16/01/2025 Code-A

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot-13, Sector-18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana-122018

MM : 300 Final Test Series Phase-I-2025_T08 (Code-A) Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Chemistry: Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Mathematics: Mock Test on Complete Syllabus

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 25 questions in each part of
equal weightage. Each part has two sections.
Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +4
marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-II : This section contains 5 numerical value based questions. The answer to each question should be rounded off to
the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
4. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display the remaining time available for
you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or
submit your examination.
5. The Questions Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the following:
Answered
Not Answered
Marked for Review
Not Visited
Answered and Marked for Review
6. Ensure that the battery in your device is sufficiently charged for serving 3 hr before starting the test. We recommend your device is on
charging mode during the test.
7. Make sure you begin the test with a plan. Start with your strongest section.
8. Go through the entire paper and attempt the questions you know first.
9. Make sure you save at least 5-10 min in the end to revisit your answers. In an online test, you can change your answer at any time.
You can only attempt the test from one device. You will be logged out from the first device if you log in from another device.
10. Don’t change the date and time of the device in between the test.
11. Don’t submit the test before time. Try to use the entire duration of the test wisely.

PHYSICS

Section-I

1. The dimensional formula for mobility of electron is

(1) [M1L1T–2A–1 ]

(2) [M1L–1T–2A]

(3) [M–1T2A]

(4) [M1T2A]

1
Final Test Series Phase-I-2025_T08 (Code-A)

2. A particle starts from the origin at time t = 0 and moves 5. A solid cylinder (mass m, radius r), a hollow cylinder
along the positive x-axis. The graph of velocity with (mass m, radius 2r), a solid sphere (mass m, radius 3r)
respect to time is shown in figure. What is the position of and a hollow sphere (mass m, radius 4r) are released at
the particle time t = 5 s? the top of an incline. Assuming that friction is just
sufficient for rolling of hollow sphere. Which of these will
reach bottom of the incline simultaneously?
(1) Solid cylinder and hollow sphere
(2) Hollow sphere and hollow cylinder
(3) Solid sphere and solid cylinder
(4) Hollow cylinder and solid sphere

6. Two point masses M1 and M2 are released from rest from

infinitely large separation. They move towards each other
due to mutual attraction. Their relative velocity of
approach, when separation between them is r, is
(1) 9 m
−−−−−−−−

(2) 6 m (1) √
G(M1 + M2 )

2r

(3) 10 m
−−−−−−−−−

(4) 3 m (2) √
2G(M1 + M2 )

3. Two masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 10 kg, connected by an

−−−−−−−−
inextensible string over a frictionless pulley, are moving (3) √
G(M1 + M2 )

as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction of r

horizontal surface is 0.15. The minimum weight m that

−−−−−−−−
should be put on top of m2 to stop the motion is GM1 M2

(4) √
(M1 + M2 )r

7. If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to 2

pressure at the bottom of the lake then what is the depth

of the lake?
(1) 10 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 30 m
(1) 18.3 kg 8. A person speaking normally produces a sound intensity
(2) 23.33 kg of 40 dB at a distance of 1 m. If the threshold intensity for
reasonable audibility is 20 dB, the maximum distance at
(3) 43.3 kg which he can be heard clearly is
(4) 10.3 kg (1) 4 m
4. Find the work done by the force F̄¯¯ = x î + 2y ĵ in moving
2 (2) 5 m
around the path OABCO completing one full cycle (3) 10 m
(4) 20 m
9. A body in SHM with angular frequency 0.5 rad/s is initially
10.0 cm from its equilibrium and is moving back towards
equilibrium with velocity of 5.0 cm/s. The least time taken
by the body to reach its equilibrium position is
(1) π

2
s

(2) 2π s
π
(3) 6
s

(1)
2 2

3
p
(4) 3π

4
s

(2) p2q

(3) p3

(4) 0

2
Final Test Series Phase-I-2025_T08 (Code-A)

10. An infinitely long solid cylinder of radius R has uniform 13. A wire in the shape of a square frame carries a current I
volume charge density ρ. The magnitude of electric field and produces a magnetic field BS, at its centre. Now the
at point P which is at a distance from axis of cylinder is
R
wire is bent in the shape of a circle and carries the same
2
current. If BC is the magnetic field produced at the centre
(1)
ρR
of the circular coil, then BS/BC equals
2ε0

