Answers: TEST - 9 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series For Medical-2016

Test - 9 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

TEST - 9 (Code-A)
click here for code-B solutions
ANSWERS
Test Date : 03-04-2016

1.
(2)
37.
(2)
73.
(2)
109. (3)
145. (2)
2.
(3)
38.
(2)
74.
(3)
110. (4)
146. (1)
3.
(3)
39.
(4)
75.
(4)
111. (2)
147. (3)
4.
(3)
40.
(1)
76.
(4)
112. (1)
148. (2)
5.
(3)
41.
(4)
77.
(2)
113. (2)
149. (4)
6.
(4)
42.
(1)
78.
(4)
114. (1)
150. (3)
7.
(1)
43.
(3)
79.
(4)
115. (4)
151. (3)
8.
(3)
44.
(4)
80.
(4)
116. (2)
152. (1)
9.
(1)
45.
(1)
81.
(3)
117. (3)
153. (3)
10.
(2)
46.
(2)
82.
(3)
118. (4)
154. (4)
11.
(4)
47.
(1)
83.
(4)
119. (4)
155. (1)
12.
(1)
48.
(3)
84.
(4)
120. (2)
156. (2)
13.
(2)
49.
(4)
85.
(3)
121. (4)
157. (4)
14.
(3)
50.
(1)
86.
(1)
122. (2)
158. (4)
15.
(3)
51.
(3)
87.
(4)
123. (4)
159. (3)
16.
(4)
52.
(4)
88.
(4)
124. (2)
160. (3)
17.
(3)
53.
(3)
89.
(4)
125. (4)
161. (2)
18.
(3)
54.
(2)
90.
(3)
126. (3)
162. (4)
19.
(2)
55.
(2)
91.
(3)
127. (3)
163. (3)
20.
(2)
56.
(2)
92.
(1)
128. (2)
164. (2)
21.
(1)
57.
(4)
93.
(4)
129. (1)
165. (1)
22.
(4)
58.
(2)
94.
(3)
130. (3)
166. (4)
23.
(1)
59.
(1)
95.
(3)
131. (4)
167. (2)
24.
(2)
60.
(1)
96.
(2)
132. (2)
168. (2)
25.
(1)
61.
(2)
97.
(3)
133. (3)
169. (2)
26.
(4)
62.
(4)
98.
(2)
134. (3)
170. (3)
27.
(2)
63.
(3)
99.
(1)
135. (2)
171. (3)
28.
(2)
64.
(3)
100. (3)
136. (1)
172. (1)
29.
(1)
65.
(2)
101. (3)
137. (3)
173. (2)
30.
(3)
66.
(3)
102. (2)
138. (3)
174. (1)
31.
(3)
67.
(1)
103. (3)
139. (1)
175. (1)
32.
(4)
68.
(2)
104. (3)
140. (3)
176. (3)
33.
(2)
69.
(3)
105. (3)
141. (4)
177. (3)
34.
(2)
70.
(1)
106. (2)
142. (2)
178. (2)
35.
(1)
71.
(2)
107. (2)
143. (2)
179. (1)
36.
(4)
72.
(4)
108. (3)
144. (4)
180. (1)
1/9
Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1.
Answer (2)
2.
Answer (3)
R
8.
Answer (3)
A
cos
mg
R% = l % + 2r%
0.02
1
2
100
=
1
100
3.
Answer (3)
4.
Answer (3)
5.
vy = 2 m/s, tan =
vy
mg cos N
vx
9.
1 x2
g
= tan
2 v x2
qE cos
Answer (3)
Vpw
Vpg
qE
Vwg

Vpg sin

= Vwg
40 sin
= 20
Answer (1)
A
T2
30
B
2/9
u1 cos 37 u2 cos 53 i
u1 sin37 u2 sin53 j
30
u1 cos37 u2 cos53 0
4
3
u1 u2
5
5
mg
(T1)min where
N + q E cos
u2 cos 53 i u2 sin53 j
P will be the maximum height.
mg sin
V12 is uniform along y axis.

