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Physics MCQ XI Complete Book Final

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PROFESSORS ACADEMY

BISMILLAH NURSERY SCHOOL KCP COLONY


Zahid Iftikhar Ahmad Assist. Professor (Physics)

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Chapter No 1 (Measurements)

Q.1 Pick the right choice.

1. Computer networks are the outcomes of chips which are made of -------
a) electricity b) plastics c) sand d) silicon
2. Intensity of light is measurement in candela which are represented by symbol------
a) Ca b) Cd c) cd d) Cn
3. Internationally accepted convention for scientific notations is that there should ---- non-zero
digit/digits before the decimal point.
a) one b) two c) three d) no
2
4. 2.5 cm = --------------
a) 2.510-4m2 b) 6.2510-4m2 c) 2.510 4m2 d) 2.5 m2
5. Fractional uncertainty in 25.50.1cm= -------
a) 0.1cm b) 0.004 c) 0.4% d) 0.004cm
6. An ideal standard for measurement must have these -------- characteristics.
a) accessible b) invariable c) both (a)&(b) d) none of these
7. In addition and subtraction of measurements, the final uncertainty is found by a) adding fractional
uncertainties b) adding absolute uncertainties c) adding uncertainties d) adding
percentage uncertainties
8. The dimension [ 1 2 ] stands for
a) Stress b) strain c) force d) energy

9. By using dimensions what is equal to?
a) Pressure b) Tension c) Force d) speed
10. Number of minutes are there in a light year are.
a) 3.1536107s b) 3.1536107 minutes c) 5.256105minutes d) infinite
11. If F= 6,

