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1) The midbrain is derived from which embryological structure? - Prosencephalon - Metencephalon - Myelencephalon Correct answer: Mesencephalon
2) The embryological metencephalon evenentually forms which two structures? - Pons and Midbrain - Cerebellum only - Medulla and Cerebellum Correct answer: Pons and Cerebellum
3) Which of the following is a SECONDARY BRAIN VESICLE? - Prosencephalon - Rhombencephalon - Mesencephalon Correct answer: Telencephalon
5) Which of the following is not true about dural venous sinuses? - They drain venous blood from the brain, delivering it to the internal jugular veins - They are bound by the two layers of dura mater - They are not found in the spinal cord Correct answer: They contain circulating CSF
6) Which of the following best describes the tentorium cerebelli - It is a fold of dura mater separating the cerebellum from the brainstem - It is a fold of arachnoid mater separating the cerebellum from the brainstem - It is a fold of arachnoid mater separating the cerebrum from the cerebellum Correct answer: It is a fold of dura mater separating the cerebrum from the cerebellum
7) The septum pelludicum separates - The fourth and third ventricles - The upper and lower portions of the fourth ventricle - The central canal from the median aperture Correct answer: The lateral ventricles
8) Which ventricle is located centrally within the brain, superior to the hypothalamus - Second - Third
9) What is the purpose of the choroid plexuses? - Reuptake of CSF - Formation of the blood brain brarrier - Drainage of venous blood from the brain Correct answer: Production of CSF
10) CSF is only produced in the lateral ventricles - TRUE Correct answer: FALSE
11) The cerebral aqueduct links which spaces? - The lateral ventricles to each other - The lateral ventricles to the third ventricle - The fourth ventricle to the subarachnoid space Correct answer: The third ventricle to the fourth ventricle
12) Which of the following is NOT true about the pyramids of the medulla? - They contain motor fibres only - They are composed of fibres extending from the cerebrum to the spinal cord - They are located on the anterior aspect of the medulla Correct answer: Its fibres control involuntary movements of the limbs
13) The cardiovascular centre and respiratory centre are nuclei located in/on
- the pons - the hypothalamus - the cerebellum Correct answer: the medulla
14) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the Pons? - It is associated with Cranial Nerves V, Vi, VII and VIII - It contains the pneumotaxic area and apneustic area - It is a bridge / relay station connecting different parts of the brain with each other Correct answer: It contains sensory tracts only
15) Which of the following does NOT arise from the vertebral arteries? - Basilar - Posterior cerebral - Cerebellar arteries Correct answer: Middle cerebral
16) Which of the following statements is true - The superior colliculus is responsible for processing information from the vestibulocochlear nerve - The superior and inferior colliculi are found on the pons - The superior colliculi are found on the tegmentum, whereas the inferior colliculi are found on the tectum Correct answer: The superior and inferior colliculi are found dorsal to the ventricular system of the brain
17) What is the general term given to a tract connecting the two cerebral hemispheres? - Funiculi - Peduncle
18) Which of the following refers to a sheet of white matter fibres enclosing grey matter? - Fasiculus - Peduncle - Tract Correct answer: Capsule
19) Which lobe is involved in visiospatial localisation - Temporal - Occipital - Frontal Correct answer: Parietal
20) Which part of the brain is described as having a 'neuroendocrine' role? - Thalamus - Hippocampus - Basal ganglia Correct answer: Hypothalamus
21) What is the function of the hypothalamus - Relay station between spinal cord and cerebrum - Memory - Neuroendocrine Correct answer: Controls the autonomic nervous system
1) A patient with a lesion in the nose,granulomas n proteinuria,most likely lesion? A) Wegner's granulomatosis B) leprosy c) sarcoidosis D ) TB 2) Which one is precancerous lesion?A) cervical erosion B) leukoplakia C) heamarthrosis d) duodenal ulcer 3) cardiac muscle cannot be tetanized because it has a) action potential with plateau b) gap junctions C) long duration of contraction d) long refractory period e) automaticity 4) In anion gap calculation NA is multiplied by 2 causes A) AnionsB) other cations C) proteins 5) Which of the following bone is first to ossify ?A) sternumB) clavicleC) humerusD) femur 6) Anterior fontanela close at ? A) 6 - 12 monthsB) 12- 18 monthsC) 18- 24 monthsD) 24- 30 months 7) Following causes activation of Cyclic Amp mechanism ?A) protein pumpB) Ion channelsC) receptorsD) hormoneE) Enzyme 8) which of the following is not in ant. relation to left kidney a) diaphragm b) pancreas c) stomach d) spleen E) splenic flexure 9) LIver held in its position in the body By?A) diaphgram B) peritoneal ligaments C) inferior vena ceva D) Falciform ligament 10) Cause of right shift of oxygen dissociation curve ?A) carbon monooxideB) fetal hemoglobinC) decrease PHD) increase PH 11) Avidin has the greatest affinity ?A) vitamin AB) B1C) biotinD) B 1E) vit C 12) highest caloric value ?A) carbohydratB) protiensC) fatsD) starch 13) Specificity of a test represnts ?A) true positivB) true negativeC) false positiveD) false negative 14) a know hypertensive on drug therapy..present in emergency with collapse..her plasma K is 6.1..what is the likely cause of collapseA..ARF B..CRF c...infection D..diuretics E..cushing 15) Triglycerides a. transported by lipoproteins b. 3 fatty acids having glucose 16) Which part of blood test should be sent for matching histo compatibility of the recipient and donor 1. WBC2. RBC3. Bone Marrow4. Serum5. Platelets 17) Which type of joint is Pubic Symphysis1. Sydesmosis2. Fibrocartilagenous3. Primary cartilagenous4. Secondary cartilagenous5. Synarthrosis
18) A tumor which changes its shape size and also reversible1. Metaplasia2. Anaplsia3. Desmoplasia4. Dysplasia 5. neoplasia
1. heart Failure
2. haemmorhage
3. Aortic stenosis
20) A woman of 30 years old needs renal transplantation. 5 donors came up for her. Which of the following is best match for organ transplantation
2. Sister
3. Husband
4. Son
5. Half brother
1. Peyer patches
2. Mast Cells
3. Fibroblasts
4. Endothelial Cells
5. Platelets
23)Thromboxane A2 is produced by
1. Peyer patches
2. Mast Cells
3. Fibroblasts
4. Endothelial Cells
5. Platelets
1. ADH
2. Aldosterone
3. Renin
4. Angiotensin
5. ANP
2. ADH
3. Aldosterone
5. Renin
1. VW factor
2. Platelets
3. Vit K
4. FFP
5. Factor VIII
1. Plasma Cells
2. Basophils
3. Mast Cells
4. Mesenchymal Cells
5. Fibroblasts
28) What is the treatment of choice for the meningococcal meningitis, if he has no drug allergies.
