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EXPLORE
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TEST 1: ENGLISH TEST
30 Minutes 40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the four passages that follow,
certain words and phrases are underlined and num-
bered. In the right-hand column, you will find alter-
natives for the underlined part. In most cases, you
are to choose the one that best expresses the idea,
makes the statement appropriate for standard
written English, or is worded most consistently with
the style and tone of the passage as a whole. If you
think the original version is best, choose "NO
CHANGE." In some cases, you will find in the right-
hand column a question about the underlined part.
You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also find questions about a section of the
passage, or about the passage as a whole. These
questions do not refer to an underlined portion of
the passage, but rather are identified by a number
or numbers in a box. Sometimes, the paragraphs or
the sentences of a paragraph will be numbered and
referred to in these questions.
For each question, choose the alternative you con-
sider best and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer folder. Read each passage through once
before you begin to answer the questions that
accompany it. For many of the questions, you must
read several sentences beyond the question to
determine the answer. Be sure that you have read
far enough ahead each time you choose an
alternative.
PASSAGE I
The Youngest Rider for the Pony Express?
Much fact and some fiction surrounds the
mail service known as the Pony Express. Riders
on horseback could approximately deliver mail 1. The best placement for the underlined portion
would be:

1

A. where it is now.
B. before the word on.
C. before the word mail.
D. before the word ten.
from Missouri to California in ten days instead of

2. F. NO CHANGE
2

G. until
the weeks and months it had previously taken by

H. as long as
J. unless
EXPLORE-05A

2 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

stagecoach or ship. 3 The riders would pick up
mail in St. Joseph, Missouri, and then gallop across
the plains, mountains, and deserts, dropping and
receiving mail at the stations they passed along the
way to Sacramento, California. The Pony Express,
begun in 1860, lasted only eighteen months, ending
after the completion of a cross-country telegraph
4
system.
One man, Charlie Miller, who came to be known
as Broncho Charlie, claimed to had been the youngest
5
rider for the Pony Express. For example, there is
6
doubt about whether his story is fact or legend.
3. At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following true statement:
California officially became a state in
1850.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A. Yes, because it provides a detail related to
the paragraph's focus on the history of
California.
B. Yes, because it supports the paragraph's
claim that the Pony Express delivered mail
quickly.
C. No, because it blurs the paragraph's focus on
the Pony Express and its riders.
D. No, because it suggests that the Pony
Express delivered mail only in California.
4. F. NO CHANGE
G. along
H. for
J. as
5. A. NO CHANGE
B. has
C. have
D. DELETE the underlined portion.
6. F. NO CHANGE
G. However,
H. Besides,
J. Likewise,
According to his own account, Miller first rode
for the Pony Express when he was only eleven years
old. On his first ride, Miller claimed, he and his
horse, Rambler, left Sacramento and headed east
to Placerville when Miller was only eleven. He
7
supposedly rode through narrow mountain passes,
7. A.
B.
C.
D.
NO CHANGE
when Miller was the young age of eleven.
when Miller, at eleven years old, was young.
DELETE the underlined portion and end the
sentence with a period.

swam across deep, creeks swollen with rain, and
8
survived encounters with wild animals. Miller also
claimed to have delivered mail on the regular route
8. F. NO CHANGE
G. across, deep creeks,
H. across, deep creeks
J. across deep creeks
EXPLORE-05A 3 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
between Carson City, Nevada, and Sacramento,
California, for several months before the Pony
Express disbanded. But Miller apparently never
provided any proof of these claims, and there
9
accuracy may never be established.
One thing that is known about Miller is that he
accomplished a great riding feat at age eighty-two.
Wanting to celebrate the Pony Express seventy years
after its demise, in 1931 Miller hopped on a horse
and rode from New York to California. He became
the first person known to have crossed the continent
while riding the same horse. Broncho Charlie's final
accomplishment was to live to the age of 105.
9. A. NO CHANGE
B. their
C. they're
D. those
10. F. NO CHANGE
G. riding
H. had rode
J. rides
PASSAGE II
On Gathering Raspberries
One of my favorite things to do in July is
berry picking. I live in a midwestern city of about
80,000 people, but I do all my picking within the
city limits. I mainly search for the black raspberry
because it's the most common wild berry here,
11
but I'll also gather blackberries and gooseberries.
11. A. NO CHANGE
B. they were
C. it was
D. its
4 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. EXPLORE-05A
There's nothing more delightful then bringing home
12
a quart or two of sweet fruit which costing only the
13
time it took to pick.
Since black
raspberries are high in antioxidants,
14
researchers have been studying their potential benefit
14
for treating various diseases. First, I'm mindful of
14
the places where the raspberry canes grows wild and
15
untended. The thorny, woody stems stand four or five
feet tall in thickets. In the spring, I take note when I
see the familiar fruit forming, bright red, on public
landsalong bike trails and in parks and woods.
When I return to those locations in early July,
I usually find plenty of black raspberries. I proceed
patiently as I pick, berry by berry, ignoring the
sweat soaking my shirt and the mosquitoes and
gnats
into their world that have welcomed me.
16
12. F. NO CHANGE
G. than
H. for
J. as
13. A. NO CHANGE
B. and costing
C. that cost
D. and cost
14. Given that all the choices are true, which one
provides the most effective transition to the rest
of the essay?
F. NO CHANGE
G. While most black raspberries grow wild, red
raspberries are an important commercial
crop in temperate regions.
H. My plan for locating and picking berries has
several stages, spread out over a number of
months.
J. Freshly picked black raspberries can be used
to make delicious jams and desserts or
frozen for later use.
15. A. NO CHANGE
B. has grown
C. had grew
D. grow
16. The best placement for the underlined portion
would be:
F. where it is now.
G. after the word sweat.
H. after the word welcomed.
J. after the word me (and before the period).
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
EXPLORE-05A
5
17. At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following true statement:
DDT was once widely used as an insec-
ticide, but it was banned in the 1970s
because of its negative impact on the
environment and human health.
17
Did I mention that I carry bug repellent?
I must be nimble to avoid the thorny snags of
the brambles I'm standing among. I also need manual
18
dexterity to coax each tiny fruit into my pail without
crushing it. As I do so, I'm always searching for the
next ripe berry. It should be a dusky black, with no
hint of red in the shadows of the drupelets (the tiny
individual globes that make up this fruit). I've
founded that the ripest berries hide under leaves
19
in the darkest depths of the cane thicket.
I'm always surprised at quickly I can fill a
20
two-quart pail, enough berries for two delicious
pies. In the process, I've also participated in the
widespread historical tradition of gathering wild
food.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A. Yes, because it supports the point that the
narrator is considerate of the environment.
B. Yes, because it warns readers to avoid using
DDT as a bug repellent.
C. No, because it's irrelevant to the paragraph's
focus on the process of picking berries.
D. No, because it doesn't tell enough about the
negative impact of DDT.
18. Three of the following alternatives to the under-
lined portion would be acceptable. Which one
would NOT be acceptable?
F. At the same time, I need
G. On the contrary, I need
H. In addition, I need
J. I need, as well,
19. A. NO CHANGE
B. found that
C. finded out
D. find that
20. F. NO CHANGE
G. how quickly
H. that quick
J. quickly
EXPLORE-05A 6 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
PASSAGE III
Why Do Beavers Build Dams?
[1] Dams built by beavers are impressive feats
of construction; sometimes they can be as large as
three meters high and several hundred meters long.
[2] To create a dam, beavers use their chisel-like
front teeth to fell trees along a stream. [3] Then
they cut the tree trunks and branches into smaller
pieces so they can drag them into the stream by
21
skillfully using their front feet. [4] They wedge
the first pieces into the stream bottom, usually
at the streams narrowest point, and build upward,
22
strengthening the structure with rocks and mud.
[5] After the dam is finished, the water behind it
deepens and widens to form a pond. [6] The dam and
the pond provide beavers with safety. [7] The pond is
an ideal place to build a lodge, a structure that can't
be entered by wolves, bears, or foxes. [8] The lodge,
23
well insulated with sticks and mud, protects beavers
from extremes of heat and cold and offers a safe
place for them to raise their young. 24
21. A. NO CHANGE
B. pieces, which
C. pieces, but
D. pieces that
22. F. NO CHANGE
G. streams,
H. streams'
J. stream's
23. A. NO CHANGE
B. be entering
C. entering
D. enter
24. The writer wants to divide this paragraph into
two so that the first paragraph describes how
beavers build dams and the second paragraph
begins the essay's discussion of the purposes
these dams serve. The best place to start the new
paragraph would be at the beginning of Sentence:
F. 3.
G. 4.
H. 5.
J. 7.
7 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. EXPLORE-05A
Also the living space of the
25
lodge is above the water level, there are
underwater openings that let beavers go in
26
and out. When young beavers are ready to leave
the safety of the lodge, they are pushed into the pond
through one of these openings, unseen by predators.
In addition, the pond yields food that can
be eaten without the risk of overland travel.
Beavers harvest plants that grow on the bottom
of the pond, such as yellow pond lilies and they
27
also store branches in the pond, the inner bark
serving as winter food. They create tunnels
from the land around the stream to the pond;
these provide escape routes if the beavers are
threatened when looking around on land for
28
food to eat and finding themselves in danger.
28
For a beaver, a dam is well worth building
because it allows for a vegetable garden, a nursery,
a hiding place, an escape route, swimming in a pool,
29
and a food-storage facility.
25. A. NO CHANGE
B. For example,
C. Although
D. Yet
26. F. NO CHANGE
G. underwater, openings that let beavers,
H. underwater openings, that let beavers,
J. underwater, openings that let beavers
27. A. NO CHANGE
B. pond such as yellow pond lilies, and,
C. pond, such as yellow pond lilies, and
D. pond such as yellow pond lilies and
28. F. NO CHANGE
G. threatened during the time they spend out of
the water searching all over the place on
land for something to eat.
H. being threatened themselves when they are
walking on land looking for food to eat.
J. threatened when searching for food on land.
29. A. NO CHANGE
B. that they can swim in a pool,
C. a swimming pool,
D. to swim in a pool,
EXPLORE-05A

