Audit MCQ

AUDIT MCQs FOR SENIOR AUDITOR TEST
Part - 1 Introduction to Auditing

1) The main object of an audit is _____?
A) Expression of opinion
B) Detection and Prevention of fraud and error
C) Both (a) and (b)
D) Depends on the type of audit.
2) Which of the following is not true about opinion on financial statements?

A) The auditor should express an opinion on financial statements.
B) His opinion is no guarantee to future viability of business
C) He is responsible for detection and prevention of frauds and errors in financial statements
D) He should examine whether recognized accounting principle have been consistently
3) A sale of Rs. 50.000 to A was entered as a sale to B. This is an example of _
A) Error of omission B) Error of commission C) Compensating error D) Error of principle
4) ‘Goods sent on approval basis’ have been recorded as ‘Credit sales’. This is an example of ____?
A) Error of principle B) Error of commission C) Error of omission D) Error of duplication
5) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Management fraud is more difficult to detect than employee fraud
B) Internal control system reduces the possibility of occurrence of employee fraud and management fraud
C) The auditor’s responsibility for detection and prevention of errors and frauds is similar.
D) All statements are correct.
6) Both auditing and accounting are concerned with financial statements. Which of the following
A) Auditing uses the theory of evidence to verify the financial information made available by
Accountancy
B) Auditing lends credibility dimension and quality dimension to the financial statements prepared by the
accountant
C) Auditor should have through knowledge of accounting concepts and convention to enable him to
express an opinion on financial statements
D) All of the above.
7) The risk of management fraud increases in the presence of :
A) Frequent changes in supplies
B) Improved internal control system
C) Substantial increases in sales
D) Management incentive system based on sales done in a quarter
8) Auditing standards differ from audit procedures in that procedures relate to
A) Audit assumptions B) acts to be performed C) quality criterion D) methods of work
9) Which of the following factors likely to be identified as a fraud factor by the auditor?
A) The company is planning an initial public offer of quality shares to raise additional capital for
expansion.
B) Bank reconciliation statement includes deposits intransit.
C) Plant and machinery is sold at a loss.
D) The company has made political contributions.
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10) The most difficult type of misstatement to detect fraud is based on:
A) Related party purchases
B) Related party sales
C) Related party sales
D) Omission of a sales transaction from being recorded.
11) Which of the following is the most appropriate potential reaction of the auditor to his assessment
that the risk of material misstatement due to fraud is high in relation to existence of inventory?
A) Visit location on surprise basis to observe test counts
B) Request inventory count at a date close to year end
C) Vouch goods sent on approval very carefully
D) Perform analytical procedures.
12) Which of the following is not likely to be a fraud risk factor relating to management’s
characteristics
A) Tax evasion
B) Failure to correct known weakness in internal control system
C) Adoption of conservative accounting principles
D) High management turnover
13) Professional skepticism requires that the auditor assume that management is
A) reasonably honest
B) Neither honest nor dishonest
C) Not necessarily honest
D) Dishonest unless proved otherwise
14) Which of the following information should a successor auditor obtain during the inquiry of the
predecessor auditor before accepting engagement?
i) Information about integrity of management
ii) Disagreement with management concerning auditing procedures
iii) Review of internal control system.
iv) Organization structure
A) (i) and (ii)
B) (ii) and (iii)
C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
D) i) and (iii)
15) The audit engagement letter, generally, should include a reference to each of the following except
A) limitations of auditing
B) responsibilities of management with respect to audit work
C) expectation of receiving a written management representation letter.
D) a description of the auditor’s method of sample selection.
16) The use of an audit engagement letter is the best method of assuring the auditor will have which
of the following?
A) Auditor will obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence.
B) Management representation letter
C) Access to all books, accounts and vouchers required for audit purpose
D) Cooperation from other auditors
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17) The use of an audit engagement letter is the best method of documenting
i) the required communication of significant deficiencies in internal control
ii) significantly higher control risk than that assessed in prior audit.
iii) Objective and scope of auditor’s work
iv) Notification of any changes in the original arrangements of the audit.
A) (i) and (ii)
B) (i) and (iii)
C) (ii) and (iv)
D) (iii and (iv)
18) An auditor who accepts an audit but does not possess the industry expertise of the business
entity should
A) engage experts
B) obtain knowledge of matters that relate to the nature of entity’s business
C) inform management about it
D) take help of other auditors
19) The least important element in the evaluation of an audit firm’s system of quality control would
relate to
A) assignment of audit assistants
B) system of determining audit fees
C) consultation with experts
D) confidentiality of client’s information
20) Which of the following is not a quality control consideration on accepting a new client? Which
of the following is not a quality control consideration on accepting a new client?
A) Availability of audit assistants with necessary skill and competence.
B) Provision of other services to the client which may impair independence
C) Predecessor auditor’s advice as to whether audit fees were paid promptly
D) Review of audit work done by one partner by the other
Part – 2 Concept of Auditing

1) Audit of banks is an example of_____?
A) Statutory audit B) Concurrent audit C) Balance sheet audit D) All of the above
2) Concurrent audit is a part of_______?
A) Internal check system B) Continuous audit C) Internal audit system D) None
3) Audit in depth is synonymous for
A) Complete audit B) Completed audit C) Final audit D) Detailed audit
4) Balance sheet audit includes verification of______?
A) Assets B) Liabilities
C) Income and expense accounts where appropriate D) All of the above
5) Which of the following statements is not true about continuous audit?
A) It is conducted at regular interval
B) It may be carried out on daily basis
C) It is needed when the organization has a good internal control system
D) It is expensive
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6) Which of the following is not a fact of EPA?

A) Economic audit B) Efficiency audit C) Expenditure audit D) Effectiveness audit
7) Balance sheet does not include
A) Verification of assets and liabilities
B) Vouching of income and expense accounts related to assets and liabilities
C) Examination of adjusting and closing entries D) Routine checks
8) Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?

