OBG-GYN Practice Questions
OBG-GYN Practice Questions
OBG-GYN Practice Questions
A patient complains that her otherwise healthy 66-year-old husband takes longer to achieve an erection that he did at age
40. You advise that:
a) At his age, sexual response is naturally slower
b) He makes an appointment with a sex therapist
c) He takes 20 mg of methyltestosterone daily
d) She uses psychogenic stimulation
e) He makes an appointment with a urologist
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Part of the normal aging process changes in the human sexual response. Although it is natural for a 66 year-old man to take
longer to achieve an erection, it is possible that other factors may be involved. This includes the use of other medications
and chronic medical conditions. Should this be the case, then appropriate referral is indicated.
B. See above explanation.
C. See above explanation.
D. See above explanation.
E. See above explanation.
A 24-year-old gravida 1 para 1 who is 2 weeks post partum complains of double vision, shortness of breath, and almost
dropping her baby while trying to hold her. She says her symptoms worsen as the day progresses. She has no family history
of neurologic or muscular illness. A physical examination is normal except for unilateral ptosis and 4/5 proximal weakness of
both arms. Breath sounds are generally decreased. Routine blood tests, including TSH and creatine kinase levels, are normal.
A chest radiograph and an MRI of the brain and cervical spine are also normal. Of the following, this presentation is most
consistent with
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Fibromyalgia syndrome
Sheehans syndrome (postpartum hypopituitarism)
Polymyositis
Myasthenia gravis
Stroke
Which one of the following is indicated for treatment of chlamydial urethritis during pregnancy?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Doxycycline
Erythromycin base
Ofloxacin (Floxin)
What is the diagnostic test used to confirm a diagnosis of down syndrome in the fetus of a pregnant woman at 12 weeks
gestation?
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Glucosuria
b) Hematuria
c) Pyuria
d) Bacteriuria
e) Proteinuria
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Due to the increase in glomerular filtration rate by 50%, the transport maximum for glucose can be reached at a much lower
serum concentration. Occasional spillage of glucose in the urine is a normal finding in pregnancy.
B. Routine urinalysis should not have the presence of blood.
C. Routine urinalysis should not show evidence of infection.
D. Routine urinalysis should not show evidence of infection.
E. True proteinuria is abnormal in pregnancy and may either represent preeclampsia or an underlying renal abnormality.
A 23 year old white primigravida comes in for her regular prenatal visit. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Physical
examination is notable only for a gravid uterus consistent with a 36 week gestation. Screening and appropriate management
of which one of the following genitourinary infections at this visit has been shown to reduce the patients risk for preterm
delivery?
Offer all women screening for group B streptococcal disease at 35 to 37 weeks' gestation (with culture done from one swab
first to the vagina then to the rectal area), since it appears that identifying and treating asymptomatic baceteriuria decreases
the risk of preterm delivery (/Society of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists of Canada)/. It has been specifically demonstrated
that treatment of group B streptococcal bacteriuria decreases the rate of preterm delivery. Although studies have shown an
association between preterm delivery and bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginitis, studies have not shown that
treatment reduces the risk. It remains uncertain whether or not chlamydial infection is associated with preterm delivery.
The definition of vaginismus is
a) Vaginal tightness causing pain and inability to have intercourse
b) Painful during sexual intercourse
c) Pain during menstruation
d) When no hymenal opening is present
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Vaginismus is vaginal tightness causing discomfort, burning, pain, penetration problems, or complete inability to have
intercourse.
The other choices b), c) and d) are definitions for dyspareunia, dysmennorhea and imperforate hymen respectively.
At the time of her annual examination, you find an 11-week-sized irregular uterus on an asymptomatic 40-year-old woman.
Her last exam 1 year prior was normal. Your next step in the management of this patient is:
a) Hysterectomy
b) Endometrial biopsy
c) Reexamination in 6 months
d) Fractional dilation and curettage
e) Gonadotropin releasing hormone agonist therapy
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Management of an asymptomatic 45-year-old with leiomyomata: reexamine in 6 months. Leiomyomas are a frequent finding
in a reproductive age woman. If they are asympatomic (absence pf pain, menorrhagia, urinary symptoms, gastrointestinal
symptoms), and if they are small and not rapidly changing in size, then they can be followed. Since her last exam 1 year ago
was reportedly normal, reexamination in less than 1 year would be appropriate.
A. Indicated for symptomatic fibroid uterus in a woman who does not desire fertility.
B. Necessary only if the woman is having abnormal uterine bleeding.
D. See answer to B.
E. Can be used for symptomatic leiomyomas in a reproductive age woman, but no more than 6 months of continuous
therapy. This woman is without symptoms.
You see a 17-year-old female for a routine visit. She tells you she has been sexually active for 3 years and that her partners
have used condoms, but not consistently. She has never had a Papanicolaou (Pap) test. You provide counseling regarding
contraception and sexually transmitted diseases, and perform a gynecologic examination, including a Pap test. The results of
the test are reported as atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US). According to the guidelines for
Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology, which one of the following would be most appropriate with regard to the abnormal
smear?
a) A repeat Pap test in 6 months
b) A repeat Pap test in 12 months
c) HPV DNA testing
d) Colposcopy
e) Loop electrical excisional procedure (LEEP)
The correct answer is A
Explanation
The risk associated with abnormal results on cytologic testing vary with the age of the patient. Adolescents have a high
prevalence of human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, but a very low risk for invasive cervical cancer. The vast majority of HPV
infections will clear within 2 years after the initial infection, and have little clinical significance.
A patient at 40 weeks gestation has had a fundal height 3-4 cm greater than expected relative to dates for the last several
visits. Ultrasonography 2 days ago showed a fetus in the vertex position with an estimated fetal weight of 4200 g (9 lb 4 oz).
On examination today the patients cervix is closed, long, posterior, and firm, with the vertex at ?2 station. Her pregnancy
has been otherwise uncomplicated. Appropriate management at this point would be
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cesarean section
Induction of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin)
Cervical ripening with prostaglandins
Scheduling a routine prenatal visit in 1 week
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Fetal macrosomia at term is defined by various authorities as birth weight above 4000 ? 4500 g. Ultrasonography,
unfortunately, does not provide a particularly accurate estimate of fetal weight for large fetuses. The risk of difficult vaginal
delivery and shoulder dystocia does increase with birth weight above 4000 ? 4500 g. This has led to attempts to prevent
shoulder dystocia and possible birth injury by either performing an elective cesarean section or inducing labor when the
fetus is estimated to be macrosomic. However, no studies have shown a benefit to either intervention in otherwise
uncomplicated pregnancies. Suspected macrosomnia on its own is not longer considered an indication for induction or
cesarean section. However, should this patient not spontaneously go into labor she will soon need to be managed as a postdates pregnancy and thus a return visit should be scheduled in a week.
A 24 year old female presents with abdominal pain. Beta-HCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 5 cm right ovarian cyst.
You would
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Explanation
Transcervical amnioinfusion is an effective treatment for severe
variable decelerations in labor. Controlled prospective trials have
established that it relieves variable decelerations in a majority of
cases and allows the parturient to continue in labor. Its use for
preventing meconium aspiration is less well established, but a Cochrane
review recently favored its use for the patient in labor with a thick
meconium.
The procedure is not indicated for oligohydramnios or fetal growth
restriction, although pregnancies with these complications have a higher
risk of developing indications for amnioinfusion. Umbilical cord
prolapse and amniotic fluid embolism may be complications of
amnioinfusion, but this is not fully established. Late decelerations,
placental abruption, hypertonic labor, and low fetal scalp pH are all
contraindications to the use of amnioinfusion.
A 24 year old female has a positive pregnancy test, she presents with 2
day history vaginal bleeding. An ultrasound shows a 3 cm mass in the
left adnexa and an empty uterus. Her pregnancy symptoms and signs have
disappeared and her cervix is closed. What is the most likely diagnosis
a) Threatened abortion
b) Inevitable abortion
c) Complete abortion
d) Incomplete abortion
The correct answer is C
Explanation The following table explains the different types of
abortions that may occur during a pregnancy:
Type of abortion
Threatened
Inevitable
Incomplete
Complete
Vaginal bleeding
y
y
y
y
Cervical dilation
n
y
y
y or n
a) 80 mg/dL
b) 100 mg/dL
c) 120 mg/dL
d) 140 mg/dL
e) 160 mg/dL
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Patients diagnosed with gestational diabetes should receive nutrition
counseling, monitor their blood glucose levels, and exercise to help
maintain normoglycemia. The commonly accepted treatment goal is to
maintain a fasting capillary blood glucose level <95?105 mg/dL. The goal
for the postprandial capillary blood glucose level should be <140 mg/dL
at 1 hour and <120 mg/dL at 2 hours.
A patient at 28 weeks EGA was hospitalized recently with preterm labor.
Contractions ceased after parenteral tocolysis and she was placed on 2.5
mg of oral terbutaline every 4 hours. When she is seen on rounds the
following morning, she is asymptomatic, her lungs are clear to
auscultation, and she denies uterine contractions. Pulse rate is 110 bpm
and regular. A II/VI systolic murmur is noted along the left sternal
border. The next appropriate step in the management of this patient is to:
a) Decrease the dose of terbutaline
b) Discontinue the tocolytic agent
c) Continue present management
d) Obtain an EKG
e) Lengthen the interval between doses
The correct answer is C
Explanation
The use of oral beta adrenergic tocolytics is controversial. In order to
reach a therapeutic level, significant maternal side effects are usually
seen, the most common of which are cardiovascular and metabolic. Resting
tachycardia and a murmur of increased flow are usually present. The
development of arrhythmias or pulmonary edema usually requires stopping
therapy and switching to another class of tocolytic agent. Oral doses
are given every 2-4 hours and continued until 34-36 weeks gestation.
In order to reach a therapeutic dose of an oral tocolytic,
cardiovascular side effect are commonly present as a result.
The patient does not have an arrhythmia, EKG not needed.
Intervals longer than every 4 hours are usually not effective with oral
terbutaline as a tocolytic.
A 32 year old sexually active female has a Pap smear that shows moderate
to severe dysplasia. What is the next step?
a) Colposcopic examination
b) Cone biopsy
c) Laser ablation of the cervix
d) Repeat Pap in 4-6 months
The correct answer is A
Explanation This algorithm demonstrates how to proceed with pap smear
results:
All women who have a pap smear that shows moderate to severe dysplasia
should have a colposcopy with biopsy done.
Which of the following is the easiest and most reliable way of detecting
a retained succenturiate placental lobe?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Doxycycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Penicillin desensitization
e) Tetracycline
The correct answer is D
Explanation
The drug of choice for treatment of a pregnant woman with syphilis and
allergic to penicillin is penicillin desensitization. Syphilis in
pregnancy is associated with mental retardation, stillbirth and sudden
infant death syndrome; therefore it should be treated promptly.
Erythromycin does not cross placenta. Tetracyclin and doxycycline are
contraindicated in pregnancy and ceftriaxone is much less effective than
penicillin.
This is a hot topic for the Licensing exams!
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Preeclampsia
Diabetes mellitus
Alcohol abuse
Familial obesity
Graves disease
The correct answer is B
Explanation
During the birth of a normal infant, there are several maternal and
infant factors as well as obstetric interventions that may contribute to
birth trauma.
Risk factors for birth trauma include the use of instrumentation (i.e.
forceps, vacuum), large for gestational age babies (>4500 grams),
macrocephaly, vaginal breech delivery, prolonged labor, prima gravidity,
and excessive force or traction during delivery. Maternal diabetes is a
known cause of babies that are born large for gestational age.
Cephalohematoma is a subperiosteal hemorrhage. Because the bleeding is
subperiosteal, the hematoma will be confined by the suture lines where
the periosteum is bound tightly to the bone. Cephalohematomas are
gradually resorbed and may take from two weeks to three months to
resolve completely.
23 year old woman regularly has episodes of pain associated with
menstrual periods. Following investigations, you diagnose endometriosis.
Which one of the following is the commonest site of this disease outside
of the pelvis
a) Gastrointestinal tract
b) Lung
c) Pleura
d) Kidney
e) Spleen
The correct answer is A
Explanation
In endometriosis, small or large patches of endometrial tissue, which
are usually located only in the lining of the uterus (endometrium),
appear in other parts of the body. How and why the tissue appears in
other locations is unclear. When this happens it causes dysmenorrhea,
dysparuenia and infertility.
The most common locations include the ovaries, fallopian tubes, and
ligaments supporting the uterus. But the misplaced tissue may also
appear in other locations in the pelvis and abdomen.
Common locations of misplaced endometrial tissue (called implants)
include the ovaries, the ligaments that support the uterus, the space
between the rectum and vagina or cervix, and the fallopian tubes. Less
common locations include the outer surface of the small and large
intestines, the ureters (tubes leading from the kidneys to the bladder),
However an ultrasound shows an empty uterus and left adnexal mass. What
is the most likely diagnosis
a) Acute salpingitis
b) Ectopic pregnancy
c) UTI
d) Trichomonas
The correct answer is B
Explanation
In ectopic pregnancy, implantation occurs in a site other than the
endometrial lining of the uterine cavity?in the fallopian tube, uterine
interstitium, cervix, ovary, or abdominal or pelvic cavity. Ectopic
pregnancies cannot be carried to term and eventually rupture or involute.
Early symptoms and signs include pelvic pain, vaginal bleeding, and
cervical motion tenderness. Syncope or hemorrhagic shock can occur with
rupture. Diagnosis is by ?-human chorionic gonadotropin measurement and
ultrasonography. Absence of an intrauterine sac with a ?-hCG level >
2000 mIU/mL strongly suggests an ectopic pregnancy Treatment is with
laparoscopic or open surgical resection or with IM methotrexate.
A 15 year old patient request evaluation of masculinization and failure
to begin menstruation. She was taller than her peers during childhood.
Pubic hair growth began at 6 years, excessive facial hair growth began
at 10. She now shaves 3-4 times a week. She is 150 cm (63 inches) tall,
and her BP is 120/80. She has prominent musculature, and her breasts are
Tanner stage 2. Pelvic exam reveals an enlarged clitoris, moderate
posterior labial-scrotal fusion, and a cervix in the vaginal vault.
There are no pelvic masses on bimanual exam. This patients sex
chromosomes are most likely:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
XX
XXY
X/XY
XX/XY
XYY
The correct answer is A
Explanation
This patient is demonstrating signs of increased androgen production. As
her secondary sexual characteristics started appearing at age 6, she
has, by definition, had a heterosexual precocious puberty. Since a
cervix is present, the Mullerian system must have developed, meaning
that the gonad is not testes, and that there is no Y component to her
sex chromosomes. Her most likely sex chromosome pattern is XX.
B. The presence of a Y chromosome would lead the gonad to develop into
testes. Anti-Mullerian hormone would be produced, and no
cervix/uterus/fallopian tubes would develop.
C. See answer to B.
D. See answer to B.
E. See answer to B.
A 25-year-old multipara at 38 weeks presents in early labor. Leopold
maneuvers note a soft, ballotable structure at the symphysis, small
parts along the patients left side, fetal back along the patients
right side, and a hard mobile object in the right upper quadrant. The
most likely presentation is:
a) Vertex
b) Transverse
c) Breech
d) Compound
e) Face
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Leopolds can be used to assess the fetal lie. The gold standard is
ultrasound, though a vaginal exam can help confirm the findings on
A. The cephalic pole should be palpable at the symphysis and the podalic
pole at one of the upper quadrants.
B. No palpable pole should be noted at the symphysis.
D. This can be difficult to determine via Leopold maneuvers and is often
detected only by pelvic exam.
E. This is usually detected by pelvic exam.
A 17 year old white female has had no menstrual period for the last 6
months. She has no significant previous medical history, but admits to a
history of irregular periods since menarche at age 14. A urine pregnancy
test is negative and a physical examination is unremarkable. The most
appropriate initial workup of this patient would include which one of
the following?
a) Uterine atony
b) Cervical laceration
c) Laceration in the vulva
d) Endometritis
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Postpartum hemorrhage is blood loss of > 500 mL during or immediately
after the 3rd stage of labor.
Risk factors for bleeding include uterine atony due to overdistention
(caused by multifetal pregnancy, polyhydramnios, or an abnormally large
fetus), prolonged or dysfunctional labor, grand multiparity (delivery of
? 5 viable fetuses), relaxant anesthetics, rapid labor,
chorioamnionitis, and retention of placental tissue (eg, due to placenta
accreta).
Treatment involves intravascular volume replenishment with IV fluids.
Blood transfusion is used if this volume of saline is inadequate.
Hemostasis is attempted by bimanual uterine massage and IV oxytocin.
A previously low-risk primigravida is found to have a uterine
measurement of 33 cm at her 37-week visit. On pelvic examination there
is no evidence of leaking fluid. A sonogram shows borderline
oligohydramnios with an amniotic fluid index (AFI) of 6.5. No anomalies
are evident on the sonogram and the estimated fetal weight is at the
50th percentile for gestational age. A nonstress test is reactive.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
a) Cesarean delivery
b) Induction of labor
c) Amniocentesis and induction of labor if fetal lung maturity is confirmed
d) Repeat nonstress testing and AFI measurement in a few days
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Borderline oligohydramnios, defined as an amniotic fluid index (AFI) of
5.0-8.0, has not been associated with poor outcomes except when a fetal
anomaly or growth restriction is present. After testing for normal
growth and fetal well-being, regular follow-up is adequate. Even in the
presence of true isolated oligohydramnios (AFI <5), the patient can be
followed if the hydration raises the AFI above 5, as long as
intrauterine growth retardation and anomalies are not present. At 41
weeks gestation and beyond, oligohydramnios is an indication for
induction of labor.
A 36 year old female, who is not pregnant comes in with chief complaint
of galactorrhea. Which of the following would be an appropriate lab test
to order to investigate the cause?
a) Beta-HCG
b) Urinalysis
c) CT of head
d) TSH/FT4
e) Prolactin level
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Galactorrhea, or inappropriate lactation has a wide variety of causes
which include medicines, abnormal hormones levels, pregnancy and tumors
of the pituitary gland.
In this patient a good first step would be to obtain some basic labs
which should include a prolactin level. Prolactin is a hormone produced
the anterior pituitary. Use the mnemonic ?FLAT PiG? to remember the
hormones produced by the anterior pituitary (FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH,
Prolactin and Growth Hormone). Prolatin stimulates the mammary glands to
produce milk (lactation).
See below for a basic algorithm for the initial assessment of galatorrhea:
a)
b)
c)
d)
NSAIDS
Iron
Use more tampons/pads
OCP
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
4 weeks
2 months
3 months
6 months
> 8 months
a) Easy bruising
b) Acne
c) Hirsutism
d) Androgenic alopecia
e) Acanthosis nigricans
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Easy bruising, moon facies, buffalo hump, abdominal striae,
hypertension, and proximal myopathy suggest Cushings syndrome. Because
this syndrome is very rare compared to polycystic ovarian syndrome,
routine screening is not indicated in women with hypoangrogenic anovulation.
A pregnant woman comes to you for her first prenatal visit at 36 weeks
gestation. What is an appropriate test at this time?
b) Dermoid cyst
c) Idiopathic androgen secretion
d) PCOS
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is characterized by mild obesity,
irregular menses or amenorrhea, and signs of androgen excess (hirsutism,
acne). Typically, the ovaries contain multiple cysts. Typically, ovaries
contain many 2-6 mm follicular cysts and sometimes larger.
Testing includes pregnancy testing and measurement of serum estradiol,
follicle-stimulating hormone, prolactin, and thyroid-stimulating
hormone. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasonography showing > 10
follicles per ovary.
A 25 year old white female comes to your office for counseling regarding
birth control. She has had compliance problems with oral contraceptives
and asks about alternatives. You discuss various options including the
vaginal contraceptive ring (NuvaRing), and she asks for more
information. Which one of the following is true regarding the advantages
and disadvantages of this form of contraception?
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Vulvar carcinoma
c) Lichen sclerosis
d) Trichomonas
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Candidiasis is skin infection with Candida albicans. Infections can
occur anywhere and are most common in skinfolds and web spaces, on the
penis or vagina, and around fingernails. Symptoms and signs vary by
site. Diagnosis is by clinical appearance and potassium hydroxide wet
mount of skin scrapings. Treatment is with drying agents and antifungals.
Risk factors for candidiasis include hot weather, restrictive clothing,
poor hygiene, infrequent diaper or undergarment changes in children and
elderly patients, altered flora from antibiotic therapy, and
immunosuppression resulting from corticosteroid and immunosuppressive
drugs, pregnancy, diabetes, other endocrinopathies.
A 32 year old white female comes to see you because of moderately severe
pelvic pain that has been present for several years and is worse with
menses. She describes the pain as bilateral, deep in the pelvis, and
intermittently cramping and steady. She has never been pregnant,
although she has not been using any contraception during the 6 years she
has been married. She is not interested in fertility at this time. She
has no history of previous sexually transmitted disease, IUD use, or
abdominal or pelvic surgery. She currently uses ibuprofen, 600 mg 3-4
times a day as needed, with moderate pain relief. She is a nonsmoker.
Physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 120/70 mm Hg and normal
findings on examination of the heart, lungs, and abdomen. The vagina and
cervix are normal in appearance. Bimanual examination reveals a
normal-sized uterus and adnexa with no masses, but mild tenderness on
palpation of the posterior uterus and posterior cul-de-sac. Recent
screening laboratory work was normal, including a CBC, thyroid function
tests, lipid levels, and liver function tests. What is the most
appropriate management at this time?
a) Referral for hysterosalpinography
b) Prescribing a COX-2 inhibitor such as rofecoxib (Vioxx) or celecoxib (Celebrex) to be used instead of
ibuprofen
c) Starting her on an oral contraceptive containing both estrogen and progesterone
d) Starting her on a danazol (Danocrine), 600 mg/day
The correct answer is C
Explanation
This patient most likely has endometriosis with chronic, cyclical pelvic
pain. Since she is not interested in fertility, the next reasonable step
is to induce a hormonal pseudopregnancy using combination oral
contraceptives.
Pelvic inflammatory disease is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Leukocystosis
b) Pelvic pain
c) Fever
d) Anemia
e) Cervical motion tenderness
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) has a high association with gonorrhea
and Chlamydia. After several days of inflammation, the bacterial flora
is often polymicrobial. Pain, cervical motion tenderness, leucorrhea
from the cervical os, fever, and leukocytosis are all common signs found
when a patient presents with PID.
A. This is one of the criteria that is often used in making the
diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease.
B. See answer to A.
C. See answer to A.
E. See answer to A. This is due to the inflammation of the tubes and
peritoneum; moving the cervix from side to side will result in
significant pain from the stretching of the inflamed peritoneum.
Which of the following maternal serum concentrations is increased during
normal pregnancy?
a) Calcium
b) Albumin
c) Creatinine
d) Bicarbonate
e) Cholesterol
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Albumin will decrease due to dilutional effects. Bicarbonate decreases
due to increased renal excretion to correct for the respiratory
alkalosis (blowing off more CO2). Due to the 50% rise in GFR, the serum
creatinine falls. Due to the decline in serum albumin, the total serum
calcium concentration falls. Plasma levels of lipids increase during the
a) Azithromycin (Zithromax)
b) Doxycycline
c) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
d) Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Several clinical trials suggest that 7-day regimens of erythromycin or
amoxicillin, and single-dose regimens of azithromycin, are effective for
treating chlamydial infections during pregnancy. Doxycycline and
levofloxacin are contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential ill
effects on the fetus, and metronidazole is not effective for the
treatment of chlamydial infections.
Your patient is in the second stage of labor, and you determine that the
fetus is in face presentation, mentum anterior. Progress has been rapid
and fetal heart tones are normal. You would now
a)
b)
c)
d)
Explanation
Most infants with face presentation, mentum anterior, can be delivered
vaginally, either spontaneously or with low forceps. Cesarean section is
indicated for fetal distress and failure to progress. Midforceps
delivery is not indicated. If fetal electrodes are attached, the chin is
the preferred location.
A 30 year old white primigravida asks you about the benefits and
drawbacks of corticosteroid therapy for premature labor at 30 weeks
gestation. Which one of the following statements is most accurate?
a) Therapy will decrease the risk of neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis
b) Weekly corticosteroid injections until 34 weeks gestation is the standard regimen to prevent respiratory
distress syndrome
c) Therapy is associated with a higher rate of neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage
d) Therapy is associated with a higher rate of persistent patent ductus arteriosus
e) Therapy decreases the risk of respiratory distress syndrome but not total neonatal mortality
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Treatment of premature labor with betamethasone or dexamethasone has
been associated with up to a 65% reduction in necrotizing enterocolitis
in the neonate. Weekly treatment is not generally accepted. Increasing
reports of adverse consequences with repeated courses of treatment has
caused most experts to recommend a single course of antenatal
corticosteroids for women at risk of preterm birth at 24-34 weeks gestation.
Reported benefits of antenatal steroid therapy for preterm labor include
reduced rates of intraventricular hemorrhage and persistent patent
ductus arteriosus. Both neonatal mortality and the incidence of
a) Hypothyroidism
b) Breast cancer
c) Fibrocystic breast disease
d) Adrenal insufficiency
e) Graves disease
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Galactorrhea, or inappropriate lactation, is a relatively common problem
with multiple causes. Systemic disease is one cause, the most common
being hypothyroidism. Low levels of thyroid hormone result in increased
levels of thyrotopin-releasing hormone, which increases prolactin
secretion. Galactorrhea and symptoms of hypothyroidism abate with
thyroid hormone replacement therapy. This condition is not associated
with breast cancer or fibrocystic disease of the breast. Cushings
disease, rather than adrenal insufficiency, is associated with galactorrhea.
