidic drain cleaners made of However, the uniforms of firemen have a
engines and refineries? ______ or ______ acid are powerful enough coating of ______ plastic to make them
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Afternoon) to clear heavy-duty hair, food, grease, flame resistant.
on
(a) Potassium (b) Sulphur soap scum or paper-based clogs in 15 SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Afternoon)
(c) Sodium (d) Calcium minutes or less. (a) nylon (b) melamine
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening)
ch
(c) acrylic (d) rayon
Sol.340.(b) Sulphur is used in the (a) formic, citric
vulcanisation of black rubber, as a (b) nitric, carbonic Sol.349.(b) Melamine. It is also used in
ar
fungicide and in black gunpowder. (c) sulphuric, hydrochloric airplanes, buses, etc. to prevent the
Se
(d) malic, lactic spread of fire.
Q.341. Why is water fluoridation, which is
the controlled adjustment of fluoride to Sol.345.(c) Sulphuric, hydrochloric. Q.350. Complete the statement: Sodium
public water supply, done ? Acidic drain cleaners contain ingredients hydrogen carbonate is used ______.
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening) like sulphuric or hydrochloric acid and SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Afternoon)
(a) To prevent tooth decay work by creating hydronium ions in a (a) for removing permanent hardness of
(b) To prevent eye disease chemical reaction with the clogged, water
(c) To prevent bone disease Formic Acid - Red ants, Citric acid - (b) as a cleaning agent for domestic
(d) To prevent vitamin deficiency lemon and oranges , malic acid - apples, purposes
lactic acid - curd (c) in soda-acid fire extinguishers
Sol.341.(a) To prevent tooth decay.
(d) in the manufacture of borax
Fluoride is the ionic form of fluorine. Q.346. Solids like fats, grease and oil
Fluoride is a natural mineral that is found that float on top of liquid wastewater is Sol.350.(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
in many foods and in all drinking water. called ______. or sodium bicarbonate is used as a fire
Chemical Formula of Fluoride- F–. SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Morning) extinguisher. When heated to a high
(a) urea (b) sludge (c) compost (d) peat temperature, the chemical properties of
Q.342. Urea, a commonly used
this salt make it produce lots of carbon
nitrogen-based fertilizer, is prepared by Sol.346.(b) Sludge. Urea, also known as
dioxide and remove oxygen. This reduces
the reaction between ammonia and ____. carbamide, is a naturally occurring
the amount of oxygen and puts the fire
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Evening) molecule that is produced by protein
out.
(a) carbon dioxide (b) hydrogen metabolism and found abundantly in
(c) oxygen (d) sulphur mammalian urine. Q.351. Whitewashed walls appear to be
Sol.342.(a) Carbon Dioxide. Urea is Q.347. In order to get clean drinking shiny after three to four days due to the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
formation of: and rapidly. (a) Graphene (b) Lonsdaleite
SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Evening) (c) Carbophene (d) Fullerene
(a) calcium nitrate (b) calcium sulphate Q.356. Due to which of the following
(c) calcium oxide (d) calcium carbonate reactions are household bleaching Sol.359.(d) Fullerene. A fullerene is a
agents using phosphorous, sulphur and carbon molecule in the shape of a hollow
Sol.351.(d) Calcium carbonate (CaCO3) chlorine formed ? sphere, ellipsoid, or tube, with the general
(also known as chalk), mined as calcite, SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Morning) formula C2n (n ≥ 30). Created by
is the most commonly used filler for (a) Decomposition reaction evaporating graphite with a laser,
PVC. (b) Displacement reaction fullerenes are unique among carbon
(c) Combination reaction allotropes, which also include diamond,
Q.352. Which of the following is NOT (d) Disproportionation reaction graphite, and amorphous carbon—found
used to make toothpaste? in substances like coal and soot.
SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Afternoon) Sol.356.(d) Disproportionation reaction
(a) Silica (b) Limestone is a redox reaction in which one Q.360. Which two organic chemists are
(c) Aluminium Oxide (d) Galena compound of an intermediate oxidation known for observing the peroxide effect
state converts to two compounds, one of in adding reagents to unsaturated
Sol.352.(d) Galena is also called lead higher and one of lower oxidation states. compounds in 1933 ?
glance. It is the natural mineral form of
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift)
lead (II) sulphide (PbS) and the most Discoveries (a) Morris S Kharasch and Frank R Mayo
important ore of lead and an important
(b) C John Cadogan and Luis M Campos
source of silver. Q.357. Who developed the theory of (c) B Steven Bachrach and Roald
combustion as a chemical reaction with Hoffmann
Q.353. Which of the following acids is
oxygen in the 18th century, that excluded (d) Justus von Liebig and Friedrich
df
used in the purification of gold and
phlogiston theory? Wöhler
silver?
_p
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Evening)
(a) Antoine Lavoisier (b) Robert Boyle Sol.360.(a) Morris S Kharasch and Frank
(a) Maleic acid (b) Formic acid
R Mayo. The peroxide effect, or Kharasch
na
(c) Friedrich Wöhler (d) Johann Becher
(c) Acetic acid (d) Nitric acid
effect, is an exception to Markovnikov's
Sol.353.(d) Nitric acid. It dissolves the Sol.357.(a) Antoine Lavoisier, known as rule, describing the addition of hydrogen
ap
impurities like various metal oxides the "Father of Modern Chemistry," bromide (HBr) to unsymmetrical alkenes
present on the surface of gold. Gold is disproved the existence of phlogiston in the presence of peroxides. This effect
:@
insoluble in HNO3. Nitric acid (HNO3) - It and helped to form the basis of modern results in products that differ from those
is also known as aqua fortis or spirit of chemistry using Joseph Priestley's predicted by Markovnikov's rule.
discovery of oxygen. The phlogiston
TG
nitre. It is a strong corrosive acid.
theory postulated the existence of a Q.361. Who reconciled Dalton's atomic
Q.354. Which chemical reaction takes fire-like element dubbed phlogiston hypothesis with Gay-Lussac's results on
place during the cooking of meat? contained within combustible bodies and the combination of volumes in 1811 ?
on
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Afternoon) released during combustion. It was first SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) The Finkelstein reaction proposed by Johann Joachim Becher. (a) Robert Boyle (b) Amadeo Avogadro
ch
(b) The Swartz reaction (c) Fred Hoyle (d) Jacques Charles
(c) The Gattermann reaction Q.358. What was Antoine-Laurent
Lavoisier's most important contribution Sol.361.(b) Amadeo Avogadro.
ar
(d) The Maillard reaction
to chemistry in 1789 ? Avogadro's notable paper sought to
Se
Sol.354.(d) The Maillard reactions also SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift) reconcile Dalton's atomic hypothesis with
occur in dried fruit. The browning (a) Law of Conservation of Mass Gay-Lussac's findings on combining
reactions that occur when meat is (b) Law of Multiple Proportions volumes.
roasted or seared are complex and occur (c) Law of Definite Proportions
Q.362. In which year did Robert Brown
mostly by Maillard browning with (d) Law of Conservation of Energy
observe the zigzag movement of
contributions from other chemical
Sol.358.(a) Law of Conservation of Mass colloidal particles in solution ?
reactions, including the breakdown of the
states that mass can neither be created SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (2nd shift)
tetrapyrrole rings of the muscle protein
nor destroyed in a chemical reaction. The (a) 1829 (b) 1827 (c) 1828 (d) 1826
myoglobin.
Law of Multiple Proportions (John
Dalton) states that the masses of one Sol.362.(b) 1827. Robert Brown
Q.355. Which among the following is
element which combine with a fixed observed the zigzag movement of
used as the fining agent in wine?
mass of the second element are in a colloidal particles, known as Brownian
SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Morning)
ratio of whole numbers. The law of motion. This phenomenon involves the
(a) Gelatin (b) Chlorine
conservation of energy (Julius Robert random movement of particles
(c) Sodium (d) Baking Soda
Mayer) states that energy can neither be suspended in a fluid, caused by collisions
Sol.355.(a) Gelatin. Fining is the process created nor destroyed, only converted with fast atoms or molecules in the gas
where a substance (fining agent) is from one form to another. or liquid.
added to the wine to create an adsorbent,
Q.359. Which allotrope of carbon was Q.363. Who discovered the atomic
enzymatic or ionic bond with the
discovered by Robert F Curl, Harold W number based on X-ray wavelength in
suspended particles, producing larger
Kroto and Richard E Smalley in 1985 ? 1913 ?
molecules and larger particles that will
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift)
precipitate out of the wine more readily
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
(a) RA Millikan discovery. Henry Cavendish reported near absolute zero (-273.15 degrees
(b) Henry Moseley measurements of the gravitational Celsius, or -460 degrees Fahrenheit).
(c) Dmitri Mendeleev constant, along with the mass and Discoveries of Albert Einstein: Theory of
(d) AEB de Chancourtois density of the Earth, in June 1798. Relativity, Photoelectric Effect,
Mass-Energy Equivalence (E = mc2).
Sol.363.(b) Henry Moseley. Scientists Q.367. By whom was the equation C =
and Discovery: Dmitri Mendeleev - KPgas formulated in 1803 ? Q.371. In 1957, who redefined a model
Periodic table of elements. AEB de SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) that predicted the shape of individual
Chancourtois - organise elements by (a) Edme Mariotte (b) Jacques Charles molecules based on the extent of
atomic weights. RA Millikan - the (c) William Henry (d) Robert Boyle electron-pair electrostatic repulsion ?
magnitude of the electron's. Jagadish SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
Chandra Bose – Crescograph. C.V. Sol.367.(c) William Henry. In 1803 a (a) Marcet and Pauling
Raman - Discovery of Raman effect. scientist named William Henry (b) Heitler and London
formulated a new law which soon (c) Staudinger and Perey
Q.364. In 1812, who described the became known as Henry’s Law. He (d) Nyholm and Gillespie
hypothesis that equal volumes of discovered that “At a constant
different gases contain an equal number temperature, the amount of a given gas Sol.371.(d) Nyholm and Gillespie.
of molecules ? that dissolves in a given type and volume Scientists and discovery: Pauling - He
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift) of liquid is directly proportional to the discovered the alpha-helix structure of
(a) John Dalton (b) Albert Einstein partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium proteins and discovered that sickle-cell
(c) James Watt (d) Amedeo Avogadro with that liquid.” anaemia is a molecular disease. Heitler
and London - Valence bond method.
Sol.364.(d) Amedeo Avogadro. John Q.368. Which British scientist is known Staudinger - Theories on the polymer
df
Dalton presented his famous atomic for developing the principle of structures of fibres and plastics. Perey -
theory in 1803, in which he described the holography in 1947 to improve the
_p
Francium.
atom as the smallest and indivisible resolution of the electron microscope?
particle of matter. This theory became SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) Q.372. Which scientist synthesized an
the foundation of chemistry. James Watt,
on the other hand, made important na
(a) Dennis Gabor (b) Charles Towns
(c) Lloyd Cross (d) Werner Heisenberg
organic compound, urea, from an
inorganic compound, ammonium
ap
improvements to the steam engine, cyanate?
which accelerated the Industrial Sol.368.(a) Dennis Gabor. Holography - It SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening)
:@
Revolution. is a method of creating a unique (a) Berthelot (b) F Wohler
photographic image without the use of a (c) Kolbe (d) Berzelius
Q.365. In 1835, who developed the lens. Electron microscope - A
TG
process of applying a thin layer of microscope that uses a beam of Sol.372.(b) F Wohler. Urea, also known
metallic silver to one side of a clear glass electrons as a source of illumination. as carbamide, is an organic compound
pane and created the first mirror ? with the chemical formula CO(NH2)2 .
on
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift) Q.369. Which Nobel Laureate conducted
(a) CV Raman an experiment in the late 19th century and Q.373. Which theory was published by
observed that a glass tube filled with a John Dalton in 1808 to explain chemical
ch
(b) CH Townes
(c) Victor Francis Hess low-pressure gas emitted radiation when reactions ?
a voltage was applied between two metal SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
ar
(d) Justus von Liebig
plates? (a) Atomic theory
Se
Sol.365.(d) Justus von Liebig. He was a SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) (b) Valence bond theory
German scientist who made major (a) Hideki Yukawa (b) Paul Dirac (c) Quantum field theory
contributions to the theory, practice, and (c) Victor Francis Hess (d) Philipp Lenard (d) Molecular orbital theory
pedagogy of chemistry, as well as to
agricultural and biological chemistry. C.V. Sol.369.(d) Philipp Lenard. He was Sol.373.(a) Atomic Theory. Dalton’s
Raman: Indian physicist known for his recipient of the Nobel Prize in 1905 for atomic theory states that all matter
work on light scattering (Raman effect). Physics for his research on cathode rays whether an element or a compound or a
His Awards: Nobel Prize (1930), and and the discovery of many of their mixture is composed of small particles
Bharat Ratna (1954). properties. called atoms. Atoms are indivisible
particles which cannot be created or
Q.366. Who was recognised for his Q.370. In which year did Albert Einstein destroyed in a chemical reaction.
services in the discovery of inert gaseous predict a new state of matter, the
elements in air and in the determination Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC), based Q.374. With which scientist did William
of their place in the periodic system? on a quantum formulation by the Indian Ramsay show in 1894 that air also
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) physicist Satyendra Nath Bose ? contained an element unknown until
(a) Henry Cavendish SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) then, which was named Argon?
(b) Sir William Ramsay (a) 1935 (b) 1919 (c) 1924 (d) 1930 SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift)
(c) Lord Rayleigh (a) Lord Rayleigh
Sol.370.(c) 1924. Bose-Einstein (b) Hermann Staudinger
(d) Henry Miers condensates are described as the fifth (c) Glenn Seaborg
Sol.366.(b) Sir William Ramsay was a state of matter, alongside solids, liquids, (d) Harold Urey
Scottish chemist and he received the gases, and plasmas. This matter occurs
Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1904 for this when particles (bosons) are cooled to Sol.374.(a) Lord Rayleigh. Hermann
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
Staudinger - A German organic chemist (a) Bent and Nyholm (c) Kary B Mullis (d) Paul J Flory
who demonstrated the existence of (b) Hendricus and Nicol
Sol.382.(a) Carl Wieman. Bose-Einstein
macromolecules, which he characterized (c) Sidgwick and Powell
condensate (5th state of matter) - A
as polymers. Harold Urey - An American (d) Heitler and Gillespie
state of matter in which separate atoms
physical chemist whose pioneering work
Sol.378.(c) Sidgwick and Powell. VSEPR or subatomic particles, cooled to near
on isotopes earned him the Nobel Prize
(Valence shell electron pair repulsion absolute zero. Other states of matter -
in Chemistry in 1934 for the discovery of
theory) - It is used to predict the shape of Solid, Liquid, Gas, Plasma (4th State of
deuterium.
the molecules from the electron pairs. matter).
Q.375. In 1937, who along with Sir Limitation - It fails to explain
isoelectronic species. Q.383. Who found an empirical
Christopher Ingold proposed nucleophilic
relationship between the half-life of alpha
substitution reactions of alkyl halides
Q.379. What numerical scale was decay and the energy of the emitted
and related compounds?
introduced in 1932 that determined the alpha particles in 1911 ?
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift)
electronegativity of fluorine to be 4.0 ? SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (4th shift)
(a) Sergei Winogradsky
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Chadwick and Lawrence
(b) Victor Grignard
(a) Allred - Rochow scale (b) Fermi and Meitner
(c) Edward Davies Hughes
(b) Mulliken scale (c) Geiger and Nuttall
(d) Jacobus Hendricus
(c) Pauling scale (d) Soddy and Aston
Sol.375.(c) Edward Davies Hughes. He (b) Jae scale
Sol.383.(c) Geiger and Nuttall. It states
was elected as a fellow of the Royal
Sol.379.(c) Pauling scale. that short-lived isotopes emit more
Society in 1949.
Electronegativity - A measure of the energetic alpha particles than long-lived
df
Q.376. In 1950, which Russian tendency of an atom to attract a bonding ones.
astronomer revised the 'nebular pair of electrons. Pauling established
_p
Electronegativity as the ‘power’ of an Q.384. Who received the Nobel Prize 'for
hypothesis’, proposing that the sun is
atom in a molecule to attract electrons to his research in the stereochemistry of
surrounded by a solar nebula consisting
na
itself. The Mulliken scale is based on the organic molecules and reactions' in 1975 ?
mainly of hydrogen and helium as well as
properties of individual atoms. SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift)
dust?
ap
(a) Vladimir Prelog
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Q.380. Which German chemist and (b) William N Lipscomb
(a) Viktor Safronov (b) George Gamow
:@
physicist proposed that an aromatic (c) Geoffrey Wilkinson
(c) Naum Idelson (d) Otto Schmidt
compound must have an odd number of (d) Paul J Flory
Sol.376.(d) Otto Schmidt. George pairs of electrons, Which can
TG
mathematically be written as 4n + 2 (n = Sol.384.(a) Vladimir Prelog.
Gamow - "Big Bang" theory of the origin
0, 1, 2, 3 etc.) in 1931? Stereochemistry: The study of the
of the universe and in 1954 his studies in
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (4th shift) three-dimensional arrangement of atoms
biology led him to suggest that the
in molecules and the effects of this
on
(a) Friedrich Kekule (b) Rosalind Franklin
genetic code was a triplet code. Naum
(c) Erich Huckel (d) Antoine Lavoisier arrangement on chemical properties and
Idelson - Soviet theoretical astronomer
reactions.
ch
and expert in the history of physics and Sol.380.(c) Erich Huckel. Friedrich
mathematics. Kekule gave the Kekule structure in 1865, Q.385. In which year did Antoine
ar
that is the ring structure (Benzene) with Lavoisier publish 'Methods of Chemical
Q.377. When did Louis Pasteur discover
alternate double bonds. Diffraction data Nomenclature', which included the rules
Se
molecular chirality and observe that
produced by Maurice Wilkins and for naming chemical compounds that are
crystals of some compounds exist as
Rosalind Franklin, proposed a very simple still in use today?
mirror images which laid the foundation
but famous Double Helix model for the SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (2nd shift)
for modern stereochemistry ?
structure of DNA. (a) 1783 (b) 1780 (c) 1790 (d) 1787
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) 1848 (b) 1830 (c) 1875 (d) 1892 Q.381. Who discovered that diborane Sol.385.(d) 1787. In 1774, Lavoisier
reacts with aldehydes and ketones to (Father of modern chemistry) did many
Sol.377.(a) 1848. Molecular Chirality - A experiments investigating combustion
produce dialkoxyboranes, Which are
molecule or ion is chiral if it is that would discover oxygen. In 1789, he
hydrolysed by water to produce alcohols?
non-superimposable. Scientists and their published the first periodic table, his
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
discoveries: J.J. Thomson - Electron in findings describing the law of
(a) HC Brown (b) Hugo Rudolph Kruyt
1897, Marie & Pierre Curie - Radium in conservation of mass. Book -
(c) Arthur Stoll (d) Arne Tiselius
1898, Albert Einstein - Special theory of “Elementary Treatise of Chemistry”,
relativity in 1905, James Chadwick - Sol.381.(a) HC Brown: Nobel Prize in “Elements of Chemistry”.
Neutron in 1932, Dmitri Mendeleev - Chemistry in 1979.
Modern periodic table in 1869, Henri Q.386. In 1845, which German chemist
Becquerel - Radioactivity in 1896. Q.382. In 1995, with whom did Eric published a method for the synthesis of
Cornell experimentally produce the first acetic acid, a natural product containing
Q.378. Who first introduced the idea of a Bose-Einstein condensate in a rarefied two carbon atoms?
relationship between molecular gas of rubidium atoms at extremely low SSC CGL Tier II (07/03/2023)
geometry and the number of valence temperatures? (a) Friedrich Wohler
electrons in the 1940s ? SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift) (b) Marcellin Berthelot
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (2nd shift) (a) Carl Wieman (b) Geoffrey Wilkinson
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
(c) Joseph Gay-Lussac of octaves states that every eighth (b) Auguste Laurent
(d) Hermann Kolbe element has similar properties when the (c) Marcellin Berthelot
elements are arranged in the increasing (d) Antoine Lavoisier
Sol.386.(d) Adolph Wilhelm Hermann order of their atomic masses.
Kolbe was a major contributor to the Sol.395.(c) Marcellin Berthelot (French) -
birth of modern organic chemistry. Q.391. The British physicist named Paul (“Thomsen–Berthelot principle of
Dirac was known to have introduced the thermochemistry”).
Q.387. The Nobel Prize in Chemistry concept of _________ in 1930.
1951 was awarded jointly to Edwin SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) Q.396. In 1979, who shared the Nobel
Mattison McMillan and ______ for their (a) thermal ionisation Prize with Georg Wittig for their
discoveries in the chemistry of the (b) cosmic radiation 'development of the use of boron - and
transuranium elements (c) nuclear model of atom phosphorus-containing compounds,
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift) (d) antiparticle respectively, into important reagents in
(a) Jacob Berzelius (b) Leon Jouhaux organic synthesis' ?
(c) Glenn T Seaborg (d) Albert Schweitzer Sol.391.(d) Antiparticles are subatomic SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
particles having the same mass as one (a) Herbert C Brown (b) Arne Tiselius
Sol.387.(c) Glenn T Seaborg. of the particles of ordinary matter but (c) Henry Taube (d) Emil Fischer
Transuranic elements are members of opposite electric charge and magnetic
the actinide series beyond uranium, moment. Examples are positron, Sol.396.(a) Herbert C Brown. Arne
beginning with neptunium (atomic antineutron, antiproton and antineutrino. Tiselius : Nobel Prize in Chemistry in
number 93). The last in the series is 1948, "for his research on
element 103 (lawrencium). Q.392. In 1893, which Swiss chemist electrophoresis and adsorption analysis.
was the first to understand the molecular Emil Fischer: Nobel Prize in Chemistry in
df
Q.388. In which year did AEB de structures of inorganic substances - 1902, discovered the Fischer
Chancourtois organise the elements by chemical compounds that do not contain esterification. Henry Taube: Nobel Prize
_p
atomic weight, by graphing the elements carbon? in Chemistry 1983, "for his work on the
around a cylinder with a circumference of SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) mechanisms of electron transfer
na
16 units, corresponding to the weight of (a) Alfred Werner (b) William Ramsay reactions, especially in metal complexes"
oxygen (O) ? (c) George de Hevesy (d) John Dalton
ap
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Q.397. Who co-invented the device called
(a) 1862 (b) 1860 (c) 1870 (d) 1868 Sol.392.(a) Alfred Werner. Sir William Cyclotron in 1934 along with Ernest
:@
Ramsay discovered helium in 1895. Lawrence to investigate the nuclear
Sol.388.(a) 1862. Chancourtois George de Hevesy discovered (with Dirk structure ?
prepared Vis Tellurique (an early form of Coster) the element hafnium in 1923. SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening)
TG
the periodic table, 1862). He was the first
(a) JJ Thomson (b) Ernest Rutherford
scientist to see the periodicity of Q.393. Who discovered three chemical
(c) MS Livingston (d) Enrico Fermi
elements when they were arranged in elements: cerium, thorium and selenium,
and devised the modern method by
on
order of their atomic weights. Sol.397.(c) MS Livingston. A cyclotron is
which one or two letters are used to a device used to accelerate positively
Q.389. In 1931, who recognised that an symbolize elements? charged particles (α-particles, deuterons,
ch
aromatic compound must have an odd SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (3rd Shift) etc).
number of pairs of electrons, which can (a) Hennig Brand (b) Niels Bohr
ar
mathematically be written as 4n + 2 (n = (c) Jacob Berzelius (d) John Dalton Q.398. Who was credited with
0,1,2,3 etc.) ? discovering the hydrogen isotope, or
Se
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (1st Shift) Sol.393.(c) Jacob Berzelius. Identified heavy hydrogen, for which he later
(a) Antoine Lavoisier (b) Erich Huckel and named the phenomenon of catalysis, received the 1934 Nobel Prize in
(c) Auguste Laurent (d) Jacob Berzelius and described how chemical bonds can Chemistry?
form by electrostatic attraction - SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning)
Sol.389.(b) Erich Huckel (1931). Two nowadays called ionic bonding. (a) Francis William Aston
major contributions: the Debye–Huckel
(b) Glenn Theodore Seaborg
theory of electrolytic solutions and the Q.394. In which year did Langmuir
(c) Harold C Urey
Huckel method of approximate reform the Lewis concept by abandoning
(d) Fritz Haber
molecular orbital (MO) calculations on π the idea of a stable cubical arrangement
electron systems. of the octet and introducing the term Sol.398.(c) Harold C Urey. Francis
‘covalent bond’ ? William Aston discovered that neon had
Q.390. In 1887, the Royal Society, London SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (3rd Shift) two isotopes, 20Ne and 21Ne in 1919.
gave the Davy Medal for the ‘discovery of (a) 1919 (b) 1915 (c) 1921 (d) 1917 Glenn Theodore Seaborg, Co-discoverer
the periodic law of chemical elements’ to
of plutonium and all further transuranium
______. Sol.394.(a) 1919.
elements. Fritz Haber developed a
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Q.395. Which French chemist was one of method for producing ammonia from
(a) AEB de Chancourtois
the first scientists to synthesize organic nitrogen and hydrogen in 1913.
(b) Dmitri Mendeleev
(c) Lothar Meyer compounds such as formic acid,
Q.399. In the 1920s, who created the
(d) John Alexander Newland methane and acetylene from their
Left-Step Periodic Table (LSPT) of the
elements ?
chemical elements, basing the positions
Sol.390.(d) John Alexander Newland SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift)
of the elements on patterns in the
stated the law of octaves (1865). The law (a) Jacob Berzelius
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
arrangement of electrons around the SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (c) 2,3-Dichlorobenzene
atomic nucleus? (a) Methanoic acid (b) Propionic acid (d) 1,3-Dichlorobenzene
Graduate Level 05/08/2022 (Shift - 3) (c) Ethanoic acid (d) Butyric acid
(a) Glenn Seaborg (b) Lothar Meyer Sol.407.(d) 1,3-Dichlorobenzene. Ortho-
Sol.403.(d) Butyric acid. It is utilized in (1,2-) means the substituents are located
(c) Charles Janet (d) Dmitri Mendeleev
the production of various butyrate esters on adjacent carbon atoms, at positions 1
Sol.399.(c) Charles Janet. Glenn (e.g., methyl butyrate), which have and 2. Meta- (1,3-) means the
Theodore Seaborg (1951 Nobel Prize in pleasant aromas and tastes and are used substituents are separated by one
Chemistry) - Discovery and investigation as additives in foods, perfumes, carbon atom, located at positions 1 and
of ten transuranium elements. Julius flavorings, varnishes, pharmaceuticals, 3. Para- (1,4-) means the substituents are
Lothar Meyer was one of the pioneers in and disinfectants. Methanoic acid opposite each other on the ring, located
developing the earliest versions of the (HCOOH), Ethanoic acid (CH3COOH), at positions 1 and 4. These terms are
periodic table of the chemical elements. Propanoic acid (CH3CH2COOH). commonly used to describe the relative
positions of two substituents on
Q.400. Who showed that heating silver Q.404. Identify the structural formula for
aromatic compounds like benzene.
cyanide (an inorganic compound) with magnesium hydroxide.
ammonium chloride (another inorganic SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Q.408. In the IUPAC name of a
compound) produced urea without the (a) MgOH (b) MgO2 compound, the _______indicates the total
aid of any living organism or part of a (c) Mg2H2 (d) Mg(OH)2 number of carbon atoms present in the
living organism, in 1828 ? longest carbon chain belonging to the
Sol.404.(d) Mg(OH)2. Magnesium
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Evening) compound.
hydroxide is an inorganic compound. It is
(a) Antoine Lavoisier (b) Friedrich Wohler SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
naturally found as the mineral brucite.
(c) Ernest Lawrence (d) Alfred Werner (a) Infix (b) Suffix (c) Root (d) Prefix
df
Magnesium hydroxide can be used as an
Sol.400.(b) Friedrich Wohler (German antacid or a laxative in either an oral Sol.408.(c) Root. The suffix in IUPAC
_p
chemist) known for his work in inorganic liquid suspension or chewable tablet nomenclature is usually a functional
chemistry, was the first to isolate the form. group belonging to the molecule which
na
chemical elements beryllium and yttrium follows the root of the name. For
Q.405. Milk of magnesia is a suspension
in pure metallic form. example, in the case of alcohols, the
ap
of ______ in water.
suffix is -ol, as seen in ethanol. Prefixes
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift)
Common Name are added prior to the root of the
:@
(a) magnesium chlorate
compound's IUPAC nomenclature. For
(b) magnesium bromide
Q.401. Which of the following represents instance, in 2-methylbutane, methyl is the
(c) magnesium hydroxide
the chemical formula for sulphur prefix indicating a methyl group attached
TG
(d) magnesium oxalate
hexafluoride? to the butane chain.
SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Sol.405.(c) Magnesium hydroxide. It is
(a) S2F6 (b) SF6 (c) SF2 (d) S6F an inorganic compound. As a suspension Q.409. 2-Methylpropan-2-ol is commonly
on
in water, it is often called milk of known as:
Sol.401.(b) SF6. It is a colourless, magnesia because of its milk-like SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
ch
odourless, non-toxic gas of high appearance. Name of base and Found in: (a) prim-propyl alcohol
chemical stability and inertness. It is also Calcium hydroxide - Lime water, (b) tert-butyl alcohol
ar
non-flammable and about 5 times Ammonium hydroxide - Window cleaner, (c) ethyl alcohol
heavier than air-one of the heaviest Sodium hydroxide/Potassium hydroxide - (d) methanol
Se
known gases. It is used in the electrical Soap.
industry as a gaseous dielectric medium Sol.409.(b) tert-butyl alcohol. Common
for high-voltage sulfur hexafluoride Q.406. Select the name of the and IUPAC Names of Some Alcohols :
circuit breakers, switchgear. hydrocarbon with a structural formula Methyl alcohol - Methanol; n-Propyl
CH3-CH2-CH2 -CH2- CH2- CH3. alcohol - Propan-1-ol; Isopropyl alcohol -
Q.402. What is the IUPAC name of SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) Propan-2-ol; n-Butyl alcohol - Butan-1-ol;
tertiarybutyl alcohol? (a) 2-Methylpentane sec-Butyl alcohol - Butan-2-ol; Isobutyl
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (b) n-Hexane alcohol - 2-Methylpropan-1-ol; Ethylene
(a) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol (c) 2,2-Dimethylbutane glycol - Ethane-1,2-diol; Glycerol -
(b) 1-propylpropan-3-ol (d) 3-methyl hexane Propane - 1, 2, 3-triol.
(c) 1-Methylpropan-3-ol
(d) 1-ethylpropan-3-ol Sol.406.(b) n-Hexane. It is a colorless, Q.410. What is the chemical formula for
highly volatile liquid with a faint butane?
Sol.402.(a) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol. petroleum-like odor, commonly used as a SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Tertiary Butyl Alcohol, also Tert-butyl solvent in industries like adhesives, (a) C4H8 (b) C2H10 (c) C2H6 (d) C4H10
alcohol, is a tertiary alcohol used in fuels leather, textiles, and vegetable oil
and fuel additives, intermediates and extraction. Sol.410.(d) C4H10. Butane : Molecular
laboratory chemicals. It is a colorless oily mass = 58 u, Boiling point = 272.4 K,
liquid with a sharp alcohol odor. Q.407. Which of the following is the Melting point = 134.6 K.
IUPAC name of m-Dichlorobenzene ?
Q.403. Which of the following is a SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (1st shift) Q.411. Identify the chemical formula of
straight-chain alkyl carboxylic acid with (a) 3,4-Dichlorobenzene methyl chloride from the following
the chemical formula CH3CH2CH2CO2H ? (b) 1,2-Dichlorobenzene chemicals.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) (a) Slaked lime (b) Calomel SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Morning)
(a) CH4 (b) C2H2 (c) CH3Cl (d) C2H6 (c) Burnt Lime (d) Limestone (a) -ic (b) -ide (c) -onium (d) -ous
Sol.411.(c) CH3Cl (Methyl chloride). It is Sol.415.(a) Slaked lime. Calcium Sol.420.(c) -onium. Ion - An atom or
also known as Chloromethane. It is a hydroxide [Ca(OH)2] reacts slowly with molecule with a net electric charge due
clear, colourless gas. It has a faint, sweet the carbon dioxide in air to form a thin to the loss or gain of electrons. Types of
odour. It is heavier than air, and it is layer of calcium carbonate (CaCO3) on ions : Cation - having positively charged
extremely flammable. It is used primarily the walls. ions. Anions- having negatively charged
in the manufacture of silicones, but was ions. Monatomic - Containing only one
Q.416. Oxolane is a synonym of which
formerly used as a refrigerant and atom. Polyatomic ion - Ion that contains
compound having the molecular formula
anaesthetic. more than one atom.
(CH2)3CH2O ?
Q.412. In alchemy, aqua fortis is the SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (2nd shift) Q.421. What is the chemical name for
(a) Thiophene (b) Tetrahedrane ionic compound MgCl2 ?
classical name of which chemical
(c) Tetrahydrofuran (d) Tropolone SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Afternoon)
compound that is used chiefly in the
manufacture of explosives and fertilizers, Sol.416.(c) Tetrahydrofuran (C4H8O). (a) Sodium iodide
and in organic synthesis? Other synonyms: Butylene oxide, (b) Manganese chloride
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) Tetramethylene oxide. The compound is (c) Cesium fluoride
(a) Hydrobromic acid (b) Nitric acid classified as a heterocyclic compound, (d) Magnesium chloride
(c) Chloric acid (d) Formic acid specifically a cyclic ether. It is a Sol.421.(d) Magnesium chloride (MgCl2)
colourless, water-miscible organic liquid consists of one magnesium ion (Mg2+)
Sol.412.(b) Nitric acid (HNO₃) - A
with low viscosity. and two chloride ions (Cl-) in an ionic
colourless liquid with yellow or red fumes
df
with an acrid odour. It is a highly bond.
Q.417. What is the IUPAC name of
corrosive liquid (Freezing point −42 °C
_p
allylamine which is used to make Q.422. Sodium Hydroxide is the chemical
[−44 °F], Boiling point 83 °C [181 °F]). pharmaceuticals and other chemicals? name of which of the following common
Used: Manufacture of fertilisers, dyes,
na
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (4th shift) substances?
and explosives and also in the polymer (a) Propan-1-amine SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Evening)
industry.
ap
(b) Benzenamine (a) Bleaching Powder (b) Borax
(c) N-Methylethanamine (c) Caustic Soda (d) Chalk
Q.413. The preferred IUPAC name of Allyl
(d) 2-Propen-1-amine
:@
bromide is:
Sol.422.(c) Caustic Soda. It is used to
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.417.(d) 2-Propen-1-Amine (C3H7N). manufacture soaps, rayon, paper,
(a) 3-Bromopropene (b) 1-Bromopantene
explosives, dyestuffs, and petroleum
TG
(c) 2-Bromopropene (d) 3-Bromobutene Q.418. The IUPAC name of an element is
products.
Unnilennium. What is the symbol of the
Sol.413.(a) 3-Bromopropene - Organic
element? Q.423. Negative ions that consist of a
halide used in the synthesis of polymers,
on
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift) single atom are named by adding the
pharmaceuticals, synthetic perfumes and
(a) Une (b) Unl (c) Unm (d) Unu suffix ____ to the stem of the name of the
other organic compounds.
element.
ch
Sol.418.(a) Une. International Union of
Q.414. What is the name of the 1, Pure and Applied Chemistry (IUPAC) - It SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Evening)
ar
3-isomer (or meta-isomer) of is the world authority on chemical (a) -onium (b) -ide (c) -ic (d) -ous
benzenediol with the chemical formula nomenclature as well as terminology. It
Se
C6H4(OH)2 ? Sol.423.(b) -ide. Example of some ions :
is basically a method of naming organic − 2− −
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) compounds according to certain rules, 𝐹 - Fluoride, 𝑂 - Oxide, 𝐶𝑙 - Chloride.
(a) Glycerol (b) Resorcinol Polyatomic positive ions often have
Established - 1919, Headquarters - North
(c) Catechol (d) m-Cresol common names ending with the suffix
Carolina (United States).
-onium, Example - H3O+ - Hydronium,
Sol.414.(b) Resorcinol. The ortho
Q.419. What is the name of the chemical NH4+ - Ammonium.
position refers to the two adjacent
compound having the molecular formula
positions on a benzene ring. The meta Q.424. What is the chemical name of
𝐶3 𝐻4𝑂 which is mostly used for the
position refers to the positions separated saltpetre?
by one carbon atom on a benzene ring. production of acrylic acid and acrylate
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (1st Shift)
The para position refers to the opposite ester ?
(a) Potassium nitrate
position (separated by two carbon SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift)
(b) Potassium manganite
atoms) on a benzene ring. In view of (a) Naphthaldehyde (b) Vanillin
(c) Acrolein (d) Muscone (c) Lead nitrate
ortho-, meta- and para-position of (d) Lead sulphate
hydroxyl groups, benzenediol has three Sol.419.(c) Acrolein (C3H4O): It is a
isomers namely catechol, resorcinol and colourless to pale yellow liquid with a Sol.424.(a) Potassium Nitrate (KNO3,
hydroquinone, respectively. strong, pungent odour. Uses:- Used as a Saltpetre) is an ionic white crystalline
biocide to control plants, algae, molluscs, salt made up of potassium ions and
Q.415. What is the common name for a nitrate ions. Uses - Main constituents of
fungi, rodents, and microorganisms.
saturated solution of calcium hydroxide gunpowder, food preservatives and
widely used as a raw material in the Q.420. Polyatomic positive ions often additives (in meat and fish), fertilizer, and
chemical industry? have common names ending with the oxidizer for fireworks and rockets, etc.
SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift) suffix _________.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
Q.425. Identify the chemical formula of SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (4th Shift) SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Evening)
ammonium hydroxide. (a) Ca(OH)2 + CaO (b) KOH + CaO (a) NaAl𝑂2 (b) Na2AlO
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (4th Shift) (c) CaCl2 + CaO (d) NaOH + CaO (c) NaAl𝑂3 (d) Na2AlO3
(a) NH4OH (b) NH4O2 (c) NH3O (d) NH₂OH
Sol.429.(d) NaOH + CaO. 3 : 1 mixture Sol.434.(a) NaAlO2 (Sodium Aluminate).
Sol.425.(a) NH4OH. Ammonium of NaOH (Sodium Hydroxide) and CaO In water treatment it is used as an
Hydroxide (ammonia water, ammoniacal (Calcium Oxide) is called soda lime. adjunct to water softening systems, as a
liquor, ammonia liquor, aqua ammonia)
coagulant aid to improve flocculation,
(NH4OH) colourless liquid with a strong Q.430. Which of the following is the
and for removing dissolved silica and
odour. Uses: Cleaning agents, chemical formula of barium peroxide
phosphates. Sodium Aluminate is a
fertilizers, furniture darkening, etc. SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
white powder. It is used in the
(a) Ba2O2 (b) BaSO4 (c) Ba (d) BaO2
Q.426. Which low-calorie sweetener has manufacture of milk-glass, soap and
the chemical formula 𝐶14𝐻18𝑁2𝑂5 that is Sol.430.(d) BaO2. It is an odourless, cleaning compounds.
greyish-white powder. It is used as a
two hundred times sweeter than sugar? Q.435. Identify the chemical structure for
bleaching agent, in making Hydrogen
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (3rd Shift) potassium hydroxide.
Peroxide, Aluminium welding and textile
(a) Saccharin (b) Aspartame SSC CHSL 7/06/2022 (Morning)
dyeing. It is a strong oxidizing agent. BaO
(c) Sucralose (d) Neotame (a) KOH (b) 𝐾2O (c) PO𝐻2 (d) 𝐾2𝐻2
(Barium oxide), is used as a drying agent
Sol.426.(b) Aspartame. It is a methyl for solvents, in cathode ray tubes,
Sol.435.(a) KOH. Potassium Hydroxide
ester of aspartic acid (phenylalanine catalysts, and crown glass.
(Caustic Potash) is an inorganic
dipeptide). Uses: ingredients in
Q.431. Which of the following pair of compound. It is used as an electrolyte in
beverages, dairy products, nutrition bars,
some alkaline batteries. It is used in the
df
desserts, chewing gum, sauces, syrups, compound names – formulas is correct ?
I. Calcium oxide – Ca2O thickening of food. It is used in chip
etc. Saccharin (C7H5NO3S) - 550 times as
_p
II. Aluminium Oxide – Al2O3 fabrication for semiconductors.
sweet as sucrose. Sucralose
(C12H19Cl3O8) - about 320 to 1,000 times SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening)
na
Q.436. Ferrum is the Latin name for ___ .
sweeter than sucrose. Neotame (a) Only I (b) Both I and II
SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Morning)
(C20H330N2O5) - 8000 times sweeter than (c) Neither I nor II (d) Only II (a) nickel (b) copper (c) iron (d) zinc
ap
sucrose.
Sol.431.(d) Only II. Calcium Oxide (CaO), Sol.436.(c) Iron (Fe). Copper (Cu)-
:@
Q.427. Which of the following is an Uses - manufacturing of cement, paper, Cuprum, Zinc (Zn) - Zincum, Antimony
organic compound with the formula and high-grade steel. Aluminium Oxide (Sb) - Stibium, Gold (Au) - Aurum, Lead
CH3OC6H5 used as a perfume, fragrance (Al2,O3), Uses - refractories, ceramics, (Pb) - Plumbum, Mercury (Hg) -
TG
and solvent? and polishing and abrasive applications Hydrargyrum, Potassium (K) - Kalium,
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (4th Shift) etc. Silver (Ag) - Argentum, Sodium (Na) -
(a) Anisole (b) Toluene Natrium, Tin (Sn) - Stannum, Tungsten
Q.432. Calcium hypochlorite is
on
(c) Acetophenone (d) Aniline (W) - Wolfram.
commonly known as:
Sol.427.(a) Anisole (methoxybenzene, SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening) Q.437. Which of the following is the
ch
CH3OC6H5). Toluene (C6H5CH3) is found (a) bordeaux mixture (b) bleaching powder scientific name of the mineral called
naturally in crude oil, and is used in oil (c) laughing gas (d) gunpowder chromite?
ar
refining and the manufacturing of paints. SSC MTS 11/10/2021(Evening)
Acetophenone (C6H5C(O)CH3) is used for Sol.432.(b) Bleaching Powder (CaOCl2).
(a) Aluminium chromium oxide
Se
fragrance in soaps and perfumes and as Laughing gas (Nitrous oxide, N2O) or
(b) Copper chromium oxide
a flavouring agent in foods. Aniline happy gas, is a colourless,
(c) Silver chromium oxide
(C6H5NH2) used to make dyes, drugs, non-flammable gas. Used in medical and
(d) Iron chromium oxide
explosives, plastics, and photographic dental procedures as a sedative.
Sol.437.(d) Iron chromium oxide.
and rubber chemicals. Q.433. Which of the following pairs of Chromite is used as a refractory in the
Q.428. The chemical formula of borax is compound names – formula is correct? production of steel, copper, glass, and
. I. Hydrogen chloride – H2Cl cement. Chromite occurs as a primary
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (1st Shift) II. Hydrogen sulphide – HS2 accessory mineral in basic and ultrabasic
(a) Na2B5O7.10H2O (b) Na2B4O7.10H2O SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) igneous rocks.
(c) Na2B4O7.5H2O (d) Na2B4O7.12H2O (a) Only II (b) Neither I nor II
(c) Only I (d) Both I and II Q.438. Which of the following is the
Sol.428.(b) Na2B4O7.10H2O. Borax (tincal, common name of a natural admixture
sodium tetraborate decahydrate) is a Sol.433.(b) Neither I nor II. Hydrogen mineral of zinc carbonate and hydrous
natural mineral and a salt of boric acid. It Chloride (HCl) used for cleaning, pickling, zinc silicate?
is also known as sodium borate, sodium electroplating metals, tanning leather, SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Afternoon)
tetraborate, or disodium tetraborate. It and refining. Hydrogen sulphide (H₂S) (a) Chalk (b) Borax
can be used in the testing of cleaning used to produce heavy water for nuclear (c) Calamine (d) Benzol
agent, insecticide, water softening agent power plants.
Sol.438.(c) Calamine. To differentiate
and diabetes mellitus.
Q.434. Which of the following is the the minerals, they were given new names
Q.429. Which of the following is soda correct chemical formula of sodium of: Smithsonite (zinc carbonate)
lime ? aluminate ? Hemimorphite (hydrous zinc silicate).
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
Miscellaneous Q.443. Which of the following is NOT a nitrogen, oxygen, carbon, and water, are
greenhouse gas ? generally considered perfect.
Q.439. Who among the following coined SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Biogeochemical cycles describe the
the name oxygen for the element (a) Methane (b) Carbon dioxide movement of elements and compounds
released by mercury oxide in 1779? (c) Nitrous oxide (d) Nitric oxide across Earth's systems (Atmosphere,
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Afternoon) Hydrosphere, Lithosphere, Biosphere,
Sol.443.(d) Nitric oxide. The greenhouse and Pedosphere) and are essential for
(a) John Dalton
effect is a natural process that warms transforming matter and energy into
(b) Martin Klaproth
the Earth's surface by trapping heat from usable forms.
(c) Jons Jacob Berzelius
the sun. Greenhouse gases, such as
(d) Antoine Lavoisier
methane, carbon dioxide, nitrogen Q.447. Which of the following is the main
Sol.439.(d) Antoine Lavoisier recognized dioxide, ozone, and water vapor, absorb active ingredient of clove oil?
oxygen as key to combustion and named and emit infrared radiation, functioning SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
it from the Greek "oxys" (acid) and similarly to a greenhouse. This process is (a) Eugenol (b) Curcuma
"genes" (producer). He initially thought it essential for maintaining the Earth's (c) Malic acid (d) Tartaric acid
was essential for acid formation, but temperature and climate.
Sol.447.(a) Eugenol. Curcumin is the
later discovered its broader role in
Q.444. Identify an example of plasma as main compound found in turmeric. Malic
combustion and respiration. Martin
a state of matter. acid is the main acid in many fruits,
Heinrich Klaproth was a German chemist
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) including apricots, blackberries,
who discovered uranium (1789) and
(a) Blood (b) Dry ice blueberries, cherries, grapes etc. Tartaric
zirconium (1789). Jons Jacob Berzelius
(c) Freon (d) Neon sign bulbs acid is an organic acid found in fruits
discovered Thorium in 1829.
such as bananas, grapes and tamarind,
df
Sol.444.(d) Neon sign bulbs. Plasma is a and many vegetables.
Q.440. What is the chemical formula for
hot, ionized gas made up of roughly
_p
the compound commonly known as
equal numbers of positively charged ions Q.448. Which phenomenon is opposite
'laughing gas' ?
and negatively charged electrons. It has to solidification?
na
SSC MTS 09/10/2024 (1st Shift)
distinct characteristics that differentiate SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
(a) NO (b) N2O3 (c) N2O (d) NO2
it from ordinary neutral gases, making it (a) Condensation (b) Fusion
ap
Sol.440.(c) N2O. Nitrous oxide, often a "fourth state of matter" (solid, liquid, (c) Vaporisation (d) Sublimation
gas, and plasma). Plasmas are strongly
:@
called “laughing gas,” is a safe and
influenced by electric and magnetic Sol.448.(b) Fusion : The process by
effective sedative mixed with oxygen and
fields due to their charged particles, which a substance transitions from a
inhaled through a small mask over the
unlike neutral gases. solid to a liquid state. Solidification refers
TG
nose to promote relaxation. Dentists may
to the change from a liquid or gas to a
use it to enhance comfort during certain
Q.445. A proton bonds to the oxygen solid state. Condensation is the
procedures.
atom of a solvent water to give a transition from gas to liquid, the reverse
on
Q.441. Calculate the oxidation number of _______hydronium ion. of vaporization, which is the conversion
‘S’ in H2S2O7 SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) from liquid or solid to gas. Sublimation is
ch
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) (a) tetrahedral (b) square planar the direct change from solid to gas
(a) 3 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 2 (c) square pyramid (d) trigonal pyramidal without passing through the liquid phase.
ar
Sol.441.(c) 6. To calculate the oxidation Sol.445.(d) Trigonal pyramidal. A Q.449. Which of the following figures
Se
number of S in H2S2O7: trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry is accurately depicts the inter-conversion of
Assign oxidation numbers to known a shape where one atom is at the top, or the three states of matter ?
elements: H = +1 and O = -2 apex, and three atoms form a triangular
Write the equation: 2(+1) + 2x + 7(-2) = 0 base, similar to a tetrahedron. The bond
⇒ 2 + 2x - 14 = 0 ⇒ 2x = 12 ⇒ x = 6. angle of a trigonal pyramid is usually
109.5°. A proton is a positively charged SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
Q.442. The chemical formula of glucose hydrogen ion (H+). When a proton bonds (a) c (b) d (c) b (d) a
is C6H12O6. The weight % of carbon in to a water molecule (H₂O), the resulting
glucose is: ion is called a hydronium ion (H₃O+). Sol.449.(c) b. Interconversion of states
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift) of matter refers to the process where
Q.446. Which cycle consists of matter changes between solid, liquid,
(a) 40 (b) 72 (c) 53 (d) 25
sedimentary and gaseous cycles? and gas states, and back, without
Sol.442.(a) 40. Calculate the molar mass SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift) altering its chemical composition. This
of glucose (C6H12O6) = (6 x 12) + (12 x 1) (a) Biogeogaseous cycle physical change is influenced by
+ (6 x 16) = 72 + 12 + 96 = 180 g/mol. (b) Biogeo cycle temperature and pressure. Plasma, the
Total mass of carbon (C) = 6 x 12 = 72 g. (c) Biogeochemical cycle fourth state of matter, is an ionized gas
We Know that, (d) Biochemical cycle consisting of roughly equal numbers of
Percentage by Weight positively and negatively charged
Sol.446.(c) Biogeochemical cycle.
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑏𝑜𝑛 particles.
= × 100 Sedimentary cycles include iron, calcium,
𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝐺𝑙𝑢𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒
sulfur, and phosphorus, but are imperfect Q.450. One mole of Aluminium Sulphate
72
⇒ × 100 = 40 %. as some nutrients become trapped in Al2(SO4)3 contains :
180
sediments. Gaseous cycles, involving SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
(a) 3 moles of oxygen atoms glucose). Adulterant means any material with starch. This indicates the presence
(b) 6 moles of oxygen atoms employed for the purpose of of carbohydrates in the food item to
(c) 4 moles of oxygen atoms adulteration. To assess the authenticity which iodine solution was added.
(d) 12 moles of oxygen atoms of Turmeric powder, mix a teaspoon of Example : If Iodine is added to a peeled
haldi with water; genuine Turmeric potato then it will turn black.
Sol.450.(d) 12 moles of oxygen atoms. settles at the bottom, displaying a pale
This is because each sulfate ion (SO4)2- yellow hue, while adulterated Turmeric Q.458. Which of the following
has 4 oxygen atoms, and since there are turns dark yellow in water. statements best describes the
3 sulfate ions in the formula, the total is 3 characteristics of a crystalline solid ?
