CHEMICAL ENGINEERING REVIEW:JAN-2018 [Publish Date]

Instruction. Choose the letter of the best answer. Write E if the answer is not found on the choices.

1. It is the branch of science and engineering that deals with the study of energy flow.
A. Chemical kinetics
B. Chemical thermodynamics
C. Physical chemistry.
D. Chemical kinetics
2. It is the material of interest under study.
A. System
B. Surroundings
C. Universe
D. Boundary
3. A type of system in which no transfer of matter occurs between the system and the surroundings, but accompanied with the transfer of
energy.
A. open
B. closed
C. isolated
D. invariant
4. The “wall” separating the system and the surroundings may be:
A. Real or imaginary
B. Adiabatic or diathermal
C. Rigid or non rigid
D. Permeable or non permeable
E. Any of these choices
5. An __________ thermodynamic property is one whose value is equal to the sum of its values for the parts of the system.
A. Extensive
B. Intensive
C. Exclusive
D. Inclusive
6. Which of the following are not state functions?
A. P, V, T
B. H, U, S
C. G, A, S
D. q, w
7. It is a measure of the average kinetic energy possessed by the molecules of the system.
A. Pressure
B. Volume
C. Temperature
D. Heat
8. This law states that, “If A is in thermal equilibrium with B, and B is in thermal equilibrium with C, then C is also in thermal equilibrium with A.”
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
9. The ideal gas equation of state assumes the following except;
A. The molecules do not occupy space, meaning they are considered ‘volumeless”
B. Intermolecular forces of attraction or repulsion between molecules are negligible
C. Both of these
D. None of these
10. The kinetic molecular theory of gases has which of the following assumptions?
A. The gas consists of molecules of mass m in ceaseless random motion.
B. The size of the molecules is negligible, in the sense that their diameters are much smaller than the average distance travelled between
collisions.
C. The molecules interact only through brief, infrequent, and elastic collisions.
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING REVIEW:JAN-2018 [Publish Date]

D. All of the above.

11. The ideal gas law incorporates the following equations except:
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles’ law
C. Gay-Lussac’s law
D. Avogadro’s principle
12. Find the molar mass of a gas whose density is 1.80 g/L at 25.0°C and 880 torr. 38.0338 g/mol
13. For 1.0000 mol of N2 gas at 0.00°C, the following volumes are observed as a function of pressure:
P,atm 1.000 3.000 5.000
V/cm3 22405 7461.4 4473.1
What is the value of R based from these data? 0.08206
14. Calculate the molecular weight of dimethyl ether based from the following data taken at 25°C. 45.936
P/kPa 12.223 25.20 36.97 60.37 85.23 101.3
ρ/(kg m−3) 0.225 0.456 0.664 1.062 1.468 1.734
15. A certain gas mixture is at 3450 kPa pressure and is composed of 20.0 g of O2 and 30.0 g of CO2. Find the CO2 partial pressure. 1800kPa
16. Two evacuated bulbs of equal volume are connected by a tube of negligible volume. One bulb is placed in a 200-K constant-temperature
bath and the other in a 300-K bath, and then 1.00 mol of an ideal gas is injected into the system. Find the final number of moles of gas in
each bulb. n1 = 0.6 mol and n2 = 0.4 mol
17. The relation shown below is known as what parameter?
1 𝜕𝑉
( )
𝑉 𝜕𝑇 𝑃
A. Expansion coefficient
B. Isothermal compression coefficient
C. Compressibility factor
D. Isobaric density constant
18. The value of the expansion coefficient for an ideal gas is equal to:
A. 1/T
B. 1/P
C. 1/V
D. 1
19. For H2O at 17°C and 1 atm, α = 1.7x10-4 K-1 and κ = 4.7x10-5 atm-1. A closed, rigid container is completely filled with liquid water at 14°C
and 1 atm. If the temperature is raised to 20°C, estimate the pressure in the container. Neglect the pressure and temperature dependences
of α and κ. 2.17x10^10 atm
20. The parameter a in the van der Waals equation of state accounts for:
A. The attractive forces between the gas molecules.
B. The repulsive forces between the gas molecules.
C. The volume occupied by the gas molecules.
D. The density difference between that of the gas and the ideal gas with the same state.
21. A In an industrial process, nitrogen is heated to 500 K at a constant volume of 1.000 m3. The gas enters the container at 300 K and 100 atm.
The mass of the gas is 92.4 kg. Use the van der Waals equation to determine the approximate pressure of the gas at its working temperature
of 500 K. For nitrogen, a = 1.352 dm6 atm mol−2, b = 0.0387 dm3 mol−1.
22. It is a measure of the deviation of a certain gas from an ideal gas of the same state.
A. Compression coefficient
B. Compressibility factor
C. Expansion coefficient
D. Boyle temperature
23. If the compressibility factor is greater than 1,
A. Attractive forces dominate
B. Repulsive forces dominate
C. The gas behaves ideally
D. None of the above
24. Real gases tend to assume ideal behaviour at
A. Very low pressures and high temperatures
B. Very high pressures and low temperatures
 CHEMICAL ENGINEERING REVIEW:JAN-2018 [Publish Date]

