MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

Basic Medical Science Email:sidharta123@yahoo.com

Time: 1 hr Total Marks: 100 | Pass Mark: 60

Clinical Microbiology
Please use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the
begining carefully. This is an Sample Test Paper on Medical / Clinical Microbiology.

Please Note: There is no negative marking.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Roundworms belongs to:

A Cestodes C Trematodes
B Nematodes D Intestinal protozoa
2. Match the Type II Restriction Endonucleases with their correct Recognition Sequences on
the 3 end:
A. BamHI A. G- T
B. EcoRI B. A-G
C. HindIII C. G-A
D. SalI D. G-G
E. PstI E. A-A
3. Mechanism of action of Chloramphenicol:
A Cause misreading of m-RNA code C Cause leakage from cell membranes
B Inhibit protein synthesis D Interfere with DNA function
4. The causative agent of Epidemic typhus is:
A Rickettsia typhi C Rickettsia prowazekii
B Rickettsia akari D Rickettsia rickettsii
5. The most common life-threatening invasive fungal infection worldwide:
A Aspergillosis C Blastomycosis
B Cryptococcosis D Mucormycosis
6. Disease due to eating undercooked beef:
A Taeniasis C Gnathostomiasis
B Sarcocystosis D Diphyllobothriasis

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MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

7. All of the following are methods for detecting microbial DNA except:
A DNA microarrays C Direct hybridization
B ELISA D PCR
8. Highest case fatality is associated with which form of encephalitis?
A Western equine encephalitis C Eastern equine encephalitis
B St Louis encephalitis D Japanese encephalitis
9. Zygomycosis may be caused by all of the following organisms except:
A Absidia C Aspergillus
B Rhizopus D Mucor
10. Which of the following is not a normal microbiota of the small intestine?
A Mycobacterium spp. C Peptostreptococcus spp.
B Bacteroides spp. D Enterobacteriaceae
11. Nystatin is a
A Polyene antibiotic C Nitrobenzene derivative
B Glycopeptide antibiotic D Polypeptide antibiotic
12. Toxoplasma belongs to which Class?
A Microspora C Sarcodina
B Haematozoa D Coccidia
13. Asexual reproductive structures of fungi include all except:
A Sporangiospores C Mitospores
B Ascospores D Conidiophores
14. The Cell Surface Protein of Poliovirus:
A Intercellular adhesion molecules C Immunoglobulin superfamily
(ICAMs)
D Receptor for the C3d complement
B Acetylcholine receptor on neurons protein
15. Autoclave can be used for sterilization of:
A Glassware C Powders
B Surgical instruments D Oily substances

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MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

16. Entamoeba histolytica is a/an

A Protozoa C Amoeba
B Sporozoa D Flagellate
17. Which of the following antibiotics is derived from mold or moulds?
A Cefoxilin C Tunicamycin
B Puromycin D Aztreonam
18. Patients with complement component deficiencies suffer from:
A Severe combined immunodeficiency C Chronic granulomatous disease
disease
D Ataxia-telangiectasia
B Systemic lupus erythematosus
19. Which of the following do not have Ribosomes?
A Protozoa C Bacteria
B Fungi D Virus
20. All of the following involves immune complex hypersensitivity reactions except:
A Contact dermatitis. C Arthus phenonmenon
B Serum sickness D Pigeon fancier's disease
21. Trichomonas are classified as:
A Apicomplexa C Flagellates
B Ciliates D Sporozoa
22. The only microbe that lacks a cell wall but has sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane:
A Protozoa C Mycoplasma
B Fungi D Bacterium
23. In those who suffer from diabetes, Clostridium perfringens usually colonizes only their:
A nostrils C urethra
B perianal region D conjunctiva
24. "Verotoxin" is produced by:
A Enteroinvasive E coli (EIEC) C Enterotoxigenic E coli(ETEC)
B Enterohemorrhagic E coli (EHEC) D Enteropathogenic E coli(EPEC)

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MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

