Psat NMSQT Practice Test 2 Answer Explanations

Answer
Explanations
for Practice Test #2
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PSAT/NMSQT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS READING
PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #2
Reading Test Answer Explanations

Question 1
Choice A is the best answer. Falvo believes that when trying KEY: A
something new it’s important to not overdo it. This can be seen
most clearly when Falvo admonishes the newest runner to control DIFFICULTY: Easy
his impulses and not to run too fast or try too hard when racing with
more experienced runners: “I don’t want you doing anything stupid,
Mosher. Some of these boys have been at it for a while. Don’t think
about them, think about yourself” (lines 19-22).
Choice B is incorrect because McCann is described as a “tough-
looking kid [who] smiled like a gunslinger” (lines 17-18), implying
that he is a risk-taker who is likely to push limits. Choice C is
incorrect because in the passage Mosher pushes himself until he
makes himself physically sick. Choice D is incorrect because the
person who said “let him go” was watching Mosher “stagger” past
after he had already pushed himself past his limits.
Question 2
Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks which KEY: B
character believes one shouldn’t push his or her limits when trying
something new: the running coach Falvo. The best evidence in DIFFICULTY: Medium
support of that choice is lines 19-22, when Falvo instructs Mosher to
control himself when running with the experienced racers by saying
“I don’t want you doing anything stupid, Mosher. Some of these
boys have been at it for a while. Don’t think about them, think about
yourself.”
Choice A is incorrect because while lines 14-17 show Falvo
encouraging McCann not to “drain the well,” they do not address
the issue of McCann “trying something new,” which is a central
part of the previous question. Choices C and D are incorrect because
lines 55-60 and 76-79 both show that Mosher pushed himself too
hard, not that he controlled himself.
Question 3
Choice B is the best answer. “Pace yourself. Let them do what they KEY: B
do. They’ll be about thirty yards ahead after the first lap. Don’t
worry about them. Go out slow, feel your way, then bring it home as DIFFICULTY: Medium
best you can. OK?” (lines 24-27). These lines indicate Falvo believes
Mosher should run for himself and not focus on what the other,
more experienced runners in the time trial are doing. The main
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purpose of these lines is to reemphasize what Falvo had said earlier

in the passage about not overdoing it when trying new things.
Choice A is incorrect because lines 24-27 were addressed
specifically to Mosher, not the group. Choice C is incorrect because
lines 24-27 are instructions to one runner about a specific race.
Choice D is incorrect because lines 24-27 do not reveal anything
about Falvo’s beliefs as much as they repeat or reemphasize what
he had said earlier.
Question 4
Choice B is the best answer. In the passage, the narrator, Mosher, KEY: B
shrugged after Falvo told him not to do anything stupid and then
said “sure” when the coach warned him not to worry about the DIFFICULTY: Easy
other runners, responses that both indicate that Mosher was
ignoring the coach’s advice (or being dismissive of it).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because when Mosher shrugs
at or offers a one-word response to the coach’s advice, it can be
inferred that he is simply ignoring it, not that he is a shy, dishonest,
or hostile person.
Question 5
Choice C is the best answer. Falvo’s advice to the runners at the KEY: C
beginning of the passage was not to push themselves too hard.
Even if the more experienced runners did not verbally respond to DIFFICULTY: Medium
that advice, it’s clear they followed it because their running was
described throughout the passage as having a “quiet, aggressive,
sustained power that looked like nothing” (lines 38-39) and being
as “smooth as water” (line 42). When passing Mosher on the track,
those runners were also said to be “all business now” (line 55),
describing efficiency without too much effort; those runners were
not pushing themselves too hard.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the passage never states
how the more experienced runners responded to Falvo’s advice
(except for McCann’s smiling at the idea he shouldn’t “drain the
well” that day), so it’s impossible to know if those runners were
enthusiastic about it, ignored it, or only pretended to heed it.
However, the way those racers were said to have run the time trial
(“all business”) does show that they generally accepted what their
coach had said.
Question 6
Choice D is the best answer. The passage makes clear that Mosher KEY: D
ignores Falvo’s advice to stay contained as a runner during the time
trial. Later he makes it clear that he had no idea why he hadn’t DIFFICULTY: Hard
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followed Falvo’s advice: “I don’t know why. I can’t explain it” (line
61).
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because line 61 is explicit in
stating that the narrator did not have a good reason to ignore
Falvo’s advice, not that he did so just because he was determined
to keep up with the other runners, wanted to prove something to
himself, or wanted to improve on his previous time.
Question 7
Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks for KEY: B
Mosher’s motivation for pushing himself too hard in the time trial.
In line 61, Mosher offers no concrete explanation for why he ran the DIFFICULTY: Hard
time trial the way he did: “I don’t know why. I can’t explain it.”
Choice A is incorrect because lines 36-39 describe the other runners
in the time trial but not the narrator. Choice C is incorrect because
lines 73-76 explain Mosher’s physical condition, not his internal
motivation, at the end of the time trial. Choice D is incorrect
because lines 91-94 explain Falvo’s reaction to Mosher’s race.
Question 8
Choice A is the best answer. Falvo says to the exhausted Mosher: KEY: A
“‘What we have here,’ he was saying, ‘is a failure to communicate.
Stay within yourself, I said. Don’t drain the well, I said’” (lines 81- DIFFICULTY: Easy
83). By then Mosher had pushed himself so hard that he’d become
physically ill and used up all his energy.
Choice B is incorrect because “don’t drain the well” means don’t
use up the valuable energy one has, not “don’t get sick.” Choices
C and D are incorrect because in the passage Falvo tells Mosher to
maintain his own pace and run his own race, not that he should be
concerned with the other runners or that he shouldn’t quit if tired.
Question 9
Choice D is the best answer. Lines 88-89 state “He laughed— KEY: D
that bitter Falvo laugh—ha!—like he’d just been vindicated.”
“Vindicated” means to be justified or proven correct, which is DIFFICULTY: Medium
apt in this context because by running himself into sickness and
exhaustion, Mosher had proven correct Falvo’s belief that Mosher
might overdo it.
Choice A is incorrect because “avenged” means to exact vengeance
or satisfaction. Choices B and C are incorrect because in this
passage no one is either set free or defended against; rather, Falvo
is simply proven correct that Mosher might push too hard in the
time trial.
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Question 10
Choice A is the best answer. The passage begins with “the KEY: A
number of democracies in the world today is unprecedented” and
then continues in the second paragraph by providing the specific DIFFICULTY: Medium
numbers in support of that claim: lines 17-20 state that in 2011,
117 of 193 countries were identified as electoral democracies
but that only 69 of 167 countries had been so labeled in 1989.
Beginning in line 23, however, the passage moves away from the
simple claim that the number of political democracies in the world
was increasing (unprecedented) and begins to analyze the reason
for that change: “What caused this global transformation?” The
remainder of the passage then focuses more closely on the reasons
there are more democracies today, including the “local factors” (line
24) involved, “poor economic management by many authoritarian
governments” (lines 26-27), and “new reach and speed of mass
media” (lines 37-38).
Choice B is incorrect because the passage doesn’t claim there is
less political openness in the world but more. Choice C is incorrect
because the passage doesn’t start with one set of data and then
switch to a conflicting set. Choice D is incorrect because the
passage neither supports nor denounces either democracies or
autocracies but simply discusses their increasing and/or decreasing
numbers in the modern world.
Question 11
Choice D is the best answer. Lines 17-20 state that in 2011, 117 of KEY: D
193 surveyed countries were identified as electoral democracies but
that only 69 of 167 countries were labeled as such in 1989. Then DIFFICULTY: Easy
those statistics are further explained by being “put another way”
(line 20), or stated another way.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because to “put” the statistics
in lines 17-20 “another way” means to explain or state them
another way, not to inflict something on someone by will or force
(“impose”), physically set something up (“place”), or encourage or
arouse (“incite”).
Question 12
Choice D is the best answer. Lines 30-31 explain that one way KEY: D
democracy was supported around the world was that “Western
governments and activists encouraged dissent and held out DIFFICULTY: Easy
rewards for reform.” In this context, the rewards being “held out”
(line 31) means the rewards being offered.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the rewards being “held
out” by Western governments and activists refer to the rewards
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being offered, not that those rewards were being resisted, awaited,
or avoided.
Question 13
Choice D is the best answer. Lines 56-59 state that “according to KEY: D
one study of the world’s democratic electoral systems, Brunei may
be the only country where ‘electoral politics has failed to put down DIFFICULTY: Hard
any meaningful roots at all.’” These lines support the claim that
there’s been a global trend toward political openness as they make
clear that there’s only one country on Earth (Brunei) where such
openness cannot be found.
Choice A is incorrect because line 23 asks a question related to the
proportion of democracies in the world but nothing about “political
openness.” Choice B is incorrect because lines 26-27 explain one
reason authoritarian regimes have failed. Choice C is incorrect
because lines 41-42 address the factor of the modern media in
politics.
Question 14
Choice A is the best answer. While the passage states and supports KEY: A
the idea that there are more democracies and fewer autocracies
in the world today, it further explains that, perhaps surprisingly, DIFFICULTY: Medium
even those autocracies are becoming more open: “With far fewer
repressive regimes in the world, one might have expected the
holdouts to be places where freedom and political competition are
increasingly suppressed. But in fact the opposite is true” (lines 59-
63).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in lines 59-63, the passage
explicitly supports the idea that freedom in modern autocracies is
not being “increasingly suppressed” (“in fact the opposite is true”),
but the passage says nothing about conflicting data and opinion
polls regarding life in those autocracies (choice B), that democracy
has faced a number of local setbacks (choice C), or that political
openness in autocratic countries has declined (choice D).
Question 15
Choice C is the best answer. The previous question asks about the KEY: C
unexpected state of political openness in autocratic regimes, with
lines 59-63 clearly explaining that there is more political openness to DIFFICULTY: Hard
be found in those regimes than might have been assumed: “With far
fewer repressive regimes in the world, one might have expected the
holdouts to be places where freedom and political competition are
increasingly suppressed. But in fact the opposite is true.”
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Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the previous question