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Question 30 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
30. Assuming that the writer had set out to answer
the question in the title of the essay, would this
essay accomplish that goal?
F. Yes, because in the concluding paragraph, it
introduces the reasons that beavers build
dams.
G. Yes, because it focuses on the many benefits
dams provide for beavers.
H. No, because it is primarily about how
beavers build dams rather than about why
they do so.
J. No, because it is more about how beavers
avoid predators than about the dams beavers
build.
PASSAGE IV
Architect Norma Sklarek
Most people in Los Angeles are familiar with
the Pacific Design Center, a massive building in
West Hollywood constructed in the 1970s. It has been
nicknamed the "Blue Whale" because of its size and
color. One of the main architects on the Blue Whale
team was Norma Sklarek, that her specialty was
31
large-scale buildings. Her projects have included
the award-winning Fox Hills Mall in Culver City,
California; the California Mart, the world's largest
fashion center; and Terminal One of the Los Angeles
International Airport.
31. A. NO CHANGE
B. her
C. whose
D. who's
EXPLORE-05A 9 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
[1] But Sklarek was accepted to architecture
school and made it through. [2] When Sklarek
decided, in the 1940s, to study architecture, it was
a difficult field for women and African Americans
to enter due to discrimination. [3] Unlike many
newly graduated architects, she passed the four-day,
thirty-six-hour architect's licensing exam the first
time she took it. 32 32. Which of the following sequences of sentences
makes this paragraph most logical?
F. NO CHANGE
G. 2, 1, 3
H. 2, 3, 1
When Sklarek looked for a job, however,

J.
3, 2, 1
disappointment was met with. She applied to twenty
33
different architecture firms and was rejected by all.
34 She took a job outside of architecture but kept
applying for work in her field. Finally, she was hired
at Skidmore, Owings & Merrill, one of the nation top
35
architectural firms. Instead, like any new architect,
36
she was given small projects. Soon, though, her
talent for large buildings was recognized.
33. A. NO CHANGE
B. disappointment was met with by her.
C. she met with disappointment.
D. meeting with disappointment.
34. At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following true statement:
Sklarek's father, a doctor, had helped
his daughter learn how to repair many
things around their home.
Should the writer make this addition here?
F. Yes, because it explains how Sklarek became
interested in architecture.
G. Yes, because it tells the reader about
Sklarek's childhood.
H. No, because it doesn't explain what specific
things Sklarek learned to do.
J. No, because it doesn't logically fit with the
other information in the paragraph.
35. A. NO CHANGE
B. nations's
C. nation's
D. nations
36. F. NO CHANGE
G. On the contrary,
H. For example,
J. At first,
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. EXPLORE-05A 10
Sklarek has said, that she had no role models
37
when she began her career. She was the first African
American woman to become a licensed architect and
the first to become a Fellow of the American Institute
of Architects. Later, she was also the first African
American woman to own an architectural firm. Now
retired, women and African Americans today, Sklarek
38
believes, are making a significant impact on
38
architecture. Perhaps this is partly because they
39
now have many role models, one is Norma Sklarek.
40
37. A. NO CHANGE
B. said that,
C. said, "that
D. said that
38. F. NO CHANGE
G. Sklarek believes women and African Ameri-
cans today
H. it is Sklarek's belief that women and African
Americans today
J. today, women and African Americans,
Sklarek believes,
39. A. NO CHANGE
B. It might possibly be, perhaps, that this is
C. Perhaps this could possibly be
D. This maybe could be, perhaps,
40. F. NO CHANGE
G. models one of them
H. models, one of them
J. models, one of whom
END OF TEST 1
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
EXPLORE-05A 11
TEST 2: MATHEMATICS TEST
30 Minutes 30 Questions
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct answer, and then use your pencil to
fill in the corresponding oval on your answer folder.
Do not use too much time on any one problem. Solve the ones you can do quickly; then
return to the others in the time you have left.
You should have a calculator to use on this test. You may use your calculator for any
problems you choose, but some of the problems may best be done without using a calculator.
Note: Unless the problem indicates otherwise, you should assume all of the following.
1. Diagrams are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
2. Geometric figures lie in a plane.
3. The word line indicates a straight line.
4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean. For example, the average of
2, 6, and 7 is (2 + 6 +
3 )
You may do your figuring in your test booklet. If you need more space for your figuring, you
may ask your room supervisor for scratch paper. If you receive scratch paper, it will be
collected along with your test booklet.
1. What is the area, in square yards, of a rectangular
field that is 25 yards long and 20 yards wide?
A. 500
B. 625
C. 1,500
D. 3,600
E. 4,500
3. After the Fine Arts Booster Club's Soup Supper,
there were 120 pieces of pie left over. The
leftover pie was distributed equally among the
volunteers (6 cooks and 4 cafeteria workers) so
that each volunteer received the same number of
pieces of pie. How many pieces of pie did each
volunteer receive?
A. 5
B. 12
C. 20
D. 24
E. 30
2. When x = 13, x2 3x = ? 4. What is the value of x when 14 = 2x 6 is true?
F. 26 F. 4
G. 39 G. 10
H. 52 H. 13
J. 130 J. 18
K. 208 K. 40
EXPLORE-05A

