Grade 11 and 12 | NEET

SANKALP NEET VEDANTU TELEGRAM Test - 9

Test Date – 26 April 2024
Important Instructions :
1. Fill in the particulars on OMR provided carefully with blue/black ball-point pen only.
2. The test is of 3.20 hours in duration and Test Booklet contains 200 Multiple Choice questions (four options
with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology. 50 Questions in Physics and Biology are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per the details given below:

No. Subject(s) Section(s) Number of Marks (Each Type of

Question(s) Question carries 4 Question
Marks)

1 Physics Section A 35 140 MCQ

(Multiple
2 Physics Section B 15 40 Choice
Questions)
3 Chemistry Section A 35 140

4 Chemistry Section B 15 40

5 Botany Section A 35 140

6 Botany Section B 15 40

7 Zoology Section A 35 140

8 Zoology Section B 15 40

Note : Correct Option marked will be given (4) marks and Incorrect option marked will be minus one (-1)
mark.
Unattempted / Unanswered Questions will be given no marks.

3. Section A: It will have 35 questions in each Subject. The correct Option marked will be given (4) marks and
the Incorrect option marked will be minus one (-1) mark.
Section B: Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start
attempting them. In the event of a candidate attempting more than 10 questions, then the first ten
questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated. The correct Option marked will be given (4) marks
and the Incorrect option marked will be minus one (-1) mark.
4. Use a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
5. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator before leaving
the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
8. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. Use of an Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
 NEET Full Test 9

PHYSICS
SECTION - A 7. A body of mass of 0.5kg travels in a straight
1. A lamp is connected in series with a capacitor line with velocity V  5X 3/2 . Work done by
to an AC supply. If the capacitance of the the net force during its displacement from
capacitor is increases, the lamp x  0 to x  2m is
(a) Shines less brightly (a) 10 J (b) 12 J
(b) Shines more brightly (c) 40 J (d) 50 J
(c) Brightness does not change 8. In the human body, the heart keeps the body
(d) Brightness turns off temperature constant by the phenomena of
2. A man walks on a straight road from his home (a) Conduction
to market 2.5km away with a speed of 5kmph. (b) Radiation
Finding the market closed, he instantly turns (c) Free convection
and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 (d) Forced convection
kmph. His average speed is 9. A cord of negligible mass is wound round the
(a) 6.25 kmph (b) 6 kmph rim of a fly wheel of mass 20kg and radius
(c) 2.5 kmph (c) 2 kmph 20cm. A steady tangential pull of 25N is
3. If  is the angle of projection and H, R are the applied on the chord. If the wheel is free to
maximum height, range of a projectile, then rotate about a normal axis through its centre,
Tan is the angular acceleration of the wheel is
4H 4R (a) 6rads-2 (b) 30 rads-2
(a) (b) (c) 12.5rads-2 (d) 15 rads-2
R H
2H 2R 10. From a uniform disc of radius R, a circular
(c) R (d) R
H hole of radius is cut out. The centre of the
4. A train is accelerating at 10ms-2. A stone of 2
R
mass 0.1kg is dropped from window of train. hole is at from the centre of the original
Just after it is dropped the net force acting on 2
stone is disc. The shift in centre of gravity of the
(a) 1N resulting body is
R R
(c) 0.1N (d) Zero (a) (b)
5. The current in a circuit falls from 5A to zero 3 4
in 0.1 S. If an average emf of 200 V is R R
(c) (d)
induced, the self inductance of the circuit is 12 6
(a) 20H (b) 4H 11. A body weights 63N on the surface of earth.
(c) 2H (d) 40H The gravitational force on the earth at a height
6. A thin circular loop of radius R rotates about equal to half of the radius earth is
its vertical diameter with angular speed (a) 28N (b) 32 N
2g (c) 126N (d) 7N
 . bead on the wire loop remains at 12. Escape speed of a body from the earth depend
R
on
rest relative to loop, the angle made by the
(a) Mass of the body
radius vector of bead with the downward
(b) Shape of the body
vertical is (Neglect friction)
(c) Its direction of projection from earth’s
(a) 90 (b) 45
surface
(c) 60 (d) 30
(d) The height of launching location

2
13. (A) The stretching of a coil is determined by 20. In photoelectric effect experiment, the
its shear modulus. intensity of light is varied by changing the
(B) Of the three states of matter the bulk distance of light source from emitter. Which
modulus of elasticity is maximum for gases. of the following graphs depict he variation of
(a) A,B are true (b) A is true, B is false photoelectric current C with intensity of light
(c) A is false, B is true (d) A,B are false l?
14. Excess pressure inside the drop of mercury of
radius 3.00mm is (surface tension of mercury
is 4.65 101 Nm1 )
(a) 860 Pa (b) 1240 Pa
(a) 620 Pa (d) 310 Pa (a)
15. A tank with a square base of area 1.0m2 is
divided by a vertical partition in the middle.
The bottom of the partition has a small hinzed
door of area 20 cm2. The tank is filled with
water in one compartment and an acid of
(b)
relative density 1.7 in the other, both to a
height of 4m. The force acting on the door is
(g = 1 mns-2)
(a) 80 N (b) 56 N
(c) 25 N (d) 120 N
16. (A) A diver under water, looks obliquely at a (c)
fisherman standing on the bank of a lake. The
fisherman look shorter to the diver than what
he actually is
(B) A convex mirror always produces a
virtual image independent of location of the
real object (d)
(a) A, B are true (b) A is true, B is false 21. A moving electron has wavelength of
(c) A is false, B is true (d) A, B are false 1.00nm. The kinetic energy of electron is
17. A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of (a) 0.34 eV (b) 1.44 eV
0.48JT-1. The magnetic field at 10 cm (c) 1.24 eV (d) 12.2 eV
distance from centre of magnet on its axial 22. Assertion (A): The Bohr model is not
line is applicable to atoms having many electrons.
(a) 0.96 gauss along S – N direction Reason (R): In atoms having many electrons,
(b) 0.96 gauss along N – S direction each electron interacts not only with
(c) 0.48 gauss along S – N direction positively charged nucleus but also with all
(d) 0.48 gauss along N – S direction other electrons.
18. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The speed (a) Both assertion and reason are true and
of light in glass is (speed in vacuum is reason is correct explanations of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but
3108 ms1 )
reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(a) 1.66 108 ms1 (b) 2 108 ms1 (c) Assertion is true and reason is false
(c) 1.5 108 ms1 (d) 1.2 108 ms1 (d) Assertion is false and reason is true
19. The distance for which ray opticals is good
approximation for an aperture of 4mm and
400nm wavelength is
(a) 90m (b) 180m
(c) 40m (d) 60m

