VISION IAS

www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2017 Test 2104

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
1. Constitutionalism is a philosophy of limited 4. Which of the following words were added
government. Which of following features of by 42nd Amendment Act to the Preamble?
the Indian Constitution helps in enforcing 1. Socialist
this philosophy? 2. Secular
1. Fundamental Rights 3. Sovereign
4. Integrity
2. Directive Principles of state policy
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Fundamental duties
given below.
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only
given below.
(b) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 5. Which of the following is/are correct about
the basic structure of the Indian
2. Which of the following is/are the defining Constitution?
features of the parliamentary form of (a) The basic structure of the Constitution
Government in India? has been defined under article 368.
1. Watertight separation of powers between (b) The basic structure of the Constitution
executive, legislature and judiciary. can be abrogated by a constitutional
amendment.
2. Executive being responsible to the
(c) Powers of the Supreme Court under
legislature.
Articles 32 is not a part of the basic
3. Division of powers between center and
structure.
state.
(d) None of the above.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 6. With reference to provisions regarding
(a) 1 and 2 only citizenship in India, consider the following
(b) 1 and 3 only statements:
(c) 2 only 1. Indian Constitution identifies only the
(d) 2 and 3 only persons who became citizens of India at
its commencement but not subsequent to
3. Which of the following writs can be issued that.
against private individual as well as public 2. A person shall not be a citizen of India if
authority? he/she has voluntarily acquired the
citizenship of any foreign state.
1. Habeas Corpus
3. Both Parliament and State legislature
2. Mandamus
have the power to make provisions
3. Prohibition
regarding citizenship.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the above statements given above
given below. is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) None
2 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
7. The rights provided in Part III of the 11. Which of the following Directive Principles
constitution are called Fundamental rights was/were added to the Constitution through
because: amendments?
(a) They place limitations on the powers of 1. To secure opportunities for healthy
the authority of the state. development of children.
(b) They are part of Human Rights that are 2. Equal pay for equal work for men and
declared by United Nations. women.
(c) They are guaranteed by the Fundamental 3. To promote equal justice and to provide
law of the land. free legal aid to the poor.
(d) They are guaranteed by nature for one Select the correct answer using the code
who has born as human being. given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
8. With reference to the members of constituent (b) 1 and 3 only
assembly, consider the following statements: (c) 3 only
1. Different communities were represented (d) 1, 2 and 3
in proportion to their population.
2. Princely states were given no 12. Consider the following statements with
representation. regard to National Emergency:
3. Both Mahatma Gandhi and M A 1. National emergency can be imposed by
Jinnah were members of constituent the President when the security of India
assembly. is threatened by war or external
Which of the statements given above is/are aggression or internal disturbance.
not correct? 2. During the National Emergency,
(a) 1 and 2 only fundamental rights under Articles 19 and
(b) 2 and 3 only 20 are suspended automatically.
(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
(a) 1 only
9. Forcible conversions impinge upon which of (b) 2 only
the following rights guaranteed under Article (c) Both 1 and 2
25 of the constitution? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Freedom of Conscience
(b) Right to Profess 13. With reference to the Attorney General of
(c) Right to Practice India, consider the following statements:
(d) Right to Propagate 1. He has the right to audience in all the
courts in India.
10. Why Indian federalism is termed asymmetric 2. He can be nominated as a member of
federalism? any committees of the Parliament.
(a) Some states are given special status and 3. He can attend the proceedings of
privilege. Parliament and can vote.
(b) Indian Constitution has numerous Which of the statements given above is/are
unitary or non-federal features. correct?
(c) The Union enjoys unbridled power and (a) 1 and 2 only
authority. (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Some states do not have legislative (c) 1 and 3 only
councils. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
14. Consider the following statements regarding 17. With reference to the Union Public Service
National Human Rights Commission: Commission (UPSC), consider the following
1. It can suo-motu inquire into any statements:
violation of human rights. 1. Salary, allowance and pension of UPSC
2. It has power to punish violators of members are charged upon consolidated
human rights. fund of India.
3. It cannot award monetary relief to the 2. The UPSC chairman can be removed on
victims. the grounds and in the manner similar to
Which of the statements given above is/are the judge of Supreme Court.
not correct? 3. The chairman or a member of UPSC is
(a) 1 and 3 only not eligible for second term.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 2 only correct?
(d) 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
15. With reference to the Election Commission, (c) 1 and 3 only
consider the following statements: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Article 324 enumerates the required
qualifications for Election 18. Which of the following initiatives of the
Commissioner. Government is/are said to be giving effect to
2. State Election Commission regulates the Directive Principles of State Policies?
elections to the Legislative councils. 1. Old age pension schemes for people
3. The Chief Election Commissioner can above 65 years.
override the decisions of other election 2. Adoption of Criminal Procedure Code
commissioners. (1973).
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Seenchayi
not correct? Yojana
(a) 1 and 2 only 4. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
(b) 2 and 3 only Employment Guarantee Program.
(c) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3 given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only
16. The Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) (b) 2 and 3 only
is appointed by the President on the (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
recommendation of a committee. Who (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
among the following are the members of that
committee? 19. Which of the following statements is not
1. Prime Minister correct with respect to the Government of
2. Speaker of Lok Sabha
India Act of 1919?
3. Union Minister of Home Affairs
(a) It divided the provincial subjects into
4. Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha
reserved and transferred.
5. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
(b) It introduced bicameral legislature at
Select the correct answer using the code
centre with upper and Lower Houses.
given below.
(c) This act authorized states to enact their
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
own budget.
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) It provided for separate electorate for
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Muslims, Sikhs and Anglo Indians for
(d) 1, 3 and 5 only
the first time.
4 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
20. Consider the following statements regarding 23. Which of the following would fall under
Central Bureau of Investigation: definition of State as defined in Article 12 of
1. It was established on the the Constitution?
recommendation of the Santhanam 1. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation
Committee on Prevention of 2. Unique Identification Authority of India
Corruption. 3. NITI Aayog
2. It drives its powers from the Central 4. RBI
Reserve Police Force Act, 1949. Select the correct answer using code given
3. It can investigate cases relating to below.
infringement of fiscal and economic (a) 1 and 3 only
laws. (b) 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
correct? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
24. Which of the following functions is/are
(c) 2 and 3 only
performed by Constitution in a democracy?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It restricts the exercise of power by the
state.
21. With reference to sixth schedule, which of
2. It empowers and as well as restricts the
the following statements is correct?
freedom of the people.
(a) Autonomous districts created under sixth
3. It represents a collective demand for
schedule fall outside the executive
political self determination.
authority of state.
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) Only president can increase or decrease
given below.
the area of autonomous districts under
(a) 1 only
sixth schedule.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) The district and regional councils in
(c) 2 and 3 only
these regions are empowered to assess
(d) 1, 2 and 3
and collect land revenue.
(d) None of the above
25. Which of the following is/are the
Fundamental Duties under the part IVA of
22. Which of the following statements is/are
the Constitution of India?
correct regarding Fundamental Rights?
1. They are sacrosanct in nature and cannot 1. To develop scientific temper and
be amended. humanism
2. They are available against the actions of 2. To encourage participation of workers in
both State and private individuals. management of industries
3. They operate as checks on tyranny of 3. To pay taxes
both executive and Legislature. 4. To cast vote
Select the correct answer using code given Select the correct answer using the code
below. given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
5 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
26. Which of the following statements is/are 29. Consider the following statements with
correct with respect to Right to equality in regard to Fundamental Duties:
the Indian Constitution ? 1. The framers of the Indian constitution
1. There shall be no discrimination by state incorporated Fundamental duties with a
purpose to create a feeling of
against any citizen on any ground.
nationalism among the citizens.
2. Any law prescribing residence within a
2. The parliament by passing a bill with
state for employment can be enacted simple majority can change the
only by that state legislature or the provisions in Fundamental duties.
Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using code correct?
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. With reference to the Constitution
Amendment bill, consider the following
27. Indian Constitution is called a living statements:
document because 1. It can be introduced in either house of
1. Indian Constitution is open to changes as the Parliament.
per the changing needs of the society. 2. There is no provision for joint sitting in
2. The constitution provides enough case of deadlock.
flexibility of interpretation for both 3. The president can withhold his assent to
political class and the Judiciary. such a bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. Which of the following statements is/are
28. Which of the following rights are implicit correct regarding the Article 20 (Protection
under the Right to Freedom of Speech and in respect of conviction of offences)?
1. No ex-post-facto law shall be enacted
expression?
whether in civil or criminal matters.
1. Right against pre-censorship on
2. Protection against self-incrimination
newspapers and movies
covers protection against giving thumb
2. Freedom of the Press impression and blood specimens.
3. Freedom of silence 3. In case of corruption charges against a
4. Right to demonstration or picketing and public servant either the court or
strike department should take action to avoid
Select the correct answer using code given double jeopardy.
below. Select the correct answer using code given
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above are correct
6 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
32. Which of the following are part of the 34. With reference to Charter Act of 1833,
Directive Principles of State Policy? consider the following statements:
1. It made the Governor-General of Bengal
1. To promote voluntary formation and
as the Governor-General of India.
democratic control of co-operative 2. It recommended for the appointment of
societies. Macaulay Committee on Indian Civil
2. To protect and improve the environment Service.
3. British government took over financial
and to safeguard forests and wild life.
activities from East India Company.
3. To provide free medical facilities to all Which of the statements given above is/are
the citizens of the country. correct?
4. To organise agriculture and animal (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
husbandry on modern and scientific
(c) 2 and 3 only
lines. (d) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 35. With reference to the Comptroller and
Auditor General (CAG) of India, consider
(a) 1 and 2 only
the following statements:
(b) 3 and 4 only 1. He submits his audit report to the
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only President and the Governor of the
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only concerned state.
2. He compiles and maintain accounts of
centre and states.
33. Consider the following statements about
3. He conducts audit of expenditure on
Emergency Provisions: behalf of the Parliament.
1. All types of emergency proclaimed by Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
the President has to be approved by the
(a) 1 and 2 only
Parliament.
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. In the case of National emergency, (c) 2 and 3 only
Parliamentary approval must be given (d) 1, 2 and 3

within 2 months from the date of

36. With reference to fifth schedule, consider the
proclamation.
following statements:
3. The proclamation of Financial 1. Fifth schedule deals with administration
emergency remain in operation for 6 and control of scheduled areas existing
months . in any state of India.
2. State having scheduled areas has to
Which of the statements given above is/are
establish a tribal advisory council.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
7 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
37. Which of the following circumstances are 39. The Directive principles of State policy have
suitable for the imposition of President's been useful to India because:
Rule? 1. They are intended to fill in the vacuum
1. No party has secured majority in a State in Part III by providing for social and
assembly after General Elections or in economic rights.
the case of hung assembly.
2. They help courts in exercising judicial
2. Allegations of maladministration against
review.
the state government.
3. They enable the opposition to exercise
3. When the State government pursues
influence and control over the operations
policies that are anti-secular.
of the government.
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
38. With reference to the Election Commission,
consider the following statements: 40. Consider the following statements about
1. Parliament determines the conditions for Financial Emergency:
service and tenure of office of the Chief 1. The President may issue directions for
Election Commissioner. reduction of the salaries of all class of
2. The Chief Election Commissioner can
persons serving the Union except the
be removed on the grounds and in the
judges of Supreme Court.
manner similar to the judge of Supreme
2. The resolutions for its proclamation and
Court.
revocation shall be passed by either
3. The Model code of conduct is
House of the Parliament with a simple
determined by the Parliament and
majority.
enforced by Election Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/ are
Which of the statements given above is/are
not correct? correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

8 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
41. With reference to Public Service 43. Consider the following statements regarding
the functions of Finance Commission:
Commissions, consider the following
1. Parliament determines the qualification,
statements: selection procedure and tenure of its
1. Both State Public Service Commission members.
2. It provides the guidelines for distribution
and Joint Public Services Commission
of share of taxes among centre, state and
are constitutional bodies. Public Sector Undertakings.
2. Members of State Public Service 3. Each state has to constitute a State
Finance Commission to allocate revenue
Commission and Joint Public Services
to Panchayati Raj institutions.
Commission submit their resignation to Which of the statements given above are not
correct?
the President.
(a) 1 only
3. Union Public Service Commission and (b) 1 and 2 only
Joint Public Services Commission (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
submit annual reports to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are 44. Which among the following are
not correct? constitutional bodies?
1. Law Commission of India
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. National Commission for Minorities
(b) 1 and 3 only 3. National Commission for Backward
(c) 2 and 3 only Classes
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
42. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. DPSPs require legislation for their
(d) None
implementation while the Fundamental
Rights are automatically enforced. 45. With reference to the National Commission
for Schedule Castes, consider the following
2. Unlike the case of Fundamental Rights,
statements:
the courts cannot declare a law violative 1. The members and chairperson of the
of any of the Directive Principles as commission are appointed by the
President.
unconstitutional and void. 2. It submits annual report to the
Which of the statements given above is/are parliament.
3. It has the powers of a civil court.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
9 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
46. Which of the following measures can be 48. Consider the following statements with

taken by the National Commission for reference to administration of Union

Scheduled Tribes (NCST)? Territories in India.

1. Unlike the Governor of a state, an
1. Prevention of alienation of tribal people
administrator of a Union Territory is not
from land.
a constitutional head.
2. Reduction of the practice of shifting
2. Governor of a state, who is also
cultivation.
administrator of adjoining union
3. Implementation of the provisions of territory, in that capacity has to act on
Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled advice of council of ministers.
Areas) Act, 1996. 3. Constitutional provision for

Select the correct answer using the code administration of union territory also
applies to any acquired territories.
given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct ?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
47. Consider the following statements regarding

the Linguistic Minorities: 49. Constitution makers, refrained from giving

1. The status of the Linguistic Minority is legal enforceability to the Directive

conferred by the Central Government. Principles of State Policy because:

(a) They believed in an awakened public
2. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities
opinion as the ultimate sanction for the
is a constitutional body.
fulfilment of these principles.
3. The Commissioner for Linguistic
(b) The essential rights of the citizens had
Minorities work under the aegis of
been guaranteed through the
Ministry of Culture. Fundamental Rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) They knew that these are ideals which
not correct? could never be implemented in such a

(a) 1 and 2 only diverse country.

(b) 2 and 3 only (d) They knew that the country will never
have the resources to implement these
(c) 1 and 3 only
principles.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
10 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
50. Consider the following statements regarding 53. Which of the following Directive
National Emergency:
Principles is/are not under part IV of the
1. The legislative power of the state is
suspended. Constitution?
2. Laws made by the Parliament on the
1. Instruction in mother tongue.
State list become inoperative
immediately after the national 2. Claims of SC's and ST's to services and
emergency is withdrawn. posts of the State.
3. President can modify the distribution of
revenues between Centre and States. 3. Participation of workers in management
Which of statements is/are correct? of industries.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer from the code
(c) 1 and 2 only given below.
(d) 3 only
(a) 3 only

51. Which among the following is/are audited by (b) 2 only

the Comptroller and Auditor General of
(c) 1 and 2 only
India?
1. Accounts and expenditure of Reserve (d) 1, 2 and 3
Bank of India
2. Accounts and expenditure of Food
54. Consider the following statements:
Corporation of India
3. Secret Service expenditures 1. The Centre has a duty to ensure that
Select the correct answer using the code
State government is carried on
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only accordance with the constitutional
(b) 1 only provisions.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above 2. President's rule can be imposed in a state

only after the Governor of the state

52. The Indian Councils Act of 1861 introduced
sends a report to the President.
which of the following provisions for the
first time in India? 3. The President has to obtain the written
1. Power to issue ordinances in Indian
consent of the Lok Sabha for imposing
administration
2. Nomination of Indians as non-official National emergency.
members to Viceroy's council
Which of the above statements is/are
3. New office of Secretary of State for
India correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 3 only
given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only
11 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
55. Consider the following statements regarding 57. With reference to constitutional provisions
National Human Rights Commission regarding freedom of religion, consider the
following statements:
(NHRC):
1. State cannot spend the public money
1. It was formed under the aegis of UN from taxation for the promotion of any
Human Rights Council. particular religion.
2. It has its own nucleus of investigating 2. State can impose fees to control the
secular administration of religious
staff for investigating into complaints.
institutions.
3. It can only look into matter of Human
Which of the statements given above is/are
rights violation within 1 year of its correct?
occurrence. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 58. Members of the Constituent Assembly of
(c) 2 and 3 only India were:
1. Directly elected
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Indirectly elected
3. Nominated
56. A religious denomination must satisfy which Select the correct answer using the code
of the following necessary conditions in given below.
order to exercise the Freedom to manage (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
religious affairs under the article 26?
(c) 2 and 3 only
1. Group of individuals with a system of (d) 1, 2 and 3
beliefs.
2. A group with common organization. 59. Which of the following provisions were part
of the Objectives Resolution passed by
3. Collective having a distinctive name.
Jawaharlal Nehru in the constituent
4. Group having a religious text of their
assembly?
own. 1. Fundamental Rights
5. A leader who preaches a distinct 2. Safeguards to minorities, tribal,

doctrine. depressed and other backward classes

3. Promotion of World peace and welfare
Select the correct answer using code given
of mankind
below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only given below.
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 3
12 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
60. Which of the following functions were 63. Consider the following statements with
performed by the constituent assembly of respect to Fundamental Rights:
India?
1. They promote political and social
1. Enactment of the ordinary laws
democracy.
2. Adoption of National Flag and National
Anthem. 2. These rights, being absolute in nature,
3. Election of the First President of India. can be enforced through the issue of
Select the correct answer using the code Writs.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
not correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
61. Consider the following statements with (d) Neither 1 nor 2
regard to enactment of the Constitution of
India:
64. Indian Constitution is said to be the
1. On November 26, 1949, date of
synthesis of Parliamentary Sovereignty and
commencement of Constitution, the
entire constitution came into force. Judicial Supremacy. Which among the
2. With the commencement of following statements support(s) this
Constitution, both the India argument?
Independence Act of 1947 and
1. The powers to amend the Constitution
Government of India Act of 1935 were
provided under article 368 of the
repealed.
Which of the statements given above is/are constitution.
correct? 2. The power of judicial review provided
(a) 1 only under the Article 13(2).
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Both 1 and 2
given below.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only

62. Consider the following statements about the (b) 2 only

Union Territory of Delhi: (c) Both 1 and 2
1. The chief minister is appointed by the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Lieutenant Governor.
2. The legislative assembly can make laws
65. Dr. Ambedkar called which of the following
on all the matters of state list.
fundamental rights as the most important
3. The strength of the Council of Ministers
is fixed at 15 per cent of the total article of the constitution, without which
strength of the assembly. Indian constitution would be a nullity?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Right to Constitutional Remedies
correct?
(b) Right to Freedom of Speech and
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Expression
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Right to Religious and Cultural freedom
(d) None of the above (d) Right against Exploitation
13 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
66. The Chairman or Members of State Human 69. Which of the following commissions/
Rights Commission can be removed in committee accepted 'language' as the criteria
which of the following manner? for reorganization of states?
(a) By the Governor after referring the 1. Dhar Commission
2. JVP Committee
matter to the High Court for an inquiry.
3. Fazl Ali Commission
(b) By the President after consulting with
Select the correct answer using the code
the Governor and Chief Minister of the
given below.
state. (a) 1 only
(c) By the President after referring the (b) 1 and 2 only
matter to the Supreme Court for an (c) 3 only
inquiry. (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) By the High Court after an inquiry.
70. Consider the following statements with
67. Indian form of government is described as reference to Article 32 of the Indian
federation with centralizing tendency. Which Constitution:
1. Right to move Supreme Court in case of
among the following provisions of the
infringement of Fundamental Rights can
constitution supports this tendency?
be curtailed in certain circumstances.
1. Single and flexible constitution
2. Only Fundamental Rights guaranteed by
2. Provision of All India Services the Constitution can be enforced under
3. Appointment of State Governor by the Article 32.
Center. 3. Parliament can empower any other court
Select the correct answer using the code to issue writs of all kinds.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

68. With reference to religious and cultural

71. Consider the following statements in the
freedom granted under the Constitution, context of Preamble to the Constitution:
consider the following statements: 1. The Preamble states that the Constitution
1. Any kind of religious instruction is derives its authority from the constituent
completely prohibited in all the schools assembly of India.
administered by the state. 2. Indian constitution was the first
2. It is compulsory for an individual from a constitution in world to begin with a
minority group to attend to religious Preamble.
instructions in schools maintained by 3. Preamble is a part of the Constitution
and gives clarity in interpretation of the
same minority group.
constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
14 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
72. Consider the following pairs: 75. With reference to union territories consider
Writs Scope the following statements:
1. Prohibition : Against judicial as well 1. Union territories are not part of union of
as quasi- judicial
India under Article 1 of the Constitution.
authorities
2. Union territories are not part of federal
2. Certiorari : Both preventive and
curative in nature system in India.
3. Quo Warranto : For aggrieved as well Which of the statements given above is/are
as non-aggrieved correct?
person (a) 1 only
Which of the pairs given above mentioned
(b) 2 only
pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 76. Preamble declares India as sovereign. What
does this imply?
73. Consider the following statements with 1. There is no authority above India and is
reference to martial law in India:
free to conduct its own affair.
1. The Indian constitution under the Article
2. India can acquire a foreign territory or it
34 defines martial law.
can cede a part of its territory in favor of
2. Both Martial Law and National
Emergency can be imposed in any part of the a foreign state.
country. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the above mentioned given below.
statement/statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

74. With reference to Right to Property, consider 77. Which of the following is/are the reasons for
the following statements: creating Union Territories in India?
1. It is a constitutional right under Indian 1. Cultural distinctiveness
Constitution.
2. Strategic importance
2. The 42nd Amendment act abolished
3. Interest of tribal people
Right to Property as a fundamental right.
3. It is protected against executive action 4. Administrative consideration
but not legislative action. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are given below.
correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
78. In the context of Indian federation, consider 81. Consider the following statements with
the following statements: regard to Parliament's power to reorganize
1. States have no right to secede from the the states:
federation. 1. Any bill contemplating the changes can
2. It is the result of an agreement among the be introduced in the parliament only
with the prior recommendation of the
states.
President.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Under article 3, the Parliament's power
correct?
to diminish the areas of a state includes
(a) 1 only
the power to cede Indian territory to a
(b) 2 only
foreign state.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Any bill aiming to reorganise the states
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 shall be passed in the parliament by a
special majority.
79. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
regard to National Emergency in India: correct?
1. When it is proclaimed, the state (a) 1 only
government is suspended automatically (b) 1 and 2 only
and Centre assumes complete control (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
over the state government.
2. It's proclamation and continuation
requires the approval of Parliament with 82. Which of the following bodies submit their
annual report to the President?
a special majority.
1. Central Information Commission
3. 3.The President can revoke a National
2. National Human Rights Commission
emergency on his own without the need
3. Central Vigilance Commission
for Parliamentary approval.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are given below.
correct? (a) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
83. Consider the following statements with
80. Which of the following is/are the reference to citizens of India:
components of basic structure of the 1. Citizens by birth as well as naturalized
Constitution? citizens are eligible for the office of the
1. Supremacy of the Constitution President of India.
2. Fundamental Duties under the part of
2. Welfare state
IVA to the Indian Constitution are
3. Parliamentary system
applicable only to Citizens of India.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
16 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
84. Preamble states India as a democratic 87. Recently, the workers of the Delhi
country, in this context consider the Municipal Corporation were on strike and
following statements: there was no collection or disposal of
1. Referendum, Initiative, Recall and garbage by them. This led to a dangerous
Plebiscite are the four main devices of situation of spreading of communicable
representative democracy. diseases. If an aggrieved person approaches
2. Preamble provides for political SC, it may issue which of the following
democracy only and not for the social writs in this case?
and economic democracy.
(a) Certiorari
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Mandamus
correct?
(c) Quo warranto
(a) 1 only
(d) Prohibition
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 88. Consider the following statements with
reference to the idea of liberalism in the
85. With reference to loss of citizenship under context of Indian Constitution:
the Citizenship act, 1955, consider the 1. Indian liberalism gives primacy to the
following statements: rights of the individuals over the rights
1. If a person renounces his Indian of community.
citizenship, their minor children also 2. Reservations for SC/ST community in
loses their citizenship. constitution is an example of Indian
2. The application for renunciation or liberalism.
termination of citizenship can be Which of the statements given above is/are
withheld if India is engaged in war. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 89. Which of the following Fundamental Rights
(d) Neither 1 nor 2. are also available to foreign nationals?
1. Equality before law and Equal
86. Consider the following statements: Protection of law
1. States can provide special benefits to its 2. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds
residents in the matter of the rights given
of race, religion, caste, sex or place of
by Indian constitution.
birth
2. As per the article 19 of the Constitution,
3. Right to elementary education
all the Indian citizens have the freedom
4. Protection of language, script and
of movement and residence in any part
culture of minorities
of India.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below.
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
17 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
90. Consider the following statements with 93. Consider the following statements regarding
regard to 42nd Constitutional Amendment
the Attorney General of India:
Act:
1. It made changes in the Preamble and 1. He must be qualified to be a judge of the
Seventh Schedule of the constitution.
Supreme court.
2. It also imposed restrictions on the
review powers of the judiciary 2. Article 76 provides the procedure for his
overriding the ruling under Minerva
removal.
Mills Case.
3. The Act gave primacy to the Directive 3. He has to resign when the Council of
Principles of State Policy over the
Ministers is dissolved.
Fundamental Rights.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
91. Which of the following statements is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct regarding the Article 17 (Abolition of
Untouchability)?
1. It abolishes untouchability and its 94. Which of the following directive principles
practice in any form.
is/are based on the Gandhian Principles?
2. "Untouchability" has been defined under
Article 17. 1. To promote equal justice and to provide
3. It is available only against the state. free legal aid to the poor.
4. It is implemented by "Protection of Civil
Rights Act, 1955". 2. To raise the level of nutrition and the
Select the correct answer using code given standard of living of people and to
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only improve public health.
(b) 1 and 4 only 3. To organise village panchayats and
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only endow them with necessary powers and

authority to enable them to function as

92. Which of the following is/are the necessary
units of self-government.
features of federation?
1. Dual system of government Select the correct answer using the code
2. Written constitution
given below.
3. Independent judiciary
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 2 only
given below.
(b) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
18 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
95. Consider the following statements with 97. Which of the following statements is correct
reference to amendment of the constitution:
regarding Article 21 (Protection of Life and
1. Formation of new states requires
Personal Liberty)?
amendment in constitution under article
368. (a) It is available against only arbitrary
2. Special majority required for executive action but not against
amendment is the majority of the total
arbitrary legislative action.
membership of each House and a
majority of 2/3rd of the members present (b) It can be suspended only during the
and voting. operation of National Emergency.
3. Amendment of the provisions related to
(c) Right to life under this article provides
federal features of the constitution
requires special majority and consent of for both active and passive euthanasia.

the half of the states' legislatures. (d) None of the above

Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
98. Which of the following provisions can be
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only amended by Special Majority of both the

(c) 2 and 3 only house of Parliament only?

(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Fundamental Rights

96. Consider the following pairs: 2. Directive Principles of State Policy

Constitutional Borrowed from 3. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the

provisions
supreme court
1. Fundamental Rights : United States
4. Power of Parliament to amend the
2. Idea of Residual : Canada
power constitution
3. Rule of the law : Britain
5. Abolition or creation of legislative
4. Power of judicial : France
councils in states
review
5. Directive Principles of : Ireland Select the correct answer using the code
States Policy given below.
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(a) 1 and 2 only
matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
19 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
99. Which of the following statements is/are 100. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with regard to the India
correct with regard to the Fundamental
Independence Act, 1947?
Duties? 1. It provided that India can alter any law

1. They can be used by the courts to made by the British in relation to India,
including the India Independence Act,
determine the constitutionality of a law. 1947 itself.
2. They can be enforced by the Parliament 2. It abolished the office of Governor
General in India.
through legislation.
3. Though it declared India as independent,
Select the correct answer using the codes it did not proclaim the lapse of British
Paramountcy over Indian Princely states.
given below.
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below.

(b) 2 only (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Copyright by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted
in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior
permission of Vision IAS.

