F5 101 Test Notes

F5.Testinside.101.v2014-11-08.by.Ernest.
234q
Number: 771-101
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 30.5
Exam Code:101
Exam Name:Application Delivery Fundamentals
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Exam A
QUESTION 1
To make complex access policies easier to manage, an administrator can create a containing several policy actions, and then add instances of it within
the policy. (Fill in)
A. Visual Policy Editor

B. Policy Editor
C. Visual Editor
D. something
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
To make complex access policies easier to manage, an administrator can create a containing several policy actions, and then add instances of it
within the policy. (Fill in)
A. Deployment Wizard'
B. Deployment Wizard
C. Deployment Wiza
D. something else
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
The Policy Builder benefits include
A. Doesn't require in depth web application knowledge

B. Only requires limited ASM knowledge
C. All of the above
D. Very low administrative impact
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Very low administrative impact
A. The attacks are requests a user should be allowed to make

B. The attacks always utilize obfuscation
C. The attacks are always encrypted
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
APM administrators can configure access policies granting users which two types of access?
A. CIFS access
B. Client/server access
C. Web application access
D. Proxy access
E. RDC access
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
APM provides access control lists at which two OSI layers,
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 7
D. Layer 6
E. Layer 2
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Correct Answer: 192.168.1.245

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
True or false? TMOS is an F5 software module that runs on the BIG-IP platform.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
TMOS is multi-module OS on Big-IP platform
QUESTION 9
Which four F5 products are on the TMOS platform?
A. ARX
B. GTM
C. WOM
D. APM
E. ASM
F. Firepass
Correct Answer: BCDE

Section: (none)
Explanation
ARX , Firepass is in other platforms
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is NOT a profile type on the BIG-IP?
A. Protocol
B. Application
C. Pessitence
D. Authentication
E. SSL
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
True or false? The BIG-IP determines the lowest connection speed between the client and the server and then uses that for both connections.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
True or false, Another name for the F5 OneConnect feature is TCP multiplexing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
LTM runs on......F5's proprietary product platform. (Fill in the correct answer)
A. ARX
B. Firepass
C. Acopia
D. TMOS
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Which programming language is the basis for F5 iRules?
A. Lisp
B. C++
C. Java
D. TCL
E. AWK
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
What are the two most common methods of placing a BIG-IP device into a network environment?
A. Channeled configuration
B. VLAN configuration
C. NAT configuration
D. SNAT configuration
E. Asymmetric configuration
F. Routed configuration
Correct Answer: DF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using SSL offload?
A. it increases the bandwidth between the client and LTM

B. It enables LTM to decrypt traffic, examine the payload, and then re-encrypt before sending it to a pool member
C. The organization requires far less SSL certificates
D. The CPU processing load on backend servers is reduced
E. It enables iRules to be used on traffic arriving to LTM that is encrypted
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
SSL offload:
It enables LTM to decrypt traffic, examine the payload, and then re-encrypt before sending it to a pool member
The organization requires far less SSL certificates
The CPU processing load on backend servers is reduced
It enables iRules to be used on traffic arriving to LTM that is encrypted
QUESTION 17
When using a routed configuration, the real server must point to the LTM as the.....
A. NTP Server
B. DNS Server
C. Virtual IP
D. WINS server
E. Default gateway
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
True or false? TCP Express is licensed separately from LTM
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
TCP Express is licensed including in LTM
QUESTION 19
True or false? LTM can only load balance outbound traffic by using iRules
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
Which two of these statements about OneConnect are true?
A. It decreases the CPU load on LTM

B. It aggregates multiple client connections into a single server connection
C. It decreases the amount of traffic between multiple clients and LTM
D. It requires SNAT to be configured
E. It decreases the CPU load on pool members
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 21
GTM solves which three of these standard DNS limitations?
A. It can verify that a host is available before resolving a host name for a client
B. It can use HTTPS for the connection between itself and the client
C. It can ensure that clients remain at the same data center for stateful applications
D. It can verify that a client does not have any viruses before sending the IP address
E. It has more complex load balancing methods
Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation
GTM solves three of these standard DNS limitations
It can verify that a host is available before resolving a host name for a client
It can ensure that clients remain at the same data center for stateful applications
It has more complex load balancing methods
QUESTION 22
True or false, Using IP Geolocation, an organization can always direct a client request from France to a data center in Dublin.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a benefit of using iRules?
A. They can be used as templates for creating new applications

B. They provide an automated way to create LTM objects
C. They can use Active Directory to authenticate and authorize users
D. They provide a secure connection between a client and LTM
E. They enable granular control of traffic
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
"They enable granular control of traffic" is the best choice!
QUESTION 24
Which three of these software modules can you layer on top of LTM on a BIG-IP device?
A. Web Accelerator
B. APM
C. ARX
D. GTM
E. Firepass
F. Enterprice Manager
Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation
these software modules can you layer on top of LTM on a BIG-IP device are AAM, APM and GTM
QUESTION 25
True or false, Customers can purchase LTM as a stand-alone product, or layer it with additional software modules to increase the functionality of the
BIG-IP device
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 26
Which two of the following options can LTM use when all of the pool members are not available or if the pool is overloaded?
A. Floating IPs
B. Fallback host
C. Auto last hop
D. SNAT automap
E. Pool offload
F. Priority group activation
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
loại 3 trường hợp đã chọn
1 là Auto last hop + SNAT automap
2 là Pool offload + Fallback host
3. Pool offload + Priority group activation
hy vọng sẽ là Pool offload + Auto last hop lần tới
A pool-member can have three different states:

- enable (all connections are allowed)
- disabled (only active and persistened connections are allowed)
- force offline (only active connections are allowed)
All these three states will keep the overall pool status as green, because at least active connections (e.g. long term session as FTP or SSH) are
allowed.
The status of a pool will only turn into red, if all pool-members are marked as down by its monitor.
http://support.f5.com/kb/en-us/products/big-ip_ltm/manuals/product/ltm_configuration_guide_10_0_0/ltm_pools.html
QUESTION 27
True or false? The least connections load balancing method functions best when all pool members share similar characteristics.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
The layer 3 security feature..... Cookies protects against SYN floods, DoS, and DDoS attacks. (Fill in)
Correct Answer: contain / include

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
A top-level DNS zone uses a CNAME record to point to a sub-zone. Which of the following is an example of a sub-zone?
A. www.F5.com/sub
B. www.F5.com
C. www.gslb.F5.com
D. .com
E. f5.com
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
A.........object maps a FQDN to virtual servers. (Fill in)
Correct Answer: Wide IP

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 31
Which three of the following must be done in order for GTM to properly communicate LTM?
A. Connect the GTM and LTM with a network crossover cable

B. Synchronize the big3d versions between GTM and LTM
C. Add the LTM object to the GTM configuration
D. Configure the GTM and LTM to we MAC masquerading
E. Ensure that GTM and LTM use the same floating IP address
F. Exchange SSL certificates between the two devices
Correct Answer: BCF

