SSC Mental aptitude,general bility and aptitude reasoning questions for learn and

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Directions (1-10) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
questions ?
1. 47.7 x 12.4 x 8.6
a) 5708.423
b) 5218.665
c) 6180.656
d) 5086.728
e) None of these
Ans : (d)

2. 4 and 4/5 ÷ 6 and 2/5

a) 3/4
b) 5/7
c) 7/11
d) 5/8
e) None of these
Ans : (d)
24/5 ÷ 32/5
= 24/5 x 5/32 = 3/4

3. 1193.85 ÷ (42 x 1.5) = ?

a) 18.95
b) 16.25
c) 19.18
d) 14.64
e) None of these
Ans : (a)

4. 7719 + 8725 + 9124 = ?

a) 21911
b) 28388
c) 20578
d) 24964
e) None of these
Ans : (e)

5. 8.7 x ? = 46.98
a) 5.3
b) 6.9
c) 4.7
d) 7.8
e) None of these
Ans : (e)

6. ? ÷ 48 x 12 = 171
a) 684
b) 566
c) 698
d) 596
e) None of these
Ans : (a)

7. 1311.2 x 133.6 = ?
a) 1312.3
b) 137.6
c) 1314.8
d) 1310.3
e) None of these
Ans : (c)

8. 11.11 + 111.1 + 1111.11 = ?

a) 1323.23
b) 1233.32
c) 1322.33
d) 1232.22
e) None of these
Ans : (b)

9. 5 x ? = 9884 ÷ 16
a) 123.55
b) 91.25
c) 103.18
d) 115.65
e) None of these
Ans : (a)

10. 26.5 % of 488 = ?

a) 205.65
b) 211.72
c) 145.67
d) 129.32
e) None of these
Ans : (e)

Directions (11-15) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the
following number series ?
11. 1548 516 129 43 ?
a) 11
b) 10.75
c) 9.5
d) 12
e) None of these
Ans : (b)
The given number series is based on the following pattern :
1548 516 129 43 10.75
I_____Î I_____Î I_____Î I_____Î
÷3 ÷4 ÷3 ÷4
Hence , 10.75 will replace the question mark

12. 949 189.8 ? 22.776 11.388 6.8328

a) 48.24
b) 53.86
c) 74.26
d) 56.94
e) None of these
Ans : (d)
The given number series is based on the following pattern
949 189.8 56.94 22.776 11.388 6.8328
I_____Î I_____Î I_____Î I_____Î I_____Î
x0.2 x0.3 x0.4 x0.5 x0.6

13. 121 144 190 259 ? 466

a) 351
b) 349
c) 374
d) 328
e) None of these
Ans : (a)
The given number series is based on the following pattern :
121 + 23 x1 = 144
144 +23 x 2 = 190
190+23x3 = 259
:. ? = 259 + 23 x 4 = 259 + 92=351
Hence, 351 will replace the question mark.

14. 14 43.5 264 ? 76188

a) 3168
b) 3176
c) 1587
d) 1590
e) None of these
Ans : (e)
 The given number series is based on the following pattern :
14x3 + 1.5 = 43.5
43.5 x 6 + 1.5 x 2 = 264
264 x 12+1.5 x4 = 3174
3174 x 24 +1.5 x 8 = 76188
Hence, 3174 will replace the question mark

15. 41 164 2624 ? 6045696

a) 104244
b) 94644
c) 94464
d) 102444
e) None of these
Ans : (c)
The given number series is based on the following pattern :
41 x 22 = 164
164 x 42 = 2624
2624x62 = 94464
94464 x 82 = 6045696
Hence , 94464 will replace the question mark.
Directions (16-20): What approximate value should come in place of the question
mark (?) in the following questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)
16. √ 99999 = ?
a) 217
b) 384
c) 316
d) 296
e) 255
Ans : (c)
? = √ 99999
= √100000 = 100√10 = 316

17. (√ 100)3 = ? x 0.14

a) 1000
b) 7200
c) 1400
d) 625
e) 8500
Ans : (b)
(√ 100)3 = ? x 0.14
==> ? x 0.14 = 100 x 10
==> ? = 100 x 10 = 7200
0.14

18. 87.999 x 6413.012 = 8?

a) 21
b) 27
c) 6
d) 34
e) 18
Ans : (d)
= 88 x (82)13
= 88 x 826 = 834

19. 18.499 % of ? = 97.125

a) 485
b) 615
c) 705
d) 345
e) 500
Ans : (e)
=> 18.5 x ?/100 = 97
=> 19 x ?/100 = 97
=> ? = 97 x 100 = 510 = 500
19

20. 841.952 x 1.999 ÷ 7.014 = ?

a) 241
b) 304
c) 214
d) 186
e) 316
Ans : (a)

21. What is the least number to be added to 2600 to make it a perfect square ?
a) 1
b) 5
c) 3
d) 9
e) None of these
Ans : (a)
50 x 50 = 2500
51 x 51 = 2601
:. Least number to be added = 2601 - 2600 = 1

22. The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers A, B, C, D and E respectively in

ascending order is 37. What is the product of B and D ?
a) 1365
b) 2035
c) 1935
d) 1585
e) None of these
Ans : (a)
Let the consecutive odd numbers be x, x+2, x+4, x+6 and x+8 respectively.
According to the question, x+x+2+x+4+x+6+ x+8
= 5x37 => 5x + 20 = 185
=> 5x = 185 -20 = 165
=> x = 165/5 = 33
:. A = 33; B = 33+2 = 35; D=x+6= 33+6 = 39
B x D = 35 x 39 = 1365

23. What should be the compound interest obtained on an amount of Rs.4800 at the
rate of 5 p.c.p.a. after 3 years
a) Rs. 623.5
b) Rs.756.6
c) Rs.817.8
d) Rs.448.7
e) None of these
Ans : (b)
CI = P [(1+R/100)T -1]
= 4800 [(1+5/100)3 -1]
= 4800 [(21/20)3 -1]
= 4800 [9261/8000 -1]
= 4800 x (9261-8000)
8000
= 4800 x 1261 = Rs.756.6
8000

24. The product of two consecutive even numbers is 45368. What is the greater
number ?
a) 212
b) 216
c) 210
d) 208
e) None of these
Ans : (e)
Of the given alternatives, 212 x 214 = 45368
:. Required greater number = 214