20 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

 VISION IAS
www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2016 Test 2105

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
1. The provision of joint sitting is applicable for 4. Which of the following is/are the
which of the following bills? discretionary powers of President?
1. Ordinary bills 1. Exercise of suspensive veto power
2. Financial bills 2. Appointment of Prime Minister when
3. Constitutional Amendment bills no Political Party has majority in Lok
Select the correct answer using the code Sabha
3. Appointment of Governor in a state
given below.
Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) 1 and 2 only
given below.
(b) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The executive branch of government consist
of which of the following? 5. Which of the following statements is/are
1. President correct regarding Vice-President of India ?
2. Council of Ministers 1. He is member and chairman of Council of
3. Members of Parliament States.
4. Civil Servants 2. He can resign by addressing resignation
5. Attorney General letter to deputy chairman of Council of
Select the correct answer using the codes States.
given below. 3. He can be removed only through a formal
(a) 1 and 4 only impeachment process similar to that of
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only President
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. There is single citizenship in India.
(d) None
2. President enjoys absolute veto over state
bills.
6. The coastal states can exercise jurisdiction
3. The Union can change the name, area and
over the minerals located in which of the
boundary of a state without its content.
following regions?
4. Constitution is the supreme law of the 1. Territorial waters
land. 2. Continental shelf
Which of the above, if absent, would make 3. Exclusive economic zone
the Indian constitution more federal in Select the correct answer using the code
nature? given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) None
2 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
7. Which of the following are the exclusive 10. Which of the following Constitutional
powers of Lok Sabha? provisions is/are not applicable to the State
1. Vote of demand for grants of Jammu and Kashmir?
2. Proclamation of National Emergency 1. Part III
3. Revocation of National Emergency 2. Part IV
4. Introduction of Constitution 3. Part IV A
Amendment bill 4. Fifth Schedule
5. Creation of All India Services Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
given below. (a) 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only.
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

11. The president exercises executive power

8. Which of the following is not correct when through:
Vice-President is discharging functions of
(a) Prime Minister
President?
(b) Council of Ministers headed by Prime
(a) He enjoys all immunities which are
Minister
available to the President for his official
(c) Parliament
acts.
(d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(b) He continues to perform the duties of
chairman of Rajya Sabha.
12. Consider the following provisions of the
(c) He can pardon the sentence of a court
Tenth Schedule:
martial.
1. An independent member of the house
(d) He can promulgate ordinances on the
becomes disqualified if he/she joins any
advice of Council of Ministers.
political party.
2. A member of a political party cannot
9. Under which of the following cases can the
abstain from voting in the house, contrary
Governor use his individual discretion in
to the direction of the party, under any
appointing Chief Minister?
circumstance.
1. When no political party has clear
3. A nominated member becomes
majority.
disqualified if he/she joins party before the
2. When the Chief Minister in office dies
expiry of 6 months.
suddenly.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are

given below. correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
3 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
13. With reference to official language of a 16. Consider the following statement, regarding
state, consider the following statements: Lok Sabha:
1. It should be spoken by the majority of the 1. Lok Sabha has a normal term of 5 years,
population of the state. after which it automatically dissolves.
2. It should be listed in 8th schedule of the 2. Dissolution of Lok Sabha by the
constitution. president is subject to judicial review.
3. It is adopted on the direction of the 3. During National emergency the term of
Governor with the prior consent of the Lok Sabha can be extended for one year
president of India. at a time for any number of times.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above
correct? is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3

14. Which of the following is/are correct 17. Consider the following statements with
regarding impeachment of the President? reference to presiding officers in
1. He can be impeached only on the charge Parliament:
of violation of Constitution. 1. In case of vacancy in the office of speaker
2. Only elected members of Parliament can and deputy speaker, Lok Sabha may elect
vote at impeachment proceedings.
any member as acting speaker.
3. On removal of President, Vice-President
2. In the instance when resolution of their
takes charge as president for the remaining
removal is in consideration, both speaker
tenure.
and the chairman can vote.
4. Impeachment resolution needs to be
Which of the statements given above is/are
passed by a majority of two-thirds of the
correct?
total membership in both the houses.
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only
given below.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only 18. Consider the following statements with
regard to co-operatives:
1. To form co-operative societies is a
15. Consider the following statements:
fundamental right under article 19 .
1. In Presidential system, the President is
accountable to the legislature. 2. Part IX-B of the constitution contains
2. In Parliamentary system, the head of the the provisions for co-operative
state may be monarch. societies.
3. In Presidential system, the President is 3. Co-operative societies is a state subject
the head of government. in seventh schedule of the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
4 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
19. Consider the following statements regarding 22. Consider the following statements regarding
High Court (HC) judges : Money bill:
1. A distinguished jurist in the eye Chief 1. It can be introduced only by a minister.
Justice of India can be appointed as a judge 2. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the
of HC. Money bill.
2. A judge of HC can be removed by the 3. President can withhold his assent to the
Governor after an address by the state Money bill .
legislature has been presented to him. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Grounds for removal of HC judges are to not correct?
be determined by the respective state (a) 1 only
legislature. (b) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 2 and 3 only
correct? (d) none
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
23. Which of the following statements is/are
(c) 2 and 3 only
correct regarding the Departmental
(d) None of the above
Standing Committees?
1. The members of this committee are
20. The parliament can make laws on State list elected by proportional representation.
if: 2. It considers the demands for grants of
1. There is constitutional breakdown of concerned ministries and can suggest cuts in
state machinery
the budget.
2. The Chief Ministers of two or more states
3. Its recommendations are advisory in
request the parliament
nature and hence not binding on the
3. Parliament passes a motion for the same
Parliament.
with special majority
Select the correct answer using the code
4. It is for implementing international
given below:
treaties
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only
Select the correct answer using code given
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
below.
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only 24. Consider the following statements with
regard to disqualification under Anti
defection law:
21. With reference to doctrine of pleasure,
1. Any question regarding disqualification
consider the following statements:
arising out of defection is to be decided by
1. It is only applicable to persons who are
the presiding officer.
members of the All-India Services and
Central Services not to the members of 2. This decision is final and cannot be
State services. subjected to judicial review.
2. It is used to remove Comptroller and 3. While taking such a decision, the
Auditor General of India and Chief Election decision-taking authority function as a
Commissioner from their office. tribunal.
Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above is/are
is/are correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
5 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
25. Consider the following statements with 28. Consider the following statements with
regard to Inter State Water Disputes: regard to powers and functions Inter-State
1. Article 262 provides that Parliament Council:
alone can make laws on Inter-state water 1. Its recommendations are advisory in
disputes. nature and are not binding.
2. Parliament may restrict the jurisdiction of 2. Its function is complementary to the
Supreme Court in these matters. Supreme Court's jurisdiction to decide a
3. The decision of an Inter-State Water legal controversy between the
dispute Tribunal is final and binding on the governments.
parties involved. 3. All the questions discussed are decided by
Which of the statements given above is/are consensus.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct ?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
26. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with regard to Committee on Public 29. Consider the following statements:
undertakings? 1. Adjournment motion can be introduced
1. The members are elected every year from in Lok Sabha only.
both the houses of the parliament.
2. No confidence motion can be moved
2. A minister cannot be elected as a
against an individual minister or the
member of the committee.
entire council of minister.
3. The chairman of this Committee can be
3. Censure motion can be moved against
only from Lok sabha.
the entire council of minister only.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below:
not correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

27. In the context of special status given to

30. The fundamental objective of the residuary
Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following
statements: power of the Indian Parliament is to ensure
1. The constitution of Jammu and Kashmir which among the following?
was drafted by the Constituent 1. Uniformity of legislation nationwide
Assembly of India. 2. Supremacy of the Parliament over state
2. Article 370 provides permanent special legislatures
status to the state. 3. Formulation of laws on any matters not
3. The right to property is still a mentioned in State List and Concurrent List.
fundamental right in the state of Jammu 4. The Parliamentary system of government
and Kashmir. in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only
6 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
31. What are the benefits received by the 34. In the context of Indian federalism, consider
political parties recognised by the Election the following statements:
Commission? 1. Parliament can change the area,
boundary and name of any state by
1. Exclusive allocation of election symbols.
special majority.
2. Access to electoral rolls. 2. During National Emergency, Parliament
3. Time for political broadcast on state can legislate on state list.
owned television and radio stations. 3. States cannot remove officers of All
Select the correct answer using the code India Services from their service.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

32. Consider the following statements: 35. With reference to All-India Services,
1. Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on consider the following statements:
1. UPSC regulates the recruitment and the
the demand for grants.
conditions of service of the persons
2. The expenditure made from the
appointed to these services.
consolidate fund of India can be 2. Their salaries and pensions are met by
discussed in Parliament but can not be both the state and the centre.
voted. 3. For the addition of new All India Service,
3. Policy cut motion reduce the amount of a constitutional amendment is required.
demand to zero. Which of the statements given above is/are
not correct?
Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only
are not correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 36. On which of the following grounds, the
constitutional validity of a legislative
enactment or an executive order can be
33. Gram Sabha as provided by 73rd
challenged in the Supreme Court?
Constitutional Amendment Actis a body 1. When it infringes the Fundamental
comprising of: Rights.
(a) All the adult members of the village 2. When it is outside the competence of
coming under the Panchayat area the authority which has framed it.
(b) All the registered voters in the area of 3. When it is repugnant to the
constitutional provisions.
the Panchayat at the village level.
Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) All graduates of three years standing
given below.
and residing within the area of (a) 1 only
Panchayat. (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) All the elected members in the area of (c) 2 and 3 only
the Panchayat at the village level. (d) 1, 2 and 3
7 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
37. With reference to Special status of Jammu 40. Which of the following statements are
and Kashmir, which of the following cannot correct regarding the financial powers of
the President?
be imposed by the President in the state?
1. Demand for a grants can be introduced
1. National Emergency
only after his prior recommendation.
2. Financial Emergency 2. He certifies any bill as Money bill before
3. President's Rule being introduced in the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. He constitutes a Finance Commission to
recommend the distribution of revenue
given below.
between the centre and states.
(a) 1 and 2 only 4. He can make advances out of the
(b) 2 only contingency fund of India without prior
(c) 1 and 3 only sanction of Parliament.
(d) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 3 and 4 only
38. Consider the following pairs : (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Union Territory Name of High Court (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. Andaman and : Madras High Court
Nicobar Islands
41. As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court
2. Lakshadweep : Kerala High Court has which of the following powers?
Islands 1. Its judgments and proceedings are
3. Daman and Diu : Gujarat High Court recognized as legal precedents and legal
references in any court of law.
Which of the pairs given above is/are
2. It has the power to punish for contempt
correctly matched ? of any court including tribunals.
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

42. Consider the following statements :

39. Consider the following statements with 1. Expenses of Supreme Court including
regard to election system in India: the administrative expenses are charged
1. India chose first past the post system on the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. Parliament can curtail the jurisdiction
because of its cultural, religious and
and powers of Supreme Court only if
linguistic diversity.
Chief Justice of India has requested to
2. All the members of Rajya Sabha are do so.
elected by proportional representation 3. Parliament can not discuss the Conduct
system. of the judges even during the
impeachment motion is under
Which of the statements give above is/are
consideration.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct ?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c ) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
8 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
43. Consider the following statements: 46. With reference to Tribunals in India,
1. In the absence of Speaker, the Chairman consider the following statements:
of Rajya Sabha presides over the joint 1. Tribunals are part of the Integrated
sitting. Judiciary System of India.
2. Deputy speaker is responsible to the 2. Tribunals do not cover the employees of
Speaker. the Public Sector Undertakings
3. Chairman of Rajya Sabha can exercise a 3. Armed Forces Tribunal is established by
casting vote in case of a tie. the Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
not correct? not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

44. Which of the following circumstances is/are 47. The Inter-State Council consists of:
exempted for disqualification under
1. Prime Minister as the chairman
defection?
2. Governors of all the states
1. Merger of the party with another party
3. Administrators of Union Territories not
by 2/3rd members.
having legislative assemblies
2. Voluntarily giving-up the membership
4. Chief Ministers of all the States and
after being elected as the presiding
Union Territories having assemblies
officer.
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Split in the party by 1/3rd members.
given below.
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only
given below.
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
48. Consider the following statements with
45. Which of the following statements are regard to the Estimates Committee:
correct regarding ordinance making power 1. The members are nominated only from
of the President? Lok Sabha.
1. He can promulgate an ordinance only 2. It called a continuous economy
when both the Houses of Parliament are committee since it examines all the
not in session. ministries and departments throughout
2. Ordinances cannot be introduced to the year.
amend tax laws or the Constitution. 3. It examines the budget estimates only
3. Ordinances cannot be promulgated after they have been voted by the
retrospectively. Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the Select the correct answer using the code
code given below. given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3
9 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
49. Consider the following statements regarding 52. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
board of co-operative society: covers which of the following matters?
1. It must have at least one seat reserved 1. Interstate Water Dispute.
for SC or ST and two seats for women. 2. Disputes arising out of any pre-
2. The elected members of the board is constitutional treaty.
five years. 3. Enforcement of Fundamental rights.
3. Elections for the board members are Select the correct answer using the codes
administered by state election given below
commission.
(a) 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(c) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 53. Consider the following statements with
50. Which of the following statements are regard to special status of Jammu and
correct regarding office of the Prime Kashmir under Article 370:
minister? 1. The Parliament cannot make laws on
1. He holds office during the pleasure of subjects not mentioned in instrument of
the President. accession signed in 1947.
2. Resignation of Prime minister 2. The President can repeal Article 370
automatically dissolves the council of only on the recommendation of State
ministers government.
3. Constitution has provided procedure for Which of the statements given above is/are
selection and appointment of Prime correct?
minister. (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 only
given below. (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
54. Who among the following can vote in the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
election of the President ?
1. Elected and nominated members of the
51. Which of the following represents federal
Lok Sabha.
features of the Indian Constitution?
2. Elected Members of Rajya Sabha.
1. Written Constitution
2. Integrated Judiciary 3. Elected Members of Legislative
3. Indestructible states of Union Assemblies of UTs
4. Existence of union and state governments 4. Elected members of Legislative Councils
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
10 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
55. Consider the following statements regarding 58. Consider the following statements regarding
the 73rd Constitutional Amendment act: the parliamentary privileges available to the
1. It added a new part and a new schedule
to the Constitution of India. members:
2. It promoted the process of democratic 1. They cannot be arrested during the
decentralisation. session of Parliament for both civil and
3. It has brought panchayati raj institutions
criminal offences.
under the justiciable part of
Constitution. 2. No member is liable to any proceedings
Which of the above statements are correct? in any court for anything said in
(a) 1, 2 and 3
Parliament.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only. 3. The presiding officer of the house has
(d) 1 and 2 only the final authority in deciding matters of
breach of privileges.
56. The Election Commission has the power of
superintendence, direction and conduct of Which of the statements given above is/are
elections to the correct?
1. Legislative Council (a) 1 only
2. Rajya Sabha
3. Office of Vice President (b) 1 and 2 only
4. Office of Speaker (c) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 1, 2 and 3
given below.
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only 59. Consider the following pairs:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only Election Officers Roles
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. Returning Officer : Conducts
57. With reference to the executive powers and (RO) election
functions of the union, which of the
2. Chief Electoral : Declares
following statements is/are correct?
1. Unlike legislative powers, the Officer (CEO) election result
distribution of executive powers 3. District Election : Responsible for
between the centre and states is rigid.
Officer (DEO) electoral rolls
2. If a state fails to comply with executive
directions given by the centre then the 4. Electoral : Supervises
legislative assembly of the state can be Registration Officer election in state
dissolved.
(ERO)
3. The delegation of the executive
functions of the centre to a state
complusorily requires the consent of Which of the pairs given above is/are
that state.
correctly matched?
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
11 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
60. Consider the following bills in State 63. Which of the following provisions have been
Legislature: provided by the Constitution to increase the
1. A bill passed by the assembly but number of judges temporarily to reduce the
pending in the council. work load on Supreme Court?
2. A bill passed by the council but pending 1. Re-appointment of a retired Supreme
in the assembly. Court or High Court judge.
3. A bill passed by the state legislature but 2. Appointment of a High court judge as an
pending the assent of the governor.
ad-hoc judge of Supreme Court.
4. A bill passed by the state legislature but
Select the correct answer using the codes
returned by the president for
given below
reconsideration.
(a) 1 only
Which of the above bills lapse when the
(b) 2 only
assembly is dissolved:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only 64. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) 3 and 4 only the tenure of Supreme Court judges:
1. He holds office until he attains the age
61. Consider the following statements with of 65 years.
regard to election in India: 2. He can resign by writing to the
1. At the time of commencement of President.
constitution all the citizens above age of 3. He can be removed by the President on
18 years were eligible to vote. the recommendation of the Parliament.
2. Eligibility criteria for right to vote is Which of the statements given above is/are
same as that of right to contest at all correct?
the levels of elections in India. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 1 and 2 only
correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
65. With reference to the powers of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
President, consider the following
statements:
62. Consider the following statements:
1. He summons the joint sitting of the
1. A resolution for the discontinuance of
Parliament and presides over it.
the nation emergency can be passed
2. His prior assent is required to introduce
only by the Lok Sabha.
Constitutional Amendment Bill and
2. Rajya Sabha can authorize the
Money bill.
parliament to make laws on subject of
state list. 3. He can nominate 2 members to the
3. Prime Minister is an ex-officio leader of Rajya Sabha from Anglo Indian
the house to which he belongs. community.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
12 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
66. Which of the following correctly describe 69. Consider the following statements with
the Collective Responsibility of the Council reference to safeguards provided for public
of Ministers?
officials in India:
1. Council of minister is an executive of the
1. The President and the Governor of
parliament and governs on behalf of it.
2. If a minister does not agree with a states can not be sued for their official
decision of the cabinet, she/he must acts and personal acts during the term
resign. of their office.
Select the correct answer using the codes 2. The Constitution does not grant any
given below.
immunity to the ministers for their
(a) 1 only
official acts.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. The judicial review of the Supreme
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Court covers the aid and advice given by
the Council of Ministers to the
67. With reference to Money Bill, consider the President.
following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. All money bills are financial bills but not
correct?
all financial bills are money bill.
2. Joint sitting for passing money bill is (a) 1 and 2 only
presided by the Speaker. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Money bill can be introduced only on (c) 2 only
the recommendation of President. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
70. Consider the following statements with
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only reference to Chief Minister of state:

(c) 1 and 3 only 1. He shall prove majority in the legislative

(d) 3 only assembly before being appointed as
Chief Minister.
68. Which of the following are correct regarding 2. He can be appointed as a Chief Minister
Cabinet Committees?
even if he is not a member of the state
1. They are extra constitutional bodies.
legislature.
2. Only cabinet ministers can be part of
cabinet committees. 3. The term of a Chief Minister has been
2. All cabinet committees are headed by fixed by the constitution.
the Prime minister. Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the
correct?
codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 only
13 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
71. Consider the following statements in 74. Article 164 states that there shall be a
reference to strength of council of ministers Minister in charge of tribal affairs in certain
in States and Delhi:
states who may in addition be in-charge of
1. For states, it shall not exceed 15% of the
total strength of Legislative Assembly of the welfare of the Schedule castes and
that state. backward classes or any other work. This
2. For states, the constitution has provision applies to which of the following
prescribed the minimum strength of states?
Council of Ministers.
1. Chattisgarh
3. For Delhi, the strength of the Council of
Ministers is fixed at 10% of the total 2. Jharkhand
strength of the assembly. 3. Madhya Pradesh
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. Odisha
correct?
5. Bihar
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 3 only given below.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
72. Consider the following statements with
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
regard to state legislature:
1. Legislative Assembly while passing an (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
ordinary bill can override the amendments
made by Legislative Council. 75. With reference to 73rd Constitutional
2. A bill rejected by the Legislative Amendment Act which of the following
Assembly, irrespective of its origin, ends and
statements is/are correct?
becomes dead.
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. It provides mandatory three tier
correct? Panchayati raj structure for all the
(a) 1 only states.
(b) 2 only
2. While village Panchayat members are
(c) Both 1 and 2
elected directly, intermediate and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
district panchayat members are elected
73. Which of the following is not the purpose of indirectly.
constituting Cabinet committees? 3. Exclusively one third seats are reserved
(a) To reduce the enormous workload on for women excluding the seats reserved
Cabinet.
for SC/ST.
(b) To facilitate in depth examination of
policy issues and effective delegation. Select the correct answer using the code
(c) To give federal character to policy given below.
making. (a) 1 only
(d) To sort out issues and formulate
(b) 1 and 2 only
proposals for the consideration of the
Cabinet. (c ) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
14 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
76. Which of the following subjects are placed 79. Which of the following statements are not
under the purview of Panchayats in the 11th correct regarding the election of Rajya
schedule? Sabha members?
1. Technical Training and Vocational 1. All the members of the State Legislative
Assembly participate in the election.
Education
2. Election for the vacant seats of Rajya
2. Public Distribution System
Sabha are held every third year.
3. Poverty alleviation Programme. 3. The fourth Schedule fixes the number of
4. Social Forestry and Farm forestry. members to be elected from each State.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using code given
given below. below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

80. With reference to Vice President of India,

77. Which of the following are the features of
which of the following statements is/are
the Parliamentary System? correct?
1. Executive is independent of the 1. Vice President is elected by the same
legislature in respect of its term of Electoral College as that of President.
office. 2. He acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the
2. Water tight separation of powers. Rajya Sabha.
3. Principle of Collective responsibility 3. A resolution for his removal need to be
4. Concept of Nominal and Real Executives passed with special majority in both the
houses.
Select the correct answer using the codes
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

78. Which of the following statements is/are 81. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with regard to discussions in the correct regarding the executive powers of
parliament? the Governor?
1. During the Zero Hour, the members are 1. He appoints as well as removes the
State Election Commissioner.
free to raise any matter that they think
2. He appoints the advocate general of a
is important.
state who holds office during the
2. During the Question Hour, Ministers are pleasure of the governor.
bound to give oral answers to all the 3. He can recommend the imposition of
types of questions. constitutional emergency in a state to
Select the correct answer using code given the president on his discretion.
below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below:
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
82. Consider the following statements with 85. Provisions of the 73rd Constitutional
reference to interstate water related issues: Amendment Act are not applicable to which
1. It is in the Concurrent list. of the following states?
2. Parliament can provide that no court 1. Jammu and Kashmir
shall exercise jurisdiction over any such 2. Mizoram
dispute. 3. Nagaland
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

83. Which of the following reform(s) have been

86. Which of the following statements is/are
made in Rajya Sabha elections?
correct regarding Cabinet?
1. Domicile requirement of a candidate has
been removed. 1. It is a smaller body than the Council of
2. Introduction of open ballot system Ministers.
instead of secret ballot system. 2. It's powers and functions are defined in
Select the correct answer using the code the constitution.
given below. 3. It is an advisory body to the president
(a) 1 only and its advice is binding on him.
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the
(c) Both 1 and 2 code given below.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
84. With reference to reservation of (c) 2 and 3 only
constituencies for election in India, consider (d) 1 and 2 only
the following statements:
1. The Constitution has provided for 87. Which among the following require prior
reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha sanction of President before being
and State Legislative Assemblies for the
introduced in the Parliament?
SCs, STs and OBCs.
1. Demand of Grants
2. The decision regarding reservation of
2. Constitutional Amendment bill
constituencies in each State is taken by
3. Bill for creation of new states
the Parliament.
4. Bill for abolishing Legislative council of
3. The number of seats reserved for SCs
any state.
and STs are in proportion to their
5. Appropriation Bill
population in that State.
Select the answer using the correct code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 5 only
(c) 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
16 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
88. With reference to first past the post election 91. With reference to functions and powers of a
system which of the following statements District judge, consider the following
is/are correct? statements:
1. Candidate need to secure a majority of 1. He possesses original and appellate
votes. jurisdiction in both civil as well as
2. The representatives of multiple political criminal matters.
parties can be elected in a
2. He has supervisory powers over all
constituency.
subordinate courts in the district.
3. A party can get more proportion of
3. Capital punishment passed by him is
seats than the proportion of votes in
subject to confirmation by the High
legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code Court, whether there is an appeal or
given below. not.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 and 3 only correct ?
(c) 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
89. Consider the following statements: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The question of disqualification other
than on the ground of defection is 92. Which among the following urban bodies
decided by the President. is/are established by an act of the State
2. A member can be nominated to Rajya Legislature?
Sabha for any number of times. 1. Port Trust
3. The normal term of Rajya Sabha is Six
2. Cantonment Board
years at a time.
3. Town Area Committee
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
90. With reference to grants-in-aid to the
states, consider the following statements: 93. Consider the following statements about
1. The constitution empowers the Finance Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court:
Commission to make grants to the 1. The Supreme Court is bound to give
states. advice on all matters referred to it by
2. The grants are given to the states based President.
on a principle made by the parliament. 2. The opinion given by Supreme Court
3. The grants given to the state under Advisory jurisdiction is binding on
governments are treated as capital
president.
expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 and 2
17 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
94. Which of the following differentiates Indian 97. Consider the following statements:
Parliamentary model from that of
1. The Constitution of India provides Hindi
Westminster Model?
1. Prime Minster can be from either house the status of national language.
of the Parliament
2. Non supremacy of the Parliament 2. The Parliament by passing a bill with
3. No legal responsibility of the ministers
simple majority can add any language in
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only 3. The official languages of different states
(c) 2 and 3 only
of India are specified in Eighth Schedule
(d) 1 and 3 only
of the Constitution.
95. Which of the following is not a mandatory
Which of the statements given above is/are
provision of the 73rd Constitutional
amendment act? not correct?
(a) Fixed tenure of five years for
panchayats at all levels. (a) 1 only
(b) Establishment of a State Election
(b) 1 and 2 only
Commission for conducting elections to
the panchayats. (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Organization of Gram Sabha in a village
or group of villages. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Providing reservation of seats for
backward classes in panchayats at all
98. Which of the following promote
the levels.
Cooperative Federalism in India?
96. With reference to the President of India,
1. Inter-State Council
which of the following statements is/are
correct? 2. Distribution of judicial powers between
1. The President must act according to aid
and advice of the Council of Ministers. the Supreme Court and the High Courts
2. The President can reject an advice of
3. Presence of Rajya sabha in the parliament
Council of Ministers sent after
reconsideration. Select the correct answer using the code
3. When the Council of Ministers resigns,
the President acts according to his own given below.
discretion.
(a) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below. (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
18 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
99. Consider the following statements with 100. According to 73rd Constitutional
regard to District Planning Committee:
Amendment Act, the chairperson of the
1. It is provided by the 74th Constitutional
Amendment Act. Panchayat at the village level is elected in
2. It consolidates the plan prepared by the
which of the following manner?
Panchayats and Municipalities of the
district. (a) He is directly elected by the people.
3. All its members are elected by the
elected members of the Panchayats and (b) He is indirectly elected by amongst the
Municipalities from amongst
elected members of Panchayat.
themselves.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) It has been left to state legislature to
correct?
determine the mode of election.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (d) He is nominated by the gram sabha
(c) 1 and 3 only
from amongst its members.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Copyright by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted
in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior
permission of Vision IAS

19 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

 VISION IAS
www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2017 Test 2114

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
1. Which of the following statements is/are 4. Which of the following is/are the differences
correct with regard to acquisition of between the impostion of Martial law and
Citizenship in India? National Emergency in India?
1. The children of foreign diplomats posted
1. Martial law does not affect the centre-
in India can acquire Indian citizenship
by birth. state relations whereas national
2. A person applying for citizenship by emergency affects it.
Naturalisation should have an adequate 2. Martial law suspends government and
knowledge of a language specified in the ordinary law courts whereas national
Eighth Schedule.
emergency does not.
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only given below.
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. With reference to the provisions of the
Charter Act of 1853, consider the following
statements: 5. Under Representation of People's Act,
1. It separated the legislative and executive 1951 Election Commission of India(ECI)
functions of the Governor General's has the power to cancel polls if there is
council. 1. Use of muscle power
2. It introduced an open competition for 2. Booth capturing
selection of civil servants.
3. Use of money power
3. It deprived the Governor of Bombay and
Madras of their legislative powers. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are given below.
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

3. Consider the following provisions related to 6. With reference to the Constituent Assembly,
an act of British India: consider the following statements:
1. It provided for an All India Federation 1. The idea of a constituent assembly was
consisting of provinces and princely put forward for the first time by M.N.
states.
Roy.
2. It abolished dyarchy in states but
2. The constituent assembly was
introduced provincial autonomy.
3. It abolished the Council of India which constituted under the scheme formulated
was established by Government of India by the Cabinet mission.
Act, 1858. Which of the statements given above is/are
The above mentioned provisions are related correct?
to which of the following acts?
(a) 1 only
(a) Government of India Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919 (b) 2 only
(c) Government of India Act, 1935 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1861 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
7. The recently launched Swachh Yug 10. The classification of Fundamental Rights
campaign aims to and the Directive principles of state policy as
(a) create awareness about justiciable and non-justiciable rights has
cleanliness among youths all over India. been adopted from which of the following
(b) ensure solid waste management in cities sources?
along river Ganga. (a) Constitution of Ireland

(c) end the practice of open defecation in (b) Weimar Constitution

villages along Ganga through behavioral (c) Canadian Constitution

changes. (d) Constitution of Australia

(d) ensure proper sanitation facilities for

11. Which among the following is/are the
girls in every school.
characteristics of a representative
democracy?
8. The blue light emitted by LED is considered
1. Use of referendum and initiative
harmful because
2. A council of minister responsible to the
(a) its prolonged exposure can damage the
legislature
cells in upper layer of skin and thus can
3. Rule of law
cause cancer.
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) it affects sleep by suppressing the
given below.
production of the hormone which
(a) 1 only
regulates the sleep-wake cycle.
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) it results in reduced level of anti-
(c) 2 and 3 only
oxidants in the body which suppress
(d) 1, 2 and 3
body's immune system.
(d) it can potentially cause anorexia which 12. With reference to the National Civil
results in decreased appetite and loss of Aviation Policy, 2016, consider the
body weight. following statements:
1. It allows only the airlines with 5 years of
9. Consider the following legal provisions: experience and 20 airplanes for overseas
1. Wildlife (protection) Act of 1972. operations.
2. Prevention of Insults to National Honour 2. It aims to create a Regional Connectivity
Act 1971. fund for viability gap funding to airline
3. Right to Education Act 2009. operators.
Which of the above legal provisions has a Which of the statements given above is/are
bearing on the Fundamental duties in India? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

3 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
13. Which of the following fundamental rights 16. Which of the following statements are
is/are 'self-executory' in nature? correct with reference to Charter Act of
1. Prohibition of untouchability 1833?
2. Right to freedom of speech and expression 1. The act ended the commercial activity of
3. Right to constitutional remedies East India Company and reduced it to an
Select the correct answer using the code administrative body.
given below. 2. It made the Governor-General of Bengal
(a) 1 and 2 only as the Governor-General of India and
(b) 2 and 3 only
vested in him all civil and military
(c) 3 only
powers.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
14. Which of the following is/are the
(a) 1 only
characteristics of the First Past The Post
(b) 2 only
System (FPTP)?
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. It promotes the inclusion of regional
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
and smaller parties in the Parliament.
2. It allows voters to choose between
people rather than just between parties. 17. With reference to the Indian Councils Act of

Select the correct answer using the code 1861 which of the statements given below is
given below. not correct?
(a) 1 only (a) It provided for the establishment of new
(b) 2 only legislative councils for Bengal and
(c) Both 1 and 2 Punjab.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) It empowered the Viceroy to issue
ordinance without concurrence of the
15. With reference to Government of India Act, legislative council.
1858, consider the following statements: (c) It provided that the Viceroy could
1. It ended the system of double nominate Indians to his legislative
government in India introduced by the council.
Pitts India Act, 1784. (d) It provided for the establishment of a
2. It changed the designation of Governor- Central Public Service Commission.
General of India to the Viceroy of India.
3. It created a new office of Secretary of
18. The Amended Technology Upgradation
State for India who was a member of the
Funds Scheme ( ATUFS) aims to give boost
British cabinet.
to which of the following?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Semiconductors & Computers
correct?
manufacturing
(a) 1 only
(b) Textile manufacturing
(b) 2 only
(c) Automobile manufacturing
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Infrastructure sector
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
19. What do we mean when we say 23. CASPOL, often seen in news, is
Fundamental Rights are not 'absolute' ? (a) a flame retardent ceramic-polymer
(a) They can be repealed. hybrid
(b) They act as limitations on executive. (b) a bio-digester technology
(c) They are subject to reasonable
(c) a vaccine for prevention of dengue
restrictions.
(d) None of the above
(d) Both a and c are correct.

24. Which of the following Directives was/were

20. Kirana Gharana is related to which of the
introduced in the Constitution by the 42nd
following?
Constitutional Amendment act?
(a) Dhrupad
(b) Khayal 1. To promote equal justice and to provide

(c) Carnatic classical music free legal aid to the poor

(d) None of the above 2. To protect and improve the environment
and to to safeguard forests and wildlife
21. Which of the following states was/were 3. To take steps to secure participation of
Union Territories before being conferred workers in management of industries
statehood? 4. To promote voluntary formation and
1. Goa professional management of co-
2. Nagaland
operative societies
3. Himachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code
4. Arunachal Pradesh
given below.
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
25. Golden crescent, an area of illicit opium
22. Which of the following provisions have been production lies in which of the following
described as the 'Conscience of the countries?
Constitution'? 1. Iran
1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Pakistan
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Afghanistan
3. Emergency Provisions
4. Tajikistan
4. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
26. Consider the following statements with 29. Consider the following statements about
regard to protection of interests of minorities Zika virus disease:
under Article 29: 1. It is caused by a virus transmitted by
1. It provides protection to both religious mosquito.
and linguistic minority. 2. Presently there is no vaccine available
2. It includes right to conserve the for Zika virus.
language and the right to agitate for the 3. Zika can be passed from a pregnant
protection of the language.
woman to her foetus.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

27. With reference to Indian Councils Act of

1909, consider the following statements: 30. Which among the following aims to promote

1. It introduced a system of communal fraternity among Indian citizens?

representation in India. 1. Preamble
2. It introduced bicameralism and direct 2. Fundamental Duties
elections in the country. 3. Second Schedule
3. It gave the legislative councils, for the Select the correct answer using the code
first time, the power to discuss budget. given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
31. Which among the following languages is/are
mentioned in the Eighth Schedule of the
28. Which of the following is/are common
constitution?
between American (USA) and Indian Polity?
1. Assamese
1. Manner of election of president
2. English
2. System of collective responsibility
3. Sanskrit
3. Single citizenship
4. Hindi
4. Integrated Judiciary
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
6 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
32. Consider the following statements: 35. Consider the following statements:
1. Under Article 32 , the Supreme Court 1. Basic structure is not defined under the
cannot determine a question that does Indian Constitution.
not involve Fundamental Rights. 2. Limited power of the Parliament to
2. Under Article 32 , the Supreme Court amend the Indian Constitution is a part
of basic structure.
can refuse to exercise its writ
Which of the statements given above is/are
jurisdiction.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 36. Which among the following have helped to
fulfill the objectives under the Directive
33. With reference to the National Disaster Principles of State Policy?
Management Plan, consider the following 1. Abolition of Jagirdari and Zamindari
statements: systems.
1. It is the first ever national plan for 2. Establishment of Khadi and Village
disaster management plan prepared in Industries commission
3. Ratification of Paris climate change
the country.
agreement
2. It is based on the Sendai Framework.
4. Abolition of untouchability
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

34. Which of the following pairs are correctly 37. With reference to the Regulating Act of
matched? 1773, consider the following statements:
Terms in Related provision 1. The governors of Bombay and Madras
Preamble in Constitution presidencies were made subordinate to
1. Secular the Governor-general of Bengal.
: Article 15 and 16
2. It provided for the establishment of a
2. Liberty : Article 19
Supreme Court at Calcutta.
3. Unity and : Article 1
3. The servants of East India Company
Integrity
were allowed to engage in private trade.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
7 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
38. Consider the following statements regarding 41. Which among the following tourist circuits
'Competitive Federalism': is/are being developed under the Swadesh
1. It refers to horizontal relationship among Darshan scheme?
the states to compete with each other to 1. Ramayan circuit
attract investments by utilizing their 2. Rural circuit
comparative advantage. 3. Krishna circuit
2. It does not involve competition between Select the correct answer using the code
Centre and states. given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 3 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 42. Hague Code of Conduct, seen recently in
news, is related to which of the following?
39. Who among the following represent (a) Framework for diplomatic relations
Republican character of Indian polity? between countries
(a) President (b) Phasing out of hydroflourocarbons
(b) Prime Minister (c) Prevention of ballistic missile
(c) Chief Justice of India proliferation
(d) Chief Election Commissioner (d) Cooperation among nations to eradicate
poverty
40. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 21A makes both elementary and 43. Preamble to the constitution of India aims to
higher education a fundamental right. achieve which among the following ?
2. Article 51A makes it a fundamental duty 1. Fraternity
of every citizen to provide his child 2. Dignity
opportunities for education between age 3. Diversity
of 6 and 14 years. 4. Integrity
Which of the following statements given Select the correct answer using the code
above is/are correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
44. The World Investment Report is released by 47. The term Lone Wolf, often seen in news is
which of the following organization? (a) a critically endangered species found in
(a) United Nations Conference for Trade Western Ghats.
and Development (b) an individual committing violent attacks
(b) World Bank without support from any group.
(c) International Monetary Fund
(c) an exo-planet orbiting a Sun-like star.
(d) World Economic Forum
(d) a software specifically designed to
damage a computer system.
45. Consider the following pairs:
Committees of the Chairman
48. The Carbfix project, often seen in news is
Constituent Assembly
related to
1. Drafting Committee : B.R. Ambedkar
(a) storage of carbon dioxide emissions in
2. Steering Committee : Jawaharlal
Nehru basalt rocks.

3. Union Powers : Rajendra Prasad (b) increased plantation of plants with

Committee higher carbon dioxide absorption.