C. Very low pressures and low temperatures

D. Very high pressures and high temperatures
25. An equation of state showing the compressibility factor as a power series in terms of pressure or volume is referred to as:
A. van der Waals Equation of State
B. Berthelot Equation of State
C. Peng-Robinson Equation of State
D. Virial Equation of State
26. At critical temperature,
A. no amount of compression will cause the separation out of a liquid phase in equilibrium with the gas as temperature is further increased.
B. the liquid and vapour states are indistinguishable with each other.
C. Both a and b
D. Neither a and b
27. The value of the compressibility factor at the critical point for a van der Waals gas is
A. ½
B. 1
C. 2/3
D. 3/8

The critical constants of methane are Pc =45.6 atm, Vc =98.7 cm3 mol−1, and Tc =190.6 K.

28. Calculate the van der Waals parameters a and b.

29. What is the approximate diameter of methane, assuming that it is a spherical molecule?
30. What is the Boyle temperature of methane?
31. It states that all gases obeying an equation of state with two parameters should follow the same equation of state provided their reduced
properties are used.
A. Avogadro’s hypothesis
B. Dalton’s Law
C. Charles’ Law
D. Law of Corresponding States
32. At what pressure will 1 mole of methane will be in corresponding states with 1 mole of nitrogen at 1 atm and 25 °C?
33. A ____________ process is one where the system is always infinitesimally close to equilibrium, and an infinitesimal change in conditions
can reverse the process to restore both system and surroundings to their initial states.
A. Reversible
B. Irreversible
C. Isentropic
D. Isenthalpic
34. Maximum work can be obtained from a system when the change taking place in it is
A. Isothermal
B. Irreversible
C. Adiabatic
D.
35. The law of conservation of energy is a restatement of;
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
36. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The value of the work w in a reversible process in a closed system can be found if we know the initial state and the final state of the
system.
B. For a constant-volume process in a closed system, ΔH = ΔU.
C. The P-V work in a mechanically reversible process in a closed system always equals -PΔV.
D. The infinitesimal P-V work in a mechanically reversible process in a closed system always equals -P dV
37. For a fixed amount of a perfect gas, which of these statements must be true?
A. U and H each depend only on T.
B. CP is a constant.
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C. PdV= RdT for every infinitesimal process.

D. dU =CPdT for a reversible process.
38. For an ideal gas,
A. CP – CV = 0
B. CP + CV = R
C. CP + R = CV
D. CP – CV = R
39. For a monoatomic perfect gas,
A. CP = 3/2 R and CV = 5/2 R
B. CP = 5/2 R and CV = 7/2 R
C. CP = 5/2 R and CV = 3/2 R
D. CP = 7/2 R and CV = 5/2 R

A sample consists of 1.00 mol Ar is expanded isothermally at 0°C from 22.4 dm 3 to 44.8 dm3. Calculate the q, w, ΔU and ΔH for each of the
following processes:

40. Reversible
41. Against a constant external pressure equal to the final pressure of the gas.
42. Freely

43. A sample consisting of 1.00 mol of perfect gas atoms, for which CV,m = 3 /2 R, initially at P1 =1.00 atm and T1 =300 K, is heated reversibly
to 400 K at constant volume. Calculate the q, w and ΔU.
44. A sample of 1.00 mol H2O(g) is condensed isothermally and reversibly to liquid water at 100°C. The standard enthalpy of vaporization of
water at 100°C is 40.656 kJ mol-1. Find q, w, ΔU and ΔH for this process.
45. A mole of CH4 expands reversibly from 1 L to 50 L at 25 °C. Assuming that the gas behaves like a van der Waals gas, what is the work
done by the gas? For methane, a = 2.283 dm6 bar mol-2 and b = 0.04278 dm3 mol-1.
46. A strip of magnesium of mass 15 g is dropped into a beaker of dilute hydrochloric acid. Calculate the work done by the system as a result
of the reaction. The atmospheric pressure is 1.0 atm and the temperature 25°C.
47. Calculate the final temperature of a sample of argon of mass 12.0 g that is expanded reversibly and adiabatically from 1.0 dm3 at 273.15 K
to 3.0 dm3.
48. A sample of 4.0 mol O2 is originally confined in 20 dm3 at 270 K and then undergoes adiabatic expansion against a constant pressure of
600 Torr until the volume has increased by a factor of 3.0. Calculate w and ΔU (The final pressure of the gas is not necessarily 600 Torr).
49. A sample consisting of 1.0 mol of perfect gas molecules with CV= 20.8 J K−1 is initially at 3.25 atm and 310 K. It undergoes reversible
adiabatic expansion until its pressure reaches 2.50 atm. Calculate the work done.
50. Given the reactions (1) and (2) below, determine (a) ∆rH7 and∆rU7 for reaction (3), (b) ∆fH7 for both HCl(g) and H2O(g) all at 298 K. (1)
H2(g)+Cl2(g)→2 HCl(g) ∆rH7=−184.62 kJ mol−1 (2) 2 H2(g)+O2(g)→2 H2O(g) ∆rH7=−483.64 kJ mol−1 (3) 4 HCl(g) +O2(g)→Cl2(g)+2
H2O(g)
51. A sample of 1.00 mol perfect gas molecules with Cp,m = 7/2 R is put through the following cycle: (a) constant-volume heating to twice its
initial volume, (b) reversible, adiabatic expansion back to its initial temperature, (c) reversible isothermal compression back to 1.00 atm.
Calculate q, w, ΔU and ΔH for the overall process.
52. The parameter shown below is known as:
𝜕𝑇
𝜇𝐽 = ( )
𝜕𝑃 𝐻
A. Isothermal Joule coefficient
B. Joule-Thomson coefficient
C. Isothermal Joule- Thomson coefficient
D. Thomson coefficient
53. For an ideal gas, the Joule- Thomson coefficient is:
A. Equal to 0
B. Always positive
C. Always negative
D. A constant depending on the gas.
54. It is the temperature in which the Joule-Thomson coefficient changes in sign.
A. Boyle temperature
B. Critical temperature
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C. Inversion temperature
D. Boiling temperature
55. Which of the following is not a restatement of the Second Law of Thermodynamics?
A. It is impossible for a system to undergo a cyclic process whose sole effects are the flow of heat into the system from a heat reservoir
and the performance of an equivalent amount of work by the system on the surroundings.
B. It is impossible for a system to undergo a cyclic process whose sole effects are the flow of heat into the system from a cold reservoir
and the flow of an equal amount of heat out of the system into a hot reservoir.
C. Perpetual motion machines of the second kind are impossible.
D. As the temperature approaches absolute zero, the entropy of a system in equilibrium goes to zero.
56. This parameter is sometimes referred to as the “arrow of time”.
A. Enthalpy
B. Entropy
C. Internal Energy
D. Gibbs Free energy
57. The second law can be expressed mathematically as follows except:
A. ∆𝑆 ≥ 0
𝑑𝑞
B. ∮ ≤0
𝑇
𝑑𝑞𝑟𝑒𝑣⁄
C. 𝑑𝑆𝑟𝑒𝑣 = 𝑇
𝑑𝑞
D. 𝑑𝑆𝑟𝑒𝑣 = 𝑖𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑣⁄𝑇
58. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Increasing the temperature of the hot reservoir of a Carnot-cycle engine must increase the efficiency of the engine.
B. Decreasing the temperature of the cold reservoir of a Carnot-cycle engine must decrease the efficiency of the engine.
C. A Carnot cycle is by definition a reversible cycle.
D. Since a Carnot cycle is a cyclic process, the work done in a Carnot cycle is zero.
59. A Carnot cycle has
A. Two adiabatic reversible and two isothermal reversible steps.
B. Two isochoric reversible and two isothermal reversible steps.
C. Two isobaric reversible and two isothermal reversible steps.
D. Two adiabatic reversible and two isobaric reversible steps.
60. Consider the following quantities for a Carnot-type cycle:
Step 1: q = +850 J, w = +850 J. Step 3: q = -623 J, w = +623 J.
Step2: q = 0, w = -155 J. Step 4: q = 0, w = +155 J.
What is the efficiency of this cycle?
61. What is the maximum efficiency of a heat engine that uses reservoirs at 800 °C and 0 °C?
62. A heat pump is used to warm a house during winter. The temperature outside the house is at -10 °C and we want to maintain the house at
a temperature of 25 °C. What is the maximum efficiency of the heat pump?
63. If the house in item 62 loses heat at a rate of 15000 J/s, how much work is needed by the pump to maintain the temperature inside the
house?
64. An adiabatic reversible process is an:
A. Isochoric Process
B. Isothermal Process
C. Isenthalpic Process
D. Isentropic Process