A) Materiality is a relative concept
B) Materiality judgments involve both quantitative and qualitative judgments
C) Auditor’s consideration of materiality is influenced by the auditor’s perception of the needs of an
informed decision maker who will rely on the financial statements
D) At the planning state, the auditor considers materiality at the financial statement level only
9) ______the audit risk______the materiality and_______the audit effort
A) Lower, Higher, Lower B) Lower, Lower, Higher
C) Higher, Lower, Lower D) Lower, Higher, Higher
10) When issuing unqualified opinion, the auditor who evaluates the audit findings should be
satisfied that the
A) Amount of known misstatement is documented in working papers
B) Estimates of the total likely misstatement is less than materiality level
C) Estimate of the total likely misstatement is more than materially level
D) Estimates of the total likely misstatement cannot be made
11) In determining the level of materiality for an audit, what should not be considered?
A) Prior year’s errors
B) The auditor’s remuneration
C) Adjusted interim financial statements
D) Prior year’s financial statements
12) Analytical procedures issued in the planning stage of an audit, generally
A) helps to determine the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures
B) directs attention to potential risk areas
C) indicates important aspects of business
D) All of the above
13) Which of the following statements is most closely associated with analytical procedure applied
at substantive stage?
A) It helps to study relationship among balance sheet accounts
B) It helps to discover material misstatements in the financial statements
C) It helps to identify possible oversights
D) It helps to accumulate evidence supporting the validity of a specific account balance
14) The basic assumption underlying the use of analytical procedures is:
A) It helps the auditor to study relationship among elements of financial information
B) Relationship among data exist and continue in the absence of known condition to the contrary
C) Analytical procedures will not be able to detect unusual relationships
D) None of the above.
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15) What are analytical procedures?

A) Substantive tests designed to assess control risk
B) Substantive tests designed to evaluate the validity of management’s representation letter
C) Substantive tests designed to study relationships between financial and nonfinancial
D) All of the above
16) Which of the following is not an analytical procedure?
A) Tracing of purchases recurred in the purchase book to purchase invoices.
B) Comparing aggregate wages paid to number of employees
C) Comparing the actual costs with standard costs
D) All of them are analytical procedure
17) When applying analytical procedures, an auditor could develop independent estimate of an
account balance to compare it to
A) client’s unedited account balance
B) client’s unedited account balance adjusted for trends in the industry
C) Prior year audited balance
D) Prior year audited balance adjusted for trends in the industry
18) What is the primary objective of analytical procedures used in the overall review stage of an audit?
A) To help to corroborate the conclusions drawn from individual components of financial statements
B) To reduce specific detection risk
C) To direct attention to potential risk areas
D) To satisfy doubts when questions arise about a client’s ability to continue
Part-3 Audit Evidence

1) Of the following, which is the least persuasive type of audit evidence?
A) Bank statements obtained from the client
B) Documents obtained by auditor from third parties directly.
C) Carbon copies of sales invoices inspected by the auditor
D) Computations made by the auditor
2) Which of the following statements is, generally, correct about the reliability of audit evidence?
A) To be reliable, evidence should conclusive rather than persuasive
B) Effective internal control system provides reliable audit evidence
C) Evidence obtained from outside sources routed through the client
D) All are correct.
3) In an audit of financial statements, substantive tests are audit procedures that ____?
A) may be eliminated for an account balance under certain conditions
B) are designed to discover significant subsequent events
C) will increase proportionately when the auditor decreases the assessed level of control risk
D) may be test of transactions, test of balance and analytical procedures
4) Which of the following factors is most important in determining the appropriations of audit evidence?
A) The reliability of audit evidence and its relevance in meeting the audit objective
B) The objectivity and integrity of the auditor
C) The quantity of audit evidence
D) The independence of the source of evidence
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5) The nature, timing and extent of substantive procedures is related to assessed level of control risk
A) randomly B) disproportionately C) directly D) inversely
6) When is evidential matter, generally, considered sufficient?
A) When it constitutes entire population
B) When it is enough to provide a basis for giving reasonable assurance regarding truthfulness
C) When it is objective and relevant
D) When auditor collects and evaluates it independently
7) Which of the following is not a corroborative evidence?
A) Minutes of meetings
B) Confirmations from debtors
C) Information gathered by auditor through observation
D) Worksheet supporting consolidated financial statements
8) What would most appropriately describe the risk of incorrect rejection in terms of substantive
testing?
A) The auditor concludes balance is materially correct when in actual fact it is not
B) The auditor concludes that the balance is materially misstated when in actual fact it not
C) The auditor has rejected an item for sample which was material
D) None of the above
9) Which of the following affects audit effectiveness?
A) Risk of over reliance B) Risk of incorrect rejection
C) Risk of incorrect acceptance D) Both (a) and (c)
10) What would most effectively describe the risk of incorrect acceptance in terms of substantive
audit testing?
A) The auditor has ascertained that the balance is materially correct when in actual fact it is not
B) The auditor concludes the balance is materially misstated when in actual fact is not
C) The auditor has rejected an item from sample which was not supported by documentary evidence
D) He applies random sampling on data which is inaccurate and inconsistent
Part-4 Preparation of Audit

1) Audit programme is prepared by:
A) the auditor B) the client C) the audit assistants D) the auditor and his audit assistants
2) The working papers which auditor prepares for financial statements audit are:
A) evidence for audit conclusions B) owned by the client
C) owned by the auditor D) retained in auditor’s office until a change in auditors
3) The quantity of audit working papers complied on engagement would most be affected by:
A) management’s integrity
B) auditor’s experience and professional judgment
C) auditor’s qualification
D) control risk
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4) Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of audit programme preparation?
A) To detect errors or fraud.
B) To comply with GAAP
C) To gather sufficient appropriate evidence
D) To assess audit risk
5) Which of the following is not an advantage of the preparation of working paper?
A) To provide a basis for review of audit work
B) To provide a basis for subsequent audits
C) To ensure audit work is being carried out as per programme
D) To provide a guide for advising another client on similar issues
6) The auditor’s permanent working paper file should not normally, include
A) extracts from client’s bank statements
B) past year’s financial statements
C) attorney’s letters
D) debt agreements
7) For what minimum period should audit working papers be retained by audit firm?
A) For the time period the entity remains a client of the audit firm.
B) For a period of ten years
C) For a period auditor opines them to be useful in servicing the client
D) For the period the audit firm is in existence.
8) Which of the following factors would least likely affect the quantity and content of an auditor’s
working papers
A) The assessed level of control risk
B) The possibility of peer review
C) The nature of auditor’s report
D) The content of management representation letter
9) Which of the following statement is true regarding an auditor’s working papers?
A) They document the level of independence maintained by the auditor
B) They should be considered as the principle support for the auditor’s report
C) They should not contain details regarding weaknesses in the internal control system
D) They help the auditor to monitor the effectiveness of the audit firm’s quality control
10) Which of the following statement best describes the understanding with respect to ownership
and custody of working papers prepared by an auditor?
A) The working papers may be obtained by third parties when they appear to be relevant to issues raised
in litigation
B) The safe custody of working papers is the responsibility of client, if kept at his premises
C) The working papers must be retained by an audit firm for a period of 10 years
D) Successor auditors may have access to working papers of the predecessor auditors. The approval of
client is not required.
11) The current file of the auditor’s working papers, generally, should include:
A) a flowchart of the internal controls
B) Organization charts
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C) a copy of financial statements

