NUMEN CIVIL SERVICE COACHING CENTRE

Civil Service (Preliminary), 2013

TEST SERIES

CSAT Paper I (TEST 1)

NUMEN COACHING CENTRE, ANJANEYAM, LMN 14, KUNNINPURAM LANE, LAXMINAGAR, NEAR LIC, PATTOM, TRIVANDRUM

1. The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is responsible for issues that concern information and communication technologies. Which of the following statements is correct about it? 1) ITU is an agency of the United Nations which also sets rules of communication for Internet 2) International Telecommunication Regulations (ITR) represents binding agreement between countries regarding the rules for telecommunication 3) The ITU coordinates the shared global use of the radio spectrum, promotes international cooperation in assigning satellite orbits. (a) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (d) All the above

1) The Indian Pharma sector has moved from Product based patent regime to Process based regime as required by TRIPS 2)100% FDI is allowed through automatic approval route for all investments under this sector 3) After complying with TRIPS agreement the time period after which license could be granted under normal conditions for generic drug production has increased. (a) 1 and 2 (c) 2 only (b) 1 only (d) 3 only

4. With melting of ice in the Arctic, there has been an increased interest for its potential resources. Consider the following statements regarding the Arctic Council and choose the correct ones? 1) Arctic Council is a United Nations forum to resolve conflict among the disputing nations and to safeguard it as part of global commons 2) India has recognized the Arctic States sovereignty, sovereign rights and jurisdiction in the Arctic 3) India is pushing forward to be a permanent member of the Arctic Council (a) 1 and 3 (c) 2 only (b) 3 only (d) 2 and 3

2. Cable Television Network (Regulation) Amendment Act has made it mandatory to digitalize cable network across the country. Which of the statements regarding digitization are correct? 1) Digitization would allow using television, internet as well as telephony using the same cable line 2) Digital transmission however is more susceptible to theft as compared to analog transmission 3) The existing co-axial cable lines will need to be replaced for digitalization of network (a) 1 and 3 (c) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

5. Which of the following statements regarding International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is correct? 1) Ratification of Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty is not a precondition to join IAEA

3. The Pharmaceutical sector has consistently been in news with matters relating to acquisition of Indian companies by the foreign ones and also granting of compulsory licensing by the Government. Select the correct statement from below.

2) It is independent of United Nations but reports to UN Security Council and UN General Assembly 3) All countries signing NPT are automatically put under IAEA safeguards

4) India though non signatory to NPT has committed to open its civilian nuclear facilities to IAEA inspection. (a) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All the above

(a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above

6. If water only absorbed light and did not scatter it, what colour would the water appear from above? (a) Blue (c) Black (b) Yellow (d) White

9. Indias National Policy on Biofuels aims to promote biofuels as an important component of our energy mix to reduce oil imports. Consider the following statements regarding Biofuels and state which of them are true? 1) Bioethanol could be mixed with diesel as fuel for usage in diesel vehicles. 2) Jatropha plantation for biodiesel is adversely impact food security of India by diverting fertile agricultural lands for its plantation 3) Extract from Jatropha seeds could directly be used (without refining) in diesel generators (4) There is MSP for non-edible oil seeds (a) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

7. The CBI is one of the premier investigation agencies of India. Consider the following statements about it 1) It draws its powers from the CBI act 1946. 2) It is under the supervision of the CVC in corruption cases, and under the Department of Personnel and Training in other matters. 3) It can take up investigation of crimes in states only with the consent of the state government concerned or under the directions of the courts. Which of the above are correct? a) 1 only c) 2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 d) All the above

10. Which of the following is not a source for biofuel? 1) Seaweed 2) Grass 3) Algae 4) Hydrogen fuel 5) Animal Fats

8. Which of the following statements about Right to Information (RTI) is/are correct? 1) Information under RTI can be sought via e-mail 2) Both Article 19 and Article 21 give constitutional support to RTI 3) The File Notings are exempted from disclosure under RTI

6) Peat (a) 1 only (c) 2 and 4 (b) 4 and 6 (d) 1 and 4

11. Large areas of organic wetland (peat) soils are currently drained for agriculture, forestry and peat extraction. Choose the correct statements from below. 1. Peat forms in wetland conditions, where flooding obstructs the flow of oxygen from

the atmosphere, reducing rates of decomposition. 2. Peatland drainage helps in improving agricultural productivity. 3. Promoting forestry and agriculture on these Peatland reduces GHG emissions and helps the nation earn Certified Emission Reduction (CER) under Clean Development Mechanism (CDM). (a) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (b) 1 only (d) 1 and 3