asks about how politically open modern autocratic regimes tend
to be, but lines 18-22 discuss the proportion of democracies in the
world today; lines 46-50 describe shifts in public attitudes toward
democracy; and lines 73-77 analyze reasons why some political
autocracies may have changed.
Question 16
Choice B is the best answer. Lines 63-64 explain that while KEY: B
elections are central to democracy, other indicators of the openness
of a society include “freedom of the press, civil liberties, [and] DIFFICULTY: Medium
checks and balances that limit the power of any single institution”
(lines 65-67).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because “freedom of the press”
is clearly cited in line 65 as being an indicator of political openness,
but the passage says nothing similar about a strong head of state,
confidence in the military, or the presence of a digital culture.
Question 17
Choice D is the best answer. While the graph shows there were KEY: D
more than 80 autocracies around the world in 1975, that number is
smaller than the number of democracies (nearly 100) that the graph DIFFICULTY: Easy
shows existed in 2011.
Choice A is incorrect because the graph shows that approximately
only 20 democracies existed in 1950. Choice B is incorrect because
the graph shows that fewer than 80 democracies existed in 1995.
Choice C is incorrect because the graph shows that approximately
only 20 autocracies existed in 2011.
Question 18
Choice B is the best answer. The graph shows the lines KEY: B
representing the number of autocracies and the number of
democracies intersecting between 1985 and 1990, when there were DIFFICULTY: Easy
approximately 60 of each of those types of government around the
world.
Choice A is incorrect because the graph shows there were more
autocracies than democracies in the world from 1975 to 1980.
Choices C and D are incorrect because the graph shows there were
more democracies than autocracies in the world from 1995 to 2000
and 2005 to 2010.
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Question 19
Choice A is the best answer. The first paragraph states the main KEY: A
idea: “Researchers have found that the reintroduction of the gray
wolf to Yellowstone National Park has boosted an important food DIFFICULTY: Medium
source for the threatened grizzly bear. A study published in the
Journal of Animal Ecology is essentially a tale of who eats what”
(lines 3-7). The remainder of the passage then explains how
adding gray wolves back into the Yellowstone food web affected
various plant and animal species (elk, grizzly bears, fruit-bearing
shrubs, aspen, and cottonwood trees), with the main purpose of
the passage therefore summarized as a discussion of an ecological
phenomenon.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the passage is a full
discussion of a certain ecological phenomenon (what happened
when gray wolves returned to Yellowstone) and does not
specifically mention any scientific experiment, environmental
debate, or historic discovery.
Question 20
Choice C is the best answer. Lines 8-15 of the passage highlight KEY: C
what happened in Yellowstone after wolves were introduced back
into the park: “When wolves were reintroduced to the park in 1995 DIFFICULTY: Medium
after a 70-year absence, they preyed on elk herds that browsed
trees and shrubs. The elk population, which had exploded without
the wolves, dropped. The over-browsed plants began to rebound,
including berry-producing shrubs that provide nutritious summer
meals for grizzlies when they are fattening up for hibernation.” In
other words, when the reintroduced wolves began to prey on elk
herds, fewer grazing elk led to an increase in fruit-bearing plants
found in the area.
Choice A is incorrect because even though the passage discusses
a study of the ecology in Yellowstone National Park after the
reintroduction of wolves, neither the study nor any investigation
of grizzly bears occurred specifically due to the drop in the elk
population. Choice B is incorrect because the passage states that
fewer elk in Yellowstone led to a resurgence of aspen trees, not a
decrease in their numbers. Choice D is incorrect because the drop
in the elk population in Yellowstone did not result in a surge in the
wolf population there; rather, the addition of wolves to the park
resulted in the drop in the elk population.
Question 21
Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks about KEY: B
a direct result of the decrease in elk population in Yellowstone
National Park, with the answer being that fewer grazing elk meant DIFFICULTY: Medium
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more fruit-bearing plants. That idea is supported in lines 12-15:

“The over-browsed plants began to rebound, including berry-
producing shrubs that provide nutritious summer meals for grizzlies
when they are fattening up for hibernation.”
Choices A and D are incorrect because lines 6-7 and 49-50 address
the study in question but not a direct result of the decrease in elk
population in Yellowstone. Choice C is incorrect because while lines
42-46 discuss the resurgence of certain trees in Yellowstone that
occurred when the elk population decreased, those lines do not
support the answer to the previous question that fewer elk led to
more fruit-bearing plants.
Question 22
Choice D is the best answer. The passage specifically mentions one KEY: D
potential challenge to the survival of grizzly bears in lines 50-53:
“In the case of the grizzly, the paper’s authors said increasing berry DIFFICULTY: Easy
production could help make up for the loss of another bear food
threatened by climate change, whitebark pine nuts.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lines 50-53 specifically
identify dwindling whitebark pine nuts as a potential threat to
grizzly bear survival but the passage says nothing similar about elk,
beetles, or cottonwood trees.
Question 23
Choice B is the best answer. The previous question asks what the KEY: B
passage identifies as a possible challenge to grizzly bear survival,
with lines 50-53 explaining the answer that the loss of a food source DIFFICULTY: Medium
could prove problematic for that species: “In the case of the grizzly,
the paper’s authors said increasing berry production could help
make up for the loss of another bear food threatened by climate
change, whitebark pine nuts.”
Choice A is incorrect because lines 27-30 discuss the proportion of
fruit found in grizzly bear scat over a certain time period. Choices C
and D are incorrect because lines 59-60 and 60-62 discuss the return
of fruit-bearing plants in Yellowstone, a change that would not
threaten the grizzly bear but benefit it.
Question 24
Choice D is the best answer. Lines 8-10 of the passage state that KEY: D
“when wolves were reintroduced to the park in 1995 after a 70-year
absence, they preyed on elk herds that browsed trees and shrubs.” DIFFICULTY: Medium
In this context, saying the elk herds “browsed” on trees and shrubs
means they ate them or grazed on them.
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Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, saying the

elk herds “browsed trees and shrubs” means they ate those trees
and shrubs, not that the elk inspected, skimmed, or destroyed the
trees and shrubs.
Question 25
Choice C is the best answer. Lines 60-62 of the passage offer one KEY: C
scientist’s opinion that the return of berry-producing shrubs may
not solve all the grizzlies’ food problems: “It may not be a panacea DIFFICULTY: Medium
or a big silver bullet as a food item for the grizzlies.” A “panacea”
is a cure-all, so saying the return of berry-producing shrubs may not
be a “big silver bullet” means that the return of those shrubs may
not be a definitive solution for the grizzlies’ food problems.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in the context of this
sentence, the “big silver bullet” is equated to a panacea or cure-
all; the phrase is clearly meant to imply a definitive solution, not an
unexpected outcome, tempting choice, or dangerous event.
Question 26
Choice B is the best answer. The passage concludes in lines 63-69 KEY: B
by stating that the story of the gray wolf’s return to Yellowstone
may be more than just the story of one animal: “The wolf-bear DIFFICULTY: Medium
connection in Yellowstone offers a broader lesson, Ripple said. ‘We
should be looking much farther and much more holistically at large
mammal or predator management,’ he suggested. ‘There could
be far reaching effects that we have not considered in the past.
And they can be very important.’” The main purpose of the final
paragraph can therefore be seen as a lesson that what happened
to the gray wolves in Yellowstone could happen with other large
mammal species in other places.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the final paragraph is
clear that the story of the gray wolf’s return to Yellowstone could
have far-reaching effects in studying animal ecology, not that
there may have been limitations to the scientist’s conclusions, that
another experiment will be undertaken in the future, or that there
may be potential ramifications to returning another species to some
ecosystems.
Question 27
Choice B is the best answer. The table shows a decrease in the KEY: B
wolf/elk ratio between the years 1999 (4.09) and 2000 (3.03).
DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the table shows an
increase in the wolf/elk ratio between the years 1998 (2.73) and 1999
(4.09); 2000 (3.03) and 2001 (5.37); and 2003 (9.12) and 2004 (12.72).
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Question 28
Choice A is the best answer. The passage’s claim that the KEY: A
reintroduction of gray wolves to Yellowstone National Park led to an
overall decline in the number of elk is supported by the table, which DIFFICULTY: Medium
shows the number of winter elk in Yellowstone going from more
than 16,000 in 1995 to only about 8,000 in 2004.
Choice B is incorrect because the table shows that while the
number of elk went down most years after the reintroduction of
the gray wolf, it actually went up between the years 1998 (11,736)
and 1999 (11,742) and the years 1999 (11,742) and 2000 (14,539).
Choice C is incorrect because, while the table shows the wolf/elk
ratio increasing between 1998 and 1999 (from 2.73 to 4.09), the
number of elk actually increased those years too (from 11,736 to
11,742). Choice D is incorrect because the table clearly shows that
the stabilization of wolf numbers in Yellowstone ultimately led to a
reduction in the overall number of elk (from about 16,000 in 1995 to
8,000 in 2004), not a stabilization of the elk population.
Question 29
Choice D is the best answer. In the second paragraph, Thoreau KEY: D
discusses men who blindly serve the state or government without
considering how just their actions might be. In the context of saying DIFFICULTY: Hard
these types of men “command no more respect than men of straw
or a lump of dirt” (lines 22-23), Thoreau uses the word “command”
to mean “deserve.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in the context of saying
certain men don’t command respect, Thoreau means they haven’t
earned it or don’t deserve it, not that they ordered, dominated, or
overlooked that respect.
Question 30
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 30-34, Thoreau explains what KEY: B
happens to the people who follow their consciences instead of
blindly adhering to the possibly unjust rules of the state: “A very DIFFICULTY: Hard
few, as heroes, patriots, martyrs, reformers in the great sense, and
men, serve the state with their consciences also, and so necessarily
resist it for the most part; and they are commonly treated as
enemies by it. . . .” As those heroes are said to resist the state and
are treated as enemies by it, it would be accurate to characterize
the relationship between the two as mutually antagonistic.
Choice A is incorrect because while Thoreau says “a corporation of
conscientious men” forming a “corporation with a conscience” is
possible (lines 7-10), he does not suggest such organizations often
occur. Choices C and D are incorrect because at no point in the
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passage does Thoreau refer to conscientious people’s moral sense

as making them human or suggest that such people hold legislators
to a different moral standard than they hold themselves.
Question 31
Choice D is the best answer. The previous question asks what point KEY: D
Thoreau makes about the people who follow their consciences, with
the answer being that those people usually resist the state and DIFFICULTY: Hard
end up its enemies. The best evidence in support of that answer is
found in lines 30-34, which state, “A very few, as heroes, patriots,
martyrs, reformers in the great sense, and men, serve the state with
their consciences also, and so necessarily resist it for the most part;
and they are commonly treated as enemies by it. . . .”
Choice A is incorrect because lines 1-2 ask a rhetorical question
but do not identify the point Thoreau makes about people who
follow their conscience. Choice B is incorrect because lines 7-10
address corporations with a conscience, not people. Choice C is
incorrect because lines 17-21 address people who do not follow their
conscience but adhere blindly to the rules of the state instead.
Question 32
Choice A is the best answer. Lines 53-55 explain that King does KEY: A
not believe unjust laws and statutes should be followed or have
any moral authority: “Conversely, one has a moral responsibility DIFFICULTY: Hard
to disobey unjust laws. I would agree with St. Augustine that ‘an
unjust law is no law at all.’”
Choice B is incorrect because at no point does King ever argue to do
anything simply to attract attention. Choice C is incorrect because
King says “any law that degrades human personality is unjust”
(lines 64-65), which is the opposite of saying an unjust law is not
detrimental to the human spirit. Choice D is incorrect because King
says an unjust law is “out of harmony with the moral law” (line 60),
not that an unjust law should be used to enforce moral law.
Question 33
Choice C is the best answer. The previous question asks how King KEY: C
characterizes unjust statutes, with lines 53-55 providing evidence in
support of the idea that King believed those statutes have no moral DIFFICULTY: Hard
authority: “one has a moral responsibility to disobey unjust laws.
I would agree with St. Augustine that ‘an unjust law is no law at
all.’”
Choice A is incorrect because lines 49-50 highlight what King
considers the two different types of laws, just and unjust. Choice B
is incorrect because lines 51-52 explain King’s belief that one has a
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responsibility to follow just laws. Choice D is incorrect because lines

