Vibrant Academy: (India) Private Limited
Vibrant Academy: (India) Private Limited
Vibrant Academy: (India) Private Limited
VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.: 06377791915 Fax: (0744) 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
Website : dlp.vibrantacademy.com
SAMPLE PAPER (JEE MAIN DIAMOND COURSE-2019-20)
QUESTION PAPER
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 216
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 72 questions. The booklet has
__ pages.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. __) of this booklet.
3. The question paper contains _ blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and
UID. No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. __) of this booklet.
8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. Question paper format Read the instructions printed on the back page
C. Marking scheme (page no. __) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate UID Number
I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.
.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator
USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: Al = 27, Mg = 24, Cu = 63.5, Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5, O = 16, H = 1, P = 31, Ag = 108, N = 14, Li = 7,
I = 127, Cr = 52, K=39, S = 32, Na = 23, C = 12, Br = 80, Fe = 56, Ca = 40, Zn = 65.5, Ti = 48, Ba = 137, U = 238,
Co= 59, B =11, F = 19, He = 4, Ne = 20, Ar = 40 , Mo = 96, g = 10 m/s2
PART I : MATHEMATICS
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
x 2 y2
1. Let P be a variable point on the ellipse 1 with foci at S1 and S2. If A is the area of tirangle PS1S2,
25 16
x2 y2
2. For the hyperbola 1, distance between the foci is 10. From the point 2, 3 perpendicular tangents
a2 b2
5 11 5 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 3 3 3
n
x
4. If the coefficients of x7 and in the expansion of 2 are equal, then the value of n is :
x8
3
(A) 15 (B) 45 (C) 55 (D) 56
1
3 2
5. Let f(x) = sin3x + x5 ; then 2 | x | f(x) . cos4 x dx is equal to
–1
1 x x 1
9. If f(x) 2x x(x 1) (x 1)x then f(500) is equal to
3x(x 1) x(x 1)(x 2) (x 1)x(x 1)
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MATHEMATICS
11. The real value of a for which the value of m satisfying the equation (a2 – 1)m2 – (2a – 3)m + a = 0 gives the
slope of a line parallel to the y-axis is
3
(A) (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) ± 1
2
1 1
(A) e (B) log(4/e) (C) 4 log (4/e) (D) e 2
e e
(y)3
13. If m and n are the order and degree of the differential equation (y)5 4. y sin x , then
y '''
1 1
14. If cos x cos y and tan–1 x – tan–1 y = 0 then x2 + xy + y2 is equal to :
2
1 3 1
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
2 2 8
15. The distance between the origin and the normal to the curve y = e2x + x2 at x = 0 is
1 2 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 3 2
16. If h denote the A.M. k denote G.M. of the intercepts made on axes by the lines passing through (1, 1) then
(h, k) lies on
(A) y2 = 2x (B) y2 = 4x (C) y = 2x (D) x + y = 2xy
18. If the pair of tangents drawn from origin O to the circle x2 + y2 – 6x – 8y + 21 = 0, meets the circle at A and
B, then the length of AB is
4 17 21
(A) 11 (B) 21 (C) (D)
5 3 5
x2 x 1
19. If x is real, and k then
x2 x 1
(A) 1/3 k 3 (B) k 5 (C) k 0 (D) 2/3 k 1
4 0 0
0 4 0 | adj.(adj.A) |
20. If A is a square matrix such that A(adj.A) , then is equal to
| adj.A |
0 0 4
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MATHEMATICS
cos 2 – cos 2x
21. lim =
x –1 x2 – | x |
2 2 dy
22. The solution of the differential equation x xy y 2 xy 2 0 is
dx
x 1 1 y 1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) log c (B) log c (C) log xy c (D) log xy c
y x y x x y x y x y
23. If two circles (x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2 = r2 and x2 + y2 – 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 intersect in two distinct points, then
(A) 2 < r < 8 (B) r < 2 (C) r = 2 (D) r > 2
x2 y 2
24. The common tangent of parabola y2 = 4x and hyperbola 1 touches them at P and Q respectively,,
4 3
then Q can be
(A) (4, 3) (B) (3, 4) (C) (–4, –3) (D) (4, –3)
PART II : PHYSICS
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
25. The work done in joules in increasing the extension of an elastic spring of stiffness 500 Nt/m from 6 cm to
20 cm is :
(A) 11.0 J (B) 9.1 J (C) 2.7 J (D) 3.2 J
26. In the situation shown, the string connecting both the masses is extensible having force constant k. Initially
B is held with string just taut and released. What can be maximum value of coefficient of friction so that A
may start moving ?