3
23. The correct statements of the following about 29. The combination of gates shown in the
Electromagnetic waves are diagram is equivalent to
1) Accelerated charges radiate E.M. waves
2) The frequency of wave is equal to the
frequency of oscillating charge
3) Gamma rays are produced by radioactive
decay of nucleus
(a) 1,2 only
(b) 1, 3 only (a) OR (b) AND
(c) 2,3 only (c) NAND (d) NOR
(d) All 1,2,3 are correct v
30. A quantity X is given by 0 L where 0
24. A 10.2 eV electron beam is used to bombard t
gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. The is the permittivity of vaccum, L is length, V
series of wavelength that will be emitted is is potential difference and t is time interval.
(a) Balmer The dimensional formula for X is the same as
(b) Lyman that for
(c) Paschen (a) Resistance (b) Charge
(d) Both Lyman and Balmer (c) Voltage (d) Current
25. What is the ratio of the radii of the nuclei of 31. Two identical capacitors have the same
mass numbers 27 and 64. capacitance C. One of them is charged to a
3 4 potential V and the other to V . If they are
(a) (b) 1 2
4 3 connected with their unlike plates together,
1 1
(c) (d) the decrease in energy of the combined
4 3 system is
56

C V12  V 22  C V12  V 22 
26. Find the binding energy of 26 Fe . Atomic 1 1
(a) (b)
mass of Fe is 55.9349u and that Hydrogen is 4 4
1 1
1.00783u and Mass of neutron is 1.00876u (c) C V  V  C V  V 
2 2
(d)
1 2 1 2
(a) 992.34MeV (b) 882.34MeV 4 4
(c) 687.55MeV (d) 492.55MeV 32. A cube has side length 1.2 102 m . Its
27. In a semi conductor at 0 K volume is
(a) The Conduction band is completely filled
(a) 1.7 106 m3 (b) 1.73106 m3
with electrons.
(b) The valency band is completely filled (c) 1.70 106 m3 (d) 1.732 106 m3
with electrons. 33. A comparison is drawn between damped
(c) Both conduction and valency bands are oscillator and LCR series circuit when an AC
partially filled with electrons. voltage is applied on it. The equivalent of
(d) The forbidden energy gap is zero damping constant in LCR circuit is
28. (A) for a diode the forward bias resistance is (a) L
low as compared to the reverse bias resistance (b) C
(B) In rectifier circuits capacitor input filters (c) R
use large capacitors (d) Charge on capacitor
(a) A, B are true (b) A is true, B is false
(c) A is false, B is true (d) A, B are false

4
34. Some relations and laws related to fluids are external agency in moving a small negative
given in column A, While the reasons behind charge from B to A are respectively
them are given in column B. Match A and B (a) +,+ (b) +, –
Column - I Column - II (c) –, + (d) –, –
(a) Stoke’s law e) Surface potential 40. The equivalent resistance between A and B is
energy
(b) Equation of f) Viscosity
continuity
(c) Bernolli’s g) Conservation of 16
(a)  (b) 16
theorem mass 3
(d) Velocity efflux h) Conservation of 3
energy (c) 8 (c) 
16
(a) (a) – (e), (b) – (f), (c) – (g), (d) – (h)
41. An element of length 1 cm placed at the
(b) (a) – (f), (b) – (h), (c) – (g), (d) – (e)
origin carries 10A current along the positive
(c) (a) – (f), (b) – (g), (c) – (h), (d) – (e)
X – axis. The magnetic field at a point on the
(d) (a) – (e), (b) –(h), (c) – (g), (d) – (f)
positive Y – axis at a distance 0.5 m from it is
35. When two identical batteries of internal
resistance 1Ω each are connected in series (a) 3106 j (b) 4 108 k
across a resistor R, the rate of heat produced (c) 4 108 k   (d) 3106  j  
in R is P 1. When the same batteries are
42. In Bohr model of atom an electron of charge
connected in parallel across R, the rate is P 2.
(-e) and mass m is revolving around a nucleus
If P1 = 2.25 P2, the value of R is
(a) 2Ω (b) 4Ω (c) 10Ω (d) 12Ω of charge +ze. If L is the orbital angular
momentum of electron, then its magnetic
SECTION – B moment is given by
e e
36. The ratio of specific heats of polyatomic (a)  L (b) L
molecule having f vibrational modes is 2m 2m
4 f f 3 Ze (d)
Ze
L
(a) 3  f (b) f  4 (c) L
2m 2m
43. The force per unit length on a wire carrying
f 4 f 3
(c) (d) current of 8A making an angle of 30 with a
f f 2
uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T is
37. A body describes S.H.M. with an amplitude (a) 1.2 N (b) 1.02 N
5cm and period 0.2s. Velocity of the body (c) 0.6 N (d) 2.4 N
when the displacement is 3cm is (in cm s-1) 44. A card sheet divided into squares each of size
(a) 5π2 (b) 40π 1mm2 is being viewed at a distance of 9cm
(c) 50π d) 3π2 through a converging lens of focal length
38. A string of mass 2.5kg is under a tension of 10cm held close to the eye. The area of the
200N. The length of stretched string is 20m. each image of square is
If a transverse jerk is struck at one end of the (a) 1 cm2 (b) 100 cm2
string, the time taken by the jerk to reach the (c) 10 cm2 (d) 81 cm2
other end is 45. Force between two identical bar magnets
(a) 0.5 s (b) 1.5 s whose centres are r metre apart is 4.8 N, when
(c) 2 s (d) 2.5 s their axes are in the same line. If separation is
39. A positive point charge is located at the origin increased to 2r, the force between them is
of the co-ordinate system. Two points A and
reduced to
B are at distances r1, r2  r2  r1  from charge. (a) 2.4 N (b) 1.2 N
The sign of the work done by the field and (c) 0.6 N (d) 0.3 N