Section: (none)
Explanation
Integrating LTM systems with GTM systems on a network
Running the bigip_add utility
Determine the self IP addresses of the BIG-IP LTM systems that you want to communicate with BIG-IP GTM.
Run the bigip_add utility on BIG-IP GTM. This utility exchanges SSL certificates so that each system is authorized to communicate with the other.
When the LTM and GTM systems use the same version of the big3d agent, you run the bigip_add utility to authorize communications between the
systems.
http://support.f5.com/kb/en-us/products/big-ip_gtm/manuals/product/gtm-implementations-11-3-0/7.html
Note: The BIG-IP GTM and BIG-IP LTM systems must have TCP port 4353 open through the firewall between the systems. The BIG-IP systems
connect and communicate through this port.
QUESTION 32
True or false? DNSSEC is a GTM add-on licensing feature.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
DNSSEC is a GTM feature
QUESTION 33
GTM uses the F5.............protocol to synchronize performance metrics between GTM
devices. (Fill in)
Correct Answer: iQuery

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
Which four of the monitoring methods listed below can GTM use to determine the status and performance of BIG-IP and servers?
A. ping
B. Application monitors
C. Inband monitors
D. SSH
E. iQuery
F. SNMP
Correct Answer: ABEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
http://support.f5.com/kb/en-us/products/big-ip_gtm/manuals/product/gtm-concepts-11-3-0/1.html
Configuring GTM to determine packet gateway health and availability

sol13690: Troubleshooting BIG-IP GTM synchronization and iQuery connections (11.x)

http://support.f5.com/kb/en-us/solutions/public/13000/600/sol13690.html
QUESTION 35
What happens when the data center that GTM recommends for a client is
unavailable
A. GTM uses cached information to determine an alternate route

B. GTM queries the local DNS server
C. GTM sends subsequent queries to the next preferred data center
D. GTM directs the client to use its DNS cache to select an alternate location
E. The client continues to attempt to access the preferred data center
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
True or false? GTM can load balance to LTM in addition to non-BIG-IP hosts.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
Which of the following is NOT included on the F5 DevCentral site?
A. Subscription purchasing options

B. Actual iRules written by other customers
C. iRules reference materials
D. Forums
E. The F5 iRule editor
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Subscription purchasing options is in Partner Resource Center
QUESTION 38
If LTM uses the least connections load balancing method, which pool member in the following diagram receives the next request?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
Why does deploying LTM into an existing network immediately improve security?
A. Only requests for specific ports are allowed through LTM

B. All traffic through LTM is checked for DDoS attacks
C. No traffic A allowed through LTM until it has been specified
D. All users must authenticate before accessing applications through LTM
E. Only LAN administrators can access resources through LTM
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
You can use an HTTP class profile to forward traffic that matches which three of these types of criteria?
A. Port
B. HTTP header
C. URI path
D. User name
E. Protocol
F. Host name
Correct Answer: BCF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 41
When an optimized TCP connection exists between LTM and the pool member, LTM can accept server responses faster than the client. What is the
name of this feature?
A. HTTP caching
B. OneConnect
C. TCP connection queuing
D. Content spooling
E. Priority activation
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
True or false? As a full TCP proxy, LTM acts as the termination point for both requests from the client and responses from the server.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
True or false? FastCache will NOT work with compressed objects.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 44
Which of the following can be accomplished using iRules?
A. Track inbound and outbound traffic

B. Perform deep packet inspection
C. Inspect traffic and drop it
D. All of the above
E. Intercept traffic and redirect it
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
True or false? GTM uses Auto Discovery to add virtual servers from both LTM and non-BIG-IP load balancers.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
Which four of the following statements about LDNS probes are true?
A. Only GTM devices can act as a prober
B. They check each requesting LDNS that has made a request of the GTM
C. They can determine available cache size on the client
D. They are used to develop path metrics
E. They verify the link between a data center and an LDNS
F. Probing only takes place if GTM is configured to use dynamic load balancing
Correct Answer: BDEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
True or false? Similar to LTM monitors, GTM monitors use both an Interval and a Timeout value.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
True or false? Since F5 built GTM on the TMOS platform it can exist on the same BIGIP device as LTM
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
An administrator is adding GTM to the network infrastructure. Which of the following requirements would lead them to select an Authoritative Screening
architecture rather than Delegation?
A. They want GTM to examine all DNS queries

B. They want GTM to make load balancing decisions based on metrics
C. They have data centers in several countries
D. They are using several operating systems for the local DNS servers
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
True or false? Adding more RAM to a GTM device drastically improves query performance.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 51
Which of the following is a benefit of using iRules?
A. They provide a secure connection between a client and LTM

B. They enable granular control of traffic
C. They can be used as templates for creating new applications
D. They can use Active Directory to authenticate and authorize users
E. They provide an automated way to create LTM objects
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 52
Which of the following is NOT a profile type on the BIG-IP?
A. Authentication
B. Persistence
C. Application
D. Protocol
E. SSL
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 53
Which of the following are the three main business drivers for placing LTM into a network?
A. Secure the connection between WAN sites

B. Improve application availability and scalability
C. Authenticate and authorize users
D. Boost application performance
E. Include application security
F. Act as a Web application firewall
Correct Answer: BDE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 54
If a customer has an application that uses a customized protocol, what LTM feature can help optimize the traffic from the application?
A. iRules
B. Network virtual servers
C. HTTP classes
D. Packet filtering
E. Transparent virtual servers
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 55
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using SSL offload?
A. It enables iRules to be used on traffic arriving to LTM that is encrypted

B. The CPU processing led on backend servers is reduced
C. It enables LTM to decrypt traffic, examine the payload, and the re-encrypt before sending it to a pool member
D. The organization requires far less SSL certificates
E. It increases the bandwidth between the client and LTM
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 56
True or false, The least connections load balancing method functions best when all pool members share similar charac-teristics.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 57
An LTM object represents a downstream server that hosts a secure Web site and contains the IP address and port combination 192.168.9.250:443.
What is this object?
A. Self IP
B. Virtual Server
C. Pool
D. Node
E. Pool Member
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 58
True or false? Adding more RAM to a GTM device drastically improves query performance.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 59
Which of the following are four of the security benefits of TMOS?
A. it verifies traffic based on antivirus signatures

B. It provides protection against DDoS
C. It uses SYN cookies and dynamic connection reapers
D. It supplies guidance for poorly developed applications
E. It denies all traffic that hasn't been defined
F. It can hide confidential information from outbound traffic
Correct Answer: BCEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 60
True or false? The BIG-IP determines the lowest connection speed between the client and the server and then uses that for both connections.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 61
True or false? The LTM "Manager" authentication role can create iRules.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 62
Which two of these statements about OneConnect are true?
A. It decreases the CPU load on LTM

B. It aggregates multiple client connections into a single server connection
C. It requires SNAT to be configured
D. It decreases the amount of traffic between multiple clients and LTM
E. It decreases the CPU load on pool members
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 63
Which of the following statements about cookie persistence is NOT true?
A. The cookie's timeout value can be customized