25. A car covers a distance of 576kms. in 12 hours. What is the speed of the car ?
a) 54 kmph
b) 62 kmph
c) 46 kmph
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Ans : (e)
Speed of the car = Distance covered = 576 = 48 kmph
Time taken 12
26. What is 304 times 141 ?
a) 39640
b) 45942
c) 38760
d) 42864
e) None of these
Ans : (d)

27. The cost of 4 rings and 2 bangles is Rs.57200. What is the cost of 6 rings and 3
bangles ?
a) Rs.95340
b) Rs.85800
c) Rs.76600
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Ans : (b)
Let the CP of 1 ring and 1 bangle be Rs. x and y respectively
According to the question , 4x + 2Y -= 57200
Multiplying both sides by 1.5, we have 6x + 3y = 1.5 x 57200 = 85800

28. The difference between 54% of a number and 26% of the same number is 22526.
What is 66% of that number ?
a) 53097
b) 48372
c) 51218
d) 49124
e) None of these
Ans : (a)
Let the number be x, According to the question
(54-26)% of x = 22526
=> 28/100 * x= 22526
=> x = 22526 * 100 = 80450
28
:. 66% of 80450
= 66 * 80450 = 53097
100

29. Priya deposits an amount of Rs.65800 to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 14
p.c.p.a. for 4 years. What total amount will Priya get at the end of 4 years ?
a) Rs. 1,02,648
b) Rs.1,15,246
c) Rs.1,25,578
d) Rs. 1,10,324
e) None of these
Ans : (a)
SI = PxRxT
100
= Rs. (65800 x 14 x 4)
100
= Rs. 368.48 :. Amount = Principal + SI
= Rs. (65800 + 36848)
= Rs.102648

30. The owner of a cell phone shop charges his customer 28% more than the cost
price. If a customer paid Rs.8960 for the cell phone, then what was the cost price of the
cell phone ?
a) Rs.7800
b) Rs.7100
c) Rs.6900
d) Rs.6850
e) None of these
Ans : (e)
CP of the cell phone = Rs.(100/128 x 8960) = Rs.7000

31. In an annual examination Anish scores a total of 724 marks out of 1025. What is his
approximate percentage in the annual examination ?
a) 79
b) 67
c) 71
d) 88
e) 62
Ans : (c)
Percentage of mark = 724/1025 * 100 = 71

32. A canteen requires 651 bananas for a week. Totally how many bananas will it
require for the months of April, May and June 2009 ?
a) 9086
b) 8547
c) 9284
d) 8463
e) None of these
Ans : (d)
Number of days in April, May and June 2009 = 30 + 31 + 30 = 91
:. Requirement of bananas for 7 days = 651
:. Requirement of bananas for 91 days = 651/7 * 91 = 8463

33. If an amount of Rs.4,36,563 is distributed equally amongst 69 persons, how much

amount would each person get ?
a) Rs.5943
b) Rs.6327
c) Rs.6148
d) Rs.5876
e) None of these
Ans : (b)
Amount received by each person = Rs. (436563/69) = Rs.6327

34. There are 1825 employees in an organization, out of which 64% got transferred to
different places. How many such employees are there who got transferred ?
a) 1054
b) 1490
c) 1263
d) 1168
e) None of these
Ans : (d)
Number of employees transferred = 64% of 1825
64 x 1825 = 1168
100

35. 64% of a number is 2592. What is 88% of that number ?

a) 3458
b) 3202
c) 3826
d) 3564
e) None of these
Ans : (d)
Let the number be x
:. 64% of x = 2592
=> 64x = 2592
100
=>x = 2592 x 100 = 4050
64
:. 88% of4050
= 88 x 4050 = 3564
100

36. If the fractions

3/5, 2/3, 1/4, 5/7 and 6/11 are arranged in ascending order of their values, which
one will be the fourth ?
a) 3/5
b) 1/4
c) 5/7
d) 6/11
e) None of these
Ans : (e)
Decimal equivalents of each fraction :
3/5 = 0.6; 2/3 = 0.67; 1/4 = 0.25 ; 5/7 = 0.71; 6/11 = 0.545
 clearly, 0.25<0.545<0.6<0.67<0.71
:. The fourth fraction = 2/3

37. In an examination it is required to get 1050 of the aggregate marks to pass. A

student gets 924 marks and is declared failed by 9% marks. What are the maximum
aggregate marks a student can get ?
a) 1250
b) 1525
c) 1400
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
Ans : (c)
Let the maximum marks be x
:. 9% of x = 1050 - 924
=> 9x/100 = 126
=> x=126 x 100 = 1400
9
38. The total number of students in a school is 2140. If the number of girls in the school
is 1200, then what is the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number
of girls in the school ?
a) 26:25
b) 47:60
c) 18:13
d) 31:79
e) None of these
Ans : (b)
Total number of students = 2140
Number of girls = 1200
:. Number of boys = 2140 - 1200 = 940
:. Required ratio = 940:1200: = 47 : 60

39. Find the average of the following set of numbers :

354, 281, 623, 518, 447, 702, 876
a) 538
b) 555
c) 568
d) 513
e) None of these
Ans : (e)
354+281+623+518+447+702+876 = 3801 = 543
7 7

40. Veena invests Rs.72318, which is 17% of her annual income, in mutual funds.
What is her monthly income ?
a) Rs.33,600
b) Rs.32,990
c) Rs.35,450
d) Rs.28,980
e) None of these
Ans : (c)
Let Veena's annual income be Rs.x
According to the question , 17% of x = 72318
=> x = 72318 x 100 = Rs.425400
17
:. Veena's monthly income
= Rs. (425400) = Rs.35450
12

SSC verbal ability questions and answers,SSC,UPSC previous years questions with
answers,SSC,UPSC English language questions for practice Tips and Tricks.UPSC,SSC,Common
errors,Sentence completion,Verb, Infinitive, Verbal noun, Gerund, Participle,some important
rules,excercise to practice

Common Errors

Exercise for Practice

1. Many a man / have / been working / under me. / No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B - Change 'have' to 'has' to make the verb singular. 'Many a' is always followed by a singular noun
and a singular verb.

2. Cattles / were grazing / in the meadows / near our farm. / No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A - Change 'cattles' to 'cattle'. 'Cattle' is one of those collective nouns which though singular in form
are always used as plurals.

3. I told him / the story / in details / to make him understand it fully. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C - Change 'details' to 'detail'.