5
46. For an ideal gas at absolute temperature T, the CHEMISTRY
coefficient of volume expansion at constant SECTION - A
pressure is 51. The best preferable reagent for the
2 1
(a) (b) conversion of an alcohol into pure alkyl
T T halide?
1 1
(c) (d) (a) PCl5 (b) PCl3
T T2 (c) SOCl (d) HCl / ZnCl
2 2
47. Consider the situation shown in the figure. 52. On electrolysing a sample of acidified water,
The wire AB is sliding on the fixed rails with 22.4ml of hydrogen was obtained. The value
a constant velocity. If the wire AB is replaced of oxygen in ml obtained is
by semicircular wire, the magnitude of the (a) 22.4 (b) 44.8
induced current will: (c) 11.2 (d) 2.24
53. The maximum oxidation state of oxygen is
(a) – 1 (b) + 1
(c) + 2 (d) 0
54. All the following can undergo
disproportionation except
(a) MnO4 (b) MnO42
(a) Increase
(c) Cu (d) Cl 2
(b) Remain the same
(c) Decrease 55. For a solution in which CHCl3 is dissolved in
(d) Increase or decrease depending on C6H6, molality is 0.1m. Then mole fraction of
whether the semicircle bulges towards the C6H6 in the solution is
resistance or away from it (a) 0.0077 (b) 0.077
48. A 10 KW drilling machine is used to drill a (c) 0.642 (d) 0.9922
hole in a block of mass 5kg. If 50% of power 56. Which of the following pairs of compounds
is lost to the surroundings, the rise in illustrate the law of multiple proportions ?
(A) MgO, Na2O (B) SnO, SnO2
temperature of block in 2.5 minutes is
(C) H2O, H2O2 (D) H2S, SO2
(specific heat of material  0.91 Jg 1k 1 )
(a) A & D (b) B & D
(a) 103 C (b) 150C
(c) A & C (d) B & C
(c) 56 C (d) 200 C 57. Which of the following compound not only
49. If 2g hydrogen gas is contained in a vessel of gives positive iodoform test but also gives
volume of 3m3 at 27C, then the pressure of positive Fehling test
the gas is
(a) 8.314 Pa (b) 83.14 Pa
(c) 415.7 Pa (d) 831.4 Pa
50. A gas undergoes a thermodynamic process (a)
ABC. The total work done by the gas is (b) C6 H5 CHO
(c) C6 H5 COCH3
(d) CH 3CHO

(a) 200 J (b) 300 J

(c) 900 J (d) 450 J

6
58. 62. Choose incorrect stamen from the following
(a) K2MnO4 is green coloured
(b) K2Cr2O7 is the primary standard in
volumetric analysis
(c) Cr2O3 is amphoteric
What are A and B respectively
(d) K2CrO4 is orange coloured
63. Two particles ‘A’ and ‘B’ have their debroglie
wavelength ratio as 3 : 2 respectively. If the
mass ratio of A to B is 2 : 3 then the ratio of
(a) the velocities of A to B will be
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 9 : 4
(c) 4 : 9 (d) 1 : 3
(b) 64. Hydrolysis of ‘X’ is an example of
disproportionation. ‘X’ is
(a) XeF6 (b) XeF2
(c) XeF4 (d) XeOF4
65. Wrong match is
(c)
(a) CuSO4 - Cationic hydrolysis
(b) Na2B4O7 - Anionic hydrolysis
(c) NaNO3 - No hydrolysis
(d) NH4Cl - Both cationic and anionic
(d) hydrolysis
H  C  C  H 1)red     product.
hot iron tube 873k
CO HCl / AlCl
66. The electron in the hydrogen atom undergoes
3
transition from higher orbits to orbit of radius
59. The no. of sp2 carbon atoms present in the
211.6pm. This transition is associated with
product
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) Paschen series (d) Brackett series
(c) 8 (d) 7
67. Assertion (A): Helium is placed in ‘p’ block
of modern periodic table
60. Reason (R): Differentiating electron in
Helium enters into ‘p’ orbital
(a) Both A and R are true and R explains A
Compound ‘B’ is (b) Both A and R are true but R doesn’t
explain A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
68. The number of significant figures in 0.00025
(a) (b) is
(a) 5 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 2
69. Correct order of bond order is
(a) N  N   N 2 (b) N   N  N 2
2 2 2 2 2 2
(c) N 1  N  N  (d) N  N 2  N 
2 2 2 2 2 2

70. No. of protons, electrons & neutrons in

(c) (d) 27 3
13 Al ion
61. Which one of the following is Lewis acid (a) 13, 10, 10 (b) 13, 10, 14
(a) H2 SO4 (b) AlCl3 (c) 14, 10, 13 (d) 10, 13, 14
(c) H 2 O (d) OH  

7
 71. For the reversible reaction 75. If a gas absorbs 200 J of heat and expands by
NH COONH
2 4
s  2NH
3
 g  500 cm3 against a constant pressure of

CO2  g , Kp  4atm 3 . Equilibrium 2 105 Nm2 , then change in internal energy

is
pressure would be. (a) – 300J (b) –100 J
(a) 9 atm (b) 6 atm (c) +100 J (d) +300 J
(c) 3 atm (d) 27 atm
72. In the formation of   bond, the atomic
orbitals overlap in such a way that: 76.
(a) their axes remain parallel to each other (major) Here the major product ‘X’ is
and perpendicular to the internuclear axis (a) (CH3)2CBr CH3
(b) their axes remain parallel to each other (b) (CH3)2 CH CH2Br
and parallel to the internuclear axis
(c) their axes remain perpendicular to each (c)
other and parallel to the internuclear axis
(d) their axes remain perpendicular to each (d)
other and perpendicular to the internuclear
77. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with a
axis
concentration HNO3 while testing for
73.
halogens. By doing so it
(a) Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
(b) Increases the solubility product of AgCl
(c) Increases the concentration of NO3 ions
(d) Decomposes Na 2S and NaCN, if formed
78. Which of the following is not optically
active?
(a) Co en  
3
The product A is
 3 
(b) Cr ox  
3

