1. When planning to do social research, it is better to: 5. Which of the following is not a type of research question?

a) Approach the topic with an open mind a) Predicting an outcome

b) Do a pilot study before getting stuck into it b) Evaluating a phenomenon

c) Be familiar with the literature on the topic c) Developing good practice

d) Forget about theory because this is a very practical undertaking d) A hypothesis

2. Which comes first, theory or research? 6. What does 'sampling cases' mean?

a) Theory, because otherwise you are working in the dark a) Sampling using a sampling frame

b) Research, because that's the only way you can develop a theory b) Identifying people who are suitable for research

c) It depends on your point of view c) Literally, the researcher's brief-case

d) The question is meaningless, because you can't have one without the d) Sampling people, newspapers, television programmes etc.
other
7. Which of the following is not a data-collection method?
3. We review the relevant literature to know:
a) Research questions
a) What is already known about the topic
b) Unstructured interviewing
b) What concepts and theories have been applied to the topic
c) Postal survey questionnaires
c) Who are the key contributors to the topic
d) Participant observation
d) All of the above
8. Why is data analysis concerned with data reduction?
4. A deductive theory is one that:
a) Because far too much data is collected than is required
a) Allows theory to emerge out of the data
b) Because we need to make sense of the data
b) Involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis
c) Because of the repetitions in answers to questionnaires
c) Allows for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge
d) Because the sample size has been exceeded
d) Uses qualitative methods whenever possible
9. The core ingredients of a dissertation are: 12. What does an empiricist believe?

a) Introduction; Data collection; Data analysis; Conclusions and a) We should not apply natural science methods to social science research
recommendations.
b) It is the sociologist's aim to understand the meaning of social action
b) Executive summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions;
c) Knowledge, in the form of 'facts', should be gained through sensory
Bibliography.
experience
c) Research plan; Research data; Analysis; References.
d) Research conducted within the British empire was biased and
d) Introduction; Literature review; Research methods; Results; unreliable
Discussion; Conclusion.
13. An inductive theory is one that:
10. Because of the number of things that can go wrong in research there
is a need for: a) Involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis

a) Flexibility and perseverance b) Does not allow for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge

b) Sympathetic supervisors c) Uses quantitative methods whenever possible

c) An emergency source of finance d) Allows theory to emerge out of the data

d) Wisdom to know the right time to quit 14. What is the epistemological position held by a positivist?

a) There is no substitute for an in-depth, hermeneutic understanding of

11. What is a 'grand theory'?
society
a) One that was proposed by one of the major theorists in the sociological
tradition b) Scientific research should be based on value-free, empirical
observations
b) One that is highly abstract and makes broad generalizations about the
c) Events and discourses in the social world prevent us from having direct
social world
knowledge of the natural order
c) An intermediate level explanation of observed regularities
d) It is important to remain optimistic about our research, even when
d) A particularly satisfactory theory that makes the researcher feel happy things go wrong
15. The interpretivist view of the social sciences is that: 18. The qualitative research strategy places a value on:

a) Their subject matter is fundamentally different to that of the natural a) Using numbers, measurements and statistical techniques
sciences
b) Generating theories through inductive research about social meanings
b) We should aim to achieve the interpretive understanding of social
action c) Conducting research that is of a very high quality

c) It is important to study the way people make sense of their everyday d) All of the above
worlds 19. Which of the following is an example of value-free research?
d) All of the above a) Conscious partiality
16. Which of the following is an ontological question? b) Sympathy for the underdog
a) Should I use questionnaires or interviews in my project? c) Unstructured interviewing
b) What can (and should) be considered acceptable forms of knowledge? d) None of the above
c) How long is it since I last visited the dentist? 20. An important practical issue to consider when designing a research
d) Do social entities have an objective reality, external to social actors? project is:

17. The constructionist ontological position suggests that: a) Which theoretical perspective you find most interesting

a) Social phenomena and their meanings are constantly being b) Whether or not you have time to retile the bathroom first
accomplished by social actors c) How much time and money you have to conduct the research
b) Individuals are born into a world of rules and structures that they d) Which colour of ring binder to present your work in
cannot change
21.Which of the following requirements for a dissertation may depend on
c) Building and construction work presents an ideal opportunity to your institution?
exercise the sociological imagination
a) Whether an abstract should be included
d) Social facts and objects have an external reality, independently of the
people who perceive them b) The format for referencing

c) The word limit d) All of the above

22. The role of a project supervisor is to: c) If they force you to narrow the scope of your research

a) Make sure you keep to your schedule and deadlines d) All of the above

b) Provide intellectual support, guidance and critical feedback 26. Which of the following should be included in a research proposal?

c) Negotiate access to the research setting on the student's behalf a) Your academic status and experience

d) Give you a reading list b) The difficulties you encountered with your previous reading on the
topic
23. You can manage your time and resources best, by:
c) Your choice of research methods and reasons for choosing them
a) Working out a timetable
d) All of the above
b) Finding out what resources are readily available to you
27. Which of the following should you think about when preparing your
c) Calculating a budget for likely expenditure research?
d) All of the above a) Your sample frame and sampling strategy
24. What did Marx (1997) mean when he suggested that "intellectual b) The ethical issues that might arise
puzzles and contradictions" can be a possible source of research
questions? c) Negotiating access to the setting d) All of the above

a) The researcher may feel that there is a contradiction in the literature, 28. Why is it helpful to keep a research diary or log book while you are
presenting a "puzzle" to be solved conducting your project?

b) Students can develop their IQ levels by attempting to solve intellectual a) To give you something to do in the early stages of your research when
puzzles nothing is happening

c) Unless you can find a logical contradiction, you have no basis for b) Because funding councils generally demand to see written evidence
conducting research that you were working every day during the period of the research

d) All of life is a puzzle, so any aspect of life can be researched c) To keep a record of what you did and what happened throughout the
research process
25. How can you tell if your research questions are really good?
d) It can be added to your dissertation to ensure that you reach the
a) If they guide your literature search required word limit
b) If they are linked together to help you construct a coherent argument
29. What can you do to ensure your physical safety during your research? d) Being negative about something before you read it

a) Be alert to the possibility of exposure to danger 33. Which two of the following are legitimate frameworks for setting out a
literature review:
b) Avoid interviewing alone in the respondent's residence
1. Constructing inter-textual coherence
c) Make sure someone knows where you are and how you can contact
them in an emergency 2. Deconstruction of textual coherence

d) All of the above 3. Problematizing the situation

30. What practical steps can you take before you actually start your 4. Resolving discovered problems?
research?
a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 4
a) Find out exactly what your institution's requirements are for a
dissertation 34. A systematic literature review is:

a) One which starts in your own library, then goes to on-line databases
b) Make sure you are familiar with the hardware and software you plan to
use and, finally, to the internet

c) Apply for clearance of your project through an ethics committee b) A replicable, scientific and transparent process

d) All of the above c) One which gives equal attention to the principal contributors to the
area
31 Why do you need to review the existing literature?
d) A responsible, professional process of time-management for research
a) To make sure you have a long list of references

b) Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count
35. What is self-plagiarism?
c) To find out what is already known about your area of interest
a) When a person lifts material that they have previously written and
d) To help in your general studying pass it off as their own work

32. To read critically means: b) Taking about yourself too much

a) Taking an opposing point of view to the ideas and opinions expressed c) Using somebody else's work and passing it off as your own

b) Skimming through the material because most of it is just padding d) An epistemological stance

c) Evaluating what you read in terms of your own research questions

36. What is the first stage of a systematic review? d) Bryman, A. Social Research Methods (2012)

a) Assess the relevance of each study to the research question(s) 40. Which of the following statements about plagiarism is most accurate?