Half a mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and reversibly at 298.15 K from a volume of 10 L to a volume of 20 L.

65. What is the change in entropy of the system?

66. What is the change in entropy of the surroundings?
67. What is the change in entropy of the universe?
68. If the expansion occurred irreversibly by simply opening a stopcock and allowing the gas to rush in an evacuated bulb of 10 L volume, what
is the change in entropy of the gas?
69. What is the change in entropy of the surroundings?
70. What is the change in entropy of the universe?
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING REVIEW:JAN-2018 [Publish Date]

71. If instead the process occurred adiabatically and reversibly, what is the change in entropy of the system?
72. What is the change in entropy of the surroundings?
73. What is the change in entropy of the universe?

74. A mole of ideal monoatomic gas at 1 bar and 273.15 K is allowed to expand adiabatically against a constant pressure of 0.395 bar until
equilibrium is reached. What is the total change in entropy?
75. Find ΔS for the conversion of 1.00 mol of ice at 0°C and 1.00 atm to 1.00 mol of water vapor at 100°C and 0.50 atm. For this problem use
333.6 J/g and 2256.7 J/g as the latent heats of fusion and vaporization of water at the normal melting and boiling points, CP= 4.19 J g-1 K-1
for liquid water, ρ = 0.917 g/cm3 for ice at 0°C and 1 atm, ρ = 1.000 g/cm3 and 0.958 g/cm3 for water at 1 atm and 0°C and 100°C,
respectively.
76. Calculate the total change in entropy when two copper blocks, each of mass 10.0 kg, one at 100°C and the other at 0°C, are placed in
contact in an isolated container. The specific heat capacity of copper is 0.385 J K−1 g−1 and may be assumed constant over the
temperature range involved.
77. Calculate the increase in molar entropy of nitrogen when it is heated from 25 to 1000 °C at constant pressure given that CP = 26.9835 +
5.9622 x 10-3 T – 3.377 x 10-7 T2 J K-1 mol-1.
78. Calculate ΔS for the mixing of 10.0 g of He at 120°C and 1.50 bar with 10.0 g of O2 at 120°C and 1.50 bar.
79. Which of the following are not valid statements of or derived from the third law of thermodynamics?
A. The entropy of a pure substance approaches zero as T approaches zero.
B. At zero Kelvin, everything acts as a perfect crystal.
C. The entropy of a perfect crystal increases.
D. It is thermodynamically impossible to reach absolute zero temperature.
80. This law enables us to calculate the entropy of a pure substance near absolute zero temperature.
A. Debye linear law
B. Debye second power law
C. Debye third power law
D. Debye fourth power law
81. It is equal to the maximum non expansion work at constant T and P for a reversible process.
A. Internal Energy
B. Enthalpy
C. Gibbs free energy
D. Helmholtz energy
82. It is equal to the maximum work accompanying a reversible process.
A. Internal Energy
B. Enthalpy
C. Gibbs free energy
D. Helmholtz energy
83. The following are criteria for spontaneity except one. Which one?
A. 𝑑𝑆𝐻,𝑃 ≥ 0
B. 𝑑𝐻𝑆,𝑃 ≤ 0
C. 𝑑𝐴 𝑇,𝑉 ≥ 0
D. 𝑑𝐺𝑇,𝑃 ≤ 0
84. Which of the following are not part of the Maxwell’s relations?
𝜕𝑉 𝜕𝑃
A. ( ) = −( )
𝜕𝑇 𝑆 𝜕𝑆 𝑉
𝜕𝑇 𝜕𝑉
B. ( ) =( )
𝜕𝑃 𝑆 𝜕𝑆 𝑃
𝜕𝑆 𝜕𝑃
C. ( ) = ( )
𝜕𝑉 𝑇 𝜕𝑇 𝑉
𝜕𝑉 𝜕𝑆
D. ( ) = − ( )
𝜕𝑇 𝑃 𝜕𝑃 𝑇
85. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The quantities U, H, A, and G do not have the same dimensions.
B. The relation ΔG = ΔH - TΔS is valid for all processes.
C. G = A + PV
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D. For every closed system in thermal and mechanical equilibrium and capable of only P-V work, the state function G is minimized when
material equilibrium is reached.
86. 1 mole of Ar(g) at 298 K and 10 atm undergoes a process in which the pressure is increased isothermally to 11 atm. By how much does
the enthalpy change?