1. Sulbactum
2. cefazolin
3. penicillin G
4. Ticarcillin
5. Methicillin
29) Which one of the following is helpful in the treatment of the subarachnoid haemmorhage
1. Nifedipine
2. Captopril
3. Nimodipine
4. Verapamil
5. Atenolol
30) In which one of the following disease there is a normal level of parathyroid hormone
1. Singers Nodule
2. Goitre
3. Osteomalacia
4. Osteoporosis
5. Hypothyroidism
1. refractory period
2. ventricular re polarization
3. atrial systole
4. Ventricle diastole
5. Atrial re polarization
32) A 20 years old male feels dypsnea on on lying supine, which one of the following causes this.
1. puberty goitre
2. retrosternal goitre
3. thyrotoxcosis
5. Eu thyroid
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Teratoma
3. Rhabdomyosarcoma
4. Chancroid
5. Bronchogenic Carcinoma
34) Which type of neurotransmitter will you find during slow wave sleep
1. Serotonin
2. Enkephalin
3. Dopamine
4. Endorphin
5. Melatonin
1. L1
2. T12
3. L3-L4
4. S2-S3
5. L5
1. Ochronosis
2. Filariasis
3. Whipple
4. Ascariasis
5. Ascariasis
37) A 32 year old woman with discoid rash, arthritis, and oral ulcers. Which of the following is the choice of test.
2. ANA
4. Protein C
5. HLA B 3
38) A 40 year old man, by profession a fiherman, has following CBC report. Hb is 10.4, MCV is 60, Plt is 220. Which of the following is most likely parasite in his body.
1. Ascariasis
2. Diphyllobothrium latum
3. Hook worm
4. Strongyloides stercoralis
5. Scabies
1. Ibuprofen
2. Indomethacin
3. Meloxicam
4. Piroxicam
40) A 15yr oldboy present with sudden onset generalized purpura.a diagnosis wad made.which one of the lab invt will b imp for diagnosis
1.capillary abnormality
3.platecount 90.(10)9/L
1. Balancing
2. motor loss
3. propeception
4. Discrimination loss
43) the fibrous pericardium and serous pericardium receives innervation from
1.vagus nerve
2.phrenic nerve
4.intercostal nerves
5.
1.gut walls
3.GIT shincters
5.pupillary shincter
3.have no tributaries
1. anorectal
2. rectoanal
*hydrolases
*oxidoreductases*
*transferases
*fused podocytes
*xeromantum pignosum
*c2 c3
*c3 c4
*c2
*c4
* alterations in proteins
* hb s factor
*leukocytosis
* sweat glands
* exercise
*partial ptosis
* acetazolamaide(Ans)
* erythropaoitn
58) in exercise.. one of the following did nt get full blood supply ?
* kidney
* skin
* brain
*heart
*skeletal muscles
* rapid movements
atony of bladder
* basal ganglia
*thalamus
*hypothalamus
*brainstem
* no change in cerebralflow
* cushing reaction
* systolic pressure
* increased contraclity
* inc in pco2(Ans)
* dec in o2
* somatostatin
* gastrin
* histamine
*enterogastrone
* prolactin
* cerebellaer sys
* tropomyosin( ans) ?
* tropnin C
* trop T
* balntidis ...
*lichen simplex c
* HSv
*atonia bladder
* genes activation
a.umblicus
b.epigastric
c.back
A.metoprolol
b.nitroglycerine
c.nifedipine
d.verapamil
c.illiohypogastric n pases
78) A man lying naked at operation table with room temprature 21.5 C and 80% humidity by which mechanism heat transfer from body
a) By Veporization
c) sweating
d) respiration
79) what is the best way of communication between a patient and doctor
a) A clean room
c ) speak Loudly
80) A man is diagnosed by a fatal illness which has v poor prognosis as a doctor what will u do
e) Give crispy and evidence based whole information of the illness to patient
82) 20yr old male,smoker on climbing stairs c/o chest pain n dyspnea... Cause of breathlessnes in this patient
83)sever dehydratiin...
A ecf decrease
c plasma decrease
84) patient known case of HIV present with abdominal distention on aus bowel sounds absent... laprotomy reveals mass in ileum.. (description of mass i dnt remember exactly). diagnosis
*hodgkins lymphoma
*metastatic adenocarcinoma
a)kidney
b)breast
c)prostate...
a arterial pressure
b microcircution,
c venous tone
d vasomotor tone
*toxoplasma
*pnemocystic carinii
*HSV
*chicken pox
88) child with skin itching..stool examination reveal worms.. presence of which wd aid in diagnosis *basophils
*eosinophils
*lymphocytes
*pyogenic
*viral
*fungal
*insula
*opercula
*splenium
*bile salts
*proteins
*iron
*metastasis
* wound contraction
95) A new borne presented with tachypnea O/E there is decrease breath sound on left side normal breath on right side, chest x ray show gut loops in left side of the pleural cavity what is the likely cause? a) defective
pleuropericardial membrane b) atresia of lower esopahagus c) defective pleuroperitoneal membrane d) Hitus hernia e) Dextrocardia
a.axilary
b.musculophrenic
c.thoracoacromial
Arachnoid villi
Choroid plexus
98) Child with vomitting, yellow discolaration of sclera,dark coloured urine. Relevant investigation... *hep A n B Serology
*Alkaline phosphatase
* total bilirubin
a e coli
a. vasoconstriction
103) which of the following is responsible for the net reabsorption of sodium in the kidney?
a. aldosterone
*streptococci
*peneumococci
*staphylococci
*5 HT3 antagonist
*contain lymphocye
*is a transudate
107) Patient presented with lesion on nose. Lab shows proteinuria... Histopathology reveals granuloma vasculitis. Most likely diagnosis..