× 4 = 12 oxygen atoms. Q.454. At standard temperature and SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift)
pressure (STP), the value of temperature (a) Easily experiences geometric
Q.451. Which inert gas is used in is: deformation
double-glazed windows to fill the space SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 (b) There is no precise melting point
between the panes? (a) 0°C (b) 27°C (c) Has an uneven 3-dimensional layouts
Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1) (c) 25.51°C (d) 273.15°C (d) Changes abruptly from solid to liquid
(a) Xenon (b) Radon when heated
(c) Argon (d) Helium Sol.454.(a) 0°C (273.15 K or 32 degrees
Fahrenheit). Standard temperature and Sol.458.(d) Crystalline solids - They
Sol.451.(c) Argon. Argon is used in pressure (STP) refers to the nominal exhibit anisotropic properties, varying in
double-glazed windows because it has conditions in the atmosphere at sea electrical resistance and refractive index
low thermal conductivity, which level. The standard pressure is 1 atm values across different directions within
enhances the insulating properties of the (atmospheric pressure). At STP, one mole the same crystals. Examples: Quartz,
window. This helps to reduce heat of any gas will have a volume of 22.4 calcite, sugar, mica, diamonds,
df
transfer, making the windows more litres. snowflakes, rock, calcium fluoride, silicon
energy-efficient by minimizing heat loss
_p
dioxide, and alum.
in the winter and heat gain in the Q.455. Synthetic fibres, elastomers,
summer. polymers and surfactant intermediate Q.459. Which of the following correctly
na
are all subgroups of ________ industries. represents the number of atoms in one
Q.452. Gases, especially oxygen and SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) mole of CH3OH ?
ap
carbon dioxide, are essential for the (a) petrochemical (b) textile SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift)
survival of aquatic animals and plants. (c) pharmaceutical (d) sugar (a) 6.0 × 1023 (b) 3.6 × 1024
:@
The gases from the atmosphere reach (c) 3.0 × 10 25
(d) 3
the aquatic animals and plants through: Sol.455.(a) Petrochemical. Synthetic
SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 fibres: Man-made materials composed of Sol.459.(b) 3.6 × 1024. Given, One mole
TG
(a) condensation (b) evaporation polymers, such as textiles. Elastomers: of methanol contains 6 atoms, including
(c) sublimation (d) diffusion Polymers with high elasticity and 4 moles of hydrogen atoms, 1 mole of
flexibility, commonly used in products oxygen atoms, and 1 mole of carbon
on
Sol.452.(d) Diffusion - It is the like rubber bands and tires. Polymers: atoms. So C = 1, H = 3 + 1 or 4, O = 1.
movement of molecules from a region of Large molecules formed by the repeated 1 mole of atoms corresponds to
higher concentration to a region of lower linking of smaller units (monomers), Avogadro's number of atoms which is
ch
concentration, down the concentration often used to create diverse materials 6.02 × 1023.
gradient. Other applications : Water such as plastics, rubber, and fibres. 6 mole of atoms = 6 × 6.02 × 1023
ar
present in the soil diffuses into plants ⇒ 6 mole of atoms = 36.12 × 1023
Q.456. The synthesis of which chemical
Se
through their root hair cells; Carbon ⇒ 6 mole of atoms = 3.6 × 1024.
dioxide moves from cells into the blood. is inhibited due to aspirin?
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) Q.460. Which of the following chemical
Condensation - Change of the state of
(a) Histamines (b) Pyrites compounds, that is used as a food
matter from the gas phase into the liquid
(c) Analgesics (d) Prostaglandins preservative in some sauces and
phase. Example - Formation of Rain
beverages, retains their natural colour
droplets. Evaporation - Changes of liquid Sol.456.(d) Prostaglandins : It
and protects against bacteria?
to gaseous states. Sublimation - stimulates inflammation in the tissue
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Conversion of solid to gaseous states. and causes pain. These drugs are
(a) Dihydroxy benzene
effective in relieving skeletal pain such
Q.453. To check the presence of (b) Hydrazine hydrate
as that due to arthritis. Histamine - A
adulterated sugar solution in honey, a (c) Potassium metabisulphite
neurotransmitter and a regulator of
cotton wick dipped in the sample is (d) Monosodium glutamate
gastric acid secretion. It is released from
ignited with a match stick. Adulteration is
Basophil and Mast cell. Sol.460.(c) Potassium metabisulphite.
confirmed if:
Other Food Preservatives - Sodium
SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023 Q.457. Which of the following tests is
benzoate, calcium propionate, and
(a) it burns with a violet coloured flame used for starch detection?
potassium sorbate. m -
(b) it burns smoothly SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Dihydroxybenzene (Resorcinol) : Uses -
(c) it burns with a green coloured flame (a) Iodine test (b) Glucose test
Manufacture of resins, plastics, dyes,
(d) it burns with a crackling sound (c) Salt test (d) Sodium test
medicine and other organic chemical
Sol.453.(d) It burns with a crackling Sol.457.(a) Iodine test. The light compounds. Hydrazine hydrate is used
sound. Honey is composed of water and orange-brown colour Iodine solution as a reducing agent, blowing agent,
two types of Sugars (fructose and turns blue-black in colour when it reacts corrosion inhibitor, oxygen scavenger or
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
intermediate of synthesis. Monosodium (c) Peroxide value catalyst. It is used as fire retardant.
glutamate is a flavour enhancer in foods. (d) Saponification value
Q.469. What type of isomerism exists in
Q.461. ______ is the process of complete Sol.464.(d) Saponification value - It is compounds containing two or more
or incomplete oxidation or hydrolysis of the number of milligrams of potassium complexes, each of which contains a
fats and oils when exposed to air, light, hydroxide (KOH) required to neutralize different set of ligands that can in
moisture, or bacterial action that spoils the fatty acids obtained by complete principle be replaced with a ligand of the
food. hydrolysis of one gram of fat or oil. other complex?
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift) SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (1st Shift)
Q.465. Galvanisation is a process in
(a) Rancidification (b) Hydrogenation (a) Coordination isomerism
which a protective _______ coating is
(c) Auto-oxidation (d) Auto reduction (b) Solvate Isomerism
applied on iron to prevent it from rusting.
(c) Linkage isomerism
Sol.461.(a) Rancidification (Examples - SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(d) Ionization isomerism
Milk becomes rancid because of not (a) nickel (b) zinc (c) copper (d) silver
heating it in the humid atmosphere, Oil Sol.469.(a) Coordination isomerism.
Sol.465.(b) Zinc. Galvanization protects [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] is a coordination
becomes rancid (rancid oil) because of
steel and iron from rusting and is isomer with [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6].
the decomposition of fats it has).
commonly used in construction, pipes, Ionization isomerism involves the
Q.462. Which of the following is the and automotive parts to prevent exchange of ions inside and outside the
correct Lewis structure of O3 ? corrosion, while adding a small amount coordination sphere. An example of
of carbon to pure iron increases its ionization isomerism is [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br
strength and hardness. and [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4. Solvate (Hydrate)
isomerism are the isomers which have
df
Q.466. _________ is a process in which
natural rubber is treated with sulphur to the same composition but differ with
_p
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (1st shift) make it more durable and elastic. respect to the number of solvent ligand
(a) c (b) a (c) b (d) d SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon) molecules as well as the counterion in
na
(a) Saponification (b) Fermentation the crystal lattice.
Sol.462.(d) Lewis structure: A graphical
(c) Vulcanisation (d) Carbonation Q.470. How many anions surround a
representation of a molecule, showing
ap
the arrangement of atoms and valence Sol.466.(c) Vulcanisation. This process sodium ion in a crystal lattice of sodium
electrons using dots to depict bonding was discovered by Charles Goodyear. chloride?
:@
and lone pairs. The O3 molecule has no Saponification is the process of SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
net charge, the Lewis structures reveal a converting fats and oils into soap. (a) Six (b) Eight (c) Seven (d) Nine
+1 charge on the central oxygen and a -1
TG
Fermentation is the process of Sol.470.(a) Six. Sodium chloride crystal
charge on the singly bonded oxygen. converting sugar into alcohol or other (NaCl), where ions taking part are Na+
products. Carbonation is the process of and Cl-. They have 1:1 stereochemistry
Q.463. Which of the following is a
dissolving carbon dioxide in a liquid.
on
synthetic fluorinated compound with an and thus the coordination number of 6.
extremely stable molecular structure Q.467. Which among the following is a Q.471. Which of the following is not a
known to be the most potent greenhouse
ch
cooking procedure in which the sugar in natural fibre?
gas ever found ? the food gets oxidized, turning into a SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (1st Shift)
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift)
ar
brown colour? (a) Linen (b) Cotton (c) Rayon (d) Jute
(a) Hydrogen fluoride SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon)
Se
(b) Sodium monofluorophosphate (a) Filtration (b) Caramelisation Sol.471.(c) Rayon. Examples of Natural
(c) Sulphur hexafluoride (c) Emulsification (d) Bromination fibres (Fibres obtained from natural
(d) Calcium fluoride sources like plants and animals) include :
Sol.467.(b) Caramelisation. Cotton, Silk, Wool, Linen, Jute and Hemp.
Sol.463.(c) Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6). It Emulsification is the process of breaking Examples of Artificial fibres (Fibres
is a colorless, odorless, non - flammable, down fat into smaller blood cells so that which are manufactured in laboratories)
non - toxic gas and an inorganic gas enzymes can operate and food may be include Rayon, Nylon, Polyester, Acrylic
made up of sulphur and fluorine used in digested more easily. Filtration is defined and Aramid.
electrical switchgear, transformers, and as the process of separating suspended
substations as an electrical insulation, solid matter from a liquid, by causing the Q.472. What test is used where the
arc quenching and cooling medium. latter to pass through the pores of a elements present in the compound are
Other Greenhouse Gases - Carbon membrane. converted from covalent form into the
dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4), Nitrous ionic form by fusing the compound with
oxide (N2O), Fluorinated gases such as Q.468. Which of the following is not a sodium metal?
Hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons, technique or a step to convert normal SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Morning)
sulphur hexafluoride and nitrogen water to potable water? (a) Flame test (b) D-dimer test
trifluoride. SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (2nd Shift) (c) Blood test (d) Lassaigne’s test
(a) Filtration (b) Bromination
Q.464. How is the molecular weight of Sol.472.(d) Lassaigne's test helps to
(c) Boiling (d) Chlorination
fatty acid determined? detect Nitrogen, Sulphur, and Halogens in
Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2) Sol.468.(b) Bromination - Oxidation of organic compounds. A flame test is a
(a) iodine value hydrobromic acid by hydrogen peroxide qualitative analysis used by the chemist
(b) Acid value in the absence of any transition metal to identify the metal and metalloid ion in
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Chemistry
the sample. A D-dimer test is a blood test (CH3COOH), also called ethanoic acid, is table salt.
that can be used to help rule out the the most important of the carboxylic
presence of a serious blood clot. acids. Ethanoic or acetic acid is used in Q.483. In a galvanic cell, the half-cell in
making dyes, pigments, and paint, and which oxidation takes place is called
Q.473. Carbon monoxide contains coating additives. ______ and it has a negative potential
approximately ______ of oxygen for each with respect to the solution.
1.00 g of carbon. Q.478. Iron nails become ______ after SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Evening)
SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Evening) being dipped in copper sulphate solution. (a) cathode (b) anode (c) diode (d) triode
(a) 0.23 g (b) 2.66 g (c) 1.33 g (d) 4.11 g SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
(a) greenish (b) bluish Sol.483.(b) Anode. Oxidation takes place
Sol.473.(c) 1.33 g. Every sample of at anode. And reduction happens at the
(c) brownish (d) greyish
carbon monoxide contains 16.0 g of cathode in a galvanic cell. Since the
oxygen for every 12.0 g of carbon. Sol.478.(c) Brownish. Iron Nail is Fe and reaction at the anode is the source of
Carbon Monoxide is used in the blue copper sulphate is CuSO4. When nail electrons for the current, the anode is the
purification of nickel. It is used as a is kept in it, Fe being more reactive than negative terminal of the galvanic cell.
reducing agent. It is used in water gas copper, it displaces copper from Copper
shift reactions to produce hydrogen. sulphate and forms Ferrous Sulphate Q.484. NPK is a:
which is greenish blue, and the copper SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Morning)
Q.474. As per WHO (World Health displaces deposits around nails giving it (a) Fertilizer used for increasing fertility
Organization), which of the following is colour of reddish brown. of soil
NOT an example of disinfection (b) Medicine used to control pests
by-products formed at traditional Q.479. What is the meaning of the Greek (c) Brand of sprinkler for irrigation
drinking water treatment plants? origin word, ‘Elektron’ ? (d) Sanitizer used to clean dusty leaves
df
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Morning) SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Morning)
(a) Titania (b) Bromate (a) Charge (b) Negative Sol.484.(a) NPK stands for “Nitrogen,
_p
(c) Chlorate (d) Chlorite (c) Amber (d) Ebonite Phosphorus and Potassium”, the three
nutrients that compose complete
na
Sol.474.(a) Titania. Titanium dioxide, Sol.479.(c) Amber, the yellow fossilized fertilizer.
also called titania, (TiO2), a white, resin of evergreen trees, a "natural plastic
ap
opaque, naturally occurring mineral material" already known to the ancient Q.485. Which of the following can be
existing in a number of crystalline forms, Greeks. used as a catalyst in Hydrogenation
:@
the most important of which are rutile reaction?
and anatase. It is used in paints, Q.480. __________ is the inflammatory SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Afternoon)
coatings, papers, inks, toothpaste, face compound in pepper spray. (a) Palladium (b) Barium
TG
powder, and food colouring. SSC CHSL 26/10/2020 (Morning) (c) Iron (d) Tungsten
(a) CFC (b) curcumin
Q.475. How many pollutants are included (c) gingerol (d) capsaicin Sol.485.(a) Palladium. Hydrogenation is
to measure the Air Quality Index in India? a chemical reaction between molecular
on
SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Morning) Sol.480.(d) Capsaicin. It causes burning, hydrogen (H2) and another compound or
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 12 pain and tears when it comes into element, usually in the presence of a
ch
contact with a person’s eyes. catalyst such as nickel, palladium, or
Sol.475.(b) 8. pollutants namely
platinum.
particulate matter (PM) 10, PM 2.5, Q.481. Which of the following is used to
ar
Ozone (O3), Sulphur dioxide (SO2), remove the green colour from glass? Q.486. Name the densest stable element
Se
nitrogen dioxide (NO2), carbon monoxide SSC CGL 06/03/2020 (Evening) known on earth.
(CO), lead (Pb) and ammonia (NH3) act (a) Manganese dioxide SSC CGL 07/03/2020 (Evening)
as major parameters in deriving the AQI (b) Silicon dioxide (a) Rhodium (b) Osmium
of an area. (c) Sulphur dioxide (c) Aluminium (d) Tungsten
(d) Titanium dioxide
Q.476. Topaz is a ______ of fluorine and Sol.486.(b) Osmium has a blue-grey tint
aluminium. Sol.481.(a) Manganese dioxide. Sodium and is the densest stable element, it is
SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Evening) Permanganate is produced by using approximately twice as dense as lead
(a) sulphate (b) phosphate Manganese dioxide to remove green and slightly denser than Iridium.
(c) carbonate (d) silicate from glass that results from the
Sol.476.(d) Silicate. Topaz presence of Iron.
{Al₂SiO₄(FOH)₂} is used as a gemstone in
Q.482. ______ solids are formed by the
jewellery and other adornments.
three-dimensional arrangements of
Q.477. Which of the following is a weak cations and anions bound by strong
electrolyte? coulombic (electrostatic) forces.
SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Afternoon) SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Evening)
(a) Sodium chloride (a) Metallic (b) Molecular
(b) Calcium chloride (c) Ionic (d) Covalent
(c) Ethanoic acid
Sol.482.(c) Ionic. They have very high
(d) Magnesium sulphate
melting point and are poor conductors in
Sol.477.(c) Ethanoic acid. Acetic acid the Solid state. Example of ionic solid is
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
name for starch found mainly in the pulp Equisetum.
Biology of seeds, fruits, tubers, roots and stems
of plants, especially in corn, potatoes, Q.8. Oleo gum resin (Asafoetida) can be
Scientific Name wheat and rice? obtained from:
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift) SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Morning)
Q.1. Identify the scientific name of sea (a) Amylum (b) Xanthan (a) dried latex from the stem of ferula
pen that belongs to phylum Cnidaria. (c) Olestra (d) Saponin (b) dried latex from the roots of mango
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening) tree
(a) Gorgonia (b) Adamsia Sol.4.(a) Amylum - A polymeric (c) dried latex from the banana leaves
(c) Pennatula (d) Obelia carbohydrate consisting of numerous (d) dried latex from the tap root of ferula
glucose units joined by glycosidic bonds.
Sol.1.(c) Pennatula. Sea pens are Olestra (Olean) - Fat substitute that Sol.8.(d) Oleo-gum-resin (Asafoetida)
colonial marine cnidarians that have a doesn't add any calories to products. can be obtained from the exudates of the
feather-like appearance and are found in Saponins - They are naturally occurring roots of the Iranian endemic medicinal
deep-sea environments. Gorgonia compounds that are widely distributed in plant, Ferula asafoetida. It has cytotoxic,
(Sea-fan) is the genus of a type of soft all cells of legume plants. Xanthan antiulcer, anti-neoplasm, anti-cancer, and
coral, also in phylum Cnidaria. Adamsia (polysaccharide) produced from simple anti-oxidative effects.
is a genus of sea anemones. Obelia is a sugars using a fermentation process.
genus of colonial hydroids, also in Uses - common food additive, thickening Nutrition in Animals
phylum Cnidaria. agent, emulsifier, and stabiliser that
prevents ingredients from separating. Q.9. Which food is a good source of
Q.2. What is the scientific name of the
complete protein ?
banyan tree, a large evergreen tree of Q.5. What is the common term for
df
SSC MTS 16/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
Asia characterised by its trunk-like aerial Ancylostoma? (a) Eggs (b) Spinach (c) Lentils (d) Rice
_p
roots? SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift) (a) Tapeworm (b) Roundworm Sol.9.(a) Eggs. Proteins, made of about
na
(a) Ficus benghalensis (c) Filaria worm (d) Hookworm 20 amino acids, are essential for building
(b) Gossypium herbaceum muscles, bones, enzymes, and
Sol.5.(d) Hookworm. Ancylostoma is a
ap
(c) Santalum album hormones. Protein-rich foods include
(d) Ananas comosus genus of parasitic nematodes poultry, seafood, fish, eggs, and dairy
(roundworms) that primarily infect
:@
products like milk, yogurt, and cheese.
Sol.2.(a) Ficus benghalensis : Family - mammals. These worms are intestinal Eggs are naturally rich in vitamin B2
Moraceae, Order - Rosales, Kingdom - parasites and are transmitted to humans (riboflavin), vitamin B12, vitamin D,
Plantae. Gossypium herbaceum : Levant through contact with contaminated soil
TG
selenium and iodine.
cotton. Santalum album : Indian or sand where the larvae are present.
Sandalwood. Ananas comosus : Tapeworm : genus - Taenia, Examples - Q.10. If the Glycemic Index (GI) of a
Pineapple. Taenia solium (pork tapeworm) and specific food is from 70 to 100, then the
on
Taenia saginata (beef tapeworm). Filaria type of that food is:
Q.3. Match the columns.
worms belong to the family Filarioidea. SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (2nd Shift)
ch
Column-A Column-B
(a) Low - GI food
(Class) (Common name) Q.6. Solanum lycopersicum L. is the (b) High - GI food
i. Chlorophyceae a. Brown algae
ar
scientific name of which of the following (c) Medium - GI food
ii. Phaeophyceae b. Green algae highly consumed vegetables? (d) Extremely low - GI food
Se
iii. Rhodophyceae c. Blue-green algae
SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Afternoon)
iv. Cyanophyceae d. Red algae Sol.10.(b) High-GI food causes a rapid
(a) Potato (b) Tomato (c) Onion (d) Garlic
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift) increase in blood sugar levels after
(a) i - b, ii - c, iii - a, iv - d Sol.6.(b) Tomato. Tomato is a major consumption. These foods are typically
(b) i - b, ii - a, iii - d, iv - c contributor of lycopene and is also a processed or refined carbohydrates, like
(c) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a considerable source of vitamins K, A, C, white bread or sugary snacks. Foods
(d) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d fiber, and carbohydrates, besides some with a GI of 55 or lower are classified as
amounts of iron, potassium, phosphorus, low-GI, and those with a GI between 56
Sol.3.(b) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c. Divisions of
and sulfur. Potato - Solanum tuberosum, and 69 are considered medium-GI.
Algae and their Main Characteristics :
Onion - Allium cepa, and Garlic - Allium
Chlorophyceae (Green algae) : Major Q.11. Which is the most important
sativum.
pigments - Chlorophyll, Stored Food - protein component in milk, both
Starch, Ex - Spirogyra. Phaeophyceae Q.7. What is the common name of quantitatively and nutritionally, that
(Brown algae) : Pigment - fucoxanthin, Parthenium hysterophorus? accounts for about 80% of the total
Stored food - Mannitol, Laminarin, Ex - SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Morning) protein in bovine milk ?
Sargassum, Laminaria. Rhodophyceae (a) Lemon grass (b) Lawn grass SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(Red algae) : Pigment - Phycoerythrin, (c) Horse grass (d) Carrot grass (a) Actin (b) Albumin
Stored Food - Floridean starch, Ex - (c) Pepsin (d) Casein
Gracilaria and Gelidium. Cyanophyceae Sol.7.(d) Carrot Grass. This plant causes
are prokaryotic and play a significant role milk disease in livestock and is also Sol.11.(d) Casein. It exists in milk in
in nitrogen fixation. responsible for respiratory malfunction in complex groups of molecules called
humans. Lemon grass - Cymbopogon, micelles. Pepsin converts proteins into
Q.4. Which of the following is another Lawn Grass - Poaceae, Horsetails - proteoses and peptides (peptides). The
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
mucus and bicarbonates present in the valine. Non-essential amino acids are: vitamins) are water- soluble.
gastric juice play an important role in alanine, arginine, asparagine, aspartic
lubrication and protection of the mucosal acid, cysteine, glutamic acid, glutamine, Q.18. Which essential micronutrient
epithelium from excoriation by the highly glycine, proline, serine, and tyrosine. plays a clear role in the synthesis,
concentrated hydrochloric acid. HCl storage and secretion of insulin in the
provides the acidic pH (1.5 to 3.5) Q.15. Which vitamin is involved in red hexameric form as well as in the
optimal for pepsins. Fibrinogen, globulins blood cell formation, neurological conformational integrity of insulin?
and albumins are the major proteins. function and DNA synthesis ? SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Albumins help in osmotic balance. SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) (a) Zinc (b) Fluoride
(a) Vitamin B7 (b) Vitamin K (c) Selenium (d) Phosphorus
Q.12. Which of the following is another (c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin B12
name for vitamin C ? Sol.18.(a) Zinc. Micronutrients are
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.15.(d) Vitamin B12. Vitamins vitamins and minerals needed by the
(a) Pyridoxine (b) Pyridoxal (scientific name) and function: Vitamin body in very small amounts. Role of
(c) Pyridoxamine (d) Ascorbic acid B1 (Thiamin) - Growth and development. some micronutrients in our body :
Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) - Red cell Fluoride inhibits the initiation and
Sol.12.(d) Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C), a production. Vitamin B3 (Niacin) - Healthy progression of dental caries (tooth
water-soluble vitamin, aids collagen skin, digestion and nervous system. decay) and stimulates new bone
production, wound healing, and bone Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) - Maintenance formation. Selenium (Se) plays a critical
formation. Its deficiency causes scurvy of ligaments, tendons. Vitamin K role in reproduction, thyroid hormone
with symptoms like bleeding gums and (Phylloquinone) - Clotting of blood. metabolism, DNA synthesis, and
delayed healing. Found in citrus fruits Vitamin E (Tocopherol) - Formation of protection from oxidative damage and
(lemons, oranges) and others like RBC. Vitamin D (Calciferol) - Formation infection. Phosphorus is a component of
df
strawberries and amla. Types of vitamins of strong bones and teeth. Vitamin A bones, teeth, DNA, and RNA.
_p
include A (Retinol), B1 (Thiamine), B6 (Retinol) - Keep eyes and skin healthy.
(Pyridoxine), E (Tocopherol), and K Q.19. Which of the following was the first
Q.16. Which of the following groups B vitamin discovered in 1897 that is
na
(Phytonadione).
represents essential amino acids ? essential in amino acid and carbohydrate
Q.13. Which essential amino acid Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1) metabolism and is active in energy
ap
enhances calcium absorption and also (a) Histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine production reactions ?
plays an important role in the formation (b) Alanine, arginine, asparagine, aspartic SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
:@
of collagen? acid (a) Thiamine (b) Folate
SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) Alanine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine (c) Riboflavin (d) Biotin
(a) Arginine (b) Tyrosine (d) Glycine, proline, serine, and tyrosine
TG
(c) Lysine (d) Histidine Sol.19.(a) Thiamine. Casimir Funk is
Sol.16.(a) Histidine, isoleucine, leucine, considered as the 'Father of vitamin
Sol.13.(c) Lysine is an essential amino lysine. Amino acids are molecules that therapy'. Vitamin B : B1 (thiamin), B2
on
acid that must be obtained from food join together to form proteins, which are (riboflavin), B3 (niacin), B5 (pantothenic
sources like meat, fish, dairy, and eggs. the building blocks of life. When proteins acid), B6 (pyridoxine), B7 (biotin), B9 (folic
ch
Collagen contains hydroxylysine, derived are digested or broken down, they yield acid), B12 (cobalamin). Fat-soluble
from lysine. Amino acids are classified amino acids. Histidine, isoleucine, Vitamins : A, D, E, and K. Water-Soluble
ar
as acidic, basic, or neutral. L-arginine leucine, lysine, methionine, Vitamins - B and C.
helps build proteins, histidine is essential phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and
Se
for protein biosynthesis, and tyrosine is a valine are classified as essential amino Q.20. What is the most important health
non-essential amino acid found in acids, as the body cannot produce them. benefit of Vitamin D ?
proteins and freely in organisms. Therefore, they must be obtained from SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
food. (a) Strengthening of bones and muscles
Q.14. Which non-essential amino acid is (b) Reducing the blood pressure
synthesised by the hydroxylation of Q.17. Select the INCORRECT statement (c) Elevation of heartbeat
phenylalanine in a reaction catalysed by with regards to vitamins. (d) Rapid growth after teenage years
phenylalanine hydroxylase ? SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (3rd shift) (a) Plants can synthesise almost all Sol.20.(a) Vitamin D (Calciferol) : Source-
(a) Cysteine (b) Glycine vitamins. Oily fish, egg yolks, red meat, etc.
(c) Tyrosine (d) Glutamine (b) Vitamins are organic compounds. Deficiency Diseases - Rickets.
(c) Some bacteria in the gut do not Symptoms- weak and painful bones,
Sol.14.(c) Tyrosine. Amino acids are the produce vitamins. Deformities in teeth, Pain in the bones.
building blocks of proteins. When (d) Most of the vitamins cannot get
proteins are broken down, amino acids Q.21. The food component present in
synthesised in sufficient amounts in sugar is:
are released. It facilitates various bodily our body.
functions such as: breaking down food, SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon)
repairing tissues, and supporting overall Sol.17.(c) Gut bacteria helps in supplying (a) fats (b) vitamins
growth and maintenance. Essential essential nutrients, synthesizing vitamin (c) carbohydrates (d) protein
amino acids are: histidine, isoleucine, K, aiding in the digestion of cellulose. Sol.21.(c) Carbohydrates. Sugar
leucine, lysine, methionine, Vitamins A, D, E and K are fat-soluble and molecules found in foods and drinks. The
phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and vitamins C and B (complex group body breaks down carbohydrates into
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
glucose (main source of energy for the correct match of column-A with I. Vitamin A - Papaya
body). Source - Breads, beans, milk, column-B? II. Iron - Spinach
popcorn, potatoes, cookies, spaghetti, Column-A Column-B SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (4th Shift)
soft drinks, corn, etc. Vitamins - Group of (Nutrients) (Source) (a) Both I and II (b) Neither I nor II
substances that are needed for normal i. Protein rich food. a. Wheat (c) Only I (d) Only II
cell function, growth, and development. ii. Fat rich food b. Lemon
Proteins are made up of amino acids. Sol.29.(a) Both I and II. Vitamin A - Milk,
iii. Carbohydrate rich food c. Egg white Eggs, Fish, Butter, Fortified Margarine,
Q.22. Milk, seafood, nuts and whole iv. Vitamin C rich food d. Butter and Cheese, Green & Yellow fruits and
grains contain high amounts of which cheese Vegetables, etc. Vitamin E - Meats,
mineral that supports bone health and SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift) Poultry, Eggs, Vegetable oils, Nuts, Olives,
our body's repair process? (a) i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d Tomatoes, etc. Zinc - Liver, Eggs, Cereals
SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (b) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a and Seafood.
(a) Fluoride (b) Potassium (c) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
(c) phosphorus (d) Zinc Q.30. Which among the following
(d) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
vitamins is known as Niacin ?
Sol.22.(c) Phosphorus. Other Minerals Sol.25.(c) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b. Important SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (1st Shift)
found in Milk : Calcium, Magnesium, Nutrients in Food and their functions : (a) Vitamin B2 (b) Vitamin B1
Potassium, Selenium and Zinc. Vitamin C Carbohydrates - One of the main sources (c) Vitamin B4 (d) Vitamin B3
(ascorbic acid) is absent in Milk. of energy for human beings. Three types
Minerals and their sources : Iron - Sol.30.(d) Vitamin B3.
of carbohydrates in food - Fiber, Sugar,
Spinach, dry nuts and seeds, Legumes Niacin is the generic name for nicotinic
and Starch. Iron - It is a constituent of our
(chickpeas and lentils). Zinc - Pumpkin acid (pyridine - 3-carboxylic acid),
df
red blood cells whose function is to carry
seeds, Eggs, Whole Grains. nicotinamide (niacinamide or pyridin - 3 -
oxygen from our lungs to organs,
carboxamide).
_p
muscles, and cells.
Q.23. What is the monomer unit of
glycogen? Q.31. Match the columns.
na
Q.26. Which of the following vitamins
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (2nd shift) Nutrients Examples
helps to keep our skin and eyes healthy?
(a) Fructose (b) Glucose a. Protein i. Calcium,
ap
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(c) Galactose (d) Mannose Phosphorous
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin D
b. Carbohydrate ii. Cholesterol
:@
(c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin B
Sol.23.(b) Glucose (C6H12O6). Glycogen : c. Fat iii. Glucose
The carbohydrates are stored in the Sol.26.(a) Vitamin A. d. Minerals iv. Myosin
animal body as glycogen. Also known as Deficiency Diseases - Night blindness, SSC CGL Tier II (07/03/2023)
TG
animal starch because its structure is Irregular growth of teeth. (a) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (b) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
similar to amylopectin and is rather more (c) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (d) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
highly branched. It is present in the liver, Q.27. Which among the following
on
muscles and brain. When the body needs vitamins influences iron absorption? Sol.31.(d) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i.
glucose, enzymes break the glycogen SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening) Carbohydrate : It consists of sugar,
(a) Vitamin B (b) Vitamin D
ch
down to glucose. Found in yeast and starch, and fiber. Two types - Simple
fungi. Fructose - It is a natural (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K Carbohydrates (Monosaccharides,
ar
monosaccharide found in fruits, honey Disaccharides, Oligosaccharides) and
Sol.27.(c) Vitamin C (Water soluble).
and vegetables. Complex Carbohydrate. Fat - It is a
Se
Scientific name : Ascorbic acid (C6H8O6)
macronutrient essential for energy
Q.24. Which essential amino acid is or ascorbate. It acts as an antioxidant
storage, insulation, and the absorption of
necessary for the production of our and helps wound healing. It also helps in
certain vitamins.
brain’s chemical messengers including the formation of collagen. It is used to
melatonin, dopamine, noradrenaline and purify water after it has been Iodine - Q.32. Nuts, vegetable oil and fish are rich
thyroxine? treated. sources of__________.
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift) SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning)
Q.28. Which of the following vitamins
(a) Leucine (b) Phenylalanine (a) Omega - 3 (b) carbohydrates
helps our body to use calcium for bones
(c) Tryptophan (d) Valine (c) minerals (d) vitamins
and teeth?
Sol.24.(b) Phenylalanine is an essential SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Morning) Sol.32.(a) Omega-3. Most common
amino acid to make proteins and other (a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin D forms of carbohydrates are sugars, fibers
vital molecules such as (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin E and starches. Minerals which are
neurotransmitters and hormones. essential for health : iron, calcium,
Sol.28.(b) Vitamin D (Calciferol) - It helps
Leucine amino acids can be used by magnesium, zinc, potassium etc.
prevent Osteoporosis (a disease that
skeletal muscle to give energy during
thins and weakens the bones and makes Q.33. Which of the following pairs of
exercise. Tryptophan is an amino acid
them brittle and more likely to break). minerals – need is correct?
needed for normal growth in infants and
Source - Oily fish, egg yolks, red meat, I. Iron – formation of hemoglobin
for the production and maintenance of
etc. II. Sodium – proper functioning of thyroid
the body's proteins, muscles, enzymes,
and neurotransmitters. SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
Q.29. Which of the following pairs of
(a) Neither I nor II (b) Only II
'mineral - source' is correct ?
Q.25. Which of the following is the (c) Both I and II (d) Only I
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
Sol.33.(d) Only I. Iodine is needed to (b) cellular respiration selenocysteine and pyrrolysine.
make a hormone called thyroxine. (c) capillary respiration
Biological Importance of Sodium : For (d) anaerobic respiration Q.41. What is pro-vitamin A or the
the generation of nerve impulses, For anti-cancer compound present in carrots
maintenance of electrolyte balance and Sol.37.(d) Anaerobic respiration. Aerobic called?
fluid balance, For heart activities and respiration - The process by which SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (2nd shift)
certain metabolic functions. organisms use oxygen to turn fuel, such (a) Beta - carotene (b) Alpha - resins
as fats and sugars, into chemical energy. (c) Delta - terpenes (d) Alpha - terpenoid
Q.34. Which amino acid is essential for
Sol.41.(a) Beta - carotene.
healthy skin and teeth, as it is a Nutrition in Plants
component of tooth enamel, collagen It is a yellow-orange pigment found in
and elastin? fruits and vegetables. It converts to
Q.38. Which of the following causes
Graduate Level 01/08/2022 (Shift - 4) Vitamin A in the body, supporting healthy
enlargement and extension growth of
(a) Leucine (b) Arginine vision, immune function, and skin. As an
cells ?
(c) Phenylalanine (d) Threonine antioxidant, it protects cells from
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (1st shift)
damage, reducing cancer and heart
(a) Pressure potential
Sol.34.(d) Threonine used in the disease risk. Food sources include
(b) Osmotic pressure
biosynthesis of proteins. Leucine is an carrots, sweet potatoes, dark leafy
(c) Imbibition
essential amino acid for protein greens, and squash.
(d) Turgor pressure
synthesis. Arginine is used for the
treatment of heart and blood vessel Q.42. Garlic is a good source of :
Sol.38.(d) Turgor pressure. Pressure
conditions including congestive heart SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift)
potential is controlled by solute potential
failure (CHF), chest pain, high blood (a) zinc and cobalt
df
(when solute potential decreases,
pressure, etc. Phenylalanine is used for a (b) magnesium and aluminium
pressure potential increases) and the
(c) iron and copper
_p
disorder that causes white patches to opening and closing of stomata. Osmotic
develop on the skin (vitiligo). (d) manganese and selenium
pressure is the minimum pressure which
na
needs to be applied to a solution to Sol.42.(d) manganese (Mn) and
Q.35. Which of the following is a
prevent the inward flow of its pure selenium (Se) are essential
micronutrient, and plays a role in cell
ap
solvent across a semipermeable micronutrients that are important
division, cell growth, wound healing and
membrane. Imbibition is a special type of elements of cell metabolism. Garlic is a
the breakdown of carbohydrates?
:@
diffusion that takes place when liquid is valuable source of macro and
Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4)
absorbed by solids-colloids causing an microelements, especially potassium,
(a) Fe (b) Zn (c) Cu (d) Ca
increase in volume. calcium, magnesium, phosphorus,
TG
Sol.35.(b) Zn. Functions of ferrum, manganese, selenium, vanadium,
Q.39. Identify a carbohydrate but does
Macronutrients in Plants : Nitrogen copper and zinc. The characteristic
not fit into the definition.
(required in large amounts, taken in the odour of garlic is due to a sulphur
on
SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (1st shift)
form of ions, required for the division of compound.
(a) Maltose (b) Sucrose
cells), Phosphorus (a constituent of cell
(c) Fructose (d) Rhamnose Q.43. On which of the following
ch
membranes), Magnesium (involved in the
activation of enzymes in respiration and components of chloroplast is chlorophyll
Sol.39.(d) Rhamnose (C6H12O5).
arranged ?
ar
photosynthesis and helps in the Carbohydrates are primarily produced by
synthesis of DNA and RNA), Sulfur (an Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
plants and form a very large group of
Se
important constituent of amino acids, (a) Thylakoids (b) Matrix
naturally occurring organic compounds.
coenzymes, and vitamins), Potassium (c) Stroma (d) Cell Membrane
Some common examples of
(required for the opening and closing of carbohydrates are cane sugar, glucose, Sol.43.(a) Thylakoids. Chloroplasts
stomata). starch, etc. Most of them have a general contain the thylakoid membrane which is
formula, Cx(H2O)y. the site of photosynthesis. The thylakoid
Q.36. Which is a major essential
lipophilic (fat-soluble) vitamin required membrane contains light-absorbing
Q.40. Which protein is found in grains?
for the protection of cell membranes and pigments called the chlorophyll. The
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
the formation of red blood cells (RBCs)? thylakoids are arranged in stacks termed
(a) Gluten (b) Gum protein
SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Evening) grana. The space limited by the inner
(c) Arginine (d) Delta protein
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C membrane of the chloroplast is called
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin E Sol.40.(a) Gluten. It is a protein naturally the stroma. The chloroplasts contain
found in grains like wheat, barley, and chlorophyll and carotenoid pigments
Sol.36.(d) Vitamin E (Tocopherol) is a rye. Proteins are large biomolecules which are responsible for trapping light
nutrient that's important to vision, made of long chains of amino acids, energy essential for photosynthesis.
reproduction, and the health of blood, which are the building blocks of life.
brain and skin. Q.44. Compounds like gingerol, paradol,
Digestion of proteins yields amino acids.
shogaols and zingerone are:
Out of 20 amino acids, 9 are essential :
Q.37. When the breakdown of food Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
phenylalanine, valine, tryptophan,
(glucose) occurs without the use of (a) antifungal compounds found in
threonine, isoleucine, methionine,
oxygen, it is called: ginger
histidine, leucine, and lysine. Newly
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Afternoon) (b) antimicrobial compounds found in
discovered amino acids include
(a) aerobic respiration turmeric
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
(c) antimicrobial compounds found in constitutes up to 80% of the total protein. divisions of the carotenoid group.
ginger Wheat contains protein, B vitamins,
(d) antimicrobial compounds found in dietary fiber, and phytochemicals. Q.51. Which plant tissue is responsible
citrus fruits Soyabean is high in protein and contains for the transportation of water and
vitamin K1, folate, copper, manganese, minerals from the soil to the stems and
Sol.44.(c) Antimicrobial compounds phosphorus, and thiamine. leaves?
found in ginger. Gingerol is derived from SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Afternoon)
ginger (Zingiber officinale Roscoe), which Q.48. What happens to the guard cells (a) Xylem (b) Parenchyma
also belongs to the Zingiberaceae family. when water flows into them? (c) Collenchyma (d) Phloem
Ginger has multiple bioactive SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (3rd shift)
constituents including gingerols, (a) The guard cells close Sol.51.(a) Xylem. Xylem and phloem are
shogaols, zingerone, paradol and (b) Stomatal pores open the two vascular tissues that are
gingerdiol. Gingerols possess an alkyl (c) Stomatal pores shrink responsible for the transport of
moiety which imparts anti-oxidative (d) Stomatal pores close substances in plants. Phloem helps in
potential to it. the bidirectional transport of food.
Sol.48.(b) Stomatal pores open. Guard
Q.45. Which natural bioactive water - cells - They are specialized plant cells in Q.52. The mode of nutrition in which
soluble phenolic compound is present in the epidermis of leaves, stems and other organisms make food themselves from
Fruits, vegetables and grains with red, organs that are used to control gas simple substances is called ________.
purple, blue or black hues ? exchange. It is a kidney shaped cell that SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift) surrounds the stomata. It contains (a) heterotrophic nutrition
(a) Coumarins (b) Anthocyanins chloroplasts, which are not present in (b) autotrophic nutrition
(c) Quercetin (d) Naringenin other epidermal cells. Function - To open (c) saprotrophic nutrition
df
and close the stomata, help regulate (d) phototrophic nutrition
Sol.45.(b) Anthocyanin (Pigment found
_p
transpiration, and protect the stomatal Sol.52.(b) Autotrophic nutrition.
in plants). They’re part of a larger pore.
category of plant-based chemicals called Examples - Plants, algae and some
na
flavonoids. Foods with high anthocyanin : Q.49. Plants that are adapted to live bacterias. Heterotrophic nutrition -
Fruits - Pomegranates, Black plums, under plenty of sunlight are called : Depends upon plants or other organisms
ap
Cherries, black and red grapes etc; Graduate Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 3) for nutrition. Examples - Humans,
Vegetables - Red cabbage, Red onions, (a) xerophytes (b) heliophytes animals, Cuscuta (Amarbel).
:@
Purple corn etc; Legumes and Rice - (c) neophytes (d) protophytes Saprotrophic nutrition - This mode of
Black rice, Black beans etc. Coumarins - nutrition in which organisms take in
colourless crystalline solid, sweet odor, Sol.49.(b) Heliophytes. Examples - nutrients from dead and decaying matter.
TG
bitter taste. Quercetin - bitter flavor, used Sunflowers, thyme, white clover, soft Examples - Fungi, yeast, and several
in dietary supplements, beverages and velcro, mullein. Xerophytes - A group of bacteria. Phototrophic nutrition -
foods. Naringenin - Anti-obesity, plants that are adapted to survive in arid Organisms that can obtain nutrition
on
anti-diabetic flavonoid. regions like desert and snow - covered using light. Examples - Green plants,
areas. Example - Cacti, pineapple. blue-green algae.
ch
Q.46. Which of the following nutrients is Pteridophytes - That plants have a
available mainly in apples? vascular system and reproduce through Q.53. Plants require nutrients for their
growth which can be supplied through
ar
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (4th shift) spores. Example - Whisk Fern, Dicksonia,
(a) Co (b) Na (c) K (d) S Selaginella. Neophytes - A plant which is _______ .
Se
not native to a geographical region and SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Sol.46.(c) K (Potassium). Potassium-rich was introduced in recent history. (a) Soil and air only
fruits and vegetables : Bananas, oranges, Example - Sweet flag, small balsam, (b) Soil, water and air
cantaloupe, apricots, grapefruit (some cranberries. (c) Soil and water only
dried fruits, such as prunes, raisins, and (d) Soil only
dates, are also high in potassium). Malic Q.50. The leaves have a green pigment
acid : Found primarily in apples. It is a Sol.53.(b) Soil, water and air. Three
called ____________, which helps leaves to
dicarboxylic acid that is also present in elements (carbon, oxygen and hydrogen)
capture the energy from the sunlight.
grapes, wine and rhubarb. are essential to plant growth. Soil -
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Evening)
Supplies not only minerals but also
(a) Cladophyll (b) Chlorophyll
Q.47. Which of the following grains harbours nitrogen - fixing bacteria, and
(c) Xanthophyll (d) Cytoplasm
contain oryzenin ? other microbes, holds water, supplies air
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (1st shift) Sol.50.(b) Chlorophyll - Element present to the roots and acts as a matrix that
(a) Barley (b) Wheat in chlorophyll is magnesium. Cytoplasm - stabilises the plant.
(c) Soyabean (d) Rice The fluid inside the cell. It functions as a
Q.54. Water comes out of the leaves in
cellular metabolism, transport, and
Sol.47.(d) Rice - A source of protein and the form of vapour by a process called
storage medium while providing
contains various vitamins, such as ______.
structural support and facilitating signal
thiamin and niacin, and minerals, such as SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Morning)
transduction within the cell. Cladophyll -
zinc and phosphorus. Oryzenin - A rice (a) creepers (b) transportation
Shoot system in which leaves do not
glutelin, is an important constituent of (c) venation (d) transpiration
develop. Xanthophylls are yellow
rice protein. Glutelin comprises the major
pigments that are one of the important Sol.54.(d) Transpiration. Three types of
protein fraction of the rice grain and
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
Transpiration : Stomatal transpiration - Arginine, Asparagine, Aspartic acid, etc. minerals to the plant. Food is transported
Evaporation of water through stomata. by phloem tissue in the vascular system
Lenticular Transpiration - Evaporation of Q.59. Which of the following pairs of of plants.
water through lenticels (small minute plastids- thing stored is NOT correct?
openings present on the stem), Cuticular I. Amyloplasts - oils and fats Q.63. Which of the following plant
Transpiration - Loss of water from the II. Aleuroplasts - carbohydrates hormones regulates growth, particularly
cuticle (waxy layer on the surface of SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening) by stimulating cell elongation in stems?
leaves). (a) Only I (b) Both I and II SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Morning)
(c) Neither I nor II (d) Only II (a) Auxin (b) Ethylene
Q.55. The broad, green part of the leaf is (c) Cytokinin (d) Gibberellin
called . Sol.59.(c) Plastids are found in plants
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Afternoon) and algae. Functions : perform Sol.63.(a) Auxin. Ethylene is the only
(a) lamina (b) petiole (c) veins (d) midrib photosynthesis, attract pollinators, plant hormone in gaseous form that
restore total leaf protein and synthesize regulates fruit ripening in plants.
Sol.55.(a) Lamina. The venation of leaves starch along with the storage of proteins, Cytokinin promotes cell division in plant
is the process of arrangement of veins and fats, and oils. Types of Plastids - roots and shoots. Gibberellin regulates
veinlets. They are crucial for both systemic Chloroplasts (used for photosynthesis), various developmental processes,
and pulmonary circulation. The middle Chromoplasts (used for pigment including germination, dormancy,
part of the vein of lamina is called the synthesis and storage), and Leucoplasts flowering, flower development, and leaf
midrib. Petiole (mesopodium) - Lifts the (non-pigmented plastids that can and fruit senescence.
lamina above the level of the stem. sometimes differentiate).
Q.56. The green plants in a terrestrial Q.60. How is food stored in brown algae?
Deficiency and Diseases
df
ecosystem capture about _______ percent SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Evening)
Q.64. Which of the below is a
of the energy of sunlight that falls on (a) In the form of glucose
_p
psychological disorder of refusal to eat
their leaves and convert it into food (b) In the form of complex carbohydrates
food, caused by under- nutrition?
energy. that may be in the form of laminarin
na
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Morning)
SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (4th Shift) or mannitol.
(a) Marasmus
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 1 (d) 5 (c) In the form of complex lipids
ap
(b) Kwashiorkor
(d) In the form of oil droplets
Sol.56.(c) 1. Photosynthesis is the (c) Anorexia Nervosa
:@
process by which green plants produce Sol.60.(b) Brown algae store their food (d) Bulimia Nervosa
carbohydrates by absorbing carbon primarily in the form of complex
Sol.64.(c) Anorexia Nervosa.
dioxide, water, and sunlight in the carbohydrates. The two main storage
TG
Kwashiorkor is a nutritional syndrome
presence of chlorophyll and liberating forms are laminarin (a polysaccharide)
caused by protein deficiency in the diet,
chemical energy. This energy is and mannitol (a sugar alcohol). These
meaning 'the disease of the displaced
converted into chemical energy as food. compounds serve as energy reserves for
on
child'. Marasmus, or 'wasting,' is a form
the algae and are utilized during periods
Q.57. Which nutrient is chlorella rich in ? of severe malnutrition that results from a
of low light or other environmental
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift) lack of protein and calories. Bulimia
ch
stress.
(a) Roughage (b) Carbohydrates nervosa is a serious emotional eating
(c) Fats (d) Protein Q.61. Pneumatophores are specialised disorder that involves eating excessive
ar
______ in hydrophytes. amounts of food in a short period
Sol.57.(d) Protein. Chlorella is known as
Se
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Morning) (binging) followed by guilt and shame
space alga. It is used for the (a) seeds (b) roots (c) fruits (d) flowers leading to self-induced vomiting, extreme
consumption of carbon dioxide provided exercise, or laxative abuse (purging).
by the astronauts and the production of Sol.61.(b) Roots. Hydrophytes are
oxygen in the spacecraft. aquatic plants that are especially suited Q.65. A disease like COVID-19 is a kind
for living in aquatic environments. of:
Q.58. Iron, iodine and zinc can be Examples - Lotus (Nelumbo), Vallisneria, SSC MTS 15/10/2024 (1st Shift)
considered as which of the following? Potamogeton, Salvinia, hydrilla, water (a) Foodborne disease
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (4th Shift) hyacinths etc. (b) Protein Deficiency disease
(a) Macronutrients (c) Zoonotic disease
(b) Micronutrients Q.62. Which of the following does NOT (d) Waterborne disease
(c) Steroid hormone inducer figure among the main functions of the
(d) Non - essential nutrients root system of a plant ? Sol.65.(c) Zoonotic disease. COVID-19 is
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening) a zoonotic disease, meaning it can be
Sol.58.(b) Micronutrients are nutrients (a) Supply of food to plant parts transmitted between animals and
that are required by the body in lesser (b) Providing a proper anchorage to the humans. The SARS-CoV-2 virus, which
amounts for its growth and development. plant parts causes COVID-19, is believed to have
Examples - Magnesium, vitamin B6, (c) Absorption of water from the soil` originated from an animal source before
vitamin C, vitamin E, etc. Non-essential (d) Absorption of minerals from the soil being transmitted to humans.
nutrients can be synthesized in the body
in sufficient quantities for normal Sol.62.(a) Supply of food to the plant Q.66. Constipation could be a sign that
functioning. They can be obtained from parts. The main function of the root the person is suffering from a lack
food as well. Examples : Alanine , system is to transport water and of________.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (3rd Shift) eczema), digestive issues, and oral common sexually transmitted infection
(a) Calcium (b) Dietary Fibre health. Jamun (Syzygium cumini) is (STI) caused by the bacteria Chlamydia
(c) Vitamin (d) Protein beneficial for diabetes management, trachomatis.
digestive issues, and possesses
Sol.66.(b) Dietary Fibre. Constipation is antioxidant properties. Arjun (Terminalia Q.73. What is the other name of tetanus
often associated with a lack of dietary arjuna) is used to promote caused by toxin producing bacteria
fiber in the diet, as fiber helps to promote cardiovascular health, address heart called clostridium tetani ?
regular bowel movements by adding bulk conditions, and provide SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift)
to stool and aiding its passage through anti-inflammatory benefits. (a) Lock jaw (b) Snap jaw
the digestive system. Fiber-rich foods (c) Cleft jaw (d) Broken jaw
include fruits, vegetables, whole grains, Q.70. Name a common electrolyte
beans, peas, and lentils. disorder that occurs when the amount of Sol.73.(a) Lock jaw. Tetanus, also called
sodium in your blood becomes lockjaw, is a bacterial infection that
Q.67. Which condition, also known as abnormally low. causes our neck and jaw muscles to lock
icterus, causes a yellowing of your skin SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) up. It occurs when a bacteria found in the
and the whites of your eyes? (a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hypokalemia environment called Clostridium tetani
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (c) Hyponatremia (d) Hypernatremia enter our body through a break in our
(a) Ichthyosis (b) Jaundice skin. Other dangerous bacterial diseases
(c) Eczema (d) Pemphigus Sol.70.(c) Hyponatremia: It is a common include cholera, meningitis, tuberculosis
electrolyte disorder characterized by an (TB), and Lyme disease.