Propane gas is allowed to expand isothermally from 10 to 30 L. Assume that propane behaves like a van der Waals gas with a = 8.779 dm6 bar mol-2
and b = 0.08445 dm3 mol-1.

87. What is the change in molar internal energy?

88. What is the change in entropy for the previous problem?

89. The coefficient of thermal expansion α of Fe(s) at 25 °C is 355 x10-7 K-1. What is the change in molar entropy of iron when the pressure is
raised to 1000 bar? The density of iron at 25 °C is 7.86 g cm-3
90. Given that for CHCl3 at 25 °C and 1 atm, ρ = 1.49 g cm-3, Cp = 116 J mol-1 K-1, α = 1.33 x 10-3 K-1, and κ = 9.8 x 10-5 atm-1, find Cv.
91. One mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expand reversibly and isothermally from a pressure of 1 bar to a pressure of 0.1 bar at 25 °C. What
is the change in Gibbs energy?
92. Calculate ΔA when 2.50 mol of a perfect gas with Cv =1.5R goes from 28.5 L and 400 K to 42.0 L and 400 K.
93. Calculate ΔG for the previous problem.
94. Calculate ΔA when 0.200 mol of He(g) is mixed at constant T and P with 0.300 mol of O2(g) at 27°C. Assume ideal gases.
95. Calculate ΔG for the previous problem.
96. The following equation is known as:
𝜕 𝐺 𝐻
( ( )) = − 2
𝜕𝑇 𝑇 𝑇
𝑃
A. Gibbs- Duhem equation
B. Gibbs- Helmholtz equation
C. Gibbs Phase Rule
D. Trouton’s Rule
97. In the reaction of oxygen gas and hydrogen gas to form liquid water at 25 °C and 1 atm, ΔG = -474.36 kJ and ΔH = -571.66 kJ. Assuming
constant pressure and enthalpy, hat is the change in Gibbs energy when the temperature is at 100 °C?
98. It is equal to the partial molar Gibbs energy of a certain species at constant T, P, and n of the other species.
A. Chemical potential
B. Fugacity
C. Ativity
D. Fugacity coefficient
99. Estimate the fugacity of nitrogen acting as a van der Waals gas at 50 bar and 298 K. For nitrogen, a = 1.352 dm6 atm mol−2, b = 0.0387
dm3 mol−1.
100. The fugacity coefficient of a certain gas at 200 K and 50 bar is 0.72. Calculate the difference of its molar Gibbs energy from that of a
perfect gas in the same state.
101. The unit of reaction rate is:
A. dm3 mol-1 s-1
B. dm2 mol-2 s-1
C. mol dm-3 s-1
D. s-1
102. According to the law of mass action,
A. the rate of a chemical reaction depends only on the concentrations of the substances that influences the rate.
B. the rate of a chemical reaction is dependent on temperature.
C. the slowest step of a reaction mechanism is the rate-determining step.
D. the individual reactions that compose a reaction mechanism are elementary reactions.
103. Which of the following statements is false?
A. The rate of reaction must be determined experimentally.
B. The rate of reaction is always dependent on the balanced equation.
C. The rate constant depends solely on temperature and not on the concentration of the reactants.
D. A catalyst alters the rate of reaction without being consumed.
104. A catalyst
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A. increases the activation energy.