a) kgm-1s b) Nms-1 c) kgm-1s-1 d) kg-1m-1s-1


13. The SI unit of solid angle is
a) degree b. radian c. revolution d. steradian
-15
14. The factor 10 is represented by the prefix-----.
a) femto b. ato c. peta d. exa
15. A systematic error may occur due to -------- of the instrument.
a) zero error b. poor calibration c. incorrect marking d. all of these
16. By convention, if end of a line does not touch or cross the midpoint of the smallest division , the
reading is confined to the --------.
a) mid-point b. next division. c. previous division d. It is ignored.
17. Accuracy in the value of a measured quantity can be indicated conveniently by using--
a) absolute uncertainty b. fractional uncertainty c. significant figures d. all of these
18. The system international (SI) is built up from--------- kinds of units.
a) one b. two c. three d. many
19. Candela is the ----- unit of physical quantity known as --------
a) base, velocity of light b. derived, intensity of light c. base, intensity of light d. derived ,
velocity of light
20. The Big Bang started off expanding universe nearly-------- years ago.
a) 20 million b.10 million c. 20 billion d. 20 trillion
21. The uncertainty in r= 2.25 0.01 cm is equal to
a. 0.01 b. 0.4 c. 0.4% d. 0.005
22. If x1= 2.30.3 mm , x2= 7.8 0.1mm, then uncertainty in x1+x2 is equal to --
a) 0.3 b 0.1 c. 0.4 d. 0.2
23. ------------ physics deals with velocities approaching that of light.
a) nuclear b) relativistic c) solid state d) optical
24. The laws of physics are represented in terms of ----------
a) numbers b) units c) formulas d) physical quantities
25. In--------- an international committee agreed on set of definitions and standards to describe the
physical quantities.
a) 1960 b) 1980 c) 1990 d) 2000
26. Which one is the correct form of scientific notation?
a) 23.2102m b) 0.232104m c) 2.32103m d) 2320 m
27. According to conventions for writing units which one is the correct relation?
a) 4mm3=410-3m3 b) 4mm3=410-9m3 c) 4mm3=410-6m3 d) 4mm3=6410-9m3
28. 64.350, when round off to three significant figures becomes as
a) 64.4 b) 64.3 c) 64.35 d) 64
29. Absolute uncertainty in a measurement is equal to ----------------.
a) least count of the device b) twice the uncertainty c) both (a)&(b) d) none of these
30. A precise instrument is one which has---------
a) less absolute uncertainty b) greater absolute uncertainty c) less % age uncertainty
d) greater %age uncertainty
31. A precise measurement is one which has -----------uncertainty.
a) less fractional b. less percentage c. less absolute d. more absolute
-12
32. The factor 10 is represented by the prefix-----.
a) femto b. ato c. peta d. pico
33. Absolute uncertainty is also indicated by --------
a) least count b. significant figures c. accuracy d. all of these
34. In addition and subtraction of measurements,the final uncertainty is always
a) smaller b. greater c. unaffected d. It is ignored.
35. The measurement of a physical quantity depends on -------
a) choice of standard b. establishment of a procedure c. system of units d. (a)&(b)
36. The systematic error is caused by---------
a) faulty apparatus b) inappropriate method c) imperfection of senses of experimenter d)all
37. By convention if end of a line does not touch or cross the midpoint of the smallest division, the
reading is confined to --------.
a) next division b) previous division c) midpoint d) nearest point
38. A correction factor is needed to adjust this kind of error.
a) personal b) random c) systematic d) all of these
39. The SI unit of solid angle is
a) degree b. radian c. revolution d. steradian
-15
40. The factor 10 is represented by the prefix-----.
a) femto b. ato c. peta d. exa
41. A systematic error may occur due to -------- of the instrument.
a) zero error b. poor calibration c. incorrect marking d. all of these
42. By convention, if end of a line does not touch or cross the midpoint of the smallest division , the
reading is confined to the --------.
a) mid-point b. next division. c. previous division d. It is ignored.
43. Accuracy in the value of a measured quantity can be indicated conveniently by using----
a) absolute uncertainty b. fractional uncertainty c. significant figures d. all of these
44. The system international (SI) is built up from--------- kinds of units.
a) one b. two c. three d. many
45. Candela is the ----- unit of physical quantity known as --------
a) base, velocity of light b. derived, intensity of light c. base, intensity of light d. derived ,
velocity of light
46. The Big Bang started off expanding universe nearly-------- years ago.
a) 20 million b.10 million c. 20 billion d. 20 trillion
47. The percentage uncertainty in r= 2.25 0.01 cm is equal to
a. 0.01 b. 0.4 c. 0.4% d. 0.01%
48. The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity are -----------
a) [1 1 1 ] b. [ 1 1 ] c. [1 1 ] d. [1 1 ]
Chapter No 2 (Vectors and Torque)
1. In books magnitude of a vector is represented by --- letters.
a) English b) English Capital c) bold face d) light face
2. The direction of vector in space is specified by----- .
a) three angles b) small angles c) three lines d) unit vectors.
3. The sum of a vector and its negative vector is ---- vector.
i. a) another b) null c) equal d) unit
4. The location of a position vector is always taken with respect to ----
a) given point b) x-axis c) origin d) xy plane

5. The magnitude of cross product of two vectors is equal to area of --- formed by the two vectors.
a) triangle b) square c) parallelogram d) rectangle
6.
. = ------
a) b) c) d) 1

7. Increasing the length of handle of a spanner will result in the ----- turning effect of the force.
a) same b) greater c) smaller d) zero
8. When line of action of the force passes thru the pivot point then following is true.
a) torque is produced b) moment arm is zero c) Force is zero d) none of these

9. Torque in rotational motion is counterpart of --------- in the linear motion.


a) rotational effect b) turning c) force d) inertia

10. By convention counterclockwise torques are taken as------


a) upward b) downward c) positive d) negative
11. A better choice for selection of point of rotation in a problem of equilibrium of forces is ----.
a) centre of gravity b) point of application of maximum force c) point of
application of unknown force d) any of these
12. Graphically a vector is represented according to a chosen scale which represents
a. direction b. magnitude c. both magnitude and direction d. more
absolute
13. Two mutually perpendicular line on a plane make a coordinate system which is known as
a. Cartesian coordinate system b. rectangular coordinate system c. both (a) and (b)
d. none
14. The direction of a vector in space is specified by -----
a. one angle b. two angles c. three angles d. four angles
15. Subtraction of vector B from vector A, we use the following mathematical relation
a. A-B=A+B b. A-B=A+(-B) c. A-B=A-(+B) d. A+B=A-B
16. When a vector is multiplied by a negative number, its magnitude is------- but direction -----.
a. same,changes b. changed, is same c. multiplied, reversed d. unchanged, is
unchaged
17. Mathematically a unit vector is written as

