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UNIVERSITY OF CAMBRIDGE INTERNATIONAL EXAMINATIONS

General Certificate of Education


Advanced Subsidiary Level and Advanced Level

BIOLOGY 9700/13
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2010

1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5451643981*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, highlighters, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided unless
this has been done for you.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB10 06_9700_13/FP
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1 The enzyme lysozyme secreted from tear glands forms deposits on contact lenses.

Which ingredient would be effective in a contact lens cleaner for removing these deposits?

A ethanol
B lysosomes
C pH buffers
D proteases

2 An enzyme is completely denatured at 50 °C. A fixed concentration of this enzyme is added to a


fixed concentration of its substrate. The time taken for completion of the reaction is measured at
different temperatures.

Which graph shows the results?

A B

time taken time taken


for completion for completion
of the reaction of the reaction

10 20 30 40 50 60 10 20 30 40 50 60
temperature / °C temperature / °C

C D

time taken time taken


for completion for completion
of the reaction of the reaction

10 20 30 40 50 60 10 20 30 40 50 60
temperature / °C temperature / °C

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3 Which feature distinguishes starch from glycogen?

A Starch contains α-glucose.


B Starch contains 1,6 glycosidic bonds.
C Starch has an unbranched component.
D Starch is a polysaccharide.

4 Which diagram represents part of the ring form of a molecule of β-glucose?

A B C D

H O OH H O H HO O H HO O OH

HO H HO OH H OH H H

5 What would be the result of analysing part of a DNA molecule?

A hexose sugars and phosphates in equal proportion, and an equal number of cytosine and
guanine bases
B nucleotides and phosphates in equal proportion, and an equal number of adenine and
cytosine bases
C pentose sugars and phosphates in equal proportion, and an equal number of adenine and
thymine bases
D twice as many phosphates as pentose sugars, and an equal number of adenine and guanine
bases

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6 Some plant and animal cells were placed in different solutions and the results are shown.

1 2 3

4 5

Which cells were placed in which solution?

1.0 mol dm–3 sucrose 0.1 mol dm–3 salt solution

A 1 and 2 3 and 5
B 1 and 4 3
C 2 and 4 1 and 3
D 3 and 5 2 and 4

7 The diagrams represent the cross section of the stem, root and leaf of a non-woody
dicotyledonous plant. In each section the distribution of the tissues is shown.

1 3 5

2 4

Which sequence of numbers correctly identifies the distribution of xylem and phloem in the stem,
root and leaf?

xylem phloem

A 1 3 5 2 4 6
B 1 4 6 2 4 5
C 2 3 6 1 3 5
D 2 4 5 1 3 6

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8 Some soil-borne fungi cause wilting in crop plants by growing within the xylem vessels.

Which process will be directly affected by these fungi?

A cohesion between water molecules


B development of root pressure
C mass flow during translocation
D uptake of water by root hair cells

9 What occurs in the sieve tube elements of a photosynthesising leaf and an actively growing root?

sieve tube elements in leaf sieve tube elements in root

A water potential decreases sugars are moved in


B water potential decreases sugars are moved out
C water potential increases sugars are moved in
D water potential increases sugars are moved out

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10 The diagram below is drawn from an electron micrograph of an animal cell.

Which represents the same cell, seen under a light (optical) microscope at ×400 magnification?

11 Which observations suggest that a cell is eukaryotic?

cytoplasm protein ribosomes


includes molecules are distributed
endoplasmic associated through the
reticulum with the DNA cytoplasm

A    key
B    = found in eukaryotes
C    = not found in eukaryotes
D   

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12 Which structures are found in both animal and plant cells?

1 centriole
2 lysosome
3 nucleolus
4 vacuole

A 1 and 3 only
B 2 and 4 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 1, 2, 3 and 4

13 Which structures are measured using these units?

10–3 m 10–6 m 10–9 m

A chloroplast ribosome nucleus


B nucleus chloroplast xylem vessel
C ribosome xylem vessel chloroplast
D xylem vessel nucleus ribosome

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14 The diagram shows a spirometer trace with tidal volume and vital capacity.

6
volume
/ dm3
5
X
4
vital
tidal
3 capacity
volume

2 Y

0
time

What happens to the volumes labelled X and Y during moderate exercise?

volume X volume Y

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

15 Aortic stenosis is a heart valve disorder in which the aortic semi-lunar valve opening is narrow.

Which effect could aortic stenosis have on the heart structure and function?

A The tendons of the heart valves are weakened by blood being forced back through the
bicuspid/left atrio-ventricular valve into the left atrium.
B The cardiac muscle of the left ventricle wall is thinned by blood leaking out of the left
ventricle during ventricular diastole.
C There is less cardiac muscle in the left ventricle and reduced diastolic blood pressure,
caused by the smaller blood volume entering the left atrium.
D The wall of the left ventricle thickens, leading to an enlarged heart and inability to relax and
fill completely during diastole.

