FIITJEE COMMON TEST

NSEJS Paper Code

(PHASE 4) SET-A

Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 240

A. Question Paper Format

1. The question paper consists of 4 parts (Physics -Section-I, Chemistry - Section-II, Biology - Section-III
and Mathematics- Section-IV) and each part consists of four sections.

2. Each Section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one is correct.

B. Marking scheme:

1. For each question in Section I, II, III & IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (1) mark will be awarded.

Enrolment No. :

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Batch : . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Date:. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .

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 Physics
SECTION A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave train produced in a string is 5 cm. If
2 complete waves pass through any point per second, the velocity of the wave is
(A) 10 cm/sec (B) 2.5 cm/sec
(C) 5 cm/sec (D) 15 cm/sec

2. If velocity of sound in a gas is 360 m/s and the distance between a compression and the
nearest rarefaction is 1 m, then the frequency of sound is
(A) 90 Hz (B) 180 Hz (C) 360 Hz (D) 720 Hz

3. A school bell produces 360 waves within 3/5 sec. Its frequency will be
(A) 0.00167 sec (B) 6000 Hz (C) 0.0167 sec (D) 600 Hz

4. When sound travels through air, the air particles___________

(A) Vibrate along the direction of wave propagation
(B) Vibrate but not in any fixed direction
(C) Vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation
(D) Do not vibrate

5. The amplitude of a wave is _____________

(A) The distance the wave moves in one second
(B) The distance the wave moves in one time period of the wave
(C) The maximum distance moved by the medium particles on either side of the meam
position
(D) The distance equal to one wave length

6. Sound waves do not travel through

(A) Solids (B) Liquids (C) Gases (D) Vacuum

7. The frequency which is not audible to the human ear is

(A) 50 Hz (B) 500 Hz
(C) 5000 Hz (D) 50000 Hz

8. A man standing is front of a mountain at a certain distance beats drum at regal intervals. The
drumming rate is gradually increase and he finds that echo is not heard distinctly. When
drumming rate becomes 40 per minute. He then moves nearer to mountain by 90 m and
finds the echo is not again heard when drumming rate is 60 per minutes. What is distance
between the mountain and initial position of the man?
(A) 90 m (B) 180 m (C) 270 m (D) 360 m

9. Velocity of sound in air depends upon

(A) Temperature (B) humidity
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these

10. The quantities that a traveling wave carry with it,

(A) Mass (B) Velocity (C) Wavelength (D) Energy

11. When a wave goes from one medium to another medium, which quantity does not changes
(A) Frequency (B) wavelength
(C) velocity (D) time period

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12. The velocity of sound is maximum in
(A) Water (B) helium (C) oil (D) copper

13. Ultrasonic, Infrasonic and audible waves travel through a medium with speeds Vu , Vi and Va
respectively. Then
(A) Vu , Vi and Va are nearly equal (B) Vu Va Vi
(C) Vu Va Vi (D) Va Vu and Vu Vi

14. Non mechanical wave among the following is/are

(A) X rays (B) rays
(C) rays (D) all of the above

15. When sound travels

(A) Particles of medium travel from one place to another
(B) Energy transport action occur
(C) Both A and B
(D)Both particles as well as disturbance travel from one place to another

16. An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time
interval between the sending and receiving of the wave is 1.6 s. What is the depth of the
sea? If the velocity of sound in the seawater is 1400 m/s.
(A) 1120 m (B) 560 m (C) 1400 m (D) 112 m

17. A man sets his watch by the sound of a siren placed at a distance 1 km away. If the velocity
of sound is330 m/s
(A) His watch is set 3 sec Faster (B) His watch is set 3 sec Slower
(C) His watch is set correctly (D) None of the above

18. An observer standing at the seacoast observes 54 waves reaching the coast per minute. If
the wavelength of the waves is 10 m. Its velocity is:
(A) 90 m/s (B) 90 cm/s (C) 9 m/s (D) 900 m/s

19. A sound wave has a frequency of 1000 Hz and a wavelength of 34 cm. The time it will take to
travel 1 km is
(A) 1.94 s (B) 2.94 s
(C) 3.25 s (D) None of these

