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MCQs in
Oral Pathology
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MCQs in
Oral Pathology
(With Explanatory Answers)
Sundeep S Bhagwath
MDS (Oral Pathology)
Professor (Oral Pathology) and Head
Department of Basic Sciences
College of Dentistry
University of Ha’il
Kingdom of Saudi Arabia
Foreword
Dr (Col) NK Ahuja
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© 2016, Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers
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MCQs in Oral Pathology (With Explanatory Answers)
First Edition: 2016
ISBN: 978-93-85891-50-2
Printed at
Dedicated to
My wife, Vani, for being such a wonderful
source of strength and my two lovely
daughters, Damini and Dhhriti, for their
overwhelming love and affections
Foreword
Multiple choice questions (MCQs) tests are the preferred format

for accurate and comprehensive assessment of students’ ability to
think objectively and critically. Apart from postgraduate entrance
examinations, they have also become an integral part of undergraduate
examinations with most universities amalgamating them along
with other longer forms of assessment. Hence, it is imperative that
undergraduate students acquire the skills to solve the MCQs, which
will be beneficial to them not only for success in undergraduate
examinations but also for the postgraduate entrance examinations later
on. It gives me great pleasure to state that Dr Sundeep S Bhagwath has
taken great interest and pains to bring out this resource for the benefit
of students. I have no hesitation in recommending this book for the
students as it covers all the topics in the subject of oral pathology and
also has explanatory answers to aid the students in better understanding
of the topics. I hope that students find this resource beneficial and wish
the author all the success in this and all other such endeavors.
Dr (Col) NK Ahuja
Professor Emeritus
Swami Vivekanand Subharti University, Meerut
Director General
Kalka Group of Institutions
Meerut, Uttar Pradesh, India
Preface
I felt that there is a need for a book on multiple choice questions (MCQs)
for the undergraduate dental students. MCQs have become the format
of choice for most of the competitive entrance examinations worldwide.
MCQs are also an integral part of undergraduate examinations in
medical subjects. The reason they are favored is, due to the fact that,
they are easy to evaluate and accurately assess the objective thinking
of the candidates. This book is designed to cater to the needs of
undergraduate dental students undergoing a study in the subject
of oral and maxillofacial pathology. It includes all the pertinent areas
covered under this subject and attempts to inculcate in the students
an endeavor to explore the horizons of this subject. The questions have
been framed keeping in mind particularly the undergraduate dental
students as not many such resources are available to them. I hope that
the students make full use of this resource. In case of any factual errors,
the mistake is entirely from my side and I shall be more than glad to
entertain queries and criticisms at sanvada@gmail.com.
Sundeep S Bhagwath
Acknowledgments
No endeavor can be successful without active cooperation, support and

encouragement from colleagues, friends, family and the benevolence
of the Almighty. This book would not have seen the light of the day
without constant encouragement and moral support of my wife, Vani,
who has always been there whenever I needed her and my two angels,
Damini and Dhhriti, who sorely missed their father’s presence during
the preparation of this manuscript.
To my guide and mentor, Dr GS Kumar, I owe my professional
standing. To him, I render my special thanks.
I am deeply indebted to my parents for inculcating sound values
and for being such pillars of strength.
My sincere thanks to M/s Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P)
Ltd, New Delhi, India, for giving me this opportunity and publishing
the book.
Contents
1. Developmental Anomalies of
Orofacial Structures Including Teeth 1
2. Dental Caries 9
3. Diseases of Pulp and Periapical Tissues 17
4. Diseases of Periodontium 25
5. Infections: Bacterial, Viral and Mycotic 33
6. Spread of Oral Infections 40
7. Benign and Malignant Nonodontogenic
Tumors of Oral Cavity 48
8. Odontogenic Cysts and Tumors 66
9. Diseases of Salivary Glands 85
10. Diseases of Osseous Structures 94
11. Diseases of Skin 102
12. Hematological Diseases 110
13. Diseases of Nerves and Muscles 118
14. Disorders of Metabolism 125
15. Healing of Oral Wounds 133
16. Physical and Chemical Injuries of Teeth 141
17. Regressive Changes of Oral Cavity 150
1
Developmental
Anomalies of Orofacial
Structures Including Teeth
1. Which amongst the following is not a cause of acquired

micrognathia?
(a) Infection of mastoid
(b) Trauma to TMJ
(c) Infection of the middle ear
(d) Infection of inner ear
2. Which amongst the following is not a clinical feature of

micrognathia?
(a) Steep mandibular angle
(b) Severe retrusion of chin
(c) Prominent chin button
(d) Deficient chin button
3. Indicate the incorrect statement regarding macrognathia

(a) It is commonly associated with Paget’s disease
(b) Patients tend to have a short ramus
(c) Excessive condylar growth predisposes to macrognathia
(d) Patients have a prominent chin button
4. Facial hemiatrophy is not associated with which of the following

conditions?
(a) Bell’s palsy (b) Trigeminal neuralgia
(c) Jacksonian epilepsy (d) Delayed eruption of teeth
5. Cleft of the primary palate occurs

(a) Anterior to incisive foramen
(b) Posterior to incisive foramen
(c) Between lateral incisor and canine
(d) Between canine and 1st premolar
2 MCQs in Oral Pathology
6. Minimal form of clefting of palate is seen in

(a) Soft palate
(b) Uvula
(c) Hard palate and soft palate
(d) Posterior to incisive foramen
7. Increased risk of development of squamous cell carcinoma

is associated with which of the following developmental
conditions?
(a) Cheilitis granulomatosa
(b) Heck’s disease
(c) Cheilitis glandularis
(d) Fibromatosis gingivae
8. If a patient has multiple intestinal polyps, cutaneous melanocytic

macules, rectal prolapse and gynecomastia, he/she is probably
suffering from
(a) Gardner syndrome
(b) Goltz-Gorlin syndrome
(c) Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
(d) Grinspan syndrome
9. Fordyce’s granules is heterotopic collection of _______ in oral

cavity
(a) Sweat glands (b) Salivary glands
(c) Hair follicles (d) Sebaceous glands
10. Heck’s disease is caused by ________ virus

(a) Herpes simplex (b) Human papilloma
(c) Varicella zoster (d) Epstein-Barr
11. A well-circumscribed, soft, sessile, bilateral, nodular mass which

is located lingual to mandibular canines between mucogingival
junction and free gingiva could most likely be
(a) Peripheral giant cell granuloma
(b) Pyogenic granuloma
(c) Retrocuspid papilla
(d) Peripheral ossifying fibroma
Developmental Anomalies of Orofacial Structures Including Teeth 3
12. Which amongst the following is not a cause of macroglossia?

(a) Hemangioma (b) Lymphangioma
(c) Down’s syndrome (d) Leukemia
13. Which one of the following is a synonym of fissured tongue?

(a) Lingua nigra (b) Scrotal tongue
(c) Geographic tongue (d) Lingual varix
14. Median rhomboid glossitis occurs

(a) Anterior to circumvallate papillae
(b) Posterior to circumvallate papillae
(c) Tip of tongue
(d) Lateral border of tongue
15. Histopathological features of benign migratory glossitis closely

resemble that of
(a) Lichen planus
(b) Psoriasis
(c) Systemic lupus erythematosus
(d) Erythema multiforme
16. Amongst the following causes, the least probable cause of hairy
tongue is
(a) Smoking (b) Poor oral hygiene
(c) Epstein-Barr virus (d) Radiation therapy
17. A nodular mass near base of tongue with presenting complaints

of dyspnea and dysphagia and without a demonstrable main
thyroid gland could most probably be
(a) Reactive lymphoid aggregate
(b) Lymphoid hamartoma
(c) Lingual thyroid nodule
(d) Lymphoepithelial cyst
18. Stafne cyst/Stafne defect is an aberrant collection of _____ gland
tissue within a deep depression in the mandible
(a) Sweat glands (b) Sebaceous glands
(c) Mucous glands (d) Salivary glands
19. Apart from maxillary lateral incisor, which other tooth is

commonly affected by microdontia?
(a) Mandibular premolars
(b) Maxillary canines
(c) Mandibular central incisors
(d) Third molars
20. Fusion of teeth involves a confluence of
(a) Enamel only (b) Enamel and dentin
(c) Dentin only (d) Cementum only
21. In association with which syndrome does talon cusp usually
occur?
(a) Rubinstein-Taybi
(b) Down
(c) Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
(d) Gardner
22. With which variation in coronal morphology is dens evaginatus
associated?
(a) Peg-shaped laterals (b) Shovel-shaped incisors
(c) Dilaceration (d) Distomolar
23. Dilated odontome is a synonym of
(a) Dens invaginatus (b) Talon cusp
(c) Dens evaginatus (d) Macrodontia
24. The base of invagination of crown/root in dens invaginates
contains
(a) Dystrophic dentin (b) Dystrophic enamel
(c) Necrotic pulp tissue (d) Dystrophic cementum
25. Which bone disorder should be considered for differential

diagnosis in case of a finding of generalized hypercementosis?
(a) Paget’s disease (b) Fibrous dysplasia
(c) Osteopetrosis (d) Osteogenesis imperfecta
26. If a patient shows signs of kinky hair, osteosclerosis at base of

skull, brittle nails along with hypomaturation—hypoplastic
amelogenesis imperfecta, he/she is most probably suffering
from
(a) Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome

(b) Klinefelter syndrome
(c) Cranioectodermal syndrome
(d) Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome
27. The appearance of normal thickness enamel with extremely thin

dentin and abnormally large pulp chamber is indicative of
(a) Amelogenesis imperfecta
(b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta Type I
(c) Dentinogenesis Type III
(d) Dentin dysplasia Type II
28. Loss of organization of radicular dentin with subsequent

shortening of root length is a feature of
(a) Dentin dysplasia Type I
(b) Dentin dysplasia Type II
(c) Dentinogenesis imperfecta Type II
(d) Dentinogenesis imperfecta Type III
29. Which amongst the following diseases is capable of producing

developmental alterations in teeth?
(a) Tetanus (b) Chickenpox
(c) Diphtheria (d) Syphilis
30. Lack of development of six or more teeth is denoted by the term

(a) Oligodontia (b) Hypodontia
(c) Anodontia (d) Partial anodontia
ANSWERS
1. (d) Acquired micrognathia is of postnatal origin and results

usually from disturbance in the area of the tempo-
romandibular joint like infection of mastoid, middle ear or
joint itself.
2. (c) Micrognathia is characterized by severe retrusion of chin,
steep mandibular angle and a deficient chin button.
3. (b) Macrognathia may be associated with other diseases like
Paget’s disease, fibrous dysplasia, acromegaly, etc. and
shows features like increased ramus height and length of
mandibular body, decreased maxillary length, prominent

chin button increased gonial angle, etc.
4. (a) Progressive hemifacial atrophy is an uncommon,
degenerative condition characterized by atrophic changes
affecting one side of the face. Possible causes include trophic
malfunction of the cervical lymphatic nervous system,
trauma and viral or Borrelia infection.
5. (a) A complete cleft palate includes cleft of hard palate, soft
palate and uvula. Cleft anterior to the incisive foramen is
called cleft of primary palate, while cleft posterior to incisive
foramen is defined as cleft of secondary palate.
6. (b) Clefting occurs in a wide range of severity. Clefting of uvula
is the minimal form of cleft.
7. (c) It is an unusual clinical presentation of cheilitis that develops
in response to various sources of chronic irritation. There
is progressive enlargement and eversion of lower lip that
significantly exposes it to actinic damage which may be a
potential predisposing factor to development of squamous
cell carcinoma.
8. (c) It is an autosomal dominant, inherited disorder charac
terized by multiple intestinal polyps and concomitant
mucocutaneous melanocytic macules.
9. (d) Occurrence of sebaceous glands in oral cavity may result
from inclusion in oral cavity, of ectoderm having some of
the potentialities of skin.
10. (b) It is caused by human papillomavirus HPV-13 and probably
HPV-32. It is different from other HPV lesions in that it
produces extreme acanthosis and hyperplasia of stratum
spinosum with minimal surface projection or connective
tissue proliferation.
11. (c) Retrocuspid papilla is a developmental lesion micro
scopically similar to giant cell fibroma. It occurs on the
gingiva lingual to the mandibular cuspid, is frequently
bilateral and typically appears as a small, pink papule that
measures less than 5 mm in diameter.
12. (d) It is an uncommon condition characterized by enlarge
ment of the tongue. The enlargement may be caused by
a wide variety of conditions including both congenital
malformations and acquired diseases. The most frequent
causes are vascular malformations and muscular
hypertrophy.
13. (b) Scrotal/fissured tongue is a common condition characterized

by presence of numerous grooves on dorsal surface of
tongue. Cause is uncertain but may be heredity. Aging and
local environmental factors may also play some role.
14. (a) Clinically median rhomboid glossitis appears as a well-
demarcated erythematous zone that affects the midline,
posterior dorsal tongue and often is asymptomatic.
15. (b) Hyperparakeratosis, spongiosis, acanthosis, elongation of
epithelial rete ridges and collections of neutrophils (Munro
abscesses) are also seen in psoriasis.
16. (c) Epstein-Barr virus is responsible for causing hairy
leukoplakia which occurs on the lateral surfaces of tongue
and is associated with HIV or other immunosuppressive
conditions.
17. (c) Lingual thyroids may range from small, asymptomatic
nodular lesions to large masses that can block the airway.
The most common clinical symptoms are dysphagia,
dysphonia, and dyspnea. Diagnosis is best established by
thyroid scan using technetium 99m.
18. (d) Stafne defect presents as an asymptomatic radiolucency
below the mandibular canal in the posterior mandible,
between the molar teeth and the angle of the mandible.
19. (d) Isolated microdontia within an otherwise normal dentition
is not uncommon. The maxillary lateral incisor is affected
most frequently, followed by third molars.
20. (b) Fusion is defined as a single-enlarged tooth or joined (i.e.
double) tooth in which the tooth count reveals a missing
tooth when the anomalous tooth is counted as one.
21. (a) A talon cusp (dens evaginatus of anterior tooth) is a well-
delineated additional cusp that is located on the surface of
an anterior tooth and extends at least half the distance from
the cementoenamel junction to the incisal edge.
22. (b) Dens evaginatus is a cusp-like elevation of enamel located
in the central groove or lingual ridge of the buccal cusp
of permanent premolar or molar teeth. Frequently, dens
evaginatus is seen in association with another variation of
coronal anatomy, shovel-shaped incisors. Affected incisors
demonstrate prominent lateral margins, creating a hollowed
lingual surface that resembles the scoop of a shovel.
23. (a) Dens invaginatus is a deep surface invagination of the crown

or root that is lined by enamel. Two forms—coronal and
radicular are recognized.
24. (b) Coronal dens invaginatus has been classified into three
major types. Type I exhibits an invagination that is limited
to the crown. The invagination in Type II extends below the
cementoenamel junction and ends in a blind sac that may
or may not communicate with adjacent dental pulp. Large
invaginations may become dilated and contain dystrophic
enamel in the base of the dilatation. Type III extends through
the root and perforates in the apical or lateral radicular area
without any immediate communication with the pulp.
25. (a) Paget’s disease of bone is characterized by abnormal
and anarchic resorption and deposition of bone and
on radiographic examination, the teeth very commonly
demonstrate extensive hypercementosis.
26. (d) It is an autosomal dominant disorder in which hypo
maturation as well as hypoplastic patterns of amelogenesis
imperfecta are seen.
27. (c) Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a hereditary developmental
disturbance of the dentin in the absence of any systemic
disorder. Type III dentinogenesis imperfecta, also called
Brandywine isolate is characterized by isolated opalescent
teeth. The appearance of normal thickness enamel in
association with extremely thin dentin and dramatically
enlarged pulps is called shell teeth.
28. (a) This autosomal dominant disorder is also called rootless
teeth because of the loss of organization of the root dentin
which often leads to a shortened root length.
29. (d) Congenital syphilis alters the formation of both the anterior
teeth (Hutchinson’s incisors) and the posterior teeth
(Mulberry molars).
30. (a) It is an autosomal dominant disorder with incomplete
penetrance. Congenitally absent teeth are one of the most
common dental developmental anomalies with third molars
and maxillary lateral incisors being the most commonly
developmentally missing teeth.
2 Dental Caries
1. All of the below given factors are responsible for causing dental
caries except
(a) Dental plaque (b) Diet
(c) Microorganisms (d) Temperature
2. According to miller, which of these acids was held responsible for

producing the lesions of dental caries, according to Miller?
(a) Lactic acid (b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Picric acid (d) Citric acid
3. Which of these factors has not been assigned an essential role in

Miller’s chemicoparasitic theory of dental caries?
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Microorganisms
(c) Heredity (d) Acids
4. From the properties given below identify which one does render
carbohydrates cariogenic?
(a) Rapid clearance from oral cavity
(b) Stickiness of carbohydrates
(c) Frequent ingestion of carbohydrates
(d) Simple carbohydrates
5. Identify which amongst the below given bacteria does not cause
dental caries.
(a) S. mutans (b) L. acidophilus
(c) A. naeslundii (d) S. aureus
6. Dental plaque contains all of the following, except

(a) Microorganisms
(b) Mucin
(c) Exudate
(d) Desquamated epithelial cells
7. Which inorganic constituent is present in highest concentration

in dental plaque?
(a) Phosphorus (b) Calcium
(c) Iron (d) Fluorine
8. Which product of the streptococci is responsible for adherence

of the dental plaque to the smooth surfaces of teeth?
(a) Glucan (b) Glycoprotein
(c) Glycosaminoglycan (d) Proteoglycan
9. Which is the principal buffering ion present in saliva?

(a) Bismuth (b) Bicarbonate
(c) Phosphorus (d) Fluoride
10. Which amongst the following factors does not contribute towards
greater caries resistance of the surface enamel of a tooth?
(a) Fluoride content (b) Slower dissolution in acids
(c) Lesser water content (d) Lesser mineral content
11. The tooth that is most susceptible to dental caries is

(a) Mandibular 1st molars (b) Mandibular 2nd molars
(c) Maxillary canines (d) Maxillary 2nd premolars
12. State which amongst the below given factors is not an antibatcerial
factor present in saliva.
(a) Lysozyme (b) Lysosome
(c) Lactoferrin (d) SIGA
13. The factor that is least associated with increased incidence of

dental caries is
(a) Carbohydrate rich diet (b) Malposed tooth
(c) Smoking (d) Quantity of saliva
14. Undermining of enamel occurs due to

(a) Lateral spread of caries midway between enamel and dentin
(b) Lateral spread of caries at the dentinoenamel junction
(c) Lateral spread of caries midway between dentin and pulp
(d) Spread of caries along dentinal tubules
Dental Caries 11
15. The least likely location for occurrence of smooth surface caries
is:
(a) Labial surface of maxillary incisors
(b) Proximal surfaces of all teeth
(c) Gingival 1/3rd of buccal surfaces of teeth
(d) Gingival 1/3rd of lingual surfaces of teeth
16. Which theory of dental caries proposes that organic elements in

teeth are the initial pathway of invasion of microorganisms?
(a) Sucrose chelation (b) Proteolytic
(c) Autoimmune (d) Chemicoparasitic
17. A caries increment of __ or more new carious lesions over one

year is considered characteristic of rampant caries
(a) 8 (b) 5
(c) 10 (d) 15
18. Acute dental caries occurs most frequently in children and young
adults because
(a) Dentinal tubules are scleroses in the teeth of young people
(b) The apex of root of teeth are not formed completely
(c) Dentinal tubules are narrower in diameter
(d) Dentinal tubules are larger, open and show no sclerosis
19. Nursing bottle caries is a type of _______ caries

(a) Acute (b) Recurrent
(c) Rampant (d) Arrested
20. Absence of caries in _______ teeth helps to distinguish nursing
bottle caries from rampant caries
(a) Maxillary canines (b) Mandibular incisors
(c) Maxillary incisors (d) Mandibular canines
21. Which type of caries is most likely to show considerable surface
destruction, shallow cavity, little undermining of enamel and
little or no pain?
(a) Chronic (b) Acute
(c) Rampant (d) Recurrent
22. The first change to occur in caries of enamel is

(a) Loss of rod enamel
(b) Loss of inter rod enamel
(c) Loss of rod sheath
(d) Increased prominence of enamel rods
23. Which surface of a tooth has maximum susceptibility for
occurrence of dental caries?
(a) Occlusal (b) Lingual
(c) Mesial (d) Distal
24. In enamel caries, the advancing front of the lesion is called
(a) Body of lesion (b) Dark zone
(c) Surface zone (d) Translucent zone
25. Of all the zones in enamel caries which zone is not always
present?
(a) Translucent (b) Dark
(c) Body (d) Surface
26. What is the earliest histological evidence of dentinal caries?
(a) Transparent dentin
(b) Fatty degeneration of odontoblastic processes
(c) Lateral spread of caries along dentino-enamel junction
(d) Miller’s liquefaction foci
27. The most accepted theory on mechanism of action of ingested

fluoride is
(a) Absorption of fluoride ions on hydroxyapatite crystallites
(b) Prevention of carbohydrate degradation
(c) Inhibition of microorganisms
(d) Incorporation of fluoride in crystal structure of enamel
28. What is the percentage of fluoride in acidulated phosphate

fluoride (APF) gels?
(a) 2.34 percent (b) 1.23 percent
(c) 3.45 percent (d) 1.24 percent
29. The most commonly employed fluoride in dentifrices is

(a) Sodium monofluorophosphate
(b) Stannous fluoride
Dental Caries 13
(c) Acidulated phosphate fluoride

(d) Sodium fluoride
30. The mechanism of cariostatic action of chlorhexidine is

(a) Absorption into enamel crystals
(b) Absorption into enamel crystals and salivary mucins
(c) Inhibition of microorganisms
(d) Inhibition of carbohydrate degradation
ANSWERS
1. (d) Initiation and progression of dental caries is dependent

upon following factors: substrate (carbohydrate), bacteria,
acid and dental plaque.
2. (a) WD Miller, in his experiment, incubated a mixture of
meat, bread and sugar with saliva at body temperature. It
produced enough lactic acid within 48 hours to decalcify
sound dentin.
3. (c) Miller assigned essential roles to carbohydrate substrate,
acids and microorganisms in causing dental caries. Factors
like heredity did not find mention in his theory. In fact one of
the objections to Miller’s hypothesis is the inability to explain
site and racial predilection.
4. (a) Carbohydrates that are cleared rapidly from oral cavity
are considered less cariogenic as they remain for a lesser
duration inside the oral cavity to be fermented by cariogenic
bacteria.
5. (d) While other three bacteria have been implicated in causation
of dental caries, evidence for involvement of S. aureus in
causing dental caries is lacking.
6. (c) Dental plaque is a soft, nonmineralized biofilm composed
of bacteria, salivary proteins, lipids, carbohydrates and
inorganic ions mainly, calcium and phosphate.
7. (b) Dry weight of plaque is composed of
Bacterial and salivary proteins—50 percent
Carbohydrates and lipids—25 percent
Inorganic ions, mainly Ca++ and PO4– —10 percent
8. (a) Highly acidogenic strains of streptococci like S. mutans
have the ability to metabolize dietary sucrose and
synthesize glucan by cell surface and extracellular enzyme

glucosyltransferase.
9. (b) Although bicarbonate is the principal buffering ion present
in saliva, another ion, phosphate is also associated with
this function. They aid in maintaining a high pH of saliva,
because at pH below 5.5, enamel begins to dissolve.
10. (d) Surface enamel is more heavily mineralized compared
to subsurface enamel. Because of the increased mineral
content, surface enamel is able to resist demineralization
better.
11. (a) Permanent mandibular first molars are the most susceptible
teeth to dental caries for primarily for two reasons—they are
the first permanent teeth to erupt and their occlusal surfaces
have more and deeper pits and fissures.
12. (b) Saliva contains many antibacterial substances like
lactoferrin, lysozymes, carbonic anhydrase, bistatin, sIgA,
etc.
13. (c) Carbohydrate rich diet, malposed teeth and insufficient or
no saliva are amongst the principal contributory factors of
dental caries, while smoking has a much lesser role to play
in causing caries.
14. (b) When the caries process reaches dentinoenamel junction
there is rapid lateral spread of dental caries which causes the
undermining of enamel due to the presence of unsupported
enamel rods above the DEJ.
15. (a) The labial surfaces of maxillary incisors being self-cleansing
areas, they are the least likely location for occurrence of
dental caries.
16. (b) Gottlieb, Diamond and Appelbaum postulated that the
organic elements like enamel lamellae, rod sheath, etc. are
the initial pathway of invasion by cariogenic organisms.
17. (c) Rampant dental caries is characterized by sudden, rapid
destruction of teeth affecting even relatively caries-free
surfaces like proximal and cervical surfaces of mandibular
teeth.
18. (d) Dentin of children and young adults is characterized by
larger, more open dentinal tubules with no sclerosis. Also
there is very little secondary dentin formation due to the
rapid spread of acute caries.
Dental Caries 15
19. (c) Nursing bottle caries is a form of rampant caries clinically

seen as widespread caries of the 4 maxillary incisors
followed by 1st molars and then canines. Usually it is
caused by use of sweetened pacifiers and nursing bottle
containing sweetened milk or milk formula and also due
to continuation of breastfeeding beyond one year of age.
20. (b) Nursing bottle caries is usually caused by pooling of milk or
other carbohydrates in mouth. Mandibular incisors escape
this process as the pooled milk/carbohydrate is cleared away
by saliva.
21. (a) In comparison with acute caries there is lesser surface
destruction with a shallower cavity and little or no
undermining of enamel in chronic caries. Also due to slow
progress of caries, there is sufficient time for formation of
tertiary dentin which provides some protection of pulp,
thereby leading to lesser or no pain.
22. (b) When enamel begins to demineralize the earliest electron
microscopic changes are loss of inter rod enamel and
accentuation of striae of Retzius.
23. (a) Occlusal surface is the most susceptible surface for
occurrence of dental caries to retaining centers on this
surface in the form of pits and fissures.
24. (d) Translucent zone lies at the advancing front of dental caries
lesion and is slightly more porous than normal enamel.
25. (a) Translucent zone occurs due to formation of submicroscopic
pores at enamel rod boundaries and striae of Retzius. It
cannot be seen clinically or radiologically and is thus also
called negative zone sometimes.
26. (b) The earliest histological evidence of dentinal caries is fatty
degeneration of tome’s dentinal (odontoblastic) processes
and deposition of fat globules in these processes.
27. (d) Water fluoridation has been shown to be the most effective
method of caries control in large community. The most
accepted hypothesis for this is that the systemically absorbed
fluoride replaces the hydroxyl ion in hydroxyapatite crystal,
forming fluorapatite which is less soluble in acids.
28. (b) An aqueous solution of acidulated phosphate fluoride
is prepared by dissolving 20 grams of sodium fluoride in
1 liter of 0.1 M phosphoric acid and to this is added 50%
hydrofluoric acid to adjust the pH at 3.0 and fluoride ion

concentration at 1.23%. It is also called as Brudevold’s
solution.
29. (d) Sodium fluoride is most commonly employed in
toothpastes, mouth rinses and gels. Typically these are low
fluoride concentration products ranging from 200–1000
ppm or 0.2–1 mgF/mL.
30. (b) Chlorhexidine has been shown to have an immediate
bactericidal action and a prolonged bacteriostatic action
due to adsorption onto the pellicle-coated enamel surface.
3 Diseases of Pulp and
Periapical Tissues
1. The most common cause of odontalgia is

(a) Dental caries (b) Pulpitis
(c) Root fracture (d) Periodontitis
2. The phenomenon by which bacteria circulating in blood
accumulate at the site of pulpal inflammation is called as
(a) Chemotaxis (b) Retrograde pulpitis
(c) Anachoretic pulpitis (d) Aerodontalgia
3. Most accepted explanation for anachoretic pulpitis is
(a) Increased capillary permeability
(b) Increased vascular pressure
(c) Presence of large number of dilated capillaries
(d) Lack of collateral blood supply
4. Pulpitis aperta and pulpitis clausa refer to types of pulpitis
classified on the basis of
(a) Severity of inflammation
(b) Extent of inflammation
(c) Location of inflammation
(d) Presence/absence of direct communication with oral cavity
5. The more accepted terminology for pulp hyperemia is
(a) Focal irreversible pulpitis
(b) Focal reversible pulpitis
(c) Subtotal pulpitis
(d) Pulpitis clausa
6. Focal reversible pulpitis is most commonly seen in all of the

following cases except
(a) Large metallic restorations
(b) Shallow carious lesions
(c) Deep carious lesions
(d) Restorations with defective margins
7. Pain which increases in intensity as the patient lies down is

characteristic of
(a) Focal reversible pulpitis
(b) Acute pulpitis
(c) Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis
(d) Chronic pulpitis
8. Microabscess formation within inflamed pulp is characteristic

of
(a) Acute pulpitis (b) Focal reversible pulpitis
(c) Chronic pulpitis (d) Pulp hyperemia
9. Sensitivity to electric pulp vitality tester in acute pulpitis is lost

in later stages because of
(a) Necrosis of pulp
(b) Reduction in inflammatory exudate
(c) Increase in the size of capillaries locally
(d) Decreased secretion of prostaglandins
10. Pulp reacts to electric pulp vitality tester at higher levels in chronic
pulpitis due to
(a) Slow advance of pulp inflammation
(b) Lack of edema fluid collection within inflamed pulp
(c) Degeneration of nerves in affected pulp
(d) Deposition of collagen around inflamed area
11. Which amongst the following characteristics is not associated

with chronic hyperplastic pulpitis?
(a) Open carious lesion
(b) Occurs in children and young adults
(c) Occurs in people with high tissue resistance
(d) Occurs around margins of a restoration
Diseases of Pulp and Periapical Tissues 19
12. Which teeth are most commonly involved by chronic hyperplastic

pulpitis?
(a) Deciduous anteriors and permanent canines
(b) Deciduous molars and permanent 1st molars
(c) Deciduous canines and permanent incisors
(d) Exclusively deciduous molars
13. All of the following except _______ occur as a sequel to pulpitis.