 3 

(c) cis  CoCl en  
 2 2 

(d) trans  CoCl en  
 2 2 

79. Choose the wrong statement


(a) (b) (a) Degree of dissociation of an electrolyte
increases with dilution
(b) Electrical conductance of a metallic
conductor decreases with increase in
temperature
(c) Electrical conductance of a metallic
conductor increases with increase in
temperature
(c) (d) (d) Electrical conductance of an electrolytic
74. The specific conductance of salt of 0.01M conductor increases with increase in
concentration is 1.06 104 [Link]1 . Molar temperature
conductance of same solution in 80. Which one is a reducing sugar
2 1 (a) Cellulose (b) Starch
[Link] .mol is
(c) Maltose (d) Sucrose
(a) 106.1 (b) 10.61
(c) 1.061 (d) 1.061104

8
81. The major product formed in SECTION – B
dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo
pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product 86. t99.9% of a first order reaction is 100 minutes.
formation is based on? Rate constant of the reaction is
(a) Huckel’s Rule (b) Saytzeff’s Rule (a) 0.693 minutes (b) 2.303 minutes
(c) Hund’s Rule (d) Hofmann Rule (c) 0.0693 minutes (d) 23.03 minutes
82. For a reaction 2 A  3B , if the rate of 87. Select the correct stoichiometry and its Ksp
formation of B is x mol/L, the rate of value according to given graphs
consumption of A is
3x
(a) x (b)
2
2x
(c) (d) 3x
3
83. Which of the following has less pka value ?
(a) 30 butyl alcohol (b) Iso butyl alcohol
(c) n- butyl alcohol (d) sec butyl alcohol
84. Standard enthalpy of formation is zero for all
the following except for

6
(a) XY , Ks p  2 10
(a) Red phosphorous (b) Graphite 
9
(b) XY ,2 Ks p  4 10
(c) Rhombic sulphur (d) Oxygen
85. Which of the following species is not c)( X Y2 , Ks p  9 10

9

aromatic? (d) XY , Ks 1109

2 p

88. Identify correct statements

As the temperature increases
A) Rate of reaction increases
B) Number of activated molecules increases
(a) C) Collision frequency increases
(a) A only (b) A and C only
(c) A, B and C (d) B only
89. Which of the following is correct acidic
strength order for the marked hydrogen. The
given compound
(b)

(c)
(a) a > d > b > c (b) a > b > d > c
(c) c > d > b > a (d) a > c > b > d

(d)

9
90. Mass percentage of nitrogen in uracil is 97. The freezing point of an aqueous solution of
0.1m Hg2Cl2 will be: (if Hg2Cl2 is 80%
2 and Cl 

ionized in the solution to give Hg 2
)
(a) – 0.26 Kf (b) –2.6 Kf
(c) – 4.6 Kf (d) 0.42 Kf

98. D
(a) 70 (b) 50 in the above mentioned reaction is.
(c) 80 (d) 25
91. Emf of the cell
Al s / Al3 103 M || Ag  101 M  / Ag at
298 K is Ecell
0
 2.46V  
(a)
(a) 2.46 V (b) 2.4 V
(c) 2.52 V (d) 2.37 V
92. Polar molecule among the following is
(a) XeO3 (b) XeF2
(c) XeF4 (d) XeO4
93. Molar mass is maximum for
(a) Phosphorous (b) Sulphur
(c) Copper (d) Ozone (b)
94. The energies of activation for forward and
reverse reaction for A2  B2 are
180kJ mol1 and 200kJ mol 1 respectively.
The presence of catalyst lowers the activation
energy of both (forward and reverse)
reactions by 100kJ mol1 . The enthalpy (c)
change of the reaction  A2  B2  2 AB in
the presence of catalyst will be (in kJ mol 1 )
(a) 300 (b) 120
(c) 280 (d) – 20
95. Which of the following is the correct order of
electronegativity (d)
(a) O < S > Se > Te (b) S > O < Te > Se 99. Mole fraction of toluene in the vapour which
(c) Te < Se < S < O (d) O < S < Se < Te is in equilibrium with a solution containing
0
96. At 0 C, ice and water are in equilibrium, benzene and toluene having 2 moles each is
H2Ol , H  6kJ mol . The
1
HO when vapour pressure of pure benzene and
2 s

value of S and G for conversion of ice toluene are 120 torr and 80 torr respectively
into liquid water at 00 C are (a) 0.5 (b) 0.25
(a) 2.19JK 1mol1 and 0 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.6

(b) 0.219JK 1mol1 and 0

(c) 21.9JK 1mol1 and 0
(d) 0.0219JK 1mol1 and 0

10
100. Assertion (A): All the carbon atoms in another at
H2 C  C  CH 2 are sp2 hybridized the
Reason (R): CH2  C  CH2 is a planar margin,
molecule without
(a) Both A and R are correct and the R is the overlapping
correct explanation of the A c. Standard 3. Twisted M.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not petal overlap
correct explanation of the A wings which
(c) A is correct but R is in correct in turn
(d) Both A and R are false overlap
the keel
d. If one 4. N.
BOTANY
margin of Imbricate
SECTION – A
the
101. Match the following columns and identify the
appendage
correct match
overlaps that
Column I Column II
of the
(i) Auxins a. Fruit ripening
next one and
(ii) Gibberellic acid b. Root formation
so on
on stem cuttings
(iii) Cytokinin c. Produce new (a) a-2-K, b-3-N, c-1-L, d-4-M
leaves (b) a-3-K, b-1-L, c-2-M, d-4-N
(iv) Ethylene d. Quick maturity (c) a-3-N, b-4-K, c-2-M, d-1-L
of conifers (d) a-4-K, b-2-M, c-1-L, d-3-N
(a) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d 104. How many male gametes and female gametes
(b) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a are produced by each male and female
(c) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c gametophytes respectively in flowering
(d) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a plants?
102. Branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes (a) One, One (b) Two, Two
are the characteristic of (c) One, Two (d) Two, One
(a) Liverworts (b) Mosses 105. Pick out the correct statement from following
(c) Ferns (d) Conifers (a) Monosporic embryo sac contains seven
103. Match the columns I, II and III and choose the genomes
correct combination from the options given (b) Autogamy is obligatory in commelina
Column I Column II Column III (c) Pollen pistil interaction begins with
a. If the 1. Vexillary K. pollination and ends with entry of pollen tube
margins of into ovary
sepals or (d) Both autogamy and geitenogamy are not
petals possible in papaya
overlap one 106. Emasculation is
another but (a) Removal of anthers from flower bud
not in any (b) Necessary for preventing self pollination
particular in the flowers of female parent
direction (c) Necessary for avoiding desirable cross
b. When 2. Valvate L. pollination
sepals and (d) Both 1 and 2
petals just
touch one