D) copies of bond and debentures
12) Knowledge of the entity’s business does not help the auditor to
A) reduce inherent risk B) identify problem areas
C) evaluate reasonableness of estimates D) evaluate appropriates of GAAP.
13) The main advantage of using statistical sampling techniques is that such techniques:
A) mathematically measure risk
B) eliminate the need for judgmental sampling
C) defines the values of tolerable error
D) all of the them.
14) Which of the following methods of sample selection is least suitable for extrapolating results to
the population?
A) Systematic sampling B) Random sampling C) Haphazard sampling D) None
15) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Lower the sampling risk greater the sample size
B) Smaller the tolerable error, greater the sample size
C) Lower the expected error, smaller the sample size
D) All are correct
16) Which of the following features is most important for random based selection?
A) Sample should be drawn from population
B) Every strata of population should be represented in the sample
C) Every item in the population has an equal chance of being selected in the sample
D) Items should be selected at ‘n’ th interval
17) Risk of under reliance is the risk that the sample selected to test controls___?
A) Does not support the auditor’s planned assessed level of control risk when the true operating
effectiveness of the control structure justifies such an assessment
B) Supports the auditor’s planned assessed level of control risk when the actual position does not warrant
such reliance
C) Is not supported by adequate documents
D) both (a) & (c)
18) Which of the following factors is (are) considered in determining the sample size for tests of
control?
A) Projected error
B) Tolerable error
C) Expected error
D) Both (b) and (c)
19) Tolerable error, is the maximum monetary error that the auditor is prepared to accept in the
population and still conclude that audit objective has been achieved, is directly related to
A) Sample size
B) Audit risk
C) Materiality
D) Expected error
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Part-5 Audit of Cash Transactions

1) Which of the following documents is not relevant for vouching cash sales?
A) Daily cash sales summary B) Salesmen’s summary
C) Monthly statements sent to customers D) Bank statement
2) The auditor should examine subsequent realization of revenue such as dividends, interest,
commission, etc. to
A) identify cases of unrecorded revenue
B) ensure proper disclosure in the balance sheet
C) recomputed accrued income on the data of balance sheet
D) Any of these
3) To test whether sales have been recorded, the auditor should draw a sample from a file of
A) purchase orders B) sales orders C) sales invoices D) bill of loading
4) For vouching of which item, the auditor is most likely to examine cost records?
A) Commission earned B) Bad debts recorded C) Credit sale D) Sale of scrap
5) An auditor conducts a surprise check on the pay day (i.e) the day wages and salaries are paid.
The primary purpose of this audit procedures is
A) to ensure that there are no ghost workers
B) to ensure the casual workers employed are authorized by the supervisor
C) to ensure the casual workers employed are authorized by the supervisor
D) to obtain understanding of internal control system
6) Which of the following would prevent double payment of the same voucher?
A) The person signing the Cheque should cancel the supporting documents
B) Cheques should be signed by at best two persons
C) The data of payment of vouchers of similar nature should be the same or close to each other
D) All of the above
7) In case of unclaimed wages, the auditor should examine whether

A) the amount has been deposited in a separate bank account
B) deposited with the cashier
C) held in a safe deposit box
D) All of these
8) While vouching wages, auditor should examine whether there is proper segregation of duties.
Which of the following activities should not be done by same department?
A) Maintaining personnel records and approving changing in wages rates
B) Proposing pay roll summary and disbursement of wages
C) Making salary statements and filing tax returns
D) Comparing time clock records with time reports prepared by supervisors and preparing list of workers
employed along with the units of production for each one of them
9) In order to vouch, which of the expenses, the auditor will examine Bill of Entry?
A) Custom B) Excise duties
C) Sales tax D) Income tax
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10) While vouching, how will the auditor ensure himself that all credit sales transactions have been
recorded by the entity?
A) Examining cutoff points
B) Matching entries in the sales book against renumbered sales invoices and goods outward notes
C) Counting the number of invoices and matching the number with entries on sales book
D) Both (a) and (b)
Part-6 Auditing to Companies

1) Who is responsible for the appointment of statutory auditor of a limited company ?
A) Directors of the company B) Members of the company
C) The Central Government D) All of the above
2) When restrictions that significantly affect the scope of the audit are imposed by the client, the
auditor generally should issue which of the following opinion?
A) Qualified opinion B) Disclaimer of opinion
C) Adverse opinion D) Unqualified report with ‘an emphasis of matter’ paragraph;
3) Which of the following report not result in qualification of the auditor’s opinion due to a scope
limitation?
A) Restrictions the client imposed
B) Reliance on the report of other auditor
C) Inability to obtain sufficient appropriate evidential matter
D) Inadequacy of accounting records
4) The inventory consists of about one per cent of all assets. The client has imposed restriction on
auditor to prohibit observation of stock take. The auditor cannot apply alternate audit procedures.
A) unqualified opinion
B) qualified opinion
C) disclaimer of opinion
D) adverse opinion
5) If in the above question, the inventory consisted of about ten per cent of total assets, other
conditions remaining same, the auditor should issue __
B) qualified opinion
C) disclaimer of opinion
D) adverse opinion
6) The auditor has serious concern about the going concern of the company. It is dependent on
company’s obtaining a working capital loan from a bank which has been applied for. The
management of the company has made full disclosure of these facts in the notes to the balance sheet.
The auditor is satisfied with the level of disclosure. He should issue_____?
B) unqualified opinion with reference to notes to the accounts
C) qualified opinion
D) disclaimer of opinion
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7) Which of the following is true about explanatory notes?