V12 = u1 cos 37 i u1 sin37 j
Answer (4)
90
10. Answer (2)
= 30
T1
N =0
N = mg cos+ q E sin
mg sin =
sin
sq E
mg co
T1
sin120
1
mv 2
2
mv 2
=
,
R
Answer (1)
Vwg
7.
Between A and B
6.
mg sin
mg(R R cos) + 0 =
vx = 1 m/s
PQ
r 2
Mg
sin(60 )
sin (60 +) = 1
4 u1 3 u2
11. Answer (4)

12. Answer (1)

13. Answer (2)
26. Answer (4)
14. Answer (3)
0 693
2.3
64 N0
log
10
t
N0
15. Answer (3)

C
= Cv
K
T
R
, PVn = constant
u 1
PV
constant
P2 V = K
1
2
PV
27. Answer (2)

28. Answer (2)
h
3 kTm
29. Answer (1)

30. Answer (3)
= K
N
16. Answer (4)

mV0 = 2m v
1
(2m )v 2 =
2
1
K x2
2
S
17. Answer (3)

18. Answer (3)
A1V1 = A2V2
19. Answer (2)
V Vw Vo
f'f
V Vw Vs
20. Answer (2)
21. Answer (1)
22. Answer (4)

Pi mv i

v
Pi m
j mv
3

Pi Pf
23. Answer (1)
5 10i = 2 + i x = 4
24. Answer (2)
M = NiA
M = m x my
31. Answer (3)
32. Answer (4)
33. Answer (2)
1 2
5 12 106 120 12 10 6
2
1 2
5 12 106 Heat
2
200 100 50
2 2 2
Vrms
34. Answer (2)
I
f
f
0
1.5 1
u f
I
1
.5
2
I 4 cm
35. Answer (1)

36. Answer (4)
25. Answer (1)
YY
eV =
1 2
m v u2
2
37. Answer (2)

No. of fission =
103
200 1.6 103
3/9
38. Answer (2)
44. Answer (4)
39. Answer (4)
fo + fe
S1 + S2 = 0
= 60
fo + fe+10 = Vo + fe
( 1) A1 + ( 1) A2 = 0
Vo
40. Answer (1)
= 65, fo = 55
1
1
Vo uo
41. Answer (4)

42. Answer (1)
1
= f
o
45. Answer (1)
43. Answer (3)
ray is E.M. radiation
E=BC
[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (2)
54. Answer (2)
Number of gram equivalents of oxygen = number of

gram equivalents of aluminium
55. Answer (2)
1.35
9
A+ B B
= Gp G R
w = 1.2 g
47. Answer (1)
= 500 [ 100 ( 200)]
Basicity of H3PO2 is one
= 500 + 300
48. Answer (3)
= 200
1
1
1
R 2 2 (Z )2
n1 n2
1
1 2
1
R 2
(2)
(4)2
(2)
Divide and multiply by (4)2

1
1 2
1
R 2
(4)
(8)2
(4)
49. Answer (4)

50. Answer (1)
51. Answer (3)
52. Answer (4)

FBeF
53. Answer (3)
Vc = 3 b
4/9
= 2.303 RT Log Ke
200000 = 2.303 8.31 T log 103

T = 3483.4 K
56. Answer (2)
Kp and total pressure remain constant
57. Answer (4)
+7
5 I + Mn
MnO4 + 5I
2
2
2+
58. Answer (2)
Cr belongs to
6th
group
Fact
59. Answer (1)
sp
60. Answer (1)
COOH
COOH
Conc. H2SO4
w
8
1 mole NaOH + 1 mole HF give 68 kJ/mole
CO + CO2 + H2O
61. Answer (2)

62. Answer (4)
Correct according to IUPAC rules

63. Answer (3)

73. Answer (2)
O
will not show tautomerism
= 100 m
P
P A
100 1
XB
700 7
Tb = K b m
64. Answer (3)

It is dissymmetric
1000
XB
= Kb
1
X
MA
B
65. Answer (2)

Acidic character I
7
1000
= 10
167
1 1
1
66. Answer (3)

Fact
67. Answer (1)
= 10 K
is aromatic
74. Answer (3)
68. Answer (2)
FeCl3 + NaSCN
Fe(SCN)3 +NaCl
Ered Ered
Blood red
PCl 2
0.059
log
n
Cl 2 .
75. Answer (4)
69. Answer (3)
For zero order reaction

CH3
CH3 CH CH CH3 , the total reactivity.
Cl
is 2 3.8 = 7.6 for 2 - carbon atom

70. Answer (1)
CH3 C = CH 2
CH3
O3
Zn/H2O
t1 + t2 + t3 = 10 + 5 + 2.5 = 17.5 s.
76. Answer (4)
Argyrol is Ag sol (ve)
77. Answer (2)
Ag2S 4NaCN 2Na[Ag(CN)2 ] Na2S .