B. alters the mechanism of the reaction.
C. increases the average kinetic energy of the reactants.
D. increases the collision frequency of the reactant molecules.
−∆[𝐵𝑟𝑂3− ]⁄ −∆[𝐵𝑟 − ]⁄ at that instant?
105. For the reaction 𝐵𝑟𝑂3− + 5𝐵𝑟 − + 6𝐻 + → 3𝐵𝑟2 + 3𝐻2 𝑂, ∆𝑡 = 1.5 𝑥 10 𝑀/𝑠. What is
−2
∆𝑡
106. The reaction A + 2B  products has the rate law, rate = k[A][B]3. If the concentration of B is doubled while that of A is unchanged, by what
factor will the reaction rate increase?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
107. What is the order of a single-reactant chemical reaction whose half-life is independent of the initial concentration of the reactant?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
108. In In this type of reaction, the order with respect to the reactant (or product) is equal to the stoichiometric coefficient in the balanced
chemical reaction.
A. Catalytic reaction
B. Autocatalytic reaction
C. Elementary reaction
D. Biochemical reaction
109. The elementary reaction A + B  products is pseudo-first order when:
A. CAo = CBo
B. CAo > CBo
C. CAo << CBo
D. CAo < CBo
110. For the chemical reaction A  C, a plot of 1/[A] was found to give a straight line with a positive slope. What is the order of the reaction?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Cannot be determined
111. A certain first-order reaction A  B is 25 % complete in 42 min at 25°C. What is the half-life of the reaction?
112. For the first-order reaction 2𝑁2 𝑂5 → 2𝑁2 𝑂4 + 𝑂2 at a particular temperature, the half-life of N2O5 is 0.90 h. What fraction of the initial
concentration of the reactant will remain after 2.4 h?

The kinetic parameters of the liquid-phase reaction 2𝐴 → 𝐵 + 𝐶 were determined using a batch reactor and the following data were obtained at a
temperatures 303 K and 320 K.

t, min 0 2 5 10
CA, mol dm-3 (303K) 20 15.06 10.0 7.58
CA, mol dm-3 (320K) 20 13.89 9.52 6.25

113. What is the order of the reaction?

114. What is the rate constant at 303 K?
115. What is the rate constant at 320 K?
116. What is the activation energy?

117. Nitric oxide reacts with chlorine gas according to the equation
1
𝑁𝑂 + 𝐶𝑙 → 𝑁𝑂𝐶𝑙
2 2
What is the rate law for this reaction given the following experimental rates of reactions measured for the given reactant concentrations.
Expt # Rate (M/hr) NO (M) Cl2 (M)
1 1.19 0.50 0.50
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2 4.79 1.00 0.50

3 9.59 1.00 1.00

118. For the reaction A + B  C + D, a run with [A]o = 440 mol dm-3 and [B]o = 0.400 mol dm-3 gave the following data:
t/s 0 120 240 360 ∞
104 [C] 0 2.00 3.00 3.50 4.00

and a run with [A]o = 0.400 mol dm-3 and [B]o = 1000 mol dm-3 gave:
10-3 t/s 0 69 208 485 ∞
104 [C] 0 2.00 3.00 3.50 4.00
Find the rate law and the rate constant.