Sol.67.(b) Jaundice. This yellowing abnormally low concentration of sodium
occurs due to high levels of bilirubin in ions (Na+) in the blood, typically less than Q.74. Match the points under Column A
the blood. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment 135 mmol/L. Hyperkalemia : Elevated with those under Column B.
df
produced during the normal breakdown potassium levels in the blood. Column A Column B (Organism
of red blood cells. Ichthyosis is a group (Disease) Responsible)
_p
Hypokalemia: Low potassium levels in
of genetic skin disorders that cause dry, the blood. Hypernatremia: Elevated i. Malaria a. Vibrio
scaly, thickened skin. Eczema is a ii. Diarrhoea b. Salmonella
na
sodium levels in the blood.
common skin condition that causes iii. Typhoid c. Rotavirus
itchiness, rashes, dry patches, and Q.71. Which set of diseases are caused iv. Cholera d. Plasmodium
ap
infection. Pemphigus is a rare group of by bacteria? SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (1st Shift)
autoimmune diseases that cause blisters SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) (a) i - b, ii - a, iii - c, iv - d
:@
on the skin and mucous membranes. (a) Influenza, Dengue, Cholera (b) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
(b) Typhoid, Cholera, Tuberculosis (c) i - a, ii - c, iii - b, iv - d
Q.68. What are the five Fs of indirect (c) Dengue, Malaria, Cholera (d) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d
TG
transmission? (d) Malaria, Common cold, Influenza
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.74.(b) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a. Malaria is a
(a) Flies, fingers, fomites, food and fluid Sol.71.(b) Typhoid, Cholera, disease caused by a parasite. The
on
(b) Fruit, fingers, flu, food and fluid Tuberculosis. Typhoid fever is caused by parasite is spread to humans through the
(c) Flies, fingers, friends, food and fruit the bacteria Salmonella Typhi. Cholera is bites of infected mosquitoes. Typhoid is
caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. a bacterial disease that spreads through
ch
(d) Flies, fingers, fomites, food and fruit
Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a contaminated food and water. The
Sol.68.(a) Indirect transmission of bacterium (or germ) called cholera- causing microbes will enter a
ar
communicable diseases occurs through Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Viral healthy person through the water they
Se
various means, commonly referred to as Disease : Common cold (rhinovirus), drink and cause disease in them.
the "5Fs" : flies, fingers, fomites (objects Influenza (Influenza), HIV infection Diarrhoea is the abnormal frequency of
like towels and handkerchiefs that can (human immunodeficiency virus), bowel movement and increased liquidity
carry infections), food, and fluids. Some Dengue (transmitted by the bite of an of the faecal discharge. It reduces the
diseases can spread through infected mosquito, and is spread by the absorption of food.
contaminated water, food, ice, blood, and Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus
even body tissues or organs. Examples Q.75. What is the name of the
species).
of such diseases include typhoid, inflammatory condition that causes
diarrhea, polio, intestinal parasites, and Q.72. Which is a serious contagious cracks, crusting and scaling at the
infective hepatitis. bacterial infection that usually affects corners of the mouth due to vitamin B2
the mucous membranes of the nose and deficiency ?
Q.69. Which of the following plants is throat ? SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
used to cure cold and cough ? SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (2nd Shift) (a) Cheilosis (b) Psoriasis
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (a) Meningococcal (b) Diphtheria (c) Urticaria (d) Atopic dermatitis
(a) Tulsi (b) Babool (c) Jamun (d) Arjun (c) Shigellosis (d) Chlamydia
Sol.75.(a) Cheilosis also known as
Sol.69.(a) Tulsi (Ocimum sanctum). It is Sol.72.(b) Diphtheria. Meningococcal angular cheilitis or perleche. Psoriasis is
an herb commonly used in Ayurvedic disease is a serious bacterial illness that a chronic proliferative and inflammatory
medicine to treat various ailments, can lead to severe swelling of the tissues condition of skin. It is characterized by
including respiratory issues (bronchitis, surrounding the brain and spinal cord or erythematous plaques covered with
asthma), fever, sore throat, and infection of the bloodstream. Shigellosis silvery scales. Atopic dermatitis
infections. Babool (Acacia nilotica) is is an infection of the intestines caused (eczema) is a condition that causes dry,
utilized for skin conditions (wounds, by Shigella bacteria. Chlamydia is a itchy and inflamed skin. Hives (urticaria)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
is a skin reaction that causes itchy welts. (a) When acids stick to the teeth Sol.82.(c) Marasmus - It occurs both in
Chronic hives are welts that last for more (b) When bacteria acting on sugars children and adults. Wasting - It is a type
than six weeks and return often over produce acids of undernutrition that causes low weight
months or years. (c) Masses of bacterial cells together for height. Dementia - It is the group of
with food particles stick to the teeth symptoms used to describe impaired
Q.76. Which of the following is NOT a (d) Saliva sticks to the pulp ability to remember, think, or make
mutation - based disease ? decisions. Alzheimer's disease is the
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (2nd shift) Sol.79.(c) Dental caries or tooth decay most common type of dementia.
(a) Malaria causes gradual softening of enamel and
(b) Down syndrome dentine. It begins when bacteria acting Q.83. Among the choices listed, which
(c) Sickle cell anaemia on sugars produce acids that softens or one is NOT a form of cancer?
(d) Phenylketonuria demineralises the enamel. Saliva cannot SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
reach the tooth surface to neutralise the (a) Glaucoma (b) Carcinoma
Sol.76.(a) Malaria is an infectious acid as plaque covers the teeth. (c) Lymphoma (d) Sarcoma
disease caused by a parasite. Down Microorganisms invade the pulp, causing
syndrome: It is caused by a Sol.83.(a) Glaucoma - A group of eye
inflammation and infection.
chromosomal mutation, specifically diseases that can cause vision loss and
trisomy 21, where an individual has an Q.80. Which of the following foods blindness by damaging a nerve in the
extra copy of chromosome 21. Sickle cell generally increase blood pressure? back of your eye called the optic nerve.
anemia: It is caused by the hemoglobin-β SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (2nd shift) Carcinoma - Cancer that starts in tissue
gene. Phenylketonuria (PKU): PKU is (a) Food high in protein lining your skin, organs and internal
caused by a mutation in the PAH gene, (b) Food high in salt, sugar and saturated passageways in your body. Lymphoma -
which affects the enzyme phenylalanine or trans fats Cancer that begins in cells of the lymph
df
hydroxylase. (c) Food with low salt and low sugar system. Sarcoma - Cancers that begin in
_p
(d) Food high in fibre the bones and in the soft (also called
Q.77. Which of the following is a food - connective) tissues (soft tissue
borne disease caused by the Sol.80.(b) Foods high in salt, sugar, and
na
sarcoma).
consumption of contaminated food or saturated or trans fats contribute to the
beverages ? retention of fluids and increase the Q.84. In what condition does the body's
ap
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (3rd shift) workload on the heart. High Blood immune system attack the actual
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Malaria Pressure (Hypertension): Hypertension is intrinsic factor protein or the cells in your
:@
(c) Cholera (d) Chicken pox the term for blood pressure that is higher stomach lining that make it ?
than normal (120/80). If repeated checks SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
Sol.77.(c) Cholera. It is an acute of blood pressure of an individual is (a) Wernicke - Korsakoff syndrome
TG
diarrhoeal infection caused by the 140/90 (140 over 90) or higher, it shows (b) Hepatic cirrhosis
bacterium Vibrio cholerae. Malaria is hypertension. High blood pressure leads (c) Pernicious anaemia
spread to humans through the bite of an to heart diseases and also affects vital (d) Hartnup disorder
on
infected female Anopheles mosquito. organs like the brain and kidney.
Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by the Sol.84.(c) Pernicious anemia is a
relatively rare autoimmune disorder that
ch
bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Q.81. Which vitamin prevents the neural
which spreads through the air from tube defect in new-born babies ? causes diminishment in dietary vitamin
B12 (cobalamin) absorption, resulting in
ar
person to person. Chickenpox is caused Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which (a) Ascorbic acid (b) Riboflavin B12 deficiency and subsequent
Se
is a member of the herpesvirus family. (c) Niacin (d) Folic acid megaloblastic anemia. Hartnup disease
is an autosomal recessive disorder
Q.78. Which of the following is a rare Sol.81.(d) Folic acid. It is also known as resulting in impaired functioning of
group of genetic disorders caused by vitamin B9, plays a crucial role in transport protein in intestines and
mutations of certain genes affecting the preventing neural tube defects (NTDs) in kidneys.
colour (pigmentation) of the skin, hair newborn babies. NTDs are birth defects
and eyes ? that affect the brain and spine, such Q.85. What happens when old aged
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (3rd shift) as Spina bifida, Anencephaly. Ascorbic people get cataract ?
(a) Albinism (b) Alagille syndrome acid (Vitamin C) is a water soluble SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
(c) Alkaptonuria (d) Angelman syndrome vitamin well known for its role in (a) Crystalline lens of people in old age
supporting a healthy immune system. becomes milky and cloudy
Sol.78.(a) Albinism. Alagille syndrome is Riboflavin (Vitamin B2) and Niacin (b) Crystalline lens of people in old age
a genetic disorder that can affect the (Vitamin B3) are water soluble vitamins becomes clear and shiny
liver, heart, and other parts of the body. essential for energy production and (c) Iris becomes cloudy
Alkaptonuria is an inherited condition metabolism. (d) Pupil becomes dull
that causes urine to turn black when
exposed to air. Angelman syndrome is a Q.82. Severe undernutrition due to the Sol.85.(a) Eye defects and Corrections :
complex genetic disorder that primarily deficiency of food and energy is termed Cataracts - Treated with surgery. Myopia
affects the nervous system. as _________. (near-sightedness) - Can see nearby
SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 objects clearly but have difficulty seeing
Q.79. Identify the reason for formation of (a) kwashiorkor (b) wasting distant objects. Corrected with concave
dental plaque. (c) marasmus (d) dementia lenses. Hyperopia (far-sightedness) - Can
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) see distant objects clearly but have
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
difficulty seeing nearby objects. can cause a malabsorption disorder Sol.92.(d) itai itai. It is the severe form of
Corrected with convex lenses. leading to diarrhoea, malnutrition, weight chronic cadmium intoxication, which is
Presbyopia (age-related far-sightedness) loss etc. This particular condition is characterised by osteomalacia with
- Lens of the eye becomes less flexible known as: severe bone pain and is associated with
as people age, making it difficult to focus SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (3rd Shift) renal tubular dysfunction. Minamata - A
on near objects. Corrected with bifocals, (a) Down syndrome neurological disease caused by severe
progressive lenses, or surgery. (b) short bowel syndrome mercury poisoning.
(c) hypoglycaemia
Q.86. In which of the following (d) hyperglycaemia Q.93. Which type of surveillance is
conditions is there severe physical and specifically aimed at identifying missing
mental retardation due to deficiency of Sol.89.(b) short bowel syndrome. cases of disease ?
iodine and thyroid hormones, especially Hypoglycaemia, or a "hypo", is an SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift)
during early pregnancy ? abnormally low level of glucose in blood. (a) Overt surveillance
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) Hyperglycaemia, or a hyper, can happen (b) Passive surveillance
(a) Preeclampsia (b) Toxoplasmosis when blood glucose (sugar) levels are (c) Active surveillance
(c) Cretinism (d) Syphilis too high. (d) Sentinel surveillance
Sol.86.(c) Cretinism. Toxoplasmosis - It Q.90. Which of the following diseases is Sol.93.(d) Sentinel surveillance -
is caused by the protozoan parasite transmitted by the bite of an infected Conducted at specific sites or in specific
Toxoplasma Gondii. Syphilis - It is a female phlebotomine sandfly, populations and may be passive or
sexually transmitted infection (STI) that characterized by irregular fever, weight active.
can be caused by Treponema pallidum loss and enlargement of the spleen and
bacteria. Preeclampsia - It is caused by liver? Q.94. Sleeping sickness is a vector borne
df
the placenta not developing properly due SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (1st shift) disease caused by the infection of which
microscopic parasite of the species ?
_p
to a problem with the blood vessels (a) Japanese encephalitis
supplying it. (b) Visceral leishmaniasis SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift)
(a) Trypanosoma brucei
na
(c) Diarrhea
Q.87. Which of the following tests is (d) Anaplasmosis (b) Balantioides coli
used to confirm the presence of typhoid (c) Giardia duodenalis
ap
fever ? Sol.90.(b) Visceral leishmaniasis (d) Cyclospora cayetanensis
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) (kala-azar). It is caused by protozoan
:@
(a) Smear Examination parasites which are transmitted by the Sol.94.(a) Trypanosoma brucei :
(b) C Reactive Protein (CRP) Test bite of infected female phlebotomine A protozoan parasite that causes African
(c) Widal Test sandflies. Japanese encephalitis virus is trypanosomiasis, commonly known as
TG
(d) Vivax Test spread to people through the bite of an sleeping sickness. This disease affects
infected mosquito. Anaplasmosis is a humans and animals, primarily in
Sol.87.(c) Widal Test : This test was first disease caused by the bacterium sub-Saharan Africa. Balantioides coli : A
on
conducted in 1896 by Georges Ferdinand Anaplasma phagocytophilum. Other ciliated protozoan that inhabits the
Widal and was named after him. It looks protozoan Diseases : Amoebiasis intestine of pigs, non-human primates
ch
for O and H antibodies in a patient’s (Entamoeba Histolytica Protozoa); and humans. Giardia : A single-celled
sample blood (serum). Pap smear - Used Malaria (Plasmodium). Other bacteria parasite that causes diarrheal disease
ar
to screen for cervical cancer. C Reactive diseases : Salmonella Tuberculosis, known as Giardiasis. Cyclospora
Protein (CRP) Test - A c-reactive protein Whooping cough (pertussis), Chlamydia, cayetanensis : A parasite that causes
Se
test measures the level of c-reactive gonorrhoea, Cholera, etc. gastroenteritis.
protein (CRP) in a sample of blood.
Q.91. Which of the following diseases is Q.95. Which is an inherited blood
Q.88. Which of the following is NOT the a potential contender for worldwide disorder that affects the hemoglobin
manifestation of Iron-deficiency anemia eradication ? gene and results in ineffective
(IDA) ? SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift) erythropoiesis ?
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) (a) Polio (b) Tuberculosis SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (2nd shift)
(a) Paleness of conjunctiva of eyes (c) Measles (d) Malaria (a) Somatostatinoma
(b) Blindness (b) Thalassemia
(c) Soft palate Sol.91.(a) Polio (poliomyelitis) {caused (c) Venous Thromboembolism
(d) General pallor by a virus (poliovirus)} - This virus infects (d) Polycythemia vera
your throat and intestines, causing
Sol.88.(b) Blindness. Iron - deficiency flu-like symptoms. It can then spread to Sol.95.(b) Thalassemia - It is a hereditary
anemia (IDA): It is the most common your brain and spine, causing paralysis. It blood disorder in which the amount of
nutritional disorder. Vulnerable groups : mainly affects children under 5 years of hemoglobin in the body decreases.
Women in child – bearing age, age. Somatostatinoma - A type of
adolescent girls, pregnant women and neuroendocrine tumor (NET). Venous
school age children. IDA occurs when Q.92. An excessive amount of cadmium Thromboembolism - A condition when a
hemoglobin production is considerably in the human body causes : blood clot forms in a vein in the body.
reduced and it results in low levels of SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (2nd shift) Polycythemia vera - A type of blood
hemoglobin in blood. (a) minamata (b) anaemia cancer.
(c) alzima (d) itai-itai
Q.89. Lack of functional small intestine Q.96. Which of the following is the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
correct match of column-A with body organs, and other tissues to sore throat, itchy and red eyes.
column-B? increase in size. Paraesthesia - An abnormal touch
Column - A Column -B sensation, such as burning or prickling
(Name of Disease) (Affected Organs) Q.99. Match the columns. that is caused by underlying neurological
i. Alzheimer's a. Salivary glands Column-A Column-B disease or traumatic nerve damage.
diseases (Disorder) (Hormone/Gland) Dermatitis (eczema) - Redness, and
ii. Diphtheria b. Reproductive tract i. Addison's disease a. Adrenal gland irritation of the skin caused by air
iii. Gonorrhoea c. Brain ii. Hashimoto's b. Thyroid gland pollution.
iv. Mumps d. Nose and throat disease
iii. Acromegaly c.Growth hormone Q.102. Deficiency of which of the
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift)
iv. SIADH d. Vasopressin following vitamins in the human diet
(a) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d (b) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
causes a disease called xerophthalmia?
(c) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (d) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (1st shift)
SSC CHSL Tier II (26/06/2023)
(a) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (b) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
Sol.96.(d) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a. Diphtheria (a) A (b) K (c) C (d) D
(c) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (d) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
is an infectious bacterial disease caused
Sol.102.(a) Vitamin A (Retinol). Vitamin
by a bacterium called Corynebacterium Sol.99.(c) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d. Glands and
was discovered by Casimir Funk (1912).
diphtheriae that produces toxins that can their secreted hormones : Hypothalamus
cause breathing difficulties, heart rhythm gland - Gonadotropin hormone. Pineal Q.103. Which among the following
problems, and even death. Gonorrhea is Gland - Melatonin hormone. Thyroid organs in the human body, is most
a sexually transmitted infection disease. gland - Triiodothyronine hormone. affected by Pneumonia disease?
It most commonly affects the urethra, Pancreas - Somatostatin and pancreatic SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Afternoon)
rectum or throat. Mumps is an infectious polypeptide hormone. Adrenal Glands - (a) Kidneys (b) Urinary bladder
df
disease caused by a virus. This can Adrenaline hormone. Pituitary Gland - (c) Heart (d) Lungs
cause painful inflammation of our thyroid (stimulating hormone), LH
_p
parotid salivary glands (parotitis). (Luteinizing Hormone), FSH (follicle Sol.103.(d) Lungs. Pneumonia is an
stimulating hormone). inflammation of lungs caused by a
na
Q.97. Select the correct option about bacterial, viral or fungal infection. The
Kwashiorkor. Q.100. Match the columns. most common cause is Streptococcus
ap
Statement A : It is a form of malnutrition Column-A (Disorder) Column-B (Enzyme pneumoniae (pneumococcus bacteria).
caused by a lack of fat in the diet. i. Gaucher disease a. Phenylalanin
Cough, Fever, sweating, chest pain and
:@
hydroxylase
Statement B : Children who develop Loss of appetite are the most common
ii. Hunter syndrome b. Hexosaminidase
Kwashiorkor may not grow or develop symptoms.
iii. Tay-Sachs disease c. Iduronate-2-sulfatase
properly and may remain stunted for the
TG
iv. Phenylketonuria d.Glucocerebrosidase Q.104. What is added to toothpaste to
rest of their lives.
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift) reduce tooth decay?
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (1st shift)
(a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (b) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(a) Only statement B is correct
(c) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a (d) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
on
(b) Both statements A and B are correct (a) Iron (b) Cobalt
(c) Both statements A and B are incorrect (c) Fluoride (d) Molybdenum
Sol.100.(c) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a. Gaucher
(d) Only statement A is correct
ch
disease is caused by a buildup of fatty Sol.104.(c) Fluoride - It is a mineral that
substances in organs like the spleen and strengthens tooth enamel and makes it
Sol.97.(a) Kwashiorkor is caused by
ar
liver. Hunter syndrome affects males, more resistant to acid attacks from
deficiency of protein in the diet which
preventing proper digestion of certain bacteria in the mouth.
Se
causes fluid retention and a swollen,
sugar molecules. Tay-Sachs disease is a
distended abdomen, and most
rare genetic disorder caused by the Q.105. Which among the following is
commonly affected babies between 1-3
absence of an enzyme that breaks down NOT a bacterial disease ?
years of age, particularly in developing
fatty substances. Phenylketonuria (PKU) SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening)
countries with high levels of poverty and
is an inherited disorder causing a buildup (a) Cholera (b) Typhoid
food insecurity. In 1933, Cicely Williams
of phenylalanine in the body. (c) Rabies (d) Plague
was the first in Africa who described
Kwashiorkor. Q.101. Which disease is caused by Sol.105.(c) Rabies. It is a Zoonotic and
excessive iron deposition within the viral disease. It is caused by Ribonucleic
Q.98. Which of the following pairs is
reticuloendothelial cells of the liver, Acid (RNA) virus that is present in the
INCORRECTLY matched ?
spleen and bone marrow? saliva of rabid animals (dog, monkey,
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (4th shift)
Graduate Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 3) etc.). Rabies Vaccine was discovered by
(a) Cushing's syndrome - Cortisol
(a) Paraesthesia (b) Hemosiderosis Louis Pasteur in 1885.
(b) Diabetes - Insulin
(c) Ariboflavinosis (d) Dermatitis
(c) Goitre -Thyroxine Q.106. Which of the following is 'NOT' an
(d) Acromegaly - Adrenaline example of communicable diseases?
Sol.101.(b) Hemosiderosis.
Ariboflavinosis is caused by deficiency of SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Afternoon)
Sol.98.(d) Acromegaly is a disorder that
Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) include skin (a) Chicken Pox (b) Common cold
occurs when the body makes too much
disorders, hyperemia (excess blood) and (c) Diabetes (d) Tuberculosis
growth hormone (GH); Produced mainly
in the pituitary gland (a pea-sized gland edema of the mouth and throat, angular Sol.106.(c) Diabetes.
just below the brain). In adults, too much stomatitis, cheilosis (swollen, cracked Communicable diseases - Caused by
of this hormone causes bones, cartilage, lips), hair loss, reproductive problems, viruses or bacteria, that spread to one
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
another through contact with malaria. Culex Mosquito is a species of Sol.114.(a) Chickenpox is a highly
contaminated surfaces, bodily fluids, mosquito that spreads viruses that contagious disease caused by the
blood products, insect bites, or through cause Japanese encephalitis, West Nile varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Varicella
the air. Examples - HIV, hepatitis A, B, and virus. vaccine (developed by Michiaki
C, measles, influenza, coronaviruses, and Takahashi in 1974) is a vaccine that
blood-borne illnesses. Q.111. Which among the following is a protects against chickenpox. Whooping
bacterial disease? Cough is caused by Bacteria (Bordetella
Q.107. The disease-causing microbes SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift) pertussis).
are called ________. (a) Rabies (b) Leprosy
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening) (c) Malaria (d) Ebola Q.115. Which of the following options is
(a) toxins (b) pathogens correct regarding sexually transmitted
(c) decomposers (d) antibodies Sol.111.(b) Leprosy. Hansen's disease disease (STD)?
(leprosy) is an infection caused by slow - Statement A: Sexually transmitted
Sol.107.(b) Pathogens. Examples of growing bacteria called Mycobacterium diseases (STDs) are infections
Pathogens - Bacteria (Tuberculosis), leprae. It can affect the nerves, skin, transmitted from an infected person to
Viruses (Covid - 19), Fungi (Candidiasis), eyes, and lining of the nose (nasal an uninfected person through sexual
Protists (Malaria), Parasitic worms mucosa). Bacterial disease - Typhoid, contact.
(Taeniasis). Toxins - Substances created Cholera, Tuberculosis. Viral disease - Statement B: HIV, HPV and Hepatitis B
by plants and animals that are poisonous Common cold, Influenza, HIV infection, virus is responsible for STD.
to humans. Example - Anthrax lethal Dengue Covid-19, Ebola. Protozoal SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023)
toxin (Produced by Bacillus anthracis). disease - Malaria, Kala azar. (a) Both Statements A and B incorrect
Q.108. "Goitre" is a disease of which of Q.112. ____ diseases last for only shorter (b) Only Statement B is correct
df
the following glands? periods of time. (c) Both Statements A and B correct
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon) SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (3rd Shift) (d) Only Statement A is correct
_p
(a) Thyroid gland (b) Pancreas (a) Hereditary (b) Chronic Sol.115.(c) STDs can be caused by
(c) Adrenal gland (d) Pituitary gland (c) Acute (d) Genetic
na
bacteria, viruses, or parasites. Examples -
Sol.108.(a) Thyroid gland - It is a Sol.112.(c) Acute. Acute conditions are gonorrhea, genital herpes, human
ap
ductless endocrine gland situated in the often caused by a virus or an infection. papillomavirus infection, HIV (Human
anterior/front portion of the neck. Example - Common cold, typhoid, immunodeficiency virus)/AIDS (Acquired
:@
Pituitary gland - It is a small, pea-sized jaundice, cholera etc. Genetic disorder : Immune Deficiency Syndrome),
gland located at the base of the brain. It An inherited medical condition caused by chlamydia, and syphilis.
plays a crucial role in regulating various a DNA abnormality. Eg; Congenital Q.116. Deficiency of which of the
TG
bodily functions by producing and deafness, Cystic fibrosis, Beta following vitamins causes excessive
releasing hormones that control the thalassemia and Spinal muscular atrophy bleeding from wounds?
activities of other endocrine glands in the (SMA). A chronic condition is a health SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023)
on
body. condition or disease that is persistent or (a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin E
otherwise long-lasting in its effects or a (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin K
Q.109. Which of the following diseases
ch
disease that comes with time. Eg;
is not caused by a mosquito bite ? Arthritis, Asthma, Cancer etc. Sol.116.(d) Vitamin K benefits include
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
ar
supporting bone, and heart health.
(a) Elephantiasis (b) Dengue Q.113. Which of the following disease is Prothrombin is a vitamin K-dependent
Se
(c) Malaria (d) Hepatitis caused by fungi? protein directly involved with blood
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (1st Shift) clotting. Osteocalcin is another protein
Sol.109.(d) Hepatitis : Caused by Virus, (a) Covid-19 (b) Ring Worm
Effects Liver, World Hepatitis Day - 28 that requires vitamin K to produce
(c) Tuberculosis (d) Cholera healthy bone tissue.
July. Elephantiasis - Also called
Lymphatic Filariasis, it impairs the Sol.113.(b) Ring Worm. Fungi are Q.117. Which of the following pairs of
lymphatic system. Dengue - Caused by responsible for various diseases in plant diseases – microorganisms is
Dengue Virus, Carrier - Aedes aegypti human beings. Aspergillus infection, correct?
mosquitoes. Malaria : Caused by Athlete's foot, Jock itch, Ringworm, I. Citrus canker – Virus
Plasmodium parasite. Spread by female Coccidioidomycosis, Sporotrichosis, II. Rust of wheat – Fungi
Anopheles mosquitoes, World Malaria valley fever, histoplasmosis are a few of SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning)
Day - 25 April. the many deadly diseases caused by (a) Only II (b) Neither I nor II
fungi. Tuberculosis, Anthrax, Tetanus, (c) Only I (d) Both I and II
Q.110. Chikungunya is an infection Leptospirosis, Pneumonia, Cholera,
caused by _______ mosquito. Botulism are the diseases caused by Sol.117.(a) Rust of wheat – Fungi .
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift) bacteria. (Plant disease, Microorganisms) -
(a) Culex (b) Mansonia (Yellow vein mosaic, Virus), (Aster
(c) Aedes (d) Anopheles Q.114. Which among the following is a yellows, Bacteria), (Crown gall, Bacteria),
viral disease ? (Ergot, Fungi), (Anthracnose, Fungi),
Sol.110.(c) Aedes : It is a species of SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
mosquito that causes dengue, yellow (Black knot, Fungi), (Snow mold, Fungi).
(a) Chicken pox (b) Tuberculosis
fever and zika virus. Anopheles Mosquito (c) Whooping Cough (d) Malaria Q.118. Typhoid fever is caused by ______.
is a species of mosquito that causes SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Morning)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
(a) viruses (b) protozoa digestive or kidney disease? disease caused by the poliovirus. It
(c) bacteria (d) fungi SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Afternoon) invades the nervous system and can
(a) Osteopenia (b) Osteomyelitis cause total paralysis in a matter of
Sol.118.(c) Bacteria. Its diseases and (c) Osteomalacia (d) Osteoporosis hours.
their causative agents - Diphtheria
(Corynebacterium diphtheriae), Cholera Sol.122.(c) Osteomalacia - a disorder of Q.127. Which of the following diseases
(Vibrio cholerae), Leprosy “bone softening” (common in women marked by dementia, diarrhoea, and
(Mycobacterium leprae), Pertussis during pregnancy). Osteomyelitis is dermatitis, is also known as ‘the three
(Bordetella pertussis), Tetanus inflammation of the bone caused by Ds’? SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Evening)
(Clostridium tetani), Plague (Yersinia infection, generally in the legs, arm, or (a) Pellagra (b) Osteoporosis
pestis), etc. spine. Osteopenia is a condition that (c) Xerophthalmia (d) Scurvy
occurs when the body doesn't make new
Q.119. How is tuberculosis spread in bone as quickly as it reabsorbs old bone. Sol.127.(a) Pellagra is a disease that
humans? results due to severe Vitamin B3 (Niacin)
SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Evening) Q.123. Poor sanitation conditions may deficiency. The disease can also develop
(a) Inoculation into skin NOT be the likely reason behind which of due to : Gastrointestinal diseases, Weight
(b) Droplet infection the following diseases/conditions? loss (bariatric) surgery, Anorexia
(c) Direct touching SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening) Excessive alcohol use, Carcinoid
(d) Contact with soil (a) Typhoid (b) Cholera syndrome (group of symptoms
(c) Arthritis (d) Polio associated with tumours of the small
Sol.119.(b) Droplet infection. intestine, colon, appendix, and bronchial
Tuberculosis (TB) - It is usually caused Sol.123.(c) Arthritis is caused by
tubes in the lungs).
by the Bacterium Mycobacterium inflammation of the joints. Cholera is an
df
tuberculosis. The World Health acute diarrheal illness caused by Q.128. Trachoma is a preventable
Organization (WHO) declared TB a infection of the intestine with Vibrio disease that results from poor hygiene
_p
"Global Health Emergency" in 1993. cholerae bacteria. and sanitation. Which of the following
body parts does it affect?
na
Q.120. Which of the following is NOT a Q.124. _______ is a disorder resulting in
SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Morning)
symptom of Beriberi caused due to the abnormal electrical discharge from the
(a) Eye (b) Ear (c) Stomach (d) Heart
ap
deficiency of Vitamin B1? brain cells causing seizures,
SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Morning) SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Afternoon) Sol.128.(a) Eyes. Trachoma - It is a
:@
(a) Slowly healing wounds (a) Prostatitis (b) Hypoglycaemia disease of the eye caused by infection
(b) Involuntary eye movement (c) Epilepsy (d) Rheumatoid arthritis with the bacterium Chlamydia
(c) Difficulty speaking trachomatis. Blindness from trachoma is
TG
Sol.124.(c) Epilepsy. Prostatitis is a
(d) Pain in the limbs irreversible.
disorder of the prostate gland usually
Sol.120.(a) Slowly healing wounds. associated with inflammation. A low Q.129. Which of the following diseases
on
Symptoms of Beri Beri - Difficulty blood sugar level, also called is caused by Helicobacter pylori ?
walking, Loss of muscle function or hypoglycaemia is where the level of SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Evening)
paralysis of the lower legs, Mental sugar (glucose) in your blood drops too (a) Gastritis (b) Ringworm
ch
confusion/speech difficulties, Loss of low. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic (c) Chikungunya (d) Rubella
feeling (sensation) in hands and feet, inflammatory disorder affecting many
ar
joints, including those in the hands and Sol.129.(a) Gastritis. Helicobacter pylori
Strange eye movements (nystagmus),
is a type of bacteria that causes infection
Se
Tingling, Vomiting. feet.
in the stomach. It is the main cause of
Q.121. Which disease refers to the Q.125. Which of the following factors is peptic ulcers, and it can also cause
inflammation of the liver caused by a responsible for the disease called 'Mad gastritis and stomach cancer.
variety of infectious viruses and non - Hatter Disease'?
Q.130. The cause of Siderosis is
infectious agents leading to a variety of SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Evening)
excessive deposition of ______in the body
health problems ? (a) inhaling iron dust
tissue.
SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Morning) (b) inhaling silica dust
SSC CHSL 05/8/2021 (Evening)
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Pneumonia (c) mercury poisoning
(a) iron (b) aluminium (c) coal (d) zinc
(c) Hepatitis (d) Diabetes (d) Vitamin-D deficiency
Sol.130.(a) Iron. Siderosis is a type of
Sol.121.(c) Hepatitis. Sol.125.(c) Mercury poisoning.
occupational lung disease caused by
Hepatotropic viruses include A, B, C, D, The inhalation of mercury vapour can
inhaling iron particles through dust or
and E. World Hepatitis Day - 28th July. produce harmful effects on the nervous,
fumes.
Pneumonia can be caused by viruses, digestive and immune systems, lungs
bacteria, and fungi. Diabetes is a disease and kidneys, and may be fatal.
Reproduction in Animals
that occurs when blood sugar becomes Q.126. Which of the following diseases
too high. is NOT caused by a flavivirus ? Q.131. Which of the following animals
SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Evening) can change their gender during their
Q.122. What disease in adults means lifespan
‘soft bones’ that usually develops due to (a) Polio (b) Yellow fever
(c) Dengue (d) Japanese encephalitis SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (3rd shift)
a deficiency of vitamin D (often from not (a) Humans (b) Ascaris
getting enough sunlight), or less often, Sol.126.(a) Polio (Poliomyelitis). It is a (c) nereis (d) Snail
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
Sol.131.(d) Snail. Most land snails are animals reproduce asexually, followed by defined as the capacity of individual cells
hermaphrodites, meaning they have both the sexually reproducing generation. to initiate all lineages of the mature
male and female reproductive organs. Spongilla - A genus of freshwater organism. Cloning is a technique
They are able to produce sperm and eggs sponges. Sycon - A genus of calcareous scientists use to make exact genetic
while mating with a partner. The male sponges belonging to the family copies of living things. A mutation
reproductive organ of the snail can never Sycettidae. Euspongia - The typical occurs when a DNA gene is damaged or
fertilize the female genitals of the snail. genus of fibrous sponges of the family changed in such a way as to alter the
Animals who can change their sex during Spongiidae, having a very elastic and genetic message carried by that gene.
their life : Clownfish, Bearded dragons, homogeneous framework throughout.
Banana slugs. Q.139. The phenomenon whereby the
Q.135. The stage of the embryo in which female gamete undergoes development
Q.132. In a dihybrid cross between two all the body parts can be identified is to form new organisms without
heterozygous fruit flies with brown called _________ . fertilisation in some organisms like
bodies and red eyes (BbEe × BbEe), what SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Afternoon) honey bees, some lizards and birds is
will be the probability of getting BBEE (a) Uterus (b) Ovulation called :
genotype ? (c) Foetus (d) Zygote SSC CPO 25/11/2020 (Evening)
SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (4th shift) (a) Budding (b) Fragmentation
(a) 1/8 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/16 (d) 1/2 Sol.135.(c) Foetus. Uterus - A pear - (c) Apomixis (d) Parthenogenesis
shaped and hollow muscular organ
Sol.132.(c) 1/16. Each parent can located in the female pelvis between the Sol.139.(d) Parthenogenesis is a form of
produce four types of gametes: BE, Be, bladder and rectum. Ovulation - A phase reproduction in which an egg can
bE, and be, with equal probability (1/4 of the female menstrual cycle that develop into an embryo without being
each). To obtain the BBEE genotype, the involves the release of an egg (ovum) fertilized by a sperm. Budding or
df
offspring must receive the B and E alleles from one of the ovaries. Zygote - A blastogenesis is a type of asexual
_p
from both parents. The probability of fertilized egg cell that results from the reproduction in which a new organism
getting BB from Bb × Bb cross is 1/4, and union of a female gamete (egg, or ovum) develops from an outgrowth or bud due
na
the probability of getting EE from Ee × Ee with a male gamete (sperm). to cell division at one particular site.
cross is also 1/4. Therefore, the Apomixis refers to the formation of the
Q.136. The transformation of the larva
ap
combined probability of getting BBEE is plant from a seed without fertilization or
(1/4) * (1/4) = 1/16. into an adult through drastic change is normal sexual reproduction.
called ___________.
:@
Q.133. In honey bees, _____ SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning)
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (1st shift) (a) budding (b) shifting
Reproduction in Plants
(a) males are haploid and females are (c) bulging (d) metamorphosis
TG
Q.140. Which of the following
diploid.
Sol.136.(d) Metamorphosis - A biological statements best defines the
(b) males are tetraploid and females are
process involving an abrupt change in monoecious?
triploid.
on
the animal's body structure due to cell SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
(c) males are diploid and females are
growth and differentiation. The new (a) A flower with both androecium and
haploid.
gynoecium
ch
(d) males are triploid and females are individuals which are born from the eggs
continue to grow till they become adults. (b) A flower with dithecous
tetraploid.
ar
In some animals, the young ones may (c) A flower with gynoecium only
Sol.133.(a) males are haploid and look very different from the adults. (d) A flower with androecium only
Se
females are diploid. The females are Metamorphosis cycle has four stages :
Sol.140.(a) Monoecious plants bear both
diploid having 32 chromosomes and Egg, Larva, Pupa and Adult. Examples :
purely male and purely female flowers.
males are haploid, i.e., having 16 Butterflies, moths, frogs, toads, etc.
Examples include castor, cucumber, and
chromosomes. This is called a
Q.137. How many arteries are there in an maize. In contrast, dioecious plants have
haplodiploid sex determination system
umbilical cord? male and female flowers on separate
and has special characteristic features
SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Evening) plants, such as papaya.
such as the males produce sperms by
mitosis, they do not have father and thus (a) One (b) Two (c) Four (d) Three
Q.141. Which of the following is NOT a
cannot have sons, but have a grandfather Sol.137.(b) Two. The umbilical cord is a component of a flower ?
and can have grandsons. tube that connects the mother with the SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
baby in her womb during pregnancy. It (a) Androecium (b) Corolla
Q.134. Identify an organism that exhibits (c) Spines (d) Calyx
normally contains two arteries (the
metagenesis.
umbilical arteries ) and one vein ( the
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (3rd shift) Sol.141.(c) Spines. They are modified
umbilical vein).
(a) Obelia (b) Spongilla leaves or stems that serve as a defense
(c) Sycon (d) Euspongia Q.138. ______ is the ability of a single cell mechanism in plants, particularly in cacti
to produce a fertile, adult individual. and succulents. Androecium : The male
Sol.134.(a) Obelia (sea fur) : A genus of SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Morning). reproductive part of the flower,
hydrozoans. It forms a light-brown or (a) Pluripotency (b) Totipotency consisting of stamens (filaments and
whitish plant-like fur in the seas. (c) Cloning (d) Mutation anthers). Corolla : The collective term for
Metagenesis - The phenomenon in which the petals of a flower. Calyx : The
one generation of certain plants and Sol.138.(b) Totipotency. Pluripotency is collective term for the sepals (green,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
leaf-like structures) that protect the which only a single parent is involved is Sol.148.(b) Stigma. It traps and holds
flower bud. called ___________. the pollen. During the process of
SSC MTS 11/05/2023 (Morning) pollination, pollen moves from the male
Q.142. By which of the following (a) In vitro fertilization parts to the female parts i.e stigma
methods do red algae reproduce? (b) external fertilization where pollen germinates.
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) sexual reproduction
(a) Grafting (b) Cutting (d) asexual reproduction Q.149. A type of asexual reproduction in
(c) Micropropagation (d) Fragmentation which new plants are produced from
Sol.145.(d) Asexual reproduction - roots, stems, leaves and buds are known
Sol.142.(d) Fragmentation. Algae Observed in both multicellular and as :
reproduce through vegetative, asexual, unicellular organisms and does not SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Afternoon)
and sexual methods: Vegetative involve any kind of gamete fusion. (a) layering propagation
Reproduction: This occurs by Offspring are genetically similar to their (b) grafting propagation
fragmentation, where each fragment parents. Different types : Binary Fission - (c) budding propagation
develops into a new thallus. Asexual Cell divide (Archaea and Bacteria). (d) vegetative propagation
Reproduction: This involves the Budding (Bacteria, yeast, corals,
production of various types of spores, flatworms, Jellyfish and sea anemones). Sol.149.(d) Vegetative propagation.
with zoospores being the most common. Fragmentation (Spirogyra, Planaria). Layering is a technique of plant
Sexual Reproduction: in algae involves Vegetative Propagation (Potato tubers, propagation where the new plant
the fusion of gametes, which can be runners, onion). Sporogenesis (Plants, remains at least partially attached to the
isogamous (fusion of similar gametes) Algae, Fungi). mother plant while forming new roots.
or anisogamous (fusion of dissimilar
gametes), leading to the formation of Q.146. The innermost part of a flower is Cell : Basic Unit of life
df
zygotes that develop into new called the _______.
_p
individuals. SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning) Q.150. ________ are amoeboid (amoeba
(a) stamens (b) pistil (c) petals (d) sepals like movement, with pseudopodia) that
Q.143. Which types of gametes are
na
can squeeze out through capillary walls.
found in Spirogyra? Sol.146.(b) Pistil (the female
SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift) reproductive part of a flower). It has
ap
(Afternoon)
(a) Isogamous and flagellated three parts which are stigma, style, and
(a) White blood cells
(b) Heterogamous and non-flagellated ovary. Sepals (collectively called the
:@
(b) Red blood cells
(c) Heterogamous and flagellated calyx) are modified leaves that encase
(c) Guard cells
(d) Isogamous and non-flagellated the developing flower. Petals (collectively
(d) Nerve cells
known as the corolla) are modified
TG
Sol.143.(d) Isogamous and non -
leaves that surround the reproductive Sol.150.(a) White blood cells
flagellated. Reproduction in Spirogyra:
parts of flowers. Stamen is the male part (leukocytes) use amoeboid movement
Spirogyra, a genus of green algae,
of the flower. Generally, it is shaped like a
on
reproduces sexually through isogamous and pseudopodia to squeeze through
bowling pin and is located in the flower's capillary walls in a process called
(similar in size) and non-flagellated
center. It consists of Anther and diapedesis and reach sites of infection or
gametes. Two adjacent cells form a
ch
Filament. injury. Red blood cells (round and
conjugation tube, allowing the male
gametangium's contents to move into the biconcave): Their main role is oxygen
ar
Q.147. Which of the following is not an
female gametangium, resulting in the transport. Guard cells: Found in plants;
asexual form of reproduction in plants?
Se
formation of a zygote. they control stomatal opening and
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (1st Shift)
closing. Nerve cells (Branched and long):
(a) Spore formation
Q.144. Which of the following is a part of Specialized for transmitting electrical
(b) Vegetative propagation
apical meristem found in roots. signals.
(c) Budding
SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (3rd shift)
(d) Pollination Q.151. In the context of cell organelles, a
(a) Differentiating vascular tissue
(b) Axillary bud centriole is:
Sol.147.(d) Pollination. Flowering plants
(c) Protoderm SSC Stenographer 10/12/2024 (Evening)
reproduce sexually through a process
(d) Leaf primordium (a) a membrane-bound cell organelle that
called pollination. It is the act of
contains digestive enzymes
Sol.144.(c) Protoderm. Apical meristem transferring pollen grains from the male
(b) a stack of small flat sacs formed by
is the region of plant tissue where growth anther of a flower to the female stigma.
membranes inside the cell's
occurs, and it's found in both roots and The two types of pollination are
cytoplasm
shoots. In roots, the apical meristem self-pollination (if pollen is transferred to
(c) a heterogeneous family of organelles
consists of three primary meristematic it from any flower of the same plant) and
found ubiquitously in plant cells
tissues: Protoderm (outermost layer) - cross-pollination ( if the pollen comes
(d) a paired barrel-shaped organelle
Gives rise to the epidermis. Ground from a flower of a different plant).
located in the cytoplasm of animal
meristem (middle layer) - Gives rise to Q.148. Which part of a flower is the cells near the nuclear envelope
the cortex and endodermis. Procambium sticky surface at the top of the pistil, it
(innermost layer) - Gives rise to the Sol.151.(d) Centrioles play a role in
traps and holds the pollen?
vascular tissue. organizing microtubules that serve as the
SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Morning)
cell's skeletal system. They help
Q.145. The reproduction process in (a) Style (b) Stigma (c) Sepal (d) Ovary
determine the locations of the nucleus
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
and other organelles within the cell. found in the cytoplasm of plant cells and malfunctioning or nearing the end of its
Lysosomes are membrane-bound sacs some protists such as Euglena. Golgi life cycle.
containing digestive enzymes. The Golgi apparatus is a central membrane
apparatus consists of stacked, flat sacs organelle for trafficking and Q.158. The Krebs cycle of aerobic
involved in protein modification and post-translational modification of protein respiration is carried out within which of
transport. Plastids, found in plant and and lipid in the cell. the following cell organelles?
algal cells, are responsible for food SSC MTS 30/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
production and storage, and contain Q.155. The cytoplasmic zone (a) Lysosome (b) Spirogyra
pigments essential for photosynthesis surrounding the Golgi complex (c) Nucleus (d) Mitochondria
and color change. possesses no cell organelles. This zone
of clear cytoplasm is called: Sol.158.(d) Mitochondria. Mitochondria
Q.152. Identify another name of SSC MTS 15/10/2024 (3rd Shift) are organelles that are known as the
Choanocytes. (a) cytosine (b) cytochrome "powerhouses" of a cell because they
SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Afternoon) (c) zone of exclusion (d) cytosol produce energy. They convert oxygen
(a) Stem cells (b) Collar cells and nutrients into adenosine
(c) Flame cells (d) Sperm cells Sol.155.(c) zone of exclusion. This clear triphosphate (ATP), which is used by the
space is observed due to the exclusion of cell for energy-consuming activities. The
Sol.152.(b) Collar cells. These special organelles like mitochondria, ER, or other Krebs cycle is also known as the citric
cells are important for filter feeding in structures from the immediate vicinity of acid cycle or the tricarboxylic acid (TCA)
sponges, as well as in reproduction and the Golgi complex. Cytosine found in cycle. It's a central part of cellular
circulation. Stem cells are the only cells nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA, that respiration, and it harvests energy from
in your body that make different cell are part of the macromolecular fraction acetyl molecules in the form of ATP.
types, like blood, bone and muscle cells. of living tissue. Cytochromes are found
df
They also repair damaged tissues. Flame in the mitochondria (cristae) and Q.159. Which of the following pairs is
INCORRECT regarding the grade of
_p
cells, also known as protonephridia or chloroplasts of eukaryotes, in the
solenocytes, are specialized excretory chloroplast of plants, in photosynthetic organisation and its example ?
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (1st Shift)
na
cells found in freshwater invertebrates microorganisms, and bacteria. Cytosol is
like flatworms, rotifers, and ribbon a fluid that is present in the cell (a) Cellular grade organisation - Sycon
(b) Protoplasmic grade organisation -
ap
worms. They function similarly to membrane and is the primary component
kidneys, removing waste from the of the cytoplasm. Paramecium
(c) Cell-tissue grade organisation -
:@
organism's body through filtration.
Q.156. Which of the following is NOT a Jellyfish
Q.153. A part of the cell other than the function of mesosomes? (d) Tissue-organ grade organisation -
nucleus which has DNA and ribosomes SSC MTS 28/10/2024 (1st Shift) Euplectella
TG
and can thus make its own proteins is (a) Increase the surface area of the
known as: plasma membrane and enzymatic Sol.159.(d) Euplectella, is a genus of
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 content glass sponges which includes the
on
(a) Golgi apparatus (b) Locomotion well-known Venus' Flower Basket,
(b) endoplasmic reticulum (c) Respiration exhibits a cellular grade of organization
ch
(c) ribosomes (d) DNA replication and distribution to rather than a tissue-organ grade. A
(d) mitochondria daughter cells cellular grade of organisation is an
ar
aggregation of cells that are functionally
Sol.153.(d) Mitochondria (singular: Sol.156.(b) Locomotion. Mesosomes are differentiated.
Se
mitochondrion) are found in nearly all infoldings of the plasma membrane in
eukaryotic cells and are known as the prokaryotic cells. They increase surface Q.160. Which of the following
powerhouses of the cell. They have two area for enzyme activity, aid in Illustrations shows the mitochondrion’s
membrane coverings. The outer respiration, and are involved in DNA structural details?
membrane is porous while the inner replication and distribution during cell
membrane is deeply folded. Function: division.
Primarily responsible for producing
Q.157. Several biological processes are SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine
catalysed by enzymes. Digestive (a) d (b) b (c) c (d) a
triphosphate).
enzymes are present in which part of the
Q.154. The digestive enzymes inside Sol.160.(b) b. The mitochondrion is a
cell?
lysosomes are made by: double - membraned, rod - shaped
SSC MTS 29/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
SSC MTS 07/10/2024 (1st Shift) structure found in both plant and animal
(a) Ribosome (b) Golgi complex
(a) rough endoplasmic reticulum cells. Its size ranges from 0.5 to 1.0
(c) Mitochondria (d) Lysosomes
(b) plastids themselves micrometre in diameter. The structure
(c) Golgi apparatus Sol.157.(d) Lysosomes. comprises an outer membrane, an inner
(d) mitochondria These organelles are filled with hydrolytic membrane, and a gel-like material called
enzymes that break down biological the matrix.
Sol.154.(a) rough endoplasmic polymers like proteins, carbohydrates,
reticulum. Digestive enzymes are nucleic acids, and lipids. Lysosomes are Q.161. Which cell organelle is defined as
proteins that break down food so your sometimes called the "suicide bag" of the the small round organelle that undergoes
body can absorb nutrients. Plastids are cell because they disassemble cell oxidation reaction to produce hydrogen
double membrane bound organelles molecules when the cell is peroxide?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift) first of five substages in prophase I of Q.167. In a symport:
(a) Centrosome (b) Vacuole meiosis, a specialized cell division SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (4th shift)
(c) Nucleus (d) Peroxisomes process that reduces the number of (a) both molecules cross the membrane
chromosomes by half. During this stage, in the same direction
Sol.161.(d) Peroxisomes. Peroxisomes chromosomes manifest as long, thin (b) a molecule moves across a
have multiple functions like lipid threads. Meiosis produces haploid membrane independent of other
metabolism, processing reactive oxygen gametes in sexually reproducing molecules
species, oxidative processes, and organisms, contrasting with mitosis, (c) both molecules cross the membrane
catabolism of D-amino acids, where a single cell divides into two in the opposite direction
polyamines, and bile acids, with enzymes identical daughter cells. Mitosis (d) a molecule moves across a
like peroxidase and catalase converting comprises several stages: Prophase, membrane dependent of other
harmful peroxides to water; in plants, Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase. molecules
peroxisomes facilitate photosynthesis,
seed germination, and efficient carbon Q.165. Which of the following enzymes Sol.167.(a) Symport: Two or more
fixation. are essential of DNA replication in an molecules move together in the same
animal cell ? direction across the membrane using the
Q.162. Which of the following is an SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift) same transport protein. Antiport: Two or
example of prokaryotic cells? (a) Reverse transcriptase, RNA more molecules move in opposite
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (2nd Shift) polymerase, Ligase directions across the membrane.
(a) Plasmodium (b) Leishmania (b) Reverse transcriptase, DNA Uniport: A single molecule moves across
(c) Yeast (d) Bacteria polymerase, DNA primase the membrane independently of other
Sol.162.(d) Bacteria. Prokaryotic cells (c) Topoisomerase, DNA ligase, DNA molecules.
df
lack a well-organized nucleus, with their polymerase, DNA primase
Q.168. The cell wall of bacteria is made
genetic material consisting of a single (d) Reverse transcriptase, DNA
_p
up of:
DNA molecule located in the cytoplasm. polymerase, Ligase
SSC CHSL 09/07/2024 (4th shift)
These cells do not have a nuclear
na
Sol.165.(c) The essential enzymes for (a) peptidoglycan (b) glycogen
membrane, and they also lack organelles DNA replication are: Topoisomerase: (c) cellulose (d) peptone
such as mitochondria, lysosomes,
ap
Relaxes the DNA molecule by cutting and
endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplasts, and Sol.168.(a) Peptidoglycan is a complex
rejoining it, reducing tension and
nucleolus. Examples of prokaryotic cells molecule made of sugars and amino
:@
supercoiling. DNA primase: Adds RNA
include blue-green algae. Yeast is an acids. It provides structural support and
primers to the template strands at
example of a eukaryotic unicellular fungi shape to bacterial cells and protects
specific regions, providing a starting
cell. them from environmental stress.
TG
point for DNA synthesis. DNA
Glycogen is a storage polysaccharide
Q.163. Which of the following polymerase: Synthesizes new DNA
found in animals, not related to cell walls.
illustrations is related to chloroplasts? strands by adding nucleotides to the
Cellulose is a polysaccharide that makes
on
primers, matching the base pairing rules.
up the cell walls of plants, not bacteria.