CH3 C = O + HCHO
CH3
71. Answer (2)
78. Answer (4)

Ionic PCl5 is [ PCl4 ]+ [ PCl6 ]
79. Answer (4)
SO2 is reducing agent

72. Answer (4)
Fact
80. Answer (4)
All are correct
81. Answer (3)

Fe3+ has d 5 system
B
D
82. Answer (3)

Ionization and linkage both isomerism are possible.
AB =
a
2
, AD =
3
2a , AC a 2
83. Answer (4)

C6H5Cl has partial double bond character.
5/9
84. Answer (4)
88. Answer (4)
Fact
CH2 = C CH = CH2
NO
NOH
CH2 = C CH = CH2
Cl
Chloroprene
89. Answer (4)
A is CH3 C CH3 CH 3 CH CH 3
2- Nitrosopropane
Oxime
and
CH3
Isoprene
85. Answer (3)
MgCO3 and Al(OH)3 are antacid.

90. Answer (3)
86. Answer (1)

CH 3 CH 2 CH2 CH2 COOH
HNO2
CH3CH2 CH2CH2NH2
HN3
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 NH2
OH
O
CH3 CH2CH2CH2OH
HCl
OH
+ NaOH + CHCl3
Conc.
H2SO4
443 K
CHCl2
NaOH
OH
C=O
O
H
87. Answer (4)

Br2 (aq) forms saccharic acid from glucose but not
from fructose.
In this reaction electrophile is CCl2
[ BIOLOGY ]
96. Answer (2)
91. Answer (3)
ttRr
C
X X aa
XYaa
tR
Xa
Xa
XX aa
X Yaa
92. Answer (1)

n
20
Caruncle (2n) = 40
tube nucleus (n) = 20
PEC (3n) = 60
Nucellus (2n) = 40
TTRR
TR
tr
Ya
TtRR
(Tall-Red)
TtRr
(Tall-Pink)
97. Answer (3)

Oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria.
98. Answer (2)
Diapause is a stage of suspended development.
99. Answer (1)
Dry to mesic conditions.
100. Answer (3)
23 S rRNA.
93. Answer (4)

Zea mays C4 plant
94. Answer (3)
Collenchyma
95. Answer (3)
Insectivorous plants
6/9
101. Answer (3)

Hypogynous and perigynous flowers.
102. Answer (2)
(b) Metaphase I
(d) Anaphase I
(a) Anaphase II

103. Answer (3)
Largest tiger reserve.
104. Answer (3)
Parietal placentation
105. Answer (3)
106. Answer (2)
80 dB
107. Answer (2)
Autosomal dominant trait
108. Answer (3)
Pyruvate act as oxidant in lactic acid fermentation.
109. Answer (3)
ER, golgi body, lysosomes and vacuoles in
endomembrane system.
110. Answer (4)
LDP.
111. Answer (2)
Secondary phloem is developed on outer side of
vascular cambium.
112. Answer (1)
Ethylene
113. Answer (2)
Fucus Brown algae
Polysiphonia Red algae
114. Answer (1)
CMP-11, 2015, Paris.
115. Answer (4)
Dorsiventral thalloid gametophyte in liverworts.
116. Answer (2)
Nucleosomes in eukaryotes.
117. Answer (3)
Diatoms.
118. Answer (4)
(a) Gases (b) Bacteria, fungi (c) Public transport
119. Answer (4)
Viroid is naked RNA.
120. Answer (2)

121. Answer (4)
Ulothrix, Spirogyra cellulosic wall.
122. Answer (2)
Hydrophyte.
123. Answer (4)
Axillary buds.
124. Answer (2)
Consciousness.
125. Answer (4)
Functionally similar.
126. Answer (3)
Night and early morning when absorption is high.
127. Answer (3)
Pericarp, placenta and thalamus are edible in guava.
128. Answer (2)
129. Answer (1)
130. Answer (3)
131. Answer (4)
Fungi, bacteria and cyanobacteria in organic farming
132. Answer (2)
PEG and NaNO3
133. Answer (3)
ETC and oxidative phosphorylation.
134. Answer (3)
Albugo candida is parasite on mustard.
135. Answer (2)
Haplo-diplontic.
136. Answer (1)
The first digit in E.C. indicates the class of the
enzyme and hence the mode of its activity.
137. Answer (3)
Proton pump inhibition results in reduced HCl
release.
138. Answer (3)
Thymosine is a hormone from thymus gland.
139. Answer (1)
Regression of corpus luteum is triggered by reduced
level of LH of secretory phase.
7/9