64-65 explain King’s definition of what makes a law unjust but not
how he believes people should respond to such a law.
Question 34
Choice A is the best answer. Lines 57-58 ask the question “How KEY: A
does one determine whether a law is just or unjust?” In this
context, to “determine” whether a law is just means to establish DIFFICULTY: Easy
whether a law is just.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in the context of trying
to determine whether a law is just or unjust, the word “determine”
means to establish what the law is, not regulate, direct, or limit it.
Question 35
Choice A is the best answer. The main purpose of each passage KEY: A
is to argue how individuals should respond to the law (especially
unjust laws). Thoreau says that people of conscience need to DIFFICULTY: Medium
become enemies of the state and King believes that “an unjust law
is no law at all” (lines 54-55). That the primary purpose of each
passage is to discuss the relationship between the individual and
law can be seen from the first sentence of the Thoreau passage:
“Must the citizen ever for a moment, or in the least degree, resign
his conscience to the legislator?” (lines 1-2) and the last sentence
of the King passage: “I submit that an individual who breaks a law
that conscience tells him is unjust, and who willingly accepts the
penalty of imprisonment in order to arouse the conscience of the
community over its injustice, is in reality expressing the highest
respect for law” (lines 79-84).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because neither passage forwards
a view on how to make laws more just (only on how people of
conscience should respond to them), equates the morality of actions
with their consequences, or discusses ways the state’s power over
an individual may change.
Question 36
Choice C is the best answer. Both Thoreau and King argue that KEY: C
having respect for existing law does not mean one necessarily acts
justly, and the people who blindly follow all rules aren’t always DIFFICULTY: Hard
acting in accordance with justice. “Law never made men a whit
more just; and, by means of their respect for it, even the well-
disposed are daily made the agents of injustice” (Thoreau, lines
10-13). King echoes Thoreau’s sentiment: “and I can urge them to
disobey segregation ordinances, for they are morally wrong” (King,
lines 71-73).
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Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because King does not discuss in

detail the consciences, the moral judgment, or the personal moral
values of law-abiding people.
Question 37
Choice B is the best answer. In lines 6-7, Thoreau argues that KEY: B
people should first follow their consciences: “The only obligation
which I have a right to assume is to do at any time what I think DIFFICULTY: Hard
right.” King, on the other hand, suggests that it is not conscience
that must be heard first but something else: “One has not only a
legal but a moral responsibility to obey just laws” (lines 51-52). A
significant difference between the two could therefore be identified
as Thoreau’s emphasis on the importance of conscience and King’s
emphasis on morality.
Choice A is incorrect because Thoreau suggests that few people
follow their consciences. “Must the citizen . . . resign his conscience
to the legislator?” (lines 1-2). King differentiates between just and
unjust laws (lines 50-54) but never suggests how many people
might or might not “adhere to moral law.” Choice C is incorrect
because Thoreau argues that legality was secondary to conscience,
not that conscience (or morality) resulted from legality. Choice D is
incorrect because Thoreau does not suggest “good laws” should be
disobeyed; he actually says the opposite.
Question 38
Choice C is the best answer. Lines 77-79 expressly state how King KEY: C
believes one should respond to unjust laws: “One who breaks an
unjust law must do so openly, lovingly, and with a willingness to DIFFICULTY: Medium
accept the penalty.” This suggests King would recommend that if
Thoreau were truly against slavery, he should publicly break those
laws and then willingly accept whatever consequences might
result.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because King explicitly states
in the passage that people have a moral responsibility to disobey
unjust laws. King would not recommend that Thoreau obey unjust
laws while working to change them (choice A), uphold unjust laws
(choice B), or uphold unjust laws he is critical of (choice D).
Question 39
Choice C is the best answer. The passage first identifies an KEY: C
agricultural problem: “Consider the western corn rootworm—a
beetle that’s a serious pest of corn in the United States” (lines 7-8). DIFFICULTY: Medium
By the conclusion of the passage, however, the way the rootworm’s
“gut bacteria” (lines 49-50) aided the insect’s survival in both corn
and soybean fields has been fully explained: “The team proved that
14
the bacteria were responsible by killing them with antibiotics. Sure

enough, this drastically lowered the cysteine protease activity in
the guts of the rotation-resistant beetles and wrecked their ability
to thrive among soybeans” (lines 65-69). Overall, the passage
can therefore be summarized as having a focus shifting from the
identification of an agricultural problem to an explanation of its
cause.
Choice A is incorrect because the passage does not state that
the challenge posed by the western corn rootworm was easy to
overcome. Choice B is incorrect because the passage provides
virtually no biographical information about the scientists involved
(other than the fact they worked at the University of Illinois). Choice
D is incorrect because while the passage ends its first paragraph by
stating the belief that “zoology is ecology,” it otherwise does not
discuss any particular scientific field.
Question 40
Choice C is the best answer. The first paragraph of the passage KEY: C
says that animals aren’t just animals but collections of microbes,
with the remainder of the passage going on to explain that DIFFICULTY: Hard
scientists found the way to control the western corn rootworm only
after coming to understand its gut bacteria. The statement “zoology
is ecology” (line 6) implies that the study of animals (zoology) is
really the study of ecology (the relationship between organisms), as
is shown to be the case through the example of the western corn
rootworm’s relationship with its gut bacteria. In other words, it
asserts a general point that is supported by an example.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the phrase “zoology
is ecology” in line 6 means that the study of animals is greatly
affected by studying the ways organisms interact (i.e., the way the
western corn rootworm’s gut bacteria has affected its growth and
survival), not that those two fields of study should be merged, that
knowledge obtained in one of those fields would lead to expertise in
the other, or that one of those fields supplanted another.
Question 41
Choice B is the best answer. Normal rootworms lay their eggs in KEY: B
corn fields “so that their underground larvae hatch into a feast of
corn roots” (lines 10-11). “These rotation-resistant females might DIFFICULTY: Medium
lay among soybean fields, so their larvae hatch into a crop of corn”
(lines 20-22). Combined, these statements indicate a similarity: both
normal and rotation-resistant rootworms produce larvae whose first
food will be the roots of crops.
Choice A is incorrect because the passage doesn’t state that either
type of rootworm reduces crop productivity by extracting nutrients
15
from the soil. Choice C is incorrect because the passage clearly

states that in the face of crop rotation, the normal rootworm will die
rather than adapt. Choice D is incorrect because the passage says
the normal and rotation-resistant rootworms have very different gut
bacteria.
Question 42
Choice B is the best answer. The passage states that one way KEY: B
farmers have tried to eradicate the western corn rootworm is by
rotating their crops (thereby reducing the viable fields for the DIFFICULTY: Medium
rootworms), with the question of how some rootworms have
overcome that problem being specifically answered in lines 18-20:
“But the rootworms have adapted to this strategy by reducing their
strong instincts for laying eggs in corn.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the lines cited do not
specifically answer the question of how some rootworms have
overcome the farmers’ efforts to eradicate them. Rather, lines
15-17 provide one way the farmers have been able to eradicate
rootworms; lines 25-28 explain some of the challenges being faced
by researchers studying the rootworm; and lines 41-43 identify a
problem for the rootworms, not how these beetles have adapted to
the farmers’ eradication efforts.
Question 43
Choice A is the best answer. The point of the fourth paragraph is to KEY: A
explain how hard it was for scientists to determine what made the
rotation-resistant rootworms different from the normal ones. “After DIFFICULTY: Medium
many years of research [focused on genes] . . . results were mostly
inconclusive” (lines 33-35).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the central claim of the
fourth paragraph is simply that many years of research led to only
“inconclusive” results about differences between rotation-resistant
and normal rootworms. Neither that paragraph nor any part of the
passage claims that the rootworm’s adaptation ability is unique,
that its genetic make-up was more complex than originally thought,
or that inadequate understanding of genetics in general was the
reason the rootworm remained such a mystery.
Question 44
Choice A is the best answer. “There are almost certainly genetic KEY: A
differences that separate the rotation-resistant rootworms from
their normal peers, but what are they?” (lines 23-25). In the context DIFFICULTY: Easy
of genetic differences separating two types of insects, the word
“separate” means to distinguish or differentiate.
16
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in the context of genetic

differences separating two types of rootworms, “separate” means
to distinguish or differentiate, not to discharge, extract, or scatter.
Question 45
Choice A is the best answer. After the passage states that normal KEY: A
rootworms can’t survive in soybean fields but that rotation-resistant
rootworms can, it explains that the difference between the two is DIFFICULTY: Medium
their respective gut bacteria. Lines 54-55 state that “these different
microbes give the resistant beetles an edge when eating soybeans.”
Choice B is incorrect because the passage says that gut bacteria
in rotation-resistant rootworms results in more cysteine proteases
in their stomachs, not fewer. Choice C is incorrect because in the
passage antibiotics are being used to kill microbes (or gut bacteria)
only, not the rootworms themselves. Choice D is incorrect because
the passage never mentions anything being transferred to the
larvae.
Question 46
Choice D is the best answer. The previous question asks what the KEY: D
gut bacteria of rotation-resistant rootworms do, with the correct
answer being that they allow that variation of beetle to survive in DIFFICULTY: Medium
the soybean fields where normal rootworms cannot. This answer
is supported specifically in lines 54-55, which state that “these
different microbes give the resistant beetles an edge when eating
soybeans.”
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the lines cited do not
explain what the gut bacteria of rotation-resistant rootworms do.
Rather, lines 29-30 explain that understanding the western corn
rootworm was a challenge to researchers; lines 39-40 state only
that normal rootworms and rotation-resistant ones have very
different microbes in their stomachs; and lines 44-47 explain that
the difference in rootworms was not so much simple genetics as a
multispecies conspiracy.
Question 47
Choice C is the best answer. The main idea of the last paragraph is KEY: C
that it is the gut bacteria of rotation-resistant rootworms that allow
them, but not normal rootworms, to thrive in soybean fields. “The DIFFICULTY: Medium
team proved that the bacteria were responsible by killing them
with antibiotics. Sure enough, this drastically lowered the cysteine
protease activity in the guts of the rotation-resistant beetles and
wrecked their ability to thrive among soybeans” (lines 65-69).
17
Choice A is incorrect because the second-to-last paragraph of

the passage says cysteine proteases allow rootworms to survive
in soybean fields, not that they are in any way harmful to the
rootworms. Choice B is incorrect because the eggs laid by rotation-
resistant rootworms among soybeans will hatch into crops of corn,
not of soybeans. Choice D is incorrect because the passage clearly
states that rotation-resistant rootworms do use cysteine proteases
to digest soybeans, not that they do not use them for that task.
18
PSAT/NMSQT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS WRITING AND LANGUAGE
Writing and Language Test