A) These are given by the directors of the company
B) These are given by auditors of the company in auditor’s report
C) These are given to adhere to requirements of law
D) All of the above
8) The client changed method of depreciation from straight line to written down value method. This
has been disclosed as a note to the financial statements. It has an immaterial effect on the current
financial statements. It is expected, however, that the change will have a significant effect on future
periods. Which of the following option should the auditor express?
A) Unqualified opinion B) Qualified opinion C) Disclaimer of opinion D) Adverse opinion
9) In case the auditor gives a disclaimer of opinion in the audit report which of the following
paragraph(s) of a standard unqualified audit report are modified?
A) Scope paragraph
B) Opinion paragraph
C) Scope and opinion paragraphs
D) Introductory, scope and opinion paragraph
10) A departure from recognized accounting principle is disclosed in a note to the financial
statements. The auditor should
A) issue a standard unqualified audit report
B) issue a qualified report
C) issue an unqualified report with ‘emphasis of matter’ paragraph
D) disclaim opinion
11) AB & Co, chartered accountant, have been requested by their client XYZ Ltd. not to confirm
accounts receivables because of concerns about creasing conflicts with customers over amounts owed.
The auditors were satisfied concerning receivables after applying alternative audit procedures AB &
Co.’s auditors report likely contained
A) Qualified opinion
B) Disclaimer of opinion
C) Unqualified I opinion with an explanatory paragraph
D) Unqualified opinion
12) The auditor should state the reasons for his reservations in audit report and should try to
quantify the effect on them. This should be done in case he has expressed ______?
(i) a qualified opinion (ii) an unqualified opinion with emphasis of matter paragraph
(iii) an adverse opinion (iv) a disclaimer of opinion
A) i) only
B) i) and (iv) only
C) i), iii) and (iv) only
D) All of the above
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Part-7 Verification of Assets

1) Which of the following is not true with regard to verification of assets?
A) It invoices substantiation of occurrence of transactions
B) Its objective is to establish existence, ownership, possession, valuation and disclosure of assets
C) The auditor has to form an opinion on different aspects
D) All are true
2) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Valuation of assets is the responsibility of management
B) The auditor can rely on a certificate issued by an authorized valuation as to the valuation of assets in
the balance sheet
C) The auditor should value the asset as per generally accepted accounting principle d) Valuation is no
part of auditor’s duty
D) Valuation is no part of auditor’s duty
3) An auditor is verifying valuation of building which has been self-constructed by the client. Which
of the following documents is least relevant to the auditor for verification purposes?
A) Bills of contractor
B) Minutes of meeting of board of directors
C) Certificates of engineer and architect
D) Loan agreement
4) Which of the following assets is least likely to be subjected to lien?
A) Freehold land
B) Plant and machinery
C) Leasehold property
D) Motor vehicles
5) An analysis of fixed assets account has revealed possibility of unrecorded sale of plant and
machinery. Which of the following audit procedures may be adopted to discover it?
A) Examination of property tax files
B) Inquiry of plant manager
C) Examination of debits to accumulated depreciation
D) All of the above
6) The auditor has noticed existence of recurring losses sale of fixed assets this indicates
A) Depreciation charges are insufficient
B) Policy of sale or disposal of fixed assets needs to be reviewed
C) The sale of assets have not been properly authorized
D) Accounting errors
7) Which of the following financial statements assertions are addressed by testing the cut off for
plant asset addition
A) Existence and ownership
B) Valuation and disclosure
C) Possession and ownership
D) Completeness and valuation
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8) The auditor while verifying prepaid insurance has concluded that there is inadequate insurance
of building He should___?
A) Modify his audit report
B) Insist it should be disclosed in the notes to financial statements
C) Write it in letter of weakness
D) Both (b) and (c)
9) While verifying intangible assets, an auditor would have recomputed amortization charges and
determine whether amortization period is reasonable. The auditor tries to establish ….by doing it
A) valuation
B) existence
C) disclosure
D) possession
10) When auditing prepaid insurance, an auditor discovers that the insurance policy bond on
building is not available for inspection. This may indicate____?
A) No insurance has been undertaken for building
B) Lien on building
C) Insurance premium has not been paid
D) Insurance premium paid but not recorded
11) Which of the following controls would ensure that securities are not lost, stolen or diverted?
A) Establish physical barriers over investment securities
B) Maintain files of authorized signatures
C) Segregate investment approval form accounting and from custody of securities
D) All of the above
12) Which of the following would give the assurance that debtors mentioned on the date of balance
sheet actually exist?
A) Sending debtor’s confirmation letters
B) Reviewing subsequent collection
C) Verify debtors against sales document
D) Both (a) and (b)
13) Analytical procedures are least likely to be use in the audit of?
A) cash balance
B) investments
C) bills receivables
D) debtors
14) Which of the following statements is not true with regard to teeming and lading ?
A) It results in the deliberate misappropriation of cash receipts
B) It is associated with cash receipts
C) If same individual maintains cash receipts and cash payments teeming and lading is likely to exist
D) To conceal the shortage, the defraud, usually, tries to keep bank and book amounts in daily agreement
so that a bank reconciliation will not detect the irregularity.
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15) The balance of cash in often between one to five percent of total assets. Tick the most
appropriate statement with regard to verification of cash in context of this
A) Cash in always material as materiality is qualitative concept
B) No audit of cash is needed when, in auditor’s opinion, cash is immaterial. Materiality is a relative
concept
C) The cash balance need only be audited if the balance is in overdraft
D) Cash is to be verified if control risk is assessed as high
16) When counting cash on hand the auditor should _____?
A) ensure presence of somebody from management
B) obtain a receipt from custodian as to its return
C) ensure postage and revenue stamps are not counted in physical count
D) temporary advances to employees are counted to calculate balance of cash in hand
17) Which of the following statement is not true regard to auditor’s attendance at stock taking?
A) Auditor should attend physical stock taking only if inventory is material
B) Auditor may not attend physical verification of stock by management, if he does not find it appropriate
to rely on it
C) Auditor may not attend physical verification of stock by management, if he does not find it appropriate
to rely on it
D) The primary objective of an auditor’s observation of an entity’s observation of an entity’s stock take is
to obtain direct knowledge that the stock and has been property counted
18) While observing a client’s annual physical inventory, an auditor conducted test counts for
certain test counts were higher than the recorded quantities in the client’s perpetual records. This
situation could be the result of the client’s failure to record_____?
A) purchase returns B) sales returns
C) goods with consignor D) purchase discounts
19) Inspection report/receiving report supports entries in
A) sales book and sales return book
B) purchase book and sales return book
C) cash book and purchase book
D) Sales book and purchase return book
Part-8 Internal Control