4. I have / two sister-in-laws / whose husands / are all well settled in Delhi. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B - Change 'sister-in-laws' to 'sister-in-law'. Plural of such compound words is formed by adding 's' in
the first constituent of the compound word.

5. Many a person / have lost / their life / and property in the riots. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B - Change 'have' to 'has'. Refer to answer to Q.No. 1

6. As he stood / below the shower / the sharp jets of / ice cold water revived his spirit. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D - Change 'spirit' to 'spirits', as it is always used in plural form.

7. The man / who I have / often mentioned is one whose friendship / I could wish to acquire, because he
is a respectable man. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(E)

Ans : B - Change 'who' to 'whom'. Subjective form should not be used for the word functioning as object.

8. In my youth / I used to / visit / Sharma's and Chawla's company. / No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D - Delete 's from Sharma's. When two nouns are closely connected the apostrophe's is added only
to the second.

9. The doctor said / the patient / should not have wasted / a whole week before coming for help. / No
error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B - Insert 'the' before 'patient' since there is emphasis on the word 'patient'.
10. This girl / wrote an essay / so well that / her teacher was exceedingly pleased with her. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A - Substitute 'an' by 'the' before 'essay'. The sentence lays emphasis on 'essay'.

11. The old man told / his son that / there was no such thing / for luck. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D - Substitute 'for' by 'as'. 'Such' is generally followed by 'as'.

12. Bacteria is / probably the most / common form / of life on earth. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A - Change 'Bacteria' to 'Bacterium', since the singular form of 'Bacteria' is 'Bacterium'.

13. Different / authorities defines / intelligence in / different ways. / No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B - Change 'defines' to define' to make it plural in order to get it to agree with the plural subject
'authorities'.

14. The classical / systems of dance has / many features / in common. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B - Change 'has' to 'have' to make it plural in order to get it to agree with the plural subject 'systems'.

15. Everyone of the students / has brought / his / identity card. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A - Where the number is limited or is implied to be limited 'each one' will be a better usage than
'everyone'.

16. On Friday evening / Mamta and me / took a coach / for Patna and arrived at Jamal's house. / No
error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Ans : B - Substitute 'me' by 'I'. Objective form of pronoun should not be used for one functioning as subject.

17. The conference was / attended / by more than / one hundred delegates. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E - The sentence is correct.

18. There are / no conducted tours / for tourist to visit all the / important places. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D - Change 'tourist' to 'tourists'.

19. He neglects / attending lecutres / regularly / though college is only a few yards away from his
house. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D - Put 'the' before 'college', since 'college' here has been particularized.

20. If you saw / the amount of Samosas / he consumed at breakfast this morning, / you would understand
why he is so over-weight / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(E)

Ans : B - Replace 'amount' by 'unmber'.

21. In my opinion / the balance sheet exhibits / a true and fair / view of the state of affairs of the
bank. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E - The sentence is correct.

22. Everyman, woman and child / is now aware / of the terrible consequences of / habit of
smoking. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
Ans : D - Put 'the' before 'habit' since 'habit' here has been particularized, the habit of smoking.

23. The crowd at the stadium / clapped jubilantly / when the champion / received his trophy. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E - The sentence is correct.

24. Our state will / not be divided / into two parts / at any cost. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E - The sentence is correct.

25. This is one of / the most interesting book / I have / ever read. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B - Change 'book' to 'books'.

(Verb, Infinitive, Verbal noun, Gerund, Participle)

Some Important Rules

Exercise for Practice

1. In her hour of distress / she requested Mohan to lend / her some money / but he refused to do so. / No
error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E - The sentence is correct.

2. Since the day the strike was declared / by the factory employees / over 20 workers have been /
dismissed and 10 resigned. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(E)
Ans : D - Insert 'have' before 'resigned' to make it present perfect tense in sequence to the preceding
clause.

3. The students were officially / told that they / are not to cross / the road against the red light. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C - Change 'are' to 'were'. The verb in the reported part must agree in tense with the verb of the
reporting verb.

4. On my way to office, I shall / generally come across / many children / wearing blue uniforms. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B - Delete 'shall' before 'generally come across' . The sentence speaks of a present activity, hence
'shall' is redundant.

5. The well clad servant lays / the table / while the lady of the house was busy / with her guests. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A - Change 'lays' to 'laid' to make it past indefinite tense to agree with the tense of the clause
following.

6. The tutor cautioned/the girl's guardian / that she would not / be able to get through the examination until
she did not work hard. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(E)

Ans : D - Change 'did not work hard' to 'worked hard'. 'Until' itself is negative, hence double negative is not
required.

7. She said / that / she will help me / whenver I was in difficulty. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C - Change 'will' to 'would' in order to get it to agree with the past tense of the reporting verb.
8. Being a / fine day / we went out for / picnic at Okhla. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A - Put 'It' before 'being'. The participle should not be left without agreement or with no agreement at
all.

9. My friend being unwilling to attend /the court at an early hour of the morning, / sent a letter / explaining
why could he not obey. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(E)

Ans : D - Change 'could he' to 'he could'. The interrogative becomes assertive on the statement being
converted from direct into indirect form.

10. Being a hot day / I shall not be able to / do any / more work. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A - Add 'It' before 'being'. Refer to rule mentioned in answer to question no. 8 above.

11. The apples / he gave me are / too expensive / to be bad. / No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E - The sentence is correct.

12. We have been learning / our lessons regularly / since / the beginning of the term. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E - The sentence is correct.

13. I have been knowing / him for the last / four years, yet I haven't been able / to establish friendship
with him. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(E)

Ans : A - Change 'had been knowing', to 'have known'. Verbs of perception are not normally used in
continuous or perfect continuous tense.
14. We must not complain / that roses have thorns / but rather grateful / that thorns bear flowers. / No
error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C - put 'be' before 'grateful', the verb which is missing.

15. Did I not told / you that it was quite / necessary / to be in time ? / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A - Change 'told' to 'tell'. The verb is used in first form with the helping verb 'did'.

16. Day in and day out / he keep telling / his friends that / he wants to go abroad. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B - Chang 'keep' to 'keeps on'.

17. He found the house / without any difficulty / and knocked / at the door. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E - The sentence is correct.

18. The fact is / that Mr. Joshi did fell / and was / injured. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B - Remove 'did' which is redundant here.