20. For the wave shown in the figure, the frequency and wave
length, if its speed is 340 m/s are
(a) 8 cm, 400 Hz (b) 8 cm, 4000 Hz
(c) 10 cm, 3400 Hz (d) 10 cm, 340 Hz

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 Chemistry
SECTION A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Identify the incorrect statement below:

(A) The total number of electrons that can have n = 3 in a many electron atom is 16
(B) The total number of electrons that can fit in the 4f sublevel is 14
(C) The total number of electrons that can fit in the 2Px atomic orbital is 2
(D) The total number of electrons required to fill the n = 2 level is 8

2. Rank the following types of radiations from the highest energy to the lowest
Ultraviolet / Visible / X ray / Microwave / Infrared
(A) X ray, ultraviolet, microwave, infrared, visible
(B) ultraviolet, X ray, visible, infrared, microwave
(C) Infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, visible, X- ray
(D) X ray, ultraviolet, visible, infrared, microwave

3. Consider the following three statement

I. The mass of a proton and a neutron are virtually identical.
II. The charge of an electron and a proton are equal but has opposite signs
III. The mass of the electrons is a significant fraction of the total mass of any atom.
(A) All are correct
(B) I and II are correct but III is false
(C) II and III are correct but I is false
(D) I & III are correct but II is false

4. Which of the following statement is/are consistent with the Bohr theory of the atom (and no
others)?
(1) an electron can remain in a particular orbit as long as it continuously absorbs radiation of a
definite frequency.
(2) The lowest energy orbits are those closest to the nucleus
(3) all electrons can jump from the K shell to the M shell by emitting radiation of a definite
frequency.
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2

5. The possible correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of Cl atom is?
1 1
(A) 2, 0, 0, (B) 2,1, 1,
2 2
1 1
(C) 3,1,1, (D) 3, 0,0,
2 2

6. Which of the following orbital is having lowest energy?

(A) 5 f (B) 6 d (C) 7 s (D) 7 p

7. Two atoms are said to be isobars if

(A) They have same atomic number but different mass number
(B) They have same number of electrons but different number of neutrons
(C) They have same number of neutrons but different number of electrons
(D) sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the number of protons is different.

8. Which of the following is isoelectronic with carbon atom?

(A) N (B) O2 (C) Na (D) Al3

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9. Bohrs theory is applicable to
(A) He (B) Li2
(C) He2 (D) none of these

10. According to Bohrs theory, the angular momentum for an electron of 3 rd orbit is
(A) 3 h / 2 (B) 1.5 h (C) 9 h (D) 2 h /

11. Yellow light emitted from a sodium lamp has a wavelength of 580 nm. Calculate the
frequency and wave number of the yellow light
1 1 1 1
(A) 5.17 10 S , 1.724 10 cm (B) 4.27 10 S , 3.245 10 cm
14 4 14 4

1 1 1 1
(C) 1.26 10 S , 8.37 10 cm (D) 51.7 10 S , 1.724 10 cm
15 3 14 5

12. Which of the following pairs have identical value of e/m?

(A) A proton and a neutron (B) A proton and deutririum
(C) Deuterium and Particle (D) An electron and rays

27
13. Find the total number of protons in 34 mg of NH3 at STP (mass of 1P = 1.6726 10 kg )
(A) 12.044 1023 (B) 12.044 1022
(C) 12.044 10 21
(D) 12.044 10 20

14. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) The charge on electron and proton are equal and opposite
(B) Neutrons have no charge
(C) The mass of Proton and electron are nearly the same
(D) None of the above

15. Which of the following will not show deflection from the path on passing through an electric
field?
(A) Proton (B) cathode rays (C) electron (D) Neutron

16. The atomic number of an element is 35 and its mass 81. The number of electrons in its
outmost shell is
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9

17. Which one of the following sets of ions represents a collection of isoelectronic species?
2 3 2 2 2
(A) K , Cl , Ca , Sc (B) Ba , Sr , K , S
3 2 2 2 2
(C) N , O , F , S (D) Li , Na , Mg , Ca

18. The two electrons in K subshell will differ in

(A) Principal quantum number (B) Azimuthal quantum number
(C) Magnetic quantum number (D) spin quantum number