B. They are F5's preferred persistence method
C. No persistence information is placed on LTM
D. Web servers must be configured to send cookies to clients
E. They do not add a performance impact on LTM
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 64
When using a routed configuration, the real server must point to the LTM as the.........
A. Default gateway
B. Virtual IP
C. DNS server
D. NTP server
E. WINS server
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 65
An LTM object that represents a downstream server contains the IP address 192.168.9.250 and no port. What is this object?
A. Pool member
B. Virtual server
C. Pool
D. Self IP
E. Node
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 66
Which three of the metrics listed below can GTM use when making load balancing decisions for a client?
A. TCP payload
B. IP geolocation
C. Hop count
D. Round trip time
E. Browser user agent
Correct Answer: BCD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 67
True or false, In order to improve GTM performance, administrators should use multiple complex monitors to ensure resources are functioning properly
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 68
Which three of the following are unique differentiators for F5 in the marketplace?
A. VLANs
B. Load-balancing pools
C. Secure remote access
D. TMOS
E. OneConnect
F. iRules
Correct Answer: DEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 69
Which three of these file types work well with HTTP compression?
A. MP4 videos
B. Digital photos
C. Text files
D. Static HTML Web pages
E. CD quality songs
F. Microsoft Word documents
Correct Answer: CDF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 70
Match each persistence method with the correct statement describing it:
A. Cookie persistence
B. Source address persistence
C. SSL persistence
D. Universal persistence
Build List and Reorder:
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 71
Which two of the following LTM load balancing methods require the least amount of resources?
A. Round robin
B. Ratio
C. Observed
D. Fastest
E. Predictive
F. Least connections
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 72
True or false? When using a redundant pair of LTMs, it is most advantageous to use them in an Active/Active scenario because this provides additional
load balancing capabilities.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 73
Which three of these software modules can you layer on top of LTM on a BIG-IP device?
A. Enterprise Manage
B. ARX
C. APM
D. FirePass
E. Web Accelerator
F. GTM
Correct Answer: CEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 74
An LTM object contains both IP address and port combinations 20.18.9.250:80 and 20.18.9.251:80 and host the same Web application. What is this
object?
A. Pool
B. Self-IP
C. Node
D. Pool member
E. Virtual Server
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 75
Which of the following are four of the benefits of the TMOS architecture?
A. User authentication
B. Server-side optimization
C. Dynamic DDoS protection
D. Web application security
E. Client-side optimization
F. Antivirus checking
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 76
True or false? In order to further accelerate applications, the external router can direct subsequent client traffic to bypass LTM and communicate directly
with the server.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 77
LTM runs on........F5's proprietary product platform. (Fill in the correct answer)
Correct Answer: TMOS

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 78
True or False? When using only LTM in redundant pairs, a customer can load balance to multiple data center
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 79
True or false? Application templates save the time it typically takes to create nodes, pools, pool members, virtual servers, and monitors.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 80
Which of the following TMOS feature enables BIG-IP to scale performance based to the available CPU cores?
A. Clustered multi-processing
B. OneConnect
C. HTTP class
D. Session persistence
E. Auto Last Hop
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 81
In a routed configuration, what does LTM do with the packet before sending it to the pool member?
A. Change the source IP and the destination IP address

B. Leave it unchanged and forward it
C. Change the source IP address
D. Change the destination IP address
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 82
True or false? When using only LTM in redundant pairs, a customer can load balance to multiple data centers.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 83
True or false? Similar to LTM monitors, GTM monitors use both an Interval and a Timeout value.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 84
True or false? If the BIG-IP device is NOT always located between the client and the server, it will NOT provide full optimization and security.
A. True
B. False
C.
D.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 85
True or false? TCP Express enables LTM to use different TCP settings for the connection between the client and LTM, and the connection between
LTM and the pool member.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 86
Where do you configure GTM client persistence?
Case Study Title (Case Study):
A. On a DNS listener object

B. On a wide IP object
C. Within a load balancing method
D. On a DNS pool object
E. On a virtual server object
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 87
Administrators can configure which three of the following load balancing options in GTM?
A. Alternate
B. Fallback
C. Required
D. Preferred
E. Backup
F. Optional
Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 88
Over the years, F5 has led the industry in which of the four following areas?
A. Security
B. Acceleration
C. Application availability
D. Application scalability
E. Application design
F. Remote access
Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 89
Which of the following is NOT a method that TMOS uses to improve the performance of applications?
A. Caching HTTP data
B. Optimizing the TCP connection between the client and the BIG-IP device
C. Offloading SSL decryption from downstream servers
D. Discarding unnecessary data from server responses before sending to the client
E. Compressing HTTP data
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 90
True or false? The drawback to having BIG-IP act as a full application proxy is the decrease in application performance.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 91
Which of the following are the three main business drivers for placing LTM into a network?
A. Secure the connection between WAN sites

B. Authenticate and authorize users
C. Act as a Web application firewall
D. Include application security
E. Boost application performance
F. Improve application availability and scalability
Correct Answer: DEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 92
What are the two most common methods of placing a BIG-IP device into a network environment?
A. VLAN configuration
B. Asymmetric configuration
C. SNAT configuration
D. Routed configuration
E. NAT configuration
F. Channeled configuration
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 93
The Policy Builder benefits include:
A. Doesn't require in depth web application knowledge

B. Only requires limited ASM knowledge
C. All of the above
D. Very low administrative impact
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 94
CSRF is difficult to detect because:
A. The attacks are requests a user should be allowed to make

B. The attacks always utilize obfuscation
C. The attacks are always encrypted
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 95
True or False? Information leakage is a major obstacle to achieving PCI DSS compliance.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 96
Requests that do not meet the ASM security policies can:
A. Generate learning suggestions

B. Be blocked
C. All of the above
D. Be logged
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 97
What is NOT a benefit of using a SNAT?
A. ASM can be deployed easily
B. No changes are needed on the servers
C. Fail open is easy to add
D. Higher performance than other configuration
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 98
ASM's Web Scraping protection:
A. Is simple to configure
B. Cannot accommodate good scrapers
C. Will protect the site by blocking all requests
D. Is difficult to configure
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 99
True or False, The PCI compliance report is proof that a company is secure.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 100
True or False? ASM offers the most extensive, effective, and simplest to configure CSRF protection in the WAF market.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 101
The APM Dashboard enables administrators to monitor which two of these metrics?
A. Number of active sessions

B. Number of new sessions
C. Number of denied users
D. Number of users from each country
Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 102
True or false? Although APM can interoperate with LTM, it is unable to use iRules for advanced processing.
A. True
B. false
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 103
APM provides access control lists at which two 051 layers
A. Layer 6
B. Layer 5
C. Layer 7
D. Layer 4
E. Layer 3
F. Layer 2
Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 104
Which of the following statements about Web server offload is NOT true?
A. It performs rate shaping to reduce overflow

B. It forces the client browser to use multiple connections streams
C. It uses OneConnect to reduce multiple TCP connections
D. It utilizes cached content to prevent unnecessary trips for the same content
E. It uses specialized hardware for SSL offload
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 105
A network administrator tells you that they do NOT need WebAccelerator because their Web application is fine. What is your best response?
A. Challenge them to run performance testing on their Web site