1) Tests of control are not concerned with Tests of control are not concerned with:
A) Existence of controls B) Effectiveness of controls
C) Continuity of controls D) Designing of controls
2) The sequence of steps in the auditor’s consideration of internal control is as follows:
A) Obtain an understanding, design substantive test, perform tests of control, make a preliminary
assessment of control risk
B) Design substantive tests, obtain an understanding, perform tests of control, make a preliminary
assessment of control risk
C) Obtain an understanding, make a preliminary assessment of control risk, perform tests of control,
design substantive procedures
D) Perform tests of control, obtain and understanding, make a preliminary assessment of control risk,
design
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3) Which of the following is not an inherent limitation of internal control system?

A) Management override B) Collusion among employees
C) Inefficiency of internal auditor D) Abuse of authority
4) An auditor should study and evaluate internal controls to
A) determine whether assets are safeguarded
B) determine whether assets are safeguarded
C) Plan audit procedures
D) express and opinion
5) XYZ Ltd. Conducts quarterly review of operations. It discovers that unrest in a south east Asian
country may affect the supply of raw materials to it the next quarter. This is an example of :
A) risk assessment B) control procedure C) supervision D) control environment
6) The primary purpose of performing tests of control is to provide reasonable assurance that____?
A) there are no material misstatements due to fraud or error in financial statement
B) accounting system is well documented
C) Written evidence is there to support transactions
D) if internal control is effective
7) If the auditor assesses control risk as high____?
A) Document the conclusions B) documents the reasons along with conclusions
C) perform tests of control D) perform walk through tests
8) The overall attitude and awareness of an entity’s board of directors concerning the importance
of internal control is reflected in
A) accounting controls B) control environment C) control procedures D) supervision
9) Which of the following are included in test of control?
A) Performance and observation B) Inquiry and analytical procedures
C) Comparison and conformation D) Inspection and verification
10) Control risk is assessed at
A) Overall financial statements level B) Fraud risk factor level
C) Financial statement assertion level D) Control environment level
11) Which of the following is not an example of a circumstance, in which additional tests of control
will not be performed after obtaining an understanding to plan the audit?
A) Controls are known to be cost ineffective
B) Controls are effective but auditor opines that performing tests of control and reduced substantive tests
would not be cost effective
C) Controls are effective and evidence already obtained is adequate to support a planned assessed level of
control risk which is less than high
D) Performing extensive substantive testing would not lead to efficiency
12) An auditor assesses control risk because it
A) affects the audit risk
B) affects the level of detection risk that auditor may accept
C) helps him to fix materiality level for each financial assertion
D) is directly related to inherent risk
15
13) A flow chart, made by the auditor, of an entity’s internal control system is a graphic
representation that depicts the auditor’s.
A) understanding of the system
B) understanding of fraud risk factors
C) documentation of assessment of control risk
D) Both (a) and (c)
14) The performance of tests of control is documented in
A) audit programme
B) flow charts
C) working papers
D) any of the above
15) Which of the following statements is not correct?
A) Intern risk and control risk cannot be controlled by the management i.e are uncontrollable
B) Detection risk is related directly to the effectiveness of the auditor prosecutor
C) Detection risk related inversely to control risk
D) Internet risk and control risk are highly interrelated
16) The independence of an internal auditor will most likely be assured if he reports to the
A) President Finance B) President System C) Managing Director D) CEO
17) In comparison to the independent auditor, an internal auditor is more likely to be concerned with
A) cost accounting system
B) internal control system
C) legal compliance
D) accounting system
18) When an independent auditor decides that the work performed by internal auditors may have
bearing on the nature, timing and extent of planned audit procedures, the independent auditor should
evaluate objectivity of the internal auditor. The most important factor influencing it would be:
A) organizational level to which he reports
B) qualification of internal auditor
C) system of quality control of his work
D) all of the above
19) When an independent auditor relies on the work of an internal auditor, he or she should
A) examine the scope of internal auditor’s work
B) examine the system of supervising review and documentation of internal auditor’s work
C) adequacy of related audit programme
D) all of the above
20) Proper segregation of duties reduces the opportunities in which a person would both
A) establish controls and executes them
B) establish controls and executes them
C) perpetuate errors and frauds and conceals them
D) record the transaction in journal and ledger
16
Auditing MCQS
SET-1
1) Which of the following are not objectives of auditing?
A) Ascertain the profit and preparation of P/L Account, Balance sheet.
B) Detection and prevention of frauds and errors.
C) Give a true and fair view of financial amount.
D) To submits the accounts to the Government
2) Which of the following is not a kind of audit?
A) Statutory and private audit.
B) Government and continuous audit.
C) Continuous, final, Interim, Cash, Cost and Management audit.
D) None of these.
3) An audit which is compulsory by the law __________.
A) Government audit.
B) Internal audit.
C) Cost audit.
D) Statutory audit.
4) Audit done by the employees of the business undertaking is called _______.
A) final audit.
B) management audit.
C) government audit.
D) company audit
5) Management audit otherwise called as _______.
A) final audit.
B) efficiency audit.
C) cost audit.
D) cash audit.
6) A number of checks and controls exercised in a business to ensure its efficient working is known
as ________.
A) Internal check. B) Internal control. C) Internal audit. D) Interim check.
7) Voucher relates to _________.
A) cash receipt. B) cash payment. C) credit transactions D) all the above.
8) Internal check is meant for ___________.

