NAME_____BRANDON VALERY_________HOMEWORK Essentials of Human Anatomy

and Physiology, 11e, Global Edition (Marieb) Chapter 10 Blood

10.1 Multiple Choice Part I Questions

Using Figure 10.1, identify the following:

1) The neutrophil is indicated by ________.

A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D
Answer: ___A____

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2) The eosinophil is indicated by ________.
A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D
Answer: ___C____

3) The monocyte is indicated by ________.

A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D
Answer: ___B____

4) The lymphocyte is indicated by ________.

A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D
Answer: ___D____

5) The granulocytes are indicated by ________ and ________.

A) Label A; Label C
B) Label B; Label A
C) Label C; Label D
D) Label D; Label B
Answer: ___A____

6) The most common type of leukocyte is indicated by ________.

A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D
Answer: ___A____

7) The type of leukocyte that fights allergies and parasitic worms is indicated by ________.
A) Label A
B) Label B
C) Label C
D) Label D
Answer: ___C____

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8) Normal blood pH falls in a range between ________ to ________.
A) 7.1; 7.2
B) 7.35; 7.45
C) 7.6; 7.75
D) 7.85; 8.05
Answer: ___B____

9) An important plasma protein that contributes to the osmotic pressure of blood is ________.
A) thyroglobulin
B) fibrin
C) albumin
D) glucose
Answer: ___C____

10) The percentage of erythrocytes in blood is known as the ________.

A) hematocrit
B) buffy coat
C) hemoglobin
D) plasma
Answer: ___A____

11) Each hemoglobin molecule is able to transport ________ molecules of oxygen.

A) 1 (one)
B) 2 (two)
C) 3 (three)
D) 4 (four)
Answer: ___D____

12) A decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability of the blood, for any reason, is a condition known
as ________.
A) polycythemia
B) leukemia
C) anemia
D) leukocytosis
Answer: ___C____

13) Life at a high altitude can lead to a red blood cell disorder known as ________.
A) anemia
B) polycythemia
C) leukocytosis
D) leukemia
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Answer: ___B____

14) A total white blood cell count above 11,000 cells/mm3 is a condition known as ________.
A) leukopenia
B) leukocytosis
C) polycythemia
D) anemia
Answer: ___B____

15) The process by which white blood cells travel through the wall of blood vessels is termed
________.
A) diffusion
B) diapedesis
C) filtration
D) chemotaxis
Answer: ___B____

16) Abnormally low levels of white blood cells cause a condition known as ________.
A) leukocytosis
B) anemia
C) thrombocytopenia
D) leukopenia
Answer: ___D____

17) White blood cells containing granules and lobed nuclei are classified as ________.
A) agranulocytes
B) granulocytes
C) thrombocytes
D) neutrophils
Answer: ___B____

18) Platelets are fragments of a multinucleate cell known as a ________.

A) megakaryocyte
B) erythrocyte
C) reticulocyte
D) monocyte
Answer: ___A____

19) The process by which bleeding is stopped is called ________.

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A) hematopoiesis
B) erythropoiesis
C) homeostasis
D) hemostasis
Answer: ___D____

20) The rate of erythrocyte production is controlled by a hormone known as ________.

A) erythropoietin
B) insulin
C) growth hormone
D) aldosterone
Answer: ___A____

21) During coagulation, long, hair-like molecules known as ________ form the basis for a clot.
A) thrombin
B) prothrombin
C) fibrin
D) fibrinogen
Answer: ___C____

22) Hereditary bleeding disorders that result from lack of clotting factors are referred to as
________.
A) petechia
B) hemophilia
C) aplastic anemia
D) thrombocytopenia
Answer: ___B____

23) Substances that the body recognizes as foreign are called ________.
A) antigens
B) antibodies
C) formed elements
D) megakaryocytes
Answer: ___A____

24) When antibodies bind to antigens on foreign blood types, clumping or ________ occurs.
A) coagulation
B) hematopoiesis
C) agglutination
D) alkalosis
Answer: ___c____

25) The ABO blood groups are based on two antigens: antigen ________ and antigen ________.
A) A; B
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B) A; O
C) AB; O
D) B; O
Answer: ___A____

26) The blood type that contains both antigens A and B is ________.
A) AB
B) A
C) B
D) O
Answer: ___A____

27) A person with type B blood can receive blood from blood type(s) ________.
A) AB, B
B) B, O
C) A, B, AB, O
D) B, O, AB
Answer: ___B____

28) If you carry the Rh antigen, you are referred to as Rh ________.