3) The Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) provides comprehensive insurance coverage to the rural poor. (a) 1 and 3 (c) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) All the above

14. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram(JSSK) was launched in 2011 with an aim at reducing infant mortality in India. Which among the following components are covered under JSSK? 1) free diagnostics 2) free medicines

12. Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. Consider the following statements regarding the same and choose the correct ones. 1) Gross Primary Productivity of ecosystem is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers). 2) Secondary productivity refers to the amount of biomass available after respiration losses by the primary producers (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

3) free consumables 4) free food during hospital stay 5) free transport to health facility and drop back home (a) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 5 (d) All of the above

15. There have been concerns on mushrooming of Deemed Universities in the country. The derecognition of 44 deemed universities following Tandon Committees Report is also sub-judice in the Supreme Court. Consider the following statements w.r.t. Deemed Universities.

13. Government of India has taken many steps to provide social security measures to the marginalised and to ensure inclusive development. Consider the following with respect to various social security schemes and select the correct code: 1) Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana (AABY) covers life and disability insurance for the benefit of rural landless alone. 2) The Government has recently merged the Janashree Bima Yojana (JBY) and Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana (AABY) into one scheme for administrative efficiency.

1) Deemed University status is granted by the respective state governments to an institution of Higher Education maintaining high standards 2) Deemed University status is granted only for institution providing professional courses. 3) Deemed University status is granted to both public as well as privately funded institutions 4) They enjoy autonomy in drafting their syllabus, course work and setting up their own admission rules.

(a) 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

2) It comes under Category V of IUCN Protected areas 3) Research, Development and logistics is an important aspect of Biosphere Reserves

16. The IUCN Red List of Species (also known as the IUCN Red List or Red Data List) is the world's most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species. When discussing the IUCN Red List, the official term threatened is a grouping of which of the following categories? 1) Critically Endangered 2) Extinct from Wild 3) Endangered 4) Vulnerable (a) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

(a) 1 and 3 (c) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

19. In a bid to bring environmental concerns into mainstream accounting, the government plans to release green GDP data from 2015.What is Green GDP? (a) Calculating the total value of all the produce that has taken place in sustainable manner (b) Adjusting the countrys GDP accounting for economic costs of environmental degradation (c) Calculating the total value of all the environmental resources available for production process (d) None of the above

17. Reserved forests or Protected forests are terms denoting forests accorded a certain degree of protection. Which of the following statements regarding them are correct? 1) In Reserved forests, explicit permission is required for activities like logging, grazing 2) In Protected forests, activities like logging, grazing are allowed unless explicitly prohibited 3) Reserved forests and Protected forests are declared by the respective state governments while National Parks are declared by Government of India (a) 1 and 2 (c) All of the above (b) 3 only (d) None of the above

20. Availability of drugs at the right price is essential for a nations health. The New Pharmaceutical Pricing Policy(NPPP) is deigned to realize this vision. Which of the following are the principles of the NPPP to control prices? 1) Recognition of Drugs as an essential good 2) Cost of production based pricing 3) Control of prices of only bulk drugs and intermediaries (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

18. Which of the following statements regarding a Biosphere Reserve is correct? 1) Protection is granted to the flora and fauna of the protected region, and the human communities who inhabit these regions are evicted

21. Speaker is the guardian of powers and privileges of the members of Lok Sabha. Which of the following with respect to the Speaker are correct?