140. Answer (3)
The first haploid cells in testes are secondary
spermatocytes while in ovaries are secondary
oocyte and first polar body.
141. Answer (4)
Annelids generally have closed circulatory system.
142. Answer (2)
Mitochondrial DNA from Africans populations has
maximum variations through mutations.
143. Answer (2)
Elytra are mesothoracic wings. Two pairs of thoracic
and eight pairs of abdominal spiracles are present in
cockroach. Unjointed anal styles are found only in
male cockroaches.
144. Answer (4)
Urethra has pseudostratified non-ciliated epithelium
while all other parts have transitional epithelium.
145. Answer (2)
Haem is the prosthetic group and it is a part of the
active site of enzyme.
146. Answer (1)
Lens and cornea, both are easily transplantable due
to avascular nature.
147. Answer (3)
Male amphibians have copulatory pads on first digit
of forelimbs.
148. Answer (2)
GIFT Gametic Intrafallopian Transfer.
149. Answer (4)
Vector mediated gene transfer is indirect method of
gene transfer.
150. Answer (3)
Dystrophy is a genetic disorder, characterized by
lack of dystrophin protein.
151. Answer (3)
HIV reduces number of helper T cells by destroying
them.
152. Answer (1)
Frequency of recessive allele (q) = 0.3
So, frequency of dominant allele (p) = 0.7
Hence frequency of heterozygotes (2 pq) = 0.42
8/9

153. Answer (3)
AB positive blood group is a universal recipient due
to absence of agglutinins/antibodies.
154. Answer (4)
Interferons are secreted by virally infected cells and
other cells of the body to protect the non-infected
cells.
155. Answer (1)
Autonomic neurons in submucosa (meissners
plexus) and muscularis externa (auerbachs plexus)
control the muscles of gut wall.
156. Answer (2)
Melatonin hormone from pineal gland sets up the
biological clock of the body.
157. Answer (4)
Ca2+ ions trigger the exocytosis of synaptic vesicles
from synaptic knots.
158. Answer (4)
Deglutition is a voluntary process in which uvula
prevents the food from rising up in the nasopharynx
and epiglottis prevents the food entry in glottis
159. Answer (3)
Annelids and arthropods are metamerically
segmented schizocoelomates.
160. Answer (3)
Macroglia are ectodermal in origin.
161. Answer (2)
Malpighian tubules are located at the junction of
midgut and hindgut.
Pharyngeal glands of cockroach have four secretory
parts and two receptacles.
162. Answer (4)
Hemidesmosomes connect the cells to their
basement membranes.
163. Answer (3)
164. Answer (2)
Charge and size both play an important role in
separation of DNA fragments.
165. Answer (1)
Synarthrose/fibrous joints are completely immovable
joints.
166. Answer (4)
174. Answer (1)
167. Answer (2)
Dehydration triggers on RAAS and enhanced tubular

reabsorption of Na+ ions.
Ca2+ ions are involved in blood clotting.

168. Answer (2)
175. Answer (1)
Syphilis is curable in primary stage and its chancres

are painless.
Outcrossing is mating of animals of same breed but

not having any common ancestors for at least 46
generations, introducing variations but not causing
drastic changes.
169. Answer (2)

Insertionally inactivated lac z gene results in failure
to utilize Xgal by recombinant bacteria, which fail
to produce blue color, hence appearing white.
176. Answer (3)
170. Answer (3)
Corpora allata produce juvenile hormone.
171. Answer (3)
177. Answer (3)
Dissociation of oxygen from (Hb) causes a right

shift in the curve.
172. Answer (1)
Ringworms are fungal infections.

178. Answer (2)
Secondary/anamnestic response is always vigorous

due to memory cells.
179. Answer (1)

180. Answer (1)
173. Answer (2)

Earliest autotrophs were chemoautotrophs and were
anoxygenic.
Retroviruses are used as ideal cloning vectors for

eukaryotic host cells.

9/9
Test - 9 (Code B) (Answers & Hints)