11
107. Both phenotypical ratio and genotypical 114. The correct sequence of following events
ratios are same in w.r.t action of restriction enzymes?
(i) Monohybrid cross (i) Cutting of strands of DNA
(ii) Monohybrid test cross (ii) Binding to recognition site
(iii) Dihybrid test cross (iii) Finding of recognition sequence
(iv) Dihybrid cross (iv) Inspection of length of DNA sequence
(a) i, iii (b) iii, iv (a) i, ii, iii, iv (b) iv, iii, ii, i
(c) ii, iii (d) i, iv (c) ii, iii, iv, i (d) iv, i, iii, ii
108. Mendelian dihybrid cross does not explain 115. In the process of rDNA technology, the
(a) Law of dominance fragmentation of DNA is immediately
(b) Law of segregation followed by
(c) Law of independent assortment (a) Ligation
(d) Linkage (b) Transformation
109. How many photosynthetic cell types does the (c) Isolation of desired DNA fragment
leaf that fix CO2 in C4 plants & C3 plants (d) Culturing of host cells
respectively are? 116. Taxonomic categories are
(a) One & Three (b) Three & One (i) Morphological aggregations
(c) One & Two (d) Two & One (ii) Artificial aggregations
110. In Mendelian dihybrid crosses, the (iii) Distinctive biological entities
probability of parental phenotypes in F2 (iv) Non distinctive groups
progeny is (a) i, ii (b) ii, iii
(a) 2/16 (b) 6/16 (c) ii, iv (d) i, iii
(c) 9/16 (d) 10/16 117. In scientific name of mango
111. Which of the following is wrong w.r.t DNA (a) Mangifera is specific epithet
polymerase? (b) Author name appears after indica
(a) It shows high efficiency and accuracy (c) Both parts of the name are underlined
(b) It is DNA polymerase during DNA together
replication (d) Name is derived either from Latin or
(c) It is RNA dependent DNA polymerase Greek irrespective of their origin
during transcription 118. Conidial, septate, mycelial fungi are
(d) It can-not initiate polymerisation of (a) Algal fungi and imperfect fungi
nucleotides by it’s own (b) Sac fungi and imperfect fungi
112. Statement-I: Aminoacylation of tRNA occurs (c) Sac fungi and club fungi
during translation. (d) Algal fungi and club fungi
Statement-II: Initiation of polypeptide chain 119. Match the following column I and Column II
begins with the encountering of small subunit and identify the correct match from options
of ribosome with mRNA given under
(a) Both S-I and S-II are correct Column I Column II
(b) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect a. Volvox i. Dioecious
(c) S-I is correct but S-II is wrong sporophyte with
(d) S-I is wrong but S-II is correct dioecious
113. The repressor of lac operon is inactivated by gametophytes
the binding of b. Sphagnum ii. Oogamous alga
(a) Glucose (b) Galactose c. Selaginella iii. Heterosporous
(c) Galactosidase (d) Allolactose pteridophyte
d. Cycas iv. Monoceious
leafy gametophyte
(a) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (b) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(c) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (d) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

12
120. Unique character of Bryophytes is 129. Which of the following are nitrogen
(a) Rhizoidal gametophyte containing non polymeric
(b) Independent saporophyte biomicromolecules?
(c) Multicellular jacketed sex organs (A) Lecithin (B) Uridine
(d) Total (or) partical parasitic sporophyte on (C) Ribose (D) Glucosamine
gametophyte (a) All excepts A (b) All excepts B
121. The flowering plant with highly reduced (c) All excepts C (d) All excepts D
sporophyte and gametophytes is 130. Which phase mitosis is represented by the
(a) Opuntia (b) Wolfia following diagram?
(c) Canary grass (d) Carrot grass
122. Wrongly matched of the following is
(a) Prop roots – Adventitious roots
(b) Sheathy leaf base - Grasses
(c) Potato – Modified root
(d) Flower – modified shoot (a) Prophase I
123. Pentamerous, zygomorphic flowers with ten (b) Metaphase I
microsporophylls and one megasporophyll (c) Transition from prophase to metaphase
can be assigned to (d) Transition from metaphase to Anaphase
(a) Brassicaceae (b) Fabaceae
(c) Solanaceae (d) Lilliaceae 131. Match the following and identify the correct
124. Pick out the correct statement from the match from the options given under
following Column I Column II
(a) Tracheids are universal conducting i. Zygotene a. Chromatidal
elements present in all trachaeophytes segregation
(b) Seive tubes are lignified conducting ii. Pachytene b. Synapsis
elements without nucleus
iii. Anaphase I c. Chromosomal
(c) Secondary phloem is the major tissue in
segregation
woody dicot stem
iv. Anaphase II d. Crossing over
(d) Secondary cortex is collenchymatous in
(a) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
woody stem
(b) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
125. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed in
(c) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
(a) Dicot stem and monocot stem
(d) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(b) Dicot root and monocot root
132. A virus differs from a bacterium as its
(c) Monocot stem and leaves
contains
(d) Monocot root and leaves
(a) A cell wall
126. Periderm does not include
(b) Cytosol
(a) Secondary phloem (b) Phelloderm
(c) DNA as genetic material
(c) Phellogen (d) Phellem
(d) DNA or RNA as genetic material with no
127. Which of the following is not a function of
ribosome
Golgi complex?
133. Which of the following atmospheric gasses
(a) Intercellular transport of materials
are utilized by N2 fixing cyanobacteria like
(b) Packaging of materials
Nostoc?
(c) Cell plate formation in plant cells
(a) N2, CO2, O2 (b) N2, O2 only
(d) Formation of glycoproteins & glycolipids
(c) CO2, O2 only (d) N2 only
128. “Cell organelles within other cell organelles”
is applicable to
(a) Basal body in flagellum
(b) Nucleolus in Nucleus
(c) ‘70’s ribosomes in eukaryotic cell
(d) ‘80’s ribosomes in eukaryotic cell