25. Which of the following statements regarding Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis is/are correct?
A mortality rate 1-10% C due to Sin Nombre virus infection
B natural vector is a deer mouse D incubation period is 1-2 weeks
26. The causative pathogen of Cats scratch disease:
A F pedrosoi C E floccosum
B B henselae D S gordonii
27. Most effective method for detection of HBV antigens and antibodies in a patients serum:
A Complement fixation C Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
B Latex agglutination test D Direct hemagglutination
28. Autoclave uses ________ for sterilization.
A Ultraviolet light at 265 nm energy C Boiling water at 100C for 2 hr+
B Hot air oven at 160C for 2 hr D Pressurized steam at 121C for 15
min
29. Antigenic determinants "Forssman antigen" is characteristic of
A Pseudomonas aeruginosa C Histoplasma capsulatum
B Streptococcus pneumoniae D Moraxella catarrhalis
30. Match the following Viruses with their corresponding Cell Surface Proteins:
A. Herpes simplex virus, type 1 A. CD46 complement regulator protein
B. Hepatitis A virus B. Sialic acid-containing glycoprotein
C. Measles virus C. Acetylated sialic acid on glycoprotein
D. Rotavirus D. Alpha 2-macroglobulin
E. Influenza A virus E. Fibroblast growth factor receptor
31. Which of the following organisms rarely produces infection in human beings?
A Pasteurella pneumotropica C Pasteurella ureae
B Pasteurella multocida D Pasteurella haemolytica
32. Mechanism of action of Chloramphenicol:
A binds to 30S subunit C inhibits protein biosynthesis
B inhibits translocation step D causes misreading of genetic code

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MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

33. All of the following are produced by streptococcus pyogenes except:

A streptokinases C streptolysin O
B Exfoliatin D streptolysin S
34. Incubation period ranges from 2 to 9 days in
A Rhinovirus infection C Coxsackievirus infection
B Echovirus infection D Poliovirus infection
35. Which of the following is associated with the virulence factor of Enteropathogenic E coli
(EPEC) that causes diarrhea?
A Verotoxin C O antigen
B Hemolysin D Heat-labile exotoxin (LT)
36. Which of the following statements is/are correct about antiviral drugs?
A Foscarnet is an HIV fusion inhibitor C Amantadine has no effect on
Influenza A
B Acyclovir is ineffective against
cytomegalovirus D Ribavirin is a protease inhibitor
37. A nucleoside analogue that causes chain termination during DNA synthesis:
A Didanosine C Nevirapine
B Foscarnet D Adefovir
38. Hydatidosis or hydatid cysts may result from infection with:
A Paragonimus westermani C Echinococcus granulosus
B Fasciola hepatica D Schistosoma mansoni
39. Which of the following cause about 60% of cases of mucormycosis?
A Cryptococcus neoformans C Rhizopus oryzae
B Histoplasma capsulatum D Aspergillus fumigatus
40. Which of the following statements about Interferon is/are incorrect?
A has antiviral action C triggers synthesis of oligo(A)
synthetase
B activates the initiation factor elF-2
D its synthesis is stimulated by
double-stranded RNA
41. Hepatitis E virus belongs to the family/genus:
A Caliciviridae C Hepevirus
B Hepadnaviridae D Hepatovirus

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MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

42. IFN-a is derived from

A antigen-stimulated T cells C virus-infected fibroblasts
B macrophages and NK cells D virus-infected leukocytes
43. All of the following are directly transmitted to humans by arthropods except:
A Rocky Mountain spotted fever C Epidemic typhus
B Scrub typhus D Q fever
44. The causative organism of Texas cattle fever
A Bartonella C Babesia
B Brucellae D Borrelia
45. Which of the following is an "endobiotics"?
A Lactobacillus casei C Benzoic acid
B Nicotine D Bile acids
46. Which of the following chemicals is generally used for disinfection and sterilization?
A Peracetic acid C Chlorhexidine
B Benzoic acid D Phenol
47. Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) is seen in patients with AIDS who
are infected with______ when they are given HAART.
A Cryptococcus C Rhizopus
B Aspergillus D Candida
48. Natural reservoir of Balantidium coli:
A Cat C Dog
B Sheep D Pig
49. Which of the following is a major component of spores/endospores?
A Dipicolinic acid C Muramic acid
B Diaminopimelic acid D Lipoteichoic acid
50. Endogenous infection is caused by:
A R. oryzae C A. fumigatus
B P. boydii D C. albicans

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MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