a. = b) = c) = d) =


18. The SI-unit of torque is
a. Nm2 b. Nm c. Nm-1 d. Nm-2
19. On reversing the direction of force, the magnitude of torque on a body--------.
a. changes b. does not change but direction reverses c. both magnitude and direction
change d. magnitude changes but direction remains the same.
20. To verify second condition of equilibrium, the axis of rotation of body
a. is fixed b. may be taken anywhere c. is perpendicular d. = 0
21. For complete equilibrium , --------- condition/conditions of equilibrium is/are satisfied.
a. 1st b. 2nd c. both 1st and 2nd d. 1st ,2nd and 3rd
22. Co-planer forces are necessary for applying 2nd condition of equilibrium.
a. true b. false c. true for some cases d. false in some cases.
23. By convention, right ward forces, acting on a body in equilibrium, are taken as -----
a. zero b) vertical c) positive d) negative
24. The direction of a vector in plane is required to be represented by ----------- angle/angles.
a. one b. two c. three d. no angle is required
25. If a vector =2+3-4, then its magnitude is equal to
a. 1 b. 29 c. 3 d. any of these
26. Null vector is vector of zero magnitude and --------- direction.
a. zero b. no c. arbitrary d. any of these
27. The magnitude of is equal to
a.
b. c. 1 d. all of these.
28. The-------- of vector obeys commutative property but --------- of vector does not.
a. addition, subtraction b. subtraction, addition c. multiplication, addition
d. subtraction, multiplication
29. Composition of vectors is reciprocal of ----------- of vectors.
a. addition b. subtraction c. multiplication d. any of these
30. If a vector lies in the fourth quadrant, its direction is given by-------
a) b. 1800- c. 1800+ d. 3600-
31. If =2+3-4, then its component along x-axis is
a. 2 b.3 c. -4 d. 29
32. When a vector is multiplied by -1, its direction--------.
a. changes b. does not change c. reverses d. changes by 900
33. Two forces of magnitude 10N and 8N are applied simultaneously on a body. The maximum
value of their resultant is
a. between 10N and 8N b between 2N and 18N c. 18N d. 2N
34. For physical interpretation of ------ of two vectors, they are brought to a common origin.
a. dot product b. cross product c. both dot and cross products
d. none of these
35. This/these have commutative property.
a. dot product b. cross product c. both dot and cross products
d. none of these
36. If vectors are mutually perpendicular, then -------------- is equal to zero.
a. dot product b. cross product c. both dot and cross products
d. none of these
37. . =-----------

a. . b. . . c. 1 d. all of these.
38. =
a. b. - c. null vector d. zero
39. The magnitude of cross product of and is equal to area of --------- formed with A and B as
two adjacent sidees.
a. square b. triangle c. parallelogram d. polygon
40. Torque is counterpart of ------------- in rotational motion.
a) moment arm b) force c) both force and moment arm d) rotation
41. For complete equilibrium of a body-----------of equilibrium is/are necessary to be satisfied.
a. 1st condition b.2nd condition c. both 1st and 2nd d.

42. When ------------- condition of equilibrium is/are satisfied, there is no linear acceleration.
a. 1st condition b.2nd condition c. both 1st and 2nd d.

43. By convention, ----------- torque is taken as negative.
a. clockwise b anticlockwise c. upward d. downward

Chapter No 3 (Force and Motion)


1. Newton Laws are ----------- laws deduced from experiments.
a) Physics b) Natural c) useful d) empirical
2. For a movinpg body with uniform acceleration, its -------- is equal to instantaneous
acceleration. a) instantaneous velocity b) average velocity c) average acceleration
d) instantaneous force
3. The area between the velocity-time graph and the --------- axis is numerically equal to the
distance covered by the object.
a. a) x-axis b) y-axis c) force d) time

4. ------- is defined as the limiting value of as time interval , following the time t approaches
zero. a) average velocity b) instantaneous velocity c) uniform velocity d) zero velocity
5. The ---- of an isolated system remains constant.
a) linear momentum b) force c) velocity d) inertia
6. v1-v2 is the velocity of ----- ball relative to the -------- a) first, second b) second, first
c) one, other d) all of these
7. A rocket moves with constant ------.
a) velocity b) direction c) acceleration d) none of these
8. In thrill machine rides at amusement park, the acceleration can be ------ g.
a) more than b) less than c) equal to d) more than three times