DNA ligase: Seals the gaps between the
Peptones are products of protein
newly synthesized DNA segments,
ch
digestion used as nutrient sources in
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (3rd Shift) forming a continuous strand.
microbial culture media, not structural
(a) a (b) c (c) d (d) b
ar
Q.166. What do you mean by components of cell walls.
Sol.163.(b) c. Plastids are classified into semiconservative DNA replication ?
Se
Q.169. Who was the first person to
chloroplasts, chromoplasts, and SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (2nd shift) conduct a systematic study of
leucoplasts, based on their pigments. (a) DNA is dependent on RNA for the chromosomes during division and called
Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and synthesis of proteins this process mitosis ?
carotenoids, crucial for capturing light (b) RNA is dependent on DNA for the SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (4th shift)
energy in photosynthesis. Chromoplasts synthesis of proteins (a) Thomas Hunt Morgan
have fat-soluble carotenoid pigments (c) After the completion of replication, (b) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
(like carotene and xanthophylls) that give each DNA molecule would have one (c) Walther Flemming
plants yellow, orange, or red colors. parental and one newly synthesised (d) Friedrich Miescher
Leucoplasts are colorless and vary in strand.
shape, storing nutrients within the plant. (d) After the completion of replication, Sol.169.(c) Walther Flemming. He was a
each DNA molecule would have two German biologist and a founder of
Q.164. In the context of cell division, parental and two newly synthesised cytogenetics. His key discoveries -
which chromosomal behaviour takes strand. Chromatin, Chromosomes. Thomas Hunt
place at the leptotene stage? Morgan received the 1933 Nobel Prize in
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) Sol.166.(c) Semiconservative DNA Physiology or Medicine for his
(a) Chromosomes are un-synapsed replication refers to the process by which discoveries concerning the role of
(b) Synapsis is complete DNA is replicated, resulting in two chromosomes in heredity.
(c) Homologous chromosomes pair daughter DNA molecules, each
(d) Chromosomes begin to condense containing: One parental strand (the Q.170. What are the thin filamentous
original template strand) and One newly extensions that the motile bacterial cells
Sol.164.(d) Chromosomes begin to synthesized strand (created during have from their cell wall called?
condense. The leptotene stage is the replication). SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (1st shift)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
(a) Fimbriae (b) Flagella chloroplast, chromoplast and leucoplast. Q.177. Which of the following cell
(c) Lamellae (d) Pili Animal cells have centrioles which are organelles is involved in apoptosis?
absent in almost all plant cells. Matriculation Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
Sol.170.(b) Flagella. The bacterial (a) Golgi (b) ER
flagella are long (3 to 12 µm), Q.174. Identify an organelle found both (c) Lysosome (d) Mitochondria
filamentous surface appendages about in eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic.
12 to 30 nm in diameter. The protein SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift) Sol.177.(d) Mitochondria. Apoptosis, or
subunits of a flagellum are assembled to (a) Endosomes (b) Ribosomes programmed cell death, is a process
form a cylindrical structure with a hollow (c) Lysosomes (d) Mitochondria where cells die through a series of
core. A flagellum consists of three parts: molecular steps. Mitochondria play a
Filament, Hook, and Basal body. Pili are Sol.174.(b) Ribosomes. Within the cell, crucial role in apoptosis (programmed
short and thin thread-like structures ribosomes are found not only in the cell death) by releasing cytochrome c,
projecting out from the cell wall in some cytoplasm but also within the two which triggers the activation of
bacteria. organelles - chloroplasts (in plants) and caspases, the enzymes that execute the
mitochondria and on rough ER. In cell death process.
Q.171. Which is an integral membrane prokaryotes, ribosomes are associated
protein that forms the tetramer and with the plasma membrane of the cell. Q.178. Chromosomes found in the
facilitates the diffusion of water and They are about 15 nm by 20 nm in size salivary glands of Drosophila are :
some small, unmodified solutes across and are made of two subunits - 50S and Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
cellular membranes? 30S units which when present together (a) giant chromosome lampbrush
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) form 70S prokaryotic ribosomes. (b) presence of fat digestive enzymes
(a) Immunoglobulins (b) Mucins Ribosomes are the site of protein (c) presence of minute chromosomes
(c) Transferrin (d) Aquaporins synthesis. (d) giant chromosome polytene
df
Sol.171.(d) Aquaporins. Q.175. Which chromosome is involved in Sol.178.(d) giant chromosome polytene.
_p
Immunoglobulins (antibodies) are the production of 'masked' mRNAs for Saliva is mainly produced by three pairs
Y-shaped proteins that help the body early development? of salivary glands, the parotids (cheek),
fight infections. Mucins are proteins
found in epithelial tissues and provide (a) Polytene chromosome na
Matriculation Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 1) the submaxillary or submandibular
(lower jaw) and the sub-linguals (below
ap
lubrication and protection. Transferrin is (b) Lampbrush chromosome the tongue). These glands situated just
a protein that transports iron throughout (c) Autosomal chromosome outside the buccal cavity secrete salivary
:@
the body and is an important indicator of (d) Sex chromosome juice into the buccal cavity.
iron status.
Sol.175.(b) Lampbrush chromosome. Q.179. What are ribosomes made up of?
TG
Q.172. What is the fourth step in mitosis These are found in oocytes of animals Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
where non-kinetochore spindle fibres like sharks, amphibians, reptiles, and (a) Only RNA (b) Only proteins
lengthen and elongate the cell? birds (most distinct during the Diplotene (c) Only DNA (d) Proteins and RNA
on
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) stage). Polytene Chromosomes - First
(a) Telophase (b) Metaphase seen by Balbiani (1881) in salivary glands Sol.179.(d) Proteins and RNA.
Ribosomes are cell organelles involved in
ch
(c) Anaphase (d) Prophase of larva of Chironomus insect (midges —
belongs to order Diptera). An autosome protein synthesis, earning them the name
Sol.172.(c) Anaphase. Mitosis is divided 'protein factories.' They consist of
ar
is one of the numbered chromosomes,
into four stages namely prophase, as opposed to the sex chromosomes. ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and
Se
metaphase, anaphase and telophase. Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes and approximately 40 to 80 proteins, which
Prophase the chromosomes condense one pair of sex chromosomes (XX or XY). provide structural support. Ribosomes
and centrosomes move to opposite sides have two subunits: large and small. The
of the nucleus, initiating formation of the Q.176. The cell wall of spirogyra subunits remain separate when not
mitotic spindle. Metaphase is a stage contains: synthesizing proteins and come together
during the process of cell division Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) during the process of protein synthesis.
(mitosis or meiosis). Telophase is the (a) lignin (b) cellulose
last phase of mitosis before cytokinesis, (c) suberin (d) Chitin Q.180. In the context of movement of
and is where sister chromatids separate, cells, exocytosis is the process by which :
and the new nuclei are formed. Sol.176.(b) cellulose. Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
Each cell of Spirogyra is surrounded by (a) cells absorb external material by
Q.173. Identify the organelle present in two layered cell walls. Its inner layer is engulfing it with the cell membrane
plant cells that is not there in an animal made up of cellulose and outer layer is (b) cell death is brought about through a
cell. made up of pectose but quantity of heavily regulated sequence of events
SSC CPO 27/06/2024 (3rd shift) cellulosic substances is high in (c) cells move waste materials from
(a) Nucleus (b) Plastids comparison to pectose. Lignin is a within the cell into the extracellular
(c) Neuron (d) Cytoplasm biopolymer that binds cellulose and fluid
hemicellulose fibers and provides (d) a cell takes in the fluids along with
Sol.173.(b) Plastids. The plant cells stiffness to plants. Suberin is a cell dissolved small molecules
have cell walls, plastids, and wall-associated biopolymer found in
chloroplasts. These organelles are not specific cell types, such as root Sol.180.(c) Exocytosis involves the
present in animal cells. There are three epidermis, root endodermis. fusion of intracellular vesicles with the
types of plastids, which are the plasma membrane, releasing their
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
contents while adding hydrophobic most of the plant cells, bacteria, algae, energised mitochondria.
components to the membrane. The fungi, and some archaea. The cell wall is
flexibility of the cell membrane also a rigid semi-permeable structure made Q.187. Which cellular structure controls
enables the cell to engulf in food and up of cellulose or chitin. cell motility, adhesion, and polarity at
other material from its external interphase, and facilitates the
environment. Such processes are known Q.184. The primary function of which organisation of spindle poles during
as endocytosis. Amoeba acquires its channel protein is to transport water mitosis ?
food through such processes. across the cell membrane in response to SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
Pinocytosis is a type of endocytosis in the osmotic gradient created by active (a) Centrosomes (b) Peroxisomes
which the living cells ingest fluid solute transport ? (c) Lysosomes (d) Glyoxysomes
substances. SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
(a) Aquaporins (b) Mucins Sol.187.(a) Centrosomes - Membrane -
Q.181. Identify the INCORRECT pair of (c) Transferrin (d) Cupredoxins free organelles that serve as main
cell shape types and their examples. microtubule-organizing centers in
Graduate Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 3) Sol.184.(a) Aquaporins. These are a distinct eukaryotic lineages.
(a) Oval – Chlamydomonas family of small, integral membrane
proteins that are expressed broadly Q.188. What is the percentage of
(b) Elongated – Muscle cells proteins in the cell membrane?
(c) Irregular – Amoeba throughout the animal and plant
kingdoms. Mucins : Heavily SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
(d) Oblong – Nerve cells (a) 80 - 100% (b) 20 - 40%
O-glycosylated linear glycoproteins that
Sol.181.(d) Oblong – Nerve cells. are secreted by higher organisms to (c) 60 - 80% (d) 40 - 60%
Example of oblong cell shape type - protect and lubricate epithelial cell Sol.188.(d) 40-60%. Cell membrane
Paramecium. Some shapes of cell : Oval, surfaces. Transferrin : A blood plasma
df
(plasma membrane) - It separates the
Round, Polygonal, Spherical, Elongated, glycoprotein that plays a central role in interior of the cell from the outside
_p
Cuboidal, Disk-like, Oblong, and Irregular. iron metabolism and is responsible for environment. It is composed primarily of
Nerve cells (neurons) transmit messages ferric-ion delivery. Cupredoxins : Small fatty-acid-based lipids and proteins. The
na
throughout the body via electrical proteins that contain type I copper cell is the basic structural and functional
signals. Chlamydomonas is a centers. They function as electron unit of all forms of life. It was discovered
ap
single-celled green algae found in transfer shuttles between proteins. by a British scientist, Robert Hooke in
freshwater, known for its flagella and 1665.
Q.185. Most centrioles have a _________
:@
photosynthesis. Muscle cells (myocytes)
are the smallest units of muscle tissue. structure of triple microtubules, which Q.189. What do you call the fluid matrix
are present in pairs and arranged filling in the cell ?
Q.182. ________is associated with the orthogonally after duplication.
TG
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
production and metabolism of fats and SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) (a) Golgi bodies (b) Ribosome
steroid hormones. (a) 9 + 3 (b) 6 + 1 (c) 9 + 0 (d) 8 + 0 (c) Cytoplasm (d) Plasmid
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
on
(a) Nucleus Sol.185.(c) 9 + 0. The centrioles form Sol.189.(c) Cytoplasm. It is composed
(b) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum the basal body of cilia or flagella, and of water, salts, and various organic
ch
(c) Mitochondrion spindle fibres that give rise to spindle molecules. Golgi bodies (Golgi
(d) Golgi apparatus apparatus during cell division in animal apparatus) - It helps process and
ar
cells. The central part of the proximal package proteins and lipid molecules,
Sol.182.(b) Smooth endoplasmic region of the centriole is also especially proteins destined to be
Se
reticulum. The endoplasmic reticulum proteinaceous and called the hub, which exported from the cell.
(ER) is a large network of is connected with tubules of the
membrane-bound tubes and sheets. peripheral triplets by radial spokes made Q.190. The main function of centriole is:
There are two types of ER– rough of protein. In animal cells, centrioles also SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and form spindle apparatus during cell (a) to maintain mineral composition in
smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER). division. bacterial cell
RER looks rough under a microscope (b) to help plant cell for multiplication
because it has particles called Q.186. Which is a reversible, fluorescent (c) to help cell division in animal cell
ribosomes attached to its surface. red, acidic dye used to stain cytoplasm, (d) to maintain rigidity in plant cell
red blood cells, collagen and muscle
fibres for histological examination? Sol.190.(c) Centrosome - An organelle
Q.183. Which structural layer in some
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) containing two cylindrical structures
cell types is composed mainly of
(a) Eosin (b) Safranin called centrioles. Centrioles form the
carbohydrates like cellulose,
(c) Crystal violet (d) Alizarin basal body of cilia or flagella, and spindle
hemicellulose and lignin in the ratio 4 : 3 :
fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus
3 and some fatty substances like wax?
Sol.186.(a) Eosin (the aniline dye) is an during cell division in animal cells. It
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
acid dye that stains cytoplasm, muscle, plays a role in organizing microtubules
(a) cell soluble
and connective tissues in various shades that serve as the cell's skeletal system.
(b) cell wall
of pink and orange. Safranin is a They help determine the locations of the
(c) plasma membrane
lipophilic cationic dye which nucleus and other organelles within the
(d) nuclear envelope
accumulates in mitochondria according cell.
Sol.183.(b) Cell walls - They are found in to the inside negative potential in
Q.191. During which phase of the cell
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
cycle does metabolic changes assemble glycocalyx that is loosely organized and SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
the cytoplasmic material required for not firmly attached to the cell wall. It is a (a) peristome (b) periplasm
mitosis and cytokinesis? thin, diffuse layer of polysaccharides and (c) phragmoplast (d) protoplast
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) proteins that surrounds some bacterial
(a) G2 phase (b) G1 phase cells. The slime layer can help bacteria Sol.198.(c) Phragmoplast is a plant cell
(c) M phase (d) S phase adhere to surfaces and protect them specialized cylindrical structure formed
from dehydration. The glycocalyx is a during late cytokinesis. Periplasm - The
Sol.191.(a) G2 phase. dense, gel-like meshwork that surrounds space is the area between the cell wall
The different phases of a cell cycle the cell, constituting a physical barrier for and the plasma membrane. The term
include : Interphase (This phase includes any object to enter the cell. Protoplast was introduced by Hanstein. It
the G1 phase, S phase and the G2 refers to the entire cell, excluding the cell
phase), M phase (This is the mitotic Q.195. Which process is sometimes wall. The Peristome is a teeth-like
phase and is divided into prophase, called "reduction division" because it projection that surrounds the mouth of
metaphase, anaphase and telophase) reduces the number of chromosomes to the capsule in most of the members of
and Cytokinesis (In this phase the half the normal number to form sperm Bryidae (Mosses) of bryophytes.
cytoplasm of the cell divides). S phase - and eggs?
Cell synthesises a complete copy of the SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (1st Shift) Q.199. Which part of a cell converts
DNA. M phase - Cell divides its copied (a) Amitosis (b) Meiosis nutrients into energy ?
DNA and cytoplasm to make two new (c) Cytokinesis (d) Karyokinesis SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (2nd shift)
cells. G1 phase - First gap phase, the cell (a) Cell membrane (b) Lysosomes
grows physically larger. Sol.195.(b) Meiosis. The cell cycle is (c) Mitochondria (d) Chromosome
divided into two basic phases :
Q.192. How big are red blood cells in Interphase and M Phase (Mitosis phase). Sol.199.(c) Mitochondria -
df
diameter ? The M Phase represents the phase when Double membrane-bound cell organelles
present in most eukaryotic organisms
_p
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) the actual cell division or mitosis occurs
(a) 40.0 μm (b) 7.5 μm and the interphase represents the phase (such as animals, plants and fungi).
Chromosome - A thread - like
na
(c) 2.0 μm (d) 4.0 μm between two successive M phases
(Cytokinesis and Karyokinesis). microscopic structure formed by coiling
Sol.192.(b) 7.5 μm. Red blood cells of DNA packaged with protein containing
ap
(erythrocytes) - It is rich in hemoglobin, Q.196. By what name are the flat all genetic material of an organism.
an iron rich molecule that can bind membrane-enclosed sacs present in the
:@
oxygen and also imparts red color to the Golgi apparatus known? Q.200. Which cell analysis technique is
blood. RBC is produced in the bone SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (2nd Shift) used to rapidly analyse single cells or
marrow (erythropoiesis process) and has (a) Lamellae (b) Cisternae particles as they flow through single or
TG
a life cycle of 120 days. RBC is recycled (c) Cristae (d) Stroma multiple lasers while suspended in a
by macrophages. RBC Disorders: Anemia buffered salt-based solution?
(Lower than normal RBC), Polycythemia Sol.196.(b) Cisternae - It is a SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (4th shift)
on
(Excess of RBC), Sickle Cell Disease membrane-bound cell organelle (a) Mass spectroscopy
(Genetic Disorder causes RBCs to take consisting of a series of flattened (b) Flow cytometry
ch
on a crescent shape), Thalassemia membranous sacs that look like stacked (c) Electrochemical analysis
(Genetic blood disorders that result in pouches. Organelles present in cells - (d) Multiple displacement amplification
ar
abnormal hemoglobin production). Nucleus, Endoplasmic Reticulum,
Mitochondria, Centriole, Ribosome, Sol.200.(b) Flow cytometry - It is a
Se
Q.193. What is the length of a bacterial Vacuole, Lysosome. laser-based technique used to detect and
cell? analyze the chemical and physical
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Q.197. Which cell found in the bone characteristics of cells or particles, It is
(a) 3 to 5 μm (b) 0 to 3 μm marrow acts as a repair system for the to evaluate bone marrow, peripheral
(c) 1 to 40 μm (d) 30 to 50 μm body ? blood and other fluids in your body. Mass
SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift) spectroscopy - Used to identify and
Sol.193.(a) 3 to 5 μm. Bacteria are single (a) Bone Cells (b) Fat Cells quantify molecules by measuring their
- celled microorganisms. Bacterial cell - (c) Muscle cells (d) Stem cells mass-to-charge ratio. Electrochemical
Prokaryotic cells, lacking well - defined analysis - Used to measure the electrical
nuclei and membrane-bound organelles, Sol.197.(d) Stem cells - Unspecialised properties of cells or particles. Multiple
and with chromosomes composed of a cells which divide to produce two displacement amplification - Used to
single closed DNA circle. Length of cells daughter cells, one of which remains a amplify DNA.
in organisms : Human - 20-30 stem cell and the other one becomes
differentiated. The major sources of Q.201. The division of cytoplasm is
micrometres. Plants - 10 to 100
stem cells are embryos and adult tissues known as:
micrometers.
(adult stem cells). Stem cells are SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Q.194. What do you call a Glycocalyx characterised into three types depending (a) karyokinesis (b) cytoskeleton
that is a loose sheath type? on their potency : Unipotent cells, (c) cytosol (d) cytokinesis
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) pluripotent cells and multipotent cells.
Sol.201.(d) Cytokinesis : It is a physical
(a) Slime layer (b) Tubules
Q.198. During cell division, the formation process which divides the cytoplasm of a
(c) Capsule (d) Mesosomes
of a new cell wall is followed by the parental cell into two daughter cells.
Sol.194.(a) Slime layer. It is a type of accumulation of: Karyokinesis : Division of the nucleus
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
during mitosis or meiosis. Cytoskeleton : maintenance of neuronal networks, and specialized organelles found in plant
It is a network of fibres forming the injury repair. Sensory cells - They occur in cells. Chloroplasts are organelle that
eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells and specialized organs such as the eyes, contains the photosynthetic pigment
archaeans. Cytosol : The fluid in which ears, nose, and mouth, as well as internal chlorophyll that captures sunlight and
organelles of the cell reside. The primary organs. converts it into useful energy, Found in
component of cytosol is water. green plants and algae.
Q.206. In a plant, ______ is present in the
Q.202. Which of the following cell middle lamella, primary cell and Q.209. Which cells, also called
organelles can make copies of secondary walls and accumulates in the neurilemma cells, are the main glial cells
themselves ? initial stages of development during cell in the PNS and play an essential role in
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift) expansion. the survival and functions of neurons?
(a) Golgi apparatus (b) Vacuole SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (2nd shift)
(c) Cytoplasm (d) Mitochondria (a) chitin (b) gelatin (c) alginate (d) pectin (a) Bipolar cells (b) Ganglion cells
(c) Schwann cells (d) Photoreceptor cells
Sol.202.(d) Mitochondria (Powerhouse Sol.206.(d) Pectin (polysaccharide) - A
of cells). Vacuole - A membrane-bound soluble fibre found in fruits. Chitin - A Sol.209.(c) Schwann cells.
cell organelle. In animal cells, vacuoles long chain polymer of N Peripheral Nervous System - Part of your
are generally small and help sequester -acetylglucosamine, an amide derivative nervous system that lies outside the
waste products. of glucose, forms a long chain polymer. brain and spinal cord. Central nervous
Present in cell walls and septa of all system - Includes two organs, the brain
Q.203. Which type of haploid unicellular pathogenic fungi and cyst walls of and spinal cord. Bipolar cells - One of the
eukaryote cells has a diameter of ~10 pathogenic amoebae. Gelatin - A food main retinal interneurons that provide the
μm, and about half of their volume is ingredient found in soups, broths, main pathways from photoreceptors to
df
occupied by cup-shaped chloroplasts ? sauces, gummy candies, marshmallows, ganglion cells.
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift)
_p
cosmetics, and medications. Alginate -
(a) Hydrodictyon (b) Ulva Naturally occurring anionic polymer Q.210. The cells having well-organized
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) Oedogonium nuclei with a nuclear membrane are
na
typically obtained from brown seaweed.
designated as__________ .
Sol.203.(c) Chlamydomonas : Single Q.207. Select the correct statement. SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning)
ap
-celled green algae found in both SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift) (a) Cheek cells (b) prokaryotic cells
freshwater and marine habitats. It (a) Mitochondria and nucleus are found (c) eukaryotic cells (d) autokaryotic cells
:@
reproduces asexually by zoospores, in bacteria.
hypnospores. Hydrodictyon (water net) : (b) Ribosomes, mitochondria and Sol.210.(c) Eukaryotic cells - Larger and
green algae, found in freshwater. Ulva lysosomes are found in animal cells. more complex than prokaryotic cells.
TG
(sea lettuce) : Green algae, found in (c) Chloroplast, ribosomes and nucleus These possess a well-defined nucleus,
marine environments. Oedogonium : are present in fungal cells. enclosed within a nuclear membrane,
Green algae, found in freshwater ponds, (d) Mitochondria and nucleus are absent and contain various membrane-bound
on
streams, and even in some terrestrial in plant cells. organelles such as mitochondria,
environments with high humidity. endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus,
Sol.207.(b) Bacteria do not have a
ch
and others.
Q.204. Which cell organelles are known nucleus or membrane-bound organelles.
as cell's post office ? They have ribosomes. Fungal cells have Q.211. Which component of the cell
ar
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) ribosomes and a nucleus. They also have contains the hereditary material of the
Se
(a) Nucleus (b) Golgi apparatus other organelles like endoplasmic cell, the DNA?
(c) Ribosome (d) Plastid reticulum, mitochondria, ribosomes, SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning)
Golgi apparatus and vacuoles. Plant cells (a) Cell Wall (b) Nucleus
Sol.204.(b) Golgi apparatus.
have ribosomes (Responsible for protein (c) Cell Membrane (d) Cytoplasm
It is responsible for processing and
synthesis) mitochondria, nucleus, and
packaging proteins and lipid molecules, Sol.211.(b) Nucleus (Discovered by
chloroplasts (responsible for
particularly those destined for export. Robert Brown) - It is a membrane - bound
photosynthesis).
organelle found in eukaryotic cells. It
Q.205. Which of the following cells are
Q.208. Which form of leucoplast contains the cell's genetic material,
found in the liver of mammals?
specialises in oil synthesis and storage including DNA, which carries the
SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (3rd shift)
and is mainly found in the layer of cells in instructions for cell function and
(a) Purkinje cells (b) Microglial cells
pollen grains that develop pollen grains? inheritance. Deoxyribonucleic acid
(c) Kupffer cells (d) Sensory cells
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (4th shift) (DNA) - Discovered by James Watson
Sol.205.(c) Kupffer cells. (a) Gerontoplasts (b) Proteinoplasts and Francis Crick.
They are resident liver macrophages and (c) Chloroplasts (d) Elaioplasts
maintain liver functions. They are the first Q.212. Cells were first observed in cork
Sol.208.(d) Elaioplasts - These are by __________ in 1665.
innate immune cells and protect the liver
plastids that are specialized in oil SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Afternoon)
from bacterial infections. Purkinje cells -
synthesis and found primarily in the layer (a) Robert Hooke
They are a unique type of neuron,
of cells. Gerontoplasts - Type of plastid (b) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
specific to the cerebellar cortex.
formed during leaf senescence (c) Theophrastus
Microglia cells are resident cells of the
(deterioration with age), Derived from - (d) Edward Jenner
brain that regulate brain development,
Chloroplasts. Proteinoplasts are
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
Sol.212.(a) Robert Hooke. Edward have lysosomes. transport vehicle. Respiration - Process
Jenner - Discovered the smallpox in which organisms exchange gases
vaccine in 1796. Theophrastus - The Q.217. Plant cell have a big central ___ between their body cells and the
father of botany. Anton van unlike a number of small ___ in animal environment. Excretion - Process by
Leeuwenhoek (Father of Microbiology) - cells. SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Evening) which animals rid themselves of waste
He discovered protists and bacteria. (a) Vacuole, vacuoles products and of the nitrogenous
(b) Cell wall, cell walls by-products of metabolism.
Q.213. What is the jelly-like substance (c) Tissue, tissues
between the nucleus and the cell (d) Cell membrane, cell membranes Q.221. In Golgi apparatus, the maturing
membrane called? face is:
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning) Sol.217.(a) Vacuole, vacuoles. Plant SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift - 1)
(a) plasma (b) cell wall cells - Eukaryotic cells that vary in (a) spherical (b) convex
(c) plasma membrane (d) cytoplasm several fundamental factors from other (c) bi-concave (d) concave
eukaryotic organisms. It is rectangular
Sol.213.(d) Cytoplasm. It is the main and comparatively larger than the animal Sol.221.(d) Concave. The Golgi cisternae
area for all the activities taking place cell. Tissue - A group of cells with similar are concentrically arranged near the
inside a cell. It is made of water, salts structure and function. It forms a cellular nucleus with distinct convex cis or the
and proteins. Plasma is the fluid that organizational level, intermediate forming face and concave, trans or the
makes up the blood and other bodily between the cells and organ system. maturing face. The Golgi apparatus
fluids. (discovered by Camillo Golgi in 1898) is
Q.218. Which of the following is a located close to the nucleus and can be
Q.214. Which component of the cell complex permanent plant tissue? very large in secretory cells, where it fills
organelles principally performs the SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Afternoon almost the complete cytoplasm.
df
function of packaging materials, to be (a) Lateral meristems (b) collenchyma
delivered either to the intra-cellular (c) Xylem (d) Apical meristems Q.222. What is the outermost layer found
_p
targets or secreted outside the cell? in the cell envelope of the bacterial cell
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning) Sol.218.(c) Xylem - It is a complex called?
na
(a) Chloroplast (b) Mitochondria permanent tissue found in vascular SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(c) Golgi Apparatus (d) Chromosomes plants. It is responsible for conducting (a) Glycocalyx (b) Cell membrane
ap
water, minerals, and nutrients from the (c) Plasma membrane (d) Cytoplasm
Sol.214.(c) Golgi Apparatus roots to the other parts of the plant.
:@
(Golgi complex or Golgi body). Xylem and Phloem are the Complex Sol.222.(a) Glycocalyx. It is a network of
Permanent tissues. polysaccharides attached to the cell wall.
Q.215. What is the major function of a
TG
cell wall? Q.219. At high doses, ________ kills Q.223. There are ____ main types of cell
SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Morning) cancer cells or slows their growth by division.
(a) It works as a storage for material damaging their DNA. Cancer cells whose SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (1st Shift)
on
(b) It provides shape and rigidity to the DNA is damaged beyond repair, stop (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
cell dividing or die. When the damaged cells
Sol.223.(b) 2. Types - Mitosis : The
(c) It is responsible for cell division die, they are broken down and removed
ch
process in which cells use to make exact
(d) It helps in synthesis of carbohydrate by the body.
replicas of themselves. Mitosis is
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
ar
Sol.215.(b) The cell wall in plants is observed in almost all the body’s cells,
(a) Chemotherapy (b) Radiation therapy
composed mainly of cellulose and including eyes, skin, hair, and muscle
Se
(c) Surgery (d) Physiotherapy
contains three layers in many plants. The cells. Meiosis : In this type of cell
three layers are the middle lamella, Sol.219.(b) Radiation therapy. The X-ray division, sperm or egg cells are produced
primary cell wall, and secondary cell wall. generating methodology is applied to instead of identical daughter cells as in
It is only found in Plant Cell. cancer therapy. X-rays discovered in mitosis.
1895 by W. C. Roentgen. Types of Q.224. Identify an option that does NOT
Q.216. Which of the following is a radiation therapy: 1. External beam
characteristic of a plant cell? represent prokaryotic cells.
radiation therapy comes from a machine SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon) to deliver radiation. 2. Internal radiation
(a) Small central vacuole (a) Mycoplasma
therapy uses implants or drugs to deliver (b) Blue-green algae
(b) Chloroplasts absent radiation inside the body.
(c) Plastid absent (c) Sperm
(d) Cell wall is present Q.220. ________ is the chemical process (d) Pleuropneumonia-like organism
in which different types of chemical Sol.224.(c) Sperm. Prokaryotic cells - Do
Sol.216.(d) Cell wall is present. Plant reactions are involved in controlling the
cells have a rigid cell wall that surrounds not have a true nucleus and
living state of the cells in an organism. membrane-bound organelles - single -
the cell membrane. This cell wall SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (1st Shift)
provides structural support and celled microorganisms. Examples -
(a) Transportation (b) Respiration Bacteria and Archaea, Mycoplasma
protection for the cell. Animal cells do (c) Excretion (d) Metabolism
not have a cell wall. Animal cells have (Pleuropneumonia-like organism, a
lysosomes which are organelles that Sol.220.(d) Metabolism. The circulatory genus of bacteria), Blue-green algae
contain enzymes that break down system is the “transportation system” for (cyanobacteria).
cellular waste while Plant cells do not the body, and blood serves as the Q.225. A group of ribosomes attached to
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
mRNA is known as __________. i. Gl a. Cell synthesises a type of chromosome, on the basis of the
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift) complete copy of the DNA location of the centromere?
(a) polypeptide (b) polysomes ii. S b. First gap phase, the cell SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon)
(c) polymer (d) monomer grows physically larger (a) Telocentric (b) Acrocentric
(c) Lophocentric (d) Metacentric
Sol.225.(b) Polysomes. They include a iii. G2 c. Cell begins to reorganise
piece of the genetic code that is its contents in preparation Sol.233.(c) Lophocentric. Chromosomes
translated by each ribosome and are for mitosis are bundles of tightly coiled DNA located
employed in the synthesis of numerous within the nucleus of almost every cell in
iv. M d. Cell divides its copied
copies of the same polypeptide. our body. Depending on the position of
DNA and cytoplasm to
Polypeptide - short chains of amino the centromere, chromosomes are
make two new cells
acids linked by peptide bonds. Long categorized into the following types:
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
chains of amino acids are called Metacentric, Telocentric, Acrocentric,
(a) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d (b) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
proteins. Polymer - materials made of Submetacentric.
(c) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (d) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
long, repeating chains of molecules.
Q.234. Which thin flexible barrier
Monomer - A molecule that forms the Sol.229.(a) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d.
separates the internal environment of the
basic unit for polymers. Example - Sugar
Q.230. What is the role of ribosomes of a cell from the extracellular fluid?
is a monomer of polymers like glycogen,
polysome? SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning)
starch, and cellulose.
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (4th Shift) (a) Cytoplasmic membrane
Q.226. An undifferentiated layer, (a) The ribosomes synthesise the fats (b) Restriction barrier
_________is present in between the (b) The ribosomes of a polysome (c) Nuclear envelope
ectoderm and the endoderm. translate the mRNA into proteins. (d) Plasma membrane
df
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (4th Shift) (c) The ribosomes of a polysome
Sol.234.(d) Plasma Membrane consists
_p
(a) Coeliea (b) Acoelomea translate the rRNA into proteins.
of both lipids and proteins and provides
(c) Ectinoglea (d) Mesoglea (d) The ribosomes of a monosome
protection for a cell. Lipids are fatty,
na
translate the rRNA into proteins.
Sol.226.(d) Mesoglea. Coelenterata and wax-like molecules found in the human
Ctenophora show the scattered pouches Sol.230.(b) The ribosomes of a body and other organisms.
ap
in between ectoderm and endoderm. polysome translate the mRNA into Q.235. Which of the following cell
Animals in which the body cavity is proteins. A ribosome is an intracellular
:@
organelles functions both as a
absent are called acoelomates, such as structure made of both RNA and protein, passageway for intracellular transport
Platyhelminthes. and it is the site of protein synthesis in and as a manufacturing surface?
TG
the cell. SSC MTS 08/07/2022 (Evening)
Q.227. What happens to the
decomposition rate when detritus is rich Q.231. Which of the following is a plant (a) Golgi Apparatus
in lignin and chitin ? tissue? (b) Lysosome
on
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (1st Shift) I. Meristematic tissue (c) Mitochondria
(a) It is negligible (b) It is faster II. Permanent tissue (d) Endoplasmic Reticulum
ch
(c) There is no movement (d) It is slower SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
Sol.235.(d) Endoplasmic Reticulum is a
(a) Only II (b) Both I and II
Sol.227.(d) It is slower. Decomposition major site of protein synthesis and
ar
(c) Neither I nor II (d) Only I
is faster if nitrogen and water soluble transport, protein folding, lipid and
Se
substances are present. Sol.231.(b) Meristematic tissues are steroid synthesis, carbohydrate
cells or groups of cells that have the metabolism and calcium storage.
Q.228. Identify the function of plasmid ability to divide. The tissues that are Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) are of two
DNA. completely grown and have lost the types : Smooth ER and Rough ER.
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (3rd Shift) ability to divide are known as Permanent Function of lysosomes (digestion and
(a) None of the given options are correct tissues. Types of Plant Tissue - removal of waste).
(b) To form blood cells Meristematic Tissue ( Apical, Intercalary,
(c) To confer certain unique phenotypic Q.236. In plant cell, ______ are primarily
Lateral) and Permanent Tissue {Simple
characters to bacteria organelles in which materials such as
(Parenchyma, Collenchyma,
(d) To help in the formation of rRNA starch, oils and protein granules are
Sclerenchyma), Complex (Xylem and
stored.
Sol.228.(c) A plasmid is a small, circular, Phloem)}.
SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Evening)
double-stranded DNA molecule that is Q.232. Cells of meristematic tissue lack (a) chromoplasts (b) mitochondria
distinct from a cell's chromosomal DNA. ________. (c) leucoplasts (d) vacuoles
Plasmids naturally exist in bacterial cells, SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift)
and they also occur in some eukaryotes. (a) Cellulose wall (b) Vacuoles Sol.236.(c) Leucoplasts. The basic
Often, the genes carried in plasmids (c) cytoplasm (d) Nuclei function of it is the storage of essential
provide bacteria with genetic compounds such as starch, lipids, and
advantages, such as antibiotic Sol.232.(b) Vacuoles. They are dividing proteins.
resistance. rigorously so they need not store food or
waste products. Q.237. Amoeba acquires its food
Q.229. Match Column-A with Column-B through the process of ______.
Column-A Column-B Q.233. Which of the following is NOT a SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Morning)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
(a) photosynthesis (b) diffusion Q.241. Which cell theory proved that the species detoxification, and signaling.
(c) endocytosis (d) exocytosis quasi-fluid nature of lipids enables lateral
movement of proteins within the overall Q.245. In animal cells, which membrane
Sol.237.(c) Endocytosis is a general term bilayer? -bound cell organelles are generally
describing a process by which cells SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Afternoon) smaller and help to separate waste
absorb external material by engulfing it (a) Cell theory products?
with the cell membrane. Exocytosis is (b) Fluid mosaic model SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 ( Morning)
the process by which cells move (c) Model of Golgi bodies (a) Plastids (b) Cytosols
materials from within the cell into the (d) Vacuole theory (c) Golgi apparatus (d) Vacuoles
extracellular fluid. Diffusion is the
Sol.241.(b) Fluid mosaic model Sol.245.(d) Vacuole. Cytosol is known as
movement of molecules from an area of
describes the cell membrane as a the matrix of the cytoplasm.
high concentration of the molecules to
an area with a lower concentration. tapestry of several types of molecules Q.246. Identify the component found
(phospholipids, cholesterols, and only in a eukaryotic cell.
Q.238. What are the projections of proteins) that are constantly moving. Cell SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 ( Afternoon)
varying lengths protruding out of an theory states that the cell is the basic (a) Ribosomes
amoeba’s body, which can appear and functional and structural unit of all living (b) Plasma membrane
disappear, known as? organisms. (c) Nuclear membrane
SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Evening)
Q.242. Under the electron microscope, (d) Cytoplasm
(a) Contractile vacuole (b) Paramecium
(c) Pseudo vacuole (d) Pseudopodia which cell organelle is visible as either Sol.246.(c) Nuclear membrane.
clusters or single, small dots that float Ribosomes can be found in both
Sol.238.(d) Pseudopodia are called the freely in the cytoplasm?
df
prokaryote (bacteria) and eukaryote
false feet as they are actually extensions SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Afternoon) (animals and plants) cells.
_p
of the cytoplasm or the thick liquid that is (a) Golgi apparatus (b) Ribosomes
inside organisms like an Amoeba. The (c) Vesicles (d) Peroxisomes Q.247. Which is the major microtubule -
na
function of the contractile vacuole is to organising centre (MTOC) in eukaryotic
pump water out of the cell through a Sol.242.(b) Ribosome. cells involved in various cellular
It is an intracellular structure made of
ap
process called osmoregulation, the processes, including sensory reception,
regulation of osmotic pressure. both RNA and protein, and it is the site of locomotion, and embryogenesis?
protein synthesis in the cell. Vesicles can
:@
Paramecium is a genus of unicellular SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Morning)
ciliated protozoa, commonly studied as a be used to move molecules, secrete (a) Lysosomes (b) Centrosome
representative of the ciliate group. substances, digest materials, or regulate (c) Plastids (d) Vacuoles
the pressure in the cell.
TG
Q.239. ______ is known as the energy Sol.247.(b) Centrosome is a cellular
currency of the cell. Q.243. Identify the cell that is amoeboid structure involved in the process of cell
SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Evening) in shape. division.
on
(a) DNA (b) ADP (c) ATP (d) RNA SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Evening)
(a) Nerve cell Q.248. Which of the following is an
Sol.239.(c) ATP example of active transport?
ch
(b) Columnar epithelial cell
(Adenosine triphosphate) is the source (c) Red blood cell SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Evening)
of energy for use and storage at the (a) Iron assimilation
ar
(d) White blood cell
cellular level and has three phosphates. (b) Salt elimination
Se
ADP is adenosine diphosphate and Sol.243.(d) White Blood Cell. It is also (c) Glucose transport
contains only two phosphate groups. known as leukocytes, are responsible for (d) Sodium and potassium pumps
DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, is the protecting your body from infection. The
basic unit of communication in the Sol.248.(d) Sodium-potassium pump
hereditary material in humans and
nervous system is the nerve cell present on the cell membrane, which
almost all other organisms. Ribonucleic
(neuron). Columnar epithelial cells are transports 3 sodium ions outside and 2
acid (RNA) is a nucleic acid present in
elongated and column-shaped and have potassium ions inside of the cell per ATP.
all living cells.
a height of at least four times their width. Active transport (uphill transport)
Q.240. Which of the following are transports substances against the
situated in the nucleus of a cell? Q.244. In cell biology, what is a large concentration gradient from lower to
SSC MTS 22/07/2022 (Morning) double-membraned organelle that is higher concentration. Passive transport
(a) Chromosome and genes sometimes referred to as the ‘central (Glucose transporters) are a wide group
(b) Cytoplasm and chromosome unit’ of the cell because it contains the of membrane proteins that facilitate the
(c) Nucleolus and cytoplasm chromosomes that bear genetic transport of glucose across the plasma
(d) Protoplasm and chromosome material? membrane.
SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 ( Evening)
Sol.240.(a) Chromosomes and genes. (a) Peroxisome (b) Nucleus Q.249. Choose the correct sequence for
Each cell in the human body has 23 pairs (c) Mitochondrion (d) Lysosome central dogma.
of chromosomes (46 total SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Afternoon)
chromosomes). Two of them are the X Sol.244.(b) Nucleus. Peroxisomes are (a) Protein translation, DNA Replication,
and the Y chromosome, determine sex organelles that sequester diverse m-RNA transcription
as male or female when you are born. oxidative reactions and play important (b) DNA Replication, m-RNA
roles in metabolism, reactive oxygen transcription, Protein translation
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
(c) m-RNA transcription, Protein humour. Pupil - It is an aperture of Q.258. Which of the following body parts
translation, DNA Replication variable size in the centre of the iris, behaves like a stretched rubber sheet?
(d) m-RNA transcription, DNA which regulates the amount of light SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Evening)
Replication, Protein translation entering the eyeball. Retina - It is a (a) Tongue (b) Eye lens
transparent layer forming the inner coat (c) Nostril (d) Eardrum
Sol.249.(b) The 'Central Dogma' is the of the eye, it supports the choroid layer.
process by which the instructions in DNA Sol.258.(d) Eardrum. The tympanic
are converted into a functional product. It Q.254. Identify the structure that controls membrane (eardrum) which is a thin
was first proposed in 1958 by Francis the size of the pupil. layer of tissue in the human ear that
Crick, discoverer of the structure of DNA. SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) receives sound vibrations from the outer
The central dogma of molecular biology: (a) Vitreous humour (b) Iris air and transmits them to the auditory
DNA → RNA → protein. (c) Ciliary muscles (d) Cornea ossicles, which are tiny bones in the
tympanic (middle-ear) cavity.
Q.250. Which biological stain is used in Sol.254.(b) Iris. Parts of the human eye:
histology and cytology to colour all cell Iris is the coloured membrane behind the
nuclei red? cornea and in the point of the lens with
Circulatory System
SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Evening) an aperture of variable size called pupil.
Q.259. How many chambers are there in
(a) Methyl orange (b) Safranin Cornea - The rays of light enter this layer.
the heart of fishes ?
(c) Phenolphthalein (d) Cresol red Cornea accounts for two-thirds of the
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
total optical power of the eye. Vitreous
Sol.250.(b) Safranin. It is mostly utilized (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 3
humour - This is a gel-like substance
for the identification of cartilage, mucin, which maintains the shape of the eyeball. Sol.259.(b) 2. Fish have a single circuit
and mast cell granules. Cresol red is a It is also a refractive media.
df
for blood flow and a two-chambered
triarylmethane dye, used as an acid-base
heart that has only a single atrium and a
indicator, or pH indicator. Q.255. Which type of muscles do the
_p
single ventricle. The atrium collects
uterus, iris of the eye, and bronchi
Q.251. Match column A with column B. blood that has returned from the body,
contain?
na
Column - A Column - B while the ventricle pumps the blood to
Matriculation Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 1)
i. Peptidoglycan a. Cell wall of plants the gills where gas exchange occurs and
(a) Smooth muscles (b) Striated muscles
ap
ii. Pectin b. Bacterial cell wall the blood is re-oxygenated; this is called
(c) Skeletal muscles (d) Cardiac muscles
iii. Chitin c. Cell wall of fruits gill circulation. Amphibians and most
:@
iv. Cellulose d. Insect cell wall Sol.255.(a) Smooth muscles (involuntary reptiles have three-chambered hearts,
muscles) are found in various organs with the exception of crocodiles, which
SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Evening)
and tissues that require automatic have four-chambered hearts.
(a) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (b) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
TG
contraction and relaxation. The uterus,
(c) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a (d) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d Q.260. ______ are the vessels which carry
iris of the eye, and bronchi all contain
blood away from the heart to various
Sol.251.(c) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a. smooth muscles. Characteristics of
on
organs of the body.
smooth muscles : Involuntary (not under
SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Morning)
Sensory Organs conscious control), Non-striated (no
(a) Veins (b) Tracheas
ch
visible striations), Found in internal
(c) Arteries (d) Plasma
organs (hollow organs). Cardiac
Q.252. What is the main sense organ
ar
muscles: Found exclusively in the heart, Sol.260.(c) Arteries - They carry
that virtual reality displays are aiming for
these muscles pump blood. oxygenated blood, which is rich in
SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (1st shift)
Se
(a) Taste (b) Smell (c) Vision (d) Touch nutrients and oxygen. The tracheas are
Q.256. Clove is an__________ indicator.
the tubes that carry air from the throat to
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (4th Shift)
Sol.252.(c) Vision. Virtual reality (VR) the lungs. They are made of cartilage
(a) Chemical (b) Olfactory
aiming to create an immersive visual and have smooth muscles in their walls.
(c) Universal (d) Gustatory
experience that simulates a virtual
environment. While some VR systems Q.261. _____ are the vessels which carry
Sol.256.(b) Olfactory. Vanilla, clove and
may also incorporate audio and haptic carbon dioxide - rich blood back to the
onion are examples of olfactory
feedback to engage the senses of heart.
indicators. Clove - Scientific name -
hearing and touch, the main focus is on SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Evening)
Syzygium aromaticum. Medicinal
visual stimulation. (a) veins (b) neurons
Properties - Antioxidant, Antimicrobial,
(c) capillaries (d) arteries
Antinociceptive, Antiviral, etc.
Q.253. What is the shape of the eyeball ?
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) Sol.261.(a) Veins - They carry
Q.257. What do you call the transparent
(a) Oval (b) Spherical deoxygenated blood (except pulmonary
front part of the eye?
(c) Cylindrical (d) Circular veins). Biggest vein - Vena Cava. Neurons
SSC MTS 11/10/2021(Morning)
: Fundamental unit of the nervous system
(a) Cornea (b) Retina (c) Pupil (d) Iris
Sol.253.(b) Spherical. Parts of the specialized to transmit information to
human eye: Vitreous humour - This is a Sol.257.(a) Cornea. It covers the pupil different parts of the body. Capillaries :
gel-like substance which maintains the (the opening at the centre of the eye), iris They take waste products away from
shape of the eyeball. It is also a refractive (the coloured part of the eye), and the tissues.
media. Anterior chamber - It contains the anterior chamber of the eye (the
Q.262. The blood platelets are also
iris and a fluid called the aqueous fluid-filled inside of the eye).
known as .
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Morning) Q.267. Which of the following is a large parts – the glomerulus and the renal
(a) thrombin (b) thrombocytes bean - shaped lymphoid organ in the tubule. Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries
(c) erythrocytes (d) leucocytes human body ? formed by the afferent arteriole – a fine
SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Evening) branch of renal artery. Blood from the
Sol.262.(b) Thrombocytes. They are cell (a) Thymus (b) Spleen glomerulus is carried away by an efferent
fragments found in blood and spleen (c) Lymph node (d) Tonsil arteriole. The renal tubule begins with a
produced from megakaryocytes (special double walled cup-like structure called
cells in the bone marrow). It helps to Sol.267.(b) Spleen stores erythrocytes, Bowman’s capsule, which encloses the
form blood clots, prevent bleeding and lymphocytes, and phagocytes. It filters glomerulus.
wounds healing. Blood normally contains the bloodstream by trapping blood-borne
150,000 to 450,000 platelets per pathogens in its cells. Q.271. Identify a muscle responsible for
microliter of blood. Thrombin - An the exit of waste material from the body.
enzyme that helps in regulating Q.268. Which of the following SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
hemostasis and maintaining blood statements about blood pressure is (a) Rectus (b) Pectoralis
coagulation. correct? (c) Sphincter (d) Gastrocnemius
SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Evening)
Q.263. Muscles are of three types. Which (a) The normal systolic pressure is about Sol.271.(c) Sphincter. A muscular
of the following is NOT one of them ? 80 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is sphincter (gastro-oesophageal) regulates
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift) 120 mm of Hg. the opening of oesophagus into the
(a) Sesamoids (b) Smooth (b) The normal systolic pressure is about stomach. The small intestine is
(c) Cardiac (d) Skeletal 72 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is distinguishable into three regions, a ‘C’
35 mm of Hg. shaped duodenum, a long coiled middle
Sol.263.(a) Sesamoids. Muscles are (c) The normal systolic pressure is about portion jejunum and a highly coiled
df
tissues that can contract, and therefore 160 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure ileum. The opening of the stomach into
they help in the movement of the other
_p
is 80 mm of Hg. the duodenum is guarded by the pyloric
body parts. There are about 600 muscles (d) The normal systolic pressure is about sphincter.
in the human body. The three main types
na
120 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure
of muscle include skeletal (bones), is 80 mm of Hg. Q.272. Which is a specialised excretory
smooth (organs) and cardiac (heart). cell found in Platyhelminthes that acts
ap
Sol.268.(d) The maximum pressure at like a kidney, removing waste material
Q.264. What is the pH of human blood ? which the blood leaves the heart through through filtration?
:@
SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift) the main artery (Aorta) during ventricular SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023)
(a) 6.5 (b) 5.8 (c) 10 (d) 7.4 contraction is called systolic pressure. (a) Fat cell (b) Flame cell
The minimum pressure in the arteries (c) Stem cell (d) Sponge cell
TG
Sol.264.(d) 7.4. pH (Potential of
Hydrogen) is really a measure of the during ventricular relaxation of the heart
is called the diastolic pressure. Sol.272.(b) Flame cell. Phylum
relative amount of free hydrogen and Platyhelminthes - It belongs to the
on
hydroxyl ions in the water. Q.269. Swollen bluish veins resulting kingdom Animalia. The organisms are
Q.265. Which of the following is from the valves that do not close also known as flatworms. They are
ch
essential to form haemoglobin in blood? properly are called ______. triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical,
SSC CGL Tier II (03/03/2023) SSC CHSL 12/08/2021 (Evening) dorsoventra, acoelomate flatworms with
ar
(a) Fats (b) Iron (c) Calcium (d) Protein (a) systemic veins (b) varicose veins organ grade of construction without a
(c) deep veins (d) superficial veins definite anus, circulatory, skeletal or
Se
Sol.265.(b) Iron. Haemoglobin (Hb) : It is respiratory system but with
a protein in red blood cells that binds to Sol.269.(b) Varicose veins. These are Protonephridial excretory system and
oxygen, enabling its transport throughout abnormally dilated, tortuous superficial mesenchyme filling the space between
the body, crucial for oxygen delivery to veins caused by incompetent venous the various organs of the body.
tissues and organs. In its iron-bound valves. They almost always affect the
state, haemoglobin gives blood its red legs and feet. Q.273. Which of the following chemicals
colour. is responsible for the yellow colour in
Excretory System urine? SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Morning)
Q.266. Lymph is a light clear fluid made (a) Bilirubin (b) Urobilin
up of white blood cells that attack Q.270. Filtration of waste products in (c) Albumin (d) Creatinine
harmful ______ in the blood. humans happens in the kidneys. There is
SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Evening) Sol.273.(b) Urobilin or urochrome. It is
a large number of filtration units present
(a) protozoa (b) fungi generated from the degradation of heme.
inside the kidneys to help them in doing
(c) viruses (d) bacteria Heme is a precursor of hemoglobin.
this job. These filtration units are called:
Albumin is a protein made by the liver.
