The document contains a civil engineering review exam with 44 multiple choice questions covering topics in soil and foundation engineering. Some key topics assessed include soil classification, particle size distribution, consistency limits, permeability, compaction, consolidation, shear strength, and bearing capacity. Correct answers are provided for each question to test understanding of fundamental soil mechanics concepts and properties.
The document contains a civil engineering review exam with 44 multiple choice questions covering topics in soil and foundation engineering. Some key topics assessed include soil classification, particle size distribution, consistency limits, permeability, compaction, consolidation, shear strength, and bearing capacity. Correct answers are provided for each question to test understanding of fundamental soil mechanics concepts and properties.
The document contains a civil engineering review exam with 44 multiple choice questions covering topics in soil and foundation engineering. Some key topics assessed include soil classification, particle size distribution, consistency limits, permeability, compaction, consolidation, shear strength, and bearing capacity. Correct answers are provided for each question to test understanding of fundamental soil mechanics concepts and properties.
The document contains a civil engineering review exam with 44 multiple choice questions covering topics in soil and foundation engineering. Some key topics assessed include soil classification, particle size distribution, consistency limits, permeability, compaction, consolidation, shear strength, and bearing capacity. Correct answers are provided for each question to test understanding of fundamental soil mechanics concepts and properties.
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The key takeaways are the concepts of effective stress, factors that affect soil strength and stability like uniformity, and methods to determine water content in soils.
The effective stress is the stress borne by the soil particles and is a function of total stress and pore water pressure. The total stress is the stress applied on the soil mass including the pore water pressure.
A uniform soil has more strength and stability than a non-uniform soil. Other factors like density, compaction, and water content also affect soil strength.
CIVIL ENGINEERING REVIEWER
SOIL AND FOUNDATION
1) A fully saturated soil is said to be a. two phase system with soil and air b. three phase system c. one phase system d. two phase system with soil and water
2) In hydrometer analysis for a soil mass a. both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are additive b. meniscus correction is additive and dispersing agent correction is subtractive. c. meniscus correction is subtractive and dispersing agent correction is additive d. both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are subtractive
3) Stokes Law is valid only if the size of particle is a. greater than 0.2 mm b. less than 0.0002 mm c. between 0.2 mm and 0.0002 mm d. all of the choices
4) If the plasticity index of the of a soil mass is zero, the soil is a. sand b. clay c. silt d. clayey silt
5) Select the correct statement a. A uniform soil has more strength and stability than a non-uniform soil. b. Uniformity coefficient does not affect strength and stability. c. A uniform soil has less strength and stability than a non-uniform soil. d. Uniformity coefficient of a poorly graded soil is more than that of a well graded soil.
6) The hydrometer method of sedimentation analysis differs from the pipette analysis mainly in a. the method of taking observations b. the method of preparation of soil suspension c. the principle of test d. all of the choices
7) If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of solids in a soil mass, then the values of porosity and void ratio respectively are a. 0.5 and 1.0 b. 1.0 and 0.5 c. 1.0 and 0.0 d. 0.0 and 1.0
8) For proper field control, which of the following method is best suited for quick determination of water content of a soil mass? a. sand bath method b. alcohol method c. calcium carbide method d. oven drying method
9) When the plastic limit of a soil is greater than the liquid limit, then the plasticity index is reported as a. one b. non-plastic (NP) c. zero d. negative
10) Water content of soil can a. be greater than 100% b. take values only from 0% to 100% c. be less than 0% d. never be greater than 100%
11) At liquid limit, all soils possess a. different shear strengths of large magnitude b. same shear strength of large magnitude c. same shear strength of small magnitude d. different shear strengths of small magnitude
12) The admixture of coarser particles like sand or silt to clay causes a. decrease in liquid limit and no change in plasticity index b. decrease in both liquid limit and plasticity index c. decrease in liquid limit and increase in plasticity index d. increase in both liquid limit and plasticity index
13) Uniformity coefficient of a soil is a. always equal to 1 b. equal to or greater than 1 c. equal to or less than 1 d. always less than 1
14) Select the correct range of density index, ID a. ID > 0 b. ID > 1 c. 0 < ID <1
d. none of the choices
15) Effective stress is a. a physical parameter that can be measured b. important because it is a function of engineering properties of soil c. the stress at particles in contact d. all of the choices
16) The clay mineral with the largest swelling and shrinkage characteristics is a. kaolinite b. montmorillonite c. illite d. none of the choices
17) A pycnometer is used to determine a. water content and specific gravity b. void ratio and dry density c. specific gravity and dry density d. water content and void ratio
18) Dispersed type of soil structure is an arrangement comprising particles having a. edge-to-face orientation b. face-to-face or parallel orientation c. face-to-edge orientation d. all of the choices
19) If the sand in-situ is in its densest state, then the relative density of sand is a. greater than 1 b. between 0 and 1 c. zero d. one
20) A soil has a bulk density of 22 kN/m 3 and water content of 10%. The dry density of soil is a. 23.2 kN/m 3
b. 22.0 kN/m c. 18.6 kN/m 3
d. 20.0 kN/m 3
21) Rise of water table in cohesionless soils up to ground surface reduces the net ultimate bearing capacity approximately by a. 75% b. 25% c. 90% d. 50%
22) Contact pressure beneath a rigid footing resting on cohesive soil is a. less at edges compared to middle b. more at edges compared to middle c. uniform throughout d. none of the choices
23) Void ratio of a soil mass can a. never be greater than unity b. take values between 0 and 1 only c. take any value greater than zero d. none of the choices
24) If the water table rises up to ground surface, then the a. total stress is increased due to decease in pore water pressure but effective stress does not change b. effective stress is reduced due to decrease in total stress only but pore water pressure does not change c. total stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but effective stress does not change d. effective stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but total stress does not change.
