Aits 2017-18 Full Test 10 Paper 2 Jee Adv
Aits 2017-18 Full Test 10 Paper 2 Jee Adv
Aits 2017-18 Full Test 10 Paper 2 Jee Adv
FULL TEST – X
Paper 2
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: Section-A, Section-C & Section-D.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Three Parts.
1. Section-A (01 – 03, 24 – 26, 47 – 49) contains 9 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-A (04 – 08, 27 – 31, 50 – 54) contains 15 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2
marks for wrong answer.
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.
Section-A (09 – 10, 32 – 33, 55 – 56) contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 2 multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries
+3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
2. Section-C (11 – 20, 34 – 43, 57 – 66) contains 30 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
3. Section-D (21 – 23, 44 – 46, 67 – 69) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Enrolment No.
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Useful Data
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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Correct Method :
0 0 3 4 8 . 4 0
0 0 2 5 1 . 3 7
0 0 2 1 3 . 0 0
Wrong Method :
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
2 5 1 . 3 7
2 1 3 .
2 1 3 . 0
2 1 3 . 0
3 4 8 . 4 0
2 5 1 . 3 7
2 1 3 . 0 0
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which only ONE is correct
1. The escape velocity at the poles of a planet is v e. If the effect of rotation of a planet makes the
weight of a body at the equator 10% less than the weight at pole, the peripheral velocity of a point
on the equator of the planet is (assume the planet to be a uniform solid sphere)
v ve
(A) e (B)
5 2 5
5v e 2v e
(C) (D)
2 5
2. Current I flowing along edges of one face of a cube as shown in figure-I, produces magnetic field
B B0 kˆ at the centre of the cube. Consider another identical cube, where current I flows along
the path as shown in the figure-II. What magnetic field is produced at the centre of the second
cube?
I I
(A) Zero
(B) B0 ˆj kˆ ˆi
(C) B0 ˆj kˆ ˆi (D) B0 ˆj kˆ ˆi
Space for Rough work
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m 3m m
(A) T 2 (B) T
k 2k 2k
3m 3m m
(C) T 2 (D) T
2k 2k k
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
4. In the figure shown, the friction between the wedge and the m
horizontal surface is sufficient to prevent the wedge from sliding.
The mass of the wedge is M and its inclination is . A particle of
mass m is held motionless on the top of the wedge. Friction
M
coefficient between particle and wedge is . Now the particle and
the wedge are released from rest. Then
(A) If > tan , wedge will not topple for any value of m.
M
(B) If > tan , wedge will topple for m
3 sin sin cos
M
(C) If < tan , wedge will topple for m
3 sin sin cos
M
(D) If < tan , wedge will topple for m
6 sin sin cos
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 6
q 2R
v
m 0
R R2 x 2 4R2 x 2
(B) The speed of the particle when it reaches the centre of ring,
q
v
m 0
R 4R2 x2 R2 x 2
(C) Work done by electrostatic force till the particle reaches the centre of ring
q
=
20
R R2 x 2 4R 2 x 2
1 q
(D) If x << R, the frequency of oscillation of the particle is f
2 40 mR
6. An artificial satellite of mass m revolves in a circular orbit of radius 4R around the centre of the
moon (where R is the radius of the moon). Suddenly it starts experiencing a slight resistance due
to cosmic dust. The resistance force depends on the speed of satellite as F = kv where k is a
constant. If the radius of the moon is R and acceleration due to gravity on the moon’s surface is
g, then (assume that at every moment the satellite follows a circular path)
m
(A) The satellite will hit the moon’s surface after time t ln2
k
2m
(B) The satellite will hit the moon’s surface after time t ln 2
k
3
(C) The work done by the resistance force on the satellite till it hits the moon surface mgR .
8
3
(D) Work done by gravitational force till the satellite hits the moon’s surface = mgR .
4
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 1 group of questions. The group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
A pendulum is suspended from a fixed point. The mass of the bob of the pendulum is m and the length of
m
string is . It is initially at rest at its lowest position. A particle of mass moving horizontally along
2
negative x-direction with velocity 2g collides with the bob and comes to rest. When the bob comes to
rest, another particle Q of mass m moving horizontally along y-direction collides with the bob and sticks to
it. It is observed that the bob now moves along a horizontal circle. There is horizontal floor 2 distance
below the point of suspension of the pendulum.
9. Which of the following is possible value of speed of particle Q just before its collision with the
bob?