27. A 1 Horse power motor is used to lift load at vertically constant speed of 0.1 m/s. The maximum load that it
can lift at this speed is (approx.)
(A) 375 kg (B) 750 kg (C) 1000 kg (D) 500 kg
28. A car of mass 100 kg is moving on level ground around a circular stadium of radius 50 m with constant speed
of 10 m/s. Which of following statement is correct when car is located south of centre ?
(A) Friction = 500 N in West direction (B) Friction = 500 N in North direction
(C) Friction = 200 N in West direction (D) Friction = 200 N in North direction
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29. A pendulum bob is projected horizontally with velocity 5g from lowermost point as shown. When the
30. A hole is punched in the side of a bucket so that water flows out and follows a parabolic trajectory. If the
container is dropped from a height, falls freely accelerating under gravity, and air resistance can be ignored,
the water flow:
(A) Stops
(B) Follows a straight line trajectory relative to the falling bucket
(C) Follows an upward curving trajectory relative to the bucket
(D) Follows a downward curving trajectory relative to the bucket
31. An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. Then the velocity ‘v’ of the
fluid is:
(A) 3.0 m/s (B) 1.5 m/s (C) 1.0 m/s (D) 2.25 m/s
32. Three objects A, B and C all individually float on top of water. A and B have identical masses and densities but
different shapes while B and C have identical sizes and shapes but C has less mass and density than B. If
three identical weights are then tied to the objects and all three are pulled completely beneath the surface of
the water, which object will displace the greatest volume of water?
(A) object A only (B) object C only
(D) objects A and B only (D) All three displace equal volumes of water
33. You dip a capillary tube into a beakers of different fluids, and from observation of the shape of the fluid surface
deduce that in which figure cohesive forces dominate over adhesive forces.
34. Why do raindrops fall with constant speed during the later stages of their descent ? (Neglect buoyancy of air)
(A) All drops fall from the same height.
(B) The gravitational force is negligible for objects as small as raindrops.
(C) The gravitational force cannot increase the speed of a falling object to more than 9.8 m/s.
(D) Air resistance balances the gravitational force on a drop.
35. 10 gm of ice at 0°C is mixed with ‘m’ gm of water at 50°C. What is minimum value of m so that ice melts
completely. (Lf = 80 cal/gm and sw = 1 cal/gm-°C)
(A) 32 gm (B) 20 gm (C) 40 gm (D) 16 gm
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PHYSICS
36. The distribution of relative intensity I() of blackbody radiation from a
solid body versus the wavelength is shown in the figure. If the Wien
displacement law constant is 2.9 × 10-3 mK, what is the
approximate temperature of the object?
(A) 50 K (B) 250 K
(C) 1450 K (D) 6250 K
37. In the figure shown a particle P strikes the inclined smooth plane horizontally and
rebounds vertically. If the angle is 60°, then the coefficient of restitution is:
(A) 1/3 (B) 1 3 (C) 1/2 (D) 1
38. If a calculation reveals that the net force on the rod is zero, then which one of the following can be concluded
(A) the rod is definitely in rotational equilibrium
(B) the rod is in rotational equilibrium only if the net torque about any one point is found to be zero
(C) the rod might be in the rotational equilibrium even if the net torque about centre of mass is not zero
(D) None of the above
39. If a circular concentric hole is made in a disk then about its axis
(A) Moment of inertia remains same (B) Moment of inertia increases
(C) Radius of gyration increases (D) Radius of gyration decreases
40. A horizontal platform is rotating with uniform angular velocity about the vertical axis passing through its
centre. At some instant of time, a viscous fluid of mass m is dropped at the centre and is allowed to spread
out and finally fall. The angular velocity during this period
(A) Decreases continuously
(B) Decreases initially and increases again
(C) Remains unaltered
(D) Increases continuously
41. If the weight of a body in vacuum is W and W 1 and W 2 are weights when it is fully immersed in liquids of
specific gravities 1 and 2 respectively, then the relation among W, W1 and W 2 is