A) prevention of frauds. B) detection of frauds. C) helping audit is depth. D) detection of errors.
9) Internal auditor is appointed by ________.
A) the management. B) the shareholders C) he government. D) he statutory body.
10) Auditing begins where ______ ends.
A) Selling. B) inventory valuation. C) Accounting. D) Purchases.
17
Auditing MCQS
SET-2
1) In order to ensure effective control, how often a full inventory count should be held when
perpetual inventory records are not kept adequately?
A) On a daily basis B) At least once a year C) At least monthly D) At least weekly
2) For the purpose of keeping effective control in the cash system, who should have no access to the
cash or the preparation of the paying-in slip?
A) Sales ledger personnel B) Teller/cashier C) Cash officers D) Operations manager
3) Internal sources of audit evidence for an entity includes the following EXCEPT:
A) Associated companies of the entity B) Accounting systems, records and documents
C) Non-financial data and records D) Management representation and discussion
4) Which of the following is the least concern to an auditor regarding the client’s internal control system?
A) Efficiency and effectiveness of operations
B) Controls related to the reliability of financial reporting
C) Controls over classes of transactions
D) Auditors are equally concern with each of the given issues
5) During test of control procedure its design can easily tested with the help of:
A) ICQs and walk through tests B) ICQs and judgment sample
C) ICQs and random sample D) ICQS and ICEC
6) The small audit firms provide the following services EXCEPT:
A) Liquidation and receivership work, fraud auditing
B) Financial management and system consultancy
C) Financial system planning and preparation
D) Tax management and statutory form filling
7) Which of the following is not included in the category of cash?
A) Deposit with banks B) Checks C) Postdated checks D) Money orders
8) For measuring the quality of audit evidence auditors used the tool of appropriateness; in case if
auditor wants to measure quantity of audit evidence which tools from the following should be adopted?
A) Relevance B) Reliability C) Sufficiency D) Effectiveness
9) When the cash sales should be recorded by the companies in order to achieve control objectives?
A) Record the cash sales when purchase order is received from the customer
B) Record the cash sales at the point they are made
C) Record the cash sales after some period
D) Record the cash sales weekly
10) Auditors conduct auditing in accordance with:
A) International Financial Reporting Standards
B) Local pronouncements/Legislations
C) Financial Accounting Standards Board
D) All of the given options
18
Auditing MCQS
SET-3
1) A kind of audit conducted for a part of the accounting year is called _______.
A) Periodical audit. B) Partial audit. C) Cost audit. D) Cost audit.
2) For which of the following, Audit is optional?
A) Trusts. B) Joint stock companies.
C) Proprietorship concern. D) None of the above.
3) The audit that is made compulsory under statute is called _________.
A) Statutory audit. B) Partial audit. C) Complete audit. D) Continuous audit.
4) The receipt of goods must be entered in _________.
A) goods inward book. B) goods outward book C) receipt of Stores. D) cash payment register
5) Auditing standards differ from auditing procedures in that procedures relate to ________.
A) Measure of performance. B) Audit principles.
C) Acts to be performed. D) Audit judgments.
6) An audit programme is ___________.
A) a description, memorandum or an outline of the work to be done in a business.
B) the rules and regulations prescribed for writing up the books of accounts.
C) to gain knowledge of clients accounting system.
D) a trial work.
7) The main object of the audit of the cash book may be ________.
A) to verify the assets and liabilities.
B) to know that all receipts and payments have been properly recorded.
C) to check the internal control system in business
D) to check the bank balance
.8) The purpose of the audit of wage payment is to determine that __________.
A) the work is executed completely for which the workers are paid wages.
B) the workers are paid the correct amount of wages under proper authorization.
C) the workers are working regularly.
D) none of the above.
9) One of the audit procedures to check the issue of share capital of the newly formed company is
__________.
A) the memorandum of association and articles of association.
B) the share transfer register.
C) the issue of debenture.
10) Capital reserves are created out of profits of __________.
A) a revenue nature. B) a capital nature.
C) a secret reserve. D) contingency reserve.
19
Auditing MCQS
SET-4
1) A good audit report must at least meet one of the following qualifications __________.
A) it should offer constructive and timely suggestions to the management.
B) it should not point out mistakes.
C) it should not be based on factual information.
D) it should not be based on balance sheet.
2) The work of one clerk is automatically check by another clerk is called _________.
A) Internal control. B) Internal check. C) Internal audit. D) None of the above.
3) The owners of the company are called __________.
A) Debenture holders. B) Debtors. C) Shareholders. D) None of the above.
4) Verification is __________.
A) the art of recording the business transaction.
B) an examination of the books of accounts.
C) the act of establishing the accuracy of entries in the books of accounts.
5) The main objects of investigation is _________.
A) to discover errors and frauds. B) to prevent errors and frauds.
C) to verify statements. D) all the above.
6) Internal controls and internal check are ____________.
A) one and the same.
B) different.
C) internal control includes internal check.
D) None of the above.
7) An auditor is like a ______.
A) Watchman. B) foolish dog. C) mad dog. D) watch dog.
8) Special audit is necessary for _________.

A) inefficient concern.
B) processing concern.
C) trading concern.
D) manufacturing concern.
9) The company's auditor is expected to give _____________.
A) his expert opinion about the accounts.
B) a factual position about the accounts.
C) a critical review of the accounts.
D) financial assistance.
10) Auditors of a joint stock company are appointed by ______________.
A) directors of the company.
B) annual general meeting.
C) election at the annual general meeting.
D) debenture holders.
20
Auditing MCQS
SET-5
1) A company auditor can be removed by _________________.
A) board of directors. B) managing director. C) any director. D) general meeting.
2) A vacancy caused by resignation of an auditor is filled by _________.
A) board of directors. B) managing director. C) general meeting. D) central government.
3) Audit in depth means __________.
A) audit of each and every item. B) intensive audit of each and every item.
C) intensive audit of a few items. D) audit of a few selected items.
4) Concurrent audit is a part of ______________.
A) internal check system. B) continuous audit. C) internal audit system D) final audit.
5) Audit in depth is synonymous for ____________.
A) complete audit. B) completed audit. C) final audit. D) detailed audit.
6) Balance sheet audit included verification of ________.
A) assets.
B) liabilities.
C) income and expenditure accounts where appropriate.
D) all of the above.
7) Which of the following statements is not true about continuous audit?
A) It is conducted at regular interval.
B) It may be carried out on daily basis.
C) It is needed when the organisation has a good internal control system.
D) It is expensive.
8) Which of the following is not a fact of EPA?
A) Economic audit.
B) Efficiency audit.
C) Expenditure audit.
D) Effectiveness audit.
9) Balance sheet does not include ___________.
A) verification of assets and liabilities.
B) vouching of income and expense accounts related to assets and liabilities.
C) examination of adjusting and closing entries.
D) routine checks.
10) When issuing unqualified opinion the auditor who evaluated the audit findings should be
satisfied that the ______________.
A) amount of known misstatement is documented in working papers.
B) estimates of the total likely misstatement is less than materiality level.
C) estimated of the total likely misstatement is more than materiality level.
D) estimates of the total likely misstatement cannot be made.
21
Auditing MCQS
SET-6
1) In determining the level of materiality for an audit what should not be considered?
A) Prior years errors. B) The auditor remuneration.
C) Adjusted interim financial statement. D) Prior year financial statements.
2) Analytical procedures issued in the planning stage of an audit, generally ___________.
A) helps to determine the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures.
B) directs attention to potential risk areas.
C) indicate important aspects of business.
D) all of the above.
3) Of the following, which is the least persuasive type of audit evidence?
A) Bank statements obtained from the client.
B) Documents obtained by auditor from third parties directly.
C) Carbon copies of sales invoices inspected by the auditor.
D) Computations made by the auditor.
4) Computations made by the auditor.
A) the auditor. B) the client.
C) the audit assistants. D) the auditor and his audit assistants.
5) The working papers which auditor prepares for financial statements audit are _______ .
A) evidence for audit conclusions. B) owned by the client.
C) owned by the auditor. D) retained in auditor office until a change in auditors.
6) Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of audit programmed preparation?
A) To detect errors or fraud. B) To comply with GAAP.
C) To gather sufficient appropriate evidence. D) To assess audit risk.
7) Which of the following is not an advantage of the preparation of working paper?