*Leprosy
*wegener granulomatosis
*umblical artery
*umblical vein
*urachus
110) A child with mental retardation,protuding tongue,umblicl hernia, upward slant of lateral canthus, hypotonia n hypermobility... Trisomy? *18 *21 *13
111) all genetic disease have common basis,it should include the defect of 1.dna 2.rna 3.nucleotide 4.mRNA
112) whats not correct about supra renal gland 1.both glands receives blood sypply only from aortic branches 2. inf phrenic artrery gives sup.suprenal artery 3.aorta supplies both gland 4.renal artery give branches to the gland
113) which vein accompany the left anterior interventricular septum artery great cardiac vein oblique vein small cardiac vein
115) propagation of action potential is bcz of a increased intracellular Na+ b depolaization of membrane c ca inlux
116) which antacid slows gastric emptyng A.aluminium hydoxide B.magnesium hdroxide C.sodium bicarb
117) The transitional epithelium lining the urinary bladder is derived from (A) ectoderm (B) endoderm (C) mesoderm (D) endoderm and mesoderm (E) neural crest ..
ans : A
118) Which is nt in post relatn of lesser sac *celiac ganglion *rt suprarenal gland *lt suprarenal gland *lt kidney
119) Which one is nt ant relatn of lt kidney *splenic flexure *spleen *pancreas *diaphragm *stomach
120) Most common acquired mutation in thrombotic disordr *antithrombin defeciency *protein c defeciency *protein s deficiency
Antiphopholipid syndrome
121) Which is not physiologicl function of thyroid *anabolic action on adipose tissue *catabolic action on muscle * inc metabolism of lipoprotein
122) Which is nt function of liver *cholesterol synthesis *albumin synthesis *lipogenesis *gamma globulin synthesis
124) Infusion of large amount of dextrose in water.wht wd b inhibited *ADH *aldosterone *vasopressin *cortisol *insulin
126) Pulse pressure increase with *aortic stenosis *heart failure *hypertensn *haemorrhage
127) Facial nerve paralysis with loss of taste sensation ant 2/3rd tongue.lesion at *facial canal *internal auditory meatus *stylomastoid foramen
128) most of the lymph is filtered by : peyer's patches lymph nodes spleen thymus
129) edema is caused by : Decreased hydrostatic pressure Increased osmotic pressure lymph obstruction
130) which route of administration of drug highly affects bio-availability? a-oral b-iv c-sc d-im e-sub lingual
132) effect of clostridium botulinum toxin ingestion? a-fllacid paralysis of resp muscles b-vomiting c-fever
133) What is most appropriate abt thyroid gland... *parathyroid lies on superolateral surface *epithelium change acc to function *isthmus lies above cricoid cartilage
134) Patient on ATT c/o pain in joint uric acid 10 which drug must b stop *rifampicin *pyrizinamide *streptomycin
136) Heart sound produced by rapid ventricular filling *s3 *s4 *s1
137) a pateint has glucose level of 100mg/dl but glycosuria occurs this is due to a decrease renal threshold for glucose b proximal tubule is unable to absorb glucose c absorption in proximal tubule is decresed
139) foot drop occur by which nerve paralysis a.tibial n b,commen peronial nerve c.post tibial n d,sciatic nerve
140) a women has been injected ppd after 24 hours there was a scar appears,and it was surrounded by macrophages and ? A.nuetophil B.basophill c.easinophill
Tcells
141) Child with peripheral edema,enlarged liver, mcv 105,dec hb... s.albumin decreased,which nutritional deficiency is the chid suffering: -marasmus -kwashiorkor -pernicioous anemia
142) which nerve cross cavernous sinus a,occullo b,abducent c,trochela d,trg
143) In trigeminal neuralgia,injection is inserted into trigeminal ganglion present in: -ant cranial fossa -post cranial fossa -middle cranial fossa -pterigopalatine fossa
144) T wave in ECG *at the begining of refractory period *during ventricuLar repoLarization
145) an elderly t, on some antihyPertensive, comes with unconj bilirubin raised! which drug is being used? methyl doPa
146) if the percentage of heart diseases is 10% and hyperlipidemias is 30% than wt will be the percentage of these two occurring together? a)0.35 b)1 c)0.37 d)0.33
148) A patient receives radiotherapy for Squamous Cell Carcinoma, some time later the there is scarring & ulceration to the skin because of:
149)Bottom of Form
151) Athlete is unable to rotate his foot medially(inversion) bt turns easily laterally.cause is damage to...
a.ext haluucis longus nd flexr hallucis longus b.tibialis anterior nd hallucis longus c.tibialis posterior nd extnsr hallucis longus d.tibialis ant nd flexr hallucis longus
152) A patient with tumor in the Right Superior bronchus which segment is likely to be affected: a- Apical Superior b- Apical Basal c- Superior Basa
153) effects of morphine is prefereble in which condition. A.crf B terminal stage of cancer C biliary colic
154) Difference b/w septc and hypovolumic shock., . temperature heart rate respiratory rate pallor hypotension
155) decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and serium parathyroid hormone increase because of a,hypoparathyroidisam b,renal failure
156) Diaphragm =
intercostals n phrenic nerves supply? 1. formed by somatic mesoderm, 2.esophagus pierce its central tendon, 3.some plexure or autonomic nerver pass thro/pierce it. ....
Tuberculous patient biopsy of lymph node done , diagnosis on a.epitheloid cell b.multinucled giant cell c.mono nucleitid cell
Caseous necrosis
158) Wats true if a boy steps on needle? A. Its multisynaptic b. No interneuron c. Receptors are encapsulated
160).auditory pathway...
Golgi,
mitochondria,
nissl bodies
antibodies transferable
cell bound..
infectious mononucleosis
brucellosis
lymphocytic lymphoma
cerebral cortex,
interneurons....
evening
night sleep
noon
167).41% hematocrit
41% RBCs
hippuric acid
ABO compatibility
HLA matching
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday ANSWERS WILL BE POSTED AFTER FEW HOURS...
Like Share FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Regarding the clavicle, all are correct EXCEPT:
c. It ossifies in membrane.
