Gene Regulation
Gene Regulation
Gene Regulation
Resources
Gene Regulation & Viruses Due: 3:00pm on Monday, May 6, 2013 Note: You will receive no credit for late submissions. To learn more, read your instructor's Grading Policy
ANSWER:
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An operon is made up of a promoter and the genes of the operon. The promoter, which includes an operator, is the stretch of DNA where RNA polymerase binds. Regulatory proteins bind to the operator. The genes of the operon code for a related set of proteins. A regulatory gene located away from the operon codes for a protein that controls the operon.
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ANSWER:
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The trp operon is regulated through negative control only. When tryptophan is present, the operon genes are not transcribed. The lac operon is regulated through both negative control and positive control. Negative control: When lactose is absent, the repressor protein is active, and transcription is turned off. When lactose is present, the repressor protein is inactivated, and transcription is turned on. Positive control: When glucose is absent, another regulatory protein (CAP) binds to the promoter of the lac operon, increasing the rate of transcription if lactose is present.
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ANSWER:
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Metabolism of the sugar athelose in this hypothetical system is controlled by an operon that exhibits both positive control and negative control. Transcription of the ath operon is turned on when athelose is present (negative control), and sped up when the bacterium runs out of glucose and must rely on athelose for energy (positive control).
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end, or tail, of each histone extends from the nucleosome.
Chromatin may exist in either a condensed or a decondensed form, as shown below. Chemical modifications of the chromatin determine which form it has.
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One of the mechanisms by which eukaryotes regulate gene expression is through modifications to chromatin structure. When chromatin is condensed, DNA is not accessible for transcription. Acetylation of histone tails reduces the attraction between neighboring nucleosomes, causing chromatin to assume a looser structure and allowing access to the DNA for transcription. If the histone tails undergo deacetylation, chromatin can recondense, once again making DNA inaccessible for transcription.
Recent evidence suggests that methylation of histone tails can promote either the condensation or the decondensation of chromatin, depending on where the methyl groups are located on the histones. Thus, methylation can either inactivate or activate transcription, and demethylation can reverse the effect of methylation. Changes in chromatin structure may be passed on to future generations of cells in a type of inheritance called epigenetic inheritance.
Which statements about the regulation of transcription initiation in these genes are true? Select all that apply.
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Only certain genes are transcribed in a eukaryotic cell at any particular time. The regulation of transcription initiation depends on the interaction of specific transcription factors with specific control elements in enhancers. In the imaginary eukaryotic cell used as an example here, the enhancers for the fantasin gene and imaginin gene are unique because they contain different sets of control elements (A, B, and C for the fantasin gene; C, D, and E for the imaginin gene). Each gene will be transcribed at a high level when activators specific for all of the control elements in its enhancer are present in the cell.
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Which of the following choices represent mRNA molecules that could be produced from the primary RNA transcript by alternative RNA splicing? (In each choice, the yellow part on the left represents the 5' cap, and the yellow part on the right represents the poly-A tail.) Select all that apply.
ANSWER:
Correct
Alternative RNA splicing produces different mRNA molecules from the same primary RNA transcript. During alternative RNA splicing, all introns are removed, and some exons may also be removed. The removal of different exons produces different mRNA molecules, which are then translated into different proteins. Alternative RNA splicing can greatly expand the number of proteins produced from the same gene.
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Part A
_____ bind(s) to DNA enhancer regions. ANSWER: RNA polymerase Promoters Introns Activators Exons
Correct
Activators are a type of transcription factor that bind to enhancer regions.
Part B
What is the event that IMMEDIATELY follows the last event of this animation? To view the animation, click here. Then click on the image to start the animation. ANSWER: unbending of the DNA and the release of RNA polymerase from the promoter binding of the activators to enhancers transcription binding of mRNA to the smaller ribosomal subunit binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter
Correct
The bending of the DNA allows for the interaction of transcription factors and RNA polymerase.
Part C
Which of these indicates an enhancer region?
ANSWER:
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A B C D C and D
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This is an enhancer region.
Part D
Which of these directly bind(s) to the promoter?
ANSWER: A B C D C and D
Correct
Both RNA polymerase and transcription factors bind with the promoter.
Part A
The process of transcription is indicated by the letter _____.
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ANSWER: A B C D E
Correct
Transcription is the process by which information encoded in DNA is converted to information encoded in RNA.
Part B
The letter E is indicating a process of gene expression that involves _____.
