Assignment 0

For each of the following questions only one of the options is correct. Choose the correct
option.
1. Which one of the following is not a symptom of the present software crisis?
a. Software is expensive.
b. It takes too long to build a software product.
c. Software is delivered late.
d. Software products are required to perform very complex tasks.

2. Which one of the following is a possible reason for the effort, time, and cost required to
develop a program to increase exponentially with the size of the program while using the
build and fix style of development?
a. Programming languages lack suitable constructs required for the build and fix
style of development
b. Programmers lack competence in effectively using the build and fix style
c. Programmers are able to use abstraction and decomposition techniques in a
very limited way while using the build and fix model
d. Programmers are able to make limited use of GO TO statements while using
the build and fix model

3. A software development company is likely to face which one of the following difficulties, if
it adopts the waterfall model in preference to the exploratory (build and fix) program
development style in its development projects?
a. Increased development cost
b. Increased development time
c. Decreased program maintainability
d. Increased documentation overhead

4. Which one among the following is not a software service type of project?
a. Software maintenance
b. Software customization
c. Outsourced software development
d. Software product development

5. Model building can be considered to be an application of which one of the following

techniques?
a. Abstraction
b. Decomposition
 c. Aggregation
d. Composition

6. Suppose you are getting an application software developed by a vendor for your
organization. Which one of the following characteristics of the software delivered by the
vendor to your organization is not a symptom of the present software crisis?
a. Fails to meet user requirements.
b. Expensive.
c. Highly interactive
d. Difficult to alter, debug, and enhance.

7. A software process model represents which one of the following?

a. The way in which software is developed
b. The way in which software processes data
c. The way in which software is used
d. The way in which software may fail

8. Which one of the following is not an important difference between the software
development projects being undertaken now and the ones that were being undertaken
several decades back?
a. Project durations have shrunk from multi-years to few months now
b. Project sizes have increased manifolds
c. Use of high-level languages
d. Increased code and design reuse

9. Which one of the following activities spans all stages of a software development life cycle
(SDLC)?
a. Coding
b. Testing
c. Project management
d. Design

10. Which one of the following is the most acceptable definition of a project?
a. A series of activities designed to accomplish some objective
b. An attempt to perform something that has well-defined objectives, and requires
both human and other types of resources and usually has to abide by several
constraints
c. A coordinated effort to accomplish a well-defined goal but in general can be
without any end points
d. Any activity to which human and other resources must be allocated for it to proceed
Answer: 1.d, 2.c, 3.d, 4. d, 5. a, 6. c, 7. a, 8. c, 9. c, 10. b
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Software Project Management

Assignment- 1
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10
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QUESTION 1:
Which one of the following can be considered to be a job rather than a project?
a) Construction of a house
b) A political election campaign
c) Buying grocery from a supermarket
d) A wedding

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 2:
Who among the following is not a project stakeholder?
a) Project manager
b) Customer
c) Project team member
d) Security personnel guarding the project building
Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 3:
Managing a software development project is much harder than managing a road construction project.
Which one of the following is NOT a major reason for this?
a) Large sized project
b) Managing something that is Intangible
c) Managing intellectual work
d) Large impact of any requirements change
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Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 4:
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a software development project?
a) A software development project can have several non-routine tasks that involve
challenge
b) A software development project can have several routine tasks
c) The resources available for a software development project are usually constrained
d) Every software development project has a well-defined starting point but may continue
indefinitely
Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 5:
Which one of the following statements concerning the business case for a project is false?
a) It clearly states the cost that would be incurred to complete the project
b) It provides the benefits that are expected to accrue from undertaking the project
c) It presents a cost-benefit analysis
d) Once the business case is completed and approved by the project sponsor, the

feasibility study is undertaken

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 6:
Which one of the following is the most acceptable definition of a project?
a) A series of activities
b) A set of activities undertaken within a defined time period in order to meet a specific
set of goals/objectives within a budget.
c) A coordinated effort to accomplish a well-defined goal but in general can continue
indefinitely
d) Any activity that requires human and other resources for it to proceed
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Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 7:
Which one of the following is usually not recognized as a phase of the software project management life
cycle?
a) Execution
b) Initiation
c) Maintenance
d) Closing

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 8:
Which one of the following most closely describes the sequence of phases of a project management life
cycle?
a) Initiation, planning, executing, and closing.
b) Concept, definition, development, closure.
c) Initiation, definition, planning, monitoring.
d) Concept, definition, implementation, maintenance.