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The most common site of fracture of the clavicle is:
a. Medial end.
b. Lateral end.
e. Junction of the lateral two-thirds and the medial third. 2Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday These muscles are attached to the medial two thirds of the clavicle EXCEPT:
a. Sternomastoid.
b. Deltoid.
c. Pectoralis major.
d. Subclavius.
e. Sternohyoid.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Regarding the articulations of the clavicle, one is correct:
a. The medial end articulates with the manubrium by fibrous articulation. b. The medial end articulates with the manubrium by cartilaginous articulation.
c. The medial end articulates with the body of the sternum by saddle synovial joint.
e. The lateral end articulates with the acromion by plane synovial articulation. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday One of he following is not attached to the medial border of the scapula:
a. Levator scapulae.
b. Teres minor.
c. Serratus anterior.
d. Rhombideus minor.
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a. Acromion process.
c. Upper border.
d. Inferior angle.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The glenoid cavity articulates with the head of the humerus by a:
a. Fibrous articulation.
b. Cartilaginous articulation.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The surgical neck of the humerus is related to the:
a. Radial nerve.
b. Axillary nerve.
c. Ulnar nerve.
d. Median nerve.
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a. Deltoid branch of the lateral thoracic artery. b. Cephalic vein. c. Apical group of axillary lymph nodes. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The axilla contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Axillary artery.
b. Axillary vein.
d. Fat.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The bicipital groove of the humerus lodges (contains) the:
a. Axillary artery.
d. Coracobrachialis.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Muscle/s taking origin from the clavicle is/are:
a. Subclavius.
b. Trapezius.
c. Pectoralis major.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday One of the following is a branch of the second part of the axillary artery:
a. Subclavian artery.
c. Intercostals arteries.
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a. Has a nipple that is usually located opposite the 6th intercostals space.
e. Its lymphatics drain mainly in the parasternal lymph nodes. Like Share
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a. 8 rami (roots).
b. 5 trunks.
c. 6 divisions.
d. 4 cords.
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The usual number of branches of the medial cord of the brachial plexus:
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. 5. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The usual number of branches of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus:
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
e. 5. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The earliest bone to ossify in the body is:
a. Humerus.
b. Radius.
c. Ulna.
d. Clavicle.
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b. The brachial plexus terminates at the lower border of the pectoralis minor.
c. The third part of the axillary artery is related to the cords of the brachial plexus.
d. The axillary lymph nodes receive 75% of the lymphatics of the breast.
e. The anterior fold of the axilla is higher than the posterior fold. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The anterior wall of the axilla is formed by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Pectoralis major.
b. Teres major.
c. Pectoralis minor.
d. Subclavius.
b. Claw hand.
c. Ape hand.
d. Wrist drop.
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b. Claw hand.
c. Ape hand.
d. Wrist drop.
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Paralysis of the serratus anterior muscle causes:
b. Claw hand.
c. Ape hand.
d. Wrist drop.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The suprascapular nerve is a branch from the:
b. Upper trunk.
c. Middle trunk.
d. Posterior cord.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The root value of the long thoracic nerve is:
a. C5.
b. C6.
c. C7.
d. C5, 6 & 7
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The anterior (pectoral) group of the axillary lymph nodes is located along the:
d. Subscapular artery.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday . Lymphatics from the skin of the back above the iliac crest drain into the:
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Lymphatics that accompany the cephalic vein drain into the:
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Lymphatics from the medial zone of the breast drain into the:
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Lymphatics from the nipple and areola drain into the:
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday One of the following muscles is not a rotator cuff muscle:
a. Supraspinatus.
b. Infraspinatus.
c. Teres minor.
d. Teres major.
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d. a and c.
e. b and c.
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a. Muscle inserted into the upper impression of the greater tuberosity of the humerus.
b. Muscle inserted into the middle impression of the greater tuberosity of the humerus.
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b. Flat shoulder.
c. Claw hand.
d. Ape hand.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Muscles that rotate the scapula downward are attached to:
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Muscles that rotate the scapula upward are attached to the:
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday All the muscles attached to the bicipital (intertubercular) groove:
d. a and c.
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Anastomosis around the scapula connects the subclavian artery with the:
d. Brachial artery.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Triangle of auscultation is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Latissimus dorsi.
b. Teres major.
c. Rhomboid major.
d. Trapezius.
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The quadrangular space is bounded by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Teres minor.
b. Teres major.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Regarding the biceps brachii, one is INCORRECT:
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The direction of the nutrient foramen of the humerus is:
a. Upward.
b. Downward.
c. Medially.
d. Laterally.
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The bicipital aponeurosis passes obliquely deep to the:
a. Brachial artery.
c. Median nerve.
d. Radial nerve.
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a. Flexion.
b. Exatension.
c. Abduction.
d. Rotation.
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d. The median nerve crosses in front of the artery from the medial to the lateral side.
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a. Pronator quadratus.
b. Brachioradialis.
c. Coracobrachialis.
d. Biceps tendon.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm is derived from the:
a. C5.
b. C6.
c. C7.
d. C5, 6, 7
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The anterior compartment of the arm contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Biceps.
b. Triceps.
c. Brachialis.
d. Coracobrachialis.
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a. Brachialis.
b. Coracobrachialis.
c. Biceps.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The cubital fossa contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Brachial artery.
b. Radial artery.
c. Radial nerve.
d. Ulnar nerve.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The constriction below the greater and lesser tuberosities of the humerus is called:
a. Anatomical neck.
b. Surgical neck.
c. Humeral shaft.
d. Humeral ring.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The lesser tuberosity of the humerus gives attachment to the:
a. Supraspinatus.
b. Infraspinatus.
c. Teres minor.
d. Teres major.
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The proximal row of the carpal bones consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Scaphoid.
b. Lunate.
c. Trapezium.
d. Pisiform.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Regarding the ulnar nerve, all are correct EXCEPT:
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Regarding the median nerve, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. Arises from both the medial and lateral cords of the brachial plexus.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday One of the following is not a branch of the radial artery:
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The median nerve supplies all of the following muscles EXCEPT:
d. Palmaris longus.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The ulnar nerve supplies all of the following muscles EXCEPT:
a. Adductor pollicis.
c. Interossei muscles.
d. Hypothenar muscles.
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c. Supplies all the superficial muscles of the front of the forearm except flexor carpi ulnaris.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The distal row of the carpal bones consists of:
a. Scaphoid.
b. Lunate.
c. Triquetral.
d. Pisiform.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Structure crossing superficial to the flexor retinaculum:
a. Median nerve.
b. Ulnar nerve.