7 g 3g
(A) (B)
3 4
7g 4 g
(C) (D)
4 3
10. If string breaks during the circular motion, the bob will hit the floor after a time equal to
4 4
(A) (B)
g 2g
5
(C) (D)
2g 2g
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SECTION – C
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
30° 60°
13. A solid object of uniform cross section area and relative density 0.2 is pressed down and held at
rest inside water surface so that its upper surface is in level with the water surface. Length of the
object is 1.2m . When released the object jumps out of water moving vertically. The velocity of
the object (in m/s) when it just comes out completely from the water is (Take g = 10 m /s2).
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17. When the potential difference applied to an x-ray tube is 10 kV the minimum wavelength of
continuous x-ray spectrum is 0. Further when the potential difference applied is increased from
10 kV to 20 kV the difference of wavelengths of K line and minimum wavelength of continuous x-
ray increases to twice of its initial value. Atomic number of anode material of x-ray tube is z. If the
n
value of z – 1 equals , then find the value of n.
9 0R
18. The radiation emitted when an electron jumps from n = 4 to n = 3 in a Li++ ion (atomic no.
z = 3) falls on a metal surface to produce photoelectron. When the photoelectron with maximum
kinetic energy are made to move perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 2 104 T, it follows
9.1
a circular path of radius cm. The work function of metal (in eV) to the nearest integer is
1.6
(given mass of electron m = 9.1 1031 kg and charge on electron = 1.6 1019 C)
19. A car begins to move at time t = 0 and then accelerates along a straight horizontal track with a
velocity given by v = 2t2 for 0 t 2, where t is time in second. After the end of acceleration, the
car continues to move at constant speed. A small block initially at rest on the floor of the car
begins to slip at t = 1 sec and stops sliding at t = 3 sec. If the coefficient of static and kinetic
3 S
friction between the block and the floor are S and K respectively, find the value of .
K
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SECTION – D
This section contains 3 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer type
(XXXXX.XX)
21. In a hydrogen like atom, an electron is revolving in an orbit having quantum number n. Its
frequency of revolution is found to be 13.2 1015 Hz. Energy required to completely remove this
electron to infinity from the above orbit of atom is 54.4 eV. In a time interval of 7 nanosecond the
electron jumps back to orbit having quantum number n/2. If the average torque acting on the
electron during the above process is Nm, then find the value of 1026.
h
(given 2.1 10 34 J s , frequency of revolution of electron in the ground state of
H-atom = 6.6 1015 Hz)
22. A screw gauge with a pitch of 0.5 mm and a circular scale with 50 divisions is used to measure
the diameter of a uniform wire. Before starting the measurement, it is found that when the two
jaws of the screw gauge are brought in contact, the 47th division of the circular scale coincides
with the main scale line and that the zero of the main scale is barely visible. When the diameter of
wire is measured by this screw gauge the main scale reads 1.10 cm and the 12th division of the
circular scale coincides with the main scale line. Find the diameter (in mm) of the cylinder.
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which only ONE is correct
25. O
COOH
OH
CH3
(C) O (D) COOH
CH3
CH3 OH
26. A red hot sample of atomic hydrogen in a tube was subjected to electrical discharge. The
approximate voltage at which the first indication of current flow was observed:
(A) 13.6 V (B) 10.2 V
(C) 1.51 V (D) 1.89 V
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This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
O Br Br
O
Br Br
(D) CH3 CH3
COOH COOH
C H OH C H OH
H and NH 3
CH 2 HO H CH2 HO H
NH 3 H
Ph Ph COO
COO
(an acid-base salt)
Ph =
28. Select reaction/s in which anion of main ionic product do not have -bond.
(A) Li + O2 (excess) (B) Na (excess) + O2
(C) Ca + F2 (excess) (D) NaOH (cold) + Cl2
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31. There are process which are used to determine some important properties of colloidal solution.
By which of the following processes, the nature of electrical charge on colloidal particles can be
determined?
(A) ultramicroscopic (B) electrophoresis
(C) dialysis (D) electroosmosis
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Comprehension Type
This section contains 1 group of questions. The group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
When a sample of an ideal gas is changed from an initial state to a final state. Various curves can be
plotted for the process like P – V curve, V – T curve, P – T curve etc. For example P – V curve for a fixed
amount of an ideal gas at constant temperature is a rectangular, V – T curve for a fixed amount of an
ideal gas at constant pressure is straight line and P – T curve for a fixed amount of an ideal gas is again
straight line. However, the shapes may vary if the constant parameters are also changed.