B. Access their Web site with them to display its response
C. Request a follow up meeting within the next three months
D. Ask for an opportunity to speak with the CIO or a member of their Web application team
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 106
True or false? When sizing a WebAccelerator deployment, you should base the WA capacity on the LTM capacity.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 107
Which three of the following are benefits of adding WebAccelerator to the network infrastructure?
A. It adds a layer , security to a Web site

B. It speeds up a secure Web site
C. It reduces the need to purchase additional bandwidth
D. It analyzes Web content, and caches and compresses it accordingly
E. It improves the performance , large object file transfers
Correct Answer: BCD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 108
True or False? IP Enforcer blocks IP addresses that have repeatedly and regularly attacked the site.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 109
True or false? One reason APM beats the competition is its ability to perform both user authentication and authorization on a single device.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 110
Which three of these scenarios should you identify as being an APM opportunity?
A. An organization using Novell Netware for authentication

B. An organization that has been recently fined for failing security compliance
C. An organization with a traveling sales force
D. An organization with a single location and no remote employees
E. An organization that needs to ensure users are using Symantec antivirus software
F. An organization sharing a public Web site for all Internet users
Correct Answer: BCE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 111
When an administrator creates a new access policy in the Visual Policy Editor, which three options are included by default?
A. A fallback option
B. An Allow Ad box
C. A Deny End box
D. An empty Resource Assign item
E. A Start box
F. A Block All option
Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 112
Poor Web application performance contributes to which four of these issues for businesses?
A. A Web site that goes unused

B. Increased support calls
C. Loss of users
D. Loss of revenue
E. DDoS attacks
F. Identity theft
Correct Answer: ABCD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 113
True or false? Organizations rnoving towards a cloud solution are good candidates for F5 WOM solutions.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 114
True or false? Using WOM for vMotion transfers across the WAN prevents VMware users from experiencing interruptions.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 115
True or false, The administrator must specify APM access control entries as either L4 or L7.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 116
True or false? Administrators can customize APM to resemble other internal Web applications in the organization.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 117
Which of the following is a client-side action in the Visual Policy Editor that prevents external access and deletes any files created during a secure
access session?
A. Windows Group Policy

B. Resource Assign
C. Protected Workspace
D. Virtual Keyboard
E. Browser Cache and Session Control
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 118
True or false? The main drawback to using an APM Deployment Wizard is that it is not possible to edit the resulting objects, including the access policy.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 119
True or false? Mobile device browsers typically display Web pages more slowly than PC browsers.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 120
Which two of the following factors are often responsible for poor Web application performance?
A. The time it takes to generate an HTTP request

B. The time it takes to deliver the HTTP response over the network
C. The time it takes to display the HTTP response in the browser
D. The time it takes to generate the HTTP response
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 121
WebAccelerator uses three tiers to improve performance. What are the three tiers?
A. Bandwidth offload
B. Client offload
C. Application offload
D. Protocol offload
E. Web server offload
F. Network offload
Correct Answer: CEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 122
ASM can detect Layer 7 DoS attacks by which four ways of monitoring:
A. Monitoring for a threshold of increased number of transactions per second per URL
B. Monitoring for a % change in transactions per second per URL
C. Monitoring for a % change in server latency or TPS
D. Monitoring for a threshold of increased server latency or TPS
E. Monitoring ASM policy builder performance
F. Monitoring BIG-IP CPU utilization
G. Deep Packet inspection
Correct Answer: ABCD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 123
Application trends and drivers that increase the need for application security are
A. Intelligent Browsers
B. Webification
C. Targeted attacks
D. All the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 124
The Rapid Deployment Policy is used to:
A. Improve web site performance

B. Quickly protect web sites for most common attacks
C. Improve ASM performance
D. Provide wizard functionality for quick policy creation
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 125
ASM combined with LTM provides protection against:
A. Layer 7 DoS attacks

B. All of the above
C. Layer 4 DoS attacks
D. DDoS attacks
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 126
True or false? When using a single BIG-IP with APM, an organization can support up to 60,000 concurrent remote access users.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 127
True or false? An F5 customer must install WebAccelerator on top of LTM
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 128
True or false? The Protected Workspace client-side action provides more client-side security than the Cache and Session Control action.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 129
WebAccelerator uses three tiers to improve performance. What are the three tiers?
A. Web server offload

B. Network offload
C. Client offload
D. Protocol offload
E. Application offload
F. Bandwidth offload
Correct Answer: ABE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 130
Which WOM feature replaces a long byte pattern, such as "100000111000110101", with a shorter reference to the pattern?
A. Symmetric adaptive compression
B. Symmetric data deduplication
C. Bandwidth allocation
D. Application protocol acceleration
E. TCP optimization
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 131
In order to ensure that a specific file type is never moved down to a secondary file tier, the administrator should:
A. set up an automated bot that accesses that file once a week

B. This is not possible on the ARX
C. set a policy that the file type remains on primary storage
D. Instruct the end users to put the file in a non-tiered directory
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 132
How does the ARX eliminate the disruption caused by re-provisioning storage?
A. By identifying data that has not been modified and moving it to a secondary tier
B. By reducing the time necessary to run a complete backup
C. By allowing system administrators to apply policy to specific types , data
D. By automating capacity balancing and allowing seamless introduction of file systems into the environment after the ARX is installed.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 133
Which of the following statements is true about ARX's capacity balancing ability?
A. When new files are created, the ARX can determine in real time where to place each file based on the available space on each storage device
B. When configuring the ARX, customers can choose to implement either an age-based policy or a capacity-based policy, but are not able to run both
policies at the same time
C. All files created at approximately the same time (within 10 minutes) will be stored on the same tier of storage to minimize latency and improve the
user experience
D. The ARX balances capacity within tiers A storage, but cannot balance capacity across tiers of storage
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 134
True or false? The Device Inventory option in Enterprise Manager can replace an organization's static Excel spreadsheet containing similar data.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 135
Which of the following statements best describes the ARX architecture?
A. The ARX's split path architecture has a data path that handles the most common operations, and a control path that handles other operations
requiring deeper inspection and updating of the index
B. The ARX's architecture has redundancy built in, allowing a single ARX to be deployed in most use cases which provides a huge cost savings to
customers
C. All of the above
D. it is a software agent that installs on the storage device
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 136
True or false? The ARX is like a mini network manager. It is able to check the health of the environment and can raise alerts when thresholds are
reached.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 137
Which two of the following are costs businesses may face in dealing with unstructured data?
A. Lost productivity due to server downtime

B. Buying backup media
C. Buying additional storage capacity
D. Paying to convert unstructured data into structured data
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 138
Place the following items in the order that the BIG-IP device uses when processing a packet.
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
cái này cũng chưa có câu trả lời cuối, đã có 3 lựa chọn sai
QUESTION 139
In the current version of BIG-IP, what happens if the GTM does not find a wide IP that matches the DNS request?
A. It sends a broadcast request to all GTM devices

B. It uses iQuery to request the information from LTM
C. It sends a request to its configured backup GTM device
D. It sends an un-resolvable error to the client
E. It sends the request to an external DNS
Correct Answer: E
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 140
True or false? Using IP Geolocation, an organization can always direct a client request from France to a data center in Dublin.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 141
True or false? In most cases, F5 recommends using round robin load balancing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
using round robin load balancing is recommended when Server is not so strong and using easy Web Application!
QUESTION 142
Which three of the following statements describe a data center object?
A. It attempts to match a DNS request with a configured wide IP