Which of the pairs given above is/are (c) use of carbon dioxide as fuel for
correct? spacecrafts.
(a) 1 only (d) none of the above
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 49. Which among the following is/are related to
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Parliamentary form of government?
1. Existance of titular or constitutional
46. Which of the following Directive Principles head
of State Policy may be classified as
2. Westminster Model
Socialistic Principles?
3. Non-responsible government
1. To promote equal justice and provide
Select the correct answer using the code
free legal aid for poor
given below.
2. To raise the level of nutrition and
(a) 1 only
standard of living of people and to
(b) 1 and 2 only
improve public health
3. To organise village panchayats and (c) 1 and 3 only

enable them to function as units of self- (d) 3 only

government.
Select the correct answer using the code 50. The First Law Commission was established
given below. under which of the following?
(a) 1 only (a) Charter Act of 1833
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Indian Council Act, 1861
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Charter Act of 1853
9 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
51. A system of government 'A' is represented 54. Consider the following statements regarding
by political homogeneity, ministers operate Preamble to the Indian Constitution:
on the principle of secrecy of procedure and
1. It cannot be amended as it is part of the
collective responsibility and the Constitution
basic structure of the constitution.
stipulates that a minister who is not a
member of the Parliament for a period of six 2. It is a source of power to legislature and
consecutive months ceases to be a minister. also a prohibition upon the powers of the
Based on the above features , the system of legislature.
Government 'A' is :
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Parliamentary System in UK
correct?
(b) Presidential System in USA
(c) Parliamentary System in India (a) 1 only
(d) Presidential System in Russia (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
52. Which of the following statements is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct with reference to Preventive
Detention?
55. A bill for abolition or creation of legislative
1. A person can be detained for
withholding or obstructing services councils in states is passed by
which are essential to the community. (a) a majority of the members present and
2. A person can be detained in custody voting in both the houses of the
only for a period of three months. Parliament
3. The detained person holds the right to be
(b) two third of the members of both houses
informed of the grounds for his
detention except when such information of Parliament present and voting
is against public interest to disclose. (c) a simple majority in Parliament and
Select the correct answer using the code ratification by half of the state
given below. legislatures
(a) 1 and 3 only
(d) two thirds majority in Parliament and
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only ratification by half of the state
(d) 1, 2 and 3 legislatures

53. Which of the following statements is correct 56. Right against exploitation guaranteed by the
with regard to formation of new state out of Constitution prohibits which of the
an existing state by the Parliament?
following activities?
(a) It requires an amendment to the
constitution under Article 368. (a) Exploitation of religious minorities.
(b) The legislative assembly of the (b) Exploitation of Scheduled Castes and
concerned state must pass the bill with Scheduled Tribes
simple majority. (c) Trafficking in human beings and forced
(c) The Parliament shall pass the bill with a
labour
simple majority following an ordinary
(d) Forced migration due to displacement
legislative process.
(d) None of the above and development activities
10 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
57. Given below are two statements, one labeled 60. The Preamble to the Indian constitution
as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as gives information about which of the
Reason (R):
following?
Assertion (A): Parliament cannot, under
1. Source of authority of the Constitution.
article 368, expand its amending power so as
to acquire for itself the right to repeal or 2. Nature of Indian State
abrogate the constitution or to destroy its 3. Objectives of the Constitution
basic feature. Select the correct answer using the code
Reason (R): Constitution has conferred only
given below.
a limited amending power on the Parliament
which cannot be used as an absolute power. (a) 1 and 3 only
In the context of the above two statements, (b) 1 only
which one of the following is correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) Both A and R are individually true and (d) 1, 2 and 3
R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R
is not the correct explanation of A 61. Consider the following statements about
(c) A is true but R is false Potassium Bromate which was in news
(d) A is false but R is true recently:
1. It is an additive commonly used in bread
58. Which of the following efforts by the to strengthen dough and enhance its
government cannot be held as violative of
flexibility.
fundamental rights under the Article 14 and
19? 2. It has been classified as a potential
1. Prevention of concentration of wealth carcinogen.
2. Taking over the management of Which of the statements given above is/are
properties by the state correct?
3. Amalgamation of corporations
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
62. With reference to the Directive Principles of
State Policy (DPSP), consider the following
59. Which among the following is the objective
of the 5:25 scheme introduced by Reserve statements:
Bank of India? 1. The sanction behind DPSPs is neither
(a) To allow RBI to change the Repo Rates political nor legal.
by 25 basis points every 5 months. 2. The Union cannot issue directions to
(b) To allow banks to extend long-term
states for implementation of DPSPs.
loans of 20-25 years, while refinancing
them every 5 or 7 years. Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) To limit Statutory Liquid Ratio to a correct?
maximum of 25% while keeping repo (a) 1 only
rate less than 5% (b) 2 only
(d) To help the banks to bring down the
(c) Both 1 and 2
non-performing assets to 5% of total
advances by 2025. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
11 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
63. Which of the following countries is/are not 66. Pelindaba Treaty, recently seen in news, is
the members of the Missile Technology related to which of the following?
Control Regime (MTCR)? (a) efficient disposal of e-wastes
1. Pakistan
(b) prevention of nuclear proliferation
2. China
(c) prevention of wildlife trafficking
3. India
(d) protection of ozone layer
4. Israel
Select the correct answer using the code
67. Promotion of educational and economic
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only interests of SCs, STs and other weaker

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only sections is provided in which of the

(c) 3 and 4 only following provision/provisions of the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Constitution of India?
1. Fundamental Rights
64. With reference to the Preamble, consider the
2. Fundamental Duties
following statements:
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
1. It was enacted before the drafting of the
rest of the constitution. Select the correct answer using the code

2. It is based on the Objectives Resolution given below.

drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. It stipulates January 26, 1950 as the date (b) 3 only
of the adoption of the Constitution. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
68. Article 14 of the Indian constitution
(b) 2 and 3 only
provides/permits which of the following?
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Absence of any special privileges in
favour of any person
65. Shangri La Dialogue, recently seen in news, 2. Equality of treatment under all the
is related to which of the following? circumstances
(a) Maintenance of defense and security in 3. Class legislations
Asia.
Select the correct answer using code given
(b) Impact of climate change on small island
below.
nations
(a) 1 only
(c) Status of women in conflict-affected
regions (b) 1 and 2 only

(d) Maintenance of sustainable economic (c) 2 and 3 only

growth in Asia-Pacific region (d) None
12 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
69. With reference to Draft National Water 72. The Indian Parliament, through its power
Framework Bill, consider the following under the Article 368, can amend which of
statements: the following parts of the constitution?
1. It proposes that every person would be 1. Fundamental Duties
entitled to water for life that shall not be
2. Fundamental Rights
denied on the ground of inability to pay.
3. Schedules
2. It proposes a graded pricing system for
Select the correct answer using the code
domestic water supply for different
given below.
income groups.
3. The guidelines under the framework will (a) 1 and 2 only

be binding on the states. (b) 2 only

Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1 and 3 only

correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 73. Settlement of boundary dispute between
(c) 2 and 3 only India and another country requires which of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the following?
(a) A constitutional amendment under the
70. Consider the following statements:
article 368.
1. Minority educational institutions are not
(b) Parliament's approval by simple majority
defined under the Indian Constitution.
under Article 3.
2. Minority educational institutions are not
covered under RTE Act, 2009. (c) An executive order.

Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Referendum across India.
correct?
(a) 1 only 74. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) 2 only Article 16 of the Constitution:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Identification of backward classes is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 subject to judicial review.
2. Backward classes of citizens contained
71. T.S.R Subramanian committee was
in Article 16 includes Scheduled Castes
constituted for which of the following
and Scheduled Tribes within its purview.
purposes?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) To suggest reforms in civil services
correct?
(b) To review models of Public Private
Partnership (a) 1 only

(c) To suggest a new national education (b) 2 only

policy (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) To suggest reforms in election process (d) Neither 1 nor 2
13 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
75. Which of the following is/are provisions 78. 'All the lands, minerals and other things of
under Directive Principles of State Policy value underlying the ocean within the
under part IV of the Indian Constitution?
territorial waters or the continental shelf of
1. Provide early childhood care and
education for all children until they India' vests in
complete the age of six years (a) respective States along the coasts
2. Protect and improve the natural (b) land is vested with the union, mineral
environment including forests, lakes,
resources comes under the state
rivers and wildlife
(c) land comes under the state and mineral
3. Uphold and protect the sovereignty,
unity and integrity of India resources are vested in the Union.
Select the correct answer using code given (d) all of them are vested in the Union
below.
(a) 1 only
79. Consider the following statements:
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 1. The ideal of justice in the Preamble has
(d) 1, 2 and 3 been take from the French revolution.
2. The preamble ensures only political and
76. Which of the following reflects the economic justice to the citizens.
promotion of federal spirit in Indian Polity?
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Abolition of Planning Commission
2. Transfer of Subject from state list to correct?
concurrent list. (a) 1 only
3. Increase in share of states in Central (b) 2 only
pool of taxes to 42%.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only 80. Which of the following is/are not the part of
(c) 1 and 2 only Fundamental Rights as enshrined in the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Constitution?
1. Right to telecast
77. Consider the following statements regarding
National Consumer Disputes Redressal 2. Right to property
Commission : 3. Right to obtain recognition of the
1. It is a quasi-judicial body with powers to association
impose monetary penalty.
4. Freedom of commercial advertisements
2. It is headed by an sitting or retired judge
of the Supreme Court of India. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are given below.
correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2 and 3 only
14 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
81. With reference to the office of profit, 84. With reference to Directive Principles of
consider the following statements: State Policy in India, consider the following
1. It is defined in the Constitution of India statements:
2. A person holding only the office of 1. They seek to establish political, social
minister in the state government is and economic democracy
deemed to hold an office of profit. 2. They promote the welfare of the
3. Both Parliament and state legislatures
community.
have power to exempt offices from the
3. They are negative in character as they
purview of office of profit.
prohibit the state from doing certain
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? things.
(a) 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1 and 2 only correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
82. With reference to the National Mineral (d) 1, 2 and 3
Exploration Policy, consider the following
statements: 85. Which of the following is/are the features of
1. It aims to increase the participation of Fundamental rights?
the private sector in exploration 1. Not all fundamental rights are positive in
activities. character
2. It envisages a greater role for the states
2. Not all fundamental rights are permanent
in the exploration activities.
in nature.
3. It proposes to establish a National
Select the correct answer using the code
Centre for Mineral Targeting to address
given below.
the mineral exploration challenges in the
country. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 86. Article 35 gives the Parliament (and not the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 state legislatures) to have powers to make
laws/ prescribe punishment for those acts
83. The constitutional amendment bill must be that are declared to be offences under which
passed in each house by a special majority in of the following fundamental rights?
order to get enacted. Special majority, here, 1. Untouchability (Article 17).
refers to: 2. Traffic in human beings and forced
(a) Majority of the members of each house
labour (Article 23).
present and voting
3. Restricting or abrogating the application
(b) Majority of the total membership of each
of Fundamental Rights to members of
house present and voting for the bill
(c) Majority of the total membership of the armed forces (Article 33).
house and a simple majority of the Select the correct answer using the code
members of the house present and voting given below.
(d) Majority of the total membership of the (a) 1 and 2 only
house and a majority of two-thirds of the (b) 2 and 3 only
members of the house present and (c) 3 only
voting. (d) 1, 2 and 3
15 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
87. Under the Income Declaration Scheme 90. Which of the following constitutional
declarants are given immunity from which of features forms the element of the 'basic
the following legislations? structure' of the Indian Constitution?
1. Income Tax Act 1. Law declared by Supreme Court to be
2. Wealth Tax Act binding on all courts of the country.
3. Benami Transaction Act 2. Special leave to appeal by the Supreme
Court as mentioned in the Constitution.
4. Black Money Act
3. Remedies for enforcement of
Select the correct answer using the code
Fundamental Rights under Article 32.
given below.
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
given below.
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
88. With reference to Central Board of Film
Certification, consider the following 91. Consider the following statements regarding
statements: the procedure for amendment of constitution
1. It is a non-statutory body under Ministry of India:
of Information and Broadcasting. 1. The President can withhold his assent to
2. Films can be publicly exhibited in India the constitutional amendment bill if the
only after they have been certified by the bill deals with amending the basic
CBFC. structure of the constitution.
2. If the bill seeks to amend the federal
3. The chairman and the members of the
provisions of the constitution, it must
board are appointed by the Central
also be ratified by the legislatures of half
Government.
of the states by a special majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

89. For which of the following public 92. Which of the following is not a Fundamental
offices the writ of quo-warranto cannot be Duty under the article 51A of Indian
issued by the court? constitution?
1. Union Public Service Commission (a) To defend the country and render
2. Comptroller and Auditor General national service when called upon to do
3. Niti Aayog so.
Select the correct answer using the code (b) To strive towards excellence in all
spheres of individual and collective
given below.
activity.
(a) 1 only
(c) To promote international peace and
(b) 1 and 2 only
security.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) To renounce practices derogatory to the
(d) 3 only dignity of women.
16 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
93. Which among the following changes were 96. Which of the following statements is/are
made in the Constituent Assembly by the correct?
Indian Independence Act, 1947? 1. The term 'federation' has not been used
1. The constituent assembly was made a in the Constitution.
fully sovereign body. 2. The federal system was adopted in India
2. The constituent body was given the owing to the large size of the country
function of enacting ordinary laws for and the socio-cultural diversity.
the country. 3. Flexibility of the Constitution is a
Select the correct answer using the code federal feature of the Constitution.
given below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below.
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

94. Which of the following statements is/are

97. With reference to Nuclear Suppliers Group
correct with regard to Citizenship in India?
(NSG), consider the following statements:
1. Only a citizen by birth is eligible to hold
1. It seek to prevent nuclear proliferation
the office of the President.
by controlling nuclear and nuclear-
2. When an Indian citizen voluntarily
related exports.
acquires the citizenship of other country,
2. India is a member of NSG.
his/her Indian citizenship automatically
Which of the statements given above is/are
gets terminated.
correct?
3. If a foreign territory becomes a part of
(a) 1 only
India, all the people of that territory
(b) 2 only
automatically become citizens of India.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
98. In which of the following cases was the
(b) 2 only
principle of "Basic Structure Doctrine" used
(c) 1 and 2 only
by the Supreme Court to strike down the
(d) 2 and 3 only
provisions of Constitutional Amendment
Acts?
95. With reference to artificial Bionic leaf which 1. Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
of the statement given below is/are correct? 2. Minerva Mills vs Union of India
1. It uses solar power to split water and 3. Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record -
make liquid fuel. Association and another vs Union of
2. It uses hydrogen-eating bacteria to make India, 2015
liquid fuel. 4. Golaknath vs State of Punjab
Select the correct answer using code given Select the correct answer using the code
below. given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
17 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
 99. The recently launched Vidyanjali scheme
aims at
(a) boosting the education system by
delivering volunteer teachers to
government schools.
(b) providing support to young
entrepreneurs by coordinated delivery of
various entrepreneurship programs.
(c) introducing compulsory certification for
teachers in government and private
schools
(d) none of the above

100. The term 'Dark sky reserve' is often seen

news is:
(a) an area in space with high concentration
of artificial satellites
(b) an area kept free of light pollution
(c) an area of high ozone layer depletion
(d) an area with carbon dioxide
sequestration

Copyright by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted
in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior
permission of Vision IAS.

18 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

 VISION IAS
www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2017 Test 2115

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
1. With reference to the Gram Nyayalaya, 4. Which of the following statements is/are
consider the following statements: correct regarding GST Bill which seeks to
1. It exercises the powers of both Criminal
amend the financial relations between Union
and Civil Courts.
2. Its presiding officer is appointed by the and State?
state government in consultation with 1. It provides to the Parliament an
the High Court of the state concerned.
exclusive right to charge any tax by way
3. No appeal can be made against the
decisions of the Gram Nyayalaya. of surcharge on GST.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. It seeks to amend the Seventh schedule
correct?
by eliminating separate lists and
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only providing single unified list.
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. It seeks to provide power to both Union
(d) 1, 2 and 3
and State Legislatures to make laws
during emergency.
2. With regard to the office of Governor,
consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. It is subordinate to the Central given below.
government.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
2. It is an employment under the Central
Government. (b) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(d) None of the Above
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 5. With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
following statements:

3. With regard to International Organisation for 1. They are a form of alternate dispute

Migration, consider the following redressal mechanisms.

statements: 2. They have been given a statutory status.
1. It is a part of UN system as a related
3. The award given by Lok adalats is final
organization.
2. It was founded in the wake of the World and binding on all parties.
War II to resettle refugees from Europe. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. India is its member state.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

2 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

6. Consider the following statements regarding 9. Consider the following statements:
Centre-state financial relations: 1. The Governor may call for a joint sitting
of both the houses of state legislature in
1. All cess is levied and appropriated by
case of deadlock in passing of an
Union but distributed between Union
Ordinary Bill.
and State. 2. Legislative Council has no role in the
2. All the duties and taxes mentioned in the enlargement of jurisdiction of State
union list are levied, collected and Public Service Commission.
appropriated by the Union. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
3. Taxes on sale and purchase of in
(a) 1 only
interstate trade and commerce forms part
(b) 2 only
of Consolidated Fund of India. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 10. The Prime Minister is in-charge/head of
which of the following?
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. National Institute for Transforming India
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. National Board for Wildlife
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Zonal council
4. Department of Atomic Energy
7. With respect to Lok Sabha, President can Select the correct answer using code given
exercise which of the following powers? below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
1. Summon
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. Prorogue
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Adjourn (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
4. Dissolve
Select the correct answer using the code 11. The deadlock between the Lok Sabha and
given below. the Rajya Sabha calls for a Joint Sitting of
the Parliament. Consider the following
(a) 1 and 2 only
statements in this regard :
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
1. Joint Sitting takes place even if the bill
(c) 2 and 4 only lapses with the dissolution of the Lok
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Sabha.
2. Joint Sitting cannot take place if the Lok
Sabha has been dissolved after the
8. Recently the Union Cabinet has approved
President has notified his intention to
setting up of India's thirteenth major port in
summon such a meeting.
which of the following states? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) West Bengal correct?
(b) Andhra Pradesh (a) 1 only
(c) Tamil Nadu (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Gujarat
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
12. Which of the following statements is/are 14. President of India has no veto power with
correct regarding revocation of National respect to which of the following bills ?
1. Money bills of the Centre
Emergency?
2. Money bills of the States
1. President requires written decision of
3. Constitutional Amendment Bill
Union Cabinet to revoke National Select the correct answer using the code
Emergency. given below.

2. President has to revoke the proclamation (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
when a resolution is adopted by either
(c) 3 only
Houses of Parliament. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Resolution for revocation must be
passed by special majority. 15. Which of the following process concludes
the enactment of budget?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Passing of the Finance Bill
given below.
(b) Passing of the Appropriation Bill
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Voting on Demands for Grants
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Vote on account

(c) 2 and 3 only

16. Recently, a threatened breed of sheep locally
(d) None of the Above
known as Kuji Mendha has been conferred
'rare and singular species' tag by the central
13. With reference to the urban local bodies government. The rare genetic traits lead to
consider the following statements: the multiple birth syndrome in them. They
are found in which part of India?
1. A nagar panchayat is established for an
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
area in transition from a rural area to an
(b) Odisha
urban area. (c) Rajasthan
2. A cantonment board works under the (d) Andhra Pradesh
administrative control of the Ministry of
17. Which of the following officials are
Defence.
appointed and removed by the Governor?
3. A town area committee does not require 1. Advocate General of state
a separate legislation for its 2. Members of State Public Service
establishment. Commission
3. State Election Commissioner
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
18. Which of the following does not come under 21. Recently Manamadurai-Rameswaram stretch
the expenditure 'charged' upon the
Consolidated Fund of India? became India's first Green Rail Corridor as:
(a) Salaries and allowances of the Chairman
(a) it will consume energy generated only
and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya
Sabha. from renewable sources.
(b) Salaries, allowances and pensions of the
judges of the Supreme Court. (b) land alongside the tracks will be used
(c) Salaries and pensions of the judges of
high courts. only for tree plantation.
(d) Any sum required to satisfy any
(c) it runs through two major wildlife
judgement, decree or award of arbitral
tribunal. sancutaries.

19. With regard to the office of the Vice (d) there would be zero discharge of human
President, consider the following statements:
waste on tracks.
1. Vice President is not the member of
either house of Parliament.
2. Lok Sabha has no role in the removal of
Vice President. 22. A cut motion to be admissible, must satisfy
3. When the office of President falls
vacant, Vice President assumes office which of the following conditions?
for the entire unexpired term.
1. It should not be confined to one specific
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? matter.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only 2. It should not relate to the expenditure
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 charged on the Consolidated Fund of

India.
20. Which of the following amounts to
expressing no- confidence in the 3. It should not relate to a matter that is
Government ?
1. Rejection of a money bill under adjudication by a court.
2. Passing a censure motion
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Passing an adjournment motion
4. Passing a Motion of Thanks on the
given below.
President's inaugural address
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 and 2 only
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
5 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
23. Consider the following pairs: 25. Which of the following functions fall within
1. Pardon completely absolves from the ambit of the Ministry of Parliamentary
Affairs?
all sentences and
1. Organize All India Whips Conference.
punishment 2. Track the implementation of assurances
2. Commutation reducing the period of and promises made by Ministers in the
Parliament.
sentence without
3. Sponsor Government Goodwill
changing the character of
Delegation of Members of Parliament to
sentence other countries.
3. Remission substitution of one form Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
of punishment for a
(a) 1 and 2 only
lighter form. (b) 2 and 3 only
4. Reprieve lesser sentence in special (c) 1 and 3 only
conditions. (d) 1, 2 and 3

5. Respite stay on the execution of

26. With reference to the National Legal
sentence for a temporary Services Authority, consider the following
period statements:
Which of the pairs given above is /are 1. It is a statutory body.
2. It aims to provide free legal Services to
correctly matched?
the weaker sections of the society.
(a) 1 only 3. It organizes Lok Adalats for amicable
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only settlement of disputes.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
correct?
(d) 1, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
24. The recently commissioned Pattiseema lift (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
irrigation project aims to interlink which of
the following rivers? 27. Prior recommendation of the President
1. Godavari is not required in which of the following
2. Narmada bills to be introduced in the Parliament?
(a) Bills related to making any change in
3. Krishna
areas of the existing States.
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Bills related to reduction or abolition of
given below. any tax in which states are interested.
(c) Bills related to changing the official
(a) 1 and 2 only
language of the Union.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) All the above bills require prior
(c) 2 and 3 only recommendation of President for their
(d) 1, 2 and 3 introduction.

6 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

28. Question of disqualification of Member of 31. Which of the following subjects come under
State Legislative Assembly for matters other the State list in the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution?
than those in the Tenth schedule is decided
1. Education
by:
2. Forests
(a) Speaker of Legislative Assembly 3. Pilgrimage within India
(b) Governor 4. Agriculture
(c) High Court Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(d) State Election Commission
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
29. With regard to the office of President, (c) 3 only
consider the following statements : (d) 3 and 4 only
1. Oath of office to President is
32. The state legislature may endow the
administered by Chief Justice of India.
Panchayats with the powers with respect to
2. President addresses resignation letter to which of the following?
Chief Justice of India. 1. Preparation of plans for economic
3. A Governor cannot contest the elections development and social justice
2. Implementation of schemes for
to office of President
economic development and social justice
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 2 and 3 only

33. With regard to enactment of Budget,

30. Consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution does not contain any 1. The budget shall distinguish expenditure
on revenue account from other
separate provisions for the
expenditure.
administration of acquired territories.
2. Parliament can reduce or increase a tax
2. A regulation made by the President in but cannot abolish it.
the UTs has the same force and effect as 3. No demand for a grant shall be made
an act of Parliament. except on the recommendation of the
Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
34. Which of the following statements regarding 38. With regard to International Solar Alliance,
Council of Ministers (CoM) is not correct? consider the following conditions :
(a) CoM continue to hold office even after 1. It was launched by India and France.
dissolution of Lok sabha. 2. It is headquartered in Ahmedabad.
(b) After passing of no confidence motion 3. It is a common platform for cooperation
against the CoM, the President must among solar resource rich countries
dissolve the Lok Sabha. lying only between Equator and tropic of
(c) CoM can advise President to dissolve Cancer.
the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct?
correct. (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
35. Sustainable Development Goal Index is (c) 2 only
launched by which of the following? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) World Economic Forum
39. With reference to National Ganga River
(b) Sustainable Development Solutions
Basin Authority (NGRBA), consider the
Network
following statements:
(c) World Bank
1. It has been setup under the Environment
(d) United Nations Framework Convention
(Protection) Act, 1986.
on Climate Change
2. It is chaired by the Prime Minister.
3. It aims to maintain the minimum
36. The term 'nine-dash line', recently seen in
ecological flows in the river Ganga.
news, refers to
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) a line used by China to demarcate its
correct?
claims in South China Sea.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) a line which depicts the extent of a solar
(b) 1 and 3 only
storm.
(c) 3 only
(c) a line which demarcates the biodiversity
(d) 1, 2 and 3
hotspots in the Asia-Pacific region.
(d) a line which depicts the economic 40. With reference to National Electoral Roll
inequality among various countries. Purification initiative launched by the
Election Commission of India (ECI),
37. Which of the following departments come consider the following statements:
under Ministry of Science and Technology? 1. Electoral rolls will be made error free.
1. Department of Science and Technology 2. Each eligible elector will be awarded an
2. Department of Atomic Energy Elector Photo Identity Card (EPIC)
3. Department of Bio-Technology number.
4. Department of Scientific and Industrial 3. Bio-metric data under Aadhar will be
Research linked with the electoral roll.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
8 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
41. In which of the following cases high court 43. Which of the following provisions is/are
correct regarding National Emergency?
has the original jurisdiction?
1. It can be declared by the Parliament
1. Disputes relating to the election of when security of India or part of it is
threatened.
members of Parliament and state
2. Its proclamation can be made before
legislatures. actual occurrence of war or external
aggression.
2. Enforcement of fundamental rights of 3. Its proclamation is immune from judicial
citizens. review.
4. If proclamation is already issued, no new
3. Any Dispute between the Center and any proclamation can be made.
state. Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
given below.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1 only
44. To resolve question of conflict between
(c) 2 and 3 only Union and State lists, Supreme Court has
laid down certain principles through various
(d) 1, 2 and 3
judgments. Which of the following
principles is/are correct in this regard?
1. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
42. Match the following operations carried out
2. Doctrine of Colorable Legislation
by India in List I with the respective
Select the correct answer using the code
countries they were carried out in with List
given below.
II. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
List I List II (c) Both 1 and 2
1. Sankat Mochan A. Yemen (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Maitri B. Nepal 45. US-India 'Feed the Future- India Triangular

3. Rahat C. South Sudan Training Program' (FTF-ITT), currently in
news is related to
Select the correct answer using the code (a) impart training to African nations in
specialized agriculture.
given below.
(b) impart training to teachers in developing
(a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B innovative learning tools.
(c) finance SHGs working in the dairy
(b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
sector.
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A (d) collaborate with the scientists in
tackling the problem of climate change.
(d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A
9 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
46. Which among the following committees 49. Which among the following contain
is/are related to the local self government? provisions related to local self government?
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 1. Part IX
2. L M Singhvi Committee 2. Directive principles of State Policy
3. Ashok Mehta Committee 3. 11th Schedule
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

47. Which of the following statements is/are

50. Consider the following statements with
correct regarding reservation of a bill by the
Governor for consideration of the President? regard to special powers of President and

1. Governor cannot reserve money bill for Governor:

the consideration of the President. 1. Governor can direct that an act of
2. Governor's assent is no longer required Parliament does not apply to a scheduled
once bill is reserved. area.
3. It is obligatory for Governor to reserve 2. President may direct the Act of
the bill if it endangers position of High Parliament does not apply to a tribal area
Court. in the State of Assam.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

48. With reference to natural gas hydrates,

51. What will follow if a Money Bill is
consider the following statements:
substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
1. They are a naturally occurring, ice-like
combination of natural gas and water. (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with

2. No deposits of natural gas hydrates have the Bill, accepting or not accepting the

been found in India. recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are (b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill
correct? further.
(a) 1 only (c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the
(b) 2 only Rajya Sabha for reconsideration.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) The President may call a joint sitting for
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 passing the Bill.
10 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
52. With regard to the executive power relating 55. With regard to Contingency Fund of India,
to the concurrent subject in seventh schedule consider the following statements :
consider the following statements: 1. The fund is held by Prime Minister's
1. A law on concurrent subject is to be office on behalf of the President to meet
ordinarily enacted and executed by the contingency needs like natural disasters
and calamities.
Union.
2. The payments from this account can be
2. A law to implement any international
made without parliamentary
treaty on Concurrent list is enacted by
appropriation.
the Parliament but executed by the State.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
56. With regard to Prime Minister's Office
53. A person 'X' is a 30 year old citizen of India (PMO), consider the following statements:
and is a registered elector in Parliamentary 1. It is an extra-constitutional body.
constituency. 'X' is qualified for which of the 2. The Cabinet Secretary is its
administrative head.
following positions?
3. NITI Aayog comes under PMO.
1. President
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Prime Minister
correct?
3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
(a) 1 only
4. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) 2 and 3 only
given below. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 57. Which of the following statements with
(c) 3 and 4 only regard to Consultative Committees
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only is not correct?
(a) They provide a forum for informal
54. The Parliament can make any law for whole discussions between the ministers and
or any part of India for implementing the MPs on policies and programmes of
the government.
international treaties
(b) They are headed by the Speaker.
(a) with the consent of all the States
(c) They are constituted by the Ministry of
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
Parliamentary Affairs.
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) These committees stand dissolved upon
(d) without the consent of any State
dissolution of Lok Sabha.

11 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

58. With reference to the Panchayati Raj 61. With reference to Public Accounts
institutions consider the following Committee (PAC), consider the following
statements: statements:
1. The state legislature can authorise a 1. The members are elected from both the
Panchayat to levy, collect and houses of the Parliament.
appropriate taxes. 2. A minister cannot be elected as a
2. The Central Finance comission can member of the committee.
suggest measures needed to augument 3. Unlike Estimates committee, PAC
the consolidated fund of state to examines public expenditures both from
supplement resources of panchayats. the point of view of economy and legal
Which of the statements given above is/are irregularities.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
59. With reference to the powers of the supreme
court, consider the following statements: 62. Who among the following enjoys

1. It decides the disputes regarding the Parliamentary Privileges?

election of the Vice President. 1. President
2. Attorney General
2. It inquires into the conduct of the
3. Union ministers
members of the Union Public Service
Select the correct answer using the code
Commission on a reference made by the
given below.
president.
(a) 1 only
3. It can transfer a case or appeal pending
(b) 2 and 3 only
before one high court to another high
(c) 3 only
court.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
63. Which of the following committee/s
(a) 1 and 2 only
does not examine the reports of Comptroller
(b) 1 only
and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
(c) 2 and 3 only
1. Estimates Committee
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Public Accounts Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
60. Which of the following States/UT has
Select the correct answer using the code
recently launched India's first Water Metro
given below.
Project?
(a) 1 only
(a) Kerala
(b) 2 only
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Lakshwadeep Islands
(d) All the committees examine the report of
(d) Gujarat
CAG.
12 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
64. With reference to the provisions of the 67. With regard to Parliament's power over
Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Union Territories, consider the following
Areas) Act, 1996, consider the following
statements:
statements:
1. All seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats 1. It can make laws on any subject of State
at all levels are reserved for the list for Delhi and Puducherry.
Scheduled Tribe. 2. It can establish a High Court for a union
2. The recommendations of the Gram
territory.
Sabha are mandatory for grant of mining
lease for minor minerals in the Which of the statements given above is/are
Scheduled Areas. correct?
3. The ownership of minor forest produce (a) 1 only
in the schedule areas lies with the gram
(b) 2 only
sabha,
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
68. Which among the following urban local
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 bodies consists of both elected and
nominated members?
65. Which of the following states became the 1. Municipal Corporation
first state in the country to set up a
2. Notified Area Committee
'Happiness Department'?
(a) Sikkim 3. Cantonment Board
(b) Gujarat Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Goa given below.
(d) Madhya Pradesh
(a) 1 only

66. According to the Constitution of India, (b) 1 and 3 only

President can be impeached for which of the (c) 2 and 3 only
following reasons? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Insolvency
2. Misbehavior
3. Violation of Constitution 69. The power to declare scheduled areas under
Select the correct answer using the code the Indian Constitution is given to
given below. (a) Governor
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Parliament
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) State legislature

(d) 3 only (d) President

13 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

70. With regard to which of the following is the 73. With regard to the President's Rule which of
Union government constitutionally the following amounts to failure of
mandated to give directions to the states? constitutional machinery?
1. To ensure protection of railways, 1. Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed
highways, or waterways within the State. on losing majority support.
2. To ensure maintenance of means of 2. Where after general elections to the
communication of commercial assembly, no party secures a majority.
importance to state. 3. Where a duly constituted ministry

3. To ensure execution of specified indulges in maladministration.

schemes of the Scheduled Castes and 4. Where allegations of corruption against

the ministry are raised.
Tribes in the State
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) None of the Above

74. The term 'red corridor' often seen in news is

71. With reference to the Supreme Court,
related to which of the following?
consider the following statements:
(a) areas with extreme contamination of
1. The judges of the supreme court hold groundwater with arsenic.
their office during the pleasure of the (b) areas affected by left wing extremism.
President. (c) biodiversity hotspots prone to human
2. The retired judges of the Supreme Court animal conflict.
are prohibited from pleading or acting in (d) areas affected human trafficking.
any Court within the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are 75. Appointment, posting and promotion of
correct? district judges in a state are made by
(a) 1 only (a) Governor
(b) 2 only (b) Chief Minister
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) President
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Chief Minister on the recommendation
of state High Court
72. Aquila sometimes seen in news is a:
(a) Solar powered plane to beam internet 76. The NATRIP project, recently seen in news
(b) Satellite to monitor ocean currents and is related to which of the following?

tides (a) Defence manufacturing

(c) Underwater observatory in the Arctic (b) Automobile sector

(c) Food processing
(d) India's first indigenous radar mounted
(d) Tourism sector
submarine
14 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
77. With reference to the Jnanpith award, 79. With regard to Legislative Relations

consider the following statements: between Union and states, consider the

1. It is awarded for works in any one of the following statements :

languages listed in the Schedule Eight of 1. No State law can prevail over the law

the Indian Constitution. made by the Parliament.