(a) Lateral periodontal cyst
(b) Periapical granuloma
(c) Apical periodontal cyst
(d) Periapical abscess
14. All of the following except _______ are common radiological

features associated with a periapical granuloma.
(a) Thickening of PDL around root apex
(b) Well-defined radiopacity
(c) Root resorption of involved tooth
(d) Well-defined radiolucency with sclerotic borders
15. Giant cell hyaline angiopathy and Rushton bodies are associated
with which of the following lesions?
(a) Ludwig angina (b) Odontogenic keratocyst
(c) Pulp polyp (d) Periapical granuloma
16. Which cells, secreting osteoclast activating factor are believed

to be responsible for much of root and bone destruction in
periapical granulomas?
(a) B lymphocytes (b) T lymphocytes
(c) Macrophages (d) Mast cells
17. Foam cells within periapical granulomas are ______ cells that
have ingested lipids.
(a) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
(b) Langerhans cells
(c) Macrophages
(d) Plasma cells
18. Cholesterol clefts observed in periapical granulomas are derived

from
(a) Breakdown of adipose cells
(b) Breakdown of epithelial cells
(c) Breakdown of RBCs
(d) Breakdown of cholesterol
19. Apical periodontal cyst usually occurs as a sequela of

(a) Acute pulpitis (b) Periodontal abscess
(c) Osteomyelitis (d) Periapical granuloma
20. _________ is least likely to produce any noticeable signs or

symptoms.
(a) Radicular cyst (b) Acute pulpitis
(c) Periapical abscess (d) Ludwig angina
21. Which amongst the following is not a predisposing factor of

osteomyelitis?
(a) Trauma to bone (b) Radiation damage to bone
(c) Paget’s disease (d) Fibrous dysplasia
22. What is the most frequent cause of acute osteomyelitis of jaw?

(a) Dental infection (b) Trauma
(c) Paget disease (d) Malnutrition
23. Condensing osteitis is another name for

(a) Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis
(b) Chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis
(c) Chronic diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis
(d) Garre’s osteomyelitis
24. In which type of osteomyelitis will you find focal gross thickening
of periosteum with peripheral reactive bone formation?
(a) Chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis
(b) Chronic diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis
(c) Florid osseous dysplasia
(d) Garre’s osteomyelitis
25. Root resorption is commonly seen in

(a) Cellulitis (b) Radicular cyst
(c) Garre’s osteomyelitis (d) Periapical abscess
26. What term is applied to a radiolucent lesion within the alveolar

ridge at the site of a previous tooth extraction?
(a) Lateral radicular cyst (b) Lateral periodontal cyst
(c) Residual cyst (d) Periapical abscess
27. If a periapical abscess drains intraorally through a sinus tract

after perforating the buccal cortical plate and surface epithelium
it forms a mass of granulation tissue known as
(a) Phoenix abscess (b) Residual cyst
(c) Parulis (d) Lateral radicular cyst
28. The lateral radicular cyst arises from

(a) Cell rests of Malassez
(b) Cell rests of Serres
(c) Overlying oral epithelium
(d) Dental lamina
29. Which of the following lesions cannot be differentiated from each

other on the basis of size and radiographic appearance?
(a) Periapical granuloma from periapical cyst
(b) Periapical abscess from periapical cyst
(c) Periapical granuloma from periapical abscess
(d) Periapical cyst from phoenix abscess
30. Chronic apical periodontitis is another name of

(a) Phoenix abscess (b) Periapical abscess
(c) Periapical granuloma (d) Periapical cyst
ANSWERS
1. (b) Pulp is a soft connective tissue like any other connective

tissue throughout the body and reacts to bacterial or
other stimuli by an inflammatory response which causes
toothache or odontalgia.
2. (c) Anachoresis is a phenomenon by which blood-borne
bacteria, dyes, pigments, etc. are attracted to the site of
inflammation.
3. (a) Current evidence indicates increased capillary permeability
to be the most probable cause for the phenomenon
of anachoresis. The capillary size increases due to the
liberation of cytokines by the inflammatory cells mediating

the response.
4. (d) Pulpitis aperta and clausa refer to open and closed pulpitis
respectively. Open pulpitis refers to pulpitis in which direct
communication exists between the inflamed pulp and oral
cavity while it is absent in case of closed pulpitis.
5. (b) Vascular dilatation can occur pathologically due to dentinal
as well as pulpal irritation and also artefactually during
tooth extraction. Hence the term pulp hyperemia needs to
be avoided.
6. (b) Focal reversible pulpitis is a mild form of pulpitis localized
primarily to the pulpal ends of irritated dentinal tubules
and is mostly seen in deep carious lesions, beneath large
uninsulated restorations and restorations with defective
margins.
7. (b) As intrapulpal abscess formation involves more of the
pulp tissue, the pain becomes more acute and is liable to
increase when the patient lies down. This may be due to
the pressure on pulpal nerves by the intrapulpal abscesses.
Heat application can exacerbate the pain.
8. (a) Rise in intrapulpal pressure associated with inflammatory
exudate leads to collapse of venous part of circulation in that
area which leads to anoxia, which in turn, leads to localized
destruction and formation of small abscess called micro or
pulp abscess.
9. (a) Early stages of acute pulpitis is characterized by stabbing or
lancinating pain and high sensitivity to electric pulp vitality
tester. But when more of pulp is involved and necrosis sets
in this sensitivity is lost.
10. (c) Due to degeneration of the small nonmyelinated nerve
fibers, the pulp in chronic pulpitis exhibits little or no pain
and reacts to electric pulp vitality tests at higher voltages
even in advanced cases.
11. (d) Pulp polyp or chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is characterized
by excessive and exuberant pulp proliferation. It is seen
almost exclusively in children and young adults with large,
open carious lesions.
12. (b) These teeth are primarily involved because of their excellent
blood supply and large root opening.
13. (a) Lateral periodontal cyst is a developmental variety of

odontogenic cyst and does not arise due to inflammatory
changes within pulp.
14. (b) Periapical granuloma is characterized radiologically by a
well-defined radiolucent lesion associated with the root of
a pulpally involved tooth.
15. (a) Giant cell hyaline angiopathy consists of inflammatory cell
infiltration, collections of foreign body type giant cells and
ring-like eosinophilic material called Rushton bodies.
16. (b) The T-lymphocytes are thought to liberate osteoclast
activating factor and also other cytotoxic lymphokines,
collagenases and other enzymes which may be responsible
for much of destructive potential of periapical granuloma.
17. (c) In some periapical granulomas, large numbers of phagocytes
(macrophages) ingest lipid material and become collected
in groups of so called foam cells. Cells appear “clear”
because the entire ingested lipid is washed off during tissue
processing involving solvents like alcohol, xylene, etc.
18. (c) Cholesterol clefts seen in chronic inflammations like
periapical granuloma are usually derived from the
breakdown of extravasated red blood cells. Here also, the
same explanation as above holds true for the formation of
clear, needle-like spaces.
19. (d) The usual mode of development of apical periodontal cyst
or radicular cyst is through stimulation and proliferation of
cell rests of Malassez within the periapical granuloma.
20. (a) Majority of cases of radicular cysts are asymptomatic and the
dentist discovers them accidentally during routine dental
radiological examination. This is due to the fact that cysts
are chronic lesions, developing slowly.
21. (d) The major predisposing factors of osteomyelitis are –
trauma, gunshot wounds, Paget’s disease, osteopetrosis
and systemic conditions like malnutrition, acute leukemia,
uncontrolled diabetes, chronic alcoholism, sickle cell
anemia, etc.
22. (a) A periapical abscess if it is not walled off and is very virulent,
may spread spontaneously throughout the surrounding
bone.
23. (b) Condensing osteitis is an unusual reaction of bone to mild
bacterial infection entering the bone through carious tooth
in persons having high degree of tissue resistance and

reactivity.
24. (d) Garre’s osteomyelitis results from mild irritation or infection
and is seen almost exclusively in premolar (–) molar
regions of young individuals below 25 years of age. The
subperiosteal reaction is manifested characteristically as
“onion skin” appearance on a radiograph.
25. (b) As the radicular cyst enlarges in size, it causes the resorption
of root to which it is attached primarily due to pressure
exerted by it.
26. (c) A residual cyst is one that remains behind on the alveolar
ridge after a tooth is extracted without initially ascertaining
its periapical condition.
27. (c) With progression, a periapical abscess spreads along the
path of least resistance. The pus may extend through the
medullary spaces away from the apical area (osteomyelitis),
or it may perforate the cortex and spread diffusely through
the overlying soft tissue (cellulitis). It can also channelize
through the overlying soft issue leading to parulis or
gumboil.
28. (a) Like the periapical cyst this lesion also usually arises from
rests of Malassez. The source of inflammation may be
periodontal disease or pulpal necrosis with spread through
a lateral foramen.
29. (a) Both lesions are a result of a chronic process. Due to this
they enlarge slowly and produce similar radiographic
appearances.
30. (c) The term periapical granuloma refers to a mass of
chronically inflamed granulation tissue at the periapical
region of a nonvital tooth.
4 Diseases of Periodontium
1. All except _____ are deposits found on tooth surfaces.

(a) Acquired pellicle (b) Calculus
(c) Plaque (d) Nasmyth’s membrane
2. Acquired pellicle is primarily composed of

(a) Glycoproteins (b) Glycosaminoglycans
(c) Collagen (d) Heparan sulfate
3. Odontolithiasis is better known as

(a) Plaque (b) Calculus
(c) Salivary calculi (d) Caries
4. Which amongst the following correctly depicts the stages in

formation of calculus?
(a) Pellicle → Bacterial colonization → Plaque formation and
mineralization.
(b) Pellicle → Bacterial colonization → Degradation of
carbohydrates.
(c) Bacterial colonization → Degradation of carbohydrates →
Enamel dissolution
(d) Pellicle → Plaque maturation → Bacterial colonization →
Calculus
5. Maximum accumulation of calculus can be seen in which of the

following regions?
(a) Palatal surfaces of maxillary anterior teeth
(b) Palatal surfaces of maxillary posterior teeth
(c) Buccal surfaces of maxillary posterior teeth
(d) Buccal surfaces of mandibular anterior teeth
6. The chief inorganic component in calculus is

(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Hydroxyapatite
(c) Calcium phosphate (d) Calcium sulfate
7. The hardness of calculus is almost like that of
(a) Cementum (b) Enamel
(c) Bone (d) Dentin
8. Which types of bacteria predominate in the organic matrix of
calculus?
(a) Gram-negative cocci (b) Gram-positive filamentous
(c) Gram-positive bacilli (d) Gram-negative bacilli
9. All except _________ are principal causes of halitosis.
(a) Unclean prostheses (b) Taurodontism
(c) Sweet odor of diabetes (d) Respiratory tract infection
10. What is the causative factor of plasma cell gingivitis?
(a) Allergy to a component of chewing gum, dentifrices or food
component
(b) Allergy to antibiotics
(c) Infection by filamentous bacteria
(d) Infection by herpes zoster virus
11. Which amongst the following drugs are capable of inducing
gingivitis either directly or systemically?
(a) Acyclovir (b) Dilantin
(c) Diclofenac (d) Ampicillin
12. During the course of gingivitis if bony changes become evident
on a radiograph, the condition is then referred to as
(a) Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
(b) Periodontitis
(c) Plasma cell gingivitis
(d) Desquamative gingivitis
13. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is on the rise globally in
association with
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Hepatitis B
(c) AIDS (d) Diabetes
Diseases of Periodontium 27
14. ANUG is now believed to be caused by a fusiform bacteria and

(a) Actinomyces israelii (b) Actinomyces naeslundii
(c) Treponema pallidum (d) Borrelia vincentii
15. Which is considered to be one of the most important predisposing
factors in the causation of ANUG?
(a) Allergy to drugs
(b) Decreased resistance to infections
(c) Hormonal changes
(d) Malnutrition
16. All, of the following except _______ are potentially serious
complications of ANUG.
(a) Noma
(b) Toxemia
(c) Squamous cell carcinoma
(d) Septicemia
17. All, except ________, are believed to be causative factors of
desquamative gingivitis.
(a) Dermatoses
(b) Hormonal influences
(c) Idiopathic
(d) Decreased resistance to infections
18. Which amongst the following are believed to be the most
important dermatoses presenting with oral findings described
as desquamative gingivitis?
(a) Dyskeratosis congenita
(b) Psoriasis
(c) Erythema multiforme
(d) Cicatricial pemphigoid
19. The etiology of which of the following gingival enlargements is

still unknown?
(a) Fibrous epulis (b) Plasma cell gingivitis
(c) Scurvy (d) Fibromatosis gingivae
20. Pregnancy gingivitis is essentially a

(a) Plasma cell gingivitis
(b) Fibrous epulis
(c) Pyogenic granuloma

21. Chronic periodontitis usually begins as

(a) Marginal gingivitis (b) Marginal periodontitis
(c) Pyogenic granuloma (d) Chronic gingivitis
22. One of the early microscopic signs of advancement of

inflammatory process into the periodontium is
(a) Ulceration of crevicular epithelium
(b) Infiltration of connective tissue with plasma cells
(c) Appearance of osteoclasts on alveolar crest
(d) Appearance of osteoblasts on alveolar crest
23. The earliest radiographic finding in periodontitis is

(a) Widening of periodontal space
(b) Blunting of alveolar crest
(c) Loss of trabeculae in the alveolar crest
(d) Formation of suprabony pocket
24. Factors that interfere with reattachment of fibrous connective

tissue to the tooth include all of these except
(a) Crevicular epithelium
(b) Tooth mobility
(c) Necrotic cementum
(d) Dental caries
25. The localized form of aggressive periodontitis is largely caused
by all of the following bacteria except
(a) Porphyromonas gingivalis
(b) Bacteroides forsythus
(c) Actinomyces actinomycetemcomitans
(d) Lactobacillus acidophilus
26. Palmar and plantar hyperkeratosis, generalized hyperhidrosis,
peculiar dirty colored skin along with aggressive periodontitis is
referred to as
(a) Frey’s syndrome
(b) Desquamative gingivitis
(c) Papillon—Lefevre syndrome
(d) Scurvy
27. A pseudopocket is
(a) Periodontal pocket with furcation involvement
(b) Pocket limited to gingiva
(c) Pocket with base extending past cementoenamel junction
(d) Pocket with base extending past the crest of alveolar bone
28. An infrabony pocket is a pocket with bone on its ________ wall.

(a) Buccal (b) Lateral
(c) Lingual (d) Apical
29. All of the following statements except one are true regarding
chronic periodontitis
(a) It begins as marginal gingivitis
(b) The epithelial attachment begins to migrate cervically
(c) Teeth become mobile
(d) Patients may complain bleeding gums and hyper-sensitivity
around necks of their teeth
30. Which amongst the following systemic diseases involves gingivae

prominently?
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Syphilis
(c) Crohn’s disease (d) Leprosy
ANSWERS
1. (d) Nasmyth’s membrane or primary enamel cuticle is a basal

lamina like material secreted by postfunctional ameloblasts.
2. (a) Acquired pellicle is seen on teeth which have not been
cleansed for more than 24 hours. It is essentially a precipitate
of salivary glycoproteins.
3. (b) Calculus or tartar is deposited as a soft greasy material
which gradually hardens by deposition of mineral salts in
the organic interstitial spaces, varying in color from yellow
to dark brown or black.
4. (a) Dental plaque is initially deposited as a pellicle on the
uncleansed tooth surfaces over which there is bacterial
colonization. The initial bacterial flora undergoes a change
over time, which is referred to as plaque maturation, which
is then followed by mineralization.
5. (c) Calculus always accumulates most on the surfaces of teeth

opposing the orifices of major salivary gland ducts. Buccal
surface of maxillary posterior teeth are facing the openings
of Stensen’s duct and thus they will show maximum calculus
deposition amongst the given options.
6. (c) Calculus is composed of approximately 75 percent calcium
phosphate, 15–25 percent organic material and water and
the rest calcium carbonate and magnesium phosphate.
7. (a) Since calculus consists of calcium phosphate arranged in a
hydroxyapatite crystal lattice structure and is similar to other
hard tissues like cementum, dentin, bone and enamel, it must
be removed with great care, otherwise the associated tissues,
especially cementum may be damaged.
8. (b) Current evidence indicates that early plaque is composed
of Gram-positive cocci and as the plaque ages, fusobacteria
and filamentous organisms predominate.
9. (b) Halitosis or oral malodor is one of the most common reasons
for which a person seeks dental aid. It may be transient or
persistent. The most common causes for persistent halitosis
are food retention in or on the teeth, unclean prostheses,
dental caries, chronic periodontal disease and dry socket,
etc.
10. (a) This distinctive form of gingivitis manifests as mild marginal
gingival enlargement and later on may extend to involve the
attached gingiva also.
11. (b) Gingival enlargement can many times occur as a result of
use of anticonvulsants, immune suppressants and calcium
channel blockers.
12. (b) Periodontitis is defined as inflammatory disease of
supporting structures of teeth, caused by specific micro
organisms resulting in progressive destruction of periodontal
ligaments and alveolar bone with pocket formation and/
or gingival recession. Thus it encompasses a spectrum of
manifestations of which gingivitis is the forerunner, followed
by periodontitis.
13. (c) HIV positive persons suffer from a severe form of ANUG as
their immune function deteriorates and this progresses to
HIV associated periodontitis.
14. (d) ANUG is an endogenous, polymicrobial infection with
principal agents being a fusiform bacillus and Borrelia
vincentii, a spirochete both of which being present in the

normal oral flora.
15. (b) Amongst other predisposing factors like stress,
immunosuppression, smoking, upper respiratory tract
infection, local trauma and poor oral hygiene, decreased
resistance to infections is considered to be the most
significant.
16. (c) Antibiotics, coupled with thorough oral prophylaxis is
usually sufficient and the disease process begins to regress
within 48 hours. However, serious sequelae like gangrenous
stomatitis, toxemia, septicemia and even death have been
reported.
17. (d) Desquamative gingivitis is not a disease but a clinical
term used to describe a condition of gingiva characterized
by intense redness and desquamation of its surface
epithelium. It is nowadays used to refer to oral manifesta
tion of various diseases and factors like certain dermatoses,
hormonal influences, irritation, chronic infections and even
idiopathic.
18. (d) The most important dermatoses that present findings
characterized as desquamative gingivitis are cicatricial
pemphigoid, pemphigus, lichen planus, epidermolysis
bullosa, systemic lupus erythematosus and linear IgA
disease.
19. (d) Also called elephantiasis gingivae, it is a diffuse gingival
enlargement, sometimes completely covering the teeth.
Cause is unknown, but it is believed to be a hereditary
condition, transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait.
20. (c) Pregnancy tumor is an inflammatory gingival enlargement
seen during pregnancy. Raised levels of estrogen and
progesterone in pregnancy lead to change in vascular
permeability which leads to altered inflammatory response
to dental plaque.
21. (a) The earliest manifestation of chronic periodontitis is
marginal gingivitis, which if left untreated, progresses to
periodontitis. The most common cause is local irritation.
22. (c) Appearance of osteoclasts lodged in small bays called
Howship’s lacunae indicates the beginning of bone
resorption usually at the alveolar crest. At this stage
underlying tissues of periodontium do not show any
changes.
23. (b) Due to commencement of bone resorption at the alveolar

crest, there is blunting of alveolar crest.
24. (d) For reattachment to occur, crevicular epithelium must be
curetted away, tooth should remain relatively immobile,
region should be free from inflammation and all necrotic
cementum should have been removed.
25. (d) Local aggressive periodontitis appears to be a result of
defect in immune response rather than plaque and calculus
deposition. The bactericidal activity of PMNLs appears to
be diminished.
26. (c) It is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by dermal
and oral findings. Due to rapid bone loss, tooth mobility and
pathological migration occurs, resulting in loss of entire
dentition at a very young age.
27. (b) Pseudopocket is usually seen in early periodontitis when
the pathological changes are limited to gingiva. In such
cases, the gingival tissues increase in bulk due to which
the depth of gingival sulcus increases although the gingival
attachment is located on the cementoenamel junction.
28. (b) An infrabony pocket occurs when the depth of pocket
extends apically past the crest of alveolar bone. Such a
pocket then has bone only on its lateral wall.
29. (b) As periodontitis advances and pathological changes
progress to deeper layers of periodontium, the crevicular
epithelium migrates apically and as it does so, it gets
detached coronally.
30. (c) Regional enteritis or Crohn’s disease is a slowly progressive
disease of unknown etiology manifested by granulomas,
ulceration of intestines along with diffusely swollen,
erythematous gingivae, glossitis and cobblestone
appearance of buccal mucosa and vestibule.
5 Infections: Bacterial,
Viral and Mycotic
1. Scarlet fever is caused by _______ Streptococci.

(a) β-hemolytic (b) α-hemolytic
(c) λ-hemolytic (d) δ-hemolytic
2. Identify which one out of the following is not a predisposing factor

of candidiasis.
(a) Radiation therapy (b) Prolonged antibiotic usage
(c) Exertion (d) Immunodeficiency
3. The chief oral manifestation of scarlet fever is

(a) Stomatitis nicotina (b) Stomatitis scarlatina
(c) Stomatitis palatina (d) Stomatitis uvea
4. The mode of transmission of C. diphtheriae is

(a) Blood-borne (b) Water-borne
(c) Animal vectors (d) Air-borne
5. The pseudomembrane in diphtheria is mainly seen on

(a) Tongue (b) Larynx
(c) Tonsils (d) Trachea
6. One of the following is not a complication ensuing from infection

with C. diphtheriae
(a) Trigeminal neuralgia
(b) Otitis media
(c) Acute circulatory failure
(d) Myocarditis
7. Which of the following is not a feature of Mycobacterium

tuberculosis bacteria?
(a) Aerobic (b) Acid fast
(c) Anaerobic (d) Nonspore forming
8. The giant cells found in a tubercular granuloma are called as

(a) Langerhans giant cells (b) Langhans giant cells
(c) Touton giant cells (d) Reed-Sternberg Giant cells
9. Calcification of the necrotic material in later stages of TB is called

(a) Russell complex (b) Rouleaux complex
(c) Langhan’s complex (d) Ranke complex
10. All except ______ are components of tubercular granuloma.

(a) Lymphocytes (b) Multinucleated giant cells
(c) Neutrophils (d) Basophil
11. The tuberculin test is also called as

(a) Rouleaux test (b) Monroe test
(c) WIDAL test (d) Mantoux test
12. Hansen’s disease is another name for

(a) TB (b) Leprosy
(c) Tetanus (d) Syphilis
13. Which is the only bacterium amongst the following to infect the
peripheral nerves?
(a) M. tuberculosis (b) C. diphtheriae
(c) T. pallidum (d) M. leprae
14. Sulfur granules found within pus from the abscess is a

characteristic feature of
(a) Leprosy (b) Diphtheria
(c) Actinomycosis (d) Syphilis
15. Which other infection apart from actinomycosis produces sulfur
granules?
(a) Mucormycosis (b) Cryptococcus
(c) Histoplasmosis (d) Botryomycosis
Infections: Bacterial, Viral and Mycotic 35
16. Which disease, also called as “Lock jaw” is characterized by

intense activity of motor neurons resulting in severe muscle
spasms?
(a) TB (b) Tetanus
(c) Botulism (d) Histoplasmosis
17. ______ is also referred to as “Thrush”.

(a) Acute atrophic candidiasis
(b) Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis
(c) Chronic atrophic candidiasis
(d) Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis
18. Which one of the following is a predisposing factor of Noma?

(a) Central giant cell granuloma
(b) Dentin dysplasia
(c) Diphtheria
(d) Congestive cardiac failure
19. Explosive and widespread form of secondary syphilis is termed

as
(a) Chancre (b) Gumma
(c) Lues maligna (d) Condyloma
20. Cat scratch disease is caused by

(a) Herpes simplex (b) Human papilloma virus
(c) Vincent organism (d) Bartonella henselae
21. Pyogenic granuloma can best be classified as a ______ disease.

(a) Neoplastic (b) Reactive
(c) Infectious (d) Autoimmune
22. Cold sores are caused by _____ virus.

(a) Herpes simplex (b) Herpes zoster
(c) Cytomegalovirus (d) Rubella
23. Lipshütz bodies are intranuclear inclusions seen typically in the

cells of patients affected with
(a) Chickenpox (b) Herpangina
(c) Smallpox (d) Herpetic stomatitis
24. One of the following is not a histological feature associated with

herpes simplex infection
(a) Ballooning degeneration of cells
(b) Lipshütz bodies
(c) Subepithelial vesicle/bulla formation
(d) Multinucleated giant cells
25. Herpetic whitlow is an infection of _____ with HSV 1.

(a) Finger (b) Abdomen
(c) Genitals (d) Conjunctiva
26. Herpangina is caused by _____ virus.

(a) Epstein-Barr (b) Papovavirus
(c) Varicella zoster (d) Coxsackie group A
27. Which amongst the following organisms has a special predilection

for spleen, liver, lymph nodes and bone marrow?
(a) Actinomyces (b) Histoplasma
(c) Candida (d) Treponema
28. The most common site involved in rhinosporidiosis is

(a) Larynx (b) Pharynx
(c) Nasal cavity (d) Skin
29. Erythematous candidiasis occurs most commonly as a result of

(a) Sequela to course of broad spectrum antibiotics
(b) Irritation from dentures
(c) Immunodeficiency
(d) Genetically transmitted
30. Lesions of molluscum contagiosum occur primarily on

(a) Conjunctivae (b) Skin and mucosae
(c) Sclera (d) Scalp
ANSWERS
1. (a) Streptococci are classified according to the presence/

absence of hemolysis around their colonies on blood Agar.
Thus α hemolytic streptococci produce narrow zone of
partial hemolysis, β hemolytic produce clear, translucent
zone of complete hemolysis, while γ hemolytic produce no

hemolysis.
2. (c) Candidiasis is caused by a yeast-like fungus Candida
albicans and is a common inhabitant of oral cavity.
Amongst the many predisposing factors some are acute
and chronic diseases like TB, diabetes, immunodeficiency,
nutritional deficiency, prolonged hospitalization, prolonged
antibiotic usage, radiation therapy, old age, infancy, poorly
maintained dentures, etc.
3. (b) Mucosae of palate, throat, tonsils faucial pillars appear red,
swollen and sometimes covered by a grayish exudate.
4. (d) Transmission of C. diphtheriae occurs via respiratory
droplets. These organisms reside in throat, nose and skin
of patients, upto 3 months after infection.
5. (c) The pseudomembrane begins as a patchy, yellowish white
film that thickens to form an adherent gray covering. Over
a period of time, the membrane may develop patches of
green/black necrosis.
6. (a) Systemic complications like acute circulatory failure,
myocarditis, otitis media, etc. are caused by circulating
toxins due to ensuing bacteremia.
7. (c) Mycobacterium species of bacteria are aerobic, acid-fast,
nonsporing, slender bacilli. As their cell walls contain long
chain fatty acids, they do not take up Gram stain, instead a
special stain, Ziehl-Neelsen stain is used to visualize them.
8. (b) Tuberculosis is characterized by formation of circum
scribed collection of epithelioid histiocytes, lympho
cytes, multinucleated giant cells called Langhans giant
cells and central areas of caseous necrosis. The giant cells
are characteristic of granulomatous infections and are
characterized by dozens of nuclei arranged in a horseshoe
pattern inside the cell.
9. (d) Ranke complex is a radiologically detectable region of
calcification inside the Ghon focus, which is a 1–1.5 cm area
of grayish white inflammation with central area of caseous
necrosis in most cases. This lesion constitutes the tubercular
granuloma histologically.
10. (b) A typical tubercle granuloma is a circumscribed collection
of epithelioid histiocytes, lymphocytes and multinucleated
giant cells often but not always surrounding central areas
of caseous necrosis.
11. (d) Mantoux test is done to determine if an individual is

hypersensitive to the tubercle antigen. This reaction
develops 2–4 weeks after initial exposure to the tubercle
antigen. A positive reaction, however, only indicates the
exposure of the individual to the microorganism and does
not signify active disease, which can only be confirmed by
demonstration of the mycobacterium by special stains and
culture of infected sputum or tissue specimen.
12. (b) Leprosy is a chronic, granulomatous disease caused by
Mycobacterium leprae.
13. (d) Nerve involvement in leprosy is primarily of the facial and
trigeminal nerves. Facial paralysis may be unilateral or
bilateral. Sensory deficit may affect any branch of trigeminal
nerve but maxillary division is most commonly affected.
14. (c) Sulfur granules in actinomycosis represent suppurative
reaction of this disease which discharges yellowish flecks
containing colonies of the bacteria.
15. (d) Botryomycosis represents an unusual host reaction to
S. aureus and certain other bacteria.
16. (b) Symptoms of intense muscle spasms is produced by
the exotoxin of the anaerobic Gram-positive bacterium
Clostridium tetani. The exotoxin acts at the synapse of motor
neurons and interneurons of inhibitory pathways to produce
blockade of spinal inhibition.
17. (d) Thrush is one of the most common form of candidiasis,
occurring at any age, but especially prone to occur in
debilitated or chronically ill patients.
18. (c) Predisposing factors play a crucial role in development
of Noma, as it occurs primarily in persons who are either
malnourished or debilitated from severe systemic infections
like diphtheria, dysentery, measles, pneumonia, scarlet
fever, TB and blood dyscrasias, etc.
19. (c) Seen in secondary stage of acquired syphilis, it is
characterized by diffuse eruption of skin and mucous
membranes which are usually maculopapular in nature.
More commonly seen in HIV positive patients.
20. (d) B. henselae belong to the phylum proteobacterium which
includes other bacteria like Escherichia, Salmonella,
Helicobacter, Vibrio, etc. B. henselae are primarily implicated
in causing cat scratch disease.
21. (b) Earlier considered to be an infection caused by pyogenic

organisms, it is now understood to be an exuberant tissue
response to local irritation or trauma. It is characterized by
a highly vascular proliferation histologically.
22. (a) Cold sores are better known as herpes labialis or herpetic
gingivostomatitis and are caused by herpes simplex 1 virus,
which affects the face, lips, oral cavity and upper body skin.
23. (d) Lipshütz bodies are eosinophilic, ovoid, homogeneous
structures within the nucleus of affected cells. These
structures then displace the nucleolus and nuclear
chromatin peripherally which produces a periinclusion
halo.
24. (c) The vesicles/bullae formed in herpes simplex infection are
intraepithelial in nature as there is marked degeneration of
epithelial cells.
25. (a) Herpetic whitlow or herpetic paronychia is caused by self-
inoculation in children with orofacial herpes.
26. (d) Coxsackievirus A belongs to the genus enterovirus which
also includes other viruses like poliovirus, coxsackievirus,
echovirus, etc.
27. (b) Histoplasma is a generalized fungal infection and is
acquired by inhalation of spores mainly from excreta of
birds. Since the organisms have a special predilection for
reticuloendothelial system, liver, lymph nodes, spleen
and bone marrow, it manifests as hepatosplenomegaly,
lymphadenopathy, fever, cough, etc.
28. (c) Rhinosporidiosis is a chronic granulomatous fungal disease,
affecting mainly the oropharynx and the nasopharynx as
well as larynx, skin, eyes and the genital mucosa.
29. (a) Also called antibiotic sore mouth, it occurs primarily as a
sequela to prolonged course of broad spectrum antibiotics,
corticosteroids or immunosuppressant therapy. Lesions
in this type appear red rather than white, thus resembling
“thrush”.
30. (b) The lesions of molluscum contagiosum occur only on
the skin and mucosae and are often tumor-like in nature
because of localized epithelial proliferation caused by the
poxvirus.
6 Spread of Oral Infections
1. Phlegmon is also known as

(a) Osteomyelitis (b) Cellulitis
(c) Diabetes (d) Abscess
2. Cellulitis spreads as a result of infection by microorganisms that

liberate streptokinase, fibrinolysins and _______.
(a) Chondroitin sulfate (b) Heparan sulfate
(c) Hyaluronic acid (d) Hyaluronidase
3. Infections arising in maxilla perforate the outer cortical plate of

bone above _______ muscle.
(a) Buccinator (b) Orbicularis oris
(c) Masseter (d) Lateral pterygoid
4. Tissue spaces are potential spaces located between

(a) Tendons (b) Muscles
(c) Fascia (d) Ligaments
5. Buccal space is bounded posteriorly by ______ muscle.