13
134. Identify the true statements from following 140. Wrongly matched of the following is
(i) Light phase in photosynthesis is light (a) LAB – Probiotic
independent and temperature dependent (b) Brewing- Bread making
(ii) Photorespiration neither produces sugars (c) Flocs – Aerobes
nor ATP (d) Glomus – Fungal biofertilizer
(iii) Photo respiration is absent in C4 plants 141. Which of the following are membrane bound
(iv) Glycolysis neither consumes O2 nor cell organelles?
evolves CO2 (a) Ribosomes (b) Nucleosomes
(v) Succinic dehydrogenase participates in (c) Mesosomes (d) Microbodies
both TCA cycle and ETS 142. In tea plantations and hedge making,
(a) i, ii, iii (b) i, iii, iv, v gardeners trim the plants regularly so that
(c) i, iv, v (d) ii, iii, iv, v they remain bushy. Scientific explanation
135. What is the yield of ATP for the complete behind this is
oxidation of one molecule of Acetyl Co.A in (a) removal of apical dominance
Krebs cycle? (b) growth of lateral buds
(a) 12 (b) 11 (c) suppression of lateral buds
(c) 9 (d) 1 (d) both 1 and 2
143. Wrongly matched w.r.t type of genetic
SECTION – B material
(a) T.M.V – ssRNA
136. Polymerase chain reaction does not require (b) QB Bacteriophage – ds DNA
(a) DNA ligase (c) T – even Bacteriophage – dsDNA
(b) Oligonucleotide primers (d) [Link] – dsDNA
(c) DNA polymerase 144. Which of the following are products of re -
(d) Nucelotides differentiation?
137. Bt toxins are (A) Medulla
(a) Insect species specific (B) Secondary xylem
(b) Insect group specific (C) Primary phloem
(D) Secondary phloem
(c) Not specific to any insects (a) A, B (b) C, D
(d) Specific to pollinator insects (c) A, C (d) B, D
138. Respiratory quotient (R.Q) is 145. How many dsDNA molecules are present in
(a) Volume of O2 evolved/Volume of CO2 each chromatid of metaphase chromosome?
consumed (a) 2 (b) 1
(b) Volume of CO2 evolved/Volume of O2 (c) 4 (d) 8
consumed 146. Statement-I: All Fungi have cell wall.
(c) Volume of O2 consumed/Volume of CO2 Statement-II: All protists have cell wall.
evolved (a) Both S-I and S-II are correct
(d) Volume of CO2 consumed/Volume of O2 (b) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
evolved (c) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect
139. Assertion (A): Matured sieve elements are (d) S-I is wrong but S-II is correct
non-totipotent cells 147. Assertion (A): All enzymes are nitrogenous
Reason (R): Matured sieve elements are dead hetero polymers with catalytic activity.
cells Reason (R): Almost all enzymes are proteins
(a) Both A and B are true, R is the correct and some are nucleic acids (ribozymes).
explanation to A (a) Both A and B are correct, R is the correct
explanation to A.
(b) Both A and B are true but R is the correct
explanation to A (b) Both A and B are correct, R is not the
correct explanation to A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are false
(d) Both A and R are wrong

14
148. Wrongly matched of the following is (c) The collecting duct is lined by simple
(a) Orchids – Non endospermic seeds columnar ciliated epithelium.
(b) Beans – Endospermic dicot seeds (d) Proximal convoluted tubule is lined by
(c) Black pepper – Perispermic seeds simple cuboidal brush border epithelium
(d) Mango – polyembryonic seeds 155. The producer which breed only once in its
149. The main function of the stem is life time is?
(a) Conduction of water, minerals & (a) Salmon (b) Bamboo
photosynthates (c) Both 1 & 2 (d) Calotropis
(b) Storage of food, support, protection and 156. Read the following statements about colour
vegetative propagation blindness and choose the correct option:
(c) Spreading out branches bearing leaves, Statement-A: It is an autosome linked
flowers and fruits dominant disorder.
(d) All of the above Statement-B: The affected male should have
150. How many ATP and NADPH2 are an affected father.
respectively produced in the process of (a) Both statement A and statement B are
photorespiration? wrong
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (b) Both statement A and Statement B are
(c) 4 and 6 (d) 0 and 0 true
(c) Statement A is correct, Statement B is
ZOOLOGY wrong
SECTION - A (d) Statement A is wrong, Statement B is
151. α-1 antitrypsin is used to treat which disease correct
(a) Phenylketonuria (b) Cystic fibrosis 157. When number of immigrations and births is
(d) Emphysema (d) Asthma more than emigrations and deaths, the
152. Which statements of the following are true growth curve of the population will show
for formed elements? (a) Declining phase
(I) Leucocytes are generally short lived (b) Acceleration phase
(II) Eosinophils resist infections and are also (c) Lag phase
associated with allergic reactions. (d) Asymptote phase
(III) Platelets are cell fragments produced 158. Below given figure shows a diagrammatic
from thrombocytes. view of ribs and rib case, select the correct
(IV) Neutrophils and basophils are identification of A, B, C and D
phagocytic cells.
(a) III & IV (b) I & II
(c) I & IV (d) II & III
153. In which of the following interactions both
partners are adversely affected?
(a) Sea anemone and clown fish
(b) Flamingoes and resident fishes in South
American lakes (a) A – vertebral column, which attaches to
(c) Fig tree and pollinator wasp sternum
(d) Epiphytic orchid on a mango branch (b) B – False ribs, they do not attach to
154. Which of the following statements is sternum
correct? (c) C – True ribs, they attach directly to
(a) The ascending limb of loop of Henie sternum
allows passage of small amounts of urea into (d) D – Sternum, to which true ribs attach
the medullary interstitium. with the help of hyaline cartilage
(b) Distal convoluted touble reasorbs 70-80
percent of electrolytes and water