A 29-year-old female presents with increasingly severe menstrual cramps.
Naproxen (Naprosyn) has provided only minimal relief. She has been
unable to take oral contraceptives because of regular migraines.
Of the following alternative approaches that have been studied, the one
with the best evidence of effectiveness for this problem is
a) Glyceryl trinitrate
b) Fish oil supplements
c) Spinal manipulation
d) Behavioral interactions
The correct answer is B
Explanation
NSAIDs are the initial therapy of choice for primary dysmenorrheal
(strength of recommendation A). Treatments supported by limited-quality,
patient-oriented evidence (strength of recommendation B) includes oral
contraceptives, depot medroxyprogesterone, acupuncture, fish oil
supplements, low-fat vegetarian diets, thiamine, toki-shakyaku-san (a
Japanese herbal product), transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
E. At this point, the fertilized ovum is still within the fallopian tube.
Which one of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy?
a) Tetanus and diphtheria (Td)
b) Influenza
c) Rabies
d) Hepatitis B
e) MMR
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Although the risk of transmitting a virus to a developing fetus is
primarily theoretic, live-virus vaccines are generally contraindicated
in pregnancy. MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and thus should be
avoided in pregnancy. If it is inadvertently given, or a woman becomes
pregnant within 4 weeks of administration, the woman should be counseled
regarding potential adverse effects on the fetus, but should not be
advised that it is an indication for termination.
Tetanus and diphtheria vaccine (Td) should be routinely recommended for
pregnant women who have not received Td in the past 10 years, or who
have never been immunized. The influenza vaccine is a killed-virus
preparation and is recommended for all women who will be pregnant during
the influenza season.
Rabies vaccination has not been associated with any fetal abnormalities.
Due to the potential severe consequences of rabies exposure to the
mother and fetus, the guidelines for postexposure prophylaxis in
pregnancy are similar to those for the nonpregnant patient. Hepatitis B
vaccine is composed of a viral surface antigen made through recombinant
DNA technology and poses no risk to the mother or fetus. It should be
routinely recommended to women who have risk factors including multiple
sexual partners, a history of intravenous drug use or a partner with a
history of intravenous drug use, occupational exposure, or household
contact with a chronic carrier or acutely infected person.
A 28 year old pregnant woman develops sudden onset of dyspnea and
tachycardia. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation?
a) Acute mitral valve regurgitation
b) Pulmonary embolism
c) Myocardial infarction
d) Acute respiratory distress syndrome
e) Lobar pneumonia
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Thromboembolic disease is the leading cause of death in pregnant women.
In thromboembolic disease, blood clots form in blood vessels. They may
travel through the bloodstream and block an artery. The risk of
developing thromboembolic disease is increased for about 6 to 8 weeks
after delivery. Most complications due to blood clots result from
injuries that occur during delivery. The risk is much greater after a
cesarean section than after vaginal delivery.
Blood clots usually form in the superficial veins of the legs as
thrombophlebitis or in the deep veins as deep vein thrombosis. Symptoms
include swelling, pain in the calves, and tenderness. The severity of
the symptoms does not correlate with the severity of the disease. A clot
can move from the legs to the lungs, where it may block one or more
arteries in the lungs. This blockage, called pulmonary embolism, can be
life threatening.
If pulmonary embolism is suspected, a lung ventilation and perfusion
scan may be performed to confirm the diagnosis.
A 20 year old single white female who is a patient of yours was raped in
her apartment at 7:00 a.m. today. She is brought to your office at 9:00
a.m. for assessment and treatment. Despite having occasional intercourse
with her boyfriend, she has never used any type of contraceptive. Their
last intercourse was approximately 1 week ago, and the boyfriend has
been out of town on business since then. The patient has a history of
irregular periods, and her last normal period was approximately 2 1/2
weeks ago. You note live sperm on a wet mount. In addition to many other
issues that must be addressed at this visit, the patient asks about
emergency contraception. Which one of the following would be accurate
advice to the patient regarding this topic?
a) Emergency contraception does not interfere with an established, post-implantation pregnancy
b) The estrogen/progestin combination regimen appears to be more effective than the levonorgestrel-only
regimen
c) To be most effect, each dose of the 2-dose regimen should be administered at least 72 hours apart
d) Fetal malformations have been reported as a result of the unsuccessful use of the high-dose emergency
contraceptive regimen
The correct answer is A
Explanation
An FDA Advisory Committee has recommended over-the-counter marketing of
Plan B, an emergency contraceptive package that contains two 0.75-mg
tablets of levonorgestrel to be taken 12 hours apart. Plan B is one of
the two FDA-approved products for this indication. The Preven emergency
contraceptive kit includes four tablets, each containing 0.25 mg of
levonorgestrel and 50 ?g of ethinyl estradiol; these are taken two at a
time 12 hours apart. In a randomized, controlled trial comparing the
single versus combined estrogen/progestin, the single-drug regimen was
shown to be more effective. Pregnancy occurred in 11 of 976 women (1.1%)
given levonorgestrel alone, and in 31 of 979 (3.2%) given ethinyl
estradiol plus levonorgestrel. The proportion of pregnancies prevented,
compared to the expected number without treatment, was 85% with
levonorgestrel and 57% with the combination. In both regimens, the
interval between individual doses is 12 hours. In this case, emergency
contraception may be appropriate in the face of a possible pregnancy
from previous consensual intercourse. Emergency contraception has not
been found to interfere with an established post-implantation pregnancy.
Furthermore, no fetal malformations have been reported as a results of
the unsuccessful use of high-dose oral contraceptives for emergency
contraception.
A sexually active woman presents with dysuria and vaginal discharge. All
the following can cause this condition, except
a) Gonorrhea
b) Chlamydia
c) Trichomoniasis
d) Condyloma acuminata
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Gonorrhea, chlamydia and trichomoniasis are all sexually transmitted
diseases that can cause dysuria and vaginal discharge.
Genital warts (condylomata acuminata) are growths in or around the
vagina, penis, or rectum caused by sexually transmitted
papillomaviruses. Many people have no symptoms from the warts, but some
feel occasional burning pain.
The warts usually appear 1 to 6 months after infection with
papillomavirus, beginning as tiny, soft, moist, pink or red swellings.
They grow rapidly and appear as rough, irregular bumps, which sometimes
grow out from the skin on narrow stalks. Groups of warts often grow in
the same area, and their rough surfaces give them the appearance of a
small cauliflower.
In order to stop intractable uterine bleeding from postpartum
hemorrhage, ligation of the internal iliac arteries is performed. Blood
flow will be greatly diminished in all of the following arteries EXCEPT:
a) Obturator
b) Superior gluteal
c) Inferior gluteal
d) Superior vesical
e) Superior rectal
The correct answer is E
Explanation
The internal iliac branches into an anterior and a posterior division.
a) Trichloroacetic acid
b) Podofilox gel (Condylox)
c) Imiquimod cream (Aldara)
d) Interferon
e) Podophyllin 25% solution in alcohol (Podocon-25, Podofin)
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Tricholoroacetic acid is acceptable for use on vaginal mucosa. It is
also acceptable for use when pregnancy is a possibility. Professional
application is necessary. Podofilox and podophyllin in alcohol are not
safe for use on mucosa. Imiquimod cream is also not approved for mucosal
use. Interferon requires infection.
A 19 year old has intercourse with her boyfriend. Later she finds a tear
in her diaphragm contraceptive device. She comes in to see you the next
day worried about pregnancy that she does not want. What is an
appropriate action?
a) Do pregnancy test
b) Reassurance
c) Oral contraceptive pills, daily for 2 weeks
d) Levonorgestrel, one pill now and another in 12 hours
The correct answer is D
Explanation
a) Longstanding pruritis
b) Bleeding
c) Pain
d) Discharge
e) Dysuria
The correct answer is A
Explanation The most common symptom of vulvar cancer is longstanding
pruritis. The other symptoms mentioned occur less frequently.
A 24 year old G1P1 female has an uncomplicated delivery of a 10 pound
male infant. The patient is seen in the maternity ward 24 hours after
vaginal delivery and repair of a fourth degree perineal laceration. The
patient tells you that she is concerned about her insurance company
requirement that she stay in the hospital no longer than 48 hours post
partum.
Which of the following would be the most important indication for
extending her hospital stay beyond 48 hours post partum?
Explanation
All pregnant women should be screened for asymptomatic bacteriuria due
to the increased risk for pyelonephritis and preterm labor. All pregnant
women should also be screened for active hepatitis B, syphilis, and HIV
infection. Only at-risk women (those 25 years of age or younger and
those at risk of STDs) need to be screened for Chlamydia. Routine
screening for bacterial vaginosis is not recommended.
A G2P1 with history of previous Cesareans for cephalo-pelvic
disproportion presents with onset of labor. As the nurses are getting
ready to start helping the patient with pushing, a gush of blood is seen
coming out from vagina. She is in a tremendous amount of pain. What is
the likely cause?
a) Placenta previa
b) Breech presentation
c) Bloody show
d) Rupture of uterus
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Uterine rupture is a concern in women who have had prior cesarean
deliveries, and the risk of rupture does rise with the number of
previous cesarean deliveries. It is of particular concern if the woman
is in labor.
A bloody show would not be this dramatic. Placenta previa is
implantation of the placenta over or near the internal os of the cervix.
Typically, bright red painless vaginal bleeding occurs during late
pregnancy.
A 21-year-old nulliparous woman is in active labor. Her membranes have
been ruptured for the last 4 hours. She is having contractions every 3-5
minutes, each lasting about 60 seconds and of moderate intensity. In
your evaluation of her progress, you perform a cervical exam and note
that she is 5 cm dilated. The fetal vertex and skull sutures are readily
palpable. You determine that the current position of the fetal vertex
(see Figure D) is:
a) Occiput anterior
b) Right occiput anterior
c) Left occiput anterior
d) Right occiput posterior
e) Left occiput posterior
The correct answer is E
Explanation
The position of the fetal vertex is determined by the location of the
fetal occiput relative to the maternal pelvis. When the sagittal suture
is in the anterior-posterior axis of the pelvis, with the occiput
closest to the symphysis, the vertex is considered to be occiput
anterior (OA). When the sagittal suture is in the transverse axis of the
pelvis, the vertex is either right or left occiput transverse (ROT,
LOT). In this diagram , the occiput, as noted by the triangular shape of
the posterior fontanelle, is to the patients left side and posterior.
The anterior fontanelle is anterior and to the patients right. Since
the landmark is the occiput, the position is left occiput posterior.
a) Reassurance only
b) Checking for any increase in adnexal fullness at her next annual
physical examination
c) Repeat ultrasonography in 2-3 months to confirm resolution of the
cyst
d) Referral for ultrasound guided aspiration of the cyst
e) Referral for laparoscopic removal of the cyst
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Adnexal masses in women under 45 years of age are benign in 80%-85% of
cases. The specific findings of this case also strongly suggest a benign
etiology, namely a thin-walled, simple cyst, a lesion that is less than
8 cm in size, and a patient of relatively young age. No aggressive means
are indicated in these situations unless there are significant clinical
symptoms such as pain, abdominal pressure, urinary symptoms, or
gastrointestinal symptoms. Most experts currently recommend a
conservative approach with repeat ultrasonography in at least 2 months,
during which time the vast majority of benign cysts resolve spontaneously.
A 27 year old nulligravida presents in the office complaining of
bilateral painful breasts. Clinical examination reveals that both
breasts are tender and contain multiple tender, shotty nodules. The most
likely diagnosis is
a) Tracheo-esophageal fistula
b) Talipes equinovarus (club foot)
c) Anencephaly
d) Fetal erythoblastosis
e) Down syndrome
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Potter syndrome is a term used to describe the typical physical
appearances of a fetus or neonate due to a dramatically decreased
amniotic fluid volume oligohydramnios, or absent amniotic fluid
anhydramnios, secondary to renal diseases such as bilateral renal
agenesis. Other causes of Potter syndrome can be obstruction of the
urinary tract, polycystic or multicystic kidney diseases, renal
hypoplasia and rupture of the amniotic sac.
The decreased volume of amniotic fluid causes the growing fetus to
become compressed by the mother's uterus. This compression can cause
many physical deformities of the fetus, most common of which is Potter
facies. Lower extremity anomalies are frequent in these cases, which
often presents with clubbed feet and/or bowing of the legs.
Which one of the following fetal ultrasound measurements gives the most
accurate estimate of gestational age in the first trimester (up to 14
weeks)?
a) Femur length
b) Biparietal diameter
c) Abdominal circumference
d) Crown-rump length
e) Scapulo-sacral length
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Because the growth pattern of the fetus varies throughout pregnancy, the
accuracy of measurements and their usefulness in determining gestational
age and growth vary with each trimester. Crown-rump length is the
distance from the top of the head to the bottom of the fetal spine. It
is most accurate as a measure of gestational age at 7?14 weeks. After
that, other measurements are more reliable. In the second trimester,
biparietal diameter and femur length are used. During the third
trimester, biparietal diameter, abdominal circumference, and femur
length are best for estimating gestational age.
A 16 year old girl returns to the health center for a family planning
follow-up visit. She gave birth to a healthy baby girl 8 months ago and
does not want to become pregnant again. She is monogamous with the
father of her baby but worries that he is not monogamous with her. They
live together and are not married. She is taking an oral contraceptive
and "sometimes" uses condoms. She says that she has great trouble
remembering to take her pills and wants to discuss other contraceptive
options. In addressing this issue, which of the following is the most
appropriate next step?
a) Vulva
b) Vagina
c) Cervix
d) Anus
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Gonorrhea is caused by the bacterium neisseria gonorrhoeae. It typically
infects epithelia of the urethra, cervix, rectum, pharynx, or eyes,
causing irritation and purulent discharge. Dissemination to skin and
joints occurs infrequently. Diagnosis is by culture or genetic methods.
Diagnosis is by Gram stain and culture. Endocervical swabs should be
inserted at least 2 cm and rotated for 10 sec to obtain a proper specimen.
A woman with urinary incontinence, loses urine when she hears the
hissing sound of tap water and during straining while laughing or
sneezing. What type of incontinence does she have?
a) Stress incontinence
b) Detrusor instability
c) Urge incontinence
d) Overflow incontinence
The correct answer is A
Explanation
There are three main types of incontinence in women, although they can
occur in men also.
Stress incontinence is loss of urine when you exert pressure or stress
on your bladder by coughing, sneezing, laughing, exercising or lifting
something heavy. It has nothing to do with psychological stress. Stress
incontinence occurs when the sphincter muscle at the bladder is
weakened. The problem is especially noticeable when you let your bladder
get too full. Stress incontinence is one of the most common types of
incontinence, often affecting women. Physical changes resulting from
pregnancy, childbirth and menopause can cause stress incontinence. In
men, removal of the prostate gland can lead to this type of incontinence.
Urge incontinence is a sudden, intense urge to urinate, followed by an
involuntary loss of urine. Your bladder muscle contracts and may give
you a warning of only a few seconds to a minute to reach a toilet. With
urge incontinence, you may also need to urinate often. The need to
urinate may even wake you up several times a night. Simply going from
sitting to standing may even cause you to leak urine. In urge
incontinence, the bladder is said to be "overactive" it's contracting
even when your bladder isn't full.
Overflow incontinence is when one has frequent or constant dribble
urine. This is an inability to empty your bladder, leading to overflow.
With overflow incontinence, sometimes you may feel as if you never
completely empty your bladder. When you try to urinate, you may produce
only a weak stream of urine. This type of incontinence is common in
people with a damaged bladder or blocked urethra and in men with
prostate gland problems.
Which one of the following intravenous antibiotic regimens is most
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Placenta previa
Vasa previa
Abruptio placentae
Threatened abortion
Marginal sinus hemorrhage
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Causes of bleeding during the third trimester include placenta previa
(20%), placental abruption (30%), ruptured vasa previa, uterine scar
disruption and bloody show.
Threatened abortion is vaginal bleeding occurring before the 20th week
of pregnancy and indicating that spontaneous abortion may occur.
A 65 year old woman who is postmenopausal and taking bisphosphonate is
now complaining of vaginal bleeding. What is the most common cause?
a) Uterine fibroids
b) UTI
c) Endometrial cancer
d) Atrophic vaginitis
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Up to 40% of postmenopausal women have symptoms of atrophic vaginitis.
Because the condition is attributable to estrogen deficiency. Those
symptoms are dryness, itching, burning and dyspareunia and vaginal bleeding.
About 10% of postmenopausal women with unexpected vaginal bleeding will
have endometrial cancer. However, the most common cause of bleeding in
these women is atrophy of the vaginal mucosa.
Postmenopausal vaginal bleeding is cancer until proven otherwise. All
postmenopausal women who report vaginal bleeding must have an
endometrial biopsy done. Hysterectomy is the treatment, if indeed the
patient has endometrial cancer.
Note: don't get confused...this presentation can be followed by
different questions. (example: "what's the most common cause" or "what
do you have to exclude first" or "what's the initial test you will
order" etc)
A woman who is positive for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), but
negative for hepatitis B antigen (HBeAg), delivers at term. What would
be the best management for this woman's infant?
a) Having no evidence of disease for over 5 years means that her risk
of thromboembolism is not greater than normal
b) Impedance plethysmography (IPG) is not a useful study to evaluate
her for deep venous thrombosis in pregnancy
c) Doppler ultrasonography is not a useful technique to evaluate her
for deep venous thrombosis in pregnancy
d) The patient should be placed on low molecular weight heparin
therapy throughout her pregnancy and the puerperium
e) She is at highest risk for recurrent thromboembolism during the
a) 1/176
b) 1/132
c) 1/44
d) 1/66
e) 1/88
The correct answer is B
Explanation
The risk that she is a carrier is 2/3. Her parents must both be
carriers. Since she is healthy, she is either a carrier (2/4) or
homozygous normal (1/4), giving a 2/(1+2) or 2/3 risk of being a
carrier. The carrier risk of the father is 1/22 (normal population
risk). The risk of two carriers having an affected offspring is 1/4.
Thus the final risk is 2/3 times 1/22 times 1/4, which equals 1/132.
A. See explanation above.
C. See explanation above.
D. See explanation above.
E. See explanation above.
During normal pregnancy, thyroid function is associated with an increase in:
a) Inhaled corticosteroids
b) Inhaled cromolyn (Intal)
c) A long-acting -agonist
d) A leukotriene receptor antagonist
e) A leukotriene synthesis inhibitor
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Inhaled corticosteroids are currently the recommended maintenance agent
for pregnant patients with mild persistent asthma. They have proven
efficacy with a relatively low risk profile. Cromolyn has a good safety
record but somewhat disappointing results. Its effectiveness is limited
compared to that of inhaled corticosteroids. Long-acting -agonists with
inhaled corticosteroids are more often used in more severe persistent
asthma, as they decrease the frequency of attacks. There is some
controversy about their effect on mortality.
Leukotriene receptor antagonists are probably a reasonable add-on
therapy for asthma in pregnancy. They are not as effective as inhaled
corticosteroids, however, and do not have as long a track record of
safety. Leukotriene synthesis inhibitors are not recommended for use in
pregnancy.
When taking a patient history, which of the following questions will
most accurately ascertain the length of the patients menstrual cycle?
a) No antibiotic prophylaxis
b) Ampicillin, 2 g intravenously initially, then 1 g intravenously
every 4 hours until delivery
c) Cefazolin (Ancef), 2 g intravenously initially, then 1 g
intravenously every 8 hours until delivery
d) Clindamycin (Cleocin), 900 mg intravenously every 8 hours until
delivery
e) Vancomycin (Vancocin), 1 g intravenously every 12 hours until
delivery
The correct answer is A
Explanation
According to current guidelines, women with negative vaginal and rectal
group B /Streptococcus/ screening within 5 weeks of delivery do not
require intrapartum antimicrobial prophylaxis. This holds even if
certain obstetric risk factors develop (delivery at <37 weeks gestation,
duration of membrane rupture >18 hours, or temperature >100.4?F or
38?C). In patients requiring intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis,
penicillin is the first-line agent, with ampicillin as an acceptable
alternative. For women who have a known penicillin allergy, cefazolin
should be used if the patient is not at high risk for anaphylaxis. If
the patient is at high risk for anaphylaxis, clindamycin is an
acceptable alternative if prior cultures have shown susceptibility. If
the susceptibility is unknown, vancomycin should be used.
In the postmenopausal woman with hot flushes who cannot take estrogen,
which one of the following may help?
a) Diazepam (Valium)
b) Beta-Blockers
c) Clonidine (Catapres)
d) Meclizine (Antivert)
e) Vitamin C
The correct answer is C
Explanation
When patients with hot flushes cannot take estrogen, transdermal
clonidine using the 100 micrograms dose is recommended. Side effects are
minimal, and a modest impact can be expected.
In endometriosis, the most common location for disease is
a) Broad ligament
b) Cul-de-sac
c) Ovaries
d) Appendix
e) Uterosacral ligament
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Endometriosis is a condition in which bits of tissue from the lining of
the uterus (endometrium) grow outside the uterus. The endometrial
tissue, called an endometrial implant, usually adheres to the pelvic
organs, which include the ovaries (most common), uterus, fallopian
tubes, the cavity behind the uterus, and the ligaments that support the
uterus. Endometrial implants may also adhere to the tubes leading from
the kidneys to the bladder, the bladder, the vagina, the outer surface
of the small and large intestine, or the lining of the chest cavity.
These locations, however, are not as common.
An emergency cesarean section is being performed because of fetal
distress. At delivery, the baby is covered with thick meconium and is
apneic. The most appropriate management is to
a) Give oxygen
b) Intubate the trachea and ventilate the baby
c) Ventilate with bag and mask
a) Propylthiouracil
b) Propylthiouracil plus levothyroxine (Synthroid)
c) Methimazole (Tapazole)
d) Radioactive iodine therapy
e) Immediate surgery
The correct answer is A
Explanation
There is a 5%-10% recurrence rate for Graves disease after treatment
with radioactive iodine. Years may pass before recurrence. Radioactive
iodine therapy is contraindicated in pregnancy, and immediate surgery
might present hazards to both the mother and the fetus. Propranolol
would control the patients heart rate, but would do nothing about the
underlying hyperthyroidism.
Propylthiorucail has been used extensively in pregnancy and has never
been shown to have any teratogenic effect. The combination of
propylthiouracil and levothyroxine is frequently used for
hyperthyroidism in nonpregnant patients, but transplacental passage of
the levothyroxine would be harmful to the developing fetus. Methimazole
crosses the placenta more readily than propylthiouracil and is
associated with aplasia cutis.
A 35-year-old woman presents to your office. She and her 32-year-old
husband have been unsuccessful in their attempts to get pregnant for the
last 6 years. He has fathered two children in a prior marriage and has a
normal semen analysis. Her basal body temperature chart is biphasic. Her
past history notes multiple episodes of chlamydia and gonorrhea. A
hysterosalpingogram demonstrates blocked fallopian tubes bilaterally,
a) Tender uterus
b) Foul smelling
c) Uterus 9 cm below umbilicus
d) Pyrexia
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Puerperal endometritis is uterine infection, typically caused by
bacteria ascending from the lower genital or GI tract. Symptoms are
abdominal tenderness and pain, fever, malaise, and sometimes discharge.
Diagnosis is clinical, rarely aided by culture. Treatment is with
broad-spectrum antibiotics (eg, clindamycin plus gentamycin).
Typically, the 1st symptoms are lower abdominal pain and uterine
tenderness, followed by fever?most commonly within the 1st 24 to 72
hours postpartum. Chills, headache, malaise, and anorexia are common.
Sometimes the only symptom is a low-grade fever.
Pallor, tachycardia, and leukocytosis usually occur, and the uterus is
soft, large, and tender. Lochia may be decreased or profuse and
malodorous. When parametria are affected, pain and pyrexia are severe;
the large, tender uterus is indurated at the base of the broad
ligaments, extending to the pelvic walls or posterior cul-de-sac. Pelvic
abscess may present as a palpable mass separate from and adjacent to the
uterus.
A 31 year old woman has a dilation and curettage done (D&C). Some months
later she comes back complaining that she has amenorrhea but pain
monthly around the time she usually has her periods. No menstrual flow
is seen with estrogen and progesterone challenge. What is the most
likely diagnosis
a) Asherman syndrome
b) Uterine fibroids
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) Bicornuate uterus
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Asherman's Syndrome is an acquired disease which is characterized by the
formation of adhesions (scar tissue) in the women's uterus. Asherman's
syndrome is the presence of intrauterine adhesions that typically occur
as a result of scar formation after uterine surgery, especially after a
dilatation and curettage ( D&C ). The adhesions may cause amenorrhea
and/or infertility.
Ashermans syndrome's patients have scanty or absent periods (amenorrhea)
but some have normal periods. Some patients have no periods but feel
pain at the time each month that their period would normally arrive.
This pain may indicate that menstruation is occurring but the blood
cannot exit the uterus because the cervix is blocked by adhesions.
Recurrent miscarriage and infertility could also be considered as
symptoms. Symptoms may be related to several conditions and are more
likely to indicate Asherman's syndrome if they occur suddenly after a
D&C or other uterine surgery.
Asherman's syndrome should be treated if it is causing infertility or
amenorrhea. Surgical treatment includes cutting and removing adhesions
or scar tissue within the uterine cavity.