(a) Zygomaticus major
(b) Zygomaticus minor
(c) Anterior edge of masseter
(d) Lateral pterygoid
6. Pterygomandibular space infection arises as a result of extension
of infection in ________ region.
(a) Mandibular 3rd molar (b) Mandibular 2nd molar
(c) Mandibular canine (d) Maxillary tuberosity
Spread of Oral Infections 41
7. Inferior portion of _______ space is called as pterygomandibular

space.
(a) Buccal (b) Temporal
(c) Infratemporal (d) Masseteric
8. The pterygomandibular space abscess must be distinguished

from the _______ space.
(a) Peritonsillar (b) Infratemporal
(c) Retropharyngeal (d) Submasseteric
9. Lateral pharyngeal space infections have the potential to spread

upward through ________ and cause cavernous sinus thrombosis,
meningitis and brain abscess.
(a) Various foramina at base of skull
(b) External carotid artery
(c) Internal carotid artery
(d) Submandibular space
10. Mediastinitis results from downward extension of ______ space

infection.
(a) Retropharyngeal (b) Lateral pharyngeal
(c) Infratemporal (d) Pterygomandibular
11. Infection in the parotid space reaches as a backward extension

along the parotid duct or from ______ space.
(a) Retropharyngeal (b) Buccal
(c) Infratemporal (d) Lateral pharyngeal
12. The lateral pharyngeal space is bounded laterally by

(a) Carotid sheath (b) External carotid artery
(c) Internal carotid artery (d) External jugular vein
13. ______ forms the posterior boundary of the submasseteric

space.
(a) Parotid gland
(b) Submandibular salivary gland
(c) Sublingual salivary gland
(d) Anterior ramus
14. Infection of submasseteric space usually arises from

(a) Mandibular 1st molar (b) Mandibular 3rd molar
(c) Parotid space (d) Buccal space
15. The submaxillary or submandibular space is bounded laterally

by
(a) Carotid fascia (b) Skin and superficial fascia
(c) Mylohyoid muscle (d) Omohyoid
16. This space is one of the most commonly involved of all facial
spaces
(a) Submental (b) Sublingual
(c) Submandibular (d) Buccal
17. Infection in sublingual space may arise as an extension from

______ space.
(a) Submandibular (b) Submental
(c) Buccal (d) Submasseteric
18. Submental space extends from the anterior border of

submandibular space to
(a) Midline (b) Sublingual space
(c) Mandibular incisors (d) Symphysis menti
19. Ludwig’s angina is a severe form of

(a) Cellulitis (b) Osteomyelitis
(c) Abscess (d) Cardiac disease
20. Ludwig’s angina is diagnosed as such only when submandibular,

submental and ______ spaces are involved together.
(a) Buccal (b) Lateral pharyngeal
(c) Submasseteric (d) Sublingual
21. The swelling in case of Ludwig’s angina, usually occurs in

(a) Tongue (b) Floor of mouth
(c) Maxillary tuberosity (d) Larynx
22. Dental infections are carried to the cavernous sinus by means of

(a) Pterygopalatine vessels (b) Pterygoid plexus of veins
(c) External carotid artery (d) Internal carotid artery
23. Which one of the following situations can be a source of focal

infection in oral cavity?
(a) Periapical granuloma (b) Periapical abscess
(c) Periodontal disease (d) Odontogenic keratocyst
24. The occurrence of odontogenic maxillary sinusitis is dependent

to a great extent on the relation and proximity of ______ to the
maxillary sinus.
(a) Canine, first and second premolars
(b) Canine and first premolar
(c) Second and third molars
(d) Second premolar, first and second molar
25. Which amongst the following is not an intracranial complication

of dental infections?
(a) Cavernous sinus thrombosis
(b) Brain abscess
(c) Maxillary sinusitis
(d) Leptomeningitis
26. The primary microorganism in the etiology of Ludwig’s angina

is
(a) Streptococci
(b) Staphylococci
(c) Actinomyces
(d) None of above, it is a mixed infection
27. One of the characteristic clinical presentations of cavernous sinus

thrombosis is
(a) Exophthalmos with edema of eyelids and chemosis
(b) Nyctalopia
(c) Proptosis
(d) Asphyxiation
28. Antrolith can be detected in

(a) Odontogenic maxillary sinusitis
(b) Chronic maxillary sinusitis
(c) Acute maxillary sinusitis
(d) Chronic sialadenitis
29. The sinus polyps of chronic maxillary sinusitis microscopically

show
(a) Hyperplastic stratified squamous epithelium
(b) Hyperplastic pseudostratified squamous epithelium
(c) Hyperplastic ciliated epithelium
(d) Hyperplastic granulation tissue with lymphocytic infiltration
30. Oral foci of infection can be aggravated by all of the following

conditions.
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Ischemic heart disease
(c) Subacute bacterial endocarditis
(d) Diabetes
ANSWERS
1. (b) Cellulitis refers to a diffuse inflammation of soft tissues

which is not localized or confined to one area, but which
in contrast with an abscess spreads through tissue spaces
and along fascial planes.
2. (d) Cellulitis spreads due to infection by microorganisms that
liberate streptokinase (enzyme that activates plasminogen
to form plasmin), hyaluronidase (enzyme that breaks down
hyaluronic acid, i.e. an intercellular cementing substance)
and fibrinolysins (enzyme that breaks down fibrin).
3. (a) Infections arising in maxilla perforate the outer cortical plate
of bone above the attachment of buccinator muscle and
produce swelling initially of the upper half of face. Later,
however, the diffuse spread involves the entire face.
4. (c) Tissue spaces are potential spaces located between the
planes of fascia that form natural pathways along which
the infection may spread producing cellulitis or become
localized resulting in formation of an abscess.
5. (c) Buccal space is bounded medially by buccinator muscle and
its covering fascia, laterally by skin and subcutaneous tissue,
anteriorly by posterior border of zygomaticus major muscle
and posteriorly by the anterior edge of masseter muscle.
6. (a) Infections of the pterygomandibular space usually arise
through extension from a pericoronitis of a mandibular
third molar and can also occur in case of injection of local

anesthetic solution into this space.
7. (c) Inferior portion of the infratemporal space is considered as
the pterygomandibular space and lies between the lateral
pterygoid muscle and ramus of mandible.
8. (c) Pterygomandibular space abscess can be distinguished from
the peritonsillar abscess by the fact that there is no dental
involvement and less of trismus in peritonsillar abscess.
9. (a) Source of infection of lateral pharyngeal space is usually a
third molar or sometimes a second molar particularly by
the way of submandibular space. Infections is this space
have the potential to spread upward through foramina at
base of skull, posteriorly into retropharyngeal space or by
direct extension into the mediastinum.
10. (a) Downward extension of retropharyngeal infection can result
in mediastinitis. Additionally, it may also cause thrombosis
of internal jugular vein and erosion of internal carotid artery
resulting in fatal hemorrhage.
11. (d) Infection in the parotid space reaches the parotid gland in
a retrograde direction along the parotid duct or also as an
extension from the lateral pharyngeal space. Infection can
also spread to the temporal space.
12. (a) Lateral pharyngeal space is bounded anteriorly by
buccopharyngeal aponeurosis parotid gland and pterygoid
muscles, posteriorly by prevertebral fascia, medially by the
lateral wall of pharynx and laterally by the carotid sheath.
13. (a) Submasseteric space is located between the masseter
muscle and lateral surface of ramus of mandible. This space
is bounded anteriorly by retromolar fossa and posteriorly
by the parotid gland.
14. (b) The infection of submasseteric space usually arises from
the mandibular third molar, passing through the retromolar
fossa into this space. There is severe trismus, pain and facial
swelling.
15. (b) The submandibular space is located medial to mandible
and below the posterior portion of mylohyoid muscle and
encloses the submandibular salivary gland and lymph
nodes. It is bounded medially by hyoglossus and digastric
muscles and laterally by skin and superficial fascia.
16. (c) It is one of the most common of the facial and cervical tissue
space infections and usually originate from mandibular
molars, producing a swelling near the angle of jaw.
17. (a) Infection of sublingual space may arise directly by perforating
the buccal cortical plate above the mylohyoid muscle
attachment or as an extension from the submandibular
space.
18. (a) The submental space extends from the anterior border of
submandibular space to the midline and is limited in depth
by the mylohyoid muscle.
19. (a) Ludwig’s angina is an acute cellulitis beginning usually in
the submandibular space and secondarily involving the
submental and sublingual spaces as well.
20. (d) The disease is not diagnosed as such until all the sub
mandibular spaces are involved. The source of infection
is usually an infected mandibular molar which may be
either periapical or periodontal infection. It may also result
from submandibular gland sialadenitis, oral soft tissue
lacerations, penetrating injury of floor of mouth of from
osteomyelitis in compound jaw fractures.
21. (b) Patients with Ludwig’s angina usually present with rapidly
developing board-like swelling of floor of mouth and
consequent elevation of tongue which can lead to dysphagia
as well as dyspnea.
22. (b) Cavernous sinuses are bilateral venous channels for the
content of middle cranial fossa. Areas drained by them
include orbit, paranasal sinuses, anterior mouth and
midfacial region. While facial and lip infections are carried
by facial and angular veins, the dental infections are carried
by way of pterygoid plexus of veins.
23. (d) While periapical granuloma, abscess and periodontal
disease are generally microbial in origin the odontogenic
keratocyst is a developmental odontogenic cyst, and not
caused by an infection.
24. (d) The roots of second premolar, first molar and second molar
are located in close proximity to the inferior border of
maxillary sinus and hence are prime sources of odontogenic
infections to maxillary sinus.
25. (c) Maxillary sinusitis is caused by direct spread of dental
infections to it and is referred to as odontogenic maxillary
sinusitis. Sinusitis may also be caused by foreign bodies,

tumors, and granulomatous lesions of nasomaxillary
complex.
26. (d) Although many organisms have been isolated from patients
suffering from Ludwig’s angina, some being invariably
present, yet it is considered primarily a nonspecific mixed
infection.
27. (a) Along with exophthalmus and chemosis, patients also show
paralysis of external ocular muscles, along with impairment
of vision and sometimes photophobia and lacrimation.
28. (b) Antrolith is a form of dystrophic calcification seen some
times in cases of chronic maxillary sinusitis which can be
detected radiographically.
29. (d) The mucosa lining the maxillary sinus shows remarkable
thickening and development of numerous sinus polyps
which contain hyperplastic granulation along with
lymphocytic and plasma cell infiltration. This tissue is
usually covered with ciliated epithelium.
30. (c) Subacute bacterial endocarditis can be aggravated by dental
extraction procedures due to transient bacteremia following
tooth extraction and also due to close similarity between the
microorganisms causing endocarditis and dental infections.
7
Benign and Malignant
Nonodontogenic
Tumors of Oral Cavity
1. Irritation fibroma will be the most favored provisional diagnosis

for a firm, smooth surfaced, pinkish nodule, occurring on
(a) Buccal mucosa along the bite line
(b) Vermilion border of lip
(c) Soft palate
(d) Ala of nose
2. The developmental lesion, histologically similar to giant cell

fibroma, occurring on lingual gingiva of mandibular canines is
called
(a) Procuspid papilla (b) Retromandibular papilla
(c) Retrocuspid papilla (d) Retrocuspid fibroma
3. Single/multiple folds of hyperplastic tissue in alveolar vestibule,

occurring in association with flange of an ill fitting denture is
most likely to be
(a) Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
(b) Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia
(c) Giant cell epulis
(d) Congenital epulis
4. Fibroepithelial polyp is a flattened leaf-like pink lesion occurring

on
(a) Soft palate (b) Hard palate
(c) Gingiva (d) Labial mucosa
5. All except ____ are common causes of inflammatory papillary

hyperplasia.
(a) Ill-fitting dentures
(b) Poor denture hygiene
Benign and Malignant Nonodontogenic Tumors of Oral Cavity 49
(c) Wearing dentures for 24 hours

(d) Infection by herpes virus
6. Microscopically, one of the most common types of arrangements

of tumor cells in fibrous histiocytoma is _____ pattern.
(a) Storiform (b) Herringbone
(c) Ductal (d) Glandular
7. The most common cause of pyogenic granuloma is

(a) Infection by pyogenic organisms
(b) Granulomatous infection
(c) Exaggerated tissue reaction to local irritation/trauma
(d) Infection by herpes virus
8. 75% of pyogenic granulomas occur on the

(a) Palate (b) Tongue
(c) Gingiva (d) Lip
9. Which amongst the following lesions does not occur commonly

on the gingiva?
(a) Peripheral ossifying fibroma
(b) Pyogenic granuloma
(c) Peripheral giant cell granuloma
(d) Neurofibroma
10. A gingival lesion which histologically shows trabeculae of osteoid

or droplets of basophilic cementum like material in a background
of fibrovascular connective tissue is suggestive of
(a) Central ossifying fibroma
(b) Juvenile ossifying fibroma
(c) Periapical cemental dysplasia
11. Intraoral lipomas occur most commonly on

(a) Gingiva (b) Buccal mucosa
(c) Tongue (d) Palate
12. The most common histological variant of lipoma is

(a) Fibrolipoma (b) Angiolipoma
(c) Myxoid lipoma (d) Spindle cell lipoma
13. Damage to a nerve bundle is the most common cause of

(a) Solitary circumscribed neuroma
(b) Neurilemmoma
(c) Traumatic neuroma
(d) Neurofibroma
14. Which amongst the following is the more common nerve tissue
tumor of head and neck region?
(a) Traumatic neuroma
(b) Schwannoma
(c) Neurofibroma
(d) Solitary circumscribed neuroma
15. Microscopic pattern of Antoni A type of tissue proliferation is

found in
(a) Neurilemmoma (b) Neurofibroma
(c) Hodgkin’s disease (d) Verrucous carcinoma
16. _____________ is the most common location for occurrence of

neurilemmoma.
(a) Lip (b) Tongue
(c) Palate (d) Vestibule
17. The most common peripheral nerve neoplasm is

(a) Neurofibroma
(b) Granular cell tumor
(c) Schwannoma
(d) Solitary circumscribed neuroma
18. The central, acellular, eosinophilic mass found in center of Antoni

A tissue of neurilemmoma is called
(a) Verrucous body (b) Verruciform body
(c) Verocay body (d) Basaloid body
19. Ancient neurilemmoma are those tumors that show _______
changes.
(a) Degenerative (b) Myxoid
(c) Squamous metaplasia (d) Basaloid
20. Neurofibroma arises from

(a) Perineural fibroblasts (b) Schwann cells
(c) Mixture of (a) and (b) (d) Fibroblasts
21. Neurofibroma can also be a component of

(a) von Willebrand’s disease
(b) von Recklinghausen’s disease
(c) van der Waals disease
(d) von Ebner’s disease
22. ______ cells are found in large numbers in neurofibroma, which

may be used as a diagnostic feature.
(a) Macrophages (b) Neutrophils
(c) Lymphocytes (d) Mast cells
23. Lisch nodules and Crowe’s sign are components of

(c) Neurofibrosarcoma (d) Neurofibromatosis
24. The most common and serious complication of neurofibroma-

tosis is
(a) Pheochromocytoma
(b) Wilms tumor
(c) Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor
(d) Leukemia
25. Development of ________ occurs in 90% of cases of multiple

endocrine neoplasia Type 2B.
(a) Pheochromocytoma
(b) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
(c) Wilms tumor
(d) Rhabdomyosarcoma
26. A pigmented tumor occurring in the 1st year of life, arising from
neural crest and associated with high urinary levels of vanillyl
mandelic acid is highly suggestive of
(a) MEN type 2B
(b) Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy
(c) Gingival cyst of infancy
(d) von Recklinghausen’s disease
27. Paraganglioma or carotid body tumors are derived from

(a) Ectoderm (b) Neural plate
(c) Neural crest (d) Mesoderm
28. The epithelioid cells in paraganglioma are arranged in nests

called as
(a) Zellballen (b) Abtrofung
(c) Alveoli (d) Islands
29. The most common site of occurrence of granular cell tumor is

(a) Tongue (b) Gingiva
(c) Palate (d) Vestibule
30. In contrast to granular cell tumor, the overlying epithelium in

congenital epulis never shows
(a) Ulceration
(b) Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia
(c) Atrophy
(d) Acanthosis
31. The principal difference between hemangioma and vascular

malformation is
(a) Pigmentation
(b) Rate of blood flow through lesion
(c) Endothelial cell proliferation
(d) Site of occurrence
32. _______ is the most common tumor of infancy.

(a) Melanotic neuroectodermal tumor of infancy
(b) Congenital epulis of newborn
(c) Gingival cyst of newborn
(d) Hemangioma
33. The most common complication of hemangioma is _______

(a) Amblyopia (b) Ulceration
(c) Airway obstruction (d) Hemorrhage
34. Port wine stain is a common component of __________________

syndrome.
(a) Osler Weber-Rendu (b) Kelly Paterson
(c) Sturge-Weber (d) Klinefelter
35. Which special stain can be employed to diagnose hemangio

pericytoma?
(a) PAS (b) Alcian blue
(c) Masson trichrome (d) Reticulin
36. The most probable diagnosis for multiple translucent vesicle like
lesions on the anterior 2/3rd of tongue, that appears enlarged
(macroglossia) could be
(c) Lymphangioma (d) Pemphigus vulgaris
37. Lymphangiomas occur most frequently in _______ region.
(a) Head and neck (b) Skin
(c) Lower extremities (d) Abdomen
38. Which amongst the following tumors occurs almost exclusively
in males?
(a) Sjögren’s syndrome
(b) Hemangioma
(c) Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
(d) Pyogenic granuloma
39. Active endothelial cell proliferation is not seen in which of the
following lesions?
(a) Cavernous hemangioma
(b) Capillary hemangioma
(c) Port-wine stain
(d) Kaposi’s sarcoma
40. Sturge-Weber syndrome/angiomatosis demonstrates port-wine
stain usually distributed unilaterally along the course of one or
more branches of ________ cranial nerve.
(a) VII (b) V
(c) III (d) VIII
41. All except ____________ are histological types of leiomyoma.

(a) Alveolar (b) Solid
(c) Vascular (d) Epithelioid
42. Oral leiomyomas are either solid or _______ in type.
(a) Epithelioid (b) Vascular
(c) Alveolar (d) Myxoid
43. Which stain is employed to stain the smooth muscles in
leiomyoma?
(a) Mallory (b) Masson trichrome
(c) Van Gieson (d) PAS
44. The most common site of occurrence for rhabdomyosarcoma is
(a) Abdomen (b) Lower extremity
(c) Head and neck (d) Trunk
45. The most common choristomas of oral cavity consist of
(a) Fibrous tissue (b) Myxoid tissue
(c) Bone and/or cartilage (d) Adipose
46. The most common location for occurrence of choristomas
intraorally is
(a) Ventral surface of tongue
(b) Posterior tongue near foramen cecum
(c) Anterior 2/3rd of tongue
(d) Floor of mouth
47. “Herringbone” pattern of proliferation of spindle-shaped cells is
typically seen in
(a) Fibrous histiocytoma
(b) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
(c) Neurofibrosarcoma
(d) Fibrosarcoma
48. The most common soft tissue sarcoma of adults is
(a) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
(b) Neurofibrosarcoma
(c) Osteosarcoma
(d) Fibrosarcoma
49. The most common of histopathological varieties of liposarcoma

is
(a) Round cell (b) Well-differentiated
(c) Myxoid (d) Pleomorphic
50. Malignant triton tumor is a variety of neurofibrosarcoma wherein

there is __ tissue differentiation.
(a) Smooth muscle (b) Cartilage
(c) Glandular (d) Skeletal muscle
51. Vascular tumor with histological features intermediate between

hemangioma and angiosarcoma is called
(a) Hemangioendothelioma
(b) Hemangiopericytoma
(c) Kaposi’s sarcoma
(d) Ewing’s sarcoma
52. Kaposi’s sarcoma is now believed to be caused by

(a) Human papilloma virus 2
(b) Cytomegalovirus
(c) Human herpes virus 8
(d) Herpes simplex virus 2
53. All except _____ are a variety of Kaposi sarcoma.

(a) Pleomorphic (b) Endemic African
(c) Classic (d) AIDS related
54. Which amongst the following endemic African type of Kaposi’s

sarcoma is seen primarily in children and young adults?
(a) Florid (b) Lymphadenopathic
(c) Aggressive (d) Benign nodular
55. The most common soft tissue sarcoma of children is

(a) Leiomyosarcoma (b) Fibrosarcoma
(c) Rhabdomyosarcoma (d) Ewing’s sarcoma
56. Only one amongst the following is a round cell tumor. Identify it
(a) Fibrosarcoma (b) Kaposi’s sarcoma
(c) Rhabdomyosarcoma (d) Ewing’s sarcoma
57. Which amongst the following is not a round cell tumor?

(a) Ewing’s sarcoma
(b) Kaposi’s sarcoma
(c) Olfactory neuroblastoma
(d) Round cell liposarcoma
58. Which one of the lesions given below is a congenital lesion?
(a) Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
(b) Port-wine stain
(c) Fetal rhabdomyosarcoma
(d) Angiosarcoma
59. A hemangioma can be best classified as
(a) Hamartoma (b) Choristoma
(c) Neoplasm (d) Cyst
60. All are true neoplasms except
(a) Hemangioma
(b) Granular cell tumor
(c) Lymphangioma
(d) Sturge-Weber angiomatosis
61. Which virus is most commonly associated with squamous
papilloma?
(a) Human papilloma virus
(b) Human herpes virus
(c) Epstein-Barr virus
(d) Human immunodeficiency virus
62. The squamous papilloma is clinically and microscopically
indistinguishable from which other lesion occurring in skin?
(a) Verrucous carcinoma
(b) Verruca vulgaris
(c) Molluscum contagiosum
(d) Dyskeratosis congenita
63. Multiple papilloma like lesions occurs in which one of the
following syndromes?
(a) Cowden
(b) Treacher Collins syndrome
(c) Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome

(d) Grinspan syndrome
64. Which one of the following benign lesions resembles squamous

cell carcinoma clinically and microscopically?
(a) Verruca vulgaris (b) Keratoacanthoma
(c) Squamous acanthoma (d) Leukoedema
65. The nevus cells in junctional nevi are located in _____ layer of
epithelium.
(a) Stratum granulosum (b) Stratum spinosum
(c) Stratum intermedium (d) Stratum basale
66. Which amongst the following types of nevi shows the greatest
risk of developing into malignant melanoma?
(a) Intradermal nevus (b) Compound
(c) Blue nevus (d) Junctional nevus
67. Spot the only premalignant lesion from the below given
conditions
(a) Oral submucous fibrosis
(b) Sideropenic dysphagia
(c) Leukoplakia
(d) Lichen planus
68. The only lesion out of the following that can be diagnosed
histologically is
(a) Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia
(b) Leukoplakia
(c) Erythroplakia
(d) Verrucous hyperplasia
69. Indicate the incorrect statement regarding microscopic

appearance of epithelial dysplasia
(a) Enlarged nucleoli
(b) Basilar hyperplasia
(c) Flattened rete ridges
(d) Individual cell keratinization
70. Only one amongst the following is a developmental condition,

while others are premalignant lesions/conditions
(a) Leukoedema
(b) Leukoplakia
(c) Oral submucous fibrosis
(d) Erythroplakia
71. Spot the only lesion from below given ones which presents as
bright red velvety patch
(a) Median rhomboid glossitis
(b) Oral submucous fibrosis
(c) Nicotina palati
(d) Keratoacanthoma
72. Rodent ulcer is another name of
(a) Verrucous carcinoma
(b) Basal cell carcinoma
(d) Osteosarcoma
73. The commonest malignant neoplasm of oral cavity is
(a) Basal cell carcinoma
(b) Verruca vulgaris
(c) Epidermoid carcinoma
(d) Malignant melanoma
74. Which amongst the following is a common clinical presentation
of squamous cell carcinoma?
(a) Soft, fluctuant swelling
(b) Hard swelling with egg shell crackling
(c) Chronic, non-healing ulcer with indurated margins
(d) Multiple, vesicles and bullae
75. Lentigo maligna, acral lentiginous and mucosal lentiginous are
forms of which of the following neoplasm?
(a) Oral melanocytic nevus
(b) Adenosquamous carcinoma
(c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(d) Malignant melanoma
ANSWERS
1. (a) Irritation fibroma being a noninflammatory, fibrous

lesion, manifests as a firm, smooth surfaced, swelling. It
represents a reactive hyperplasia of tissues in response to
local irritation/trauma. The most common cause of irritation
intraorally is occlusal trauma.
2. (c) Retrocuspid papilla is a developmental lesion, micro
scopically similar to giant cell fibroma. It occurs in children
and young adults and occurs almost exclusively on lingual
aspect of mandibular canines
3. (b) This lesion is a reactive lesion occurring in response to
irritation caused by the flanges of an ill-fitting complete/
partial denture. It typically manifests as single/multiple
folds of hyperplastic tissue in alveolar vestibule.
4. (b) Also called leaf-like denture fibroma, it occurs on the
hard palate beneath a maxillary denture. It manifests as a
flattened pink mass that is attached to the palate by a thin
stalk (peduncle).
5. (d) Also known as denture papillomatosis, this lesion also,
like inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia occurs in response
to factors like poor oral hygiene, ill-fitting dentures, etc. It
occurs most commonly beneath a denture base on the hard
palate.
6. (a) Fibrous histiocytoma is a true neoplasm and exhibits both
fibroblastic and histiocytic differentiation. Characterized
microscopically by proliferation of spindle-shaped cells with
vesicular nuclei in short, interlacing fascicles, resembling
the whorled appearance of a straw mat (storiform).
7. (c) Initially believed to be a pyogenic infection, it is now thought
to represent an exuberant tissue reaction to local irritation/
trauma.
8. (c) Gingival irritation and inflammation being the most
common causes, pyogenic granuloma occurs most
commonly on the gingivae. Other common intraoral sites
are lips, tongue and buccal mucosa.
9. (d) Pyogenic granuloma, peripheral ossifying fibroma and
peripheral giant cell granuloma are included under the
differential diagnosis of epulides (swelling occurring on
gingivae). Neurofibroma, however, occurs most commonly
on tongue and buccal mucosa.
10. (d) Although all other lesions show somewhat similar features
of presence of osteoid and/or cementum like material, all
of them occur centrally within the bone, while peripheral
ossifying fibroma, as the name suggests, occurs peripherally,
i.e. within soft tissue.
11. (b) Lipomas occur most commonly in areas where there are
plenty of adipocytes, which will be more in buccal mucosa
compared to palate, gingiva or tongue.
12. (a) This variant shows excessive fibrosis between the adipocytes.
13. (c) It is not a true neoplasm but an exuberant attempt at repair
of a damaged nerve trunk.
14. (d) It represents a reactive lesion, with the etiology usually being
trauma. It shows a striking predilection for the face, especially
nose and cheeks.
15. (a) Antoni type A tissue is made up of elongated/spindle shaped
cells with spindle-shaped/wavy nuclei which are aligned in
a characteristic palisading pattern, while the intercellular
fibers are arranged in parallel fashion between the rows of
nuclei.
16. (b) Although neurilemmoma shows a predilection for head and
neck region, tongue is the most common intraoral site, with
other locations being palate, floor of mouth, buccal mucosa
and gingiva.
17. (a) This common peripheral nerve neoplasm arises from a
mixture of cell types including Schwann cells and perineural
fibroblasts.
18. (c) Verocay bodies are composed of reduplicated basement
membrane and cytoplasmic processes of the Schwann cells.
19. (a) Degenerative changes within ancient neurilemmoma
consist of hemorrhage, hemosiderin deposit, fibrosis,
inflammation and nuclear atypia.
20. (c) Earlier believed to arise from Schwann cells, it is now
understood that it can arise from a mixture of cell types
including perineural fibroblasts.
21. (b) Multiple lesions of neurofibromas occurring in a person
is referred to as neurofibromatosis/von Recklinghausen’s
disease. Unlike neurofibroma though, it is a hereditary
disease, inherited as an autosomal dominant trait.
22. (d) Neurofibroma is composed of interlacing bundles of
spindle-shaped cells with thin, wavy nuclei. These cells
are associated with delicate collagen bundles and myxoid
matrix. Mast cells are numerous in the lesion and can be a

useful diagnostic feature.
23. (d) Axillary freckling (Crowe’s sign) and translucent brownish
pigmented spots on the iris (Lisch nodules) belong to a set
of 7 features. The diagnostic criteria of neurofibromatosis
are met if a patient has 2 or more of these 7 features.
24. (c) Neurofibrosarcoma/malignant peripheral nerve sheath
neoplasm occurs in about 5 percent of cases of neuro
fibromatosis. They occur most commonly on trunk and
extremities.
25. (b) This carcinoma arises from the parafollicular (C) cells
of thyroid gland which are responsible for secretion of
calcitonin. They are most often diagnosed in patients
between the ages of 18–25 and have a marked propensity
for metastasis.
26. (b) This tumor always occurs in the first year of life and is
accepted to arise from neural crest cells. Most commonly
seen in anterior maxilla as a rapidly expanding blue/black
mass. High urinary levels of VMA are seen in most neural
crest tumors like pheochromocytoma, neuroblastoma, etc.
27. (c) Paraganglia are specialized tissue of neural crest origin
that are associated with autonomic nerves and ganglia
throughout the body.
28. (a) These nests consist primarily of chief cells, which show
central, vesicular nuclei and a granular, eosinophilic
cytoplasm.
29. (a) Uncommon benign, soft tissue tumor that shows a
predilection for oral cavity especially tongue. Earlier
believed to arise from skeletal muscles, now it is believed
to arise from Schwann cells.
30. (b) This tumor appears as pink red, polypoid mass on alveolar
ridge of a newborn infant and is characterized histologically
by sheets of large, closely packed, polyhedral cells showing
fine, granular eosinophilic cytoplasm.
31. (c) Apart from endothelial proliferation, hemangiomas also
show gradual involution after a rapid growth phase in early
infancy.
32. (d) Hemangiomas are not present at birth, but develop within
first month of life. They are the commonest tumors of
infancy affecting primarily the head and neck region.
33. (b) Ulceration may occur with or without secondary infection.