12 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

A.
B.
C. f:1
6. 4(0.25) + 3(0.10) + 6(0.05) + 7(0.01) = ?
D.
5. All of the following figures are parallelograms 8. What is the median of the data given below?
EXCEPT for one. Which one?
9. What is the least common denominator of the
fractions
1
,
' 8

1
' and
12 ?
A. 12
B. 24
C. 48
D. 72
E. 576
14, 20, 7, 12, 20, 18
F. 7
G. 14
H. 16
J. 18
K. 20
F. 1.40
G. 1.67
H. 2.30
J. 4.37
K. 20.41
7. Lines AB and CD intersect at P, as shown in the
figure below. Given that the measure of LDPB is
50, what is the measure of ZDPA ?
F.
I
1
I
0 1
.41.1
2 3 4
I
5
G.
1 0 1 2 3 4 5
H.
I I I
1 0 1 2 3 4 5
J.
I I
1 0 5

1 2 3 4
K.
I (I) I I I- -1)
1 0 1 2 3 4 5
10. One of the following graphs represents the set of
integers that are greater than 0 and less than 4.
Which one?
11. Makoto's summer job is mowing and edging
lawns. He charges $20 to mow a lawn and $10 to
edge a lawn. Makoto earned $180 mowing some
lawns and edging 4 lawns. How many lawns did
he mow?
A. 100 A. 3
B. 130 B. 6
C. 140 C. 7
D. 150 D. 9
E. 180 E. 14
13 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. EXPLORE-05A
Use the following information to answer
questions 12-15.
Mrs. Christman raises and sells golden retriever
puppies. For each of the past 5 years, 1 of her 3 adult
female dogs has produced a litter of puppies.
Information about these litters is shown in the table
below. Mrs. Christman collects $1,000 for each puppy
she sells as a show dog, and $800 for each puppy she
sells as a pet.
Year
Adult
female
dog
Male
puppies
Female
puppies
Total
puppies
1 Ginger 6 5 11
2 Peach 5 2 7
3 Saffron 4 5 9
4 Ginger 4 2 6
5 Peach 5 2 7
Total: 24 16 40
12. For the 5 litters, what is the ratio of male puppies
to female puppies?
F. 1:1
G. 2:3
H. 3:5
J. 3:2
K. 5:3
13. What is the average number of puppies per litter?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 8 1
4
D.
8 1
2
E. 9
14. Mrs. Christman sells s puppies as show dogs and
p puppies as pets. Which of the following
expressions describes the total amount, in
dollars, Mrs. Christman collects from the sale of
the puppies?
F. 8,000sp
G. 1,800 + s + p
H. 800s + 1,000p
J. 1,000s 800p
K. 1,000s + 800p
15. To the nearest 0.1%, what percent of the total
puppies produced in the 5 litters were born to
Saffron?
A. 16.7%
B. 20.0%
C. 22.5%
D. 31.3%
E. 33.3%
16. Jim leaves his house and takes a walk. He walks
4 blocks due south to Jill's house and 3 blocks
due west to Jack's house. Jim then walks due
north and due east to Jonesy's Ice Cream Shop.
Finally, he walks due north and due east from
Jonesy's back to his house. On the map below,
his route is marked by arrows and each block has
the same length. What is the length, in blocks, of
Jim's walk?
F. 10
G. 11
H. 12
J. 13
K. 14
EXPLORE-05A

14 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

17. The scatterplot below shows the relationship
between the time each of 10 students spent
writing a book report and the score each of them
earned on the book report. The vertical dashed
line marks the average time spent writing, and
the horizontal dashed line marks the average
score. The 2 dashed lines form 4 regions, which
are labeled P, Q, R, and S.

100 P

80
60 -

40

20 R
19. For all whole numbers m, which of the following
statements is always true about the value of
2m + 5 ?
A. It is a multiple of 5.
B. It is a multiple of 7.
C. It is greater than or equal to 25.
D. It is odd.
E. It is even.
20. The figure below is a net (flat pattern) of a
geometrical solid. The net, when folded on the
dashed lines, makes a right rectangular prism.
The given lengths are in feet. What is x ?