Answer Explanations
Question 1
Choice D is the best answer because the pronoun “it” in the KEY: D
independent clause that begins “it has been . . .” needs the
antecedent “coffee.” The passive voice phrase “coffee was DIFFICULTY: Easy
introduced” is acceptable in this context because indicating who
introduced coffee to Italy is not important to the passage.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each results in a vague or
ambiguous pronoun (“it,” “they,” “their”).
Question 2
Choice B is the best answer because the phrase “in fact” signals KEY: B
the relationship between the preceding sentence, which states a
fact (coffee “has been a ubiquitous part of Italian culture”), and DIFFICULTY: Easy
the following sentence, which provides evidence for the fact (“one
cannot visit . . .”).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because these transitional
expressions don’t signal an accurate relationship between the two
sentences they connect. “However,” “even so,” and “ despite”
indicate that a contrast will follow, not support for a previous
statement.
Question 3
Choice C is the best answer because the plural pronoun “they” KEY: C
agrees in number with the plural noun “coffeehouses,” and the
plural verb “have become” is used correctly to show that the action DIFFICULTY: Hard
is current and ongoing.
Choices A and B are incorrect because the singular pronoun “it”
does not agree in number with the plural noun “coffeehouses.”
Choice D is incorrect because the helping verb “had” cannot
describe an action that began in the past and continues into the
present.
Question 4
Choice C is the best answer because the subjective pronoun “who” KEY: C
is used correctly as the subject of the clause to refer to those people
who frequent coffeehouses, and the plural verb “love” agrees with DIFFICULTY: Medium
the plural pronoun “those.”
Choice A is incorrect because “which” is not the correct pronoun to
use when referring to people. Choice B is incorrect because “loves”
is a singular verb and a plural one is needed to agree with the plural
19
pronoun “those.” Choice D is incorrect because “whom” is the

objective case of the pronoun; in this instance the subjective case
“who” is needed.
Question 5
Choice B is the best answer because the singular present tense KEY: B
verb “contributes” agrees with the singular noun “way” and is
consistent with the previous verb in the sentence, “functions.” DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “contribute” doesn’t

agree in number with the singular noun “way.” Choice C is incorrect
because it offers a participle instead of the basic present tense verb
needed for the clause. Choice D is incorrect; the pronoun “which” is
unnecessary since a clause isn’t being introduced.
Question 6
Choice B is the best answer because the example of a fee that is KEY: B
“three to four times as much as the price per drink” most clearly
supports the statement that coffeehouses “charge a premium for DIFFICULTY: Hard
table service.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not support
or explain what “charge a premium” means. Choice A focuses
on being able to sit and rest; choice C focuses on the surprise of
tourists; and choice D focuses on being waited on at a table.
Question 7
Choice A is the best answer because it most concisely and clearly KEY: A
combines the two sentences (the two sentences need to be
combined because “They do this” is a clunky beginning for the DIFFICULTY: Medium
second sentence). The new sentence is clear in its description of
standing at a coffeehouse bar and being physically very close to
others drinking coffee at the bar.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect either because they are wordy or
because the syntax does not result in a cohesive sentence.
Question 8
Choice B is the best answer because it provides a transition from KEY: B
the previous paragraph’s focus on “the coffee-drinking experience”
to the topic of this paragraph, “the making of” coffee “and the DIFFICULTY: Medium
timing of its consumption.”
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect either because they don’t provide
a transition between the topics of the two paragraphs or because
they include irrelevant information.
20
Question 9
Choice A is the best answer because the adjective “correct” is clear KEY: A
and concise.
DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they all include redundant
words. “Correct,” “proper,” “properly,” and “appropriate” all
convey the same idea, and any combination of these words should
not be used together.
Question 10
Choice D is the best answer because two commas are necessary to KEY: D
set off a transitional phrase such as “for example” when it is used in
the middle of a sentence. DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they all include incorrect

punctuation. When needed, commas should be used in pairs to set
off transitions and cannot be partnered with colons or dashes.
Question 11
Choice D is the best answer because the sentence should not be KEY: D
added. The passage focuses on coffee drinking in Italy and this
suggested addition is about the United States. Choice D correctly DIFFICULTY: Easy
addresses the reason the sentence should not be added: “because it
digresses from the main topic.”
Choices A and B are incorrect because they result in adding a
sentence that does not fit with the passage. Choice C is incorrect
because it gives a reason that is not supported by the passage.
Question 12
Choice B is the best answer because a comma is needed to connect KEY: B
the independent clause “Each year . . . Arctic” to the appositive that
follows (“A journey . . . fuel up”). DIFFICULTY: Hard
Choices A and C are incorrect because a period or semicolon can’t

be used to connect an independent clause to an appositive. Choice
D is incorrect because a semicolon should be used to connect two
independent clauses, not an independent clause and a dependent
clause or phrase.
Question 13
Choice C is the best answer because a comma and a conjunction KEY: C
are needed to connect the independent clauses “and the Arctic . . .
the year” and “the shorebirds . . . pilgrimage.” Additionally, a verb DIFFICULTY: Easy
(“fail”) is needed to complete the second independent clause, not a
participle (“failing”).
21
Choice A is incorrect because a participle cannot be used to replace

the basic present tense verb “fail.” Choice B is incorrect because a
conjunction is needed between the independent clauses. Choice D
is incorrect because if a semicolon is used, what follows must be an
independent clause.
Question 14
Choice C is the best answer because a pair of commas is needed KEY: C
to set off the nonrestrictive phrase “regardless of latitude” in the
middle of the sentence. DIFFICULTY: Easy
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none contains a pair of

commas to set off the nonrestrictive phrase.
Question 15
Choice D is the best answer because the word “mortality” is clear KEY: D
and concise, and no ideas or words are repeated.
DIFFICULTY: Hard
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they contain redundant
words or ideas. “Continuing on” and “continue on” should not
be used in the same sentence. “Keep going” and “continuing on”
repeat the same idea, as do “mortality” and “death.”
Question 16
Choice B is the best answer because the singular verb “provides” KEY: B
agrees in number with the singular noun “study.”
DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the plural verbs
“provide,” “are providing,” and “have provided” don’t agree with
the singular noun “study.”
Question 17
Choice B is the best answer because the phrase “four quail eggs” is KEY: B
plural, not possessive, and needs no apostrophe.
DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choices A and C are incorrect because no apostrophe is needed in
the plural “eggs.” Choice D is incorrect because “quail” should not
be plural.
Question 18
Choice A is the best answer because sentence 5 (the scientists KEY: A
returning to count the eggs “many times over nine days”) logically
joins sentence 4 (how many eggs were used to bait the nests at the DIFFICULTY: Medium
beginning of the nine-day period) with sentence 6 (how many eggs
were required to consider a nest to have survived at the end of the
nine-day period).
22
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because moving sentence 5

would result in a paragraph that doesn’t make sense logically or
chronologically.
Question 19
Choice B is the best answer because it doesn’t contain a conjunctive KEY: B
adverb or transitional phrase, neither of which is needed here.
DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they contain conjunctive
adverbs or transitional phrases that are not needed in the middle of
this sentence.
Question 20
Choice C is the best answer because the figure indicates that the KEY: C
percent of surviving nests decreased over time at each of the four
locations (all four lines show a decrease over the nine-day period). DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not correctly

represent the information conveyed in the figure. The figure does
not indicate that the number of predators invading the nests either
increased or decreased, nor does it indicate that the percent of
surviving nests increased.
Question 21
Choice A is the best answer because it accurately describes the KEY: A
data represented in the figure. The percent of surviving nests was
greater at higher latitudes (for example, 82 degrees North) than at DIFFICULTY: Easy
lower latitudes (for example, 63 degrees North).
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the figure does not
indicate that the percent of surviving nests at locations having
higher latitudes was smaller or remained the same, or that the
percent of eggs was lower.
Question 22
Choice A is the best answer because it most clearly and concisely KEY: A
combines the underlined sentences to indicate the relationship
between the risks to the shorebirds and rewards for their offspring. DIFFICULTY: Easy
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are wordy or

combine ideas in a way that is not logical. Additionally, none
indicates the risk-reward relationship as clearly as choice A does.
Question 23
Choice C is the best answer because in this context “adhere to” KEY: C
means to follow or to stick to, which is the right connotation when
referring to a musical score. DIFFICULTY: Hard
23
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they offer options that do

not work connotatively when substituted into the sentence.
Question 24
Choice D is the best answer because it creates a complete sentence KEY: D
by attaching the dependent clause (“As . . . improvisations”) to the
independent clause (“they . . . own”) with a comma. DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choices A and C are incorrect because a period or a semicolon

cannot be used to end a dependent clause. Choice B is incorrect
because a comma is needed between an introductory dependent
clause and the independent clause that follows it.
Question 25
Choice C is the best answer because the correlative conjunctions KEY: C
“not only” and “but also” must be followed by parallel phrases.
Since “by saxophonist Coleman Hawkins” follows “but also,” “by DIFFICULTY: Medium
Armstrong” needs to follow “not only.”
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none contains the
preposition “by,” which is needed to be consistent with the same
preposition used later in the sentence.
Question 26
Choice A is the best answer. The sentence should be added to KEY: A
provide a transition from the idea that Armstrong played solos in
recordings to the idea that he played them in dance halls as well. DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choice B is incorrect because the sentence doesn’t explain why

Armstrong was skilled at improvisation. Choices C and D are
incorrect because the sentence should be added to provide a
transition between two ideas in the paragraph.
Question 27
Choice A is the best answer because it makes a connection to the KEY: A
main topic of the previous paragraph, the band’s solos.
DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not refer to the
band’s solos, which is the main topic of the previous paragraph.
Question 28
Choice B is the best answer because the suggested revision KEY: B
provides an explanation of what a “call-and-response structure” is.
DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choice A is incorrect because, while Armstrong was a trumpeter
and the suggested revision does mention the trumpet section, this
is not the main reason to make the revision. Choices C and D are
incorrect because the sentence should be revised as suggested.
24
Question 29
Choice D is the best answer because it clearly and concisely KEY: D
identifies what Redman did to accommodate Armstrong’s style.
DIFFICULTY: Hard
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they are redundant. The
verbs “adjust,” “alter,” “change,” and “rework” have essentially
the same meaning and should not be used together.
Question 30
Choice C is the best answer because no punctuation is needed KEY: C
before the quotation.
DIFFICULTY: Hard
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they all include
unnecessary punctuation.
Question 31
Choice D is the best answer because only “however” indicates the KEY: D
contrast between the information in the previous sentence and the
information in this sentence. The previous sentence states that in DIFFICULTY: Medium
1925 Armstrong left Henderson’s band, while this sentence says
that though he had left, his influence continued to be noticeable in
the band’s music.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not indicate a
contrast between the first two sentences in the paragraph.
Question 32
Choice B is the best answer because it is idiomatic. When one KEY: B
situation changes to another, it can be said that the situation “gives
way” to another. DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not idiomatic

and do not make sense when substituted into the sentence.
Question 33
Choice D is the best answer because the pronoun “that” is used KEY: D
correctly to refer to “arrangements.” A comma isn’t used in this
context because the clause following the main clause is needed to DIFFICULTY: Hard
complete the meaning of the sentence.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each uses a comma
inappropriately. Because the clause that follows “arrangements”
is essential to the formation of the sentence, no comma should be
used.
25
Question 34
Choice D is the best answer because sentence 6 refers to KEY: D
commonplace “stories” about young artists being able to survive
in big cities, and sentence 3 explains that “these tales” may have DIFFICULTY: Medium
been true to some degree. Sentence 3 should be placed after
sentence 6.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because “these tales” in
sentence 3 must refer to something that has been discussed
previously. No stories or tales are mentioned in sentences 1, 2, or 4.
Question 35
Choice D is the best answer because the pronoun “you,” which KEY: D
refers in this context to people in general, is consistent with the
other pronoun, “your,” in the sentence (“time to practice your art”). DIFFICULTY: Hard
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the pronoun “one” and

the nouns “artist” and “artists” are not consistent in person with
the pronoun “your.”
Question 36
Choice B is the best answer because “however” indicates the KEY: B
appropriate relationship between the claim in the previous sentence
(artists could once get by in a big city) and the claim in this DIFFICULTY: Medium
sentence (“this life is no longer possible”). It signals the contrast
between the past and present.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the claim in this sentence
is not a result or an example of the claim in the previous sentence.
Question 37
Choice C is the best answer because “such as” indicates that KEY: C
examples will follow, and “upscale venues” completes the contrast
with “affordable theaters, jazz cafes, and art galleries.” DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In choice A, “other places” is

vague and doesn’t emphasize the contrast between the old and
new businesses. Choice B mischaracterizes the examples as places
“where artists are unlikely to spend money.” The contrast in this
sentence is not between places where artists spend money and
places where they don’t; rather, it is between places where artists
have opportunities to perform or display their art (“affordable
theaters, jazz cafes, and art galleries”) and places that do not
accommodate “the artist just starting out” (“expensive restaurants,
couture boutiques, and exclusive nightclubs”). Choice D is
incorrect because “attractive” does not complete the contrast with
“affordable.”
26
Question 38
Choice A is the best answer because “so far as,” meaning “to the KEY: A
extent or degree,” is idiomatic in this context.
DIFFICULTY: Medium
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the resulting phrases
(“go too far to declare,” “go farther to declare,” “go to declare”) are
unidiomatic in this context.
Question 39
Choice C is the best answer because the dash is appropriate in this KEY: C
sentence. In this case, it draws attention to the idea that Cleveland,
unlike cities that are too expensive, is a great place for young DIFFICULTY: Hard
artists.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the semicolon, colon, and
single parenthesis are all used inappropriately in this sentence. In
choice A, the semicolon links an independent clause to a dependent
clause. In choice B, the colon is unnecessary and should be deleted.
In choice D, the single parenthesis must be paired with another
parenthesis after “artists.”
Question 40
Choice D is the best answer because it is clear and doesn’t repeat KEY: D
information already provided in the sentence.
DIFFICULTY: Hard
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they either repeat
information or add unnecessary words.
Question 41
Choice D is the best answer because the plural pronoun “those” KEY: D
agrees with its antecedent “prices,” and two similar things are
being compared: the prices of homes and the prices of cars. DIFFICULTY: Hard
Choice A is incorrect because it compares the prices of homes to