19. As he stood / under the shower / the sharp jet of ice cold water / revived his spirits. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E - The sentence is correct.

20. It is in 1929 / that we first flew / to / the United States. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C - Change 'is' to 'was'.

21. The gentleman together with his fife / and daughter / were / drowned. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : C - Substitute 'were' by 'was' to get it to agree with its singular subject 'the gentleman'.

22. People have / ideas about / aeroplanes in / ancient times. / No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : A - Change 'have' to 'had' to make it a past tense.

23. My elder brother and sister / helps me / in / my home work. / No error

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : B - Change 'helps' to 'help'. The two separate nouns joned by 'and' take plural verb.

24. He was looking for / an opportunity to / come out of / the meeting room. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : E - The sentence is correct.

25. Jagan said / that he was sorry / for having / keep me waiting for sometime. / No error
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Ans : D - Change 'keep' to 'kept'. In perfect participle the verb has third form.
Chapter 4

Sentence Completion

(Effective words, Phrases, Prepositions, Conjuctions etc.)

Direction - Each of the following questions has a word or group of words missing. Four or five alternative
words are given. You have to find out which one of them would make the sentence grammatically correct
and meaningful.

1. Some of the luggage .......... not yet arrived.

(A) has (Ans)

(B) have

(C) is

(D) are

2. One of the ......... injured.

(A) player was

(B) players were

(C) players was (Ans)

(D) players are

3. We should always be careful in the choice of .........

(A) our friend

(B) our friends (Ans)

(C) ours friend

(D) ours friends

4. He talks as if he ....... a fool.

(A) is

(B) was

(C) were (Ans)

(D) has been

5. He ........ since morning.

(A) is playing

(B) has been playing (Ans)

(C) has played

(D) will be playing

6. When the meeting began, everybody took .......

(A) his seat (Ans)

(B) their seat

(C) their seats

(D) one's seat

7. I wonder whether I ........ ever see him again.

(A) shall

(B) will
(C) should

(D) would (Ans)

8. I ...... sing well when I was younger.

(A) could (Ans)

(B) might

(C) would

(D) did

9. No sooner ...... than the police handcuffed him.

(A) he came

(B) did he came

(C) did he come (Ans)

(D) had he come

10. We ...... some friends in for dinner tomorrow night.

(A) have

(B) are having (Ans)

(C) do have

(D) will have

11. "What exactly does he want?"

"He would like to see you ....... a good job on the project."
(A) got (Ans)

(B) get

(C) to get

(D) will get

12. "She was sorry she didn't attend her friend's wedding."

"Yes, she ....... "

(A) regretted she can't have gone

(B) was regretting she does not go

(C) will regret she didn't go

(D) was regretting that she couldn't go (Ans)

13. "Sujata is late in he office".

"She rarely comes in time ......?"

(A) don't she

(B) does she (Ans)

(C) doesn't she

(D) won't she

14. "There is a visitor here"

"All right man I ......."

(A) shall be expecting this man

(B) am expecting this man (Ans)

(C) was to expect this man

(D) had to expect this man

15. "Can we start our match?

"No, we can't unless the referee ........"

(A) will not give the signal

(B) gives the signal (Ans)

(C) did not give the signal

(D) does not give the signal

16. "Why is he breathing so fast"?

"The teacher made him ..... a ;mile as measure of punishment for his coming late".

(A) running

(B) to run

(C) ran

(D) run (Ans)

17. He behaves as if he ....... a king.

(A) was

(B) were (Ans)

(C) has

(D) had
18. Do not look ....... the poor.

(A) down

(B) up

(C) upon

(D) down upon (Ans)

19. The dog has been ..... by the car.

(A) run out

(B) run over (Ans)

(C) run into

(D) run for

20. ...... you apologize I shall punish you.

(A) until

(B) unless (Ans)

(C) till

(D) none of these

21. I spoke to the chairman ............. he was sitting alone in the cabin.

(A) where

(B) when (Ans)

(C) whereas

(D) whenever
22. I went directly to my boss to ........ his approval.

(A) order

(B) restore

(C) seek (Ans)

(D) collect

(E) gain

23. It was an unhappy life ........ I lived, full of many anxieties.

(A) that (Ans)

(B) which

(C) as

(D) where

(E) though

24. My concern for Jugal's future was very ..... as he was not in job then.

(A) strong (Ans)

(B) big

(C) good

(D) powerful

(E) much

25. She remained there for hours after Jayant ........... gone.
(A) had (Ans)

(B) did

(C) have

(D) has

(E) was

Staff selection commission recruitment procedure written test examination pattern and Scheme of
the examination for combined graduate level examination(Tier1,II and III)SSC stands for staff
selection commission upcoming recruitment examination and test pattern SSC previous year model
written test examination question paper and answer
Combined Graduate Level(Tier-I) Examination, 2012,Ministries/Deptt. of Govt. of India written
examination on 01.07.2012 & 08.07.2012(Sundays)
Previous question paper with solution,SSC written examination detailed analysis and detailed
selection procedure and test pattern for upcoming recruitment exam
Staff selection commission recruitment procedure written test examination pattern and Scheme of
the examination for combined graduate level examination(Tier1,II and III)

SSC staff selection commission General englsih question and answer

1. To pin one's faith-

(a) To be sure of some body's favour -Ans
(b) To be unsure of favour
(c) To bother for friends
(d) To bother for one's relatives

2. To play fast and loose

(a) To be undependable-Ans
(b) To cheat people .
(c) To hurt some body's feelings·
(d) To trust others

3 To play on a fiddle-
(a) To play an important role
(b) To play upon a musical instrument
(c) To be busy over trifles-Ans
(d) To be busy over important matter

4. Alma Mater- '

(a) Mother's milk
(b) Mother's concern for the child
(c) The learning that one receives from mother
(cl) Institution where one receives education-Ans

5. To be on the apex
(a) To scale a peak
(b) To be at the highest point-Ans
(c) To punish somebody
(d) To beat somebody-

6. At one's beck and call

(a) To climb the back
(b) To call from behind
(c) To be always at one's service or command
(d) Not to care for anybody

7. At one's wit's end-

(a Completely confused
(b) To be very witty
(c) To have no sense of humour
(d) To confuse others

8. An axe to grind-
(a) To put an axe in the enemy's territory
(b) To put an axe in the ground
(c) Not to have any selfish motive
(d) To have a selfish motive

Direction(9-18): Read the following paragraph and answer: Edmunde Burke called the press the Fourth
Estate of the realm. I think he did not use this title for the Press thoughtlessly as social ruling group or
class. The three Estates or Realms (in England) Lords Spiritual (i.e., the Bishops in the House of Lords),
the 'temporal, (i.e. other Lords) and Commons, i. e., the common people). The Press has been rightly
called the Fourth Estate as it also. constitutes a ruling group or class like the Lords and Commons. It
cannot be denied in a free country that the Press exercises good deal of influence in shaping public opinion
and pointing out the weaknesses or defects of society or of Government, and 'in general bringing to light all
those good or bad things in society which would have otherwise remained unnoticed. The power is not
limited or put under any check. The Press, instead of, being controlled by anyone controls life and thought
of a nation: Hence the Press constitutes an Estate by itself.