9. For an angle less than 450, the --------reached by a projectile will be less.
a) height b) range c) both height and range d) height is more but range

10. A projectile has minimum speed at -----------.


a) launching point b) landing point c) maximum height d) all the points
11. The velocity-time graph provides-------------.
a) acceleration b) distance covered c) both (a)&(b) d) none of these
12. The equation of motion are valid if -------------.
a) velocity is uniform b) velocity is variable c) acceleration is uniform d) acceleration is
variable
13. In an inelastic collision, ------------ is/are conserved.
a) KE b) PE c) momentum d) all of these
14. Rate of change of momentum is equal to ---------------.
a) velocity b) force c) acceleration d) impulse
15. For a projectile, this component of velocity is always constant.
a) initial velocity b) final velocity c) horizontal velocity d) vertical velocity
16. If a rifle has greater mass, it will have -------------- recoil velocity.
a) same b) greater c) smaller d) no
17. Everything in the universe is in the state of
a. rest b. motion c. perpetual motion d. perpetual rest
18. The direction of velocity is along the direction of
a. displacement b. distance c. acceleration d. applied force
19. When a body moves with increasing acceleration, its velocity-time graph is a
a. straight line b. horizontal st. line c. curved d. cant be decided
20. Newton laws are empirical laws ,deduced from
a. theories b. observations c. experiments d. all of these
21. The quantity of motion in a body is called-----
a. state of motion b. movement c. momentum d. perpetual motion
22. A rocket moves with ------ acceleration.
a. constant b) increasing c) decreasing d) sometimes ve or +ve
23. Motion of a projectile is---------- dimensional motion.
a. one b. two c. three d. any of these
24. The trajectory(path) of a projectile is
a. a parabola b. semi-circle c. circle d. curved
25. A ball is thrown with a speed of 30ms in a direction 300 with the ground. Its vertical height is
-1

a. 115m b. 11.5m c. 3.1m d. 80m


26. A ballistic missile moves under the result of superposition of --------- motion.
a. one independent b. two independent c. one dependent d. two dependent
27. The relation between horizontal range and max. horizontal range is
a. R=Rmax sin b. R=Rmax sin2 c. R=Rmax sin2 d. R=Rmax sincos
28. When a ball is thrown horizontally from the top of a cliff, the horizontal distance is
1
a. x=vx/t b) x=vxt c) x= t / vx d) x=2vxt
29. Everything in the vastness of space is in a state of -----------.
a. rest b. motion c. both rest and motion d. perpetual motion
30. -----------is/are relative.
a. Only state of rest b. Only state of motion c. both states of rest and motion
d. none of these
31. The tail of the displacement vector is located at the position ------------.
a. of origin b. where displacement startedc. where displacement ended d. none of
these
32. The direction of velocity is along the direction of -----------
a) displacement b. tangent c. acceleration d. force
33. If the instantaneous velocity does not change, the body moves with----------
a. uniform velocity b. uniform acceleration c. average velocity d. uniform
displacement
34. If a body moves with constant acceleration, the velocity time graph will be straight line but---
a. horizontal b. rising c. falling d. all of these are possible
35. In equations of motion, -ve sign is given to a quantity if its direction is opposite to direction of
a) initial velocity b) final velocity c) acceleration d) any of thes
36. No body begins to move or comes to rest of itself was stated by----- before Newton.
a. Galileob.Abn ul Haithem c. Al Beruni d. Abu Ali Sena
37. A frame of reference stationed on Earth is ----------- an inertial frame of reference.
a. perfectly b. approximately c. not d. always
38. A moving body--------------.
a. always has an impulse b never has an impulse c. may have an impulse
d. none of these

Chapter No 4 (Work and Energy)


1. Area under the ------ graph can be taken to represent work done.
a) velocity-time b) force-time c) work-time d) force-displacement
2. Work done by gravity acting on moving rocket is an example of ----------.
a. a) work done b) work done by constant force c) work done by variable
force d) work done by a rocket
3. Work done in Earths gravitational field is ------------ of the path followed.
a. a) directly proportional b) inversely proportional c) dependent d)
independent
4. 1kWh=-------------. a) 1000J b) 3.6kJ c) 3.6MJ d) 3.6J
5. Absolute PE on the surface of Earth is equal to --------.