16 What is systolic blood pressure?

A the blood pressure in the arteries when the heart is relaxing


B the blood pressure in the left ventricle at the end of a contraction
C the maximum blood pressure in the arteries
D the maximum blood pressure in the right ventricle

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17 The trace represents the electrical activity of the heart during a single heart beat.

P T

Q
S

Which letters identify the flow of current through the atria and the recovery of the ventricle walls?

A P and R B P and T C Q and R D Q and S

18 A student tested four samples of food, A, B, C and D, for the presence of

• lipids

• protein

• reducing sugars

• starch

One of the food samples, milk, was found to contain lipid, protein and reducing sugar.

Which of the food samples, shown in the results below, is milk?

observation
adding iodine in boiling with mixing with
adding biuret
sample potassium iodide Benedict’s ethanol and
reagent
solution solution adding to water

A lilac orange orange precipitate milky emulsion


B lilac blue-black blue milky emulsion
C pale blue blue-black orange precipitate clear
D pale blue orange blue clear

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19 Which statement describes how the molecular structure of starch is suited to its function?

A Amylose has a branched structure and amylopectin is coiled to give a compact molecule for
transport.
B In the breakdown of amylose and amylopectin, many hydrolysis reactions release stored
energy.
C In the formation of amylose and amylopectin, many condensation reactions allow the release
of stored energy.
D The final amylose / amylopectin complex is insoluble and does not affect the osmotic
properties of the cell.

20 How many fatty acid residues are normally present in a phospholipid molecule?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

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21 In an investigation into the immune response, a volunteer was exposed to two different antigens,
X and Y.

The relative antibody concentration in the blood was measured at regular intervals over 60 days.

The graph shows the time when the volunteer was exposed to each antigen and the antibody
concentration against time for antigens X and Y.

antibody
concentration antibody for antigen X
/ arbitrary
units

antibody for antigen Y

0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60

first exposure second exposure time / days


to antigen X to antigen X
first exposure
to antigen Y

What is the explanation for the results displayed on the graph?

A A primary and secondary immune response against antigen X occurred, with the memory
B-lymphocytes inhibiting the secondary immune response against antigen Y.
B A primary immune response to antigen Y occurred and memory B-lymphocytes specific to
antigen Y enhanced the secondary immune response to antigen X.
C Memory B-lymphocytes specific to antigen X enabled a secondary immune response to
occur; different B-lymphocytes were activated for a primary immune response for antigen Y.
D Plasma cells remaining from the first exposure to antigen X undergo rapid clonal selection to
produce high levels of antibody against antigen X and lower levels of antibody against
antigen Y.

22 What is a difference between T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes in the immune system?

T-lymphocytes B-lymphocytes

do not form plasma cells form plasma cells which secrete


A
antibodies into the blood stream
do not stimulate macrophages to stimulate macrophages to carry out
B
carry out phagocytosis phagocytosis

C formed from cells in the thymus formed from bone marrow cells
D produce memory cells do not produce memory cells

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23 What are the causative agents of cholera, malaria and TB?

cholera malaria TB

A bacterium insect virus


B bacterium protoctist bacterium
C virus insect virus
D virus protoctist bacterium

24 40 % of the world’s population live in an area where malaria is a threat to health. In recent years
there have been many more cases in Africa.

What is the social factor that is letting the spread of malaria get out of control?

A an increase in drug resistant forms of malaria


B climate change
C difficulty in producing a vaccine
D migration of people because of wars

25 DNA is said to replicate in a semi-conservative way.

Results of Meselson and Stahl’s experiments gave overwhelming support to this theory. They
used E. coli which has a generation time of 50 minutes.

Here are the steps in their experiment but they are in the wrong order.

P All bacteria contain 15N DNA.


Q All bacteria contain hybrid DNA (15N DNA and 14N DNA).
R Bacteria contain either all 14N DNA or hybrid DNA.
S Bacteria grown in a 15N medium for many generations.
T Bacteria transferred to a 14N medium and sampled every 50 minutes.

Which sequence of letters shows the correct order of the steps in the experiment?

A P→Q→R→S→T

B P→S→T→R→Q

C S→P→T→Q→R

D S→R→Q→P→T

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26 What occurs in anaphase of mitosis?