Obviously. thus power which the Press in an:)' country wields depends upon the number of newspaper
readers. The opinions . and comments of newspapers can influence. the life of a nation only when they are
read, by People. Reading in turn, requires that the general mass of people should be educated. Thus, the
spread of education determines the extent of the newspapers. Where readers are few; newspapers must
necessarily be few. Their influence, in that case can extend only to a small minority of population. In a
country like India, the percentage of literacy is very low and the standard of journalism is n9t very high. So
Press has to play the role of a teacher here.

9. Edmunde Burke called the Press

(a) Instrument of Public Opinion
(b) Distributor of news
(c) The Fourth Estate
(d) Lord Temporal

10. The term Fourth Estate stands for

(a) An area of land
(b) Landed Property
(c) Social ruling group or class
(d) Instrument of Power

11. Out of the following the one which is not included in the Three Estates is-
(a) Lords Spiritual
(b) Justices of Peace
(c) Lord Temporal
(d) Commons

12. The Free press docs not perform the function of-
(a) Shaping public opinion
(b) Supporting at all times the official policy
(c) Criticising Government
(d) Exposing social abuses

13. How much power does a Free Pres! possess?

(a) Only that much power which is allowed by the Government of the the country
(b) Unlimited power without any check
(c) Unlimited power subject to the maintenance of la wand order and public morality
(d) No power at all

14. The secret of the Press is-

(a) the money which the newspaper owners can wield
(b The number of newspaper readers
(c) the extent to which it supports official policy
(d) The patronage enjoyed by it of the Government

15. The number of newspaper readers is determined by -

(a) The low price of newspapers
(b) The patronage extended to it by the moneyed people
(c) Education of the general mass of people
(d) The availability of newsprint.

16. The Press exercises power by

(a) Enlisting the support of the people
(b) Keeping watch over the acts of the Government
(c) Controlling life and thought of a nation
(d) Because it is a great moneyedconcern
17. The state of journalism in India
(a) is upto the mark
(b) is rather low
(c) is in its infancy
(d) is not very high

18. The Press has the greatest chances of flourishing in a--

(a) Monarchy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Limited Dictatorship

19-26: Fill in the blanks

19. She has Dot recovered fully---the shock of his failure.
(a) off (b) of (c) from (d) against

20. The master dispensed---the services of his servant.

(a) of (b) with (c) off (d) for

Answers
11. b, 12. b, 13. c, 14. b, 15. c, 16. c, 17. d, 18. c. 19. c, 20. b

21. I look---him as my close friend.

(a) OD (b)'up (c) after (d) to

22. My friend is really very good--cricket.

(a) on (b) at (c) in (d) over

23. He has great affection---me.

(a) with (b) on (c) for (d) in

24. He always connives---with his superiors against his colleagues.

(a) on (b) with (c) about (d) at

25. I have been informed that the two brothers have fallen---.
(a) upon (bl through (c) in (d) out

26. Your friend has been convicted---the charge of murder.

(a) upon (b) for (c) on (d) of

Direction: 27-31 : Each word or phrase is followed by four words or phrases. Choose the word or phase
which is most nearly the same

27. Pragmatism-
(a) Appearance (b) Obscurantism (c) Practicality (d) Reversion

28. Expeditiously
(a) Rapidly b. easily (c) Vividly d. none of these

29. Precarious
(a) Huge b. uncertain (c) Dangerous d. valuable

30. Vagrant-
(a) Wandering b. Not clear (c) Futile d. None of these
Answers
21. a, 22. b, 23. c, 24. b, 25. d, 26. c, 27. c, 28. a, 29. c, 30. a

31. Valediction
(a) Valid B. Farewell speech (c) Judgement d. None of these

Directions :- Each question is followed by four alternatives. Pick the one which best describe the statement

32. Capable of being approached-

(a) Accessory (b) Easy (c) Accessible (d) Adaptable

33. One who is liked by people-

(a) Samaritan (b) Popular () Philanthropist (d) Misanthropepist

34. No longer in use-

(a) Impracticable (b) Obsolete (c) Absolute (d) Useless

35. A child born after the death of his father-

(a) Posthumous (b) Bastard (c) Kiddy (d) Stepson.

36. One who is present everywhere-

(a) God (b) Omnipotent (c) Omnipresent (d) Visible

37. An office without salary-

(a) Honorary (b) Slavish (c) Sinecure (d) Voluntary

38. A document written by hand-

(a Script (b) Autobiography (c) Manuscript (d) Autography

39. Government by officials-

(a) Oligarchy (b) Bureaucracy (c) Autocracy (d) Democracy

40. A speech made off hand-

(a) Extempore (b) Maiden (c) Lecture (d) Gibberish
31.b, 32. a, 33. b, 34. b, 35. a, 36. b, 37. a, 38. c, 39. b, 40. a

Staff selection commission recruitment procedure written test examination pattern and Scheme of
the examination for combined graduate level examination(Tier1,II and III)SSC stands for staff selection
commission upcoming recruitment examination and test pattern SSC previous year model written test
examination question paper and answer
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.-Ans

2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for

(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.-
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.-Ans

3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?

(a) Three
(b) FiveAns
(c) Six
(d) Four

4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an

(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchyAns
(d) polity.

5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by

(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.Ans
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.Ans

7. Who is called the ‘Father of History'?

(a) Plutarch
(b) HerodotusAns
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny

8. The Vedas are known as

(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.Ans
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.

9. The members of Estimate Committee are

(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.Ans
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?

(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.Ans
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.

11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called

(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.Ans

12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?