32. At constant P of 0.0821 atm, logV v/s log T graph is plotted for 3 samples of ideal gas as shown.
Value of number of moles of gas in these three samples is respectively:
[log2 = 0.3010, log3 = 0.4771]
1
logV
3
0.4771
0.3010 logT
1 1
(A) 3,1, (B) ,1,3
2 2
1 1
(C) 1, ,3 (D) ,3,1
2 2
33. Two moles of an ideal gas is changed from its initial state (16 atm, 6L) to final state (4 atm, 15 L)
in such a way that this change can be represented by a straight line in P – V curve. The
maximum temperature attained by the gas during the above change is: (take
1
R L atm K 1 mol1 )
12
(A) 324 K (B) 648 K
(C) 1296 K (D) 972 K
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SECTION – C
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
34. Compound(x) (C8H7N) on treatment with cold SnCl2/dil.HCl (aqueous), produces y(C8H8O). y on
heating with sodium acetate in acetic anhydride followed by acidification forms (z) (C10H10O2). All
these compounds (x, y, z) on oxidation under severe conditions form a diacid which gives only
one mononitro isomer in nitrating mixture, how many products will be formed on reductive
ozonlysis of (z)?
35. How many of the following can give aldehyde by the oxidation with Jones reagent?
(a) CH2 OH (b) CH2 = CH – CH2OH
OH
(c) CH3 (d) CH 2 OH
H3C C CH2 OH
CH3
NH2
(e) OH
36. From the following the complex that is expected to show optical isomerism is/are:
(1) [Ni(en)3]2+ (2) [Fe(ox)Cl4]3-
(3) [Cr(NH3)3Cl2(NO3)] (4) [Zn(NO3)2(NH3)(CO)]
37. At 263 K a solid compound A(H2O)8 show following equilibria (Assume 263 K is sublimation point
of H2O(s) under given condition):
A H2 O 8 s
A g 8H2 O g ; K p1
A H2 O 8 s
A g 8H2 O s ; K p2
If equilibrium partial pressures of two gases A and H2O are 0.2 bar and 0.001 bar respectively.
And the vapour pressure of ice is 10-x bar. What is value of ‘x’?
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38. How many of the following is/are correct structure(s) for any oxide of nitrogen?
(I) O (II) O O
O
+ + +
N O N N O N
O O O
(III) O (IV)
+
-2
+
O N N N O N
O
(V) (VI) O
N O +
O N O
O
39. In 2nd order reaction: 2A A 2 , the rate of formation of A2 is 10-5 M sec-1 at 0.01 M
concentration of A, and the rate of disappearance of A is x × 10-1, find out the value of x?
40. How many of the following reaction(s) is/are neither stereospecific nor regiospecific?
HCl
(i) trans 2 pentene
Br
(ii) 1 pentene 2
NaCl Excess
H O
(iii) Cyclobutene
2
Br 2
D /Pt
(iv) 1 ethylcyclopropene 2
Hg OAc
(v) trans 2 pentene 2
NaBH4 /H O 2
H /H2O
(vi) trans 2 pentene
Br /CCl
(vii) trans 2 pentene
2 4
’
NaH I I
CH3 OH Product ?
41.
Excess
How many of ‘C’ atoms are there in one molecule of the product?
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42. How many ‘H’ atoms are there in the final product of the following reaction sequence?
Et < Et
Et Cl Et Cl
(ii) The poorest leaving group among the – SH, – NH2, – OAc, – OH is – OH.
(iii) N
is stronger nucleophile as compared to Et3N.
Br
> Br > Br
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SECTION – D
This section contains 3 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer type
(XXXXX.XX)
46. The density of a sodium chloride sample is found to be 2.16801 gm/cm 3, instead of 2.18 gm/cm3.
What is the percentage of unoccupied sites in the sample?