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
Sol.266.(d) Bacteria. The corpuscles Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that is made
(a) Bowman’s capsules (b) nephrons
found in the lymph are called during the normal breakdown of red
(c) capillaries (d) alveoli
lymphocytes. Diseases caused by blood cells. Creatinine is a waste product
Bacteria : Diphtheria, pneumonia, cholera, Sol.270.(b) nephrons. Each kidney has that comes from the normal wear and
tetanus, tuberculosis, plague, and nearly one million complex tubular tears on the muscles of the body.
gonorrhea. Fungi : Ringworm and structures called nephrons, which are the
athlete's foot. functional units. Each nephron has two
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
Endocrine/Exocrine system of body temperature, food intake, fluid glucose is partially oxidized to pyruvate,
intake, control of the autonomic nervous which further converts into lactic acids in
Q.274. Which gland gets enlarged in the system, control of stress, emotional muscles.
goitre due to which there is a swelling in expression and aggression, sleep and
waking, sexual arousal and memory. Q.283. Which of the following is correct
the front part of the throat? regarding the respiration?
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Q.279. ______ glands release tears from I. Regular traditional breathing exercise
(a) Adrenal gland (b) Thyroid gland our eyes. (pranayama) can increase the capacity of
(c) Pineal gland (d) Pituitary gland SSC CHSL 11/08/2021 (Evening) lungs to take in more air.
Sol.274.(b) Thyroid Gland. It is located (a) Thyroid (b) Adrenal II. During inhalation, ribs move up and
on either side of the trachea, inferior to (c) Pituitary (d) Lacrimal outwards and diaphragm moves down.
the larynx. Hormone released - SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
Sol.279.(d) The lacrimal gland produces (a) Both I and II (b) Only II
Thyroxine. Other Gland in body : Pineal tears which are secreted by the lacrimal
Gland - Located on the dorsal side of the (c) Neither I nor II (d) Only I
ducts, and flow over the ocular surface,
forebrain and it releases melatonin and then into canals that connect to the Sol.283.(a) Both I and II. The lungs and
hormone. Adrenal gland - Located at the lacrimal sac. From that sac, the tears respiratory system allows us to
anterior of each kidney. Hormone drain through the lacrimal duct into the breathe.They bring oxygen into our
released - Adrenaline and nose. bodies (called inspiration, or inhalation)
Norepinephrine. and send carbon dioxide out (called
Q.280. What is a leaf-shaped flap of expiration, or exhalation). This exchange
Q.275. Which of the following is the cartilage located behind the tongue, at
largest gland in the human body? of oxygen and carbon dioxide is called
the top of the larynx or voice box called? respiration.
df
SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Morning) SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Evening)
(a) Pancreas (b) Pineal (a) Gallbladder (b) Ileum Q.284. What is the percentage of carbon
_p
(c) Liver (d) Hypothalamus (c) Jejunum (d) Epiglottis dioxide in the air exhaled by human lungs ?
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
na
Sol.275.(c) Liver. It is located in the Sol.280.(d) Epiglottis. Its main function
upper right portion of the abdomen and (a) 3.2 % (b) 5.9 % (c) 2.3 % (d) 4.4 %
is to seal off the windpipe during eating,
ap
is the only organ that has the ability to so that food is not accidentally inhaled. Sol.284.(d) 4.4%. Composition of
regenerate efficiently. Pancreas is a The larynx is a cartilaginous skeleton, exhaled air : nitrogen (78%) oxygen (17%)
:@
composite gland which acts as both some ligaments, and muscles that move carbon dioxide (4%) other gases (1%).
exocrine and endocrine gland. and stabilize it . Inhaled air is by volume: 78% nitrogen,
Q.276. Proboscis gland for excretion is 20.95% oxygen and small amounts of
TG
present in the phylum: Respiratory system other gases including argon, carbon
SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Evening) dioxide, neon, helium, and hydrogen.
(a) Arthropoda (b) Porifera Q.281. In boys, the growing 'larynx' is
on
Q.285. What is the network of air tubes
(c) Mollusca (d) Hemichordata visible as a distinct bulge at the front of
for gas exchange in insects ?
the throat called _______.
SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Evening)
ch
Sol.276.(d) Hemichordata. Examples - SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening)
Balanoglossus, Saccoglossus, (a) Gills (b) Diaphragm
(a) Adrenaline
(c) Tracheae (d) Spiracles
ar
Protoglossus, Ptychodera. (b) Kanthamani (Adam's apple)
(c) Corn Sol.285.(c) Tracheae. Gills are
Se
Q.277. Which gland produces Cortisol
(d) Gullet evaginated respiratory surfaces used for
often known as a 'stress hormone' in
humans ? breathing in water. The diaphragm,
Sol.281.(b) Kanthamani (Adam's apple).
SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Evening) located below the lungs, is the major
Gullet (esophagus) - it is part of the
(a) Thyroid gland (b) Pituitary gland muscle of respiration. Spiracles are the
digestive system, which is sometimes
(c) Adrenal gland (d) Pineal gland small opening on the lateral side of the
called the gastro-intestinal tract (GI
body through which air enters the
tract). The esophagus is a muscular
Sol.277.(c) Adrenal gland. The thyroid tracheal system.
tube. It connects the mouth to the
gland uses iodine from food to make two
stomach.
thyroid hormones: triiodothyronine (T3) Digestive system
and thyroxine (T4). Q.282. Breakdown of pyruvate into lactic
acid and energy in lack of Oxygen takes Q.286. To get relief from constipation,
Q.278. Which of the following parts of which of the following is prescribed to be
place in Which of the following ?
the body/glands maintains the body eaten in large amounts?
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
temperature? SSC MTS 09/10/2024 (1st Shift)
(a) Bacteria (b) Mitochondria
SSC CHSL 05/08/2021 (Morning) (a) Protein (b) Meat (c) Fish (d) Fibre
(c) Yeast (d) Human muscle cells
(a) Pituitary (b) Adrenal
(c) Thyroid (d) Hypothalamus Sol.282.(d) Human muscle cells. Sol.286.(d) Fibre is essential for
Anaerobic respiration - It is the partial maintaining healthy digestion. It adds
Sol.278.(d) Hypothalamus. It is located
breakdown of glucose into acid or bulk to the stool and helps it pass more
in the ventral brain above the pituitary
alcohol along with carbon dioxide in the easily through the intestines, thus
gland and below the third ventricle.
absence of oxygen. Anaerobic respiration providing relief from constipation. Foods
control of the pituitary gland, regulation
in muscles - In this anaerobic process, high in fibre include fruits, vegetables,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
whole grains, and legumes. Q.290. Identify the function of lipase in that the ruminant eats.
the process of digestion.
Q.287. Digestion of food is an important SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (1st shift) Q.294. Which of the following animals
function of the animal body. In animals (a) Breaking down roughage have a single opening in their digestive
like lions, cows, humans, etc., the (b) Breaking down emulsified fats system that serves both as a mouth and
process involves use of various organs (c) Secreting intestinal fluids an anus?
starting from the mouth and ending with (d) Digesting proteins SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (Shift - 4)
the anus. The longest part of this canal is (a) Arachnids (b) Echinoderms
known as the ________. Sol.290.(b) Lipase is the enzyme that (c) Platyhelminthes (d) Arthropods
SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (3rd Shift) breaks down the lipids present in the
(a) stomach (b) large intestine form of emulsified fat and converts them Sol.294.(c) Platyhelminthes. These are
(c) oesophagus (d) small intestine into fatty acids and glycerol. Digestion of also known as flatworms belonging to
protein is done by several enzymes such Animalia Kingdom and they include many
Sol.287.(d) Small intestine. as Pepsin, Trypsin, Chymotrypsin. free-living and parasitic life forms. The
It is a 20-foot tube in the digestive term arachnid refers to a class of
system, breaks down food and absorbs Q.291. Liver gland secretes that animals that includes spiders, scorpions,
nutrients. It has three parts: the are stored in a sac called the gallbladder. mites, and ticks.
duodenum, jejunum, and ileum, and helps SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Evening)
digest food from the stomach while (a) estrogen (b) hydrochloric acid Q.295. Which food requires a longer
absorbing vitamins, minerals, carbs, fats, (c) mucous (d) bile juice small intestine to digest food?
proteins, and water. The large intestine, SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
about 5 feet long, is wider but shorter Sol.291.(d) Bile juice - It is important for (a) Lamb (b) Eggs (c) Grass (d) Chicken
than the small intestine. The oesophagus the total digestion of different types of
df
Sol.295.(c) Grass has cellulose (takes a
in adults is typically 10 - 13 inches long fats (fats in food to fatty acids). It also
long time to digest) so it requires longer
_p
and about ¾ inch in diameter at its helps in digesting carbohydrates and
intestines in organisms to digest. Meat
narrowest point. proteins to some extent. Estrogen - The
(lamb, chicken, etc) is easy to digest so it
na
female reproductive hormone secreted
Q.288. Which of the following is a requires a short intestine (in organisms)
by the membranous granulosa of the
medium-sized globular protein that acts to digest. The function of the long
ap
Graafian follicle. Mucus - A protective
as a pancreatic serine protease found in intestine: absorbing water and
substance that is secreted from multiple
the digestive system of many vertebrates electrolytes, producing and absorbing
areas in the body such as the mouth,
:@
SSC CHSL 08/07/2024 (3rd shift) vitamins, and forming and propelling
sinuses, throat, lungs, and stomach.
(a) Trypsin (b) Amylase feces toward the rectum for elimination.
Produced by the goblet cell of the
(c) Lipase (d) Pepsin
TG
gastrointestinal tract. Q.296. Which of the following is NOT a
Sol.288.(a) Trypsin. Globular proteins function of calcium in our body?
Q.292. In humans, the digestion of
are a common type of protein that are SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening)
carbohydrates like starch, begins in
on
spherical or globe-shaped and are (a) It plays an important role in blood
which of the following parts?
somewhat soluble in water. They are also clotting.
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(b) It helps the digestive system.
ch
known as spheroproteins. Amylase: An (a) Rectum (b) Small Intestine
enzyme found in saliva that breaks down (c) It is associated with healthy bones
(c) Oesophagus (d) Buccal cavity
and teeth
ar
starches into maltose. Lipase: An
enzyme that breaks down fats, secreted Sol.292.(d) Buccal cavity. Organs in the (d) It helps muscles to contract.
Se
by the pancreas and, in smaller amounts, digestive system - mouth, pharynx
Sol.296.(b) Examples of digestive
by gastric glands. Pepsin: An enzyme in (throat), oesophagus, stomach, small
enzymes include amylase, gelatinase,
the stomach that converts proteins into intestine, large intestine, rectum, and
lactase, lipase, maltase, peptidase, and
proteoses and peptones. anus. Rectum is the terminal part of the
protease.
intestine from the sigmoid colon to the
Q.289. Which glands help in digestion in anus. Small intestine is the longest part Q.297. Which of the following is able to
the stomach ? of the digestive system. Oesophagus is a regenerate our digestive system with
Higher Secondary 21/06/2024 (Shift - 2) muscular tube, which connects the good microbes that will neutralize the
(a) Gastric glands (b) Pituitary mouth to the stomach. harmful ones?
(c) Thyroid (d) Pineal Higher Secondary 05/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
Q.293. In ruminants like cattle, bacteria
present in ______helps in digestion of (a) Antibiotics (b) Prosthetics
Sol.289.(a) Gastric glands
cellulose. (c) Probiotics (d) Prosynthetics
in the stomach lining secrete digestive
juices, including hydrochloric acid (HCl) SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (4th Shift) Sol.297.(c) Probiotics. Yogurt is one of
and pepsinogen, which help break down (a) rumen (b) oesophagus the best sources of probiotics.
proteins and activate digestive enzymes. (c) small intestine (d) large intestine Antibiotics are medicines that fight
Pituitary gland : Regulates hormone bacterial infections in people and
Sol.293.(a) Rumen is the first chamber
secretion, growth, and development. animals. Prosthesis or a prosthetic
of the stomach of ruminants like cattle. It
Thyroid gland : Regulates metabolism, implant, is an artificial device that
is a large, muscular sac that is filled with
growth, and development. Pineal gland : replaces a missing body part, which may
bacteria, protozoa, and other
Regulates sleep-wake cycles and be lost through trauma, disease, or a
microorganisms. These microorganisms
melatonin production. condition present at birth.
help to digest the cellulose in the food
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
Q.298. Where are villi present in the Q.302. Which of the following is the SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
human alimentary canal? indigestible portion of our diet essential (a) Medulla (b) Cerebrum
SSC MTS 07/07/2022 (Morning) to the health of the digestive system? (c) Pons (d) Cerebellum
(a) Pancreas (b) Oesophagus SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Morning)
(c) Stomach (d) Small intestine (a) Fats (b) Roughage Sol.305.(d) Cerebellum (also called the
(c) Carbohydrates (d) Proteins little brain). It controls balance for
Sol.298.(d) Small intestine - It receives walking and standing, and other complex
secretions from the liver and the Sol.302.(b) Roughage. It includes all motor functions. Cerebrum (largest part
pancreas. Villi are small finger-like plant products like grains, nuts, legumes, of the brain, initiates and coordinates
projections found inside the inner walls fruits, etc. They are indigestible but act movement and regulates temperature).
of the small intestine. They increase the as a source of food for the beneficial Medulla (lowest part of the brain, It deals
surface area for absorption of nutrients bacteria present in our gut. Consumption with the autonomic functions of
from the food. of roughage maintains body weight and breathing, heart rate, blood pressure, and
also reduces risk factors of heart sleep - wake cycle).
Q.299. In human beings, the small disease.
intestine is coiled and is about ______ Q.306. The sensation of feeling full is
metres long. because of a centre associated with
SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Morning)
Nervous system hunger, which is in a separate part of the
(a) 1 to 1.5 (b) 3 to 3.5 ______ .
Q.303. How do the muscle cells help in
(c) 2 to 2.5 (d) 7 to 7.5 SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
movement ?
(a) Pituitary gland (b) Midbrain
Sol.299.(d) 7 to 7.5 (about 22 feet). The SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(c) Forebrain (d) Hindbrain
small intestine has three parts. The first (a) The thickness of the cell layer helps in
df
part is called the duodenum. The jejunum movement. Sol.306.(c) Forebrain. The brain is the
is in the middle and the ileum is at the (b) The lining of the vessels inside help in central information processing organ of
_p
end. The large intestine includes the movement. our body. The brain can be divided into
appendix, cecum, colon, and rectum. The (c) The blood flow of the cells helps in three major parts : Forebrain consists of
na
large intestine is about five feet (or 1.5 movement. Hypothalamus (regulation of sexual
metres) long. (d) The contraction and relaxation of behaviour, expression of emotional
ap
these cells result in movement. reactions), Cerebrum (controls memory,
Q.300. Which type of carbohydrate will power, knowledge etc), Thalamus
:@
CANNOT be broken down by the GI tract, Sol.303.(d) Muscle cells are specialized
(controls pain, cold and Heat). Midbrain
does not provide energy, but helps the cells that can contract and relax. This
consists of Tectum (vision and auditory
body get rid of wastes and keeps the ability is crucial for movement in the
reflexes) and Hindbrain consists of
TG
intestinal tract healthy? body. When muscle cells contract, they
Medulla oblongata (respiration,
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Morning) shorten, which pulls on the bones or
cardiovascular reflexes and gastric
(a) Fibre (b) Starch (c) Sugar (d) Glycogen other structures they are attached to,
secretions), Pons (tract between brain
on
causing movement. When they relax, they
Sol.300.(a) Fibre. It is a type of and spinal cord) and Cerebellum
lengthen and return to their original state.
carbohydrate that the body can't digest. (coordination of Movement, Posture etc).
This cycle of contraction and relaxation
ch
Glycogen is the storage form of is what allows for various movements, Q.307. Our brain mainly depends on
carbohydrates in mammals. Simple
ar
such as walking, lifting objects, or even which of the following foods?
Sugars, also called monosaccharides, the beating of the heart. Higher Secondary 02/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
Se
include glucose, fructose, and galactose. (a) Fat and proteins
Q.304. Identify the type of cell that is
Q.301. ______, a fluid secreted by new (b) Glucose and amino acids
long and branched.
mothers during the initial days of (c) Only fat
Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
lactation, contains nutrients that boost a (d) Only glucose
(a) Nerve cell
baby's immune system and helps fight (b) Columnar epithelial cell Sol.307.(d) Only glucose.
infection. (c) White blood cell Glucose is a type of sugar which comes
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Evening) (d) Red blood cell predominantly from starchy foods
(a) Sebum (b) Synovia (bread, rice, pasta and potatoes) as well
(c) Colostrum (d) Cerumen Sol.304.(a) Nerve cell.
as fruits, juices, honey, jams and table
The neural system of all animals is
Sol.301.(c) Colostrum is the first form of sugar. The body tightly regulates blood
composed of highly specialized cells
breastmilk that is released by the glucose levels; this is known as glucose
called - neurons which can detect,
mammary glands after giving birth. homeostasis.
receive and transmit different kinds of
Sebum is an oily, waxy substance stimuli. This system is divided into two Q.308. In which part of the human body
produced by your body's sebaceous parts - the Central Nervous System (CNS) will you find the 'superior rectus' ?
glands. Synovia is a lubricating fluid and the Peripheral Nervous System SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Afternoon)
resembling the white of an egg, secreted (PNS). The CNS consists of the brain and (a) Ear (b) Eye (c) Nose (d) Tongue
by certain membranes, as those of the spinal cord. The PNS consists mainly of
joints. Cerumen (Earwax), is a brown, nerves. Sol.308.(b) Eye. The superior rectus is a
orange, red, yellowish or grey waxy muscle in the eye that helps to elevate
substance secreted in the ear canal of Q.305. Which part of the human brain is the eye. This muscle is among four
humans and other mammals. responsible for walking in a straight line? muscles - including the medial rectus,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
lateral rectus, and inferior rectus, which It provides lubrication, reduces friction Plant kingdom
control the eye’s movement. between bones and makes the joint
movements smooth. Examples of such Q.318. Match the columns.
Q.309. Which one of the following is a joints are ball and socket joint, pivot joint,
degenerative disorder of the brain and Column A Column B
gliding joint, hinge joint, and saddle joint. (Plant Group) (Example)
one of several conditions that cause
i. Bryophyta a. Rose
dementia, a progressive decline of Q.313. In which of the following parts of
ii. Pteridophyta b. Pine
mental functions resulting in memory the human body is the masseter muscle iii. Gymnosperms c. Mosses
loss and confusion ? located ? iv. Angiosperms d. Selaginella
SSC CHSL 04/07/2019 (Evening) SSC MTS 13/10/2021(Afternoon) SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (3rd Shift)
(a) Schizophrenia (b) Alzheimer's Disease (a) Hand (b) Thigh (c) Jaw (d) Chest (a) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d (b) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(c) Amnesia (d) Concussion (c) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (d) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
Sol.313.(c) Jaw. The muscle masseter
Sol.309.(b) Alzheimer's Disease. is a facial muscle that plays a major role Sol.318.(b) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that in the chewing of solid foods. The three Bryophytes - liverworts, hornworts.
affects a person's thoughts, emotions, layers of the masseter are the superficial Pteridophytes - Equisetum, Fern, Salvinia.
and behavior. Amnesia can be caused by layer, the intermediate layer, and the deep Gymnosperms - Cycas, Pinus, Ginkgo.
brain injury, stroke, and Alzheimer's layer. Angiosperms - Orchids, Corn, Tomato,
Disease. Concussion is a mild traumatic and Hibiscus.
brain injury that can cause temporary Q.314. The human shoulder joint is an
symptoms such as headache, dizziness, example of a ______ joint. Q.319. Which of the following groups of
and memory loss. SSC MTS 2/11/2021 (Morning) plants are categorised as cryptogams ?
(a) fixed (b) pivotal SSC MTS 05/11/2024 (1st Shift)
df
(c) hinge (d) ball and socket (a) Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
Skeleton system
_p
(b) Pteridophyta and Angiosperms
Sol.314.(d) Ball and socket joint. It is a
Q.310. In humans the neck is joined by (c) Thallophyta and Gymnosperms
synovial joint, which means it allows for
na
the head by which of the following joints? (d) Bryophytes and Thallophyta
smooth movements between bones.
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Sol.319.(d) Bryophytes and Thallophyta.
ap
(a) Ball and socket joint (b) Hinge joint Q.315. The vertebrae are a part of which
Thallophyta - Plants that do not have
(c) Pivotal joint (d) Fixed joint of the following body systems in humans
well-differentiated body design fall in this
:@
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Afternoon)
Sol.310.(c) Pivotal joint. Hinge joints - group. The plants in this group are
(a) Kidney (b) Lungs
Allow movement along one plane, commonly called algae. Bryophytes -
(c) Heart (d) Spinal cord
These are called the amphibians of the
TG
Examples: Ankle, elbows, and knee
joints. Fixed joints - Immovable joints, Sol.315.(d) Spinal cord. The spine is plant kingdom. The plant body is
where bones are not flexible, Examples: composed of 33 vertebrae, divided into commonly differentiated to form stem
Upper jaw, rib cage. five sections: the cervical, thoracic, and and leaf-like structures. Gymnosperms
on
lumbar spine sections and the sacrum and Angiosperms are called
Q.311. Which among the following is a and coccyx bones. ‘phanerogams’.
ch
flat bone?
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (1st Shift) Q.316. How many bones are there in the Q.320. Hubbardia heptaneuron, which
has become endangered, is a species of
ar
(a) Ankle bones (b) Pelvic bones human hand ?
(c) Wrist bones (d) Ribs SSC CHSL 13/04/2021 (Afternoon) which of the following?
Se
(a) 27 (b) 21 (c) 14 (d) 17 SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift)
Sol.311.(d) Ribs are a set of twelve (a) Grass (b) Bamboo (c) Tiger (d) Crane
paired bones which form the protective Sol.316.(a) The human hand has 27
'cage' of the thorax. The ankle joint, also bones : the carpals or wrist contains 8; Sol.320.(a) Grass.
known as the talocrural joint, is a the metacarpals or palm contains five; Hubbardia heptaneuron is nearing
synovial joint that connects the bones of the remaining fourteen are digital bones; extinction due to its environmental
the leg, the fibula and tibia, with the talus fingers and thumb. insensitivity. Other endangered plant
of the foot. Pelvic Bone is a basin shaped species include the Gran Canaria Drago
Q.317. Which of the following is the Tree, Mandragora, Castela senticosa,
complex bone which connects the trunk
largest dental tissue? Musli, and Assam Catkin. The IUCN's
and legs and supports the urinary
SSC CHSL 11/8/2021 (Evening) "Red Data Books" offer the most
bladder. The wrist is formed where the
(a) Dentin (b) Pulp (c) Enamel (d) Root comprehensive global inventory of the
two bones of the forearm, the radius and
the ulna meet the carpus. Other bones of conservation status of plant and animal
Sol.317.(a) Dentin. It is a composite
the hand - metacarpals and phalanges. species.
substance of organic and inorganic
material found in the tooth's interior. Q.321. Taxus wallichiana Zucc
Q.312. ‘The fluid present between joints,
Pulp : This soft tissue forms the tooth's (Himalayan yew) is a medicinal plant
that makes the movement of joints easy,
inner core, containing the blood vessels found in which of the following states?
is called:
and nerves. Enamel : It acts as a SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Evening)
protective barrier for the crown of the (a) Goa (b) Jharkhand
(a) Bursae (b) Synovial
tooth. It is the hardest substance in the (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Bihar
(c) Cartilage (d) Tendon
human body.
Sol.312.(b) Synovial. Sol.321.(c) Himachal Pradesh.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
The Himalayan yew grows in the (a) China rose (b) Tulsi in air pressure between two points in the
high-altitude forests of the Western (c) Maize (d) Coriander atmosphere or on the surface of the
Himalayas, especially in the states of earth.
Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Sol.325.(c) Maize. Reticulate venation :
parts of Jammu & Kashmir. Arrangement of veins in a leaf blade that Q.329. In which of the following plants
resembles a net or web, present on both do roots arise from parts of a plant other
Q.322. What is the reason for the similar sides of the midrib. Examples of plants than the radicle ?
size of the vascular bundle in monocot with reticulate venation include China SSC CHSL 10/07/2024 (4th shift)
leaves ? rose, Tulsi, and Coriander. Parallel (a) Maize (b) Mustard plant
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Venation: Arrangement of veins in a leaf (c) Monstera (d) Turnip
(a) Cubical venation blade that run parallel to each other.
(b) Radial venation Plants with parallel venation include Sol.329.(c) Monstera. Three types of
(c) Rectangular venation Maize, Grass, and Wheat. roots are found in Monstera deliciosa:
(d) Parallel venation aerial roots, aerial roots that have
Q.326. Which of the following is related entered the soil (aerial-subterranean
Sol.322.(d) Parallel venation. The leaves to neem ? roots), and lateral roots that form on
of monocots are long, elongated, and SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (1st Shift) aerial-subterranean roots (lateral -
slender. Parallel venation refers to the (a) Tendril (b) Palmately subterranean roots). The three root types
arrangement of veins in parallel. They (c) Pinnately (d) Spines differed in anatomical development and
grow perpendicularly from the bottom to in growth. It is an example of
the end of the leaflet. Parallel venation is Sol.326.(c) Pinnately. Compound leaves adventitious roots, which grow from
classified into two types. They are are classified into two types: pinnately parts of the plant other than the radicle.
pinnate parallel venation and palmate and palmately compound leaves. In These roots can be aerial or underground
df
parallel venation. pinnately compound leaves, leaflets are and may develop from nodes (money
arranged along a common axis called the
_p
plant, bamboo), stem cuttings (rose),
Q.323. The growth form of a plant, rachis, as seen in neem. In palmately branches (banyan), or the stem base
comprising its size, shape and compound leaves, leaflets attach at a
na
(fibrous roots in monocots).
orientation is known as : common point at the tip of the petiole,
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (3rd Shift) such as in silk cotton. Q.330. Which of the following organisms
ap
(a) habit (b) environment can initiate ecological succession even in
(c) habitat (d) growth pattern Q.327. Which of the following is bare rocks ?
:@
responsible for the red colour of SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift)
Sol.323.(a) habit. The environment is the beetroot? (a) Orchids (b) Aspergillums
sum of all living and non-living things, SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (1st Shift) (c) Lily (d) Lichens
TG
and the forces that affect them, that (a) Curcumin (b) Betanin
surround a person, animal, or plant. A (c) Beta carotene (d) Lycopene Sol.330.(d) Lichens.The species that are
habitat is the natural home of an first to invade a bare area are called
on
organism, such as a plant or animal. It Sol.327.(b) Betanin. The red color in pioneer species. Lichens are able to
provides the organism with food, water, beetroot is due to betacyanin, a secrete acids to dissolve rock, helping in
water-soluble pigment located in the cell
ch
shelter, and space to survive. weathering and soil formation. These
vacuole, not in chloroplasts. Curcumin : A later pave the way to some very small
Q.324. Which marine carotenoid is yellow-orange pigment found in turmeric
ar
plants like bryophytes.
abundant in brown seaweed, macroalgae (Curcuma longa). Beta carotene : A
Se
and diatoms ? yellow-orange pigment converted to Q.331. What is the root-like structure at
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (1st Shift) vitamin A in the body, found in carrots the base of an algae (seaweed) that
(a) Fucoxanthin (b) Astaxanthin and sweet potatoes. Lycopene is the red binds the algae to a hard substrate like a
(c) Neoxanthin (d) β-cryptoxanthin colored pigment abundantly found in red stone?
colored fruits and vegetables such as Higher Secondary 26/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
Sol.324.(a) Fucoxanthin. tomato, papaya, pink grapefruit, pink (a) Holdfast (b) Midrib (c) Stipe (d) Frond
It is an orange-colored pigment, along guava and watermelon.
with chlorophylls a and c and β-carotene, Sol.331.(a) Holdfast. Algae are a diverse
present in Chromophyta, including brown Q.328. The loss of water in the form of group of photosynthetic, eukaryotic
seaweeds (Phaeophyceae) and diatoms water droplets from leaves of plants is organisms, representing a polyphyletic
(Bacillariophyta). Astaxanthin: It is a called _____. grouping that includes species from
reddish pigment that belongs to a group SSC CHSL 02/07/2024 (1st shift) various clades. The midrib, or midvein, is
of chemicals called carotenoids. (a) Translocation (b) Plasmolysis the central, thick vein running from the
Neoxanthin: It is a carotenoid and (c) Pressure gradient (d) Guttation base to the tip of a leaf, providing
xanthophyll pigment found in plants, support and structure. A stipe is the stalk
algae, and microorganisms. Sol.328.(d) Guttation. Translocation is or stem that supports a structure in
β-Cryptoxanthin, a carotenoid found in the movement of materials from leaves plants, algae, or fungi. A frond refers to a
fruits and vegetables such as tangerines, to other tissues throughout the plant. large, divided leaf, typically associated
red peppers, and pumpkin. Plasmolysis is defined as the process of with ferns and some palm trees, but can
contraction or shrinkage of the also denote the leaves of flowering
Q.325. Which of the following is NOT protoplasm of a plant cell and is caused plants like mimosa or sumac.
related to reticulate venation ? due to the loss of water in the cell.
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Pressure gradient refers to the difference Q.332. Flowerless plants, naked seeds,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
needle like leaves and cones as Sol.335.(d) Pteridophyta. Sol.338.(c) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i.
reproductive structure are the It belongs to the vascular plant family.
characteristics of: They reproduce through spores rather Q.339. Select the incorrect statement
Graduate Level 20/06/2024 (Shift - 3) than seeds. Examples - ferns, horsetails about Gymnosperms.
(a) angiosperms (b) pteridophyta and lycophytes. Four classes of SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(c) gymnosperms (d) bryophyta pteridophyta - Psilopsida, Lycopsida, (a) Gymnosperms are found as woody
Sphenopsida, Pteropsida. Cryptogams - shrubs, trees or lianas and include no
Sol.332.(c) gymnosperms. A flowerless and seedless group of true aquatics and few epiphytes.
The gymnosperms (gymnos : naked, plants having hidden sex organs. Three (b) Gymnosperms are seedless flowering
sperma : seeds) are plants in which the main divisions - Thallophyta, Bryophyta plants.
ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and Pteridophyte. They are the first-ever (c) Gymnosperms are typically slow in
and remain exposed, both before and terrestrial plants to possess vascular terms of reproduction; up to a year
after fertilisation. Examples are Cycas, tissues. may pass between pollination and
Pinus and Ginkgo. Angiosperms: The fertilization and seed maturation may
seeds are enclosed in fruits. They are Q.336. Which of the following is a require 3 years.
divided into two classes : the perennial herbaceous plant in the (d) Gymnosperms exhibit cones or
dicotyledons and the monocotyledons. nightshade family Solanaceae that is storbili and naked seeds, but not
Pteridophytes are seedless, and they used in alternative medicine as an aid in flowers.
reproduce through spores. Bryophytes treating arthritis pain, colds or hay fever?
are amphibians of plant kingdom as they SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift) Sol.339.(b) Gymnosperms are
complete their life cycle in both water (a) Arachis hypogaea flowerless, seed - producing plants. They
and on land. These mainly grow in damp, (b) Cynodon dactylon belong to the subkingdom Embophyta.
Examples - Cycas, Pinus, Araucaria,
df
shady places, especially in the hills. (c) Cicer arietinum
(d) Atropa belladonna Thuja, Cedrus, Picea, Abies, Juniperus.
_p
Q.333. The structure that produces and
holds sperm cells in bryophytes (non - Sol.336.(d) Atropa belladonna - It is a Q.340. Sporophyte stage is dominant in
which plant group?
na
vascular plants) and ferns is called : perennial herbaceous plant in the
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) nightshade family Solanaceae. It is SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 1st shift)
(a) Bryophytes (b) Vascular plants
ap
(a) megasporangia (b) antheridium native to Europe, North Africa, and
(c) archegonium (d) protonema Western Asia. Arachis hypogaea is the (c) Algae (d) Pteridophytes
:@
peanut plant. Cynodon dactylon is Sol.340.(b) Vascular plants
Sol.333.(b) Antheridium - A saclike Bermuda grass, a major tropical grass
structure and male sex organ that (Tracheophytes) are land plants
found in all tropical and subtropical containing specialized vascular
produces and stores gametes or sex
TG
areas. Cicer arietinum is the chickpea conducting tissues (xylem and phloem).
cells called sperm. They produce plant.
biflagellate antherozoids. Located on: A Examples - Trees, shrubs, grasses,
thin stalk attached to the gametophyte. Q.337. Which is the only living flowering plants, and ferns.
on
representative of Sphenopsida that has Q.341. Which water-soluble pigment
Q.334. The blue green alga Anabaena an underground, creeping and perennial belonging to a phenolic group is present
ch
lives in the leaves of Azolla, a freshwater rhizome that gives off aerial as well as
fern, forming which of the following in pomegranate, eggplant, black carrots
underground branches? and red cabbage ?
ar
relationships ? SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (4th shift)
SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift) SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift)
(a) Adiantum (b) Dryopteris
Se
(a) Autotrophic (b) Symbiotic (a) Phycoerythrin (b) Phycobilins
(c) Selaginella (d) Equisetum (c) Betalains (d) Anthocyanins
(c) Parasitic (d) Saprophytic
Sol.337.(d) Equisetum - The aerial Sol.341.(d) Anthocyanins. These are
Sol.334.(b) Symbiotic relationships are branches are herbaceous and usually
the close associations formed between blue, red or purple pigments found in
grow to a height of 10-60 cm, but they plants, flowers, fruits, and tubers. It
pairs of species. They come in a variety can attain more height in some species.
of forms, such as parasitism (where one appears as red pigment in acidic
The pteridophytes are classified into conditions and blue pigment in alkaline
species benefits and the other is Psilopsida (Psilotum), Lycopsida
harmed), commensalism (where one conditions. Phenolics - These are
(Selaginella, Lycopodium), Sphenopsida chemical components that occur as
species benefits and the other is neither (Equisetum) and Pteropsida (Dryopteris,
harmed nor helped) and Mutualism natural color pigments responsible for
Pteris, Adiantum). the color of fruits of plants.
(where all species involved benefit from
their interactions). Examples : Q.338. Match column A with column B. Q.342. Plants which are grown under
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria and leguminous Column A Column B shade are known as:
plants such as clover, alfalfa, and (Type of algae) (Proper Name) Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
soybeans. a. Blue-green algae i. Sargassum (a) Monocots (b) Helophytes
b. Red algae ii. Chlamydomonas (c) psammophytes (d) Sciophytes
Q.335. Which of the following are
c. Green algae iii. Rhodophyta
cryptogram ? Sol.342.(d) Sciophytes. Examples : Java
d. Brown algae iv. Cyanobacteria
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (4th shift) Moss, Mountain Fern Moss. Monocots -
(a) Gymnosperm (b) Dicots SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (4th shift)
(a) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (b) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv A group of flowering plants belonging to
(c) Angiosperm (d) Pteridophyta the class Liliopsida or Monocotyledonae.
(c) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (d) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
Examples - Palms, Grasses, Orchids, and mildews and mushrooms. to water.
Lilies. Halophytes - Any perennial marsh
plant that bears its overwintering buds in Q.346. Plants with green and tender Q.351. Which among the following plant
the mud below the surface. Examples - stems are called . kingdoms are divided into dicotyledons
Salicornia europaea, Big Saltbush. SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Afternoon) and monocotyledons ?
Psammophytes - A plant that grows in (a) shrubs (b) trees (c) canopy (d) herbs SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening)
sandy and often unstable soils. (a) Angiosperms (b) Pteridophytes
Sol.346.(d) Herbs. Examples - Cabbage, (c) Bryophytes (d) Gymnosperms
Examples - Agriophyllum squarrosum, Tomato, Mustard, Radish, Sunflower,
Haloxylon ammodendron. Carrot. Trees have their branches in the Sol.351.(a) Angiosperms - Seed-bearing
Q.343. Which is a multicellular upper part of the stem, much above the vascular plants with a well-differentiated
filamentous green alga consisting of thin ground. Examples - Neem, mango, plant body. The seeds are enclosed
unbranched chains of cylindrical cells coconut. Shrubs have the stem within the fruits. Examples - Mango, rose,
and found in floating masses near the branching out near the base. Examples - tomato, onion, wheat and maize.
surface of streams and ponds ? Rose, jasmine, lemon.
Q.352. Which of the following is not a
Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
Q.347. Which among the following is subgroup of the plant kingdom?
(a) Ectocarpus (b) Laminaria
Phanerogams, flowering and seed SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift)
(c) Spirogyra (d) Chlorella
-bearing plants? (a) Thallophyta (b) Angiosperms
Sol.343.(c) Spirogyra. Sargassum and SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Morning) (c) Pteridophyta (d) Hemichordata
Laminaria are the brown seaweed/algae (a) Gymnosperms (b) Pteridophyta
(c) Bryophyta (d) Thallophyta Sol.352.(d) Hemichordata. Kingdom -
found in brackish or salt water (rarely
Animalia, Subkingdom - Eumetazoa.
found in freshwater). Polysiphonia are
df
Sol.347.(a) Gymnosperms - Plant Kingdom is further classified into
red algae which are found in salt water.
whose seeds are completely naked and subgroups of Thallophyta, Bryophyta,
_p
Ectocarpus is a genus of filamentous,
lack an ovary. characteristic - well Pteridophyta, Gymnosperms and
marine brown algae. Chlorella is a genus
developed tap root, Needle-like leaves, Angiosperms.
na
of about 13 species of single-celled
seeds but no fruits. Examples - Pine,
green algae of the division Chlorophyta. Q.353. Certain plants have green and
Ginkgo, Pinus Tree. Reproduction -
ap
sexually and asexually. tender stems. They are usually short and
Q.344. Which is a flowerless, spore -
may not have many branches. What are
producing plant that is usually a thin,
:@
Q.348. Which among the following is an they called as?
horn - like, or needle - like a capsule with
example of Angiosperm in Plant SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (4th Shift)
spores that develops from a flat, green
Kingdom? (a) Herbs (b) Shrubs
leaf ?
TG
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Evening) (c) Trees (d) Creepers
Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
(a) Pinus (b) Chara (c)Tomato (d) Funaria
(a) Hornwort (b) Chara Sol.353.(a) Herbs. Creepers are plants
(c) Celandine (d) Riccia Sol.348.(c) Tomato. The plant kingdom with weak stems that cannot stand
on
is classified into five subgroups - upright and spread readily on the ground.
Sol.344.(a) Hornworts (bryophytes). It
Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Examples - Pumpkin, Watermelon and
grows on rocks in tropical and temperate
ch
Gymnosperms, Angiosperms. Muskmelon.
regions. Scientific Name -
Anthocerotophyta. Chara (A green algae) Q.354. Plants that do not have well -
ar
Q.349. Which among the following plant
- It belongs to the Characeae family, A kingdoms are divided into liverworts and differentiated body design fall in this
Se
multicellular organism usually thrives in mosses ? group. The plants in this group are
freshwater. Celandine - It is a botanical SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Afternoon) commonly called algae. These plants are
extract derived from a plant of the Poppy (a) Pteridophytes (b) Spermatophyta predominantly aquatic.
family. Genus - Stylophorum. Riccia - It is (c) Sphenopsida (d) Bryophytes SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023)
a genus of liverworts. (a) Bryophyta (b) Angiosperms
Sol.349.(d) Bryophytes. It is also called (c) Thallophyta (d) Pteridophyta
Q.345. Fungi can grow on which of the amphibians of the plant kingdom
following items? because these plants can live in soil but Sol.354.(c) Thallophyta. Thallophyta is
I. Bread II. Pickles III. Leather IV. Clothes are dependent on water for sexual classified into two subdivisions : Algae
Select the correct option. reproduction. Spermatophytes - A subset and Fungi. Examples - Spirogyra, Chara,
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning) of the embryophytes or land plants. Ulothrix, Ulva, Cladophora. Kingdom
(a) I and III (b) I and II Plantae includes algae, bryophytes,
(c) I, II, III and IV (d) I, II and III Q.350. Which among the following are pteridophytes, gymnosperms and
called the amphibians of the plant angiosperms.
Sol.345.(c) I, II, III and IV. kingdom ?
Fungi are eukaryotic (organisms whose SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening) Q.355. Identify the correct statement
cells contain a nucleus and other (a) Gymnosperm (b) Bryophyte about green algae.
membrane - bound organelles) (c) Thallophyte (d) Angiosperm SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (4th Shift)
organisms. They grow in moist climatic (a) Green algae usually have a soft cell
areas where they get enough nutrition for Sol.350.(b) Bryophyte. These are land wall made up of an inner layer of
their growth. The fungal spores are plants which require water for sexual pectose.
generally present in the air and grow on reproduction. Hence, these are found (b) Green algae usually have a rigid cell
articles. Examples : Yeasts, smuts, mostly in moist places in close proximity wall made of an inner layer of protein
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
and an outer layer of fibre. eukaryotic organisms) Yeasts are Sol.363.(b) Conform. Plant Hormones
(c) Green algae usually have a rigid cell eukaryotic, single celled and its Function: Ethylene - Fruit Ripening
wall made of an inner layer of microorganisms. Protozoa are one - and Abscission, the dropping of leaves,
cellulose and an outer layer of celled animals. A fungus (eukaryotic fruits and flowers. Gibberellins - Break
pectose. organism that includes microorganisms the dormancy of seeds and buds,
(d) Green algae usually have a rigid cell such as yeasts, molds and mushrooms). promote growth. Cytokinin - Promote Cell
wall made of an inner layer of fat and Division. Abscisic Acid - closing of
an outer layer of protein. Q.360. What is the name of a protein that stomata and maintaining dormancy.
polymerizes into long chains or filaments Auxins - Involved in tropisms and apical
Sol.355.(c) Green algae have chloroplast that form microtubules, hollow fibres that dominance.
and chlorophyll in their cells. Examples act as the skeletal system for living
are Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Spirogyra, cells? Q.364. Which is a perennial carnivorous
Ulothrox, Oedogonium and Chara. Graduate Level 01/08/2022 (Shift - 4) plant of the sundew family that attracts
(a) Tubulin (b) Elastin prey and usually traps insects and then
Q.356. In which of the following groups, (c) Fibrinogen (d) Ferritin breaks them down with digestive
are all plants monoecious ? enzymes?
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) Sol.360.(a) Tubulin ("heterodimer" SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 ( Evening)
(a) Maize, Papaya, Poplar and Rose protein). Elastin (protein) allows the skin (a) Phytoplankton (b) Bladderwort
(b) Papaya, Poplar, Rose and Fig to be flexible and bounce back to its (c) Venus flytrap (d) Seaweed
(c) Maize, Cucumber, Fig and Melon original shape. Fibrinogen (protein
(d) Cucumber, Papaya, Poplar and Rose involved in forming blood clots in the Sol.364.(c) Venus flytrap. It is native to
body). Ferritin is a blood protein that North Carolina and South Carolina.
Sol.356.(c) Maize, Cucumber, Fig and contains iron. Phytoplankton is the autotrophic
df
Melon. Monoecious plants have both component of the plankton community
male and female reproductive parts in Q.361. Which of the following is a type of
_p
and a key part of ocean and freshwater
the same plant. Examples - cucurbits and bryophyte that lives in many ecosystems. Bladderwort is an aquatic
coconuts, etc. Dioecious plants are environments and is characterised by its
na
carnivorous plant with highly divided,
referred to when the male and female small, flattened leaves, root-like rhizoids, underwater leaf-like stems and
reproductive organs are distinct. and peristome ?
ap
numerous small "bladders".
Examples - Cottonwood, plum pine, etc. SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Evening)
(a) Funaria (b) Ulothrix Q.365. Identify the component that is
:@
Q.357. Identify a marine alga that is used (c) Cladophora (d) Ulva unique only to prokaryotes.
as food. SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Morning)
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift) Sol.361.(a) Funaria is known as common (a) Nucleus (b) Chromosomes
TG
(a) Ulothrix (b) Sargassum moss or green moss or cord moss. (c) Mesosome (d) Nuclear membrane
(c) Spirogyra (d) Volvox Ulothrix, a genus of filamentous green
algae (family Ulotrichaceae) found in Sol.365.(c) Mesosome is a special
on
Sol.357.(b) Sargassum (gulfweed, sea marine and fresh waters. Cladophora, a membrane structure, which is formed by
holly) is a seaweed (macroalgae, family - genus of green algae (family the extension of the plasma membrane
Phaeophyceae (brown algae)). It is an
ch
Cladophoraceae). Ulva is a small genus into the cell in a prokaryotic cell.
edible, nutritious and rich source of of marine and brackish water green
bioactive compounds (vitamins, Q.366. Identify the plant that shows
ar
algae.
carotenoids, dietary fibres, proteins, and adaptation through leaves that are
Se
minerals). It is found in the Sargasso Sea Q.362. What do you call the water reduced to spines.
in the north - central Atlantic. holding compounds produced in large SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Morning)
quantities by marine brown and red (a) Mimosa (b) Rose
Q.358. Most of the Chlorophyceae have algae? (c) Opuntia (d) Hibiscus
one or more storage bodies SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Afternoon)
called_____located in the chloroplasts. (a) Lipids (b) Carbohydrates Sol.366.(c) Opuntia (cactus). Hibiscus
SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (4th Shift) (c) Hydrocolloids (d) Gelatin (Orhul) can help boost your immune
(a) Stomata (b) Carotenoids system. Mimosa (“Touch me not”) helps
(c) Pyrenoids (d) Chlorophyll Sol.362.(c) Hydrocolloids. Algin (red in the treatment of many disorders like
algae) and carrageen (brown algae) are piles, insomnia, diarrhea, etc.
Sol.358.(c) Pyrenoids are a protein body some important sources of natural
in the chloroplasts of algae and Q.367. Which phylum of the plant
hydrocolloids.
hornworts that are involved in carbon kingdom consists of vascular plants,
fixation and starch formation and Q.363. What is the mode of adaptation leaves (known as fronds), roots and
storage of Chlorophyceae. done by aquatic plants and animals sometimes true stems and entire trunks
where the osmotic concentration of the in tree ferns?
Q.359. Which of the following is a body fluids changes with that of the SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Afternoon)
diverse group of aquatic organisms ambient air and water osmotic (a) Angiosperm (b) Pteridophyta
capable of photosynthesising? concentration? (c) Bryophyta (d) Gymnosperm
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Morning)
(a) Yeast (b) Protozoa (c) Fungi (d) Algae Sol.367.(b) Pteridophytes are also called
(a) Regulate (b) Conform
vascular cryptogams. Smallest
(c) Migrate (d) Suspend
Sol.359.(d) Algae (photosynthetic Pteridophyte is Azolla (an aquatic fern)
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
and largest is Cyathea (tree fern). core of the primary meristem of a plant by features such as toothless beaks and
or plant part that according to the laying hard-shelled eggs.
Q.368. Which of the following are non - histogen theory gives rise to the stele.
vascular flowerless plants in the The term meristem was coined by C. Q.375. Which species is known as black
taxonomic division of Bryophyta? Nageli 1858. lipped pearl oyster found in the Indo -
SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Morning) Pacific, within tropical coral reefs?
(a) Mosses (b) Pines SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
(c) Pea plant (d) Ferns
Animal Kingdom (a) Aplysia dactylomela
(b) Dentalium neohexagonum
Sol.368.(a) Mosses. A pine is any conifer Q.372. Identify a structure that plays a
(c) Chaetopleura apiculata
tree or shrub in the genus Pinus of the role in motility.
(d) Pinctada margaritifera
family Pinaceae, it is the sole genus in SSC Stenographer 11/12/2024 (Afternoon)
the subfamily Pinoideae. Pea, (Pisum (a) Pili (b) Flagella Sol.375.(d) Pinctada margaritifera. This
sativum), an herbaceous annual (c) Villi (d) Fimbria species is prized for its pearls and is
plant in the family Fabaceae. widely cultivated for pearl production.
Sol.372.(b) Flagella are long, whip-like
Aplysia dactylomela : This is a black sea
Q.369. What is the nut of an oak tree structures that protrude from the cell
hare, a large sea slug found in tropical
called? surface of certain bacteria and
waters. Dentalium neohexagonum: This
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Afternoon) eukaryotic cells. Flagella are composed
is a deep-sea tusk shell species native to
(a) Kola nut (b) Acorn of a protein called flagellin and are
the Indo-Pacific region. Chaetopleura
(c) Macadamia (d) Chestnut powered by the rotation of motor
apiculata: This is a type of chiton, a
proteins. The other options are not
Sol.369.(b) Acorn, or oaknut, is the nut of marine mollusk with an armored shell.
directly involved in motility: Pili are short,
df
the oaks and their close relatives (genera hair-like structures involved in bacterial Q.376. Which of the following options is
Quercus and Lithocarpus, in the family attachment and DNA transfer. Villi are associated with the class of cold -
_p
Fagaceae). The kola nut is the fruit of the finger-like projections found in the small blooded animals ?
kola tree (Cola acuminata and Cola intestine, involved in nutrient absorption. SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
na
nitida), indigenous to West Africa. Fimbria are short, hair-like structures (a) Chameleon (b) Pavo
Macadamia is a genus of four species of involved in bacterial attachment and (c) Macropus (d) Psittacula
ap
trees in the flowering plant family adhesion.
Proteaceae. The chestnuts are the Sol.376.(a) Chameleons are reptiles.
:@
deciduous trees and shrubs in the genus Q.373. In the case of reptiles, their heart Cold - Blooded Animals : Cold-blooded
Castanea, in the beech family Fagaceae. is not properly divided into four animals, like reptiles and amphibians,
chambers i.e., it consists of two auricles have a body temperature that varies with
TG
Q.370. Camellia sinensis is a plant that and an incompletely divided ventricle. their environment. Examples : Snakes,
produces ______. Which of the following is an example of a Lizards, Turtles, Frogs, Fish.
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon) reptile having a four-chambered heart?
on
(a) tea (b) coffee (c) jute (d) sugarcane SSC MTS 07/10/2024 (3rd Shift) Q.377. Which of the following
(a) Snake (b) Turtles characteristics is NOT of Aves ?
Sol.370.(a) Tea. Jute is extracted from SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
(c) Crocodile (d) Lizard
ch
the bark of the white jute plant (a) They have a four-chambered heart.
(Corchorus capsularis) and to a lesser Sol.373.(c) Crocodile. Reptiles are (b) They give birth to live young ones
ar
extent from tossa jute (C. olitorius). terrestrial animals known for their with some exceptions that lay eggs.
Sugarcane, (Saccharum officinarum),
Se
creeping or crawling mode of (c) These are warm-blooded animals.
perennial grass of the family Poaceae, locomotion, characterized by dry, (d) They breathe through the lungs
primarily cultivated for its juice from cornified skin or scales. They typically
which sugar is processed. The two most have a three-chambered heart, though Sol.377.(b) The characteristic features of
popular coffee are - Coffee arabica crocodiles possess a four-chambered Aves (birds) are the presence of feathers
(commonly known simply as "Arabica"), heart. Reptiles are poikilothermic, and most of them can fly except
and Coffea canephora (known as meaning they rely on external flightless birds (e.g., Ostrich). The
"Robusta"). temperatures to regulate body heat. They forelimbs are modified into wings. The
have internal fertilization, are oviparous, hind limbs generally have scales and are
Q.371. Which of the following is the modified for walking, swimming or
and undergo direct development.
middle layer in the root apical meristem clasping the tree branches. Endoskeleton
Examples include turtles, lizards,
that gives rise to the cortex? is fully ossified (bony) and the long
crocodiles , and venomous snakes like
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Afternoon) bones are hollow with air cavities
cobras and vipers.
(a) Periblem (b) Calyptrogen (pneumatic). Examples- Corvus (Crow),
(c) Dermatogen (d) Plerome Q.374. Which organisms are classified Columba (Pigeon), Psittacula (Parrot),
as Aves ? Struthio (Ostrich), Pavo (Peacock),
Sol.371.(a) Periblem. Calyptrogen is a
SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift) Aptenodytes (Penguin), Neophron
layer of rapidly dividing cells at the tip of
(a) Fishes (b) Frogs (c) Snakes (d) Birds (Vulture).
a plant root, from which the root cap is
formed. Dermatogen is the outer primary Sol.374.(d) Birds. Aves, commonly Q.378. Match the points under Column A
meristem of a plant or plant part that, known as birds, are a class of with those under Column B.
according to the histogen theory, gives endothermic vertebrates under the Column A Column B
rise to epidermis. Plerome is the central phylum Chordata. They are characterised i. Annelida a. Tapeworm
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
ii. Arthropoda b. Sea star environmental conditions by regulating distribution.
iii. Echinodermata c. Ant their metabolic processes. Examples : (d) They possess a backbone and an
iv. Platyhelminthes d. Earthworm Mammals, Birds. Cold-blooded animals, internal skeleton.