Although hemorrhage may be seen, there is usually no
significant blood loss.
34. (c) It is a nonhereditary developmental condition manifested
by facial port-wine stain, leptomeningeal angiomas,
tramline-like calcification on skull radiographs and ocular
involvement like glaucoma and vascular malformations on
conjunctiva, choroid and retina.
35. (d) The reticulin stain is used to demonstrate the reticulin
network surrounding the blood vessels and individual
tumor cells.
36. (c) Lymphangiomas are benign, hamartomatous tumors
of lymph vessels. They are classified according to size
of lymph vessels as lymphangioma simplex, cavernous
lymphangioma and cystic lymphangioma.
37. (a) About 50 percent to 75 percent of all cases occur in head
and neck region. About half of all lesions are noted at birth
and around 90 percent develop by 2 years of age.
38. (c) It is a rare fibrovascular lesion that occurs only in the
nasopharynx and almost exclusively in males. It is believed
to be a vascular malformation rather than a true neoplasm.
39. (c) Portwine stains/nevus flammeus represent vascular
malformations where there is no endothelial cell prolife
ration.
40. (b) Sturge-Weber angiomatosis is a nonhereditary develop-
mental condition characterized by hamartomatous vascular
proliferation of brain and facial tissues. It is believed to
be caused by persistence of a vascular plexus around the
cephalic portion of the neural tube.
41. (a) Leiomyomas are benign tumors of smooth muscle origin,
probably vascular smooth muscle. Solid, vascular and
epithelioid are its three types.
42. (b) Oral leiomyoma manifests as slow growing firm mucosal
nodule. Most common sites are lips, tongue, palate, and
cheek.
43. (b) Being a spindle cell lesion, special stains like Masson’s
trichrome may be required to demonstrate muscle fibers.
Smooth muscle fibers are stained bright red with Masson’s
trichrome stain.
44. (c) Rhabdomyoma are benign tumors of skeletal muscle tissue
and show a striking predilection for head and neck region.
45. (c) Choristoma is a tumor-like growth of microscopically

normal tissue in an abnormal location.
46. (b) Choristomas show a striking predilection for the tongue,
which accounts for 85 percent of cases. The most common
location is the posterior tongue near the foramen cecum.
47. (d) Well-differentiated fibrosarcomas consist of fascicles of
spindle-shaped cells that classically form a “herringbone”
pattern.
48. (a) It is a malignant neoplasm displaying both fibroblastic as
well as histiocytic features.
49. (c) This variety accounts for nearly 50 percent of all cases. They
demonstrate proliferating lipoblasts within a myxoid stroma
that contains a rich capillary network.
50. (d) Apart from malignant atypical spindle cells, some tumors
can demonstrate heterologous elements which include
skeletal muscle differentiation, cartilage, bone or glandular
structures.
51. (a) Hemangioendothelioma demonstrates microscopic features
which are intermediate between those of hemangiomas
and angiosarcoma. Such tumors are considered to be of
intermediate malignancy.
52. (c) Kaposi’s sarcoma occurs most commonly in association
with AIDS. It is now believed to be caused by the human
herpesvirus 8, also called Kaposi’s sarcoma associated
herpesvirus.
53. (a) Four clinical presentations of Kaposi sarcoma are recognized:
classic, endemic African, iatrogenic immunosuppression
associated and AIDS related.
54. (b) Occurs primarily in young black children and exhibits
generalized, rapidly growing tumors of the lymph
nodes, occasional visceral organ lesions, and sparse skin
involvement.
55. (c) Rhabdomyosarcoma, a malignant neoplasm of skeletal
muscle origin is the most common soft tissue sarcoma of
children. The most frequent site is the head and neck, which
accounts for 40 percent of all cases.
56. (d) Ewing’s sarcoma is composed of small round cells with well-
defined nuclear outlines and ill-defined cellular borders.
57. (b) Kaposi’s sarcoma is basically a vascular lesion which in
initial stages shows proliferation of miniature vessels, with
development of spindle cell population in later stages.
58. (b) Port-wine stain is a form of vascular malformation which is

present at birth and persists throughout life.
59. (a) Hamartoma is a tumor developmental malformation.
60. (b) It is an uncommon soft tissue neoplasm that is currently
believed to originate from either Schwann cells or
neuroendocrine cells.
61. (a) HPV 6 and HPV 11 viruses have consistently been
demonstrated in the lesions of oral squamous cell papilloma.
62. (b) Squamous papilloma is the mucosal variant of the common
wart occurring on skin, called verruca vulgaris. They cannot
be clinically and histologically differentiated.
63. (a) Cowden syndrome is an autosomal dominant disease
characterized by multiple papilloma like lesions, multiple
hamartomas and neoplasia of thyroid, GIT and CNS, etc.
64. (b) Keratoacanthoma is a low-grade malignancy originating
from the sebaceous glands and is considered to be variant
of invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
65. (d) In junctional nevus, the nevus cells located within the basal
layer of epithelium proliferate, spread laterally along the
basal layer and then begin to cross the junction and spread
into the underlying connective tissue in groups and nests.
66. (d) Microscopically, the junctional activity or proliferation and
lateral spread of nevus cells along the basal layer has been
known to be associated with a high risk of development of
malignant melanoma.
67. (c) A premalignant lesion is defined as a morphologically
altered tissue in which cancer is more likely to develop
than its normal counterpart. Leukoplakia, erythroplakia
and palatal changes associated with reverse smoking are
the examples of premalignant lesions.
68. (d) Although verrucous hyperplasia (VH) and proliferative
verrucous leukoplakia (PVL) are clinically related, the term
PVL is clinical while the diagnosis of VH is always confirmed
histologically. VH is considered a forerunner to verrucous
carcinoma and once the diagnosis of VH is confirmed it is
treated as verrucous carcinoma.
69. (c) Flattened rete ridges is a feature of atrophy of epithelium
which may or may not show dysplastic histological features,
while drop-shaped rete ridges is a feature of hyperplasia
occurring in basal layer which is a dysplastic feature.
70. (a) Leukoedema is a benign lesion which occurs usually

bilaterally on the buccal mucosa. Since it resembles
leukoplakia closely, it must be differentiated from it. That
is easily done by stretching and everting the mucosa due to
which the lesion of leukoedema becomes indistinct while
leukoplakia does not. Also microscopically, leukoedema
presents with a markedly hyperplastic spongiotic layer
showing prominent intracellular edema.
71. (a) Also called central papillary atrophy of tongue, this lesion
is now believed to be a candidal infection, manifesting as
a well-defined, oval, pink area on the center of tongue due
to absence of papillae.
72. (b) Basal cell carcinoma is the most common malignancy
in humans caused by prolonged exposure to ultraviolet
radiation. It manifests clinically as a small ulcer with rolled
margins, it infiltrates to adjacent as well as deeper tissues
like bone, muscles, etc. thus its synonym.
73. (c) Epidermoid or squamous cell carcinoma is a malignant
neoplasm arising from the epithelium and its cause is
attributed to the use of tobacco in various forms, including
smokeless variety.
74. (c) The classical presentation of squamous cell carcinoma is
that of a chronic nonhealing ulcer with indurated margins,
although verrucous carcinoma as well as carcinoma of
buccal and alveolar mucosae may manifest as exophytic
growths.
75. (d) It is tumor of epidermal melanocytes and is associated with
factors like sun exposure, artificial ultraviolet radiation
exposure, fair, freckled skin, number of melanocytic nevi and
genetic factors like familial and xeroderma pigmentosum.
8 Odontogenic
Cysts and Tumors
ODONTOGENIC CYSTS
1. ________ is also known as follicular cyst.
(a) Odontogenic keratocyst
(b) Calcifying odontogenic cyst
(c) Lateral periodontal cyst
(d) Dentigerous cyst
2. A dentigerous cyst develops due to collection of fluid between

_________ and tooth surface.
(a) Reduced dental epithelium
(b) Stellate reticulum
(c) Internal dental epithelium
(d) External dental epithelium
3. The tooth most commonly involved by dentigerous cyst is

(a) Maxillary canine
(b) Maxillary 3rd molar
(c) Mandibular 2nd premolar
(d) Mandibular 3rd molar
4. Which one of the following is not a radiographic variety of

dentigerous cyst?
(a) Central (b) Collateral
(c) Lateral (d) Circumferential
5. A well-defined radiolucent lesion attached to the neck of an

impacted mandibular third molar in a 20-year-old male is most
likely to be
(a) Dentigerous cyst
(b) Odontogenic keratocyst
Odontogenic Cysts and Tumors 67

(d) Calcifying odontogenic cyst
6. Multiple odontogenic keratocysts, basal cell carcinomas and
bifid ribs are features of ________ syndrome.
(a) Gardner (b) Gorlin-Goltz
(c) Grinspan (d) Kelly Paterson
7. Which one of the following odontogenic cysts grows in an
anteroposterior direction within the medullary spaces of bone?
(a) Dentigerous cyst (b) Odontogenic keratocyst
(c) Gingival cyst of adults (d) Radicular cyst
8. “Picket fence” or “Tombstone” appearance of basal cell layer of
cyst lining is a characteristic feature seen in _________.
(b) Dentigerous cyst
(c) Radicular cyst
(d) Lateral periodontal cyst
9. All of the following statements except _______ are true regarding
odontogenic keratocyst
(a) Seen primarily in mandibular molar—Ascending ramus
region
(b) Epithelial lining is thin and friable
(c) Originates from cell rests of Malassezia
(d) Epithelial lining is keratinized
10. Which one of the following is an important factor in the
recurrence of odontogenic keratocysts?
(a) Presence of exudate in the cyst lumen
(b) Presence of inflammation in connective tissue wall
(c) Friable and thin epithelial lining
(d) Development of new cysts from the cell rests of Malassezia
in the vicinity
11. All of the following except _____________ are examples of

developmental odontogenic cysts.
(a) Radicular cyst (b) Calcifying odontogenic cyst
(c) Gingival cyst of adults (d) Lateral periodontal cyst
12. A primordial cyst is now believed to represent

(a) Calcifying odontogenic cyst
(d) Botryoid odontogenic cyst
13. Small, superficial, keratin filled cysts that are found on the
alveolar mucosa of infants are most likely to be
(a) Median mandibular cyst
(b) Nasopalatine duct cyst
(c) Gingival cyst of the newborn
(d) Eruption cyst
14. Spot the only fissural/inclusion cyst amongst the below given
cysts
(a) Lateral periodontal cyst
(c) Glandular odontogenic cyst
15. An eruption cyst is a soft tissue analogue of

(a) Radicular cyst (b) Gingival cyst of newborn
(c) Dentigerous cyst (d) Odontogenic keratocyst
16. A smooth, translucent swelling on gingival mucosa overlying the

crown of an erupting tooth is suggestive of
(a) Parulis (b) Eruption cyst
(c) Gingival cyst of adults (d) Gingival cyst of newborn
17. Which amongst the following cysts has a predilection for

occurrence in mandibular canine-premolar region?
(a) Gingival cyst of adults (b) Gingival cyst of newborn
(c) Radicular cyst (d) Dentigerous cyst
18. Botryoid odontogenic cyst is a variant of which of the following
cysts?
(a) Gingival cyst of adults
(b) Lateral periodontal cyst
(c) Odontogenic keratocyst
(d) Calcifying odontogenic cyst
19. Which one of the following cysts is considered to be a soft tissue

counterpart of lateral periodontal cyst?
(a) Gingival cyst of newborn
(b) Radicular cyst
(c) Calcifying odontogenic cyst
(d) Gingival cyst of adults
20. Carcinoma arising within the odontogenic cyst linings is a

complication seen most commonly in which cyst?
(d) Radicular cyst
21. A lateral periodontal cyst must be distinguished radiologically

from which other odontogenic cyst?
(a) Lateral dentigerous cyst (b) Collateral keratocyst
(c) Epstein’s pearls (d) Eruption cyst
22. A median palatal cyst arises from

(a) Epithelium entrapped along the line of fusion of palatal
processes of maxilla
(b) Cystic degeneration of remnants of nasopalatine duct
(c) Cystic degeneration of rests of dental lamina
(d) Cystic degeneration of epithelial rests of Malassezia
23. Gorlin cyst is more commonly referred to as

(b) Calcifying odontogenic cyst
(d) Glandular odontogenic cyst
24. A common odontogenic tumor, odontoma is most commonly

associated with
(c) Odontogenic keratocyst
(d) Radicular cyst
25. Histological features of thin epithelial lining, ameloblast-like

basal cell layer with overlying layers resembling stellate reticulum
and abundant ghost cell within the epithelial lining are suggestive
of
(b) Radicular cyst
(d) Odontogenic keratocyst
26. A swelling of the upper lip lateral to the midline resulting in

elevation of the ala of the nose is most likely to be
(a) Nasopalatine duct cyst
(b) Nasolabial cyst
(c) Medial mandibular cyst
(d) Globulomaxillary cyst
27. Which one of following odontogenic cysts is not usually

associated with an unerupted tooth?
(a) Dentigerous cyst (b) Eruption cyst
(c) Gingival cyst of adults (d) Calcifying odontogenic cyst
28. Spot the only inflammatory odontogenic cysts amongst the below
given cysts
(d) Buccal bifurcation cyst
29. Select a false statement regarding calcifying odontogenic cyst

from below given statements
(a) Numerous ghost cells are seen in connective tissue wall
(b) It is seen mostly in the anterior maxilla and mandible
(c) Usually associated with an impacted/unerupted tooth
(d) Cyst lining appears ameloblastomatous
30. Microscopic features of ___________ in some areas sometimes

resemble those of a low grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma.
(a) Buccal bifurcation cyst
(c) Sialo-odontogenic cyst
(d) Gingival cyst of the newborn
ANSWERS
1. (d) Dentigerous cyst is a cyst that originates by the separation

of the follicle from around the crown of an unerupted tooth,
hence the name follicular cyst. This is the most common
type of developmental odontogenic cyst, making up about
20 percent of all epithelium-lined cysts of the jaws.
2. (a) The dentigerous cyst encloses the crown of an unerupted
tooth and is attached to the tooth at the cementoenamel
junction. The pathogenesis of this cyst is uncertain, but
apparently it develops by accumulation of fluid between
the reduced enamel epithelium and the tooth crown.
3. (d) Although dentigerous cysts may occur in association
with any unerupted tooth, most often they involve
mandibular third molars. Other relatively frequent sites
include maxillary canines, maxillary third molars, and
mandibular second premolars. Dentigerous cysts rarely
involve unerupted deciduous teeth. Occasionally, they are
associated with supernumerary teeth or odontomas.
4. (b) The most common variant of dentigerous cyst called central
variety, manifests as a cyst surrounding the crown of the
tooth with the crown projecting into the cyst. The lateral
variety is usually associated with mesioangular impacted
mandibular third molars that are partially erupted. In
this variant, the cyst grows laterally along the root surface
and partially surrounds the crown. In the circumferential
variant, the cyst surrounds the crown and extends for some
distance along the root so that a significant portion of the
root appears to lie within the cyst.
5. (a) Radiographically, the dentigerous cyst typically shows a
unilocular radiolucent area that is associated with the crown
of an unerupted tooth. The radiolucency usually has a well-
defined and often sclerotic border, but an infected cyst may
show ill-defined borders.
6. (b) Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin-Goltz
syndrome) is an autosomal dominant condition. The chief
components are multiple basal cell carcinomas of skin,
odontogenic keratocysts, intracranial calcification, and rib
and vertebral anomalies.
7. (b) Odontogenic keratocysts tend to grow in an anteroposterior

direction within the medullary cavity of the bone without
causing obvious bone expansion. This feature may be useful
in differential clinical and radiographic diagnosis because
dentigerous and radicular cysts of comparable size are
usually associated with bony expansion.
8. (a) Microscopically, the epithelial lining of OKC is composed
of a uniform layer of para/orthokeratinized stratified
squamous epithelium, usually 6–8 cells in thickness. The
basal epithelial layer is composed of a palisaded layer
of cuboidal or columnar epithelial cells, which are often
hyperchromatic. This palisading of basal layer imparts it
the typical “tombstone/picket fence” appearance.
9. (c) The odontogenic keratocyst is a distinctive form of
developmental odontogenic cyst that arises from cell rests
of the dental lamina, called cell rests of Serres.
10. (c) Causes for recurrence of OKC are many, viz. thin, friable
cyst lining, incomplete removal of cyst and development
of new cyst from the rests of dental lamina in the vicinity.
11. (a) Radicular cyst is an inflammatory odontogenic cyst
unlike other cysts which are developmental in origin.
Thus a radicular cyst develops due to inflammation in
the periapical region owing to either pulp inflammation,
trauma, etc.
12. (b) In the older literature, a primordial cyst was believed to arise
due to degeneration of dental organ epithelium before the
development of dental hard tissues. Thus it was supposed
to develop in place of a tooth. However, all recent evidence
indicates that the entity labeled primordial cyst is in fact an
odontogenic keratocyst.
13. (c) These cysts arise from remnants of the dental lamina. They
are common lesions. Similar inclusion cysts, e.g. Epstein’s
pearls and Bohn’s nodules are also found in the midline of
the palate or laterally on the hard and soft palate.
14. (b) It is the most common of the nonodontogenic fissural cysts,
occurring exclusively on the midline of anterior maxilla. It
is believed to arise from spontaneous cystic degene-ration
of the residual nasopalatine duct epithelium.
15. (c) This cyst develops as a result of separation of dental follicle
from around the crown of an erupting tooth that is within
the soft tissues overlying the alveolar bone.
16. (b) Although the cyst may occur with any erupting tooth, the
lesion is most commonly associated with the first permanent
molars and the maxillary incisors. Surface trauma may result
in a considerable amount of blood in the cystic fluid, which
imparts a blue to purplish-brown color to the lesion. Such
lesions sometimes are referred to as eruption hematomas.
17. (a) Gingival cysts of the adult are most commonly found in
patients in the 5th and 6th decades of life and are almost
invariably located on the facial gingiva or alveolar mucosa.
Maxillary gingival cysts are usually found in the incisor,
canine and premolar areas.
18. (b) Occasionally a lateral periodontal cyst may have a polycystic
appearance. Such examples have been termed botryoid
odontogenic cysts. Grossly and microscopically they show
a grape-like cluster of small individual cysts. These lesions
are generally considered to represent a variant of the lateral
periodontal cyst, possibly due to cystic degeneration and
subsequent fusion of adjacent foci of dental lamina rests.
19. (d) The gingival cyst of the adult is considered to represent the
soft tissue counterpart of the lateral periodontal cyst, being
derived from rests of the dental lamina. The diagnosis of
gingival cyst of the adult should be restricted to lesions with
the same histopathological features as those of the lateral
periodontal cyst.
20. (a) Several potential complications must be considered in
dentigerous cysts. The lining of a dentigerous cyst might
undergo neoplastic transformation to an ameloblastoma.
Rarely, a squamous cell carcinoma may arise in the lining of
a dentigerous cyst. It is also possible for some intraosseous
mucoepidermoid carcinomas to develop from mucous cells
in the lining of a dentigerous cyst.
21. (b) The radiographic features of the lateral periodontal cyst are
not diagnostic. An odontogenic keratocyst that develops
between the roots of adjacent teeth may show identical
radiographic findings. An inflammatory radicular cyst that
occurs lateral to a root in relation to an accessory foramen
or a cyst that arises from periodontal inflammation also may
mimic a lateral periodontal cyst radiographically.
22. (a) This cyst is commonly located in the midline of hard palate
and may enlarge over a period of time. It is lined by stratified
squamous epithelium overlying a dense, chronically

inflamed connective tissue wall.
23. (b) The calcifying odontogenic cyst is an uncommon lesion,
widely considered by many to represent a cyst while some
investigators prefer to classify it as a neoplasm. In fact the
latest WHO classification (2005) of odontogenic tumors
places this cyst in the category of tumors and has re-named
it as calcifying cystic odontogenic tumor.
24. (a) The COC may be associated with other recognized
odontogenic tumors, especially odontomas. However,
adenomatoid odontogenic tumors and ameloblastoma have
also been associated with COC. The WHO Classification
of Odontogenic Tumors groups the COC along with
all its variants as an odontogenic tumor rather than an
odontogenic cyst.
25. (c) The lining of COC consists of odontogenic epithelium of
4–10 cells in thickness. The basal cells of the epithelial lining
may be cuboidal or columnar and are similar to ameloblasts.
The overlying layer of loosely arranged epithelium may
resemble the stellate reticulum of an ameloblastoma. The
most characteristic histopathological feature of the COC is
the presence of variable numbers of ghost cells within the
epithelial component.
26. (b) The nasolabial cyst is a rare developmental (fissural)
cyst that occurs in the upper lip lateral to the midline.
The enlargement often elevates the mucosa of the nasal
vestibule and obliterates the maxillary mucolabial fold.
27. (c) The gingival cyst of adults is a developmental odontogenic
cyst derived from the remnants of dental lamina and shows
a striking predilection to occur in the mandibular canine
and premolar area.
28. (d) The buccal bifurcation cyst is classified as an inflam
matory odontogenic cyst that characteristically develops
on the buccal aspect of the mandibular first permanent
molar. It has been speculated that when the tooth erupts,
an inflammatory response may occur in the surrounding
follicular tissues that stimulates cyst formation.
29. (a) The most characteristic histopathological feature of COC
is presence of ghost cells within the epithelial component.
These eosinophilic ghost cells are altered epithelial cells

characterized by the loss of nuclei with preservation of the
basic cell outline.
30. (c) The glandular odontogenic cyst is a rare developmental
odontogenic cyst that can show aggressive behavior.
Generally accepted as being of odontogenic origin, it also
shows glandular features. The GOC is lined by squamous
epithelium of varying thickness. The fibrous cyst wall is
usually devoid of any inflammatory cell infiltrate. The
superficial epithelial cells lining the cyst cavity appear
cuboidal or columnar and have an irregular and sometimes
papillary surface. Occasionally cilia may be noted. Due to
presence of mucous cells and pools of mucin in the wall,
features of low grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma are
mimicked.
ODONTOGENIC TUMORS
1. ________ is the most common odontogenic tumor.