A) positive
B) sensitive
C) negative
D) compatible
Answer: __A_____

29) The condition in which maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the baby's RBCs
is called ________.
A) hemophilia
B) thrombus
C) hemolytic disease of the newborn
D) physiologic jaundice
Answer: ___C____

30) The condition in which fetal RBCs are destroyed faster than the infant liver can rid the body
of the breakdown products of hemoglobin is called ________.
A) hemolytic disease of the newborn
B) pernicious anemia
C) sickle cell trait
D) physiologic jaundice
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Answer: ___D____

10.2 Multiple Choice Part II Questions

1) The matrix of blood is called ________.

A) buffy coat
B) plasma
C) erythrocytes
D) lymphocytes
E) formed elements
Answer: ___B____

2) In a centrifuged blood sample, the buffy coat situated between the formed elements and the
plasma contains ________.
A) leukocytes and erythrocytes
B) platelets and erythrocytes
C) leukocytes and platelets
D) erythrocytes only
E) leukocytes only
Answer: ___C____

3) Blood is ________.
A) acidic
B) cooler than body temperature
C) sweet tasting
D) composed mostly of white blood cells and platelets
E) slightly alkaline
Answer: ___E____

4) The hematocrit is the percentage of ________.

A) plasma in blood
B) erythrocytes in blood
C) leukocytes in blood
D) formed elements in blood
E) platelets in blood
Answer: ___B____

5) Which formed element is the most abundant in blood?

A) erythrocyte
B) eosinophil
C) platelet
D) basophil
E) lymphocyte
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Answer: ___A____

6) Erythrocytes ________.
A) possess lobed nuclei and cytoplasmic granules
B) lack a nucleus and most organelles
C) are the least common of all formed elements
D) travel by diapedesis through the walls of vessels
E) clot blood
Answer: ___B____

7) Normal whole blood contains ________ g of hemoglobin per 100 mL.

A) 4-8
B) 12-18
C) 15-20
D) 30-35
E) 42-48
Answer: ___B____

8) Which of the following red blood cell disorders may result from life at a higher altitude?
A) aplastic anemia
B) sickle cell anemia
C) pernicious anemia
D) polycythemia
E) hemolytic anemia
Answer: ___D____

9) White blood cells differ from red blood cells because only they contain ________.
A) a biconcave shape
B) a nucleus and most organelles
C) the ability to transport both oxygen and carbon dioxide
D) the iron-containing molecule called hemoglobin
E) cytoplasm
Answer: ___B____

10) Jordan works in a hematology lab and received a blood report showing 22,000 white blood
cells per cubic millimeter of blood for a patient. He determines this patient has ________.
A) a normal blood count
B) polycythemia
C) anemia
D) leukocytosis
E) leukopenia
Answer: ___D____

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11) The two major groups of white blood cells are ________.
A) leukocytes and erythrocytes
B) platelets and megakaryocytes
C) neutrophils and basophils
D) granulocytes and agranulocytes
E) granulocytes and leukocytes
Answer: ___D____

12) Which of the following cells are classified as granulocytes?

A) neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
B) lymphocytes and monocytes
C) eosinophils and monocytes
D) basophils and lymphocytes
E) neutrophils, lymphocytes, and eosinophils
Answer: ___A____

13) Which type of granulocyte produces antibodies?

A) eosinophils
B) basophils
C) neutrophils
D) lymphocytes
E) monocytes
Answer: ___B____

14) The most numerous of the white blood cells are the ________.
A) lymphocytes
B) neutrophils
C) eosinophils
D) monocytes
E) basophils
Answer: ___B____

15) Which type of leukocyte contains heparin, an anticoagulant?

A) neutrophil
B) monocyte
C) lymphocyte
D) basophil
E) eosinophil
Answer: ___D___
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16) Place these leukocytes in order from the most common to the least common:
1) basophil
2) eosinophil
3) lymphocyte
4) monocyte
5) neutrophil
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
C) 5, 3, 2, 4, 1
D) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
E) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
Answer: ___E____

17) Platelets are fragments of multinucleate cells called ________.

A) erythrocytes
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) megakaryocytes
E) macrophages
Answer: ___D____

18) Where does hematopoiesis produce new red blood cells?