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (2nd Shift) or poikilotherms, such as reptiles,
(a) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a (b) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d snakes, fish, and amphibians, cannot Sol.384.(d) An invertebrate is an animal
(c) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d (d) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d generate their own body heat. Instead, that doesn't have a backbone or any
they depend on their environment to bones at all. Bilateral Symmetry is found
Sol.378.(a) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a. Annelida regulate their temperature. Examples of in most vertebrates and some
(Latin, annulus meaning "little ring") cold-blooded animals include fish, invertebrates. The body of an organism
includes animals that can live in water amphibians, reptiles, insects, worms, can be divided into two equal halves by a
(both marine and freshwater) or on land. crocodiles, sharks, and tortoises. single plane only. Spider and crab are
They may be free-living or, in some examples of arthropods that
cases, parasitic. Examples include Q.382. Match the points under Column A demonstrate bilateral symmetry. The
Nereis, and Hirudinaria (blood-sucking with those under Column B. circulatory system is a system of organs
leech). Column A Column B that includes the heart, blood vessels,
(Subphylum) (Animal) and blood which is circulated throughout
Q.379. Which of the following is an i. Hexapoda a. Daphnia the entire body of a human or other
example of Phylum Arthropoda? ii. Crustacea b. Mosquito vertebrate.
SSC CGL 19/09/2024 (1st Shift) iii. Myriapoda c. Limulus
(a) Nereis (b) Butterfly iv. Chelicerata d. Julus Q.385. Which of the following
(c) Hirudinaria (d) Pila SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift) statements most accurately describes
(a) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d (b) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d the Cyclostomata group ?
Sol.379.(b) Butterfly. Phylum Arthropoda
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (1st shift)
df
is the largest phylum in the animal (c) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a (d) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(a) Their skin is covered with
kingdom, first classified by Von Seibold
_p
Sol.382.(d) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c. Hexapods, scales/plates and their hearts have
in 1845. Approximately two-thirds of all
the largest clade of arthropods, include only two chambers.
named species belong to this phylum.
na
most existing arthropod species. (b) They are ectothermic animals having
Arthropods have a chitinous exoskeleton,
Crustaceans, part of the subphylum mucus glands in the skin, and a
jointed appendages, and various
ap
Crustacea, are invertebrates with about three-chambered heart.
respiratory organs, including gills, book
45,000 species worldwide. Myriapods, (c) They are warm-blooded, oviparous,
gills, book lungs, or a tracheal system.
:@
from the subphylum Myriapoda, consist bipedal, feathered, winged and
They possess an open circulatory
of terrestrial arthropods like millipedes toothless vertebrates.
system, and excretion occurs through
and centipedes, with around 13,000 (d) They are characterised by having an
Malpighian tubules. Examples include
TG
species. Chelicerata, another arthropod elongated eel-like body, circular
cockroaches, prawns, crabs, scorpions,
subphylum, includes both terrestrial and mouth, slimy skin and are scaleless.
houseflies, and mites.
marine species.
on
Q.380. Which of the following classes Sol.385.(d) The Cyclostomata group is a
Q.383. Which group of animals has a subclass of jawless fishes. They are
includes the family of turtles?
segmented spinal column together with marine but migrate for spawning to fresh
SSC CGL 24/09/2024 (2nd Shift)
ch
a few primitive forms in which the water. After spawning, within a few days,
(a) Chondrichthyes (b) Reptilia
backbone is represented by a notochord they die. Their larvae, after
(c) Amphibia (d) Aves
ar
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (3rd shift) metamorphosis, return to the ocean.
Sol.380.(b) Reptilia. Turtles belong to (a) Vertebrata (b) Echinodermata They have an elongated body bearing
Se
the order Testudines. Reptiles are (c) Mollusca (d) Arthropoda 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration.
cold-blooded, have scaly skin, typically Examples: Petromyzon (Lamprey) and
lay eggs, and possess lungs. This class Sol.383.(a) Vertebrata. These animals
Myxine (Hagfish).
includes snakes, lizards, crocodiles, and have a segmented spinal column and,
turtles. Chondrichthyes consist of during embryonic development, a Q.386. Which hairpin-like structure
cartilaginous fishes like sharks and rays. notochord that is replaced by a vertebral serves to anchor and stabilise the tick's
Amphibia includes frogs and column in adults. Vertebrates are mouthparts to its host's skin and to
salamanders, which undergo aquatic chordates but not all chordates are channel the exchange of fluids?
larval stages. Aves (birds) are vertebrates. They also have a muscular SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (2nd shift)
warm-blooded, have feathers, and lay heart, kidneys, and paired appendages. (a) Peduncle (b) Substratum
eggs. (c) Hypostome (d) Trunk
Q.384. Identify the INCORRECT
Q.381. Which of the following is a statement regarding invertebrates from Sol.386.(c) Hypostome is a structure
characteristic of both mammals and the options given below. found in certain arthropods, particularly
birds? SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (1st shift) ticks and some crustaceans. Located on
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (1st Shift) (a) They have radial or bilateral body the underside near the mouth, it aids in
(a) Viviparity (b) Pigmented skin symmetry. anchoring the organism to its host during
(c) Pneumatic bones (d) Warm blooded (b) They have a pair of solid nerve cords, feeding. In ticks, it has backward-facing
situated ventrally and bearing spines that prevent detachment while
Sol.381.(d) Warm blooded. segmentally arranged ganglia. feeding on blood. The hypostome also
Warm-blooded animals can maintain a (c) They have an open circulatory system plays a role in the ingestion of fluids from
constant body temperature regardless of as there is no organisation in the the host.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
Q.387. Identify the largest phylum in the (a) the minimum number of individuals of SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon)
animal kingdom. a species that can survive but cannot (a) Aurelia (b) Spongilla
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift) reproduce (c) Euspongia (d) Sycon
(a) Mollusca (b) Annelida (b) the maximum number of individuals a
(c) Arthropoda (d) Platyhelmenthis species can produce Sol.394.(a) Aurelia.
(c) the minimum number of individuals a Coelenterata (Cnidaria) : They are
Sol.387.(c) Arthropoda. It includes species can produce aquatic, mostly marine, sessile or
insects (More than two-thirds of all (d) the maximum number of individuals free-swimming, radially symmetrical
species on earth). Respiratory organs of a species that cannot survive after animals. Phylum (Porifera) : Members of
include gills, book gills, and book lungs. birth this phylum are commonly known as
They are mostly oviparous. Examples: sponges. They are generally marine and
Laccifer (Lac insect) Vectors – Sol.390.(b) Biotic potential, also known mostly asymmetrical animals. These are
Anopheles, Culex and Aedes as reproductive potential, refers to the primitive multicellular animals and have
(Mosquitoes). Mollusca - Second largest maximum rate at which a population of a cellular level of organisation. Examples :
animal phylum. Examples: Sepia species can increase under ideal Sycon (Scypha), Spongilla (Freshwater
(Cuttlefish), Loligo (Squid), Octopus conditions, with unlimited resources and sponge) and Euspongia (Bath sponge).
(Devil fish). Annelida - Example: no environmental limitations. Biotic
Pheretima (Earthworm), Hirudinaria potential differs from one species to Q.395. Which of the following is NOT a
(blood-sucking leech). Platyhelminths - another e.g., bacterial populations can Protozoan?
Have dorso-ventrally flattened bodies; grow faster than populations of oak SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon)
hence, called flatworms. Example: trees. (a) Euglena (b) Amoeba
Fasciola (liver fluke). (c) Scypha (d) Plasmodium
Q.391. ____ is an example of acoelomate.
df
Q.388. The body of the phylum _______ is Higher Secondary 24/06/2024 (Shift - 2) Sol.395.(c) Scypha (Kingdom: Animalia).
Protozoans (Kingdom: Protista) - All
_p
unsegmented and dorsoventrally (a) Echinoderms (b) Platyhelminthes
flattened. (c) Molluscs (d) Arthropods protozoans are heterotrophs and live as
parasites. Major groups of protozoans :
na
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
Sol.391.(b) Platyhelminthes. They have Amoeboid protozoans - These organisms
(a) Coelenterata (b) Arthropoda
a dorso-ventrally flattened body, hence live in freshwater, sea water or moist soil.
ap
(c) Platyhelminthes (d) Mollusca
are called flatworms. Examples: Taenia Flagellated protozoans - The members of
Sol.388.(c) Platyhelminthes: They are (Tapeworm), Fasciola (Liver fluke). The this group are either free-living or
:@
known as flatworms due to their animals in which the body cavity is parasitic. Ciliated protozoans - These are
dorsoventrally flattened bodies. absent are called acoelomates. aquatic, actively moving organisms
Examples include Taenia (tapeworm) and Echinoderms comprise a group of because of the presence of thousands of
TG
Fasciola (liver fluke). Coelenterata - marine invertebrates that includes sea cilia. Sporozoans - This includes diverse
Generally known as Cnidaria. Examples: stars, sea urchins, sea cucumbers, brittle organisms that have an infectious
Pleurobrachia; Ctenoplana. Arthropoda - stars, and crinoids. spore-like stage in their life cycle.
on
The largest phylum of Animalia, and
includes insects (More than two-thirds of Q.392. In which of the following animals Q.396. Identify the third germinal layer
are the stinging capsules located around
ch
all species on earth). Examples: Apis found in triploblastic animals.
(Honey bee); Bombyx (Silkworm). the mouth and on the tentacles? SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
Graduate Level 26/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
ar
Mollusca - Second largest animal (a) Coelom (b) Endoderm
phylum. Body covered with a calcareous (a) Taenia (b) Nereis (c) Ectoderm (d) Mesoderm
Se
shell. Example: Pila (Apple snail); (c) Adamsia (d) Ascaris
Sol.396.(d) Mesoderm.
Pinctada (Pearl oyster). Sol.392.(c) Adamsia. Stinging capsules A triploblastic animal has three main
Q.389. Identify the organism that shows (nematocysts) are the organs which act layers of tissue during embryonic
bioluminescence. as offense and defense. These development. Ectoderm (upper layer) - It
SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (3rd shift) nematocysts help Sea Anemones: forms the brains, spinal cord, lens of the
(a) Fasciola (b) Ctenoplana Capture prey, Defend against predators, eye and hairs. Mesoderm (Middle layer) -
(c) Liver fluke (d) Tapeworm Compete for space. They belong to It is responsible for the formation of
phylum Coelenterata. Other animals with notochord, bone, muscles, connective
Sol.389.(b) Ctenoplana commonly stinging capsules include: Jellyfish, tissue and circulatory systems.
known as sea walnuts or comb jellies are Corals, Hydra, Portuguese Man-of-War. Endoderm (lower layer) - It leads to the
exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, formation of the stomach, liver, colon,
diploblastic organisms with tissue level Q.393. Which of the following is NOT a
urinary bladder and lungs.
of organisation. The body bears eight member of the Arthropoda phylum?
external rows of ciliated comb plates, SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) Q.397. Which of the following is a
which help in locomotion. Sexes are not (a) Locust (b) Butterfly roundworm ?
separate. Bioluminescence (the property (c) Prawn (d) Pila SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
of a living organism to emit light) is (a) Ascaris (b) Planaria
Sol.393.(d) Pila - It belongs to the
well-marked in ctenophores. Examples: (c) Liver fluke (d) Taenia
phylum Mollusca and class Gastropoda.
Pleurobrachia and Ctenoplana.
Sol.397.(a) Ascaris - It belongs to
Q.394. Which of the following choices is
Q.390. Biotic potential can be defined as: phylum Nematoda. It is known as the
related to the phylum Coelenterata ?
Matriculation Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 1) small-intestinal roundworms, a type of
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
parasitic worm. Its Infection causes well-defined muscular pharynx. symmetrical, soft bodies, with a
haemorrhage, insomnia, peritonitis, SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (2nd shift) triploblastic construction (comprising
diarrhoea, ulcer, tumour and even death. (a) Ascaris (b) Adamsia three layers of cells) and a lacking
Other Examples - Hookworms, pinworms, (c) Ctenoplana (d) Gorgonia coelom, skeleton and anus?
filariasis and whipworms. SSC CGL 24/07/2023( 3rd shift)
Sol.402.(a) Ascaris. Adamsia - It is a (a) Cnidaria (b) Ctenophora
Q.398. Which of the following organisms species of sea anemone in the family (c) Platyhelminthes (d) Porifera
belongs to phylum Apicomplexa? Hormathiidae. It is commonly known as
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) the cloak anemone or the hermit-crab Sol.406.(c) Platyhelminthes
(a) Physalia (b) Plasmodium anemone. Ctenoplana - It is the genus of (Tapeworms, Turbellaria, Planaria, Liver
(c) Hydra (d) Sponge comb jellies and the only genus in the fluke). Bilateral symmetry means when
Ctenoplanidae family. Gorgonia - It is a one organism is cut, it divides into two
Sol.398.(b) Plasmodium. Apicomplexa is genus of soft corals, sea fans in the equal halves from a single plane only.
a large phylum of parasitic protists family Gorgoniidae.
belonging to the Alveolata group, Q.407. In which of the following animal
together with ciliates and dinoflagellates. Q.403. Which type of liverworts form phyla, is the body divided into head,
The Apicomplexa are a diverse group umbrella-shaped structures that raise thorax and abdomen?
that includes organisms such as the gametangia above the main SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (2nd shift)
coccidia, gregarines, piroplasms, gametophyte body and sporophytes (a) Annelida (b) Mollusca
haemogregarines, and plasmodia. develop below these structures ? (c) Arthropoda (d) Chordata
Diseases caused by Apicomplexa : SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Babesiosis (Babesia), and Malaria (a) Polytrichum (b) Funaria Sol.407.(c) Arthropoda (largest phylum).
(Plasmodium). (c) Sphagnum (d) Marchantia The phylum included invertebrates with
df
an exoskeleton and jointed legs;
Q.399. What is Typhlops? Sol.403.(d) Marchantia (Genus of Examples - Spiders, centipedes, mites,
_p
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (2nd shift) liverworts). Polytrichum (Genus of crabs, ticks, lobsters, scorpions, shrimp.
(a) Blind snake (b) Sea snake mosses) - These mosses are commonly Chordata - Fundamentally characterized
(c) Glass snakes (d) Grass snake
na
known as haircap mosses found in forest
and humid environments. Sphagnum : A
by the presence of a notochord, a dorsal,
hollow nerve cord and paired pharyngeal
ap
Sol.399.(a) Blind snake. Phylum - genus of mosses known as "peat gill slits; Examples -Lampreys, Sea Squirt.
Chordata, Family - Typhlopidae. Typhlops mosses" found in wetlands and peat
:@
is a genus of blind snakes bogs. Funaria - It is a genus of mosses Q.408. Identify an algae that undergoes
(nonpoisonous snakes). Some other commonly known as cord mosses. They anisogamous fusion of gametes.
types of snakes - Sea snake : Family - have tall, slender stalks that bear Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
TG
Elapidae, Genus - Hydrophis. Grass snake capsules at their tips. (a) Spirogyra (b) Eudorina
: Family - Colubridae, Genus - Natrix. (c) Volvox (d) Ulothrix
Glass snake : Family - Anguidae, Genus - Q.404. Meandrina is the generic name of
on
Ophisaurus. which Coelenterata animal having soft Sol.408.(b) Eudorina. Anisogamy
tube-shaped bodies that live together in (Heterogamy) - A type of sexual
Q.400. Match the animals in column A with reproduction in which two dissimilar
ch
large groups?
the phylum they belong to in column B. SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift) gametes unite or fuse. Isogamy - The
Column-A Column-B gametes are similar in shape and size.
ar
(a) Brain coral (b) Sea anemone
i. Jellyfish a. Mollusca (c) Sea - fan (d) Medusa They are shown differences only in their
Se
ii. Crayfish b. Mammal physiology. They are rounded in shape,
iii. Whale fish c. Insect Sol.404.(a) Brain coral. Coelenterata and flagella are present at the end of the
iv. Devil fish d. Coelenterat (Phylum) : It is a multicellular and front. It is the first stage of sexual
simplest group of invertebrate animals. reproduction, and found in algae, fungi,
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (1st shift)
(a) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d (b) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c and lower plants. Oogamous - The
Q.405. Identify the animal that does NOT female gamete is much bigger than the
(c) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (d) i -d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a have bilateral symmetry. male. The female gamete is immobile,
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (4th shift) while the male gamete is mobile.
Sol.400.(d) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a.
(a) Annelida (b) Molluscs
Q.401. Which from the following is a (c) Arthropoda (d) Cnidarian Q.409. The _____ is an embryonic midline
phylum of animals found in fresh water structure common to all members of the
Sol.405.(d) Cnidarian. Bilateral phylum Chordata that serves as a source
ponds, lakes and swamps provides setae
symmetry - When the body plan of an of midline signals to surrounding tissues
or parapodia for locomotion?
animal can be divided along a line that and as a major skeletal element of the
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (4th shift)
separates the animal's body into right developing embryo.
(a) Ctenophora (b) Porifera
and left halves that are nearly identical to Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
(c) Annelida (d) Platyhelminthes
each other. Examples - Flatworms, (a) notochord (b) nerve cord
Sol.401.(c) Annelida. Common worms (ribbon worms), Clams, (c) tail fin (d) anus
Some other members of this phylum: Snails, Insects, Spiders, Sea urchins, and
Oligochaeta (earthworms) and class Vertebrates. Sol.409.(a) Notochord. Nerve cord - It is
Hirudinea (leeches), polychaete worms. a vast bundle of nerve fibres that runs
Q.406. Which group of Kingdom along the body's longitudinal axis and an
Q.402. Identify an organism that has a Animalia has unsegmented, bilaterally essential component of the Central
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
Nervous System. Q.414. Hydra is an example of which of (Arachnida)}. Pseudocoelomates are the
the following phylum of the animal organisms that have false body cavities.
Q.410. Balanoglossus belongs to which
kingdom? The pseudocoelomates belong to the
of the following phylums of the animal
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (1st Shift) phylum Nematoda/Aschelminthes.
kingdom?
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Nematoda Examples: Aschleminthes - Nematoda
SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Morning)
(c) Coelenterata (d) Porifera (Ancylostoma, Ascaris, Wuchereria),
(a) Hemichordata (b) Arthropoda
Rotifera (Asplanchna, Euchlanis, etc) .
(c) Echinodermata (d) Mollusca Sol.414.(c) Coelenterata. It is a group of
aquatic, or marine organisms and usually Q.419. Identify an example of
Sol.410.(a) Hemichordata. Types of
found attached to the rocks at the decomposers that are found in the
phylum of Animal Kingdom : Porifera
bottom of the sea. bottom of a pond.
{(Examples : Sycon (Scypha), Spongilla
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (4th Shift)
(Freshwater sponge) and Euspongia Q.415. Which of the following comes (a) Zooplankton (b) Jellyfishes
(Bath sponge)}. Coelenterata (Examples - under the platyhelminthes classification (c) Flagellates (d) Phytoplankton
Aurelia (Medusa), Adamsia (Polyp)}. under the animalia?
Ctenophora (Examples - Pleurobrachia SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Sol.419.(c) Flagellates.
and Ctenoplana). Platyhelminthes (a) Sycon (b) Leech The decomposers of the pond
{Examples - Taenia (Tapeworm), Fasciola (c) Wuchereria (d) Tapeworm ecosystem are fungi, bacteria and
(Liver fluke)}. Aschelminthes (Example - flagellates. Decomposers in different
Roundworm). Annelida {Examples - Sol.415.(d) Tapeworm. Platyhelminthes - ecosystems: Soil (fungi, insects,
Nereis, Hirudinaria}. belongs to Kingdom Animalia also earthworms, and bacteria), Oceans
known as Tapeworm or Flatworms (due (Christmas tree worm, Crab, Granulated
Q.411. Which among the following is an to flattened Body), soft - bodied sea star, Hagfish, Sea urchin, Tube
df
example of Phylum Mammalia of Animal invertebrate, Hermaphrodites, worm), Freshwater (Mildew, Trumpet
Kingdom? triploblastic, acoelomate and bilaterally
_p
snail, Water mold, Yeast), Forest (Beetle,
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Afternoon) symmetrical. Classified into 3 types - Earthworm, Millipede, Mushroom, Pillbug,
(a) Crocodile (b) Hen (c) Rat (d) Pigeon Turbellaria (Planaria, Otoplana),
na
Saprobe, Slime mold, Slug), Desert (Dung
Trematoda (Fasciola hepatica, beetle, Fly, Millipede, Saharan silver ant),
Sol.411.(c) Rat. Mammals are warm -
Diplozoon), Cestoda (Taenia, Convoluta).
ap
blooded animals that have mammary Grassland (Acidobacteria, Termite,
glands and give birth to live young. Q.416. Which group of animals are Turkey tail mushroom), Mountain (Bolete
:@
Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are named because of their spiny skin and mushroom, Mountain pine bark beetle,
poikilothermous (cold-blooded). have a peculiar water-driven tube system Purple fairy fingers).
that they use for moving around?
TG
Q.412. Snails is an example of which of Q.420. The body of the ______ is circular
SSC CGL Tier II (03/03/2023)
the phylum of the animal kingdom? in cross-section, hence the name
(a) Hemichordata (b) Aschelminthes
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon) roundworms. They may be free living,
(c) Echinodermata (d) Mollusca
on
(a) Protochordate (b) Mollusca aquatic and terrestrial or parasitic in
(c) Annelida (d) Arthropoda Sol.416.(c) Echinodermata. plants and animals.
Aschelminthes (roundworms) : They are SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift)
ch
Sol.412.(b) Mollusca (Second-largest a diverse phylum of unsegmented, (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Ctenophores
invertebrate animal phylum). Snails are bilaterally symmetrical worms with (c) Mollusca (d) Aschelminthes
ar
invertebrates, belonging to the Eukaryota cylindrical bodies.
domain and Animalia kingdom. Sol.420.(d) Aschelminthes
Se
Protochordates - Group of primitive Q.417. Identify an example of organisms (roundworms) - An obsolete phylum of
chordates that include tunicates, that are free-swimming and bottom - wormlike invertebrates, mostly of
lancelets, and the extinct Pikaia. dwelling forms. microscopic size. Body is elongated and
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (2nd Shift) cylindrical. Appear circular in
Q.413. Which among the following pairs (a) Phytoplankton (b) Zooplankton cross-section.
of ‘animal - phylum of animal kingdom (c) Fungi (d) Jellyfishes
they belong’ is incorrect? Q.421. Which of the following cells line
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (1st Shift) Sol.417.(b) Zooplankton are a type of the spongocoels and canals in members
(a) Liver fluke - Nematoda heterotrophic plankton that range from of the phylum Porifera?
(b) Sycon - Porifera microscopic organisms to large species, SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(c) Prawns - Arthropoda such as jellyfish, larval crustaceans, krill, (a) Somatic cells (b) Collar cells
(d) Starfish - Echinodermata copepods, protozoans, etc. They are the (c) White cells (d) Sex cells
primary consumers in lake ecosystems.
Sol.413.(a) Liver fluke - Nematoda. Sol.421.(b) Collar cells (Choanocytes,
Phylum : Porifera - Spongilla, Sycon. Q.418. Identify the organism that is NOT
flagellated cells) line the inner surface of
Platyhelminthes - Tapeworm, Planaria. a pseudocoelomate.
the spongocoel and the canal of
Nematoda - Ascaris, Wuchereria. SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (1st Shift)
sponges. The beating of the flagella from
Annelida - Earthworm, Leech. Arthropoda (a) Ancylostoma (b) Ascaris
all choanocytes draws water into the
- Spiders, butterflies, Prawns and (c) Wuchereria (d) Scorpions
sponge through the numerous Ostia, into
mosquitoes. Mollusca - Snails and the spaces lined by choanocytes, and
Sol.418.(d) Scorpions {Kingdom
octopus. Echinodermata - Sea urchins, eventually out through the osculum. The
(Animalia), Phylum (Arthropoda),
starfish. Coelenterata - Hydra, Jellyfish. term somatic cells refer to any type of
Subphylum (Chelicerata), Class
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
cells that contain a diploid number of SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Afternoon) storage at the cellular level.
chromosomes. Gametes are the (a) Phycomycetes (b) Basidiomycetes
scientific name for sex cells (egg or (c) Deuteromycetes (d) Ascomycetes Q.429. Which of the following characters
sperm). are correct about Phylum Echinodermata
Sol.425.(c) Deuteromycetes, commonly ?
Q.422. Which of the following is NOT a called molds, are “second-class” fungi SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Morning)
polar animal? that have no known sexual state in their (a) Roundworms, pseudocoelomate
SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Afternoon) life cycle and thus reproduce only by (b) Coelom present, bilateral symmetry
(a) Ringed seals (b) Musk oxen producing spores via mitosis. This (c) Gastrovascular cavity, flatworms,
(c) Lemur (d) Walrus asexual state is also called the acoelomate
anamorph state. Phycomycetes (d) Gastrovascular cavity, coelom present
Sol.422.(c) Lemurs are a type of organisms are found throughout the
prosimian, which means they are world in soil, animal manure, and on Sol.429.(b) Coelom present, bilateral
primates that evolved before monkeys fruits. Basidiomycetes are commonly symmetry. Phylum Echinodermata
and apes. Polar Animals : Polar Bear, known as club fungi. Ascomycetes are organisms (multi-cellular) are exclusively
Arctic Fox, Antarctic Minke Whale, Brown spore shooters, they are called sac fungi marine. Characteristics - Triploblastic
Bear, Pacific Salmon, Orca, Snowy Owl, because their sexual spores, called and have a coelomic cavity, star-like
Leopard Seal, Arctic Wolf,Penguin, ascospores, are produced in a sac or appearance and are spherical or
Walrus, Narwhal, Arctic Hare, Beluga ascus. elongated, respire through gills, their
Whale, Puffin, Reindeer, Musk Oxen. skeleton is made up of calcium
Q.426. Which of the following is a group carbonate. Examples - a starfish, a sand
Q.423. Which of the following of primitive vertebrates having a large dollar, a brittle star, a sea urchin, and a
statements is/are correct? jawless sucking mouth, no limbs or sea cucumber.
df
I. Amoeba ingests its food with the help paired fins and a completely
of pseudopodia. Q.430. The body of animals of the
_p
cartilaginous skeleton with a persistent
II. Amoeba constantly changes its shape notochord? phylum Protozoa, such as Paramecium,
and position. Amoeba, Euglena, shows ________ grade
na
SSC CHSL 26/05/2022 (Afternoon)
SSC MTS 11/07/2022 (Afternoon) (a) Cyclostomata (b) Aschelminthes organisation.
(a) Only II (b) Neither I nor II SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Afternoon)
ap
(c) Hemichordata (d) Arthropoda
(c) Only I (d) Both I and II (a) tissue-organ (b) protoplasmic
Sol.426.(a) Cyclostomata - Hagfishes (c) cell-tissue (d) cellular
:@
Sol.423.(c) Only I. Amoeba is a and lampreys. Aschelminthes -
unicellular organism that has the ability Sol.430.(b) Protoplasmic. It is a mixture
Roundworm - Ascaris lumbricoides,
to change its shape. Amoeba reproduces of water, amino acids, proteins, small
Hookworm - Ancylostoma, Filarial worm -
TG
asexually through binary fission. molecules of ions, macromolecules such
Wuchereria.
Examples : Entamoeba Histolytica, as nucleic acids, etc.
Amoeba Proteus, Chaos carolinense etc. Q.427. Which group of animals has a
on
Q.431. Which of the following
body wall composed of both circular and
Q.424. Which of the following is not a statements is correct with respect to
longitudinal muscle fibres surrounded by
characteristic of Kingdom Fungi? chordates?
ch
a moist, cellular cuticle that is secreted
SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Afternoon) SSC CGL 11/04/2022(Afternoon)
by an epidermal epithelium?
(a) no mechanism for locomotion (a) Notochord is present
ar
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Morning)
(b) multicellular structure (b) Heart is dorsal or laterally placed or
(a) Arthropoda (b) Annelida
absent
Se
(c) with a cell wall (c) Platyhelminthes (d) Coelenterata
(d) with chloroplasts (c) A post anal tail is absent
Sol.427.(b) Annelids are coelomate and (d) Double ventral solid nerve cord
Sol.424.(d) With chloroplasts. Fungi are triploblastic. Their body is segmented.
eukaryotic organisms that include Sol.431.(b) The five characteristic
They respire through their body surface.
microorganisms such as yeasts, moulds features of chordates present during
Examples - Earthworm, Leeches,
and mushrooms. Characteristics of Fungi some time of their life cycles are a
Lugworms, Polychaetes etc.
: They are non-vascular, non-motile and notochord, a dorsal hollow tubular nerve
heterotrophic organisms, They may be Q.428. The bodies of the animals of cord, pharyngeal slits, endostyle/thyroid
unicellular or filamentous, They phylum Platyhelminthes show _____grade gland, and a post-anal tail. Examples of
reproduce by means of spores, They organisation. vertebrate chordates include fishes,
exhibit the phenomenon of alternation of SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Morning) amphibians, reptiles, birds, and
generation, They lack chlorophyll and (a) tissue-organ (b) protoplasmic mammals.
hence cannot perform photosynthesis, (c) cellular (d) cell-tissue
Q.432. ‘Hypnea Indica and Hypnea
They store their food in the form of
Sol.428.(a) Tissue-organ. Protoplasmic bullata’ are types of :
starch, Biosynthesis of chitin occurs in
is a mixture of water, amino acids, SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Evening)
them, The nuclei of the these are very
proteins, small molecules of ions, (a) green seaweeds (b) black seaweeds
small, etc.
macromolecules such as nucleic acids, (c) yellow seaweeds (d) red seaweeds
Q.425. ________is commonly known as etc. Cellular respiration is a metabolic
imperfect fungi because only the asexual pathway that breaks down glucose and Sol.432.(d) Red seaweeds. "Seaweed" is
or vegetative phases of these fungi are produces ATP. Adenosine triphosphate the common name for countless species
known. (ATP) is the source of energy for use and of marine plants and algae that grow in
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
the ocean as well as in rivers, lakes, and diatoms and golden algae, while Amoeba shape. For example, Campylobacter
other water bodies. Three types of represents protozoans. jejuni and Helicobacter pylori.
Seaweed based on pigmentation - Brown Bacteria are grouped into four categories
Algae (Phaeophyta), Green Algae Q.437. Microbes like Rhizobium, based on their shape - Coccus: Spherical
(Chlorophyta), Red Algae (Rhodophyta). Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are used in shape, Bacillus: Rod-shaped, and
for: Vibrio: Comma-shaped.
Q.433. How many eyes does a bee have? SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift)
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Evening) (a) nitrogen cycling (b) carbon cycling Q.441. Which bacteria have a thick cell
(a) Two (b) Four (c) Three (d) Five (c) water cycling (d) sulphur cycling wall with several layers of peptidoglycan
and teichoic acid ?
Sol.433.(d) Five. The honey bee has five Sol.437.(a) nitrogen cycling. Nitrogen SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
eyes, two large compound eyes and three cycle is the biogeochemical cycle that (a) Staphylococcus aureus
smaller ocelli eyes in the centre of its describes the transformation of nitrogen (b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
head. and nitrogen-containing compounds in (c) Salmonella enterica
nature. Atmospheric nitrogen is the (d) Escherichia coli
Micro Organism biggest source of nitrogen. Green plants
absorb nitrogen in the form of nitrates Sol.441.(a) Staphylococcus aureus
Q.434. Which of the following is and nitrites from the soil and water. is a gram - positive spherically shaped
considered unicellular green algae ? Animals get nitrogen when they feed bacterium, a member of the Bacillota,
SSC MTS 16/10/2024 (3rd Shift) upon plants. and is a usual member of the microbiota
(a) Oedogonium (b) Cladophora of the body, frequently found in the upper
Q.438. The organisms that do not have a respiratory tract and on the skin.
(c) Chlamydomonas (d) Chlorophyta
defined nucleus or organelles are
df
Sol.434.(c) Chlamydomonas. Unicellular classified into _______ Kingdom. Q.442. Which of the following bacteria
SSC CGL 12/09/2024 (1st Shift) grow in milk and convert it to curd ?
_p
green algae are single-celled, plant-like
organisms containing chlorophyll. (a) Fungi (b) Protista Higher Secondary 20/06/2024 (Shift - 2)
(c) Monera (d) Plantae (a) E. curdae
na
Chlamydomonas, with two flagella,
thrives in water and soil, often turning (b) Salmonella typhi
Sol.438.(c) Monera - It comprises (c) Lactic acid bacteria
ap
water green. Chlorella is protein-rich and
unicellular, prokaryotic organisms, having (d) Salmonella lactae
used as a food supplement. Volvox
no well-defined nucleus and no
:@
forms spherical colonies, showcasing
organelles. Bacteria are the sole Sol.442.(c) Lactic acid bacteria. This
unique colonial behavior.
members of the Kingdom Monera. group of bacteria, which includes species
Q.435. Which of the following organisms Kingdom Monera is classified into three like Lactobacillus, is responsible for
TG
is used in bread and alcohol industries? sub-kingdoms- Archaebacteria, fermenting lactose in milk to produce
SSC MTS 22/10/2024 (1st Shift) Eubacteria, and Cyanobacteria. Protista - lactic acid, thereby converting milk into
(a) Clostridium (b) Nitrobacter The protistan cell body contains a well curd. Salmonella typhi - causes typhoid
on
(c) Yeast (d) Penicillium defined nucleus and other fever.
membrane-bound organelles. Plantae - It
Sol.435.(c) Yeast, particularly Q.443. Select the INCORRECT statement
ch
includes all eukaryotic chlorophyll
Saccharomyces cerevisiae, is widely -containing organisms commonly called about Agar.
Graduate Level 21/06/2024 (Shift - 3)
ar
used in the bread and alcohol industries plants. Fungi - They are eukaryotic
for fermentation, helping to produce organisms that include microorganisms (a) Agar is used to grow microbes.
Se
carbon dioxide for leavening bread and such as yeasts, moulds and mushrooms. (b) Agar, one of the commercial products
ethanol for alcoholic beverages. obtained from red algae, gelidium and
Clostridium is a genus of anaerobic, Q.439. Which of the following options gracilaria.
Gram-positive bacteria. Nitrobacter is a indicates the size of PPLO (Pleuro (c) It is used as a nutrient and source of
genus comprising rod-shaped, Pneumonia Like Organisms)? fat of bacterial culture.
gram-negative, and chemoautotrophic SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (d) It is used in preparations of
bacteria. Penicillium is a genus of (a) About 30 μm (b) About 20 μm ice-creams and jellies.
ascomycetous fungi. (c) About 0.1 μm (d) About 10 μm
Sol.443.(c) Agar is not a source of fat for
Sol.439.(c) About 0.1 μm. bacterial culture, but it is used as a solid
Q.436. Which of the following categories
Pleuropneumonia-like organisms (PPLO), growth surface to help feed and grow
does Gonyaulax belong to?
or mycoplasmas, are among the smallest bacteria. Agar is a gelatinous
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (1st Shift)
bacteria, ranging from 0.1 to 0.3 mm. heteropolysaccharide produced in the
(a) Euglenoids (b) Chrysophytes
cell wall of marine red algae such as
(c) Protozoans (d) Dinoflagellates Q.440. Identify a spiral-shaped bacteria species of Gelidium, Gracilaria, Gigartina,
SSC CGL 18/09/2024 (3rd Shift) etc.
Sol.436.(d) Dinoflagellates.
(a) Bacillus (b) Spirillum
These organisms are mainly marine,
(c) Coccus (d) Vibrio Q.444. How many components do
photosynthetic organisms that can
bacterial flagella have ?
appear in various colors such as yellow, Sol.440.(b) Spirillum - A bacterium with SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening)
green, brown, blue, or red, depending on rigid spiral (helical) structure (not easily (a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
their pigments. Euglenoids include band, not flexible), thick, long, and move
Euglena, Chrysophytes encompass with flagella, 6–15 μm long and spiral in Sol.444.(d) 3. The bacterial flagellum is a
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
helical filamentous organelle responsible mildews, molds), Bacteria (Escherichia beta-hemolytic, spore-forming bacterium
for motility. These are made up of the coli, Spirillum volutans), Archaea commonly found in soil, food, and marine
protein flagellin and are a coiled, (hyperthermophiles, methanogens), sponges. It can cause two types of
thread-like structure with a sharp bend Viruses (Influenza, HIV, Pneumon). gastrointestinal illness : emetic
and a rotary motor at the base. (vomiting) syndrome and diarrhoeal
Q.449. Which aquatic microorganisms syndrome.
Q.445. What is the diameter size range eat phytoplankton and then become food
of the virus? for fish, crustaceans and other large Q.453. What is a biotechnological
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) species? process accomplished by yeast, some
(a) 20–200 nm (b) 10–100 nm SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening) type of bacteria, or some other
(c) 300-500 nm (d) 5–50 nm (a) Virioplankton (b) Zooplankton microorganism to convert sugar into
(c) Bacterioplankton (d) Zooxanthellae ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide?
Sol.445.(a) 20-200 nm. Virus - It is much SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Afternoon)
smaller than bacteria and most of it is Sol.449.(b) Zooplankton (a) Pasteurisation
microscopic. Viral diseases - Chickenpox, (eat phytoplankton and become food for (b) Lactic acid fermentation
Measles, Rubella, Roseola, Polio. other organisms) are small, free-floating (c) Alcoholic fermentation
aquatic microorganisms including (d) Glycolysis
Q.446. Which of the following can rotifers, jellyfish, and open-water insect
degrade detritus into simpler inorganic larvae. Sol.453.(c) Alcoholic fermentation.
substances? Alcoholic beverages like beer, wine,
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) Q.450. What kind of adaptation is seen in brandy, whisky, etc are made using
(a) Lichens (b) Algae bacteria when they form various kinds of fermentation of grains, grapes, rice, etc
(c) Fungal enzymes (d) Phytoplankton thick- walled spores. by yeast. Pasteurization (heat-treatment
df
SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Evening) process) destroys pathogenic
Sol.446.(c) Fungal enzymes. (a) Migrate (b) Conform
_p
The process of breaking down complex microorganisms in certain foods and
(c) Suspend (d) Regulate beverages. Glycolysis is the process in
organic matter in the detritus to simple
na
organic or inorganic compounds is called Sol.450.(c) Suspend. Endospores which glucose is broken down to
Catabolism. Bacterial and fungal are thick-walled structures formed in produce energy.
ap
enzymes can degrade detritus into bacteria in order to survive unfavorable Q.454. Identify the algae that is NOT a
simpler inorganic substances. DNA conditions such as extreme boiling and marine algae.
:@
polymerase is a catabolic enzyme which freezing temperatures and ultraviolet SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Evening)
catalyses DNA synthesis. radiations. They protect and allow the (a) Sargassum (b) Porphyra
bacteria to exist in “suspended (c) Chlorella (d) Laminaria
TG
Q.447. Which of the following is a kind of animation”. They also formed lower
Xanthan? plants like bryophytes, lichens, algae, and Sol.454.(c) Chlorella
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (4th shift) Fungi. (Chlorella pyrenoidosa) is a type of algae
on
(a) Seed gum (b) Seaweed gum that grows in freshwater. It's used for
(c) Microbial gum (d) Exudate gum Q.451. Which unicellular organism nutrition and as medicine as it is rich in
acquires food by a process in which cells
ch
Sol.447.(c) Microbial gum. Xanthan gum proteins and B-complex vitamins. The
absorb external material by engulfing it algal cell is roughly spherical and
: A microbial exo-polysaccharide with the cell membrane?
ar
produced by Xanthomonas bacteria. It is features a cup-shaped chloroplast and
SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Evening) numerous starch grains.
an effective thickening agent, emulsifier,
Se
(a) Yeast (b) Volvox
and stabiliser that prevents ingredients (c) Amoeba (d) Spirogyra
from separating. Xanthan gum is Enzymes and Hormones
produced by the fermentation of glucose Sol.451.(c) Amoeba is a unicellular
and sucrose. Xanthan gum discovered by organism that has the ability to change Q.455. What is the function of
Allene Jeanes. its shape. They are omnipresent and cytochrome P450 ?
found in water bodies. Yeast (unicellular) Matriculation Level 24/06/2024 (Shift - 4)
Q.448. Which of the following pairs of converts sugar and starch into carbon (a) Detoxification of xenobiotics
microorganism - type is correct? dioxide and alcohol. It reproduces by (b) Hydrolysis of glucose
I. Paramecium - Fungi budding. (c) ATP synthesis
II. Penicillium - Protozoa (d) Assimilation of medicines and
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening) Q.452. Which is the toxin-causing Xenobiotics
(a) Only II (b) Both I and II bacterium that spoils cream, cheese and
(c) Neither I nor II (d) Only I milk and makes them taste bitter, sour or Sol.455.(a) Detoxification of
bitter? xenobiotics. Cytochrome P450 is a
Sol.448.(c) Neither I nor II. SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Afternoon) family of heme-containing enzymes that
Microorganisms types : Algae (a) Bacillus cereus are important for many physiological
(photosynthetic eukaryotic organisms, (b) Streptococcus thermophilus processes.
embryophytes and green algae), (c) Bifidobacterium
Protozoa (Paramecia, Amoeba, Euglena), Q.456. Insufficient levels of parathyroid
(d) Lactobacillus plantarum
Slime moulds (Stemonitis, Physarum, hormone and low amount of calcium in
Dictyostellida, Lycogala, Tubifera, etc.), Sol.452.(a) Bacillus cereus is a Gram - the blood causes which of the following
Fungi (yeasts, penicillium, rusts, smuts, positive, rod-shaped, anaerobic, motile, conditions?
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Sol.459.(c) Both A and B. Saliva acts as true about ATP.
(a) Malaria (b) Anaemia a digestive juice and softens the food, SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(c) Diabetes (d) Hypocalcemia allowing for an easier digestion process. (a) nerve impulse propagation
It contains a starch digestive enzyme, (b) Secretion of enzymes
Sol.456.(d) Hypocalcemia. Calcium-rich salivary amylase that digests the starch (c) Contraction of muscles
foods : Curd, cheese, milk, dark green and converts it into maltose (d) Protein synthesis
vegetables, eggs, fatty fish and milk. (disaccharide). Saliva also contains an
Diabetes - When the pancreas does not enzyme called lingual lipase, which Sol.464.(b) Secretion of enzymes.
produce enough insulin or when the body breaks down fats. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is an
cannot effectively use the insulin it organic compound that provides energy
produces. Q.460. Steapsin, the enzyme which to drive many processes in living cells,
converts fats into fatty acids and such as muscle contraction, nerve
Q.457. Match the columns. glycerol, is secreted by ________. impulse propagation, condensate
Column-A Column-B SSC MTS 10/05/2023 (Morning) dissolution, and chemical synthesis.
(Enzyme/Protein) (Role in DNA (a) stomach (b) pancreas
replication) (c) small intestine (d) large intestine Q.465. Amylase enzymes can be found
i. Helicase a. Joins the 3' end o in ______.
the new DNA Sol.460.(b) Pancreas. Digestive enzymes SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
fragment to the 5' : Pepsin - Released in the stomach's (a) the stomach (b) the liver
end of the previous gastric juice along with HCI (Hydrochloric (c) the gall bladder (d) saliva
one acid) and Mucus. HCI provides an acidic
pH to activate the enzyme and breaks Sol.465.(d) Saliva. Amylase enzyme is a
ii. RNA primase b. Nucleotide
down proteins present in food to smaller digestive enzyme that breaks down the
df
polymerisation
molecules. complex chains of starch into simple
iii. DNA c. RNA primer
sugars that can be digested and
_p
polymerase synthesis
Q.461. Which among the following absorbed easily. Three types of amylases
iv. DNA ligase d. Opens up the DNA
mineral is essential for the synthesis of : alpha (found in humans, animals, plants,
na
double helix
thyroid hormones (thyroxine)? as well as in microbes), beta (found in
SSC CGL 21/07/2023 (2nd shift) SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Afternoon) microbes and plants) and gamma (found
ap
(a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (b) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (a) Iron (b) Iodine in plants and animals). Stomach (pepsin
(c) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a (d) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d (c) Selenium (d) Chromium enzyme, digest proteins found in
:@
ingested food).
Sol.457.(c) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a. Sol.461.(b) Iodine. The thyroid hormone
is well known for controlling metabolism, Q.466. Which antimicrobial enzymes are
Q.458. Peeling, cutting or crushing onion
TG
growth, and many other bodily functions. present in milk?
tissue releases which enzyme that
Higher Secondary 02/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
makes our eyes water? Q.462. Which of the following can (a) Lactoferrin, lactoperoxidase, and
Higher Secondary 30/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
on
degrade detritus into simpler inorganic lysozyme
(a) Xylanases (b) Bordelaises substances? (b) Lipofactin, lipase and lactose
(c) Allinases (d) Pectinases SSC CGL Tier II (03/03/2023)
ch
(c) Lactase, invertase, and lipase
(a) Algae (b) Phytoplankton (d) Lactose, fructose and mannose
Sol.458.(c) Allinases. Eating part of an
(c) Fungal enzymes (d) Lichens
ar
onion is a stem and fleshy leaves.
Sol.466.(a) Some of the native enzymes
Enzymes found in others : Chili - Sol.462.(c) Fungal enzymes. Detritus :
Se
in milk are alkaline phosphatase,
Capsaicin, Turmeric - Curcumin, Garlic - Dead and decaying organic debris. lactoperoxidase, lysozyme, lipase,
Alliinase. Xylanases are mainly produced Lichens : A symbiosis of fungus and proteinase, cathepsin D etc. Minerals
by microorganisms. Examples : bacteria, algae. Phytoplankton (microalgae) : They found in milk are iodine, calcium,
fungi. Bordelaises a sauce consisting of are microscopic, photosynthetic phosphorus, and potassium. It also
stock thickened with roux and flavored organisms that float in aquatic provides some sodium, magnesium, zinc,
typically with red wine and shallots. ecosystems, serving as the foundation of and selenium but is not a reliable source
Pectinases are used to break down this marine food chains. of iron, copper, or manganese.
pectin polymer into monomer sugars i.e.
galacturonic acid. Q.463. Identify the function of the Q.467. Which enzyme is responsible for
enzyme trypsin. the oxidation reaction that occurs in
Q.459. Which of the following SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (2nd Shift) some foods, mostly fruits and
statements about enzymes in the human (a) Digesting proteins vegetables, that turns the food brown?
body is/are correct? (b) Breaking down carbohydrates SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Afternoon)
Statement A: Maltase is present in the (c) Digesting roughage and fats (a) Polyphenol oxidase (b) Bromelain
saliva and breaks the sugar maltose into (d) Emulsifying insulin (c) Serrapeptase (d) Papain
glucose.
Sol.463.(a) Digesting proteins. Trypsin
Statement B: Amylase is present in the Sol.467.(a) Polyphenol oxidase.
is secreted into the small intestine for the
saliva and helps change starches into Bromelain is a group of enzymes found
digestion of protein. It is a proteolytic
sugars. in the fruit and stem of the pineapple
enzyme produced in the pancreas in the
SSC CHSL Tier II (26/06/2023) plant. Serrapeptase is a chemical taken
precursor form of inactive trypsinogen.
(a) Neither A nor B (b) Only A from the silkworm. Papain is an enzyme
(c) Both A and B (d) Only B Q.464. Identify the statement that is NOT found in the white fluid (latex) that
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
occurs in raw papaya fruit. Q.472. Who developed the technique of Sol.475.(c) 1830s. Nucleus of the cell -
preserving the quality of food by raising First described by Franz Bauer in 1804
Q.468. Glucagon, a peptide hormone, is its temperature to prevent microbial and in more detail in 1831 by Scottish
produced by the ______. growth in the food ? botanist Robert Brown in a talk at the
SSC CGL 20/08/2021(Afternoon) SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (3rd shift) Linnean Society of London.
(a) pancreas (b) hypothalamus (a) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
(c) adrenals (d) pituitary glands (b) Joseph Lister Q.476. Who explained the structure of
(c) Robert Koch protein ?
Sol.468.(a) Pancreas. Glucagon is a 29 SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
-amino acid peptide hormone (d) Louis Pasteur
(a) Emil Fischer
predominantly secreted from the alpha Sol.472.(d) Louis Pasteur. He was a (b) Pauling and Corey
cells of the pancreas. French biologist who is often regarded as (c) Johnson and Cristae
Q.469. Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent the father of modern microbiology. (d) RF Rose
assay is a technique used in detection of Scientists and their discoveries: Antonie
van Leeuwenhoek - Microbiology, Charles Sol.476.(b) Pauling and Corey. Linus
which of the following diseases? Pauling and Robert Corey proposed the
SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Evening) Darwin - Theory of evolution, Robert Koch
- Tuberculosis bacterium, Barbara alpha helix and beta sheet secondary
(a) Acquired immunodeficiency structures of proteins in 1951. Pauling
syndrome (AIDS) McClintock - Jumping genes, Watson
and Crick - DNA structure. was awarded the Nobel Prize in
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis Chemistry in 1954 for their work on the
(c) Kidney cancer Q.473. Who described the algae structure of proteins.
(d) Malaria Spirogyra in 1674 and named the motile
organisms Animalcules, meaning ‘little Q.477. In 1873, who published the first
df
Sol.469.(a) Acquired immunodeficiency photograph of nerve tissue stained with
syndrome (AIDS). The enzyme-linked animals’?
the black reaction technique, describing
_p
immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test is SSC CPO 28/06/2024 (3rd shift)
(a) Barthelemy Dumortier a whole nerve cell ?
frequently used to identify HIV infection. SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (1st Shift)
na
(a) Maurice Wilkins
Q.470. Which of the following hormone (c) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek (a) Gunter Blobel (b) Camillo Golgi
(c) William Harvey (d) Paul Ehrlich
ap
is secreted by the brain that helps to (d) Robert Remak
regulate sleep-wake cycles? Sol.477.(b) Camillo Golgi (An Italian
Sol.473.(c) Anton van Leeuwenhoek,
:@
SSC CHSL 05/08/2021 (Morning) physician and scientist). Scientists and
a Dutch scientist, was the first to
(a) Insulin (b) Melatonin their Discoveries : Gunter Blobel -
discover and describe microorganisms,
(c) Oxytocin (d) Aldosterone Proteins have signals that govern their
including protists and bacteria, which he
TG
Sol.470.(b) Melatonin. It is produced characterized as "animalcules." James movement and position in the cell.
from serotonin (made from tryptophan), Watson, Francis Crick and Maurice William Harvey - The function of the
through a cascade of enzymatic Wilkins discover the molecular structure heart and the circulation of blood. Paul
on
reactions. Its production increases with of DNA. Robert Remak was the first Ehrilich - Effective treatment for syphilis.
evening darkness, promoting healthy scientist to undertake successful
Q.478. Which bacteria was discovered by
ch
sleep and helping to orient our circadian research on fungal skin infections.
Barry Marshall and Robin Warren that
rhythm. colonises the human stomach and
Q.474. Which of the following was
ar
discovered by GN Ramachandran? causes chronic superficial gastritis
Discoveries and Vaccines
Se
Graduate Level 25/06/2024 (Shift - 3) ulcers?