Q


S
x
0
0 20 40 60 80
time spent writing (minutes)
6
The students represented in Region S spent:
A. an above-average time writing and earned a
below-average score.
B. an above-average time writing and earned an
average score.
C. an above-average time writing and earned an
above-average score.
D. a below-average time writing and earned a
below-average score.
E. a below-average time writing and earned an
above-average score.
18. The sum of 0.8 and 0.04 can be written as a
fraction where the numerator and the denominator
are both positive integers. When the numerator
and the denominator are both divided by their
greatest common factor, what is the sum of the
numerator and the denominator of the resulting
fraction?
F. 3
G. 4
H. 5
J. 6
K. 7
21. Each student in Ms. Wang's class will use a
keyboard with 5 buttons on it to enter a 3-digit
number. Each button has a different digit on it,
from 1 through 5. (Some possible numbers are
111, 123, and 552.) How many different 3-digit
numbers are possible for a student to enter?
A. 9
B. 15
C. 27
D. 60
E. 125
22. Which of the following numbers lies between
VII and ?
E 46 F. 8
G. 84 G. 6
H. 92 H. 4
J. 100 J. 3
K. 184 K. 1
EXPLORE-05A 15 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
G(3,7)
y
A
0
F. (-3,-7)
G. ( 3,-7)
H. (-7,-3)
J. (-7, 3)
K. ( 7,-3)
x
Years after
production
Mass that remains
(grams)
1 450.00
2 405.00
3 364.50
4 ?
25. For all nonzero x,
5
7 is equivalent to:
A.
4
x
B.
6
x
A. 314.50
B. 319.50
C. 324.00
D. 328.05
E. 354.50
C.
D.
E.
19
2x
12
19x
35
19x
23. In hexagon ABDEFG, shown below, all 6 sides
have equal lengths, all 6 interior angles have
equal measures, and the 3 diagonals shown
intersect at C. What is the measure of ZBDE ?
26. Point G(3,7) is shown in the standard (x,y)
coordinate plane below. Point G is rotated 90
counterclockwise (-) ) about the origin and,
after the rotation, is labeled H. What are the
coordinates of H ?
A B
A. 60
B. 108
C. 120
D. 144
E. 150
24. At a certain school carnival game, a player earns
5 points every time the player hits the target and
loses 3 points every time the player misses the
target. After 8 attempts to hit the target, Carlos
had 16 points. Carlos hit the target on how many
of the 8 attempts?
F. 1
G. 2
H. 3
J. 4
K. 5
27. A laboratory produces 500.00 grams of a certain
radioactive substance. The substance decays by
the same percent from one year to the next year.
The table below gives the mass of the substance
that remains 1, 2, and 3 years after the
substance's production. Which of the following
values is closest to the mass, in grams, of the
substance that remains 4 years after production?
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. EXPLORE-05A 16
28. Two sides of a triangle are each 5 meters long.
Which of the following CANNOT be the length
of the third side, in meters?
F. 3
G. 6.5
H. 8
J. 9
K. 10
29. Marty's Plumbing charges a fixed dollar amount
per hour plus a fixed service fee per job.
Phylicia's Plumbing charges $10 less per hour
than Marty's, but the fixed service fee per job she
charges is $10 more than Marty's. Marty's
Plumbing took 5 hours to complete a job.
Phylicia's Plumbing would also have taken
5 hours to complete the same job. Compared to
Marty's Plumbing, Phylicia's Plumbing would
have charged:
A. $40 less.
B. $40 more.
C. $50 less.
D. $50 more.
E. the same amount.
30. The Hillside High School band has 50 members,
7 of whom are drummers. Exactly 4 of these
drummers play the piano. Exactly 12 band
members play the piano. What percent of the
band members play the piano and are NOT
drummers?
F. 8%
G. 10%
H. 12%
J. 16%
K. 24%
END OF TEST 2
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO THE PREVIOUS TEST.
EXPLO E-05A 17
TEST 3: READING TEST
30 Minutes 30 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are three passages in this test. Each passage is followed by
ten questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question and
fill in the corresponding oval on your answer folder. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
Passage I
PROSE FICTION: This passage is adapted from the
novel Animal Dreams by Barbara Kingsolver (01990 by
Barbara Kingsolver).
"What is this?" I was out of the truck,
entranced, before he'd even set the brake.
"Kinishba," Loyd said. "Prehistoric condos."
That's just about what it looked like. Out
5 there, without a fence in sight, sat a long rectan-
gular building made entirely of carefully set
stone, no mortar. Dozens of small doors opened
into it across the front.
The doors were no more than four feet high.
10 I ducked through one into a small, rectangular
room with a dust floor. It was cool as a cave, and
quiet. The door was a square of bright light with
the silhouette of Loyd coming through. Even
inside the room, the ceiling was low, just inches
15 above my head. I touched it. "People were short
back then."
"They would've had to build a special room
for you, Codi. You would have been their queen."
I laughed, though it struck me I'd been com-
20 plimented. Was that how Loyd saw me? Not as a
grain elevator on the prairie, but a queen? At the
back of the room a door led into another room,
which was darker, having no openings to the out-
side. Two more doors led out of that roomone
25 to the side, and one up through the ceiling, which
was made of thick, curved trunks of small trees.
There was another whole set of rooms on top of
this one.
"Can we go upstairs?"
30 He shook his head. "I wouldn't trust those
beams. They're kind of old."
"How old?"
"Eight hundred years."
I looked at him. "Are you kidding?"
35 "Nope."
We went from room to room, changing
directions in the dark until the compass points
were entirely lost to me. It was a maze. Loyd said
there were more than two hundred roomsa vil-
40 lage under one roof. I tried to imagine the place
populated: listening through all the noises of
cooking and scolding and washing up for the
sound of your own kids.
Without warning we came out into a bright
45 courtyard in the center, surrounded by walls and
doorways on all four sides. It was completely
hidden from the outsidea little haven with a
carpet of fine grass and an ancient ash tree. A
treasure island. I was drawn to the shade. "We
50 should've brought the picnic basket," I said, set-
tling under the ash. The ground was cool. My
brief vision of a living city was gone; it seemed
ghostly again.
"So who built this place, eight hundred years
55 ago?"
"My mama's folks. The Pueblo. They had
their act together back then, didn't they?"
They did. I couldn't stop running my eyes
over the walls and the low, even roofline. The
60 stones were mostly the same shape, rectangular,
but all different sizes; there would be a row of
EXPLORE-05A