A 25 year old multiparous patient at 28 weeks gestation has condyloma
lata. Six hours after receiving her first intramuscular dose of
penicillin G bezathine, 2.4 mIU, she experiences fever, chills, malaise,
headache, and myalgia. She also states that her lesions have become
acutely painful. Her temperature is 38.3?C (100.9?F), pulse is 110 bpm,
blood pressure in 90/60 mm Hg, and respirations are 24/min. The most
likely diagnosis is:
a) Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
b) Allergic reaction to penicillin
c) Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
d) Secondary bacteremia
e) Disseminated HPV viremia
The correct answer is C
Explanation
A. This is seen in meningococcemia.
B. Allergic reactions do not appear 6 hours after administration of the
medication.
D. Secondary bacteremia will not make the lesions painful. Chills,
malaise, and fever can be seen with bacteremia.
E. Condyloma lata is one of the lesions of secondary syphilis, not human
papillomavirus.
A 39 year old black multigravida at 36 weeks gestation presents with a
temperature of 40.0C (104.0F), chills, backache and vomiting. On
physical examination, the uterus is noted to be nontender. There is
slight bilateral costovertebral angle tenderness. A urinalysis reveals
many leukocytes, some in clumps, as well as numerous bacteria. Of the
following, the most appropriate therapy at this time would be
Vitals are within normal limits. Physical exam reveals a non specific
pelvic tenderness, a left adnexal mass and multiple tender nodular
masses along the thickened uterosacral ligaments. Heart, lung, and
abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
Which of the following is considered the gold standard test for
diagnosis of the patients condition?
a) Endometrial biopsy
b) Laparoscopy
c) MRI of the abdomen and pelvis
d) Pelvic ultrasound
e) Serum prolactin level
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Endometriosis is the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the
uterine cavity, which induces a chronic inflammatory reaction. It can
occur in various pelvic sites such as on the ovaries, fallopian tubes,
vagina, cervix, or uterosacral ligaments or in the rectovaginal septum.
This condition is often associated with pelvic pain and infertility, but
it is most often asymptomatic. The classic presentation is the
Dys-syndrome: Dysmenorrhea, Dyspareunia, Dyschezia and Dysuria. Although
not always done, laparoscopy is the gold standard test to visualize and
confirm the diagnosis of endometriosis.
Endometrial biopsy is the gold standard test for post menopausal
bleeding diagnosis.
Serum prolactin would the best initial test for suspected prolactinoma.
Pelvic US is an excellent test that is usually done for endometriosis
and may show the adnexal cyst (chocolate cyst) or endometrial seedings
in the Douglas pouch, but it is not the gold standard test.
MRI gives detailed image of the pelvic area and would be useful but
again, not the gold standard.
A 23 year old woman presents to your office complaining of several
nontender, asymptomatic, slightly umbilicated, 3-mm nodules on her lower
abdomen. Hypodermic probe of a nodule reveals a cheesy substance. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis
a) Sebaceous cysts
b) Condylomata lata
c) Lichen planus
d) Psoriasis
e) Molluscum contagiosum
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Molluscum is caused by a pox virus and is spread by direct contact. It
is mildly contagious. The classic lesion is a small nodule, or domed
papule with an umbilicated center. These lesions range from 1-5 mm in
diameter and have a caseous material filling them. Treatment is excision
with a dermal curette followed by chemical treatment of the base with
a) 40 weeks gestation
b) 41 weeks gestation
c) 42 weeks gestation
d) 39 weeks gestation
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Postdate and post-term pregnancy are terms that are used
interchangeably. The postdate pregnancy is defined as a pregnancy that
has reached 42 weeks of amenorrhea. This is important because perinatal
mortality doubles at 42 weeks gestational age. The diagnosis of postdate
pregnancy depends heavily on accurate dating methods.
An 18-year-old primigravida at 38 weeks gestation complains of a
headache. Her blood pressure is 130/92 mm Hg. The fetal heart rate is
140 beats/min. A urine dipstick shows 2 + protein.
Laboratory Findings
Hemoglobin----------------------10.8 g/dL (N 12.0 - 16.0)
Hematocrit----------------------32.4% (N 36.0 - 46.0)
Platelets----------------------110,000/mm3 (N 150,000 - 400,000)
WBCs----------------------14,900/mm3 (N 4000 - 10,000)
Creatinine----------------------..0.5 mg/dL (N 0.8 - 1.3)
AST (SGOT) ----------------------31 U/L (N 0 - 37)
ALT (SGPT) ----------------------60 U/L (N 0 - 65)
LDH----------------------240 U/L (N 100 - 190)
Bilirubin----------------------1.9 mg/dL (N 0.0 - 1.0)
A nonstress test is reactive and the amniotic fluid index is 9.4 (N 8.0
- 20.0). The patient is admitted for further testing. After 24 hours
repeat testing shows the following:
Hemoglobin----------------------9.8 g/dL
Hematocrit----------------------30.2%
Platelets----------------------92,000/mm3
WBCs----------------------15,200/mm3
Creatinine----------------------.0.6 mg/dL
AST (SGOT) ----------------------72 U/L
ALT (SGPT) ----------------------98 U/L
LDH----------------------620 U/L
Bilirubin----------------------2.4 mg/dL
24-hour urine protein----------------------2400 mg
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate course of
action at this point?
a) A dermoid cyst
b) A mucinous cystadenoma
c) An endometrioma
d) A follicular cyst
e) A corpus luteum cyst
The correct answer is E
Explanation
An ovarian cyst is an enlargement of the ovary that appears to be filled
with fluid. The vast majority of ovarian cysts diagnosed in early
pregnancy represent a physiological cyst known as the corpus luteum
(cystic or hemorrhagic). This is a normal finding in early pregnancy.
The corpus luteum supports the lining of the womb and in turn the
pregnancy itself. The corpus luteum does this by producing the pregnancy
hormone progesterone which helps nurture the pregnancy. Once the
pregnancy gets beyond the 1st trimester, the corpus luteum is no longer
needed and therefore this resolves spontaneously, not causing any harm
whatsoever to the mother or baby.
Most ovarian cysts diagnosed in early pregnancy do not cause any
symptoms. They tend to be an incidental finding and women are unaware of
their presence. However, if an ovarian cyst ruptures, twists or if there
is bleeding into the middle of the cyst, then lower abdominal pain on
the side of the ovarian cyst occurs. Most ovarian cysts diagnosed in
early pregnancy do not represent ovarian cancer; in fact the risk of
ovarian cancer in pregnancy is extremely rare indeed (1 in 15,000 to 1
in 32,000 pregnancies).
All of the following will be diagnosed by ultrasound at 16 weeks, except
a)
b)
c)
d)
Anencephaly
Neural tube defect
Trisomy 21
Gender of fetus
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Obstetric ultrasound done at 16 weeks can detect abnormalities such as a
trisomy (eg down syndrome), neural tube defects (eg spina bifida,
anencephaly).
The sex of the baby can usually be determined by ultrasound at any time
after 16 weeks, often at the dating scan around 20 weeks into the
pregnancy depending upon the quality of the sonographic machine and
skill of the operator. This is also the best time to have an ultrasound
done as most infants are the same size at this stage of development.
A 36 year old woman develops fever, chills and flank pain. She presents
to the ER and is diagnosed with pyelonephritis. What is the most likely
causative organism?
a) E. coli
b) Chlamydia
c) S. pneumonia
d) S. aureus
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Pyelonephritis is a bacterial infection of one or both kidneys.
Infection can spread up the urinary tract to the kidneys, or the kidneys
may become infected through bacteria in the bloodstream. Chills, fever,
back pain, nausea, and vomiting can occur.
Urine and sometimes blood tests are done to diagnose pyelonephritis.
Escherichia coli, a type of bacteria normally in the large intestine,
causes about 90% of cases of pyelonephritis. Antibiotics are given to
treat the infection.
A 30-year-old black female presents with a vaginal discharge. On
examination the discharge is homogeneous with a pH of 5.5, a positive
whiff test, and many clue cells.
Which one of the following findings in this patient is most specific for
the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Amniotic fluid
Fetal cerebrospinal fluid
Maternal serum
Fetal serum
Fetal urine
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Produced primarily in the fetal liver, alpha fetoprotein is the major
oncotic protein in the fetus. It reaches a peak value in fetal serum at
12-14 weeks, at a level of about 3 mg/ml. The peak value in fetal
amniotic fluid is around 40 ?m/ml and occurs at or just after that in
fetal serum. The maternal serum reaches its peak of 200 ng/ml at the end
of the second trimester and begins to gradually decrease after 30 weeks.
Thus, the concentration of AFP in the fetal serum is 10,000-fold greater
than that in maternal serum.
A. The concentration of AFP in the amniotic fluid is less than that in
fetal blood.
B. The concentration of AFP in the cerebrospinal fluid is less than that
in fetal blood.
C. The concentration of AFP in the maternal serum is 10,000-fold less
than that in fetal blood.
E. The concentration of AFP in the fetal urine is less than that of
fetal blood. In cases of severe fetal nephritic syndrome, fetal urine
will have a high AFP concentration, and the MSAFP will often be
significantly elevated (sometimes well beyond that found with a neural
tube defect).
A 22 year old G0 female presents to the office complaining of irregular
cycles.
She rarely had regular cycles since her menarche (11). She is not
sexually active. Her past medical history is non contributory. Her
family history is significant for diabetes in both parents.
Her Temp is 37.0 C, BP is 140/87 mm Hg. She is 170 cm tall and weighs 80
Kg. Black hair is noted on her chin and upper lip. Her physical exam
a) Hypothyroidism
b) Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
c) Prolactinoma
d) Sheehans syndrome
e) Turner syndrome
The correct answer is B
Explanation
According to Rotterdam criteria, any two of the following diagnose
polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS):
1-Oligo and/or Amenorrhea
2-Clinical and/or Biochemical signs of an increased androgens status
(acne, hirsutism)
3-Ultrasound detection of polycystic ovaries
Our patient meets the first two criteria for diagnosis; however
ultrasound of the ovaries, hormonal assessment (LH/FSH ratio,
androgens) and metabolic evaluation (FBS, lipid profile) would be
warranted.
Turners syndrome presents with primary amenorrhea, short stature and
other congenital abnormalities.
Hypothyroidism usually presents with cold intolerance, fatigue,
sleepiness, irregular heavy cycles, weight gain?
The usual presentation of prolactinoma includes amenorrhea,
galactorrhea, decreased libido and visual fields defects (Bitemporal
hemianopia or Tube Vision).
Sheehans syndrome is the postpartum pituitary necrosis caused by a
severe postpartum hemorrhage.
A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established
moderate hypertension before becoming pregnant. She currently has a
blood pressure of 168/108 mm Hg. You are considering how to best manage
her hypertension during the pregnancy. Which one of the following is
associated with the greatest risk of fetal growth retardation if used
for hypertension throughout pregnancy?
a) Atenolol (Tenormin)
b) Nimodipine (Nimotop)
c) Methyldopa (Aldomet)
d) Hydralazine (Apresoline)
e) Nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Atenolol and propranolol are associated with intrauterine growth
retardation when used for prolonged periods during pregnancy. They are
class D agents during pregnancy. Other beta-blockers may not share this
risk.
Methyldopa, hydralazine, and calcium channel blockers have not been
associated with intrauterine growth retardation. They are generally
acceptable agents to use for established, significant hypertension
during pregnancy.
A 28 year old gravida 2 para 2 notes bilateral milky discharge from her
breasts. She delivered her last child 2 years ago, and breastfed
exclusively for 8 months and at night for a few more months. She totally
stopped breastfeeding several months ago, but she can still express milk
from both breasts daily. She takes no medications, and uses a diaphragm
a) Intraductal papillomatosis
b) Mammary duct ectasia
c) Empty sella syndrome
d) Illicit drug ingestion
e) Physiologic galactorrhea
The correct answer is E
Explanation
The causes of galactorrhea are multiple, including intraductal
papillomatosis, mammary duct ectasia, empty sella syndrome,
hyperprolactinemia, hypothyroidism, and illicit drug ingestion. However,
bilateral galactorrhea, or milk production, can be physiologic for up to
2 years after breastfeeding an infant. It is also more likely if there
continues to be breast stimulation, such as this womans daily
expression of milk.
A recently married 29-year-old nulliparous black female presents with
uncomplicated cystitis. She is otherwise healthy. She reports that she
is currently using barrier brith control methods but plans to
discontinue this soon, as she would like to become pregnant. Which one
of the following supplemental vitamins or minerals would you advise this
patient to begin taking?
a) Thiamine
b) Iron
c) Calcium
d) Folate
e) Iodine
The correct answer is D
Explanation
A significant number of neural tube defects can be prevented with a
daily intake of supplementary folate through the preconceptional and
prenatal period. The current health guidelines recommend a daily
supplement of 0.4-0.8 mg of folic acid, beginning at least 1 month prior
to conception and continuing through the first trimester in otherwise
healthy women. Women with a prior history of a pregnancy affected by a
neural tube defect should take 4 mg/day in the preconceptional period.
The other options listed do not require supplementation in the
preconceptional period.
The selective estrogen receptor modulator Raloxifene has all of the
following benefits, except
a) Warfarin
b) Heparin
c) Antistreptokinase
d) Alteplase
The correct answer is B
Explanation
A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a blood clot that forms in a deep vein.
Veins are blood vessels that take blood towards the heart. Deep veins in
the leg run through the muscles of the calf and thighs. The most common
sites for a DVT during pregnancy and after birth are in a vein in the
leg (especially the calf or thigh) or in the pelvis (lower part of
abdomen).
Treatment is with an injection of heparin. This medication is said to
thin the blood (an anti-coagulant). There are different types of
heparin. The type that is commonly chosen in pregnancy is low molecular
weight heparin (LMWH). Heparin is safe to give during pregnancy because
it does not cross the placenta.
The recommended time to screen asymptomatic pregnant women without risk
factors for gestational diabetes is
a) Nulliparity
b) Positive family history
c) Use of hormone replacement therapy
d) Early menarche
e) Advanced age
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Strong risk factors for breast cancer:
Increasing age: the primary risk factor for breast cancer in most women
is older age. Overall, 85 percent of cases occur in women 50 years of
age and older, while only 5 percent of breast cancers develop in women
younger than age 40.
Family history: women who have a family history of breast or ovarian
cancer are at a higher risk for breast cancer than those who lack such a
history.
Other risk factors:
Early menarche: during a woman's reproductive years, estrogen stimulates
cells of the breast's glandular tissue to divide. The longer a woman is
exposed to estrogen, the greater her risk for breast cancer. Estrogen
exposure is increased if a woman began menstruating at or before 11
years of age, or if she experiences menopause at age 55 years or older.
Nulliparity: women who have never given birth are more likely to develop
breast cancer after menopause than women who have given birth multiple
times.
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT): Studies have shown that long-term use
of combined estrogen-progestin (approximately five years) in women ages
50 to 79 increases a woman's risk of breast cancer.
A 6 month old baby is found to be HIV positive by ELISA and Western
blot. What is the most likely scenario?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Methyldopa (Aldomet)
Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)
Labetalol (Normodyne)
Nifedipine (Procardia)
The correct answer is B
Explanation
ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril can be severely damaging to the fetus,
with deformity, renal failure, and death possible. Placental blood flow
may be markedly reduced and extreme fetal distress and in utero death
may occur. The drugs are not recommended for use, even short-term use,
during pregnancy. Methyldopa, nifedipine, labetalol, and atenolol all
are used for the treatment of hypertension in pregnancy.
a) Chronic hypertension
b) Alcohol intake
c) Preeclampsia
d) Herpesvirus infection
e) Diabetes mellitus
The correct answer is A
Explanation
The most common cause of intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR) is
a) Rosiglitazone
b) Glyburide
c) Chlorpropamide
d) Metformin
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Ordinarily, the hypoglycemia of infants of diabetic mothers is brief and
asymptomatic. It is considered to result from fetal hyperinsulinism
secondary to prenatal hyperglycemia. However reports of prolonged
symptomatic hypoglycemia associated with maternal chlorpropamide
(Diabinese) therapy has been reported. Therefore this drug is not
recommended in gestational diabetes.
The other choices are commonly uses medicines in the treatment of diabetes.
The commonest indication for amniocentesis is
a) Metronidazole
b) Ceftriaxone
c) Doxycycline
d) Topical antifungal
The correct answer is A
Explanation
This is a classic wet mount showing the motile trichomonads and their
flagella. Treatment of choice for Trichomonas vaginals is metronidazole
for both the patient and her sexual partner.
a) Threatened abortion
b) Hemorrhagic cystitis
c) Placenta previa
d) Chorioamnionitis
e) Abruptio placentae
The correct answer is C
Explanation
The classical clinical presentation of placenta previa is painless,
bright red vaginal bleeding. This diagnosis must be considered in all
patients beyond 24 weeks gestation who present with bleeding. Threatened
abortion is unlikely at this stage of pregnancy and hemorrhagic cystitis
is not accompanied by brisk bleeding. Abruption of the placenta is the
most common cause of intrapartum fetal death but is associated not only
with brisk vaginal bleeding, but also with uterine tenderness that may
be marked. Clinical signs of chorioamnionitis include purulent vaginal
discharge, fever, tachycardia, and uterine tenderness.
A 24 year old female at 36 weeks gestation plans to breastfeed her
infant. She has a history of bipolar disorder, but is currently doing
a) Amoxicillin
b) Macrodantin (Macrobid)
c) Valproic acid (Depakote)
d) Lithium
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Of the drugs listed, the only maternal medication that affects the
infant is lithium. Breastfed infants of women taking lithium can have
blood lithium concentrations that are 30% - 50% of therapeutic levels.
Breast engorgement in a woman eager to breastfeed is best managed by
a) Frequent nursing
b) Diuretics
c) Oxytocin nasal spray
d) Tight binder until condition relieved
e) Bromocriptine administration
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Breastmilk usually "comes in" sometime during the first week after
delivery. This means the milk changes from colostrum, or early milk, to
mature milk. The body may make more than a baby needs during this period
and it is easy to become overly full.
It is important to tell patients that to prevent engorgement: nurse
frequently, about 8-12 times per day. Make sure the baby latches-on well
so he/she will empty the breasts effectively. Do not skip feedings or
give formula feedings during the first several weeks.
A 28 year old woman has a 3 year history of primary infertility. She
presents with increasing symptoms of steady, aching lower abdominal pain
at the time of menses. The pain persists throughout menstruation and
often after, and radiates into the rectum. Tender nodules in the
uterosacral ligaments are noted on pelvic examination. Which one of the
following would be the most contributory investigation?
a) Postcoital test
b) Diagnostic laparoscopy
c) Hysterosalpingogram on day 9 of her cycle
d) Endometrial biopsy on day 26 of her cycle
e) Basal body temperature charting
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Endometriosis is a noncancerous disorder in which functioning
endometrial tissue is implanted outside the uterine cavity. Symptoms
depend on location of the implants and may include dysmenorrhea,
dyspareunia, infertility, dysuria, and pain during defecation.
Endometriosis is usually confined to the peritoneal or serosal surfaces
of pelvic organs, commonly the ovaries, broad ligaments, posterior
cul-de-sac, and uterosacral ligaments.
Pelvic pain, pelvic mass, alteration of menses, and infertility are
typical. Some women with extensive endometriosis are asymptomatic; some
with minimal disease have incapacitating pain. Dyspareunia and midline
pelvic pain before or during menses may develop. Such dysmenorrhea is an
important diagnostic clue, particularly if it begins after several years
of pain-free menses.
Diagnosis is suspected based on typical symptoms but must be confirmed
a) Atrophic vaginitis
b) Lichen planus
c) Contact dermatitis
d) Chronic candidiasis
e) Vaginal adenosis
The correct answer is B
Explanation
This lesion fits best with the diagnosis of vulvar lichen planus,
analogous to oral lichen planus. The genitals are a common site, and
when mucous membranes are involved, there will be a lacy white or light
gray reticulate pattern like that seen on the buccal mucosa with oral
lesions. The cause of the condition is unknown, and it typically
resolves spontaneously after 6-24 months. There is no treatment that
shortens the disease, but topical corticosteroids may relieve the
itching and improve cosmetic appearance. This woman is a little too
young for atrophic vaginiti and a little too old for vaginal adenosis.
Contact dermatitis is a nonspecific erythema without white patches.
Chronic candidiasis in an otherwise healthy woman would be expected to
respond to conventional therapy.
A 13-year-old patient has had regular menses for 1 year, with
debilitating pain beginning in the lower abdomen a few hours before
menses and lasting 24 hours. Physical examination is completely normal.
Optimal management at this time is:
a) Psychiatric referral
b) Diagnostic laparoscopy
c) Trial of oral contraceptives
d) Trial of prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors
e) Reassurance with follow-up evaluation in 6 months
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Dysmenorrhea is defined as a severe painful cramping sensation in the
lower abdomen, often accompanied by other biologic symptoms, including
sweating, tachycardia, headaches, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. All of
these occur during or just before menses. The term primary dysmenorrheal
is reserved for women with no obvious pathologic condition, and this is
due to the effects of endogenous prostaglandins.
A. Dysmenorrhea in a 13-year-old is usually due to the effects of
endogenous prostaglandins.
B. Usually, no visible peritoneal pathology can be found in primary
dysmenorrheal.
C. Although OCPs have been used for this condition, they are not as
effective as prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors.
E. This pain is debilitating to the patient. Reassurance with follow-up
evaluation most likely will not decrease her pain and discomfort.
At her first obstetric visit, a patient does not remember the date of
her last menstrual period. She has not felt fetal motion. The fetal
heartbeat is audible with the Doppler fetoscope but not with the DeLee
stethoscope. At her second visit one month later she has just felt fetal
quickening. The uterine fundus measure 17 cm. Which one of the following
would describe the state of gestation?
a) 10 to 12 weeks
b) 14 to 16 weeks
c) 16 to 20 weeks
d) 20 to 24 weeks
e) 24 to 28 weeks
The correct answer is C
Explanation
In pregnancy terms, the moment of quickening refers to the initial
motion of the fetus in the uterus as it is perceived or felt by the
pregnant woman. According to the Oxford English Dictionary, to "quicken"
means "to reach the stage of pregnancy at which the child shows signs of
life."
A woman pregnant for the first time (i.e. a primiparous woman) typically
feels fetal movements at about 20-21 weeks, whereas a woman who has
already given birth at least two times (i.e. a multiparous woman) will
typically feel movements around 18 weeks.
Since as a rule of thumb, the fundal height (in centimeters) should
roughly equal the number of weeks of pregnancy, this patient is probably
at 16-20 weeks gestation.
You see a pregnant woman at 12 weeks gestation. She has a history of
preterm labour in a previous pregnancy at 33 weeks. You perform a
vaginal swab and it is positive for bacterial vaginosis, but she is
asymptomatic. What is the appropriate management?
a) Caffeine use
b) Advanced maternal age
c) Previous history of elective abortion
d) Recent sexual activity
e) Chromosomal abnormality
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Although heavy caffeine use, advanced maternal age, and a previous
history of multiple elective abortions are all considered risk factors
for spontaneous abortion, the most common cause, which accounts for
nearly 50% of spontaneous abortions, is chromosomal abnormalities. Most
chromosomal abnormalities are random events, such as maternal and
a) Cesarean section
b) Spontaneous breech birth
c) Partial breech extraction
d) Total breech extraction
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Under such unusual circumstances, when a second twin is breech or a
breech vaginal birth is progressing quickly, a cesarean is neither
recommended nor possible.
There are several different types of vaginal breech deliveries:
The delivery can occur without help from a health professional
(spontaneous breech birth). During a spontaneous breech birth, the fetus
comes out of the vagina without problems. The health professional just
supports the fetus's body as it emerges from the birth canal.
A health professional may need to help deliver the upper part of the
fetus's body (partial breech extraction). During a partial breech
extraction, a health professional pulls gently downward on the fetus and
rotates its body as needed to deliver the shoulders, arms, and head.
Occasionally, a health professional may need to help the fetus during
the entire delivery (total breech extraction). This is usually done only
when the fetus is having problems and needs to be delivered as quickly
as possible.
During a partial or total breech extraction, the health professional may
need to reach into the birth canal in order to move part of the fetus
into a better position for delivery. If the health professional is
having difficulty delivering the fetus's head, forceps may be used to
guide the head through the birth canal. Forceps may also be used to
speed delivery if the fetus is in danger.
You are asked to evaluate a 6-year-old girl who has fallen off her
Brothers bicycle and is complaining of severe vulvar pain. The girl
will not permit anyone to touch her vulva. However, on inspection, the
upper labia majus is blue and there is vaginal bleeding. What is the
next step in managing her injury?
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Abdominal ultrasound
b) Hysterosalpingogram
c) CT of pelvis
d) Transvaginal ultrasound
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Cervical incompetence is painless cervical dilation resulting in
delivery of a live fetus between 16 and 22 weeks.
In women with weak cervical tissue, the enlarging products of conception
cause the cervix to dilate prematurely. Overall risk of recurrence of
cervical incompetence is probably ? 30%. Risk is greatest for women with
? 3 prior 2nd-trimester fetal losses.
Cervical incompetence is diagnosed clinically. There is increased use of
routine second trimester transvaginal ultrasound to diagnose.
Cerclage (reinforcement of the cervical ring with suture material)
appears to prevent preterm delivery in patients with ? 3 prior
2nd-trimester fetal losses.
Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening
ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation?
a) Hyperuricemia
b) Proteinuria
c) Hypertension
d) A 40% increase in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
e) Metabolic alkalosis
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Compared with pre-pregnancy values uric acid concentrations decreased
significantly by 8 weeks gestation and this reduced level was maintained
until about 24 weeks. Proteinuria changes little during pregnancy and if
more than 500mg/24h is lost, a disease process should be suspected.
Normally, the patient's blood pressure will not rise in pregnancy.
Glucosuria during pregnancy is not necessarily abnormal, may be
explained by the increase in GFR with impairment of tubular reabsortion
capacity for filtered glucose. Increased levels of urinary glucose also
contribute to increased susceptibility of pregnant women to urinary
tract infection. With increased minute ventilation, the gravida will
have increased alveolar ventilation, leading to respiratory alkalosis.
A 78-year-old white female notices a scant milky secretion from her
breast. Which one of the following medications can cause this symptom?
a) Famotidine (Pepcid)
b) Diazepam (Valium)
c) Nifedipine (Procardia)
d) Risperidone (Risperdal)
e) Zaleplon (Sonata)
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Many medications can cause galactorrhea, including the dopamine receptor
blocker risperidone. Additional drugs that cause this condition include
cimetidine, verapamil, and morphine. The other drugs listed do not cause
galactorrhea.
A 23 year old female is informed by one of her sexual partners that he
was recently treated for gonorrhea. They have had unprotected
intercourse on many occasions in the past few months. Her last menstrual
period was 6 weeks ago. Testing for chlamydial infection is negative,
but her gonococcal culture is positive and a pregnancy test is positive.
According to guidelines, the best treatment plan for the gonococcal
infection is
a) CT of the abdomen
b) MRI of the abdomen
c) Ultrasonography of the abdomen
d) A small bowel series
e) Intravenous pyelography
The correct answer is C
Explanation
CT has demonstrated superiority over transabdominal ultrasonography for
identifying appendicitis, associated abscess, and alternative diagnoses.
However, ultrasonography is indicated for the evaluation of women who
are pregnant and women in whom there is a high degree of suspicion for
gynecologic disease.
A 24 year old female G1P0 is admitted to hospital at 34 weeks gestation.
The patient describes passing a large volume of clear fluid per vagina
for 36 hours. Examination reveals the following: temp 38.5C, no uterine
contractions, vague lower abdominal tenderness, fetal heart rate 185
bpm. Lab investigations reveal: Hb 120, WBC 19.0, + nitrazine test of
vaginal fluid, + ferning of vaginal fluid. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Hemorrhage
Infection
Laceration of the fetus
Subsequent rupture of the uterine scar
Inversion of the uterus
a) Her diabetes should be well controlled on glyburide before she becomes pregnant
b) Her diabetes should be maintained on insulin
c) Change glyburide to another medicine
d) Maintain blood glucose on diet and exercise only
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Glyburide is probably safe during pregnancy in women with type 2 diabetes. But those on other oral agents should be
switched to insulin before pregnancy or as soon as possible after conception.
Abundant data clearly show that uncontrolled maternal diabetes is teratogenic. It appears that in many cases, adverse fetal
outcomes that have been attributed to oral glucose-lowering agentsincluding various anomalies, stillbirths, macrosomia,
and neonatal hypoglycemia?were probably due to the diabetes itself.
In the best scenario, the woman should have optimization of glucose control and HbA1C before pregnancy. Diet and exercise
are standard therapy. Insulin should be prescribed if glucose levels continue to be elevated.
If she has been taking oral agents, the dose should be adjusted to achieve optimal diabetes control while on adequate
contraception, then switched to insulin once HbA1C is optimized and she's ready to become pregnant.
A 28-year-old previously healthy female presents with a 2-day history of a painful mass on her vulva. On examination vital
signs are normal. The patient is unable to sit normally because of her pain. She has an exquisitely tender red mass in the
posterior right labia majora. It is oval in shape, with the largest dimension being about 6 cm. The treatment of choice for this
condition would be
A 20-year-old female college tennis player presents with painful anterior lower leg lesions. You note several 2- to 3-cm deep,
tender, warm lesions over both shins. The patient denies specific trauma or increased exercise. The most significant etiology
to be considered in this case is
a) Papular urticaria
b) Early rheumatoid arthritis
c) Shin splints
d) Superficial thrombophlebitis
e) Oral contraceptive use
The correct answer is E
Explanation
This patient has typical erythema nodosum, likely related to oral contraceptive use. Careful evaluation of the skin lesions
would exclude early rheumatoid arthritis, shin splints, and superficial thrombophlebitis. Papular urticaria, a hypersensitivity
reaction to common insect bites such as fleas, mosquitos, bedbugs and other insects, is another possibility to consider,
although these lesions are generally smaller, and papular or papulovesicular in appearance.
Which one of the following is consistent with terminology used in the Bethesda System for reporting cervical cytology?
a) Atypical squamous cells ? cannot exclude HSIL (ASC-H)
b) Atypical squamous cells of unknown significance ? favor neoplastic (ASCUS ? favor neoplastic)
c) Atypical squamous cells of unknown significance ? favor reactive (ASCUS ? favor reactive)
d) Atypical glandular cells of unknown significance (AGUS)
The correct answer is A
Explanation
In the Bethesda System, atypical squamous cells of unknown significance (ASCUS) was replaced by atypical squamous cells
(ACS). ACS is divided into atypical squamous cells ? cannot exclude HSIL (ASC-H) and atypical squamous cells of unknown
signifiance (ASC-US). ASCUS-favor reactive has been downgraded to negative in the system. Atypical glandular cells of
unknown significance (AGUS) has been replaced by atypical glandular cells (AGC).
Amnioinfusion during labor is indicated for which one of the following conditions
a)
b)
c)
d)
e) Uterine hyperstimulation
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Amnioinfusion has been shown to be helpful in improving perinatal outcomes in patients with moderate or thick meconiumstained amniotic fluid. It also is useful for suspected umbilical cord compression during labor. Amnioinfusion has been used
for preterm rupture of membranes and oligohydramnios, but there is not enough evidence to support its use. It also is not
considered a therapeutic option for prolonged rupture of membranes, persistent late fetal heart rate decelerations, fetal
tachycardia, or uterine hyperstimulation.
Which one of the following is appropriate and effective treatment for genitourinary gonorrhea in a 20-year-old male with a
purulent urethral discharge?
a) Diagnostic laparoscopy
b) Danazol
c) Oral prostaglandin inhibitor
d) Codeine and acetaminophen combination
e) Reassurance
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Dysmenorrhea is pelvic pain with menses. Primary dysmenorrhea begins
during adolescence and cannot be explained by structural gynecologic
disorders. Usually, secondary dysmenorrhea begins during adulthood and
is due to underlying pelvic abnormalities. Diagnosis is clinical and by
exclusion of structural disorders with pelvic ultrasonography and tests
directed at any other clinically suspected causes.
Underlying disorders are treated. Pain is treated with NSAIDs and
sometimes with low-dose estrogen-progestin contraceptives. Nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) block the Cox enzymes and reduce
prostaglandins throughout the body. As a consequence, ongoing
inflammation, pain, and fever are reduced.
A 70 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of involuntary
loss of urine. Her bladder never feels empty.
The patients history is significant for a 15 year history of
uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. She is on daily insulin injections,
however her HbA1c has been always around 10%. She denies any history of
Sphincter incompetence
Detrusor instability
Detrusor hypotonia
Uninhibited neurogenic bladder
a) Chorioamnionitis
b) Placenta previa
c) Placental abruption
d) Preeclampsia
e) Thromboembolism
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Placental abruption is the most likely diagnosis of this patient. Please
be aware that the absence of vaginal bleeding does not rule out
placental abruption. This is a common trick on the Boards, don?t fall in
this trap. 20 % of abruptio placentae cases occur in the retroplacental
space and do not manifest by vaginal bleeding. Abdominal pain is always
present.
Placenta previa can be ruled out in the absence of vaginal bleeding.
Hypertension, proteinuria and edema are the classic triad of preeclampsia.
Thromboembolism usually manifests as unilateral limb pain, chest pain,
dyspnea, ischemia?
In the absence of fever and risk factors (UTI or membrane rupture)
chorioamnionitis is unlikely.
As a single measurement, which one of the following provides the most
accurate estimate of gestational age by ultrasound determination during
the second trimester?
a) Transabdominal diameter
b) Biparietal diameter
c) Femur length
d) Crown-rump length
The correct answer is B
Explanation
All of the options listed can be assessed by ultrasonography. Crown-rump
length is a very accurate parameter in the first trimester, but the
biparietal diameter is the most accurate parameter during the second
trimester. Both have a 95% confidence level of being within 5-10 days of
the actual gestational age when used at the proper time.
A 19-year-old primigravida at approximately 40 weeks gestation comes to
the hospital with painful contractions. She has received no prenatal
care. Examination reveals that her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 85%
effaced at ?1 station. Her blood pressure is 164/111 mm Hg and a urine
dipstick shows 3+ protein. She reports that she has had severe headaches
for 3 days and has noticed a lot of swelling in her legs and feet.
Moments after blood is drawn and intravenous access is obtained, she has
a generalized tonic-clonic seizure and fetal heart tones drop to 60
beats/min.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate immediate course of
action?
a) Emergency cesarean section
b) Lorazepam (Ativan), 2 mg intravenous push, repeated in 2 minutes
if necessary
c) Magnesium sulfate, 4g loading dose intravenously over 20mins,
followed by a drip at 2 g/hr
d) Attachment of a fetal scalp electrode
e) Terbutaline (Brethine), 0.25 mg subcutaneously
The correct answer is C
Explanation
This patient has eclampsia. When an eclamptic seizure occurs, the first
priority is to control the convulsions and prevent their recurrence with
a 4- to 6-g intravenous or intramuscular loading dose of magnesium
Explanation
With her prior history of PID, her chances of tubal damage are
significantly elevated. Since she is pregnant with an HCG titer over
2000 mIU/ml, an intrauterine gestation sac should have been seen on the
endovaginal ultrasound. With the moderate amount of free fluid in the
cul-de-sac, along with the pelvic pain and normal white count and
temperature, the index of suspicion for an ectopic must be high.
A. The white count is normal and her temperature is normal as well. With
a positive HCG titer, an ectopic should be the first suspicion.
C. This can cause free fluid in the cul-de-sac as well as pelvic pain.
With her history of PID in the past, the presence of tubal damage is
high; so one should be much more suspicious of an ectopic. At an HCG
titer of 5,400, an IUP should have been seen.
D. Although a source of pelvic pain, with the HCG titer, absence of an
IUP on ultrasound, and free fluid in the cul-de-sac, ectopic pregnancy
should be the primary diagnosis.
E. Can be a source of pelvic pain. See answer to D.
A 19-year-old primigravid at 40 weeks gestation has been in labor for
the last 8 hours. Fetal heart tones have a baseline for 135/min with
Explanation
This patient is progressing in normal fashion. She is allowed up to 2
hours in the second stage and even longer if the heart tones are
reassuring. There is no need to intervene, and one would anticipate that
the patient will be having a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery within
the next hour.
A. The patient has made adequate descent in the last hour. She can push
for at least another hour and maybe more if the fetal condition remains
reassuring. No indication for instrumental vaginal delivery is present.
B. The patient has made adequate descent in the last hour. She can push
for at least another hour and maybe more if the fetal condition remains
reassuring. No indication for instrumental vaginal delivery is present.
D. The patient has made adequate descent in the last hour. She can push
for at least another hour and maybe more if the fetal condition remains
reassuring. Since progress has been made, there is no need to augment
the labor with pitocin.
E. The patient has made adequate descent in the last hour. She can push
for at least another hour and maybe more if the fetal condition remains
reassuring. No indication for cesarean delivery is present.
A young female enters your office wanting to start oral contraceptive
pills. All of the following are contraindications to starting OCPs, except
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Explanation
Absolute contraindications to oral contraceptive pill (OCP) use are:
Thrombophlebitis, thromboembolic disorders, cerebrovascular disorders,
ischemic heart disease, coronary artery disease, known or suspected
cancer of the breast, known or suspected estrogendependent cancer, known
or suspected pregnancy, benign or malignant liver tumor, undiagnosed
abnormal genital bleeding.
6-year-old female presents with lower abdominal pain and vaginal
bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. A urine pregnancy
test is positive, and a quantitative beta-hCG level is 2500 mIU/mL.
Intravaginal ultrasonography shows no evidence of an intrauterine
gestational sac. Baseline laboratory tests, including a CBC, liver
function tests, and renal function tests, are all normal. She is treated
with a single dose of intramuscular methotrexate (Trexall) at 50 mg/m^2
of body surface. Four days later the patient presents for reevaluation,
and her quantitative beta-hCG level is found to be 2800 mIU/mL.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?
a) A repeat dose of methotrexate, 50 mg/m^2 of body surface
b) Methotrexate, 1 mg/kg every other day, plus leucovorin, 0.1 mg/kg
on alternate days
c) Repeat transvaginal ultrasonography to evaluate for a viable
intrauterine pregnancy
d) Laparoscopy with salpingostomy
e) Expectant management
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Management of ectopic pregnancy with methotrexate is appropriate in
patients who have a beta-hCG level <15,000 mIU/mL; who are without liver
or renal disease, immune or platelet compromise, or significant
pulmonary disease; and who are reliable and able to follow up daily if
necessary.
Patients may be treated either with single-dose or multiple-dose
methotrexate regimens, which may be repeated if the beta-hCG level does
not decline. If the beta-hCG level increases, surgical intervention is
needed. Laparoscopy with salpingostomy is the preferred method.
Expectant management is appropriate only if a patient has a beta-hCG
level <1000 mIU/mL that is declining.
A 30 year old female presents to your office complaining of painful
sexual intercourse for the past few weeks. The pain was getting
progressively worse until it became unbearable.
Her past medical history is significant for infertility; she has been
trying to conceive for the past 3 years without success. She admits to
having cramping pain that usually begins a few days prior to and
resolves a few days after her period. She denies any sexually
transmitted infections or pelvic inflammatory disease.
Physical exam is significant for immobile uterus with nodularity along
the uterosacral ligaments and palpable tender right adnexal mass.
Ultrasound shows a heterogeneous content of the right ovary. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Endometriosis
Pelvic congestion syndrome
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
Vaginismus
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Endometriosis is a benign condition, the presence of endometrium-like
glands and stroma outside the uterus. It is most often found in the
ovaries but can also be found in other places, including fallopian
tubes, bladder and intestines, uterine wall, and the lining of the
pelvis. Patients with endometriosis present with the dys Syndrome:
dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia (painful intercourse), dyschezia (painful
defecation) and dysuria.
Physical exam often reveals tender adnexal mass and firm nodularities
along the broad ligament, uterosacral ligament or cul de sac.
The chocolate cyst of endometriosis in the ovary is usually seen as a
heterogeneous adnexal mass.
Endometriosis can cause infertility; in fact 30 % of infertile couples
are diagnosed with this condition.
The gold standard for diagnosis of endometriosis remains Laparoscopy.
An infant is born. At one minute the heart rate is 120 per minute,
respiratory effort is a good strong cry, muscle tone is active, reflex
irritability is absent, colour is pink with blue extremities. What is
the one minute Apgar score?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
5
6
7
8
9
Activity
(Muscle tone)
Pulse
(heart rate)
0Point
Grimace
(response to smell or foot slap)
1Point
2Point
Limp
limbs flexed
active movement
absent
absent
grimace
Appearance
(color)
blue
body pink
Respiration
(breathing)
absent
irregular
obstruction
e) Order renal ultrasonography to rule out a perinephric abscess
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Renal infection is the most common serious medical problem that
complicates pregnancy. Infection is more common after midpregnancy, and
is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the lower tract. Escheria
coli is the offending bacteria in approximately 75% of cases. About 15%
of women with acute pyelonephritis are bacteremic. A common finding is
thermoregulatory instability, with very high spiking fevers sometimes
followed by hypothermia. Almost 95% of women will be afebrile by 72
hours. However, it is common to see continued fever spikes up until that
time. Thus, further evaluation is not indicated unless clinical
improvement is not obvious at 48-71 hours. If this is the case, the
patient should be evaluated for urinary tract obstruction, urinary
calculi and an intrarenal or perinephric abcess. Ultrasonography, plain
radiography, and modified intravenous pyelography are all acceptable
methods, depending on the clinical setting.
A 30 year old woman presents with a long standing history of irregular
menstrual periods which are often associated with severe pelvic pain and
menorrhagia She has also been experiencing dyspareunia and pain during
defecation. Which one of the following is most likely to assist you in
diagnosing this patient's condition?
a) Clinical history
b) Laparoscopy
c) Pelvic examination
d) Hysterosalpingogram (HSG)
e) Culdocentesis during menses
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Endometriosis is a noncancerous disorder in which functioning
endometrial tissue is implanted outside the uterine cavity. Symptoms
depend on location of the implants and may include dysmenorrhea,
dyspareunia, infertility, dysuria, and pain during defecation.
Pelvic pain, pelvic mass, alteration of menses, and infertility are
typical. Some women with extensive endometriosis are asymptomatic; some
with minimal disease have incapacitating pain. Dyspareunia and midline
pelvic pain before or during menses may develop. Such dysmenorrhea is an
important diagnostic clue, particularly if it begins after several years
of pain-free menses.
Diagnosis is suspected based on typical symptoms but must be confirmed
by biopsy, usually via pelvic laparoscopy.
In the investigation of infertility, a normal semen analysis must contain
a) A volume of 0.5-1 mL
b) Morphology > 85% normal forms
c) WBC < 1 per high power field
d) Motility > 75%
e) Sperm count > 20 million sperm/mL
The correct answer is E
Explanation
The following are normal semen analysis:
Volume >2.0 mL
pH 7.2-7.8
Concentration >20x10^6/mL (20 million/mL)
Motility >50%
Morphology >30% normal
WBC < 1x10^6/mL
40 year old woman mother of four children and whose last child had
problems at birth with hemolytic disease of the newborn has just been
rushed to the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. She has
lost a lot of blood and needs immediate transfusion but there is no time
to cross and type her blood. She should receive blood that is
a) O, Rh positive
b) AB, Rh positive
c) O, Rh negative
d) AB, Rh negative
e) B, Rh positive
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Blood is classified by type. A person's blood type is determined by the
presence or absence of certain proteins (Rh factor and blood group
antigens A and B) on the surface of red blood cells.
The four main blood types are A, B, AB, and O, and for each type, the
blood is either Rh-positive or Rh-negative. For example, a person with
O-negative blood has red blood cells that lack both A and B antigens and
the Rh factor. A person with AB-positive blood has red blood cells that
have A and B antigens and the Rh factor. Some blood types are far more
common than others.
A blood transfusion is safest when the blood type of the transfused
blood precisely matches the recipient's blood type. Therefore, before a
transfusion, blood banks perform a test called a ?type and cross-match?
on the donor's and the recipient's blood. This test minimizes the chance
of a dangerous or possibly fatal reaction.
However, in an emergency, anyone can receive type O red blood cells.
Thus, people with type O blood are known as universal donors. People
with type AB blood can receive red blood cells from any blood type and
are thus known as universal recipients. Recipients whose blood is
Rh-negative must receive blood from Rh-negative donors, but recipients
whose blood is Rh-positive may receive Rh-positive or Rh-negative blood.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs in women who are Rh-negative.
A 41 year old woman presents with obesity, hirsutism and oligomenorrhea.
Which of the following tests will give the *least* useful information?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Estradiol
LH
Testosterone
TSH
DHEA
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Polycystic ovary syndrome is characterized by mild obesity, irregular
menses or amenorrhea, and signs of androgen excess (hirsutism, acne).
Typically, the ovaries contain multiple cysts. Diagnosis is by pregnancy
testing, hormone level measurement, and imaging to exclude a virilizing
tumor.
Testing includes pregnancy testing and measurement of serum estradiol,
prolactin, and thyroid-stimulating hormone. Diagnosis is confirmed by
ultrasonography showing > 10 follicles per ovary; follicles usually
occur in the periphery and resemble a string of pearls.
If ovarian follicles or hirsutism is present, serum testosterone and
dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS) levels are measured.
LH/FSH ratio is more important than LH by itself. The ratio is normally
about 1:1 in premenopausal women, but with PCOS a ratio of greater than
2:1 or 3:1 may be considered diagnostic.
Vaginal discharge which is fishy in odor and associated with >20% clue
cells on microscopy will not be associated with which of the following
Immunodeficiency
Neonatal lupus
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
T cell immune deficiency syndrome
Transient hypogammaglobulinemia
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Hemolytic disease of the newborn (also called erythroblastosis fetalis)
is a condition in which red blood cells are broken down or destroyed
more rapidly than is normal. The newborn's red blood cells are destroyed
by antibodies that were produced by the mother and crossed the placenta
from the mother's circulation into the fetal circulation before
delivery. A mother who is Rh-negative may have produced antibodies
against Rh-positive blood cells after she was exposed to red blood cells
of a previous fetus that was Rh-positive. Such exposure may occur during
pregnancy or labor, but may also occur if the mother had been
accidentally transfused with Rh-positive blood at any time earlier in life.
The mother's body responds to the ?incompatible blood? by producing
antibodies to destroy the ?foreign? Rh-positive cells. These antibodies
cross the placenta during a subsequent pregnancy. If the fetus she is
carrying is Rh-negative, there is no consequence. However, if the fetus
has Rh-positive red blood cells, the mother's antibodies attach to, and
start to destroy, the fetal red blood cells, leading to anemia of
varying degrees. This anemia begins in the fetus and continues after
delivery.
A 28-year-old female presents 2 weeks post partum complaining of
palpitations, diarrhea, weight loss, and being ?jumpy.? Her examination
is normal except for a slightly enlarged and tender thyroid gland. Her
TSH level is 0.02 U/mL (N 0.5?5.5), with a higher than normal level of
free T_3 .
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
Prednisone
Propranolol (Inderal)
Propylthiouracil
Radioactive iodine
The correct answer is C
Explanation
This patient presents with signs, symptoms, and laboratory evidence of
postpartum thyroiditis. This is an autoimmune attack of the thyroid
gland that occurs in 5%?10% of all mothers within a year of delivery.
The transient increase of thyroid hormone that results is often
unnoticed but can cause clinical hyperthyroidism. A -blocker is
recommended to reduce heart irregularities and other symptoms related to
high levels of circulating thyroid hormone. Propylthiouracil prevents
the production of new thyroid hormone and is not indicated because this
condition results only in a release of thyroid hormone that has already
been created. Up to one-third of women with this condition will become
chronically hypothyroid and will require regular thyroid replacement.
This patient is not currently hypothyroid, so she would not benefit from
replacement with levothyroxine.
A 60 year old female has been on conjugated equine
estrogens/medroxyprogesterone (Prempro) since she went through menopause
at age 52. She still has her uterus and ovaries. She is having no side
effects that she is aware of and is experiencing no vaginal bleeding.
She is worried about the health effects of her hormone replacement
therapy and asks your advice about risks versus benefits. Which one of
the following would be accurate advice regarding these risks and benefits
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Hemostasis
Prognosis:
Fifty percent of women with placenta previa have preterm delivery.
Those cases complicated with vaginal bleeding and extreme prematurity
are at an increased risk of perinatal death.
A greater incidence of fetal malformations and growth restriction is
noted with placenta previa.
An increased risk of neurodevelopmental delay and sudden infant death
syndrome (SIDS) is associated with placenta previa.
Neonates are also more likely to have low birth weight (<2500 g),
respiratory distress syndrome, jaundice, NICU admissions, and longer
hospital stay.
A 34 year old white female at 32 weeks gestation develops a venous
thromboembolism. Following 5 days of intravenous heparin in the
hospital, which one of the following regimens would be most appropriate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Heparin does not cross the placenta and is safe for the fetus, whereas
coumarin derivatives can cause fetal bleeding and are teratogenic during
weeks 6-12. Therefore, pregnant women with venous thromboembolism should
receive intravenous heparin for 5 days, followed by adjusted-dose
subcutaneous heparin every 12 hours until delivery. Increasingly,
low-molecular-weight heparins are being used instead of unfractioned
heparin because of ease of administration and the reduced need for
coagulation monitoring. Intravenous heparin is not necessary after the
patient leaves the hospital, and aspirin has not been shown to be
beneficial.
A patient at 17 weeks' gestation is diagnosed as having an intrauterine
fetal demise. She returns to your office 5 weeks later and has not had a
miscarriage, although she has had some occasional spotting. This patient
is at increased risk for which of the following?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Septic abortion
Recurrent abortions
Consumptive coagulopathy with hypofibrinogenemia
Future infertility
Ectopic pregnancies
An 18-year-old female college freshman, who says she has never been
sexually active, has just begun a serious relationship with a
19-year-old male. Although they have not yet engaged in sexual
intercourse, she wants to begin oral contraception. Her periods are
regular. She began her current menses 2 days ago and would prefer to
delay a pelvic examination until her period has ended. Her blood
pressure is normal.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate plan for this visit?
a) Prescribe an oral contraceptive and have her return in 2 weeks for
a pelvic examination
b) Delay prescribing an oral contraceptive until after you can
complete a pelvic examination with STD screening
c) Delay prescribing an oral contraceptive until the result of a
Papnicolaou smear is known
d) Delay prescribing an oral contraceptive until a pregnancy test is
negative 2 weeks after the onset of her menses
The correct answer is A
Explanation
A history, pregnancy test (if indicated), and blood pressure reading
constitute an adequate evaluation before beginning hormonal
contraception. The pelvic examination may be deferred to a later visit.