42. The electric field inside a sphere which carries a charge density proportional to the distance from the origin
= r( is a constant) is
r 3 r 2 r 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
40 4 0 3 0
43. A solid sphere rolls down two different inclined planes of the same height but of different inclinations.
(A) In both cases the final speeds and time of descent will be same
(B) The final speeds will be same but time of descent will be different
(C) The final speeds will be different but time of descent will be same
(D) The final speeds and time of descent both will be different
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PHYSICS
44. A particle is acted upon by a force whose component's variations with time are shown in diagrams. Then the
magnitude of change in momentum of the particle in 0.1 sec will be
z
m
(A) 2kg x y
sec
m
(B) 10 kg
sec
m
(C) 12 kg
sec
m
(D) 5 2 kg
sec
45. A cubical block of wood of side 'a' and density floats in water of density 2. The lower surface of the cube
just touches the free end of a massless spring of force constant k fixed at the bottom of the large vessel. The
weight w put over the block so that it is completely immersed in water without wetting, the weight is :
ag 2 k
(A) a(a2 g + k) (B) a(ag + 2k) (C) a 2k
(D) a a g
2 2
46. Four equal charges of magnitude q each are placed at four corners of a square with its centre at the origin
and lying in y-z plane. An external charge +Q is moved along x-axis. The electrostatic potential energy. U
varies on x-axis as
a 2
47. The mass per unit length of a non uniform rod is given by = x where a is a constant, L is length of the
L
rod and x is distance of any point from one end. The distance of the COM of the rod from the same end is
L 2L 3 3
(A) (B) (C) L (D) L
2 3 5 4
48. A particle is projected with velocity u along x-axis. The acceleration of the particle is proportional to the
square of the distance from the origin i.e., a = kx2, the distance at which the particle stops is
1/3 1/3
3u 3u 2u2 3u2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2k 2k 3k 2k
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PART III : CHEMISTRY
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
49. Which of the following statement is cause of more acidic nature of HNO3 than HNO2.
(A) Oxidation state of nitrogen in HNO3 > HNO2 (B) Conjugate base of HNO3 is more stabilized
(C) O – H bond is more polar in HNO3 than HNO2 (D) All
50.
52.
(A) will be
53.
For the equilibrium, PCl5
PCl3 + Cl2, KC = 2/(1–)V, temperature remaining constant :
ethyne
(A) 6-iodo-1-hexyne (B) 1-hexyne (C) 5-decyne (D) 1-iodo-1-hexene
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CHEMISTRY
+
56. Thermodynamic parameters for : HX + H2O H3O + X¯ are given for HF, HCl, HBr and HI. Which acid
will show the forward reaction?
HF HC HBr HI
G° +16 –46 –59 –61
G° –13 –59 –63 –57
TS° –29 –13 –4 +4
(A) Only HF (B) Only HI (C) Only HCl and HBr (D) HF, HCl, HBr and HI
(B)
58.
59. Equal volume of 1 M HCl and 1 M H2SO4 are neutralized by dilute NaOH solution and x and y kcal of heat are
liberated respectively. Which of the following is true?
(A) x = y (B) x = 0.5y (C) x = 0.4y (D) None of these
60. Find IUPAC name of the hydrate isomer of CrCl36H2O, which is having lowest electrical conductivity.
(A) Hexaaquachromium(III)chloride
(B) Tetraaquadichloridochromium(III)chloridedihydrate
(C) Pentaaquachloridochromium(III)chloridemonohydrate
(D) Triaquatrichloridochromium(III)trihydrate
61. NH4Cl crystallises in bcc crystal. x gm NH4Cl is dissolved in 500 ml H2O to make a solution of pH = 5. How
many bcc unit cell can be constructed by x g of NH4Cl ? (Kb of NH4OH = 4 × 10–6, NA = 6 × 1023)
(A) 12 × 1021 (B) 12 × 1023 (C) 6 × 1021 (D) 6 × 1023
62. A compound has the empirical formula CoCl3·5NH3. When an aqueous solution of this compound is mixed
with excess silver nitrate, 2 mol of AgCl precipitate per mol of compound. On reaction with excess HCl, no
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CHEMISTRY
63. Which of the following will not give yellow colour with NaOI ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64. Calculate molar mass of A+B– having NaCl type closed packed structure. Closest distance between cations
is 282.88 pm and density of unit cell is 2.71 g/cm3.
(A) 48 g/mol (B) 60 g/mol (C) 96 g/mol (D) None of these
65. Which of the following flux is used to remove acidic impurities in metallurgical process ?
(A) Silica (B) Lime stone (C) Borax (D) Sodium carbonate
Product (Q) is :
2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3
67. The haemoglobin from the red blood corpuscles of most mammals contains approximately 0.33% of iron by
mass. The molar mass of haemoglobin as 67,200. The number of iron atoms in each molecule of heamoglobin
is (atomic mass of iron = 56) :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
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CHEMISTRY
70. The value of Kƒ for water is 1.86°, calculated from glucose solution. The value of Kƒ for water calculated for
NaCl solution will be :
(A) = 1.86 (B) < 1.86 (C) > 1.86 (D) zero
72. Which compound will not give silver mirror test with Tollen’s reagent (AgNO3 + NH4OH) ?
10. Parts contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.
C. Marking Scheme :
11. For each question in Parts, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only
the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
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