2. It is awarded by the Sahitya Akademi. 2. The Constitution expressly secures

Which of the statements given above is/are predominance of Union List and

correct? Concurrent List over the State List.

(a) 1 only 3. The Bills on all matters enumerated in

(b) 2 only the State List can be introduced in

(c) Both 1 and 2 Legislature without prior sanction from

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Union.

Which of the statements given above is/are

78. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly correct?

matched? (a) 1 only

Spacecraft/ Purpose (b) 2 and 3 only

Mission (c) 2 only

1. New to map and investigate (d) 1, 2 and 3

Horizons Mercury

2. Juno to understand origin and 80. India has been declared free of which of the

evolution of Jupiter following diseases by the World Health

3. LISA to demonstrate the Organization?

Pathfinder technology needed to build a 1. Maternal and Neonatal Tetanus

2. Yaws
space-based gravitational
3. Polio
wave observatory
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
81. With reference to the Appeal by Special 83. With reference to Antrix, consider the
Leave in the Supreme Court, consider the following statements:
following statements: 1. It is the commercial arm of Indian Space
1. It can be given for the judgement passed Research Organisation .
by any court or tribunal in the country. 2. It is a wholly owned Government of
2. It is a discretionary power of the India Company incorporated under the
Supreme Court. Companies Act,1956.
3. It can only be given if the judgement 3. It has been awarded miniratna status.
given by the court or tribunal is final. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

84. With reference to the removal of a judge of

82. Which of the following statements is/are
Supreme Court, consider the following
correct regarding the territorial extent of
statements:
laws made by the Parliament and State
1. He can be removed only on the grounds
Legislatures?
of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
1. States can make laws for whole or any
2. A motion for removal can be introduced
part of the State.
in the Parliament only after consultation
2. Parliament can make laws for the whole
with the Chief Justice of India.
or any part of the territory of India
3. The motion for removal must be passed
3. The laws of the Parliament are
by simple majority in both the houses of
applicable to the Indian citizens and
the Parliament.
their property in any part of the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

16 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

85. With reference to the Union Government, 88. With regard to the powers of President,
consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. The Department of Revenue is 1. He can transfer Governor from one state
responsible for the preparation of Union to other on his discretion.
Budget that is presented to the 2. The decision of the President to remove
Parliament.
Governor cannot be challenged in the
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the
Court.
Consolidated Fund of India without the
Which of the statements given above is/are
authorization from the Parliament of
correct?
India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public (a) 1 only
Account also need the authorization (b) 2 only
from the Parliament of India. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 89. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) 2 and 3 only Council of Ministers (CoM) and Cabinet :
(c) 2 only 1. Both the words CoM and Cabinet are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 mentioned in the Constitution.
2. CoM determines the functions of
86. With regard to election of Indian President,
Cabinet.
consider the following statements:
3. CoM includes both cabinet ministers and
1. Legislative Councils of states have no
the ministers of state.
role in it.
2. Election of a person as President can be Which of the statements given above is/are
declared void by Supreme Court only. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 90. The 12th schedule of the constitution places
which of the following under the purview of
87. Consider the following statements:
the municipalities?
1. President's pardoning power extends to
1. Urban poverty alleviation
both Union and Concurrent list.
2. Public health and sanitation
2. Governor's pardoning power extends to
3. Regulation of land use
state list only.
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

17 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

91. Resolution passed in Council of States to 93. With reference to the writ jurisdiction of a

enable the Parliament to legislate on a State court, consider the following statements:
1. The high court can issue writs outside its
Subject is done by which of the following
territorial jurisdiction.
majority? 2. The writ jurisdiction of high court is part
(a) Special Majority of not less than 2/3rd of basic structure of the constitution.
3. The high court can issue writs only in
members of the total strength of the
case of violation of a fundamental right.
house. Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Special majority of not less than two- correct?

third members present and voting only. (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Special Majority of not less than two-
(c) 2 only
third members present and voting and (d) 1, 2 and 3
majority of total membership of the
94. Consider the following parliamentary
House.
committees:
(d) Special Majority of 2/3rd members 1. Business Advisory Committee
present and voting supported by more 2. Committee of Privileges

than 50% of the state legislatures by a 3. Rules Committee

4. General Purpose Committee
simple majority.
Which of the above mentioned committees
are headed by the Speaker?
92. According to the Constitution of India, it is (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
the duty of the Governor of the state to cause
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
to be laid before the State Legislature which (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
of the following?

1. Report of State Finance Commission 95. With reference to mixed heritage sites
consider the following statements:
2. Report of CAG relating to state
1. These sites exhibit qualities of both
3. Report of State Public Service natural and cultural significance.
Commission 2. They are declared by the World Heritage
Committee of UNESCO.
Select the correct answer using the code
3. There is no 'mixed' heritage site in India.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?

(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

18 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

96. Which of the following States/UT has 99. With regard to Financial Emergency in
recently imposed a "Fat Tax" to discourage India, consider the following statements:
junk food culture? 1. The resolution for its proclamation must
(a) Maharashtra be approved by both the houses of the
(b) West Bengal Parliament by special majority.
(c) Delhi 2. Once approved, Financial emergency
(d) Kerala continues for a maximum period of one
year.
97. With reference to Permanent Court of 3. It was proclaimed during 1991 economic
Arbitration (PCA), The Hague, consider the crisis.
following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. It works under the aegis of United correct?
Nations. (a) 1, 2 and 3
2. It was first permanent organization to (b) 1 and 2 only
solve international disputes through (c) 2 and 3 only
arbitration. (d) None of the Above
3. India is a member country of PCA.
Which of the statements given above is/are 100. As per the 'Report on animal and plant
correct? discoveries 2015', which of the following is
(a) 1 and 2 only the correct sequence of regions in decreasing
(b) 2 and 3 only order of percentage contribution in
(c) 3 only discovery of new species?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Western Ghats>Andaman and Nicobar
islands>Eastern Himalaya region
98. The 'Ulaanbaatar Declaration', recently in (b) Western Ghats>Eastern Himalaya
the news, is related to the affairs of: region>Andaman and Nicobar islands
(a) Asia Pacific Economic Council (c) Eastern Himalaya region>Western
(b) Asia-Europe Meeting Summit Ghats>Andaman and Nicobar islands
(c) Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (d) Eastern Himalaya region>Andaman and
(d) South Asian Association for Regional Nicobar islands>Western Ghats
Cooperation

Copyright by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted
in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior
permission of Vision IAS.

19 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

 VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2017 Test2116

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOTwrite anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rdof the allotted markswill be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
1. Sevottam Model is related to 4. With reference to the newly constituted

(a) community based welfare approach for National Council of Senior Citizens,
consider the following statements:
senior citizens.
1. It aims to advise Central and State
(b) promotion of citizen-centric governance. Governments on matters related to
(c) conservation of rivers. welfare of senior citizens.
2. It is chaired by the Prime Minister.
(d) none of the above.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
2. Which among the following aim to promote (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
the human rights?
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Preamble
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Directive Principles of State Policy

3. Fundamental Rights 5. Which among the following is mandated

under Right To Education Act, 2009 to
Select the correct answer using the code
examine and review the safeguards of the
given below. rights of the children?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) National Commission for the Protection
of Child Rights
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Ministry of Women and Child
(c) 3 only
Development
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Ministry of Human Resource and
Development
(d) Central Board of Secondary Education
3. With reference to e-Kranti, consider the
(CBSE)
following statements:

1. The programme has been envisaged by 6. The Model Code of Conduct prohibits which
of the following activities?
Department of Telecommunications
1. Using caste and communal feelings to
2. It aims to enhance the portfolio of secure votes.
citizen centric services 2. Criticising candidates on the basis of

3. It is also known as National e- unverified reports.

3. Bribing or intimidation of voters.
governance plan 2.0
4. Use of official machinery for election
Which of the statements given above is/are work by the ministers.
correct? Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
7. With regard to the Special Officer for 10. SantKabir Awards are presented to
Linguistic Minorities, consider the following recognize the efforts of:
statements :
(a) Weavers
1. He is appointed by the President.
(b) SafaiKaramcharis
2. There is no mention in the Constitution
(c) Poets
regarding his removal procedure.
3. He submits the annual report to the (d) Persons promoting communal harmony

President through the Union Minority

Affairs Minister. 11. A Framework for a code of conduct relating
Which of the statements given above is/are to South China Sea is being created:
not correct?
(a) to ease tension in the disputed South
(a) 1 and 2 only
China Sea region.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) to facilitate effective cooperation in

(d) 1, 2 and 3 disaster management.

(c) as a new protocol for combating piracy
8. With reference to Supersonic Combusting in the region.
ramjet or Scramjet engine, consider the
(d) as a strategy to counter China under
following statements:
USA's Asia Pivot Strategy.
1. It uses natural oxygen present in
atmosphere to burn the fuel stored in the
rocket. 12. With reference to the National Policy on

2. In India, it has been developed by the Children, consider the following statements:
Defence Research and Development 1. It recognises every person below the age
Organization of eighteen years as a child.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The policy provides for the constitution
correct?
of a National Coordination and Action
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Group for Children.

(c) Both 1 and 2 3. It directs the State to secure the right of

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the girl child to life, survival, health and
nutrition.
9. Which of the following agencies releases the
Which of the statements given above is/are
Global Innovation Index?
correct?
(a) World Economic Forum
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Intellectual Property Organization (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Global Innovation and Technology (c) 2 and 3 only
Alliance (d) 1, 2 and 3
3 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
13. With regard to Chief Information 16. In the election to which of the following a
Commissioner, consider the following person can contest from two constituencies?
statements: 1. LokSabha
1. His appointment and removal is done by 2. RajyaSabha
the President. 3. State Legislative Assembly
2. He is not eligible for reappointment.
4. State Legislative Council
3. His salary, allowances and other service
Select the correct answer from the code
conditions are similar to those of an
given below.
Election Commissioner.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (b) 1 and 3 only

(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 17. In which of the following states has
Hindustan Copper Limited launched India's
14. Consider the following statements regarding first facility to produce nickel from primary
difference between Article 323 A and 323 B: sources?
1. Tribunals under Article 323A can be
(a) Bihar
established by both parliament and state
(b) Jharkhand
legislature
(c) Chhattisgarh
2. Tribunals under Article 323B can only
(d) Rajasthan
be established by parliament.
3. There is no question of hierarchy of
tribunals under Article 323 A whereas in 18. Which of the following constitute electoral
323 B hierarchy of tribunals may be offences under the Representation of the
created. People Act, 1951?
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Publication of the results of exit polls
correct? during the elections
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Promoting enmity on grounds of
(b) 3 only language
(c) 1, 2 and 3 3. Publication of opinion polls during the
(d) None
entire duration of application of model
code of conduct.
15. Robo-advising, sometimes seen in the news,
4. Booth capturing
is:
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) an online wealth management service
(b) an artificial intelligence software to help given below.

in disaster management (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) an online planner to suggest and keep (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
track of daily human activities (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) a ballistic missile navigation technology (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
4 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
19. The nodal Ministry of the Government of 22. With reference to the 'None Of The Above'

India responsible for administrative reforms (NOTA) option, consider the following

is statements:
1. It gives the citizens to exercise their
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
right to reject.
(b) Ministry of Personnel, Public
2. NOTA option is not used in elections for
Grievances and Pension
local bodies.
(c) Ministry Human Resource Development 3. The NOTA option can be exercised only
(d) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs in the presence of a Returning officer.
Which of the statements given above

20. With reference to the Central Bureau of is/are not correct?

Investigation (CBI), consider the following (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only
statements:
(c) 2 and 3 only
1. It is the main investigating agency of the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Central Government.

2. It is a statutory body. 23. The Udaipur Declaration on Disaster

3. The selection committee of the CBI Management, recently in the news, is related
director is headed by the Union Home to the affairs of:

Minister. (a) BRICS

Which of the statements given above is/are (b) India Africa Forum
(c) FIPIC
correct?
(d) SAARC
(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only
24. Which among the following initiatives
(c) 2 and 3 only ensures good governance?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. 73rd and 74th Constitutional
Amendments

21. Which of the following states has recently 2. Central Vigilance Commission

launched 'Quit India Movement 2' against 3. Right to Information Act

Select the correct answer using the code
social evils?
given below.
(a) Maharashtra
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Bihar
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) West Bengal (c) 3 only
(d) Tamil Nadu (d) 1, 2 and 3

5 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

25. Which among the following can be the most 28. With reference to the recently launched

appropriate agency for conducting social world's first quantum satellite, Micius,
audit?
consider the following statements:
(a) Comptroller and Auditor General
1. It will help establish hack-proof
(b) Gram Sabha

(c) Non Governmental organization communication systems.

(d) District Collector 2. It has been developed by NASA in

association with European Space

26. Recently India has launched a radio channel
Agency.
'AkashvaniMaitree' for the listeners of which
of the following neighbouring countries? Which of the statements given above is/are

(a) Pakistan correct?

(b) Bhutan
(a) 1 only
(c) Bangladesh
(b) 2 only
(d) Nepal
(c) Both 1 and 2

27. With reference to the Sexual Harassment of (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Women at Workplace (Prevention,

Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013,

29. The National Disaster Response Fund
consider the following statements:
(NDRF) envisaged in the Disaster
1. The definition of 'workplace' in the act is
confined only to the traditional office Management Act, 2005 is financed by which

set-up where there is a clear employer- of the following?

employee relationship.
(a) Wholly through levy of cess on select
2. It mandates that workplaces employing
items by the Centre.
10 or more workers to constitute an
Internal Complaints Committee. (b) Through collective contributions from

Which of the statements given above is/are the Centre (NDRF) and State
correct?
Governments (SDRF).
(a) 1 only
(c) Through Prime Minister's Relief Fund.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) In the manner recommended by the

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Fourteenth Finance Commission.

6 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

30. With regard to the constitutional provisions 32. The qualifications and manner in which the
to safeguard and ensure the independent and Chairman and members of the Finance
impartial functioning of the UPSC, consider Commission should be selected is
determined by:
the following statements:
(a) President
1. The chairman or a member of the UPSC
(b) Parliament
can be removed from office by the
(c) NITI Aayog
President only in the manner and on the (d) President in consultation with Supreme
grounds mentioned in the Constitution. Court
2. The entire expenses including the
salaries, allowances and pensions of the 33. With reference to India Insurance Nuclear
chairman and members of the UPSC are Pool, which of the following statements
charged on the Consolidated Fund of is/are correct?
1. It provides for insurance coverage to
India.
citizens against any nuclear damages.
3. The chairman of UPSC on ceasing to
2. It has been created under the Civil
hold office is eligible for further
Liability for Nuclear Damage (CLND)
employment in the Government of India Act 2010
or a state. 3. It is launched by the General Insurance
Which of the statements given above Corporation of India.
is/are not correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only given below.
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
(d) 1, 2 and 3

31. With regard to the State Human Rights 34. With reference to the election petitions,
Commission, consider the following consider the following statements:
statements : 1. High Court has the original jurisdiction
1. It has all the powers of the civil court. on deciding on all election petitions.
2. It cannot look into a matter beyond one 2. An election petition calling in question
year of its occurrence. an election has to be filed within the
period of forty-five days from the date of
3. It cannot recommend to the state
declaration of results.
government to make payment of
3. An election petition can be filed only by
compensation or damages to the victim.
the candidates for the particular
Which of the statements given above is/are constituency.
correct? (a) Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 and 2 only is/are correct? 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

7 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

35. With reference to the National Commission 38. A first-of-its-kind vaccine, Mycobacterium
for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR), IndicusPranii(MIP), developed in India is
consider the following statements : associated with of the following?
1. It was set up under Juvenile Justice Act, (a) Zika
2000. (b) TB
2. Its ensures that all laws and policies are (c) Dengue
in consonance with the Child Rights. (d) Leprosy
3. It can take up cases on violation of child
rights suomoto. 39. With reference to Endosulfan, a pollutant
Which of the statements given above is/are
often seen in news, consider the following
correct?
statements:
(a) 1 only
1. It is a pesticide which accumulates in the
(b) 2 and 3 only
human body.
(c) 2 only
2. It disrupts the biodiversity of the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
affected environment.
3. Its use has been banned by Stockholm
36. Power of Lokpal under Lokpal and
Convention on Persistent Organic
Lokayuktas Act 2013 extends to which of
Pollutants.
the following?
1. Prime Minister Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Members of Parliament correct?
3. Civil Servants (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 1 and 3 only
given below. (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only 40. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. In Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) a
certain percentage of the funding is
37. With reference to Law Commission of India, borne by the States.
consider the following statements: 2. Central sector schemes are 100% funded
1. The Law Commission of India is a by the Union government.
statutory advisory body. 3. Central Sector schemes are implemented
2. Its function is to recommend the by the State Governments.
legislative measures for the purpose of 4. Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) is
consolidation and codification of laws. implemented by the Central government
3. Its recommendations are not binding on
machinery.
the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

8 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

41. With reference to the Systematic Voters 44. Consider the following statements about
Education and Electoral Participation disqualifications under the Representation of
(SVEEP), consider the following statements:
1. It is a programme designed to educate the People Act:
citizens in order to increase their 1. Failure to lodge account of election
awareness of the electoral processes.
expenses is a ground for disqualification
2. It takes the history of a state's electoral
participation into consideration. of a candidate.
3. It has been launched by Election 2. Candidate convicted for a crime for
Commission of India
which the minimum imprisonment is
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? two years is disqualified.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Any person convicted for any heinous
(b) 2 and 3 only
crime is permanently barred from
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 contesting elections at any level.
Which of the statements given above is/are
42. With reference to Wildlife Crime Control
correct?
Bureau consider the following statements:
1. It is mandated to assist State (a) 1 and 2 only
Governments in prosecutions related to (b) 1 only
wildlife crime.
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. It was established under the
Environment Protection Act. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only 45. With reference to the National commission
(b) 2 only for backward classes, consider the following
(c) Both 1 and 2
statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It is a non-constitutional body.
43. With reference to Saurashtra Narmada 2. It is a non- statutory body under the
Avtaran Irrigation (SAUNI) project,
Ministry of Social Justice &
consider the following statements:
1. It is a canal linking project which aims Empowerment.
to divert floodwaters overflowing from 3. It was established as a result of a
the Sardar Sarovar Dam.
Supreme Court judgment.
2. It will be used for irrigation, drinking
water and hydro power generation Which of the above statements is/are
purposes. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

46. With reference to Mother's Absolute 49. Government of India has embarked upon an
Affection programme, consider the ambitious project named 'Megh Raj'. It is
related to
following statements:
(a) large- scale natural calamity fund
1. It is an awareness programme to curb
(b) a dedicated satellite to monitor climate
destitution of children. change
2. It has been launched by the Ministry of (c) a cloud computing project
(d) a national environmental database to
Women and Child Development.
track changing monsoon pattern
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 50. Recently launched Tarang Mobile App, "E-
(a) 1 only Trans" and DEEP e-bidding portals are
(b) 2 only associated with which of the following
sectors?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Highways
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Railways
(c) Power
47. Consider the following statements regarding (d) Port

the Model Code of Conduct (MCC):

51. With reference to Indian Council of
1. It is statutory in nature
Historical Research, consider the following
2. It remains in force from the date of statements:
announcement of elections till the 1. It provides financial assistance to Indian
completion of elections. and foreign researchers for historical
research.
3. Its violation can attract a penalty under
2. It is an autonomous body under the
the Representation of the People, 1951
Union Ministry of Culture.
Act. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the above is/are correct? correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
52. Which of the following constitutional bodies
looks into the matters of anglo-Indians in
48. Advanced Ultra Super Critical Technology
India?
is associated with which of the following?
(a) Ministry of External Affairs
(a) Hydroelectric power plants (b) National Commission for Backward
(b) Thermal Power plants Classes
(c) National Commission for Scheduled
(c) Concentrated solar power systems
Castes
(d) Nuclear power plants
(d) Ministry of Tourism
10 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
53. Consider the following statements regarding 56. Accountability of civil servants in India is
the Citizen's Charter:
ensured through which of the following?
1. It is a document which represents the
commitment of the Organisation towards 1. Code of conduct
its Citizens. 2. Code of ethics
2. It is legally enforceable.
3. Vigilance Commissions
3. Department of Administrative Reforms
and Public Grievances provides Select the correct answer using the code
guidelines for implementation of the
given below.
Charters.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

54. With reference to Smart Ganga City 57. As per the guidelines of the Ministry of
Programme, consider the following Finance, PPP projects in which of the
statements:
following sectors can be considered for
1. It aims to build infrastructure for sewage
treatment. Viability Gap Funding?
2. It will work on hybrid annuity model.
1. Inland waterways
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 2. Power
(a) 1 only 3. Solid Waste Management
(b) 2 only
4. Tourism Infrastructure
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code

given below.
55. Booth capturing includes which of the
following activities? (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Seizure of polling station and taking (b) 3 and 4 only
control of ballot papers and voting
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
machines
2. Allowing only one's own supporters to (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
poll votes
3. Preventing electors from going to
polling station 58. Produnova', a term often seen in the context
4. Seizure of place for counting of votes of sports is:
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) a gymnastic vault
given below.
(a) 1 only (b) a newly designed electric sports car
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) a high scoring technique in rifle shooting
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) a diving summersoult

11 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

59. Consider the following statements: 62. With reference to Financial Action Task
1. Postal Ballot facility is provided Force (FATF), consider the following
exclusively to the voters belonging to
statements:
the Armed Forces.
2. Proxy voting facility is available only to 1. It is an inter-governmental policy
persons employed under Government of making body.
India on post outside India. 2. It aims to combat money laundering and
Which of the statements given above is/are
terrorist financing.
correct?
(a) 1 only 3. A Qualified Foreign Investor must be a
(b) 2 only resident of an FATF member nation.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
60. With regard to the Joint State Public Service
Commission (JSPSC), consider the (b) 2 and 3 only
following statements: (c) 1 and 3 only
1. It is created by an order of the President (d) 1, 2 and 3
on the request of concerned state
legislatures.
2. Its report is laid down by the concerned 63. Which of the following states is the first to
state Governors to the President. approve a sewage and waste water policy?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Maharashtra
correct?
(b) Tamil Nadu
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (c) Rajasthan
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) West Bengal
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. With reference to the Advocate general,

61. With reference to the Comptroller and
Auditor General (CAG), consider the consider the following statements:
following statements: 1. He is appointed by governor but
1. His salary and service conditions are removed by President.
determined by Parliament.
2. His term of office is not fixed by the
2. Administrative expenses of the office of
constitution.
the CAG are charged upon the
consolidated fund of India. 3. He can become member of a committee
3. He can be removed from the office only of the state legislature.
for violation of constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
12 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
65. Appointment and removal of Chairman or a 69. With reference to the e-Courts Integrated
member of State Public Service Commission Mission Mode Project, consider the
is done respectively by: following statements:
(a) Governor and Chief Minister 1. It is an e-Governance project being
(b) Governor and President implemented in the Supreme Court and
(c) Chief Minister and President High Courts only.
(d) Governor only 2. The project is being implemented by
National Informatics Centre.
66. Which among the following rights have been Which of the statements given above is/are
granted by the Consumer Protection Act,
correct?
1986?
(a) 1 only
1. Right to choose
(b) 2 only
2. Right to consumer education
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Right to seek redressal
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
70. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 and 3 only
E-Governance projects States
(b) 2 only
1. Bhoomi Project : Karnataka
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. Gyandoot : Madhya Pradesh
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. e-Mitra : Rajasthan

67. Which of the following banks has been Which of the pairs given above is/are

merged recently with the State Bank of matched correctly?

India? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) BhartiyaMahila Bank (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Syndicate Bank (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Vijaya Bank (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Corporation Bank
71. Which of the following are priority areas of
68. Which of the following bodies ensures National Youth policy, 2014?
accountability of Government? 1. Participation in politics and governance.
1. Parliamentary Committees 2. Promotion of social values
2. Cabinet committees 3. Health and healthy lifestyle
3. Comptroller and Auditor General 4. Employment & Skill Development
4. Supreme Court 5. Social Justice
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
13 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
72. Which of the following is not a method by 75. Which of the following is/are the functions
which interest groups seek to influence
of National Commission for SCs?
formulation of public policy?
(a) They may supplement the government 1. To advise on the planning process of

with data and information which socio-economic development of the SCs.

supports its cause.
2. To investigate and monitor matters
(b) They may indulge in extra-constitutional
behavior. relating to the constitutional and other
(c) They may seek judicial review They legal safeguards for the OBCs.
may form their political parties
3. To inquire into specific complaints with

73. Which of the following key rights are respect to the deprivation of rights and
guaranteed by the Mental Healthcare Bill, safeguards of the SCs.
2013?
Select the correct answer using the code
1. Manner of Treatment
2. Access to public health care given below.
3. Access to medical insurance (a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 and 3 only
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
76. With reference to the Attorney General of
74. With reference to the Central Administrative India, consider the following statements:
Tribunal (CAT), consider the following
1. He must be a person who is qualified to
statements:
1. It exercises original jurisdiction in be a judge of Supreme Court.
relation to recruitment of public
2. He holds the office during the pleasure
servants.
2. The members of CAT are appointed by of the president.

the president. 3. He enjoys privileges and immunities

3. It is not bound by the procedure laid
available to a member of parliament.
down in the Civil Procedure Code and is
guided by the principles of natural Which of the statements given above is/are
justice. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
77. Which of the following is not correct 80. Which among the following most
regarding the Social Audit rules for appropriately defines the term 'community
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural policing'?
Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)? (a) Giving policing powers to members of
gram sabha and wards
(a) Social audit of the works has to be
(b) Policing approach where police and
undertaken in every Gram Panchayat at
people work together
least once in six months
(c) Establishment of Police station in every
(b) A summary of the social audits across colony
states shall be submitted by the Central (d) Regular patrolling by police in different
Government to the Comptroller and areas
Auditor General of India
(c) A Social Audit Unit will be set up by 81. Proxima b, recently seen in news, is:
the State Government to facilitate (a) a tail-less comet
conduct of social audit by Gram Sabhas. (b) an earth like planet
(c) a remote sensing satellite
(d) None of the above
(d) a newly discovered galaxy

78. Pelargonic Acid Vanillyl Amide (PAVA),

82. Consider the following statements about
recently seen in news is: Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
(a) a drug developed by DRDO to multi 1. It is neither constitutional nor statutory
drug resistant tuberculosis. body.
(b) a potential carcinogen being mixed with 2. It was established on the
bread. recommendations of the Santhanam
(c) achilli based non-lethal munition to Committee on Prevention of Corruption.
replace pellet guns. 3. It presents an annual report on its
performance to the President .
(d) an energy efficient fuel developed for
Which of the following statements given
spacecrafts by ISRO.
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
79. With regard to National Commission for (b) 1 and 3 only
Scheduled Tribes (NCST), consider the (c) 2 and 3 only
following statements: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. It looks into the matters related to
administration of Scheduled and Tribal 83. Which of the following authorities is/are
areas. required to provide staff for election duty?
1. Local Governments
2. Its report is laid down to the President
2. Public Sector Undertakings
by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
3. Central Universities
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

15 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

84. A political party can be recognised as a 87. With reference to the Delimitation
national party if: Commission, consider the following
statements:
1. It secures six per cent of valid votes 1. The Delimitation Commission Act of
polled in any four or more states at a 1952 provides for the readjustment of
general election to the LokSabha or to seats.
2. The Delimitation Commission Act of
the legislative assembly; and wins four 1952 does not provide for the
seats in the LokSabha from any state or reservation of the territorial
constituencies.
states.
3. The orders issued by the Delimitation
2. It wins two per cent of seats in the Commission can only be challenged in
LokSabha at a general election; and the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above
these candidates are elected from three
is/are not correct?
states. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. It is recognised as a state party in four (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
states.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 88. The recently constituted TarunRamadorai
committee by RBI is mandated to:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) study the various facets of household
(b) 2 and 3 only finance in India.
(c) 3 only (b) suggest monetary policy targets for
inflation targeting.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) suggest ways to address the issue of
rising NPAs in public sector banks.
85. Which of the following committees is related (d) address impediments to effective
transmission of monetary policy.
to Police Reforms?
(a) Soli Sorabjee Committee 89. Which of the following rights are
(b) Shanta Kumar Committee recommended by National Commission to
Review the Working of the Constitution
(c) NK Singh Committee
(NCRWC) to be made as Fundamental
(d) Mihir Shah Committee Rights?
1. Right to privacy and family life
2. Right against torture
86. Who among the following is the ex-officio
3. Right to safe drinking water
chairman of the Civil Services Board in 4. Right to rural wage employment for a
India? minimum of 80 days in a year.
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Prime Minister
given below.
(b) Union Home Minister (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) Cabinet Secretary (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) Minister of Human Resource
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Development
16 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
90. Which of the following statements about 93. "Budget 2016-17 has introduced a new
Totaliser machines is/are correct? classification system for the Centre's
1. It mixes votes from various booths for spending in Centrally Sponsored Schemes
counting. (CSS) into three categories: Core of the
2. It prevents disclosure of voting patterns Core, Core, and Optional Schemes. Which
across polling stations during the of the schemes forms part of the 'Core of the
counting. Core'?
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
given below. Employment Guarentee Act (MNREGA)
(a) 1 only
2. National Social Assistance Programme
(b) 2 only
(NSAP)
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Shyama Prasad MukherjiRurban
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Mission
4. Swachch Bharat Abhiyan
91. Consider the following pairs:
5. National River Conservation Plan
Purpose Schedule
Select the correct answer using the code
Amended
given below.
1. Land Boundary : First schedule
(a) 1 and 2 only
Agreement between
India and Bangladesh (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. Implementation of : Seventh schedule (c) 3 and 5 only
Goods and Services Tax (d) 3, 4 and 5 only
3. Addition of Maithali : Eighth schedule
as official language 94. Airlander 10, world's largest hybrid aircraft,
Which of the pairs given above is/are has been recently developed by which of the
correctly matched? following countries?
(a) 1 only (a) China
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) USA
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) United Kingdom
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Israel

92. Who among the following 95. With reference to CERT-In, consider the
is/are not qualified to be enrolled on the following statements:
electoral roll? 1. It is the national nodal agency for
1. A person who is not a citizen of India. responding to computer security
2. A person is of unsound mind and incidents.
declared so by a competent court .
2. It works under Ministry of Home
3. A person of age less than 18 years.
Affairs.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below.
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
17 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
 96. The rights of persons with disabilities have 99. The norms for corporate governance are
been dealt with in which of the following
prescribed by which of the following?
provisions in the Constitution?
1. Directive Principles of Sate Policy 1. The Companies Act, 2013
2. Seventh Schedule 2. The Securities and Exchange Board of
3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code India.
given below. 3. Goods and Services Tax Act, 2016.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 4. Insurance Regulatory Development
(c) 2 and 3 only Authority
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
97. Consider the following statements about given below.
Right to Information Act, 2005:
(a) 1 only
1. It provides for the appointment of a
public information officer in each (b) 2 and 3 only
department.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) card
holders can ask for information under (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
the RTI Act.
3. The Act imposes obligation on public
agencies to disclose the information suo- 100. Consider the following statements regarding
motu. PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance And
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Timely Implementation):
(a) 1 and 3 only 1. It is an e-governance project designed by
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only PMO and National Informatics Center
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (NIC).

98. The Multi-sectoral Development Programme 2. It is a three-tier system including PMO,

(MsDP) was conceived as a special initiative Union Government Secretaries, and
to follow up the Sachar Committee
Chief Ministers of the States.
recommendations. Consider the following
statements about MsDP: 3. It is aimed at addressing grievances of
1. The programme aims at improving the
the common man.
socio-economic conditions of tribals.
2. The unit of planning for implementation Which of the statements given above is/are
of MsDP is a block..
correct?
3. It was introduced in 11th Five year plan.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Copyright by Vision IAS
All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form
or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of Vision IAS.