a) mgh b) c) d)

6. The value of escape velocity out of Earth gravitational field is
a.
a) 11kmH-1 b) 11ms-1 c) 8kmH-1 d) 11kms-1
7. The original source of hydroelectric energy is a) sun b) moon c) rainfall d) running water
8. Which one is renewable source of energy?
a) Biomass b) Geothermal c) Wind d) all of these
9. Solar energy at normal incidence outside the Earth atmosphere is about
a) negligible b) 1.4W c) 1kW d) 1.4kWm-2
10. It is an example of non-conventional source of energy. a) energy from waves b) energy from
water c) Energy from fossils d) energy from natural gas
11. An interesting phenomenon of geothermal energy, in the form of hot springs of water and steam is
a) geyser b) earthquakes c) volcano d) aquifier
12. In Salters duck, wave energy makes---- float to move relative to ----- float.
a) a) duck, balance b) balance, duck c) Salter, duck d) duck, Salter
13. The work done is said to be positive if angle between force and displacement is --
a) a) equal to zero b) equal to 900 c) greater than 900 d) smaller than 900
14. Work done is independent of the path followed in this/these field/fields.
a) a) electric force b) frictional force c) force of a tractor d) all of these
15. Earth is the original source of energy for the following type .
a) a) Geothermal b) tides c) fossil fuels d) all of these
-1
16. Escape velocity on the surface of Earth is equal to------------- Kms .
a) 11.2 b) 8 c) 0 d) infinity
17. There is more energy reaching Earth in 10 days from ----- than in all fossil fuels on Earth.
a) a) burning of coal b) interior of Earth c) sunlight d) moonlight
18. All the food you eat in one day has about the same energy as ---------- litre of petrol.
a) a) 1 b) c) 1/3 d)

Chapter No 5 (Circular Motion)


1. Moment of inertia in circular motion plays the same role as does ---- in linear motion.
a) inertia b) force c) friction d) mass
2. This acceleration is instantaneous, directed along the radius, toward the centre of the circle.
a) Tangential b) centripetal c) instantaneous d) all of these
3. All the equations of circular motion hold true if ----------- is fixed. a)
acceleration b) axis of rotation c) direction of rotation d) torque
4. All points on a rigid body rotating about a fixed axis, have same value of this/these. a)
angular displacement b) angular velocity c) angular acceleration d) all of these
5. We can study circular motion of a rigid body with the help of it.
a) axis of rotation b) reference line c) torque d) angular momentum
6. A disc with larger diameter will have --- moment of inertia as compared to that of a disc of same
mass and smaller diameter.
i) a) same b) larger c) smaller d) no comparison can be made
7. Dimension of angular frequency are a) [ 1 ] b) [ 1 ] c) [ ] d) [ 1 ]
8. ii) --------- = r a) v b) a c) at d) ar
9. The largest satellite system, the INTELSAT VI , is managed by -------- countries.
a) many b) 26 c) 100 d) 126
10. According to Einstein view------------ can bend light. a) Earth b) Stars c) gravity d) energy
11. A geostationary satellite orbits the Earth once per day over the -----.
a) surface of Earth b) longitudes c) latitudes d) equator
12. Your apparent weight differs from your true weight when the elevator---------.
i) a) moves upward b) moves downward c) moves with uniform velocity d) accelerates
13. Two satellites of different masses orbiting in the same orbit may have
a) b) different orbital velocity c) different time period d) different g
14. ii) In 1984, at a height of ---------- above Hawaii Bruce McCandless became the first human
satellite. a) 1km b) 10km c) 100km d) 1000km
15. The radius of a geostationary orbit is ----------- above the surface of earth.
a) 42300km b) 36000km c) 42300m d) 36000m
16. In Einstein view of gravity, geodesics are equivalent to ------- in plane geometry.
a) circles b) spheres c) plane discs d) straight lines
17. The whole Earth may be covered by just--------- geostationary satellites.
a) one b) two c) three d) 24
18. The moment you switch on your mobile phone, your location can be tracked immediately by---.
a) geostationary satellites network b) police c) GPS network d) GPRS network
Chapter No 6 (Fluid Dynamics)
1. Liquid and gases have---------- viscosity.
i) a) large b) zero c) non-zero d) very small
2. The law of conservation of energy gives us
i) a) equation of continuity b) Bernoulli equation c) both of these d) none of
these
3. When a body reaches its terminal velocity, its acceleration becomes------------.
a) equal to g b) zero c) negligible d) constant
4. Net force on a falling droplet thru air is equal to ----
a) drag force- weight b) weight- drag force c) drag force air friction d) weight + drag force
5. A fluid is incompressible if its density is
a) constant b) compressible c) variable d) very high
6. The direction of streamlines is the same as direction of -----
i) a) force b) fluid c) velocity d) motion
7. Blood is a/an------------- fluid.
i) a) vital b) compressible c) incompressible d) low density
8. For a normal healthy person, the diastolic pressure is ------------.
i) a) 75-80 torr b) 100-120 torr c) 75-80 pascals d) 100-120 pascals
9. The instrument used to measure human blood pressure is called-----------------------.
a) stethoscope b) barometer c) sphygmomanometer d) manometer
0 -2
10. The viscosity of air at 30 C is------------ Nsm .
i) a) zero b) 1 c) 0.019 d) 6.29
11. It is a device used to measure the liquid flow.
i) a) carburetor b) flowmeter c) filter pump d) venturimeter
12. In human body the blood pressure will have the smallest value in this position.
i) a) standing upright b) sitting c) lying horizontally d) standing on ones
head