19. Which of the following arrangement of orbitals is in the increasing order of energy?
(A) 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s (B) 4s, 3s, 3p, 4d
(C) 5p, 4d, 5d, 4f, 6s (D) 5f, 6d, 7s, 7p

20. Find the electronic configuration of the O2 ion

2 2 4 2 2 6 2 2 5 2 2
(A) 1s , 2s , 2p (B) 1s , 2s , 2p (C) 1s , 2s , 2p (D) 1s , 2s

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 Mathematics
SECTION A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The arithmetic mean of the nine numbers in the set 9, 99, 999, 9999,...,999999999 is a 9 -
digit number M, all of whose digits are distinct. The number M does not contain the digit
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6

2. For how many positive integers n is n2 3n 2 a prime number?

(A) none (B) one
(C) two (D) more than two, but finitely many

3. Four distinct circles are drawn in a plane. What is the maximum number of points where at
least two of the circles intersect?
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 12

4. Riders on a Ferris wheel travel in a circle in a vertical plane. A particular wheel has
radius 20 feet and revolves at the constant rate of one revolution per minute. How many
seconds does it take a rider to travel from the bottom of the wheel to a point 10 vertical feet
above the bottom?
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7.5 (D) 10

5. What is the area of the shaded region of

the given 8 5 rectangle?
3
(A) 4 (B) 5
5
1 1
(C) 5 (D) 6
4 2

6. In the figure, PQR 100o, where P, Q and R are points

on a circle with centre O, then Find OPR
(a) 10o
(b) 160o
(c) 200o
(d) cannot be calculated

7. O is the centre of the circle. The angle subtended by the

Arc BCD at the centre is 1400 . BC is produced to P then
BAD is
(a) 1000 (b) 700
0
(c) 80 (d) 600

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8. Tarun, David, and Hari are playing a game. Starting at the same time, each of them flips a fair
coin repeatedly until he gets his first head, at which point he stops. What is the probability that
all three flip their coins the same number of times?
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 7 6 4

9. Which of the cones listed below can be formed from

a 252 sector of a circle of radius 10 by aligning the
two straight sides?
(A) A cone with slant height of 10 and radius 6
(B) A cone with height of 10 and radius 6
(C) A cone with slant height of 10 and radius 7
(D) A cone with height of 10 and radius 7

10. In cyclic quadrilateral sum of two opposite angles is

180o. Exterior angle of any side is equal to interior of
its opposite angle.
In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle, if
AOD 130o and ACE 40 , then x
o

(a) 60o (b) 70o (c) 65o (d) 90o

11. In rectangle ABCD, points F and G lie on AB so that AF = FG = GB and E is the midpoint of
DC . Also, AC intersects EF at H and EG at J. The area of the rectangle ABCD is 70. Find
the area of triangle EHJ.
5 35 7
(A) (B) (C) 3 (D)
2 12 2

12. Each of the small circles in the figure has radius one. The innermost circle
is tangent to the six circles that surround it, and each of those circles is
tangent to the large circle and to its small-circle neighbors. Find the area of
the shaded region.
(A) (B) 1.5
(C) 2 (D) 3

13. AB is the diameter of the circle, while point C and D lie

on the circumference of the circle as shown in the
adjacent figure. If AB = 15 cm, AC = 12 cm and BD = 9
cm, then The area of quadrilateral ACBD is
(a) 54 cm2 (b) 216 sq. cm2
(c) 108 cm2 (d) 162 cm2

14. Two circles of unit radius touch each other and each of them touches internally a circle of
radius two. Then the radius of the circle which touches all the three circles is
(A) 2/3 (B) 3/2
(C) 1/2 (D) none of these

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15. A swimming pool is 2 feet deep in shallow side and 16 feet deep in the deeper side. If the
length of pool = 50 feet and breadth = 25 feet. Find the volume of water inside pool when it is
completely filled.
(A) 11250 feet3 (B) 12000 feet3
3
(C)10250 feet (D) cant be determine

In the given figure, If CBA 50 then

0
16.
(A) ADC 50 (B) DAB 130
0 0

(C) ADC 130 (D) DCB 130

0 0

17. Any four natural numbers are chosen at random and multiplied together find the probability
that the unit place of the product will be 1, 3, 7 or 9.
2 3 4
(A) 4 (B) 4 (C) 4 (D) 4
10 10 10
10

In the given figure, MON 80 , MQO 20 , then The measure

o o
18.
of MOP is
(a) 40o (b) 45o
o
(c) 50 (d) 55o

19. There are 120 students in a class of boys and girls. One student is to be chosen to represent
the class, and each student is equally likely to be chosen. If the probability that the student
2
chosen is a boy is of the probability that the student chosen is a girl, find the number of
3
girls in the class.