“an economy car” rather than to other prices. Choice B is incorrect
because the pronoun and noun, “that” and “car,” need to be plural
to be consistent with “prices” of “homes.” Choice C is incorrect
because the singular possessive “car’s” doesn’t make sense in the
comparison. In this context, the phrase “an economy car’s” would
be understood to refer to a price, but “price” does not appear as an
antecedent in the sentence. The comparison should be to “prices.”
Question 42
Choice A is the best answer because the singular possessive KEY: A
pronoun “its” agrees in number with the antecedent “Cleveland.”
DIFFICULTY: Hard
Choices B and C are incorrect because they are contractions, not
possessive pronouns. Choice D is incorrect because it is a plural
27
possessive pronoun. The correct answer needs to be singular to

agree with the singular antecedent “Cleveland.”
Question 43
Choice C is the best answer because the sentence should not be KEY: C
added. It contains an irrelevant detail that doesn’t support previous
statements. DIFFICULTY: Easy
Choices A and B are incorrect because the sentence is irrelevant

and shouldn’t be added. Choice D is incorrect because the sentence
would not be relevant in the final paragraph either.
Question 44
Choice B is the best answer because “discount” in this context KEY: B
means “disregard.”
DIFFICULTY: Hard
Choice A is incorrect because “undermine” means “weaken or
impair,” which does not make sense in the context of the sentence.
Choices C and D are incorrect because their tone is too colloquial
and inconsistent with the tone of the passage.
28
PSAT/NMSQT ANSWER EXPLANATIONS MATH
Math Test – No Calculator Answer

Explanations
Question 1
Choice D is correct. The expression 15x + 24ax contains two terms
KEY: D
with common factors. One of the common factors is x. Factoring x
from the expression gives x(15 + 24a), which can also be written as DIFFICULTY: Medium
(15 + 24a)x.
No Calculator
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may result from incorrectly
combining and/or factoring the two terms of the expression. One
can check that the expressions in each of these choices are not
equivalent to the given expression. For example, in choice A, for
x = 1 and a = 0, the value of the given expression is 15 and the value
of the expression 39ax2 is 0.
Question 2
Choice A is correct. Dividing each side of the equation d = rt by
KEY: A
t results in an equation that expresses r in terms of the other
d DIFFICULTY: Easy
variables: r = .
t No Calculator
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect and may result from algebraic
errors when rewriting the given equation.
Question 3
Choice B is correct. The equation x = y − 4 can be rewritten as
KEY: B
y = x + 4. Substituting x + 4 for y in the other equation gives
x + 4 = x2 + 3x − 4, which can be rewritten as x2 + 2x − 8 = 0. Since −4 DIFFICULTY: Medium
and 2 are the two numbers whose sum is −2 and whose product is
No Calculator
−8, they are the solutions to the equation x2 + 2x − 8 = 0. From the
equation y = x + 4, it follows that the solutions of the system are
(−4, 0) and (2, 6). Therefore, of the given choices, (2, 6) is the correct
answer.
Choices A and C are incorrect because each of these ordered pairs
satisfies the quadratic equation but not the linear equation. Choice
D is incorrect because this ordered pair satisfies the linear equation
but not the quadratic equation.
Question 4
Choice C is correct. The given equation can be rewritten as
KEY: C
x2 − 4x + 3 = 0. Since 1 and 3 are two numbers whose sum is 4 and
whose product is 3, it follows that they are the solutions to the DIFFICULTY: Medium
equation x2 − 4x + 3 = 0. Therefore, of the choices given, only 3 can
No Calculator
be a solution to the original equation.
29
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none of these values

satisfy the given equation.
Question 5
Choice C is correct. Multiplying each side of the second equation by
KEY: C
3 and then adding the equations eliminates x, as follows:
DIFFICULTY: Medium
−3 x − 4 y = 20
 No Calculator
 3 x − 30 y 48
=
0 − 34 y =68
Solving the obtained equation for y gives y = −2.
Substituting −2 for y in the second equation of the system gives
x − 10(−2) = 16, which simplifies to x + 20 = 16, or x = −4.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no solution to
the system for which the x-coordinate is one of the numbers given
in these choices. For example, substituting −14 for x in the second
equation gives y = −3. But the pair (−14, −3) does not satisfy the
first equation, and it is therefore not a solution to the system of
equations.
Question 6
Choice B is correct. If the equation y = 36 + 18x is graphed in the
KEY: B
xy-plane, the y-intercept is at (0, 36). Since y represents the height,
in inches, of a typical apple tree and x represents the number of DIFFICULTY: Medium
years after it was planted, it follows that the number 36 represents
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the height, in inches, of a typical apple tree when x = 0; that is, the
height, in inches, at the time the apple tree is planted.
Choice A is incorrect and may be the result of confusing the age of
the tree with its height. Choice C is incorrect because the equation
provided does not indicate when a typical apple tree will stop
growing. Choice D is incorrect and may be the result of confusing
the y-intercept with the slope of the line y = 36 + 18x.
Question 7
Choice A is correct. The cost, in dollars, of Giovanni’s 2 shirts is
KEY: A
19.40 × 2 = 38.80, and the cost, in dollars, of his p sweaters is
24.80 × p = 24.80p. Additionally, he paid an 8% sales tax. To include DIFFICULTY: Medium
the sales tax in the total cost, the combined cost of shirts and
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sweaters should be multiplied by 1.08. Therefore, the total cost,
in dollars, of Giovanni’s purchases, y, can be expressed as
1.08(38.80 + 24.80p).
Choice B is incorrect and may result from using the factor
1 − 0.08 = 0.92, instead of 1 + 0.08 = 1.08, to calculate the sales
30
tax and from multiplying by this factor on the wrong side of the
equation. Choice C is incorrect and may result from multiplying by
the sales tax factor on the wrong side of the equation. Choice D is
incorrect and may result from using the factor 1 − 0.08 = 0.92 instead
of 1 + 0.08 = 1.08 to calculate the sales tax.
Question 8
Choice B is correct. Any line that passes through the point (−3, 3)
KEY: B
and has a positive slope will intersect the y-axis at a point (0, b)
with b > 3; that is, such a line will have a y-intercept greater than 3. DIFFICULTY: Medium
Therefore, a line that has a positive slope and a negative y-intercept
No Calculator
cannot pass through the point (−3, 3).
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are points that a

line with a positive slope and a negative y-intercept could pass
1
through. For example, in choice A, the line with equation y x2
3
has a positive slope ()
1
3
and a negative y-intercept (−2) but passes
through the point (−3, −3).
Question 9
Choice C is correct. If the length, in centimeters, of one piece of
KEY: C
rope is represented by q, and each piece of rope must be at least
270 centimeters and no more than 280 centimeters long, then it DIFFICULTY: Medium
follows that 270 ≤ q ≤ 280. In turn, the total length x, in centimeters,
No Calculator
of rope needed for the parachute is 18q because 18 pieces are
needed. So, since x = 18q, multiplying all the terms of the inequality
270 ≤ q ≤ 280 by 18 gives (270 × 18) ≤ 18q ≤ (280 × 18), or 4,860 ≤ x ≤
5,040.
Choice A is incorrect and may result from mistakenly using x for
the length, in centimeters, of one piece of rope instead of the total
length of rope. Choice B is incorrect and may result from multiplying
the single-piece lower limit for length by 18 and then adding 10 to
create the total upper limit, instead of multiplying both the single-
piece lower and upper limits by 18. Choice D is incorrect and may
result from multiplying the single-piece upper limit for length by 18
and then subtracting 10 to create the total lower limit, instead of
multiplying both the single-piece lower and upper limits by 18.
Question 10
Choice D is correct. Since the carpenter needs to buy both nails and
KEY: D
screws, at least one box of each needs to be purchased. This can be
expressed by the pair of inequalities n ≥ 1 and s ≥ 1. However, the DIFFICULTY: Medium
number of boxes the carpenter can buy is limited by a budget of $60.
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The amount, in dollars, the carpenter spends on nails or screws can
31
be expressed as the price of each box multiplied by the number of

each type of box, which is 12.99n for nails and 14.99s for screws. And
since this total cannot exceed $60, it follows that 12.99n + 14.99s ≤ 60.
Choice A is incorrect because the first inequality allows the total
cost of nails and screws to exceed the carpenter’s budget of $60,
and the second inequality incorrectly expresses the constraint on
the number of boxes that the carpenter can buy. That number must
be greater than 1, since the carpenter must buy at least one box
of nails and one box of screws. Choice B is incorrect because the
second equation incorrectly expresses the constraint on the number
of boxes that the carpenter can buy. That number must be greater
than 1, since the carpenter must buy at least one box of nails and
one box of screws. Choice C is incorrect because the first inequality
allows for the total cost to exceed the carpenter’s budget of $60.
Question 11
Choice A is correct. In the figure, triangles ABC and BDC are similar
KEY: A
because each has an angle that measures 28°, and they share
angle C. Thus their corresponding sides are in proportion. The DIFFICULTY: Hard
sides AB in triangle ABC and BD in triangle BDC correspond to each
No Calculator
other because they are opposite the same angle in both triangles
(angle C), and the sides BC in triangle ABC and DC in triangle BDC
correspond to each other because they are opposite the congruent
angles with measure 28° in the corresponding triangles. Therefore,
AB BD
= .
BC DC
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are ratios that

AB
do not have the same value as and are likely the result of
BC
misunderstanding which triangles are similar or which sides of the
triangles are corresponding sides.
Question 12
Choice C is correct. After distributing the outside exponents to each
KEY: C
expression within the parentheses by the rules of exponents, the
left side of the equation can be rewritten as DIFFICULTY: Hard
( x 2 y3
1
)(
2 x 2 y3 )
1
3


= x
( 2 ) y(3)( 12 )
(2) 1  2 1
 ( ) 3
 x
( ) y(3)( 13 ) 


 3  2 
=  xy 2   x 3 y  .
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  
Multiplying the expressions within the parentheses and applying