(a) Fluid mosaic model of a cell SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Q.471. Which of the following is an (b) Plasma membrane (a) Campylobacter jejuni
inactivated (killed) polio vaccine (c) Golgi bodies (b) Helicobacter pylori
developed in 1952? (d) Triple helical structure of collagen (c) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
SSC CGL 09/09/2024 (3rd Shift) (d) Entamoeba histolytica
(a) Salk vaccine (b) Imvanex vaccine Sol.474.(d) Triple helical structure of
(c) HDCV vaccine (d) TAB vaccine collagen. G.N. Ramachandran, an Indian Sol.478.(b) Helicobacter pylori.
physicist, is renowned for his work that Campylobacter jejuni bacteria are found
Sol.471.(a) Salk vaccine. The Inactivated resulted in the creation of the naturally in the intestines of poultry,
Polio Vaccine (IPV) developed by Jonas Ramachandran plot, which aids in cattle, swine, rodents, wild birds and
Salk and the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) understanding peptide structure. The household pets like cats and dogs.
developed by Albert Sabin. Polio collagen triple helix, a right-handed Neisseria gonorrhoeae infects the
(poliomyelitis) is a highly infectious viral super-coiled structure, consists of three mucous membranes of the reproductive
disease that enters the body through the parallel α-chains, each adopting a tract, including the cervix, uterus, and
mouth, multiplying in the intestine before polyproline II helical conformation. fallopian tubes in women. Entamoeba
invading the nervous system. Imvanex histolytica is well recognized as a
vaccine used to protect against Q.475. Around which year did Robert pathogenic ameba, associated with
smallpox. HDCV (Human diploid cell Brown publish a paper highlighting the intestinal and extraintestinal infections.
vaccine) is a rabies vaccine. TAB vaccine presence of a nucleus in plant cells ?
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) Q.479. Which cytologist demonstrated
(Typhoid-paratyphoid A and B) is used
(a) 1780s (b) 1950s (c) 1830s (d) 1660s the role of the endoplasmic reticulum
for the treatment of typhoid.
(ER) in protein processing and sorting in
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
a variety of cells in the 1960s ? cytogeneticist named Joe Hin Tjio them more water repellant.
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift) publish a research finding that defined
(a) Ralph M Steinman (b) George E Palade 2n=46 as the exact number of human Q.487. Who explained the structure and
(c) Nettie Stevens (d) Cyril Darlington chromosomes? reproductive system of algae in 1935 ?
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift) SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023)
Sol.479.(b) George E Palade won the (a) 1950 (b) 1952 (c) 1956 (d) 1960 (a) MOP Iyengar (b) FE Fritsch
1974 Nobel Prize in Physiology or (c) William Henry (d) Carolus Linnaeus
Medicine for his work on the Sol.483.(c) 1956. They are responsible
endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Ralph M. for the hereditary traits and passed from Sol.487.(b) FE Fritsch - In his book “The
Steinman was a physician and parents to offspring from one generation Structure and Reproduction of the Algae”
immunologist who won the 2011 Nobel to another. 22 pairs of these proposed a system of classification of
Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his chromosomes are called autosomes algae. He treated algae giving the rank of
discovery of dendritic cells in 1973. (identical in males and females). The division and divided it into 11 classes.
Nettie Stevens was an American 23rd pair of chromosomes are called Sex His classification of algae is mainly
biologist who discovered the sex Chromosomes and they differ between based upon characters of pigments,
chromosomes in 1905. the sexes. Males have XY while females flagella and reserve food material.
have XX. This unique structure of the Parthasarathy Iyengar - Father of Indian
Q.480. Which of the following chromosome keeps DNA tightly packed Phycology.
personalities is a well-known Indian plant with histone proteins to fit inside the cell.
physiologist and physicist ? Q.488. Which ecologist’s research
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift) Q.484. In which year did Walther provided revolutionary new insights into
(a) JC Bose (b) CV Raman Flemming coined the term ‘chromatin’ for how energy and nutrients move through
(c) CNR Rao (d) JRD Tata the stained substance found in the cell the ecosystems?
df
nucleus? SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 ( Morning)
Sol.480.(a) JC Bose (Father of Indian (a) Arthur Tansley
_p
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Plant Physiology) invented the (a) 1900 (b) 1840 (c) 1849 (d) 1879 (b) Ernst Haeckel
‘crescograph’ for measuring plant (c) Charles Elton
growth. CV Raman was awarded the
1930 Nobel Prize in Physics for his
Sol.484.(d) 1879. Chromatin is a
na
substance in the chromosome consisting
(d) Raymond L Lindeman
ap
discovery of the ‘Raman Effect’. CNR Rao of DNA and proteins, Consists of Sol.488.(d) Raymond Laurel Lindeman
- An Indian chemist who was awarded Histones which helps in compacting the was an ecologist whose graduate
:@
Bharat Ratna in 2014. JRD Tata (Father DNA to fit into the cell nucleus. research is credited with being a seminal
of Indian Civil Aviation) - The first person study in the field of ecosystem ecology,
in India to own a flying licence. Q.485. Which ecologist is famous for specifically on the topic of trophic
TG
studying plant life in the Indiana Dunes in dynamics.
Q.481. In which year did Rudolf Ludwig 1896 ?
Karl Virchow formulate his famous SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift) Q.489. In 1857, who was the first to
on
aphorism 'Omnis cellula-e cellula' which (a) Robert Macarthur experimentally demonstrate that the
became a part of the foundation of cell (b) G Evelyn Hutchinson yeast responsible for making alcohol
theory? from sugar, and contaminating
ch
(c) Henry Chandler Cowles
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift) (d) Aldo Leopold microorganisms found in normal air,
(a) 1855 (b) 1869 (c) 1840 (d) 1835 Could sour fermentation?
ar
Sol.485.(c) Henry Chandler Cowles - SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Afternoon)
Sol.481.(a) 1855.
Se
American botanist and ecologist who (a) Alexander Fleming
Cell was first discovered by Robert influenced the early study of plant (b) Louis Pasteur
Hooke in 1665. Cell theory was proposed communities. G Evelyn Hutchinson - (c) Fanny Hesse
by Theodor Schwann in 1839. American zoologist known for his (d) Martinus Willem Beijerinck
Q.482. In which year did E Gorter and F ecological studies of freshwater lakes.
Aldo Leopold - American Sol.489.(b) Louis Pasteur. He discovered
Grendel make a breakthrough by that microorganisms cause fermentation
examining the surface area of lipids and environmentalist whose book is “A Sand
County Almanac”. and disease, the process of
concluded that the lipid surface pasteurisation, and developed vaccines
surrounding cells must be of two layers? Q.486. Which among the following are against anthrax and rabies. Alexander
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (1st shift) commonly known as blood thinners? Fleming discovered penicillin. Fanny
(a) 1910 (b) 1925 (c) 1945 (d) 1962 SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Morning) Hesse was the first to propose the use of
(a) Anticoagulants (b) Antibiotics agar as a culture media for growing and
Sol.482.(b) 1925. Lipids - These are
(c) Anticaking agent (d) Antibodies isolating bacteria. Beijerinck was the first
molecules that contain hydrocarbons and
to recognize that viruses are reproducing
make up the building blocks of the Sol.486.(a) Anticoagulants - Medicines entities that are different from other
structure and function of living cells. that help prevent blood clots. Antibodies organisms.
Example : fats, oils, waxes, certain - Proteins produced by the body's
vitamins such as (A, D, E and K), hormones immune system when they detect Q.490. With whom did Camillo Golgi
and most of the cell membrane that is not harmful substances, called antigens receive the Nobel Prize in 1906 for his
made up of protein. (Bacteria, fungi, parasites, and viruses). work on the structure of the nervous
Anti-caking - Absorption of excess system?
Q.483. In which year did an American SSC CHSL 07/06/2022 (Morning)
moisture or by coating particles to make
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
(a) Lina Aletti microscope. He also discovered animal Sol.498.(d) Carolus Linnaeus. He was a
(b) Cesare Lombroso chromosomes. Albert von Kolliker is best Swedish biologist and physician who
(c) Ettore Marchiafava known for his contributions to histology, formalised binomial nomenclature, the
(d) Santiago Ramony Cajal the knowledge of the minute structure of modern system of naming organisms.
the animal tissues. Garth L. Nicolson He is known as the "father of modern
Sol.490.(d) Santiago Ramón y Cajal.
made a landmark scientific model for cell taxonomy”. Carl Woese : Developed the
Ettore Marchiafava (known for his study
membrane, known as the Fluid Mosaic Three-Domain System of classification
of Malaria). Cesare Lombroso (gave the
Model. (Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya). Robert
biological theory of criminology).
Whittaker : Proposed the Five Kingdom
Q.495. In which year did Rudolf Virchow System of classification (Monera,
Q.491. In 1838, who published an article
published an essay titled ‘Cellular Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia). Ernst
discussing the structure and origin of
Pathology’ in which he famously Haeckel : Introduced the term "ecology"
plant cells?
declared that "every cell arises from and contributed to evolutionary theory.
SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Afternoon)
another cell”?
(a) Robert Brown
SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Evening) Q.499. Which of the following
(b) Rudolf Virchow
(a) 1865 (b) 1845 (c) 1835 (d) 1855 researchers observed densely stained
(c) Matthias Schleiden
reticular structures surrounding the
(d) Albert von Kölliker Sol.495.(d) 1855. Rudolf Virchow found nucleus (Hint: Figure)?
cells in bone and connective tissue and SSC CGL 25/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
Sol.491.(c) Matthias Schleiden and
described substances such as myelin.
Theodor Schwann, co-founded the cell
He was also the first person to explain
theory. In 1838 Schleiden defined the cell
the mechanism of pulmonary
as the basic unit of plant structure, and a
thromboembolism. He was the first
df
year later Schwann defined the cell as
person to recognize leukemia.
the basic unit of animal structure.
_p
(a) William Harvey (b) Francis Crick
Q.496. Bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) is a (c) Camillo Golgi (d) Louis Pasteur
Q.492. In 1972, ________ coined the term
vaccine for______
na
‘pyramid of numbers’ that represented
SSC CGL 20/04/2022(Afternoon) Sol.499.(c) Camillo Golgi.
the total numbers of individuals
(a) typhoid (b) plague An Italian physician and biologist
ap
(population) present in each trophic level.
(c) mumps (d) tuberculosis (TB) discovered the Golgi apparatus in 1898.
SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Evening)
He identified densely stained reticular
:@
(a) Eugene Odum (b) Ernst Haeckel Sol.496.(d) Tuberculosis (TB). The structures surrounding the nucleus using
(c) Arthur Tansley (d) Charles Elton vaccine was discovered by Leon the silver nitrate staining technique,
Calmette and Camille Guerin. It is known as Golgi's method, along with light
TG
Sol.492.(d) Charles Elton. Eugene
caused by a bacterium called microscopy. William Harvey: Known for
Pleasants Odum is known for his
Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Plague is describing blood circulation. Louis
pioneering work on ecosystem ecology.
an infectious disease that affects Pasteur: Developed vaccines and
on
Ernst Haeckel coined the term 'ecology'
animals and humans. It is caused by the pasteurization.
in 1866 to describe the “economies” of
bacterium Yersinia pestis.
living forms. Tansley coined the term
Q.500. In the context of DNA, which of
ch
“ecosystem” to recognize the integration
Scientific Study the following principles governs the
of the biotic community and its physical
process of Transcription ?
ar
environment.
SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (1st shift)
Q.497. In the year 1925, who extracted
Se
Q.493. For what discovery was Jan (a) The transforming principle
lipids from an erythrocyte sample and
Evangelista Purkinje known in 1839 ? (b) The principle of complementarity
found that lipid monolayers are good for
SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Morning) (c) The principle of inheritance
measuring molecular surface area
(a) Proposed a lipid bilayer membrane (d) Semiconservative nature of DNA
versus lateral pressure?
(b) Discovered plasma membrane SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (3rd Shift) Sol.500.(b) The principle of
(c) Coined the term protoplasm (a) Gorter and Grendel complementarity. This principle involves
(d) Discovered the nucleus (b) Carson and Eccles pairing adenine with uracil (instead of
(c) Avery and Buck thymine) during transcription, where one
Sol.493.(c) Coined the term protoplasm
(d) Margulis and Ruska DNA strand serves as a template for RNA
(1839), David Robertson - Proposed a
lipid bilayer membrane. synthesis. Transcription is the process of
Sol.497.(a) Gorter and Grendel extracted
copying genetic information from DNA to
Q.494. In 1879, who observed cell lipids from red blood cells, dissolved
RNA.
division in salamander embryos, where them, and spread them into a monolayer
cells divide at fixed intervals? on water. Q.501. In which year did Wilhelm
SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Afternoon) Johannsen coin the term 'gene' to
Q.498. Who published Systema Naturae
(a) Albert von Kolliker (b) Edwin Gorter describe the Mendelian units of heredity
in 1735 classifying the three kingdoms of
(c) Walther Flemming (d) Edwin Gorter SSC CHSL 04/07/2024 (2nd shift)
nature and outlining the sexual system
(a) 1920 (b) 1900 (c) 1909 (d) 1910
Sol.494.(c) Walther Flemming was a for the classification of plants?
pioneer of cytogenetics, a field of SSC CGL 23/09/2024 (2nd Shift) Sol.501.(c) 1909. A gene is a segment of
science that analyses structures and (a) Carl Woese (b) Robert Whittaker DNA that contains instructions for
processes in the cell nucleus under a (c) Ernst Haeckel (d) Carolus Linnaeus making proteins or functional RNA
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
molecules. Genes are made up of DNA, infections. Metronidazole is used to treat (a) Ethanol (b) Hydrochloric acid
which is made up of nucleotides. trichomoniasis, amebiasis, inflammatory (c) Acetocarmine (d) Methanol
Nucleotides can be adenine (A), thymine lesions of rosacea, and bacterial
(T), cytosine (C), or guanine (G). The term infections and prevent postoperative Sol.508.(c) Acetocarmine is a commonly
"genetics" was coined by William infections. used stain in cytology (study of cell) for
Bateson, an English biologist, in 1905. visualizing chromosomes under a
microscope. It binds to chromatin,
Q.502. In which year did a trio of
Miscellaneous making the chromosomes more distinct
scientists, Avery, MacLeod and McCarty, and easier to study during cell division.
Q.505. What is the cottony growth on
prove that except viruses, all living
stale and wet bread called? Q.509. What do you call the body cavity
organisms have DNA as their genetic
SSC CHSL Tier II 18/11/2024 that is lined by mesoderm?
material ?
(a) Fungi (b) Algae SSC MTS 30/10/2024 (1st Shift)
SSC CHSL 11/07/2024 (2nd shift)
(c) Bacteria (d) Lichens (a) Coelom (b) Diploblasts
(a) 1961 (b) 1944 (c) 1918 (d) 1902
(c) Radial symmetry (d) Triploblasts
Sol.505.(a) Fungi. The fungus that
Sol.502.(b) 1944. DNA (Deoxyribonucleic
causes the cottony growth on bread is Sol.509.(a) Coelom. A coelom is a body
acid) as an acidic substance present in
called Rhizopus, also known as common cavity completely lined by mesoderm, as
nucleus was first identified by Friedrich
bread mould. The fungi constitute a seen in coelomates like annelids,
Meischer in 1869. He named it ‘Nuclein’.
unique kingdom of heterotrophic molluscs, and arthropods. In contrast, a
DNA is a long polymer of
organisms. pseudocoelom is partially lined by
deoxyribonucleotides. In 1953 James
Watson and Francis Crick proposed the mesoderm and is found in
Q.506. Calculate the Body Mass Index
Double Helix model for the structure of pseudocoelomates like roundworms.
df
(BMI) of a person whose weight is 50 kg
DNA. The four bases in DNA are adenine These body cavities play a key role in
and height is 1.5 m.
protecting internal organs and allowing
_p
(A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and SSC MTS 30/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
thymine (T). movement.
(a) 25.0 kg/m2 (b) 22.2 kg/m2
na
(c) 16.6 kg/m2 (d) 18.0 kg/m2 Q.510. When the body is deprived of
Q.503. In 1955, who published a
comprehensive study of small particle energy from food, which of the following
ap
Sol.506.(b) 22.2 kg/m2. BMI is a medical
constituents of the cytoplasm' tissues is used to feed on its own?
screening tool that measures the ratio of
(ribosomes) and correctly estimated SSC MTS 11/11/2024 (2nd Shift)
:@
your height to your weight to estimate
their physiological importance? (a) Nervous tissue
the amount of body fat you have. To
Higher Secondary 25/06/2024 (Shift - 2) (b) Collenchyma tissue
calculate the BMI, we use the formula:
(a) Albert Von Kolliker (c) Epithelial tissue
TG
𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 (𝑘𝑔) 50 50
(b) George E Palade BMI = 2 2 = 2 = (d) Adipose tissue
ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 (𝑚 ) (1.5) 2.25
(c) Pierre Joseph Pelletier
= 22.2 kg/m2. Sol.510.(d) Adipose tissue: Fat storing
(d) James Thomson
on
adipose tissue is found below the skin
Q.507. The process by which a water and between internal organs. The cells of
Sol.503.(b) George E Palade.
body gradually becomes enriched with this tissue are filled with fat globules.
He demonstrated their role in protein
ch
nutrients and minerals, mainly Storage of fats also lets it act as an
synthesis and provided insights into their
phosphorus and nitrogen, leading to insulator.
physiological importance, earning him
ar
enormous growth of algae on the surface
the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine
of the water, thus decreasing the amount Q.511. Which of the following is a non -
Se
in 1974. Pierre Joseph Pelletier: A French
of dissolved oxygen in the water is perishable food?
chemist known for his work in organic
known as: SSC CGL 10/09/2024 (1st Shift)
chemistry, particularly in the discovery of
SSC MTS 21/10/2024 (2nd Shift) (a) Pulses (b) Meat (c) Milk (d) Curds
various alkaloids and other compounds.
(a) Eutrophication
Albert Von Kolliker: A Swiss anatomist Sol.511.(a) Pulses.
(b) Biomagnification
known for his work on muscle structure Non-perishable foods are items that can
(c) Hypoxia
and the discovery of mitochondria. be stored at room temperature for
(d) Bioaccumulation
extended periods without spoiling.
Q.504. Which antibiotic is considered the
Sol.507.(a) Eutrophication occurs when Examples include beans, coffee, honey,
first miracle drug, used to treat throat
nutrient pollution from human activities powdered milk, rice, and wheat. In
infections, meningitis, syphilis and other
leads to excessive algae growth in water contrast, frozen foods are not classified
bacterial infections?
bodies. This can cause hypoxia, a low as non-perishable.
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
(a) Aciclovir (b) Nifuratel oxygen condition that harms aquatic life.
Q.512. What do we mean by Allen’s rule?
(c) Penicillin (d) Metronidazole Biomagnification and bioaccumulation
SSC CGL 11/09/2024 (3rd Shift)
describe how toxins like pesticides and
Sol.504.(c) Penicillin was discovered by (a) Mammals from colder climates
heavy metals accumulate in organisms
Alexander Fleming. Acyclovir is used for generally have shorter ears and limbs
and intensify up the food chain.
the treatment of herpes simplex virus to minimise heat loss.
infections, chickenpox, and shingles. Q.508. Which specific chemical can be (b) Desert lizards lack the physiological
Nifuratel is a drug used in gynecology, applied to achieve staining of ability that mammals have to deal
used in the treatment of leucorrhea, chromosomes? with the high temperatures of their
vulvovaginal infections, and urinary tract SSC MTS 23/10/2024 (1st Shift) habitat.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
(c) Some plants have no leaves – they (a) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c (b) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a passed from parents to their offspring.
are reduced to spines – and the (c) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (d) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c Incomplete inheritance, also known as
photosynthetic function is taken over incomplete dominance, is a pattern of
by the flattened stems. Sol.515.(b) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a. inheritance where neither allele of a gene
(d) The body compensates low oxygen Q.516. Mendel proposed the law of is completely dominant over the other.
availability by increasing red blood independent assortment on the basis of Linkage is a physical association of two
cell production, decreasing the SSC CHSL 01/07/2024 (4th shift) genes.
binding affinity of haemoglobin and (a) dihybrid crosses
by increasing the breathing rate. Q.519. Which of the Mendel's laws states
(b) Monohybrid crosses that a diploid organism passes a
Sol.512.(a) Allen's rule is an (c) genes randomly selected allele for a trait to its
ecogeographical rule formulated by Joel (d) alleles offspring, such that the offspring inherit
Asaph Allen in 1877. It states that the Sol.516.(a) dihybrid crosses. The Law of one allele from each parent ?
body surface-area-to-volume ratio for Independent Assortment (Mendel's SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (2nd shift)
homeothermic animals varies with the second law) states that during a dihybrid (a) Law of independent assortment
average temperature of the habitat to cross (crossing of two pairs of traits), an (b) Law of segregation
which they are adapted (i.e. the ratio is assortment of each pair of traits is (c) Law of dominance
low in cold climates and high in hot independent of the other. In other words, (d) Law of paired factor
climates). during gamete formation, one pair of Sol.519.(b) Law of segregation.
Q.513. What kind of phyllotaxy was traits segregates from another pair of Mendel’s Law of Dominance, also known
examined in the Guava plant? traits independently. Monohybrid cross - as the first law of inheritance states that
SSC CGL 13/09/2024 (2nd Shift) When a cross is made between parents when parents with pure, contrasting traits
df
(a) Superimposed (b) Whorled with one pair of contrasting characters. are crossed, the trait appearing in the
Gene - The fundamental unit of heredity.
_p
(c) Alternate (d) Opposite next generation is the dominant one, and
Alleles - Genes which code for a pair of the hybrid offspring will display only the
Sol.513.(d) Opposite. Phyllotaxy refers contrasting traits.
na
dominant trait in their phenotype. Law of
to the arrangement of leaves on the stem Independent Assortment : It states that
or branch of a plant. In an opposite leaf Q.517. Which of the following sequences
ap
is correct, according to taxonomy ? when two pairs of traits are combined in
arrangement, two leaves arise at the a hybrid, the segregation of one pair of
same point, with the leaves connecting SSC CHSL 03/07/2024 (4th shift)
:@
(a) Phylum-Class-Order-Family-Genus- characters occurs independently of the
opposite each other along the branch. If other pair. This law is based on
there are three or more leaves connected Species
(b) Class-Phylum-Family-Order observations from dihybrid crosses.
at a node, the leaf arrangement is
TG
classified as whorled. Genus-Species Q.520. In which of the following is
(c) Family-Phylum-Class-Order-Genus- nicotine present in high quantity ?
Q.514. Which of the following pairs is Species SSC CPO 29/06/2024 (1st shift)
on
INCORRECTLY matched?. (d) Class-Phylum-Order-Family-Genus- (a) Tobacco (b) Tea
SSC CGL 17/09/2024 (1st Shift) Species (c) Buttermilk (d) Lime soda
ch
(a) Lactose: Milk
(b) Starch: Egg Yolk Sol.517.(a) According to taxonomy : Sol.520.(a) Tobacco.
Phylum - Broad group of related The average cigarette contains around
ar
(c) Fructose: Grapes
(d) Maltose: Wheat, cornmeal and barley organisms (Example - Chordata). Class - 10–12 milligrams (mg) of nicotine. Intake
Se
More specific group within a phylum of nicotine either through smoking or
Sol.514.(b) Starch : Egg Yolk. Starch is (Example- Mammalia). Order - Even more chewing tobacco may lead to
the main storage polysaccharide of specific group within a class (Example - hypertension and should be avoided.
plants. It is the most important dietary Carnivora). Family - Group of related Diseases caused by tobacco : Lung
source for human beings. High content genera (Example - Felidae). Genus - cancer, Oral cancer, Bronchitis,
of starch is found in cereals, roots, tubers Group of related species (Example - Atherosclerosis.
and some vegetables but not in egg yolk. Panthera). Species - Most specific, a
It is a polymer of α-glucose and consists single type of organism (Example - Q.521. In the energy flow diagram of an
of two components— Amylose and Panthera leo, the lion). ecosystem, the flow of energy comes to
Amylopectin. herbivores from:
Q.518. The phenomenon of the SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024
Q.515. Match the terms in column A with interaction between nonallelic genes at (a) sunlight (b) carnivores
their respective properties in column B. two or more loci resulting in one gene (c) top carnivores (d) producers
Column-A Column-B masking the phenotypic expression of
i. Glucose a. Intermediate substance another gene, is known as: Sol.521.(d) Producers - They are
in breakdown of glucose SSC CHSL 05/07/2024 (1st shift) Autotrophs, make their food by using
ii. Yeast b. Glucose is converted (a) incomplete inheritance Sunlight and are placed at first trophic
into pyruvic acid (b) linkage level. Producers are consumed by
iii. Glycolysis c. Uses nutrients for (c) epistasis Herbivores, which are placed at the
fermentation process Second trophic level. Herbivores are
(d) complete inheritance
iv. Pyruvic acid d. Best organic substrate Consumed by Carnivores. The Pyramid
for respiration Sol.518.(c) Epistasis. Inheritance is the of energy which is upright reflects that
SSC CGL 26/09/2024 (2nd Shift) process by which genetic information is the energy flow in a food chain is always
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
unidirectional. Also, with every increasing Sol.525.(b) Plasmolysis is the process food chain : Producers/autotrophs (first
trophic level, some energy is lost into the by which a plant cell loses water when trophic level), consumers (second, third,
environment. This means Energy is placed in a hypertonic solution. and fourth trophic levels), and
maximum at the first trophic level. Examples of Plasmolysis are : Shrinkage decomposers. Producers : Plants
of vegetables in hypertonic conditions, (Grass), phytoplankton, and plant-like
Q.522. Which of the following represents Blood cells shrink when they are placed organisms (algae). Primary Consumers :
a visible biological hazard in food ? in hypertonic conditions. Herbivores (grasshopper, rabbit, horse,
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023(Afternoon) giraffe, human, deer, turtle). Secondary
(a) Viruses (b) Caterpillars Q.526. At what temperature (in degree consumers : Dogs, Frog, Wolves. Tertiary
(c) Protozoa (d) Yeasts celsius) is milk heated for 15 to 30 Consumer : Lions, Tigers, Crocodiles,
seconds to kill microbes in the Polar bears, Jaguars. Decomposers:
Sol.522.(b) Caterpillars : The larval stage pasteurisation method?
of moths and butterflies. Some of these Bacteria, fungi.
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (1st shift)
can be poisonous, and their hair can (a) 45 (b) 100 (c) 70 (d) 20 Q.530. _____ percent can be taken as the
cause skin irritation. Viruses, protozoa, average value for the amount of organic
and yeasts are all microscopic Sol.526.(c) 70℃. Pasteurisation : matter that is present at each step of the
organisms, and so cannot be seen by the Process by which milk is heated to a food chain and reaches the next level of
naked eye. specific temperature for a set period of consumers.
time to kill harmful bacteria that can lead SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
Q.523. Which of the following is an to diseases like Listeriosis, Typhoid fever,
invisible biological hazard in food ? (a) 1.5 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) 2
Tuberculosis, Diphtheria and Brucellosis.
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning) This process was discovered by Louis Sol.530.(c) 10. The 10% rule was
(a) Molds (b) Worms (c) Weevils (d) Fly Pasteur. introduced by Raymond Lindeman in
df
Sol.523.(a) Molds. Biological hazards 1942. According to this rule, only about
Q.527. Which plant is considered a
_p
are living organisms and include ten percent of the biological food energy
noxious weed that has a chemical is stored in the organism's body when
microbiological organisms. Those defence mechanism to protect it from
na
micro-organisms which are associated transferred from one trophic level to the
predators? next, while the remaining energy is lost in
with food and cause diseases are termed SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift)
ap
as food-borne pathogens. Visible various activities and as heat. The
(a) Calotropis (b) Chicory remaining 90 % is lost during transfer,
biological Hazards in Food - Worms, (c) Black henbane (d) Field bindweed
:@
Cockroaches, Fly, Weevils, Caterpillars. broken down in respiration, or lost to
Invisible biological hazards in Food - Sol.527.(a) Calotropis. It produces a incomplete digestion by higher trophic
Bacteria, Yeasts, Protozoa, Viruses. compound called cardiac glycosides as a level.
TG
defence mechanism. Other plants with Q.531. What do you call the type of drugs
Q.524. When do the drugs used as chemical defences : Poison Ivy
medicines become potential poisons? that mimic the natural messenger by
(Toxicodendron radicans) - Contains switching on the receptor?
on
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) urushiol, Poppies (Papaver) - Produce
(a) When doses are taken as SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023)
alkaloids such as morphine and codeine, (a) Antidepressants (b) Depressants
recommended
ch
Tobacco (Nicotiana) - Contains nicotine. (c) Agonist (d) Antagonists
(b) When doses are taken at the
recommended time and in the Q.528. Which of the soluble fibres found
ar
Sol.531.(c) Agonist. Stimulants are a
recommended quantity in fruits is used as a thickener in cooking class of drugs that speed up messages
Se
(c) When doses are taken higher than and baking? travelling between the brain and body.
recommended SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (4th shift) Examples - Caffeine, nicotine,
(d) When doses are taken lower than (a) Lignin (b) Cellulose amphetamines, cocaine, etc.
recommended (c) Pectin (d) Inulin
Q.532. What do you call the drugs that
Sol.524.(c) Pharmaceutical drug Sol.528.(c) Pectin. Food Thickener - A bind to the receptor site and inhibit its
(medication or medicine) - A chemical thickening agent that increases the natural function?
substance used to treat, prevent, or viscosity of a liquid mix without SSC CGL Tier II (07/03/2023)
diagnose a disease or to promote interfering with its other properties. Other (a) Antidepressants (b) Agonist
well-being. food thickening agents : Corn Starch, (c) Antagonists (d) Depressants
Xanthan gum, Gelatin, Potato Starch,
Q.525. Why do pickles last longer? Arrowroot and Agar-agar. Inulin - A type Sol.532.(c) Antagonists.Antidepressants
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) of prebiotic, a compound that are medications that help alleviate
(a) The water content of the pickle encourages the healthy growth of gut symptoms of depression and improve
protects the pickle from spoilage. bacteria. mood. Examples - Agomelatine,
(b) Bacterial and fungal cells get amitriptyline, citalopram, clomipramine,
plasmolysed in high salt Q.529. Which of the following is a etc. Depressants are a type of drug that
concentration of pickle. tertiary consumer? slows down brain activity, which causes
(c) Pickle is prepared in a vacuum so that SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Morning) the muscles to relax and calms and
no harmful bacteria can grow on it. (a) Grass (b) Snake soothes a person. Examples - Diazepam,
(d) Only beneficial bacteria can grow in (c) Frog (d) Grasshopper clonazepam, alprazolam, etc.
the pickle.
Sol.529.(b) Snake. Trophic levels in the
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
Q.533. Nutritional care during illness is Q.537. In ecology, is determined includes millipede, springtails, woodlice,
an organised group of activities which by dividing the biomass per unit area by dung flies and slugs that feed on the
consists of all of the following, EXCEPT: the age of the ecosystem. dead or decaying plants or animals?
SSC CGL Tier II (07/03/2023) SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Morning)
(a) assessing psychological stress (a) biomass density (a) Carnivores (b) Detritivores
(b) assessing nutritional status (b) biomass size (c) Omnivores (d) Herbivores
(c) planning and prioritising nutrition (c) biomass energy flow
intervention(s) to meet nutritional (d) biomass productivity Sol.541.(b) Detritivores - An organism
needs (such as an earthworm or a fungus) that
Sol.537.(d) Biomass productivity. feeds on dead and decomposing organic
(d) diagnosis of nutritional problems
In ecology, the term productivity refers to matter.
Sol.533.(a) Assessing psychological the rate of generation of biomass in an
stress. The Nutrition Care Process (NCP) ecosystem. Units of biomass are grams Q.542. A balanced diet takes care of all
is a systematic approach to providing per metre square (g/m2). the following aspects, EXCEPT one.
high quality nutrition care. The NCP Identify the aspect.
Q.538. In an ecosystem, vertical SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Evening)
consists of four distinct, interrelated
distribution of different species (a) Promotes a healthy mind
steps : Nutrition Assessment, Nutrition
occupying different levels is called _____. (b) Meets the RDA for all nutrients
Diagnosis, Nutrition Intervention,
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) (c) Includes nutrients in correct
Nutrition Monitoring/Evaluation.
(a) levelling (b) grouping proportions
Q.534. Husk of a coconut is made of (c) ramification (d) stratification (d) Includes a variety of food items
______ tissue.
Sol.538.(d) Stratification. Different types Sol.542.(a) Promotes a healthy mind.
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
df
of the ecosystem : Terrestrial ecosystem The 7 components of a balanced diet are
(a) Collenchyma (b) Xylem
- Forest ecosystem, Grassland Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats, Vitamins,
_p
(c) Sclerenchyma (d) Parenchyma
ecosystem, Desert ecosystem, Tundra Minerals, Fibre and Water.
Sol.534.(c) Sclerenchyma tissue (provide ecosystem. Aquatic ecosystem -
na
strength to plants). Tissues of Plants : Freshwater ecosystem, Marine Q.543. What is a way in which adaptation
Dermal Tissues {epidermal cells, ecosystem. The four main components does NOT take place?
ap
stomata, trichomes}, Ground tissues of an ecosystem are : Productivity, SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Afternoon)
{Collenchyma (provide mechanical Decomposition, Energy flow and Nutrient (a) Physiological (b) Emotional
:@
strength and elasticity to plants), cycling. The largest ecosystem in the (c) Behavioural (d) Morphological
parenchyma (to store food and provide world is the aquatic ecosystem.
Sol.543.(b) Emotional. Adaptations are
turgidity to organ), sclerenchyma}, and
TG
Q.539. The green plants in a terrestrial of three types : Morphological adaptation
Vascular tissue {Vessel elements, ecosystem capture about _____ of the is a structural change which gives an
tracheids, companion cells and sieve energy of sunlight that falls on their organism a greater chance of survival in
tubes}. Xylem is a vascular tissue that
on
leaves and convert it into food energy. its habitat. Behavioural adaptations are
transports water throughout a plant's SSC MTS 22/07/2022 (Afternoon) changes in behaviour that certain
body. (a) 5% (b) 14% (c) 8% (d) 1% organisms or species use to survive in a
ch
Q.535. Roquefortine C is found in : new environment. Physiological
Sol.539.(d) 1%. The rate of
adaptation is an internal change that
ar
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift) photosynthesis is maximum in Red light
(a) Meat (b) Chicken (c) Egg (d) Cheese animals and plants go through to ensure
and minimum in green light. The only
Se
their survival in their environment.
metal present in chlorophyll -
Sol.535.(d) Cheese. Roquefortine C
Magnesium. The Chlorophyll Q.544. How do humans acclimatize at
(C22H23N5O2) - Found in cheese. Although
(C55H72MgN4O5) helps plants to absorb high altitudes where atmospheric
it is a potent neurotoxin at high doses, at
energy from the sun as they undergo the pressure is low for normal breathing?
low concentrations of 0.05 to 1.47 mg/kg
process of photosynthesis. SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Morning)
that occur in domestic cheeses, it was
found to be "safe for the consumer". (a) By decreasing red blood cell
Q.540. When the bread rises and bakes,
production, decreasing the binding
______ creates thousands of bubbles in
Q.536. Who among the following affinity of hemoglobin and by
the dough.
proposed the term ‘ecosystem’? increasing breathing rate
SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Evening)
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (3rd Shift) (b) By increasing red blood cell
(a) phosphorus (b) nitrogen
(a) AG Tansley (b) Grinnel production, decreasing the binding
(c) oxygen (d) carbon dioxide
(c) Lindeman (d) Turreson affinity of hemoglobin and by
Sol.540.(d) Carbon dioxide. Bread rises increasing breathing rate
Sol.536.(a) A.G. Tansley (1935). because yeast eats sugar and burps (c) By hibernating
The term “ecology” was coined by Ernst carbon dioxide, which gets trapped by (d) By increasing white blood cell
Haeckel. Turreson was a Swedish the bread’s gluten. The more sugar yeast production, decreasing the binding
evolutionary botanist who made eats, the more gas that gets formed, and affinity of hemoglobin and by
significant contributions to ecological the higher the bread rises. increasing breathing rate
genetics, and coined the terms ecotype
and agamospecies. Q.541. Which level of the food chain Sol.544.(b) During acclimatization
(getting used to a new climate) over a
few days to weeks, the body produces
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Biology
more red blood cells to counteract the Sol.548.(d) Wildlife Protection Act 1972 Taphrina and Puccinia, Lichens and
lower oxygen saturation in blood in high provides for the protection of the mycorrhiza, Mucor, Saccharomyces,
altitudes. country's wild animals, birds, and plant Agaricus, Trichoderma.
species, in order to ensure environmental
Q.545. Which of the following plants is and ecological security.
on the verge of extinction due to Q.549. Why are species of moss used as
insensitivity to our environment? fuel?
SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Evening) SSC CHSL 06/06/2022 (Morning)
(a) Rosa damascena (a) Provide bituminous for energy
(b) Madhuca insignis (b) Provide peat that have long been
(c) Helianthus annuus used as fuel
(d) Bellis perennis (c) Make a version of coal
Sol.545.(b) Madhuca insignis (d) Help in geothermal energy
(Sapotaceae) is endemic to India. It had Sol.549.(b) Moss, (division Bryophyta)
been declared extinct due to habitat loss, are small nonvascular spore-bearing land
however, it has been rediscovered in plants. They are distributed throughout
Karnataka. the world except in salt water. Peat
Q.546. A pyramid of biomass is a derived from Peat moss can be used as a
diagram that shows the population at fuel or as packing material for
each level of the food chain. Accordingly, trans-shipment of leaving material
________ occupy the base with the because of their high water holding
df
highest biomass. capacity.
SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Morning)
_p
Q.550. The foul smell from a body
(a) secondary consumers especially during a sultry summer is due
(b) Decomposers
na
to the action of ______ on sweat.
(c) primary consumers SSC CGL 12/04/2022(Morning)
(d) producers
ap
(a) melanin (b) moisture
Sol.546.(d) Producers. A biomass (c) bacteria (d) virus
:@
pyramid is the representation of total Sol.550.(c) Bacteria. Melanin is a
living biomass and shows energy levels substance in your body that produces
at different trophic levels in an hair, eye and skin pigmentation. Moisture
TG
ecosystem. - water in small drops on a surface, in the
Q.547. Name a common ingredient air, etc. A virus is a submicroscopic
infectious agent that replicates only
on
made from the starchy part of corn
kernels used as a thickening agent for inside the living cells of an organism.
gravies, marinades, sauces, soups and
ch
Q.551. Saccharomyces Cerevisiae is
casseroles. commonly used to make ______.
SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Afternoon)
ar
SSC CGL 19/04/2022(Morning)
(a) Corn starch (b) Gelatine (a) yoghurt (b) carbonated beverages
Se
(c) Potato starch (d) Pectin (c) cheese (d) bread
Sol.547.(a) Corn starch is the most Sol.551.(d) Bread. It is known as
common thickening agent used in the “brewer's yeast” or “baker's yeast”.
industry. It is mixed with water or juice Saccharomyces cerevisiae, a type of
and boiled to make fillings and to give a budding yeast, is able to ferment sugar
glossy semi-clear finish to products. into carbon dioxide and alcohol and is
Potato starch is also used to thicken commonly used in the baking and
soups, sauces, and pie fillings. Gelatin is brewing industries.
a protein obtained by boiling skin,
tendons, ligaments, and/or bones with Q.552. Which of the following does NOT
water. It is usually obtained from cows or belong to ‘Kingdom Fungi’ ?
pigs. Pectin is a fiber found in fruits. SSC CGL 20/04/2022(Morning)
(a) Aspergillus (b) Rhizopus
Q.548. Which Act was enacted in India
(c) Mucor (d) Euglena
with the aim of curbing illegal trade in
wildlife and derivative parts? Sol.552.(d) Euglena is a genus of single
SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Evening) cell flagellate eukaryotes. Euglena are
(a) Environment Protection Act, 1986 unicellular organisms classified into the
(b) Forest Conservation Act, 1980 Kingdom Protista, and the Phylum
(c) Biological Diversity Act, 2002 Euglenophyta. Fungi examples -
(d) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 Rhizopus, Penicillium and Aspergillus,
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Current Affairs
➤ Ministry of Education - Dharmendra Pradhan
Important Facts
➤ Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
- Jitan Ram Manjhi
Constitutional Head :- ➤ Ministry of Panchayati Raj - Rajiv Ranjan Singh
➤ President → Smt. Droupadi Murmu (15th) ➤ Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
➤ VicePresident → Jagdeep Dhankhar (14th) - Rajiv Ranjan Singh
➤ Prime Minister → Shri Narendra Modi (15th) ➤ Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
- Sarbananda Sonowal
Judiciary Head :- ➤ Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
➤ Chief Justice, Supreme Court → Sanjiv Khanna (51th) - Dr. Virendra Kumar
➤ Attorney General of India → R. Vankataramani (16th) ➤ Ministry of Civil Aviation - Kinjarapu Rammohan Naidu
➤ Solicitor General of India → Tushar Mehta ➤ Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
➤ Chairperson, National Green Tribunal → Prakash Shrivastava - Pralhad Joshi
➤ Ministry of New and Renewable Energy - Pralhad Joshi
Parliamentary Head :- ➤ Ministry of Tribal Affairs - Jual Oram
➤ Speaker (Rajya Sabha) → Jagdeep Dhankhar ➤ Ministry of Textiles - Giriraj Singh
➤ Deputy Speaker (Rajya Sabha) → Harivansh Narayan Singh ➤ Ministry of Railways - Ashwini Vaishnaw
➤ Secretary General (Rajya Sabha) → Pramod Chandra Mody ➤ Ministry of Information and Broadcasting - Ashwini Vaishnaw
➤ Leader of Opposition (Rajya Sabha) → Mallikarjun Kharge ➤ Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
➤ Deputy Leader of the Opposition (Rajya Sabha) → Pramod - Ashwini Vaishnaw
Tiwari ➤ Ministry of Communications - Jyotiraditya M. Scindia
➤ Speaker (18th Lok Sabha) → Om Birla ➤ Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region
df
➤ Leader of Opposition (Lok Sabha) → Rahul Gandhi - Jyotiraditya M. Scindia
➤ Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
_p
➤ Secretary General (Lok Sabha) → Utpal Kumar Singh
- Bhupender Yadav
➤ Ministry of Culture and Ministry of Tourism
na
Election Commission Of India :-
- Gajendra Singh Shekhawat
➤ Chief Election Commissioner → Rajiv Kumar (25th)
➤ Ministry of Women and Child Development - Annpurna Devi
ap
➤ Election Commissioners → Gyanesh Kumar and
➤ Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs - Kiren Rijiju
Dr. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
➤ Ministry of Minority Affairs - Kiren Rijiju
:@
➤ Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas - Hardeep Singh Puri
Comptroller and Auditor General :-
➤ Ministry of Labour and Employment - Mansukh L. Mandaviya
➤Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) → Kundu Sanjay
➤ Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports - Mansukh L. Mandaviya
TG
Murthy (15th)
➤ Ministry of Coal and Mines - G. Kishan Reddy
➤Controller General of Accounts (CGA) → Shyam S. Dubey
➤ Ministry of Food Processing Industries - Chirag Paswan
➤ Ministry of Jal Shakti - C R Patil
on
Armed Forces :-
➤ Supreme Commander → President Droupadi Murmu Important Appointments :-
ch
➤ Chief of Air Staff → Amar Preet Singh (28th) ➤ StaffSelection Commission (SSC), Chairman
➤ Chief of Naval Staff → Dinesh Kumar Tripathi (26th) - S. Gopalakrishnan
ar
➤ Chief of Army Staff → Upendra Dwivedi (30th) ➤ Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), Chairman
➤ Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) → Anil Chauhan (2nd) - Rahul Singh
Se
➤ Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), Chairman
Union Cabinet Ministers :- - Anil Kumar Lahoti
➤ Prime Minister - Narendra Modi ➤ Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO),
➤ Ministry of Defence - Raj Nath Singh Chairman - Dr Samir V Kamat
➤ Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of Cooperation ➤ Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), Chairman
- Amit Shah - Sreedhara Panicker Somanath
➤ Ministry of Road Transport and Highways ➤ Chairperson Railway Board - Satish Kumar
- Nitin Jairam Gadkari ➤ Chief Executive Officer (CEO), NITI Aayog
➤ Ministry of Health and Family Welfare - Jagat Prakash Nadda - B.V.R. Subrahmanyam
➤ Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers - Jagat Prakash Nadda ➤ Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), Chairman
➤ Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare - Preeti Sudan
- Shivraj Singh Chouhan ➤ 22nd Law Commission, Chairman - Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi
➤ Ministry of Rural Development - Shivraj Singh Chouhan
➤ Ministry of Finance and Ministry of Corporate Affairs Head of International Organizations :-
- Nirmala Sitharaman ➤ United Nations, Secretary-General - António Guterres
➤ Ministry of External Affairs - Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar ➤ 79th United Nations General Assembly, President
➤ Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and Ministry of Power - Philemon Yang
- Manohar Lal ➤ World Bank Group, President - Ajay Banga (14th)
➤ Ministry of Heavy Industries and Ministry of Steel ➤ United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund
- H. D. Kumaraswamy (UNICEF), Executive Director - Catherine Russell
➤ Ministry of Commerce and Industry - Piyush Goyal ➤ South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC),
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Current Affairs
Secretary General - Md. Golam Sarwar Indiramma Housing Scheme (Telangana) - This scheme aims to
➤ Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and provide housing benefits to all eligible poor individuals. Under
Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC), Secretary General the scheme, financial assistance of ₹5 lakh will be provided to
- Indra Mani Pandey (India) those constructing houses on their own plots. In the first phase,
➤ United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural 3,500 houses will be allocated to each Assembly Constituency.
Organization (UNESCO), Director-General - Audrey Azoulay
'Savera' program (Haryana) - This program aimed at early
Government Schemes/Campaigns and States detection and prevention of Breast Cancer. It was initiated by the
Medanta Foundation in collaboration with the Health
Ab Koi Bahana Nahi (25 Nov 2024) - It is a collaborative effort Department in Gurgaon.
by the Ministries of Women and Child Development and Rural
Development, with support from UN Women. The campaign Indira Gandhi Pyari Behna Sukh-Samman Nidhi Yojana
aims to call upon the public, government and key stakeholders (Himachal Pradesh) - The scheme aims to honor the
to take actionable steps to end gender-based violence. contribution of women in preserving and promoting the state’s
cultural heritage while ensuring their economic empowerment
‘CHARAK’ - Northern Coalfields Limited (NCL) has launched this and self-reliance. Under this initiative, eligible women will receive
initiative to provide free treatment for life-threatening diseases financial assistance of ₹1500 per month to support their
to economically weaker residents of Singrauli and Sonbhadra livelihoods and independence.
districts, with family incomes below Rs. 8 lakh.
'Brindavan Gram' Scheme (Madhya Pradesh) - To boost rural
LIC’s Bima Sakhi Yojana - It was inaugurated by Prime Minister development and help increase the incomes of farmers in
Narendra Modi in Panipat, Haryana, aiming to empower women selected villages across Madhya Pradesh.
df
by integrating them into the insurance sector.
Sports
_p
Mission Basundhara 3.0 (Assam) - To streamline land-related
na
services and enhance infrastructure development, particularly in 37th National Games 2023 :-
rural areas.
ap
The games were held in Goa across 5 cities—Mapusa, Margao,
Mukhyamantri Mahila Samman Yojana (Delhi) - Women residing Panjim, Ponda, and Vasco—from October 26 to November 9
:@
in Delhi and having a Delhi Voter ID card can get Rs. 1,000 from
the Delhi Government every month. ➤ Motto - Get Set Goa
TG
Nijut Moina Scheme (Assam) - To combat child marriage in ➤ Mascot - Moga (Indian bison)
Assam by promoting the education of girl students. Under the
scheme, all girls studying higher secondary will get ₹1,000 every Medals Tally - Maharashtra topped the medals tally with 228
on
month, it will be ₹1,250 for degree students and ₹2,500 for girls medals – 80 gold, 69 silvers and 79 bronze – to win the Raja
doing post-graduation. Bhalindra Singh Trophy, which is given to the team that wins the
most number of gold medals at the National Games.
ch
Ladka Bhau Yojana (Maharashtra) - To address the concerns of
unemployment by promoting skill development. Services secured 2nd place with 124 medals (65 gold, 27 silver,
ar
32 bronze), while Haryana came 3rd with 192 medals (62 gold,
Se
Chirag Yojana (Haryana) - To provide free education in private 55 silver, 75 bronze).
schools to all the children of low income families. Under the
Cheerag scheme, government school students whose parents 6th Khelo India Youth Games 2024 :-
have an annual verified income of less than Rs 1.8 lakh can
enroll in private schools from Class II to XII. Tamil Nadu hosted the KIYG 2024 in 4 cities - Chennai, Madurai,
Trichy and Coimbatore from January 19 to 31.
Mahtari Vandan Yojana (Chhattisgarh) - All married women in
Chhattisgarh aged 21+ as of January 1, 2024, including widows, ➤ Mascot- Veera Mangai (Rani Velu Nachiyar)
divorced, and deserted women, will receive ₹1000/month via Squash made its KIYG debut this year.
Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
Maharashtra topped the Khelo India Youth Games with 57 gold,
Subhadra Yojana (Odisha) - The scheme aims to empower more 48 silver, and 53 bronze medals.
than 1 crore women. Under this, women will be paid a total of Rs
10,000 per year in two installments of Rs 5000 each. Women Tamil Nadu finished second with 38 gold, 21 silver, and 39
aged between 21 and 60 years will be eligible for this scheme. bronze, while Haryana secured third place with 35 gold, 22 silver,
and 46 bronze.
NTR Bharosa Pension Scheme (Andhra Pradesh) - The scheme
aims to provide monthly pensions to various vulnerable groups, Paris Olympics 2024 :-
ensuring their financial security and well-being.
School on Wheels (Manipur) - To provide education to students The 2024 Summer Olympics, officially the Games of the XXXIII
sheltered in relief camps across the state. Olympiad and branded as Paris 2024, held from 26 July to 11
August 2024 in France.
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Current Affairs
➤ Motto - Games Wide Open ICC Men's T20 World Cup :-
➤ Mascot - Phryges The 9th edition of the ICC Men's T20 World Cup was co-hosted
by the West Indies and the United States from June 1 to 29,
➤ Theme - Let's Move and Celebrate 2024.
Sports - 32 (including the 4 additional sports -breaking, India emerged as the champions, claiming their second T20
skateboarding, sport climbing, and surfing) World Cup title, while South Africa finished as the runners - up.
Chinese swimmer Zhang Yufei won the most medals at the Player of the series - Jasprit Bumrah (India)
games with six (one silver, five bronze)
Most runs - Rahmanullah Gurbaz (Afghanistan)
French swimmer Léon Marchand had the most gold medals with
four. Grand Slam events :-
The Grand Slam in tennis is the achievement of winning all four
Indian medal winners at Paris 2024 Olympics :- major championships in one discipline in a calendar year.
Manu Bhaker Women's 10m air pistol Bronze
Manu Bhaker-Sarabjot SinghMixed team 10m air pistol Bronze 2024 Australian Open :-
Swapnil Kusale Men's 50m rifle 3 positions Bronze
Category Champions Runner-up
Team India (Hockey) Men's event Bronze
Neeraj Chopra Men's javelin throw Silver Men's singles Jannik Sinner (Italy) Daniil Medvedev
Aman Sehrawat (Wrestling) Men's freestyle 57kg Bronze (Russia)
df
Women's singles Aryna Sabalenka Zheng Qinwen
India's 117-athlete contingent won six medals—one silver and (Belarus) (China)
_p
five bronze—at the Paris 2024 Olympics. Men's doubles Rohan Bopanna (India) Simone Bolelli (Italy)
Matthew Ebden Andrea Vavassori
na
(Australia) (Italy)
India's Paris 2024 Chef-de-Mission - Gagan Narang Women's doubles Hsieh Su-wei (Taiwan) Lyudmyla Kichenok
ap
Elise Mertens (Ukraine)
Manu Bhaker won the first medal for India She bagged a bronze (Belgium) Jeļena Ostapenko
and became the first Indian woman to win an Olympic shooting (Latvia)
:@
medal. Mixed doubles Hsieh Su-wei (Taiwan) Desirae Krawczyk
Jan Zieliński (Poland) (USA)
Neal Skupski (United
Paris Olympics 2024 Medal Table :-
TG
Kingdom)
Rank Country Gold Silver Bronze Total
1. USA 40 44 42 126
2024 French Open :-
on
2. China 40 27 24 91
Category Champions Runner-up
3. Japan 20 12 13 45
Men's singles Carlos Alcaraz Alexander Zverev
71. India 0 1 5 6
(Spain) (Germany)
ch
Women's singles Iga Świątek (Poland) Jasmine Paolini
Paris Paralympic 2024 :- (Italy)
ar
Men's doubles Marcelo Arévalo (El Simone Bolelli (Italy)
Se
The 17th summer Paralympic Games were held in Paris, France, Salvador) Andrea Vavassori
from 28 August to 8 September 2024. Mate Pavić (Croatia) (Italy)
Women's doubles Coco Gauff (USA) Sara Errani (Italy)
Kateřina Siniaková Jasmine Paolini
France hosted the summer Paralympic Games for the first time
(Czech Republic) (Italy)
in history.