A) yellow bone marrow
B) articular cartilage
C) red bone marrow
D) epiphyseal line
E) synovial membrane
Answer: ____C___

19) Low levels of oxygen in the blood stimulate the release of erythropoietin by the ________.
A) stomach
B) pancreas
C) kidneys
D) hypothalamus
E) spleen
Answer: ___C____

20) The average functional lifespan of an RBC is ________.

A) 20-30 days
B) 50-75 days
C) 100-120 days
D) one year
E) the body's lifetime
Answer: ___C____
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21) An immature RBC which contains some endoplasmic reticulum is called a(n) ________.
A) megakaryocyte
B) hemocytoblast
C) reticulocyte
D) agranulocyte
E) granulocyte
Answer: __C_____

22) What enzyme joins soluble fibrinogen proteins into long molecules of fibrin during
coagulation?
A) PF3
B) thrombin
C) tissue factor
D) prothrombin
E) calcium
Answer: ___B____

23) The application of a sterile gauze to some cut aids with ________.
A) platelet plug formation
B) the release of tissue factor
C) the formation of fibrin
D) coagulation
E) vascular spasms
Answer: ___A____

24) The series of reactions that stop blood flow following a cut is called ________.
A) homeostasis
B) coagulation
C) hemostasis
D) erythropoiesis
E) agglutination
Answer: ___C____

25) Which one of the following represents the proper sequence of hemostasis?
A) platelet plug formation, coagulation, vascular spasm
B) vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation
C) coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation
D) vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
E) coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular spasm
Answer: ___D____

26) Why do you think Mrs. Gonzalez was prescribed heparin, an anticoagulant?

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A) to enhance hematopoiesis
B) to inhibit release of erythropoietin
C) to enhance the formation of clots
D) to increase vascular spasms
E) to inhibit the formation of clots
Answer: ___E____

27) Blood normally clots in approximately ________.

A) 1 minute
B) 3 to 6 minutes
C) 5 to 10 minutes
D) 15 minutes
E) 30 minutes
Answer: ___B____

28) The formation of an insoluble clot during hemostasis is termed ________.

A) agglutination
B) coagulation
C) hematopoiesis
D) positive chemotaxis
E) diapedesis
Answer: ___B____

29) Which of the following insoluble fibers forms a mesh network and the basis for the
formation of a clot during coagulation?
A) albumin
B) fibrin
C) thrombin
D) fibrinogen
E) hemoglobin
Answer: ___B____

30) A persistent clot in an unbroken blood vessel is known as ________.

A) an embolus
B) polycythemia
C) hemophilia
D) a thrombus
E) leukopenia
Answer: ___A____

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31) Which of the following is a blood clotting disorder?
A) polycythemia
B) hemophilia
C) leukocytosis
D) leukopenia
E) anemia
Answer: ___B____

32) Bleeding disorders often result from a lack of which one of the following vitamins
________.
A) vitamin B12
B) vitamin A
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin K
Answer: ___E____

33) The ion essential for blood clotting is ________.

A) sodium
B) calcium
C) iodine
D) potassium
E) hydrogen
Answer: ___B____

34) The organ largely responsible for the synthesis of clotting factors is the ________.
A) pancreas
B) thyroid
C) liver
D) spleen
E) kidneys
Answer: ___C____

35) Treatment of hemophilia often involves ________.

A) transfusion of plasma and vitamin K supplements
B) injections of missing clotting factors and vitamin B12 injections
C) vitamin K supplements only
D) transfusion of plasma or injections of missing clotting factor
E) vitamin K supplements and vitamin B12 injections
Answer: ___D____
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36) Severe shock that can be fatal occurs with blood loss exceeding ________.
A) 5 percent
B) 10 percent
C) 20 percent
D) 30 percent
E) 50 percent
Answer: ___D____

37) A substance that stimulates the immune system to release antibodies is the ________.
A) antigen
B) antibody
C) interleukin
D) fibrinogen
E) prothrombin activator
Answer: ___A____

38) The process whereby the binding of antibodies to antigens causes RBCs to clump is called
________.
A) hemostasis
B) coagulation
C) agglutination
D) clotting cascade
E) hemolysis
Answer: ___C____

39) Which blood type contains the A antigen only?