2 3 5 5
1+ +1
the exponent rules yields x 3
y 2 = x 3 y 2 , which means the
5 5 a a
equation x 3 y 2 = x 3 y 2 is true for all positive values of x and y. It
32
follows that the corresponding exponents of x and y on both sides of
the equation must be equal, which yields a = 5.
Choices A, B, and D are incorrect and may result from errors when
applying the rules of exponents to the given expression.
Question 13
Choice B is correct. The graph of y = (x − 6)(x + 12) is a parabola that
KEY: B
opens upward and has a vertical axis of symmetry. The vertex of
DIFFICULTY: Hard
the parabola lies on this axis of symmetry, and the x-intercepts of
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the parabola are equidistant from the axis of symmetry. Since the
equation y = (x − 6)(x + 12) is in factored form, the x-intercepts of its
graph are (6, 0) and (−12, 0). Therefore, the axis of symmetry is the
6 + (−12)
line x = , or x = −3. Because the vertex lies on the line x = −3,
2
the x-coordinate of the vertex must also be x = −3.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may result from

misunderstanding the relationship between the given equation
and the x-intercepts of the parabola as well as the relationship
between the x-intercepts of the parabola and the x-coordinate of the
parabola’s vertex. For example, choice C may result from mistakenly
taking the x-intercepts of the graph of y = (x − 6)(x + 12) as (−6, 0)
and (12, 0) instead of as (6, 0) and (−12, 0).
Question 14
The correct answer is 2. If a linear equation is written in the form
KEY: 2
mx + n = px + r, where m = p and n = r, then the linear equation is
satisfied by any value of x and will have infinitely many solutions. DIFFICULTY: Medium
Distributing 7 on the right-hand side of the given equation yields
No Calculator
21x + 14 = 21x + 7a. Therefore, the equation will have infinitely many
solutions if 14 = 7a; that is, if a = 2.
Question 15
The correct answer is 90. Juliene practiced twice as long on
KEY: 90
Monday as she did on Tuesday. Therefore, if x is the number of
minutes Juliene practiced on Tuesday, then 2x is the number of DIFFICULTY: Hard
minutes she practiced on Monday. The total amount of time Juliene
No Calculator
practiced on the two days is 2 hours and 15 minutes, which is equal
to 135 minutes. Thus, the equation x + 2x = 135 must be true. This
simplifies to 3x = 135, and so x = 45. The number of minutes Juliene
practiced on Monday is 2x, which is equal to 2x = 2(45) = 90.
33
Question 16
The correct answer is 1. It is given that one factor of the quadratic
KEY: 1
expression is 3x + 4. Thus, 12x2 + ax − 20 = (3x + 4)(mx + p), where
a, m, and p are integers. Multiplying out the right-hand side of the DIFFICULTY: Hard
equation gives 12x2 + ax − 20 = 3mx2 + (3p + 4m)x + 4p. It follows
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that 12 = 3m, a = 3p + 4m, and −20 = 4p. Dividing both sides of
the equation 12 = 3m by 3 gives m = 4. Dividing both sides of the
equation −20 = 4p by 4 gives p = −5. Finally, substituting m = 4 and
p = −5 in the equation a = 3p + 4m gives a = 3(−5) + 4(4) = 1.
Question 17
The correct answer is 0. Multiplying out the given expression
KEY: 0
yields (ax + by)(cx − dy) = acx2 + (bc − ad)xy − bdy2. Since ad = bc, the
coefficient of the xy term, bc − ad, is 0. DIFFICULTY: Hard
No Calculator
34
Math Test – Calculator Answer

Explanations
Question 1
Choice B is correct. Looking at the graph, it can be concluded that
KEY: B
there is an increase of fewer than 10 students during quarters 4
through 6, quarters 11 through 14, and quarters 13 through 16. There DIFFICULTY: Easy
is an increase of more than 20 students during quarters 7 through
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10. Therefore, of the four ranges given in the answer choices, the
greatest increase in the number of students occurs during quarters
7 through 10.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. There is an increase of fewer
than 10 students during quarters 4 through 6, quarters 11 through
14, and quarters 13 through 16. There is an increase of more than
20 students during quarters 7 through 10. Therefore, the greatest
increase in the number of students does not occur in the ranges
given in choices A, C, and D.
Question 2
Choice A is correct. The time at which Eli began saving corresponds
KEY: A
to m = 0. Therefore, the value of T when m = 0 represents the
amount of money Eli started with. Substituting 0 for m gives DIFFICULTY: Easy
T = 83 + 30(0), or T = 83. Therefore, the amount of money Eli started
Calculator
with is 83 units of money. (Note: The item does not specify a unit
of money, such as dollars; however, this does not change the
interpretation of the number 83 in the equation.)
Choice B is incorrect because the number of months Eli has been
saving corresponds to the value of m. Choice C is incorrect because
the amount of money Eli saves each month is 30 units of money.
Choice D is incorrect because the amount of money Eli wants to
save is not provided in the problem.
Question 3
Choice B is correct. Since 0.15 milligrams (mg) of zinc is provided
KEY: B
by 100 grams (g) of banana, the number of mg of zinc provided DIFFICULTY: Easy
by 140 g of banana can be found by solving for x in the proportion Calculator
0.15 mg x
= . Cross multiplying gives 100x = 140(0.15), or
100 g 140 g
x = 0.21 mg.
Choice A is incorrect because 0.15 milligrams is the amount of zinc

in 100 grams of banana, not in 140 grams. Choices C and D are
incorrect and likely the result of calculation errors.
35
Question 4
Choice D is correct. In the xy-plane, the point (–2, 1) is the point
KEY: D
where x = –2 and y = 1. Because (–2, 1) is on the line, we can
substitute x = –2 and y = 1 into the equation for the line. This DIFFICULTY: Medium
substitution yields 1 = 5(–2) + p, or 1 = –10 + p. Solving this equation
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for p gives p = 11.
Choice A is incorrect and likely arises by subtracting 10 from both
sides of the equation 1 = 5(–2) + p rather than by adding 10. Choice B
is incorrect and likely arises from mistakenly equating the value of
p with the x-coordinate of the given point. Choice C is incorrect and
likely the result of calculation errors.
Question 5
Choice B is correct. The line of best fit shown for the data has a
KEY: B
positive slope. It can be concluded from this that higher values
for the number of times at bat correspond to higher values for the DIFFICULTY: Easy
number of hits. Therefore, as the number of times at bat increases,
Calculator
the number of hits increases.
Choice A is incorrect because the number of hits increases, not
decreases, as the number of times at bat increases. Choice C is
incorrect because the number of hits increases as the number of
times at bat increases. Choice D is incorrect because as the number
of times at bat decreases, the number of hits decreases, not
increases.
Question 6
Choice A is correct. According to the scatterplot, the player with
KEY: A
450 times at bat had approximately 113 hits (the y-coordinate
of the point representing this player is approximately halfway DIFFICULTY: Medium
between 100 and 125). The line of best fit predicts approximately
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123 hits. Therefore, the actual number of hits made by this player
is approximately 10 fewer than the number of hits predicted by the
line of best fit.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because each gives a value much
greater than 10, which is the best approximation of how many fewer
hits were made by the player with 450 times at bat than predicted
by the line of best fit.
Question 7
Choice B is correct. Since the printer can print 400 characters per
KEY: B
second and there are 60 seconds in each minute, the printer can
DIFFICULTY: Medium
print 400 × 60, or 24,000, characters per minute. Using the convention
24,000 Calculator
of 5 characters per word, the printer can print , or 4,800,
5
words per minute.
36
Choice A is incorrect; it is the result of multiplying 400 characters

per second by 5 characters per word. Choice C is incorrect because
it is the number of characters that can be printed each minute, not
the number of 5-character words that can be printed each minute.
Choice D is the result of multiplying, rather than dividing, the
24,000 characters the printer can print each minute by 5 characters
per word.
Question 8
Choice C is correct. From Year 0 to Year 1, the salary increases by
KEY: C
$1,140; from Year 1 to Year 2, the salary increases by $1,174; from
DIFFICULTY: Medium
Year 2 to Year 3, the salary increases by $1,210; and from Year 3 to
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Year 4, the salary increases by $1,245. Because the dollar amount of
the salary increases each year at a nonconstant rate, a linear model
will not be a good fit to the data. However, the ratio of the salary in
a certain year to the salary in the preceding year remains about
the same from one year to the next. For example, the ratio of
39,140
the salary in Year 1 to the salary in Year 0 is , and the
38,000
40,314
ratio of the salary in Year 2 to the salary in Year 1 is . Both
39,140
these ratios are approximately 1.03, which corresponds to a 3%
increase each year. Therefore, an exponential model increasing by
approximately 3% each year would describe the data better than
the models in the other choices.
Choices A and B are incorrect because they suggest a linear model

is most appropriate; in a linear model, the dollar amount of the
salary increase would be approximately the same from one year to
the next. In this example, the dollar amount of the salary increase
is increasing each year, so a linear model wouldn’t fit the data well.
Choice D is incorrect because the ratio of the salary in a certain year
40,314 39,140
to the salary in the preceding year (for example, and )
39,140 38,000
is approximately 1.03, which corresponds to a 3% increase each year,
not a 9% increase each year.
37
Question 9
Choice A is correct. Distributing the factor of −1 through the second
KEY: A
expression in parentheses in ( x 2 y − 3 y 2 + 5xy 2 ) − (− x 2 y + 3xy 2 − 3 y 2 )
DIFFICULTY: Medium
yields x 2 y − 3 y 2 + 5 xy 2 + x 2 y − 3 xy 2 + 3 y 2. Regrouping by like terms,
Calculator
the expression becomes ( x 2 y + x 2 y ) + (−3 y 2 + 3 y 2 ) + (5xy 2 − 3xy 2 ),
which simplifies to 2 x 2 y  2 xy 2.
Choice B is incorrect; it is the result of adding, rather than

subtracting, the given expressions ( x 2 y  3 y 2  5 xy 2 ) and
(  x 2 y  3 xy 2  3 y 2 ). Choice C is incorrect; it is the result of
subtracting only the first term in the second expression from
the first expression and adding the other terms in the second
expression to the first expression. Choice D is incorrect; it is the
result of attempting to multiply the first, second, and third terms in
each of the two expressions rather than subtracting.
Question 10
Choice D is correct. The equation 4 x −
7 7
1
2
x −=
1
(
7 7 x − 7 can be
2 ) KEY: D
rewritten as x − 7 = x − 49 , which results in the equation 7 = 49.
2 2 DIFFICULTY: Medium
Because 7 is not equal to 49, there is no value of x that makes the
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equation true. Therefore, there are no solutions to this equation.
Choice A is incorrect. It may be the result of substituting 0 for x

in the given equation and incorrectly applying the distributive
property on the right side of the equation, yielding −7 = −7. Choice B
is incorrect and likely results from errors made when simplifying
the left- and right-hand sides of the equation when solving for x.
Choice C is incorrect and may result from incorrectly distributing the
7 7
7 on the right-hand side of the equation to obtain x − 7= x −7;
2 2
this equation has infinitely many solutions.
Question 11
Choice D is correct. The range of Joseph’s bills is
KEY: D
$193.12 – $145.30 = $47.82, which is greater than the range of
Samuel’s bills, which is $188.99 – $149.23 = $39.76. The median of DIFFICULTY: Medium
Joseph’s bills is $180.33, which is less than the median of Samuel’s
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bills, $181.27.
38
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. The range of Joseph’s bills is