B. It is attached to multiple Internet links
C. It becomes available for use when an assigned server is up
D. It retains statistics for each data center
E. It is a logical representation of a physical location
F. It specifies how users access the Internet
Correct Answer: BC
Section: (none)
Explanation
co 3 trường hợp sai rồi:
A+B+C
A+C+E
C+D+E
QUESTION 143
Which four of the following items are physical objects used by GTM?
A. Virtual servers
B. Links
C. Servers
D. Wide IPs
E. Data centers
F. Pools
Correct Answer: ABCE

Section: (none)
Explanation
These components include:
Data centers, Servers, Links, Virtual servers
http://support.f5.com/kb/en-us/products/big-ip_gtm/manuals/product/gtm_config_10_2/gtm_components_overview.html
được dump là câu hỏi 76, đã có 3 lựa chọn sai:

Links + Wide IPs + Data centers + Pools
Links + Wide IPs + Data centers + Virtual servers
Links + Servers + Virtual servers + Pools
the physical network, such as data centers, servers, and links, and the components that comprise the logical network, such as wide IPs, pools, and
global settings. Most of the configuration components you build using the Configuration utility are saved to the wideip.conf file.
Logical objects/components include: Listeners - Pools - Wide IPs - Distributed applications
QUESTION 144
Which three are GTM server dynamic load balancing modes:
A. Packet Rate
B. Virtual Server Score
C. CPU
D. Fallback IP
E. Ratio
Correct Answer: ABC
Section: (none)
Explanation
The Global Traffic Manager supports the following dynamic load balancing modes:
Completion Rate
CPU
Hops
Kilobytes/Second
Least Connections
Packet Rate
Quality of Service (QoS)
Round Trip Times (RTT)
Virtual Server Score
VS Capacity
QUESTION 145
Which four are GTM server static load balancing modes?
A. Return to DNS
B. CPU
C. Packet Rate
D. Drop Packet
E. Round Robin
F. Static Persist
Correct Answer: ADEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
Global Traffic Manager supports the following static load balancing modes:
Drop Packet
Fallback IP
Global Availability
None
Ratio
Return to DNS
Round Robin
Static Persist
Topology
QUESTION 146
True or False. The F5 Application Delivery Firewall has the ability to outperform traditional and next generation firewalls during DDoS attacks by
leveraging the performance and scalability of BIG-IP to handle extremely high loads, including high throughput, high connection count, and high number
of connections per second.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Exam B
QUESTION 1
True or false? Another name for the F5 OneConnect feature is TCP multiplexing
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 2
True or false? TMOS is an F5 software module that runs on the BIG-IP platform.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
What is the main cause of high latency in a Web application?
A. The version , the client's browser

B. The distance between the client and Web server
C. The number of CPUs on the Web server
D. The size of the objects on the page
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 4
Match these terms with their description.
A. Disaster recovery SLA
B. Recovery point objective
C. Recovery time objective
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 5
True or False? Network Security personnel are entirely responsible for web application security.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 6
ASM Geolocation reporting provides information regarding:
A. The number of attacks from a specific state
B. The types of attacks from a city
C. All of the above
D. The countries from which the attacks originated
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 7
Which three of the following are benefits of adding WebAccelerator to the network infrastructure?
A. It speeds up a secure Web site

B. It reduces the need to purchase additional bandwidth
C. It analyzes Web content, and caches and compresses it accordingly
D. It adds a layer of security to a Web site
E. It improves the performance of large object file transfers
Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 8
What is NOT a benefit of using a SNAT?
A. ASM can be deployed easily

B. No changes are needed on the servers
C. Higher performance than other configurations
D. Fail open is easy to add
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 9
An inline ASM configuration requires:
A. Two network connections

B. None of the above
C. Two disk drives
D. Two power supplies
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 10
Which three of these are the potential ending options for branches in the Visual Policy Editor?
A. Reject
B. Fallback
C. Allow
D. Deny
E. Limit
F. Redirect
Correct Answer: CDF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 11
True or false? The Protected Workspace client-side action provides more client-side security than the Cache and Session Control action.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is NOT a logging option within an APM access control entry?
A. Packet
B. Verbose
C. Nominal
D. Summary
E. None
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 13
True or false? Administrators can specify an APM access profile when defining a virtual server in LTM.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 14
Using Fast Cache with ASM will:
A. Improve user experience

B. Improve server performance
C. All of the above
D. Improve BIG-IP ASM performance
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 15
ASM provides antivirus protection by:
A. Extracting files being uploaded and sending them to an AV system via ICAP
B. Running a local antivirus program on the BIG-IP
C. None of the above
D. Using IP Penalty enforcement to block requests from hackers IPs
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
Supported ICAP Servers in TMOS 11.5:
QUESTION 16
APM can verify which four of the following details before granting a user access to a resource?
A. The user's Web brower

B. The user's computer
C. User's hard drive encryption software
D. Groups the user is a member of
E. The network speed
F. The user's username
Correct Answer: ABDF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 17
Which four of these benefits does APM provide?
A. Enables remote access by several thousand simultaneous users

B. Basic Web application firewall capabilities
C. User authentication based on identity
D. Acceleration of Web content to the client
E. Granular authorization to resources
F. Client workstation security checking
Correct Answer: ACEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 18
Which four of these statements regarding object size and WebAccelerator performance are true?
A. Large objects such as video cache well

B. Large objects allow fewer requests per second
C. Large objects result in higher throughput
D. Small objects result in higher throughput
E. Small objects such as images cache well
F. Small objects allow more requests per second
Correct Answer: BCEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 19
Which four of these scenarios will benefit from F5's WAN Optimization Module?
A. An international organization with data centers in different countries

B. An organization that does not want to rely on using tape backup
C. An organization with one site but hundreds of Web servers
D. An organization whose users create extremely large files
E. An organization that expects their Web site usage to double in the next year
F. An organization attempting to lower costs by reducing the number of data centers
Correct Answer: ABDF

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 20
An administrator is planning on solving latency issues by placing the backup data center in a neighboring city to the primary data center. Why isn't this
an effective solution?
A. It does not provide an acceptable disaster recovery solution
B. It won't improve latency between the data centers
C. It won't improve the backup time from the primary data center to the backup data center
D. Users near the data centers will find their connections going back and forth between the two site
E. It costs more to have the data centers close together than further apart
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
It does not provide an acceptable disaster recovery solution, it is so close
QUESTION 21
Which is NOT an ASM protection method for cross site scripting:
A. Signatures
B. URl chacactsr set limiting
C. Token injection
D. Parameter character set limiting
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 22
Which item is NOT a function of a properly deployed and configured ASM?
A. Detects attacks
B. Stops hackers from attacking
C. Provides protection visibility
D. Provides security agility
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 23
Which is NOT a function of ASM:
A. Attack signature enforcement