(A)27 (B)72 (C)54 (D) 23

20. Figure shows a semicircle with diameter AD.

The chords AC and BD meet at P. Q is the foot
of the perpendicular from P to AD. Find BCQ
in terms of 0 and

(A) 180 2
(B) 180 2
(C) 180 2
(D) 180 2

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 Biology
SECTION A
Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Select the odd one with respect to Thallophyta:

(A) Ulothrix and chara (B) Spirogyra and Cladophora
(C) Marsilea and Equisetum (D) Ulva

2. The first embryophyta but non Vascular plant(s) is/are:

(i) Marchantia (ii) Funaria (iii) Riccia
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iii) (C) (i), (ii), (iii) (D) only (ii)

3. Pteridophytes will be classified as gymnosperms if they have one of the following

characteristics:
(A) seed producing capacity
(B) Presence of vascular tissues
(C) Presence of differentiated reproductive tissues
(D) Well differentiated root and shoots

4. Identify the organism that is a connecting link between virus and bacteria:
(A) Euglena (B) Mycoplasma (C) Spirulina (D) Fungi

5. Sub phylum Urochordata includes __________

(A) Amphibians (B) Marine animals
(C) Terrestrial animals (D) all of the above

6. Venus flower basket is the dried skeleton of:

(A) Euspongia (B) Euplectella
(C) Spongilla (D) Leucosolenia

7. Hag fish is the common name of:

(A) Octopus (B) Balanoglossus
(C) Myxine (D) Peteromyzon

8. True and complete metamorphosis is found in:

(A) Silver fish (B) Grass hopper
(C) Cockroach (D) Moth and Mosquito

9. The body cavity of Ascaris is pseudocoel because:

(A) It contains large cells termed pseudocoelocytes
(B) It is bound externally by muscle layer and internally by intestines
(C) It has very little parenchyma
(D) It is filled with blood

10. The phenomenon by which male and female sexes could be differentiated morphologically is
called:
(A) Variation (B) Polymorphism
(C) Sexual dimorphism (D) None of these

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11. Which of the following organisms neither have a notochord nor vertebral column in the adult
stage?
(A) Cephalochordates (B) Herdmania
(C) Petromyzon (D) Bdellostoma

12. In which of the animals, the heart does not have the left and right auricles?
(A) Cartilaginous and bony fishes (B) frogs and toads
(C) Lizards and snakes (D) crocodiles and alligators

13. In which of the following animals notochord does not persist throughout life?
(A) Amphioxus (B) Tunicates (C) Petromyzon (C) Myxine

14. Fungi producing usually eight spores in a sac like structure belong to:
(A) Phycomycetes (B) Ascomycetes
(C) Basidiomycetes (D) Deuteromycetes

15. African sleeping sickness is caused by:

(A) Giardia intestinalis (B) Leishmania donovani
(C) Trypanosoma gambiense (D) Entamoeba histolytica

16. A major evolutionary advance exhibited by a protozoan cell as contrasted with a bacterium:
(A) Formation of permeable cell membrane
(B) Presence of a nucleus
(C) Presence of extensive system of cytoplasmic organelles
(D) Both (B) and (C)

17. The roots which develop from any portion of the plant except the radical are known as:
(A) Tap roots (B) tertiary roots
(C) Adventitious roots (D) Both B and C

18. The arrangement of leaves on branches:

(A) Phyllotaxy (B) vernation
(C) venation (D) Phytotaxy

19. Most primitive living vascular plants are:

(A) Brown algae (B) Sphagnum (C) Ferns (D) Cycads

20. One of the following is present in blue green algae:

(A) Cyanophycean granule (B) Floridian starch
(C) All proteins (D) None of the above