click here for code-A solutions
TEST - 9 (Code-B)
ANSWERS
Test Date : 03-04-2016

1.
(3)
37.
(3)
73.
(1)
109. (1)
145. (1)
2.
(2)
38.
(1)
74.
(2)
110. (4)
146. (1)
3.
(1)
39.
(3)
75.
(2)
111. (2)
147. (2)
4.
(3)
40.
(2)
76.
(3)
112. (3)
148. (4)
5.
(2)
41.
(1)
77.
(1)
113. (4)
149. (4)
6.
(3)
42.
(1)
78.
(4)
114. (3)
150. (2)
7.
(2)
43.
(1)
79.
(2)
115. (4)
151. (3)
8.
(4)
44.
(1)
80.
(4)
116. (2)
152. (4)
9.
(4)
45.
(4)
81.
(4)
117. (1)
153. (1)
10.
(2)
46.
(1)
82.
(4)
118. (1)
154. (2)
11.
(3)
47.
(4)
83.
(1)
119. (4)
155. (2)
12.
(4)
48.
(4)
84.
(2)
120. (4)
156. (1)
13.
(4)
49.
(2)
85.
(1)
121. (1)
157. (1)
14.
(4)
50.
(3)
86.
(3)
122. (1)
158. (2)
15.
(1)
51.
(1)
87.
(2)
123. (1)
159. (2)
16.
(1)
52.
(4)
88.
(1)
124. (4)
160. (4)
17.
(3)
53.
(2)
89.
(3)
125. (1)
161. (3)
18.
(4)
54.
(1)
90.
(4)
126. (3)
162. (2)
19.
(4)
55.
(1)
91.
(4)
127. (3)
163. (3)
20.
(2)
56.
(4)
92.
(1)
128. (4)
164. (3)
21.
(3)
57.
(2)
93.
(1)
129. (1)
165. (1)
22.
(4)
58.
(2)
94.
(4)
130. (4)
166. (1)
23.
(3)
59.
(4)
95.
(2)
131. (1)
167. (2)
24.
(2)
60.
(2)
96.
(3)
132. (1)
168. (4)
25.
(3)
61.
(2)
97.
(3)
133. (2)
169. (1)
26.
(4)
62.
(1)
98.
(4)
134. (3)
170. (1)
27.
(4)
63.
(4)
99.
(1)
135. (1)
171. (4)
28.
(1)
64.
(4)
100. (1)
136. (3)
172. (2)
29.
(1)
65.
(4)
101. (2)
137. (3)
173. (4)
30.
(2)
66.
(3)
102. (4)
138. (4)
174. (4)
31.
(1)
67.
(1)
103. (2)
139. (1)
175. (2)
32.
(1)
68.
(4)
104. (4)
140. (1)
176. (1)
33.
(4)
69.
(3)
105. (2)
141. (3)
177. (3)
34.
(3)
70.
(1)
106. (4)
142. (1)
178. (1)
35.
(2)
71.
(4)
107. (2)
143. (4)
179. (1)
36.
(4)
72.
(1)
108. (2)
144. (3)
180. (3)
1/9
Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1.
2.
Answer (3)
14. Answer (4)
E=BC
15. Answer (1)
Answer (2)
16. Answer (1)
fo + fe
= 60
N
fo + fe+10 = Vo + fe
Vo
= 65, fo = 55
1
1
Vo uo
3.
YY
W
1
= f
o
Answer (1)
ray is E.M. radiation
M = NiA
4.
Answer (3)
M = m x my
5.
Answer (2)
17. Answer (3)
6.
Answer (3)
18. Answer (4)
7.
Answer (2)
S1 + S2 = 0
( 1) A1 + ( 1) A2 = 0
h
3 kTm
8.
Answer (4)
19. Answer (4)
9.
Answer (4)
20. Answer (2)
No. of fission =
103
200 1.6 103
0 693
2.3
64 N0
log
10
t
N0
10. Answer (2)

eV =
21. Answer (3)
1 2
m v u2
2
1 2
5 12 106 120 12 106
2
11. Answer (3)

=
12. Answer (4)

I
f
f
0
uf
1.5 1
22. Answer (4)

23. Answer (3)
I
1
2
.5
5 10i = 2 + i x = 4
24. Answer (2)
I 4 cm
13. Answer (4)

Vrms
2/9
1 2
5 12 106 Heat
2
200 100 50
2 2 2

Pi mv i

v
Pi m
j mv
3

Pi Pf

4
3
u1 u2
5
5
25. Answer (3)

26. Answer (4)
27. Answer (4)
4 u1 3 u2
V Vw Vo
f'f
V Vw Vs
37. Answer (3)
qE cos
28. Answer (1)

A1V1 = A2V2
qE
29. Answer (1)
mg sin
sin
sq E
mg co
30. Answer (2)

mV0 = 2m v
N = mg cos+ q E sin
1
(2m )v 2 =
2
1
K x2
2
N + q E cos
mg sin =
38. Answer (1)
31. Answer (1)

A
K
T
R
, PVn = constant
u 1
= Cv
cos
mg
PV
constant
mg sin
Between A and B
P2 V = K
1
PV 2 = K
mg(R R cos) + 0 =
1
mv 2
2
mg cos N
mv 2
,
R
32. Answer (1)