A) blood type A
B) blood type B
C) blood type AB
D) blood types A and AB
E) blood type O
Answer: ___A____

40) The most common type of blood in the U.S. population is ________.
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
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E) AO
Answer: ___D____

41) Molly has blood type A and her daughter has blood type B. Why can't Molly donate blood to
her daughter?
A) Blood types A and B will coagulate during a transfusion.
B) Mothers cannot donate blood to their daughters.
C) Blood type B contains anti-A antibodies, which will agglutinate with type A blood.
D) Blood transfusions cannot be performed among relatives.
E) Only fathers can donate blood to their daughters.
Answer: ___C____

42) Hemolysis most likely will occur when ________.

A) an Rh negative person receives the first transfusion of blood that is Rh positive
B) any person receives blood type O during a transfusion
C) an Rh positive person receives the first transfusion of blood that is Rh negative
D) an Rh negative person receives the second transfusion of blood that is Rh positive
E) platelets cling to the ruptured endothelium of a blood vessel
Answer: ___D____

43) Which blood type(s) can a person with blood type O receive?
A) blood type A
B) blood type B
C) blood type AB
D) blood type O
E) blood types A, B, AB, or O
Answer: ___D____

44) The immune serum used to prevent maternal sensitization to Rh antigens is ________.
A) serotonin
B) interleukin
C) agglutinin
D) RhoGAM
E) fibrinogen
Answer: ___D____

45) Which of these blood types carries no antigens?

A) blood type A
B) blood type B
C) blood type AB
D) blood types A, B, and AB
E) blood type O
Answer: ___O____

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46) Compatibility testing for agglutination of donor RBCs by the recipients' serum is called
________.
A) blood typing
B) transfusion reaction
C) cross matching
D) hemolysis
E) hemodialysis
Answer: ___C____

47) Physiologic jaundice occurring in newborns results from ________.

A) bone marrow disorders
B) accumulation of destroyed fetal red blood cells
C) a diseased gallbladder that needs to be removed
D) erythrocyte mutations
E) vitamin deficiencies
Answer: ___B____

10.3 True/False Questions

1) Normal blood pH is between 7.35 and 7.45.

Answer: TRUE

2) Erythrocytes make up the majority of the formed elements.

Answer: TRUE

3) The primary job of erythrocytes is to transport oxygen.

Answer: TRUE

4) Polycythemia arises from an excess or abnormal increase in the number of white blood cells.
Answer: FALSE

5) The amount of hemoglobin contained within a RBC determines its capability to transport
oxygen.
Answer: TRUE

6) Megakaryocytes are classified as agranulocytes since they lack visible granules in the
cytoplasm.
Answer: FALSE/TRUE
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7) Basophils are the most numerous type of leukocyte.
Answer: FALSE

8) All formed elements arise from a common type of stem cell called a hemocytoblast.
Answer: TRUE

9) The life span of a red blood cell is 100 to 120 days.

Answer: TRUE

10) Erythropoietin is released to stimulate platelet production in response to inadequate amounts

of oxygen in the blood.
Answer: FALSE

11) Vascular spasms, a part of process of hemostasis, limit blood loss during blood vessel injury.
Answer: TRUE

12) Calcium is necessary for coagulation to properly occur during hemostasis.

Answer: TRUE

13) Blood type A can receive blood from blood types A and AB during a transfusion.
Answer: FALSE

14) Rh-related problems occur in pregnant Rh- women carrying an Rh+ baby.
Answer: TRUE

15) Cross matching prevents transfusion reactions by testing for agglutination between donor and
recipient blood prior to the transfusion.
Answer: TRUE
10.4 Matching Questions

Match the following function with its blood cell:

A) platelet
B) leukocyte
C) erythrocyte

1) Excess numbers of these cells cause leukocytosis ___B____

2) Alternate name for white blood cell ___B____

3) Granulocytes and agranulocytes are classified as types of these cells__B_____

4) Excess of these cells cause polycythemia___C____

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5) Type of cell produced in response to erythropoietin___C____

6) Cell fragments that form from the rupture of a megakaryocyte___A____

7) Immature form of this cell is called a reticulocyte___C____

8) Type of cell that contains hemoglobin for gas transport____C___

9) Most common type of blood cell___C____

10) Type of cell fragment involved in hemostasis___A____

Match the following blood types:

A) Blood type A
B) Blood type O
C) Blood type AB

11) The blood type that has no antigens___B____

12) The blood type that possesses the A antigen only___A____

13) The blood type that can receive blood types B and AB___C____

14) The blood type that forms both anti-A and anti-B antibodies____C___

15) The most common blood type___O____

16) The blood type that does not form anti-A or anti-B antibodies____B___

10.5 Essay Questions

1) Scott's blood test shows that he has excess red blood cells. Identify and describe two causes of
this disorder.
Answer: Scott's disorder is polycythemia, which results from excess numbers of erythrocytes in
the blood.
This disorder may result from:
1. Bone marrow cancer (called polycythemia vera)
2. Life at a high altitude where the air is thinner and less oxygen is available (called
secondary polycythemia)
Increased sluggishness of the blood results from polycythemia.
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2) Discuss why Martina, who has blood type A, cannot receive blood type B during a
transfusion.
Answer: Martina has the antigen for A on her red blood cells. During infancy, her body built
anti-B antibodies since she lacked that antigen in her blood. If she receives a transfusion of blood
type B, her body will already have the anti-B antibodies in place. Agglutination will occur as the
anti-B antibodies bind and clump to the foreign B antigen. The red blood cells will be lysed,
hemoglobin will be released into the blood stream, and these events would lead to a transfusion
reaction.

3) While looking through a microscope in your anatomy lab, you see a cell whose cytoplasm has
a pale pink color with fine granules and a tri-lobed deep purple nucleus. Determine what type of
cell you see (be specific). Explain why you made this selection.
Answer: You have likely seen a neutrophil, a type of leukocyte, while looking through the
microscope. Neutrophils are granulocytes with a pale pink cytoplasm and fine granules that are
difficult to see. Neutrophils have nuclei with three to seven lobes connected by thin strands of
nucleoplasm.

4) Describe the three phases of the normal blood-clotting process.

Answer: Hemostasis involves three major phases. The first phase is the vascular spasm phase,
in which serotonin released by the platelets causes the blood vessels to spasm and constrict, thus
decreasing blood loss. The second phase is the platelet plug formation, in which platelets become
"sticky" and cling to the site of injury. The third phase is coagulation wherein thromboplastin
interacts with PF3 and calcium, as well as other blood proteins, to form prothrombin activator.
Prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin, which then joins with fibrinogen to
form fibrin, the basis of the clot.

5) Which situation do you predict to prompt the release of more erythropoietin into the blood:
anemia or polycythemia? Explain.
Answer: Any decline in the level of oxygen in the blood prompts the kidneys to release more
erythropoietin into the blood. Erythropoietin targets the bone marrow to produce more red blood
cells. Anemia is a decrease in the blood's ability to transport oxygen for any reason while
polycythemia is an excessive or abnormal increase in the number of red blood cells. Therefore,
anemia would prompt the release of more erythropoietin so that the blood could transport more
oxygen. In fact, polycythemia would inhibit erythropoietin production by the kidneys.

6) Describe ABO and Rh blood groups.

Answer: The blood groups are based on the presence or absence of specific surface antigens.
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Blood group A has type A antigens on their RBCs, blood group B has type B antigens on their
RBCs, blood group AB has both type A and type B antigens on their RBCs, and blood group O
lacks either type A or type B antigens. The Rh+ blood group indicates the presence of the Rh
antigens on their RBCs. Individuals belong to blood groups A, B, AB, or O, and they are also
classified as either Rh+ or Rh-.

7) Explain agglutination as it relates to blood groups.

Answer: Antigens are surface proteins found on all cells including blood cells. In the case of
blood groups, an individual's blood type reflects the presence or absence of specific antigens. An
antigen-antibody response is initiated if the individual receives a transfusion of blood containing
antigens that it identifies as being "foreign." Antibodies found in a person's blood bind to the
foreign antigen, causing agglutination, or clumping. The antigen-antibody complexes clog the
small blood vessels, and the foreign RBCs are lysed, releasing hemoglobin into the bloodstream.
The most serious complication of a transfusion reaction is kidney failure due to blockage of the
kidney tubules by the hemoglobin molecules.

8) Mrs. Linaker was concerned because her baby was born with yellow skin. Name and explain
this condition to her.
Answer: This condition is known as physiologic jaundice and it arises because fetal red blood
cells are destroyed at a rate faster than the newborn's liver can rid the body of the hemoglobin
breakdown products in bile. This form of jaundice typically causes no major problems.

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