ANSWER: transcription breakdown of mRNA translation of mRNA protein breakdown unpacking of DNA
Correct
This is the process indicated by the letter E.
Part C
RNA processing is indicated by the letter _____.
ANSWER:
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A B C D E
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As you can see, introns have been removed and a cap and a tail added to the RNA molecule.
Part D
Which of the following processes is NOT indicated by the label A, B, C, D, or E?
ANSWER: translation RNA transcription export of mRNA DNA unpacking RNA processing
Correct
This process is indicated by the arrow that precedes arrow A.
Hint 1.
At what step in gene expression do miRNAs act? ANSWER: binding to DNA and preventing transcription of certain genes binding to mRNAs and degrading them or blocking their translation inhibiting the catalytic activity of rRNA seeking out viral DNA and destroying it degrading proteins as soon as they are formed
Correct
miRNAs can effectively "silence" genes by binding to mRNA transcripts. The mRNAs are either broken down by enzymes or are unable to physically interact with the ribosomes to complete translation.
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Chapter 18 Question 27
Part A
The phenomenon in which RNA molecules in a cell are destroyed if they have a sequence complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA is called ANSWER: RNA interference. RNA targeting. RNA disposal. RNA blocking. RNA obstruction.
Correct
Chapter 18 Question 29
Part A
Among the newly discovered small noncoding RNAs, one type reestablishes methylation patterns during gamete formation and blocks expression of some transposons. These are known as ANSWER: miRNA. snRNA. RNAi. siRNA. piRNA.
Correct
Hint 1.
Consider which of these would promote unregulated cell division. ANSWER: amplification of a proto-oncogene and inactivation of a tumor-suppressor gene hyperactivity of a proto-oncogene and activation of a tumor-suppressor gene failure of a proto-oncogene to produce a protein and amplification of a tumor-suppressor gene failure of both a proto-oncogene and a tumor-suppressor gene to produce proteins hyperactivity of both a proto-oncogene and a tumor-suppressor gene
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Excess copies of the proto-oncogene could stimulate cell division abnormally, and the inactivation of a tumor-suppressor gene would eliminate a brake on cell division.
Chapter 18 Question 1
Part A
If a particular operon encodes enzymes for making an essential amino acid and is regulated like the trp operon, then ANSWER: the enzymes produced are called inducible enzymes. the amino acid acts as a corepressor. the amino acid turns on transcription of the operon. the repressor is active in the absence of the amino acid. the amino acid inactivates the repressor.
Correct
Misconception Question 86
Part A
Which statement(s) about inducible operons is/are correct? Select all that apply. ANSWER: Inducible enzymes generally function in synthetic pathways that produce end products from raw materials. In an inducible operon, the repressor is synthesized in an active form. In an inducible operon, an inducer inactivates the repressor.
Correct
An inducible operon is usually off but can be turned on when an inducer interacts with and inactivates the repressor. The enzymes in an inducible operon generally function in catabolic pathways. Read about inducible operons.
Misconception Question 87
Part A
Which statement(s) about repressible operons is/are correct? Select all that apply. ANSWER: Repressible enzymes generally function in anabolic pathways. A repressible operon is on unless a corepressor is present. In a repressible operon, the repressor is synthesized in an active form.
Correct
A repressible operon is usually on but can be turned off when a corepressor interacts with and activates the repressor. The enzymes in an inducible operon generally function in anabolic pathways. Read about repressible operons.
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Misconception Question 88
Part A
A gene on human chromosome 15 is expressed throughout the body. However, in the brain, only the maternal copy of the gene is expressed, whereas the paternal copy of the gene is silent and not transcribed. What accounts for this pattern of expression this gene displays in the brain? ANSWER: In the brain, the maternal copy of the gene is methylated whereas the paternal copy is un-methylated. The copies of this gene in brain cells are coordinately controlled with the copies of the gene in body cells. Through genomic imprinting, methylation regulates expression of the paternal copy of the gene in the brain.
Correct
Imprinting of the paternal copy of the gene by DNA methylation inactivates it and prevents its expression in brain cells. Read about DNA methylation and genomic imprinting.
Misconception Question 90
Part A
Which noncoding RNAs are correctly matched with their function? Select all that apply. ANSWER: MicroRNAs (miRNAs) bind to complementary sequences in mRNA and block its translation. Piwi-associated RNAs (piRNAs) reestablish appropriate methylation patterns in the genome during gamete formation. Small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) bind to complementary sequences in mRNA and block its translation.
Correct
Read about the multiple roles of noncoding RNAs.