B. HTTP protocol enforcement
C. Network security
D. Parameter value enforcement
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 24
True or False? WOM speeds up large file data transfer across the WAN between a Windows client and a Windows file Server.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 25
Which item is NOT a function of ASM?
A. Provides authentication and authorization services

B. Logs and reports full HTTP messages
C. Provides comprehensive Web application security
D. Provides application level performance information
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 26
Learning suggestions can be the result of:
A. A false positive
B. A malicious attack
C. A change in the web site content
D. All the above
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 27
True or False? Identifying users by their IP address is a sufficient method of performing authentication and authorization.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 28
True or false? A user's access to resources can change based on the computer they connect from.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 29
True or false? Replicating a large database between sites could take several hours without WOM, and only several minutes with WOM.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 30
Brute force protection will:
A. Block a user after a specified number , unsuccessful login attempts

B. Block a user after a specified number of page requests are attempted
C. None of the above
D. Block a user from downloading too much content from the site
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 31
What technology does ARX use to create a logical abstraction of the physical storage environment?
A. Data de-duplication
B. File virtualization
C. Server virtualization
D. SSL encryption
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 32
Using file virtualization, what can the ARX do for customers?
A. Match data to the most appropriate tier of storage (e.g. critical data on tier 1 storage; older data on secondary storage tier)
B. All of the above
C. Move individual files or entire file systems in real-time without disruption of down-time
D. Automate many storage management tasks such as storage tiering, dynamic capacity balancing, and non-disruptive data migration
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 33
A customer says his business wouldn't benefit from buying ARX because it already has block based storage virtualization in place. Is he right? Why or
why not?
A. Yes. Block based storage virtualization is just another name for file virtualization
B. No. ARX allows customers to implement storage tiering benefits, but block based storage virtualization does not
C. Yes. Block based storage virtualization offers the same functionality as ARX's file virtualization, although it uses slightly different technology.
D. No. Both technologies attempt to solve similar problems, but only the ARX allows the customer to have visibility into their data and apply business
policy at the file level. Block based virtualization has no visibility into the type of data.
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 34
Which of the following statements is true about ARX's capacity balancing ability?
A. When new files are created, the ARX can determine in real time where to place each file based on the available space on each storage device
B. When configuring the ARX, customers can choose to implement either an age-based policy or a capacity-based policy, but are not able to run both
policies at the same time
C. All files created a approximately the same time (within 10 minutes) will be stored on the same tier of storage to minimize latency and improve the
user experience
D. The ARX balances capacity within tiers of storage, but cannot balance capacity across tiers of storage
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 35
Select F5 platforms have which three certifications?
A. FIPS
B. SECG
C. NEBS
D. IEEE
E. Common Criteria
F. AFSSI
Correct Answer: ACE

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 36
Which three of the following are some of the methods that F5 uses with its environmental stress screening chamber?
A. Varying the voltage from extreme high to extreme low
B. Running a product 300 to 500 times on each cycle
C. Repairing failed components until they function properly
D. Alternate temperature from -5 degrees Celsius to 60 degrees Celsius
E. Ensuring continual functioning through fire or flooding conditions
Correct Answer: ABD

Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 37
The ARX can see ..... when a data modification takes place and will cue that file to be migrated back to the primary tier.
A. In real time
B. Nightly
C. Weekly
D. At the time of a system scan
E. When scheduled by administrator
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 38
Match the five elements of the intelligent file virtualization with the appropriate ARX feature.
A. Real Time
B. Non-Disruptive
C. Heterogeneous
D. Data Integrity
E. Scale and Performance
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 39
ARX can classify data based on all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Paths
B. File Size
C. Extensions
D. Security Level
E. File Name
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 40
For a typical business, what percentage of data does the ARX usually move to a secondary tier?
A. 20-30%
B. 50-60%
C. 80-90%
D. 0-10%
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 41
It is common for free storage space to exist somewhere in a business network that is not easy for storage administrators to utilize. What solution can
the ARX provide in this situation?
A. The ARX identifies the exact location of the free storage, which allows network administrators to target those locations when provisioning additional
storage
B. The ARX extends the capacity of each server by 10-15, through intelligent file virtualization
C. The ARX uses the extra storage for transaction logs and index files
D. The ARX allows the customer to pool storage from anywhere within the enterprise and capacity balance the overflow across devices
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 42
Which of the following does NOT describe network performance management?
A. Updating software on various devices

B. Seeing graphs in near real-time
C. Visibility into multiple network devices
D. Being alerted to an issue as it happens
E. Viewing virtual server statistics
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 43
What is the main business driver for bringing Enterprise Manager into the network infrastructure?
A. Consolidate management of administrator and user accounts

B. Consolidate management of licenses
C. Consolidate management of SSL certificates
D. Consolidate management of BIG-IP devices
E. Consolidate management of access policies
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 44
True or false? To function properly, an Enterprise Manager device is required within each data center.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 45
Which two F5 platforms include specialized compression hardware?
A. 4200
B. 3900
C. 1600
D. 11050
E. 6900
F. 8900
Correct Answer: EF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 46
ARX will detect any modification to a file on the second tier because all clients are being ...... by the ARX to get to the storage.
A. Moved
B. Copied
C. Proxied
D. Backed up
E. Deleted
Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 47
In the next few years, 75% of new storage capacity will shift to unstructured data (also known as file data). Which two of the following are examples of
unstructured data?
A. CAD drawings
B. Location data in a GIS (geographic information system)
C. Customer records and product records in a CRM (customer relationship management) database
D. Microsoft Office and PDF documents
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 48
True or false? The ARX saves customers time, money and frustration through a stub-based system that makes a slight modification to each file in order
to more efficiently sort and store end user data.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 49
Which two of the following statements are accurate descriptions of the ARX index?
A. The ARX index stores the bulk of its data as bit arrays and answers most questions by performing bitwise logical operations on these bitmaps
B. The ARX index contains the index keys in sorted order, with the leaf level of the index containing the pointer to the page and the row number in the
data page
C. The ARX index is the key enabler of transparent data mobility because the ARX tracks where files reside at all times, from creation through
migration and deletion
D. The ARX index is 100% disposable and can be rebuilt at any point in time without disrupting client or application access to data
Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 50
ARX will detect any modification to a file on the second tier because all clients are being .......... by the ARX to get to the storage.
A. Deleted
B. Copied
C. Backed up
D. Proxied
E. Moved
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 51
True or false? To share device information with F5 technical support, a customer must either verbally share the information over the phone or copy and
send the information in an Email.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 52
True or false? When installing LTM on different VIPRION performance blades, each instance of LTM needs to be licensed separately.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 53
The VIPRION provides hot-pluggable capabilities for which four of these types of hardware?
A. LCD displays
B. Fan trays
C. Memory
D. Power supplies
E. Performance blades
F. CompactFlash