18 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

 VISION IAS
www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2017 Test (2111)

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
1. Budget deficit can be reduced by: 4. In Economics, what does the term Usual
1. decreasing the direct taxes Principal Status indicate?
2. increasing expenditure on subsidies and (a) Comparison of GDP of two different
welfare programmes nations
(b) Employment status of a worker
3. implementation of GST
(c) Principal amount invested by a person in
Select the correct answer using the code
the bank on a particular interest
given below.
(d) Status of Non-performing assets
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 5. Which of the following factors is/are
(c) 1 and 3 only responsible for informalisation of labour
(d) 3 only force?
1. Pressure to cut cost of production
2. The ratio of total additional planned savings 2. Rigid labour laws
3. Demand - supply imbalance of labour
in an economy to the total additional income
force
of the economy is known as:
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Marginal propensity to consume (MPC)
given below.
(b) Savings rate (a) 1 only
(c) Marginal propensity to save (MPS) (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Consumption rate (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Consider the following statements with
reference to Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) 6. The recent fall in international crude oil
price has the highest impact on which of the
and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
following indicators?
1. CRR is the fraction of the total Net
(a) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
Demand and Time Liabilities maintained
(b) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
by bank with itself in form of cash
(c) Core inflation
deposits. (d) Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
2. SLR is the fraction of the total Net
Demand and Time Liabilities maintained 7. Consider the following statements:
by bank with RBI in form of specified 1. Deflation is the persistent fall in the
liquid assets. general price level of goods and
3. CRR and SLR are part of Liquidity services.
2. Disinflation is a decrease in the rate of
Adjustment Facility (LAF).
inflation.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None (d) Neither 1 and 2

2 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

8. Which among the following is/are the 11. Which of the following programmes aim at
qualitative tools to control credit creation by improving the food and nutritional status of
RBI?
the poor?
1. Open Market Operations
1. Public Distribution System
2. Repo Rate
2. Integrated Child Development Scheme
3. Margin Requirements
4. Credit Rationing Policy 3. Midday Meal Scheme
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below: given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Which of the following functions can be
performed by a Payment bank? 12. In an economy, head count ratio is the
1. Opening current deposit accounts
measure of:
2. Opening Demand deposit accounts
(a) Unemployment
3. Accept NRI deposits
4. Distribution of insurances. (b) Poverty

5. Utility bill payments (c) Literacy

Select the correct answer using the code (d) Malnutrition
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
13. With reference to Cess, consider the
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only
following statements:
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 1. Cess is earmarked for a particular
purpose only and cannot be used for any
10. Which of the following best describes 'Tax other purpose.
Expenditure'?
2. Proceeds of cess are distributed on the
(a) It is the expenditure incurred by the
recommendation of Finance
government during collection of tax.
Commission.
(b) It is the revenue forgone by the
government on account of exemptions Which of the statements given above is/are
on income and corporate tax. correct?
(c) It is the revenue forgone on account of (a) 1 only
exemptions on indirect taxes.
(b) 2 only
(d) It is the expenditure made by the
(c) Both 1 and 2
government from the income accrued
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
through taxes.
3 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
14. Which of the following statements is/are 16. With reference to Gross National Product

correct regarding Currency Deposit Ratio (GNP), consider the following statements:
1. It represents the monetary value of all
(CDR)?
goods and services produced within a
1. It is the ratio of money held by the
nation's geographic borders over a
public in currency to that they hold in specified period of time.
bank deposits. 2. It is always greater than Gross domestic

2. There will be decrease in CDR during product.

Which of the statements given above is/are
festive season.
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only
given below. (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

17. In Indian Economy, who are Marginal
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Workers?
(a) Those workers who work less than 6
15. Consider the following statements regarding months in a year.
(b) Those workers who work over less than
Employment Elasticity of Growth:
1 hectare of land.
1. It is the percentage change in
(c) Those workers who use out-dated
employment of labour force in response technologies.
to percentage change in population (d) Those workers who have not worked
growth. anytime in the year.

2. Additional labour force can be suitably

18. Consider the following statements regarding
employed only when employment
'Substitutes' and 'Complementary' goods?
elasticity of growth is high. 1. Demand for a good moves in opposite
3. In India, employment elasticity has direction of the price of its
shown a declining trend in the past complementary goods.
2. Demand of a good usually moves in the
decade.
direction of the price of its substitutes.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

4 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

19. The Macro-Vulnerability Index (MVI) is 22. As per the law of demand, with all other
used for calculating the Macro-Economic
factors being constant, the demand of any
performance of the Country. Which of the
following factors are used to determine particular good depends on which of the

MVI? following factors?

1. Current Account Deficit
1. price of the good
2. Fiscal Deficit
3. Primary Deficit 2. price of other goods
4. Rate of Inflation 3. consumer preference
5. Exchange Rate
Select the correct answer from the code
Select the correct answer from the code
given below. given below.
(a) 2, 4 and 5 only (a) 1 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
20. Supply curve represents the relationship
between product price and quantity of
product that a seller is willing and able to 23. Money supply refers to the total stock of
supply. Shifting of supply curve rightward
money held by 'Public'. Which of the
would imply which of the following?
(a) Increase in profits following is/are part of the term public in

(b) Decrease in profits this context?

(c) Reduction in quantity supplied
1. Households
(d) Reduction in price of its goods
2. Non-Banking Financial Companies
21. The term "Escrow account" generally refers 3. Commercial Banks
to:
4. Reserves of IMF in Indian currency kept
(a) the money held in a third-party account
on behalf of transacting parties. with RBI
(b) the bank accounts that could be
Select the correct answer using the code
maintained without or with very low
given below.
minimum balance.
(c) the bank account on which no (a) 3 and 4 only
restrictions on the number of times
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
deposit in cash/cheque can be made.
(d) the bank accounts for senior citizens and (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

disabled persons. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

5 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

24. Consider the following pairs: 27. Which of the following constitutes the
Type of Example primary sector of the economy?
Unemployment 1. Fishing
1. Structural : Unemployment in
2. Animal Husbandry
Unemployment cycle industry
3. Mining
because people are
buying more cars 4. Forestry
2. Cyclical : Unemployment due Select the correct answer using the code
Unemployment to slowdown in given below.
economy (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Frictional : A person leaving his (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Unemployment job to prepare for
(c) 3 and 4 only
civil services
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only 28. Which among the following is/are included
(b) 2 and 3 only in the Priority sectors for lending by
(c) 3 only commercial banks?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Housing
2. Education
25. Aggregate demand for final goods in an
3. Export Credit
economy is generated though which of the
following? 4. Renewable Energy
1. Consumption expenditure Select the correct answer using the code
2. Investment expenditure given below.
3. Government expenditure (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 1 and 3 only
given below.
(c) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 29. Microeconomics deals with which of the
following parameters?
26. Which of the following entities/institution 1. Behavior of consumers in the markets
can operate as Banking Correspondents? for different goods and services.
1. Retired bank employees
2. Employment and aggregate price level.
2. Post-Offices
3. The way prices and quantities of goods
3. NBFC-MFI
4. NBFC-ND and services are determined in market.
5. Retired Teachers Select the correct answer using the codes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
6 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
30. Arrange the following in decreasing order of 33. Which of the following best defines Tax
their contribution to the Gross Tax Revenue. buoyancy?
1. Corporation Tax (a) It is the ratio of growth in tax revenue to
2. Income Tax
growth in GDP.
3. Custom Duty
(b) It is the ratio of gross tax collected to the
Select the correct answer using the code
total public debt of the state.
given below.
(a) 1-2-3 (c) It is the ratio of gross tax collected by
(b) 2-3-1 the state to the percentage of GDP.
(c) 2-1-3 (d) It is the ratio of growth in tax revenue to
(d) 3-1-2 the growth in population.

31. Which of the following schemes

34. The government is planning to remove the
do not constitute a Collective Investment
distinction between plan and non-plan
Scheme (CIS)?
1. Co-operative Society expenditure from 2017-18. With regard to

2. Non-Banking Financial Companies the present non-plan expenditure, consider

3. Insurance Companies the following statements:
4. Chit Business 1. Salary Payments and Pensions are a part
Select the correct answer using the code of Non-plan expenditure.
given below.
2. The Non-Plan Expenditure is higher than
(a) 1 and 2 only
Plan Expenditure of the government.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Interest Payments forms the highest
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 portion in Non-Plan Expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are
32. With reference to the value added method correct?
for national income accounting, consider the (a) 1 only
following statements:
(b) 1 and 2 only
1. Gross Value Added (GVA) at factor cost
(c) 2 and 3 only
does not include any taxes.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. GVA at basic prices excludes production
taxes and includes production subsidies
available on the commodity. 35. Which of the following is called as the
Which of the statement given above is/are National Income?
correct? (a) Gross National Product at Factor Cost
(a) 1 only (b) Gross National Product at Market Price
(b) 2 only
(c) Net National Product at Factor Cost
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Net National Product at Market Price
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

36. Consider the following statements with 38. Which of the following is/are the

regard to depreciation: characteristics of recession?

1. General fall in demand
1. It refers to that portion of the capital
2. High inflation
goods which goes in maintenance and
3. Fall in employment rate
replacement of existing goods due to Select the correct answer using the code
wear and tear. given below.
2. It takes into account unexpected and (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
sudden destruction caused due to natural
(c) 2 and 3 only
calamities.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. To obtain gross investment in an
economy, depreciation is subtracted 39. The Reserve Bank of India performs which
from the net investment. of the following functions?

Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Regulation and supervision of the non-
banking financial institutions.
correct?
2. Management of foreign exchange
(a) 1 and 2 only
reserves
(b) 2 and 3 only 3. Banker to banks
(c) 1 only 4. Banker to the Central and State

(d) 1 and 3 only Governments

Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
37. Which of the following problems is/are
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
associated with the barter system of (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
exchange? (c) 3 and 4 only

1. It requires the double coincidence of (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

wants.
40. Which of the following are part of the
2. It is difficult to use in large economies.
Revenue budget?
3. It is difficult to carry forward perishable 1. Income Tax
wealth under barter system. 2. Grants to states
Select the correct answer using the code 3. Interest on Government Securities
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

8 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

41. Which of the following are introduced in the 44. With reference to Minimum Alternate Tax
Parliament in the process of passing the
(MAT), consider the following statements:
budget?
1. Finance Bill 1. It is applied on those companies which
2. Appropriation Bill show zero or negligible income to avoid
3. Demand of Grants
tax.
4. Vote on Account
Select the correct answer using the code 2. It is only applicable to private
given below. companies and not on public companies.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. It is applied on the book profits of the
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only companies at the rate of 18.5%.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statements given above is/are

42. Consider the following statements with correct?

reference to relative and absolute poverty: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Relative poverty is defined as the
(b) 1 and 3 only
condition under which one cannot afford
'the minimum provision needed to (c) 3 only
maintain health and working efficiency'. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Absolute poverty is the condition in
which people lack the minimum amount
of income needed in order to maintain 45. Consider the following statements with
the average standard of living in the reference to Consumer Price Index (CPI) and
society in which they live.
GDP Deflator:
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 1. GDP deflator includes all goods and
(a) 1 only
services produced in the country, while
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 CPI does not.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. CPI includes imported goods, while
GDP deflator does not.
43. Which of the following are the ways to
reduce revenue deficit without creating 3. Weights assigned to each good is
liabilities? constant in CPI, while it changes in GDP
1. Printing more money by RBI
Deflator.
2. Low rate interest loans from World bank
3. Increasing direct taxes Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Rationalisation of Subsidies correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (a) 1 only
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

9 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

46. Which of the following are part of Capital 49. Consider the following statements with
account of the budget? regard to subsidies in India:
1. Salaries of government employees 1. Amongst various items, Petroleum
2. Recovery of loans by central subsidy is the highest.
government 2. The total subsidy bill as a proportion of
3. Investment in shares of PSUs GDP has been declining since 2012-13.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

47. Consider the following statements with 50. In the context of economy, sterilization by
regard to investment in an economy: RBI refers to:
1. It refers to the addition to the stock of (a) operations by RBI to neutralize effects
physical capital.
of excess inflow of foreign investments
2. 'Investment goods' are part of the
in the economy.
intermediate goods like raw materials.
(b) operations by RBI to neutralize the
Which of the statements given above is/are
effects of high non-performing assets on
correct?
the economy.
(a) 1 only
(c) operations by the RBI to neutralize the
(b) 2 only
effects of high fiscal deficit on the
(c) Both 1 and 2
economy.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None of the above

48. With reference to Repo rate, consider the

51. Which among the following correctly
following statements:
describes the Chakravyuha challenge in
1. It is the rate at which the RBI borrows
Indian economy?
money from commercial banks.
(a) It refers to the problems faced by the
2. Both government securities and
firms in closing their operations.
corporate bonds can be used for
(b) It refers to the government's inability to
transactions under Repo rate.
control both fiscal and current account
Which of the statements given above is/are
deficit.
correct?
(c) It refers to the problems faced by the
(a) 1 only
public sector banks due to dual control
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 of RBI and finance ministry.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None of the above

10 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

52. Which of the following are the components 55. With reference to Capital Adequacy Ratio
of Fiscal deficit? (CAR), consider the following statements:
1. Government's net borrowing at home. 1. It is the ratio of banks capital to its risk-
weighted credit exposure (loans).
2. Government's borrowing from abroad
2. A bank with lower CAR is considered
3. External Commercial Borrowings of
safe.
private sector Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Government's borrowing from RBI correct?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below. (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
56. Which of the following is/are correct
(d) 2 and 4 only regarding the High Powered Money?
1. It is the total liability of the central
53. Consider the following statements regarding monetary authority of the country.
Labour Force Participation Rates (LFPR): 2. It includes deposits of the Government
and commercial banks with central
1. It is obtained by dividing the number of
monetary authority.
persons in the labour force by total
Select the correct answer using the code
population. given below.
2. The LFPR for women is significantly (a) 1 only
lower than that for males in both rural (b) 2 only
and urban areas. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2

correct?
57. Which of the following persons can be
(a) 1 only
classified as a worker as per Indian census
(b) 2 only classification?
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Women working as a part time worker in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 a family enterprise without any wages
2. Women bringing woods from forest for
54. Which of the following is correct regarding cooking food for her household
3. 16 year old adolescent working in family
Giffen goods?
owned tea stall
(a) The demand of Giffen goods decreases
4. 70 year old man watering the
with an increase in their prices. community park without any
(b) The demand of Giffen goods increases remuneration
with an increase in their prices. Select the correct answer using the code
(c) The demand of Giffen goods does not given below.
(a) 2 and 3 only
change with a change in their prices.
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) The demand of Giffen goods increases
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
with a decrease in their prices. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
58. The part of National Income which is 61. Which of the following is/are part of Non-
received by households is called as Personal tax revenue receipts?
Income. Which of the following components
1. Dividends paid by PSUs to government
of National Income are not included in
Personal Income? 2. License fee received by government
1. Undistributed profits of government 3. Disinvestment of shares of PSUs
enterprises Select the correct answer using the code
2. Corporate Tax
given below.
3. Net Interest Payments made by
households. (a) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 1 and 3 only
given below. (c) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 62. Which one of the following statement
regarding Factor of Production is correct?
59. Consider the following statements with
(a) It is the input that a firm uses in the
regard to Price Elasticity of Demand of a
good: production process.
1. It is the ratio of percentage change in (b) It is the output which is produced in the
the demand of a good to the percentage
production process.
change in its price.
(c) It is the additional input that is required
2. For an inelastic good the Price Elasticity
of Demand is less than 1. to achieve the maximum output.
Select the correct answer using the code (d) It is the ratio of the output to that of the
given below.
input of the production process.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 63. Which among the following represents the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 effective monetary policy transmission?
(a) Banks increasing the lending rate, when
60. In an economy a situation of liquidity trap is
characterised by which of the following? RBI reduces the Repo rate.
1. Low savings rate (b) Banks reducing the lending rate, when
2. High demand for bonds RBI reduces the Repo rate.
3. Expansionary monetary policy
(c) Banks increasing lending rate, when RBI
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. reduces the Reverse Repo rate.
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Banks increasing the lending rate and
(b) 2 and 3 only deposit rates, when RBI reduces both
(c) 3 only
Repo and Reverse Repo rate.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
64. Consider the following statements: 67. Which of the following taxes would be
1. According to Laffer curve, tax revenues impacted by the Goods and Services Tax
always increase with increase in tax rate. (GST) bill, recently passed by the
2. According to Philips curve, there exist government?
inverse relationship between rate of 1. Corporate tax
unemployment and rate of inflation. 2. Service Tax
3. Lorenz curve is a graph showing the 3. Octroi and Entry tax
degree of inequality in income in a given Select the correct answer using the codes
population or an economy. given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 68. Which of the following can be considered as
legal tenders?
65. Which of the following indicator(s) helps in 1. Currency notes issued by the RBI
assessing the health of both services and 2. Coins issued by the Government
manufacturing sector? 3. Cheques issued by a private person
1. Wholesale Price Index Select the correct answer using the code
2. Purchasing Manager Index given below.
3. Index of Industrial Production (a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 only
given below. (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 69. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Headline inflation excludes those
commodities from its basket which are
66. Which of the following banks can be volatile in short-term.
classified as universal banks? 2. Core inflation is a correct measure of
1. Small Finance banks inflation in long term.
2. Payment banks 3. Consumer Price Index (CPI) is the
3. Non-Banking Financial companies measure of headline inflation in India.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the following statements given
given below. above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3

13 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

70. Which of the following policy statements are 73. Which of the following are the Direct taxes
mandated under Fiscal responsibility and in India?
Budget Management Act, 2003? 1. Estate Tax
1. Medium term fiscal policy statement 2. Security Transaction Tax
2. Fiscal policy strategy instrument 3. Capital Gains Tax
3. Macroeconomic framework statement 4. Professional Tax
4. Gender budgeting Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
given below. (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only

74. Consider the following factors:

71. In an economy, base effect refers to: 1. Increase in government expenditure
(a) the impact of rise of increased per capita 2. Rising population and household
income on direct tax revenue.
consumption
(b) the impact of rise in price level in the
3. Buying and selling of real estate in urban
previous year over the corresponding
areas
rise in price levels in current year.
4. Fluctuations in output and supply
(c) the impact on lending capacity of the
5. Increase in administered prices
banks due to slowdown in the economy.
Which of the above is/are attributed to the
(d) the impact on exchange rate due to lower
demand-pull factors of inflation?
growth in the economy.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only
72. Consider the following differences between
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate
(d) 4 and 5 only
(MCLR) and Base Rate:
1. Unlike base rate calculation, Cash
75. Which of the following statements correctly
Reserve Ratio (CRR) cost is considered
explains Primary deficit?
in the calculation of MLCR.
(a) It is fiscal deficit minus grants given to
2. Unlike base rate calculation, Repo rate is
state for capital expenditure.
mandatory in the calculation of MCLR.
(b) It is revenue deficit minus revenue
Which of the statements given above is/are
expenditure.
correct?
(c) It is total revenue of government minus
(a) 1 only
total expenditure.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) It is fiscal deficit minus net interest

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 payments.

14 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

76. With reference to Inflation Targeting, 79. Which of the following can be the sources of
consider the following statements: human capital formation?
1. investment in education
1. It indicates the primacy of price stability
2. migration
as the key objective of fiscal policy by 3. investment in health
the government. 4. job training
2. It aims to target wholesale price index. Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
3. It was recommended by Nachiket More
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Committee. (b) 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

correct? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(a) 1 and 2 only

80. Which of the following is/are the likely
(b) 1 and 3 only impacts of salary hike on a market in
(c) 2 and 3 only equilibrium?
1. There will be higher demand for goods.
(d) None
2. Consumers will spend less on an inferior
good and shift to superior goods.
77. Which of the following is/are correct 3. Suppliers will increase supply owing to
regarding capital account of the budget? higher demand, with no impact on
equilibrium.
1. Capital receipt leads to increase in asset
Select the correct answer using the code
of government.
given below.
2. Capital expenditure leads to increase in (a) 1 only
liability of government. (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3
given below.
(a) 1 only 81. Consider the following statements with
(b) 2 only regard to proportional taxation:
1. The rate of taxation does not change as
(c) Both 1 and 2
the taxable amount increases or
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 decreases.
2. It makes consumer spending less
78. Universal Health Coverage Index has been sensitive to fluctuations in GDP.
Which of the statements given above is/are
developed by which among the following?
correct?
(a) World Health Organization (a) 1 only
(b) World Bank (b) 2 only
(c) United Nations Children's Fund (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) International Monetary Fund
15 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
82. Which among the following employment are 85. Consider the following statements with
part of unorganised sector in India? respect to the worker population ratio in
1. Sweeper working in PWD department India:
on contract basis 1. The worker population ratio in urban
2. Household industry with 8 employees India is more than that in rural India.
3. Rickshaw puller 2. The worker population ratio of urban
4. Domestic servant women is greater than that of rural
Select the correct answer using the code women.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

83. With reference to marginal standing facility,

86. Which among the following are steps taken
consider the following statements:
by the Government of India to promote
1. It allows banks to borrow money from
financial inclusion?
the RBI over and above what is available 1. Promoting Basic savings bank deposit
to them through the Liquidity accounts (BSBDAs)
Adjustment Facility. 2. Business Correspondent-Information
2. It is a penal rate and is always kept and Communication Technology (BC-
above repo rate. ICT) transactions
3. Under it, banks can avail funds only by 3. Atal pension yojana
pledging government securities. 4. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer from the codes
correct? given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

84. Which of the following economic reforms 87. Which of the following inflation indices are
would help in curtailing 'unnatural inflation', released by Central Statistical Office (CSO)?
which arises due to supply side constraints? 1. CPI (Combined)
1. GST act 2. Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
3. Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI)
2. Model APMC act
4. CPI (Industrial Worker)
3. FDI in multibrand retail
Select the correct answer from the code
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
16 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
88. With reference to monetary aggregates M1 91. Consider the following statements with
and M2, also known as narrow money, regard to private and public goods:
consider the following statements: 1. Private goods are rivalrous in nature
1. M1 is the most liquid part of the money which means that its consumption by
supply. one individual prevents another
2. M2 is obtained by excluding Savings individual from consuming it.
with Post offices from M1. 2. Public goods are non-excludable in
Which of the statements given above is/are nature which means there is no feasible
correct? way of excluding anyone from enjoying
(a) 1 only the benefits of the good.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
89. Consider the following statements about the (c) Both 1 and 2
high inflationary pressure being experienced (d) Neither 1 nor 2
from the past decade in India:
1. It is both cyclical and structural in 92. Consider the following statements with
nature. reference to 'Economically Active
2. High global commodity prices have Population':
increased inflationary pressure on the 1. It is the population in the age group of
local markets. 15-59 years.
3. Improper fiscal policies have led to 2. It has increased in the last two decades
increase in the inflationary pressure. in India.
Which of the following statements given Which of the statements given above is/are
above is/are correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

90. Consider the following statements regarding 93. Which of the following can be the possible
Commodities transaction tax: benefits of greater financial inclusion?
1. It is a financial transaction tax levied on 1. Higher domestic savings
commodity derivatives exchanges 2. Enhanced investment
involving agricultural commodities. 3. Better delivery of welfare schemes
2. It is an indirect tax. 4. Greater penetration of financial services
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
17 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
94. Which of the following are considered while 97. The official data on poverty released in India
calculating economic value of a country? is estimated on the basis of consumption
1. Consumer goods
expenditure data collected by
2. Capital goods
3. Intermediate goods (a) Office of Economic Advisor
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Labour Bureau
given below.
(c) National Sample Survey Organisation
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (NSSO)

(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Central Statistical Office (CSO)

(d) 1, 2 and 3

98. To finance its deficit, government prefers

95. Consider the following statements with
regard to the Gini Coefficient: borrowing from public over RBI. The main
1. It depicts the economic inequalities reason is
prevailing in the country.
(a) rate of interest charged by RBI is higher.
2. Its value ranges from 0 to 1, with 0
representing high inequality and 1 (b) government has to return the sum to RBI

representing that there is no income within a fixed period of time.

inequality in the country. (c) public borrowing does not affect the
Which of the above statement/statements
money supply in the market.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (d) this increases the sale of government
(b) 2 only bonds.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
99. Which of the following statements is/are

96. Which of the following policies of correct regarding fiscal deficit?

government can lead to increase in inflation? 1. It leads to deflation in economy.
1. Greater number of social sector schemes
2. It leads to increase in primary deficit.
by government
2. Increase in Minimum Support Prices 3. It leads to crowding-out of private
3. Import of pulses at cheaper price investment
4. Accepting 7th pay commission's
Select the correct answer using the code
recommendations
Select the correct answer from the code given below.

given below. (a) 1 and 3 only

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

18 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

100. Which among the following correctly
describes skewflation in an economy?
(a) It refers to a situation of inflation
combined with a slow growth rate and a
relatively high unemployment rate.
(b) It refers to a sustained, across-the-board
price increase in the market.
(c) It refers a price rise in one or a small
group of commodities over a sustained
period of time alongwith decreasing
prices in others.
(d) None of the above

Copyright by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in
any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission
of Vision IAS

19 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

 VISION IAS
www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2017 Test 2112

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
1. Which among the following sectors is/are 4. Which among the following is/are likely to
covered under the Index of Industrial result in the current account surplus in the
Production (IIP)? Balance of Payments (BoP)?
1. Mining 1. Increase in the remittances received
2. Manufacturing from abroad.
3. Electricity 2. Sale of Bonds by Reserve Bank of India
Select the correct answer using the code in the global market.
given below. 3. Fall in global oil prices
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below.
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
2. With reference to Participatory Notes (PN), (d) 1, 2 and 3
consider the following statements:
1. These are financial instruments used by 5. With reference to the impact of fall in crude

investors that are not registered with price on inflation in India, consider the

the SEBI to invest in Indian securities. following statements:

2. The investors enjoy the voting rights in 1. It has benefited urban consumers more

relation to shares invested through the than the rural consumers.

PN. 2. It has impacted WPI (fuel) component

Which of the statements given above is/are more than the CPI (fuel) component.
Select the answer using the correct
correct?
code given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Which among the following is/are the

6. Which of the following factors can lead to
instruments of secondary capital market?
fall in Indian exports?
1. Bonds
1. Global slowdown
2. Initial Public Offering
2. Low global commodity prices
3. Commercial Papers
3. Deprecation of currency
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
7. With reference to Rural Infrastructure 10. Which among the following steps can be
Development Fund (RIDF), consider the taken to improve ease of doing business in
following statements: India?
1. The shortfalls in the priority sector 1. Implementation of Goods and Services
lending of both foreign banks and public Tax
sector banks are deposited in RIDF.
2. Flexibility in labour policy
2. It is maintained by the National Bank for
3. Improving effectiveness of single
Agriculture and Rural Development
window clearances
(NABARD).
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

8. With reference to Foreign Institutional 11. With reference to the Micro, Small and
Investors (FIIs), consider the following Medium Enterprises in India, consider the
statements: following statements:
1. A foreign investment to acquire more
1. They are categorised on the basis of net
than 10% shares of a company is
profit and number of persons
categorised as Foreign Institutional
employed.
Investment.
2. FIIs can invest only in companies listed 2. Government has reserved certain items
on the stock exchange. to be manufactured exclusively by
Which of the following statements given MSME sector.
above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which of the following steps can help in
making domestic production of steel
12. Nutrient based subsidy scheme covers
sustainable?
which of the following fertilizers?
1. Decreasing basic customs duties on
1. Urea
certain primary iron and steel products.
2. Imposing anti-dumping duties on steel 2. Phosphatic fertilisers (P)
imported from other nations. 3. Potassic fertilisers (K)
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer from the code
given below: given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
3 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
13. Consider the following points of differences 16. With reference to Urea, consider the
between a share and a debenture: following statements:
1. While a share capital is the credit to the 1. It is the most produced and most
company, a debenture is an ownership imported fertiliser in India.
capital. 2. The subsidy on urea is provided only for
2. While dividend is paid on shares, agricultural purposes and not for
interest is paid on debentures. industrial purposes.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Which of the following reasons necessitated

17. With reference to the Demographic
the intervention of State in the industrial
development after independence? Dividend, consider the following
1. The private sector lacked the huge statements:
capital required for setting up of heavy 1. A country with a high population
industries. between 15-64 years is considered to
2. The private players had less incentive to have a high demographic dividend.
invest in industrialisation due to the low 2. Focus on providing skill development
demand for industrial goods. and education will help in effective
3. The need to maximise the profit utilisation of demographic dividend.
necessitated State intervention. Which of the statements is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below. (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
18. With reference to Direct Benefit Transfer
(DBT), consider the following statements:
15. With reference to money markets, consider
1. Under DBT, the monetary benefits from
the following statements:
different schemes will be directly
1. Call money refers to borrowing/lending
transferred to the beneficiary's bank
of funds on overnight basis.
account.
2. Notice Money refers to
2. It will help to eliminate waste in subsidy
borrowing/lending of funds for period
transfer and reduce corruption.
exceeding 14 days.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
19. Which of the following is/ 22. With reference to the 2015 Ministerial
are not agreements under WTO? Conference of WTO, consider the following
1. Trade Facilitation Agreement statements:
2. Trade Related Intellectual Property 1. It was held in Bali, Indonesia.
Rights 2. The member countries reached
3. Agreement on Subsidies and consensus on Doha Development
Countervailing Measures Agenda.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. Afghanistan and Liberia acceded to the
given below? WTO at this conference.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statement/statements given
(b) 3 only above is/are correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 3 only
(d) None of the above (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
20. Consider the following statements with (d) 1, 2 and 3
regard to Pension Fund Regulatory and
Development authority (PFRDA):
23. With reference to Infrastructure Investment
1. It is a non-statutory body under the
Trusts (InvITs), consider the following
ministry of Social Justice.
statements:
2. Pension funds of both private and
1. They enable investments into the
Government employee comes under its
infrastructure sector by pooling small
purview.
sums of money from multiple investors.
3. The National Pension Scheme (NPS) is
2. Investments through InvITs can only be
regulated by PFRDA.
made in PPP project.
Which of the following statements given
3. These are regulated by SEBI.
above are correct
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
21. With reference to the recent changes in the
norms for the priority sector lending,
consider the following statements: 24. Which of the following is/are the
1. Loans to the agricultural sector will be components of Current Account of the
categorised as direct and indirect having Balance of Payments?
separate targets. 1. Investments of Indian nationals in other
2. Foreign banks with less than 20 countries.
branches will be exempted from priority 2. Dividends from Foreign Investment
sector lending. 3. Loans from World Bank
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
5 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
25. Which of the following schemes are 28. Which of the following was/were features
concerned with Urban Infrastructure? of the Mahalanobis growth model?
1. AMRUT 1. Emphasis on Self-Reliance
2. HRIDAY 2. Indicative planning
3. Swachh Bharat Mission 3. Emphasis on heavy goods industries
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

26. Which of the following

29. Which of the following statements is/are
factors necessitate privatization and
correct regarding Special Safeguard
commercialization of infrastructure sector?
1. Scarcity of resources and stress on mechanism in WTO?

public finances. 1. It is a tool that will allow developing

2. Management efficiency of private countries to raise tariffs temporarily to
sector. deal with import surges or price falls.
3. Technological changes. 2. It has been included under the Nairobi
Select the correct answer using the code Package negotiated under the WTO.
given below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only given below.
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only
(d) None of the above (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
27. With reference to the National Agricultural
Market (NAM), consider the following
30. With reference to Quantitative Easing,
statements:
consider the following statements:
1. It aims to create a pan-India electronic
1. Under this policy, the central bank sells
trading portal for agricultural
government securities to increase
commodities.
interest rates in the economy.
2. It will be implemented as a Central
2. It can lead to an inflation in the
Sector Scheme through Agri-Tech
Infrastructure Fund (ATIF). economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
6 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
31. For which of the following industries is 34. Which of the following commodities falls
Industrial Licensing compulsory? under the purview of Essential Commodities
1. Distillation and brewing of alcoholic Act for price regulation by government?
drinks. 1. Petroleum products
2. Railway transport 2. Edible oil
3. Drugs and Pharmaceuticals 3. Pulses
4. Atomic energy
4. Rice
5. Electronic Aerospace and Defence
Select the correct answer using the codes
equipment
given below
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only
given below.
(b) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3, 4 and 4 only
35. Which of the following initiatives have
32. Which of the following is/are part of helped to increase the agricultural
transfer payments? productivity in India?
1. Payment for Services provided abroad 1. Supply of High Yield Variety (HYV) seeds
2. Donations from abroad 2. Supply of chemical fertilizers
3. Remittance 3. Improved irrigation methods
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

33. Which of the following are part of

36. With reference to Incremental Capital
liberalisation policy of the government?
Output Ratio (ICOR), consider the following
1. De-reservation of sectors which were
statements:
reserved for small scale industry.
1. It refers to the additional capital
2. De-licensing
3. Disinvestment required to generate additional output
4. Easing quantitative restrictions on in the economy.
imports 2. A higher value of ICOR represents
5. Allowing establishment of private sector higher efficiency of investment in the
banks, both Indian as well as foreign. economy.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 5 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
7 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
37. Consider the following statements, 40. With reference to Depository Receipt (DR),
regarding India's economic policy before consider the following statements:
1991 reforms: 1. It is a financial instrument issued by a
1. Private industries were allowed in every
company in its domestic market.
field but license was mandatory.
2. It is issued for tapping foreign investors
2. Large business houses required
permission from the government to who may not be able to participate
expand their business operations. directly in the domestic market.
3. Rate of taxation was kept minimum to 3. It is denominated in a foreign currency.
encourage faster growth. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
not correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

38. Which of the following can be used to 41. Which of the following is/are characteristics
finance Current Account Deficit (CAD)? of a capitalist system of economy?
1. Sale of reserves of foreign currencies
1. Income equality
and securities
2. Production for profit
2. Payment of foreign transactions in gold
3. Minimal government intervention
3. External loans from IMF
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

39. Consider the following statements with

42. Which among the following countries is/are
reference to tariffs and quotas:
1. While tariffs directly impact the value of part of the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)?
imports, quotas aim to curb the volume 1. India
of imports. 2. China
2. Both tariffs and quotas restrict imports 3. United States of America
and protect the domestic firm.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the above mentioned statements
given below.
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
8 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
43. Which among the following is/are part of 46. India has a Free Trade Agreement with
the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)? which of the following?
1. End poverty in all its forms everywhere 1. ASEAN
2. Achieve gender equality 2. MERCOSUR
3. Take urgent action to combat climate 3. European Union
change and its impacts Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only
given below.
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
47. With reference to the exchange rates,
consider the following statements:
44. Consider the following statements with 1. Under the fixed exchange rate, the
regard to power sector in India: central bank links the exchange rate to
1. The demand for power is growing at a another country's currency or to the
rate higher than the GDP growth rate. price of gold.
2. The power generation from coal is 2. Under the floating exchange rate, the
greater than all other sources of power currency price is set by the foreign
combined together. exchange market based on supply and
3. Non commercial energy consumption is demand.
higher than commercial energy Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
consumption.
(a) 1 only
Which of the above statements is/are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
48. With reference to rural credit in India,
(d) 1, 2 and 3 consider the following statements:
1. The share of non-institutional credit is
45. Which of the following statements related greater than the share of institutional
to the National Investment and credit for farmers in India.
Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is/are correct? 2. Among the institutional credit agencies,
1. It aims at attracting both domestic and NABARD is the biggest contributor of
foreign investors. direct loan to farmers.
2. It focuses solely on greenfield 3. Ratio of agricultural credit to
infrastructure projects. agricultural GDP has increased in the
Select the correct answer using the code last decade.
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below.
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2 and 3 only
9 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
49. With reference to agriculture sector in India, 51. Which of the following pairs are correctly

consider the following statements: matched?