Hint 1.
Is it normally on or normally off? ANSWER: When activated, the lac operon induces the production of lactose-digesting enzymes. When allolactose is present, it induces the activation of the lac repressor. When allolactose is present, it induces the inactivation of the lac repressor. When allolactose is present, it induces repression of gene expression. When activated, the lac operon induces repression of gene expression.
Correct
The lac repressor keeps the production of lactose-digesting enzymes turned off. When allolactose is present, the lac repressor is inactivated, allowing the expression of lactose-digesting enzymes.
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Hint 1.
DNA methylation accounts for genomic imprinting. ANSWER: increase the rate of transcription cause apoptosis facilitate the binding of DNA to intermediate filaments inactivate genes terminate transcription
Correct
DNA methylation, involving the attachment of methyl groups to certain bases, is a mechanism for the long-term inactivation of genes during development.
Chapter 18 Question 16
Part A
Which of the following mechanisms is (are) used to coordinate the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells? ANSWER: A specific combination of control elements in each genes enhancer coordinates the simultaneous activation of the genes. A single repressor is able to turn off several related genes. The genes share a single common enhancer, which allows appropriate activators to turn on their transcription at the same time. Environmental signals enter the cell and bind directly to promoters. The genes are organized into large operons, allowing them to be transcribed as a single unit.
Correct
Chapter 18 Question 20
Part A
Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are ANSWER: histone amplification and DNA acetylation. DNA methylation and histone modification. DNA acetylation and methylation. DNA methylation and histone amplification. DNA amplification and histone methylation.
Correct
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Chapter 18 Question 34
Part A
You are given an experimental problem involving control of a gene's expression in the embryo of a particular species. One of your first questions is whether the gene's expression is controlled at the level of transcription or translation. Which of the following might best give you an answer? ANSWER: An analysis of amino acid production by the cell shows you that there is an increase at this stage of embryonic life. You measure the quantity of the appropriate pre-mRNA in various cell types and find they are all the same. You use an antibiotic known to prevent translation. You explore whether there has been alternative splicing by examining amino acid sequences of very similar proteins. You assess the position and sequence of the promoter and enhancer for this gene.
Correct
Hint 1.
Review the structure of a virus. ANSWER: envelope capsid nuclear envelope nucleoid genome
Correct
The protein shell that encloses a viral genome is a capsid.
Viral Replication
Viruses are nonliving intracellular parasites that infect plants, animals, and bacteria. Viruses use host cell components to make copies of themselves. Often, but not always, the process of viral replication kills the host cell.
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ANSWER:
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Viruses are infectious particles that contain genetic material (either DNA or RNA) surrounded by a capsid (protein shell). Some viruses also have a membranous envelope that contains glycoproteins.
Hint 1. Bacteriophages
Bacteriophages (literally "bacteria-eaters") are viruses that infect bacteria. Bacteriophages contain double-stranded DNA and can duplicate themselves by two alternative mechanisms: the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle.
Hint 4. What are the differences between the lytic and lysogenic cycles?
Label the diagram of the lytic and lysogenic cycles. Drag the labels to their appropriate locations on the diagram of the cycle. ANSWER:
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ANSWER:
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Bacteriophages, which contain double-stranded DNA, can reproduce by two alternative mechanisms: the lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle. In the lytic cycle, virus parts are made, new viruses are assembled, and the cell is lysed, releasing the newly assembled viruses. In the lysogenic cycle, the viral DNA incorporates into the bacterial DNA and is passed on to daughter bacterial cells when the infected bacteria reproduce normally. Occasionally, an infected bacterium in the lysogenic cycle can enter the lytic cycle, in which viral particles are produced and the cell is eventually ruptured.
Hint 3. HIV
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus that contains two copies of its RNA genome and two copies of reverse transcriptase in a capsid. The viral envelope facilitates binding to a white blood cell. After the virus enters the host cell, the capsid releases the RNA and reverse transcriptase.
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ANSWER: A retrovirus contains RNA. All viral genomes contain both DNA and RNA. HIV contains two identical strands of DNA. All RNA-containing viruses are retroviruses. The capsid enters the host cell if the virus is enveloped. HIV contains reverse transcriptase. Enveloped viruses bud from the host cell.
Correct
Viruses are classified into two major groups: nonenveloped and enveloped. Nonenveloped viruses (a) typically exit the host cell by bursting through the plasma membrane. Enveloped viruses (b) generally escape from the host cell by budding. Because of this, the viral envelope is often derived from the host cell's plasma membrane.