greater than the range of Samuel’s bills, and the median of Joseph’s
bills is less than the median of Samuel’s bills. Each of choices A, B,
and C gets at least one of these facts wrong.
Question 12
Choice A is correct. According to the table, there are 16 double-
KEY: A
decker train cars that have been in service for less than 10 years.
DIFFICULTY: Medium
Since there are 810 train cars in service on the railroad, the portion
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of the train cars that are double-decker train cars that have been in
service for less than 10 years is 16  0.0198 . This corresponds to
810
1.98%, or about 2%.
Choice B is incorrect and may be the result of dividing 16 by 215,

which gives the ratio of the number of double-decker train cars that
have been in service less than 10 years to the number of single-
level train cars that have been in service less than 10 years, and
then multiplying by 100. Choice C is incorrect and may be the result
of using the number of double-decker train cars that have been in
service for more than 10 years, 82, rather than using the number of
double-decker train cars that have been in service for less than 10
years, 16. Choice D is incorrect and may be the result of identifying
that there are 16 double-decker cars that have been in service for
less than 10 years and assuming that the answer is 16%, rather than
dividing 16 by the total number of train cars in service to find the
actual percentage.
Question 13
Choice B is correct. There are 12 inches in one foot, so the
KEY: B
900 inches of plastic wrap used for each group of boxes is equal
DIFFICULTY: Medium
to 900 = 75 feet. The total number of groups of boxes that can be
12 Calculator
bundled with 1,500 feet of plastic wrap can be found by dividing
the total number of feet of plastic wrap, 1,500, by the number of
feet of plastic wrap needed for each group, 75. Therefore,
1,500
= 20 groups of boxes can be bundled with 1,500 feet of
75
plastic wrap.
Choice A is incorrect because more than 15 groups of boxes can be

bundled with 1,500 feet of plastic wrap. If 900 inches of plastic wrap
are needed per group, then the amount of plastic wrap needed
to bundle 15 groups is 1,125 feet (900 inches × 15 groups = 13,500
inches; 13,500 inches ÷ 12 inches per foot = 1,125 feet). The problem
39
states that there are 1,500 feet of plastic wrap available. Choices
C and D are incorrect because there is not enough plastic wrap to
bundle this many groups of boxes. To bundle 25 groups, 1,875 feet
of plastic wrap are needed (900 inches × 25 groups = 22,500 inches;
22,500 inches ÷ 12 inches per foot = 1,875 feet). To bundle 30 groups,
2,250 feet of plastic wrap are needed (900 inches × 30 groups = 27,000
inches; 27,000 inches ÷ 12 inches per foot = 2,250 feet).
Question 14
Choice C is correct. The number of calories listed in the table can
KEY: C
be ordered from least to greatest, as follows: 700, 740, 810, 900,
DIFFICULTY: Medium
1,050, and 1,120. Since the total of numbers in the list, 6, is an even
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number, the median is the mean of the two middle numbers, 810
810 + 900
and 900, which is = 855 . According to the table, the
2
cheeseburger at the Riverside Diner has 1,120 calories. Therefore,
the difference in the number of calories in a cheeseburger at the
Riverside Diner and the median number of calories in cheeseburgers
at all six restaurants is 1,120 – 855 = 265.
Choice A is incorrect. This answer choice is the result of incorrectly

finding the median by using the mean of the two middle numbers,
740 and 1,120, in the table’s unsorted list of the number of calories
in cheeseburgers. Choice B is incorrect. This answer choice is
the approximate difference between the number of calories in a
cheeseburger at the Riverside Diner and the mean (rather than
the median) number of calories in the cheeseburgers at all six
restaurants. Choice D is incorrect. This answer choice may be the
result of assuming that the median is the third number listed in the
table, finding the difference between the number of calories in a
cheeseburger at the Riverside Diner and the number of calories in
a cheeseburger at Molly’s (1,120 – 740 = 380), and then selecting the
closest available value, 390.
Question 15
Choice C is correct. The standard form for the equation of a circle in
KEY: C
the xy-plane with center (h, k) and radius r is (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r 2.
Therefore, the equation of a circle with radius 3 and center (4, −2) is DIFFICULTY: Medium
(x – 4)2 + (y + 2)2 = 9.
Calculator
Choice A is incorrect. This equation is of a circle with center at
(−4, 2) and a radius of 3 , not 3. Choices B and D are incorrect
because these equations define ellipses rather than circles; in the
standard form for an equation of a circle, the two squared terms on
the left-hand side of the equation are added, not subtracted.
40
Question 16
Choice B is correct. Since the 327 9th-grade students are a random
KEY: B
sample selected from all 9th-grade students in the school, the
DIFFICULTY: Medium
sample can be considered to be representative of all the 9th-grade
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students in the school. This means that the proportion of 9th-grade
students in the school who had a GPA of 3.0 or greater can be
estimated using the proportion of 9th-grade students who had a
GPA of 3.0 or greater in the sample. Of the 327 9th-grade students
in the study, 61 + 95 = 156 students had a GPA of 3.0 or greater.
Therefore, the probability that a 9th-grade student at the school
chosen at random had a GPA of 3.0 or greater is estimated to be
156
≈ 0.477 , which rounds to 0.48.
327
Choice A is incorrect. This answer choice is the result of dividing
the number of students in the study enrolled in Propel with a
GPA of 3.0 or greater, 61, by the number of students in the study
not enrolled in Propel with a GPA of 3.0 or greater, 95, rather than
dividing the total number of students with a GPA of 3.0 or higher
by the total number of students in the study. Choice C is incorrect.
This answer choice reflects the probability that a 9th-grade student,
selected at random, is enrolled in Propel. It is the result of dividing
the total number of students enrolled in Propel, rather than the
total number of students with a GPA of 3.0 or greater, by the total
number of students in the study. Choice D is incorrect. This answer
choice reflects the probability that a 9th-grade student, selected at
random, is enrolled in Propel and has a GPA of 3.0 or greater. It is
the result of dividing the number of students who both are enrolled
in Propel and had a GPA of 3.0 or greater, rather than all students
who had a GPA of 3.0 or greater, by the total number of students in
the study.
Question 17
Choice D is correct. There are 61 students enrolled in Propel who
KEY: D
had a GPA of 3.0 or greater and 48 students enrolled in Propel
DIFFICULTY: Hard
who had a GPA of less than 3.0, so there are a total of 61 + 48 = 109
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students enrolled in Propel. The percentage of students enrolled
61
in Propel who had a GPA of 3.0 or greater is × 100% ≈ 55.96%,
109
or about 56%. There are 95 students who are not enrolled in Propel
who had a GPA of 3.0 or greater and 123 students not enrolled in
41
Propel who had a GPA of less than 3.0, so there are a total of
95 + 123 = 218 students who are not enrolled in Propel. The
percentage of students not enrolled in Propel who had a GPA of
3.0 or greater is 95 × 100% ≈ 43.58%, or about 44%. Therefore, the
218
difference, to the nearest whole percent, between the percentage of
students enrolled in Propel who had a GPA of 3.0 or greater and the
percentage of students not enrolled in Propel who had a GPA of 3.0
or greater is 56% − 44% = 12%.
Choice A is incorrect. This answer choice is the result of finding the

difference between the percentage of students in the study who
both are enrolled in Propel and had a GPA of 3.0 or greater
(61 ÷ 327 × 100% ≈ 18.7%) and the percentage of students in the
study who both are enrolled in Propel and had a GPA less than 3.0
(48 ÷ 327 × 100% ≈ 14.7%). Choice B is incorrect. This answer choice
is the result of finding the difference between the percentage of
students in the study who both are not enrolled in Propel and had
a GPA of 3.0 or greater. Choice C is incorrect. This answer choice
may be the result of subtracting the number of students enrolled in
Propel who had a GPA of 3.0 or greater from the number of
students not enrolled in Propel who had a GPA of 3.0 or greater
(95 – 61 = 34), then dividing the result by the total number of
students in the study.
Question 18
Choice B is correct. There are a total of 109 students enrolled in
KEY: B
Propel (61 with a GPA of 3.0 or greater and 48 with a GPA of less
DIFFICULTY: Hard
than 3.0). If the ratio of boys to girls in Propel is 2:3, for every group
3 Calculator
of 5 students enrolled in Propel, 3 are girls. Since of 109 is about
5
65.4, the best estimate of the number of girls enrolled in Propel is 65.
Choice A is incorrect; it is the best estimate for the number of

boys enrolled in Propel. Choice C is incorrect; it is the result of
2
multiplying the total number of students in Propel, 109, by rather
3
than first using the ratio of the number of boys to the number of
girls to find the percentage of students in Propel who are girls.
Choice D is incorrect. There are only 109 students enrolled in Propel,
so there cannot be 131 girls enrolled in Propel.
42
Question 19
Choice C is correct. Let S be the length, in inches, of each of the
KEY: C
4 sides of the square sculpture, and let T be the length, in inches,
of each of the 3 sides of the equilateral triangle sculpture. Since the DIFFICULTY: Medium
rod used to make the square sculpture is the same length as the rod
Calculator
used to make the triangle sculpture, 4S = 3T. The fact that each side
of the triangle, T, is 2 inches longer than each side of the square, S,
can be expressed by the equation T = S + 2. Substituting S + 2 for T
in the equation 4S = 3T gives 4S = 3(S + 2). This equation simplifies
to 4S = 3S + 6, so S = 6 and T = 8. Therefore, the length, in inches, of
each rod is 4(6) = 3(8) = 24.
Choice A is incorrect. If the length of each rod were 16 inches, the
length of each side of the square would be 16 ÷ 4 = 4 inches, and the
length of each side of the triangle would be 16 ÷ 3 ≈ 5.3 inches. In
this case, each side of the triangle is about 1.3 inches longer than
each side of the square, but the question states that each side of
the triangle is 2 inches longer than each side of the square. Choice B
is incorrect. It is the result of correctly solving the system of
equations to find that S = 6 but incorrectly assuming that the length,
in inches, of the rod is equal to 3S, not 4S. Choice D is incorrect. If
the length of each rod were 30 inches, the length of each side of the
square would be 30 ÷ 4 = 7.5 inches, and the length of each side of
the triangle would be 30 ÷ 3 = 10 inches. In this case, each side of
the triangle is 2.5 inches longer than each side of the square, but the
question states that each side of the triangle is 2 inches longer than
each side of the square.
Question 20
Choice B is correct. The domain of the rational function
2x  4 KEY: B
f ( x)  will be all real values of x except the values of
2
2x  2x  4 DIFFICULTY: Hard
x for which the denominator, 2x2 + 2x – 4, becomes 0. Solving the
Calculator
equation 2x2 + 2x – 4 = 0 gives x = 1 and x = –2. The equation in
2( x  2)
choice B, f ( x )  , is equivalent to the given function,
2( x  2)( x  1)
since the numerator and denominator are just the factored forms
of 2x – 4 and 2x2 + 2x – 4, respectively. Therefore, the equation
in choice B is an equivalent form of f(x) that displays values not
included in the domain as constants.
Choice A is incorrect because the values of x where the denominator

is equal to 0 are not displayed as constants or coefficients. Choices
C and D are incorrect because neither is equivalent to
2x − 4
f (x ) =
2
2x + 2x − 4 .
43
Question 21
Choice B is correct. It is given that the equation A = 4p + 64 will
KEY: B
relate the area A, in square feet, of the path and the perimeter p, in
DIFFICULTY: Hard
feet, of the fountain. This equation can be rewritten to express p in
Calculator
terms of A: subtracting 64 from each side of A = 4p + 64 gives
A
A – 64 = 4p, and dividing by 4 and simplifying gives  p  16 . For
4
each additional square foot of area, the value of A increases by 1.
A
Using  p  16, an increase in A by 1 results in an increase in p by
4
1 . Therefore, the perimeter of the fountain increases by 1 foot for
4 4
each additional square foot of the path’s area.
Choices A and D are incorrect and may be the result of