Mixed doubles Laura Siegemund Desirae Krawczyk
(Germany) (USA)
The total number of Indian players in paralympics 2024 was 84. Édouard Neal Skupski (United
Roger-Vasselin Kingdom)
Flag bearers (opening) - Bhagyashree Jadhav and Sumit Antil (France)
Flag bearers (closing) - Preethi Pal and Harvinder Singh 2024 Wimbledon :-
Category Champions Runner-up
Avani Lekhara became the first Indian woman to win two gold Men's singles Carlos Alcaraz Novak Djokovic
medals at the Paralympic Games. (Spain) (Serbia)
Women's singles Barbora Krejčíková Jasmine Paolini
(Czech Republic) (Italy)
Paris Paralympic 2024 Medal Table :-
Men's doubles Harri Heliövaara Max Purcell
Rank Country Gold Silver Bronze Total (Finland) (Australia)
1. China 94 76 50 220 Henry Patten (United Jordan Thompson
2. Great Britain 49 44 31 124 Kingdom) (Australia)
3. USA 36 42 27 105 Women's doubles Kateřina Siniaková Gabriela Dabrowski
18. India 7 9 13 29 (Czech Republic) (Canada)
Taylor Townsend Erin Routliffe (New
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Current Affairs
(USA) Zealand) ➤ Shri Hormusji N Cama (Literature & Education - Journalism)
Mixed doubles Jan Zieliński Santiago González - Maharashtra
(Poland) (Mexico) ➤ Shri Mithun Chakraborty (Art) - West Bengal
Hsieh Su-wei Giuliana Olmos ➤ Shri Sitaram Jindal (Trade & Industry) - Karnataka
(Taiwan) (Mexico)
➤ Shri Young Liu (Trade & Industry) - Taiwan
➤ Shri Ashwin Balachand Mehta (Medicine) - Maharashtra
2024 US Open :- ➤ Shri Satyabrata Mookherjee (Posthumous), Public Affairs
Category Champions Runner-up - West Bengal
Men's singles Jannik Sinner (Italy) Taylor Fritz (USA)
➤ Shri Ram Naik (Public Affairs) - Maharashtra
Women's singles Aryna Sabalenka Jessica Pegula
➤ Shri Tejas Madhusudan Patel (Medicine) - Gujarat
(Belarus) (USA)
➤ Shri Olanchery Rajagopal (Public Affairs) - Kerala
Men's doubles Max Purcell and Kevin Krawietz and
Jordan Thompson Tim Pütz (Germany) ➤ Shri Dattatray Ambadas Mayaloo alias Rajdutt (Art)
(Australia) - Maharashtra
Women's doubles Lyudmyla Kichenok Kristina Mladenovic ➤ Shri Togdan Rinpoche (Posthumous), Others - Spiritualism
(Ukraine) (France) - Ladakh
Jeļena Ostapenko Zhang Shuai (China) ➤ Shri Pyarelal Sharma (Art) - Maharashtra
(Latvia)
➤ Shri Chandreshwar Prasad Thakur (Medicine) - Bihar
Mixed doubles Sara Errani and Taylor Townsend
➤ Ms. Usha Uthup (Art) - West Bengal
Andrea Vavassori and Donald Young
➤ Shri Vijaykanth (Posthumous), Art - Tamil Nadu
(Italy) (USA)
➤ Shri Kundan Vyas (Literature & Education - Journalism)
- Maharashtra
Awards
df
Padma Shri (110) :-
Nobel Prize 2024 :-
_p
➤ Shri Khalil Ahmad (Art) - Uttar Pradesh
Physics - John J. Hopfield and Geoffrey Hinton (for foundational
na
➤ Shri Badrappan M (Art) - Tamil Nadu
discoveries and inventions that enable machine learning with
➤ Shri Kaluram Bamaniya (Art) - Madhya Pradesh
artificial neural networks)
ap
➤ Ms. Rezwana Choudhury Bannya (Art) - Bangladesh
➤ Ms. Naseem Bano (Art) - Uttar Pradesh
Chemistry - David Baker, Demis Hassabis and John Jumper (for
➤ Shri Ramlal Bareth (Art) - Chhattisgarh
:@
computational protein design)
➤ Ms. Gita Roy Barman (Art) - West Bengal
➤ Ms. Parbati Baruah (Social Work) - Assam
Physiology or Medicine - Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun (for the
TG
➤ Shri Sarbeswar Basumatary (Others - Agriculture) - Assam
discovery of microRNA and its role in post-transcriptional gene
➤ Shri Som Datt Battu (Art) - Himachal Pradesh
regulation)
➤ Ms. Takdira Begum (Art) - West Bengal
on
➤ Shri Sathyanarayana Beleri (Others - Agriculture) - Kerala
Literature - Han Kang (for her intense poetic prose that confronts
➤ Shri Drona Bhuyan (Art) - Assam
historical traumas and exposes the fragility of human life)
➤ Shri Ashok Kumar Biswas (Art) - Bihar
ch
➤ Shri Rohan Machanda Bopanna (Sports) - Karnataka
Nobel Peace Prize - Nihon Hidankyo (for its efforts to achieve a
➤ Ms. Smriti Rekha Chakma (Art) - Tripura
ar
world free of nuclear weapons and for demonstrating through
➤ Shri Narayan Chakraborty (Science&Engineering)- West Bengal
witness testimony that nuclear weapons must never be used
➤ Shri A Velu Ananda Chari (Art) - Telangana
Se
again)
➤ Shri Ram Chet Chaudhary (Science & Engineering)
- Uttar Pradesh
Economic - Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson and James A.
➤ Ms. K Chellammal (Others - Agriculture) - Andaman &
Robinson (for studies of how institutions are formed and affect
Nicobar Islands
prosperity)
➤ Ms. Joshna Chinappa (Sports) - Tamil Nadu
➤ Ms. Charlotte Chopin (Others - Yoga) - France
Padma Awards 2024 :-
➤ Shri Raghuveer Choudhary (Literature & Education) - Gujarat
➤ Shri Joe D Cruz (Literature & Education) - Tamil Nadu
For the year 2024, the President has approved conferment of
➤ Shri Ghulam Nabi Dar (Art) - Jammu & Kashmir
132 Padma Awards including 2 duo cases (in a duo case, the
➤ Shri Chitta Ranjan Debbarma (Others - Spiritualism) - Tripura
Award is counted as one)
➤ Shri Uday Vishwanath Deshpande (Sports) - Maharashtra
➤ Ms. Prema Dhanraj (Medicine) - Karnataka
Padma Vibhushan (5) :- ➤ Shri Radha Krishan Dhiman (Medicine) - Uttar Pradesh
➤ Ms. Vyjayantimala Bali (Art) - Tamil Nadu ➤ Shri Manohar Krishana Dole (Medicine) - Maharashtra
➤ Shri Konidela Chiranjeevi (Art) - Andhra Pradesh ➤ Shri Pierre Sylvain Filliozat (Literature & Education) - France
➤ Shri M Venkaiah Naidu (Public Affairs) - Andhra Pradesh ➤ Shri Mahabir Singh Guddu (Art) - Haryana
➤ Shri Bindeshwar Pathak (Posthumous), Social Work - Bihar ➤ Ms. Anupama Hoskere (Art) - Karnataka
➤ Ms. Padma Subrahmanyam (Art) - Tamil Nadu ➤ Shri Yazdi Maneksha Italia (Medicine) - Gujarat
➤ Shri Rajaram Jain (Literature & Education) - Uttar Pradesh
Padma Bhushan (17) :- ➤ Shri Jankilal (Art) - Rajasthan
➤ Ms. M Fathima Beevi (Posthumous), Public Affairs - Kerala ➤ Shri Ratan Kahar (Art) - West Bengal
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Current Affairs
➤ Shri Yashwant Singh Kathoch (Literature & Education) ➤ Shri Eklabya Sharma (Science & Engineering) - West Bengal
- Uttarakhand ➤ Shri Ram Chander Sihag (Science & Engineering) - Haryana
➤ Shri Zahir I Kazi (Literature & Education) - Maharashtra ➤ Shri Harbinder Singh (Sports) - Delhi
➤ Shri Gaurav Khanna (Sports) - Uttar Pradesh ➤ Shri Gurvinder Singh (Social Work) - Haryana
➤ Shri Surendra Kishore (Literature & Education - Journalism) ➤ Shri Godawari Singh (Art) - Uttar Pradesh
- Bihar ➤ Shri Ravi Prakash Singh (Science & Engineering) - Mexico
➤ Shri Dasari Kondappa (Art) - Telangana ➤ Shri Seshampatti T Sivalingam (Art) - Tamil Nadu
➤ Shri Sridhar Makam Krishnamurthy (Literature & Education) ➤ Shri Somanna (Social Work) - Karnataka
- Karnataka ➤ Shri Kethavath Somlal (Literature & Education) - Telangana
➤ Ms. Yanung Jamoh Lego (Others - Agriculture) ➤ Ms. Shashi Soni (Trade & Industry) - Karnataka
- Arunachal Pradesh ➤ Ms. Urmila Srivastava (Art) - Uttar Pradesh
➤ Shri Jordan Lepcha (Art) - Sikkim ➤ Shri Nepal Chandra Sutradhar (Posthumous) (Art)
➤ Shri Satendra Singh Lohia (Sports) - Madhya Pradesh - West Bengal
➤ Shri Binod Maharana (Art) - Odisha ➤Shri Gopinath Swain (Art) - Odisha
➤ Ms. Purnima Mahato (Sports) - Jharkhand ➤ Shri Laxman Bhatt Tailang (Art) - Rajasthan
➤ Ms. Uma Maheshwari D (Art) - Andhra Pradesh ➤ Ms. Maya Tandon (Social Work) - Rajasthan
➤ Shri Dukhu Majhi (Social Work) - West Bengal ➤ Ms. Aswathi Thirunal Gouri Lakshmi Bayi Thampuratty
➤ Shri Ram Kumar Mallick (Art) - Bihar (Literature & Education) - Kerala
➤ Shri Hemchand Manjhi (Medicine) - Chhattisgarh ➤ Shri Jagdish Labhshanker Trivedi (Art) - Gujarat
➤ Shri Chandrashekhar Mahadeorao Meshram (Medicine) ➤ Ms. Sano Vamuzo (Social Work) - Nagaland
- Maharashtra ➤ Shri Balakrishnan Sadanam Puthiya Veetil (Art) - Kerala
➤ Shri Surendra Mohan Mishra (Posthumous) (Art) ➤ Shri Kurella Vittalacharya (Literature & Education) - Telangana
df
- Uttar Pradesh ➤ Shri Kiran Vyas (Others - Yoga) - France
➤ Shri Ali Mohammed & Shri Ghani Mohammed* (Duo) (Art) ➤ Shri Jageshwar Yadav (Social Work) - Chhattisgarh
_p
- Rajasthan ➤ Shri Babu Ram Yadav (Art) - Uttar Pradesh
➤ Ms. Kalpana Morparia (Trade & Industry) - Maharashtra
➤ Ms. Chami Murmu (Social Work) - Jharkhand
➤ Shri Sasindran Muthuvel (Public Affairs) - Papua New Guinea na
96th Academy Awards 2024 :-
ap
➤ Best Picture - Oppenheimer
➤ Ms. G Nachiyar (Medicine) - Tamil Nadu ➤ Best Actor - Cillian Murphy (Oppenheimer)
➤ Ms. Kiran Nadar (Art) - Delhi ➤ Best Actress - Emma Stone (Poor Things)
:@
➤ Shri Pakaravur Chithran Namboodiripad (Posthumous) ➤ Best Original Song - What Was I Made For?
(Literature & Education) - Kerala - Barbie (Billie Eilish, Finneas O'Connell)
➤ Shri Narayanan E P (Art) - Kerala
TG
➤ Best Supporting Actor - Robert Downey Jr. (Oppenheimer)
➤ Shri Shailesh Nayak (Science & Engineering) - Delhi ➤ Best Supporting Actress
➤ Shri Harish Nayak (Posthumous) (Literature & Education) - Da'Vine Joy Randolph (The Holdovers)
- Gujarat
on
➤ Shri Fred Negrit (Literature & Education) - France 66th Grammy Award 2024 :-
➤ Shri Hari Om (Science & Engineering) - Haryana ➤ Album of the Year - “Midnights” by Taylor Swift
ch
➤ Shri Bhagabat Padhan (Art) - Odisha ➤ Record of the Year - “Flowers” by Miley Cyrus
➤ Shri Sanatan Rudra Pal (Art) - West Bengal ➤ Song of the Year - “What Was I Made For?” by Billie Eilish
ar
➤ Shri Shankar Baba Pundlikrao Papalkar (Social Work) ➤ Best Global Music Album - This Moment – Shakti
- Maharashtra
Se
➤ Best New Artist - Victoria Monét
➤ Shri Radhe Shyam Pareek (Medicine) - Uttar Pradesh
➤ Shri Dayal Mavjibhai Parmar (Medicine) - Gujarat Bharat Ratna 2024 :-
➤ Shri Binod Kumar Pasayat (Art) - Odisha ➤ Karpoori Thakur (Bihar)
➤ Ms. Silbi Passah (Art) - Meghalaya ➤ Chaudhary Charan Singh (Uttar Pradesh)
➤ Ms. Shanti Devi Paswan & Shri Shivan Paswan* (Duo) (Art)
➤ Lal Krishna Advani (Delhi)
- Bihar ➤ MS Swaminathan (Tamil Nadu)
➤ Shri Sanjay Anant Patil (Others - Agriculture) - Goa ➤ PV Narasimha Rao (Telangana)
➤ Shri Muni Narayana Prasad (Literature & Education) - Kerala
➤ Shri K S Rajanna (Social Work) - Karnataka
70th National Film Awards 2024 :-
➤ Shri Chandrashekar Channapatna Rajannachar (Medicine)
➤ Best Feature Film - Aattam
- Karnataka
➤ Best Actor - Rishab Shetty (Kantara)
➤ Shri Bhagwatilal Rajpurohit (Literature & Education)
➤ Best Actress - Nithya Menen (Tiruchitrabalam), Manasi Parekh
- Madhya Pradesh
(Kutch Express)
➤ Shri Romalo Ram (Art) - Jammu & Kashmir
➤ Best Director - Sooraj Barjatya (Uunchai)
➤ Shri Navjivan Rastogi (Literature & Education) - Uttar Pradesh
➤ Best Supporting Actress - Neena Gupta (Uunchai)
➤ Ms. Nirmal Rishi (Art) - Punjab
➤ Best Supporting Actor - Pawan Malhotra (Fouja)
➤ Shri Pran Sabharwal (Art) - Punjab
➤ Best Hindi Film - Gulmohar
➤ Shri Gaddam Sammaiah (Art) - Telangana
➤ Best Male Playback Singer - Arijit Singh (Brahmastra)
➤ Shri Sangthankima (Social Work) - Mizoram
➤ Best Female Playback Singer - Bombay Jayashri (Saudi
➤ Shri Machihan Sasa (Art) - Manipur
Velakka)
➤ Shri Omprakash Sharma (Art) - Madhya Pradesh
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Current Affairs
69th Filmfare Awards 2024 :- Minister Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya - “Fertilising the Future:
➤ Best Film - 12th Fail Bharat’s March Towards Fertiliser Self-Sufficiency”
➤ Best Actor - Ranbir Kapoor (Animal)
➤ Best Actress - Alia Bhatt (Rocky Aur Rani Kii Prem Kahaani) Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni - “An Uncommon Love: The Early Life
➤ Best Director - Vidhu Vinod Chopra (12th Fail) of Sudha and Narayana Murthy”
➤ Best Supporting Actor - Vicky Kaushal (Dunki)
➤ Best Supporting Actress - Shabana Azmi (Rocky Aur Rani Kii M.J. Akbar and K Natwar Singh - “Gandhi: A Life in Three
Prem Kahaani) Campaigns”
➤ Lifetime Achievement Award - David Dhawan
➤ Best Debut Director - Tarun Dudeja (Dhak Dhak) R.K. Pachnanda, Bibek Debroy, Anirban Ganguly, and Uttam
Kumar Sinha - “Modi: Energising A Green Future”
BCCI Awards 2024 :-
General Manoj Mukund Naravane - "Four Stars of Destiny"
Col. C. K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award - Men: Farokh
Engineer, Ravi Shastri Manorama Mishra - “Sanskriti ke Ayaam”
Polly Umrigar Award - Best International Cricketer - Men: Vairamuthu - “Maha Kavithai”
Shubman Gill (2022-23)
Geeta Singh and Arif Khan Bharti - “Ram Mandir Rashtra
Best International Cricketer - Women: Smriti Mandhana Mandir Ek Sajhi Virast”
(2020-21, 2021-22)
Defence & Security 2024
df
Best International Debut - Men: Yashaswi Jaiswal (2022-23)
_p
Military Exercises of India 2024 :-
Best International Debut - Women: Amanjot Kaur (2022-23)
na
Desert Cyclone (India – UAE) - Rajasthan, India
Sahitya Akademi Award 2024 :-
ap
Language Title and genre Author Ex Cyclone-I (India – Egypt) - Anshas, Egypt
Hindi Main Jab Tak Aai Bahar (Poetry) Gagan Gill
:@
English Spirit Nights (Novel) Easterine Kire Ex Khanjar (India – Kyrgyzstan) - Himachal Pradesh, India
Sanskrit Bhaskaracaritam (Poetry) Dipak Kumar Sharma
‘SADA TANSEEQ’ (India – Saudi Arabia) - Rajasthan, India
TG
Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar 2024 :-
Dharma Guardian (India – Japan) - Rajasthan, India
33 awards were presented to distinguished scientists across
on
four categories. Here are some of the important awardees: Samudra Laksmana (India – Malaysia) - Visakhapatnam, India
Vigyan Ratna - Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan (Biological Tiger Triumph (India – USA) - Kakinada, India
ch
Sciences)
Ex LAMITIYE – 2024 (India – Seychelles) - Seychelles
ar
Vigyan Shri - Dr Anandharamakrishnan C (Agricultural Science),
Se
Prof. Dr Sanjay Behari (Medicine), Dr Avesh Kumar Ex DUSTLIK – 2024 (India – Uzbekistan) - Termez, Uzbekistan
Tyagi (Atomic Energy)
Exercise Cyber Suraksha (India)
Vigyan Yuva - Dr Krishna Murthy S L (Agricultural Sciences), Dr
Roxy Mathew Koll (Earth Sciences), Dr Abhilash Military Exercise SHAKTI (India – France) - Umroi, Meghalaya,
(Engineering Sciences) India
Vigyan Team - ISRO - Team Chandrayaan 3 (Space Science and
Defence Technology
Technology)
The Indian Light Tank (ILT), Zorawar, successfully completed
Books and Authors 2024 firing trials at over 4,200m altitude. It was jointly developed by
the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
Sanjeev Joshi - “Ek Samandar, Mere Andar” and Larsen & Toubro (L&T) with contributions from various
Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises.
Dr. Rajen Saikia - “Political History of Assam (1947-1971) –
Volume 1” INS Tushil (F70), India’s advanced multi-role stealth-guided
missile frigate, was commissioned into the Indian Navy in
Gujarat State Disaster Management Authority - “Smritivan: An Russia.
Unparalleled Apotheosis of Commemoration to 2001 Victims of
Gujarat Earthquake” The Ministry of Defence launched Eklavya, an online learning
platform for the Indian Army. Aim: To improve the professional
Arup Kumar Dutta - “Assam’s Braveheart – Lachit Barphukan” education and training of Indian Army officers under the Decade
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Current Affairs
of Transformation (2023-2032) initiative and the 2024 theme, Ratan Tata - Former chairperson of the Tata Group
Year of Technology Absorption.
Atul Parchure - Marathi actor
The Agni-4 missile was successfully launched from the
Integrated Test Range in Chandipur, Odisha. It is fourth in the Rakesh Pal - Director General of the Indian Coast Guard
Agni series of medium to intercontinental-range ballistic
missiles developed by the DRDO. Buddhadeb Bhattacharjee - Former Chief Minister of West
Bengal
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has
completed developmental trials of the High Speed Expendable Anshuman Gaekwad - Indian cricketer
Aerial Target (HEAT) 'ABHYAS'. The trials took place at the
Integrated Test Range (ITR), Odisha. Pandit Rajeev Taranath - Sarod maestro
The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) -
National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL) successfully tested the Indexes
High Altitude Pseudo-Satellite (HAPS), a solar-powered UAV Index Published By India’s Rank
capable of generating solar energy and staying airborne for Global Soft Power Brand Finance 29th rank (28th
months or years. Index 2024 position in 2023)
World Happiness UN Sustainable 126th rank
Geographical Indication (GI) Tags in India 2023 Report 2024 Development Solutions
Network (SDSN)
-2024 Global Terrorism Institute for Economics 14th rank
Index 2024 and Peace (IEP)
df
Arunachal Pradesh - Wancho Wooden Craft, Adi Kekir Global Hunger Index Concern Worldwide and 105th rank
2024 Welt Hunger Hilfe
_p
World Press Freedom Reporters Without 159th rank
Jammu Kashmir - Ramban Anardana
Index 2024 Borders (RSF)
na
Military Strength Global Firepower (GFP) 4th rank
Odisha - Kapdaganda Shawl, Lanjia Saura Painting, Koraput Kala Ranking 2024
Jeera Rice, Similipal Kai Chutney, Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal, Energy Transition World Economic Forum 63rd rank
ap
Odisha Khajuri Guda, Dhenkanal Magji Index 2024
Rule of Law Index World Justice Project 79th rank
:@
West Bengal - Banglar Muslin, Tangail Saree, Garad Saree, Korial 2024
Saree, Kalo Nunia Rice, Sundarban Honey
Summits & Conferences 2024
TG
Uttar Pradesh - Pilkhuwa Hand Block Print, Banaras Metal
Casting Craft, Bareilly Cane and Bamboo, Tharu Embroidery Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) summit
Handicraft, Bareilly Zari Zardoji, Banaras Tirangi Barfi - Astana, Kazakhstan
on
Gujarat - Kachchhi Kharek, Kutch Rogan Craft, Ambaji White
BRICS summit - Kazan, Russia
Marble, Kutch Bandhani, Gharchola Craft of Gujarat, Gujarat Suf
ch
Embroidery, Ahmedabad Sodagari Block Print, Surat Sadeli Craft,
2024 G20 - Brazil
Bharuch Sujani Weaving, Kutch Ajrakh
ar
Maharashtra - Bahadoli Jamun, Kunthalgiri Khawa, Pen 142nd International Olympic Committee (IOC) Session
Se
Ganesh Idol, Dagdi Jowar of Jalna - Paris, France
27th Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting - Samoa
Chief guests at Delhi Republic Day parade
United Nations Climate Change Conference - Baku, Azerbaijan
2024 (75th) - Emmanuel Macron, President of France
2024 Ukraine peace summit - Bürgenstock Resort, Switzerland
2023 (74th) - Abdel Fattah el-Sisi, President of Egypt
10th Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit - Gandhinagar, Gujarat
Obituaries 2024
RiGi Prabhav 2024 - Goa, India
Bibek Debroy - Chairman of PM’s Economic Advisory Council 19th East Asia Summit - Vientiane, Laos
Sharda Sinha - Folk Singer 19th Non-Aligned Movement Summit - Kampala, Uganda
Pandit Ram Narayan - Sarangi Player Global Fintech Fest (GFF) - Mumbai, India
Delhi Ganesh - Tamil Actor 82nd World Science Fiction Convention - Glasgow, Scotland
Madan Mohan Somtiya - Freedom Fighter and Member of
Mewar Praja Mandal
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Current Affairs
ISRO Spacecraft Missions 2024 The growing concern over mis-selling of insurance products by
banks has prompted the introduction of the Bima Sugam
Name Launch Date Launch Vehicle Application platform, a digital initiative by the Insurance Regulatory and
Proba-3 December 05, PSLV-C59 In-Orbit Development Authority of India (IRDAI). 1st phase of Bima
Mission 2024 Demonstration Sugam to be launched around April 2025.
(IOD) mission
November 19, Falcon-9 Communication Miscellaneous
GSAT-N2 2024
Feb 17, 2024 GSLV-F14 Climate &
INSAT-3DS Environment Arjun Vajpai Becomes First Indian to Conquer Mt.
X-ray Jan 01, 2024 PSLV-C58 X-ray Astronomy Shishapangma.
Polarimeter
Satellite India Unveils First CO2-To-Methanol Pilot Plant at Thermax
(XPoSat) Limited premises in Pune, Maharashtra.
Banking 2024 India sends US $1 million Humanitarian Relief to Vietnam as
Operation Sadbhav.
BOBCARD has launched the TIARA Credit Card, a premium,
women-centric offering designed to empower modern women. The world's first-ever temple designed in the iconic Om shape
has been inaugurated in the village of Jadan, Pali district of
SBI Card surpassed 20 million credit cards in circulation in Rajasthan.
December 2024, a notable achievement since its inception in
1998. Manu Bhaker was appointed brand ambassador for the Ministry
df
of Ports, Shipping and Waterways in September 2024.
_p
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), under the leadership of
Governor Shaktikanta Das, has announced plans to launch a Teghbir Singh, a 5 year old boy from Ropar, Punjab became the
na
podcast series aimed at enhancing public communication and youngest Asian to successfully scale Mount Kilimanjaro, Africa’s
financial literacy. highest peak.
ap
RBI, after its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting on Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, Kashmir City was
:@
December 6, 2024, announced that Small Finance Banks (SFBs) awarded the prestigious Certificate of World Craft City by the
will now be permitted to offer pre-sanctioned credit lines through World Crafts Council International.
the UPI.
TG
Delhi Airport Launches India’s First Self-Service Mechanism For
Punjab National Bank (PNB) has joined the Partnership for Check-in Luggage.
Carbon Accounting Financials (PCAF), adopting global
on
standards for measuring and disclosing GHG emissions in line Indian Railways has entered its name into Limca Book of
with RBI's draft climate risk guidelines. Records for most people at a public service event at multiple
venues. The Ministry of Railways had organized an event on 26
ch
India has launched its first Artificial Intelligence (AI) Data Bank, a February 2024, which was attended by 40,19,516 people at 2,140
landmark initiative to foster innovation and enhance national venues.
ar
security. Announced by Union Minister Jitendra Singh at the 7th
Se
ASSOCHAM AI Leadership Meet 2024. Briton, nicknamed ‘Hardest Geezer’, became the first person to
run the length of Africa.
The RBI in November has confirmed that SBI, HDFC Bank, and Massachusetts General Hospital in Boston performed the first
ICICI Bank will continue to be classified as Domestic pig-to-human kidney transplant in March 2024. A 62-year-old
Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs). man with end-stage renal disease received a new kidney from a
genetically modified pig.
State Bank of India (SBI) has been recognized as the Best Bank
in India for 2024 by Global Finance Magazine during its 31st Anand Kumar, renowned Math educator and Super 30 founder,
Annual Best Bank Awards in Washington. received the prestigious 'Golden Visa' from the UAE government
in February 2024.
POP, a fintech startup founded by ex-Flipkart employees, has
launched India’s first multi-brand co-branded credit card in One Liner Current Affairs 2024
collaboration with RuPay and Yes Bank.
December :-
Mastercard in August launched its Payment Passkey Service in What is the rank of India in the recently published 'Network
India, using biometric authentication to replace passwords and Readiness Index 2024 (NRI 2024) report'? - 49th
OTPs, aiming to enhance online shopping security amid rising
fraud cases. India and which country have inaugurated their first-ever
Dialogue on Economic Security, focusing on bolstering industrial
Union Bank of India became the first major Indian bank to join and technological resilience? - Japan
the Partnership for Carbon Accounting Financials (PCAF) in
September 2024. E-Daakhil portal is now operational in every state and union
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Current Affairs
territory of India, marked by its recent launch in Ladakh. The The Chief Minister of Nagaland has launched a pioneering
E-Daakhil portal was launched by which organizations? 'Digital Piggery Insurance', which is developed in collaboration
- National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission (NCDRC) with Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
(IRDAI) and which insurance company?
Yuva Sangam (Phase V) commenced with two tours between - Tata AIG General Insurance Company
Bihar & Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh & Uttar Pradesh. Yuva
Sangam initiative is launched by which ministry? Who has emerged as the champion in the Under-8 World Cadets
- Ministry of Education Chess Championship, held in Montesilvano, Italy?
- C. Divith Reddy
Union Minister for Women and Child Development has launched
a national campaign in New Delhi aimed at eradicating child The 13th edition of Joint Military Exercise AGNI WARRIOR
marriage and empowering young girls across the nation. What is (XAW-2024) has concluded at Field Firing Ranges, Devlali
the name of this campaign? - Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat (Maharashtra). It is a bilateral exercise conducted between
armies of India and which of the following countries?
Which institute has concluded the second edition of Defence - Singapore
Datathon, a pioneering tri-services data analytics competition?
- College of Defence Management, Secunderabad Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) has released its
Half-Yearly Complaints Report for 2024-25. As per the report,
Who has received the "2024 Pfizer Award" for his book "Brown which categories continue to be the most violative sector,
Skins, White Coats: Race Science in India, 1920-66"? accounting for 34% of all complaints investigated during the
- Projit Bihari Mukharji April to September 2024 period? - Real estate
df
Amara Raja Infra has completed the establishment of 'India's Who has been elected as 11th President of Asian Development
first green hydrogen fueling station' for NTPC Limited. This Bank (ADB)? - Masato Kanda
_p
station is located in which place? - Leh, Ladakh
The Union Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying
Which of the following companies has collaborated with Indian
Institute of Technology (IIT) Hyderabad to establish its first na
has recognized which states as the 'Best Marine State'? - Kerala
ap
Centre of Excellence (CoE) on its campus? - Nikon India Sabal 20 logistics drone has been delivered to the Indian Army.
These drones are manufactured by which company? - EndureAir
:@
China's state-owned aerospace company, Aviation Industry
Corporation of China (AVIC), has shown off a model of its future The National Security Guard (NSG) has concluded the 10th
commercial uncrewed space shuttle at the Zhuhai Air Show, national joint counter-terrorist exercise 'Exercise Agnipariksha' at
TG
Zhuhai, China. What is the name of this cargo shuttle? which place? - Gurugram
- Sky Dragon
For the first time in the history of India's election process, 19
on
The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade members from Jarawa Tribe had been included in India's
(DPIIT) has granted approval for the Rs 10,000 Activate Windows electoral roll. This tribe is associated with which state/UT?
ch
crore acquisition of debt-laden Reliance Capital Limited (RCAP) - Andaman and Nicobar Islands
by which company? - IndusInd International Holdings Limited
ar
Which company has signed an MoU with John Cockerill India
JSW Defence Private Limited has partnered with which defence Limited (JCIL) to drive innovation and green steel technologies?
Se
companies to manufacture V-BAT drones, a Group 3 Unmanned - Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
Aerial System (UAS) in India? - Shield AI
13th National Seed Congress (NSC) 2024 was organized by the
Who has joined "All Living Things Environmental Film Festival Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare. This event was held
2024" (ALT EFF 2024) (5th edition) as the goodwill ambassador? at which places? - Varanasi
- Shriya Pilgaonkar
India has finished 3rd on the medal tally with 2 medals (1 Gold
Which of the following organisations and Climate Club has and 1 silver) at the GT Open 2024 - Indoor World Series (IWS)
launched the Global Matchmaking Platform (GMP), which is 250 event held in - Strassen, Luxembourg
designed to fast-track the decarbonisation of heavy-emitting
industries in emerging and developing economies? Indian Railways has launched a mobile application specially
- United Nations Industrial Development Organization designed for safety training and capacity building for its frontline
employees. What is the name of this application? - Sanraksha
Which company has announced the launch of the country's
As per a recently released report titled 'Take the right path to end
largest single-location 'Grade A' warehousing and industrial park
AIDS', of the 39.9 million people living with HIV, 9.3 million
at the Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority (JNPA) Special Economic
people are still not accessing life-saving treatment. This report is
Zone (SEZ) in Navi Mumbai? - Welspun One Logistics Parks
released by
- The Joint United Nations Programme on HIV/AIDS (UNAIDS)
Which city is set to host the prestigious Army Day Parade for the
first time on 15 January 2025, marking a historic milestone?
Gintautas Paluckas has been appointed as Prime Minister of
- Pune
which country? - Lithuania
www.ssccglpinnacle.com Download Pinnacle Exam Preparation App
Pinnacle Current Affairs
Which of the following states has been announced as the - Rashtriya Raksha University (RRU), Gandhinagar
Partner State for Hornbill Festival 2024? - Sikkim Who has been appointed as the new Comptroller and Auditor
General (CAG) of India? - K Sanjay Murthy
Which company has signed an MoU with Global Green Growth
Institute (GGGI) to promote innovative clean energy solutions, Twenty-four coastal villages in which state has been recognised
focusing on agrivoltaics, green hydrogen, and sustainable by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of
financing strategies? - NHPC Limited UNESCO as 'Tsunami Ready"? - Odisha
November :- Dubai Sports Council has appointed four global sports icons as
Recently, researchers from which institutes have developed a its Sports Ambassadors, including former Indian cricketer
biodegradable foam that could transform the packaging Harbhajan Singh and - Sania Mirza
industry, while addressing critical environmental concerns?
- Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru Who has been selected to be awarded with the first Jadav
Payeng International Award, launched by Jyoti-Protap Education
Army's Jaipur-based South Western Command has established Trust? - B. M Karunakar Reddy
a think tank named what to strengthen Rajasthan's defence
industrial base. - Gyan Shakti Recently, Fédération Internationale de Football Association
(FIFA) has revealed the new 2025 Club World Cup trophy. It is
Which company and SoftBank Corp have piloted the world's first created in collaboration with - Tiffany & Co
artificial intelligence (AI) and 5G telecoms network, which can
run Al and 5G workloads concurrently, a process known as an Which country has held a landmark referendum, where 91.8% of
artificialWindows intelligence radio access network (AI-RAN)? voters approved a new constitution? - Gabon
df
- Nvidia
The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and Biotechnology
_p
Jharkhand has celebrated its which foundation day on Research and Innovation Council (BRIC) have introduced an
initiative to showcase the enormous microbial potential of India.
na
November 15, 2024? - 25th
What is its name? - One Day One Genome
ap
'State of the Climate 2024' report, the year 2024 is on track to be
the warmest year on record after an extended streak of Who has won the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament,
exceptionally high monthly global mean temperatures. Which and Development for 2023?
:@
organisation has released this report? - Daniel Barenboim and Ali Abu Awwad
- World Meteorological Organisation (WMO)
How much grant is Capgemini India providing to each
TG
CSIR-National Institute of Science Communication and Policy Community Innovator Fellow (CIF) in the fourth cohort under the
Research (NISCPR) and which university has jointly hosted the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog? - 1 lakh
on
2nd International Conference on Communication and
Dissemination of Traditional Knowledge (CDTK-2024) at Which country has launched the Global Alliance Against Hunger
Gurugram? - Gurugram university and Poverty during the opening of G20 Summit 2024? - Brazil
ch
Which country has launched 'Kirameki No. 3 satellite', designed The third regional event of the 'Hamara Samvidhan Hamara
ar
for military communication and intelligence gathering? - Japan Samman' campaign has been organised to commemorate the
75th anniversary of adoption of Indian Constitution and India's
Se
Which country has come up with a new scheme called Mobility establishment as a Republic at which of the following institutes?
Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme (MATES) - Indian Institute of Technology, Guwahati
that allows talented young people from India to work in the
country for some time? - Australia India will host the first-ever Kho Kho World Cup at Indira Gandhi
Indoor Stadium in New Delhi from January 13 to 19, 2025. How
Recently, who has been appointed as Head of Mission and Chief many countries will participate in the tournament? - 24
Military Observer for the UN Military Observer Group in India and
Pakistan (UNMOGIP)? - Ramon Guardado Sanchez Scientists from which of the following institutes have developed
the Indian Equatorial Electrojet (IEEJindows Model to accurately
Which state government has launched the 'Come and Install predict the Equatorial Electrojet over the Indian sector?
Solar Power Projects' initiative to encourage investment in the - Indian Institute of Geomagnetism (IIG), Navi Mumbai
state's solar and solar energy projects? - Himachal Pradesh
Recently, which special forces of the Indian Navy has rescued all
Who has been elected as the new Secretary-General of the the crew members of the hijacked Liberian-flagged vessel MV
International Criminal Police Organisation - INTERPOL? Lila Norfolk? - MARCOS
You might also like
- Pinnacle Railway Gs PyqDocument9 pagesPinnacle Railway Gs Pyqrcchoudhary00200167% (3)
- Railway General Studies 7100 TCS MCQ English Medium 2nd Edition PinnacleDocument696 pagesRailway General Studies 7100 TCS MCQ English Medium 2nd Edition Pinnaclechaudharyshivankmalik100% (3)
- Maths Formula Book 1st Edition 2024 Pinnacle English MediumDocument190 pagesMaths Formula Book 1st Edition 2024 Pinnacle English Mediumkiddoroy202175% (4)
- Kathy and David Blackwell - Cello Time ChristmasDocument26 pagesKathy and David Blackwell - Cello Time ChristmasSofia Azevedo82% (11)
- Computer Book 2nd Edition (English Medium)Document253 pagesComputer Book 2nd Edition (English Medium)sainrajesh992100% (2)
- Pinnacle - CGL Test Series EbookDocument1,332 pagesPinnacle - CGL Test Series EbookArun Bhardwaj75% (4)
- Pinnacle English 4th EditionDocument717 pagesPinnacle English 4th Editionkoxecij607100% (4)
- PINNACLE General Studies English PDFDocument627 pagesPINNACLE General Studies English PDFVinod Kumar100% (16)
- Computer Awareness by ArihantDocument191 pagesComputer Awareness by Arihantvaghasiyadixa1100% (1)
- GeographyDocument100 pagesGeographyKoushik Kumar Paluri100% (1)
- Demo 50 6500+ TCS MCQ SSC General Studies (6th Edition) Book (English Medium) - PinnacleDocument50 pagesDemo 50 6500+ TCS MCQ SSC General Studies (6th Edition) Book (English Medium) - Pinnaclepandeygail2100% (1)
- Compiled Nursery Rhymes ChordsDocument8 pagesCompiled Nursery Rhymes Chordssheena.suicoNo ratings yet
- SSC Cpo Warrior Book FreeDocument236 pagesSSC Cpo Warrior Book Freesecret Musician100% (2)
- Complete Static GK by Shivant SirDocument97 pagesComplete Static GK by Shivant Sirbhoomig176No ratings yet
- Railway GS Chapter Wise English Medium @crossword2022Document525 pagesRailway GS Chapter Wise English Medium @crossword2022bhanjasibaram000100% (1)
- Count of Me (String Quartet)Document7 pagesCount of Me (String Quartet)Marco Antonio Cabrera EsparzaNo ratings yet
- Kinks LolaDocument7 pagesKinks LolaJason Carroll100% (3)
- Static GK by Parcham - English - 1660731858Document3 pagesStatic GK by Parcham - English - 1660731858Tgn25% (4)
- History of Pandanggo Sa IlawDocument1 pageHistory of Pandanggo Sa Ilawjamelavelasco100% (4)
- Calculation Sheet FinalDocument10 pagesCalculation Sheet FinalAsh100% (2)
- SSC Kiran English Book PDF - CompressDocument2 pagesSSC Kiran English Book PDF - Compressabhinavsoni4000% (5)
- BRAHMASTRA Static GK by Aditya Ranjan English MediumDocument244 pagesBRAHMASTRA Static GK by Aditya Ranjan English MediumbpschainpurNo ratings yet
- Pinnacle GS 5th Edition English Medium by @MrSSCWalaDocument532 pagesPinnacle GS 5th Edition English Medium by @MrSSCWalaAkshat Chatterjee100% (2)
- SSC CHSL 2024 Free Ebook - 3016Document38 pagesSSC CHSL 2024 Free Ebook - 3016Yukti Kanungo100% (1)
- Kiran Railway Reasoning Typewise & Chapterwise Strategy For RailwayDocument14 pagesKiran Railway Reasoning Typewise & Chapterwise Strategy For Railwayrajulkhan9413No ratings yet
- Reasoning SSC Study Notes English Version 22 05 18Document12 pagesReasoning SSC Study Notes English Version 22 05 18MahendraSinghNo ratings yet
- YCT RRB REASONING 2024 (2) - Repaired (1) - Compressed - CompressedDocument100 pagesYCT RRB REASONING 2024 (2) - Repaired (1) - Compressed - Compressedpavans383778No ratings yet
- 002) Stone Age - Pdf????????-MergedDocument197 pages002) Stone Age - Pdf????????-MergedMonty SharmaNo ratings yet
- GK Trick Book - EnglishDocument26 pagesGK Trick Book - Englishanonymous.hafet100% (2)
- 7) POLITY (2020 To Sept 2024) PYQ Ebook - RBE - CompressedDocument117 pages7) POLITY (2020 To Sept 2024) PYQ Ebook - RBE - CompressedArun BhardwajNo ratings yet
- SSC CHSL Study Schedule For Tier I - Crack The Exam in 3 Weeks!Document3 pagesSSC CHSL Study Schedule For Tier I - Crack The Exam in 3 Weeks!Tushita80% (15)
- KIRAN GK ONE LINERDocument409 pagesKIRAN GK ONE LINERpyar singh100% (1)
- Ultimate Guide To SSC Combined - Disha ExpertsDocument801 pagesUltimate Guide To SSC Combined - Disha Expertspankaj pal100% (1)
- General Science & General Awareness CBT-1 2019 PDFDocument23 pagesGeneral Science & General Awareness CBT-1 2019 PDFChandra Prakash50% (2)
- 100 Days Plan For SSC CGL With FeeDocument8 pages100 Days Plan For SSC CGL With FeeSamrat AshokNo ratings yet
- Complete Pyq Series 3 Notes EnglishDocument551 pagesComplete Pyq Series 3 Notes EnglishSatya NarayanNo ratings yet
- Youth NTPC Practice Set PDFDocument89 pagesYouth NTPC Practice Set PDFshid kumar50% (2)
- #GK Complete Chemistry Notes EnglishDocument58 pages#GK Complete Chemistry Notes EnglishTarun MotlaNo ratings yet
- Railway GK PYQDocument146 pagesRailway GK PYQJohn BabuNo ratings yet
- Sports Eng (MR Cracker)Document6 pagesSports Eng (MR Cracker)INDIAN GANGSTERNo ratings yet
- E Book For General Knowledge Notes For SSC CGLDocument70 pagesE Book For General Knowledge Notes For SSC CGLChandramauli Mishra100% (1)
- Quick Revision PDF Trick To Remember Folk Dances of India SimplicrackDocument96 pagesQuick Revision PDF Trick To Remember Folk Dances of India Simplicracknaveentan7777No ratings yet
- Railway Science Sample (Physics, Chemistry and Biology)Document24 pagesRailway Science Sample (Physics, Chemistry and Biology)raman21012100% (1)
- SSC GD (Maths) Sample PDFDocument77 pagesSSC GD (Maths) Sample PDFanshikasinha92340% (1)
- RBE States Static GK Ebook (Eng)Document159 pagesRBE States Static GK Ebook (Eng)Andrew ParkarNo ratings yet
- SSC CGL 2024 90 Days Daily Schedule @GovtExamAspirant - 37938013 - 2024 - 11 - 19 - 15 - 02Document11 pagesSSC CGL 2024 90 Days Daily Schedule @GovtExamAspirant - 37938013 - 2024 - 11 - 19 - 15 - 0219BMA111 GOKULNo ratings yet
- RRB NTPC Solved Papers (English Medium)Document416 pagesRRB NTPC Solved Papers (English Medium)Koti Veera Bhadram100% (1)
- RRB NTPC Previous Year Exam Papers e Book 2012 2016 PDFDocument47 pagesRRB NTPC Previous Year Exam Papers e Book 2012 2016 PDFImam Gajula100% (1)
- Parmar: Folk Dance of IndiaDocument21 pagesParmar: Folk Dance of India19EBKEC005BHUPESH KULHARI0% (1)
- Classical Dances (Static GK For SSC Exam)Document12 pagesClassical Dances (Static GK For SSC Exam)Arun BhardwajNo ratings yet
- SSC General Studies (English) 2022-23Document961 pagesSSC General Studies (English) 2022-23Virat PraveenNo ratings yet
- Previous Year Papers & Complete DetailsDocument6 pagesPrevious Year Papers & Complete DetailsTarun100% (2)
- Ankit Bhati Static GK (English)Document174 pagesAnkit Bhati Static GK (English)Rishav Sinha50% (6)
- Pinnacle Computer Theory Book 3rd Edition Hindi MediumDocument310 pagesPinnacle Computer Theory Book 3rd Edition Hindi Mediumrk8424555100% (2)
- Disha RRB NTPC 101 TestDocument286 pagesDisha RRB NTPC 101 TestSatyaki Das100% (1)
- RRB NTPC ChemistryDocument116 pagesRRB NTPC Chemistryvishal100% (1)
- Aman Srivastava's Static GK MagazineDocument36 pagesAman Srivastava's Static GK MagazineWER100% (2)
- E-Book (51 Days 51 Marathon Final PDFDocument168 pagesE-Book (51 Days 51 Marathon Final PDFRudra AbhishekNo ratings yet
- Parmar SSC GK Mind MapsDocument219 pagesParmar SSC GK Mind Mapsayushvermahx100% (2)
- Pinnacle SSC General Studies 7th Edition in English PDFDocument15 pagesPinnacle SSC General Studies 7th Edition in English PDFdemoy3704No ratings yet
- Pinnacle GS 7th Ed English No Watermark (1)Document602 pagesPinnacle GS 7th Ed English No Watermark (1)Revathy V RNo ratings yet
- PINNACLE General Studies EnglishDocument156 pagesPINNACLE General Studies Englishdasrupkumar145No ratings yet
- IndexDocument8 pagesIndexSaurabh KumarNo ratings yet
- IndexDocument5 pagesIndexनमन गुप्ताNo ratings yet
- Demo 50 Railway General Studies 7100 TCS MCQ English Medium 2nd Edition Pinnacle 1 3Document696 pagesDemo 50 Railway General Studies 7100 TCS MCQ English Medium 2nd Edition Pinnacle 1 3mrjatt22g22gNo ratings yet
- O_Level_Module_4_M4_R5_Introduction_to_Internet_of_Things_IOT_AndDocument128 pagesO_Level_Module_4_M4_R5_Introduction_to_Internet_of_Things_IOT_AndRanadeep MukherjeeNo ratings yet
- O_Level_Module_3_M3_R5_Programming_&_Problem_Solving_Through_PythonDocument128 pagesO_Level_Module_3_M3_R5_Programming_&_Problem_Solving_Through_PythonRanadeep MukherjeeNo ratings yet
- Science Rapid FireDocument400 pagesScience Rapid FireRanadeep MukherjeeNo ratings yet
- 'O'_Level_M1_R5,_M2_R5,M3_R5,M4_R5_OBJECTIVE_TYPE_SOLVED_PAPERSDocument260 pages'O'_Level_M1_R5,_M2_R5,M3_R5,M4_R5_OBJECTIVE_TYPE_SOLVED_PAPERSRanadeep MukherjeeNo ratings yet
- POLITY MCQDocument296 pagesPOLITY MCQRanadeep MukherjeeNo ratings yet
- ECONOMICS MCQDocument288 pagesECONOMICS MCQRanadeep MukherjeeNo ratings yet
- GEOGRAPHY MCQDocument392 pagesGEOGRAPHY MCQRanadeep MukherjeeNo ratings yet
- MathsDocument699 pagesMathsRanadeep MukherjeeNo ratings yet
- ANCIENT HISTORY MCQDocument264 pagesANCIENT HISTORY MCQRanadeep MukherjeeNo ratings yet
- Physics Revision Book for All Competitive Exams 2025Document400 pagesPhysics Revision Book for All Competitive Exams 2025Ranadeep MukherjeeNo ratings yet
- Carolina Breakdown: Etta Baker EDocument4 pagesCarolina Breakdown: Etta Baker EMichael FerraroNo ratings yet
- The Legend of Sleepy HollowDocument43 pagesThe Legend of Sleepy HollowElenaDaneshNo ratings yet
- Chega de Saudade Experimental Bigband-Tenor - Sax - 2Document2 pagesChega de Saudade Experimental Bigband-Tenor - Sax - 2GuilhermeNo ratings yet
- Blues Rock Book 1 SampleDocument15 pagesBlues Rock Book 1 Samplejakartabarat2010100% (1)
- Festen OpeningDocument6 pagesFesten OpeningMehoy MiboyNo ratings yet
- ATLANTICODocument2 pagesATLANTICOEdgar Gonzalez PinedaNo ratings yet
- AMOR ETERNO - Viola - MusxDocument2 pagesAMOR ETERNO - Viola - MusxMaria Jose UribeNo ratings yet
- Horn FDocument16 pagesHorn FavaigandtNo ratings yet
- Gitano Manolo - Saxo Alto 2Document1 pageGitano Manolo - Saxo Alto 2lapiruletaxarangaNo ratings yet
- 1 - 155 164 OomPahPah PracticeDocument10 pages1 - 155 164 OomPahPah PracticealjosabosNo ratings yet
- Week 014-Module 014-Panagbenga and Masskara FestivalsDocument4 pagesWeek 014-Module 014-Panagbenga and Masskara FestivalsRouie john dizonNo ratings yet
- Q2 WK4 Worksheet6 8 P.E9Document6 pagesQ2 WK4 Worksheet6 8 P.E9Wilmar Espinosa100% (1)
- WHAT IS FOLK DANCE PresentationDocument17 pagesWHAT IS FOLK DANCE PresentationLibed, April JoelynNo ratings yet
- TROMBONDocument1 pageTROMBONJosé A. Jaramillo CaroNo ratings yet
- Pathfit - CarinosaDocument2 pagesPathfit - Carinosaandoy.jayson.bshsNo ratings yet
- Hegedűmuzsika ZGDocument36 pagesHegedűmuzsika ZGMonika NagyneNo ratings yet
- Korean Folk MusicDocument3 pagesKorean Folk MusicMATHEW ANGELO GAMBOANo ratings yet
- Dreaming of Home ViolionsDocument2 pagesDreaming of Home ViolionsEveNo ratings yet
- Fundamental Steps in Folk DanceDocument30 pagesFundamental Steps in Folk DanceRocel Azelle EusebioNo ratings yet
- New Approaches To Performance and The PracticalDocument254 pagesNew Approaches To Performance and The PracticalMiguel Roldan Kattah100% (1)
- Folk DanceDocument4 pagesFolk DanceKarl Delapaz100% (1)
- Sheet Music Traditional-Scarborough-FairDocument2 pagesSheet Music Traditional-Scarborough-FairWilliam SmithNo ratings yet
- Learning Activity 1 Evidence: Take A BreakDocument3 pagesLearning Activity 1 Evidence: Take A Breakcarlos mario velasquez guisadoNo ratings yet
- Serrado - Bass GuitarDocument1 pageSerrado - Bass GuitarElisa100% (1)
- Russian Suite J. JovicicDocument7 pagesRussian Suite J. JovicicArtur Sopenhauer100% (2)