b) Define the purpose and scope of the review a) It is so easy to "copy and paste" from the internet that everyone does it
nowadays. If a proper reference is given, where is the harm in that?
c) Appraise the quality of studies from the previous step
b) How can we say for sure where our own ideas come from exactly? If we
d) Survey all of the literature contained within a single library tried to give a reference for everything we could never hope to succeed.
37. What is a narrative literature review? c) Any suggestion that we have written what another actually wrote is
a) An historically-based review, starting with the earliest contributions to morally wrong. Anyway, the whole point of a literature review is to
the field show what we have read and what we thought about it.

b) A review based exclusively on stories about companies, in book and d) Plagiarism is such an awful crime that those found guilty should be
case-study form obliged to wear a scarlet "P" on their clothing.

c) A paraphrase style of reviewing which does not require referencing 41. There is a tendency for debates about ethics in social research to focus
on the most extreme cases of ethical transgression. Why might this create
d) An initial impression of the topic which you will understand more a misleading impression?
fully as you conduct your research
a) Because these studies did not actually take place
38. When accessing the internet, which of these steps is the most
essential? b) Because it makes social researchers look like nasty, unscrupulous
people
a) Recording the full URL b) Noting the access dates
c) Because this implies that ethical concerns do not pervade all social
c) Downloading material to be referenced research

d) They are all equally important d) Because most social research is in fact ethically sound and infallible

39. According to the Harvard referencing convention, which is the correct 42. Which of the following ideas is not associated with the stance of
reference? situation ethics?

a) Bryman, A. (2012, 4e) Social Research Methods, Oxford; Oxford a) Anything goes b) Principled relativism
University Press
c) The end justifies the means d) No choice
b) Bryman (2012, fourth edition), Oxford University Press

c) Bryman, Alan, Social Research Methods (2012: OUP)

43. Why is it argued that ethical transgression is pervasive in social 46. Which method is most commonly associated with a lack of informed
research? consent?

a) Because most researchers do not bother to follow a professional code a) In-depth interviewing b) Qualitative content analysis
of ethics
c) Covert observation d) Structured interviewing
b) Because researchers rarely provide their participants with all the
47. Why is it "easier said than done" to ensure that the principle of
information they might want to know about a project
informed consent is adhered to?
c) Because it helps us to justify the more extreme forms of unethical
a) It is not practicable to present every participant with all the information
conduct that we prefer to pursue
about the study
d) Because sociologists want to present themselves as inconsiderate and
b) Sometimes it is desirable to withhold certain pieces of information,
careless
such as the length of time an interview will take
44. Which of the following is a form of harm that might be suffered by
c) If the participants knew exactly what the researcher was intending to
research participants?
study, they might change their behaviour
a) Physical injury b) Stress and anxiety
d) All of the above
c) Impaired development d) All of the above
48. Apart from the fact that it is "not a nice thing to do" (p133), what is an
45. Why is it important that personal data about research participants are important ethical disadvantage of deceiving participants?
kept within secure, confidential records?
a) It can damage the professional reputation of the researcher and their
a) So that the participants cannot find out what has been written about discipline
them
b) It makes it more difficult to gain access to deviant or hidden
b) So that individuals, places or organizations cannot be harmed through populations
identification or disclosure of personal information
c) It means that records of personal data about the participants cannot be
c) So that government officials, teachers and other people in authority can made anonymous
have easy access to the data
d) None of the above
d) To enable the researcher to track down individuals and find out more
about their lives
49. Which of the following factors does not add a political dimension to 53. The difference between measures and indicators is that:
the research process?
a) Measures are unambiguous quantities, whereas indicators are
a) The researcher's values, beliefs and prior assumptions devised from common sense understandings

b) The response rate of a social survey b) Indicators have a more direct relationship to the underlying concept
than measures
c) The vested interests of the funding body
c) Measures are intuitively devised and then applied as if they were direct
d) A gatekeeper's concerns about representation indicators of a concept
50.Whose side did Becker suggest the social researcher should take? d) Indicators are unambiguous quantities, whereas measures are
a) The underdog b) The fat cat subjective and value-laden

c) The cash cow d) The sitting duck 54. The split-half method is used as a test of:

51. An operational definition is: a) Stability b) Internal reliability

a) One that bears no relation to the underlying concept c) Inter-observer consistency d) External validity

b) An abstract, theoretical definition of a concept 55. Which of the following is not a form of measurement validity?

c) A definition of a concept in terms of specific, empirical measures a) Concurrent validity b) Face validity

d) One that refers to opera singers and their work c) Conductive validity d) Convergent validity

52. The importance of measurement in quantitative research is that: 56. Quantitative social researchers rarely claim to have established
causality because:
a) It allows us to delineate fine differences between people or cases
a) They are more concerned with publishing the results of their reliability
b) It provides a consistent device or yardstick tests

c) It allows for precise estimates of the degree of relationship between b) They do not believe that this is an appropriate goal to be striving for
concepts
c) They keep forgetting which of the variables they have manipulated
d) All of the above
d) They tend to use cross-sectional designs, which produce only
correlations
57. One of the preoccupations of quantitative researchers is with c) Journal editors have banned these kinds of articles
generalization, which is a sign of:
d) Researchers are more interested in reporting their substantive
a) External validity b) Internal reliability findings

c) External reliability d) Internal validity 61. A sampling frame is:

58. Quantitative research has been criticised because: a) A summary of the various stages involved in designing a survey

a) The measurement process suggests a spurious and artificial sense of b) An outline view of all the main clusters of units in a sample
accuracy
c) A list of all the units in the population from which a sample will be
b) The reliance on instruments and procedures makes it high in ecological selected
validity
d) A wooden frame used to display tables of random numbers
c) It underestimates the similarities between objects in the natural and
social worlds 62. A simple random sample is one in which:

d) All of the above a) From a random starting point, every nth unit from the sampling frame
is selected
59. The term 'reverse operationism' means that:
b) A non-probability strategy is used, making the results difficult to
a) The theories we devise will often hinder our attempts to measure generalize
concepts
c) The researcher has a certain quota of respondents to fill for various
b) The measurements we devise can sometimes help to develop a social groups
theory
d) Every unit of the population has an equal chance of being selected
c) Techniques such as factor analysis have no place in social research
63. It is helpful to use a multi-stage cluster sample when:
d) Driving instructors always make you practice the most difficult
manoeuvre a) The population is widely dispersed geographically

60. Written accounts of quantitative research rarely include the results of b) You have limited time and money available for travelling
reliability and validity tests because: c) You want to use a probability sample in order to generalise the results
a) Researchers are more interested in reporting their operational d) All of the above
definitions
64. The standard error is a statistical measure of:
b) Researchers don't really think that these tests are important
a) The normal distribution of scores around the sample mean d) It is a relatively fast and cheap way of finding out about public opinions

b) The extent to which a sample mean is likely to differ from the 69. The findings from a study of young single mothers at a university can
population mean be generalised to the population of:

c) The clustering of scores at each end of a survey scale a) All young single mothers at that university

d) The degree to which a sample has been accurately stratified b) All young single mothers in that society

65. What effect does increasing the sample size have upon the sampling c) All single mothers in all universities
error?
d) All young women in that university
a) It reduces the sampling error b) It increases the sampling error
70. The term 'data processing error' refers to:
c) It has no effect on the sampling error d) None of the above
a) Activities or events related to the sampling process, e.g. non-response
66. Which of the following is not a type of non-probability sampling?
b) Faulty techniques of coding and managing data
a) Snowball sampling b) Stratified random sampling
c) Problems with the implementation of the research process
c) Quota sampling d) Convenience sampling
d) The unavoidable discrepancy between the sample and the population
67. Snowball sampling can help the researcher to:
71. Why is it important for structured interviews to follow a standardized
a) Access deviant or hidden populations procedure?