1) His power of regulating procedure or conducting business is not subject to jurisdiction of any Court 2) He has to resign from his membership of his party on his election as Speaker 3) He does not have right to vote on legislations 4) (a) (c) He nominates a panel of Chairpersons to preside the House in his absence 1, 2 and 4 4 only (b) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

country if it does not prejudice its security or peace 2) A country can initiate prosecution against the offender for crime committed in its contiguous zone (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) none of the above

24. Acts of Piracy threaten maritime security by endangering the welfare of seafarers and the security of navigation and commerce. Consider the following statement with respect to piracy and choose the correct ones? 1) There is universal jurisdiction and action can be taken against pirates without objection from the flag state of the pirate vessel. 2) There are problems in prosecution of pirates since piracy as a crime is not recognized under Indian criminal law (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

22. Recently the President of India Shri. Pranab Mukherjee stressed the importance of popularizing Alternate methods of Dispute Resolution (ADR). Consider following statements regarding different tools of ADRs (Arbitration, Conciliation, Mediation, Negotiation) and select the correct answer from the given codes. 1) While Mediation would involve making proposals for settlement, Conciliation would merely facilitate a settlement between the parties. 2) Once submitted for arbitration, the Arbitrator renders their verdicts and imposes them, with or without the consent of the parties. 3) Negotiation does not involve any third party and is done by the parties themselves. (a) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

25. Which of the following statements regarding the National Investigating Agency (NIA) is correct? 1) NIA has concurrent jurisdiction with states and does not need permission of states for investigation into matters under its mandate 2) Apart from terrorism it also deals with narcotics and drug trafficking 3) It however has only investigating powers without powers of arrest and prosecution

23. The Law of the Sea Convention (UNCLOS) defines the rights and responsibilities of nations in their use of the world's oceans and the management of marine natural resources. Which of the following statements regarding UNCLOS is/are correct? 1) Vessels of foreign countries have right to passage through territorial waters of another

(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

26. Cabinet Committee on Investment (CCI) has been set up to quicken the process of clearance in time bound manner for important projects

which have been facing delays. Choose the correct options from below regarding the same. 1) It is chaired by the Finance minister 2) Cabinet Secretariat is the nodal agency for coordinating CCI meetings and setting agenda 3) It can override decision by individual ministry (a) 2 and 3 (c) 2 only (b) 3 only (d) None of the above

3) Currently ICANN, an international multilateral organization controls coordination of internet protocol, address spaces and management of top level domain names (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

29. Pandit Ravi Shankar who recently passed away was an expert Sitar player. Which of following is/are correct about Sitar? 1) Modern Sitar, which today has many strings, originated as three string instrument during Mughal rule 2) The South Indian tradition of music generally doesnt use Sitar in compositions (a) (c) 1 only Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

27. The UN has asked India to revoke AFSPA saying it had the no place in Indian democracy and is against International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights. Choose the correct statements with respect to the same. 1) Central Government as well the Governor of state can declare an area as Disturbed for application of AFSPA 2) AFSPA is currently being applicable to all the seven North Eastern States 3) Justice Jeevan Reddy commission constituted to study this act has called for its repeal (a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

30. Designer crops are designed to solve the food security concerns of the resource starved earth. Consider following statements regarding designer crops and select the correct answer from the given codes. 1) Designer crops are also called transgenic crops. 2) It uses Marker Assisted Selection, wherein gene sequencing is used.

28. World Conference on International Telecommunications (WCIT) in Dubai, on December 2012 reviewed the International Telecommunication Regulations (ITRs), designed to facilitate international interconnection and interoperability of information and communication services. Choose the correct statements regarding this conference. 1) It proposed to establish regulatory oversight by UN over internet 2) While India opposed it US and UK were in support of such regulation

(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only (d) None of the above

31. As per the Convention on Biodiversity (CBD) which among the following conditions are the criteria for the designation of Ecologically and Biologically Significant Areas (EBSA). 1) Uniqueness or Rarity 2) Special importance for life history stages of species and habitats

3) Vulnerability, fragility, sensitivity, or slow recovery 4) Biological productivity 5) Naturalness (a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2,3 and 4 (d) All of the above

34. India had created National Clean Energy Fund (NCEF) out of a cess at the rate of Rs. 50 per tonne of coal to invest in entrepreneurial and research in clean energy technologies. Choose the correct statements from below. 1) Carbon tax is revenue positive when it involves no adjustment to other tax rates in the economy. 2) Carbon tax is revenue neutral when other tax rates are adjusted so that the revenue inflow from carbon tax is exactly balanced by an equal reduction in yields from reduced taxes 3) It is levied on both public as well as private companies. 4) Even if we follow a revenue neutral policy we would incur a loss on the GDP side. (a) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

32. A new study has found that exposure to Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) may also play a role in developing type 2 diabetes. Which of the following are characteristics of POPs. 1) High water solubility 2) Semi-volatility 3) Low lipid solubility 4) They tend to accumulate in colder regions of the world (a) (c) 1 and 3 2 and 4 (b) 3 only (d) All of the above

33. Past two months several sea turtle or green turtle carcasses have been found littering along coastline in Tamilnadu. 1) Green turtle is in the endangered category of IUCN Red List 2) They usually migrate from the Polar Regions to the Indian coast during the breeding season 3) It is the only known sea turtle species that is herbivorous 4) The species' common name does not derive from any particular green external coloration of the turtle.