(a) GDPAns
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income

13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in

(a) the agriculture sector.Ans
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.

14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.Ans
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.

15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)Ans
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)

16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which

(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.Ans
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.

17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.Ans

18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by

(a) E.H.ChamberlinAns
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall

19. Smoke is formed due to

(a) solid dispersed in gas.Ans
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.

20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?

(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromideAns
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.

21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains

(a) Methane.Ans
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene

22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) OxidationAns
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) GreenAns
(c) Orange
(d) Red

24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its

(a) better cleaning action.Ans
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.

25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting
TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) RohiniAns

26. What is the full form of ‘AM' regarding radio broadcasting?

(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude MatchingAns
(d) Amplitude Modulation.

27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi MehtaAns
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar

28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?

(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) MalariaAns

29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?

(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) BauxiteAns
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The USAns
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK

31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union CabinetAns
(d) Finance Ministry

32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for

(a) " all other things variable "
(b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal"Ans
(d) "all other things decreasing"

33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip KumarAns
(d) Shabana Azmi

34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with

(a) Interest Rate.Ans
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.

35. India's biggest enterprise today is

(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.Ans
(d) the India Telecommunication System.

36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.Ans

37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning CommissionAns
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India

38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is
called.
(a) Fiscal deficitAns
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit

39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its

(a) production.Ans
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.

40. In the US, the President is elected by

(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.Ans
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.

41. Fascism believes in

(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individualAns

42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?

(a) SupervisionAns
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing

43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.' in economics, are regarded as

(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.Ans
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.

44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 kmAns
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km

45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian
border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal PradeshAns
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.

46. M. Damodaran is the

(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.Ans
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.

47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) TejasAns

48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?

(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.Ans

49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in

(a) France.
(b) China.Ans
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.

50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) Navin ChawlaAns
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon

51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and AftermathAns
(d) Shining India and BJP.

52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?

(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) JahanaraAns

53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878Ans

54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.Ans
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.

55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was

(a) worship of forces of nature.Ans
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.

56. Name the capital of Pallavas.

(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.Ans
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.

57. The Home Rule League was started by

(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade Ans
(d) K.T.Telang

58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because

(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.Ans
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipseAns
(d) Solar eclipse.

60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with

(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.Ans

61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by

(a) counting the number of branches.Ans
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.

62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are

(a) VirusesAns
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae
d) Fungi

63. What is an endoscope?

(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canalAns
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.

64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as

(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensisAns

65. The President of India is elected by

(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.Ans

66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is

(a) of no use to plants.Ans
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.

67. Diamond and Graphite are

(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphousAns
(c) isomers
(d) isobars

68. Kayak is kind of

(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.Ans
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.

69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?

(a) CarbohydratesAns
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.

70. Rotation of crops means

(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.Ans
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.

71. Suez Canal connects

(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.Ans

72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?

(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.Ans

73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to

(a) method of potato cultivation.Ans
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.

74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is

(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.Ans

75. Recharging of water table depends on

(a) amount of rainfall.Ans
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.

SSC Staff selection commission previous year question paper ,aptitude reasoning and latest 2012-
2013 General awareness,current affairs question with answer
Staff selection commission recruitment procedure written test examination pattern and Scheme of
the examination for combined graduate level examination(Tier1,II and III)SSC stands for staff
selection commission upcoming recruitment examination and test pattern SSC previous year model
written test examination question paper and answer Combined Graduate Level(Tier-I) Examination,
2012,Ministries/Deptt. of Govt. of India written examination on 01.07.2012 & 08.07.2012(Sundays)
Previous question paper with solution,SSC written examination detailed analysis and detailed
selection procedure and test pattern for upcoming recruitment exam
Staff selection commission recruitment procedure written test examination pattern and Scheme of
the examination for combined graduate level examination(Tier1,II and III)

Staff selection commission latest 2012-2013 General awareness, current affairs question with
answer

1. Which of the following bodies tightened the norms for foreign exchange risk cover in India
mentioning that only companies with a networth of Rs 200 crore can use derivatives to hedge
against risk of volatility in currency rates?
a. IMF
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. SEBI
d. Union Ministry of Finance
Ans: b

2. Which body in India finally provided tax exemption on the 9.5 per cent interest income on PF deposits for
2010-11?
a. Reserve Bank of India
b. Income Tax Department
c. Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation
d. Corporate Affairs Ministry
Ans: b
3. (1) The report on Customer Service in Banks by a committee chaired by M. Damodaran, former
Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) that was released on 3 July 2011
recommended an increased deposit insurance cover of Rs.5 lakh so as to encourage individuals to keep all
their deposits in banks.
(2) The panel also suggested blocking of lost ATM cards through SMS and immediate restoration of funds
in case of non-dispensation of cash at an ATM within 5 working days.
Which of the above is not true?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 & 2
d. None of the above
Ans: b

4. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a bid to tame inflationary pressure hiked the short-term indicative
policy rate (repo rate) by 50 basis points on 26 July 2011. The repo rate currently stands at what
percentage?
a. 7%
b. 7.5%
c. 8%
d. 8.5%
Ans: c

5. Which bank posted a 99 per cent drop in net profit at Rs 21 crore for the fourth quarter ended 31 March
2011 against Rs 1867 crore during the corresponding period in 2010?
a. Indian Overseas Bank
b. State Bank of India
c. Bank of India
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b

6. Who did global payments processing company MasterCard appoint as the General Manager, South Asia
and Country President, India?
a. T. V. Seshadri
b. Vicky Bindra
c. Tunde Lemo
d. Ajay Banga
Ans: a

7. Government of India on 19 July 2011 appointed Usha Ananthasubramanian, former general manager of
Bank of Baroda (BoB) as executive director of which public sector lender?
a. Central Bank of India
b. Punjab National Bank
c. United Bank of India
d. Gramin Bank
Ans: b

8. Name the public sector lender that selected Metlife as its partner for a proposed foray into the life
insurance segment.
a. Syndicate Bank
b. Punjab National Bank
c. Corporation Bank
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b

9. Which bank signed a memorandum of understanding with Dewan Housing Finance Corporation (DHFL)
under which DHFL will distribute home loans to Yes Bank's customers?
a. Canara Bank
b. ABN Amro bank
c. Yes Bank
d. HSBC
Ans: c