33. Answer (4)
34. Answer (3)
T1
36. Answer (4)
T2
90
V12 is uniform along y axis.
30
B
mg
=
N =0
39. Answer (3)
35. Answer (2)

V12 =
u1 cos 37 u2 cos 53 i
u1 sin37 u2 sin53 j
T1
sin120
(T1)min where
Mg
sin(60 )
sin (60 +) = 1
30
40. Answer (2)
u1 cos37 u2 cos53 0
P will be the maximum height.
3/9
41. Answer (1)

y
= tan
Vwg
Vpw
Vpg

Vpg sin
43. Answer (1)

E
Vwg
44. Answer (1)

= Vwg
PQ
r 2
R% = l % + 2r%
40 sin
= 20
= 30
42. Answer (1)
vx = 1 m/s
1 x2
g
2 v x2
vy = 2 m/s, tan =
0.02
1
2
100
=
1
100
vy
vx
45. Answer (4)
[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (1)
51. Answer (1)
OH
O
OH
+ NaOH + CHCl3
NOH
NO
A is CH3 C CH3 CH 3 CH CH 3
CHCl2
Oxime
2- Nitrosopropane
52. Answer (4)
NaOH
OH
C=O
O
H
Fact
53. Answer (2)
C6H5Cl has partial double bond character.
In this reaction electrophile is CCl2
54. Answer (1)
47. Answer (4)
Ionization and linkage both isomerism are possible.
MgCO3 and Al(OH)3 are antacid.
55. Answer (1)
48. Answer (4)
Fe3+ has d 5 system
CH2 = C CH = CH2
and
CH2 = C CH = CH2
Cl
Chloroprene
CH3
Isoprene
56. Answer (4)

All are correct
57. Answer (2)
49. Answer (2)

Br2 (aq) forms saccharic acid from glucose but not
from fructose.
50. Answer (3)
Fact
58. Answer (2)
Ionic PCl5 is [ PCl4 ]+ [ PCl6 ]
CH 3 CH 2 CH2 CH2 COOH

HNO2
CH3CH2 CH2CH2NH2
HCl
HN3
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 NH2
CH3 CH2CH2CH2OH
Conc.
H2SO4
443 K
59. Answer (4)
Ag2S 4NaCN 2Na[Ag(CN)2 ] Na2S .

60. Answer (2)
Argyrol is Ag sol (ve)
4/9

61. Answer (2)

67. Answer (1)
For zero order reaction
CH3
t1 + t2 + t3 = 10 + 5 + 2.5 = 17.5 s.
CH3 CH CH CH3 , the total reactivity.

Cl
62. Answer (1)
PCl 2
0.059
log
n
Cl 2 .
Ered Ered
is 2 3.8 = 7.6 for 2 - carbon atom

68. Answer (4)
FeCl3 + NaSCN
63. Answer (4)

P
= 100 m
P
P A
Fe(SCN)3 +NaCl
Blood red
69. Answer (3)
100 1
XB
700 7
is aromatic
Tb = K b m
70. Answer (1)

Fact
1000
XB
= Kb
1 XB MA
1
7
1000
= 10
167
1 1
1
71. Answer (4)

Acidic character I
72. Answer (1)
It is dissymmetric
73. Answer (1)
= 10 K
will not show tautomerism
64. Answer (4)
O
74. Answer (2)
Correct according to IUPAC rules

B
76. Answer (3)
a
2
, AD =
3
2a , AC a 2
COOH
COOH
Conc. H2SO4
AB =
75. Answer (2)
CO + CO2 + H2O
77. Answer (1)
65. Answer (4)
78. Answer (4)
SO2 is reducing agent
Fact
66. Answer (3)

79. Answer (2)
CH3 C = CH 2
CH3
O3
Zn/H2O
CH3 C = O + HCHO
CH3
+7
5 I + Mn
MnO4 + 5I
2
2
2+
5/9
80. Answer (4)
86. Answer (3)

Cr belongs to 6th group
Kp and total pressure remain constant

81. Answer (4)
87. Answer (2)
A+ B B
88. Answer (1)
= Gp G R
1
1
1
R 2 2 (Z )2
n1 n2
= 500 [ 100 ( 200)]

= 500 + 300
= 200
1
1 2
1
R 2
(2)
(4)2
(2)
= 2.303 RT Log Ke
Divide and multiply by (4)2
200000 = 2.303 8.31 T log 103