A) To provide a basis for review of audit work.
B) To provide a basis for subsequent audits.
C) To ensure audit work is being carried out as per Programme.
D) To provide a guide for advising another client on similar issues.
8) The auditor permanent working paper file should not normally, include ________?
A) extracts from clients bank statements. B) past years financial statements.
C) attorney letters. D) debt agreements.
9) Who is responsible for the appointment of statutory auditor of a limited company?
A) Directors of the company. B) Members of the company.
C) The central government. D) The state government.
10) The authority to remove the first auditor before the expiry of term is with ___________.
A) the shareholders in a general meeting.
B) the shareholders in the first annual general meeting.
C) the board of directors.
D) the central government.
22
Auditing MCQS
SET-7
1) During audit of the financial statements, the auditors are concerned with the verification and
determination of which one of the following items?
A) Statements, accuracy, and feasibility B) Date, accuracy, and reliability
C) Policies, value, and reliability D) Cycle, policies, and reliability
2) The phrase (Scope of an Audit) refers to which one of the followings?
A) Engagement letters B) Audit procedures C) Audit evidence D) Reasonable assurance
3) The factors that affect reasonable assurance include all of the following EXCEP:
A) Use of testing (Sampling) B) Interest limitations of accounting and internal control
C) Remuneration of the auditor D) Persuasive nature of audit evidence
4) A well designed Internal Control Questionnaire (ICQ) should incorporate the following EXCEPT:
A) Be a sufficient source of data for the evaluation of internal controls
B) Identity the internal control system's strengths and weaknesses
C) Be organized by individual functional organizations
D) Should include simple yes or no responses but no narrative responses
5) Which one of the following is FALSE about Internal Control Evaluation Checklists (ICEC)?
A) ICEC is developed to overcome the shortcomings of Internal Control Questionnaire
B) The rules of constructing ICEC is different than construction of Internal Control Questionnaire
C) It is designed to determine, whether desirable internal controls are present
D) It is normally employed where system's information has already been recorded
6) An auditor's flow chart of an entity's information system is a diagrammatic representation. It
depicts what kind of information?
A) Program for tests of control
B) Understanding of the system
C) Understanding of the types of irregularity that are probable given by the present system
D) Documentation of the study and evaluation of the system
7) Which one of the following is NOT a factor included in the control environment of an entity?
A) Integrity and ethical values B) Risk assessment
C) Commitment to competence D) Organization structure
8) The audit which is a review of any part of an entity's operating procedures and methods is known as:
A) Financial statement audits B) Operational audits C) Technical Audits D) Compliance audits
9) Analytical procedures used in planning an audit should focus on identifying which one of the below.
A) Areas that may represent specific risks relevant to the audit
B) Material weaknesses in the internal control structure
C) The predictability of financial data form individual transactions
D) The various assertions that are embodied in the financial report
10) Which one of the following is an objective of the internal audit?
A) To report on financial statements
B) To check accounting system and internal control are operating efficiently
C) To determine the accuracy of financial statement values and disclosures
D) To establish a control system in the company
23
Auditing MCQS
SET-8
1) Which one of the following persons is responsible for the preparation of Audit engagement later?
A) Auditor B) Client C) Company registrar D) Company secretary
2) Who is responsible for designing and preparing the financial statements?
A) Auditor B) Management C) Accountant D) Company secretary
3) Which one of the following is the method of assessing the internal control system of an entity?
A) Audit procedures B) Audit evidence C) Compliance audit D) Technical analysis
4) The purpose of engagement letter includes the following EXCEPT:
A) To defines the auditor responsibilities clearly
B) To minimize misunderstandings between the client and auditors
C) To educate the client
D) To help the auditor in preparing audit report
5) A manufacturing company wants to hire external auditors who examine the activities operations
procedures and processes of each department of the company. The company follows the local and
international laws rules and regulations and also has set standards for the efficiency and
effectiveness. The company shall have to provide the access of all kind of operational information
that will be required to the auditors as audit evidences. Considering the above situation select the
most suitable type of audit which the company should opt?
A) Compliance audit B) Operational audit C) Technology audit D) Financial audit
6) Which one of the following is considered as the formal opinion or disclaimer thereof issued by an
independent auditor as a result of audit or evaluation performed on a legal entity?
A) Financial report B) Financial statement C) Director report D) Auditor's report
7) Which of the following statements is true?
A) The auditing profession is unregulated
B) The auditing profession is regulated only by its own professional body
C) Outside bodies sometimes become involved in the regulation of the audit profession
D) The auditing profession is regulated only by the government
8) Which one of the following primary assertions is satisfied when an auditor ensures that there are no
unrecorded assets liabilities transactions or events or undisclosed items in the client financial records?
A) Valuation B) Completeness C) Existence D) Rights and obligations
9) Internal control is primarily established within a company to do which of the following?
A) To prevent fraud in the company affairs
B) To provide reasonable assurance that the company's objectives will be achieved
C) To catch all errors that may occur in the company
D) To aid in the effective auditing of the company
10) Where the auditor relies more on the system of internal control the circumstance warrant:
A) He spends more time on audit
B) Effectiveness of the audit is affected
C) Efficiency of the audit is affected
D) Reliability of the results of the tests is affected
24
Auditing MCQS
SET-9
1) Stratification is a process of dividing a population into sub- populations which have
A) Heterogeneous characteristics B) Nothing in common
C) A lot of sampling units D) Homogeneous characteristics
2) Test of controls comprise of testing of all EXCEPT
A) Design B) Implementation
C) Operating efficiency D) Operating effectiveness
3) Analytical procedures are carried out for which one of the following purposes?
A) To reduce detection risk B) To assess inherent risk
C) To reduce control risk D) To determine detection risk
4) The auditors are required to perform tests of controls when
A) The internal controls are operating inefficiently
B) Substantive procedures alone provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence at the assertion level.
C) Substantive procedures alone do not provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence at the assertion
level.
D) Analytical procedures alone do not provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence at the assertion level.
5) Following descriptions are the examples of substantive testing EXCEPT:
A) Test of account balances to verify the correctness of the amounts
B) Verification that an operating system and/or applications are configured appropriately to the
companies needs
C) Review of minutes of directors; meetings and inquiry
D) Use of statistical sampling to determine the accuracy of financial statement figures
6) How often Inventory levels should be checked against the inventory records in order to keep its
control effectively?
A) Rarely B) Periodically C) Never D) Daily
7) What auditors seek in the register of non-current assets for each major group of assets?
A) Details of each item its cost and residual value
B) Details of each item its cost and accumulated depreciation
C) Details of each item its cost and depreciation
D) Details of each item its cost and capital investment expected returns
8) Which one of the following may not be any matter relevant to verification of assets?
A) Taxation B) Vouching C) Insurance D) The letter of representation
9) An Automobile Company hires auditors at the year end. Auditors are at the stage of verification
and vouching of company financials. Before examining the equity section, they develop general
aspects concerning the owner equity. In your opinion which one of the following aspects may NOT
be considered by the auditors during this assessment?
A) Share capital is properly classified and described in the accounts
B) Capital stock is enough to execute the company financial needs
C) Reserves are properly classified and presented
D) Movements in reserves are properly authorized
25
10) Noncurrent assets manufactured or constructed by the company itself should reflect which
types of costs in the costing records?
A) Direct costs plus relevant overhead but not include any profit
B) Direct costs plus relevant overhead and any profit earned on it
C) Indirect costs plus relevant overhead but not include any profit
D) Indirect costs plus relevant overhead and any profit earned on it
Auditing MCQS
SET-10
1) Which one of the following matters should be included in the letter of representation?
A) Existence of any immaterial mistake in the statements
B) Existence of any fraud or error in the statements
C) Company growth trend in the future in figures
D) Market value of the company stock
2) Who should prepare the annual capital expenditure budgets of the company in order to keep
effective?
A) Someone directly responsible to the shareholders
B) Someone directly responsible for goods delivery to the customers
C) Someone directly responsible to the board of directors
D) Someone directly responsible to deal with the suppliers
3) IFRS stands for which one of the following?
A) International Financial Reporting Standards
B) International Financial Recording Systems
C) International Financial Recording Statements
D) International Financial Reporting Systems
4) When an auditor increases the assessed level of control risk because certain control activities
were determined to be ineffective, which of the following would most likely be increased by the
auditor?
A) Extent of tests of controls
B) Level of detection risk
C) Extent of tests of details
D) Level of inherent risk
5) Which of the following is one of the most fundamental and effective internal controls?
A) Increased use of computers for recording accounting transactions
B) Increased reliance on internal auditors to monitor accounting systems
C) Segregation of incompatible duties across several people
D) Having internal auditors report only to the Board of Directors
6) Tracing selected shipments to the sales journal to be sure that each one is included is a test of
which of the following?
A) Accuracy
B) Classification
C) Completeness
D) Existence
26
7) Which one of the following is most likely to indicate fraud?