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SECTION – A
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which only ONE is correct
47. A circle C1 with radius 5 touches x-axis and another circle C2 with radius 4 touches y-axis. The
two circles touches each other externally so that their point of contact lies in the first quadrant, let
the locus of their point of contact be the curve S. Two tangents are drawn to the curve S from
point P(9, 5) to meet the curve at Q and R. The area of PQR is
29 27
(A) (B)
4 5
13 25
(C) (D)
2 3
48. In a ABC, internal angle bisectors AI, BI and CI are produced to meet opposite sides in A, B
AI BI CI
and C respectively, then the maximum value of is
AA BB CC
27 13
(A) (B)
2 4
8 27
(C) (D)
27 256
49. Point ‘O’ is the centre of ellipse with major axis AB and minor axis CD. Point F is one focus of
ellipse. If OF = 6 and the diameter of the inscribed circle of OCF is 2, then the product AB.CD
equals
(A) 65 (B) 72
(C) 78 (D) 92
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 22
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only ONE OR MORE THAN ONE is/are correct
50. Vertices A, B and C of a tetrahedron ABCD are (1, 1, 1), (1, 0, 0), (3, 0, 0) respectively. The
altitude from vertex D to the opposite face ABC meets the median line through A of the ABC at a
2 2
point E. If the length of side AD is 4 and volume of the tetrahedron is , then the correct
3
statements is/are
(A) the altitude from vertex D is 2 (B) there is exactly one position for the point E
(C) there can be two position for the point E (D) vector ˆj kˆ is normal to the plane ABC
i
51. Let e 2017 , then
2016
2016
(A) r
r 2 (B) Re r 0
r 1 r 1
2016 2016
(C) r r 0 (D) r r 1
r 1 r 1
1
52. Let P , , (0 < < 1) be any point on the hyperbola xy = 1. Tangent to the hyperbola at P
intersect the coordinate axes at Q and R & normal at P intersects the coordinate axes at M and N
(Q and M lie on x-axis). If OQR and OMN have equal area, then
(A) area of OMN = 2 (B) 2 1
(C) QR = 27/4 (D) MN = 27/4
53. The roots of equation x5 – 40x4 + x3 + x2 + x + = 0 are real and in G.P. If the sum of their
reciprocal is 10, then can be
1
(A) –32 (B)
32
1
(C) (D) 32
32
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23 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
dy sin2 x
54. A function y = f(x) satisfying the differential equation sin x y cos x 0 is such that
dx x2
y 0 as x , then
/2
(A) lim f x 1
x 0
(B) f x dx is less than
2
0
/2
(C) f x dx is greater than unity (D) f(x) is an odd function
0
Comprehension Type
This section contains 1 group of questions. The group has 2 multiple choice question based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only ONE is
correct
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Consider the following three sets of complex roots of unity. A = {z: z18 = 1}, B = {: 48 = 1} and
C = {z: z A and B}, then
56. Let the set C has n distinct elements C1, C2, ....., Cn, then the value of
|C2 – C1| + |C3 – C1| + ..... + |Cn – C1| is
º º
5 5
(A) 2cot (B) cot
8 4
º º
15 15
(C) 2cot (D) cot
11 8
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18 24
SECTION – C
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
1 2 1
f x 1 1
57. f: R R is a continuous function satisfying x dx 2 f x dx 3 , then 256 f 8 is equal
0 0
to _____
58. There are seven letters L1, L2, L3, L4, L5, L6 and L7 and six envelopes E1, E2, E3, E4, E5, E6
corresponding to first six letters. The total number of ways if none of the letters goes to its correct
envelope, even letters goes to even envelopes. Odd letters goes to envelopes other that E4 and
E6 and all the envelopes except E2 contains exactly one letter is, N. If N = 2 + 4, where z,
then is equal to _____
z z1
59. Let A(z1), B(z2) and C z1 2 are vertices of a triangle. If |z2 + iz1| = |z1| + |z2|, z1 7
1 i
and |z2| = 3, then area of ABC is _____
1 1 1 A
60. Let A ..... , then find _____ (where [.] denotes the greatest integer
2 3 10000 50
function)
61. The possible number of ordered triplets (m, n, p) where m, n, p N is (6250)k. Such that
1 m 100, 1 n 50, 1 p 25 and 2m + 2n + 2p is divisible by 3, then k is _____
2 p2
62. Number of integral values of p for which the system of equations cos1 x sin1 y
4
and
2 4
cos x sin y
1 1
16
has real solutions is _____
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25 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/18
ln 2
2e3x e2x 1
64. Let I dx , then 11e–I is equal to _____
0 e e2x e x 1
3x
65. The number of different hyperbolas, which can be represented by the equation
1 x 2 y 2 nCr x is _____ (where n and r are integers satisfying 1 r n 5)
3 r 3r 2r
1 4 3
66. Let A 2 , B and C be given matrices. If
2 2 r
0
r
r 1 3
1 2
50
ab
tr AB
r
Cr 3 a 3b _____ (where tr(A) denotes trace of matrix A), then value of is
r 1 20
(where a, b I and a is not divisible by 3)
SECTION – D
This section contains 3 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer type
(XXXXX.XX)
67. The equation a8x8 + a7x7 + a6x6 + ..... + a0 = 0 has all roots positive and real and a8 = 1, a7 = –4
1 a a
and a0 = 8 , then the value of 2 6 is equal to _____
2 a4
68. Coordinate of any point P are (4, 5). If A and B are variable points on straight lines y = x and
y = 2x respectively. Then find minimum value of (PA + PB + AB)2 _____
69. If the length of the largest interval in which the function f(x) = sin–1|sin x| + cos–1(cos x) is
constant is 2, then the value of is _____ where ( > 0)
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