Chapter No 7 (Oscillations)
1. A body oscillates due to-------------.

a) force of gravity b) elasticity c) inertia d) restoring force

2. In SHM, if = 2700 , then this is true for displacement, velocity and acceleration.
a) d=0, v=max, a=max b) d=0, v=0, a=max c) d=max, v=max, a=0 d) d=max, v=0, a=max
3. It determines the state of motion of the vibrating body.
a) angle b) phase c) frequency d) restoring force
4. The vibratory or oscillatory motion of a body is
a) translatory motion b) to and fro motion c) free fall motion d) circular motion
5. Angular frequency is basically a characteristic of ------------
a) translatory motion b) to and fro motion c) free fall motion d) circular motion
6. The angular frequency of a mass-spring system is

) = b) = c) = 02 2 d) =
7. A physical system undergoing forced vibrations is known as
a) simple harmonic oscillator b) forced oscillator c) driven harmonic oscillator d) resonator
8. The restoring force in a mass spring system is
a) constant force b) variable force c) weak force d) non-conservative force
i) For all oscillatory systems this/these must be true
9. PE changes to KE and vice versa b) There exist a restoring force c) acceleration is proportional
to displacement d) all of these
i) Loud music produced by sounding wooden boards of string instruments is an example of
ii) a) free oscillations b) forced oscillations c) damping forces d) damped
oscillations
iii) A heavily damped system has a------- resonance curve.
iv) a) sharp b) horizontal c) vertical d) fairly flat
v) Resonance in an airplane wing or a helicopter rotor could be very----------.
vi) a) sharp b) small c) useful d) dangerous
10. Chapter No 8 (Waves)
i) Waves transport energy and momentum -------------- transporting matter.
11. a) with b) without c) by d) along with
12. ii) --------- wave is the effect of cooperative oscillations of a very large number of particles of the
medium through which the wave is passing.
13. any b) electromagnetic c) mechanical d) stationary
14. iii) The two kinds of progressive waves are
15. electromagnetic and mechanical b) transverse and periodic c) standing and travelling d)
transverse and longitudinal
16. iv) Transverse waves die out very quickly in
i) a) solids b) liquids c) gases d) fluids
ii) For a wave