51. All of the following are normal microbiota of the vagina except:
A Klebsiella spp. C Bacteroides spp.
B Diphtheroids D Clostridium spp.
52. Treponema pertenue is the causative organism of
A Syphilis C Bejel
B Yaws D Pinta
53. All of the following are examples of Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reactions except:
A Histoplasmosis C Poison ivy
B Urticaria D Contact dermatitis.
54. During DNA replication, proofreading the chain for mistakes is primarily the function of
A RNA polymerase C DNA polymerase I
B Ligase D DNA polymerase III
55. Which of the following organisms is associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
A EnteroinvasiveE coli (EIEC) C Enterohemorrhagic E coli (EHEC)
B EnterotoxigenicE coli (ETEC) D EnteropathogenicE coli (EPEC)
56. The function of enzyme Helicase in DNA replication:
A Adding bases to the new DNA chain C Unzipping the DNA helix
B Supercoiling D Removing primer
57. The lethal dose of abrin (a toxic lectin) in mice is
A <0.11g/kg C <0.1g/kg
B >0.1g/kg D >0.11g/kg
58. Naegleria belongs to:
A Helminth C Protozoa
B Bacteria D Fungi
59. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction:
A involves IgG and complement system C is a type of cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B involves cytokines and T D caused by antigen-antibody
lymphocytes aggregates

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MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

60. The causative organism of Well's disease:

A Trypanosoma brucei C Borrelia burgdorferi
B Leptospira interrogans D Anisakis simplex
61. A severe variant of erythema multiforme that affects the eyes and genitalia:
A Kartagener's syndrome C Young's syndrome
B Churg-Strauss syndrome D Stevens-Johnson syndrome
62. For sterilization purposes, Arnold sterilizer uses
A Pressurized steam C Fractional sterilization
B Hot air D Ultraviolet light
63. The most sensitive method for detection of rotavirus nucleic acid from stool specimens:
A DNA microarrays C PCR
B Disk-diffusion method D ELISA
64. The Siege of Caffa involved a sorely dreaded disease: Which was it?
A Epidemic typhus C Plague
B Smallpox D Typhoid
65. Drug of choice for the treatment of Erysipelas:
A Streptomycin C Erythromycin
B Tetracycline D Amphotericin B
66. The prime cause of acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis:
A Rhinoviruses 87 C Enterovirus 70
B Enterovirus 72 D Echoviruses 22
67. The natural host of Isospora:
A Cattle C Cats
B Dogs D Horses

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MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

68. Identify the structure given below:

A Pyrimidine C Purine
B Nucleotide D Nucleoside
69. Which of the following vaccines do not contain live viruses?
A Hepatitis B vaccine C Varicella zoster vaccines
B Influenza vaccine D MMR vaccine
70. Which of the following is a Sporozoa?
A Leishmania C Trichomonas
B Trypanosoma D Toxoplasma
71. The causative organism of Sleeping sickness is :
A Trypanosoma cruzi C Bartonella henselae
B Brucella melitensis D Trypanosoma brucei
72. Bacitracin is highly toxic to the
A Kidney C Bone marrow
B Liver D Cochlear
73. Match the following about E coli-Associated Diarrheal Diseases with their correct
alternatives:
A. Enterotoxigenic E coli A. produce ST-like toxin
B. Enterohemorrhagic E coli B. colonization factors
C. Enteropathogenic E coli C. H antigen
D. Enteroinvasive E coli D. O157:H7 serotype
E. Enteroaggregative E coli E. nonlactose fermenters
74. Transplacental or congenital infections does not occur with:
A Syphilis C Rubella
B Yaws D Cytomegalovirus

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MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

75. A mild form of typhus believed to be due to relapse of an earlier case of typhus:
A Endemic typhus C Relapsing fever
B Recrudescent typhus D Scrub typhus
76. Which of the following plays role in induction of septic shock?
A Lipoteichoic acid C Muramic acid
B Diaminopimelic acid D Dipicolinic acid
77. All of the following methods are used to detect or quantify bacterial endotoxins (BET)
except:
A Gel-clot method C Lysis-centrifugation method
B Turbidimetric kinetic method D Chromogenic end point method
78. Which of the following is a "counterstain" used in Gram staining method?
A Carbolfuchsin C Acetone
B Safranin D Crystal violet
79. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) is characterized by:
A lack of C3 complement component C T cell depletion
B B cell depletion D depletion of both B and T cells
80. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease is caused by
A Enterovirus C Echovirus
B Coxsackievirus D Rhinovirus
81. A disease that occurs in humans due to eating uncooked fish (mullet):
A Gnathostomiasis C Heterophyiasis
B Fasciolopsiasis D Echinostomiasis
82. All of the following are nucleoside analogues except:
A Indinavir C Nevirapine
B Vidarabine D Lamivudine
83. Which of the following stains is used in staining specimen for fungal forms?
A Potassium hydroxide C Safranin
B India ink D Carbolfuchsin