35. Nicobar Megapod and Narcondum Hornbill were in news with respect to question of Security vs. Environment, over which the Defence Ministry and Environment Ministry fought. Which of the following statements about them is/are correct? 1) Nicobar Megapod is a critically endangered bird under IUCN. 2) Narcondum Hornbill is a bird species native to North East India. (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

(a) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 3 and 4

(b) 1and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

36. The three ecological pyramids that are usually studied are pyramid of number, pyramid of biomass and pyramid of energy. Which of the following statements are true about them? 1) Pyramid of energy always shows a decrease towards higher trophic level

2) Pyramid of number can increase or decrease towards higher trophic level 3) Pyramid of biomass always shows a decrease towards higher trophic level (a) (c) 1 only 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (d) All of the above

1) Resistive touch screen is more costly but has better clarity than Capacitive 2) Resistive touch screen have longer life than Capacitive (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

37. Interspecific interactions arise from the interaction of populations of two different species. Select the correct statements about different types of interaction? 1) Commensalism refers to interaction where both the interacting species neither harm each other nor benefit 2) Amensalism refers to interaction where one species benefits while other is harmed 3) Competition refers to interaction where both the species are negatively affected (a) (c) 1 and 2 1 only (b) 3 only (d) All of the above

40. The Government of India Act. 1919 brought forth the concept of Diarchy in the Indian political landscape. How was the concept of diarchy envisaged under the act? (a) It for the first time introduced Bicameral legislature i.e. the Upper House and the Lower House (b) It demarcates the Central and Provincial subjects (c) It divides provincial subjects between Executive Council and the popular Ministers (d) It provides for setting up of Parliamentary panel in the House of Lords to look after Indian affairs

38. Use of Bt Cotton has been a subject of debate ever since its introduction with it having fair share of success as well as failures. How is Bt Cotton different from normal ones? 1) It consists of a genetic trait taken from a pest resistant plant to save it from pest attack 2) This implanted genetic trait codes for a protein that that gets activated only in the alkaline medium of insects gut, thus killing them without affecting human beings (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

41. Which of the following statements regarding Constituent Assembly are correct? 1) The Constituent Assembly was truly a representative body as it members were elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise 2) The Constituent Assembly was constituted under the scheme formulated by the Mountbatten Plan (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

39. Mobile touch screens basically operate on either Resistive touch or Capacitive touch. Select the correct statements regarding them.

42. Cornwallis brought about significant changes in administration during his tenure. Which of the following reforms were undertaken by him? 1) He modernized and rationalized civil services in India

2) He brought forth the principle of separation of powers by separating revenue administration from judicial 3) He created the post of Superintendent of Police as the head of law and order administration at the district level 4) He made the government servants answerable to civil courts for their actions (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

Which of the following statements regarding their outlook is correct? 1) They lacked political faith in masses for staging mass struggle 2) They had a narrow social base 3) They never challenged the legitimacy of British rule for their overthrow (a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (d) All of the above

43. Post 1857 Swadeshi movement of 1905 could be considered as the first movement involving mass participation in Bengal. Which among the following is correct regarding the movement? 1) The movement did not make much headway in mobilizing the peasantry especially the lower rungs 2) Did not gather the support of mass Muslim population 3) Moderates did not want to take the Swadeshi movement outside Bengal (a) 1 and 2 (c) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

46. Which of the following statements regarding the Home Rule Movement are correct? 1) It was passive resistance movement challenging the British rule 2) Congress was hardly keen in launching Home Rule movement supporting Annie Besant 3) Self-government was the objective of the movement 4) The movement was however not successful in expanding social base from urban middle class to other sections (a) 1 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above

44. Which among the following movements are peasant movements? 1) Deccan revolt 2) Santhal Rebellion 3) Munda Rebellion 4) Indigo Rebellion (a) 1 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

47. An earthquake causes great damage to life and property. Consider the following statements with respect to earthquakes and select the correct statements: 1) All natural earthquakes generally take place in the lithosphere. 2) While S-waves can pass through solid as well as liquid state, P-waves can travel only through solid state. 3) While S-wave vibrates parallel to the direction of wave, all other waves move perpendicular to it.