misinterpreting the constant term 64 in the given equation.
Choice C is incorrect; it is the number of square feet the area, A, of
the path will increase for every increase in p by 1 foot rather than
the number of feet the perimeter will increase for each additional
square foot of area.
Question 22
Choice D is correct. Since q is a function and its graph is a
KEY: D
parabola, it follows that q is a quadratic function and the parabola
DIFFICULTY: Hard
is symmetric about the vertical line through its vertex. Thus, the
Calculator
x-coordinate of the vertex (2, 4) is the average of the x-coordinates of
1  r
the two x-intercepts (–1, 0) and (r, 0). That is, 2  . It follows
2
that 4 = –1 + r, so r = 5.
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect and may result from confusing the
roles of the x-coordinates and y-coordinates in the question.
Question 23
Choice D is correct. The temperature when chilling began was
KEY: D
100°C. Since the time the chilling began corresponds to the value
t = 0, the correct equation must yield the value C = 100 for t = 0. This DIFFICULTY: Hard
eliminates choices A, B, and C. The temperature decreases at a
Calculator
constant rate from 100°C to 25°C. So the function that represents C
in terms of t must be a linear function of the form C = 100 – at, where
a is the rate at which the temperature decreases, in degrees Celsius
per second. The temperature decreases from 100°C to 25°C, or 75°C,
in 5 seconds. This is a rate of decrease of 15°C per second. Thus,
a = 15. Therefore, the linear function in choice D represents correctly
the temperature C, in degrees Celsius, as a function of the time t, in
seconds, after the chilling began.
44
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these functions

fails to give the correct value C = 100 for t = 0.
Question 24
Choice C is correct. Let rE be the radius of Earth, and let rJ be the
KEY: C
radius of Jupiter. Since the radius of Jupiter is 11 times the radius of
DIFFICULTY: Medium
Earth, rJ = 11rE. Assuming Jupiter is a sphere, the volume of Jupiter
4 3 4 3 Calculator
is π rJ . Substituting 11rE for rJ in this expression gives 3 π (11rE ) ,
3
which can be rewritten as follows: 4 π (11)3 (rE )3  113  4 π (rE )3  .
3  3 
Since the expression in brackets is the volume of Earth, it follows
that the volume of Jupiter is (11)3, or 1,331, times larger than the
volume of Earth.
Choice A is incorrect. This is the result of assuming that because

the radius of Jupiter is 11 times the radius of Earth, the volume of
Jupiter is 11 times the volume of Earth. If the radius of a sphere is
multiplied by a factor of 11, its volume is multiplied by 113 = 1,331,
not 11. Choice B is incorrect. This is the result of multiplying the
volume of the sphere by 112 rather than 113. If the radius of a
sphere is multiplied by a factor of 11, its volume is multiplied by
113 = 1,331, not 112 = 121. Choice D is incorrect. If the radius of a
sphere is multiplied by a factor of 11, the volume is multiplied by a
factor of 113 = 1,331, not 4 (11)3  1,775 .
3
Question 25
Choice B is correct. Since the population of squirrels in the park has
KEY: B
been doubling every 15 years, it means that if the current population
DIFFICULTY: Hard
of squirrels is A, 15 years later it will be 2A. The increase of a
Calculator
function value at a rate that is proportional to the current function’s
value is characteristic of an exponential growth function. For this
example, the squirrel population can be modeled by the function
t
P(t ) = A ⋅ 2 15 , where A is the population of squirrels at an initial
moment in time, t is the number of years since the initial time, and
P(t) is the population of the squirrels t years after the initial time.
Choices A and C are incorrect because the squirrel population is

increasing by the same percentage each 15-year time period, not
by the same amount. Choice D is incorrect because a population
that is increasing by the same percentage over each time period is
experiencing exponential growth, not linear growth.
45
Question 26
Choice D is correct. The definition of a function describes the rule
KEY: D
by which each input, x, is assigned a single output, f (x). So f(x – 4) is
DIFFICULTY: Hard
the output obtained when the same rule, f, is applied to a different
Calculator
input, x – 4. Therefore, to find f (x – 4), take the definition
f(x) = 3x2 – 5x + 4 and substitute x – 4 for x throughout the equation
to obtain f(x – 4) = 3(x – 4)2 – 5(x – 4) + 4.
Now expand the right-hand side and collect like terms:

f(x – 4) = 3(x – 4)2 – 5(x – 4) + 4
= 3(x2 – 8x + 16) – 5(x – 4) + 4
= 3x2 – 24x + 48 – 5x + 20 + 4
= 3x2 – 24x – 5x + 48 + 20 + 4
= 3x2 – 29x + 72
Choice A is incorrect; it subtracts 4 from the right-hand side only,
when to find f(x – 4) in terms of x, x – 4 should be substituted for
x throughout the equation f (x) = 3x2 – 5x + 4. Choices B and C are
incorrect and likely result from errors in expanding and simplifying
the equation f (x – 4) = 3(x – 4)2 – 5(x – 4) + 4.
Question 27
Choice D is correct. If (x0, y0) is the point at which the two lines
KEY: D
intersect, the coordinates x0 and y0 must satisfy each of the given
equations in the system of equations below: DIFFICULTY: Hard
1 Calculator
x y
3
154  4 y 
10 x
This system can be solved by writing the second equation in terms
of only x. To do so, first multiply each side of the first equation,
1
x  y , by 3, which gives 3x = y. Substituting 3x for y in the second
3
equation, 154 – 4y = 10x, gives 154 – 12x = 10x. Adding 12x to each
side of 154 – 12x = 10x gives 154 = 22x, so x = 7. Finally, substituting 7
1 1
for x in the equation x  y gives 7  y , and multiplying each side
3 3
1
of 7  y by 3 gives 21 = y. When the two equations are graphed in
3
the xy-plane, the resulting lines intersect at the point (7, 21).
46
Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Each of these points lies on the

1
line with equation x  y , but none of these points lies on the line
3
with equation 154 – 4y = 10x. For example, the point (1, 3) does not
lie on the line with equation 154 – 4y = 10x because substituting
x = 1 and y = 3 in the equation gives 154 – 4(3) = 10(1); this simplifies
to 142 = 10, which is not a true statement.
Question 28
The correct answer is 65. Based on the table, 10 Szechuan chicken
KEY: 65
meals contain (5)(10) = 50 grams of fat and (35)(10) = 350 grams of
DIFFICULTY: Hard
carbohydrates. So the greatest number of stir-fry meals that John
Calculator
can purchase must contain no more than 350 – 50 = 300 grams of
fat and no more than 2975 – 350 = 2625 grams of carbohydrates. It
follows that the greatest number of stir-fry meals he can purchase
so that the combination will satisfy the fat requirement is
300
 75 , and the greatest number of stir-fry meals he can purchase
4
so that the combination will satisfy the carbohydrate requirement
is 2625  65.625. Since John cannot purchase parts of a meal
40
and purchasing 66 stir-fry meals would exceed the carbohydrate
requirement, the greatest number of meals he can purchase so that
the carbohydrate requirement will be satisfied is 65. Therefore,
the greatest number of stir-fry meals he can purchase so that the
combination will satisfy both requirements is 65.
Question 29
The correct answer is 0 or 12. To solve the given system of
KEY: 0, 12
equations, one can use the second equation, y = x – 1, and substitute
x – 1 for y in the first equation, giving x  1  x 2  4 x  3. This DIFFICULTY: Hard
equation can be rewritten as x 2  5 x  4  0. Since 1 and 4 are the Calculator
two numbers whose sum is 5 and whose product is 4, they are the
solutions to the equation x 2  5 x  4  0. From the equation
y = x – 1, it follows that (1, 0) and (4, 3) are the solutions to the given
system of equations. Therefore, the value of the product xy can be
(1)(0) = 0 or (4)(3) = 12. Either 0 or 12 can be gridded as the correct
answer.
47
Question 30
The correct answer is 1368. According to the graph, the king crab
KEY: 1368
supply in 2006 was 180 million pounds. It is given that 60% of this
supply was sold at $8 per pound and the rest of the supply was sold DIFFICULTY: Hard
at $7 per pound. It follows that (0.6)(180) = 108 million pounds of king
Calculator
crab was sold at $8 per pound, and 180 – 108 = 72 million pounds
of king crab was sold at $7 per pound. Therefore, the revenue
generated, in millions of dollars, from the sales of king crab in 2006
was (108)(8) + (72)(7) = 1368.
Question 31
The correct answer is 85. According to the graph, the king crab
KEY: 85
supply in 2011 was 80 million pounds. So at the price of $17 per
pound, the revenue generated, in millions of dollars, from the sales DIFFICULTY: Hard
of king crab in 2011 was (80)(17) = 1360. Since x millions pounds
Calculator
of king crab was sold in 2012 at the price of $16 per pound, the
revenue in 2012 was 16x million dollars. It is given that the revenue
generated from the sales of king crab in 2011 was the same as the
revenue in 2012. Therefore, 16x = 1360, so x = 85.
48

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Make time to learn how you can

PSAT/NMSQT Practice Test #2

Reading Test Answer Explanations

purpose of these lines is to reemphasize what Falvo had said earlier

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the previous question

more fruit-bearing plants. That idea is supported in lines 12-15:

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in this context, saying the

passage does Thoreau refer to conscientious people’s moral sense

responsibility to follow just laws. Choice D is incorrect because lines

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because King does not discuss in

the bacteria were responsible by killing them with antibiotics. Sure

from the soil. Choice C is incorrect because the passage clearly

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in the context of genetic

Choice A is incorrect because the second-to-last paragraph of

Writing and Language Test

pronoun “those.” Choice D is incorrect because “whom” is the

Choice A is incorrect because the plural verb “contribute” doesn’t

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they all include incorrect

Choices A and C are incorrect because a period or semicolon can’t

Choice A is incorrect because a participle cannot be used to replace

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none contains a pair of

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because moving sentence 5

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not correctly

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are wordy or

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they offer options that do

Choices A and C are incorrect because a period or a semicolon

Choice B is incorrect because the sentence doesn’t explain why

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not idiomatic

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the pronoun “one” and

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In choice A, “other places” is

Choice A is incorrect because it compares the prices of homes to

possessive pronoun. The correct answer needs to be singular to

Choices A and B are incorrect because the sentence is irrelevant

Math Test – No Calculator Answer

Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because none of these values

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are points that a

be expressed as the price of each box multiplied by the number of

Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are ratios that

Multiplying the expressions within the parentheses and applying

follows that the corresponding exponents of x and y on both sides of

the equation must be equal, which yields a = 5.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect and may result from

Math Test – Calculator Answer

Choice A is incorrect because 0.15 milligrams is the amount of zinc

Choice A is incorrect; it is the result of multiplying 400 characters

Choices A and B are incorrect because they suggest a linear model

Choice B is incorrect; it is the result of adding, rather than

Choice A is incorrect. It may be the result of substituting 0 for x

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. The range of Joseph’s bills is

Choice B is incorrect and may be the result of dividing 16 by 215,

Choice A is incorrect because more than 15 groups of boxes can be

Choice A is incorrect. This answer choice is the result of incorrectly

Choice A is incorrect. This answer choice is the result of finding the

Choice A is incorrect; it is the best estimate for the number of

Choice A is incorrect because the values of x where the denominator

Choices A and D are incorrect and may be the result of

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these functions

Choice A is incorrect. This is the result of assuming that because