Type of good Example of
1. Among the all sectors in India,
good
agriculture employs maximum 1. Intermediate : Salt used by a
workforce. good housewife to
cook food.
2. Due to the shift from subsistence to
2. Durable : Scooter used
commercial agriculture, the average consumer good by a worker to
land holding has increased in India. travel from
office to home
3. The dependence of Indian farmers on
3. Capital good : Boat being
monsoon has come down since
used to
independence. transport
Which of the statements given above is/are goods across a
river.
correct?
4. Non-durable : Shoes used by
(a) 1 and 2 only consumer good a person for
(b) 1 and 3 only jogging.

(c) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3 given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
50. Consider the following statements with (b) 1 and 4 only

regard to Asian Development Bank (ADB): (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. It is a regional development bank

headquartered in Tokyo. 52. With reference to Agricultural Produce

2. The bank admits members from the Market Committee (APMC), consider the
following statements:
Asian Continent only.
1. It is a statutory market committee
3. It releases annual report of Creativity constituted by state government.
Productivity Index. 2. APMCs restrict the farmer from entering
into direct contract with any
Which of the statements given above is/are
manufacturer.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?

(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
53. With reference to the Competition 56. Which of the following statements is/are
Commission of India, consider the following correct regarding District Mineral
statements: Foundation (DMF)?
1. It aims to promote competition and 1. It is a non-profit organization working
ensure freedom of trade in the markets
for the interest and benefit of mining
of India.
companies and organizations.
2. It is a statutory body.
2. It has been established by Mines and
3. It works under the Ministry of
Commerce and Industry. Minerals (Development and Regulation)
Select the correct answer using the code Act 2015.
given below. Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 and 2 only given below.
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
54. Which among the following is/are the
functions performed by the Securities and
57. Consider the following statements:
Exchange Board of India?
1. In a free trade agreement, the member
1. regulating the business in stock
exchanges countries maintain a common external
2. prohibiting insider trading in securities tariff for exports and imports from non-
3. promoting investors' education and members.
training of intermediaries of securities 2. A Customs Union is characterised by
markets free movement of factors of production
Select the correct answer using the code among member countries.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
55. Consider the following statements regarding
Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
1. It was launched during the 12th Five 58. With reference to Bitcoins, consider the
Year Plan. following statements:
2. It aims to conserve and develop 1. The value of the Bitcoins is based on a
indigenous cattle breeds in a scientific basket of currencies.
manner. 2. In India, only the entities approved by
3. It aims at cross breeding elite the Reserve Bank of India can transact
indigenous breeds with foreign breeds
in Bitcoins.
of cattle.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
11 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
59. Qualified Foreign Investors (QFIs) are 62. Which of the following factors can be
allowed to invest in which of the following attributed to growth of unemployment in
segments of the capital market? India?
1. Mutual Funds 1. Slow growth in agricultural and
2. Equities industrial productivity.
3. Corporate Debt 2. Slow expansion of manufacturing
Select the correct answer using the code
sector
given below.
3. Concentration of investment in capital
(a) 1 and 3 only
goods industry.
(b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 2 and 3 only
given below.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
60. Which of the following statements is/are
(c) 2 and 3 only
correct with regard to organic farming?
1. Yields from organic farming are less (d) 1, 2 and 3
than modern agricultural farming during
the initial period. 63. Consider the following statements:
2. Organic produce may have a shorter 1. Only the companies having the
shelf life than sprayed produce. Navratna status are eligible for
3. Organic farming requires less labour obtaining Maharatna status.
input than conventional farming. 2. To be eligible for Miniratna status a
Select the correct answer using the code company should have profits
given below. continuously for three years.
(a) 2 and 3 only 3. Coal India Limited and Steel Authority of
(b) 3 only India Limited are Maharatna companies.
(c) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
61. Which of the following is/are the effects of
(b) 1 only
New Economic Policy 1991 on Indian
(c) 2 and 3 only
economy?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Increase in foreign direct investment
and forex reserves.
2. Increase in public investment in 64. With reference to the economy, what does

agricultural infrastructure. the term unicorn club refer to?

3. Reduction in regional disparities. (a) It refers to the startups with valuation
Select the correct answer using the code greater than $1 billion.
given below. (b) It refers to the companies with presence
(a) 1 and 2 only in multiple sectors of economy.
(b) 1 only (c) It refers to countries with a growth rate
(c) 2 and 3 only greater than 10 per cent in an year.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the above
12 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
65. Which of the following is/are the 68. With reference to the Foreign Trade Policy
characteristics of "Hard currency" i.e, 2015-20, consider the following statements:
currency of a strong geo-political country 1. It aims to increase India's exports to
with stable economy?
US$900 billion by 2019-20.
1. Low liquidity
2. It has launched Merchandise Export
2. Free convertibility
from India Scheme to incentivise
3. Full convertibility
Select the correct answer using the codes exports by giving duty concessions.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 3 only correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. Indian economy has a potential to achieve a
growth rate of 8-10 per cent. Which among
the following reforms are necessary to 69. Spending under Corporate Social
achieve this potential? Responsibility (CSR) in India is applicable to
1. Addressing the exit problem faced by which of the following?
the companies 1. A branch of a foreign company
2. Investment in health and education operating in India
sectors 2. A branch of an Indian company
3. Reforms in agricultural sector.
operating overseas
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Central public sector undertakings
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the codes
(b) 1 only given below.
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
67. Consider the following pairs: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Type of subsidy Stated purpose
under WTO
70. Which among the following is/are part of
1. Green Box : Production limiting
Public Debt incurred by the central
subsidies
2. Amber Box : Trade distorting government?
subsidies and need to be 1. Internal Debt
curbed 2. External Debt
3. Blue Box : Not specific subsidies 3. Public Account Liabilities
and are non-actionable Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the above is/are correctly given below.
matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
13 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
71. Which among the following statements 74. Which of the following steps have been
is/are correct about green bonds? taken up to promote renewable energy?
1. It is an equity instrument used to raise 1. Raising money through Infrastructure
Debt Funds to finance green projects
capital to fund green projects.
2. Inclusion of renewable energy in Priority
2. Private corporations cannot issue green
Sector lending
bonds. 3. Setting up of National clean energy fund
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

75. With reference to MUDRA (Micro Units

72. Which among the following schemes have Development and Refinance Agency) Bank,
been merged into Pradhan Mantri Krishi consider the following statements:
Sinchayee Yojana? 1. The funding to small entrepreneurs will
1. Accelerated Irrigation Benefit be disbursed through both banks and
non-banking financial institutions
Programme
(NBFCs).
2. Integrated Watershed Management 2. The bank will provide more than 50% of
Programme the loans to SC/ST entrepreneurs.
3. On Farm Water Management 3. MUDRA Bank is both financier and
Select the correct answer using the code regulator of Micro Finance Institutions
given below. (MFIs).
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
true?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
73. Which among the following correctly
defines the term viability gap funding? 76. Which among the following factors have led
to improved performance of Indian
(a) It is a grant focussed on improving the
economy despite the weak growth of global
skill set of the population to utilise the
economy recently?
demographic dividend. 1. Pursuing efforts to improve ease of
(b) It is a grant to help industrial projects to doing business
adopt environmental friendly 2. Liberalising foreign direct investment
technologies. 3. Improving financial inclusion
(c) It is a grant to support infrastructure Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
projects that are economically justified
(a) 1 and 2 only
but fall short of finances.
(b) 1 only
(d) It is a grant focussed on the upliftment (c) 2 and 3 only
of weaker sections of the society. (d) 1, 2 and 3
14 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
77. Which among the following steps can be 80. Which of the following can reduce the
taken to ensure sustainable use of water in deficit in Balance of Payments?
agricultural sector in India? 1. Reducing import custom duties
1. Reduced export of water intensive 2. Restrictive monetary policy
3. Appreciation of domestic currency
foodgrains
Select the correct answer using the code
2. Rationalisation of subsidies on power
given below.
for agriculture
(a) 1 and 3 only
3. Incentivize adoption of micro irrigation (b) 2 and 3 only
practices. (c) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 1 and 2 only
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only 81. Which of the following are part of World
(b) 1 only Bank Group of which India is also a
(c) 2 and 3 only member?
1. International Bank for Reconstruction
(d) 1, 2 and 3
and Development.
2. Multilateral Investment Guarantee
78. Which of the following is/are the
Agency.
components of Capital Account of Balance 3. International Development Association.
of Payments? 4. International Center for the Settlement
1. Foreign Direct Investment of Investment Disputes.
2. Foreign Institutional Investment Select the correct answer using the code
3. Deposits by NRIs given below.
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 and 3 only
given below. (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
82. Consider the following statements with
(d) 1, 2 and 3
reference to Regional Comprehensive
Economic Partnership (RCEP)?
79. Which of the following were the areas of 1. It is a proposed economic partnership
focus under New Economic Policy 1991? between the 10 ASEAN members and its
1. Balance of payment six FTA partners.
2. Inflation 2. India is not of a member of RCEP.
3. International competitiveness 3. It will cover trade in goods, services,
Select the correct answer using the code investment and intellectual property.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
15 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
83. With reference to Five Year Plans in India, 86. With reference to Special Economic Zones,
consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. During the first five-year plan, maximum 1. It refers to a specially demarcated
expenditure was done on agriculture territory with tax holidays and
exemptions from duties for export and
sector.
import.
2. The twelfth five-year plan aims at both
2. A major objective of setting up a SEZ is
inclusive and sustainable growth.
to attract Foreign Direct Investment and
Which of the statements given above is/are earn foreign exchange.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
84. Rainbow revolution is a term used for
initiatives taken to increase production in 87. Which of the following is correct regarding a
Micro nation?
which of the following?
(a) It is a small sovereign nation completely
1. Edible oils
existing inside another nation and
2. Foodgrains
recognized by WTO.
3. Fruits (b) It is small islands recognized as
Select the correct answer using the code sovereign entities by WTO.
given below. (c) It is a physical or virtual entity with its
(a) 1 and 2 only own rules of business, though
(b) 1 and 3 only not officially recognized as sovereign.
(c) 3 only (d) It is a Special Economic Zone with
(d) 1, 2 and 3 complete tax exemptions within a
nation.

85. With reference to Minimum Support Price

88. Which of the following is/are correct
(MSP), consider the following statements:
regarding Special Drawing Rights (SDR)?
1. It is a market intervention by the
1. SDR is a hard currency issued by
government to protect farmers against International Monetary Fund (IMF).
any sharp fall in prices of agricultural 2. Allocation of SDR is made to member
produce. countries in proportion of their quotas
2. It is fixed on the basis of in IMF.
recommendations of Cabinet 3. The value of SDR is based on a basket of
Committee on Economic Affairs. currencies of US dollar, euro, yen and
Which of the statements given above is/are reminibi only.
correct? Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
16 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
89. Udyog Aadhar Memorandum (UAM) is a 92. Which of the following are the
scheme for: consequences of the policy of

(a) promoting financial inclusion among protectionism?

1. More choice for domestic consumers
MSME employees.
2. Higher cost of domestic goods
(b) promoting ease of doing business for
3. Helps domestic industries to compete
MSMEs. against foreign players.
(c) providing access to collateral free loans 4. Reduction in forex reserves of the
for SC/ST owned MSMEs. nation.
(d) allocating Aadhar Number for MSME Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
employees.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
90. Which of the following is correct with
(c) 2 and 3 only
respect to the "convertibility of Indian
(d) 2 and 4 only
rupee"
(a) It is fully convertible on both capital and 93. Fall in the global prices of which of the
current account following goods could result into narrowing
(b) It is fully convertible on current account of trade deficit for India?
1. Gold
and partially on capital account
2. Crude oil
(c) It is partially convertible on both capital
3. Pulses
and current account
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) It is fully convertible on capital account given below.
and partially on current account (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
91. Consider the following statements regarding (c) 2 and 3 only

Service Sector Employment. (d) 1, 2 and 3

1. The share of services in global

94. Consider the following statements regarding
employment has decreased in the past
Public Distribution System in India:
decade. 1. The central government is responsible
2. The percentage contribution of India's for distribution of food grains.
service sector to its GDP is greater than 2. The State governments hold the
that of China. responsibility for storage of food grains.

Which of the statements given above is/are 3. It distributes subsidized food items only.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None
17 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
 95. In the context of Indian economy, which of 98. With reference to a socialist society,
the following constitute export of services? consider the following statements:
1. An Indian tourist visiting Mauritius. 1. The production of goods is based on the
2. Bharti Airtel setting up its operations in purchasing capacity of the people.
Africa. 2. The factors of production are owned by
3. An Indian IT company selling software both government and the private
to a Chinese firm. sector.
4. A Canadian national visiting India for 3. There is greater competition among
liver transplant. producers which results in increased
Select the correct answer using the code efficiency.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only correct?
(b) 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 only
(d) 2 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
96. Which of the following is/are the
recommendations of 14th finance 99. Which among the following correctly
commission? defines the term dependency ratio?
1. Increasing the share of states in the (a) It is the ratio of population dependent
central divisible tax pool on the agricultural sector.
2. Replacement of FRBM act with Debt (b) It is the ratio of children below the age
Ceiling and Fiscal Responsibility of 15 and older persons above 65 years
legislation. to the working age population.
3. Remove the distinction between special (c) It is the ratio of the population below
and general category states for tax the poverty line.
devolution purposes. (d) It is the number of persons unemployed
Select the correct answer using the codes per thousand persons.
given below.
(a) 1 only
100. Consider the following statements with
(b) 1 and 2 only
respect to Real Exchange Rate:
(c) 2 and 3 only
1. It is calculated by adjusting the nominal
(d) 1, 2 and 3
exchange rate with purchasing power
parity between the two countries.
97. Which of the following is the most likely 2. If the real exchange rate rises above
impact of an increase in interest rates of
one, it means that goods at home have
bonds in India, if there is no restriction on
become more expensive than goods
buying of bonds by foreigners?
abroad.
(a) It will result in an appreciation of the
Which of the statements given above is/are
rupee.
correct?
(b) It will result in a depreciation of the
(a) 1 only
rupee.
(b) 2 only
(c) Exchange rates will remain unchanged.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Rupee will depreciate initially and then
(d) Neither 1 nor 2v
appreciates.

Copyright by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or
by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of Vision IAS.

18 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

 VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2017 Test 2123

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
1. With reference to Securities Transaction 4. Which of the following is/are the advantages
Tax, consider the following statements: of a fully convertible rupee?
1. It is a financial transaction tax levied on 1. Increased liquidity in financial markets.
transactions done by Indians on foreign 2. Development of onshore rupee market.
stock exchanges. 3. Complete determination of currency
2. It is an indirect tax.
exchange rate by the RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Easy access to foreign capital.
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only
given below.
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 3 and 4 only

2. With reference to the Suryamitra Skill (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Development Programme, recently seen in
news, consider the following statements: 5. Which of the following factors affects the
1. It aims to create skilled manpower in size of the National Income?
operation and maintenance of solar 1. Level of technological development
power plants and equipment. 2. Capital
2. It has been launched by Ministry of Skill 3. Demographic composition
Development And Entrepreneurship. 4. Political stability
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

3. Which among the following is/are benefits

of financial inclusion? 6. Which of the following functions is/are
1. Reduction in cash economy performed by RBI?
2. Improvement in capital formation in 1. Protection of depositors' interest
country 2. Managing of foreign exchange.
3. Availability of adequate and transparent 3. Performs merchant banking function for
credit from formal banking channels the central and the state governments
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
7. India has recently joined the Hague Code of 10. Which of the following correctly describes
Conduct (HCOC), in this context consider the concept of Inflationary gap?
the following statements :
(a) It is the difference between current
1. It is a global initiative to prevent ballistic
levels of real and nominal GDP
missile proliferation.
(b) It is the difference between current level
2. It has been negotiated under the United
Nations framework. of real GDP and potential GDP when

3. It is legally binding on all the member economy experiences full employment.

countries. (c) It is the reduction in inflation caused due
Which of the statements given above is/are
to low consumption expenditure.
correct?
(d) It is the minimum amount of inflation
(a) 1 only
that is desired in economy to incentivise
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only production of goods and services.

(d) 1, 2 and 3

11. Which of the following operation has been

8. The recently launched, Mission Bhagiratha
conducted recently by India to evacuate its
by Telangana government, aims to:
citizens stranded from war-torn South
(a) provide safe drinking water to all.
Sudan?
(b) improve water recharge efficiency of
river catchment areas in the state. (a) Operation Sukoon

(c) make rain water harvesting compulsory (b) Operation Milap

for all households in the state. (c) Operation Raahat
(d) clean river Godavari and its tributaries.
(d) Operation Sankat Mochan

9. Which of the following is/are examples of

12. Which of the following measures can lead to
narrow money?
1. Currency decline in inflation?
2. Net demand deposits 1. Reduction in government expenditure
3. Saving deposits with Post office saving 2. Increase in direct taxes
banks
3. Reduction of indirect taxes
4. Net time deposits
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

3 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

13. Maintaining a Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) 16. Which of the following is/are covered under
is not mandatory for which of the following the TRIPS agreement?
banks in India? 1. Copyrights
1. Banks with capital base below a certain 2. Trademarks
limit prescribed by RBI 3. Geographical Indications
2. Banks that lend majority of their capital 4. Patents
to micro finance units Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
3. Banks that have sponsored self-help
(a) 2 and 3 only
groups to promote financial inclusion
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
and development
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) None
below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
17. With reference to Bank rate and Repo rate,
(b) 2 and 3 only consider the following statements:
(c) 1 only 1. While Bank rate is used for long term
(d) None lending by RBI to commercial banks,
Repo rate is used for short term.
14. Which of the following reports are published 2. While lending at Bank rate requires
by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) ? government securities as collateral Repo
1. Doing Business Report rate does not require Government
2. Global Competitive Index securities as collateral.
3. World Economic Outlook Which of the above statements is/are
4. Global Financial Stability Report correct?
Select the correct answer using code given (a) 1 only
below. (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
18. With reference to Sangai deer, consider the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
following statements:
1. It is found on the floating biomass of
15. Which of the following would be taxed
Keibul Lamjao National Park.
under Goods and Services Tax ? 2. It has been classified as vulnerable on
1. Alcohol IUCN Red list.
2. Electricity 3. It is given legal protection under
3. Tobacco Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection)
4. Betting and Gambling Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

4 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

19. CRISPR-Cas9 technique is often seen in 23. With reference to the Scorpene Submarine,
news in the context of: consider the following statements:
(a) Space technology
1. It is an indigenous submarine built
(b) Defense technology
(c) Cyber warfare by Defense Research and Development
(d) Gene editing Organization (DRDO).
2. It is run by nuclear fuel powered
20. Consider the following:
engines.
1. Product method
2. Expenditure method 3. It is India's first submarine capable of

3. Export-Import method carrying nuclear ballistic missiles.

4. Income method Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the above are the methods of
correct?
estimating national income of India?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None

21. Which of the following sets of figures can be

found in the Budget presented annually by 24. With reference to the Model Shops and
the Government of India? Establishments Bill,2016 brought by the
1. Actual figures for the preceding year
Union government, consider the following
2. Actual figures for the current year
statements:
3. Revised figures for the current year
4. Budget estimates for the following year 1. It will cover only shops and
Select the correct answer using the code establishments employing ten or more
given below.
workers except manufacturing units.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. It provides freedom to decide the
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only opening and closing time of the
(d) 1 and 3 only establishment.
3. It provides for women to work during
22. Government of India recently constituted a
night shifts.
high-level committee headed by Chief
Economic Adviser Arvind Subramanian to: Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) report upon Pricing of Credit. correct?
(b) tackle the shortage of pulses in India. (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) review the Fiscal Responsibility and
(b) 1 and 3 only
Budget Management (FRBM) Act of
2003. (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) rationalize the definitions of FII and (d) 1, 2 and 3
FDI.
5 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
25. Which of the following may be classified as 28. With reference to the Ujwal DISCOM
Pigouvian Tax? Assurance Yojana (UDAY), which of the
1. VAT following statements is not correct?
2. Education Cess (a) States shall take over the entire
DISCOM debt for next two years.
3. Krishi Kalayan Cess
(b) States performing as per operational
4. Coal Cess
milestones will be given additional
Select the correct answer using the code
funding through Deendayal Upadhyaya
given below.
Gram Jyoti Yojana.
(a) 4 only (c) Debt taken over by the States as per the
(b) 1 and 4 only scheme will not be included in the
(c) 2 and 3 only calculation of fiscal deficit of respective
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 States.
(d) It is not mandatory for the states to
26. Money supply in an economy can be participate in the scheme.
measured using
29. With reference to Index of eight core
1. Currency notes and coins
industries, consider the following
2. Demand deposits with commercial
statements:
banks
1. It constitutes 90% of the total weight in
3. Saving deposits with Post offices
the Index of Industrial Production.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. It is released by the Office of Economic
given below. Adviser in Department of Industrial
(a) 1 only Policy and Promotion.
(b) 1 and 2 only 3. Of all the eight core industries,
(c) 2 and 3 only electricity constitutes the maximum
(d) 1, 2 and 3 weightage in the IIP.
Which of the statements given above is/are

27. Which of the following is/are determined by correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
the quota of a member country at IMF?
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Financial resources a member is obliged
(c) 1 and 3 only
to provide to the IMF.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Voting power of the member country.
3. Amount of financing a member can 30. According to RBI, Banks are required to
obtain from the IMF. classify Special Mention Accounts (SMA)
Select the correct answer using the code for which of the following reasons?
given below. (a) Categorization for different sectors in
(a) 1 and 2 only Priority Sector Lending.
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) Capital norms as per Basel III norms.

(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Early recognition of stressed assets.

(d) None of the above
(d) 1, 2 and 3

6 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

31. Which of the following is the component of 34. With reference to Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority (IRDA) which of
Capital Account of Balance of Payments?
the following statements is not correct?
(a) Investments by Indian residents in shares (a) It has the powers to issue regulations
of foreign companies related to insurers to review their
workings for smooth functioning of
(b) Import of goods and services insurance sector.
(c) Investment income in the form of (b) It is a statutory body.
(c) It protects the interest of the
interest
policyholders for whom the insurers are
(d) Private remittances. issuing the policies.
(d) The Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority Fund under it is
32. India became the first country to make a financed through unused priority sector
contribution to which of the recently lending funds of commercial banks.

established fund by the United Nations

35. With reference to the term 'Internal and
(UN)? Extra Budgetary resources', consider the
following statements:
(a) United Nations Trust Fund for victims of
1. It constitutes the resources raised by the
sexual exploitation and abuse PSUs through profits, loans and equity.
(b) United Nations Population Fund 2. It includes external commercial
borrowings raised in addition to the
(c) United Nations Children's fund Gross Budgetary Support.
(d) United Nations development fund for Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
women
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
33. Which of the following policy instruments (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
are used by RBI to maintain reserve deposit

ratio in banks? 36. With reference to economy, what does

the Seigniorage, refer to?
1. Cash Reserve Ratio
(a) The delivery of financial services at
2. Statutory Liquidity Ratio affordable costs to disadvantaged and
low-income segments of society.
3. Bank Rate
(b) The economic cost of producing a
Select the correct answer using the code currency within a country.
given below. (c) The total value of all goods and services
produced over a specific time period in
(a) 1 only an economy.
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Actions taken by a country's central
bank to counter the effects on the
(c) 3 only
money supply caused by a balance of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 payments surplus.

7 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

37. With reference to the Money market 39. With reference to the Goods and Service Tax
Network (GSTN), consider the following
instruments in India, Consider the following
statements :
statements regarding Treasury Bills: 1. It is a not-for-profit company under the
1. They are issued at a price which is lower Companies Act, 2013.
2. Majority of its equity is held by non-
than their face value and repaid at par.
government financial institution.
2. They are issued to meet short-term 3. It provides IT infrastructure and services

requirement of funds of central to the central and state governments for

implementation of the Goods and
government. Services Tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 40. Consider the following statements regarding

Advertising Council of India:
1. It ensures that advertisements are
38. Consider the following statements regarding truthful and fair to the competitors.
Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D- 2. It works under the Ministry of
Information and Broadcasting.
SIBs):
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. These are banks whose failure would correct?
(a) 1 only
have an impact on the entire domestic
(b) 2 only
financial system. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Banks are designated as D-SIBs by the (d) Neither 1 and 2

Bank Board Bureau.

41. Which of the following correctly describes
3. Currently State Bank of India and ICICI the phenomenon referred to as 'crowding-
Bank Ltd are designated as D-SIBs. out'?
(a) Reduction in public sector spending
Which of the statements given above is/are
owing to rise in private sector spending.
correct? (b) Increase in public sector revenue owing
to growth in private sector.
(a) 1 only
(c) Reduction in private sector spending
(b) 1 and 2 only owing to rise in public sector spending.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Increase in private sector revenue owing
to increased public expenditure.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
8 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
42. Which of the following factors shows that 45. With reference to Green Masala Bonds,
GDP of a country cannot be taken as a true consider the following statements:
1. They are used to raise money from
index of the welfare of the people of the
overseas markets in any hard currency.
country? 2. Money raised from these bonds is used
1. Non-uniform distribution of GDP among for development of renewable energy
projects.
the people
3. They can be raised by both public and
2. Non-monetary exchanges private enterprises.
3. Positive Externalities Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
given below.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
46. Which among the following best describes
(d) 1, 2 and 3
the term 'Wholesale Banking'?
(a) Providing payment services and deposit
43. Which of the following organizations is products to small businesses and low-
income households only.
mandated to implement the Foreign
(b) Providing liquidity to commercial banks,
Exchange Management Act, 1999 and financial institutions and large
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002? corporates.
(a) Directorate of Enforcement (c) Providing banking services through
regional rural banks.
(b) Central Economic Intelligence Bureau
(d) Selling of non-performing assets to asset
(c) Financial Intelligence Unit - India reconstruction companies for improving
(d) Integrated Financial Unit the balance sheets.

47. With reference to the participatory notes (p-

44. Which of the following fall under the notes) in India, consider the following
unorganised sector employment? statements:
1. Agricultural labourers 1. The value of p-notes is determined on
the basis of shares bought on Indian
2. Self-employed who do work without
stock exchange.
hired workers 2. An Indian citizen residing in India is not
3. Construction workers allowed to invest in p-notes.
3. An entity investing in p-notes has to
Select the correct answer using the code
comply with Indian KYC norms.
given below. Which of the above statements is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
9 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
48. Maltitol, a derivative of Maltose, seen 51. Which of the following can be the effects of
recently in news, is used for: inflation?
(a) development of efficient solar cells 1. Debtors gain and creditors lose.
2. Equity holders earn more income.
(b) bone reconstruction
3. Reduction in exports.
(c) providing fire resistant properties to
4. Domestic currency depreciates.
paints
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) extraction of shale gas given below.
(a) 1 only
49. With reference to South Asian Wildlife (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Enforcement Network (SAWEN), consider (c) 2 and 4 only
the following statements: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

1. It aims to curb the illegal trade in

52. Consider the following statements with
wildlife.
respect to Basel III norms :
2. It works under the South Asian
1. It ensures that financial institutions have
Association for Regional Cooperation enough capital to ensure liquidity and
(SAARC). stability.
3. India is its member. 2. It requires banks to maintain high Tier I
Which of the statements given above is/are capital.
correct? 3. They are binding on all members of
WTO.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
50. With reference to stock variables and flow (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
variables, which of the following are
classified as flow variables? 53. White label atms, often seen in news, are:

1. Income (a) ATMs which are set up, owned and

operated by private non-bank
2. Profits
companies.
3. Bank Balance
(b) ATMs where hardware of the ATM
4. Equity Shareholdings
machine is owned by a service provider,
Select the correct answer using the code but cash management is provided by a
given below. sponsor bank.
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) ATMs which are set up, owned and
(b) 3 and 4 only operated by schedule commercial banks.

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) ATMS which are set up, owned and
operated by the local self-governments.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
10 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
54. Arrange the following in the increasing order 57. A farmer has four acres of land and he needs
of their weightage in Index of Industrial only two workers and himself to carry out
Production: various operations on his farm in a year, but
1. Capital Goods he employs five workers and his family

2. Intermediate Goods members such as his wife and children.

Which of the following correctly describes
3. Basic Goods
the above phenomenon?
Select the correct order using the code given
(a) Open unemployment
below.
(b) Disguised unemployment
(a) 1-2-3
(c) Seasonal unemployment
(b) 2-1-3 (d) Overemployment
(c) 3-1-2
(d) 3-2-1 58. Consider the following statements with
respect to Banks Board Bureau (BBB):
55. Priority sector lending by Banks constitute 1. It is mandated to recommend for
lending for: selection of heads of Public sector banks
1. Nuclear power plants and Financial Institutions.
2. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises 2. It is a component of Indradhanush Plan.
3. . It is headed by the RBI governor.
3. Education and health
Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Housing
correct?
5. Agriculture
(a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 1 and 3 only
given below.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 3 and 5 only 59. Consider the following statements with
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only respect to Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(LAF):
56. With reference to NABARD, consider the 1. It is a long term credit control measure
following statements: of the central bank.