It is now recommended that cervical cancer screening be delayed until 3
years after the onset of vaginal intercourse, or no later than 21 years
of age, neither of which have occurred in this case. However, sexually
active women under the age of 25 should be screened for chlamydial
infection. If a pregnancy test were necessary it could be done at the
initial visit, but waiting another 2 weeks delays the initiation of
birth control, increasing the risk for pregnancy.
Radical hysterectomy
Simple hysterectomy
Cervical cone biopsy
Cryotherapy of the cervix
Colposcopic directed biopsy
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Condylomata acuminata
Condylomata lata
Early age at menarche
History of chlamydia
Nulliparity
a) Cushings syndrome
b) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
c) Virilizing adrenal tumor
d) Prolactinoma
e) Adult-onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a very heterogenrous syndrome, but
is often characterized by signs and symptoms of androgen excess and
chronic anovulation (menstrual irregularity, oligo- or amenorrhea).
Hirsutism and acne are common presenting signs of hyperandrogenism.
Seventy percent of patients are obese, and hyperinsulinemia and insulin
resistance are common. LH is usually elevated, but an LH:FSH ratio of
3:1 or greater is a better indicator of PCOS. The FSH is usually normal
or mildly low. Serum testosterone and prolactin are often mildly to
moderately elevated. DHEA-S levels are normal in PCOS. Fasting insulin
levels may be high and these patients should be screened for overt
diabetes mellitus or glucose intolerance, and hyperlipidemia.
Patients with Cushings syndrome and adult-onset congenital adrenal
hyperplasia (CAH) may also present with hirsutism, acne, and menstrual
abnormalities. However, in this patient a normal dexamethasone
suppression test makes Cushings syndrome an unlikely diagnosis. 17
hydroxyprogesterone (17 OHP) is a screening test for adult-onset CAH.
CAH patients may also have an elevated LH. In contrast, 17 OHP levels
are normal in women with PCOS.
A virilizing adrenal tumor is very unlikely unless mean testosterone
measurements are markedly elevated (>150-200 ng/dL). In addition, DHEA-S
level s are usually very high (> 700 g/dL). The clinical syndrome
usually presents with rapidly progressive hirsutism.
Lastly, serum prolactin levels are usually very high in women with
prolactinomas ( > 200 ng/mL). These patients may present with signs of
androgen excess and menstrual irregularity, as well as headache, visual
a) Oxybutynin (Ditropan)
b) Pseudeoephedrine
c) Topical estrogen (Premarin)
d) Tolterodine (Detrol)
e) Kegel exercises
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Urge incontinence is characterized by urinary urgency and frequency,
often resulting in uncontrollable bladder contractions with large-volume
urine loss. Stress incontinence is brought on by a sudden increase in
intra-abdominal pressure associated with coughing, sneezing, or
laughing. Urine volume is small, as urine loss occurs only during the
strain.
Although the selective anticholinergic medicine tolterodine and the
older nonselective oxybutynin are often prescribed as initial therapy
for urge incontinence, behavioral therapy is the treatment of choice,
including bladder training and pelvic floor muscle (Kegel) exercises.
Kegel exercises are particularly useful, and randomized, controlled
trials have consistently shown them to be more effective than
anticholinergic medication in the treatment of urge incontinence.
Topical estrogens and alfa-adrenergic agonists have been used with
inconsistent results in the treatment of stress incontinence.
Nullipara
Diabetes
History of preeclampsia
Multiparity
Fetal distress
Sudden, tearing uterine pain
Vaginal hemorrhage
Cessation of uterine contractions
Regression of the fetus
a) Surgery
b) Chemotherapy
c) Radiotherapy
d) Hormone treatment
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Ovarian cancer is often fatal because it is usually advanced when
diagnosed. Symptoms are usually absent in early stage and nonspecific in
advanced stage. Evaluation usually includes ultrasonography, CT or MRI,
and measurement of tumor markers (eg, cancer antigen 125). Diagnosis is
by histologic analysis. Staging is surgical.
Treatment requires hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy,
excision of as much involved tissue as possible, and, unless cancer is
localized, chemotherapy.
18 year old white nulliparous student comes to your office. She had
unprotected intercourse within the past 24 hours and does not want to
become pregnant. You explain all options, including nonintervention. She
decides she does not want to be pregnant and requests emergency
contraception. Of the following, which one would be the most
appropriate, effective, and best tolerated for this patient?
d) Gentamicin
The correct answer is C
Explanation
The FDA has established a fetal risk summary dividing drugs into
categories. Category A drugs have been shown in controlled studies to
pose no risk. At present there are no category A antibiotics. Most fall
into categories B and C, with category B drugs thought to be relatively
safe in pregnancy. When possible, a category B antibiotic should be
chosen for treatment of a pregnant patient. Category C drugs have
unknown fetal risk with no adequate human studies, and the possibility
of risks and benefits must be considered before prescribing them for
pregnant women. Category D drugs show some evidence for fetal risk;
although there may be times when use of these drugs is necessary, they
should not be used unless there is a very serious or life-threatening
situation. Category X drugs have proven fetal risk and are
contraindicated in pregnancy.
Of the drugs listed, only nitrofurantoin is in category B. The others
are all category C drugs.
The FDA is currently in the process of revising their classification and
labeling for drugs in pregnancy and lactation.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Maternal obesity
Macrosomia
Maternal diabetes
Prolonged second stage of labour
Outlet forceps delivery
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Placental abruption
Placental previa
Uterine hyperstimulation
Uterine rupture
Cord prolapse
Lithium
Warfarin
Chloramphenicol
Estrogen
Heroin
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Inevitable abortion
Completed abortion
Threatened abortion
Incomplete abortion
Missed abortion
Turner syndrome
Anorexia
Androgen insensitivity syndrome
Gonadal dysgenesis
Imperforate hymen
a)
b)
c)
d)
Serum HCG
Ultrasound
AFP
CT abdomen
e) MRI abdomen
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Ultrasonography is the initial test of choice for evaluating the
possibility of multiple gestation. It should be done if uterine size is
larger than expected, or if pregnancy-associated symptoms are excessive.
It should also be done in women who received fertility treatment. An
initial sonogram that shows a single pregnancy does not rule out
multiple gestation. In one study, 30 of 220 twin pregnancies had an
original sonogram which showed a single pregnancy. Serum HCG and MRI
would not be indicated at this stage of the evaluation.
A 17 year old white female visits you for a physical examination prior
to entering college. During the review of systems her only complaint is
cyclic lower abdominal cramps around the onset of menstruation. She
reports that pain has been present to some degree with most of her
periods since about 6 months after menarche. The pain is often severe
enough for her to miss school. Each episode lasts 24-48 hours and is
somewhat relieved by rest and acetaminophen. Her menstrual history is
otherwise normal. She denies ever being sexually active and tells you
that she has received little empathy from her mother, who has similar
symptoms as an adolescent that improved after her first pregnancy.
Pelvic and rectal examinations are within normal limits. Which one of
the following management choices would be appropriate at this time?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Cesarean section
Augmentation of labor with oxytocin
Radiographic pelvimetry
Reexamine in 1 hour
Amniotomy an placement of internal monitors
a) Acute salpingitis
b) Ectopic pregnancy
c) UTI
d) Trichomonas
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Pelvic inflammatory disease is infection of the upper female genital
tract: the cervix, uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries; abscesses may
occur. Common symptoms and signs include lower abdominal pain, cervical
discharge, and irregular vaginal bleeding. Long-term complications
include infertility, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) results from microorganisms ascending
from the vagina and cervix into the endometrium and fallopian tubes.
Infection of the cervix (cervicitis) causes mucopurulent discharge.
Infection of the fallopian tubes (salpingitis) and uterus (endometritis)
tend to occur together. If severe, infection can spread to the ovaries
(oophoritis) and then the peritoneum (peritonitis). These infections are
called salpingitis even though they involve other structures.
Diagnosis includes PCR of cervical specimens for Neisseria gonorrhoeae
and chlamydiae, microscopic examination of cervical discharge (usually),
and ultrasonography or laparoscopy (occasionally). Treatment is with
antibiotics.
A 30 year old white gravida 2 para 2 presents to your office complaining
of mild to moderate tenderness in the left groin. She and her husband
use condoms and contraceptive foam for birth control. An examination
fails to elicit any significant abdominal pain, but on pelvic
examination a tender, 4-5 cm. freely movable left adnexal mass is felt.
A qualitative serum hCG is negative. The most likely diagnosis is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Dysgerminoma
Corpus luteum cyst
Serous cystadenoma
Dermoid cyst
Ovarian fibroma
Ectopic pregnancy
Threatened abortion
Degenerating fibroid
Placenta previa
Incomplete abortion
Correct Answer:* e)
Explanation
An incomplete abortion occurs when the woman's body expels only a
One
Two
Three
Four
Five
Colposcopy
Endocervical curettage
Human papillomavirus (HPV) testing
Cervical staining
A cervical biopsy
Explanation
Of the choices listed, only endocervical curettage is contraindicated in
pregnancy. Colposcopy, cervical biopsy, cervical staining, and HPV
testing can all be safely performed during pregnancy.
a) Intramural fibroid
b) Didelphys uterus
c) Previous cervical gonoccocal infection
d) Pregnancy
e) Vasovagal reactivity
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Intrauterine devices (IUDs) are used widely by women as a means of
contraception because they are highly effective, have no systemic
effects and can last up to 5 years.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Placenta previa
Abruptio placentae
Vasa previa
Marginal sinus bleeding
Rupture of cervical varix
Adnexal pain
Cervical motion tenderness
Lower abdominal pain
Pelvic mass
Fever
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Cervical culture
Culdocentesis
Laparoscopy
Serum beta-HCG concentration
Ultrasonography of the pelvis
Explanation
The most common cause of secondary amenorrhea is anovulation. Since she
had a vaginal delivery 2 years ago, she has not had a prolonged exposure
to unopposed estrogen, so the likelihood of an endometrial malignancy is
very low. The most common finding is proliferative endometrium in this
case. An Arias Stella reaction is found in pregnancy; it is the
hypersecretory gland appearance seen on histopathology.
A. There have been only 2 years since her last delivery. It is unlikely
that she has developed an estrogen induced neoplasia in that time frame.
B. See answer to A.
C. See answer to A.
E. This is the hypersecretory reaction to pregnancy.
A 31 year old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant with her third child comes
to the office for a routine prenatal visit. She has used crack cocaine
on and off throughout this pregnancy. You have encouraged her to seek
help, however, she has made no attempt to abstain from using cocaine and
she refuses to commit herself to another drug treatment program. In your
attempt to persuade this patient to stop using cocaine, you advise her
that if she continues to use cocaine during the pregnancy, she increases
her risk for which of the following?
a) Chorioamnionitis
b) Gestational diabetes
c) Placental abruption
d) Placenta previa
e) Preeclampsia
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Cocaine toxicity results from its intensive activation of the
sympathetic nervous system, producing vasoconstriction and hypertension.
Vasoconstriction produces decreased placental perfusion and placental
insufficiency. Hypertension may result in placental abruption. There may
be coexisting factors contributing to placental abruption in cocaine
addicts. In addition to an increased risk of abruption, there is an
increased incidence of congenital anomalies, particularly of the
gastrointestinal and urinary tracts, when cocaine has been abused during
pregnancy. This fact may also be used in a persuasive manner to convince
the patient to discontinue her abuse of cocaine.
Other potential risks to the cocaine-abusing gravida include premature
labor, premature delivery, and intrauterine growth retardation. If a
patient refuses treatment, continued visits and inquiries about
substance abuse are appropriate. Any positive efforts by the patient to
discontinue use should be encouraged. Documentation of referral efforts
and the fact that the patient was informed about the effects of illicit
drugs on the pregnancy should be made. There is no effective chemical
detoxification or replacement therapy for cocaine addicts. Treatment
emphasizes abstinence and psychosocial counseling.
A 28 year old white female presents with painful genital ulcers. She has
not had any previous episodes of similar outbreaks. She is single, but
has had several heterosexual relationships. She has been with her
current partner for 3 years. A culture confirms a herpes simplex virus
(HSV) infection. Which one of the following is true regarding her situation?
a) Suppressive therapy can reduce the risk of transmission to her
partner
b) In the genital area, HSV type 1 infection can be differentiated
clinically from HSV type 2 infection
c) This outbreak is conclusive evidence of infidelity in her partner
d) An HSV vaccine is available for her partner to reduce his risk of
infection
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Suppressive therapy with acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famiciclovir
reduces, but does not eliminate, the risk of transmission of HSV to
sexual partners. HSV type 1 and HSV type 2 infections in the genital
area are clinically identical. Psychological issues, including anger,
guilt, low self-esteem, anxiety, and depression are common after first
receiving a diagnosis of genital HSV infection. Initial clinical
outbreaks of genital HSV infections are often recurrences of previous
infection. Either of the partners may have had an asymptomatic infection
acquired in a previous relationship. An experimental HSV type 2 vaccine
has been developed, but it is ineffective in men.
A 21-year-old married Hispanic female who is using no method of
contraception presents to your office for evaluation of vaginal spotting
6 weeks after her last menstrual period. Her periods have previously
been regular. She has had one previous episode of pelvic inflammatory
disease. A home pregnancy test is positive.
Which one of the following is true in this situation?
a) HELLP syndrome
b) Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
c) Acute cholelithiasis
d) Acute viral hepatitis
e) Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Viral hepatitis is the most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy,
accounting for 50% of all cases. This is important to recognize, as it
should be considered first in the differential diagnosis of jaundice and
elevated transaminase levels, in particular ALT. In this situation, the
diagnosis can be made or excluded by ordering serologic tests for
hepatitis. If these are negative, further evaluation for more infrequent
causes of jaundice in pregnancy should be pursued.
HELLP syndrome is associated with preeclampsia and is rare, occurring in
0.1% of all pregnancies. It presents with hemolysis, elevated liver
enzymes, and low platelets. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy presents as a
complication of preeclampsia and occurs in 1 in 13,000 pregnancies.
Acute cholelithiasis usually does not present with jaundice, but with
right upper quadrant pain. Jaundice does occur, however, if
choledocholithiasis is present. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is
also rare, occurring in 0.01% of all pregnancies. This presents with
pruritis and/or jaundice.
A 17-year-old white female presents with new-onset left-sided lower
abdominal pain. Color flow Doppler ultrasonography, in addition to
pelvic ultrasonography, would be most useful for evaluating.
a)
b)
c)
d)
Adnexal torsion
Pelvic abscess
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Ruptured ovarian cyst
Sulfonamide
Ampicillin
Diazepam
Heparin
a) Chlamydia, doxycycline
b) Syphilis, penicillin
c) Herpes, acyclovir
d) UTI, ciprofloxacin
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Uncomplicated gonococcal infection of the urethra, cervix, rectum, and
pharynx is treated with a single dose of ceftriaxone. Patients are also
empirically treated for chlamydia infection, which is often asymptomatic
or masked by symptoms of gonorrhea.
Concomitant infection with Chlamydia occurs in 15 to 25% of heterosexual
men and 35 to 50% of women.
A 21 year old woman returns to the office 2 months after having a
medroxyprogesterone injection for contraception. She is complaining of
nonstop bleeding since her menses 3 weeks ago. She is using eight pads a
day. She denies any sexual activity since she received the injection.
She realizes that spotting is a side effect; however, she is anxious
about the length of time and the amount of the bleeding. She tells you,
"I can't stand this, Doctor. I want the bleeding to stop now!" Repeat
pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most
appropriate treatment option for her bleeding?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Normal pregnancy
Wrong estimation of gestational age
Twin pregnancy
Bilateral renal agenesis
Explanation
Bilateral renal agenesis is associated with oligohydramnios, as the
fetus cannot produce urine and contribute to the volume of the amniotic
fluid. Therefore uterine size would be small for dates. The other answer
choices could have a large uterine size on physical exam.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Preeclampsia
Unmasked chronic hypertension
Essential hypertension
Gestational hypertension
Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets (HELLP) syndrome
a)
b)
c)
d)
The correct answer is B
Explanation
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Hydropos
Laryngeal papillomas
Chronic active hepatitis
Seizures
Pneumonia
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a) Insulin
b) Estrogen
c) Thyroid hormone (T4)
d) Human placental lactogen
e) Inhibin
The correct answer is B
Explanation
The high level of estrogen is inhibitory to the production of milk by
the breast despite the extremely high level of prolactin. After delivery
of the fetus and placenta, the level of estriol decreases until the
inhibitory effect is removed, at which time significant milk production
begins (2-3 days).
A. Insulin levels elevate in pregnancy. This hormone, however, does not
suppress lactation.
C. Total T4 levels rise in pregnancy due to an increase in thyroid
hormone binding globulin. Free T4 levels stay essentially unchanged.
D. HPL increases free fatty acids, allowing glucose and amino acids to
be conserved for use by the fetus.
E. Inhibin is produced by the placenta. Levels rise during pregnancy,
causing a suppression of maternal gonadotropins.
A 27 year old woman who is 15 weeks pregnant with her first child
presents to the office with exquisitely painful, blister-like lesions on
her labia. She had similar episodes before pregnancy. Her temperature is
normal. Which one of the following statements about her pregnancy is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Warfarin
Heparin
Clopidogrel
Dipyridamole
Streptokinase
a)
b)
c)
d)
Diabetes Mellitus
Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia
Lichen sclerosis
Pubic lice
a) Varicella
b) Influenza
c) Rubella
d) Pneumococcal vaccine
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Influenza vaccine should be given to all pregnant women who will be in
the second or third trimester during the influenza season. High-risk
patients should be vaccinated regardless of the trimester. The vaccine
is a killed virus preparation and its safety in pregnancy is
well-established. Rubella and varicella vaccines contain live attenuated
virus and are associated with adverse effects on the fetus. The safety
of the pneumococcal vaccine in pregnancy has not been evaluated.
a) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
b) Gatifloxacin (Tequin)
c) Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
d) Moxifloxacin (Avelox)
e) Norfloxacin (Noroxin)
The correct answer is D
Explanation
When trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole is contraindicated, a 3-day course of
ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, norfloxacin, lomefloxacin, or gatifloxacin
is a reasonable alternative. Moxifloxacin attains inadequate urinary
concentrations and should not be used in the management of urinary tract
infections.
A 22 year old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of
sudden onset of severe cramping in the right lower quadrant. Her
temperature is 37.4?C (99.4?F), pulse is 90 bpm, and blood pressure is
100/70 mm Hg. The abdomen is tender to palpitation in the right lower
quadrant, and peritoneal signs are present. Pelvic examination reveals
an exquisitely tender 8-cm right adnexal mass. Urine pregnancy test is
negative. She continues to complain of unbearable pain. The most likely
diagnosis is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Appendicitis
Torsion of ovary
Ectopic pregnancy
Rupture of corpus luteum
Rupture of tuboovarian abscess
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
anerobes since their transport into the bacterial cell is coupled with
oxidative phosphorylation.
A. With this regimen, Gram-negative coverage may not be appropriate.
B. With this regimen, anaerobic coverage may not be appropriate.
D. With this regimen, anaerobic coverage may not be appropriate.
E. With this regimen, anaerobic coverage may not be appropriate.
A male infant weighing 3000 g (6 lb 10 oz) is born at 36 weeks
gestation, with normal Apgar scores and an unremarkable initial
examination. At 48 hours of age he is noted to have dusky episodes while
feeding, and does not feed well.
On repeat examination the child is tachypneic, with subcostal
retractions. Lung sounds are clear and there is no heart murmur. Pulse
oximetry on room air is 82%. Arterial blood gases on 100% oxygen show a
pCO2 of 26 mm Hg (N 27-40), a pO2 of 66 mm Hg (N 83-108), a blood pH of
7.50 mg/dL (N 7.35 - 7.45), and a base excess of 2 mmol/L (N 10 to 2).
Laboratory Findings
Hemoglobin---------------------22.0 g/dL (N 13.0-20.0)
Hematocrit---------------------66% (N 42-66)
WBCs---------------------19,000 mm3 (N 9000-30,000)
Chest radiograph---------------------increased vascular marking; large thymus
Blood culture results are pending.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a) Candida
b) Bacterial vaginosis
c) Trichomonas
d) Chlamydia
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Bacterial vaginosis shows clue cells on a wet mount (which are
epithelial cells of the vagina that get their distinctive stippled
appearance by being covered with bacteria). KOH prep would release a
fishy odor.
Candida infection would present as thick, white, cottage cheese-like,
non-odorous discharge. Diagnostic exam would show the yeast (hyphae and
pseudo spores of Candida are visible) on the KOH prep.
Trichomonas is a sexually active disease. Presents with foamy, frothy
yellow-green discharge, fishy/foul odor. A wet mount will show the
Trichomonads, which are ovoid-shaped parasites, identified by their
mobility.
A postmenopausal woman comes to your office for advice because her best
friend has been diagnosed with endometrial cancer. The patient is
concerned that she too may develop the disease. You tell her that risk
factors associated with endometrial cancer include the following EXCEPT:
a) Nulliparity
b) Late menopause
c) DES exposure
d) Obesity
e) Polycystic ovarian disease
The correct answer is C
Explanation
DES exposure is associated with adenosis and clear cell adenocarcinoma
of the vagina and cervix. If a patient is nulliparous, obese, and
reaches menopause at age 52 or later, there appears to be a 5-fold
increase in the risk of endometrial cancer over the patient who does not
fulfill these criteria. Also upper body fat localization, which is
related to lower serum hormone-bound globulin and higher endogenous
production of nonprotein-bound estradiol, is a risk factor for
endometrial cancer.
A. Increased relative risk for developing endometrial adenocarcinoma.
B. Increased relative risk for developing endometrial adenocarcinoma.
D. Increased relative risk for developing endometrial adenocarcinoma due
to an increase in the circulating levels of estrogens (peripheral
conversion of androgens to estrogens by the adipose tissue).
E. Increased relative risk for developing endometrial adenocarcinoma due
to the long exposure to unopposed estrogen.
The probability of pregnancy after unprotected intercourse is the
highest at which one of the following times
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Multiparity
Chronic smoking
History of large babies
Stress urinary incontinence
Postmenopausal status
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Aortic stenosis
Mitral stenosis
Ebstein anomaly
Atrial-septal defect
Eisenmenger syndrome
a)
b)
c)
d)
This is a presentation with the feet entering the birth canal ahead of
any other part of the body. This may occur with two feet (double
footling) or a single foot (single footling). Most often one leg is
extended while the other is flexed at the knee. It is usually safer to
deliver this kind of baby by a Cesarean section early in labor or before
labor begins. If a footling breech is delivered vaginally, there is a
risk that the head may not easily pass through the birth canal.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Solifenacin (Vesicare)
Oxybutynin (Ditropan XL)
Tamsulosin (Flomax)
Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
Pelvic floor muscle training and bladder training
a)
b)
c)
d)
The correct answer is D
Explanation
The process to diagnose the cause for infertility usually begins with
physical exams and health and sexual histories. If there are no obvious
problems, like poorly timed intercourse or absence of ovulation, tests
will be needed.
For a man, doctors usually begin by testing his semen. They look at the
number, shape, and movement of the sperm. Sometimes doctors also suggest
testing the level of a man's hormones.
For a woman, the first step in testing is to find out if she is
ovulating each month. There are several ways to do this. A woman can
track her ovulation at home by recording changes in her morning body
temperature (basal body temperature) for several months. Doctors can
also check if a woman is ovulating by doing blood tests and an
ultrasound of the ovaries. If the woman is ovulating normally, more
tests are needed.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Salpingitis
Ruptured ovarian cyst
Ectopic pregnancy
Threatened abortion
Twisted ovarian cyst
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The age of pubertal change has been getting earlier, with breast
development starting between the ages of 10 and 11 and menarche between
the ages of 12 and 13. The mean interval from thelarche to menarche is
2.3 years, with a standard deviation of 1 year. If no secondary sexual
characteristics occur by age 14, or no menarche by age 16.5, then the
diagnostic workup of primary amenorrhea is necessary.
A. Thelarche is before pubarche.
B. Menarche is the final event in the process.
C. Peak height velocity is about 1 year before the onset of menarche.
E. Often the first bleeding is not ovulatory.
A 36 year old white female presents with the chief complain of
infertility associated with a history of a menstrual period every 3-4
months since menarche at age 12. The physical examination is normal
except for moderate obesity, acne, and coarse facial hair. A urine hCG
is negative. Further evaluation to confirm your diagnosis of polycystic
ovary syndrome will most likely reveal
a)
b)
c)
d)
Elevated testosterone
Elevated TSH
Markedly elevated prolactin
Elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone
a)
b)
c)
d)
Amniotomy
Ultrasound for placenta location
C-section
Monitoring
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
trying
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Infertility is the inability of a couple to achieve a pregnancy after
repeated intercourse without contraception for 1 year.
Infertility affects about one of five couples in the Canada. It is
becoming increasingly common because people are waiting longer to marry
and to have a child. Nevertheless, up to 60% of the couples who have not
conceived after a year of trying do conceive eventually, with or without
treatment. The goal of treatment is to reduce the time needed to
conceive or to provide couples who might not otherwise conceive the
opportunity to do so. Before treatment is begun, counseling that
provides information about the treatment process (including its
duration) and the chances of success is beneficial.
The cause of infertility may be due to problems in the man, the woman,
or both. Problems with sperm, ovulation, or the fallopian tubes each
account for almost one third of infertility cases. In a small percentage
of cases, infertility is caused by problems with mucus in the cervix or
by unidentified factors. Thus, the diagnosis of infertility problems
requires a thorough assessment of both partners.