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 ANSWER KEY

PHYSICS
1.A 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.C

6.D 7.D 8.C 9.C 10.D

11.A 12.D 13.A 14.D 15.B

16.A 17.B 18.C 19.B 20.C

CHEMISTRY

1.A 2.D 3.B 4.B 5.C

6.C 7.D 8.A 9.B 10.A

11.A 12.C 13.C 14.C 15.D

16.C 17.A 18.D 19.A 20.B

MATHEMATICS

1.A 2.B 3. D 4.D 5. D

6.D 7.B 8.B 9.C 10.C

11.C 12.C 13.C 14.A 15.A

16.C 17.D 18.A 19.B 20.C

BIOLOGY
1.C 2.C 3.A 4.B 5.B

6.B 7.C 8.D 9.B 10.C

11.B 12.A 13B. 14.B 15.C

16.D 17.C 18.A 19.C 20.A

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 CONCEPT CODE

PHYSICS
1.P090603 2. P090603 3. P090506 4. P090502 5. P090607

6. P090606 7. P090608 8. P090602 9. P090606 10. P090501

11. P090506 12. P090606 13. P090606 14. P090501 15. P090501

16. P090601 17. P090606 18. P090603 19. P090603 20. P090603

CHEMISTRY
1.C090405 2. C090408 3. C090401 4. C090404 5. C090405

6. C090405 7. C090406 8. C090406 9. C090404 10. C090404

11. C090408 12. C090408 13. C090405 14. C090401 15. C090401

16. C090405 17. C090406 18. C090405 19. C090405 20. C090406

MATHEMATICS

3. M090904 4. M090904 5. M090804 6. M090904 7. M090905

8. M091705 9. M091206 10. M090804 11. M090804 12. M090914

13. M090911 14. M090911 16. M090908 17. M091705 18. M090906

19. M091705 20. M090906

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 SOLUTION
CHEMISTRY

1. Total no. of e in n = 3 is 18

2. X ray, ultraviolet, visible, IR, microwave, as per concept.

3. As per the concept.

4. As long as the electron in the same shell neither energy is emitted not absorbed from K to M it
has to absorb radiation.

5. Cl 17, 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5

Hence
1
n=3 l = 1 m = +1 ms
2

6. according to Aufbau principle it is 7x

7. Mass number same but atomic number different hence n + p is same but P is different

8. C no. of e 6
N = 7 N 6

9. Li2 no. of e 1 1 hence Bohrs theory is applicable

nh 3h
10. mvr n3 :
2 2h

c
11.

1

12. As per concept

34 10 3
13. 10 6.023 10 23
17
12.046 1021

14. Mass of electron is only negligible

15. Neutron do not carry any charge

16. no. of e 35 , hence valency 7

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17. k 18 k 19
Cl 18 Cl 17
Ca2 18 Ca 20
Sc 18 Sc 21

18. Spin quantum no: as l 0 for both e

19. Aufbau rule

20. O2 10 O 8
2 2 6
1s 2s 2p

MATHEMATICS

9 99 ... 999999999 9 1 11 111 ... 111111111

1. We wish to find , or 123456789 .
9 9
This does not have the digit 0, so the answer is (A) 0

Factoring, we get n 3n 2 n 2 n 1 . Either n 1 or n 2 is odd, and the other is

2
2.
even. Their product must yield an even number. The only prime that is even is 2, which is
when n is 3. The answer is (B) one.

4
3. For any given pair of circles, they can intersect at most 2 times. Since there are 6 pairs
2
of circles, the maximum number of possible intersections is 6.2 12. We can construct such
a situation as below, so the answer is (D) 12.