18 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

large stones, and then two or three thinner rows,
then a couple of middle-sized rows. There was
something familiar about the way they fit
65 together. In a minute it came to me. They looked
just like cells under a microscope.
"It doesn't even look like it was built," I
said. "It looks like something alive that just grew
here."
70 "That's the idea." Loyd seemed as pleased as
if he'd built it himself.
"Of what? The idea of Pueblo architecture?"
"Yep. Don't be some kind of a big hero. No
Washington Monuments. Just build something
75 nice that Mother Earth will want to hold in her
arms."
1. Who is the narrator of the passage?
A. Codi
B. Loyd
C. A character in the story who is watching and
explaining the actions of Codi and Loyd
D. A third-person narrator who knows the
thoughts of both Codi and Loyd
2. What does the passage suggest about the number
of times Loyd and Codi have visited Kinishba?
F. Neither of them has been at Kinishba before.
G. Both of them have been at Kinishba numer-
ous times.
H. Loyd has been at Kinishba numerous times,
but Codi has never been there before.
J. Codi has been at Kinishba numerous times,
but Loyd has been there only once.
3. Which of the following statements about Loyd's
attitude toward Kinishba is best supported by the
passage?
A. He regrets that the rooms are no longer filled
with a bustling village.
B. He's proud of the design and age of the
structure.
C. He's surprised that the building is still stand-
ing centuries after it was built.
D. He's concerned because some people don't
appreciate Pueblo traditions.
4. Which of the following words best describes
Codi's first response to Kinishba?
F. Nervousness
G. Amusement
H. Uninterest
J. Awe
5. Loyd describes Kinishba to Codi as which of the
following?
A. A grain elevator
B. A hidden cave
C. An ancient castle
D. Prehistoric condos
6. What reason does Loyd give Codi to keep her
from going upstairs at Kinishba?
F. He doesn't trust the beams.
G. They don't have time to spend exploring.
H. It's too dark to see anything up there.
J. It would be considered disrespectful.
7. According to the passage, Kinishba was built
about how long ago?
A. One hundred years
B. Two hundred years
C. Eight hundred years
D. One thousand years
8. What does Codi most likely mean when she says
"the compass points were entirely lost to me"
(lines 37-38)?
F. The compass she brought is broken and no
longer points north.
G. She can't read her compass in the dark.
H. She lost her sense of direction as she fol-
lowed Loyd through the rooms.
J. The doors to the rooms don't all face the
same direction.
9. According to the passage, the way the stones of
Kinishba fit together reminds Codi of:
A. cells under a microscope.
B. a treasure island.
C. the Washington Monument.
D. a bustling village.
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. EXPLORE-05A 19
10. Loyd most strongly suggests that Pueblo builders
designed their housing structures to be:
F. monuments to their ancestral heroes.
G. private and spacious.
H. a natural part of the landscape.
J.
representative of their wealth and prosperity.
Passage II
SOCIAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the
article "Minds of Their Own" by Virginia Morell (2008
by National Geographic Society).
In 1977 psychologist Irene Pepperberg set
out to find out what was on another creature's
mind by talking to it. She brought a one-year-old
African gray parrot she named Alex into her lab
5 to teach him to produce the sounds of the English
language.
Certain skills are considered key signs of
higher mental abilities: good memory, a grasp of
grammar and symbols, self-awareness, under-
10 standing others' motives, imitating others, and
being creative. Bit by bit, researchers have docu-
mented these talents in other species, gradually
chipping away at what we thought made human
beings distinctive.' Alex the parrot turned out to
15 be a surprisingly good talker.
"Some people called me crazy for trying
this," Pepperberg said. "Scientists thought chim-
panzees were better subjects, although, of course,
chimps can't speak."
20 "Alex has to hear the words over and over
before he can correctly imitate them," Pepperberg
said, after pronouncing "seven" for Alex a good
dozen times in a row. "I'm not trying to see if
Alex can learn a human language," she added.
25 "That's never been the point. My plan always was
to use his imitative skills to get a better under-
standing of how birds think."
In other words, because Alex was able to
produce a close approximation of the sounds of
30 some English words, Pepperberg could ask him
questions about a bird's basic understanding of
the world. She couldn't ask him what he was
thinking about, but she could ask him about his
knowledge of numbers, shapes, and colors. To
35 demonstrate, Pepperberg held up a green key and
a small green Cup to Alex's eye.
"What's same?" she asked.
Without hesitation, Alex's beak opened:
"Co-lor."
40 "What's different?" Pepperberg asked.
"Shape," Alex said.
For the next 20 minutes, Alex ran through
his tests, distinguishing colors, shapes, sizes, and
materials (wool versus wood versus metal). He
45 did some simple arithmetic, such as counting the
yellow toy blocks among a pile of mixed hues.
And, then, as if to offer final proof of the
mind inside his bird's brain, Alex spoke up. "Talk
clearly!" he commanded, when one of the
50 younger birds Pepperberg was also teaching mis-
pronounced the word green. "Talk clearly!"
Many of Alex's thinking skills, such as his
ability to understand the concepts of same and
different, are generally ascribed only to higher
55 mammals, particularly primates. But parrots, like
great apes (and humans), live a long time in com-
plex societies. And like primates, these birds must
keep track of the dynamics of changing relation-
ships and environments.
60 "They need to be able to distinguish colors
to know when a fruit is ripe or unripe,"
Pepperberg noted. "They need to categorize
thingswhat's edible, what isn'tand to know
the shapes of predators. And it helps to have a
65 concept of numbers if you need to keep track of
your flock, and to know who's single and who's
paired up."
Being able mentally to divide the world into
simple abstract categories would seem a valuable
70 skill. Is that ability, then, part of the evolutionary
drive that led to human intelligence?
20 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. EXPLORE-05A
11. What best describes the main purpose of the
passage?
A. To persuade readers that African gray par-
rots make good pets
B. To explain to readers what Pepperberg
learned through her work with Alex
C. To convince readers that primates are
smarter than birds like Alex
D. To entertain readers with a humorous story
about teaching various bird species to talk
12. Based on the passage, which of the following
best describes Alex's ability to talk?
F. Alex learns almost instantly how to say and
use new words he hears.
G. Alex can pronounce words clearly but
doesn't actually communicate.
H. Alex can only mimic Pepperberg by repeat-
ing words directly after she says them.
J. Alex communicates by correctly using
words that he's heard repeated at least sev-
eral times.
13. In the passage, what reason does Pepperberg give
for wanting to teach an African gray parrot to
talk?
A. To better understand how birds think
B. To see whether birds are able to learn a
human language
C. To find out how skillful birds are at imitation
D. To observe whether birds are capable of
lying
14. As it is used in line 5, the word produce most
nearly means:
F. grow.
G. invent.
H. show.
J. make.
15. In the passage, Pepperberg notes that one advan-
tage in using a parrot instead of a chimpanzee in
her research was that parrots:
A. are easier to train than chimpanzees.
B. can speak, while chimpanzees can't.
C. haven't been studied as often as chim-
panzees have been.
D. don't require specialized care the way chim-
panzees do.
16. According to the passage, why did Alex scold
one of the young parrots in Pepperberg's care?
F. It wasn't paying attention to the task.
G. It wanted a treat before performing.
H. It didn't pronounce a word correctly.
J. It selected the wrong object.
17. Which of the following best describes something
parrots, great apes, and humans have in common
that requires higher-level thinking skills?
A. They demonstrate an ability to speak clearly.
B. They protect and clean up their environment.
C. They live a long time in complex societies.
D. They are capable of explaining new ideas.
18. According to the passage, one reason parrots
living in the wild need to be able to distinguish
colors is so that they can:
F. recognize their mates.
G. pick out ripe from unripe fruit.
H. know which birds belong in their flock.
J. find their way back to their nests.
19. Which of the following is used in the passage as
an example of why parrots living in the wild need
to understand numbers?
A. To keep track of their flock and to know
who's single and who's paired up
B. To estimate the number of miles left to reach
their destination when migrating
C. To count the number of predators living in
an area before settling there
D. To divide up equally any large supply of
fruit the flock finds to eat
20. As it is used in line 71, the word drive most
nearly means:
F. community fund-raiser.
G. short trip.
H. powerful force.
J. private road.
21 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. EXPLORE-05A
Passage III
HUMANITIES: This passage is adapted from Music Fell
on Alabama by C. S. Fuqua (2006 by C. S. Fuqua).
He liked to take credit for inventing jazz
music, but neither he nor anyone else could ever
prove the claim, so William Christopher Handy
had to settle for being known as the "Father of the
5 Blues." Born in Florence, Alabama, in 1873,
Handy fought an uphill battle to play his music.
His father and grandfather were both Methodist
preachers, and they expected the young Handy to
follow them into the pulpit. But even after his
10 father forced Handy to trade in his first instru-
ment, a guitar, for a dictionary, Handy never
swayed from his determination to become a musi-
cian, and there was little the minister could do
about it, especially when the boy got his hands on
15 a cornet (a type of trumpet).
For eleven years, Handy studied music in the
Florence black public school as well as listened to
the songs Southern blacks sang in the railroad
yards and factorieshaunting melodies about the
20 harshness of life, of work, of love, songs laced
with the sound of spirituals. He played his music,
working out on his instruments the melodies he'd
heard all of his life.
Handy finally formed his own band and
25 headed for Memphis, and, in 1909, he wrote
"Mr. Crump," a song for the political campaign of
E. H. "Boss" Crump. Crump won, and so did
Handy. He rewrote the words, renamed the song
"Memphis Blues," and effectively created a new
30 form of musicselling the rights to it for the
now-laughable sum of $100. "Memphis Blues"
was the first popular song written to include a
jazz break (solo), the basis for Handy's later
claim that he invented jazz.
35 He soon left Memphis and headed north, to
St. Louis, where his luck seemed to run out.
Sleeping on cobblestones and in poolrooms, he
heard a man complain one night about how he
hated to see the sun go down on another day. The
40 complaint stuck in the composer's mind, and
eventually became the basis for his most famous
song, "The St. Louis Blues," which put Handy on
the road to wealth and fame. The song, Handy
once said, "reflects a life filled with hard times as
In 1918, "Handy moved to New York City
and opened Handy Brothers Music Company,
Inc., a publishing company, where his fame con-
50 tinued to grow as a songwriter and conductor. But
by 1941, Handy had become disillusioned with
the blues, remarking to one reporter that the
market for the music he created had vanished. But
that didn't stop him from composing. Instead of
55 songs of hard times and trouble, he now turned to
a song of dignity, a proclamation of allegiance
and patriotism. "We're Americans, Too" rejoiced
in the sacrifices blacks had made for America, the
honor and pride they should take in being loyal
60 Americans.
But music wasn't the only thing being pub-
lished with Handy's name on it in 1941. The
Macmillan Company that year released the com-
poser's autobiography and, as a testament to the
65 man's popularity, had to print a second edition
within thirty days of releasing the first. RCA
Victor also cashed in with Handy that year, issu-
ing the Birth of the Blues album, containing eight
of Handy's compositions.
21. The passage can best be described as:
A. a brief account of Handy's life as a musician.
B. an in-depth analysis of the lyrics of one of
Handy's songs.
C. a story of a memorable event from Handy's
childhood.
D. a discussion of the popularity of jazz music
in the early twentieth century.
22. Which of the following statements about Handy
and the invention of jazz is best supported by the
passage?
F. With his song "Memphis Blues," Handy
invented jazz.
G. Handy claimed that he'd invented jazz, but
his claim can't be verified.
H. Handy had hoped he'd be credited with
inventing the blues instead of jazz.
J.
Handy is credited as the inventor of jazz, but
he repeatedly denied that claim.
45 well as good times," a statement that could apply
to most of his blues songs.
EXPLORE-05A 22 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
23. Which of the following musical activities is NOT
mentioned in the passage as something Handy
did?
27. Which of the following is named in the passage
as one of Handy's musical inspirations when
Handy was young?
A. Conducting
A. Songs sung by Southern blacks in railroad
B. Writing songs
yards and factories
C. Playing instruments
B. Songs sung by his father at home while
D. Singing spirituals
preparing for church services
C. Blues music played at political rallies
D. Autobiographies of famous musicians
24. The last two paragraphs (lines 47-69) most
strongly suggest that between 1918 and approxi-
mately 1940, most of the songs Handy wrote
would have been marketed as what kind of
music?
F. Blues
G. Jazz
H. Patriotic
J. Religious
28. The passage states that Handy's inspiration for
writing "The St. Louis Blues" came from:
F. his excitement about moving from Memphis
to St. Louis.
G. music that Handy had heard and studied
while in the Florence black public school.
H. remembering one of the songs Handy had
composed in his youth.
J. a comment Handy had overheard while he
was in St. Louis.
25. What does the last paragraph most strongly sug-
gest about Handy's position in the music industry
in 1941?
29. Which of the following statements captures how
the passage characterizes most of Handy's blues
lyrics?
A. Handy was struggling to compose music.
A. They imitate the religious lyrics of spirituals.
B. Handy was a popular composer.
B. They reflect both the good and difficult
C. Handy was just starting his publishing
times in life.
company.
C. They inspire honor and pride in citizens of
D. Handy's contributions were being
the United States.
overlooked.
D. They attempt to persuade people to support
specific political candidates.
26. According to the passage, when Handy was a
young child, his father expected him to grow up
to become a:
F. music conductor.
G. politician.
H. songwriter.
J.
minister.
30. According to the passage, what did Handy
believe about the market for blues music in
1941?
F. It was richer than that for other types of
music.
G. It was just beginning to gain momentum.
H. It had slightly declined.
J. It had disappeared.
END OF TEST 3
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
EXPLORE-05A 23
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
depth (m)
*mg/L = milligrams per liter
9 10 11 12
18