A) Several over payments are made for goods received from a supplier
B) The year end cash balance does not include cash in transit to the company at year-end
C) A check received after year end was inadvertently recorded as if received before year-end
D) A documented loan is sanctioned to an officer of the company
8) While testing the purchase system of an entity, which one of the following control tests may be
applied to the Credit Notes by the auditors?
A) Evidence of matching credit notes to goods returned notes
B) Evidence of approval of credit notes
C) Evidence of a sequence check
D) Proof of issuance date
9) During the audit work of testing the purchase system of an entity, which one of the following
control tests may be applied to the Payables Ledger by the auditors?
A) Evidence of authorization of adjustments to payables ledger
B) Evidence of review of reconciliation of purchase ledger listing
C) Evidence of authorization of adjustments to payable ledger control account
D) Evidence of authorization of adjustments to purchase ledger
10) Which one of the following possible misstatements related to payroll does not involve the audit
objective of Validity?
A) Payments to fictitious employees
B) Payments to terminated employees
C) Payments to valid employees who have not worked
D) Payments to valid employees at a rate in excess of the authorized amount
27

Audit MCQ

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AUDIT MCQs FOR SENIOR AUDITOR TEST

Part - 1 Introduction to Auditing

2) Which of the following is not true about opinion on financial statements?

Part – 2 Concept of Auditing

6) Which of the following is not a fact of EPA?

8) Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?

15) What are analytical procedures?

Part-3 Audit Evidence

Part-4 Preparation of Audit

C) a copy of financial statements

Part-5 Audit of Cash Transactions

7) In case of unclaimed wages, the auditor should examine whether

Part-6 Auditing to Companies

7) Which of the following is true about explanatory notes?

Part-7 Verification of Assets

Part-8 Internal Control

3) Which of the following is not an inherent limitation of internal control system?

8) Internal check is meant for ___________.

8) Special audit is necessary for _________.

7) Which of the following is not an advantage of the preparation of working paper?

7) Which one of the following is most likely to indicate fraud?

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