ρR (1) 8π2
(2) 4ε0

(2) 8√2

(3) ρR

ε0
π2

2
(3) 8π √–
2

(4) ρR

2
8ε0 8π
(4) √2

11. Four identical electrical lamps are labelled 1.5V, 0.5A

which describes the condition necessary for them to 14. The electric current in a circuit varies with time as
operate at normal brightness. A 12V battery of negligible t 2
The rms current for the time period t = 0 to t = T
i = i0 ( ) ⋅
internal resistance is connected to lamps as shown, then T

is
i0
(1) √2

i0
(2) √5

i0
(3) √3

(4) i0

15. A convex lens A of focal length 40 cm and a concave

lens B of focal length 20 cm are placed co-axially with a
separation of 20 cm between them, B being to the right of
A. An object is placed at a distance of 80 cm to the left of
lens A. Distance of its final image is at a distance from
lens B of
The value of R for normal brightness of each lamp is (1) 20 cm
(1)
(3/4) Ω
(2) 15 cm
The value of R for normal brightness of each lamp is
(2)
(21/4) Ω (3) 30 cm
Total power dissipated in circuit when all lamps are (4) 22.5 cm
(3)
normally bright is 30 W
16. In a YDSE, when a slit is covered with a thin sheet of
Power dissipated in R is 11.5 W when all lamps are refractive index the intensity at central maxima
5
(4)
normally bright 3

th
12. In the meter bridge circuit, the length AB for Null becomes of the maximum intensity. If a
3

deflection in galvanometer, is 50 cm. Value of resistance monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm was used,
r, is then find the minimum value of thickness of sheet.
(1) 2780 Å
(2) 4200 Å
(3) 3188 Å
(4) 1500 Å
17. Threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission in
tungsten is 230 nm. The wavelength of light that must be
used in order for electrons with maximum energy of 1.5
eV to be ejected is

(1) 10 Ω (1) 120 nm

(2) 15 Ω (2) 130 nm

(3) 30 Ω (3) 180 nm

(4) 20 Ω (4) 200 nm

3
Final Test Series Phase-I-2025_T08 (Code-A)

18. The volume V of an enclosure contains a mixture of three 20. The pitch and the number of divisions, on the circular
gases, 16 g of oxygen, 28 g of nitrogen and 44 g of scale, for a given screw gauge are 0.5 mm and 100
carbon dioxide at absolute temperature T. Consider R as respectively. When the screw gauge is fully tightened
universal gas constant. The pressure of the mixture of without any object, the zero of its circular scales lies 3
gases is : divisions below the mean line. The reading of the main
scale and the circular scale, for a thin sheet, are 5.5 mm
(1) 4RT

V
and 48 respectively, the thickness of this sheet is

(2) 3RT (1) 5.725 mm

V

(2) 5.740 mm
(3) 88RT

V
(3) 5.755 mm
(4) 5

2
RT

V
(4) 5.950 mm

19. The circuit shown below is a

(1) Three input OR gate

(2) Three input NOR gate
(3) Three input AND gate
(4) Three input NAND gate

Section-II

21. A projectile is projected with velocity v0 at 30° to 24. Consider a nuclear reaction X200 → A100 + B100. If the
horizontal. Ratio of maximum height to horizontal range binding energy per nucleon of X, A and B are 7.8 MeV,
is . Find n.
1
8.2 MeV and 8.0 MeV respectively, then the energy
4√n
released in the reaction in MeV is _________.
22. A block of mass 2 kg is lifted through a chain. When block 25. In an experiment on the determination of a Young’s
moves through 2 m vertically, the velocity of the block modulus of a wire by Searle’s method. Following data is
becomes 4 m/s. The work done (in J) by chain force on available. Normal length of the wire (L) = 110 cm,
the block until it moves by 2 m, is ______. (g = 10 ms–2) Diameter of the wire (d) = 0.01 cm, Elongation in the wire
(l) = 0.125 cm. This elongation is for a tension (T) of 50 N.
23. A zener diode having breakdown voltage equal to 15 V, is The least counts for corresponding quantities are 0.22
used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in figure. Find cm, 0.00005 cm and 0.001 cm respectively. Calculate the
the current through the diode (in mA). maximum % error in calculating the value of Young’s
modulus (Y). (Consider no error in value of T)

4
Final Test Series Phase-I-2025_T08 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY

Section-I

26. Consider the following reversible chemical reactions 28. In the cumene to phenol preparation in presence of air,
K1 the intermediate is
A2 (g) + B2 (g) ⇌ 2AB(g) …(1)

K2

6AB(g) ⇌ 3A2 (g) + 3B2 (g) …(2)

(1)
The relation between K1 and K2 is

(1) K2 = K13

(2) K1 K2 =
1

(3) K2 = K1–3 (2)

(4) K1K2 = 3

27.