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a. Claw hand.
b. Wrist drop.
d. Ape-like hand.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The usual number of branches of the median nerve in the arm:
a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
e. 6 Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The usual number of branches of the ulnar nerve in the arm:
a. 0
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
e. 6 Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Branches of the radial artery at the wrist include:
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday . Regarding the bicipital aponeurosis, one is incorrect:
b. It blends with the deep fascia covering the extensor muscles of the forearm.
e. Separates the median nerve from the median cubital vein. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Branches of the ulnar artery in the forearm include:
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday The following muscles are innervated by the median nerve EXCEPT:
a. Pronator teres.
b. Pronator quadratus.
d. Opponens pollicis.
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a. Biceps.
b. Supinator.
c. Pronator quadratus.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Relations of the ulnar artery at the wrist:
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday Relations of the median nerve at the wrist:
c. Lies between the tendons of the palmaris longus and flexor carpi radialis.
e. A and B only.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday As a result of injury of the ulnar nerve at the wrist:
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Yesterday answers of all the MCQ's have been posted. Like Share FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday MCQ' HAVE BEEN POSTED.. ANSWERS WILL BE POSTED AFTER 4HOURS :) Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK likes this. View 2 more comments Sana Shahid V dificult ques of neuro!! Made me tensed!!::-( Tuesday at 10:35pm via mobile Like 1 FCPS Part1 Q BANK its all about cramming.. Tuesday at 11:46pm Like Write a comment...
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the medial geniculate body, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. It receives auditory information from both ears but mainly from the opposite ear. b. It receives auditory information from the superior colliculus. c. It projects to the auditory area in the superior temporal gyrus.
d. It projects through the sublenticular part of the internal capsule. e. A lesion causes bilateral diminution of hearing. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . Regarding the thalamic nuclei, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. The anterior nucleus is part of the limbic system. b. The medial nucleus is connected with the prefrontal cortex (personality center). c. The ventral anterior nucleus is connected with the motor and premotor areas. d. The ventral posterior lateral nucleus receives the medial lemniscus. e. The ventral posterior medial nucleus receives the spinal lemniscus. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the facial nerve, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. It supplies all muscles of the second pharyngeal arch. b. It exits from the cerebello-pontine angle. c. Has motor nucleus that forms the facial colliculus. d. Has parasympathetic fibers that relay in the sphenopalatine ganglion. e. Has sensory fibers that end in the nucleus solitarius. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the parasympathetic nuclei of the brainstem, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. Fibers from the inferior salivatory nucleus relay in the otic ganglion. b. Fibers from the inferior salivatory nucleus pass through the deep petrosal nerve. c. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus gives fibers to the oculomotor nerve. d. Fibers from the superior salivatory nucleus relay in the submandibular ganglion. e. The dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus is present in the floor of the 4th ventricle. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the parasympathetic nuclei of the brainstem, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is located in the midbrain opposite the inferior colliculus. b. Fibers from Edinger-Westphal nucleus relay in the ciliary ganglion. c. The superior salivatory nucleus is located in the pons. d. The inferior salivatory nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata. e. The dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus is located in the medulla oblongata. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the parasympathetic nuclei of the brainstem, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. The superior salivatory nucleus supplies the lacrimal gland. b. The superior salivatory nucleus supplies the submandibular salivary gland. c. Fibers from the superior salivatory nucleus relay in the sphenopalatine ganglion. d. The inferior salivatory nucleus supplies the parotid gland. e. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus supplies the dilator pupillae muscle. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Nucleus solitarius receives all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Taste sensation from the anterior two thirds of the tongue via the chorda tympani. b. Taste sensation from the posterior third of the tongue via the glossopharyngeal nerve. c. Taste sensation from the epiglottis via the vagus nerve. d. General sensation from the anterior two thirds of the tongue via the lingual nerve. e. General sensation from the viscera supplied by the vagus nerve. 1Like Share
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a. All muscles of the larynx. b. Stylopharyngeus muscle. c. Constrictor muscles of the pharynx. d. Palatoglossus muscle. e. Tensor palati. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Nucleus ambiguous gives fibers to all of the following nerves EXCEPT:
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve. b. Vagus nerve. c. Spinal accessory nerve. d. Cranial accessory nerve. e. Recurrent laryngeal nerve. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Nucleus ambiguous gives fibers to all of the following nerves EXCEPT:
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve. b. Vagus nerve. c. Spinal accessory nerve. d. Cranial accessory nerve. e. Recurrent laryngeal nerve. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Constriction of the right pupil when light is directed at the left eye needs all of the following EXCEPT:
c. Right oculomotor nerve. d. Right optic nerve. e. Right Edinger-Westphal nucleus. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Constriction of the right pupil when light is directed at the left eye needs all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Left optic nerve. b. Left pretectal nucleus. c. Left optic radiation. d. Right Edinger-Westphal nucleus. e. Optic chiasma. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday A vascular lesion of the primary visual area (17) may cause one of the following:
a. Blindness. b. Binasal hemianopia. c. Bitemporal hemianopia. d. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia. e. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday A pituitary adenoma (tumor) may cause one of the following:
a. Blindness.