iii) a) = b) = c) = d) =
iv) One degree Celsius rise in temperature produces almost --------- increase in the speed of
sound.
v)
a) 340ms-1 b) 0.61ms-1 c) 350ms-1 d) 0.61cms-1
i) It is the condition of destructive interference for two waves.
(2+1)
17. a) = b) = 2 c) = (2 + 1) d) = 2
ii) Tuning forks give out notes of ------------ frequency.
18. single b) double c) complex d) low
iii) When difference between frequencies of two tuning forks is 10, then we will hear
19. 10 beats per second b) 5beats per second c) beats which are not recognizable d) very loud
sound
iv) The distance between two consecutive antinodes is always
i) a) b) /2 c) /4 d) 2
v) When the antinodes are simultaneously passing thru their equilibrium position, the energy
stored is
ii) a) b) c) d)
vi) No of beats per second produced by two sound waves of frequency 25Hz and 27Hz are
iii)
a) 1Hz b) 2Hz c) 25Hz d) 27Hz
i) If a string of length l is plucked at its middle point, the number of loops produced is ---
20. a) b) c) d)
ii) If f2 is frequency of vibration of string of length l in its second mode, then following
relation is true.
21. v= f2l2 b) f2=v/l c) f2=2f1 d) all of these
iii) The frequency of string on a musical instrument can be changed by---
22. varying its tension b) changing its length c) changing the string d) both a & b
iv) In an organ pipe, it is primary driving mechanism to maintain steady oscillations.
i) a) b) c) d) beats
v) It helps bats and dolphin to navigate and detect small objects.
ii) a) b) c) d)
vi) A conical surface of concentrated sound energy sweeps over the ground as a supersonic
plane passes overhead. It is called
iii) a) ultrasound b) supersonic c) sonic boom d) sound barrier
23. Chapter No 9 (Physical Optics)
i) The wave theory of light was put forward by an eminent Dutch scientist-----
24. a) b) c) d)
25. ii) In case of a point source, the wavefront is --------- in shape.
26. plane b) cylindrical c) spherical d) circular
27. iii) The interfering beam of light must be -------.
28. monochromatic b) coherent c) both (a) &(b) d) none of these
29. iv) If .
i) a) b) c) d) sin
30. v) If red light is used in double slit experiment in place of blue light, the fringe spacing will------.
i) a) b) c) d)
vii) All points on a -------- which send out secondary wavelets are also coherent source of light.
ii)
a) point source b) extended source c) Huygen source d) light source
iii) In Newton Ring experiment , the planoconvex lens has ----------------.
31. a) b) c) d)
i) At the point of contact of planoconvex lens and the glass plate, the thickness of air film----.
32. is zero b) is large c) increases gradually d) decreases

i) If mirror M1, in Michelson interferometer, is moved thru a distance of 2, the number of
fringes shifted is -----------.
33. zero b) 1 c) infinite d) half
i) Michelson Interferometer measured length of standard meter in terms of wavelength of ---.
ii) a) b) c) d) red-cesium light
iii) The phenomenon of diffraction is found to be prominent when wavelength of light and the
size of the slit have this relationship.
iv) a) > b) = c) d)
v) In diffraction due to narrow slit experiment , the equation dsin.= m is true for ---
vi)
a) maxima b) minima c) both maxima and minima d) for minima when m=0
i) The grating element of a diffraction grating is by definition given by .

34. a) = b) = c) = d) 2 =
ii) In a diffraction grating, images of different colours are --------- in higher orders..
35. closely packed b) not visible c) overlapping d) much separated
iii) The study of atomic structure of crystals by------------ was initiated by the Braggs in 1914.
36. light b) lasers c) x-rays d) gamma rays
iv) It is most common method to obtain plane polarized light by using dichroic substances.
i) a) b) c) d) scattering
v) Sugar and Tartaric solution show--------- when they are in solution.
ii) a) b) c) d)
vi) This property proves that light is a transverse wave.
iii) a) interference b) diffraction c) polarization d) all of these

37. Chapter No 10 (Optical Instruments)

i) The image of an object appears to be blurred and fuzzy if it is located at


ii) a) 25cm b) more than 25cm c) less than 25cm d) near point
38. ii) The ability of an instrument to reveal the minor details of the object under examination is called
------ a) magnification b) linear magnification c) angular magnification d) optical
resolution
39. iii) In case of a grating spectrometer, the resolving power R of the grating is given by