Viruses contain either single-stranded DNA, double-stranded DNA, single-stranded RNA, or double-stranded RNA. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus that contains two copies of its RNA genome and two copies of reverse transcriptase. The HIV viral envelope facilitates binding to a white blood cell. After HIV enters the cell, the reverse transcriptase synthesizes viral DNA from viral RNA.
Part A
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Viral DNA incorporated into host DNA is referred to as a "prophage."
Part B
Click on the diagram to start the animation. This animation is illustrating an early stage of _____.
ANSWER: the lytic cycle the lysogenic cycle transcription translation lysis
Correct
Integration of viral DNA into host DNA is an early stage of the lysogenic cycle.
Part C
In the lysogenic cycle _____. ANSWER: host DNA is destroyed and viral DNA is replicated a bacterium replicates without passing viral DNA to its daughter cells viral DNA is destroyed and host DNA is replicated a bacterium divides once before the lytic cycle is initiated viral DNA is replicated along with host DNA
Correct
Viral DNA, incorporated into host DNA as a prophage, is replicated along with host DNA.
Part D
Click on the diagram to start the animation. Which of these is the best description of this animation?
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ANSWER: The lysogenic cycle has begun. The lytic cycle is making a transition to the lysogenic cycle. The bacterium has successfully fought off the viral infection. The lysogenic cycle is making a transition to the lytic cycle. The host cell has begun to reproduce.
Correct
Phage DNA has exited the bacterial chromosome as a prelude to taking over the host's metabolic machinery.
Part E
Cycle A is the _____ cycle and cycle B is the _____ cycle.
ANSWER: lytic ... lysogenic lytic ... phage lysogenic ... phage lysogenic ... lytic phage ... lysogenic
Correct
The lytic cycle concludes with rupture of the host cell. The lysogenic cycle involves replication of viral DNA along with replication of the host.
Part A
The genetic material of HIV consists of _____.
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ANSWER: single-stranded DNA single-stranded RNA double-stranded DNA double-stranded RNA none of the above
Correct
The genetic material of HIV consists of two molecules of single-stranded RNA.
Part B
Which of these binds to receptor molecules on the host cell membrane?
ANSWER: A B C D E
Correct
Glycoproteins on the viral envelope recognize and bind to receptors on the host cell.
Part C
What is the function of reverse transcriptase? ANSWER: It catalyzes the formation of a polypeptide from an RNA template. It catalyzes the formation of DNA from a polypeptide template. It catalyzes the formation of RNA from a polypeptide template. It catalyzes the formation of RNA from a DNA template. It catalyzes the formation of DNA from an RNA template.
Correct
This is the function of reverse transcriptase.
Part D
What is the source of a viral envelope? ANSWER:
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host cell DNA prophages provirus host cell membrane viral glycoproteins
Correct
The viral envelope is derived from host cell membrane.
Part E
Which of these is reverse transcriptase?
ANSWER: A B C D E
Correct
This is reverse transcriptase.
Part F
Which of these is the viral genome?
ANSWER: A B C D E
Correct
HIV is an RNA virus.
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Part G
To view the animation, click here. Then click on the image to start the animation. Click on the diagram to start the animation. What enzyme is responsible for the process seen here? ANSWER: RNA polymerase DNA polymerase reverse transcriptase endonuclease DNA ligase
Correct
Reverse transcriptase catalyzes the formation of DNA from an RNA template.
Part H
Double-stranded viral DNA is incorporated into a host cell as a _____. ANSWER: promoter provirus transposon lac homeoboxes
Correct
"Provirus" is the name given to double-stranded viral DNA that has been incorporated into a host cell's genome.
Misconception Question 94
Part A
Identify all correct statements about how viroids differ from viruses. Select all that apply. ANSWER: Unlike viruses, viroids cause plant disease. Unlike viruses, viroids do not encode proteins. Unlike viruses, the genetic material of a viroid is protein.
Correct
Unlike viruses, viroids do not encode proteins but can replicate in host plant cells, apparently using host cell enzymes. Read about viroids.
Misconception Question 95
Part A
How do prions differ from viruses? Select all that apply. ANSWER:
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Unlike viruses, prions do not include any nucleic acids. Unlike a virus, a prion is a single molecule. Unlike viruses, prions are infectious proteins.
Correct
Read about prions. Score Summary: Your score on this assignment is 99.6%. You received 23.91 out of a possible total of 24 points.
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