(a) Ameloblastoma
(b) Pindborg tumor
(c) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
(d) Odontoma
2. Which one of the following does not contribute to histogenesis

of ameloblastoma?
(a) Developing dental papilla
(b) Developing dental organ
(c) Epithelial lining of odontogenic cyst
(d) Rests of dental lamina
3. A mixed radiopaque-radiolucent appearance is typically seen in

________ variant of ameloblastoma.
(a) Plexiform (b) Basal cell
(c) Desmoplastic (d) Granular cell
4. Which amongst the following histological variants of amelo

blastoma is considered to be the most aggressive clinically?
(a) Basal cell (b) Granular cell

(c) Desmoplastic (d) Acanthomatous
5. Select a false statement regarding ameloblastoma from the

statements given below
(a) Slowly growing, locally invasive tumor
(b) Trabecular pattern is one of the histological subtypes
(c) Radiographically seen as well-defined, multilocular
radiolucency
(d) Predilection for occurring in posterior mandibular region
6. Which amongst the following radiographic appearances is most

likely to represent a conventional ameloblastoma?
(a) Ill-defined, radiolucency
(b) Well-defined unilocular radiopacity attached to root of tooth
(c) Well-defined, mixed radiopaque-radiolucent lesion in
anterior maxilla.
(d) “Soap bubble/Honeycomb” radiolucent defects with
scalloped margins
7. Which amongst the following is not a histological subtype of

unicystic ameloblastoma?
(a) Intramural (b) Intraluminal
(c) Luminal (d) Mural
8. _______ is the most common site for metastases of malignant

ameloblastoma.
(a) Vertebrae (b) Long bones
(c) Cervical lymph nodes (d) Lungs
9. The histogenesis of clear cell odontogenic carcinoma is believed

to be
(a) Postfunctional ameloblasts
(b) Presecretory ameloblasts
(c) Stratum intermedium cells
(d) Stellate reticulum cells
10. Which of the following odontogenic tumors is also referred to as

adenoameloblastoma?
(a) Ameloblastic fibroma
(b) Ameloblastic fibroodontoma
(c) Odontoameloblastoma
(d) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
11. The follicular type of adenomatoid odontogenic tumor is

impossible to differentiate radiographically from
(d) Ameloblastoma
12. Which amongst the following odontogenic tumors is considered

to be the least aggressive clinically?
(a) Conventional ameloblastoma
(b) Clear cell odontogenic carcinoma
(c) Ameloblastic fibrosarcoma
(d) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
13. The tumor cells of calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor bear a

close histological resemblance to _________ cells of dental organ.
(a) External dental epithelium
(b) Stellate reticulum
(c) Stratum intermedium
(d) Internal dental epithelium
14. Areas of amorphous, eosinophilic, amyloid like extracellular

masses are typically seen in which of the following lesions?
(a) Squamous odontogenic tumor
(b) Unicystic ameloblastoma
(c) Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
(d) Odontoma
15. Which one of the following lesions is not associated with an

unerupted/impacted tooth?
(b) Squamous odontogenic tumor
(c) Unicystic ameloblastoma
(d) Ameloblastic fibroma
16. With which other odontogenic tumor can a squamous

odontogenic tumor be confused with histopathologically?
(a) Follicular ameloblastoma
(b) Acanthomatous ameloblastoma
(c) Compound odontoma

(d) Pindborg tumor
17. Unicystic ameloblastoma presenting as a well-circumscribed

radiolucency surrounding the crown of an unerupted/impacted
tooth is most likely to be diagnosed as
(c) Squamous odontogenic tumor
18. Which amongst the following does not represent a hamartoma-

tous proliferation?
(a) Lymphangioma (b) Complex odontoma
(c) Ameloblastic fibroma (d) Compound odontoma
19. The mesenchymal component of ameloblastic fibroma closely

resembles
(a) Dental organ (b) Dental follicle
(c) Dental lamina (d) Dental papilla
20. The ectodermal component of ameloblastic fibroma

characteristically proliferates in the form of
(a) Sheets
(b) Ducts
(c) Large islands
(d) Long narrow anastomosing cords
21. ______ is the only odontogenic tumor amongst the following

which does not usually occur in younger individuals.
(a) Odontoameloblastoma
(b) Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
(c) Granular cell odontogenic tumor
(d) Odontoma
22. Which amongst the following lesions occurs more frequently in

anterior maxilla?
(a) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
(c) Granular cell odontogenic tumor
(d) Cementoblastoma
23. Which is the least likely lesion to be considered in the differential

diagnosis of a hard, bony swelling in posterior mandibular region
which appears radiographically as a well defined multilocular
radiolucency in association with an impacted mandibular 3rd
molar?
(a) Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor
(b) Ameloblastoma
(c) Ameloblastic fibroma
(d) Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
24. In which of the following tumors, the epithelial component

is neoplastic while its mesenchymal component remains
unaffected?
(a) Odontogenic myxoma
(b) Compound odontoma
(c) Squamous odontogenic tumor
(d) Ameloblastic fibrosarcoma
25. Which odontogenic tumor histologically shows ameloblastoma-

like features along with those of a compound/complex
odontoma?
(a) Ameloblastic fibroma
(b) Odontoameloblastoma
(c) Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
(d) Ameloblastic fibrosarcoma
26. Radiographic features of multiple teeth-like structures

surrounded by a radiolucent zone are diagnostic of
(a) Complex odontoma
(b) Odontoameloblastoma
(c) Ameloblastic fibro-odontoma
(d) Compound odontoma
27. A cellular fibroblastic lesion containing occasional inactive

odontogenic epithelial rests, occurring in posterior mandibular
region is suggestive of
(a) Central odontogenic fibroma
(b) Conventional ameloblastoma
(c) Pindborg tumor
(d) Clear cell odontogenic carcinoma
28. Out of the following lesions which is the only true neoplasm of
cementoblasts?
(a) Familial gigantiform cementoma
(b) Cemento-osseous dysplasia
(c) Cemento-ossifying fibroma
(d) Cementoblastoma
29. A radiopaque mass that is fused to one or more tooth roots and
surrounded by a thin radiolucent rim is highly suggestive of
(a) Cementoblastoma (b) Pindborg tumor
(c) Fibrous dysplasia (d) Odontogenic myxoma
30. Dense fibrous connective tissue stroma which appears more

prominent than the neoplastic ameloblastic epithelium is seen
in which subtype of ameloblastoma?
(a) Follicular (b) Plexiform
(c) Acanthomatous (d) Desmoplastic
ANSWERS
1. (d) Odontoma/odontome is the most common odontogenic

tumor, while ameloblastoma is the most common odonto
genic neoplasm. A tumor refers to any swelling, which
in case of odontoma is developmental in nature, i.e. a
hamartoma.
2. (a) Ameloblastomas are slow-growing, locally invasive tumors
that run a benign course in most cases. Theoretically, they
may arise from rests of dental lamina, from a developing
enamel organ, from the epithelial lining of an odontogenic
cyst, or from the basal cells of the oral mucosa.
3. (c) Radiographically, this type usually resembles a fibro-
osseous lesion because of its mixed radiolucent/radiopaque
appearance. This mixed radiographic appearance is due
to osseous metaplasia within the dense fibrous septa that
characterize the lesion and not because the tumor itself is
producing a mineralized product.
4. (b) Although originally this variant was considered to represent
an aging or degenerative change in long-standing lesions,
this variant has been seen in young patients and in clinically
aggressive tumors.
5. (b) Follicular and plexiform patterns are the most common

histological subtypes. Less common histopathological
patterns include the acanthomatous, granular cell,
desmoplastic, and basal cell types.
6. (d) Conventional ameloblastoma usually shows “soap bubble”
appearance when the radiolucent loculations are large
and as being “honeycombed” when the loculations are
small. Buccal and lingual cortical expansion is frequently
present. Resorption of the roots of teeth adjacent to the
tumor is common. In many cases, an unerupted tooth is
associated with the radiolucent defect. The margins of these
radiolucent lesions often show irregular scalloping.
7. (a) Three histopathological variants of unicystic ameloblastoma
are described. First type called luminal unicystic
ameloblastoma, is confined to the luminal surface of the
cyst. In the second variant called intraluminal, one or more
nodules of ameloblastoma project from the cystic lining into
the lumen of the cyst. In the third variant known as mural
unicystic ameloblastoma, the fibrous wall of the cyst is
infiltrated by typical follicular or plexiform ameloblastoma.
8. (d) Metastases from ameloblastomas are most often found
in the lungs. Cervical lymph nodes are the second most
common site for metastasis of an ameloblastoma. Spread
to vertebrae, other bones and viscera has also occasionally
been confirmed.
9. (b) Histochemical and ultrastructural studies show that
the clear cells, which are the prominent feature of this
neoplasm, have similarities to glycogen rich pre-secretory
ameloblasts.
10. (d) The adenomatoid odontogenic tumor represents 3% to
7% of all odontogenic tumors. This lesion was previously
considered to be a variant of the ameloblastoma and was
designated as “adenoameloblastoma.” However, its clinical
features and biologic behavior indicate that it is a separate
entity.
11. (b) In many of the cases, the tumor appears as a well-defined,
unilocular radiolucency involving the crown of an
unerupted tooth, most often a canine. This type of follicular
adenomatoid odontogenic tumor may be impossible to
differentiate radiographically from the more common
dentigerous cyst.
12. (d) Some authorities feel that, given the slow growth and
circumscription of the lesion, it is best classified as a
hamartoma (developmental tumor-like swelling) rather
than a true neoplasm.
13. (c) The tumor cells bear a close morphologic resemblance to
the cells of the stratum intermedium of the enamel organ.
However, some investigators have recently suggested that
the tumor arises from dental lamina remnants based on its
anatomic distribution in the jaws.
14. (c) CEOT shows discrete islands, strands, or sheets of polyhedral
epithelial cells in a fibrous stroma along with large areas
of amorphous, eosinophilic, amyloid-like extracellular
material. Calcifications, which are a distinctive feature of
the tumor, develop within the amyloid like material and
form concentric rings (Liesegang ring calcifications).
15. (b) Squamous odontogenic tumor is a rare benign odontogenic
neoplasm. Most of these are usually located within bone,
although a few peripheral examples have been described.
This lesion was initially believed to represent an atypical
acanthomatous ameloblastoma or even a squamous cell
carcinoma. The squamous odontogenic tumor may arise
from neoplastic transformation of dental lamina rests or
the epithelial rests of Malassezia.
16. (b) Consist of varying shaped islands of bland appearing
squamous epithelium in a mature fibrous connective
tissue stroma. The peripheral cells of the epithelial
islands do not show the characteristic polarization seen
in ameloblastomas, thus helping in distinguishing this
neoplasm from ameloblastoma.
17. (d) All such cases will be diagnosed initially as a dentigerous
cyst. The surgical findings may also suggest that the lesion
in question is a cyst and the diagnosis of ameloblastoma is
made only after microscopic study of the specimen.
18. (c) The ameloblastic fibroma is considered to be a true mixed
tumor in which the epithelial and mesenchymal tissues
are both neoplastic, thereby being classified as a mixed
odontogenic tumor.
19. (d) Microscopically, the tumor is composed of a cell rich
mesenchymal tissue resembling the primitive dental papilla
admixed with proliferating odontogenic epithelium in the

form of discrete rests or islands. The mesenchymal portion
of the ameloblastic fibroma consists of plump stellate and
ovoid cells in a loose matrix which closely resembles the
developing dental papilla.
20. (d) The most common epithelial pattern consists of long, narrow
cords of odontogenic epithelium, often in an anastomosing
arrangement. These cords are usually only two cells in
thickness and are composed of cuboidal or columnar
cells.
21. (c) Patients with granular cell odontogenic tumors have all
been adults at the time of diagnosis, with over half being
older than 40 years of age. The tumor occurs primarily in the
mandible and most often in the premolar and molar region.
Some lesions are completely asymptomatic; others present
as a painless, localized expansion of the affected area.
22. (a) AOT occurs most frequently in the anterior maxilla region
usually in association with an impacted or unerupted tooth.
23. (a) AOT is the only lesion amongst the given lesions, that most
commonly occurs in anterior maxillary region, usually
in association with impacted maxillary canine. Also,
radiologically, AOT is unilocular compared to other given
lesions.
24. (c) All other given lesions are mixed odontogenic tumors, i.e.
derived from both epithelium and mesenchyme, while the
squamous odontogenic tumor is an odontogenic tumor
derived from odontogenic epithelium only.
25. (b) Odontoameloblastoma is an extremely rare odontogenic
tumor that contains an ameloblastomatous component
and odontoma-like elements. This tumor was previously
called “ameloblastic odontoma” and was confused with the
more common lesion currently designated as ameloblastic
fibro-odontoma.
26. (d) Odontomas are the most common odontogenic tumors.
Fully developed odontomas consist chiefly of enamel and
dentin with variable amounts of pulp and cementum.
They are further subdivided into compound and complex
types. Compound odontoma is composed of multiple,
small tooth-like structures. Complex odontoma consists
of a conglomerate mass of enamel and dentin which bears
no anatomic resemblance to a tooth. Radiographically, the

compound odontoma appears as a collection of tooth-like
structures of varying size and shape surrounded by a narrow
radiolucent zone.
27. (a) In ameloblastic fibroma, the epithelial component
proliferates in the form of long anastomosing cords,
rosettes or finger-like strands, while desmoplastic fibroma
does not contain any epithelial islands and the peripheral
odontogenic fibroma occurs in the soft tissues.
28. (d) Odontogenic fibroma is a rare, controversial lesion,
occurring in patients of ages between 4–80 years with a 2.2
to 1 female predilection. About 45 percent of cases usually
occur in maxilla, anterior to the first molar. In mandible,
however, about half of the tumors are located posterior
to the first molar. They are microscopically composed of
stellate fibroblasts, often arranged in a whorled pattern with
fine collagen fibrils and considerable ground substance.
Small foci of odontogenic epithelial rests may or may not
be present.
29. (a) Cementoblastoma is an odontogenic neoplasm of
cementoblasts, and is believed to represent the only true
neoplasm of cementum. More than 75 percent tumors
arise in the mandible with 90 percent arising in the
molar-premolar region. Pain and swelling are present
in approximately 2/3rd of patients. Radiographically, it
appears as a radiopaque mass fused to one or more tooth
roots and surrounded by a thin radiolucent rim. The outline
of the root or roots of the involved tooth is usually obscured
as a result of root resorption.
30. (d) This type of ameloblastoma contains small islands and
cords of odontogenic epithelium in a densely collagenized
stroma. Peripheral columnar ameloblast like cells are
inconspicuous around the epithelial islands.
9 Diseases of
Salivary Glands
1. A mucocele is not a true cyst because

(a) It is lined by epithelium
(b) Its lumen is filled with pus
(c) It occurs as a result of trauma
(d) It is not lined by an epithelium
2. The most common location for occurrence of mucoceles is

(a) Upper lip (b) Floor of mouth
(c) Lower lip (d) Palate
3. Plunging/cervical ranula is a clinical variant of ranula which

occurs when the spilled mucin dissects between the fibers of
_______ muscle.
(a) Anterior belly of digastric
(b) Mylohyoid
(c) Omohyoid
(d) Posterior belly of digastric
4. Which amongst the following cannot be used to describe a
salivary duct cyst?
(a) Mucous retention cyst
(b) Sialocyst
(c) Mucous duct cyst
(d) Mucous extravasation phenomenon
5. Submandibular salivary gland is the most common location for
which one of the following pathologies?
(a) Mucocele
(b) Sjögren’s syndrome
(c) Sialolithiasis
(d) Necrotizing sialometaplasia
6. Which one out of the following is the most common bacterial

agent responsible for causing acute sialadenitis?
(a) Streptococcus mutans (b) Lactobacillus acidophilus
(c) Staphylococcus aureus (d) Actinomyces israelii
7. Cheilitis glandularis typically occurs on the

(a) Upper lip (b) Lower lip
(c) Soft palate (d) Gingiva
8. Baelz disease is also known as

(a) Keratosis follicularis
(b) Cheilitis glandularis
(c) Cheilitis granulomatosa
(d) Cheilitis follicularis
9. Out of the below mentioned causes, which one is not a cause of

xerostomia?
(a) Medications (b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Salivary gland aplasia (d) Tobacco chewing
10. Xerostomia is often associated with atrophy of ______ papillae

(a) Filiform (b) Circumvallate
(c) Fungiform (d) Foliate
11. Benign lymphoepithelial lesion usually develops as a component

of which syndrome?
(a) Sjögren’s (b) Grinspan
(c) Rubinstein-Taybi (d) Chédiak-Higashi
12. The characteristic “cherry blossom” or “branchless fruit laden

tree” appearance on sialography is seen in which of the following
conditions?
(a) Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
(b) Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome
(c) Necrotizing sialometaplasia
(d) Sjögren’s syndrome
Diseases of Salivary Glands 87
13. Regarding Sjogren’s syndrome, which one of the following

ststements is incorrect?
(a) Primary Sjögren’s is also called as Sicca syndrome
(b) Elevated rheumatoid factor is found
(c) Most commonly occurs in males
(d) Salivary glands show presence of epimyoepithelial islands
14. Microscopic appearance of necrotizing sialometaplasia can be

confused with those of which other lesion?
(a) Pleomorphic adenoma
(b) Warthin’s tumor
(d) Basal cell carcinoma
15. The most frequent site for occurrence of tumors in minor salivary
glands is
(a) Palate (b) Floor of mouth
(c) Buccal mucosa (d) Lower lip
16. The mesenchymal appearing elements in pleomorphic adenoma

are produced by _______ cells.
(a) Myoepithelial (b) Squamous
(c) Serous (d) Ductal
17. Myoepithelial cells in pleomorphic adenoma which appear

rounded, with eosinophilic, hyalinized cytoplasm and having
an eccentric nucleus are called as ______ myoepithelial cells.
(a) Myxoid (b) Adenomatoid
(c) Plasmacytoid (d) Oncocytic
18. All of the following except _____ are mesenchymal elements

commonly seen in a pleomorphic adenoma.
(a) Fat (b) Osteoid
(c) Chondroid (d) Nerve fibers
19. Abundant granularity within the oncocytes in oncocytosis is due
to increased quantity of
(a) Golgi bodies (b) Proteins
(c) Ribosomes (d) Mitochondria
20. Warthin’s tumor is also known as

(a) Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum
(b) Intraductal papilloma
(c) Papillary cystadenoma
(d) Sialadenoma papilliferum
21. Myoepithelioma is considered by many to represent one end of

spectrum of
(a) Warthin’s tumor (b) Oncocytoma
(c) Pleomorphic adenoma (d) Ductal papillomas
22. The most common histological variant of basal cell adenoma is

(a) Tubular (b) Solid
(c) Trabecular (d) Membranous
23. Canalicular adenoma most frequently occurs in the intra-oral

accessory salivary glands of
(a) Upper lip (b) Soft palate
(c) Lower lip (d) Floor of mouth
24. Which one of the following is not a variety of ductal papillomas?

(a) Inverted ductal papilloma
(b) Intraductal papilloma
(c) Sialadenoma papilliferum
(d) Cystadenoma
25. Which one of the following malignant salivary gland neoplasms

demonstrates serous acinar differentiation?
(a) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
(b) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
(c) Acinic cell adenocarcinoma
(d) Malignant pleomorphic adenoma
26. The most common malignant salivary gland neoplasm is

(a) Acinic cell carcinoma
(b) Malignant pleomorphic adenoma
(c) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
(d) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
27. Intraosseous/central mucoepidermoid carcinoma is believed to

arise from
(a) Malignant transformation of rests of Malassez
(b) Malignant transformation of epithelial lining of odontogenic
cysts
(c) Malignant transformation of cell rests of Serres
(d) Arises de novo from ectopic mucous cells located intraorally
28. Cribriform, solid and tubular histological patterns of growth of

neoplastic myoepithelial and ductal cells is seen in
(a) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
(b) Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
(c) Basal cell adenocarcinoma
(d) Papillary cystadenocarcinoma
29. Which amongst the following is the most recently recognized

salivary gland neoplasm?
(a) Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
(b) Malignant pleomorphic adenoma
(c) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
(d) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
30. Which cells in mucoepidermoid carcinoma are believed to be

progenitors of both mucous as well as epidermoid cells?
(a) Basaloid cells (b) Intermediate cells
(c) Reserve cells (d) Intercalated duct cells
ANSWERS
1. (d) Mucocele is a common lesion of the oral mucosa that results

from rupture of a salivary gland duct and spillage of mucin
into the surrounding soft tissues and unlike the salivary duct
cyst, mucocele is not a true cyst because it lacks an epithelial
lining.
2. (c) The lower lip is the most common site for a mucocele,
accounting for over 60 percent of all cases. This could be
due to the fact that lower lip region is more prone to trauma.
3. (b) When the spilled mucin dissects through the mylohyoid

muscle, it produces a swelling within the neck. In such cases,
a concomitant swelling in the floor of the mouth may or may
not be present.
4. (d) Mucous extravasation phenomenon is a term applied to
mucoceles which arise as a result of trauma to salivary
ducts resulting in extravasation of mucin into surrounding
tissues. However, a sialocyst is a true cyst and may arise due
to dilatation of a duct secondary to ductal obstruction.
5. (c) Calculi of salivary ducts are more likely to develop in
submandibular gland duct owing to its tortuous course and
also due to the fact that the saliva flows more slowly in such
ducts, leading to its stasis.
6. (c) Acute sialadenitis most commonly occurs in parotid glands
as a result of retrograde infection in debilitated patients
suffering from dehydration, xerostomia, vomiting, etc. after
a surgical procedure.
7. (b) Cheilitis glandularis is a poorly understood disease that
occurs in response to diverse sources of chronic irritation-
like sun damage, etc.
8. (b) It is a superficial type of cheilitis glandularis characterized
by painless, indurated lip swelling with shallow ulceration
and crusting.
9. (d) Xerostomia refers to a subjective sensation of a dry mouth.
It is frequently, but not always, associated with salivary
gland hypofunction. Many factors have been linked with
xerostomia-like developmental, water/metabolite loss,
systemic diseases, local factors and even iatrogenic.
10. (a) The dorsal surface of tongue often appears fissured with
atrophy of the filiform papillae.
11. (a) Sjögren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disease that may
produce bilateral salivary and lacrimal gland enlargement,
with microscopic features of benign lymphoepithelial
lesion. However, not all benign lymphoepithelial lesions are
necessarily associated with the clinical disease complex of
Sjögren’s syndrome.
12. (d) Though not diagnostic, sialographic examination often
reveals punctate sialectasia and lack of normal branching
of the ductal system, typically demonstrating a “fruit laden,
branchless tree” pattern. Scintigraphy with radioactive
technetium—99m pertechnetate characteristically shows

decreased uptake and delayed emptying of the isotope.
13. (c) Between 80 percent and 90 percent of cases of Sjögren’s
syndrome occur in females. It is seen predominantly in
middle-aged adults.
14. (c) Necrotizing sialometaplasia is an uncommon, locally
destructive inflammatory condition of the salivary glands.
The importance of this lesion rests in the fact that it mimics
a malignant process both clinically and microscopically.
15. (a) The palate is the most frequent site for minor salivary gland
tumors with 42% to 54% of all cases found there. Most of
these occur on the posterior lateral hard or soft palate which
has the greatest concentration of salivary glands.
16. (a) The stromal changes in pleomorphic adenoma are
believed to be produced by myoepithelial cells. Extensive
accumulation of mucoid material may occur between
the tumor cells, resulting in a myxomatous background.
Vacuolar degeneration of cells in these areas can produce a
chondroid appearance. In many tumors, the stroma exhibits
areas of an eosinophilic hyalinized change. At times, fat or
osteoid also is seen.
17. (c) Some myoepithelial cells in pleomorphic adenoma are
rounded and demonstrate an eccentric nucleus and
eosinophilic hyalinized cytoplasm, thus resembling plasma
cells. These characteristic plasmacytoid myoepithelial cells
are more prominent in tumors arising in the minor glands.
18. (d) Pleomorphic adenoma demonstrates various mesenchymal
elements like chondroid, myxoid, fat and osteoid. It is this
variability of appearance that provides another name to
pleomorphic adenoma, i.e. mixed tumor.
19. (d) Oncocytosis is the transformation of ductal and acinar cells
to oncocytes. These cells appear polyhedral in shape and
demonstrate abundant granular, eosinophilic cytoplasm
as a result of the proliferation of mitochondria.
20. (a) It is a histological term and denotes a primarily cystic tumor
showing papillary projections into the cystic lumen, along
with lymphoid proliferation in the wall.
21. (c) The neoplastic cells in this tumor are almost exclusively
myoepithelial cells appearing either spindle shaped or
plasmacytoid. Many authors consider this neoplasm to
represent the other side of the spectrum of pleomorphic

adenoma.
22. (b) Basal cell adenoma is a benign salivary gland tumor that
derives its name from the basaloid appearance of the
tumor cells. The most common variant, solid type consists
of multiple islands and cords of epithelial cells that are
supported by a small amount of fibrous stroma.
23. (a) Canalicular adenoma is an uncommon tumor that occurs
almost exclusively in the minor salivary glands, showing
a striking predilection for the upper lip, with nearly 75%
occurring in this location.
24. (d) Sialadenoma papilliferum, intraductal papilloma, and
inverted ductal papilloma are three rare salivary gland
neoplasms that also show unique papillomatous features
apart from the Warthin’s tumor.
25. (c) Acinic cell adenocarcinoma is a salivary gland malignancy
with cells that show serous acinar differentiation. It is
generally agreed today that acinic cell adenocarcinoma
should be considered a low-grade malignancy because
some of these tumors do metastasize or recur and cause
death.
26. (d) Most studies show that the mucoepidermoid carcinoma
is the most common malignant salivary gland neoplasm.
In most studies, it made up 10 percent of all major gland
tumors and 15 percent to 20 percent of minor gland tumors.
27. (b) The most likely source for most intraosseous tumors is
odontogenic epithelium. Mucus producing cells are common
in odontogenic cyst linings, especially dentigerous cysts. In
addition, many intraosseous mucoepidermoid carcinomas
develop in association with impacted teeth or odontogenic
cysts.
28. (a) Adenoid cystic carcinoma is one of the best recognized
salivary malignancies. Approximately, 50 percent develop
within the minor salivary glands with palate being the most
common location. The neoplasm is composed of a mixture
of myoepithelial cells and ductal cells that can have a
varied arrangement, with three major patterns recognized
cribriform, tubular, and solid.
29. (a) Polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma is a recently

recognized type of salivary malignancy that was first
described in 1983. Before its identification as a distinct
entity, examples of this tumor were categorized as
pleomorphic adenoma, an unspecified form of adeno
carcinoma, or sometimes adenoid cystic carcinoma.
30. (b) Mucoepidermoid carcinoma is composed of a mixture of
mucus producing cells, squamous cells and in addition, a
third type of cell, the intermediate cell. This cell is basaloid
in appearance and is believed to be a progenitor of the
mucous and epidermoid cells.
10 Diseases of
Osseous Structures
1. Anomalies or malformations of individual bones or their pairs

is referred to as
(a) Dysplasia (b) Dysostosis
(c) Dystrophy (d) Enostosis
2. Generalized abnormalities of cartilage or bone growth and

development is called as
(a) Osteochondrodysplasia
(b) Osteochondrometaplasia
(c) Osteoid dysplasia
(d) Chondrometaplasia
3. Lobstein’s disease is another name of

(a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
(b) Dentinogenesis imperfecta
(c) Osteopetrosis
(d) Paget’s disease
4. Osteogenesis imperfecta results from an abnormality in _______

collagen.
(a) Type III (b) Type II
(c) Type I (d) Type IV
5. In which of the following diseases is pale blue sclera not seen?

(a) Paget’s disease
(b) Marfan syndrome
(c) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
(d) Pierre Robin anomalad
Diseases of Osseous Structures 95
6. Characteristic skeletal defects like arachnodactyly, doli-

chostenomelia and hyperextensibility of joints are features of
(a) Pierre Robin anomalad
(b) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
(c) Cleidocranial dysostosis
(d) Marfan syndrome
7. Hypophosphatasia is a rare inherited metabolic disorder which

refers to a lack of
(a) Alkaline phosphatase (b) Acid phosphatase
(c) Hydroxyapatite (d) Calcium phosphate
8. Failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone thereby resulting in

thickened sclerotic bones with reduced mechanical strength is
a characteristic feature of
(a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
(b) Osteopetrosis
(c) Paget’s disease
(d) Fibrous dysplasia
9. Hyperparathyroidism is most commonly associated with which

syndrome?
(a) von Recklinghausen’s disease
(b) Cleidocranial dysostosis
(c) Multiple endocrine neoplasia Type 1
(d) Fibrous dysplasia
10. Monostotic form, polyostotic form, craniofacial form and

cherubism are disease patterns of which disease?
(a) Paget’s disease
(b) Fibrous dysplasia
(c) Cleidocranial dysostosis
(d) Brown’s tumor
11. Large café-au-lait spots with irregular margins, precocious

puberty and a “ground glass” appearance of affected bones
(a) Paget’s disease (b) Pierre Robin anomalad
(c) Fibrous dysplasia (d) Osteogenesis imperfecta
12. The common site of involvement of polyostotic form of fibrous

dysplasia is
(a) Bones of skull and face (b) Femur
(c) Ribs (d) Spine
13. All of the following except __________________ are histological

features found in fibrous dysplasia.
(a) Irregular, Chinese character-shaped bony trabeculae
(b) Osteoblastic rimming of bony trabeculae
(c) Larger than normal osteoblasts
(d) Collagen fibers of trabeculae extending into fibrous tissue
14. The most common malignancy arising in fibrous dysplasia is

(a) Fibrosarcoma (b) Osteosarcoma
(c) Ewing’s sarcoma (d) Multiple myeloma
15. McCune-Albright syndrome is also better known as

(a) Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
(b) Paget’s disease
(c) Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
(d) Hyperparathyroidism
16. A hereditary nonneoplastic bone lesion, histologically similar to

central giant cell granuloma and affecting the jaws of children
bilaterally is called as
(a) Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
(b) Cherubism
(c) Hypophosphatasia
(d) Brown’s tumor
17. Phosphate diabetes is also known as

(a) Hypophosphatasia (b) Renal rickets
(c) Hypophosphatemia (d) Vitamin D resistant rickets
18. Crouzon syndrome is most commonly associated with which
skin lesion?
(a) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(b) White sponge nevus
(c) Dyskeratosis congenita
(d) Acanthosis nigricans
19. The primary defect in mandibulofacial dysostosis is

(a) Failure of differentiation of mandibular mesoderm
(b) Failure of differentiation of maxillary mesoderm
(c) Failure of differentiation of 3rd arch mesenchyme
(d) Failure of differentiation of 4th arch mesenchyme
20. Cleft palate, micrognathia and glossoptosis are components of

______ syndrome.
(a) Treacher Collins (b) Crouzon
(c) Pierre Robin (d) Apert
21. Histologically, the primary abnormality seen in the bones of

patients with achondroplastic persons is
(a) Abnormal trabeculae
(b) Abnormal endochondral ossification
(c) Abnormal intramembranous ossification
(d) Abnormal periosteal ossification
22. In cleidocranial dysplasia, ___________ suture is characteristically

sunken giving the skull a flat appearance.
(a) Sagittal (b) Frontal
(c) Temporal (d) Occipital
23. Trisomy 21 syndrome is better known as _______ syndrome.