b) Theorise inductively in a qualitative study a) To increase validity, as the interview can be adapted for each
respondent
c) Overcome the problem of not having an accessible sampling frame
b) To increase reliability, because all respondents receive the same
d) All of the above interview stimulus
68. Which of the following is not a characteristic of quota sampling?
c) To allow for an in-depth exploration of the topic
a) The researcher chooses who to approach and so might bias the sample d) To make it easier for untrained interviewers to carry out complex
b) Those who are available to be surveyed in public places are unlikely to surveys
constitute a representative sample

c) The random selection of units makes it possible to calculate the

standard error
72. Standardizing the interview schedule can reduce interviewer variation d) Critical analysis of telepathic interviewing
in terms of:
76. Which of the following might you include in an introductory letter to
a) The way in which questions are phrased by the interviewer respondents?

b) The order in which questions are asked a) An explanation of who you are and who is funding your research

c) The procedures used to code and analyse survey data b) An overview of what the research is about and how the data will be
collected
d) All of the above
c) A statement of their ethical rights to anonymity, confidentiality, etc.
73. Closed ended questions are those that:
d) All of the above
a) Have a fixed range of possible answers
77. A filter question is one that:
b) Prevent respondents from allocating themselves to a category
a) Ensures that all respondents are asked every question on the schedule
c) Encourage detailed, elaborate responses and in the same order
d) Relate to the basic demographic characteristics of respondents b) Leaves a space for respondents to write long and detailed answers
74. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of telephone
c) Helps the interviewer to avoid asking irrelevant questions by directing
interviewing? them elsewhere on the schedule
a) Researchers do not have to spend so much time and money on
d) Allows supervisors to distinguish between good and bad interviewers
travelling
78. Which of the following is not advised when planning the question
b) Some people in the target population may not own a telephone order of a structured interview?
c) It can be difficult to build rapport over the telephone a) Be wary of asking an earlier question that alters the salience of later
d) Interviewers cannot use visual cues such as show cards questions

75. The acronym "CATI" stands for: b) Expect some variation in the order in which questions are asked

a) Camera-activated telescopic interviewing c) Leave questions about sensitive or embarrassing issues until later in the
interview
b) Computer-assisted telephone interviewing
d) Group the questions into logically organized sections
c) Corrective anti-terrorist interviewing
79. A show card is:

a) One that prevents respondents from expressing their opinions about a c) It does not impose any expectations of behaviour on the respondents
statement
d) It allows you to observe people's behaviour directly
b) One that encourages explicit discussion of sensitive or personal
information 83.What is an observation schedule?

c) One that prompts respondents to choose from a range of possible a) A set of explicit rules for assigning behaviour to categories
answers b) A timetable of days on which you plan to carry out your observation
d) One that researchers must present when they compete at pony club c) A list of questions to ask your interviewees
events
d) A way of testing for measurement validity
80. The response set of "acquiescence" can be a problem in that:
84.LaPiere conducted a study of the way restaurant owners granted or
a) Some people consistently agree or disagree with a set of questions or refused access to a Chinese couple. This is an example of observing
items behaviour in terms of:
b) Respondents tend to give answers that they think are socially desirable a) Individuals b) Incidents c) Short time periods
c) The structured interview is so conducive to reciprocity that male d) Long time periods
respondents find it hard to stop talking
85. It may not be possible to use a probability sample to observe
d) Researchers who wear very strong perfume will distract their behaviour in public places because:
respondents
a) The findings of such studies are not intended to have external validity
81. Which of the following is a problem associated with survey research?
b) It is not feasible to construct a sampling frame of interactions
a) The problem of objectivity b) The problem of "going native"
c) It is difficult to gain access to such social settings
c) The problem of omission d) The problem of robustness
d) Researchers prefer not to use random samples whenever possible
82. The key advantage of structured observation over survey research is
that: 86. Which of the following is not a type of sampling used in structured
observation?
a) It does not rely on the researcher's ability to take notes
a) Focal sampling b) Scan sampling
b) The researcher is immersed as a participant in the field they are
studying c) Emotional sampling d) Behaviour sampling
87. Cohen's kappa is a measure of: d) It does not allow us to understand the intentions behind behaviour

a) Inter-surveyor consistency b) Intra-observer validity 91. Quantitative content analysis is an approach that aims to:

c) Intra-coder validity d) Inter-observer consistency a) Objectively and systematically measure the content of a text