A one year old female presents with vaginal bleeding. Vaginal inspection
reveals the presence of a multicystic grape-like lesion. The most likely
diagnosis is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Sexual abuse
DES syndrome
Sarcoma botyroides
Clear cell adenocarcinoma
Exposure to exogenous estrogen
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
A small amount of bloody, mucous discharge from the cervix (bloody show)
Braxton Hicks contractions
Spontaneous rupture of the chorioamnionic membranes
Complete dilation of the uterine cervix
Successful delivery of the placenta
a)
b)
c)
d)
Diuretics
Splint
Avoid activities that precipitate it
Fasciotomy
a) Supine
b) Supine, with the uterus manually deflected laterally
c) Prone
d) Trendelenburgs position
e) Left lateral decubitus
The correct answer is B
Explanation
In general, it is best to place a woman who is greater than 20 weeks
pregnant in the left lateral decubitis position because the uterus can
compress the great vessels, resulting in decreased systolic blood
pressure and uterine blood flow.
However, in the case of trauma where a spinal cord injury cannot be
ruled out, the woman needs to be kept supine on a backboard. The weight
of the uterus can be shifted off the great vessels by either manual
deflection laterally or by elevating the right hip 4-6 inches by placing
towels under the backboard. The Trendelenburg position does not relieve
the weight of the uterus on the great vessels. The prone position does
not provide adequate spinal cord protection, and would be extremely
awkward in a large pregnant woman.
A 30-year-old female presents with concerns about vaginal bleeding. She
states that her menstrual periods have occurred at regular intervals of
28-30 days for the past 15 years, but recently bleeding has also
occurred for a day or two in the middle of her cycle. This bleeding has
been heavy enough to require the use of multiple pads.
Which one of the following terms best describes her bleeding pattern?
a) Polymenorrhea
b) Mid-cycle spotting
c) Metrorrhagia
d) Menometrorrhagia
e) Acute emergent abnormal uterine bleeding
The correct answer is C
Explanation
This patient has metrorrhagia, or bleeding intermenstrual,
characterized by bleeding heavy enough to require the use of multiple
pads; the heavy bleeding occurs between normal menstrual bleeding. It is
important to evaluate metrorrhagia because potential causes include
cervical disease, problems with IUDs, endometritis, polyps, submucous
myomas, endometrial hyperplasia, and cancer. Mid-cycle spotting, as the
term implies, refers to light spotting, and is often caused by a decline
in estrogen levels. Polymenorrhea is bleeding occurring at intervals of
less than 21 days. Menometrorrhagia is heavy and/or prolonged bleeding
occurring at irregular, noncyclic intervals. Acute emergent abnormal
uterine bleeding is characterized by significant blood loss resulting in
hypovolemia.
A G5P5 post-delivery develops a postpartum hemorrhage. What is the most
likely cause?
a) Vaginal laceration
b) Chorioamnionitis
c) Uterine atony
d) Uterine inversion
The correct answer is C
Explanation
This patient having five deliveries most likely has uterine atony.
Postpartum hemorrhage commonly results from bleeding at the placental
implantation site. Risk factors for bleeding at this site include
uterine atony due to overdistention caused by multifetal pregnancy,
polyhydramnios, or an abnormally large fetus, prolonged or dysfunctional
labor, grand multiparity (delivery of ? 5 viable fetuses), relaxant
anesthetics, rapid labor, chorioamnionitis, and retention of placental
tissue (eg, due to placenta accreta).
Other possible causes of hemorrhage?lacerations of the genital tract,
extension of an episiotomy, or uterine rupture?must also be considered.
Uterine fibroids may contribute. Postpartum hemorrhage due to
subinvolution (incomplete involution) of the placental site usually
occurs early but may occur as late as 1 month after delivery.
A 23 year old asymptomatic woman is seen for routine examination. You
are able to palpate a 4 cm diameter right-sided cystic adnexal mass. The
appropriate management is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Laparoscopy
Trans-vaginal aspiration
Pelvic ultrasound examination
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist
Reassessment in 1 month
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Chronic PID
b) Adenomyosis
c) Fibroids
d) Endometriosis
e) Uterine carcinoma
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Endometriosis is a condition in which bits of tissue from the lining of
the uterus (endometrium) grow outside the uterus. The endometrial
tissue, called an endometrial implant, usually adheres to the pelvic
organs, which include the ovaries, uterus, fallopian tubes, the cavity
behind the uterus, and the ligaments that support the uterus.
Endometrial implants may also adhere to the tubes leading from the
kidneys to the bladder, the bladder, the vagina, the outer surface of
the small and large intestine, or the lining of the chest cavity.
Endometriosis progresses slowly. So, a woman may have the disease but
not experience any symptoms for years. There is no link between the
severity of the symptoms and the severity of the disease. Some women
have great pain, but very few endometrial implants. The most common
symptoms include pain in the lower abdomen during the menstrual period,
spotting between periods, heavy or irregular periods, pain during
intercourse, pain during bowel movements or urination, and lower back
pain. Many women with endometriosis experience infertility because the
endometrial implants block the passage of the egg from the ovary to the
uterus.
Diagnoses is aided by a pelvic exam to feel for endometrial implants.
The best way to diagnosis this disease, however, is through a procedure
called laparoscopy.
A 16-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of
severe left-sided pelvic pain and vaginal spotting. Her last menstrual
period was 6 weeks ago. A quantitative beta HCG is 9.000 mIU/ml. An
endovaginal ultrasound notes a complex left adnexal mass, moderate free
fluid, and no evidence of an intrauterine sac. The most likely site of
this pregnancy is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Cervix
Uterine cornua
Isthmus of the fallopian tube
Ampulla of the fallopian tube
Fimbria of the fallopian tube
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Hepatitis A vaccine
Hepatitis B vaccine
Meningococcal vaccine
Rabies vaccine
Varicella vaccine
Abdomen----------------------nontender
Vagina----------------------small amount of dark blood in the posterior fornix
Cervix----------------------no active bleeding
Bimanual----------------------uterus slightly enlarged, adnexa nontender, no
masses
Laboratory Findings
Urine pregnancy test----------------------positive
Beta-hCG----------------------1400 mIU/mL
Vaginal ultrasound----------------------3-mm sac with no definite fetal contents,
adnexa negative
The most appropriate action at this point is to
a)
b)
c)
d)
Refer the patient for laparoscopy because of the possibility of ectopic pregnancy
Perform dilation and curettage
Instruct the patient to return in 4 weeks
Instruct the patient to call if she develops pain or increased bleeding; otherwise
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
A pelvic examination
Ultrasonography
A TSH level
Naproxen prior to and during menses
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Ectopic pregnancy
Salpingitis
Ruptured ovarian cyst
Threatened abortion
Twisted ovarian cyst
a)
b)
c)
d)
e) Karyotype
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Amenorrhea is absence of menstruation. The cause is usually endocrine
dysfunction resulting in anovulation, often with mild estrogen
deficiency and hyperandrogenism. Diagnosis is clinical and by pregnancy
testing, measurement of hormone levels, and a progesterone challenge.
Treatment aims to correct any underlying disorder and minimize excess
androgenic effects.
Routine testing includes a pregnancy test, a progesterone challenge, and
measurement of hormone levels (eg TSH, Prolactin, FSH, LH). If a genetic
defect is suspected (eg, in primary amenorrhea), karyotype is determined.
A 37 year old gravida 6 para 5 is given oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce
delivery at 41 weeks gestation. Her prenatal course is significant for
chronic hypertension. She delivers a 4020-g (8 lb 14 oz) baby. Soon
after delivery of the placenta, she begins to have excessive vaginal
bleeding. Which one of the following would you do initially?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
(Hemabate)
The correct answer is A
Explanation
The incidence of postpartum hemorrhage is 5%-8%. Causes include uterine
atony, lacerations, retained placental products, and defects of
coagulation. Uterine atony is the most likely cause of hemorrhage in
this patient with multiple risk factors, including grand multiparity, a
large fetus (uterine distension), and oxytocin induction. The initial
step in management of postpartum hemorrhage should be manual uterine
exploration followed by bimanual massage and compression of the uterus.
This maneuver may need to be performed for upwards of 30 minutes.
Intravenous oxytocin should also be infused simultaneously. Uterine
curettage may be performed to attempt to remove retained placental
products. however, it carries a significant risk of uterine perforation
and should be delayed unless bleeding cannot be controlled by other
means. Methergine is useful for postpartum hemorrhage but is
contraindicated in this patient with hypertension. Terbutaline is a
tocolytic and is not used for treatment of hemorrhage. Prostaglandin
F2alpha is an effective treatment for postpartum hemorrhage, but should
be reserved for use when uterine massage fails.
A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant has severe intractable vomiting. She has
no vaginal bleeding. What investigation is not appropriate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
TSH/FT4
BHCG
BMP
Ultrasound
CT abdomen
a)
b)
c)
d)
Serum creatinine
Reflexes (eg. knee jerk)
Liver enzymes
Respiratory rate
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a) The first feeding should take place a few hours after delivery
when the mother is well rested
b) Packets containing information about breastfeeding and samples of
infant formula should be provided when mothers go home from the hospital
c) Ointment containing vitamins A and D should be applied to prevent
cracked nipples
d) When lactation is becoming established, infants should be weighed
before and after a feeding to determine whether they are getting enough
milk
e) Breastfeeding mothers should be taught that milk supply depends on
the amount of suckling
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Controlled trials have shown that delaying the first breastfeeding
session until more than 2 hours after delivery, test weighing to
determine the amount of milk ingested, and provision of formula samples
to nursing mothers all substantially decreases the proportion of women
successfully nursing by the first postpartum visit. Test weighing has
also been shown to be inaccurate and unreliable. Ointment containing
vitamins A and D was worse than nothing in clinical trials; the main
effective preventive and remedial measure for sore nipples is correct
positioning of the babys mouth on the breast. New mothers should be
taught the breastfeeding basics, including the fact that milk supply
adjusts to the infants demands, i.e., the frequency, vigor, and
duration of suckling.
Compared to anesthesia using only parenteral opioids, the use of
epidural anesthesia in labor and delivery increases the rate of which
one of the following?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cesarean section
Low Apgar scores (< 7)
Maternal low backache 3 months post delivery
Prolonged second stage of labor
a) Endometrial aspiration
b) Dilatation and curettage
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Mammography
Pap test
Endometrial sampling
Blood lipid determination
Blood pressure determination
a)
b)
c)
d)
28 weeks gestation
2 weeks postpartum
Now
At delivery
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Alopecia
Cleft lip and palate
Congenital heart defects
Limb defects
Mental retardation
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Acetaminophen
Warfarin (Coumadin)
Prednisone
Aspirin and heparin combined
Progesterone
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Prolactin
TSH
LH
Aldosterone
FSH
a)
b)
c)
d)
Cesarean
Oxytocin
Tocolysis
Amniotomy
presenting part descends well into the midpelvis. On average, the active
phase lasts 5 to 7 hours in nulliparas and 2 to 4 hours in multiparas.
If the membranes have not spontaneously ruptured, some clinicians use
amniotomy (artificial rupture of membranes) routinely during the active
phase. As a result, labor may progress more rapidly, and
meconium-stained amniotic fluid may be detected earlier.
Amniotomy during this stage may be necessary for specific indications,
such as facilitating internal fetal monitoring to confirm fetal
well-being. Amniotomy should be avoided in women with HIV infection or
hepatitis B or C, so that the fetus is not exposed to these organisms.
In a patient whose blood type is O-Rh negative and whose husband has
O-Rh positive blood, Rh immune globulin (RhoGam) should be given in all
the following cases, *except*
a) Prior to 25 wk gestation.
b) Full term delivery of a baby with O-Rh positive blood type
c) Amniocentesis
d) Spontaneous abortion
e) Molar pregnancy
The correct answer is A
Explanation
If the father of the baby or donor is Rh positive or unknown, the RH
negative patient is a candidate for RhoGAM prophylaxis in the following
cases:
-between 28 and 32 wk gestation
-Threatened abortion at any stage with confirmed pregnancy.
-Abortion, ectopic, or molar pregnancy at or beyond 13 weeks.
-Genetic amniocentesis.
-Unexplained first, second or third trimester bleeding.
-Abdominal trauma 2nd or 3rd trimester.
-Third trimester amniocentesis.
It would be appropriate to empirically treat asymptomatic bacteriuria in
which one of the following patients
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
A 4-year-old female
A 30-year-old gravida 2 para 1 in the first trimester
A 40-year-old paraplegic with a neurogenic bladder
A 95-year-old male
A 95-year-old female
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The correct answer is E
Abnormal chromosomes
Asherman syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Prolactinoma
Anovulation
Explanation
After pregnancy, anovulation is the most common cause of secondary
amenorrhea in a reproductive age woman. Ashermans syndrome is usually
associated with a prior uterine curettage.
A. This is a rare cause of amenorrhea.
B. This is often secondary to intrauterine trauma (dilation and
curettage, infection, etc).
C. Although this can be a cause, it is uncommon.
D. Prolactinomas are rare causes of amenorrhea. They are often
associated with galactorrhea.
A 27 year old white female sees you for the first time for a routine
evaluation. A Papanicolaou test reveals atypical glandular cells of
undetermined significance (AGUS). Of the following, which one is most
commonly found in this situation?
a) Uteroplacental insufficiency
b) Cord compression
c) Head compression
d) Sleeping fetus
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Uteroplacental insufficiency is associated with late decelerations. Cord
compression is associated with variable decelerations. Head compression
is associated with early decelerations.
A 34-year-old female who delivered a healthy infant 18 months ago
complains of a milky discharge from both nipples. She reports that
normal periods have resumed since cessation of breastfeeding 6 months
ago. She takes ethinyl estradiol/norgestimate (Ortho Tri-Cyclen) for
birth control. A complete review of systems is otherwise negative. The
most likely cause of the discharge is
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
January 17
January 24
July 24
February 17
January 10
day after conception. Because the levels of hCG in the blood are urine
are very similar, the tests are equivalent. Urine testing may reveal a
positive result as early as 3-4 days after implantation. By the time of
the expected menstrual period, the test will be positive 98% of the
time. If a test is negative more than 1 week after the expected time of
the menstrual period, it is almost certain the patient is not pregnant.
To cover these rare instances where a woman has a low hCG and conceived
later than expected, the test should be repeated in 1 week for a
definitive result.
Since ectopic pregnancy is not a life-threatening problem for the mother
until 2 months after conception, a patient with a negative urine hCG
does not require ultrasonography to exclude ectopic pregnancy. Patients
with a suspected ectopic pregnancy and a negative urine hCG should be
followed closely, as early laparoscopic intervention can improve the
chances of future fertility.
A 31-year-old sexually active woman comes to your office requesting a
cervical cap for contraception. You advise her that the maximum number
of hours that the cervical cap should be left in place is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
4 hours
12 hours
24 hours
36 hours
48 hours
A 19-year-old nulligravid healthy woman comes to see you for her annual
Pap smear and routine health care maintenance. During your routine
pelvic exam, you note that she has a 5-cm cystic, nontender, mobile mass
in her left adnexa. Rectovaginal exam confirms this and does not note
any abnormalities in the cul-de-sac. Transvaginal ultrasonography
results are consistent with pelvic exam findings. Which of the following
is the most appropriate next step?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Hypovolemia
b) Bleeding diathesis
c) Infection at site of injection
d) Decreased blood pressure
e) Pre-eclampsia
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Contraindications for epidural anesthesia include: patient refusal for
surgery, uncooperative patients. abnormal bleeding or clotting
parameters, anti-coagulant therapy, skin infection at/near injection
site, uncorrected fluid loss (hypovolemia), low blood pressure, presence
of neurological disorders, cardiovascular disease, anatomical
abnormalities of the vertebral column.
It is indicated in difficult or high-risk labour, twin pregnancy,
pre-eclampsia, prolonged labor.
A 35-year-old white female presents with a 6-month history of irregular
menstrual bleeding. Before this problem began, her periods occurred
every 30 days and lasted 5 days. Now they occur every 20 days and last
for 10 days, and are heavier than they were previously. A physical
examination reveals no obvious anatomic source of bleeding, and a
Papanicolaou (Pap) test is normal. A pregnancy test is negative and a
blood workup for organic causes of irregular menses is also negative.
She takes no medications.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
a) Pelvic ultrasonography
b) Increasing the dosage of the oral contraceptive
c) Changing to a progesterone-only contraceptive
d) Reassurance that the problem will resolve on its own
The correct answer is A
Explanation
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
3-4
9-10
14-16
24-28
36-42
E. See explanation.
Most individuals with polycystic ovary syndrome have
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Explanation
Polycystic ovary syndrome, one of the most common endocrine disorders,
is associated with insulin resistance and a higher risk for development
of glucose intolerance and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients have
elevated androgen levels and elevated LH levels, but estrogen and FSH
levels remain normal. This condition is not associated with changes in
the TSH level or with thyroid abnormalities.
An absolute contraindication for vaginal delivery for a patient who had
a previous cesarean section is
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Tetraploidy
Triploidy
Autosomal trisomy
Haploid of paternal origin
Diploid of paternal origin
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Prolactin
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Estimated free thyroxine
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a) Ovarian cyst
b) Ectopic pregnancy
c) Spontaneous abortion
d) Molar pregnancy
The correct answer is D
Explanation
A hydatidiform mole is growth of an abnormal fertilized egg or an
overgrowth of tissue from the placenta. Most often, a hydatidiform mole
is an abnormal fertilized egg. The abnormal egg develops into a
hydatidiform mole rather than a fetus (a condition called molar
pregnancy). However, a hydatidiform mole can develop from cells that
remain in the uterus after a miscarriage or a full-term pregnancy.
Women who have a hydatidiform mole feel as if they are pregnant. But
because hydatidiform moles grow much faster than a fetus, the abdomen
becomes larger much faster than it does in a normal pregnancy. Severe
nausea and vomiting are common, and vaginal bleeding may occur. These
symptoms indicate the need for prompt evaluation by a doctor.
Often, doctors can diagnose a hydatidiform mole shortly after
conception. No fetal movement and no fetal heartbeat are detected. As
parts of the mole decay, small amounts of tissue that resemble a bunch
of grapes may pass through the vagina. After examining this tissue under
a microscope, a pathologist can confirm the diagnosis.
A 36 week pregnant woman comes for routine prenatal visit. You do not
feel the presenting part. What is the most accurate method to determine
this
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
3-4 weeks
1-2 weeks
9 months (at her next routine pelvic examination)
Never, unless she is symptomatic or has a suspected exposure to
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Ultrasound
Magnetic resonance imaging
Computed tomography
Urinary human chorionic gonadotropin in excess of 50,000 IU/24 hour
Elevated beta sub-units of human chorionic gonadotropin
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The correct answer is C
Chest radiograph
Electrocardiogram
Ventilation perfusion scan
Lower extremity venous Doppler
Arterial blood gas
Explanation
With the hypercoagulable state of pregnancy combined with her history of
antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, this patient most likely has
developed a venous thrombosis leading to a pulmonary embolus.
Perfusion scanning alone is recommended initially, and the ventilation
scan is added when perfusion defects are noted. Pulmonary angiography
might be necessary if lung scan findings are of low probability or
indeterminate and clinical suspicion remains high.
A 58-year-old female sees you for a routine annual visit. She has had a
hysterectomy for endometriosis. She asks you if she needs a Papanicolaou
(Pap) test.
Which one of the following would be appropriate advice regarding Pap
tests for this patient?
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin)
b) Cephalexin (Keflex)
c) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
d) Doxycycline
e) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Correct Answer:* d)
Explanation
The urethral syndrome is characterized by dysuria and pyuria in the
presence of a negative culture for uropathogens. Frequency and urgency
are often absent. The infecting organism is typically Chlamydia
trachomatis although other organisms such as Ureaplasma urealyticum and
Mycoplasma species may be involved. Effective medication choices include
doxycycline, ofloxacin, levofloxacin, and macrolides such as
erythromycin and azithromycin.
A patient diagnosed as having a fetus with trisomy 18 asks that you do
not share this finding with her family. You may discuss her tests with:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Her husband
Her mother
Her father
No one
Her son
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Neurological
Renal
Musculoskeletal
Respiratory
Visual
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Rectocele
Cystocele
Prolapse (Procidentia)
Urethral sphincter spasm
Post-surgical stricture
a) Clindamycin (Cleocin)
b) Erythromycin
c) Gentamicin (Garamycin)
d) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
e) Penicilllin G
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Intravenous penicillin G is the drug of choice for prophylaxis of
neonatal group B streptococcal disease, although shortages during 1999
required the interim use of broader-spectrum antibiotics. Group B
streptococci have remained sensitive to penicillin, but they may be
resistant to clindamycin and erythromycin, the drug recommended for
women allergic to penicillin.
Which one of the following is characteristic of the first stage of labor?
a) Vaginismus
b) Endometriosis
c) Retroverted uterus
d) Inadequate vaginal lubrication
e) Pelvic inflammatory disease
The correct answer is D
Explanation
All of these conditions are associated with dyspareunia. Inadequate
vaginal lubrication, however, is the most common cause of pain with
intercourse and can be due to a wide variety of causes.
A. Although a cause, it is not the most common. Psychosexual therapy may
be of benefit to this patient.
B. When the uterosacral ligaments and cul-de-sac are involved, or due to
pelvic ahesive disease, then intercourse can become painful. It is not
the most common cause.
C. Has been associated with dyspareuina. Not a common cause.
E. See answer to B.
Which one of the following is a risk factor for preterm birth?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
mother
e) Observation and reevaluation in 2 hours
The correct answer is D
Explanation
These are examples of repetitive late decelerations. Late decelerations
are felt to be consistent with uteroplacental insufficiency. This can be
due to a number of reasons, including the following: the maternal
circulation is not adequately perfusing the placental bed; maternal
hypoxia; inadequate exchange across the placental bed (Abruption,
infarct); and also inadequate fetal perfusion of the placenta. Since
this is a recent change in the prior character of the fetal heart
tracing and since the patient is on oxytocin infusion, allowing
a) Mammography
b) Excisional biopsy
c) Needle aspiration
d) Reexamination after onset of menses
e) Excisional biopsy with lymph nodes sampling
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Initially, you should try to differentiate solid from cystic lumps
because cysts are rarely cancerous. Typically, ultrasonography is done.
Lesions that appear cystic are sometimes aspirated, and solid lumps are
evaluated with mammography followed by imaging-guided biopsy. Sometimes
evaluation of all lumps with needle aspiration is done; if no fluid is
obtained or if aspiration does not eliminate the lump, mammography
followed by imaging-guided biopsy is done.
*Additional notes:*
Fibrocystic changes (previously, fibrocystic disease) is a catchall term
that refers to mastalgia, breast cysts, and nondescript lumpiness, which
may occur in isolation or together; breasts have a nodular and dense
texture and are frequently tender when palpated. Fibrocystic changes
cause the most commonly reported breast symptoms and have many causes.
Most causes are not associated with increased risk of cancer; they
include adenosis, ductal ectasia, simple fibroadenoma, fibrosis,
mastitis, mild hyperplasia, cysts, and apocrine or squamous metaplasia.
Other causes, particularly if fibrocystic changes require biopsy, may
slightly increase risk of breast cancer. Fibrocystic changes are more
common among women who had early menarche, who had their first live
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a) Renal dysplasia
b) Fetal erythroblastosis
c) Tracheo-esophageal fistula
d) Down syndrome
e) Anencephaly
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Potter syndrome is a term used to describe the typical physical
appearances of a fetus or neonate due to a dramatically decreased
amniotic fluid volume oligohydramnios, or absent amniotic fluid
anhydramnios, secondary to renal diseases such as bilateral renal
agenesis. Other causes of Potter syndrome can be obstruction of the
urinary tract, polycystic or multicystic kidney diseases, renal
hypoplasia and rupture of the amniotic sac.
The decreased volume of amniotic fluid causes the growing fetus to
become compressed by the mother's uterus. This compression can cause
many physical deformities of the fetus, most common of which is Potter
facies. Lower extremity anomalies are frequent in these cases, which
often presents with clubbed feet and/or bowing of the legs.
A woman develops swelling in her labia minora. The area is painful and
red. See illustration:
a)
b)
c)
d)
Hematoma
Bartholin cyst
Gartner duct cyst
Lipoma
a) No further testing
b) Amniocentesis
c) A maternal serum hCG level
d) Fetal ultrasonography
e) Chorionic villus sampling
The correct answer is D
Explanation
A 16-week visit is advised for all pregnant women to offer an
alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening for neural tube defects and Down
syndrome. An AFP level 2-5 times the median value for normal controls at
the same gestational age is considered elevated. Approximately 5%-10% of
patients who undergo AFP screening will have an elevated level, and most
of these women will have normal fetuses. Fetal ultrasonography should be
performed to detect multiple gestation, fetal demise, or fetal anomalies
(neural tube defects, ventral abdominal wall defects, and urinary tract
anomalies) as well as to confirm gestational age, as all of these
factors are associated with elevated AFP levels. Amniocentesis is
offered if the ultrasonography does not indicate the reason for the
elevated AFP. Chorionic villus sampling is offered in the evaluation of
suspected chromosomal anomalies as an adjunct to amniocentesis. Serum
hCG would be indicated in the workup of suspected Down syndrome, where
the AFP would be low, not elevated. The hCG level would be expected to
be over 2-5 multiples of the mean (MoM) with Down syndrome.
A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with watery vaginal discharge,
there is no blood. Mother is afebrile and is not contracting. What is
the appropriate next step?
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Explanation
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) involves abnormal,
excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood.