15
159. Consider the following statements on 165. The hormone which suppress immune
ecological pyramids and pick out the correct responses is?
statements: (a) Adrenalin (b) Thyroxin
(A) Pyramids of energy can never be (c) Melatoxin (d) Cortisol
inverted, because when energy flows from a 166. What is common to silkworm, filarial worm
particular trophic level to the next trophic and tapeworm?
level, some energy is always lost as heat at (a) Double ventral nerve cord
each step (b) Complete gut
(B) In all ecosystems, the pyramids of (c) Bilateral symmetry
number and of biomass are upright (d) Sexual dimorphism
(C) The pyramid of biomass of sea is 167. “The Evil Quartet” is he sobriquet used to
generally inverted because the biomass of describe
fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton (a) Conservation of biodiversity
(a) Only A (b) A and B only (b) Causes of biodiversity losses
(c) A and C only (d) All A,B and c (c) Causes of distribution of biodiversity
160. 180. In myelinated axons, the gaps between (d) Patterns of regaining lost biodiversity
two adjacent myelin sheaths are called 168. Which hormones from the ovary are
(a) Axon hillock (b) synapses dominating ‘before’(a) and ‘after’ (b)
(c) nodes of Ranvier (d) axon terminal ovulation during menstrual cycle?
161. Which among these is the correct (a) (a) Progesterone; (b) Estrogen
combination of poisonous snakes? (b) (a) Estrogen; (b) Progesterone
(a) Naja, Ptyas,Hemidactylus (c) (a) Relaxin; (b) FSH
(b) Python, Calotes, Bangarus (d) (a) Estrogen; (b) Epinephrine
(c) Python, Calotes, Bangarus 169. Given below are four matchings of an animal
(d) Bangarus, Naja, Vipera and its kind of respiratory organs
162. Which one of the following is a form of (A) Dolphin – Gills
hyperthyroidism? (B) Locust – Trachea
(a) Disfigurement of face (C) Balanoglossus – Lungs
(b) Formation of ketone bodies (D) Prawn – Gills The correct matchings are:
(c) Exopthalmic goitre (a) B and D (b) A and C
(d) Piloerection and over sweating (c) B, C and D (d) A, B and C
163. Which is considered as store house of 170. FSH and LH are gonadotropins. In males
calcium ion’s in muscle fibre? FSH acts on
(a) Sarcosomes (a) Spermatogonia and stimulates the process
(b) Sarcolema of spermiation
(c) Sarcoplasmic Retculum (b) Sertoli cells and stimulates the process of
(d) All the above spermiogenesis
164. Hormone that enhances cellular glucose (c) Leydig cells to release male sex hormones
uptake and utilization is secreted by (d) Sertoli cells and stimulate the secretions
(a)  - cells of Islets of Langerhans of epididymis
(b)  - cells of Islets of Langerhans
(c)  - cells of pancreas
(d) f – cells of pancreas

16
171. Which of the following represents the correct 173. Follow the features:
combination without any exception? (a) Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly
Characteristics Class packed
1) Mouth terminal; Amphibia (b) It is mesodermal in origin
moist skin without (c) Many fibres are oriented differently.
scales; two pairs of Where do you find the connective tissue with
limbs; eyes with eye the above features?
lids (a) Skin (b) Tendons
2) Bony endoskeleton; Osteichthyes (c) Elastic ligaments (d) Nephrons
gills with 174. Read the following statements and pick out
operculum; skin the correct option:
with placoid scales; Statement-I: Oral contraceptive pills inhibit
internal fertilisation ovulation and implantation.
3) Body covered by Reptilla Statement-II: Surgical contraceptive methods
cornified skin; are highly effective but their reversibility is
external ear very poor.
openings absent; (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
three – chambered wrong
heart; internal (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
fertilisation (c) Statement I is correct, Statement II is
4) Body covered with Aves wrong
feathers; bony (d) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is
endoskeleton; correct
oviparous; direct 175. In frog, urinary bladder is located
development (a) Dorsal to rectum (b) Ventral to rectum
172. Given below are two statements: one is (c) Ventral to stomach (d) Dorsal to stomach
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is 176. In HGP, the sequence of which chromosome
labelled as Reason (R): was completed in May 2006?
Assertion (A): Hugo deVries believed that it (a) X Chromosome (b) Chromosome 1
is mutation which causes evolution and not (c) Y Chromosome (d) Chromosome 10
the minor heritable variation that Darwin 177. Given below are two Statement : one is
talked about. labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Reason (R): Evolution for Darwin was labelled as Reason (R)
gradual, while deVries believed mutation Assertion (A): Despite occupying about
caused speciation and hence called it 70percent of the surface, the productivity of
saltation. oceans are only 55 billion tons.
In the light of above statements, choose the Reason (R): In deep sea productivity is
most appropriate answer from the options limited by light and nitrogen.
given below. In the light above statements, choose the most
(a) A and R are true and r is not the correct appropriate answer from the options given
explanation of A. below.
(b) A is true, R is false (a) A is true, R is false.
(c) A and R are true and R is the correct (b) A and R are true and R is not the correct
explanation of A explanation of A.
(d) Both A and r are false (c) A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are false