88. What is meant by the term "reactive effect"? b) Reach an interpretive understanding of social action

a) If people know they are being observed, they may change their c) Engage in a critical dialogue about ethical issues in research
behaviour
d) Provide a feminist alternative to 'male-stream' quantitative methods
b) Research subjects may have a bad reaction to the drugs they are given
92. Which of the following could be subjected to a textual content
c) Researchers sometimes react to their informants' behaviour with analysis?
horror
a) Interview transcripts b) Newspaper articles
d) The categories on an observation schedule may not be mutually
exclusive c) Song lyrics d) All of the above

93. Why did Warde sample food magazines from four different months in
89. What did Salancik mean by "field stimulations"?
the year?
a) Being immersed in the field can help to simulate the experience of your
informants a) Because there weren't enough food adverts in the first two magazines

b) Researchers can intervene in and manipulate a setting to observe the b) To take into account any seasonal variation in the recipes included in
effects the magazines

c) Surveys conducted in the field are more effective than structured c) To find information from more than one form of mass media
observation communication

d) Some researchers find their projects so stimulating that they have to lie d) Because he couldn't decide which of the recipes were the most
down appetizing

94. Which of the following is not an example of a 'unit of analysis'?

90. One of the criticisms often levelled at structured observation is that:

a) It does not allow us to impose any framework on the social setting a) Validity b) significant actors

b) It only generates a small amount of data c) Words d) subjects and themes

c) It is unethical to observe people without an observation schedule

95. Why might a researcher want to count the frequency of certain words b) It is a transparent and easily replicable technique
in a text?
c) It allows us to track changes in media representations over time
a) It increases the reliability of the coding measures
d) It is a non-reactive method
b) It is a good way of finding out about the journalist's favourite words
100. If coders differed in their interpretations of the categories in the
c) Emotive words can be used excessively to provoke a moral panic schedule, this could negatively affect the data's:

d) It shows which words are most common in the English language a) Internal generalisability b) Intra-interviewer reliability

96. The purpose of a coding manual is to: c) Construct validity d) Inter-coder reliability

a) Provide a form onto which the data can be entered 101. The term "secondary analysis" refers to the technique of:

b) Provide researchers with instructions about how to code the data a) Conducting a study of seconds, minutes and other measures of time

c) List all the categories that have been omitted from the schedule b) Analysing your own data in two different ways

d) Test researchers' knowledge of statistics c) Analysing existing data that has been collected by another person or
organization
97. The data from each row in a coding schedule can be entered into a
quantitative analysis computer program called: d) Working part time on a project alongside other responsibilities

a) Endnote b) N-Vivo c) Outlook d) SPSS 102. Why might secondary analysis be a particularly useful method for
students?
98. One of the potential pitfalls in devising a coding scheme is that:
a) It is relatively easy to do b) It saves time and money
a) It can be difficult to obtain a random sample of newspapers
c) It does not require any knowledge of statistics
b) You might run out of photocopier paper
d) It only requires a half-hearted effort
c) The categories may not be mutually exclusive
103. Which of the following is not an advantage of secondary analysis?
d) The unit of analysis is too clearly defined
a) It immerses the researcher in the field they are studying
99. Which of the following is not an advantage of content analysis?
b) It tends to be based on high quality data
a) It allows us to observe otherwise inaccessible populations at first
hand c) It provides an opportunity for longitudinal analysis
d) It allows you to study patterns and social trends over time b) They are completely objective and reliable

104. The large samples used in national social surveys enable new c) They have greater measurement validity
researchers to:
d) They allow the researcher to identify social trends over time
a) Avoid using probability sampling
108. Studying the official crime rate may provide unreliable data because:
b) Identify any bias in the question wording
a) Categories of criminal behaviour change over time
c) Evaluate the inter-coder reliability of the data
b) There is a "dark figure" of unreported and unrecorded crime
d) Conduct subgroup analysis
c) Police use their discretion to investigate some crimes and not others
105. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using secondary
analysis? d) All of the above

a) The researcher's lack of familiarity with the data 109. What is the "ecological fallacy"?