(a) Down (b) Apert
(c) Klinefelter (d) Ehlers-Danlos
24. Which one of the following histological features is found in Paget’s

disease?
(a) Failure of endochondral ossification
(b) Failure of fibroblastic maturation
(c) Abnormal and excessive remodeling of bone
(d) Abnormal collagen maturation
25. Infantile cortical hyperostosis is an _____ process of unknown
etiology.
(a) Viral (b) Inflammatory
(c) Autoimmune (d) Developmental
26. Characteristic “Cotton wool” appearance of involved bones is

seen in
(a) Fibrous dysplasia
(b) Infantile cortical hyperostosis
(c) Osteopetrosis
(d) Paget’s disease
27. Identify the sign which is not a cardinal sign of temporo
mandibular joint syndrome
(a) Swelling over joint
(b) Muscle tenderness
(c) Clicking/popping noise in TMJ
(d) Limitation of jaw movement
28. Letterer-Siwe disease, eosinophilic granuloma and Hand-
Schüller-Christian disease all belong to various clinical spectra
of
(a) Wegener’s granulomatosis
(b) Robinow syndrome
(c) Marfan syndrome
(d) Langerhans cell histiocytosis
29. All except ____ are considered as etiological factors of Paget’s
disease of bones.
(a) Viral (b) Bacterial
(c) Vascular (d) Autoimmune
30. Caffey’s disease is another name of

(a) Histiocytosis X
(b) McCune-Albright syndrome
(c) Chondroectodermal dysplasia
(d) Infantile cortical hyperostosis
ANSWERS
1. (b) Dysostosis refers only to defects or malformations of

individual or pairs of bones and does not refer to any
generalized disorder of the skeleton.
2. (a) This term signifies a generalized disorder of skeletal system
involving multiple bones at the time of presentation.
3. (a) Osteogenesis imperfecta comprises a heterogeneous group of

heritable disorders characterized by impairment of collagen
maturation.
4. (c) Abnormal maturation of collagen results in bone with a thin
cortex, fine trabeculation, and diffuse osteoporosis.
5. (d) This anomaly comprises of three skeletal components, i.e.
micrognathia, cleft palate and glossoptosis.
6. (d) This is a spectrum of disorders caused by a heritable genetic
defect of connective tissue that has an autosomal dominant
mode of transmission.
7. (d) It is a disease of decreased tissue nonspecific alkaline
phosphatase TNSALP and defective mineralization. A
mutation in the ALPL gene, coding for TNSALP is believed
to be the cause.
8. (b) Defective osteoclastic bone resorption, combined with
continued bone formation and endochondral ossification,
results in thickening of cortical bone and sclerosis of the
cancellous bone
9. (c) It is a syndrome of hypercalcemia caused by excessive
release of the parathyroid hormone. In 85% of cases primary
hyperparathyroidism results from an adenoma in a single
gland.
10. (b) It is a developmental tumor-like condition characterized by
replacement of normal bone by an excessive proliferation of
cellular fibrous connective tissue intermixed with irregular
bony trabeculae.
11. (c) Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia (affecting multiple bones)
along with café-au-lait spots is termed Jaffe-Lichtenstein
syndrome and if it occurs along with café-au-lait spots
and multiple endocrinopathies, then it is termed McCune-
Albright syndrome.
12. (a) Involvement of the mandible often results not only in
expansion of the lingual and buccal plates but also bulging of
the lower border. When the maxilla is involved, the lesional
tissue displaces the sinus floor superiorly and commonly
obliterates the maxillary sinus.
13. (b) Rimming by plump appositional osteoblasts is missing in
fibrous dysplasia as the bone trabeculae in this disease are
produced as a result of metaplasia.
14. (b) Osteosarcoma developing in fibrous dysplasia has been

reported in patients who received radiation therapy for
the treatment of this disease. Hence, radiotherapy is
contraindicated.
15. (c) When polyostotic fibrous dysplasia occurs along with café-
au-lait pigmentation and multiple endocrinopathies, then
it is termed McCune-Albright syndrome.
16. (b) Cherubism is a rare developmental jaw condition that is
generally inherited as an autosomal dominant trait with
high penetrance but variable expressivity.
17. (d) Vitamin D resistant rickets refers to an autosomal dominant
genetic condition due to which there is hypophosphatemia
leading to rickets, which cannot be cured even with high
doses of Vitamin D.
18. (d) Crouzon syndrome belongs to a group of anomalies called
craniosynostosis which refers to premature fusion of one
or more cranial sutures often resulting in abnormal head
shape.
19. (b) This is a hereditary disease following an irregular form
of dominant transmission and is thought to result from
retardation or failure of differentiation of maxillary arch
mesoderm at and after the 50 mm stage of embryo.
20. (c) Apart from the three anomalies, other associated anomalies
include otitis media, hearing loss, nasal deformities, dental
and philtral malformations.
21. (b) Achondroplasia is a common nonlethal chondro-
dysplasia transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait with
complete penetrance, resulting in decreased endochondral
ossification, decreased cellular hypertrophy, and decreased
cartilage matrix production.
22. (a) It is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by
clavicular hypoplasia/genesis with narrow thorax, delayed
ossification of skull, excessively large fontanels and delayed
closing of sutures.
23. (a) Down syndrome is a common form of mental retardation
resulting from trisomy 21, chromosomal translocation and
mosaicism. Trisomy refers to additional chromosome.
24. (c) Paget’s disease of bone is a disease characterized by
abnormal and anarchic resorption and deposition of bone,
resulting in distortion and weakening of the affected bones.
The cause of Paget’s disease is unknown, but inflammatory,

genetic, and endocrine factors may be contributing factors.
25. (b) It is a syndrome of unknown etiology in which there is
unusual cortical thickening of certain bones in infants. It is
a self-limiting disorder and causes bone changes, soft tissue
swelling and irritability.
26. (d) During the osteoblastic phase of the disease, patchy areas of
sclerotic bone are formed, which tend to become confluent.
The patchy sclerotic areas often are described as having a
“cotton wool” appearance.
27. (a) TMJ disorder/syndrome is the most common cause
of facial pain after toothache. It is classified broadly as
TMD secondary to MPD and TMD secondary to true
articular disease. Its etiology is multifactorial and includes
malocclusion, bruxism, personality disorders, increased
pain sensitivity, stress and anxiety.
28. (d) It is a group of idiopathic disorders characterized by clonal
proliferation of Langerhans cells and mature eosinophils.
These disorders primarily affect bones, but occasionally also
affect other organ systems.
29. (b) Recent evidence suggests a genetic etiology as Paget’s
disease has been shown to be present in families. Some
studies have shown viral inclusions in pagetic osteoclasts.
30. (d) It is now believed to exist in two forms familial and sporadic.
The classical triad of presentation includes irritability,
swelling and bone lesions.
11 Diseases of Skin
1. Canker sores is another name for

(a) Herpetic gingivostomatitis
(b) Shingles
(c) Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
(d) Chickenpox
2. The site where recurrent aphthous ulcer does not commonly

occur is
(a) Labial mucosa (b) Tongue
(c) Gingiva (d) Soft palate
3. Which of these oral structures is not affected in hereditary

ectodermal dysplasia?
(a) Enamel (b) Bones
(c) Hair (d) Sweat glands
4. Which of the following statements regarding lichen planus is

incorrect?
(a) It is a T cell mediated autoimmune disease
(b) It is a B cell mediated autoimmune disease
(c) Wickham’s striae are seen within the lesions in oral cavity
(d) It is seen most commonly on buccal mucosa
5. Civatte or colloid bodies in lichen planus are derived from

(a) Degenerating basal cells
(b) Degenerating mast cells
(c) Degenerating fibroblasts
(d) Breakdown of RBCs
Diseases of Skin 103
6. One of the following lesions is not considered during the

differential diagnosis of lichen planus
(a) Erythema multiforme (b) Leukoplakia
(c) Candidiasis (d) White sponge nevus
7. Auspitz’s sign and Monroe’s abscess are a component of which

of the following skin lesions?
(a) Erythema multiforme (b) Lupus erythematosus
(c) Psoriasis (d) Pemphigus
8. Psoriasis is now believed to be a ________ disease.

(a) Viral (b) Autoimmune
(c) Bacterial (d) Mycotic
9. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe form of

(a) Lupus erythematosus (b) Erythema multiforme
(c) Pemphigoid (d) Lichen planus
10. The virus implicated in triggering the immunological derangement

that produces erythema multiforme is
(a) Herpes simplex (b) Human papilloma virus
(c) Herpes zoster (d) Epstein-Barr
11. Skin lesions of pityriasis rosea clinically resemble

(a) Secondary syphilis (b) Tertiary syphilis
(c) Primary syphilis (d) Tuberculous ulcers
12. The disease, also known as Darier disease and characterized by

hyperkeratotic papules and various nail abnormalities is
(a) White sponge nevus
(b) Systemic lupus erythematosus
(c) Keratosis follicularis
(d) Incontinentia pigmenti
13. Which one of these is not a genodermatosis?

(a) Keratosis follicularis
(b) Incontinentia pigmenti
(c) Dyskeratosis congenita
(d) Lichen planus
14. Which amongst the following skin diseases has a benign and a
malignant form?
(a) Lichen planus (b) Acanthosis nigricans
(c) White sponge nevus (d) Warty dyskeratoma
15. Nikolsky’s sign is positive in which of the following diseases?

(a) Cicatricial pemphigoid (b) Bullous pemphigoid
(c) Pemphigus (d) Bullous lichen planus
16. Nikolsky’s sign is produced due to

(a) Perivascular edema (b) Prevesicular edema
(c) Subepithelial split (d) Prevesicular erythema
17. The characteristic Tzanck cells in pemphigus are seen due to

(a) Acantholysis (b) Acanthosis
(c) Spongiosis (d) Hyperkeratosis
18. All except ____________ belong to pemphigus group of diseases.

(a) Pemphigus vegetans (b) Pemphigus foliaceus
(c) Pemphigus vulgaris (d) Familial benign pemphigus
19. Mark the odd one out from amongst the following differential
diagnoses of pemphigus.
(a) Herpetic gingivostomatitis
(b) Psoriasis
(c) Bullous pemphigoid
(d) Dermatitis herpetiformis
20. Fogo selvagem is another name of

(a) Epidermolysis bullosa (b) Hailey-Hailey disease
(c) Pemphigus foliaceus (d) Paraneoplastic pemphigus
21. Sequelae of which vesiculobullous disease include decreased

vision, blindness, prominent scarring and airway obstruction?
(a) Bullous pemphigoid
(b) Hailey-Hailey disease
(c) Benign mucous membrane pemphigoid
(d) Pemphigus vulgaris
22. The major antigens associated with cicatricial pemphigoid are

_____ and Laminin 5.
(a) Bullous pemphigoid antigen 2
(b) Bullous pemphigoid antigen 1
(c) Cicatricial pemphigoid antigen
(d) Desmoglein 1
23. Cicatricial pemphigoid affects primarily the _____ within the oral
cavity.
(a) Tongue (b) Gingivae
(c) Lips (d) Palate
24. All of the following vesiculobullous diseases commonly affect

the mucosal structures except
(a) Cicatricial pemphigoid (b) Pemphigus
(c) Lichen planus (d) Bullous pemphigoid
25. Which of the following hereditary skin disease occurs primarily

in response to mechanical trauma/irritation?
(a) Epidermolysis bullosa
(b) Pemphigus vulgaris
(d) Cicatricial pemphigoid
26. Which of the following diseases is associated with gluten sensitive

enteropathy?
(a) Dyskeratosis congenita
(b) White sponge nevus
(c) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(d) Warty dyskeratoma
27. The presence of _______ is considered characteristic of dermatitis

herpetiformis after excluding erythema multiforme, pemphigus
and epidermolysis bullosa.
(a) Neutrophils (b) Eosinophils
(c) basophils (d) Monocytes
28. The characteristic “Butterfly rash” is seen in

(a) Pemphigus
(b) Lichen planus

(d) Pityriasis rosea
29. Which of the following skin diseases is included in the group of

the so called collagen diseases?
(a) Pemphigus (b) Lupus erythematosus
(c) Leukoplakia (d) Lichen planus
30. Spot the disease from the following, which is characterized by

fixation of epidermis to deeper subcutaneous tissues
(a) Lupus erythematosus
(b) Dermatitis herpetiformis
(c) Lichen planus
(d) Systemic sclerosis
ANSWERS
1. (c) Recurrent aphthous stomatitis is one of the most common

oral mucosal pathoses. Allergies, genetic predisposition,
nutritional deficiencies, hematologic abnormalities,
hormonal influences, infectious agents, trauma, stress,
etc. have all been implicated as possible predisposing or
triggering factors. The mucosal destruction appears to
represent a T cell mediated immunologic reaction.
2. (c) Ulcers of recurrent aphthous stomatitis occurs almost
exclusively on the nonkeratinized, movable mucosa of oral
cavity.
3. (b) As the name suggests hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
represents a group of inherited conditions in which two
or more ectodermally derived anatomic structures fail to
develop. Thus bone being a mesodermal structure is not
affected.
4. (b) Lichen planus is a relatively common, chronic dermato
logic disease that often affects the oral mucosa. Current
evidence indicates that this is an immunologically mediated
mucocutaneous disorder mediated by T lymphocytes.
5. (a) Degenerating epithelial cells can be seen in the area of the
epithelium and connective tissue interface, i.e. basal layers
and have been termed colloid, cytoid, hyaline, or Civatte
bodies.
6. (d) White sponge nevus is a relatively rare genodermatosis

(genetically determined skin disorder) that is inherited as an
autosomal dominant trait and manifests early in life. Other
lesions are caused by environmental factors like tobacco,
drug reaction, immunosuppression, etc.
7. (c) Psoriasis is a skin disorder characterized by occurrence of
sharply demarcated dry papules covered by a delicate silvery
scales. If deep scales are removed, tiny bleeding points
are noticed (Auspitz’s sign). Munroe’s abscesses refer to
intraepithelial microabscesses.
8. (b) Significant evidence points to the fact that psoriasis may be
an autoimmune disorder. Lesions of psoriasis are associated
with an increased T lymphocyte activity in the underlying
skin.
9. (b) A more severe form of erythema multiforme, Stevens-
Johnson syndrome, is usually triggered by a drug rather than
infection. For such a diagnosis to be made, either the ocular
or genital mucosae should be affected in conjunction with
the oral and skin lesions.
10. (a) Er ythema multiforme is a blistering, ulcerative
mucocutaneous condition of uncertain etiology. This is
probably an immunologically mediated process. In about
50 percent of the cases, the clinician can identify either a
preceding infection, such as herpes simplex or Mycoplasma
pneumoniae, or exposure to anyone of a variety of drugs,
particularly antibiotics or analgesics. These agents may
trigger the immunologic derangement that produces the
disease.
11. (a) Pityriasis rosea is a common benign papillosquamous
disease causing acute skin eruptions probably of viral
etiology, although no single virus is as yet implicated. The
clinical significance lies in the fact that the initial lesion
called “Herald spot” appears strikingly similar to that of
secondary syphilis and is manifested as bright red, 3–4 mm
sized ovoid lesion covered by a silvery scale.
12. (c) Darier disease is characterized by numerous erythematous,
often pruritic, papules on the skin of the trunk and the scalp
that develop during the second decade of life. The palms
and soles often exhibit pits and keratoses. The nails show
abnormalities like longitudinal lines, ridges, or painful splits.
13. (d) Genodermatoses represent hereditary skin disorders

many of which are accompanied by various systemic
manifestations of different altered enzyme functions. Lichen
planus does not fall into this category, as it is classified as
an autoimmune disease.
14. (b) Acanthosis nigricans is an acquired dermatologic disease
characterized by development of a velvety, brownish
alteration of the skin. In some instances, this unusual
condition develops in association with gastrointestinal cancer
and is termed malignant acanthosis nigricans. The cutaneous
lesion itself is benign, yet it is significant because it represents
a cutaneous marker for internal malignancy.
15. (c) Nikolsky’s sign refers to loss of epithelium due to rubbing
of apparently unaffected skin.
16. (b) It is caused by prevesicular edema which disrupts the
dermal-epidermal junction. Thus when the adjacent,
unaffected skin is rubbed, the epithelium sloughs off over
it.
17. (a) The cells of the spinous layer of the surface epithelium
typically appear to fall apart, a feature that has been termed
acantholysis, and the loose cells tend to assume a rounded
shape, called Tzanck cells.
18. (d) Also called Hailey-Hailey disease, it is a chronic autosomal
dominant vesiculobullous disorder, resembling pemphigus
clinically and histologically.
19. (b) Psoriasis cannot be considered in the differential diagnosis
of pemphigus simply because psoriasis is not a classical
vesiculobullous disorder, but presents as a patches/plaques
covered by silvery scales.
20. (c) Pemphigus foliaceus is a benign variety of pemphigus
characterized by a chronic course with little or no
involvement of mucous membranes, unlike the more severe
pemphigus vulgaris.
21. (c) Cicatricial pemphigoid represents a group of chronic,
blistering mucocutaneous autoimmune diseases in which
tissue bound autoantibodies are directed against one or
more components of the basement membrane.
22. (a) Cicatricial or benign mucous membrane pemphigoid is a
blistering, autoimmune disorder that prominently affects
the mucous membranes. The two major antigens associated
with cicatricial pemphigoid are bullous pemphigoid

antigen-2 and laminin-5.
23. (b) Oral lesions in cicatricial pemphigoid are most consistently
seen on gingivae. Oral vesicles/bullae are thicker-walled and
hence persist for 24–48 hours before rupturing.
24. (d) Bullous pemphigoid is a chronic, autoimmune, sub
epidermal blistering disease that rarely involves the mucous
membranes.
25. (a) The term epidermolysis bullosa describes a heterogeneous
group of inherited blistering mucocutaneous disorders.
Each has a specific defect in the attachment mechanisms of
the epithelial cells, either to each other or to the underlying
connective tissue.
26. (c) Dermatitis herpetiformis is a rare, benign, chronic, recurrent,
immune mediated blistering disorder often associated with
asymptomatic gluten sensitive enteropathy. Characteristic
skin lesions are extremely pruritic grouped vesicles mostly
on extensor surfaces.
27. (b) Microscopically, dermatitis herpetiformis shows micro
abscesses within dermal papillae filled with neutrophils and
eosinophils. The connective tissue necroses and separates
from overlying epithelium producing a subepithelial vesicle.
Also, some patients develop an absolute eosinophil count
above 10 percent.
28. (c) Systemic lupus erythematosus is a serious multisystem
disease with a variety of cutaneous and oral manifestations.
The skin lesions on face usually appear as erythematous
patches which coalesce to form a roughly butterfly-shaped
patch over the cheeks and across the bridge of nose.
29. (b) Lupus erythematosus is an example of an immunologically
mediated condition, and is the most common of the so
called “collagen vascular” or “connective tissue” diseases.
There is an increase in the activity of the humoral limb
(B lymphocytes) of the immune system in conjunction with
abnormal function of the T lymphocytes.
30. (d) Systemic sclerosis is a systemic connective tissue disease
characterized by vasomotor disturbances, fibrosis, sub
sequent atrophy of skin, subcutaneous tissues, muscles and
internal organs.
12 Hematological Diseases
1. Pernicious anemia is caused by deficiency of ________ .

(a) Folic acid (b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin B6 (d) Vitamin B1
2. The deficiency of vitamin B12 in pernicious anemia is caused by

lack of
(a) von Willebrands factor
(b) Extrinsic factor of Castle
(c) Intrinsic factor of Castle
(d) Christmas factor
3. The average daily requirement of vitamin B12 for an adult is about

(a) 2.4 µg (b) 1 mg
(c) 1 g (d) 1 dL
4. Aplastic anemia usually results in

(a) Polycythemia (b) Agranulocytosis
(c) Neutropenia (d) Pancytopenia
5. Which amongst the following antibiotics is strongly associated

with pancytopenia?
(a) Chloramphenicol (b) Sulfonamides
(c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Penicillins
6. All of the following except ____ are lab findings associated with
thalassemia.
(a) Macrocytic normochromic RBCs
(b) Hypochromic microcytic RBCs
(c) Nucleated RBCs in circulating blood
(d) Elevated WBC count up to 10,000–25,000 per cc of blood
Hematological Diseases 111
7. The characteristic radiographic change produced in the skulls of

thalassemic persons is termed as ________ appearance.
(a) Cotton wool (b) Ground glass
(c) Hair on end (d) Peau d’ orange
8. Sickle cell anemia occurs almost exclusively in blacks and in
whites of ______ origin.
(a) Mediterranean (b) Slavic
(c) Russian (d) American
9. Compared to the normal 120 day lifespan of normal erythrocytes,
the sickle-shaped RBCs have a lifespan of only
(a) 30–40 days (b) 10–20 days
(c) 3–5 days (d) 50–60 days
10. Ground sections of teeth stained by blood pigments in infants
suffering from erythroblastosis fetalis shows the presence of
(a) Bilirubin (b) Biliverdin
(c) Bilinogen (d) Hemoglobin
11. Patterson Kelly syndrome is one of the manifestations of
deficiency of
(a) Vitamin B12 (b) Folic acid
(c) Iron (d) Calcium
12. Which amongst the following is usually the cause of faulty
absorption of iron?
(a) Chronic blood loss (b) Inadequate dietary intake
(c) Achlorhydria (d) Increased iron requirement
13. An apparent increase in the number of circulating RBCs occurring
as a result of loss blood fluid with hemoconcentration of cells is
called as
(a) Relative polycythemia
(b) Polycythemia rubra vera
(c) Secondary polycythemia
(d) True polycythemia
14. Which amongst the following is not a form of leukopenia?

(a) Agranulocytosis (b) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
(c) Cyclic neutropenia (d) Infectious mononucleosis
15. Cyclic neutropenia refers to a periodic/cyclic reduction in

circulating
(a) Leukocytes
(b) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) Monocytes
16. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by

(a) Epstein-Barr virus (b) Cytomegalovirus
(c) Varicella zoster virus (d) Staph. aureus
17. The _________ lymph nodes are usually the first nodes to enlarge
in infectious mononucleosis.
(a) Axillary (b) Cervical
(c) Submandibular (d) Inguinal
18. The chromosomal abnormality observed in 85% to 90% of patients

suffering from chronic myeloid leukemia is in
(a) Chromosome 21 (b) Chromosome 27
(c) Chromosome 23 (d) Chromosome 22
19. Lymph node enlargement is not a common occurrence in _______

leukemia.
(a) Acute lymphoid (b) Chronic myeloid
(c) Chronic lymphoid (d) Acute monocytic
20. A positive Paul-Bunnell test showing a titer up to 1:4096 is

characteristic and pathognomonic of
(a) Leukemia (b) Infectious mononucleosis
(c) Agranulocytosis (d) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
21. Purpura is defined as a purplish discoloration of

(a) Bones (b) Eyes
(c) Skin (d) Teeth
22. Indicate which amongst the following is not a clotting factor?

(a) Calcium (b) Hageman factor
(c) von Willebrand factor (d) Christmas factor
23. Which of the following tests is normal in idiopathic throm

bocytopenic purpura?
(a) Clotting time (b) Bleeding time
(c) Tourniquet test (d) Capillary fragility
24. The clotting factor deficient in hemophilia C is

(a) Factor VIII (b) Factor XI
(c) Factor X (d) Factor IX
25. Christmas disease is also known as

(a) von Willebrand’s disease
(b) Hemophilia A
(c) Hemophilia C
(d) Hemophilia B
26. Which of the tests is abnormal in hemophilia?

(a) Prothrombin time (b) Bleeding time
(c) Platelet aggregation (d) Clotting time
27. Parahemophilia is due to absence of factor

(a) V (b) Calcium
(c) VII (d) XII
28. Pseudohemophilia is also known as

(a) Christmas disease
(b) Bleeder’s disease
(c) von Willebrand’s disease
(d) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
29. Congenital aplastic anemia associated with a variety of congenital

defects including bone defects, hypogenitalism and generalized
olive brown skin pigmentation is called
(a) Fanconi syndrome (b) Reye syndrome
(c) Down syndrome (d) Patterson Kelly syndrome
30. Cooley’s anemia is also known as

(a) Sickle cell anemia (b) Thalassemia
(c) Erythroblastosis fetalis (d) Sprue
ANSWERS
1. (b) It is a megaloblastic anemia caused by poor absorption

of vitamin B12 or extrinsic factor, due to absence of an
intrinsic factor in the parietal cells of the lining mucosa of
stomach.
2. (c) The yet unidentified intrinsic factor of castle is produced
by the parietal cells of stomach mucosa. It has been proved
that absence of this factor leads to poor absorption of
vitamin B12.
3. (a) Vitamin B12 is a nutrient that helps keep the body’s nerve
and blood cells healthy and helps make DNA. As per the
FDA guidelines,The recommended dietary intake as per the
FDA (USA) guidelines is about 2.4 µg for a normal healthy
adult.
4. (d) It is characterized by failure of the hematopoietic precursor
cells in the bone marrow to produce adequate numbers of
all types of blood cells thus leading to pancytopenia.
5. (a) Chloramphenicol has been strongly implicated in causing
aplastic anemia leading to pancytopenia due to its effect on
the hematopoietic cells.
6. (a) Macrocytic normochromic red blood cells are a feature of
pernicious anemia.
7. (c) This appearance is produced due to extreme thickening
of diploe and the trabeculae between the inner and outer
cortical plates becoming elongated.
8. (a) Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary type of Mendelian
dominant, nonsex-linked chronic hemolytic anemia
that occurs almost exclusively in blacks and in whites of
mediterranean origin.
9. (b) In this disease, normal adult hemoglobin HbA is genetically
altered to sickle hemoglobin HbS. This altered hemoglobin
molecule undergoes gelation or crystallization to distort
the shape of RBC to sickle shape when it is deoxygenated
as happens in cases of exercise, infection, pregnancy or
administration of general anesthesia.
10. (a) It is a congenital hemolytic anemia brought about by Rh
factor incompatibility between mother’s blood and that of
the infant. Fetal hemolysis occurs when mother’s antibodies
to Rh factor leaks through the placenta. The bilirubin

produced due to hemolysis gets deposited in the teeth of
infants giving them a green, brown or bluish discoloration.
11. (c) It is a rare condition characterized by iron deficiency anemia,
in conjunction with glossitis and dysphagia.
12. (c) Achlorhydria referes to absence of gastric hydrochloric
acid. In the absence of hydrochloric acid, conversion of
unabsorbable dietary ferric iron to absorbable ferrous state
is impaired.
13. (a) Relative polycythemia is not an actual disease and is usually
caused by loss of blood with resultant hemoconcentration.
It is seen often in cases of chronic vomiting, diarrhea or loss
of electrolytes with accompanying loss of water.
14. (d) Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by
Epstein-Barr virus and is characterized by fever, sore throat,
lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Blood investigations
reveal leukocytosis which is invariably a lymphocytosis.
15. (b) It is a rare idiopathic hematologic disorder characterized by
regular periodic reduction in the neutrophils of the affected
patient. The underlying pathology seems to be related to a
defect in the hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow.
16. (a) The Epstein-Barr virus is also implicated in the causation
of Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma
and lymphoblastic leukemia. An important means of
transmission of this virus in this disease is through deep
kissing which results in exchange of saliva.
17. (b) Lymphadenopathy is one of the prominent signs of this
disease, with cervical lymph nodes usually the first ones to
enlarge followed by those of axilla and groin.
18. (d) Leukemias are believed to arise from a combination of
genetic and environmental factors, with Philadelphia
chromosome an abnormality of chromosome 22 being
observed in 85–90 percent of patients suffering from chronic
myeloid leukemia.
19. (b) Lymphadenopathy is not generally observed in leukemias
of myeloid series as they involve the cells of granulocyte
series, i.e. PMNL, eosinophils and basophils.
20. (b) Normal titer of agglutinins and hemolysins in human blood
against sheep RBCs does not exceed 1:8, but in infectious
mononucleosis, this is raised to above 1:4096. This is referred

to as a positive Paul-Bunnell test and is pathognomonic of
this disease.
21. (c) Purpura is defined as a purplish discoloration of skin and
mucous membranes owing to spontaneous extravasation
of blood.
22. (c) von Willebrand’s factor is not a factor but the name of a
hereditary disease characterized by tendency for excessive
bleeding in patients who have a normal platelet count,
normal clotting and prothrombin time and normal serum
fibrinogen levels. Only the bleeding time is prolonged.
23. (a) Thrombocytopenia is a hematologic disorder that is
characterized by a markedly decreased number of
circulating blood platelets. The idiopathic form of this
disorder is believed to be an autoimmune disease in which
the body forms antibodies against its own platelets.
24. (b) Hemophilia is classified into three types based on the
deficiency of clotting factors into—hemophilia A (factor
VIII), hemophilia B (factor IX) and hemophilia C (factor
XI). Out of these, hemophilia A is the most common.
25. (d) Hemophilia B is also known a Christmas disease so named
after the name of the first patient in whom it was discovered.
Even the clotting factor which is deficient (factor IX or
plasma thromboplastin component) is sometimes referred
to as christmas factor.
26. (d) The characteristic defect of hemophilia is abnormally
prolonged coagulation time, with bleeding and
prothrombin time as well as platelet aggregation being
normal.
27. (a) Factor V also called proaccelerin or labile factor is one of
the substances responsible for conversion of prothrombin
to thrombin. Parahemophilia is thought to be transmitted as
an autosomal recessive trait with both sexes being affected.
28. (c) It is an inherited disease transmitted as an autosomal
dominant trait with both sexes being affected. This disease is
caused by a decrease in all the three functional components
of factor VIII, while classic hemophilia is caused by
deficiency of only one of the three functional components
of factor VIII.
29. (a) Primary aplastic anemia is one of the primary compo

nents of this syndrome. Apart from Fanconi’s syndrome,
dyskeratosis congenita is also many times associated with
aplastic anemia.
30. (b) Also called erythroblastic anemia, thalassemia occurs in two
types—α thalassemia when there is deficient synthesis of
the α chain on hemoglobin and β thalassemia when there
is deficient synthesis of the β chain.
13 Diseases of
Nerves and Muscles
1. Fothergill’s disease is another name for

(a) Facial palsy (b) Bell’s palsy
(c) Tic Douloureux (d) Hemifacial atrophy
2. The syndrome characterized by miosis, ptosis and anhidrosis

and vasodilatation over face is
(a) Hurler syndrome (b) Horner syndrome
(c) Gardner syndrome (d) Treacher Collins syndrome
3. Development of trigeminal neuralgia in young individuals may

suggest the possibility of _______ .
(a) Hemifacial atrophy (b) Hemifacial hypertrophy
(c) Gigantism (d) Multiple myeloma
4. Which of the following statements is true regarding trigeminal

neuralgia?
(a) Affects females more than males
(b) Affects left side of face more than right side
(c) Tumors or aneurysms are one of its causes
(d) Older adults are more frequently affected
5. The pain of trigeminal neuralgia is described as

(a) Lancinating (b) Throbbing
(c) Dull ache (d) Continuous
6. All of the following landmarks except __________ are considered

as trigger zones of trigeminal neuralgia.
(a) Palate (b) Vermilion border of lip
(c) Buccal mucosa (d) Tongue
Diseases of Nerves and Muscles 119
7. Which clinical condition must be differentiated from trigeminal

neuralgia before establishing the diagnosis?
(a) Bell palsy (b) Migraine
(c) Hurler syndrome (d) Multiple sclerosis
8. A clinically similar condition called postherpetic neuralgia occurs

after _________ infection.
(a) Chickenpox (b) Herpes simplex
(c) Herpes zoster (d) Herpangina
9. How can postherpetic neuralgia be clinically differentiated from

trigeminal neuralgia?
(a) Positive history of skin lesions prior to neuralgia
(b) Presence of trigger zones on face
(c) Histopathological examination
(d) Laboratory investigations
10. Which of the following drugs has been found to be beneficial in

the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia in the recent years?
(a) Rifampicin (b) Dilantin sodium
(c) Benzene (d) Corticosteroids
11. Which region of face is affected in sphenopalatine neuralgia?