T = 3483.4 K
1
1 2
1
R 2
(4)
2
(4)
(8)
82. Answer (4)

1 mole NaOH + 1 mole HF give 68 kJ/mole
89. Answer (3)
83. Answer (1)
Basicity of H3PO2 is one
Vc = 3b
90. Answer (4)
84. Answer (2)
Number of gram equivalents of oxygen = number of

gram equivalents of aluminium
FBeF
85. Answer (1)
O
sp
w
8
1.35
9
w = 1.2 g
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Answer (4)
Haplo-diplontic.
92. Answer (1)
Albugo candida is parasite on mustard.
93. Answer (1)
ETC and oxidative phosphorylation.
94. Answer (4)
PEG and NaNO3
95. Answer (2)
Fungi, bacteria and cyanobacteria in organic farming
96. Answer (3)
97. Answer (3)
100. Answer (1)

Night and early morning when absorption is high.
101. Answer (2)
Functionally similar.
102. Answer (4)
Consciousness.
103. Answer (2)
Axillary buds.
104. Answer (4)
Hydrophyte.
105. Answer (2)
Ulothrix, Spirogyra cellulosic wall.
98. Answer (4)
106. Answer (4)
99. Answer (1)
107. Answer (2)
Pericarp, placenta and thalamus are edible in guava.
6/9
Viroid is naked RNA.

108. Answer (2)
(a) Gases (b) Bacteria, fungi (c) Public transport
109. Answer (1)
Diatoms.
110. Answer (4)
Nucleosomes in eukaryotes.
111. Answer (2)
Dorsiventral thalloid gametophyte in liverworts.
112. Answer (3)
CMP-11, 2015, Paris.
113. Answer (4)

125. Answer (1)
Hypogynous and perigynous flowers.
126. Answer (3)
23 S rRNA.
127. Answer (3)
Dry to mesic conditions.
128. Answer (4)
Diapause is a stage of suspended development.
129. Answer (1)
Oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria.
130. Answer (4)
ttRr
Fucus Brown algae

Polysiphonia Red algae
tR
TTRR
TR
tr
114. Answer (3)

Ethylene
115. Answer (4)
Secondary phloem is developed on outer side of
vascular cambium.
116. Answer (2)
LDP.
117. Answer (1)
ER, golgi body, lysosomes and vacuoles in
endomembrane system.
118. Answer (1)
Pyruvate act as oxidant in lactic acid fermentation.
119. Answer (4)
Autosomal dominant trait
120. Answer (4)
80 dB
TtRR
(Tall-Red)
TtRr
(Tall-Pink)
131. Answer (1)

Insectivorous plants
132. Answer (1)
Collenchyma
133. Answer (2)
Zea mays C4 plant
134. Answer (3)
n = 20
Caruncle (2n) = 40
tube nucleus (n) = 20
PEC (3n) = 60
Nucellus (2n) = 40
135. Answer (1)
121. Answer (1)

122. Answer (1)
Parietal placentation
123. Answer (1)
Largest tiger reserve.
124. Answer (4)
(b) Metaphase I
(d) Anaphase I
(a) Anaphase II
XCXCaa
Xa
XYaa
Xa
Ya
XX aa
X Yaa
136. Answer (3)

Retroviruses are used as ideal cloning vectors for
eukaryotic host cells.
7/9
137. Answer (3)
153. Answer (1)
138. Answer (4)
154. Answer (2)
139. Answer (1)

Ringworms are fungal infections.
140. Answer (1)
Corpora allata produce juvenile hormone.
141. Answer (3)
Outcrossing is mating of animals of same breed but
not having any common ancestors for at least 46
generations, introducing variations but not causing
drastic changes.
142. Answer (1)
Dehydration triggers on RAAS and enhanced tubular
reabsorption of Na+ ions.
143. Answer (4)
Earliest autotrophs were chemoautotrophs and were
anoxygenic.
144. Answer (3)
Secondary/anamnestic response is always vigorous
due to memory cells.
145. Answer (1)
Dissociation of oxygen from (Hb) causes a right
shift in the curve.
146. Answer (1)
147. Answer (2)
Insertionally inactivated lac z gene results in failure
to utilize Xgal by recombinant bacteria, which fail
to produce blue color, hence appearing white.
148. Answer (4)
Syphilis is curable in primary stage and its chancres
are painless.
149. Answer (4)
Ca2+ ions are involved in blood clotting.
150. Answer (2)
151. Answer (3)
Synarthrose/fibrous joints are completely immovable
joints.
152. Answer (4)
Charge and size both play an important role in
separation of DNA fragments.
8/9
Hemidesmosomes connect the cells to their