10. Which life insurance company in India launched a new non-linked health insurance plan, Jeevan
Arogya?
a. HDFC Standard Life Insurance Co. Ltd
b. Life Insurance Corporation of India
c. IDBI Fortis Life Insurance Company Ltd.
d. SBI Life Insurance Co. Ltd
Ans: b

11. Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011 froze its lending to the power sector?
a. State Bank of India
b. Allahabad Bank
c. Punjab National Bank
d. United Bank of India
Ans: b

12. Which Indian bank on 10 May 2011 raised benchmark prime lending rate 75 basis points to 14%
following raising of interest rates by RBI by basis points on 3 May 2011?
a. State Bank of India
b. Union Bank
c. Punjab National Bank
d. Bank of Baroda
Ans: a

13. The Reserve Bank of India on 26 April 2011 fined 19 banks, including the country's top private and
foreign banks for violating its guidelines on derivatives. Which is the only public sector bank on the list of
banks to be fined?
a. State bank of India
b. Punjab National Bank
c. Bank of India
d. Indian Bank
Ans: a
14. The Reserve Bank of India on 25 August 2011 released its Annual Report for 2010-11. Which of the
following was not discussed in the Annual Report the Central Board of the RBI?
a. assessment of the macroeconomic performance during 2010-11
b. prospects for 2011-12
c. working and operations of the Reserve Bank and its financial accounts
d. role of regulatory bodies in controlling the financial markets
Ans: d

15. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) panel headed by headed by Usha Thorat, Director, Centre for Advanced
Financial Research and Learning (CAFRAL) on 29 August 2011 came up with suggestion on non-banking
finance company (NBFC). Which of the following related to this statement is not true?
1. The panel suggested the central bank to insist on a minimum asset size of more than Rs.25 crore for
registering any new non-banking finance company (NBFC)
2. Transfer of shareholding, direct or indirect, of 25 per cent and above, change in control, merger or
acquisition of any registered NBFC will require prior approval of the Reserve Bank.
3. Tier-I capital for capital to risk weighted assets ratio (CRAR) purposes would be specified at 12 per cent
to be achieved in three years for all registered deposit-taking and non-deposit-taking NBFCs.
4. NBFCs would be subject to regulations similar to banks while lending to stock brokers and merchant
banks and similar to stock brokers, as specified by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
a. 1 & 4
b. 2 & 4
c. Only 4
d. Only 1
Ans: d

16. Which Indian PSU bank in tune with its plans to expand its retail division in the UK entered the
mortgage market in the country for the first time?
a. Punjab National Bank
b. Oriental Bank of Commerce
c. State bank of India
d. Indian Overseas Bank
Ans: c

17. Which of the following banks set up two loan processing centres for the small and medium enterprise
(SME) segment on a pilot basis in Bangalore & in New Delhi in September 2011?
a. Corp Bank
b. United Bank of India
c. Syndicate Bank
d. Bank of Baroda
Ans: c

18. The government suspended M Ramadoss for alleged violations in issuing insurance cover to an airline
during his stint as head of another state-run insurer. To which insurance group did he belong to?
a. New India Assurance
b. LIC
c. GIC
d. ICICI Insurance
Ans: a

19. Which of the following banks in early May 2011 entered into a tie-up with non-banking finance
companies such as Future Capital, Bajaj Finance, and Reliance Capital to grow its retail portfolio?
a. Central Bank of India
b. State Bank of India
c. Bank of India
d. HDFC Bank
Ans: a

20. Which are the two Gujarat-based cooperative sector lenders on which Reserve bank of India imposed a
financial penalty of Rs 1 lakh each for violation of various rules, including anti-money laundering
guidelines?
1. Shree MahalaxmiMercantile Co-operative Bank
2. Rander People's Co-operative Bank
3. Abad District Co Op Bank
4. Ahd Mercantile Co-Op Bank Ltd
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c. 1 & 4
d. 3 & 4
Ans: (a)

21Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh paid a visit in December 2011 to -

Tokyo
Melbourne
Wellington
Moscow-Ans: 4

22Annual Defence Diologue was held in December 2011 between India and -
China-1
Afghanistan
Russia
Pakistan
Ans: 1

23Consider the following statements on NATGRID -

(i) NATGRID has been formed to link database for inputs to combat terrorism.
(ii) It is meant to improve India's capability to counter threats to its internal security.
Choose the right option:
Both (i) and (ii) are correct-Ans
Only (i) is correct
Only (ii) is correct
Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

24The report by Wildlife Institute of India enlisted major threats to three tiger reserves which are Kalakad-
Mundanthurai tiger reserve, Anamalai and Mudumalai. In which one of the following stated are these tiger
reserves located?
Bihar
Tamil Nadu-ans
West Bengal
Kerala
Ans: 2

Who have been awarded with FIFA World Player of the Year 2011 Trophy?
Lionel Messi-1Ans: 1
Xavi Fernandez
Christiano Ronaldo
None of these

25Uttarakhand state cabinet on October 29, 2011 cleared Uttarakhand Lokayukta Bill, 2011. Consider the
following features of the bill-
(i) The Chief Minister of the state, all ministers, MLAs and lower judiciary will be under the purview of
Lokayukta.
(ii) Judges of the Uttarakhand High Court will not be covered under the purview of Lokayukta.
Choose the right option-
Both (i) and (ii) are correct-Ans: 1
Only (i) is correct
Only (ii) is correct
Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct

26Which Bengali film was selected as the inaugural film at the 11th edition of River to River Florence Indian
Film Festival, 2011, in Florence, Italy in December 2011?
100% Love
Khokababu
Chaplin-Ans: 3
Bedroom

27Name the legendary Bollywood playback singer who entered the Guinness world Records for the most
number of single studio recordings?
Lata Mangeshkar
Asha Bhonsle-Ans: 2
Shreya Ghoshal
Suchitra Krisnamurthy

28Which one of the following became the first Indian state to launch health insurance policy covering all its
people?
Kerala
Haryana
Bihar
Goa-Ans: 4

29West Bengal State cabinet approved the newly drafted land acquisition and resettlement Bill. Consider
the following features of the Bill-
(i) The private enterprises would have to acquire land for their projects directly from the landowners.
(ii) The new policy provides that the government would acquire land only for projects of public utility like
building, hospitals, irrigation projects, bridges, laying railway tracks, setting up of embankments, and
projects relating to internal secu
Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Only (i) is correct
Only (ii) is correct
Nither (i) nor (ii) is correct