b) It is a relatively expensive and time consuming process a) The assumption that secondary data analysis can be carried out at
home
c) Hierarchical datasets can be very confusing
b) The mistake of observing people in their natural setting
d) The researcher has no control over the quality of the data
c) The error of making inferences about individual behaviour from
106. Which of the following provides official statistics that could be aggregate data
analysed as secondary data?
d) The myth that it is easy to research environmentalist action groups
a) Local Government Survey (LGS)
110. Why has the secondary analysis of official statistics been seen as an
b) Expenditure and Food Survey (EFS) "unobtrusive" method?

c) Dwelling and Furnishings Survey (DFS) a) It increases the risk of "reactive effects" from participants

d) Rowing and Oars Survey (ROS) b) The researcher is removed from the social settings that they are
investigating
107. What is one of the advantages that official statistics have over
structured interview data? c) The data were originally collected for the same purposes as those of the
current researcher
a) The researcher can conduct natural experiments in the field
d) They do not intrude too much into the researcher's spare time
111 .What is the difference between interval/ratio and ordinal variables? c) It lists the different levels of p value for tests of significance

a) The distance between categories is equal across the range of d) It compares the results you might get from various statistical tests
interval/ratio data
115. If there were a perfect positive correlation between two
b) Ordinal data can be rank ordered, but interval/ratio data cannot interval/ratio variables, the Pearson's r test would give a correlation
coefficient of:
c) Interval/ratio variables contain only two categories
a) - 0.328 b) +1 c) +0.328 d) - 1
d) Ordinal variables have a fixed zero point, whereas interval/ratio
variables do not 116.What is the name of the test that is used to assess the relationship
between two ordinal variables?
112. What is the difference between a bar chart and a histogram?
a) Spearman's rho b) Phi c) Cramer's V
a) A histogram does not show the entire range of scores in a distribution
d) Chi square
b) Bar charts are circular, whereas histograms are square
117. When might it be appropriate to conduct a multivariate analysis test?
c) There are no gaps between the bars on a histogram
a) If the relationship between two variables might be spurious
d) Bar charts represents numbers, whereas histograms represent
percentages b) If there could be an intervening variable

113. What is an outlier? c) If a third variable might be moderating the relationship

a) A type of variable that cannot be quantified d) All of the above

b) A compulsive liar who is proud to be gay 118. What is meant by a "spurious" relationship between two variables?

c) A score that is left out of the analysis because of missing data a) One that is so ridiculously illogical it cannot possibly be true

d) An extreme value at either end of a distribution b) An apparent relationship that is so curious it demands further attention

114. What is the function of a contingency table, in the context of c) A relationship that appears to be true because each variable is related
bivariate analysis? to a third one

a) It shows the results you would expect to find by chance d) One that produces a perfect negative correlation on a scatter diagram

b) It summarises the frequencies of two variables so that they can be

compared
119. A test of statistical significance indicates how confident the a) It is shorter and less detailed b) It is longer and more detailed
researcher is about:
c) It is abstract and unspecific d) It refers to codes rather than variables
a) The inter-coder reliability of their structured interview schedule
124. What does the operation "Recode Into Different Variables" do to the
b) Passing their driving test data?

c) Understanding the difference between bivariate and multivariate a) Replaces missing data with some random scores
analysis
b) Reverses the position of the independent and dependent variable on a
d) Generalizing their findings from the sample to the population graph