basement membranes.
155. Answer (2)
Malpighian tubules are located at the junction of
midgut and hindgut.
Pharyngeal glands of cockroach have four secretory
parts and two receptacles.
156. Answer (1)
Macroglia are ectodermal in origin.
157. Answer (1)
Annelids and arthropods are metamerically
segmented schizocoelomates.
158. Answer (2)
Deglutition is a voluntary process in which uvula
prevents the food from rising up in the nasopharynx
and epiglottis prevents the food entry in glottis
159. Answer (2)
Ca2+ ions trigger the exocytosis of synaptic vesicles
from synaptic knots.
160. Answer (4)
Melatonin hormone from pineal gland sets up the
biological clock of the body.
161. Answer (3)
Autonomic neurons in submucosa (meissners
plexus) and muscularis externa (auerbachs plexus)
control the muscles of gut wall.
162. Answer (2)
Interferons are secreted by virally infected cells and
other cells of the body to protect the non-infected
cells.
163. Answer (3)
AB positive blood group is a universal recipient due
to absence of agglutinins/antibodies.
164. Answer (3)
Frequency of recessive allele (q) = 0.3
So, frequency of dominant allele (p) = 0.7
Hence frequency of heterozygotes (2 pq) = 0.42
165. Answer (1)
173. Answer (4)
HIV reduces number of helper T cells by destroying

them.
Elytra are mesothoracic wings. Two pairs of thoracic

and eight pairs of abdominal spiracles are present in
cockroach. Unjointed anal styles are found only in
male cockroaches.
166. Answer (1)

Dystrophy is a genetic disorder, characterized by
lack of dystrophin protein.
174. Answer (4)

Mitochondrial DNA from Africans populations has
maximum variations through mutations.
167. Answer (2)

Vector mediated gene transfer is indirect method of
gene transfer.
168. Answer (4)
175. Answer (2)

Annelids generally have closed circulatory system.
176. Answer (1)
GIFT Gametic Intrafallopian Transfer.
The first haploid cells in testes are secondary

spermatocytes while in ovaries are secondary
oocyte and first polar body.
169. Answer (1)

Male amphibians have copulatory pads on first digit
of forelimbs.
177. Answer (3)

Regression of corpus luteum is triggered by reduced
level of LH of secretory phase.
170. Answer (1)

Lens and cornea, both are easily transplantable due
to avascular nature.
171. Answer (4)
178. Answer (1)

Thymosine is a hormone from thymus gland.
179. Answer (1)
Haem is the prosthetic group and it is a part of the

active site of enzyme.
172. Answer (2)
Proton pump inhibition results in reduced HCl

release.
180. Answer (3)
Urethra has pseudostratified non-ciliated epithelium

while all other parts have transitional epithelium.
The first digit in E.C. indicates the class of the

enzyme and hence the mode of its activity.

9/9

Answers: TEST - 9 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series For Medical-2016

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Answers: TEST - 9 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series For Medical-2016

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Answers: TEST - 9 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series For Medical-2016

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Test - 9 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

click here for code-B solutions

Test Date : 03-04-2016

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

Test - 9 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

Hints to Selected Questions

P will be the maximum height.

V12 is uniform along y axis.

V12 = u1 cos 37 i u1 sin37 j

10. Answer (2)

11. Answer (4)

Test - 9 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

26. Answer (4)

14. Answer (3)

15. Answer (3)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

27. Answer (2)

29. Answer (1)

16. Answer (4)

17. Answer (3)

34. Answer (2)

35. Answer (1)

25. Answer (1)

37. Answer (2)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

Test - 9 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

38. Answer (2)

44. Answer (4)

39. Answer (4)

40. Answer (1)

41. Answer (4)

45. Answer (1)

43. Answer (3)

ray is E.M. radiation

54. Answer (2)

Number of gram equivalents of oxygen = number of

55. Answer (2)

47. Answer (1)

= 500 [ 100 ( 200)]

Basicity of H3PO2 is one

48. Answer (3)

Divide and multiply by (4)2

49. Answer (4)

51. Answer (3)

52. Answer (4)

200000 = 2.303 8.31 T log 103

58. Answer (2)

60. Answer (1)

1 mole NaOH + 1 mole HF give 68 kJ/mole

61. Answer (2)

Test - 9 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016

64. Answer (3)

65. Answer (2)

66. Answer (3)

75. Answer (4)