b. Binasal hemianopia. c. Bitemporal hemianopia. d. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia. e. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Contralateral homonymous hemianopia indicates a lesion in all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Optic chiasma. b. Optic tract. c. Lateral geniculate body. d. Optic radiation. e. Primary visual area. 1Like Share
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a. Optic nerve. b. Central part of the optic chiasma. c. Peripheral part of the optic chiasma. d. Optic tract. e. Optic radiation. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Concerning the trigeminal nuclei, one is CORRECT:
a. The main sensory nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata. b. The spinal nucleus extends in the spinal cord till the 6th cervical segment. c. The main sensory nucleus conveys pain and temperature sensations from the face. d. The mesencephalic nucleus conveys proprioceptive impulses from the muscles of mastication. e. They project to the ventral posterior lateral nucleus of the thalamus. Like Share
a. Carries taste sensation from the posterior third of the tongue. b. Carries fibers from the2nd and 3rd cervical nerves. c. Emerges between the olive and the inferior cerebellar peduncle. d. Supplies all the muscles of the tongue. e. Its lesion causes deviation of the protruded tongue to the same side as the lesion. Like Share
a. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. b. Contralateral loss of sense of movement. c. Ipsilateral loss of discriminative touch. d. Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. e. Ipsilateral loss of sense of movement. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Clarke's nucleus transmits the following sensation:
a. Pain and temperature sensation. b. Sense of movement of the upper limb to the cerebellum. c. Sense of movement of the upper limb to the cerebral hemisphere. d. Sense of movement of the lower limb to the cerebellum. e. Sense of movement of the lower limb to the cerebral hemisphere. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday In lesions of the left cuneate tract, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. Loss of sense of movement of the left shoulder joint. b. Loss of sense of flexion of the left index finger. c. Loss of sense of movement of the right elbow joint. d. Intact sense of extension of the right knee joint. e. Intact sense of pain from the left upper limb. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Lesion in the gracile tract causes all of the following in the ipsilateral side EXCEPT:
a. Loss of sense of movement of the thumb. b. Loss of sense of movement of the big toe. c. Loss of discriminative touch from the region of the umbilicus.
d. Loss of sense of vibration over the medial malleolus. e. Loss of tactile localization over the front of the thigh. Like Share
a. Bilateral loss of pain and temperature in the affected dermatomes. b. Bilateral loss of touch sensation in the affected dermatomes. c. Dilatation of the central canal. d. Destruction of the crossing fibers of the lateral spinothalamic tracts. e. Destruction of the crossing fibers of the ventral spinothalamic tracts. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . An upper motor neuron lesion can occur in any one of the following EXCEPT:
a. Internal capsule. b. Pyramid of the medulla. c. Crus cerebri of the midbrain. d. Ventral nerve root of the spinal nerve. e. Corticoispinal tract. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday A lower motor neuron lesion is a lesion in the:
a. Anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. b. Peripheral nerve. c. Motor area of the cerebral hemisphere. d. All of the above. e. A and b only. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday An upper motor neuron lesion is a lesion in the:
a. Anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. b. Peripheral nerve. c. Pyramidal and extrapyramidal tracts. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . Regarding the thalamic radiations, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. The anterior thalamic radiation connects nuclei of the limbic system with the cerebral cortex. b. The posterior thalamic radiation carries visual fibers to area 17. c. The inferior thalamic radiation carries auditory fibers to area 41 and 42. d. Lesion in the posterior thalamic radiation causes contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
e. Lesion in the inferior thalamic radiation causes contralateral loss of hearing. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The following nuclei project their axons to the cerebellum EXCEPT:
a. Red nucleus. b. Accessory cuneate nucleus. c. Arcuate nucleus. d. Clarkes nucleus. e. Inferior olivary nucleus. Like Share
a. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract. b. Spino-olivary tract. c. Ventral spinocerebellar tract. d. All of the above. e. A and c only. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . Typical features of lateral medullary syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Dysphagia. b. Ataxia. c. Vertigo. d. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation from the face. e. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation from the body Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Typical features of medial medullary syndrome include:
a. Ipsilateral loss of discriminative touch and kinesthesia. b. Contralateral deviation of the protruded tongue. c. Contralateral hemiplegia. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Tract/s which is/are important for maintaining the upright posture include:
a. Pontine (medial) reticulospinal tract. b. Lateral vestibulospinal tract. c. Medullary (lateral) reticulospinal tract. d. All of the above. e. A and b only.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Signs of lower motor neuron lesion include all of the following EXCEPT:
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Signs of upper motor neuron lesion include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Spasticity.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Accomodation-convergence reflex is mediated by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Optic nerve and optic tract. b. Pretectal nucleus. c. Edinger-Westphal nucleus. d. Short ciliary nerves. e. Area 17. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the ventricular system, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. It contains choroids plexus that secrete the CSF. b. It represents the cavity of the neural tube. c. It contains about 100 ml of CSF. d. Obstruction of the aqueduct of Sylvius causes dilatation of the lateral and third ventricles. e. The lateral ventricle is the cavity of the cerebral hemisphere. Like Share
a. Lesion in the premotor area 6 causes apraxia. b. Lesion in area 22 causes receptive aphasia.
c. Lesion in area 8 causes contralateral conjugate deviation of both eyes. d. Irritative lesion in the uncus causes olfactory hallucination. e. Lesion in Brocas area in the dominant hemisphere causes motor aphasia. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the corticospinal tract, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. It takes origin from both primary motor and general sensory areas. b. It is supplied by the vertebrobasilar system throughout its course. c. In the brainstem and the spinal cord, the cervical fibers are the most medial fibers. d. Descends in the middle 3/5 of the crus cerebri. e. Decussates in the lower part of the medulla. 1Like Share
a. They are present in the subarachnoid space. b. Occlusion of the right anterior cerebral artery may cause paralysis of the left upper limb. c. The anterior cerebral artery courses in the callosal sulcus. d. The middle cerebral artery courses in the lateral sulcus. e. The posterior cerebral artery courses in the calcarine sulcus. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Hemisection in the cervical spinal cord may cause one of the following:
a. Contralateral loss of proprioception from the lower limb. b. Contralateral flaccid weakness in the upper limb. c. Contralateral flaccid weakness in the lower limb. d. Contralateral spinothalamic sensory loss in the trunk and lower limb. e. Ipsilateral spinothalamic sensory loss in the upper limb. 2Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Signs of Horners syndrome include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Ptosis. b. Mydriasis. c. Anhidrosis. d. Enophthalmos. e. Dry skin of the ipsilateral side of the face. 1Like Share
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a. C6 spinal nerve exits below C6 vertebra. b. T6 spinal nerve exits below T6 vertebra. c. The sacral nerve roots are shorter than the cervical nerve roots. d. The ventral nerve roots contain preganglionic autonomic fibers. e. The spinal nerves are 31 pairs. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The crus cerebri of the midbrain contains all of the following fibers (tracts) EXCEPT:
a. Frontopontine fibers. b. Non-frontopontine fibers. c. Corticospinal tract. d. Corticobulbar tract. e. Medial lemniscus. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday A lesion in the following cranial nerve causes dysphagia and hoarseness of voice:
a. Vagus nerve. b. Glossopharyngeal nerve. c. Hypoglossal nerve. d. Facial nerve. e. Spinal accessory nerve. 1Like Share
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a. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract. b. Ventral spinocerebellar tract. c. Olivocerebellar tract. d. Cuneocerebellar tract. e. Pontocerebellar tract. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The following tract mediates pain and temperature sensations from the body:
a. Gracile tract. b. Ventral spinothalamic tract. c. Lateral spinothalamic tract. d. Ventral spinocerebellar tract. e. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The tract mediating unconscious proprioceptin from the upper limb to the cerebellum is:
a. Gracile tract. b. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract. c. Ventral spinocerebellar tract. d. Cuneocerebellar tract. e. Lateral spinothalamic tract. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the spinal cord, all are correct EXCEPT:
a. The spinal cord is the continuation of the medulla oblongata. b. The spinal cord ends at the level of L3 in the adult. c. In the adult, the dura mater ends at the level of S2 vertebra. d. The ventral 2/3 are supplied by the anterior spinal artery. e. The conus medullaris is fixed to the coccyx by the filum terminale. Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the anterior limb of the internal capsule, all the statements are correct EXCEPT:
a. Lies between head of the caudate nucleus and the lentiform nucleus. b. Contains the anterior thalamic radiation. c. Contains fibers from the anterior thalamic nucleus to the cingulate gyrus. d. Contains nonfrontopontine fibers. e. Supplied by branches of the anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The commissural fibers of the brain include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Corpus callosum. b. Cingulum. c. Anterior commissure. d. Posterior commissure. e. Hippocampal commissure. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The inferior cerebellar peduncle contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Dorsal spinocerebellar tract. b. Ventral spinocerebellar tract. c. Vestibulocerebellar tract. d. Olivocerebellar tract.