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MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

84. The pathogen most likely to cause soft tissue and skin infections transmitted by human
bite:
A Eikenella corrodens C Aeromonas hydrophila
B Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae D Anaplasma phagocytophilum
85. Erythema nodosum could be a likely manifestation of infection with:
A Y enterocolitica C G lamblia
B C jejuni D C immitis
86. Dimorphic fungi includes:
A Aspergillus fumigatus C Cryptococcus neoformans
B Rhizopus oryzae D Penicillium marneffei
87. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
A S pyogenes C S dysenteriae
B C perfringens D S aureus
88. Cold agglutinins test
A IgA C IgG
B IgD D IgM
89. Q fever is caused by:
A Bartonella henselae C Coxiella burnetii
B Ehrlichia chaffeensis D Borrelia burgdorferi
90. The cause of relapsing fever in the western United States:
A Borrelia burgdorferi C Borrelia hermsii
B Borrelia recurrentis D Borrelia garinii
91. What determines the virulence of Enterotoxigenic E coli (ETEC) that causes diarrhea?
A Verotoxin C Hemolysin
B Heat-stable enterotoxin STa D O antigen
92. Erythema nodosum is associated with all of the following diseases/conditions except:
A Herpes simplex virus infection C Leprosy
B Cat-scratch disease D Yersinia enterocolitica infection

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MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

93. All of the following are flagellate protozoa except:

A Leishmania C Trypanosoma
B Sarcocystis D Histomonas
94. One of the following statements about diphtheria/diphtheria toxin is incorrect:
A the active (A) domain posses C toxin is an endotoxin
enzymatic activity
D toxin is part of a bacteriophage
B transmitted by airborn droplets called lambda phage
95. Incorrect about Rhizopus oryzae:
A nonseptate hyphae C not dimorphic
B septate hyphae D conidia enclosed in sporangium
96. Which of the following microorganisms is the leading cause of asceptic (viral) meningitis?
A Parvoviruses C Togaviruses
B Caliciviruses D Echoviruses
97. A cellular immunodeficiency disease in which T cells fails to develop:
A Ataxia-telangiectasia C DiGeorge syndrome
B Bruton agammaglobulinemia D Chediak-Higashi syndrome
98. The incubation period of Relapsing fever is:
A 4-5 days C 10-14 days
B 3-10 days D 5-7 days
99. Match the following E coli strains 'most commonly' associated with their correct
alternatives:
A. Enteropathogenic E coli A. hemolytic uremic syndrome
B. Enterotoxigenic E coli B. disease very similar to shigellosis
C. Enterohemorrhagic E coli C. food-borne illnesses in industrialized
countries
D. Enteroinvasive E coli D. diarrhea in infants in developing countries
E. Enteroaggregative E coli E. travelers diarrhea
100. What is the role of DNA polymerase III during DNA replication?
A Repairing mismatches C Removing primer
B Adding bases to the new DNA chain D Synthesizing an RNA primer

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MCQ-Series Practice Test II Microbiology

Disclaimer: This question series is a mock test for practice. Students can undertake the exam
under time settings. This mock test is designed to recap critical and essential facts related to
Pre-clinical science domains. Questions are based on theoretical understanding of the topics
which links to bedside clinical approach.

Please note: Multiple Choice Questions with inaccurate language or wrong choices may better
be left unanswered. This practice series is available free to download, and designed for the
benefit of graduate and post-graduate medical students.

Every attempt has been made to validate each and every question/answer. All
remaining errors are deeply regretted. Author will not be held responsible for any errors.
Please consult the standard textbooks given in the reference section for any discrepancy.

Reference Textbooks:
1. Medical Microbiology: Jawetz, Melnick & Adelberg's, 24th Edition, Lange
McGraw-Hill publications
2. Microbiology: Prescott M. Lansing (Ed): Prescott- Harley- Klein, 5th Edition
McGraw-Hill publications

Author Email: sidharta123@yahoo.com

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