i) a) R= 1 2 b) R= 2 1 c) R= d) R= 2
2 1 1
40. iv) In a compound microscope, the focal length of the eye piece is
i) a) small b) large c) smaller than that of objective d) greater than that of
objective
41. v) In normal adjustment for an astronomical telescope, the intermediate object lies at
i) a) infinity b) near point c) far point d) common principal foci of eyepiece and objective
42. vi) The angular magnification of an astronomical telescope increases when focal length of eyepiece
--- . increase b) decrease c) is greater than that of objective d) is smaller than that of
objective
i) The speed of light is always------------- in materials other than vacuum.
ii) a) equal to c b) smaller than c c) greater than c d) none of these
iii) ------------ invented photo-phone.
iv) a) Marconi b) Graham Bell c) Michelson d) Newton
43. iii) An optical fiber works on the principle of
i) a) total internal reflection b) continuous refraction c) both of these d) none
44. iv) Core of relatively larger diameter, white light, short distance, which fiber is used for this?
i) a) single mode step index b) multimode step index c) multimode graded index d)
monomode step index
45. v) The light signals in optical fiber are made strong and regenerated by devices called ---
i) a) transmitters b) LEDs c) receivers d) repeaters
vii) Using graded-index fiber the time difference at the receiving end is reduced to
ii) a) 33 b) 1 c) 33ns d) 1ns
46. The ability of an instrument to reveal minor details of an object is called ----
47. a) linear magnification b) angular magnification c) resolving power d) all of these
48. ii) Part of spectrometer which makes rays of light parallel is called----
49. a) collimator b) turntable c) telescope d) spectrometer
50. iii) Light is confined in fibre optics by the phenomenon----------
51. a) total internal reflection b) continuous refraction c) both (a)&(b) d) none of these
52. iv) The graded-index fibre use -------------- for its function.
53. a) total internal reflection b) continuous refraction c) both (a)&(b) d) none of these
54. v) In fibre-optic system, at the end of the fibre, light is converted into electrical signals by
i) a) semiconductor laser b) LED c) repeaters d) photodiode
ii) The angle of incidence in the denser medium for which the angle of the angle of refraction in
the rarer medium is equal to 900 is called ---------------.
55. angle of incidence b) angle of refraction c) angle of refraction d) critical angle
56. Chapter 11( Heat and Thermodynamics)
i) According to kinetic theory of gases, finite volume of a gas contains--------------- number of
molecules.
ii)
a) a small b) a large c) infinite d) 6.231023
iii) According to kinetic theory, pressure exerted by a gas is merely--------- transferred to the
walls.
iv) a) momentum b) momentum per second per unit area c) force
d) energy
57. iii) The Boltzmann constant is equal to---------.
i) a) 8.314Jmol-1K-1 b) 1.3810-23JK-1 c) 6.231023 JK-1 d) 6.0221026
-1 -1
Jmol K
58. iv) For an ideal gas system, the internal energy is directly proportional to ----------.
i) a) heat b) temperature c) vibration of molecules d) pressure
59. v) In thermodynamics, the work done is equal to area under the ---------- graph.
i) a) P-T b) P-V c) V-T d) P-V-T
60. vi) Cloud formation is an example of ----
a) isothermal process b) adiabatic process c) heat engine d) Cornot cycle
i) One kilogram of different substances contains------------ of molecules.
ii) a) 6.231023 b) same c) different d) none of these
iii) For a gas, molar specific heat at constant pressure is -------- molar specific heat at constant
volume.
61. equal to b) greater than c) smaller than d) none of these
62. iii) When one mole of a gas is heated at constant pressure, the increase in internal energy is---- as
that at constant volume for same rise of temperature.
63. equal to b) greater than c) smaller than d) none of these
64. iv) No actual change is ----------
i) a) thermodynamic b) reversible c) irreversible d) permanent
65. v) A heat engine converts some------------ to mechanical work.
i) a) energy b) thermal energy c) steam energy d) kinetic energy
vii) A petrol engine converts roughly ---------- heat energy into work.
ii) a) 25% b) 35 to 40% c) 100% d) 200%
66. An ideal reversible heat engine has ------------ efficiency.
67. a) 100% b) greater than 100% c) highest but less than 100% d) lowest
68. ii) A change in which no heat is added or taken out of a system is called-----
69. a) isothermal b) adiabatic c) closed d) isochoric
70. iii) This is an irreversible process.
71. a) slow compression of an elastic spring b) slow evaporation of a substance in an isolated
vessel c) slow compression of a gas d) a chemical explosion
72. iv) The sum of all molecular forms of energies of a substance is termed as -------------.
73. a) molecular energy b) kinetic energy c) potential energy d) internal energy
74. v) Which one is correct relation.
i) a) > b) < c) = d)
i) Which one is correct relation in thermodynamics.
75. T < > b) P < > c) T d) all of these

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