(a) Maxilla (b) Mandible
(c) Back of head (d) Lower lip
12. Identify the incorrect statement amongst the below given

statements regarding causalgia.
(a) Arises after injury to sectioning of peripheral sensory nerve
(b) Usually follows extraction of multirooted tooth
(c) Pain is described as a dull ache
(d) Pain has a typical burning quality
13. Glossodynia refers to painful

(a) Ears (b) Tongue
(c) Nose (d) Mouth
14. Which amongst the following can cause glossodynia?

(a) Pernicious anemia (b) Chickenpox
(c) Vertigo (d) Tuberculosis
15. Frey’s syndrome occurs as a result of damage to _____ nerve.

(a) Mandibular (b) Ophthalmic
(c) Auriculotemporal (d) Ascending pharyngeal
16. The chief complaint of patient suffering from Frey’s syndrome is

(a) Flushing and sweating of face during eating
(b) Pain in the parotid region during eating
(c) Pain in the tongue during swallowing
(d) Paroxysmal attacks of pain in face during winter season
17. Frey’s syndrome must be considered as a possible complication

following
(a) Maxillary resection
(b) Nasal reconstruction
(c) Incorrect infraorbital nerve block
(d) Parotid tumor removal surgeries
18. Which amongst the following is associated with etiology of Bell’s

palsy?
(a) Parotidectomy (b) Syphilis
(c) Gardner syndrome (d) Gingivectomy
19. Which virus is now believed to be the one responsible for causing
Bell palsy?
(a) Herpes simplex (b) Varicella zoster
(c) Cytomegalovirus (d) Epstein-Barr
20. Drooping of corner of mouth, drooling of saliva, watering of eyes

and inability to wink are indicative of
(a) Auriculotemporal syndrome
(b) Sphenopalatine neuralgia
(c) Facial paralysis
(d) Trigeminal neuralgia
21. Trauma to which gland can result in facial paralysis?
(a) Submandibular (b) Parotid
(c) Sublingual (d) Palatal
22. Repeated attacks of facial palsy, nonpitting, and painless edema
of face, cheilitis granulomatosa and fissured tongue are all
components of ________ syndrome.
(a) Frey’s (b) Reye’s

(c) Gorlin-Goltz (d) Melkersson-Rosenthal
23. Unilateral, paroxysmal pain in ear, pharynx, nasopharynx, tonsils
and posterior tongue is indicative of neuralgia of _______ nerve.
(a) V (b) IX
(c) III (d) VII
24. Trigger zone in glossopharyngeal neuralgia is located in
(a) Nasopharynx (b) Posterior oropharynx
(c) Anterior oropharynx (d) Retromolar trigone
25. Which one of the following is classified under the heading of
demyelinating diseases?
(a) Progressive hemifacial atrophy
(b) Multiple myeloma
(c) Multiple sclerosis
(d) Motor neuron disease
26. One amongst the following statements is incorrect regarding
burning mouth syndrome
(a) Burning sensation in oral mucosa in absence of visible
mucosal lesions
(b) Xerostomia is an important etiological factor
(c) Patients give a short history of presence of symptoms
(d) Strong female predilection
27. One condition which must always be considered in differential
diagnosis of any vague/atypical orofacial pain is
(a) Frey’s syndrome
(b) Eagle’s syndrome
(c) Treacher-Collins syndrome
(d) Bell’s palsy
28. The most consistent symptom in atypical facial pain is ____ pain.
(a) Pharyngeal (b) Neck
(c) Ear (d) Laryngeal
29. Myasthenia gravis is a chronic disease characterized by pro
gressive weakness of _____ skeletal muscles.
(a) Facial (b) Skeletal
(c) Cardiac (d) Smooth
30. The drug of choice that is used in the treatment of myasthenia

gravis is also used for diagnosis of this disease is
(a) Neomycin (b) Physostigmine
(c) Acetylcholine (d) Noradrenaline
ANSWERS
1. (c) Fothergill’s disease, also known as Tic Douloureux is

classified as a major neuralgia and affects the trigeminal
nerve.
2. (b) The chief significance of this syndrome is that it indicates a
primary disease. Thus lesions in the brainstem-like tumors
or infections in cervical or high thoracic cord will produce
this syndrome.
3. (a) Also known as Parry-Romberg syndrome, it is manifested
by progressive atrophy of some or all of the tissues of one
side of the face. Trigeminal neuralgia as well as Bell’s palsy
may occur if the V and VII cranial nerves are involved in the
atrophy.
4. (b) It is a completely unexplained fact that right side of face is
affected more than the left side in a ratio of about 1.7 to 1.
5. (a) The pain of trigeminal neuralgia is typically described as
stabbing, searing or lancinating type which is often initiated
by the touching of one of the many trigger zones on the face.
6. (b) Apart from vermilion zone, alae of nose, cheeks and
periorbital region are also common trigger zones on face.
7. (b) Migraine or migrainous neuralgia can sometimes be
confused with trigeminal neuralgia, but the headache of
migraine is persistent, at least over a period of hours and
has no trigger zone.
8. (c) The postherpetic neuralgia usually involves the ophthalmic
division of the trigeminal nerve, but commonly regresses
within 2–3 weeks.
9. (a) Herpes zoster is a re-infection by Varicella zoster
(chickenpox) virus infection which occurs due to the virus
remaining latent within the trigeminal ganglion after the
chickenpox infection has subsided. Thus post-herpetic
neuralgia can easily be detected by confirming the prior
occurrence of typical lesions prior to development of
neuralgia.
10. (b) Dilantin sodium has given good results in control of trigeminal
neuralgia in early as well as advanced cases. Reports,
however, indicate that it should be used continuously as its
cessation has led to recurrence of neuralgia in some cases.
11. (a) Sphenopalatine ganglion neuralgia is believed nowadays to
be a variant of migraine and is characterized by unilateral
paroxysms of intense pain in regions of maxilla, zygoma,
ear and mastoid, base of nose and periorbital region.
12. (c) The pain of causalgia in fact derives its name from the typical
burning variety and interestingly may be elicited not only by
actual touch stimulation but also by emotional disturbances.
13. (b) Painful tongue can be caused by various local and systemic
disorders like anemias, diabetes, gastric disturbances like
hyper or hypoacidity, xerostomia, psychogenic factors,
periodontal disease, trigeminal neuralgia, referred pain
from teeth abscesses, angioneurotic edema, excessive use
of spices, antibiotic therapy and local causes like irritating
dentures flanges or clasps, etc.
14. (c) Glossodynia or burning tongue is one of the important
symptoms of advanced pernicious anemia and is manifested
as red, smooth tongue devoid of papillae.
15. (c) Frey’s syndrome occurs as a result of damage to the
auriculotemporal nerve and subsequent reinnervation of
sweat glands by parasympathetic nerves.
16. (a) The sweating that occurs in Frey’s syndrome is typically seen
on the temporal region and its severity may be increased by
consumption of spicy foods.
17. (d) The possibility of Frey’s syndrome must always be
considered after surgeries involving areas supplied by the
ninth cranial nerve. It has been reported as a complication
in as high as 80% of cases following parotidectomy due to
various causes.
18. (a) Terminal branches of facial nerve pass through the parotid
gland. Thus any surgical procedure involving the parotid
gland need to be approached with due caution.
19. (a) Herpes simplex as well as herpes zoster are implicated in
the etiology of Bell palsy especially in childhood cases. This
occurs due to reactivation of the viruses residing latent
within the geniculate ganglion.
20. (c) Features of muscular paralyses are drooping of corner of
mouth, watering of eye, and inability to wink. Patient has a
typical mask-like appearance and eating as well as speech

may become difficult.
21. (b) Trauma or surgeries involving partial or total parotid gland
removal are involved with facial paralysis due to sectioning
of the facial nerve.
22. (d) In cases of recurrent attacks of facial palsy along with
painless edema of face, cheilitis granulomatosa and fissured
tongue, one must consider the diagnosis of Melkersson-
Rosenthal syndrome.
23. (b) Glossopharyngeal neuralgic pain is strikingly similar to
that of trigeminal neuralgia. It can be differentiated from
trigeminal neuralgia on the basis of pain in areas supplied
by respective nerves.
24. (b) Since trigger zones are located in posterior oropharynx,
glossopharyngeal neuralgia can be incited by simple acts
like swallowing, talking, yawning or coughing.
25. (c) Multiple sclerosis is now believed to be an autoimmune
disease caused by some isolated environmental factor
which inadvertently inactivates or dysregulates the immune
apparatus by a retroviral infection that was perhaps acquired
during childhood.
26. (c) History of illness in most cases is protracted with the
patients experiencing the symptoms of this disorder for a
long time. The burning sensation may be either continuous
or intermittent.
27. (b) This syndrome occurs due to elongation or ossification of
the styloid process and can cause dysphagia, sore throat,
otalgia, glossodynia, headache and vague orofacial pain.
28. (a) Pharyngeal pain may be caused either by formation and
subsequent rubbing of scar tissue following tonsillectomy or
impingement by ossified styloid process over the internal/
external carotid artery (carotid artery syndrome).
29. (b) Myasthenia gravis is believed to be an autoimmune disorder
characterized by weakness and easy fatigability of the
skeletal muscles. The autoantibodies are directed towards
the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.
30. (b) Physostigmine, an anticholinesterase, when administered
intramuscularly, improves the strength of affected muscles
within minutes, although this remission is only temporary.
14 Disorders of Metabolism
1. Osteoporosis is now thought to be occurring due to

(a) Lack of bone matrix
(b) Deficiency of calcitonin
(c) Deficiency of parathyroid hormone
(d) Long-term negative calcium balance
2. The recommended daily allowance of calcium for children and

adults is
(a) 600 mg (b) 800 mg
(c) 900 mg (d) 500 mg
3. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a multiorgan disorder resulting

from deficiency of
(a) Iron (b) Zinc
(c) Magnesium (d) Fluoride
4. Excessive accumulation of intracellular mucoploysaccharide

including fibroblasts leading to formation of “gargoyle cells” is
seen in
(a) Hurler syndrome
(b) Gaucher disease
(c) Hereditary fructose intolerance
(d) Niemann-Pick disease
5. Calcium does not play a significant role in which of the following

bodily functions?
(a) Regulation of body temperature
(b) Formation of bones and teeth
(c) Acts as secondary/tertiary messenger in hormone action
(d) Nerve conduction
6. The lowest turnover rates of phosphorus in the human body is

in
(a) Intestines (b) Bones and teeth
(c) Kidney (d) Cell membranes
7. Radiological evidence of “Erlenmeyer flask” deformity of distal

femur is an early skeletal change seen in
(a) Lipoid proteinosis (b) Gaucher’s disease
(c) Kwashiorkor (d) Cushing’s disease
8. Which hormone is responsible for regulation of phosphate levels

in blood?
(a) Calcitonin (b) Insulin
(c) Parathormone (d) Alkaline phosphatase
9. All except __________ are causes of hypophosphatemia.

(a) Rickets and osteomalacia
(b) Increased excretion due to diuretics, etc.
(c) Ischemic heart disease
(d) Decreased intake due to malabsorption, vomiting, etc.
10. Over half of all the body store of magnesium is found in

(a) Bones (b) Teeth
(c) Muscles (d) Liver
11. Calcinosis cutis is the presence of calcification in

(a) Liver (b) Brain
(c) Heart (d) Skin
12. Metastatic calcification is most commonly seen in

(a) Hyperkalemia (b) Hyperparathyroidism
(c) Osteoporosis (d) Pulp stones
13. Hyperkalemia refers to increased _______ levels in blood.

(a) Potassium (b) Sodium
(c) Fluorine (d) Lead
14. Which one of the following special stains is utilized to demonstrate

amyloid?
(a) PAS (b) Perls’ Prussian blue
(c) Alcian blue (d) Congo red
Disorders of Metabolism 127
15. A reddish/brownish pigmentation of teeth along with

photosensitivity and excretion of reddish-colored urine is
characteristic of
(a) Sideropenic dysphagia (b) Kwashiorkor
(c) Congenital porphyria (d) Amyloidosis
16. Phosphate diabetes is a form of

(a) Hypervitaminosis A (b) Hypervitaminosis E
(c) Avitaminoses (d) Vitamin D resistant rickets
17. Which amongst the following is not a function associated with

vitamin A?
(a) Differentiation of epithelial cells
(b) Vision
(c) Lysosomal stability
(d) Collagen synthesis
18. Nyctalopia, keratomalacia and xerophthalmia are classical
deficiency symptoms of which vitamin?
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin E
19. Hypophosphatasia is produced by a deficiency of

(a) Phosphate (b) Alkaline phosphatase
(c) Acid phosphatase (d) Vitamin D
20. Tocopherol is the generic name for
(a) Vitamin B12 (b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin K
21. Which vitamin is responsible for iron uptake in the intestinal
tract?
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin B1 (d) Folic acid
22. Which amongst the following does not belong to the vitamin B
complex group?
(a) Inositol (b) Para-aminobenzoic acid
(c) Tocopherol (d) Pantothenic acid
23. Wernicke’s encephalopathy occurs in chronic ______ deficiency.

(a) Thiamin (b) Riboflavin
(c) Folic acid (d) Vitamin B12
24. Acromegaly occurs due to hypersecretion of

(a) Hormones from posterior pituitary after ossification is
complete
(b) Hormones from anterior pituitary before ossification is
complete
(c) Hormones from posterior pituitary before ossification is
complete
(d) Hormones from anterior gland after ossification is complete
25. Cretinism and myxedema result from hyposecretion of

(a) Thyroid hormones
(b) Growth hormones
(c) Adrenal medullary hormones
(d) Parathormone
26. Repeated pathological fractures, generalized osteoporosis, giant

cell tumors in jaws and urinary tract stones are characteristic
signs of
(a) Hypoparathyroidism (b) Hyperparathyroidism
(c) Hyperthyroidism (d) Hypothyroidism
27. Chronic insufficiency of adrenal cortical hormones lead to

(a) Cushing’s disease (b) Goiter
(c) Addison’s disease (d) Kimura’s disease
28. Glycosuria, polydipsia, polyuria, weakness and weight loss are

encountered in
(a) Diabetes insipidus (b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Addison’s disease (d) Marasmus
29. Which amongst the following is commonly associated with
diabetes mellitus?
(a) Candidiasis (b) Porphyria
(c) Actinomycosis (d) Cardiac arrhythmia
30. Bronze diabetes occurs due to overload of which trace element

in the body?
(a) Copper (b) Lead
(c) Iron (d) Zinc
ANSWERS
1. (d) Once thought to be due to lack of adequate bone matrix,

osteoporosis is now believed to be due to long-term negative
calcium balance. The skeletal mass at old age is proportional
to that of maturity. Thus calcium intake at infancy and
childhood may play a significant role in occurrence and
severity of osteoporosis in old age.
2. (b) The RDA for infants is 360 mg, while it is 800 mg for children
as well as adults. However, adolescents, pregnant and
lactating women need to increase their daily intake to about
1200 mg.
3. (b) It is an autosomal recessive disorder resulting from faulty
zinc absorption and is manifested as diarrhea, vesicles,
eczematoid plaques, alopecia, stomatitis and glossitis.
4. (a) It is an autosomal recessive disorder and is characterized
by an increased mucopolysaccharide excretion in urine.
It is clinically manifested by prominent forehead, saddle
nose, hypertelorism, puffy eyelids, bushy eyebrows, thick
lips, large tongue, open mouth and noisy breathing due to
nasal congestion.
5. (a) Calcium plays an important role in teeth and bone
formation, in the maintenance of skeletal and teeth
framework, normal membrane permeability, normal heart
rhythm, neuromuscular excitability, in blood coagulation,
muscle contraction and as secondary/tertiary messenger
in hormone action.
6. (b) There are multiple pools of phosphorus having different
turnover rates of which bones and teeth have lowest. A
major portion of phosphorus is incorporated into organic
phosphorus compounds like nucleic acids, phospholipids
of cell membranes, etc.
7. (b) Gaucher’s disease is a lysosomal storage disease characterized

by deposition of glucocerebroside in the cells of macrophage-
monocyte system.
8. (c) The blood levels of phosphorus are maintained by various
factors such as parathormone, phosphatase activity and
vitamin D.
9. (c) Normally, phosphate deficiency is nonexistent in man.
However, long-term antacid use will render phosphate
unabsorbable. Other causes of hypophosphatemia are
rickets, osteomalacia, decreased intake, increased cellular
uptake (carbohydrate rich diets), liver disease and increased
excretion due to diuretics or increased parathormone
levels.
10. (a) More than half of magnesium is stored in bones and one
quarter in muscles. Remainder of magnesium is stored in
liver, pancreas, RBCs, serum and cerebrospinal fluid.
11. (d) In calcinosis cutis, there is formation of calcium carbonate
nodules in skin, surrounded by a foreign body giant cell
reaction. Similar nodules elsewhere in the soft tissues are
called calcinosis universalis.
12. (b) Metastatic calcification refers to deposition of calcium
in previously undamaged tissues and is most commonly
observed in hyperparathyroidism and hypervitaminosis
D.
13. (a) Hyperkalemia may result from excessive tissue breakdown,
adrenal insufficiency, advanced dehydration or over dosage
of potassium.
14. (d) Abnormal proteinaceous substance deposited in between
cells within the tissues and organs is called amyloidosis.
It is deposited in a variety of clinical disorders. It is seen
as intercellular pink, translucent material by H and E
staining, while a special stain called Congo red is also used
to demonstrate it.
15. (c) It is a non sex-linked recessive disorder with both sexes
equally affected. Its first manifestation is excretion of red
urine containing uroporphyrin at birth or within first year.
Photosensitivity and vesiculobullous eruptions on exposed
parts of body occur later.
16. (d) Familial hypophosphatemia or vitamin D resistant rickets
is now recognized as an X-linked dominant defect in
renal phosphate metabolism and is characterized by

hypophosphatemia, hypophosphaturia, rickets that does
not respond to administration of vitamin D, normal vitamin
D metabolism, diminished growth, etc.
17. (d) A continuous supply of vitamin A is needed for rod (low
light) vision. It is also needed for lysosomal stability and is
essential for the process of differentiation of epithelial cells.
18. (c) These features are seen in initial stages of deficiency.
In advanced cases, there is keratinizing metaplasia in
tracheobronchial tree, kidney, conjunctiva, cornea, salivary
glands and genitourinary tract.
19. (b) Hypophosphatasia is a hereditary disease transmitted as
autosomal recessive characteristic manifested in three
forms—Infantile, childhood and adult types.
20. (c) Tocopherol means “The alcohol which brings forth
offspring”. The main function of vitamin E is to prevent
peroxidation of polyunsaturated fatty acids.
21. (a) The functions of vitamin C include normal development
of intercellular ground substance in connective tissues,
promotion of non heme iron absorption, maintenance of
intracellular oxidation reduction potential, etc. It also acts
as an antioxidant, aids iron uptake in GIT. Over and above all
this, it aids the hydroxylation of proline in collagen synthesis.
22. (c) Currently there are 11 well-known vitamins in the vitamin
B complex group namely, thiamine, riboflavin, niacin,
pyridoxine, pantothenic acid, biotin, folic acid, vitamin B12,
inositol, para-aminobenzoic acid and choline.
23. (a) Alcoholic patients with chronic thiamine deficiency
suffer from CNS manifestations known as Wernicke’s
encephalopathy, which consists of horizontal nystagmus,
ophthalmoplegia, cerebral ataxia and mental derangement.
24. (d) Acromegaly occurs due to over secretion of anterior pituitary
hormones after ossification is complete and is manifested
by temporal headaches, photophobia and reduction in
vision. Terminal phalanges of hand and feet enlarge and
lips become negroid.
25. (a) If thyroid insufficiency occurs in infants, it is called cretinism,
if it occurs in childhood, juvenile myxedema and if it occurs
in adults, then it is referred to as adult myxedema.
26. (b) Hyperparathyroidism may be primary (excessive secretion

of parathormone) or secondary (due to other disease
especially end stage renal diseases). Both types usually
manifest with urinary calculi, pathologic fractures, multiple
pseudocyst formation in bones and drifting and spacing of
teeth.
27. (c) It usually develops secondary to autoimmune destruction
of adrenal glands and frequently occur in conjunction
with other autoimmune disorders. It manifests as lethargy,
muscle fatigue, feeble heart action, vomiting, diarrhea and
severe anemia.
28. (b) Diabetes mellitus (DM) is classified into type 1 or juvenile
and type 2 or maturity onset diabetes. It characterized by
glycosuria, polyuria, polydipsia, weakness and weight loss.
Accelerated and abnormal amino acids and fats result
in ketoacidosis. Its complications are atherosclerosis,
retinopathy, neuropathy, autonomic insufficiency and
susceptibility to infections.
29. (a) The oral manifestations in DM are mainly due to inflammation
and infection because of abnormal neutrophil function,
microangiopathy and altered oral flora. Most patients of DM
manifest with dry mouth, persistent gingivitis, periodontal
disease and candidiasis.
30. (c) Bronze diabetes occurs due to iron overload and is
manifested by micronodular cirrhosis, marked brown
pigmentation, diabetes mellitus and skin pigmentation.
15 Healing of Oral Wounds
1. Replacement of lost tissue by ______ tissue is known as repair.

(a) Connective (b) Granulation
(c) Epithelial (d) Vascular
2. In human beings, regeneration is limited to epithelium and

(a) Kidney (b) Brain
(c) Liver (d) Heart
3. All except one of the following conditions significantly affect the

healing process
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Beriberi
(c) Scurvy (d) Heavy doses of X-rays
4. Which type of biopsy also serves as a treatment option?

(a) Punch biopsy
(b) Incisional biopsy
(c) Fine needle aspiration biopsy
(d) Excisional biopsy
5. Suggest a suitable biopsy technique for a hard, bony lesion with

a large lumen
(a) Excisional biopsy
(b) Punch biopsy
(c) Fine needle aspiration biopsy
(d) Incisional biopsy
6. The most preferred instrument for small, soft, oral lesions is
(a) Scalpel (b) Cautery
(c) Needle (d) Biopsy punch
7. Immediately after removal of the biopsied specimen, it must be

fixed in ______ percent formalin.
(a) 10 (b) 100
(c) 50 (d) 75
8. Healing by primary intention is that type of healing which occurs

when
(a) It occurs within 72 hours
(b) It is filled in by keloid
(c) It is followed by significant loss of tissue
(d) The edges of the wound are closely approximated
9. After the edges of the wound have been approximated and

sutured, the first cells to reach the site of wound are
(a) Fibroblasts (b) Leukocytes
(c) Epithelial cells (d) RBCs
10. The stimulus for differentiation of new fibroblasts is provided

through cytokines liberated by
(a) Mast cells (b) Plasma cells
(c) Epithelial cells (d) Macrophages
11. Healing of which of the following regions in oral cavity is most

likely to occur by secondary intention?
(a) Labial mucosa (b) Buccal mucosa
(c) Vestibule (d) Hard palate
12. The most frequently employed fixative for fixing the collected
material for exfoliative cytology on a glass microscopic slide is
(a) Formaldehyde (b) 95 percent alcohol
(c) Glutaraldehyde (d) Mercuric chloride
13. Exfoliative cytology is not indicated in which of the following

lesions?
(a) Fibroma (b) Squamous cell carcinoma
(c) Pemphigus vulgaris (d) Sickle cell anemia
14. The organization of clot in gingivectomy wounds usually occurs

by ______ days.
(a) 15–20 (b) 8–10
(c) 2–4 (d) 1–2
Healing of Oral Wounds 135
15. Epithelialization of a gingivectomy wound is usually complete

by ______ days.
(a) 1–2 (b) 3–5
(c) 10–14 (d) 15–20
16. Healing of which region of gingiva is the slowest?

(a) Free gingiva (b) Attached gingiva
(c) Interdental gingiva (d) Gingival sulcus
17. The surface of the blood clot 24–48 hours after tooth extraction
is covered by
(a) Fibrin (b) Prothrombin
(c) Epithelial cells (d) Collagen fibers
18. Organization of the clot in an extraction wound occurs by

(a) Epithelial cells growing into the clot
(b) Fibroblasts growing into the clot
(c) Contraction of the clot
(d) Blood vessels growing into the clot
19. Young trabeculae of new, woven bone make their appearance

within the organizing clot in an extraction wound by ______ week.
(a) 1st (b) 4th
(c) 9th (d) 3rd
20. Dry socket/alveolitis sicca is essentially a

(a) Acute osteomyelitis (b) Chronic osteomyelitis
(c) Garé osteomyelitis (d) Focal osteomyelitis
21. Which of the following sign/symptom is not encountered in dry

socket?
(a) Suppuration (b) Pain
(c) Foul smell (d) Exposure of bone
22. Extraction of which of the following teeth is most likely to result
in dry socket?
(a) Extraction of mobile maxillary incisors
(b) Extraction of firm mandibular incisors
(c) Extraction of impacted mandibular 3rd molars
(d) Extraction of firm maxillary canines
23. Which of the following clinical settings is least likely to result in

dry socket?
(a) Fracture of a tooth during extraction
(b) Patients suffering from Paget’s disease
(c) Extraction of a mobile maxillary incisor
(d) Patients undergoing radiotherapy
24. The newly forming bone at the site of fracture is called
(a) Woven bone (b) Callus
(c) Spongy bone (d) Immature bone
25. Which structure of bone is most important during callus
formation?
(a) Periosteum (b) Epiphysis
(c) Endosteum (d) Metaphysis
26. Replantation refers to
(a) Insertion of vital/nonvital tooth into same socket
(b) Insertion of vital tooth into another socket of same person
(c) Insertion of nonvital tooth into another person’s socket
(d) Surgical removal of an implant and placement into another
location
27. When a tooth is avulsed, it is important to reduce the extraoral
time in order to
(a) Keep the neurovascular bundle intact
(b) Keep the cells of PDL in a viable state
(c) Prevent dehydration of external tooth surfaces
(d) Prevent bacterial contamination of exposed tooth surfaces
28. In the course of time, many of the replanted teeth result in

(a) Gomphosis
(b) Ankylosis and root resorption
(c) Fibrosis
(d) Epithelialization
29. Most commonly, a damaged permanent mandibular first molar

is transplanted by
(a) Developing third molar
(b) Osseointegrated implant
(c) Developing second molar

(d) Developing first molar
30. All except ___________ are complications of wound healing.