Section: (none)
Explanation
The VIPRION provides hot-pluggable capabilities for Fan trays, Memory, Power supplies ,and Performance blades
QUESTION 54
A customer wants the best possible throughput but only has a maximum of 3RU rack space. Which F5 platform should you recommend?
A. BIG-IP 11050
B. VIPRION with only 1 performance blade
C. BIG-IP 8950
D. BIG-IP 8900
E. VIPRION with 4 performance blades
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 55
Which of the following business benefits does storage tiering offer to customers?
A. Reduces time for backups because data on the secondary tier can have a less time-intensive backup policed applied to it
B. All of the above
C. Enables customers to apply a more aggressive RTO/RPO for business critical Tier-1 unstructured data
D. Reduces money spent on storage since the majority of data can be moved to less expensive secondary tier storage
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 56
An age-based policy is set up on the ARX that retains only data modified in the Iast 3 months on tier 1 storage and moves the rest of the data to
secondary storage. What happens when the end user tries to access data that has not been touched in 6 months?
A. The end user is unaware that the data has been moved to secondary tier storage and is able to access the data without difficulty
B. The networking mapping window appears, allowing the end user to re-establish direct access to the data even though it has been moved to
secondary storage
C. An error message appears saying "File is no longer unavailable."
D. A message appears explaining that the file has been archived, and a link to the new secondary storage tier location is provided
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 57
True or False? Although not all modules run on all platforms, each F5 hardware platform can run LTM plus at least one additional software module.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 58
True or false? The production version of BIG-IP Virtual Edition is limited to 200 Mbps throughput.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
The production version of BIG-IP Virtual Edition can be at 25Mbps / 200Mbps / 1Gbps / or 5Gbps throughput served and maybe higher in the next
versions
QUESTION 59
What percentage of storage in a typical environment is actively used and modified?
A. 5%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 10%
E. 90%
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 60
............% of F5 products are sent through thorough software testing before being sold to customers
A. 100
B. 50
C. 60
D. 80
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 61
Which of these statements about a stream profile is false?
A. It is applied to an HTTP class profile

B. It is not recommended for telnet traffic
C. It can replace one data string for another for all traffic going through a virtual server
D. It applies to both inbound and outbound traffic
E. It will not inspect HTTP headers when an HTTP profile is present
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 62
If LTM uses the round robin load balancing method, which pool member in the diagram above will receive the next request
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. B
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
LTM uses the round robin load balancing method so after A will be B
QUESTION 63
Basic F5 IP Geolocation provides which four types of client information?
A. State
B. Continent
C. Postal code
D. City
E. Carrier
F. Country
Correct Answer: ABEF

Section: (none)
Explanation
đã có 2 lựa chọn sai
State - Country - Continent - City

State - Country - Postal code - City
The BIG-IP system uses geolocation software to identify the geographic location of a client or web application user. The default IP geolocation database
provides IPv4 addresses at the continent, country, state, ISP, and organization levels, and IPv6 addresses at the continent and country levels. The
database consists of the following files:
F5GeoIP.dat
F5GeoIPv6.dat
F5GeoIPISP.dat
F5GeoIPOrg.dat
QUESTION 64
Which three of the following must be done in order for GTM to properly communicate LTM?
A. Ensure that GTM and LTM use the same floating IP address
B. Exchange SSL certificates between the two
C. Configure the GTM and LTM to use MAC masquerading
D. Connect the GTM and LTM with a network crossover cable
E. Synchronize the big3d versions between GTM and LTM
F. Add the LTM object to the GTM configuration
Correct Answer: BEF
Section: (none)
Explanation
giống câu trả lời của câu hỏi 31 đề Exam A
Integrating LTM systems with GTM systems on a network
Running the bigip_add utility
Determine the self IP addresses of the BIG-IP LTM systems that you want to communicate with BIG-IP GTM.
Run the bigip_add utility on BIG-IP GTM. This utility exchanges SSL certificates so that each system is authorized to communicate with the other.
When the LTM and GTM systems use the same version of the big3d agent, you run the bigip_add utility to authorize communications between the
systems.
Note: The BIG-IP GTM and BIG-IP LTM systems must have TCP port 4353 open through the firewall between the systems. The BIG-IP systems
connect and communicate through this port.
QUESTION 65
True or false? All members of a pool must share the same service port?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
F5 cho phep thành viên của Pool share dịch vụ như khác port --> bá đạo!
QUESTION 66
When using SNAT, which additional IP addresses will the BIG-IP system change? Select two.
A. The source IP address on the client to BIG-IP request packet.

B. The source IP address on the BIG-IP to pool member request packet.
C. The destination IP address on the BIG-IP to pool member request packet.
D. The source IP address on the BIG-IP to client response packet.
E. The destination IP address on the BIG-IP to client response packet.
F. The destination IP address on the pool member to BIG-IP response packet.
Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 67
Which two of the following statements about how TMOS typically manages traffic between a client and server are accurate?
A. It changes the destination address before forwarding a request to the server

B. It changes the destination address before sending a response to the client
C. It changes the source address before sending a response to the client
D. It changes the source address before forwarding a request to the server
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
đã một lần sai khi chọn B và D
QUESTION 68
Match the security-related term with the correct definition.
1. Demilitarized zone (DMZ)

2. Denial of service (DoS)
3. DNS Express
4. DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC)
5. Endpoint inspection
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 69
What feature of the F5 Exchange solution helps administrators to streamline implementation for added security and granular control?
A. iControl
B. Enterprise Manager
C. iApps
D. WebAccelerator
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
chưa chắc lắm có thể bị sai
QUESTION 70
Select the key question you would use to ask your customer related to DNS attacks?
A. Do you over-provision your DNS infrastructure?
B. Do you regularly update BIND or some other DNS application to the latest release?
C. Do you rely on your network firewall to protect your DNS server?
D. How do you secure your DNS infrastructure against attacks?
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
How do you secure your DNS infrastructure against attacks? câu hỏi giám tiếp hay nhất
QUESTION 71
When a business is hacked, they often lose more than money. What are the other consequences to a business as a result of being hacked?
Select two.
A. Helpful third party reviews of the security needs of the customer's web applications
B. Valuable free press that occurs as companies address hacking incidents
C. Penalties related to non-compliance with laws and regulations
D. Final resolution of all security vulnerabilities of the business' web applications
E. Loss of customers when slow connections drive customers to competitor's site
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 72
Match the security-related term with the correct definition.
1. OWASP Top 10
2. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
3. Bot
4. Certificate
5. Content scrubbing
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 73
Complete the statement below by choosing the correct word or phrase to complete the sentence.
By identifying IP addresses and security categories associated with malicious activity, the BIG-IP.............. service can incorporate dynamic lists of
threatening IP addresses into the BIG-IP platform, adding context to policy decisions.
A. Edge Client
B. iRules
C. LTM
D. IP intelligence
E. iApps
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 74
Even though F5 is an application delivery controller, it can also effectively mitigate attacks directed at the network layer.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 75
Select the best word or phrase to complete the following sentence.
Using the.............feature in GTM, F5's Application Delivery
Firewall solution can handle a significantly higher number of queries than traditional
DNS servers.
A. DNS Express
B. BIND
C. Site availability request
D. Location-based routing
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 76
If your customer has a policy requirement that cannot be handled in the Visual Policy Editor, what would you use to supplement the Visual Policy Editor?
A. iApps
B. TMOS
C. iControl
D. iRules
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 77
Which aspect of F5's Intelligent Services Platform helps you extend your security conversation to include F5 professionals and customers?
A. Modular Functionality
B. iApps
C. TMOS
D. DevCentral
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
DevCentral is the community include F5 professionals and customers
QUESTION 78
Why is BIG-IP ASM ideally suited to protect against layer 7 attacks, including HTTP and HTTPS/SSL traffic, when compared to an intrusion prevention
system (IPS)?
A. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is base on Packet Filtering