Consider the above reaction and identify the product B.

(3)

(1)

(4)

(2)
29. Consider the following oxides: As2O3, P2O5, Sb2O3 and
Bi2O3. The most and least basic oxides are respectively

(1) As2O3 and P2O5

(2) Bi2O3 and P2O5

(3) (3) P2O5 and Sb2O3

(4) Bi2O3 and Sb2O3

30. Gases A and B both turn lime water milky which

disappears on passing excess of the gas. Gas A converts
orange coloured acidified K2Cr2O7 solution green
whereas gas B does not. The gases A and B can be
obtained by acidification of their anions, select the correct
(4) option for anions of A and B gases respectively.

(1) CO2−

3
, SO3
2−

(2) Cl , SO
− 2−

(3) SO2−

3
, CO3
2−

(4) SO2−

3
, SO4
2−

5
Final Test Series Phase-I-2025_T08 (Code-A)

31. A flask contains a mixture of compounds A and B. Both 34. The compound used in the treatment of lead poisoning is
compounds decompose by first-order kinetics. The half- :
lives for A and B are 300 s and 180 s, respectively. lf the
concentrations of A and B are equal initially, the time (1) EDTA
required for the concentration of A to become four times (2) Desferrioxime B
that of B (in s) is : (Use In 2 = 0.693)
(3) Cis-platin
(1) 120
(4) D-penicillamine
(2) 300
35. The increasing order of the pKa values of the following
(3) 180
compounds is
(4) 900

32. An organic compound (A) (molecular formula C6H12O2)

was hydrolysed with dil. H2SO4 to give a carboxylic acid
(B) and an alcohol (C). ‘C’ gives white turbidity
immediately when treated with anhydrous ZnCl2 and
conc. HCl. The organic compound (A) is

(1) D < A < C < B

(2) B < C < D < A
(1) (3) B < C < A < D
(4) C < B < A < D
36. The difference in the number of unpaired electrons of a
metal ion in its high spin and low-spin octahedral
complexes is two. The metal ion is

(1) Ni2+

(2) Mn2+

(2) (3) Fe2+

(4) Co2+

37. The highest possible oxidation states of uranium and

plutonium, respectively, are :
(1) 6 and 7
(2) 7 and 6
(3) 6 and 4
(3)
(4) 4 and 6

(4)

33. The anodic half-cell of lead-acid battery is recharged

using electricity of 0.05 Faraday. The amount of PbSO4
electrolyzed in g during the process is (Molar mass of
PbSO4 = 303 g mol–1)

(1) 7.6
(2) 15.2
(3) 11.4
(4) 22.8

6
Final Test Series Phase-I-2025_T08 (Code-A)

38. Match List - I with List - II. 42. The major product obtained from the following reaction is
List - I List - II
(Reactions) (Reagents)

CH3MgBr,
(A) (I)
H2O

C6H5COC6H5 → (1)
Zn(Hg) and
(B) (II)
C6H5CH2C6H5 conc. HCl

(C) C6H5CHO → C6H5CH(OH)CH3 (III) NaBH4, H+

DIBAL-H,
(D) (IV) H O (2)
2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(3)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
39. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : Electrophilic addition of HBr to 1,3-
butadiene at low temperature (–80°C) favours kinetically
controlled product as major product. (4)
Statement-II : Electrophilic addition of HBr to 1,3-
butadiene at high temperature (40°C) favours
thermodynamically controlled product as major product.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate from the options given below.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(3) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
(4) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false

40. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Benzene is more stable than hypothetical
cyclohexatriene.
Reason R : The delocalized π electron cloud is attracted
more strongly by nuclei of carbon atoms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct
(1)
explanation of A
Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
(2)
explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
41. The number of 2-centre-2-electron and 3-centre-2-
electron bonds in B2H6 respectively are