45. Moderates played an important role in laying the groundwork for freedom struggle.

4) S-waves are considered the most damaging. (a) 1 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (d) All the above

51. Rangarajan Panel was set up to look into the current issues regarding Sugar pricing and regulatory control over it. Select from below the correct statements regarding existing mechanism of controls over sugarcane and sugar. 1) Each farmer has a designated sugar mill and can sell his produce only to that mill. 2) Sugar mills have to set aside 10% of their produce reserved for government procurement for Targeted Public Distribution System 3) There is mandatory jute packing for sugar 4) Government decides as to how much sugar is released into the domestic open market for sale by mill owners (a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above

48. Consider the following statements about Fogs and choose the correct ones. 1) Fogs are more common in sea than in land. 2) Dense fogs are more likely to occur in the tropics rather than the high and middle latitude. 3) Fog occurs only in lower strata of atmosphere. 4) The fog associated with the leakage of radioactive elements is called radiation fog. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above

52. Which of the following statements is true about Rajiv Gandhi Equity Saving Scheme? 1) The scheme is targeted at encouraging small investors to enter capital market 2) This scheme is applicable to first time investors only 3) Investment under this scheme however does not attract tax benefit 4) There is no lock-in period for the investment (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 4

49. The latitudinal differences in pressure delineate a number of major pressure zones, which correspond with (a) Zones of climate (b) Zones of ocean (c) Zones of land (d) Zones of cyclonic depression

50. The landforms that are created by massive earth movements due to plate tectonics are called (a) Structural landforms (b) Depositinal landforms (c) Erosionial landforms (d) Weathering landforms

(c) 1, 2 and 3

53. Priority sector refers to those which may not get timely and adequate credit in absence of special attention. Choose the correct statements regarding priority sector. 1) Education and Housing are included under it

2) There are separate targets for credit disbursement under it for small and micro industries as well as for weaker sections 3) Loans given to Micro finance institutions for loaning it to agricultural needs comes under priority sector lending 4) All the loans under priority sector have lower interest rates (a) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

5.4% of GDP. Which of the following measures can reduce CAD? 1) Deregulation of Diesel prices 2) Increased FDI inflows 3) Speeding up environmental clearances for coal mines (a) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

57. What is Transfer Pricing? 54. Which of the following would result in regressive taxation policy going against the principle of equity? 1) Increase in Excise duty 2) Increase in Sales tax 3) Increase in Personal Income tax (a) 1 and 2 (c) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only (a) Method used by MNCs to shift profit from high taxation countries to low taxation ones to reduce tax burden (b) It is the process of routing investments to a country through tax havens (c) It is reducing import duty burden by quoting low cost price (d) Hedging the price of commodity against volatility in global market

55. Anti-Dumping Duty and Countervailing Duty are two mechanisms which India uses to protect domestic industry from foreign ones. Choose the correct statements from below with respect to them. 1) Countervailing Duty is applied to imported goods to counterbalance impact of excise duty on indigenous manufacturers 2) Anti-Dumping Duty is product specific and not country or company specific 3) Anti-Dumping duty is recognized by WTO as fair practice against cheap foreign goods. (a) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (d) 2 and 3

58. India is trying to move away from WPI (Wholesale Price Index) towards CPI (Consumer Price Index).Which of the following are the benefits of CPI over WPI? 1) Data collections is easy in CPI 2) The variations in price is lesser for CPI 3) It is easy to monitor 4) More weightage is given to primary goods (a) 4 only (c) 3 only (b) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 2

59. How does increase in fiscal deficit have adverse effect on Balance of Payments? 1) By making cost of external borrowing high 2) By resulting in outflow of foreign capital

56. Current Account Deficit (CAD) has emerged as an important cause of worry for the Government, with deficit reaching as high as

3) By reduction in imports (a) 1 and 2 (c) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5 (d) All of the above