16 -
14

12 -

10 -

8 -
6 -'

4 -

2 -
0
0
Figure 2

100
e 90
80
on
70
60

50

al., 40

30

20
~~ 10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
depth (m)
Figure 3
TEST 4: SCIENCE TEST
30 Minutes 28 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are six passages in this test. Each passage is followed by
several questions. After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each question
and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer folder. You may refer to the passages
as often as necessary.
You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.
Passage I
Scientists studied how conditions in Lake A
change as the depth of the water changes. They col-
lected a sample of lake water at the lake's surface
(depth = 0 m) and at 1 m intervals below the lake's
surface. For each sample, the scientists determined
the concentration of phytoplankton (microscopic
organisms that use sunlight to make food) and the
concentration of dissolved oxygen (see Figures 1 and
2, respectively). The scientists also measured, at 1 m
intervals below the lake's surface, the percent of sun-
light that penetrated the water (see Figure 3).
.-
O

200,000
tcl 180,000 -1
;1. 3 160,000
140,000
O

2- 120,000 -
= 1 100,000 -
C.)
o 1EL 80,000
;; 60,000
ct
t 40,000 -
,
20,000 -
0
*L = liter
EXPLORE-05A 24

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
depth (m)
Figure 1
1. According to Figure 1, a Lake A water sample
collected between which of the following depths
will most likely contain the greatest concentra-
tion of phytoplankton?
A. 3 m and 4m
B. 5 m and 6m
C. 7 m and 8m
D. 9 m and 10 m
2. A scientist claimed that there was not enough
sunlight for the phytoplankton to survive at a
depth of 12 m. Does Figure 3 support this claim?
F. No, because at 12 m, the sunlight penetration
was 100%.
G. No, because at 12 m, the sunlight penetration
was 0%.
H. Yes, because at 12 m, the sunlight penetra-
tion was 100%.
J. Yes, because at 12 m, the sunlight penetra-
tion was 0%.
3. According to Figure 3, the greatest change in
sunlight penetration occurred over which of the
following ranges of depth?
A. From 0 m to 1 m
B. From 1 m to 2 m
C. From 3 m to 4 m
D. From 4 m to 5 m
4. According to Figures 2 and 3, the lake water had
a dissolved oxygen concentration of 8.5 mg/L
and a sunlight penetration of 23% at what depth?
F. 2m
G. 3 m
H. 4 m
J. 5 m
EXPLORE-05A

25 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

glass tank
with lid
lamp
black sand
4 5 6
time (min)
10 8 0
t
e
m
p
e
r
a
t
u
r
e

o
f

t
h
e

g
a
s

i
n

T
a
n
k

A

(

C
)

Passage II
Two studies were done in a lab to investigate
how the amount of carbon dioxide (CO2 ) in a volume
of gas affects the rate at which the temperature of the
gas increases.
Two identical glass tanks with airtight lids
(Tanks A and B) were opened, and the same quantity
of black sand was added to each. To heat the gas in
the tanks, a lamp with a 150-watt lightbulb was
placed at one end. A thermometer was set up at the
other end so that the bottom of the thermometer
would be in the gas and 5 cm above the top of the
sand (see diagram).
thermometer
diagram of setup for a tank
Study 1
The lid of Tank A was closed after the sand was
added. Five minutes (min) later, the temperature of
the gas in the tank was recorded. (The pressure of the
gas in the tank equaled atmospheric pressure.) Imme-
diately afterward, the lamp was turned on, and the
temperature of the gas in the tank, in degrees Celsius
(C), was recorded every 30 seconds (sec) for 10 min
The results are shown in Figure 1.
Study 2
The lid of Tank B was closed after the sand was
added. Through a tiny hole made in the lid, all the gas
that was present was removed from the tank and
replaced with 100% CO2 at atmospheric pressure.
Immediately after the CO2 was added, the hole was
sealed with an airtight material. Five min later, the
temperature of the gas in the tank was recorded.
Immediately afterward, the lamp was turned on, and
the temperature of the gas in the tank was recorded
every 30 sec for 10 min. The results are shown in
Figure 2. (Note: The light received by Tank B was of
the same brightness and at the same angle as the light
that had been received by Tank A.)
Figure 1
EXPLORE 05A 26 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
25.0-
24.0-
I
23.0
0
t
e
m
p
e
r
a
t
u
r
e

o
f

t
h
e

g
a
s

i
n

T
a
n
k
B

(

C
)