25) If the natural water content of soil mass lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the soil mass is said to be in a. semi-solid state b. plastic state c. liquid state d. solid state
26) Relative density of compacted dense sand is approximately equal to a. 0.4 b. 0.95 c. 0.6 d. 1.20
27) Which of the following soils as more plasticity index? a. gravel b. clay c. sand d. silt
28) If the degree of saturation of a partially saturated soil is 60%, then air content of the soil is a. 60% b. 100% c. 80% d. 40%
29) If the material of the base of the Casagrande liquid limit device on which the cup containing soil paste drops is softer than the standard hard rubber, then a. the liquid limit of soil always decreases b. the liquid limit of soil may decrease c. the liquid limit of soil always increases d. the liquid limit of soil may increase
30) Sand particles are made of a. montmorillonite b. illite c. kaolinite d. rock minerals
31) Rise of water table above the ground surface causes a. equal decrease in pore water pressure and total stress b. decrease in pore water pressure but increase in total stress c. equal increase in pore water pressure and total stress d. decrease in pore water pressure but increase in total stress
32) The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.5 m, specific gravity 2.67 and voids ratio 0.67 is equal to a. 2.0 m b. 1.0 m c. 3.0 m d. 1.5 m
33) If the voids of a soil mass are full of air only, the soil is termed as a. dehydrated soil b. partially saturated soil c. air entrained soil d. dry soil
34) Toughness index is defined as the ratio of a. plasticity index to flow index b. liquidity index to flow index c. plasticity index to consistency index d. consistency index to liquidity index
35) Which of the following type of soil is transported by gravitational forces? a. talus b. drift c. dune sand d. loess
36) Which of the following methods is most accurate for the determination of the water content of soil? a. pycnometer method b. sand bath method c. calcium carbide method d. oven drying method
37) Highway Research Board (HRB) classification of soils is based on a. particle size composition b. plasticity characteristics c. both particle size composition and plasticity characteristics d. none of the choices
38) If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the void ratio of the sample is a. equal to specific gravity of soil b. greater than specific gravity of soil c. independent of specific gravity of soil d. less than specific gravity of soil
39) Valid range for n, the percentage of voids, is a. 0 < n < 100 b. n > 0 c. n < 0 d. none of the choices
40) The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of soil mass is called a. percentage air voids b. air content c. porosity d. void ratio
41) According to Atterberg, the soil is said to of medium plasticity if the plasticity index PI is a. 17 < PI < 27 b. 0 < PI < 7 c. PI > 27 d. 7 < PI < 17
42) Which of the following is a measure of particle size range? a. coefficient of curvature b. effective size c. none of the choices d. uniformity coeficient
43) When the degree of saturation is zero, the soil mass under consideration represents a. two phase system with soil and air b. two phase system with soil and water c. three phase system d. one phase system
44) Which of the following statements is correct? a. For a well graded soil, both uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature are nearly unity. b. A soil is said to be well graded if it has most of the particles of about the same size. c. Uniformity coefficient represents the shape of the particle size distribution curve. d. none of the choices
45) Residual soils are formed by a. glaciers b. water c. wind d. none of the choices
46) Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil in percentage is a. 0 < S < 100 b. S > 0 c. S < 0 d. none of the choices
47) Inorganic soil with low compressibility are represented by a. SL b. ML c. CH d. MH
48) The water content of soil, which represents the boundary between plastic and liquid state, is known as a. plastic limit b. liquid limit c. shrinkage limit d. plasticity index
49) The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a swimming pool are respectively a. zero and 50 kg/cm 2
b. 0.5 kg/cm 2 and zero c. 50 kg/cm 2 and 0.5 kg/cm 2
d. none of the choices
50) Select the correct statement a. Unit weight of soil increases due to submergence in water. b. For dry soils, dry unit weight is less than total unit weight. c. Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water. d. Unit weight of dry soil is greater than unit weight of wet soil.