60. The qualification and disqualification of a Member of Parliament is laid down in the Constitution and its enabling Representation of Peoples Act. Which of the following statements are correct? 1) He must be registered as an elector in the parliamentary constituency he is contesting the election 2) He is disqualified if he holds an Office of Profit 3) He must not have been under detention under any preventive detention law 4) The Speakers decision is final on the question of disqualification after consulting with the Election Commission

62. 13th Finance Commission has emphasized on reduction of revenue deficit to 0% of GDP under the FRBM mechanism. Which of the following measures would decrease revenue deficit? 1) Implementation of New Pension Scheme 2) Reduced Government Borrowings 3) Disinvestment 4) Deregulation of Urea Prices (a) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of the above

63. Subsidiary alliance was widely used by Lord Wellesley to bring Indian states within the orbit of British political power. Consider the statements about the same and choose the correct ones. 1) According to the treaty Indian state had to surrender both its internal and external affairs to the company. 2) State was to accept a British Resident at its head-quarters. (a) (c) 1 only Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

(a) 3 and 4 (c) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

61. Abortion laws have been debated all throughout the world recently. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act of 1971 legalised abortion subject to the fulfilment of certain conditions. Which of the following are among the conditions stipulated by the Act? 1) Risk of death or grave mental or physical injury to the health of the pregnant woman 2) Risk that the child, if born, would suffer from serious physical or mental abnormalities 3) Where the pregnancy is caused by rape 4) Where the female hasnt attained 18 years of age 5) Where a married woman is pregnant as a result of the failure of a contraceptive device

64. Battle of Plassey was a turning point in the history of India. Consider the following statements regarding this and choose the correct ones. 1) By this battle English East India Company secured territorial rights of the entire Bengal Province 2) The Indian side was represented by Shah Alam, Mir Qasim and Shuja Ud daula 3) The French East India Company had sent their contingent to help Indian side

(a) 1 only (c) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 (d) None of the above

68. Why has there been an increase in demand for Gold in India over the last two years? 1) Because of Inflation

65. Harappan civilization was one of the most advanced of its contemporary civilizations. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the same? 1) Harappans used iron for the advancement of their civilization. 2) Harappans had planned their cities. 3) They worshiped nature. 4) They were considered as a peace loving society. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (d) All of the above

2) Lack of financial instruments available to average citizen especially in rural areas 3) Volatility in equity market (a) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

69. The Economic Survey has made certain important observation with respect to LPG subsidies at a time when government is trying to reduce its subsidy burden. Which among the following statements is correct as per the survey? 1) There is highly un-equitable distribution of subsidies in both Urban and Rural areas 2) In rural areas the richest population corner majority of LPG subsidies unlike Urban areas (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

66. Consider the following about Falkland Islands and chose the correct ones. 1) They are located near Southern Argentina in the Pacific Ocean 2) They are hotly disrupted territories between Argentina, Chile and United Kingdom 3) They are under the control of UK

(a) 1 and 3 (c) 1 only

(b) 3 only (d) All of the above

70. Policies of Bill and Melinda gates foundation played a major role in eradicating polio from India. Which among the following term is most suitably associated with this foundation? (a) Social Business (b) Sustainable Corporation

67. The budget of 2012-13 had introduced a new term called Effective Revenue Deficit. What does it indicate? (a) Revenue deficit adjusted to inflation (b) Revenue deficit adjusted to account for capital expenditure from revenue account (c) Interest payments subtracted from Revenue Deficit (d) None of the above

(c) Creative Capitalism (d) Green Business

71. Indian Government has taken initiative to introduce GAAR or General Anti Avoidance Rules with a view to increase tax collections. Choose the correct statements in relation to tax controls. 1) Currently tax mitigation is legal, while tax avoidance is illegal

2) GAAR follows the doctrine of substance over form (a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

4) It clarified for the first time that the objective of British rule in India is granting Self Government in the future (a) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only

72. What does the financial instrument Indian Depositary Receipt (IDR) stand for? 1) It is a mechanism by which foreign companies can raise capital in India by issuing IDRs against their shares 2) It is a mechanism by which Indian companies can raise capital abroad by issuing IDRs against their shares 3) It is always issued in Indian Rupees (a) 1 and 3 (c) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 only