7
Figure 2
5. According to the results of Study 1, the tempera-
ture of the gas in Tank A at 0 min was:
A. 22.0C.
B. 22.5C.
C. 23.0C.
D. 23.5C.
6. According to the results of Studies 1 and 2, the
temperature of the gas in Tank A at 10 min was
most nearly the same as the temperature of the
gas in Tank B at:
F. 5 min.
G. 7 min.
H. 9 min.
J. 11 min.
7. The temperature of the gas in which tank
increased more quickly, and why?
A. Tank A, because the gas in that tank con-
tained less CO2 than did the gas in Tank B.
B. Tank A, because the gas in that tank con-
tained more CO2 than did the gas in Tank B.
C. Tank B, because the gas in that tank con-
tained less CO2 than did the gas in Tank A.
D. Tank B, because the gas in that tank con-
tained more CO2 than did the gas in Tank A.
8. Suppose that what occurred in Tanks A and B
after the lamps were turned on was intended to
model how the temperature of Earth's atmo-
sphere changes as the amount of CO2 in the air
changes. What would have been represented by
the black sand and what would have been repre-
sented by the lamp's light?
black sand

lamp's light
F. Earth's surface

Earth's atmosphere
G. Earth's surface

Sun's energy
H. Earth's atmosphere Earth's surface
J. Earth's atmosphere

Sun's energy
9. Were Studies 1 and 2, together, designed to deter-
mine if the brightness of light received by a
volume of gas affects the rate at which the tem-
perature of the gas increases?
A. No, because only Tank A had a light shining
on it.
B. No, because the brightness of light received
was the same for both tanks.
C. Yes, because only Tank B had a light shining
on it.
D. Yes, because the brightness of light received
was different for each tank.
EXPLORE-05A

27 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

K
E

(
J
)

o
r

G
P
E

(
J
)

100
90 -
80 -
70 -
60 -
50-
40-
30-
20 -
16
14
12:
10
8-
-
6 -
tu
4-
2-
0f,
0 0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4 1 6
time (sec)
Passage HI
A solid metal ball, initially at rest, was dropped
from a height of 10.0 m above the ground. The ball's
height, speed, gravitational potential energy (GPE),
and kinetic energy (KE) were determined as the ball
fell to the ground. Figure 1 shows how the ball's
height changed over time. Figure 2 shows how the
ball's speed, in meters per second (in/sec), changed
over time. Figure 3 shows how the ball's GPE and
KE, both measured in joules (J), changed over time.
0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4
time (sec)
Figure 3
16
0 0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2 1.4 1 6
time (sec)
Figure 1
Figure 2
10. Based on Figure 1, approximately how long did it
take for the ball to hit the ground?
F. 1.4 sec
G. 1.6 sec
H. 1.8 sec
J. 2.0 sec
11. According to Figure 3, at the moment the ball
was dropped, its GPE was closest to which of the
following?
A. 0
B. 50 3
C. 100 J
D. 150 3
EXPLORE-05A 28 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
12. Suppose that the sphere had been dropped from a
height of 10.0 m above the Moon's surface.
Based on Figure 2, 0.4 sec after the sphere was
released, its speed would have been:
F. less than 4 m/sec, because gravity on the
Moon is stronger than gravity on Earth.
G. less than 4 m/sec, because gravity on the
Moon is weaker than gravity on Earth.
H. greater than 4 m/sec, because gravity on the
Moon is stronger than gravity on Earth.
J. greater than 4 m/sec, because gravity on the
Moon is weaker than gravity on Earth.
13. Based on Figures 1 and 3, the ball's GPE and the
ball's KE were approximately equal when the
height of the ball was:
A. 0.0 m.
B. 1.0 m.
C. 5.0 m.
D. 10.0 m.
EXPLORE-05A

29
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
a
1-1
CID
c4-1
0
a)
; I
.0
5
a
4.)
5
O
cz t
900
800
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
large

medium

small
fruit size
*Sample was taken from the core to the fruit surface
at the fruit's largest diameter.
Figure 2
Table and figures adapted from Caixi Zhang et al., "The
Impact of Cell Division and Cell Enlargement on the Evolu-
tion of Fruit Siz e in Pyrus pyrifolia." 2006 by The Author.
5
large

medium

small
fruit size
*Sample was taken from the core to the fruit surface at
the fruit's largest diameter.
Passage IV
Fruit size in the pear P. pyrifolia is determined
by the number of cells that grow in the mesocarp
(edible portion of the fruit) during the period of cell
division (average number of days of active cell divi-
sion following pollination). Table 1 lists fruit size at
harvest, maturation period (average number of days
from pollination to harvest), period of cell division,
and average mass of the fresh fruit at harvest for
9 strains of P. pyrifolia (S1S9).
Table 1
Period Average
Maturation of cell fresh
P. pyrifolia Fruit period division mass
strain size (days) (days) (g)
S1 large 210 56 1,200
S2 large 190 53 860
S3 large 185 42 765
S4 medium 180 33 468
S5 medium 135 31 340
S6 medium 128 28 282
S7 small 120 27 186
S8 small 110 25 156
S9 small 105 23 147
The average number of cells in a mesocarp sample is
shown for each of the 3 fruit sizes at pollination (see
Figure 1) and at harvest (see Figure 2).
Figure 1
14. According to Table 1, on average, a fruit of
which P. pyrifolia strain will spend the least
amount of time on a tree from pollination to
harvest?
F.
G. S2
H. S4
J. S9
15. Based on Table 1, if a P. pyrifolia fruit were
found to have a fresh mass of 810 g at harvest,
would it more likely be sized as a small fruit or
as a large fruit?
A. Small, because 810 g falls between the aver-
age fresh mass of Si and the average fresh
mass of S3.
B. Small, because 810 g falls between the aver-
age fresh mass of S7 and the average fresh
mass of S9.
C. Large, because 810 g falls between the aver-
age fresh mass of Si and the average fresh
mass of S3.
D. Large, because 810 g falls between the aver-
age fresh mass of S7 and the average fresh
mass of S9.
EXPLORE-05A 30 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
16. According to Table 1 and Figure 2, do the P. pyri-
folia strains with the longest periods of cell divi-
sion have the greatest number of cells in the
mesocarp at harvest?
F. No; the large fruits have a greater number of
cells in the mesocarp at harvest than do
smaller fruits.
G. No; the small fruits have a greater number of
cells in the mesocarp at harvest than do
larger fruits.
H. Yes; the large fruits have a greater number of
cells in the mesocarp at harvest than do
smaller fruits.
J.
Yes; the small fruits have a greater number
of cells in the mesocarp at harvest than do
larger fruits.
17. Which of Figures 1 and 2, if either, shows for
P. pyrifolia the average number of cells in a
mesocarp sample before the period of cell
division?
A. Figure 1 only
B. Figure 2 only
C. Both Figure 1 and Figure 2
D. Neither Figure 1 nor Figure 2
EXPLORE-05A

31 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

Table 2
Plate
Nutrient
broth
(mL)
Sugar
solution
(mL)
S. mutans
culture
(mL)
Baking
soda
solution
(mL)
H202
solution
(mL)
W
X
Y
Z
1
1
1
1
none
0.5
0.5
0.5
0.5
0.5
0.5
0.5
none
none
0.5
none
none
none
none
0.5