During the process, increased platelet aggregation and coagulation
factor consumption occur. DIC that evolves slowly (over weeks or months)
causes primarily venous thrombotic and embolic manifestations; DIC that
evolves rapidly (over hours or days) causes primarily bleeding.
Severe, rapidly evolving DIC is diagnosed by demonstrating
thrombocytopenia, an elevated PTT and PT, increased levels of serum
fibrin degradation products, and a decreasing plasma fibrinogen level.
Treatment includes correction of the underlying cause and replacement of
platelets, coagulation factors (in fresh frozen plasma), and fibrinogen
(in cryoprecipitate) to control severe bleeding. Heparin is used as
therapy (or prophylaxis) in patients with slowly evolving DIC who have
(or are at risk for) venous thromboembolism.
Tocolysis is contraindicated in all of the following, except
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Meningomyelocele
Renal agenesis
Down syndrome
Esophageal atresia
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The correct answer is D
Maternal haploid
Paternal haploid
Maternal diploid
Paternal diploid
Maternal triploid
Explanation
Complete mole, paternal diploid, 95% XX, 5% XY. Incomplete mole:
triploid, with two sets of paternal origin, 69 XXZ, etc. A complete mole
does not have a fetus. Due to the high levels of HCG, it can be
associated with hyperthyroidism, theca lutein cysts, and hyperemesis
gravidarum. It can also be associated with preeclampsia in the first
trimester.
A 24-year-old white gravida 2 para 1 at 39 weeks gestation who is
currently not in active labor is seen in the labor and delivery suite
for evaluation of decreased fetal movement. Her blood pressure is 120/74
mm Hg and she has a temperature of 36.8 C (98.4 F). A representative
portion of her nonstress test is shown here. The best management at this
time is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
2 weeks
6 weeks
10 weeks
14 weeks
18 weeks
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Every day
Every week
Every 2 days
Every month
Every 2 weeks
Beta hCG levels should double approximately every 2 days for the first
four weeks of pregnancy. As pregnancy progresses the doubling time
increases. By 6 to 7 weeks gestation beta hCG levels may take as long as
3 1/2 days to double.
A 40-year-old multiparous patient presents with a 10-day history of
heavy vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal cramping that began at the
expected time of her menses. Pelvic examination reveals a 6-cm mass
judged to be a prolapsed submucosal myoma protruding from the cervix on
a 1.5 cm stalk. The uterus is enlarged to twice normal size and is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Trisomy 21
Triploidy
Twin pregnancy
Meningomyelocele
Trisomy 13
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The correct answer is D
Explanation
HIV screening is recommended as part of routine prenatal care, even in
low-risk pregnancies. Counseling about cystic fibrosis carrier testing
is recommended, but not routine testing. Hepatitis C and parvovirus
antibodies are not part of routine prenatal screening. Routine screening
for bacterial vaginosis with a vaginal smear for clue cells is not
recommended.
Of the following, the initial treatment of choice in the management of
severe hypertension during pregnancy is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Black cohosh
Red clover
Soy protein
Vitamin E
Hot flashes have been shown to be most effectively treated with hormone
replacement therapy (HRT). However, given the concerns regarding HRT,
alternative strategies for managing hot flashes have been evaluated.
Placebo-controlled trials have shown that vitamin E, soy protein, red
clover, and black cohosh are not better or only slightly better than
placebo in reducing hot flashes. SSRIs have been shown to be
significantly more effective than placebo in relieving this symptom.
Methyldopa has shown some benefit compared to placebo, but causes
frequent side effects.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Paroxetine (Paxil)
Black cohosh
Regular exercise
Phytoestrogens
Clonidine (Catapres)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
cycle
The correct answer is E
Explanation
SSRIs are considered first-line treatment for premenstrual dysphoric
disorder. Several randomized trials have shown that they are superior to
placebo for this condition. Fluoxetine and sertraline have been studied
the most. There have been no controlled trials to support anecdotal
reports of benefit from the reduction of caffeine or refined sugar.
Studies using alprazolam have shown it to be effective for premenstrual
anxiety only. Progesterone has not been proven more effective than
placebo in clinical trials, and bupropion is less effective than agents
that primarily boost serotonergic activity. Treatment during the luteal
phase alone has been shown to be more effective than continuous
treatment for this condition.
You are performing the admission history and physical on an otherwise
healthy 17-year-old woman who presents to Labor & Delivery for induction
at 41 weeks gestation. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and in
reviewing her prenatal records, you note that no abnormalities were
found on her initial prenatal physical exam at 8 weeks gestation. On
your admission physical, you note subtle systolic ejection murmurs heard
best over the aortic valve region, and you rate it a 1 on a scale of 6.
This murmur is most likely due to:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Explanation
This case demonstrates the clinical outcome of abnormal placental
attachment. In this situation, the uterus has either partially or
completely attached to the myometrium instead of the endometrium, which
normally sloughs after birth, thus resulting in detachment of the
placenta. The three forms of abnormal attachment (accreta, increta, and
percreta) are difficult to differentiate by examination and are treated
as the same condition, sometimes generally referred to as ?placenta
accreta?. No conservative mode of management will definitively treat
these conditions when a significant portion of the placenta is
abnormally attached. Therefore, if bleeding becomes profuse and the
patients condition is unstable, prompt hysterectomy is required.
This patient has low blood pressure and an elevated pulse, likely due to
significant blood loss. It is inappropriate to await spontaneous
delivery of the placenta, which may never occur. Trying further to
remove the placenta will only result in increased bleeding. Pulling on
the umbilical cord may result in uterine inversion. There is no
indication for any other manual maneuver.
A 47 year old gravida 3 para 3 is seen for a physical examination. She
has a total abdominal hysterectomy for benign uterine fibroids. Which
one of the following is the recommended interval for Papanicolaou (Pap)
screening in this patient?
a) Every 5 years
b) Every 3 years
c) Every 2 years
d) Annually
e) Routine screening is not necessary
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Most women who have undergone hysterectomy are not at risk of cervical
cancer, as they underwent the procedure for benign disease and no longer
have a cervix. The Preventive Services Task Force recommendations stated
that routine Papanicolaou (Pap) screening is unnecessary for these
women. Nevertheless, data from the Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance
System (1992-2002) indicated that in the previous 3 years, some 69% of
women with a previous history of hysterectomy for benign causes had
undergone screening.
A 25 year old black female at 32 weeks gestation is found to have a
blood pressure of 170/100 mm Hg during a prenatal visit. Previously, her
blood pressure had been normal. Although her blood pressure remains
elevated during the remainder of her pregnancy, she denies any
headaches, visual symptoms, chest pain, dyspnea, or abdominal pain. She
develops edema, but does not have proteinuria. Her delivery is
uneventful, and her blood pressure at her first postpartum visit is
124/78 mm Hg.
This patient most likely had
a) Mild preelampsia
b) Severe preeclampsia
c) Gestational hypertension
d) Preeclampsia superimposed on prehypertension
e) Preeclampsia with HELLP syndrome
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Hypertension may be diagnosed for the first time during pregnancy.
Gestational hypertension is defined as systolic blood pressure (SBP) >
140 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) > 90 mm Hg on at least two
occasions during a pregnancy. In this condition, the blood pressure
returns to normal within 6 weeks after delivery. The presence of
hypertension and proteinuria (> 300 mg/24 hours) indicates preeclampsia.
a) Pallor
b) Galactorrhea
c) Bradycardia
d) Amenorrhea
e) Asthenia
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Prolactin deficiency reduces or eliminates a woman's ability to produce
breast milk after childbirth. One cause of low prolactin levels and
deficiency of other pituitary hormones is Sheehan's syndrome, a rare
complication of childbirth. Sheehan's syndrome typically develops
because of excessive blood loss and shock during childbirth, which
results in partial destruction of the pituitary gland. Symptoms include
fatigue, loss of pubic and underarm hair, and inability to produce
breast milk. Prolactin deficiency has no known ill effects in men.
Oral contraceptive pills have been shown to raise the risk of which of
the following?
a) Ovarian cancer
b) Breast cancer
c) Endometrial cancer
d) Cervical cancer
e) Ovarian cysts
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Possible side effects of oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) include
vaginal discharge, changes in menstrual flow, breakthrough bleeding,
unusual build-up of the uterine lining, nausea, headaches, depression,
vaginitis, urinary tract infection, changes in the breasts, changes in
blood pressure, skin problems, skin improvements, and gum inflammation.
Cautions and contraindications for OCP use are: coagulation, increasing
the risk of deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE),
stroke and heart attack.
Combined oral contraceptives are generally accepted to be
contraindicated in women with pre-existing cardiovascular disease, in
women who have a familial tendency to form blood clots (such as familial
factor V Leiden), women with severe obesity and/or hypercholesterolemia,
and in smokers over age 35.
There is a small increase in the relative risk of breast cancer while
taking OCPs.
Note: Oral contraceptive pills decrease chance of getting endometrial
cancer, ovarian cancer, and ovarian cysts.
A 45 year old white female presents for her yearly health maintenance
examination and Papanicolaou (Pap) test. She has been in good health and
has no family history of significant medical disorders. Her examination
is normal, and she asks about screening for breast cancer. Which one of
the following screening methods would be most appropriate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Correct Answer:* a)
Explanation
First-line treatment for gonorrhea includes intramuscular ceftriacone,
oral cefixime, ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, and levofloxacin. Oral
amoxicillin is no longer listed as first-line treatment for gonorrhea.
Erythromycin and metronidazole are useful in nongonococcal cervicitis,
but are not effective in the treatment of gonorrhea.
What is the most common cause of neonatal mortality in twin pregnancies
a)
b)
c)
d)
Congenital anomalies
2.8
1.0
Complications of placenta/cord/membranes
0.5
1.7
0.2
3.3
Infections
0.8
0.1
ever had a menstrual period. On exam, the girl is 5 feet 8 inches tall
with mature adult breast development and scant to no pubic nor axillary
hair. Vaginal exam is difficult and you are unable to identify a cervix
nor palpate a uterus. The most likely diagnosis is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Androgenital syndrome
Imperforate hymen
Turner syndrome
Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome
a)
b)
c)
d)
Kegel exercises
estrogen
oxybutynin (Ditropan)
tolterodine (Detrol)
a) IUGR
b) Congenital abnormality
c) Infection
d) Prematurity
The correct answer is D
Explanation
The perinatal period is defined as the period that commences at 20
completed weeks (140 days) of gestation and ends 28 completed days after
birth. During this time the top causes of death in the fetus are (in
order): prematurity, congenital abdnormalities, infections and
Intra-uterine growth retardation (IUGR).
A 24 year old white female in her first trimester of pregnancy presents
with low-grade fever, myalgias, headache, and a rash consistent with
erythema migrans. Ten days ago she was hiking in an area where deer
ticks are present. She remembers being bitten by a tick which she
discovered and removed 2 days after her hike. Which one of the following
is the most appropriate treatment option?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Amoxicillin
Azithromycin (Zithromax)
Doxycycline
Erythromycin
a) Diphtheria
b) Hepatitis B
c) Influenza
d) Tetanus
e) Varicella
The correct answer is E
Explanation
The varicella vaccine contains live attenuated varicella-zoster virus.
Immunization during pregnancy is contraindicated because the effects on
the fetus are unknown. Diphtheria, hepatitis B, influenza, and tetanus
vaccines are not contraindicated during pregnancy.
A 24 year old white female contracts a primary genital herpes virus
infection during her 25th week of gestation. Which one of the following
statements is true?
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Mammary aplasia
Female phenotype
Absence of wolffian duct structures
Short vagina
Absence of mullerian duct structures
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Suprapubic pressure
Delivery of the posterior arm
Maximal flexion and abduction of the maternal hips
Rolling the mother to an all-fours position
Rotation of the fetal head
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Bethanechol (Urecholine)
Flavoxate (Urispas)
Hyoscyamine (Anaspaz NuLev)
Pseudoephedrine
Tolterodine (Detrol, Detrol LA)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Magnesium sulfate
Ritodrine (Yutopar)
Terbualine (Brethine, Bricanyl)
Indomethacin (Indocin)
Nifedipine (Adalat, Procardia)
a) Oral contraceptives
b) Uterine artery embolization
c) Metformin (Glucophage)
d) Myomectomy
The correct answer is D
Explanation
In the younger patient who wishes to retain fertility, myomectomy is the
surgical treatment of choice in significantly symptomatic uterine
fibroids. Uterine artery embolization, while effective, may induce
menopause of reduce fertility by decreasing ovarian reserve. It has also
been associated with adverse pregnancy outcomes including
malpresentation, preterm birth, and postpartum hemorrhage. Although oral
contraceptives are useful in dysmenorrhea and dysfunctional uterine
bleeding, they are ineffective in symptoms secondary to uterine myomas.
GnRH agonists, danazol, and mifepristone are effective medications for
symptomatic uterine fibroids. Metformin is useful in the treatment of
polycystic ovary syndrome, but not for fibroids.
The commonest type of bleeding encountered with uterine leiomyomata
(uterine fibroids) is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Post-coital spotting
Mid-cycle bleeding
Hypermenorrhea
Oligomenorrhea
Post-coital staining
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Family history
Oral contraceptive pills
Nulliparity
Late menopause
Caucasian
Studies find that birth control pills can help reduce a woman's risk of
developing ovarian cancer.
Which one of the following is recommended for the treatment of
intravaginal genital warts in pregnant women?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Uterine fibroids
Post abortion
Endometrial cancer
Ovarian cancer
With each heat cycle, the uterine lining engorges in preparation for
pregnancy. Eventually, some tissue engorgement becomes excessive or
persistent. This lush glandular tissue is ripe for infection. Bacteria
ascend from the vagina and the uterus becomes infected and ultimately
pus filled. The usual treatment for pyometra is surgical removal of the
uterus and ovaries.
A female medical student at 10 weeks gestation is starting an
intravenous line in a patient who is a chronic active hepatitis B
carrier. After placing the line, the student inadvertently sticks
herself with the bloody needle. The student has never been immunized
against hepatitis B and is susceptible. Which of the following is the
best choice in managing her situation?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Laparotomy
Observation
Medications to shrink cyst
Aspiration
a)
b)
c)
d)
Myomectomy
Myolysis with endometrial ablation
Uterine artery embolization
Observation
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
HPV DNA testing, and if negative, a repeat Pap test in 4-6 months
Colposcopy with endocervical sampling and an endometrial biopsy
An endometrial biopsy
Referral for dilatation and curettage
a)
b)
c)
d)
Dermatomyositis
Multiple sclerosis
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Hyperventilation syndrome
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Transverse/breech
Breech/transverse
Vertex/vertex
Vertex/breech
Breech/vertex
a) High-resolution ultrasonography
b) Amniocentesis for amniotic fluid alpha-fetoprotein,
acetylcholinesterase, and karyotyping
c) Recommending termination of the pregnancy
d) Repeating the measurement of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein at
24 weeks gestation
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Screening maternal serum ?-fetoprotein levels should be offered to
patients at 16-18 weeks gestation to detect open neural tube defects.
Abnormally high levels must be confirmed by immediate repeat
measurement. The next step is level I ultrasonography to rule out other
conditions which can result in elevated levels, such as multiple
gestation, incorrect gestational age or fetal demise. More detailed
level II ultrasonography and amniocentesis are then performed if the
initial results are normal and confirm fetal age. An open neural tube
defect is found within only 2%-3% of positive maternal serum tests.
Therefore, recommendations for termination of the pregnancy should be
made only after confirmation of a problem by ultrasonography and
amniocentesis. The significance of ?-fetoprotein levels after 22 weeks
gestation is unknown. In addition, testing at 24 weeks would not allow
adequate time for termination of an abnormal pregnancy by those patients
who choose to do so.
Which one of the following hormones is responsible for the proliferation
of the milk ducts during pregnancy?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Estrogen also promotes proliferation of the cells that form the inner
lining, or endometrium, of the uterus, thereby preparing the uterus for
possible implantation of an embryo. During a normal menstrual cycle,
estrogen levels fall dramatically at the end of each cycle if pregnancy
does not occur. As a result, the endometrium disintegrates and is shed
from the uterus and vagina in a bleeding process called menstruation.
You see a 29 year old white gravida 2 para 1 at 18 weeks gestation. She
had routine prenatal laboratory tests 2 weeks ago, and her platelet
count was 100,000/mm3 (N 150,000-300,000). she is on no medications
except prenatal vitamins, her past medical history is negative, and she
denies drug use. On the review of systems, she denies easy bruising or
bleeding. Her previous pregnancy was normal.
You order test for antinuclear antibody, antiphospholipid antibody,
anticardiolipin antibody, lupus anticoagulant, and HIV. All results are
normal. A peripheral smear is normal except for a low platelet count.
Appropriate management of this condition would include which one of the
following?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Rectal examination
Vaginal examination
Rectovaginal examination
Abdominal auscultation and percussion
a) Breast cancer
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Kidney disease
e) Hypertension
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Preeclampsia affects as many as 5% of first pregnancies and is
manifested as hypertension, proteinuria, edema, and rapid weight gain
after 20 weeks gestation. Very young mothers and those over age 35 have
a higher risk. Patients who have had preeclampsia have a fourfold
increased risk of hypertension and a twofold increased risk of ischemic
heart disease, stroke, and venous thromboembolism. There does not appear
to be an association between preeclampsia and cancer, breast cancer in
particular.
A 27 year old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy develops a
urinary tract infection. Which one of the following antibiotics would be
best to prescribe in this situation?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Nitrofurantoin
Ampicillin
Doxycycline
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Ciprofloxacin
a)
b)
c)
d)
Heart rate of 90
Decreased blood pressure
Palmar erythema
White blood cell count of 3000
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The correct answer is D
Diagnostic laparoscopy
Serum estradiol
Karyotype
Serum luteinizing hormone and follicule-stimulating hormone
Medroxyprogesterone withdrawal test
Explanation
Premature menopause (premature ovarian failure) is the permanent end of
menstrual periods before age 40 because the ovaries become unable to
produce hormones because ovulation stops. You should suspect premature
menopause when women younger than 40 have menopausal symptoms. A
pregnancy test is done, and levels of estrogen and follicle-stimulating
hormone (which stimulates the ovaries to produce estrogen and
progesterone) are measured on multiple occasions to confirm the diagnosis.
Additional tests may be done to help you identify the cause of premature
menopause and thus evaluate health risks and recommend treatment. For
women younger than 35, a chromosome analysis may be done. If a
chromosomal abnormality is detected, additional procedures and treatment
may be required.
All of the following are cardiovascular adaptations to pregnancy, except
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Honesty
b) Beneficence
c) Confidentiality
d) Informed consent
e) Justice
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Beneficence is the obligation to promote the well being of others.
Justice is the right of individuals to claim what is due them based on
certain personal properties or characteristics. Informed consent can be
defined as the willing acceptance of a medical intervention after
adequate disclosure by the physician. Honesty means that the patient is
given complete and truthful information about her condition.
Confidentiality means that a patient has the right to make decisions
about her own care and to decide to whom these decisions and her medical
information are communicated.
A. Honesty means that the patient is given complete and truthful
information about her condition.
B. Beneficience is the obligation to promote the well being of others.
D. Informed consent can be defined as the willing acceptance of a
medical intervention after adequate disclosure by the physician.
E. Justice is the right of individuals to claim what is due to them
based on certain personal properties or characteristics.
A 53-year-old female presents with the complaint of another bladder
Infection. She describes suprapubic and urethral pain, urinary
frequency, and dysuria. A pelvic examination is within normal limits.
Her urinalysis is negative for nitrate and leukocyte esterase, with the
microscopic examination revealing 2 - 4 WBCs and 0 - 3 RBCs. Her records
show six visits for similar complaints and findings over the past 2
years. A urine culture performed at one of these visits was negative.
Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) has been prescribed for each episode, with
inconsistent improvement.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Renal agenesis
b) Trisomy 21
c) Tracheal agenesis
d) Twin gestation
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Oligohydramnios is the term used to describe when the level of amniotic
fluid surrounding the baby is too low. In renal agenesis (absence of the
kidneys) the fetus cannot produce urine to contribute to the volume of
the amniotic fluid, therefore a relative oligohydramnios results.
The other answer choices are causes of polyhydramnios. For example in
esophageal atresia, the fetus cannot swallow the amniotic fluid, so the
amount of amniotic fluid that remains is increased.
A 29 year old woman who is breastfeeding her 2 week old infant develops
fever and severe myalgia. On examination, fissures are noted on her
breasts. The most likely organism causing her symptoms is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Escherichia coli
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus fecalis
Staphylococcus epidermidis
Bacteroides species
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Blood-stained show
Vasa previa
Placenta previa
Abruptio placentae
Uterine rupture
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) Edward syndrome
b) Down syndrome
c) Myelomeningocele
d) Patau syndrome
Correct Answer:* c)
Explanation
Neural tube defects such as anencephaly, spina bifida and
myelomeningocele will show an increased alpha-fetoprotein on a triple
screen.
In trisomies such as Edward syndrome (Trisomy 18), Down syndrome
(Trisomy 21) and Patau syndrome (Trisomy 13) the alpha-fetoprotein value
would be low.
A 20 year old primigravid comes to you for her first prenatal visit at
12 weeks. She works in a daycare facility and developed a maculopapular
rash at 11 weeks gestation. It disappears after 3 days and she feels fine.
Cataracts, patent ducuts arteriosus, and deafness are the most common
findings. In this case, she is coming to you within a few days of having
an exanthem; if the patients rubella IgG shows immunity, then the rash
was not due to rubella. If she is rubella IgG negative, then obtain an
IgM titer.
A. Rubella infection in an adult can be a mild viral exanthem. This
finding should never be ignored in a pregnant female.
B. No diagnosis of the condition has been made at this time.
D. Streptococcal pharyngitis is usually associated with a fever,
lyphadenopathy, and paryngeal symptoms.
E. Toxoplasmosis is not associated with a maculopapular rash.
The most common complication of epidural anesthesia in a pregnant woman is
a)
b)
c)
d)
Fetal hypoxia
Maternal hypotension
Decrease in contractions
Arrest of labor
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Breast cancer survivors have an increased chance of developing a second
malignancy, compounding their risk of recurrence and metastatic spread
of the treated malignancy. Additionally, treatment with some medications
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
CBC
HIV
Rubella titer
Blood group and type
Rh antibodies
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Phototherapy
Exchange transfer
Blood cultures and antibiotic therapy
Dextrose and water supplementation
A recommendation to increase feedings to 10 times a day
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Hot flushes
Vaginal dryness
Mood swings
Insomnia
Breast tissue hyperplasia
feet 7 inches tall. Currently she has Tanner stage 4 breasts and Tanner
stage 4 pubic hair. On perineal exam you see a suburethral bluish bulge.
Rectal exam notes a midline fullness. The most likely diagnosis is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Hypertension
Hypothyroidism
Osteoporosis
Pregnancy
Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer:* d)
Explanation
Clear contraindications to androgen therapy include pregnancy,
lactation, signs of hyperandrogenemia, and the presence of
androgen-dependent tumors.
You diagnose varicella in the two preschool children of a 28 year old
patient. She has no history of having had the disease, and serology done
in your office confirms her lack of immunity. A pregnancy test is also
negative and you tell her to return for a varicella vaccination, which
she does the following week.
She returns after 5 weeks because a home pregnancy test is now positive,
and a pregnancy test in your office is also positive. She is concerned
about the effect of varicella vaccine on the fetus. Which one of the
following would be the most accurate advice?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Posterior cul-de-sac
Broad ligament of the uterus
Bladder
Ovary
Rectosigmoid colon
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
a)
b)
c)
d)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Antacids
Soy milk
Iced tea
Bran
Ascorbic acid
a) Abdominal aorta
b) Umbilical vein
c) Umbilical artery
d) Pulmonary artery
e) Femoral artery
The correct answer is B
Explanation
The blood returning to the fetus from the placenta has the highest
oxygen concentration. Blood in the umbilical vein travels through the
ductus venosus into the inferior vena cava and into the right atrium.
Most of this flow tends to go through foramen ovale into the left atrium
and eventually out the ascending aorta. Blood returning from the heart
via the superior vena cava tends to go through the tricuspid valve and
out the pulmonary trunk, then through the ductus arteriosus into the
aorta. Thus, higher oxygenated blood is found in the proximal aorta,
which is supplying the head and neck.
A. Abdominal aorta is a mixture of blood from the placenta and blood
returning from the body, since this artery is postductal.
C. This artery is taking blood to the placenta from the fetus.
D. The pulmonary artery is taking blood from the right ventricle. Due to
the direction of flow, most of this blood is coming from the superior
vena cava and is less oxygenated than the aortic arch.
E. This will have the same oxygen level as the abdominal aorta and the
umbilical artery.
A 40 year old man and his 34 year old wife are being evaluated for
infertility. The woman's gynecologist reports that the woman had a
normal anatomic and physiologic evaluation and suggests the need for
assessment of potential male factors. On examination, the man is 188 cm
(6 ft 2 in) tall with fair skin and little facial hair. His testicles
are small and firm, and he has mild gynecomastia. No sperm are seen on
analysis of his semen. Which of the following tests is most likely to
establish the underlying cause of the infertility?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Genotype is XY
Breast development and uterus are absent
Serum testosterone is below normal male range
Secondary sex characteristics are male
The condition is autosomal recessive
a)
b)
c)
d)
Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Septra)
Amoxicillin/clavulnate (Augmentin)
Cephalexin (Keflex)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
vaccine at birth
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Newborns who are exposed to hepatitis B have more than a 90% chance of
becoming chronically infected. This means the virus stays in their blood
and liver for possibly a lifetime. They can pass the virus on to others.