120. Setting the p level at 0.01 increases the chances of making a: c) Redistributes a range of values into a new set of categories and
creates a new variable
a) Type I error b) Type II error c) Type III error
d) Represents the data in the form of a pie chart
d) All of the above
125. How would you use the drop-down menus in SPSS to generate a
121. What is the advantage of using SPSS over calculating statistics by frequency table?
hand?
a) Open the Output Viewer and click: Save As; Pie Chart
a) This is how most quantitative data analysis is done in "real research"
nowadays b) Click on: Analyze; Descriptive Statistics; Frequencies

b) It reduces the chance of making errors in your calculations c) Click on: Graphs; Frequencies; Pearson

c) It equips you with a useful transferable skill d) Open the Variable Viewer and recode the value labels

d) All of the above 126. Why might you tell SPSS to represent the "slices" of a pie chart in
different patterns?
122. In SPSS, what is the "Data Viewer"?
a) Because the program tends to crash if you ask it to use colour
a) A table summarizing the frequencies of data for one variable
b) Because the patterns form symbolic visual images of different social
b) A spreadsheet into which data can be entered groups
c) A dialog box that allows you to choose a statistical test c) In order to make full use of the facilities that SPSS can offer
d) A screen in which variables can be defined and labeled d) If you do not have a colour printer, it makes the differences between
123. How is a variable name different from a variable label? the slices clearer
127. When cross-tabulating two variables, it is conventional to: 131. Probability sampling is rarely used in qualitative research because:

a) Represent the independent variable in rows and the dependent a) Qualitative researchers are not trained in statistics
variable in columns
b) It is very old-fashioned c) It is often not feasible
b) Assign both the dependent and independent variables to columns
d) Research questions are more important than sampling
c) Represent the dependent variable in rows and the independent
132. The two levels of sampling used by Savage et al. (2005) for the
variable in columns
Manchester study were:
d) Assign both the dependent and independent variables to rows
a) Random and purposive b) Convenience and snowball
128. In which sub-dialog box can the Chi Square test be found?
c) Statistical and non-statistical d) Contexts and participants
a) Frequencies: Percentages b) Crosstabs: Statistics
133. Which of the following is not a type of purposive sampling?
c) Bivariate: Pearson d) Gender: Female
a) Probability sampling b) Deviant case sampling
129. To generate a Spearman's rho test, which set of instructions should
you give SPSS? c) Theoretical sampling d) Snowball sampling

a) Analyze; Crosstabs; Descriptive Statistics; Spearman; OK 134. What is involved in "purposive sampling" for grounded theory?

a) Using a random numbers table to select a representative sample of

b) Graphs; Frequencies; [select variables]; Spearman; OK
people
c) Analyze; Compare Means; Anova table; First layer; Spearman; OK
b) Strategically selecting respondents who are likely to provide relevant
d) Analyze; Correlate; Bivariate; [select variables]; Spearman; OK data

130. How would you print a bar chart that you have just produced in c) Deciding on a sampling strategy early on and pursuing it relentlessly
SPSS?
d) Sampling units of time rather than individual persons
a) In Output Viewer, click File, Print, select the bar chart and click OK
135. What is meant by the term "theoretical saturation"?
b) In Variable Viewer, open bar chart, click File, Print, OK
a) Deciding on a theory and then testing it repeatedly
c) In Chart Editor, click Descriptive Statistics, Print, OK
b) The point at which a concept is so well developed that no further data
d) In Data Editor, open Graphs dialog box, click Save, OK collection is necessary

c) The problem of having used too many theories in one's data analysis
d) A state of frustration caused by having used every possible statistical
test without finding any significant results

136. Generic purposive sampling can be characterized as being:

a) Fixed and a priori b) Fixed and ad-hoc

c) Contingent and post-hoc d) Contingent and ad infinitum

137. The minimum sample size for qualitative interviewing is:

a) 30 b) 31 c) 60 d) It's hard to say

138. Why is an ethnographic study unlikely to use a probability sample?

a) Because the aim of understanding is more important than that of

generalization

b) Because the researcher cannot control who is willing to talk to them

c) Because it is difficult to identify a sampling frame

d) All of the above

139. Apart from people, what else can purposive sampling be used for?

a) Documents b) Timing of events c) Context

d) All of the above

140. What can be generalized from a purposive sample?

a) That the findings are true for broadly similar cases

b) That the findings are true for the entire population

c) That the opposite is true for people who are the opposite of those in
the sample

d) That purposive sampling is better than probability sampling