35,000
30,000
25,000
20,000
15,000
10,000 -
5,000
0
0
Key
- Plate W
0-- Plate X
- Plate Y
a-- Plate Z
10 15 20 25 30 35
incubation time (hr)
n
u
m
b
e
r

o
f

b
a
c
t
e
r
i
a

Figure 1
Study 1
Five students (Students AE) chewed sterile
rubber bands for 5 minutes (min) without swallowing,
depositing their saliva in separate, sterile containers.
They added 20 milliliters (mL) of sterile test agar
(TA) to each of 7 test tubes. The TA contained sugar,
other nutrients necessary for the growth of only lacto-
bacilli, and the dye bromcresol green, which changes
from green (G) to yellow (Y) if the amount of acid
increases to a certain level. In addition, they added
sterile water, lactobacilli, or 0.2 mL of a student's
saliva to each tube. Finally, they incubated the tubes
at 37C, noting the color of the TA at 24, 48, and
72 hours (hr) of incubation (see Table 1). The higher
the concentration of lactobacilli in a student's saliva,
the more quickly the TA changed from green to
yellow.
Table 1
Tube
Contents Color at:
TA and: 24 hr 48 hr 72 hr
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
sterile water
lactobacilli
Student A saliva
Student B saliva
Student C saliva
Student D saliva
Student E saliva
G
Y
Y
G
G
G
G
G
Y
Y
Y
G
G
G
G
Y
Y
Y
G
Y
Y
Study 2
The students tested the effects of baking soda
and hydrogen peroxide (H2 02 ) on the growth of
S. mutans. They set up 4 growth plates, then added to
each plate 2 or more of the substances listed in
Table 2. Finally, they incubated the plates at 37C,
counting the number of bacteria present in each plate
every 5 hr for 30 hr (see Figure 1).
Table 2 and Figure 1 adapted from Kelly J. Silhacek and
Kristin R. Taake, "Sodium Bicarbonate and Hydrogen Per-
oxide: The Effect on the Growth of Streptococcus mutans."
2005 by The American Dental Hygienists' Association.
18. According to Table 2, in which of the following
ways did Plates X and Y differ in regard to what
was added to them?
F. Baking soda was not added to Plate X but
was added to Plate Y.
G. Baking soda was not added to Plate Y but
was added to Plate X.
H. H202 was not added to Plate X but was
added to Plate Y.
J. H202 was not added to Plate Y but was
added to Plate X.
Passage V
Tooth decay is caused by bacteria in the mouth
(such as lactobacilli and S. mutans) that turn sugars
into acid that dissolves tooth enamel. Two studies
involving these bacteria were performed.
32 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE. EXPLORE-05A
19. Based on the results of Study 2, mouthwash with
which of the following ingredients would best
prevent tooth decay?
A. Sugar
B. S. mutans
C. Baking soda
D. Nutrient broth
20. In Study 1, why did the students chew sterile
rubber bands for 5 min ?
F. To prevent the development of tooth decay
G. To encourage the growth of lactobacilli
H. To stimulate the flow of saliva
J. To increase the rate at which acid formed
21. In Study 1, the student whose saliva contained
the lowest concentration of lactobacilli was the
one whose TA was:
A. yellow at 24 hr and yellow at 48 hr.
B. green at 24 hr and yellow at 48 hr.
C. green at 48 hr and green at 72 hr.
11 green at 48 hr and yellow at 72 hr.
22. In Study 1, which of the following is the most
likely reason that the containers used to collect
the saliva needed to be sterile?
F. To avoid infecting the students with bacteria
from their own saliva
G. To collect bacteria from the surrounding
environment in addition to bacteria from the
students' saliva
H. To prevent unwanted bacteria from entering
the test tubes
J. To ensure proper mixing of the students'
saliva
EXPLORE-05A

33 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

27. The teacher repeated the demonstration, except
that the 100 g of tap water was boiled for 8 min.
Which of the following sets of values for the
final mass of the water in the beaker, in the origi-
nal demonstration and in the new demonstration,
is most consistent with Student 1's explanation?
original
demonstration
new
demonstration
A. 88 g

95 g
B. 95 g

88 g
C. 95 g

100 g
D. 100 g

100 g
Passage VI
A teacher placed a beaker containing 100 g of
tap water at room temperature on a heat source. After
8 minutes (min), the water began to boil. After 4 min
of boiling, the beaker was removed from the heat
source. The teacher then asked 4 students to explain
why bubbles formed in the water during boiling and
what was inside the bubbles. She also asked them to
predict whether the mass of the water in the beaker
changed over the 4 min of boiling.
Student 1
When a liquid is heated, it absorbs the heat,
causing its temperature to increase. A given amount
of a liquid can absorb only a certain amount of heat.
If additional heat is added, bubbles of heat will form
and exit the liquid. Therefore, the bubbles that formed
during the boiling contained heat only. Heat has no
mass, so the mass of the water did not change.
Student 2
Each water molecule is made up of 2 hydrogen
(H) atoms and 1 oxygen (0) atom. When water boils,
it splits apart into H atoms and 0 atoms. The free
H atoms bond to form H2 molecules and the free
0 atoms bond to form 0 2 molecules. The bubbles that
formed during the boiling contained H2 and 02 only.
Thus, the mass of the water decreased.
Student 3
Liquids normally contain some dissolved air. As
the temperature of a liquid increases, its ability to dis-
solve air decreases. When a liquid reaches its boiling
point, air bubbles will form and exit the liquid. There-
fore, the bubbles that formed during the boiling con-
tained air only. Air has no mass, so the mass of the
water did not change.
Student 4
When a liquid is heated to its boiling point, it
will start to change from a liquid to a gas. Bubbles of
gas form and escape the liquid. The bubbles that
formed during the boiling contained water vapor only.
Thus, the mass of the water decreased.
A. decreased.because air has mass.
B. decreased because H2 and 02 have mass.
C. increased because air has mass.
D. increased because H2 and 02 have mass.
24. Which of the students implied that the water
underwent only a change of state during boiling?
F. Student 1
G. Student 2
H. Student 3
J. Student 4
25. After the water was boiled for 4 min, the mass of
the water in the beaker was 94 g. This finding is
consistent with the explanations given by:
A. Students 1 and 2 only.
B. Students 1 and 3 only.
C. Students 2 and 3 only.
D. Students 2 and 4 only.
26. Which of the students implied that the water
underwent a chemical reaction during boiling?
F. Student 1
G. Student 2
H. Student 3
J. Student 4
23. Student 2 implied that, while the water boiled,
the mass of the water:
EXPLORE-05A 34 GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
28. Glycerin is a liquid with a boiling point of
182C. A 50 g sample of glycerin at 20C was
heated to 70C. No bubbles formed in the liquid,
and the mass of the sample at 70C was 50 g. Is
this result consistent or inconsistent with the
explanations given by Students 1 and 3 ?
Student 1
consistent
G. consistent
H. inconsistent
J. inconsistent
Student 3
consistent
inconsistent
consistent
inconsistent
END OF TEST 4
STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.
EXPLORE-05A

35
Directions
This booklet contains tests in English, Mathematics,
Reading, and Science. These tests measure
knowledge and skills related to performance in
many junior high and middle school classes and
your readiness for high school study.
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suggested answers for each question are lettered.
On the answer folder, the rows of ovals are
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each row are lettered to correspond to the
suggested answers.
For each question, first decide which answer is best.
Next, locate on the answer folder the row of ovals
numbered the same as the question. Then, locate
the oval in that row lettered the same as your
answer. Finally, fill in the oval completely. Use a soft
lead pencil and make your marks heavy and black.
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change your mind about an answer, erase your first
mark thoroughly before marking your new answer.
For each question, make certain that you mark in
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question.
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correctly during the time allowed for that test. You
will NOT lose credit for guessing. IT IS TO YOUR
ADVANTAGE TO ANSWER EVERY QUESTION
EVEN IF YOU MUST GUESS.
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v 1