119. In any electrochemical cell, the anode is always ____

A. the positive electrode.
B. the negative electrode
C. the electrode at which some species gains electrons.
D. the electrode at which some species loses electrons.
120. In an electrolytic cell, the electrode that acts as a source of electrons to the solution is called the ____; the chemical change that occurs at
this electrode is called ____.
A. anode, oxidation
B. anode, reduction
C. cathode, oxidation
D. cathode, reduction
121. The electrolysis of an aqueous sodium chloride solution using inert electrodes produces gaseous chlorine at one electrode. At the other
electrode gaseous hydrogen is produced, and the solution becomes basic around the electrode. Which of the following is the equation for
the cathode half-reaction in this electrolytic cell?
A. 2𝐶𝑙 − → 𝐶𝑙2 + 2𝑒 −
B. 2𝐻2 𝑂 + 2𝑒 − → 𝐻2 + 2𝑂𝐻 −
C. 𝐶𝑙2 + 2𝑒 − → 2𝐶𝑙 −
D. 𝐻2 + 2𝑂𝐻 − → 2𝐻2 𝑂 + 2𝑒 −
122. How many coulombs of charge pass through a cell if 2.40 amperes of current are passed through the cell for 85.0 minutes?
123. An aqueous copper(II) sulfate solution is electrolyzed for 45 minutes. A 3.2 ampere current is used. What mass of copper is produced?
124. How many moles of oxygen, O2, will be produced by the electrolysis of water with a current of 1.5 amperes for 6.0 hours?
125. A voltaic cell is constructed with one cell consisting of an Al electrode in 1.0 M Al3+ and another cell with an Fe electrode in 1.0 M Fe2+.
When this cell operates, the Al electrode loses mass and the Fe electrode gains mass. Which of the following represents the reaction that
occurs at the positive electrode of this cell?
A. 𝐴𝑙 3+ + 3𝑒 − → 𝐴𝑙
B. 𝐹𝑒 → 𝐹𝑒 2+ + 3𝑒 −
C. 𝐴𝑙 → 𝐴𝑙 3+ + 3𝑒 −
D. 𝐹𝑒 2+ + 3𝑒 − → 𝐹𝑒
126. Which of the following shorthand galvanic cell notations for the zinc - copper standard cell is correct? Cu2+ + Zn  Zn2+ + Cu
A. Cu2+ | Cu || Zn | Zn2+
B. Cu2+ | Cu || Cu | Cu2+
C. Cu2+ | 2e- || 2e- | Zn
D. Zn | Zn2+ || Cu2+ | Cu
127. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
A. Mg2+ B. Mg C. F2 D. F-
128. Which of the following species is the strongest oxidizing agent?
A. Sn2+ B. Sn4+ C. Br2 D. Br-
129. Which of the following species is the strongest reducing agent?
A. Mn2+ B. Mn C. Au+ D. H2
130. Which one of the following statements about the half-cell processes is true for the cell,
Cd|Cd2+(1 M)||Cu2+(1 M)|Cu?
A. Cu2+ is reduced at the anode
 CHEMICAL ENGINEERING REVIEW:JAN-2018 [Publish Date]

B. Cu2+ is reduced at the cathode

C. Cd2+ is reduced at the anode
D. Cd2+ is reduced at the cathode
131. The equilibrium constant, at 25°C, for the reaction below is 1.99 x 1020. What is E0 for this reaction?
𝑁𝑂3− + 3𝐻 + + 𝐶𝑢 → 𝐶𝑢2+ + 𝐻𝑁𝑂2 + 𝐻2 𝑂
Reduction Half- reaction Standard reduction potential E0, volts
𝑀𝑔2+ + 2𝑒 − → 𝑀𝑔(𝑠) -2.37
2+ −
𝑁𝑖 + 2𝑒 → 𝑁𝑖(𝑠) -0.25

132. Which of the following reactions will take place simultaneously?

A. 𝑁𝑖 2+ + 𝑀𝑔2+ → 𝑁𝑖(𝑠) + 𝑀𝑔(𝑠)
B. 𝑁𝑖 2+ + 𝑀𝑔(𝑠) → 𝑁𝑖(𝑠) + 𝑀𝑔2+
C. 𝑁𝑖(𝑠) + 𝑀𝑔(𝑠) → 𝑁𝑖 2+ + 𝑀𝑔2+
D. 𝑁𝑖(𝑠) + 𝑀𝑔2+ → 𝑁𝑖 2+ + 𝑀𝑔(𝑠)
133. Given the following table of standard electrode potentials:

134. Calculate E0 for the reaction:

𝐻𝑔2 𝐶𝑙2 + 𝑃𝑏 + 𝑆𝑂42− → 2𝐻𝑔 + 2𝐶𝑙 − + 𝑃𝑏𝑆𝑂4
135. What is the standard Gibbs energy?

“The real winners in life are the people who look in every situation with an expectation that they can make it work, or make it better through God’s
grace.” –Barbara Pletcher