17
178. DNA finger printing is a technique which (c) (A) – Auxillary cells, (B) – antibodies
works on the principle of (d) (A) – Antigens, (B) – antibodies
(a) Non- heritable DNA mutations 183. Residual volume is not taken into
(b) Polymorphism in DNA sequences consideration in measuring of these two
(c) Bulk genomic DNA major peaks capacities of the lungs
(d) Polymorphism in nucleo proteins (a) Vital capacity and expiratory capacity
179. During peak summer and winter frogs take (b) Total lung capacity and expiratory
shelter in deep burrows to protect them from capacity
extreme heat and cold. Select the best option (c) Total lung capacity and functional residual
from the following statements in relations to capacity
this. (d) Inspiratory capacity and functional
(I) They have the ability of camouflage residual capacity
(II) They exhibit protective colouration, 184. Study the following and choose the incorrect:
mimicry (a) Morphin and Heroin are opioids
(III) They are eurythermal and euryhaline (b) Marijuana and Hashish are cannabinoids
organisms. (c) Crack and smack are coca alkaloids
(IV) They perform only cutaneous respiration (d) Atropa and Datura are plants with
during aestivation and hibernation. hallucinogenic properties
(a) Only II (b) Only IV 185. Deoxygenated blood pumped into the
(c) I and III (d) II and IV pulmonary artery is passed on to the lungs
180. Observe the below given diagrammatic from where the oxygenated blood is carried
representations of the operation of natural by the pulmonary veins into the left atrium.
selection This pathway constitutes
(a) Systemic circulation
(d) Portal circulation
(c) Coronary circulation
(d)) Pulmonary circulation

In the above A and B more individuals SECTION – B

acquire 186. A haemophilic father passes the defective
(a) A – other than mean character value, B – gene
mean character value (a) to all his daughters
(b) A – mean character value, B – peripheral (b) either to his son or to his daughter
character value (c) to all his sons
(c) A – other than mean character value, B – (d) ) neither to his sons nor to his daughters
peripheral character value 187. Match the following common diseases
(c) A – mean character value, B – other than (Column-I) with their causative agent
mean character value (Column-II) and select the correct option:
181. Maximum reabsorption occurs in which part Column-I Column-II
of nephron (A) Pneumonia (i) Wuchereria
(a) DCT (B) Ringworm (ii) Salmonella
(b) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop (C) Typhoid (iii) Haemophilus
(c) PCT (D) Filariasis (iv) Epidermophyton
(d) Collecting duct (a) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
182. Secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites (b) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)
for interaction of (A) with the (B), then (A) (c) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i)
proliferate to become effector cells. (d) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i)
Fill the blanks with correct option:
(a) (A) – Lymphocytes, (B) – antigens
(b) (A) – Memory cells, (B) – lymphocytes
18
188. Depolarization of nerve fibre is due to? 192. If a person in infected with some deadly
(a) Efflux of Na+ (b) Efflux of K+ microbes to which quick immune response is
+
(c) Influx of K (d) Influx of Na+ required as in tetanus, we need to inject
189. Flippers of penguins and dolphins are the (i) Preformed antibodies
example of (ii) Vaccines
(a) Analogy (iii) Antitoxins
(b) Homology (iv) Mature cells Select the correct option
(c) Divergent evolution from the following:
(d) Stabilising selection (a) i and iii only (b) i, iii and iv only
190. Match the following: (b) ii, iii and iv only (b) i, ii, iii and iv
List-I List-II 193. In which technique of the following, the
(I) Correction of a (a) Injecting semen collected from husband/donor is
genetic defect functional ADA to artificially introduced into the uterus of the
the patient female?
(II) Pro-insulin (b) Delivery of a (a) Zygote intra fallopian transfer
normal gene into (b) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
the individual (c) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(III) Enzyme (c) Needs to be (d) Intra – Uterine insemination
replacement processed to 194. Read the following statements:
therapy become mature and Statement – I: Induced abortions are
functional considered relatively safe during the first
(IV) Recombinant (d) Do not induce trimester i.e., upto 12 weeks of pregnancy.
therapeutics unwanted Statement – II: The Medical Termination of
immunological Pregnancy (Amendement) Act, 2017 was
responses enacted by the government of India with the
(a) I – (c), II – (b), III – (a), IV – (d) intension of reducing the illegal abortions.
(b) I – (b), II – (c), III – (d), IV – (a) (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(c) I – (b), II – (c), III – (a), IV – (d) wrong
(d) I – (c), II – (b), III – (d), IV – (a) (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
191. In the ovary of female human, degeneration true
of a large number of primary follicles occurs (c) Statement I is correct, statement II is
during which phase? wrong
(a) From menarche to menopause (d) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is
(b) From birth to puberty correct
(c) From foetal stage to birth 195. Failure of segregation of chromatids during
(d) From menopause to death cell division cycle results in ‘aneuploidy’.
Down’s syndrome results due to
(a) Gain of extra copy of chromosome 18
(b) Gain of extra copy of chromosome 21
(c) Loss of an X chromosome in human
females
(d) Loss of one of the chromosome 21
196. Cranium and vertebral column are
cartilaginous in which vertebrate of the
following?
(a) Pterophyllum (d) Psittacula
(c) Petromyzon (d) Pteropus

19
197. Out of ‘X’ serially arranged units of vertebrae 198. HGP was closely associated with the rapid
in humans only ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ are fused units. development of a new area in biology called
Select the option that correctly represents the (a) Biopiracy (b) Biochemistry
value of X and provides Y and Z explanation. (c) Biostatistics (d) Bioinformatics
(a) X=26, Y=sternum, Three bones 199. Convergent evolution is explained by
Z=coccyx, are fused to (a) Vertebrate hearts
form (b) Thorn and Tendrils of Bougainvillea and
sternum and Cucurbita
four caudal (c) Eye of octopus and Mamuls
vertebrae (d) Vertebrate brains
are fused to 200. Read the following Assertion and Reason
form and select the correct option given below:
coccyx. Assertion (A): In ECG the P-wave
(b) X=26, Y=sacrum, Five sacral represents the electrical excitation of the
Z=coccyx vertebrae atria, which leads to the contraction of both
and four the atria.
coccygeal Reason (R): Atrial systole increases the flow
vertebrae of blood into the ventricles by about
are fused to 70percent.
form (a) A and R are true and R is the correct
sacrum and explanation of A
coccyx. (b) A and R are true and R is not the correct
(c) X=33, Y=coccyx, Five caudal explanation of A.
Z=sacrum, vertebrae (c) A is true, R is false
and four (d) Both A and R are false
sacral
vertebrae
are fused to
form
coccyx and
sacrum
(d) X=33, Y=cervicum, Seven
Z=sacrum, cervical
vertebrae
and four
sacral
vertebrae
are fused to
form
cervicum
and sacrum

20