1. It is a statutory body. 2. It infuses and absorbs excess liquidity

through Repo rate and Reverse repo rate.
2. It provides subsidized loans to farmers.
3. Monetary Policy Committee is mandated
3. It operates under the dual role of RBI
to decide on key rates to carry out
and Government of India.
Liquidity Adjustment in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
11 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
60. Which of the following statements is/are 63. Which of the following is/are examples of
correct about the Foreign Currency Non durable consumer goods?
Resident (FCNR) account? 1. Television sets
1. It is an account that can be maintained 2. Automobiles

by both NRIs as well as PIOs. 3. Food processing equipment

2. It can be maintained in both foreign and Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
Indian currency.
(a) 1 only
3. It can be opened as both savings as well
(b) 1 and 2 only
as fixed deposit accounts.
(c) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
64. Falcon 9, recently seen in news is a:
(b) 1 only
(a) rocket of SpaceX
(c) 3 only
(b) internet drone of Facebook
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) carbon monitoring satellite of ESA
(d) communication satellite of NASA
61. Which of the following is used by the
Reserve Bank of India to anchor its 65. Which of the following are the qualitative
monetary policy? methods used to ration credit by the Central
(a) CPI-Agricultural Labour Bank?
(b) CPI-Industrial Worker (a) Regulation of margin requirements
(c) WPI (b) Variable portfolio ceiling
(d) CPI (combined) (c) Moral suasion
(d) All of the above

62. Quantitative Easing involves which of the

66. A new bio ink that allows for 3D-printing
following?
was recently in news. With reference to the
1. Buying of government securities by the
bio-ink, consider the following statements.
Central Bank
1. It contains a natural polymer extracted
2. Short-term interest rates approaching
from seaweed.
near zero level
2. It allows for printing of complex living
3. Printing of new currency
tissues.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

12 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

67. Which of the following best describes 70. Which of the following constitute a part of
'bankruptcy'? double financial repression on Indian
(a) inability of a person or corporate to pay
banking system?
up his debt at the due date.
(b) when a firm is declared by an authority 1. Statutory Liquidity Ratio
as incapable of paying up its debt at any 2. Cash Reserve Ratio
time.
3. Priority Sector lending
(c) winding up of a corporation or
incorporated entity. 4. High Inflation
(d) a plan proposed by any authorized Select the correct answer using the code
person/entity for enabling the overdue given below.
payments.
(a) 1 and 3 only

68. Which among the following correctly (b) 2 and 4 only

describes the term Advance Pricing (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Agreement?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) It is a financial contract obligating the
buyer to purchase an asset or the seller
to sell an asset at a predetermined future 71. Consider the following statements about Fiat
date and price. Money:
(b) It is an agreement between a tax payer
1. It is currency declared as legal tender by
and tax authority determining the
methodology for pricing the tax payers the government.
international transactions for future 2. It is backed by a physical commodity.
years. 3. Demonetized currency is an example of
(c) It is an agreement for an infrastructure
fiat money.
project where the cost is completely
borne by the government and the Which of the statements given above is/are
engineering knowledge is from the correct?
private players.
(a) 1 only
(d) None of the above
(b) 2 and 3 only
69. Which among the following is/are the (c) 1 and 3 only
recommendations of Lodha Committee on (d) 1, 2 and 3
restructuring of BCCI?
1. No BCCI office-bearer can be a Minister
or a government servant. 72. Which of the following is obtained when
2. Legalization of betting. revenue expenditure resulting in the creation
3. BCCI to come under the purview of the
of capital assets is excluded from revenue
Right to Information (RTI) Act.
Select the correct answer using the code deficit?
given below. (a) Primary Deficit
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Budget Deficit
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Effective Revenue Deficit
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Fiscal Deficit

13 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

73. BGR-34, recently seen in news, is: 76. Consider the following statements regarding

(a) a global carbon monitoring satellite Value Added Tax (VAT):

1. It is a tax levied on value addition at
(b) an ayurvedic drug for diabetes
each stage of transaction in the
(c) an antibiotic resistant strain of bacteria
production-distribution chain.
(d) none of the above 2. It is not levied on imported goods.
3. It is a direct tax.
Which of the statements given above is/are
74. Which of the following best describes the
correct?
term 'bid rigging'?
(a) 1 only
(a) It is the loss of competitive bidding due (b) 1 and 2 only
to collusion among bidders. (c) 2 and 3 only

(b) It is the disclosure of a corporates' bid by (d) 1, 2 and 3

the relevant tender floating authority to

77. With reference to Marginal Cost of Lending
another competing firm.
Rate (MCLR), consider the following
(c) It is the failure to attract any bids for statements:
government tenders floated online. 1. It is the minimum interest rate for loans.
2. It is replaces the base rate system
(d) It is the setting of lower benchmark rates
3. It is determined by the RBI.
for initiating a bidding process.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
75. With reference to primary market ,Consider (a) 1 only

the following statements: (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only
1. Both the buying and the selling of
(d) 1, 2 and 3
securities can take place on the stock
exchange. 78. Consider the following statements with
2. Prices are determined by demand and respect to Pakke Tiger reserve :
1. It is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
supply for the security.
2. The Kameng river flows through it.
3. The primary market promotes capital
3. It has been conferred with India
formation. Biodiversity Award 2016 for its Hornbill
Which of the statements given above is/are Nest Adoption Programme.

correct? Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

14 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

79. Consider the following financial activities: 82. With reference to the budget receipts of the
1. Rise in price of Crude Oil government, consider the following
statements:
2. Defense expenditure
1. Revenue receipts do not create liabilities
3. Debt financing for the government.
4. Population growth 2. Interest receipts on account of loans by
the central government fall under the
Which of the above will cause an increase in
capital receipts
public expenditure by the government? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

83. India is not a member of which of the

80. Money in a modern economy acts as: following agencies of World Bank?
1. Medium of exchange (a) International Bank for Reconstruction
2. Unit of account and Development (IBRD).
(b) International Development Association
3. Store of value
(IDA).
4. Standard of deferred payment (c) International Finance Corporation
Select the correct answer using the code (IFC).
(d) International Centre for the Settlement
given below.
of Investment Disputes (ICSID).
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only 84. With reference to Market Stabilization
Scheme Bonds, consider the following
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
statements
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. They are special bonds issued by the
RBI on behalf of the government with
the objective of managing excess
81. The government of India is setting up Skill
liquidity.
Banks to: 2. They qualify for SLR requirements that
(a) facilitate refinancing of banks lending banks needs to maintain in the form of
under Skill India Mission. treasury bills and government bonds.
3. They are raised through an auction and
(b) provide skills to women in disturbed
are tradable in the secondary market.
areas. Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) provide skills to youth emigrating to correct?
(a) 1 only
other countries.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) train teachers for promoting (c) 1 and 3 only
entrepreneurship among children. (d) 1, 2 and 3

15 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

85. Which of the following is responsible for 88. Which of the following could be an effect of
giving a person purchasing power equal to Deficit Financing?
the value printed on the currency notes of 1. Increase in public debt
higher denomination? 2. Fall in price levels
(a) Parliament 3. Widening of income inequality
(b) President Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Reserve Bank of India given below.
(d) Finance Ministry (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only

86. Which of the following is/are part of the (c) 2 only

"Nairobi Package" adopted at the WTO's (d) 1, 2 and 3

Tenth Ministerial Conference?

89. For an economy, which of the following
1. Elimination of export subsidies on
statements is/are correct?
agricultural products by the developed
1. The Net Domestic product is always
countries
lower than Gross Domestic Product for
2. Prevention of evergreening of patents in
the same year.
the pharmaceutical sector
2. Gross National Product of an economy
3. Duty-free market access to the markets
can be either more or less than Gross
of the members of WTO eliminating
Domestic Product for the same year.
tariffs on selected IT products.
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

90. With reference to the National Green

87. Which of the following can be categorized Highway Mission, consider the following
as Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA)? statements:
1. Partial Scope Agreement 1. The mission aims to provide a green
2. Free Trade Agreement canopy along the national highways.
3. Economic Union 2. It will be funded through the Green
4. Customs Union Climate Fund.
Select the correct answer using the codes Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
16 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
91. Casualisation of workforce indicate rise in: 94. Which of the following fall under the Capital
1. Self employment Receipts component of the Government
2. Regular salaried employment Budget?
3. Rise in daily wagers and contract 1. Income from sale of treasury bills
labourers 2. Recoveries of loans granted by the
Central government
Select the correct answer using the code
3. Disinvestment
given below.
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only
given below.
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
92. Which of the following is/are a money
market instrument in India? 95. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Certificate of deposits Capital Markets:
2. Commercial bill 1. Investment in the capital market
3. Government securities necessarily requires a huge financial
Select the correct answer using the code outlay.
given below. 2. The main instruments traded in the
(a) 1 and 2 only capital market are short term debt
instruments.
(b) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
93. Which of the following pairs is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2
correctly matched? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Index Publishing agency
1. WPI : Office of Economic 96. Which of the following statements regarding
Advisor, Ministry of 'small finance banks' is/are correct?
Commerce and Industry 1. They are required to maintain both CRR
2. CPI-Rural : Labour Bureau and SLR.
2. They are not required to follow Priority
3. GDP : Central Statistical Sector Lending norms.
Deflator Office(CSO) 3. Foreign investments in these banks is

Select the correct answer using the code not permitted.

Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
17 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
97. Which of the following statements are 99. Which of the following countries were part
provisions of the Child Labour (Prohibition of Exercise Malabar 2016, a naval exercise,
and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016? along with India?
1. It allows employment of children in the 1. United States of America
family enterprises and entertainment 2. Japan
industry. 3. Australia
2. It has increased the number of hazardous Select the correct answer using the code
occupations. given below.
3. It aims to set up a Child and Adolescent (a) 1 and 2 only
Labour Rehabilitation Fund. (b) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the codes (c) 2 and 3 only
given below. (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only 100. A Buddhist monk from Tibet recently raised
(c) 2 only about $1,50,000 to fund the construction of a
(d) 1, 2 and 3 pagoda in Bangladesh for an Indian saint-
philosopher credited with popularising
98. Which of the following is /are correct with Buddhism in foreign lands. The saint is
respect to Payment banks? considered to be a key figure in the
1. They cannot accept term deposits. establishment of the Sarma schools of
2. They can provide forex services. Tibetan Buddhism.
3. They can provide both debit and credit Which among the following saints is being
cards. described in the above paragraph?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) Kapil
given below. (b) Atisa
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Sthulabhadra
(b) 2 only (d) Vallabhacharya
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Copyright by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in
any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of
Vision IAS.

18 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

 VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2017 Test 2124

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
1. Which of the following statements is/ are 4. With reference to the Insolvency and
correct with regard to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bankruptcy Code 2015, consider the
Bima Yojana? following statements:
1. It replaces the existing scheme of 1. It aims to set up Insolvency and
National Agricultural Insurance Scheme. Bankruptcy Board of India.

2. It does not cover horticulture and 2. It abolishes National Company Law

commercial crops. Tribunal (NCLT).

3. It provide post harvest coverage. 3. It covers insolvency resolution of

Select the correct answer using the code companies as well as individuals.
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below.
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

2. The International Research Conference on

5. Which of the following is/ are recent policy
Brucellosis was held in New Delhi recently.
initiatives taken by the Government of India
Brucellosis is a
to promote export of services?
(a) water-purification method
1. Services Exports from India Scheme
(b) disease affecting the cattle
2. Global Exhibitions on Services
(c) technique for oil and gas extraction
3. Services Conclaves
(d) bacteria causing tuberculosis (TB) in Select the correct answer using the code
human. given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
3. Which of the following Central Public (b) 2 only
Sector Enterprises (CPSE) have the status of (c) 1 and 2 only
'Maharatna'? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. National Thermal Power Corporation
(NTPC) 6. The Council of Scientific and Industrial
2. Bharat Petroleum Corporation (BPCL) Research (CSIR) recently came out with the
3. Airports Authority of India waterless chrome tanning technology. The
Select the correct answer using the code technology has its application
given below. (a) in leather processing industry
(a) 1 only (b) as a cosmetic to protect skin against
(b) 2 and 3 only harmful UV rays

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) in purification of stagnant water

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) in solid waste management

2 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

7. Which among the following is/are core 11. With reference to the Green Revolution and
infrastructure elements of a smart city? Second Green Revolution, consider the
1. efficient public transport following statements:
2. affordable housing
1. While the first one focussed only on
3. good governance
food crops; the latter includes whole
4. assured electricity supply
agricultural sector.
Select the correct answer using the code
2. While the former was confined mainly
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only to North-western India; the latter is
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only focussed on rain-fed eastern part of the
(c) 2 and 4 only country.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
8. The recently launched Saur Sujala Yojana,
(a) 1 only
aims to
(b) 2 only
(a) provide subsidies for development of
(c) Both 1 and 2
solar power plants.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) prepare the youth to become new
entrepreneurs in Solar Energy sector.
(c) replace streetlights on highways with 12. Consider the following statements regarding
solar powered streetlight. Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM) introduced
(d) distributing solar powered irrigation by government to revive PPP in highway
pumps to farmers at a subsidized price. construction:
1. It is a mix of engineering, procurement
9. With reference to defence, 'Mormugao',
and construction (EPC) and build-
recently seen in news, is:
operate-transfer (BOT) formats.
(a) an indigenously built warship
2. Under the model, government agencies
(b) an indegenously built diesel-electric
attack submarines will be responsible for revenue

(c) an intercontinental ballistic missile collection.

(d) a dedicated communication satellite for 3. The government and the private
armed forces companies will share the total project
cost in the ratio of 40:60 respectively.
10. Which of the following organisation recently
Which of the statements given above is/are
adopted the New Delhi Declaration on
correct?
Education?
(a) 1 only
(a) SAARC
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) BRICS
(c) BIMSTEC (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) SCO (d) 1, 2 and 3

3 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

13. Which of the following functions are 15. Consider the following statements:
1. Reinsurance is the process whereby
performed by the MUDRA Bank?
insurance cover is provided to the
1. Refinancing of scheduled banks which insurance companies.
finance micro enterprises. 2. Foreign players are not allowed to setup
reinsurance companies in India.
2. Encouraging women entrepreneurs. 3. General Insurance Corporation (GIC) of
3. Securitization of loan portfolio of banks. India is the only reinsurance company in
the public sector.
4. Accreditation of micro finance Which of the statements given above is/are
institutions. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 and 3 only
given below. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only 16. Arrange the following types of Agreements

(c) 2 and 3 only between the countries in ascending order of
economic integration:
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. Common Market
2. Economic Union
3. Custom Union
14. Which of the following statements is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct with regard to Gramin Bhandaran given below.
(a) 1-3-2
Yojana?
(b) 1-2-3
1. It aims for creation of storage capacity (c) 3-2-1
(d) 3-1-2
by using traditional underground storage

in the rural areas. 17. With reference to the recently approved

2. Subsidy of one third of the capital cost 'Indian Enterprise Development Service'
(IEDS), considers the following statements.
will be provided in north-eastern states, 1. It is under the aegis of Ministry of
hilly areas and to women farmers. Micro, small and medium Enterprises
(MSME).
3. The project will be implemented by the
2. This service would help to realize the
ministry of rural development. vision of Start-up India and Make in
India.
Select the correct answer using the code
3. It has been created as an All India
given below. Service created by an act of Parliament.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
4 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
18. The term 'Bad Bank', often seen in news, 21. The term 'teaser loans' refers to:
refers to a bank: (a) loans with lower rate of interest in the
(a) facing liquidity crisis as a result of bad initial period and higher in the later
loans. period.
(b) loans with higher rate of interest in the
(b) dedicated towards financing the needs of
initial period and lower in the later
badly performing sectors of the
period.
economy.
(c) loans with nominal rate of interest given
(c) that buys the bad loans from other banks to high net worth customers with zero
to free up their books for fresh lending. liability.
(d) that fails to meet its Cash Reserve Ratio (d) loans given to infrastructure sector with
(CRR) obligations. nominal 1% rate of interest.

19. 'Swiss Challenge Method', sometime seen in 22. Biofloc culture system was in news recently
in relation to fisheries, in this context
the news, is
'Biofloc' is a:
(a) a process of giving contracts to private
(a) protein-rich feed formed as a result of
companies.
conversion of unused feed and excreta.
(b) a method of imparting skill training to (b) new variety of genetically modified fish
youths. that can survive in toxic marine
(c) a method of social impact assessment. environment.
(d) a process of bringing behavioral changes (c) biomedicine to counter certain invasive
to make government programmes more species of fishes for protection of local
effective. habitat.
(d) bio fertilizer derived out of feed
residues, dead organisms, excreta and
20. With reference to e-tourist visa (e-TV)
skeleton of fishes.
facility launched by the Government of India
recently, consider the following statements: 23. With reference to Multilateral Investment
1. It enables visitors to apply and get Guarantee Agency, consider the following
approval for Indian Visa online without statements:
visiting the Indian mission. 1. It aims to promote foreign direct
2. It is valid only for short term duration investment into developing countries.
stay of 30 days from the date of arrival 2. It is a member of world bank group.
3. It issued first rupee denominated masala
in India.
bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

5 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

24. The Eastern dedicated freight corridor 27. With reference to the Model Agricultural
project of Indian Railways will connect Produce Marketing Committee (APMC) Act,
which of the following states?
consider the following statements:
(a) Punjab and Tripura
1. Under the act, it is compulsory for
(b) Punjab and West Bengal
farmers to sell their produce through
(c) Rajsthan and Kerala
(d) Gujarat and Assam existing markets administered by the

APMCs.
25. Which of the following statements best 2. It aims to promote contract farming.
explains the term Original Equipment 3. It provides for imposition of single point
Manufacturer (OEM), sometimes seen in
levy of market fee on the sale of notified
news?
agricultural commodities in any market
(a) It is a company whose products are used
as components in the products of another area.

company Which of the statements given above is/are

(b) It is a company that manufactures fully correct?
finished equipment. (a) 1 only
(c) It is a company that manufactures
(b) 1 and 2 only
indegenous defence equipment.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
(d) 1, 2 and 3

26. Consider the following statements regarding

recently launched Pradhan Mantri Awaas 28. The term Frankenfixation, recently seen in
Yojana (Gramin): news, refers to:
1. It aims to provide an environmentally
(a) a form of in vitro fertilisation in which
safe and secure pucca house to every
the child's mitochondrial DNA comes
rural household by 2022.
from a third person.
2. Complete cost of project will be borne
by the central government. (b) the process by which insectivorous
3. List of beneficiaries will be based upon plants derive their nutrients from
the Socio Economic Census 2011 data. trapping insects.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) the use of genetic modification to fix
correct?
carbon dioxide into the soil.
(a) 1 only
(d) the process by which nitrogen in the
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only Earth's atmosphere is converted into

(d) 1, 2 and 3 ammonia.

6 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

29. Which of the following is correct about 32. Consider the following statements regarding
Production Sharing Contracts in India? India's new Intellectual Property Rights
(a) It refers to an agreement between policy 2016:
government and contractor whereby 1. It suggests making Department of
Science & Technology as the nodal
government bears all exploration risks,
agency for all IPR issues.
production and development costs.
2. It is entirely in compliant with the
(b) It became widely adopted as part of the WTOs agreement on TRIPS.
New Exploration and Licensing Policy 3. It aims to remove Compulsory Licensing
(NELP) for enhanced exploration of oil clause from India's Patents Act.
and gas resources in the country. Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) It allows the contractor to recover his correct?
cost, before giving Government its (a) 1 and 2 only
share in the contractor's revenues. (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All the above statements are correct.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

30. Which of the following statements is/are

33. With reference to Companies Act 2013,
correct with respect to District Central Co- consider the following statements:
operative Banks (DCCB)? 1. It mandates setting up of a National
1. They operate as the apex bank for all Financial Reporting Authority.
cooperative societies in the district. 2. It introduced the concept of an
2. They are regulated by both RBI and independent director.
NABARD. 3. It introduced the concept of one-man
Select the correct answer using the code company.
Which of the statements given above is/are
given below.
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

31. Consider the following statements regarding 34. Which of the following countries/union are
Dispute settlement body of WTO: part of negotiations for Trans-Atlantic Trade
1. It has the power to authorize retaliation and Investment Partnership (TTIP)
Agreement?
with economic sanctions when a country
1. USA
does not comply with a ruling.
2. European Union
2. Its decision is final and no appeal is
3. South Africa
allowed against it. 4. Brazil
Which of the above statements is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

7 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

35. Which of the following are recent steps 38. Consider the following statements regarding
taken by the government for labour reforms National Skill Development Council
in India? (NSDC):
1. Shram Suvidha Portal 1. It provides funds to companies
2. Random Inspection Scheme and organisations that provide skill
training.
3. Universal Account Number
2. It is a not for profit, public-private
4. Revamped Rashtriya Swasthya Bima
partnership company.
Yojana
3. It works under the NITI AAYOG.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the above statements is/are
given below.
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) None

36. Consider the following statements about 39. 'Azolla a wonder fern for farming
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India community', was in news recently. In this
(TRAI): context, the potential uses of Azolla are:
1. Its objective is to regulate telecom 1. Green Manure
2. Mosquito repellent
services, including fixation and revision
3. Fodder
of tariffs for telecom services.
Select the correct answer using the code
2. It is vested with both adjudicatory and
given below.
regulatory powers.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. It works under the Department of
(b) 2 and 3 only
Telecommunication. (c) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 only 40. Recently launched web based application e-
(b) 1 and 2 only CHARAK is a platform:
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) for information exchange between
(d) 1 and 3 only various stakeholders in the medicinal
plants sector.
37. The average poverty gap in the population as (b) that serves as a virtual market place for
cottage industries.
a proportion of the poverty line is known as:
(c) to act as repository of technologies and
(a) Sen Index
market information related to cotton
(b) Poverty Gap Index
cultivation.
(c) Squared Poverty Gap
(d) that serves as a knowledge repository
(d) Inequality Index
for AYUSH doctors.

8 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

41. Consider the following statements with 44. Consider the following statements regarding
regard to Ultra Mega Power Projects power consumption in India:
(UMPP) in India: 1. Consumption of electricity in
1. All the envisaged and launched UMPPs agricultural sector is the highest
compared to other sectors.
are coal based power plants
2. All the thermal power stations in India
2. The use of super-critical technology
are running at full capacity.
provides for higher fuel efficiency and
3. Transmission and Distribution (T&D)
lower greenhouse gas emissions Losses in India are negligible when
3. Power Finance Corporation (PFC) is the compared to the power production.
Nodal implementing Agency for Which of the statement given above is/are
UMPPs. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) None of the above
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
45. Niryat Bandhu scheme helps in achieving
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the objectives of which of the following
existing schemes?
42. Which of the following countries is/are part 1. Skill India
of South Asia Sub-regional Economic 2. Smart cities
Cooperation (SASEC) programme? 3. National mission for clean Ganga
1. India Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
2. Pakistan
(a) 1 only
3. Bangladesh
(b) 1 and 2 only
4. Maldives
(c) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using code given
(d) 1 and 3 only
below.
(a) 1 and 4 only 46. Consider the following statements about
(b) 2 and 3 only Bharat Mala Project:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. Its primary objective is to develop port
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 infrastructure in India.
2. Successful completion of the project will
enhance connectivity to North-Eastern
43. The index for residential prices (RESIDEX)
states.
is published by which of the following
Which of the statements given above is/are
organisations?
correct?
(a) World Bank (a) 1 only
(b) United Nations Habitat (b) 2 only
(c) National Housing Bank (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Niti Aayog (d) Neither 1 nor 2

9 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

47. Which of the following statements 50. Doha round of WTO covers negotiations on
is not correct with regard to the recently which of the following?
announced Higher Education Financing 1. Agriculture
Agency (HEFA)? 2. Services
(a) It aims to fund projects for infrastructure 3. Non-Agricultural Market Access
in premier higher educational 4. Trade Facilitation
institutions in India. Select the correct answer using the code
(b) It is formed as an autonomous body given below.
under the Ministry of Human Resource
(a) 1 and 3 only
Development.
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) It aims to mobilise funds from market as
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
well as CSR funds from
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
PSUs/Corporates.
(d) The assistance by HEFA will be
51. Consider the following statements with
provided in the form of loans.
respect to pulse procurement in India:
48. Which among the following is/are the 1. Minimum Support Price (MSP) for
advantages of setting up Agri- export zones? pulses is provided by Food Corporation
1. Strengthening of backward linkages of India (FCI).
2. Value addition to basic agricultural 2. Pulse procurement process is financed
produce through Price stabilization fund.
3. Promote trade-related research and Which of the statements given above is/are
development correct?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below. (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 52. NEERDHUR, recently in news, is a:
(a) water conservation system
49. Which of the following functions is/are (b) micro-irrigation system
performed by the Food Safety and Standards
(c) multi-fuel domestic cooking stove
Authority of India (FSSAI)?
(d) hybrid water heater
1. Guidelines for accreditation of
certification bodies or Laboratories.
53. National Academic Depository, launched
2. Framing of regulations and standards in
recently by the Government of India is:
relation to articles of food.
(a) a system for Issuance, Hosting and
3. Provide training programmes for persons
who are involved in food businesses. Access of Digital Certificates.
Select the correct answer using the code (b) a platform for free online courses
given below. offered by top universities.
(a) 1 only (c) an online repository of research papers
(b) 1 and 2 only and articles.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) an online database of Professors and
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Lecturers.

10 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

54. Consider the following statements with 57. The Mission for Integrated Development of
regard to Central Issue Price (CIP) in India: Horticulture aims to:
1. It is the price at which central 1. Enhance horticulture production and
government issues food grains to state augment farmer's income.
governments and UTs. 2. Strengthen nutritional security.
2. It will be more than the economic cost of 3. Improve productivity by way of water
food grains incurred by the Central use efficiency through Micro Irrigation.
Government. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are given below.
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. Consider the following statements about
55. Which of the following are the correct Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban
reasons that support the need for phasing out Transformation (AMRUT):
of subsidies in agriculture? 1. It aims to develop 100 cities all over the
1. Subsidies reduce the competitiveness in country making them citizen friendly
market. and sustainable.
2. Subsidies encourage wasteful use of 2. It makes States equal partners in
energy. planning and implementation of the
3. Fertiliser subsidy has resulted in projects.
impaired micronutrients in the soil at 3. The Ministry of Housing and Urban
many places. Poverty Alleviation is the nodal agency
Select the correct answer using the code for the mission.
given below. Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
56. Which of the following is correct regarding
the Market Intervention Scheme? 59. Which of the following functions come
(a) It is a price support mechanism for under the purview of Department of
procurement of perishable and Investment and Policy Promotion (DIPP)?
horticultural commodities in the event 1. Issuing industrial licenses.
of a fall in market prices. 2. Formulating FDI policy.
(b) It is a protectionist tariff that the 3. Review and acceptance of copyright
government imposes on foreign imports applications.
to protect domestic sector. Select the correct answer using the code
(c) It is a protectionist mechanism of the given below:
government to prevent monopoly of (a) 1 and 3 only
MNCs in India. (b) 2 only
(d) It is a mechanism to avoid sudden (c) 1 and 2 only
crashing of domestic stock market. (d) 1, 2 and 3
11 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
60. Consider the following statements with 63. Consider the following statements:
regard to National Mission on Sustainable 1. FDI proposals of above Rs.5000 crore of
Agriculture (NMSA):
inflow is considered by the Foreign
1. It is one of the missions under National
Action Plan on Climate Change Investment Promotion Board.
(NAPCC). 2. Sectoral caps set by the government in
2. It aims to leverage resources from other various sectors apply to both direct and
missions like MGNREGS.
indirect foreign investments.
3. It aims to make agriculture more
sustainable by promoting location Which of the statements given above is/are
specific Integrated/Composite Farming correct?
Systems. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
64. The Baltic Dry Index, which is a prominent
61. Biotech-KISAN, a programme to improve economic index is linked to the
farmers lives through science, is an performanace which of the following
initiative of
sectors?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers
Welfare (a) Crude Oil
(b) Ministry of Science & Technology (b) Shipping
(c) Ministry of Rural development (c) Natural Gas
(d) NITI Aayog
(d) Waste Management

62. With reference to the Negotiable Warehouse

Receipts (NWRs) in the context of 65. Which of the following are the sub-missions
agricultural market, consider the following under the National Mission on Agricultural
statements:
Extension and Technology?
1. They are documents issued by
warehouses to depositors against the 1. Agriculture extension
commodities deposited in the 2. Seed and Planting Material
warehouses. 3. Agricultural mechanization
2. Farmers can seek loans from banks
4. Plant protection and plant quarantine
against NWRs issued by the registered
warehouses. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are given below.
correct? (a) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

12 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

66. The term "miracle seeds" is associated with 70. The National Policy on Electronics, 2012,
which of the following? aims to:
(a) Green Revolution 1. Develop Electronics sector through
(b) Aquaponics Electronic Manufacturing Clusters
(c) Permaculture Scheme.
(d) Bio-fortified crops
2. Give preference to the domestically
manufactured goods in government
67. Which among the following industries are
procurement.
reserved for the public sector in India?
3. Support start-ups in electronics sector.
1. Atomic energy
2. Rail transport for public Select the correct answer using the code
3. Aerospace and defence related given below.
electronics (a) 1 only
4. Industrial explosives. (b) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes (c) 2 and 3 only
given below: (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 71. With reference to Kisan Vikas Patra,
(c) 2 and 4 only consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. It is a saving scheme to which only
landless farmers can subscribe.
68. Bibhuti Lahkar was in news recently for?
2. It is issued by the Ministry of
(a) receiving IUCN Heritage hero award for
Agriculture.
conservation
(b) discovery of a new type of pluripotent Which of the statements given above is/are
stem cells correct?
(c) receiving Booker prize for literature (a) 1 only
(d) inventing indigenous cost effective (b) 2 only
photovoltaic cell (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
69. With reference to the World Intellectual
Property Organization (WIPO), consider the 72. Consider the following statements regarding
following statements: the policy of Import Substitution:
1. It is a specialized agency of the United
1. It aims at protecting domestic industries
Nations for promotion and protection of
from foreign competition.
intellectual property rights.
2. Quotas and tariffs are tools for import
2. It prescribe mandatory measures to be
substitution.
followed by its member countries
Which of the above statements given above Which of the statements given above is/are
is/are correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

13 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

73. With reference to Real Estate Investment 76. Consider the following statements:
Trusts (REITs) in India, consider the
1. The monitorable targets of development
following statements:
1. The funds raised through REITs will be were set for the first time during the
invested in income-generating real estate Tenth Five Year Plan.
assets.
2. 'Governance' was recognised as a factor
2. REITs units can be traded on stock
exchange. of development for the first time during
3. Foreign investments in REITs are the Twelfth Five Year Plan.
prohibited.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 and 2

74. With reference to the recently recognized
United Group in Rajya Sabha, consider the
following statements: 77. After the initial emphasis on hydro-electric
1. It is a consolidated block of MPs
source, the power generation in India was
belonging to smaller parties and
independent members. gradually shifted towards thermal power.
2. The group will have a representation in Which of the following are the reasons
Business Advisory Committee.
behind this?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 1. Thermal power is less polluting.
(a) 1 only
2. Hydroelectric projects need huge
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 investments.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Presence of large reserves of coal.

4. Lower gestation period of hydroelectric

75. Which of the following best describes
'deemed exports'? projects than of thermal power projects.
(a) Those transactions in which the goods Select the correct answer using the codes
supplied do not leave the country.
given below.
(b) Those transactions which take place in
the domestic currency of the importer. (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) Exporting of products which do not
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
require approval of regulatory
authorities. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) Exporting of products which are funded (d) 2 and 3 only
by an international funding agency.
14 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
78. Which of the following statements regarding 80. With reference to economy, what does the
term de minimis level refer to?
strategic disinvestment is/are correct?
(a) It is the minimum level of special
1. It refers to dilution of shareholding of a drawing rights (SDRs) that has to be
loss making Central Public Sector unit maintained by IMF memebers.
(b) It is the minimal amounts of domestic
only
support that are allowed even though
2. It involves transfer of management they distort trade.
control from government to private (c) It is the minimum level of capital
required for a foreign bank to operate in
sector
India.
3. It is overlooked by Department of (d) It is the minimum amount of trade
Investment and Public Asset required for a country to get status of
Most Favoured Nation (MFN)
Management
Select the correct answer using the codes 81. With reference to BharatNet, consider the
given above. following statements:
1. It aims to provide broadband
(a) 1 only connectivity to all Gram Panchayats in
(b) 1 and 2 only the country.
2. It is being implemented by Bharat
(c) 2 and 3 only
Broadband Network Limited.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. It is funded through the Universal
Service Obligation Fund.
Which of the statements given above is/are
79. During the 'License-Quota-Permit' regime
correct?
before the liberalisation, which of the (a) 1 only
following activities required licensing in (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
India?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Opening a new industry.
2. Opening more branches of an existing 82. Which of the following are the advantages of
Cheque Truncation System?
industry.
1. Reduction in the additional cost
3. Expanding the output of industry. of movement of physical cheques across
4. Producing new varieties of goods by an banks.
2. Faster clearing of cheques.
industry. 3. No geographical restrictions on
Select the correct answer using the codes jurisdiction of banks.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below.
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
15 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
83. Hangzhou consensus, recently seen in news 86. Consider the following statements regarding

in the context of G20, is related to: Anti-Dumping in International Trade:

1. It is a protectionist tariff that a domestic
(a) tackling international terrorism.
government imposes on foreign
(b) addressing climate change and its imports that it believes are priced below
effects. fair market value.