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following arteries is not part of the circulus arteriosus:
a. Anterior cerebral artery. b. Middle cerebral artery. c. Posterior cerebral artery. d. Anterior communicating artery. e. Posterior communicating artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding Corpus callosum all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
a. It connects similar cortical areas of the two hemispheres. b. It is supplied by the anterior cerebral artery. c. It is formed of association fibers. d. It transmits information between the 2 hemispheres. e. The posterior end is called the splenium. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Association fibers include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Corpus callosum. b. Superior longitudinal fasciculus. c. Inferior longitudinal fasc iculus. d. Cingulum. e. Fasciculus uncinatus. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Language areas are located in all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Supramarginal gyrus. b. Angular gyrus. c. Superior temporal gyrus. d. Middle frontal gyrus. e. Inferior frontal gyrus. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . Nuclei of the limbic system include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Hippocampus. b. Amygdaloid nucleus. c. Mamillary body. d. Caudate nucleus. e. Anterior thalamic nucleus. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . Regarding the ventricular system, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. The ependymal lining contributes to the formation and circulation of the CSF. b. It represents the cavity of the neural tube. c. It contains about 30 ml of CSF. d. Obstruction of the aqueduct of Sylvius causes dilatation of all the ventricles. e. Communicates with subarachnoid space through foramina of Luschka and Megendie. Like Share
a. The two superior colliculi are connected by the anterior commissure. b. The inferior brachium connects the inferior colliculus with the lateral geniculate body. c. The substantia nigra contains nerve cells that secrete noradrenaline.
d. The posterior part (tectum) contains visual and auditory reflex centers. e. The trochlear nerve exits from the interpeduncular fossa medial to the crus cerebri Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday All of the following are correct EXCEPT:
a. Area postrema is the vomiting center. b. The tuber cinereum of the interpeduncular fossa is part of the hypothalamus. c. The stria medullaris of the 4th ventricle are arcuatocerebellar fibers. d. The stria medullaris thalami is part of the limbic system and the epithalamus. e. Foramen of Megendie of the 4th ventricle is present in the superior medullary velum. Like Share
a. Is part of the diencephalon. b. Contains a gland that secretes melatonin. c. Contains a nucleus that is part of the limbic system. d. All of the above are correct. e. a and b only are correct. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The medial medullary syndrome is due to occlusion of the:
a. Anterior cerebral artery. b. Middle cerebral artery. c. Posterior cerebral artery. d. Anterior spinal artery. e. Posterior spinal artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . The lateral medullary syndrome is usually due to occlusion of the:
a. Anterior spinal artery. b. Posterior spinal artery. c. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery. d. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery. e. Posterior cerebral artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the cortical areas of the cerebral cortex, one is INCORRECT:
a. All the motor areas are present in the frontal lobe. b. Brocas area is supplied b the middle cerebral artery. c. The primary visual area (area 17) is supplied by the posterior cerebral artery. d. The prefrontal cortex (frontal pole) contains the personality center. e. The auditory association area (area 22) lies in the middle temporal gyrus. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The midbrain contains all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Crus cerebri. b. Substantia nigra. c. Third ventricle. d. Oculomotor nerve nuclei. e. Trochlear nerve nucleus. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . The epithalamus is formed of all of the following EXCEPT:
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the CSF, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. The main volume is present in the ventricles of the brain. b. The choroid plexus is the main site of production. c. The arachnoid villi and granulations are the main site of absorption (drainage). d. It reaches the subarachnoid space through the 3 foramina of the fourth ventricle. e. It protects the brain and spinal cord. Like Share
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Tuesday This cortical area is present in the frontal lobe of the cerebral hemisphere:
a. Gustatory (taste) area (area 43). b. Primary auditory area (areas 41 and 42). c. Primary visual area (area 17). d. Brocas area (motor speech area). e. Somatosensory association area (area 5 and 7). 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following cortical areas of the brain is present in the parietal lobe:
a. Primary motor area (area 4). b. Primary auditory area (area 41, 42). c. Motor eye field area (area 8). d. Primary visual area (area 17). e. General sensory area (area 3, 1, 2).