B. An IPS doesn't have the visibility into HTTPS traffic. it doesn't understand what applications are in the network.
C. An IPS only focus op operating system attacks; it doesn't understand what application are in the network
D. An IPS can only look at overall traffic patterns; it doesn't understand what applications are in the network
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 79
The F5 Visual Policy Editor (VPE) is unique to the F5 BIG-IP APM module; no other access management tool has this capability. Select the features
that the VPE provides.
Select two
A. Develop customized reports on user access
B. Customize landing or login pages
C. Establish highly detailed policies based on customer business requirements
D. Configure authentication server objects
E. Perform multiple factors of authentication
Correct Answer: CE
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 80
The F5 Visual Policy Editor (VPE) is unique to the F5 BIG-IP APM module; no other access management tool has this capability. Select the features
that the VPE provides.
Select two.
A. Determines antivirus patch levels

B. Customizes landing or login page
C. Provides vulnerability scanning
D. Checks operating system patch levels
E. Assigns a lease pool address
Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 81
Select the two best questions you would use to ask your customer about their current web access management solution.
Select two.
A. What impact are slow remote access connections having on productivity?

B. Are you using Google multi-factor authentication?
C. Is user authentication data sitting on partner systems outside your control,
D. Have you standardized on Androids or iPhones?
E. How are you planning to extend Exchange to your mobile users?
F. How do you think a blobal remote access deployment with integrated acceleration and avaibility services might benefit your business?
Correct Answer: AF
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 82
Data centers often rely on either traditional firewalls or next generation firewalls. Select the core weakness of the traditional or next generation firewalls
when it comes to DDoS attacks.
A. They are limited in amount of connections per second and the amount of sustained connections they can handle
B. The cost performance ratio of next generation firewalls is too high.
C. The agility of traditional firewalls is too limited when it comes to DDoS attacks.
D. Data center traffic is primarily outbound.
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 83
Select the question you would ask your customer related to DNS attacks. Based on the material, choose the most appropriate question.
A. How do you secure you DNS infrastructure against attacks?

B. Do you rely on your network firewall to protect you DNS server?
C. Do you over-provision your DNS infrastructure?
D. Do you regularly update BIND or some other DNS application to the latest release?
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 84
Why does the F5 Application Delivery Firewall solution mitigate SSL attacks more effectively than any other firewalls?
A. Because F5 has unlimited capacity to handle SSL traffic.

B. Because F5 has full visibility and control of SSL traffic.
C. Because F5 has a separate iApp to handle SSL traffic.
D. Because F5 supports large SSL key sizes.
Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Exam C
QUESTION 1
The BIG-IP full proxy architecture has full visibility from the client to the server and from the server to the client. What security benefit does this provide
to customers?
A. Offloads security functionality from other devices such as network firewalls and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS), which may experience
performance degradation when inspecting DNS queries and responses.
B. provides....... DNS servers.
C. Establishes highly detailed policies based on your customer's business in requirements, performs multiple factors of authentication, detects
corporate versus non-corporate devices, checks OS patch levels, and determines antivirus patch levels.
D. Provides industry-leading knowledge of application behavior as it travels through a *3, network, and it applies that knowledge to security because it
knows how an application behaves at any point in the reply-request process
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 2
Select the key reasons F5 is able to handle DNS DDoS attacks so effectively?
Select two.
A. F5 can ensure a DNS DDoS attack is not successful.

B. F5 has high performance DNS services.
C. F5 can answer the DNS queries directly.
D. With Global Traffic Manager (GTM), F5 completely stops all DNS DDoS attacks.
E. F5 can ensure a customer never faces a DNS DDoS attack.
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Select the key messages you want to give your customers about F5's ability to offer a better experience at reduced costs when it comes specifically to
single sign-on.
Select two.
fFe5deprrca);.ciodne,sa seamless
hea mntliecsasteasciceegltoati net iejrrnearlsanadnexternal resources via SSO and applications that the user is authorized to Use. provides access °
n'Y' those
oF5's single sign-on seamlessly integrates with all major single sign-on products while maintaining a highly positive security posture. rdieitnhtiFty%°
ndrgaacncizaestsi°mnsacnaagneremaelinzteinafrmas°trreucct°urT wsineflmaintainingexlbi d lartggrhalytepdositive
security posture.
ndFe5p.siosymingelentssign-on reduces costs by allowing specialized modular platform
A.
B.
C.
D.
Correct Answer:
Section: (none)
Explanation
Câu hỏi 9-s Sale Security Accreditation

F5 101 Test Notes

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What are some key security benefits of the BIG-IP full proxy architecture?

What are some key security benefits of the BIG-IP full proxy architecture?

What are two key reasons F5 is able to handle DNS DDoS attacks so effectively?

What are two key reasons F5 is able to handle DNS DDoS attacks so effectively?

F5.Testinside.101.v2014-11-08.by.Ernest.

Exam Name:Application Delivery Fundamentals

A. Visual Policy Editor

A. Doesn't require in depth web application knowledge

A. The attacks are requests a user should be allowed to make

Correct Answer: 192.168.1.245

Correct Answer: BCDE

A. it increases the bandwidth between the client and LTM

A. It decreases the CPU load on LTM

Correct Answer: ACE

A. They can be used as templates for creating new applications

Correct Answer: ABD

A pool-member can have three different states:

Correct Answer: contain / include

Correct Answer: Wide IP

A. Connect the GTM and LTM with a network crossover cable

Correct Answer: BCF

Correct Answer: iQuery

Correct Answer: ABEF

Configuring GTM to determine packet gateway health and availability

sol13690: Troubleshooting BIG-IP GTM synchronization and iQuery connections (11.x)

A. GTM uses cached information to determine an alternate route

A. Subscription purchasing options

A. Only requests for specific ports are allowed through LTM

A. Track inbound and outbound traffic

Correct Answer: BDEF

A. They want GTM to examine all DNS queries

A. They provide a secure connection between a client and LTM

A. Secure the connection between WAN sites

Correct Answer: BDE

A. It enables iRules to be used on traffic arriving to LTM that is encrypted

A. it verifies traffic based on antivirus signatures

Correct Answer: BCEF

A. It decreases the CPU load on LTM

A. The cookie's timeout value can be customized

Correct Answer: BCD

Correct Answer: DEF

Correct Answer: CDF

Build List and Reorder:

Correct Answer: CEF

Correct Answer: TMOS

A. Change the source IP and the destination IP address

Case Study Title (Case Study):

A. On a DNS listener object

Correct Answer: ABD

Correct Answer: ABD

A. Caching HTTP data

A. Secure the connection between WAN sites

Correct Answer: DEF

A. Doesn't require in depth web application knowledge

A. The attacks are requests a user should be allowed to make

A. Generate learning suggestions

A. ASM can be deployed easily

A. Number of active sessions