They will also live with a greater chance of developing liver failure or
liver cancer later in life.
It is most important that the newborn receive the first dose of the
hepatitis B vaccine in the delivery room. If possible, also give the
hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG), which is another medication that
helps the vaccine to work even more successfully.
According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the
World Health Organization (WHO), it is safe for an infected woman to
a) Maternal leukocytosis
b) Maternal tachycardia
c) Uterine tenderness
d) Maternal fever
e) Maternal bacteremia
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Diagnosis of intrauterine infection is usually based on maternal fever,
maternal or fetal tachycardia, uterine tenderness, foul odor of the
amniotic fluid, and leukocytosis. Bacteremia occurs in only 10% of
cases. Once membranes are ruptured, the presence of a fever 100.4?F. in
the absence of any other explanation for the elevated temperature should
strongly suggest chorioamnionitis. Amniocentesis can assist in the
diagnosis, when no other clinical signs are present besides a fever. The
presence of bacteria in the amniotic fluid, or a fluid glucose level of
less than 15 mg/dl, is presumptive evidence for infection. Interleukin 6
has the highest sensitivity of any diagnostic test.
A. Elevations in maternal leukocyte count can occur for a wide variety
of reasons in pregnancy, including labor. It is not a reliable
diagnostic finding.
B. Maternal tachycardia is a nonspecific finding and can also be
associated with a wide variety of conditions.
C. Uterine tenderness is not always present and may be a late finding in
the condition.
E. Maternal bacteremia occurs in only 10% of cases.
The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active
19-year-old female is
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Candida albicans
Trichomonas vaginalis
Staphylococcus
group B Streptococcus
mixed vaginal flora
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Bacterial vaginosis is the most common cause of acute vaginitis,
accounting for up to 50% of cases in some populations. It is usually
caused by a shift in normal vaginal flora. Mixed vaginal flora is
considerably more common as a cause of vaginal discharge than C.
albicans and T. vaginalis.
A 22 year old pregnant woman wants to know the chance of having a baby
with Down syndrome. She has a sister with a neural tube defect. Which of
the following will you do as an initial screen?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Explanation
The triple screen measures AFP, hCG and estriol. This test is the
initial test to screen for down syndrome and neural tube defects (NTD).
Testing will identify 60% of the babies with Down Syndrome and 80-90% of
the babies with neural tube defects.
The other answer choices may be considered if the triple screen comes
back positive for Downs syndrome or NTD.
A G3P2 at 23 weeks gestation develops pain in her flank, fever and
a) Pyelonephritis
b) UTI
c) Cystitis
d) Back pain
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Acute pyelonephritis is a leading cause of admission for pregnant women.
It is an ascending infection involving the kidney causing symptoms of
fever, nausea, vomiting and chills. Physical exam will show flank pain.
Initial labs should include urinalysis and urine culture. IV antibiotics
are the mainstay of treatment.
Which one of the following best describes vaginismus
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Alcohol consumption
Caffeine consumption
Cigarette smoking
Cocaine use
A high-fat diet
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Cigarette smoking is the only nonsexual behavior consistently and
strongly correlated with cervical dysplasia and cancer, independently
increasing the risk two- to fourfold.
a) Hypothalamic amenorrhea
b) Ovarian failure
c) Pituitary macroadenoma
d) Pituitary microadenoma
e) Polycystic ovarian syndrome
The correct answer is B
Explanation
The history and physical findings in this patient are consistent with
all of the conditions listed. However, the elevated FSH and LH indicate
an ovarian problem, and this case is consistent with ovarian failure or
premature menopause. Most pituitary tumors associated with amenorrhea
produce hyperprolactinemia. Polycystic ovarian syndrome usually results
in normal to slightly elevated LH levels and tonically low FSH levels.
Hypothalamic amenorrhea is a diagnosis of exclusion, and can be induced
by weight loss, excessive physical exercise (jogging, ballet), or
systematic illness, and is associated with tonically low levels of LH
and FSH.
Increased human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) after pregnancy may
suggest the diagnosis of:
a) Mental retardation
b) Microcephaly
c) Macrocephaly
d) Nephrotoxicity
e) Ototoxicity
The correct answer is A
Explanation
The relationship between maternal alcohol abuse during pregnancy and
developmental birth defects is well-documented in psychological and
medical literature. An accurate diagnosis of FAS or Fetal Alcohol
Effects (FAE), in which patients display partial effects of the syndrome
and evidence many of the same problems as full-blown FAS, must be made
by a doctor or geneticist.
Patients with FAS are of short stature, slight build, and have a small
head. Typically they are below the third to tenth percentile compared to
national norms. A pattern of dysmorphic facial features characterizes
these persons as well, and include 1) short eye openings; 2) a short,
upturned nose; 3) smooth area between the nose and mouth; and 4) a flat
midface and thin upper lip. The facial patterns made FAS patients
recognizable although not grossly malformed.
A considerable range of intellectual functioning is found among patients
with FAS. In a report of twenty cases of varying severity, there was a
range of IQ scores from 16 to 105 with a mean IQ of 65. Severity of the
syndrome was related to IQ, with the most severely affected children
having the lowest IQ scores.
Which of the following pairs of HPV types is most commonly associated
with the clinical picture seen here?
a) 6/11
b) 16/18
c) 31/33
d) 39/45
e) 1/3
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Over 60 types of HPV have been identified. Types 6/11 are associated
with genital condylomata and the minor CIN groups. When HPV 6/11 are
found with CIN, the regression rate is high. Types 16/18 have a high
association with cervical carcinoma and advanced cervical dysplasia.
B. These are the HPV serotypes that are commonly associated with
cervical neoplasia, with 16 having the greatest association with
invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
C. These have also been associated with cervical neoplasia.
D. Not associated.
E. Not associated with genital lesions.
A 26-year-old gravida 2 para 1 presents at 30 weeks gestation with a
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Explanation
Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP) classically presents as
severe pruritus in the third trimester. Characteristic findings include
the absence of primary skin lesions and elevation of serum levels of
total bile acids.
The most specific and sensitive marker of ICP is total serum bile acid
(BA) levels greater than 10 micromol/L. In addition to the elevation in
serum BA levels, the cholic acid level is significantly increased and
the chenodeoxycholic acid level is mildly increased, leading to
elevation in the cholic/chenodeoxycholic acid level ratio. The elevation
of aminotransferases associated with ICP varies from a mild increase to
a 10- to 25-fold increase.
Total bilirubin levels are also increased but usually the values are
less than 5 mg/dL. Alkaline phosphatase (AP) is elevated in ICP up to
4-fold, but this is not helpful for diagnosis of the disorder since AP
is elevated in pregnancy due to production by the placenta. Mild
elevation of gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT) is seen with ICP but occurs
in fewer than 30% of cases. However, if GGT is elevated in cases of ICP,
that patient is more likely to have a genetic component of the liver
disease.
A 55 year old postmenopausal female presents with a "period-like"
vaginal bleeding for 5 days that stopped spontaneously. Your approach to
the problem would be to
Her skin is cool and clammy. The lower portion of her abdomen is tense
and tender. Bowel sounds are decreased and the fetal heart tones are
absent. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Ruptured spleen
b) Ruptured uterus
c) Perforated viscus
d) Abruptio placentae
e) Ruptured bladder
The correct answer is B
Explanation
In a car accident, the gravid uterus in the third trimester will have a
rapid deceleration within the abdominal cavity which can increase the
risk of a placental abruption, as well as uterine rupture. Most cases of
abruption occur within 24 hours of the accident. In this case - the
fetal heart tones are absent, her abdominal wall is tense and there is a
clinical evidence of hypovolemia - one should suspect the more serious
condition of uterine rupture. With her vital sign changes, evaluation
and correction of DIC as well as maternal blood volume replacement are
indicated. The blood loss will continue until the uterus is repaired,
therefore, Cesarean delivery of the fetus is indicated.
Ruptured spleen can definitely be associated with significant hemorrhage
and shock. But, the lower abdominal tenderness is more likely to be from
a pelvic origin.
Perforated viscus is uncommon without penetrating trauma.
Abruption is a common occurrence in abdominal trauma of this nature. Due
to the absent heart tones, tense abdomen, and signs of significant
hypovolemia, uterine rupture is more likely.
Ruptured bladder is not associated with absent fetal heart tones.
A 52 year old woman presents to your office complaining of vaginal
bleeding. Her last bleeding episode was 2 years ago. She is not on
hormone replacement therapy. Her hemoglobin is 13.4. A vaginal
ultrasound shows her uterus and adnexa to be of normal size and an
endometrial stripe of 11 mm. The next step in her evaluation should be:
a) Hysterectomy
b) Dilation and curettage
c) Endometrial biopsy
d) Endometrial ablation
e) Intermittent progestin therapy
The correct answer is C
Explanation
In any woman over the age of 35, with abnormal uterine bleeding, the
diagnosis of an endometrial malignancy must be entertained. With a
postmenopausal woman having an endometrial stripe over 4-5 mm, cancer
needs to be ruled out and tissue should be obtained. The simplest test
is to proceed with an endometrial biopsy.
A. This therapy would be indicated as therapy for adenocarcinoma of the
endometrium or for atypical endometrial hyperplasia. A diagnostic
sampling of the endometrium is the first necessary test.
B. Although this test would lead to a diagnosis, an endometrial biopsy
can be done more easily in the office with minimal discomfort.
D. This modality is used for the reproductive age female with severe
symptomatic uterine bleeding in the absence of endometrial pathology.
E. A diagnosis of the endometrium must be made before hormonal therapy
can be started in this case.
A 26 year old woman presents with vaginal discharge that has been smelly
and bothersome. You perform a wet mount and diagnose bacterial
vaginosis. All of the following would be present, except
a)
b)
c)
d)
Clue cells
Fishy odor with KOH test
pH > 4.5
Frothy discharge
The correct answer is D
Explanation
Bacterial vaginosis will present with a thin, white, gray or yellowish
cloudy discharge with a foul or fishy odor. Itching and irritation, grey
discharge, pH > 4.5, fishy odor and clue cells will be seen on exam and
testing.
A frothy discharge is more likely to be seen in a trichomonas infection.
A 32 year old G5P4 presents with an 8 week history of amenorrhea and
suggestive symptoms of pregnancy. Physical examination reveals an
irregular, enlarged uterus of 16 weeks size. Ultrasound confirms the
presence of an 8 week viable pregnancy and a multiple fibroid uterus.
The correct management for this patient is
a) Microcephaly
b) Nephrotoxicity
c) Neurotoxicity
d) Ototoxicity
e) Spinal cord deformities
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Accutane or Isotretinoin is a powerful drug used to combat the most
serious and complicated cases of acne. One of the most serious
complications of accutane is its effect on pregnant women and their
unborn fetuses. Accutane is so dangerous to babies in the womb that no
amount of accutane should be taken by a pregnant woman. Some of the most
common birth defects caused by accutane include: Heart Defects, Mental
a) Pregnancy
b) Ovarian failure
c) Pituitary failure
d) Mullerian agenesis
e) Polycystic ovary (PCO) syndrome
The correct answer is E
Explanation
In pregnancy, progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum followed by
the placenta. Exogenous progesterone will not lead to withdrawal
bleeding. In ovarian failure as well as pituitary failure, no estrogen
stimulation of the endometrium exists, and progesterone cannot cause
withdrawal bleeding. With Mullerian agenesis, there is no endometrium.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome has an abundance of circulating estrogen, so
the endometrium will proliferate.
A. Progesterone withdrawal will not occur since the corpus luteum is
producing progesterone. The placenta will take over, starting at 7
weeks, and will be the sole producer of progesterone by 12 weeks.
B. No estrogen will be produced; no proliferation of the endometrium
will occur.
C. Without gonadotropin stimulation, there will not be enough estrogen
to stimulate the endometrial lining.
D. There is no uterus, thus no bleeding.
A 26 year old gravida 2 para 1 at 10 weeks gestation presents to the
emergency department with abdominal pain and vaginal spotting.
Ultrasonography reveals an ectopic pregnancy. Her blood type is
A-negative, antibody-negative. Appropriate management with regard to her
Rh status includes
a) Right pyelonephritis
b) Acute appendicitis
c) Right ovarian endometrioma
d) Acute salpingitis
e) Torsion of a right ovarian cyst
The correct answer is E
Explanation
Adnexal torsion is uncommon, occurring most often during reproductive
years. It usually indicates an ovarian abnormality. Risk factors include
pregnancy, induction of ovulation, and ovarian enlargement to > 4 cm
(eg, particularly by benign tumors or hyperstimulation with fertility
drugs). Torsion of normal adnexa, which is rare, is more common among
children than adults.
Torsion causes sudden severe pelvic pain and sometimes nausea and
vomiting. For days or occasionally weeks before the sudden pain,
intermittent, colicky pain may occur, presumably resulting from
intermittent torsion that spontaneously resolves. Cervical motion
tenderness, a unilateral tender adnexal mass, and peritoneal signs are
usually present.
Adnexal torsion is suspected based on typical symptoms and unexplained
peritoneal signs plus severe cervical motion tenderness or an adnexal
mass without evidence of pelvic inflammatory disease. Diagnosis is
usually confirmed by color Doppler transvaginal ultrasonography.
Immediate laparoscopy or laparotomy is done if torsion is suspected or
confirmed by ultrasonography. Treatment aims to salvage the ovary and
fallopian tube by untwisting them via laparoscopy or laparotomy.
Salpingo-oophorectomy is required for nonviable tissue, which may not be
necrotic yet.
A 25 year old woman who has a 4 year history of ulcerative colitis is
admitted to the hospital because of increasing abdominal pain, diarrhea
and hematochezia. Her disease is limited to the descending colon.
Current therapy includes sulfasalazine and corticosteroid enemas. While
she is receiving parenteral corticosteroid therapy, she is discovered to
be 8 weeks pregnant. The statement that should be emphasized in
discussing this pregnancy with her is
a)
b)
c)
d)
Inaccurate dating
An inevitable abortion
A missed abortion
A blighted ovum
The correct answer is C
Explanation
In this case, the patient has a missed abortion, which is defined as a
dead fetus or embryo without passage of tissue and with a closed cervix.
This condition often presents with failure to detect fetal heart tones
or a lack of growth in uterine size. By 14 weeks estimated gestational
age, fetal heart tones should be detected by both handheld Doppler and
ultrasonography. An inevitable abortion presents with a dilated cervix,
but no passage of fetal tissue. A blighted ovum involves failure of the
embryo to develop, despite the presence of a gestational sac and
placental tissue.
You are asked to consult on a laboring 29 year old multipara in active
labor. The patient is concerned about the large size of her fetus. She
is concerned about the possibility of this fetus having a difficult
delivery. She tells you that her last delivery was complicated by a
shoulder dystocia. You tell her that shoulder dystocia has been
associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Explanation
Although this patient has had a prior cesarean section, the possibility
of a uterine scar separation is low. With the presence of ruptured
membranes, a complete previa is unlikely. Although the uterus is tender,
the patient is afebrile. There is literature to suggest that prolonged
preterm ROM is assoacited with an increased risk of abruptio placentae.
A. Ruptured membranes with a complete previa is very unlikely.
B. Chorioamnionitis can be a complication of prolonged preterm rupture
of membranes. It can be associated with contractions and uterine pain,
but is usually not associated with vaginal bleeding.
D. Uterine scar separation can occur with a prior cesarean, but usually
occurs in active labor. This patient is showing signs of early uterine
activity at 32 weeks gestation, making this diagnosis unlikely.
E. HELLP syndrome is hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets.
A 31 year old married white female complains of vaginal discharge, odor,
and itching. Speculum examination reveals a homogenous yellow discharge,
vulvar and vaginal erythema, and a strawberry? cervix. The most likely
diagnosis is
a) Candidal vaginitis
b) Bacterial vaginosis
c) Trichomonal vaginitis
d) Chlamydial infection
e) Herpes simplex type 2
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Trichomonal vaginitis usually causes a yellowish discharge which
sometimes has a frothy appearance. Colpitis macularis (strawberry
cervix) is often present. Monilial vaginitis classically causes a
cheesy, whitish exudates with associated vaginal itching and burning.
There may be a vaginal and vulvar erythema and edema, but colpitis
macularis is not a feature. Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by a
grayish discharge with few other physical signs or symptoms, if any.
Chlamydia may cause a yellowish cervical discharge and symptoms of
pelvic inflammatory disease, or alternatively, may be totally
a) Symmetrical IUGR
b) Asymmetrical IUGR
c) Congenital anomaly
d) Congenital infection
e) Unknown gestational age
The correct answer is B
Explanation
Intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR) is where a baby fails to grow as
normal in the womb. These babies are smaller than they should be for
their age and their weight is below what it should be for that stage of
the pregnancy (below the 10th weight percentile for the babys age).
Babies with IUGR are prone to a variety of problems before and after birth.
IUGR can be classified into symmetrical or asymmetrical. In symmetrical
IUGR, the baby's head and body are proportionately small. This usually
occurs when IUGR begins in early pregnancy. Head circumference, length
and weight are all decreased proportionately. These infants are more
likely to have significant intrinsic fetal problems than babies where
the IUGR begins later.
In asymmetrical IUGR, growth restriction is due to problems in late
pregnancy (such as maternal renal disease or pre-eclampsia). These
babies have a relatively normal head circumference, some reduction in
length, but a marked reduction in weight.
A 21 year old woman at 24 weeks gestation presents with dysuria,
vulvovaginal pruritus and vaginal discharge. A saline wet mount slide
shows the following on microscopic exam. The most likely diagnosis is:
a) Candida albicans
b) Bacterial vaginosis
c) Trichomoniasis
d) Chlamydia trachomatis
e) Human papilloma virus
The correct answer is A
Explanation
The most common form of vulvovaginitis is Candida. Only 20% of patients
will have a cottage cheese type of discharge. The image shows a direct
wet mount prepared from a white vaginal discharge showing pseudohyphae,
budding yeast, and human epithelial cells. Examination of a fresh
vaginal discharge provides the simplest and most rapid diagnostic test
in aiding presumptive identification of Candida species.
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Explanation
Genital herpes can be transmitted to the neonate during delivery,
particularly if women have visible herpetic lesions or known infection
with prodromal symptoms or if herpes infection first occurs during the
late 3rd trimester (when the virus is likely to be excreted from the
cervix at delivery). In such cases, delivery by cesarean section is
preferred.
If visible lesions or prodrome is absent, even in women with recurrent
infections, risk is low, and vaginal delivery is possible. If women are
asymptomatic, serial antepartum cultures do not help identify those at
risk of transmission. If women have recurrent herpes infections during
pregnancy but no other risk factors for transmission, delivery can
a)
b)
c)
d)
Lupus erythematosus
Pemphigoid gestationis (herpes gestationis)
Melasma (chloasma)
Prurigo gestationis
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Melasma or chloasma is common in pregnancy, with approximately 70% of
pregnant women affected. It is an acquired hypermelanosis of the face,
with symmetric distribution usually on the cheeks, nose, eyebrows, chin,
and/or upper lip. The pathogenesis is not known. UV sunscreen is
important, as sun exposure worsens the condition. Melasma often resolves
or improves post partum. Persistent melasma can be treated with
hydroquinone cream, retinoic acid, and/or chemical peels performed post
partum by a dermatologist.
The facial rash of lupus is usually more erythematous, and lupus is
relatively rare. Pemphigoid gestationis is a rare autoimmune disease
with extremely pruritic, bullous skin lesions that usually spare the
face. Prurigo gestationis involves involves pruritic papules on the
extensor surfaces and is usually associated with significant excoriation
by the uncomfortable patient.
Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk
of developing endometrial carcinoma?
a) Nulliparity
b) Infertility
c) Obesity
d) High socioeconomic status
e) Polycystic ovary disease
The correct answer is E
Explanation
The factor associated with the greatest relative risk for endometrial
carcinoma is polycystic ovary disease, which has a relative risk of 75.
The use of long-term high doses of postmenopausal estrogen carries an
estimated risk of 10?20. Living in North America or Europe also has an
estimated risk of 10?20.
A lower relative risk is associated with nulliparity, obesity,
infertility, late menopause, older age, and white race. The relative
risk associated with these factors falls into the range of 2?5. Early
menarche, higher education or income levels, menstrual irregularities,
and a history of diabetes, hypertension, gall bladder disease, or
thyroid disease have a relative risk of around 1.5?2.0.
The relative risk associated with cigarette smoking is 0.5, and for
long-term use of high-dose oral contraceptives it is 0.3?0.5.
A 52 year old menopausal female sees you because of vaginal bleeding for
3 days in the preceding month. Since developing hot flushes 12 months
ago, she has taken conjugated equine estrogens (Premarin), 0.9 mg/day.
You perform an endometrial biopsy and the pathologist reports a
histologic diagnosis of adenomatous hyperplasia with atypia. At this
point, which one of the following would be most appropriate?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Explanation
Intrahepatic cholestatis of pregnancy is rare, occurring in 0.01% of
pregnancies. It usually presents in the third trimester. Approximately
80% of patients present with pruritus alone, and another 20% with
jaundice and pruritis. Laboratory results usually reveal normal or
minimal elevation in transaminase levels, elevated bilirubin (usually <5
mg/dL), and occasional elevations in cholesterol and triglyceride
levels. It is important to recognize and diagnose this entity, as it is
associated with prematurity, fetal distress, and increased perinatal
mortality.
Acute viral hepatitis is a common cause of jaundice in pregnancy;
however, it usually does not present with severe pruritus, and
transaminase levels are markedly elevated. Acute fatty liver of
pregnancy is another rare condition occurring in the third trimester and
is usually associated with preeclampsia (50%-100% of cases). It presents
with nausea and vomiting, anorexia, jaundice, abdominal pain, headache,
and neurologic abnormalities. Transaminase levels are moderately
elevated, PT and PTT are prolonged, and profound hypoglycemia and renal
failure are usually present. Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of
pregnancy (PUPPP) is more common in women that present with severe
pruritus. However, jaundice and liver function abnormalities are absent.
HELLP syndrome is an uncommon but serious condition which presents in
the third trimester with hemolysis, elevated transaminases, and low
platelet count.
A 26 year old G2P1 female comes to your office for prenatal checkup. She
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Amniocentesis
Chorionic villus sampling
Induction of abortion
Ultrasonography
Umbilical cord blood sampling
The correct answer is D
Explanation
The most common cause of abnormal ?-feto-protein level is inaccuracy of
gestational age; thus, an invasive test is never appropriate before
performing an ultrasound. The ultrasound will let you make sure of the
gestational age and rule out fetal demise.
After gestational age error is ruled out, amniocentesis, chorionic
villus sampling or cordocentesis would be appropriate.
Abortion would be discussed as an option with the mother only after
definitive diagnosis of a chromosomal abnormalities or fetal demise.
A G1P0 woman at 35 weeks gestation presents with headache and a blood
pressure of 170/115. Protein is ++ on her urine. She has normal body
reflex, fetal heart 140 beats/min. What is the most appropriate next step?
a) C-section
b) Induce labour for delivery
c) Magnesium sulfate + Delivery
d) Give steroid
e) Labetalol
The correct answer is C
Explanation
Preeclampsia is pregnancy-induced hypertension plus proteinuria.
Eclampsia is unexplained generalized seizures in patients with
preeclampsia. Preeclampsia and eclampsia develop between 20 weeks
gestation and the end of the 1st week postpartum.
Diagnostic criteria for severe preeclampsia include at least one of the
following:
-Systolic BP greater than 160 mm Hg or diastolic BP greater than 110 mm
Hg on 2 occasions 6 hours apart with the patient at bed rest
-Proteinuria greater than 5000 mg in a 24-hour collection or more than
3+ on 2 random urine samples collected at least 4 hours apart
-Oliguria with less than 500 mL per 24 hours
-Persistent maternal headache or visual disturbance
-Pulmonary edema or cyanosis
-Concerning abdominal pain
-Impaired liver function test findings
-Thrombocytopenia
-Oligohydramnios, decreased fetal growth, or placental abruption
When severe preeclampsia is diagnosed after 34 weeks' gestation,
delivery is most appropriate. The mode of delivery should depend on
severity of the disease and the likelihood of a successful induction.
However, whenever possible, vaginal delivery should be attempted and
cesarean section should be reserved for routine obstetric indications.
In addition, women with severe preeclampsia who have nonreassuring fetal
status, ruptured membranes, labor, or maternal distress should be
delivered regardless of gestational age.
Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in women
with preeclampsia. Therapy is started at the beginning of labor or prior
to cesarean section and continued 24 hours postpartum in most cases. The
duration of postpartum therapy may be modified depending on the severity
of the disease.
Breastfeeding is contraindicated if the mother has
a)
b)
c)
d)
mother
e) Observation and reevaluation in 2 hours
The correct answer is E
Explanation
These are examples of early decelerations and are felt to be due to head
compression. Increased intracranial pressure causes local changes in
cerebral artery blood flow, leading to a reflexive bradycardia mediated
by the vagal nerve. Although not all authors agree that this class of
a) Give Vit K
b) Apply gauze and bandage
c) Give Fresh Frozen Plasma
d) Give Protamine sulfate
The correct answer is A
Explanation
Warfarin inhibits the synthesis of biologically-active forms of the
vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX and X, as well as the
regulatory factors protein C, protein S, and protein Z. Warfarin can be
reversed with vitamin K, or for rapid reversal (e.g., in case of severe
bleeding), with fresh frozen plasma.
Protamine is given for heparin reversal.