(1) 4 and 2
(2) 2 and 2
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 2 and 1

7
Final Test Series Phase-I-2025_T08 (Code-A)

43. The Kjeldahl method of Nitrogen estimation fails for which

of the following reaction products?
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) (a), (c) and (d) only

(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (b) and (c) only
44. The shape / structure of [XeF ]– and XeO F ,
5 3 2
respectively, are
(1) Pentagonal planar and trigonal bipyramidal
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal and pentagonal planar
(3) Octahedral and square pyramidal
(4) Trigonal bipyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal
45. The shortest wavelength of H atom in the Lyman series is
λ1. The longest wavelength in the Balmar series of He+ is

(1) 5λ1

(2) 36λ1

(3) 27λ1

9λ1
(4) 5

8
Final Test Series Phase-I-2025_T08 (Code-A)

Section-II

46. The number of chiral carbon(s) present in peptide, Ile- 49. Three moles of an ideal gas are compressed isothermally
Arg-Pro, is _____. from 60 L to 20 L using constant pressure of 5 atm. Heat
exchange Q for the compression is _____ L atm.
47. If [Cu(H O) ]2+ absorbs a light of wavelength 600 nm for
2 4 50.
d-d transition, then the value of octahedral crystal field
splitting energy for [Cu(H2O)6]2+ will be _______ ×10–
19 J. [Round off to next integer]
(Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js and c = 3.08 × 108 ms–1)
48. When 10 mL of an aqueous solution of Fe2+ ions was
titrated in the presence of dil H2SO4 using
diphenylamine indicator, 15 mL of 0.02 M solution of
K2Cr2O7 was required to get the end point. The molarity
of the solution containing Fe2+ ions is
x × 10–2 M. The value of x is ––––––. (Nearest integer)

Consider the above reaction. The percentage yield of

amide product is ____. (Round off to the Nearest
Integer).
(Given : Atomic mass : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, N : 14.0 u, O :
16.0 u, CI : 35.5 u)

9
Final Test Series Phase-I-2025_T08 (Code-A)

MATHEMATICS

Section-I

51. If −1 2 −1 2 5π
2

, then x equals 57. The area (in sq. units) of the region, given by the set {(x,
( tan x) + ( cot x) =

y) ∈ R × R | x ≥ 0, 2x2 ≤ y ≤ 4 – 2x} is
8

(1) –1
(1) 8

(2) 1 3

(3) 0 (2) 7

–
(4) √3 (3) 17

52. If f(x) = x3 + Kx2 + 2x + 4 is always increasing, then the

(4) 13

set of exhaustive values of K is 3

(1) [4, 8] 58. If λ î + 3 ĵ , î + ĵ + k

ˆ
and 4 î + λ ĵ + 2k
ˆ
taken in 2

order are coterminous edges of a parallelopiped of

(2) [–10, –6]
volume 2 cubic units, then the number of real values of λ
(3) – –
[−√6, √6]
is

(4) – – (1) 6
[−√7, √7]

(2) 4
53. The number of one-one functions from A to B where A =
{1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} such that f(i) ≠ i (3) 2
∀i ∈ A, is
(4) Zero
(1) 9 59. The solution of the differential equation 2x3ydy + (1 – y2)
(2) 360
(x2y2 + y2 – 1)dx = 0, is (where c is constant of
(3) 15 integration)
(4) 181 (1) x2y2 = (cx + 1)(1 – y2)
54. The integer n for which 1− cos
2
x
is a finite non-zero (2) x2y2 = (cx + 1)(1 + y2)
lim n
x
x→0

number is equal to (3) x2y2 = (cx – 1)(1 – y2)

(1) 2
(4) x2y2 = (cx – 1)(1 + y2)
(2) 3
60. The value of π 2π 4π 8π 16π
is
(3) 4 cos
10
⋅ cos
10
⋅ cos
10
⋅ cos
10
⋅ cos
10