75. Which of the following statements regarding the First World War and Indias freedom struggle are correct? 1) Moderates and extremists including Tilak supported the war efforts of the British 2) Montague-Chelmsford reforms promised Self-Government to placate aspirations of the Indians (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

73. Which among the following items comes under the invisibles category in Balance of Payment? 1) Banking Consultation services 2) Remittances 3) Tourism 4) Business Process Outsourcing (a) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

76. Which of the following statements is correct about the historic annual session of Congress at Nagpur in 1920? 1) The Congress committed itself to a programme of extra-constitutional means of action 2) The Working Committees of the Congress were formed to look into its activities on a day to day basis 3) The resolution, for launching NonCooperation movement under the leadership of Gandhiji, was passed (a) 1 and 3 (c) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

74. Which of the following statements with respect to Morley-Minto reforms (Council Act 1909) are correct? 1) It introduced the principle of ministerial responsibility for the first time 2) It was the first instance of direct election to provincial legislature 3) It introduced voting on budget for the first time

77. The Mughals ruled the country for almost three centuries. Which of the following is correct w.r.t the mighty Mughal Empire? 1) The reign of Shah Jahan, who built the Red Fort of Delhi, is considered the golden period of Mughal architecture and arts

2) The Mughal Empire reached the zenith of its territorial expansion during the reign of Aurangzeb 3) Akbar led Mughals in the war against Marathas, in which the Marathas suffered heavy loss. (a) 1 and 2 (c) 3 only (b) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

1) Constitution authorizes Parliament to alter boundaries, names of states only with the approval of states 2) Establishing new states does not need constitutional amendment under Article 368 3) Parliament can cede a part of Indian Territory to other country though a constitutional amendment (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

78. Indian classical music refers to the art music of the Indian subcontinent and is in vogue since the Vedic times. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer. 1) Western music is in single melody format while Indian classical music is polyphonic 2) While Hindustani Music derives a lot from its Persian counterpart, the Carnatic music is of indigenous origin. (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

(c) 3 only

81. Which of the following statements regarding the impact of National Emergency on Fundamental Rights are correct? 1) All the rights available under Article 19 are automatically suspended when National emergency due to external aggression is declared 2) Through a separate Presidential order enforcement of all the Fundamental Rights could be suspended during National Emergency declared due to War (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

79. A democratic polity as stipulated in the Preamble is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty. Which of the following statements are correct regarding democracy? 1) India is among those countries that provides for direct democracy 2) Head of the State in both UK and India is elected (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

(c) 1 and 2

82. 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment aimed to achieve democratic decentralization through strengthening Local Self Government bodies. Which among the following are mandatory provisions provided in the Amendment Act? 1) Constitution of State Finance Commission 2) Direct election to all seats in Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district level 3) Reservation for Backward Classes 4) Reserving 1/3 rd. seats for women in Panchayats at all three levels (a) 1 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) All of the above

80. Consider the following statements regarding the power of Parliament with respect to creation of new states, altering boundaries and other territorial changes and choose the correct options

83. The office of CAG has been called as the most important office of the country by Dr. Ambedkar. Which of the following statements are correct? 1) He is appointed by President on the recommendation of a collegium consisting of Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition and Home Minister 2) He is eligible for further office under Government of India unlike the Chairman of UPSC 3) He holds the office till the pleasure of the President 4) He submits the audit report to the Speaker who in turn lays it down before the Lok Sabha (a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 only (d) None of the above

3) Pardoning power of President cannot be exercised without the advice of Union cabinet 4) The petitioner for mercy has right to oral hearing by President (a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

86. In what way does International Court of Justice (ICJ) differ from International Criminal Court (ICC)? 1) ICJ is the judicial wing of UN while ICC is an independent international organization not governed by UN 2) ICC can punish only individuals while ICJ can punish both individuals as well as states 3) India is opposed to the existing mechanism at ICC and hence is not a member while it is a member of ICJ (a) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (b) 1 only (d) 1 and 3

84. Which among the following statements is correct regarding the jurisdiction of Supreme Court? 1) Supreme Court has the choice to tender or not to tender its opinion on Presidential reference regarding any question of public importance 2) It has original, exclusive and final authority regarding disputes related to election of President and Vice-President (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