30Annual Defence Diologue was held in December 2011 between India and -
ChinaAns: 1
Afghanistan
Russia
Pakistan

SSC airthmetic aptitude and reasoning questions with answers Combied gradatuate level examination
Directions (Q.No. 1-5): Find out the correct answer out of the four alternatives given below each question
and then mark it in your answer sheet
1.Ice : Coolness :: Earth : ?
a. Forest
b. Weight
c.Gravitation-Ans
d.Ocean

2.Coconut:Shell :: Letter : ?
a.Mail
b.Letter-box
c.Stamp
d.Emvelope-Ans

3.Income is related to profit in the same way as expenditure is related to

a.Loss-Ans
b.Surplus
c.Balance
d.Sale

4.Much is related to many in the same way as measure is related to

a.Calculate
b.Count
c.Weigh
d.Measurement-Ans

5.Clue is related to Mystery in the same way as warning is related to

a.Precaution-Ans
b.Disaster
c.Risk
d.Danger
6.Directions (Q.No.6-10) : Find out the missing term in the following letter-number series:
6.H 4 W, I 18 V, K 48 T, N 100 Q, ? ,W 294 H
a.P1485 S
b.R 180 M-An
c.S 198 1
d.T 206 K

7.I ED, 2 FD, 3 KH, ? 15 KG 48 KF

a. 12 PX
b.6 RI
c.9LV
d.8TQ

8M4, T7, P7, Q 10, S 10, N 13 ? K 16

a.V 4
b.K 7
c.T 13
d. G15

9.R 5 P, T 6 M, V 9 J, X 15 G, ?
a. A 12 L
b. I 18 X
c. T 13
d. G 15

10.DGK0, GKP3, ? PVC 15

a. GKV 5
b. KPV 8
c. PVZ 9
d. KPU 11

11. If the first 6 letter of the English Alphabet series are written in reversed order, then the next 6 letter are
written in reversed order and so on, and at the end Y is interchanged Z, then which letter is fourth letter to
the right of 13th letter from the left?
a.M b.N c. Q d.P

12 If the English Alphabet series is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting from Y is
dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the alphabet series?
a.L b.O c.M d.N

13 If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order
and then the groups of letters so formed are rrearranged ias in a dictionary,which letter group would have
its group of letter in the MIDDLE among the five letter-groups?
a.LACK
b.MEET
c.ROAD
d.DEAF

14 Find the odd man out

a.MOndAy
b.tUESdAy
c.WEdNESdAy
d.thUrSdAy

15 Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to the group?
a.CUSTOMER :SGPSYYBK
b.INTEREST : UUHVJYUQ
c.OVERSEAS: TCHWWKCW
d.BANKING : HPLOSGI

16 Three of the four groups of letter given below are alike in a certain way while one is different Choose the
odd one
a.PROFIT : RPQCKR
b.OTHERS : QRJCTQ.
c.LEGUME : NCISOC
dCANKER : EYPIGP

17 Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while oneis different Choose
the odd one
a.GOWOURV
b.LZKMSU
c.JOEHNP
d.SFXPMG

18 Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different choose
the odd one
a.TW
b.MS
c.FT
JU

19 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to the group?
a. Pineapple
b.Guava
c.Grapes
d.Papaya
e.Pea-Ans

20 If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are
replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?
aS
b.B
c.A
d.K

21 If ‘ P Q' means ‘P is wife of Q', ‘P+Q' means ‘P is father of Q' and ‘P Q' means ‘P is sister of Q' then in G
H +R D, how is G related to D?a.Cannot be determined
b.Mother-ans
c.Niece
d.Aunt
e.None of these

22Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its letters with
respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has between its letters?
a. IB
b.LF
c.IE-Ans
d.FL
e TL

23 In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit ‘4′ exceeds
the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum of the two digits which immediately
follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such
4’s and 6’s together are there?5 4 4 6 2 6 3 5 6 4 2 8 4 3 7 6 6 4 8 3
a.4-a
b.6
c.3
d.5
e None of these

24 Accident is related to Carefulness in the same way as Disease is related to

a.Sanitation-Ans (a) Lack of second results in the first
b.Treatment
c.Medicine

25Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong
to the group?
a. BROTHER : DORVEHT
b.ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
c.ANOTHER : CONVEHT
d.BETWEEN : DTEZEEP-Ans (d)
e HUSBAND : JSUDNAF

26What is the common ratio of the progression 3√2, 6, 6√2 ?(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) √2 (d) √317. A clock shows the
time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9
p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes-Ans
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes

Directions Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and give answer
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone
are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) If the data in statements I alone are not sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(c) If the data either in statement I or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(d) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question.
27. What does ‘Ne’ stands for in the code language?I. ‘Na Ni Nok Ne’ means ‘I will tell you’ and ‘Ni Nok Ne
Nam’ means ‘he will tell you’ in that code language.II. ‘Ni Ne Mo Nam’ means ‘will he call you’ and ‘Ne Mok
Sac Ni’ means ‘how will you go’ in that code language.Ans (d)

28 Who amongst P, Q, R, S, T and U is the tallest?

I. P is taller that R and T but not as tall as U, who is taller than Q and S.
II. R is the third in height in the ascending order and not as tall as U, P and Q, Q being taller than P but not
the tallest.
Ans (c)

29Who among A, B, C, D, E & F read the book last?

I. F, who gave the book to B after reading, was third to read the same.
II. C, who read the book after A, was the third person to read the book before it reached E.
Ans (d)

30. Who is paternal uncle of Pavan?

I. Pavan is brother of Poornima, who is daughter of Meena, who is sister of Kumar, who is brother Smrithi.
II. Prithvi is brother of Indrajith, who is husband of Poornima, who is mother of Ganga, who is sister of
Pavan.
Ans (b)

31. What is Milan’s rank in the class of 44 students?I. Ramesh, whose rank is 17th in the class, is ahead of
Shyam by 6 ranks, Shyam being 7 ranks ahead of Milan.
II. Suketu is 26 ranks ahead of Milan and Shyamala is 6 ranks behind Milan while Savita stands exactly in
the middle of Shyamala and Suketu in ranks, her rank being 17.
Ans (c)

32. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The letter indicates
its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the 4th number when the numbers
are arranged in the descending order after interchanging numeric in each number without altering the place
of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

33. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of letters between
them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

34. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong
to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)