4. We can let this circle represent the ferris wheel with center O,
and C represent the desired point 10 feet above the bottom.
Draw a diagram like the one above. We find out OBC is
a 30 60 90 triangle. That means BOC 600 and the ferris
60 1
wheel has made of a revolution. Therefore, the time it
360 6
1
takes to travel that much of a distance is th of a minute,
6
or 10 seconds. The answer is (D) 10. Alternatively, we could
also say that ABC is congruent to OBC by SAS, so AC is
20, and AOC is equilateral, and BOC 600

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 5. The bases of these triangles are all 1, and their heights are 4,
5 5 5 5
, 4 and . Thus, their areas are 2, , 2 and , which add
2 2 4 4
1
to the area of the shaded region, which is 6 .
2

8. Solution 1
We can solve this problem by listing it as an infinite geometric equation. We get that to have
1
the same amount of tosses, they have a chance of getting all heads. Then the next
8
probability is all of them getting tails and then on the second try, they all get heads. The
2
1
probability of that happening is .We then get the geometric equation
8
2 3
1 1 1
x .....
8 8
8
1
And then we find that x equals to (B) because of the formula of the sum for an infinite
7
1
8 1 8 1
series, .
1 8 7 7
1
8

Solution 2

Call it a "win" if the boys all flip their coins the same number of times, and the probability that
1
they win is P. The probability that they win on their first flip is . If they don't win on their first
8
1
flip, that means they all flipped tails (which also happens with probability ) and that their
8
chances of winning have returned to what they were at the beginning. This covers all possible
sequences of winning flips. So we have
1 1
P P
8 8
1
Solving for P gives (B) .
7

9. The blue lines will be joined together to form a

single blue line on the surface of the cone, hence
10 will be the slant height of the cone.
The red line will form the circumference of the base.
We can compute its length and use it to determine
the radius.
252
The length of the red line is .2.10 14 . This
360
is the circumference of a circle with radius 7.
Therefore the correct answer is C.

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11. Note that the triangles AFH and CEH are similar, as
AH AF 2
they have the same angles. Hence .
HC EC 3
Also, triangles AGJ and CEJ are similar,
AJ AG 4
hence .
JC EC 3
We can now
compute [EHJ] as ACD AHD DEH EJC .
We have:
ABCD
ACD 2 35 .
[AHD] is 2/5 of [ACD], as these two triangles have the same base AD, and AH is 2/5 of AC,
therefore also the height from H onto AD is 2/5 of the height from C. Hence [AHD] = 14.
[HED] is 3/10 of [ACD], as the base ED is 1/2 of the base CD, and the height from H is 3/5 of
21
the height from A. Hence [HED] = .
2
15
[JEC] is 3/14 of [ACD] for similar reasons, hence JEC .
2
21 15
Therefore EHJ ACD AHD DEH EJC 35 14 3
2 2
12. The outer circle has radius 1 1 1 3, and thus area 9 . The little circles have area each;
since there are 7, their total area is 7 . Thus, our answer is 9 7 2 C .

14. Since the radius of the third circle is equal to the sum of the radii of the two circles which
touch it internally. Therefore the centres of all the three circles lie in a straight line. Let r be
the radius of the circle which touches all the three circles, then
OC 1 OC 2 1 r . C 1C CC 2 1
CO 2 r , in right triangle OCC 1 1 r 2 12 2 r 2 so that r = 2/3.

15. This is a problem related to symmetric figures. From front the shape of water body is
trapezium and it is throughout trapezium.
So volume of water is area of cross section depth
1 1 2 16 50 25 11250 feet3
sum of| | sides h depth 2
2
Volume of wter 11250 feet 3

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17. The unit place of the product depends upon the unit place of 4 natural number.
Sample space = 10 10 10 10
(as each number has 10 choices for unit place) 104
Favourable = 4 4 4 4 44 (to get 1, 3, 7 or 9 at unit place there are only 4 choices i.e. 1,
3, 7 or 9 as a unit place)
4
44 4
P E 4
10 10

120 x 2 x
19. Let x be the number of girls in the class. Then we have x 72
120 3 120

20. Refer to figure below. As AD is a diameter, ABD ACD 900 Observe that
CBD CA D as ABCD is conceyclic. Thus, we need to find PBQ . Now, we make
use of the assumption that PQA 900 . Recall that PBA 900 . Therefore, AQPB is also
concyclic. Hence, PBQ also. Thus, we see that CBQ 2 . It remains to find CQP.
As before, we see that PCDQ is a conceyclic quadrilateral. Therefore, CQP CDP .
Clearly, we also know that CDP CAB. Now, using the fact that AQPB is concyclic again,
we get BAP . Therefore, CQP . Thus, BCQ 1800 2 .