(a) Keloid/hypertrophic scar
(b) Pigmentary changes
(c) Infection
(d) Callus
ANSWERS
1. (b) Healing refers to replacement of destroyed tissue by living

tissue. When lost tissue is replaced by granulation tissue,
the phenomenon is called repair, which results in scarring.
2. (c) In the human body, only epithelium and liver (to some
extent only) have the ability of regeneration which means
replacement of lost tissue by the same tissue, unlike the
scar/granulation tissue that forms in repair.
3. (b) Healing depends on many factors, among which some
important factors are vitamin C (role in collagen synthesis),
diabetes mellitus (probably related to disturbance in
carbohydrate metabolism) and X-rays (affects sensitive
undifferentiated mesenchymal cells).
4. (d) Total excision of small lesions for histologic study is called
excisional biopsy. It is preferred when size of lesion is small
and can be removed with margins of normal tissue and
wound can be closed properly.
5. (c) This biopsy is done with a fine needle attached to a syringe.
The needle is inserted into the lesion and then vacuum is
created so that tissue samples are sucked into the syringe.
The sample is used to prepare a smear and observed under
microscope.
6. (a) Scalpel is the instrument of choice as it cleanly removes
tissues and does not dehydrate the tissue like a cautery.
Needle biopsy has little value in diagnosis of oral lesions.
7. (a) All tissues, if they are to be studied under a microscope need
to be “fixed” or preserved. For this purpose 10% neutral
buffered formalin is preferred. Formalin fixes and stabilizes
the tissues by cross-linking of proteins.
8. (d) Healing by primary intention usually occurs in tissues which

can be approximated closely together and sutured and is
commonly seen in clean, linear incisions which leave a
minimal linear scar.
9. (b) Healing of tissues is considered to be an inflammatory process
since it cannot be separated from the previous vascular and
cellular phenomenon occurring in response to injury. Thus,
like in inflammatory response, the leukocytes are the first cell
to reach the wound site owing to the process of migration
mediated by chemicals called chemotaxis.
10. (d) Macrophages liberate cytokines like fibroblast growth
factor and transforming growth factor which mediates the
fibroblast activity.
11. (d) Healing by secondary intention occurs when there is tissue
loss and when the edges of the wound cannot be brought
together. Thus, since the edges of wound on hard palate
cannot be approximated together owing to its fixed nature,
the wounds of hard palate gape and heal by secondary
intention.
12. (b) 95% alcohol is the most preferred fixative in exfoliative
cytology technique. It works by denaturing the proteins
by coagulating them. It is important to remember that the
slides fixed by alcohol are left to air dry and should not be
heat fixed over a flame.
13. (a) Lesions like fibromas which have an intact and a normal
surface do not lend themselves very well for exfoliative
cytology.
14. (b) Healing process in gingivectomy continues by condensa
tion of the young connective tissue (granulation tissue)
and almost complete organization of the clot within
8–10 days.
15. (c) Epithelialization of a gingivectomy wound occurs in the
late healing phase and is usually complete by 10–14 days.
However, at this stage, the epithelium is weak and form rete
ridges only two weeks later.
16. (c) Healing in interdental gingiva is slower than other regions
of gingiva probably because epithelium covering the
interdental regions must grow in from the facial and lingual
areas which is a relatively great distance to cover.
17. (a) Within 24–48 hours of extraction there is dilatation and
engorgement of blood vessels in the area surrounding
extraction site as well as migration of PMNLs. The surface

of clot is covered by a thick layer of fibrin at this stage.
18. (b) In the first week following extraction, the blood clot
organizes primarily due to ingrowth of fibroblasts from the
periphery of extraction site and occasional small capillaries
from the residual PDL.
19. (d) As healing of extraction site enters third week, the original
blood clot is almost completely organized by the maturing
granulation tissue. At this time, immature trabeculae
of osteoid can be seen forming around the periphery of
wound from the wall of the socket. This early, woven bone is
formed by the osteoblasts derived from the undifferentiated
ectomesenchymal cells of the residual PDL which now
assumes an osteogenic function.
20. (d) Alveolitis sicca or dry socket is the most common
complication in the healing of extraction wounds. It is a
type of focal osteomyelitis in which the blood clot has been
dislodged or has disintegrated, with production of foul odor
and sever throbbing pain, but there is no pus formation.
21. (a) The primary signs and symptoms in dry socket are severe
throbbing pain and foul smell. These are due to proteolytic
enzymes produced by bacteria or local fibrinolytic activity.
However, there is no suppuration, but there may be necrosis
of bone which may gradually sequestrate in small pieces.
22. (c) Dry socket is most frequently encountered after a traumatic
or difficult extraction. Therefore, the single most important
factor in prevention of postextraction complications is
gentleness in handling living tissues.
23. (c) Paget’s disease of bones, radiotherapy and traumatic
extractions are principal factors which can predispose a
patient to the development of dry socket post-extraction.
Extraction of a mobile tooth is not considered a traumatic
procedure that can lead to dry socket.
24. (b) Callus (Latin—overgrowth of hard skin) unites the fractured
ends of bones and is composed of varying amounts of
fibrous tissue, cartilage and bone. It has two parts external,
made of new tissue that forms outside the two fragments
of bone and internal, made of new tissue arising from the
marrow cavity.
25. (a) Preservation of periosteum is essential for proper union of
fractured bone fragments because the cells in its inner layer
assume the features of osteoblasts and form a layer called

callus over and around the surface of fracture.
26. (a) This procedure is most commonly used after a tooth is
avulsed either due to traumatic injuries or other accidental
loss of tooth.
27. (b) Replantation of at least the partially formed teeth may be
followed by re-establishment of normal PDL space primarily
brought about by the remaining viable cells of PDL attached
to the root surfaces. Even some mature, fully formed teeth
show partial establishment of PDL space if the cells are kept
in a viable state.
28. (b) Replantation of mature, fully formed teeth is usually
followed by ankylosis and resorption of root/roots. This is
generally seen even after the periodontal tissues attached
to the root of replanted tooth are preserved.
29. (a) Transplantation finds it greatest use in replacement of teeth
damaged beyond repair by caries. If the transplanted tooth
is of the same person it is called autotransplant and if it is
from another person, allotransplant.
30. (d) Infection, keloid, hypertrophic scar tissue formation,
pigmentary changes, cicatrization, implantation cysts are
all complications of wound healing while callus formation
is a physiological phenomenon that brings about the union
of fractured ends of bones.
16 Physical and Chemical
Injuries of Teeth
1. The smear layer consisting of components of enamel, dentin,

water and saliva can be beneficial to the cut surface of dentin by
one of the following actions
(a) Reducing permeability of enamel
(b) Increasing the caries resistance of enamel
(c) Increasing surface of contact between tooth structure and
restorative material
(d) Reducing permeability of dentin
2. Lesion manifested as alteration in ground substance, fibrosis,

edema, odontoblastic disruption and reduced predentin
formation in pulp directly opposite the cavity site produced by
high speed instrumentation is called
(a) Smear layer (b) Tertiary dentin
(c) Dead tracts (d) Rebound response
3. Which amongst the following reactions is not directly attributable
to restorative materials on tooth?
(a) Hypercementosis
(b) Pulpal necrosis
(c) Tertiary dentin formation
(d) Dead tracts formation
4. Identify the incorrect statement regarding traumatic bone cyst.
(a) Most commonly occurs in mandible
(b) Appears as a well-defined, unilocular radiolucency
(c) It is lined by stratified squamous epithelium
(d) Thought to arise due to trauma, followed by degeneration
of clot.
5. Which one of the following lesions cannot be considered in the

differential diagnosis of focal osteoporotic bone marrow defect?
(a) Dentigerous cyst (b) Odontogenic keratocyst
(c) Traumatic bone cyst (d) Residual cyst
6. Apart from the base of socket, where else is new bone deposited
during extrusive movement of tooth?
(a) Outer surface of labial cortical plate
(b) Crest of alveolar socket
(c) Outer surface of lingual cortical plate
(d) Inner surface of lingual cortical plate
7. Which amongst the following is not directly attributable to

bruxism?
(a) Gingival recession (b) Root resorption
(c) Severe tooth attrition (d) Loosening of teeth
8. Fractures of teeth most commonly occur in

(a) Maxillary posterior teeth
(b) Maxillary anterior teeth
(c) Mandibular anterior teeth
(d) Mandibular posterior teeth
9. Vitality of a tooth is most likely to be maintained if

(a) Crown is fractured without pulp involvement
(b) Crown is fractured with only a very thin layer of dentin
remaining
(c) Crown is fractured with pulp exposure
(d) Root is fractured with pulp involvement
10. Which one of the following is not a cause of tooth ankylosis?

(a) Periapical inflammation as a result of pulp infection
(b) Damage to PDL resulting from endodontic treatment
(c) Fracture of crown without pulp involvement
(d) Occlusal traumatism
11. Riga-Fede disease represents

(a) Recurrent aphthous ulcerations
(b) Traumatic ulcerations caused by erupting teeth during
nursing, in infants
Physical and Chemical Injuries of Teeth 143
(c) Herpetic ulcerations

(d) Linea alba
12. All of the following terms except ____ represent Epulis fissuratum.
(a) Denture injury tumor
(b) Denture epulis
(c) Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
(d) Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia
13. Blowing of compressed air into a root canal can result in

(a) Cervicofacial emphysema
(b) Anesthetic necrosis
(c) Pneumoparotid
(d) Motsus humanus
14. Which amongst the following is not associated with occlusal

trauma?
(a) Attrition (b) Faulty occlusion
(c) Bruxism (d) Epulis fissuratum
15. White or reddish, ulcerative or superficial erosions on marginal

and attached gingivae involving maxillary canine and premolars
is most likely to be
(a) Recurrent aphthous ulcers
(b) Herpetic gingivostomatitis
(c) Toothbrush trauma
(d) Epidermolysis bullosa
16. Which amongst the following cells is the most sensitive to ionizing
radiation?
(a) Germ cells (b) Developing bone cells
(c) Salivary glands (d) Pancreas
17. All of the following except ________________ occur in osteora-

dionecrosis.
(a) Intense bone pain (b) Pathological fractures
(c) Xerostomia (d) Sequestrum formation
18. Within one hour of an operative procedure, clinical features of

a rapidly enlarging unilateral soft tissue swelling of face with
crepitus and minimal pain initially followed by variable pain,

mild fever and facial erythema are suggestive of
(a) Acute osteomyelitis
(b) Buccal space infection
(c) Cervicofacial emphysema
(d) Canine space infection
19. Features of a thin blue-black line on the marginal gingiva, burning

sensation of oral mucosa and a metallic taste are suggestive of
(a) Bismuth poisoning (b) Dilantin sodium overdose
(c) Mercury poisoning (d) Arsenic poisoning
20. _____ is not usually associated with gingival hyperplasia.

(a) Dilantin sodium (b) Nifedipine
(c) Cyclosporine (d) Aspirin
21. Plumbism is a term used to describe poisoning by which element?

(a) Lead (b) Arsenic
(c) Mercury (d) Bismuth
22. Oral mucosal ulcerations caused by cancer therapeutic drugs is

usually due to
(a) Leukocytosis (b) Neutropenia
(c) Agranulocytosis (d) Thrombocytopenia
23. Which element is responsible for acrodynia?

(a) Mercury (b) Lead
(c) Arsenic (d) Bismuth
24. Which one of the following factors is responsible for causing

xerostomia?
(a) Sialadenitis (b) Salivary duct cyst
(c) Sialorrhea (d) Mouth breathing
25. Cutright lesion represents

(a) Ossifying fibroma
(b) Osteoma
(c) Reactive osseous and chondroid metaplasia
(d) Fibroma
26. Which one of the following factors is not responsible for

producing Linea alba?
(a) Denture injury (b) Frictional irritation
(c) Sucking trauma (d) Pressure
27. Which one of the following lesions is not produced as a result of

injury/trauma?
(a) Solitary bone cyst (b) Aneurysmal bone cyst
(c) Mucocele (d) Ranula
28. The most common location for occurrence of anesthetic necrosis

is
(a) Gingiva (b) Lips
(c) Hard palate (d) Tongue
29. A persistent scaling and flaking of the vermilion border secondary

to habits such as lip licking, lip biting, lip picking, or lip sucking
is called
(a) Angular cheilitis (b) Actinic keratosis
(c) Exfoliative cheilitis (d) Riga-Fede disease
30. Localized argyrosis is another name for

(a) Amalgam tattoo (b) Silver nitrate poisoning
(c) Plumbism (d) Aspirin burn
ANSWERS
1. (d) Presence of smear layer over the cut surface helps to reduce
the permeability of dentin by closing off the opening of the
dentinal tubules and prevents the exit of dentinal fluid.
2. (d) This response is supposed to be caused by waves of energy
transmitted to the pulp tissue by the pulpal walls.
3. (a) Majority of the restorative materials exert their pulp irritant
action only after coming in close contact with pulpal
tissues. Materials with high irritant action are avoided
these days. Also with the use of cavity liners and varnishes,
the incidence of pulp irritation has drastically come down.
Hypercementosis is not a response associated with most
restorative materials.
4. (c) Traumatic cyst is classified as a pseudocyst, i.e. a cyst that

lacks an epithelial lining.
5. (a) A dentigerous cyst by definition, is attached to the neck of
the tooth, while other lesions including focal osteoporotic
bone marrow defect are not intimately associated with a
tooth.
6. (b) The tissue changes produced by extrusive movements consist
of deposition of new bone spicules at the alveolar crest and
base of the alveolar socket with the spicules arranged in a
direction parallel to the direction of orthodontic force.
7. (b) Bruxism or night grinding is the habitual biting or grinding
of teeth during sleep or as an unconscious act even during
waking hours. Local, systemic, psychogenic as well as
occupational factors are recognized in the etiology. In
well-established cases, severe attrition, gingival recession,
drifting of teeth, facial pain, TMJ disturbances and
hypertrophy of masticatory muscles especially master have
been reported.
8. (b) Fracture of teeth is very common and can occur in a great
variety of setting, but the commonest is a sudden, severe
trauma like a blow, fall or other common incidents with
which children are usually involved. Expectedly, it is the
maxillary anterior teeth that are most prone to accidental
injuries.
9. (a) Except (a), in all other instances, the pulp is either vulnerable
or is exposed and irreversibly inflamed leading to its death.
10. (c) Ankylosis occurs when partial root resorption is followed by
repair with either cementum or bone that unites the root and
the surrounding alveolar bone. It is rarely seen in deciduous
teeth and is even rarer in permanent teeth. While occlusal
trauma, periapical inflammation and endodontic treatment
resulting in PDL damage can predispose to ankylosis, crown
fracture is not associated with tooth ankylosis.
11. (b) Riga-Fede disease occurs in infants between one week
and one year of life. Lesions are observed usually on
anteroventral surface of tongue caused by contact of tongue
with erupting mandibular incisors.
12. (c) Epulis fissuratum is one of the most common tissue
reactions to chronically ill-fitting denture. It is manifes
ted as hyperplasia of tissue along the denture borders,
characterized by development of elongated rolls of tissue

in the mucobuccal or mucolabial fold, area in which the
flange of a denture sits.
13. (a) Emphysema refers to swelling due to presence of air in
the interstices of connective tissue. This can occur due
blowing of air into root canal(s) or periodontal pocket,
spontaneously due to patient’s breathing action following
some surgical procedures, etc.
14. (d) Physiologic tooth wear, drifting of teeth, high filling, faulty
occlusion, bruxism, improper orthodontic tooth movement
are all commonly associated with chronic occlusal
trauma.
15. (c) Toothbrush trauma lesions can be very commonly mistaken
for vesiculobullous lesions or infective lesions if the history
is not elicited properly.
16. (a) Although there is a great variation in radiosensitivity of
different types of living cells, it is generally agreed that
embryonic, immature or poorly differentiated cells are
more easily injured than the differentiated cells of same
type. Once these cells are injured, they usually show greater
recovery properties.
17. (c) Osteoradionecrosis refers to an acute form of osteomyelitis
due to damage to the intraosseous blood vessels and is
characterized by painful infection and necrosis followed
by sequestration of necrosed bone. Factors like radiation,
trauma and infection are believed to be involved in its
etiology.
18. (c) The facial enlargement can be confused with angioedema,
but can be differentiated by identifying crepitus within the
swelling. If emphysema spreads into mediastinum, it can
cause dysphagia or dyspnea.
19. (a) Earlier used in the treatment of syphilis, Bismuth is still used
for treatment of certain skin diseases. The classical bismuth
line is manifested as a thin blue-black line in marginal
gingiva. It represents bismuth sulfide granules produced by
the action of hydrogen sulfide on bismuth compound in the
tissues. The H2S inside oral cavity is produced by microbial
degradation of food debris.
20. (d) Aspirin use is associated with aspirin burn which occurs
when the tablet is placed against the painful tooth, allowing
the cheek or lip to hold it in position. The caustic action of

aspirin causes sloughing of epithelium.
21. (a) Lead intoxication or plumbism is manifested by severe GIT
disturbances which include nausea, vomiting, colic and
constipation. A peripheral neuritis can also develop leading
to the characteristic wrist or foot-drop.
22. (b) Oral mucosal erosion and ulceration is the common oral
reaction to cancer chemotherapy drugs. These ulcers are
diffuse and multiple and are mostly due to neutropenia
caused directly by the cytotoxic effects of the drug used.
23. (a) Acrodynia, also referred to as Pink disease or Swift’s disease is
a mercurial toxic reaction. The source of this mercury may be
a teething powder, ammoniated mercury ointment, calomel
lotion or dichloride of mercury disinfectant.
24. (d) Amongst the given causes, mouth breathing is a cause of
temporary xerostomia. However, xerostomia has a variety
of causes amongst which are developmental aplasia, water/
metabolite loss, medication, radiation to head and neck
region, diabetes, psychogenic, HIV infection, decreased
mastication, smoking and mouth breathing to name just a
few.
25. (c) Osseous and chondromatous metaplasia can occur due to
mechanical denture irritation. Such metaplasia is usually
seen along the crest of the posterior mandibular alveolar
ridge in long-term denture wearers with atrophic ridges. It
is manifested as an extremely tender and localized area of
the alveolar ridge is typically noted that may be associated
with local enlargement.
26. (a) Linea alba (white line) is a common alteration of the buccal
mucosa that is mostly associated with pressure, frictional
irritation, or sucking trauma from the facial surfaces of the
teeth. It is not associated with problems like insufficient
horizontal overlap or rough restorations of the teeth.
27. (b) Lesions like solitary/traumatic bone cyst, mucocele
and ranula are induced by trauma, while hemodynamic
disturbance is considered responsible for development of
aneurysmal bone cyst.
28. (c) Administration of a local anesthetic agent can, on rare
occasions be followed by ulceration and necrosis at the site
of injection. This necrosis is thought to result from localized
ischemia. Faulty technique such as subperiosteal injection

or administration of excess solution in tissue firmly bound
to bone has been blamed.
29. (c) This chronic condition usually involves both the lips and
only those cases that are proven to be caused by chronic
injury are termed exfoliative cheilitis.
30. (a) Implantation of dental amalgam into oral tissues is called
amalgam tattoo. Localized argyrosis has been used as
another name for amalgam tattoo, but this nomenclature
is inappropriate because amalgam contains not only silver
but also mercury, tin and other metals.
17 Regressive
Changes of Oral Cavity
1. Which of the following surfaces do not show attrition?

(a) Occlusal (b) Proximal
(c) Gingival 1/3rd (d) Incisal
2. The exposure of dentinal tubules and resultant irritation of

odontoblastic processes leads to formation of
(a) Polished facet on tooth surface affected by attrition
(b) Sclerotic dentin
(c) Tertiary dentin
(d) Predentin
3. All except _______________ are common causes of attrition.

(a) Abrasive dentifrices
(b) Habitual biting of bobby pins
(c) Improper use of toothpicks and dental floss
(d) Vertical toothbrushing habit
4. Erosion is defined as irreversible loss of tooth substance by a

chemical process that does not involve
(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Saliva (d) Tissue fluid
5. All of the following except _____ are etiological factors of erosion.

(a) Faulty toothbrushing habit
(b) Acidic beverages
(c) Medications
(d) Regurgitated gastric acid
Regressive Changes of Oral Cavity 151
6. Chronic excessive vomiting has long been recognized as a cause

of
(a) Abrasion (b) Abfraction
(c) Attrition (d) Erosion
7. Sclerosis of primary dentin is characterized by _____ of dentinal

tubules.
(a) Exposure (b) Calcification
(c) Loss (d) Wearing away
8. The dentin that is laid down around the pulp chamber as a result
of a normal aging process is referred to as
(a) Tertiary dentin
(b) Interglobular dentin
(c) Intertubular dentin
(d) Physiologic secondary dentin
9. Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding

tertiary/reparative secondary dentin?
(a) It is an age-related phenomenon
(b) It forms as a result of irritation of odontoblasts
(c) Affected teeth show markedly reduced sensitivity
(d) Number of dentinal tubules per unit area is less and more
irregularly arranged compared to primary dentin
10. Reticular atrophy of pulp is characterized by

(a) Dilated blood vessels
(b) Increased calcific deposits
(c) Presence of large, vacuolated spaces
(d) Infiltration of large number of lymphocytes
11. The nodules of true denticles bear a great resemblance to

(a) Intratubular dentin (b) Predentin
(c) Secondary dentin (d) Intertubular dentin
12. External resorption of roots is not caused by which one amongst

the following factors?
(a) Impaction of teeth
(b) Consumption of acidic beverages
(c) Periapical inflammation

(d) Tumors and cysts around roots
13. The principal cause of internal resorption of teeth is

(a) Inflammatory hyperplasia of pulp
(b) Vacuolar degeneration of pulp
(c) Pulp calcification inside pulp chamber
(d) Periapical inflammation
14. Identify the disorders amongst the below given that is commonly
associated with generalized hypercementosis.
(a) Fibrous dysplasia
(b) Cherubism
(c) Osteitis deformans
(d) Osteopetrosis
15. Which one of the following conditions does not produce any
signs/symptoms like increase or decrease of tooth sensitivity,
tenderness to percussion, etc.?
(a) Secondary dentin (b) Periapical granuloma
(c) Periapical abscess (d) Hypercementosis
16. The condition that is most likely to initiate hyperplasia of

cementum is:
(a) Osteomyelitis
(b) Elongation of a tooth due to loss of its antagonist
(c) Extreme orthodontic force application
(d) Impaction
17. The hypercementosis that occurs following loss of an opposing

tooth usually occurs on
(a) Cervical 1/3rd of root (b) Entire root surface
(c) Apical 1/3rd of root (d) Middle 1/3rd of root
18. Diagnosis of hypercementosis is established radiologically by
(a) Detecting differences in radiodensity between tooth
structures
(b) Loss of lamina dura around roots
(c) Widening of periodontal space around the roots
(d) Detection of blunted root apex
19. Hypercementosis is characterized histologically by deposition

of
(a) Primary acellular cementum over secondary cellular
cementum
(b) Secondary cellular cementum over primary acellular
cementum
(c) Secondary cellular cementum over radicular dentin
(d) Primary acellular cementum over radicular dentin
20. The secondary cellular cementum that is laid down in hyper

cementosis is also referred to as
(a) Osteocementum (b) Osteodentin
(c) Tertiary cementum (d) Reparative cementum
21. Cementicles are considered to represent areas of

(a) Dystrophic calcification
(b) Metastatic calcification
(c) Ectopic calcification
(d) Dysplastic calcification
22. Odontoclastoma is another name for

(a) Cementicles
(b) External resorption of tooth
(c) Internal resorption of tooth
(d) Denticles
23. The source of calcified material in sclerotic dentin is now believed

to be
(a) Dental lymph located inside dentinal tubules
(b) Product of odontoblasts
(c) Exchange of ions from oral cavity
(d) Intratubular dentin
24. Transparent dentin is another name of

(a) Intratubular dentin
(b) Sclerotic dentin
(c) Dead tracts
(d) Physiologic secondary dentin
25. Abfraction is a type of tooth loss which is mainly confined to

(a) Gingival 1/3rd
(b) Occlusal 1/3rd
(c) Entire proximal surface
(d) Incisal 1/3rd
26. Abfraction is defined as pathological loss of tooth substance
caused by
(a) Biochemical processes
(b) Improper toothbrushing habit
(c) Biomechanical loading forces
(d) Orthodontic force application
27. Which of the following clinical appearances best describes
erosion?
(a) Deep, narrow V-shaped notch on buccal cervical surfaces of
crowns
(b) Wide, shallow V-shaped notch on cervical regions of teeth
(c) Shining, smooth wear facets on occlusal/incisal surfaces of
teeth
(d) Broad, concavities on nonoccluding surfaces of teeth
28. Which one out of the following conditions is not detrimental to
tooth function?
(a) Denticles or pulp stones
(b) Cementicles
(c) Internal resorption
(d) External resorption
29. The most likely cause for development of cementicles is:
(a) Paget’s disease of bone
(b) Fibrous dysplasia
(c) Calcification of thrombosed capillaries within periodontal
ligaments
(d) Excessive consumption of acidic beverages
30. The most likely cause for formation of cemental spikes is
(a) Orthodontic pressure application
(b) Abnormal occlusal trauma
(c) Periapical inflammation
(d) Root fracture
ANSWERS
1. (c) Attrition is defined as mechanical wear and tear of tooth

substance as a result of tooth-to-tooth contact, as happens
in case of mastication. While occlusal, incisal and proximal
surfaces do come in contact during mastication, the gingival
1/3rd regions of teeth do not do so.
2. (c) Tertiary dentin, also known as reparative secondary dentin
is formed around the pulp chamber in response to irritation
of odontoblasts.
3. (d) Although modern dentifrices are not abrasive enough to
cause abrasion, the toothbrush carrying the dentifrice can
cause remarkable wear and tear of enamel and cementum,
especially with horizontal technique of brushing.
4. (a) Loss of tooth substance owing to a chemical process
involving bacteria is called Dental Caries.
5. (a) Improper brushing technique leads to the formation of a
V-shaped facet on the tooth. This process is called abrasion
and does not involve any chemical process, unlike erosion.
6. (d) Patients suffering from anorexia nervosa or bulimia usually
but not always manifest erosion on the palatal surfaces of
maxillary teeth. Such patients are also known to consume
large quantities of acidic beverages, which can affect labial
surfaces of teeth also.
7. (b) Dentinal sclerosis results not only from injury to dentin, but
is also a manifestation of normal aging process, just like the
continuous deposition of physiological secondary dentin
around the pulp chamber.
8. (d) Physiologic secondary dentin is an age-related phenomenon
and begins as soon as the tooth erupts into the oral cavity.
Due to this, the volume of pulp chamber gradually decreases
as age advances.
9. (a) Tertiary dentin formation is essentially a pathologic process
and is initiated by irritation to the odontoblasts as in cases
of dental caries, improper cavity cutting procedure, etc.
10. (c) Reticular atrophy of pulp is a regressive change and is seen in
elderly persons. Histologically it is seen as large vacuolated
spaces in pulp along with a reduction in cellular elements
of pulp.
11. (c) True denticles contain, few and irregularly arranged dentinal
tubules, thus they resemble secondary dentin more than
primary dentin.
12. (b) External resorption of roots can occur due to various
factors that bring about forces to act on the roots as in case
of impaction or presence of tumors/cysts and also due to
osteoclastic resorption as in case of periapical inflammation.
13. (a) Pink tooth of mummery (internal resorption) is associated
very commonly with a peculiar inflammatory hyperplasia of
pulp, whose cause is unknown. However, carious exposure
and accompanying pulp inflammation are sometimes
present.
14. (c) Osteitis deformans or Paget’s disease of bone is a generalized
disorder of bones characterized by deposition of excessive
amounts of secondary cementum overroots of teeth. Thus
presence of generalized hypercementosis should always
suggest the possibility of Paget’s disease.
15. (d) Hypercementosis does not manifest any outward signs/
symptoms unless periapical inflammation is present along
with it.
16. (b) Elongation of tooth due to loss of its antagonist is often
followed by hyperplasia of cementum mainly as a result
of the inherent tendency to maintain normal periodontal
width.
17. (c) The hypercementosis in such cases is most obvious at
the apical 1/3rd region of root and tapers off in thickness
towards cervical 1/3rd.
18. (d) It is impossible radiologically to differentiate between
primary and secondary cementum. Therefore, change in
shape or outline of root apex is the only means of diagnosing
hypercementosis on a radiograph.
19. (b) The histological appearance of hypercementosis is typical
and is seen as deposition of excessive amounts of secondary
cellular cementum over a thin layer of primary acellular
cementum.
20. (a) The secondary cellular cementum laid down in hyper
cementosis is also called osteocementum due to its high
cellularity and histological resemblance to bone, just like
osteodentin in cases of tertiary dentin deposition.
21. (a) The most common way in which cementicles form is

dystrophic calcification in the cell rests of Malassez located
in the periodontal ligament, as a result of degenerative
change.
22. (c) Internal resorption is histologically manifested as
irregular lacunar resorption of internal surface of dentin,
showing osteoclasts or odontoclasts. Therefore, the term
odontoclastoma.
23. (a) The most likely source of calcium salts in sclerotic dentin is
now believed to be dental lymph fluid present around the
odontoblasts within the dentinal tubules.
24. (b) Sclerotic dentin is so referred to because its refractive index
approaches that of air due to which it appears transparent
in ground sections.
25. (a) Abfraction is believed to result from forces that cause a tooth
to flex, causing enamel to break from the crown, usually on
the buccal surface.
26. (c) With each bite, the occlusal forces cause tooth to flex a little.
This constant flexing causes the enamel and sometimes
dentin to break from the crown usually on buccal surface.
27. (d) Erosion being a chemically induced process, manifests as
broad, concave lesions on buccal or lingual surfaces of teeth.
28. (b) Cementicles are small in size, measuring no more than
0.2–0.3 mm in size and are hence not detrimental to tooth
function.
29. (c) The calcification of thrombosed capillaries also called
phlebolith is also one of the less common causes of
formation of cementicles.
30. (b) Abnormal or excessive occlusal trauma is believed to result
in deposition of irregular cementum in focal groups of PDL
fibers thus leading to cementum spike formation.

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Multiple choice questions (MCQs) tests are the preferred format

No endeavor can be successful without active cooperation, support and

1. Which amongst the following is not a cause of acquired

2. Which amongst the following is not a clinical feature of

3. Indicate the incorrect statement regarding macrognathia

4. Facial hemiatrophy is not associated with which of the following

5. Cleft of the primary palate occurs

6. Minimal form of clefting of palate is seen in

7. Increased risk of development of squamous cell carcinoma

8. If a patient has multiple intestinal polyps, cutaneous melanocytic

9. Fordyce’s granules is heterotopic collection of _______ in oral

10. Heck’s disease is caused by ________ virus

11. A well-circumscribed, soft, sessile, bilateral, nodular mass which

12. Which amongst the following is not a cause of macroglossia?

13. Which one of the following is a synonym of fissured tongue?

14. Median rhomboid glossitis occurs

15. Histopathological features of benign migratory glossitis closely

17. A nodular mass near base of tongue with presenting complaints

19. Apart from maxillary lateral incisor, which other tooth is

25. Which bone disorder should be considered for differential

26. If a patient shows signs of kinky hair, osteosclerosis at base of

(a) Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome

27. The appearance of normal thickness enamel with extremely thin

28. Loss of organization of radicular dentin with subsequent

29. Which amongst the following diseases is capable of producing

30. Lack of development of six or more teeth is denoted by the term

1. (d) Acquired micrognathia is of postnatal origin and results

mandibular body, decreased maxillary length, prominent

13. (b) Scrotal/fissured tongue is a common condition characterized

23. (a) Dens invaginatus is a deep surface invagination of the crown

2. According to miller, which of these acids was held responsible for

3. Which of these factors has not been assigned an essential role in

6. Dental plaque contains all of the following, except

7. Which inorganic constituent is present in highest concentration

8. Which product of the streptococci is responsible for adherence

9. Which is the principal buffering ion present in saliva?

11. The tooth that is most susceptible to dental caries is

13. The factor that is least associated with increased incidence of

14. Undermining of enamel occurs due to

16. Which theory of dental caries proposes that organic elements in

17. A caries increment of __ or more new carious lesions over one

19. Nursing bottle caries is a type of _______ caries

22. The first change to occur in caries of enamel is

27. The most accepted theory on mechanism of action of ingested

28. What is the percentage of fluoride in acidulated phosphate

29. The most commonly employed fluoride in dentifrices is

(c) Acidulated phosphate fluoride

30. The mechanism of cariostatic action of chlorhexidine is

1. (d) Initiation and progression of dental caries is dependent

synthesize glucan by cell surface and extracellular enzyme

19. (c) Nursing bottle caries is a form of rampant caries clinically

hydrofluoric acid to adjust the pH at 3.0 and fluoride ion

1. The most common cause of odontalgia is