(4) 5 (1) −
1
cos
π

16 10

55. The number of ways in which four letters of the word

‘MATHEMATICS’ can be arranged is given by (2) 1

16
cos
π

10

(1) 136 (3) 1

cos
π

8 10

(2) 192
(4) −
1

8
cos
π

10
(3) 1680
61. 1
is equal to (where c is constant of
(4) 2454 ∫
1+15 sin
2
x
dx

integration)
56. Let x⃗ = ^i + 2^j and y ⃗ = −^j + k
^
. A vector r ⃗ satisfying the

equations r ⃗ × x⃗ = y ⃗ × x⃗ and r ⃗ × y ⃗ = x⃗ × y ⃗ is (1) 1

4
cos
−1
(4 cos x) + c

(1) ^ ^ ^
i + j −k (2) 1

4
tan
−1
(4 tan x) + c

(2) ^ ^ ^
i − j −k (3) cos
−1
(4 cos x) + c

(3) ^ ^ ^
i − j +k
(4) tan
−1
(4 tan x) + c

(4) ^ ^ ^
i + j +k

10
Final Test Series Phase-I-2025_T08 (Code-A)

62. P 1 67. The weighted mean of first n natural numbers whose

x sin , x ≠ 0
Let f (x) = {
x
then f(x) is continuous but weights are equal to the squares of corresponding
0, x = 0 numbers is
not differentiable at x = 0 if
(1) n+1

(1) 0 < P ≤ 1
3n(n+1)

(2) 1 < P < ∞

(2)
2(2n+1)

(3) – ∞ < P < 0

(3) (n+1)(2n+1)

(4) P = 0 6

63. n –
−−
n −−
(4) n(n+1)

The value of is equal to

1 n
2 n 2
lim {√5 + √5 + ... + √5 }
n
n→∞

68. λ
2
− 2λ + 1 λ−2
(1) 4log5e If [
2 2
] = Aλ
2
+ Bλ + C , where A, B, C
1−λ + 3λ 1−λ

(2) 5log5e are matrices which are independent of λ, then B+C is

equal to
(3) 5loge5
−1 −1
(4) 4loge5 (1) [ ]
−4 1

64. If |A| = 3, then |adj(adjA)| is equal to (where A is 2 × 2

order matrix) (2) [
−1 −1
]
4 1
(1) 6
(2) 3 (3) [
−1 1
]
4 1
(3) 27
(4) 9 1 1
(4) [ ]
−4 1
65. The expression n
Cr + 3 (
n
Cr+1 ) + 3 (
n
Cr+2 ) +
n
Cr+3 ,
simplifies to 69. The first derivative of the function
x+3
with respect to x at
(1) n + 3Cr
(sin 2x cos 2x cos 3x + log 2 )
2

x = π is
(2) n + 3Cr + 1 (1) 2
(2) –1
(3) n + 3Cr + 2
(3) −2 + 2
π
log
e
2

(4) n + 3Cr + 3
(4) −2 + log
e
2

66. For z ∈ C, if the minimum value of

70. In a city 40% are males and 60% are females. Suppose
–
∣z − 5√2∣
(∣ ∣+∣
–
∣z − β √3i∣
∣) is −−
√74 . Then β2 is equal to 30% of males and 50% of females have colour blindness.
(where β ∈ R and
−−
i = √– 1 ) One is selected at random and is found to be colour blind.
The probability that the selected person is female, is
(1) 7
(1) 11

(2) 8 87

(3) 9 (2) 19
8

(4) 10
(3) 5

(4) 19
9

Section-II

71. dy (1+y)
2
72. A line with direction ratios < 2, 1 ,2 > intersects lines
If the solution of the differential equation dx
=
2
is
x(1+y)−x ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
r̄ = − j + λ ( i + j + k) and ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
r̄ = − i + μ (2 i + j + k) at A and
λ+y

x
, where c is constant of integration,
+ c = ln (1 + y)
B respectively. If shortest distance of origin from AB is d
then the value of (10λ + 6) is equal to
then 9d2 is equal to
73. If the minimum value of 10x + 5y, when xy = 2 and x > 0,
is λ, then is λ

11
Final Test Series Phase-I-2025_T08 (Code-A)

74. If α and β are the values of k for which the roots of

equation x3 + 6x2 + kx – 8 = 0 are in arithmetic
progression and geometric progression respectively.
(α−β)
Then 2
is equal to

75. If |z1| = 2, |z2| = 3, |z3| = 4 and |2z1 + 3z2 + 4z3| = 9, then

absolute value of |8z z + 27z z + 64z z | must be
1

3
2 3 3 1 1 2

equal to

12