87. Part III of Constitution of India relates to the fundamental rights. They are available only against the State. What all constitutes State as per definition under Article 12? 1) Executive and Legislative wings of Union and State Government 2) Judiciary 3) Private body working as an instrumentality of the state 4) Local Self-Government bodies (a) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 (d) All of the above

85. Which of the following statements regarding pardoning powers of the President are correct? 1) President and Governor have concurrent powers with respect to pardoning of death sentence 2) President can pardon sentences inflicted by Court Martial while Governor cannot

88. Following are the statements regarding the Parliamentary and Presidential system of India and US respectively. Choose the correct options

1) President is a constituent part of Parliament of India just Like United States where he is an integral part of US Congress 2) Rajya Sabha which is regarded as Council of States draws its members from representatives of states only 3) Unlike US Senate all states are given equal representation in Rajya Sabha (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

correct statements regarding the above technologies 1) Incineration and Gasification both involve combustion of waste at high temperatures 2) Incineration requires lesser oxygen as compared to Gasification 3) The toxic waste in Gasification process is high as compared to that of incineration because of incomplete burning in gasification process (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

89. Under the system of proportional representation all sections of people get equal representation. In India for which of the following elections is proportional representation used? 1) Election of members to Rajya Sabha 2) Election of members to State Legislative Council 3) Election of President 4) Election of Vice President 5) Election of Speaker (a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

(c) 1 and 3

92. Which of the following aspects of cloud computing mentioned below is correct? 1) SAAS (Software As A Service) refers to provision of computing platform for application developers 2) IAAS (Infrastructure As A Service) refers to provision of hardware like servers, storage network etc. (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

90. Which of the following statement regarding the working of induction cooking is true? 1) In induction cooking the source of heat is the cooking vessel itself 2) Ferromagnetic vessels are more suitable for induction cooking as compared to copper (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

93. Despite the controversies that arose due to cases of death following the dose of pentalvalent vaccine during pilot study in some states (Kerala, Haryana) as well as internationally, Madhya Pradesh is mulling to launch Pentavalent vaccine under the National Immunization Programme that targets five infections. Which among the following are the diseases targeted under it? 1) Diphtheria 2) Poliomyelitis 3) Tuberculosis

91. Incineration and Gasification are two technologies that could be used for municipal waste treatment, currently emerging as an important issue in urban areas. Choose the

4) Pertussis 5) Haemophilus influenzae Type B diseases (a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 4 and 5

(d) All of the above

(b) Indo Myanmar plateau region (c) Peninsular plateau

94. Which of the following statements is correct about the Block Mountains? 1) It is formed predominantly due to folding rather than faulting 2) African Rift Valley and Vindhyan mountain ranges are example of Block Mountains (a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

(d) None of the above

98. Crop rotation is done to maintain the fertility in soil. Consider the following statements and select that correct code: 1) Crops with tap roots should be followed with crops with fibrous root system. 2) Non-legumes should be grown after legumes. 3) Exhaustive crops (crops that need more inputs like fertilizer, irrigation) should be followed by less exhaustive crops. (a) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (b) 2 only (d) All of the above

95. Which of the following is a wrong statement? 1) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon 2) Eutrophication refers to choking of a lake ecosystem because of excess nutrients. 3) Mangroves capture more carbon than tropical forests 4) Ozone in upper atmosphere is harmful to animals (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) Only 4

99. Lithosphere which is a part of outer crust mainly consists of two parts. Select the correct statements about them. 1) The upper part of lithosphere consists mainly of basaltic rock that form continents 2) The lower part consists mainly of silica, iron and magnesium (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) None of the above

(c) None of the above (d) All the above

96. Some of the most beautiful landforms in the mountains that are conducive to human life are the Doons. Where in the Himalayan ranges can one spot these Flat bottom longitudinal valleys? (a) Greater Himalayas (b) Lesser Himalayas (c) Shiwaliks (d) None of the above

(c) 1 and 2

100. Lake Van or Dead Sea is a beginner swimmers paradise. The density of water is so high that it is almost impossible to sink. Consider the following 1) Salinity increases the density of sea water. 2) The temperate oceans have lower salinity compared to the tropics. 3) Salinity of the oceans are lower in the Equatorial and Polar Regions. (a) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (d) All of the above

97. Structurally, the Shillong plateau is a part of which of the following geographical feature? (a) Himalayan ranges