(c) safeguarding the rights of refugees and 2. Imposition of anti-dumping duties lead
to higher prices for domestic
migrants.
consumers.
(d) inclusive and innovation-led economic Which of the given statements is/are
growth. correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
84. 'ASPIRE', an initiative of the Government of
(c) Both 1 and 2
India, aims at:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) providing scholarship for higher

education 87. The term Green Box, Amber Box and Blue
Box of WTO deals with a member
(b) promoting agricultural exports
country's?
(c) promoting start-ups
1. Subsidies
(d) promoting Green industries 2. Intellectual Property Rights
3. Non Tariff Barriers
Select the correct answer using the codes
85. With reference to economy, the
given above.
term predatory pricing refers to:
(a) 1 only
(a) the pricing of goods or services at such a (b) 1 and 2 only
low level that other firms cannot (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
compete and are forced to leave the

market.
88. 'ARYA' scheme recently launched by the
(b) the pricing of goods at high levels by a Government of India is aimed at:
company exercising monopoly in the (a) capacity building of business

economy. correspondent in rural areas for financial

inclusion.
(c) the practice of subsidizing goods in the
(b) empowerment of youth in rural areas to
economy by the government reducing take up agriculture and allied services.
private sector participation. (c) facilitating a pan-India electronic trading

(d) the pricing of goods and services at high portal for small scale industries.
(d) providing a digital mobile mini lab to
levels during peak demand periods.
provide soil testing service.
16 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
89. Consider the following pairs: 91. Which of the following statements is/are
Committee Objective correct regarding the industrial policy during

1. Narayana : on corporate governance the period of pre-liberalization in India?

1. The industrial licensing policy
Murthy
discouraged establishment of industries
2. Nachiket : on Comprehensive
in backward regions.
Mor Financial Services for
2. The development of small scale
Small Businesses and
industries was encouraged with the aim
Low income households
of generating employment.
3. P. J. Nayak : to review the governance Select the correct answer using the code
of bank boards in India. given below.
Which of the following pairs given above (a) 1 only
is/are correctly matched? (b) 2 only

(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
92. Which of the following sites are covered
(d) 1, 2 and 3
under the National Mission on Piligrimage
Rejuvenation and Spritual Augmentation
90. Which of the following is/are the reasons
Drive (PRASAD)?
behind increasing emphasis on preserving 1. Ajmer
and improving the indigenous breed of cows 2. Amritsar
in India? 3. Patna
1. They are more productive than cross 4. Kedarnath

breeds in terms of milk production. Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
2. They are also important for organic
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
manure and are known for their
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
medicinal values.
(c) 3 and 4 only
3. They will be less affected by climate
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
change as they are more hardy and
robust. 93. Services of indian IT professional residing
Select the correct answer using the code and working abroad would fall under which
given below. mode of WTO's delivery of service?
(a) 1 only (a) Mode 1

(b) 1 and 2 only (b) Mode 2

(c) Mode 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Mode 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
17 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
94. "She was the first musician ever to be 97. WTO Agreement on Agriculture provisions
awarded the Bharat Ratna as well as the first and rules relate to:
Indian musician to receive the Ramon 1. Removing tariff and non-tariff barriers.
Magsaysay Award. To honour her legacy, 2. Subsidies provided for export of agri-
UN (United Nations) issued a stamp on her products.
100th birth centenary." 3. Price support to farmers .
Which of the following personalities is Select the correct answer using code given
described in the above passage? below.
(a) M.S. Subbulakshmi (a) 1 only
(b) Begum Akhtar
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Lata Mangeshkar
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Asha Bhosle
(d) 1, 2 and 3

95. Which of the following countries are part of

98. With reference to the National Capital
the recently flagged off Friendship Motor
Goods Policy, 2016, consider the following
Car Rally?
statements:
(a) Bangladesh-Bhutan-India-Nepal
1. This is the first ever policy for capital
(b) China-Pakistan-Russia
goods sector in the country.
(c) India-Myanmar-Thailand
2. It aims to make India a net exporter of
(d) China-Nepal-India
capital goods.
3. It aims to promote growth and capacity
96. With reference to Open Acreage Licensing
Policy (OALP), consider the following building of MSMEs.

statements: Which of the statements given above is/are

1. Under the policy a company cannot correct?

explore hydrocarbons without formal bid (a) 1 and 2 only
from the government. (b) 1 only
2. It aims to enable a faster survey and (c) 2 and 3 only
coverage of the available geographical (d) 1, 2 and 3
area which has potential for oil and gas
discovery. 99. Which of the following proposes to bring out
3. Successful implementation of OALP ease of living index that will rank cities
requires building of National Data globally?
Repository on geo-scientific data. (a) World Bank
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) World Economic Forum
correct? (c) United Nations Environmental
(a) 1 only Programme (UNEP)
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) United Nations Development
(c) 1 and 3 only Programme (UNDP)
(d) 1, 2 and 3
18 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
100. With reference to the National Investment
and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs), consider
the following statements:
1. It aims to increase the sectoral share of
manufacturing in GDP to 25% by 2022.
2. It will be declared as an industrial
township under Article 243 of the
constitution.
3. Andhra Pradesh is the first state to set
India's first national investment and
manufacturing zone.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Copyright by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in
any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of
Vision IAS.

19 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

 VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in

Test Booklet Series

TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (P) 2017 Test 2125

C
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TURN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. Do NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response with you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE
response for each item.

5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the
answers sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response 1/3rd of the allotted marks will be
deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test
Booklet.

9. Sheet for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
1. Which of the following benefits is/ are 4. Recently, Antonio Guterres, former Prime
provided for bank accounts opened under Minister of Portugal, was appointed as the
the Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana
ninth Secretary-General of the United
(PMJDY)?
1. Health insurance cover of Rs. 1 lac Nations. Which of the following statements

2. No requirement of minimum balance is/are correct regarding the post of Secretary-

3. Overdraft facility upto Rs. 5000/- for General of the United Nation?
one account per household
1. He is appointed by the UN General
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. Assembly upon the recommendation of

(a) 1 and 3 only the UN Security Council.

(b) 2 and 3 only
2. He is not eligible for reappointment for
(c) 2 only
the second term.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
2. Which of the following is/are part of Beti given below.
Bachao, Beti Padhao (BBBP) programme?
(a) 1 only
1. Displaying Gudda-Guddi boards in
(b) 2 only
every panchayat office.
2. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana (SSY) (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Janani Suraksha Yojana (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
5. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Gram
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only Sadak Yojana, which of the following
(c) 1 and 3 only statement is not correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) It aims to achieve complete rural

connectivity through all-weather roads

3. For producing a patented product or process
under the Compulsory Licensing, permission by 2019.
is required from (b) 50% of the Cess on High Speed Diesel
1. the government
(HSD) is earmarked for this
2. the patent holder
Select the correct answer using the code Programme.

given below. (c) Its works are executed by the State

(a) 1 only Agencies.
(b) 2 only
(d) It comes under Ministry of Road
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Transport and Highways.

2 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

6. Which of the following conventions have 8. The 'Pharma Jan Samadhan' Scheme

been ratified by India? launched by Ministry of Chemicals and

1. UN Convention on the Rights of the Fertilizers is:

Child (a) a scheme to incentivize private

2. The Convention on the Elimination of pharmaceutical companies to

all Forms of Discrimination Against manufacture drugs under Make in India

Women (CEDAW) programme.

3. UN Convention on the Rights of Persons (b) an effort to store drugs by the

with Disabilities (UNCRPD) government to provide for their

Select the correct answer using the code availability during natural calamities.

given below. (c) a web enabled system for redressal of

(a) 1 and 3 only consumers grievances relating to

(b) 2 and 3 only pricing and availability of medicines.

(c) 2 only (d) an effort to provide easy access of

(d) 1, 2 and 3 Fixed dose combinations of therapeutic

advantage to public through primary

7. With reference to the Prime Minister Krishi health centres.

Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY), consider the

following statements: 9. With regard to Pravasi Kaushal Vikas

1. It aims to improve on-farm water use Yojana, consider the following statements:

efficiency and increased availability of 1. The scheme aims for skill training of

water. Indian labour returning back from gulf

2. Integrated watershed management countries.

programme is subsumed under the 2. It will be jointly implemented by

scheme. the Ministry of External Affairs and the

3. Interlinking of Rivers is one of the key Ministry of Skill Development and

components of the scheme. Entrepreneurship.

Which of the statements given above Which of the statements given above is/are

is/are correct? correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

3 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

10. With reference to the International Bank for 12. Which of the following statements are
correct with regard to Housing for ALL
Reconstruction and Development (IBRD),
(Rural) scheme?
consider the following statements: 1. It aims to provide environmentally safe
and secure pucca house to rural
1. It was created to help rebuilding Europe
households.
after the World War II. 2. Only BPL population are eligible for the
scheme.
2. It is part of the World Bank Group.
3. The data on beneficiaries will be
3. It offers loans to both developed and validated through the Gram Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code
developing countries.
given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct? (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
13. Which of the following statements regarding
(c) 1 and 3 only 'Open Sky' Agreement are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The agreement allow unlimited flights
between the two signing countries.
2. India has signed open sky agreement
11. With reference to PISA- the Program for with all SAARC countries, except
Pakistan.
International Student Assessment, consider Select the correct answer using the code
the following statements: given below.
(a) 1 only
1. It is an international learning aptitude
(b) 2 only
test for 15-16 year old school students (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
across countries.

2. It is conducted by UNESCO. 14. Which of the following is/are the

components of Digital India programme?
3. It measures student performance in
1. To provide universal access to mobile
Arithmetic, Reading and Science connectivity.
2. To improve electronics manufacturing in
literacy
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. To provide for electronic Delivery of
Services.
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

4 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

15. With reference to Mission Indradhanush, 17. Which of the following statements is/are

consider the following statements: correct with regard to Pradhan Mantri Garib
Kalyan Yojana for declaring Undisclosed
1. It launched by ministry of Ministry of
income?
Women and Child Development.
1. Nearly 50% of the declared money will
2. Its objective is to immunize all children
be collected as tax and penalties.
under the age of two years and pregnant 2. Declarant have to deposit 25 per cent of
women. the declared amount as interest-free

3. The mission mode has been adopted to deposits for four years.

achieve target of full coverage by 2020. 3. The funds generated under the scheme
will be used for welfare schemes for the
Which of the statements given above is/are
poor.
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only
given below.
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

16. Which among the following interventions

18. Which of the following are protected by the
are being taken under the Rashtriya
prevention of Insults to National Honour
Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)? Act, 1971?
1. Appointment of additional teachers to (a) National Flag, National Emblem and the

reduce student to teacher ratio National Anthem.

(b) National Flag, National Song and the
2. Focus on Science, Math and English
National Anthem.
education
(c) National Flag and National Anthem.
3. Special enrolment drive for the weaker
(d) National Flag, National Anthem and
section Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code

given below. 19. Which of the following is the nodal ministry

(a) 1 only for Namami Gange Programme?

(a) Ministry for Water Resources
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) Ministry of Environment
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Ministry of Shipping

5 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

20. Consider the following functions is/are 23. Kagyupa, Sakyapa, Nyingmapa and
performed by Central Drugs Standard Gelugpa are the principle schools of which
Control Organization (CDSCO) of India? of the following religions?

1. Regulating import of Drugs (a) Jainism

(b) Buddhism
2. Approval of new drugs
(c) Bon
3. Approval of clinical trials
(d) Taoism
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
24. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1 only the three parent baby:
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. The three parent baby gets DNA comes
(c) 1 and 3 only from the father, mother and the female
(d) 1, 2 and 3 donor.
2. It is done through the mitochondrial
21. FASTag, recently in news, refers to a device replacement therapy (MRT).

for? 3. India has imposed a complete ban on

this technique.
(a) deep sea exploration of hydrocarbons
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) processing electronic waste
correct?
(c) state-wise monitoring of power
(a) 1 and 2 only
generation
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) toll collection on national highways
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
22. Consider the following statements regarding
Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK): 25. Which of the following statements are true
1. The programme aims at early detection regarding National Social Assistance
of defects, deficiency, diseases and Program?

disabilities. 1. It provides for old age pension coverage

2. It covers children in the age group of 0 - only.

2. It is a significant step towards
18 years.
fulfillment of Article 41 of constitution.
3. It is being implemented in both urban
3. It is being administered by the Ministry
and rural areas.
of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below.
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

6 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

26. Consider the following statements about 29. Recently the Ministry of Women and Child
Kishori Shakti Yojana: Development launched Mahila e-Haat, an
1. It aims to improve the nutritional, health online Marketing platform. In this regard
and development status of adolescent consider the following statements:
girls. 1. Its goal is to support 'Make in India'
2. It targets both school going and out of through online marketing platform.
school adolescent girls. 2. Through this portal, women
entrepreneurs can directly sell their
3. It is implemented as a component of
products to government agencies only.
Integrated Child Development Services
3. It is funded through Rashtriya Mahila
(ICDS).
Kosh.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

27. With reference to Mid-day Meal Scheme, 30. Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) aims
consider the following statements: to develop Adarsh Grams by adopting
1. It provides free lunches in both primary villages by MPs. Which of the following
and upper primary classes. MPs can adopt villages under the scheme?
2. It is covered under the National Food 1. MPs representing Union Territories
Security Act. 2. MPs elected from urban constituency
3. There is a provision of food security 3. Nominated MPs
Select the correct answer using the codes
allowance under the scheme.
given below.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None 31. Consider the following statements with
regard to Deen Dayal Antayodaya Yojana:
28. Consider the following statements regarding 1. It aims for providing wage employment
SWADHAR scheme: opportunities for BPL population.
1. It focuses on rendering education to 2. A part of the scheme is funded by World
women to enable their financial Bank.
independence. 3. Both National Rural Livelihood Mission
2. NGOs are the main implementing and National Urban Livelihood Mission
agencies. are subsumed under the scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 and 2

7 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

32. With reference to the National Scheduled 34. Which of the following services is/are
Castes Finance and Development provided by the Shram Suvidha portal which
Corporation (NSFDC), consider the aims at labour reforms?
following statements:
1. Allotment of unique labour
1. Its objective is to provide financial
identification number (LIN) to units.
assistance to persons belonging to
2. Filing of self-certified single online
scheduled castes living below Double
return by the establishments.
the Poverty Line limit.
2. It gives priority to women while 3. Online reporting of inspection report by

disbursing loans and also has separate inspecting officials.

loan schemes for women belonging to Select the correct answer using the code
scheduled caste. given below.
3. It works under the Ministry of Social
(a) 1 only
justice and Empowerment.
(b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 35. Shala Asmita Yojana (SAY), recently
(d) 1, 2 and 3 launched by Union Ministry of Human

Resource Development (MHRD) aims at

33. Consider the following statements with
(a) construction of toilet blocks for girls in
respect to digital payment regulations in
schools across the country .
India :
(b) tracking and monitoring of students from
1. Ratan Watal Committee had recently
Class I to Class XII in private and
recommended for establishing a separate
Payments Regulatory Board. government schools.

2. Currently digital payments are regulated (c) providing daily Iron and folic acid

by the RBI. supplementation to adolescent girls of

Which of the statements given above is/are secondary schools.
correct?
(d) providing age appropriate and culturally
(a) 1 only
relevant information to adolescents and
(b) 2 only
enable them to respond to real life
(c) Both 1 and 2
situations in responsible ways.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
36. With reference to the Protection of Children 38. With reference to the National Mission for
Empowerment of Women (NMEW),
from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act,
consider the following statements:
consider the following statements: 1. It is an umbrella mission with a mandate
1. It recognizes every person below the age to strengthen inter-sectoral convergence
regarding womens welfare
of sixteen years as a child.
programmes.
2. It has special provisions for the female 2. It aims to reserve 33% of seats in the
child and thus is not a gender-neutral Lok Sabha and all state legislative
assemblies for women.
act.
3. It establishes Poorna Shakti Kendras
3. The National Commission for the (PSK) as focal point of action to provide
services at grassroot level.
Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is
Which of the statements given above is/are
the designated authority to monitor its correct?
implementation. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 3 only
correct? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
39. With reference to Rurban Mission, consider
(b) 3 only the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. It aims to develop a cluster of Smart
Villages.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The Mission has Skill development as
one of its objectives.
37. Which of the following statements regarding 3. It will be implemented in all States and
Union Territories.
National Commission on Population (NCP)
Which of the statements given above is/are
is/are correct? correct?
1. It is mandated to monitor and give (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
directions for the implementation of the (c) 2 and 3 only
National Population Policy, 2000. (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. The Prime Minister Welfare is the

40. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is concerned
chairperson of NCP. with which of the following?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) Electrification of rural India.
(b) Providing rural women with smokeless
given below.
chulhas.
(a) 1 only (c) Scheme for Prevention of Trafficking,
(b) 2 only Rescue and Rehabilitation of Victims of
Sexual Exploitation.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Providing free LPG connections to
(d) Neither 1 and 2 women from BPL Households.

9 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

41. With reference to Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ), 44. The World Bank recently decided to raise its
consider the following statements: global poverty line from $1.25 per day (in
1. ESZs act as a buffer for further Purchasing Power Parity or PPP terms) to
protection around Protected Areas $1.90. The World Bank estimates global
(PAs). poverty line by taking the average of
2. ESZs are notified under the Environment
(a) the national poverty lines of 15 of the
(Protection) Act, 1986.
worlds poorest countries
3. Felling of trees is strictly prohibited in
(b) GNI(PPP) of all the countries
ESZs.
(c) the national poverty lines of all the
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? countries
(a) 1 only (d) the GNI(PPP) of 15 of the world's
(b) 1 and 2 only poorest countries
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 45. The primary objective of the Global
Initiative of Academic Networks (GIAN) is
42. UN Refugee Convention (1951) safeguards to:
the rights of people fleeing persecution due (a) develop a high speed digital library.
to which of the following reasons?
(b) develop a database of Indian teachers
1. Race
and research scholars across the world.
2. Religious beliefs
(c) develop a road-map for research to solve
3. War
major engineering and technology
4. Climate change
5. Variant Political ideology challenges.
Select the correct answer using the code (d) facilitate faculty from highly rated
given below. foreign institutions to deliver specialized
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only courses in India.
(b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 46. With regard to 'Padho Pardesh' scheme,
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 consider the following statements:
1. It aims to provide financial
43. With regard to Janani Shishu Suraksha assistance for Overseas Studies for the
Yojana, consider the following statements:
Students Belonging to the Minority
1. It provides for absolutely free and no
Communities only.
expense delivery to women in both rural
2. Under the scheme, the government
and urban areas.
would reimburse 100 per cent of the
2. It provides for free assistance by ASHA
workers for delivery at home. interest amount of the educational loan
3. It is implemented by Ministry of Women taken.
and Child development. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
10 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
47. Which of the following is/are the objectives 50. With reference to the 'Annual Status of
of 'Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana'? Education Report (ASER)', consider the
1. To create sustainable agricultural following statements:
livelihood opportunities for women in 1. It is released by the Ministry of Human
agriculture. Resource Development.
2. To ensure food and nutrition security at 2. It is a household survey.
the household and the community level. 3. It provides estimates of childrens
3. To improve the skills and capabilities of schooling status and their ability to read
simple text and do basic arithmetic.
women in agriculture to support farm
Which of the statements given above is/are
and non-farm-based activities.
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only
given below.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 51. With reference to Biomarkers, consider the
following statements:
48. With regard to 'Vittiya Saksharta Abhiyan', 1. It is an indicator of biological processes
consider the following statements: or physiological state of an organism.
1. Its purpose is to create awareness about 2. Body temperature and Blood
cashless modes of transactions. pressure are examples of Biomarker.
2. It actively engage students of Higher Which of the statements given above is/are
Education Institutions. correct?
3. It is implemented by Ministry of Finance (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 52. In context of The Juvenile Justice (Care and
Protection of Children) Act, 2015, consider
(d) 1, 2 and 3
the following statements:
1. It states that any person aged between 16
49. Which of the following is/are included in
to 18 years accused of heinous offence
social services expenditure by the union
may be tried under IPC.
government for budgeting purpose?
2. It empowers the High Court to decide
1. Sports
whether a juvenile should be considered
2. Water supply and sanitation as an adult.
3. Welfare of Scheduled Castes (SC) and 3. It establishes Juvenile Justice Boards
Scheduled Tribes (ST) (JJB) and Child Welfare Committees
4. Relief on account of natural calamities (CWC) in each district.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
11 www.visionias.in Vision IAS
53. Consider the following statements regarding 56. Which of the following schemes have
the recently launched Swasthya Raksha Sanitation as one of its components?
Program:
1. It primarily aims at increasing health 1. Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
insurance percentage in rural areas. 2. Sarva Shikha Abhiyan
2. It seeks to provide modern health care 3. Housing for All
facilities in villages.
3. It will be implemented in collaboration 4. AMRUT
with World Health Organization. Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above given below.
are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
54. Consider the following statements about
Gender Parity Index (GPI): 57. With reference to Jeevan Pramaan Scheme
1. It is the ratio of female to male
enrollment in primary, secondary and launched by Government of India, Consider
tertiary education. the following statements:
2. India has not achieved gender parity in 1. It is a biometric enabled digital service
either primary or secondary or higher
education. for pensioners.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Only pensioners of Central Government
correct? can take benefit of this facility.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is /are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only

55. Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) (b) 2 only

workers are a central feature of National (c) Both 1 and 2
Rural Health Mission (NRHM). Consider the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
following statements in this context:
1. ASHA must be a woman resident of a
village. 58. In which of the following judgments did the
2. ASHAs are selected by and are Supreme court provided for Third Gender
accountable to the gram panchayats
only. to Transgender in India?
3. ASHAs are given performance based (a) Shreya Singhal v/s Union of India case
incentives. (b) National Legal Service Authority
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? case v/s Union of India case
(a) 1 only (c) Naz foundation v/s Union of India case
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) Laxmi Narayan Tripathy v/s Union of
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 India

12 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

59. MGNREGA recently completed ten years of 61. With reference to Unnat Bharat Abhiyan,
implementation. In this context, which consider the following statements:
among the following statements is/are 1. It aims to support smart cities project
correct? and urban development.

1. It is a scheme under the Ministry of 2. It connects IITs and NITs with local
communities to address the development
Labour and Employment.
challenges.
2. It aims to provide wage employment to
Which of the statements given above is/are
every household whose adult members
correct?
volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
(a) 1 only
3. In this scheme, at least one third
(b) 2 only
beneficiaries have to be women. (c) Both 1 and 2
Select the correct answer using the code (d) Neither 1 nor 2
given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only 62. Government of India launched Setu
(b) 2 only Bharatam project to:
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) make all national highways free from
(d) 1, 2 and 3 railway level crossing to ensure road
safety.

60. Recently Cyclone Vardah struck the (b) make brigdes on rivers which are
flowing through border area.
southeast coast of India. Which of the
(c) connect all the National waterways
following statement(s)
either through railways or roadways.
is/are not correct regarding naming system
(d) protect and conserve Ram setu (Adam's
of cyclone?
Bridge) that connects India
1. As per the convention, cyclones are
and SriLanka.
given only the female names.
2. The name of recent cyclone Vardah, 63. Which of the following statements regarding
which means Red Rose, was given by Saakshar Bharat initiative is/are correct?
Pakistan. 1. Its primary objective is to impart
3. Names of these cyclones of Indian functional literacy to adults in the age
Ocean are retired after use, but those in group of 15 years and beyond.
the Atlantic and Pacific lists are reused 2. It is being implemented in rural areas of
every few years. all the districts across India.

Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

13 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

64. Which of the following is the objective of 67. 'NIKSHAY' an initiative taken by Ministry of
'Rashtriya Mahila Kosh'? Health and Family Welfare is web based
(a) Meeting credit needs of poor woman. application for monitoring and tracking
(b) Support NGOs ensuring safety of (a) malnutrition in children
women in India. (b) patients of AIDS
(c) Education for girl and women for social (c) dengue-affected areas
equality. (d) TB patients
(d) Providing infrastructure facilities for
primary health care centres. 68. Which of the following statements is correct
about National Commission for Safai
65. With reference to the recent surge in cyber Karamcharis (NCSK)?
crime cases in India, consider the following (a) It monitors and evaluate the
statements regarding the Cyber Security: implementation of the programmes
1. India is a signatory to the Budapest and schemes relating to the social and
Convention on cyber security. economic rehabilitation of safai
2. Ground Zero Summit is the largest karamcharis.
collaborative platform in Asia to address (b) It tenders advice for effective
emerging cyber security challenges. implementation of Prohibition of
3. Tallinn Manual is associated with Employment as Manual Scavengers
international guidelines on "cyber and their Rehabilitation Act to the
warfare", under the aegis of NATO Centre and State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Presently NCSK is working as a non-
correct? statutory body.
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) All of the above statements are
(b) 3 only correct.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 69. With reference to Soil Health Card Scheme,
consider the following Statements:
66. Which among the following are the 1. It is field-specific detailed report of soil
initiatives with respect to skill development fertility status .
for minorities in India? 2. It aims to provide farm insurance based
1. Nai Manzil on soil health.
2. USTTAD 3. Every soil health card will be renewed
3. Nai Roshni every year.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

14 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

70. Which of the following indicators are used 73. Which of the following is/are the
in measuring gender inequalities in the
components of Deen Dayal Upadhyaya
Gender Inequality Index (GII)?
1. Total Fertility Rate Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY)?
2. Female and male share of parliamentary 1. Strengthening of sub-transmission and
seats
distribution network
3. Female and male labour force
participation rate 2. Metering at all levels of input and
Select the correct answer using the code distribution
given below:
3. Feeder separation of agriculture
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only consumers from non-agriculture
(c) 2 and 3 only consumers
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
71. Which of the following statements is/ are given below.
correct with regard to Trojan asteroids?
(a) 3 only
1. Trojan asteroids constantly lead or
follow the companion planets in the (b) 1 and 2 only
same orbit, without colliding with it. (c) 2 and 3 only
2. The Earth has no Trojan asteroids.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only 74. The Hornbill festival, named in collective
(b) 2 only
respect to the bird to show the spirit of unity
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 in diversity, is celebrated in which of the

following states?
72. Consider the following statements about
procedure ascertaining Scheduled Tribe (ST) (a) Assam
status to an individual: (b) Manipur
1. If a person belonging to ST migrates
(c) Nagaland
from one state to another, he can claim
to belong to a ST, only in relation to the (d) Arunachal Pradesh
State to which he originally belonged.
2. If a person marries a person belonging to
75. Which among the following organizations
ST, he or she automatically becomes the
member of ST his or her spouse belongs brings out the Inclusive Development
to. Index?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) WEF
(a) 1 only (b) World Bank
(b) 2 only
(c) UNDP
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) IMF

15 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

76. Which of the following is/are objectives of 79. Consider the following statements regarding
Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan? ICDS (Integrated Child Development
1. Create and strengthen local self- Services) Scheme:
government in areas where Panchayats 1. It is included in the 'core of the core
do not exist. schemes'.
2. Enhance capacities and effectiveness of 2. It aims at providing overall health care
Panchayats and the Gram Sabhas. and formal education of the child.
3. Implementation of Panchayats Which of the statements given above is/are
(Extension to Scheduled Areas) or PESA correct?
act. (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using code given (b) 2 only
below. (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 80. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the merits of SDGs over MDGs:
1. MDGs focused primarily on the social
77. Which of the following statements is/are agenda while SDGs are broader in
correct with regard to Pradhan Mantri Khanij scope.
Kshetra Kalyan Yojana? 2. SDGs apply to all countries while
1. It aims to boost the exploration and MDGs targeted developing countries
production of minerals in mining areas. only.
2. It uses the funds generated by District Which of the statements given above is/are
Mineral Foundations (DMFs). correct?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below. (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 81. Consider the following statement regarding
HRIDAY:
78. With regard to Indira Gandhi Matritva 1. Its main objective is to preserve the
Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY), consider the heritage cities and facilitate inclusive
following statements: heritage linked urban development.
1. It targets both pregnant and lactating 2. Selection of sites for development would
women. be done in collaboration with UNESCO.
2. It provides for partial compensation for 3. Ministry of Urban Development is its
the wage loss to the beneficiary. nodal implementing agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

16 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

82. With reference to Gender Budgeting in 85. Recently, the Government of India
India, consider the following statements: constituted a committee under Justice BN
1. It is a process of keeping a gender Srikrishna with which of the following
perspective in formulation and objectives?
implementation of policy and (a) To oversee the conservation of Western
programmes. Ghats.
2. There is a mandate to have a gender
(b) To review institutionalization of
budgeting cell in all ministries to
Arbitration Mechanism in India.
institutionalize gender budgeting.
(c) To resolve the Cauvery water dispute.
3. The Ministry of Finance is the nodal
(d) To suggest reforms to the Good and
agency for gender budgeting in India.
Services Tax regime.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 86. With reference to Multidimensional Poverty

(b) 2 only Index (MPI) of UNDP, consider the

(c) 3 only following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The index identifies deprivations across
the same three dimensions as the Human
83. "This Bharat Ratna awardee was a lawyer, Development Index (HDI).
independence activist and a politician. He 2. It declares people suffering deprivations
was one of the founding members of in more than one third of the indicators
Swatantra Party and served as the last as multidimensionally poor.
Governor General of India". Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the following personalities is correct?
described by the above passage?
(a) 1 only
(a) K. M. Munshi
(b) 2 only
(b) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Minoo Masani
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) C. Rajagopalachari

87. A 45 year old man having saving bank

84. WIFEX, recently in news, is:
(a) a technology for wireless local area account in SBI is eligible for availing which

networking for devices based on the of the following schemes?

IEEE 802.11 standards. 1. PM Jeevan Jyoti Yojana
(b) an experiment to study fog life cycle 2. PM Suraksha Bima Yojana
during winters. 3. Atal Pension Yojana
(c) ISRO's commercial arm involved in Select the correct answer using the code
aerospace manufacturing and space given below.
transport services. (a) 1 only
(d) market in which participants are able to (b) 1 and 2 only
buy, sell, exchange and speculate on (c) 2 and 3 only
currencies. (d) 1, 2 and 3

17 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

88. Which of the following is /are correct with 91. Which of the following is the main objective
respect to recently convened Heart of Asia of Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan (RAA)?
conference? (a) To promote Research and Development
in higher educational institutions.
1. Its objective is to galvanize regional
(b) To inculcate love for science and
cooperation for peace, security and
mathematics among school children.
development in Afghanistan.
(c) To increase the number of women
2. It originated from the Istanbul
scientists in the country.
conference of 2011. (d) To promote scientific temper among all
Select the correct answer using the code people.
given below.
(a) 1 only 92. With reference to the SWAYAM
(b) 2 only programme, consider the following
statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. It is an online platform to provide
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
massive open online courses (MOOCs).
2. It has been developed by the Ministry of
89. Mare Imbrium, recently in news, is a/an:
Human Resource Development (MHRD)
(a) vast lava plain on the Moon Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) New airborne warning control system correct?
jointly developed by Brazil and India (a) 1 only
(c) region of icy bodies beyond the orbit of (b) 2 only
Neptune (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) vaccine against Ebola

93. Consider the following statements with

90. Consider the following statements regarding
respect to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas
Pradhan Mantri Sukanya Samridhi Yojana
Yojana (PMKVY):
(PMSSY): 1. Skill training would be done based on
1. Only girls of age 10 years or below are the National Skill Qualification
eligible to join the scheme. Framework.
2. Bank account under the scheme can be 2. A monetary reward will be given to
opened jointly by girls parents or legal trainees on assessment and certification
by third party assessment bodies.
guardians only.
3. It will be implemented by the National
3. NRIs can participate in the scheme.
Skill Development Corporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only (b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3

18 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

94. With reference to the Rights of Persons with 96. With reference to the recently approved
Disability Bill, 2016, consider the following 'Road Connectivity Project for Left Wing
statements: Extremism (LWE) Affected Areas', consider
1. It has added acid attack victims to the the following statements:
list of disabilities. 1. It aims to develop all weather roads
2. It has increased the reservation in operable throughout the year in rural
vacancies in government establishments areas of LWE districts.
for persons with disability. 2. It will be implemented under Pradhan
3. It confers Right to Education to every Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY).
child with disability between the age 3. Ministry of Rural Development will be

group of 6 and 18 years. the implementing agency of the project.

Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are

correct? correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

97. Who among the following is/are provided

95. With reference to recently formed District
training under the National Digital Literacy
Development Coordination and Monitoring
Mission?
Committee (Disha), consider the following
1. Anganwadi workers
statements:
2. ASHA workers
1. The committees would monitor the
3. Authorised ration dealers
implementation of schemes and
Select the correct answer using the code
programmes of the Central government.
given below.
2. The Chairperson of the
(a) 1 only
committee should be a Member of
(b) 1 and 2 only
Parliament (Lok Sabha) elected from the
(c) 2 and 3 only
district.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. All the members of the State Legislative
Assembly elected from the district
98. 'GARV' is a mobile application launched by
would be members of the committee.
the Government of India to monitor progress
Which of the statements given above is/are
in which of the following areas?
correct?
(a) sanitation and building of toilets
(a) 1 only
(b) combating manual scavenging
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) rural electrification
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) skill development of women
(d) 1, 2 and 3 entrepreneurs

19 www.visionias.in Vision IAS

99. Carbapenems, recently in news, is a/an
(a) type of carbon nanotube used in
superconductivity.
(b) fire retardant paint developed by
DRDO.
(c) antibiotic against Multi-Drug Resistant
bacteria.
(d) veterinary drug that can be used as
alternative to Diclofenac.

100. Which of the following is /are the objectives

of the National Rail Plan (NRP) 2030?
1. To integrate the rail network with other
modes of transport.
2. To draw out a plan for Trans-Asian Rail
network.
3. To meet the strategic requirement along
international border.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Copyright by Vision IAS

All rights are reserved. No part of this document may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any
form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without prior permission of Vision
IAS.

20 www.visionias.in Vision IAS