A chromatids line up on the equator of the cell


B chromatids reach the poles of the spindle
C chromatids separate and move to opposite poles
D chromatids start to coil up and become visible

27 The diagram shows chromosomes at metaphase of mitosis.

What are the diploid and haploid numbers for this species?

diploid haploid

A 4 8
B 8 4
C 8 16
D 16 8

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28 The diagram shows part of the nitrogen cycle.

nitrogen gas

2 1

reduction nitrate

ions (NO3)
ammonium
ions (NH4+)
reduction
4

ammonium
ions (NH4+)
proteins
3

Which sequence of numbers correctly shows the roles of different types of microorganism in the
nitrogen cycle?

decomposing
denitrifying nitrifying
(putrefying)
bacteria bacteria
bacteria

A 2 4 3
B 3 1 2
C 3 1 4
D 4 2 1

29 The diagram shows a tropical ocean food chain with 10 % efficiency of energy transfer between
trophic levels.

herbivorous carnivorous
phytoplankton small fish tuna
zooplankton zooplankton

Net primary production of phytoplankton is 1300 g m–3 yr –1.

What is the net primary production per year for the carnivorous zooplankton and the tuna?

net primary production of


net primary production of tuna
carnivorous zooplankton
/ g m–3 yr –1
/ g m–3 yr–1

A 1.3 × 101 1.3 × 10–1


B 1.3 × 100 1.3 × 10–2
C 1.3 × 10–1 1.3 × 10–2
D 1.3 × 10–2 1.3 × 10–4

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30 Two species of animal are found in the same area of forest and grassland. In the spring and
summer they eat the same plant food. However, in the autumn and winter one eats nuts in the
forest and the other eats roots on the grassland.

Both species are preyed upon by the same predator. Numbers of root-eating animals are reduced
most by this, but they recover faster since they reproduce faster.

What can be concluded about these two species of animals?

1 They are part of the same community.


2 They are at different trophic levels.
3 They occupy different habitats.
4 They have different niches.

A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 4 only
C 2, 3 and 4 only
D 1, 3 and 4 only

31 The diagram shows a section through a type of epithelium.

80 µm

Where is this type of epithelium found in the respiratory system?

trachea bronchus all bronchioles alveolus

A     key
B     = present
C     = absent
D    

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32 Which statement is an example of epidemiological evidence linking smoking to lung cancer?

A Chemical analysis of tar from cigarettes shows that it contains carcinogens.


B Dogs made to inhale the smoke from cigarettes develop lung tumours.
C The incidence of lung cancer increases in a population as more cigarettes are smoked.
D When tar from cigarettes is rubbed onto the skin of mice, the mice develop skin tumours.

33 Which processes allow movement into and out of a cell?

1 active transport
2 diffusion
3 facilitated diffusion
4 osmosis

A 2 and 4 only
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 1, 2, 3 and 4

34 The diagram shows a stage micrometer, with divisions 0.1 mm apart, viewed through an eyepiece
containing a graticule.

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 10

What is the area of the field of view of the microscope at this magnification? (π = 3.14)

A π × 12.5 × 12.5 = 4.9 × 102 µm2

B π × 55 × 55 = 9.5 × 103 µm2

C π × 125 × 125 = 4.9 × 104 µm2

D π × 250 × 250 = 2.0 × 105 µm2

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35 When making measurements in experiments, which methods have parallax errors?

1 using a calibrated eyepiece graticule to measure length


2 using a measuring cylinder to measure volume
3 using a ruler to measure length of a shoot

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 3 and 1 only
D 1, 2 and 3

36 Membranes within and at the surface of cells have different roles.

The diagram allows the identification of the various organelles within the cell, by describing the
membrane structure and function.

membrane

encloses cell contents encloses a structure


cell surface membrane within the cell

possesses pores

no pores present

allows exit of mRNA protein synthesis


1 2
single membrane double membrane

transports lipid allows oxygen allows carbon dioxide


enzymes synthesis to enter to enter
3 4 5 6

Which of the outcomes shown below correctly identifies the organelles that possess the
membrane and function concerned?

1 2 3 4 5 6

A chloroplast vesicle smooth ER rough ER nucleolus mitochondrion


B nucleolus rough ER vesicle smooth ER nucleus mitochondrion
C nucleus rough ER vesicle smooth ER mitochondrion chloroplast
D nucleus smooth ER mitochondrion rough ER vesicle chloroplast

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37 As a frozen lake warms after a cold winter, mineral nutrients are brought to the surface.

Which properties of water contribute to this process?

1 Its greatest density is at 4 °C.


2 It has high specific heat capacity.
3 It is a solvent.
4 Its molecules form hydrogen bonds.

A 1 and 3 only B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only

38 Which feature of haemoglobin makes it a globular protein?

A It has four cross-linked polypeptide chains forming a quaternary structure.


B It has hydrophobic groups on the inside and hydrophilic groups on the outside.
C It has hydrophobic interactions and is insoluble in water.
D It has polypeptide chains which are cross-linked to form sheets.

39 What is the minimum number of base substitutions required to change the nucleotide sequence
of the HbA (normal) allele to the HbS (sickle cell) allele?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

40 In a DNA molecule, the base sequence AGT codes for the amino acid serine.

What is the base sequence of the anti-codon on the tRNA to which serine becomes attached?

A AGU B GAU C TCA D UCA

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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

University of Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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