BIOLOGY

1. The thallophytes (Thallophyta or Thallobionta) are a polyphyletic group of non-mobile organisms

traditionally described as "thalloid plants", "relatively simple plants" or "lower plants". They are a

defunct division of kingdom Plantae that includes algae, have a hidden reproductive system and

hence they are also called Cryptogamae (together with ferns), as opposed to Phanerogamae. The

thallophytes are defined as having undifferentiated bodies (thalli).

2. Bryophyte is a traditional name used to refer to all embryophytes (land plants) that do not have

true vascular tissue and are therefore called "non-vascular plants".

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3. Pteridophytes belong to cryptogamae plants (having hidden reproductive system) whereas,

Gymnosperms belong to Phaenerogamae(seed producing plants).

4. Mycoplasma Infectious Diseases (MID) is oftenly misunderstand as virus, because mycoplasma

is smallest bacteria and behaves like virus.

5. Urochordates are small marine animals with larvae that swim freely and adults that attach

themselves to the ocean floor.

6. The Venus' flower basket, or Euplectella aspergillum is a hexactinellid sponge in the phylum

Porifera inhabiting the deep ocean. In traditional Asian cultures, this particular sponge (in a dead,

dry state) was given as a wedding gift because the sponge symbiotically houses two small

shrimp, a male and a female, who live out their lives inside the sponge.

7. Hagfish, the class Myxini (also known as Hyperotreti), are eel-shaped, slime-producing marine

fish (occasionally called slime eels). They are the only known living animals that have a skull but

no vertebral column.

8. Complete metamorphosis has four stages whereas, incomplete metamorphosis has only 3 stages

n is observed in few insects. However, moth and mosquitoes have complete metamorphosis.

9. The body cavity of certain invertebrate metazoan animals between the body wall and the intestine

is not lined with a mesodermal epithelium. A second body cavity is present (the first being the gut)

which occupies a space between the mesoderm of the body wall and the endoderm of the gut.

There are no mesenteries suspending the internal organs and no muscular layers around the gut;

thus in no pseudocoelomate animal does muscular peristalsis move food through the alimentary

canal.

10. Sexual dimorphism is the systematic difference in form between individuals of different sex in the

same species. For example, in some species, including many mammals, the male is larger than

the female. In others, such as some spiders, the female is larger than the male.

11. Herdmania are urochordatans. Urochordates have four fundamental characteristics of chordates

in the larval stage but adult urochordates possess neither a notochord nor a dorsal nerve cord.

The tadpole-like larvae are planktonic and possess the fundamental chordate characteristics that

help them in finding a substratum for attachment.

12. Fish have only two chambered heart ( one auricle and one ventricle).

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13. Urochordates have four fundamental characteristics of chordates in the larval stage but adult

urochordates possess neither a notochord nor a dorsal nerve cord.

14. Ascomycetes are 'spore shooters'. They are fungi which produce microscopic spores inside

special, elongated cells or sacs, known as 'asci', which give the group its name. As the spores

mature within an ascus, increasing fluid pressure builds up inside until eventually the top bursts

off, rapidly releasing the spores. They produce 8 spores in a single sac.

15. Trypanosoma gambiense causes West African sleeping sickness.

16. Protozoans are eukaryotic organisms which are advanced cells having membrane bound

organelles and a well developed nucleus.

17. Some roots, called adventitious roots, arise from an organ other than the rootusually a stem,

sometimes a leaf. They are especially numerous on underground stems. The formation of

adventitious roots makes it possible to vegetatively propagate many plants from stem or leaf

cuttings.

18. In botany, phyllotaxis or phyllotaxy is the arrangement of leaves on a plant stem (from Ancient

Greek phllon "leaf" and txis "arrangement").

19. Ferns (Pteridophytes) are the first developed terrestrial vascular plants.

20. Cyanophycean starch alpha-1,4 linked glucan (similar to glycogen & amylopectin).

Cyanophycin granules are found in Cyanobacteria and are:

a. Polymer of aspartate, with each aspartate linked to arginine

b. Broken down under nitrogen limiting conditions.

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