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The anterior cerebral artery supplies all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Upper one inch of the parietal lobe. b. Medial surface of the frontal lobe. c. Anterior limb of the internal capsule. d. Anterior part of the corpus striatum. e. 0ccipital lobe. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following is not present in the interpeduncular fossa:
a. Tuber cinereum.
b. Infundibulum of the pituitary gland. c. Mamillary bodies. d. Posterior perforated substance. e. Trochlear nerve. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday In the midbrain, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. The substantia nigra contains nerve cells that secrete dopamine. b. The superior colliculi are visual reflex centers. c. The inferior colliculi are auditory reflex centers. d. The inferior brachium connects the inferior colliculus with the lateral geniculate body. e. The aqueduct of Sylvius connects the third ventricle with the fourth ventricle. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The hypoglossal nerve exits from the:
a. Anterior median fissure. b. Preolivary fissure. c. Postolivary fissure. d. Horizontal fissure. e. Cerebellopontine angle. 2Like Share
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c. Facial and vagus. d. Facial nerve and abducent nucleus. e. Facial and trigeminal. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The medulla contains all the following features EXCEPT:
a. Hypoglossal trigone. b. Clava. c. Area postrema. d. Facial colliculus. e. Pyramidal decussation. 1Like Share
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a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. e. 5. Like Share FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The medulla is supplied by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Anterior spinal artery. b. Posterior spinal artery. c. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery. d. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery. e. Branches from the vertebral artery. 1Like Share
a. Cerebrum and cerebellum. b. Cerebrum, cerebellum and pons. c. Cerebellum and thalamus. d. Spinal cord, medulla and cerebellum. e. Medulla, pons and cerebellum. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The superior cerebellar peduncle connects the cerebellum with the:
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The cerebellum is separated from the cerebral hemisphere by the:
a. Falx cerebri. b. Falx cerebelli. c. Tentorium cerebelli. d. Galea aponeurotica. e. fourthventricle. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The primary fissure of the cerebellum separates the:
a. Superior surface from the inferior surface. b. Anterior lobe from the posterior lobe. c. Posterior lobe from the flocculonodular lobe. d. Paleocerebellum from the neocerebellum. e. None of the above. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The floor of the 4th ventricle is formed by the:
a. Superior medullary velum. b. Inferior medullary velum. c. Cerebellum. d. Back of the medulla. e. None of the above. Like Share
a. Medulla oblongata. b. Midbrain. c. Pons. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the cerebellar arteries, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. The superior cerebellar artery supplies the superior cerebellar peduncle. b. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the middle cerebellar peduncle. c. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the inferior cerebellar peduncle. d. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery is a branch of the vertebral artery. e. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery may give the posterior spinal artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following is a branch of the vertebral artery:
a. Anterior cerebral artery. b. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA). c. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA). d. Superior cerebellar artery. e. Posterior cerebral artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the cerebellar arteries, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. The superior cerebellar artery supplies the superior cerebellar peduncle. b. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the middle cerebellar peduncle. c. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the inferior cerebellar peduncle.
d. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery is a branch of the vertebral artery. e. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery may give the posterior spinal artery. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following arteries is a branch of the basilar artery:
a. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery. b. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery. c. Anterior spinal artery. d. Posterior spinal artery. e. Radicular arteries to the cervical part of the spinal cord. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The central canal of the spinal cord opens out into the:
a. Subarachnoid space. b. Lumbar cistern. c. Sacral hiatus. d. Third ventricle. e. Fourth ventricle. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding the cerebellum, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. It develops from the metencephalon. b. The medullary center contains 4 deep cerebellar nuclei on each side. c. The paleocerebellum is formed of the lateral zone of the cerebellar hemisphere. d. The neocerebellum is connected with the cerebral cortex. e. The flocculonodular lobe is connected with the vestibular system. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The fourth ventricle is the cavity of the:
a. Contains the cerebrospinal fluid. b. Dilates in some areas to form the subarachnoid cisterns. c. Subdural hemorrhage is usually due to rupture of superficial cerebral veins. d. All of the above are correct. e. A and B only are correct. Like Share
a. Contains the cerebrospinal fluid. b. Dilates in some areas to form the subarachnoid cisterns. c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually due to rupture of superficial cerebral veins. d. All of the above are correct. e. A and B only are correct. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . Regarding the cerebellar arteries, one of the following is INCORRECT:
a. The superior cerebellar artery supplies the superior cerebellar peduncle. b. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the middle cerebellar peduncle.
c. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the inferior cerebellar peduncle. d. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the choroid plexus of the 3rd ventricle. e. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies the choroid plexus of the 4th ventricle. Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday These cranial nerve nuclei are present in the floor of the 4th ventricle EXCEPT:
a. Abducent nucleus. b. Facial nucleus in the facial colliculus. c. Dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus. d. Hypoglossal nucleus. e. Vestibular nuclei. Like Share
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a. Extradural hemorrhage is usually arterial. b. Subdural hemorrhage is usually venous. c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually arterial. d. All are correct. e. a and b only are correct Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Regarding spina bifida, one of the following is incorrect:
a. Usually occurs in the cervical region. b. Spina bifida occulta is the commonest type. c. May be associated with meningocele. d. Is due to failure of fusion of the vertebral arches. e. The spinal cord may project through the defect.
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday Failure of the neural tube to close causes:
a. Hydrocephalus. b. Anencephaly. c. Meningocele. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. Like Share
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Tuesday The presence of the following in the amniotic fluid indicates anencephaly:
a. Glucose. b. Blood. c. Lymphocytes. d. Alpha fetoprotein. e. None of the above. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The lateral ventricle communicates with the 3rd ventricle through:
a. Aqueduct of Sylvius. b. Foramen of Magendie. c. Foramen of Monro. d. Foramen of Luschka. e. Central canal. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday One of the following is not derived from the neural crest:
a. Dorsal root ganglia. b. Suprarenal cortex. c. Geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve. d. Gracile tract. e. Sympathetic chain. 1Like Share
FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday The 3rd ventricle is the cavity of the:
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday . One of the following is not derived from the neural crest:
a. Pia mater. b. Arachnoid mater. c. Dura mater. d. Spinal ganglia. e. Schwann cells. 1Like Share
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FCPS Part1 Q BANK Tuesday SPECIAL PATHOLOGY MCQS IN FCPS-1 1. Hepatic hemengioma is associated with: A. Vinyl Chloride. 2. Which of the disease is common in I/V drug abusers: A. Infective Endocarditis. 3. Typhoid carriers are: A. Usually asymptomatic. 4. Intestinal metaplasia due to reflux esophagitis leads to: A. Adenocarcinoma. 5. Embryological marker that reappears in circulation in Ca Colon is: ...See More 3Like Share