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 9:
Which one of the following is not a pertinent question to ask for defining the scope of a project?
a) Why is the software being built?
b) What will be done?
c) When will it be done?
d) Who will be the project manager?
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Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 10:
Which one of the following is not a software service type of project?
a) A software customization project
b) A novel antivirus software development project
c) A software maintenance project
d) A software testing project

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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************END*******
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
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Software Project Management

Assignment- 2
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10
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QUESTION 1:
Which one of the following SDLC models would be suitable for use in a moderate-sized project
involving customization of a student registration and grading package for academic institutions?
Assume that the project would be developed by a team of experienced personnel and that the
schedule for the project has been very aggressively set.
a) Spiral model
b) Iterative waterfall model
c) V model
d) Agile model
Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 2:
Which one of the following is not an agile software development methodology?
a) Extreme Programming (XP)
b) Scrum
c) Prototyping model
d) Lean software development
Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 3:
Members of a Scrum team are not expected to answer which one of the following questions during a
daily Scrum meeting?
a) What did you do yesterday?
b) Why are you getting delayed?
c) What will you do today?
d) What obstacles are in your way?
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Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 4:
Which one of the following is not a Sprint ceremony in Scrum?
a) Sprint planning meeting
b) Daily stand-up meeting
c) Sprint retrospective meeting
d) Project start up meeting
Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 5:
Which one of the following characteristics of a moderate-sized project would indicate the suitability of
the Extreme Programming (XP) model in preference to the waterfall model?
a) Stable and well understood requirements
b) Mission critical software
c) Service-oriented project
d) Extremely large project
Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 6:
Which one of the following life cycle models is least similar with the waterfall model?
a) Prototyping model
b) V model
c) Spiral model
d) Scrum

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:
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_____________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION 7:
Which one of the following is not a goal of requirements analysis?
a) Weed out ambiguities in the requirements
b) Weed out inconsistencies in the requirements
c) Weed out non-functional requirements
d) Weed out incompleteness in the requirements

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 8:
How is agility achieved in the agile model of software development?
a) Elaborate documentation
b) Rigorous planning
c) Avoidance of things that waste time
d) Prototype construction

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 9:
In the agile model, why are spikes constructed during development?
a) To explore potential solutions
b) To propose a common vision of what is required.
c) To restructure code without affecting behaviour
d) To construct simpler use cases

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 10:
Which one of the following is false about an iteration in the agile model?
a) A new release is made at the end of each iteration
b) A new release may not be made at the end of some iterations
c) No new functionality may have been incorporated at the end of an iteration
d) Existing functionalities may have been enhanced at the end of an iteration

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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************END*******
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
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Software Project Management

Assignment- 3
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10
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QUESTION 1:
Which one of the followings is not an element to project portfolio management?
a. Portfolio definition
b. Portfolio management
c. Portfolio optimization
d. Portfolio deletion

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 2:
Which one of the followings is the proper sequence of undertaking project portfolio management
activities?
a. portfolio definition, portfolio optimization, portfolio management
b. portfolio optimization, portfolio definition, portfolio management
c. portfolio definition, portfolio management, portfolio optimization
d. portfolio management, portfolio definition, portfolio optimization

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 3:
Consider a software development department of a company is being set up. Which one of the followings
can be considered to be a direct cost?
a. Insurance
b. Building maintenance
c. Purchase of a box of CDs
d. Air conditioning
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Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 4:
Consider a company has undertaken a software development project. Which of the followings is not a
tangible benefit?
a. Benefits due to bonus payment on completing the project in fewer hours
b. Benefits due to an improved corporate image
c. Benefits due to producing reports with no errors.
d. Benefits due to saving manpower costs

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 5:
Method of IRR is considered to be inferior to the NPV method, because
a. it may give multiple rates of return.
b. it is relatively difficult to compute.
c. it does not indicate the absolute size of the return.
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 6:
In break-even analysis, investment period is the period when
a. the cost of the candidate system is less than that of the current system
b. the cost of the candidate system is higher than that of the current system
c. the cost of the candidate system is equal to that of the current system
d. none of the above

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:
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QUESTION 7:
Where a project is relatively risky, it is a common practice to use
a. a lower discount rate to calculate net present value.
b. an average discount rate to calculate net present value.
c. a higher discount rate to calculate net present value.
d. none of the above

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 8:
Which one of the following risk evaluation methods is suitable when it is required to evaluate whether
the risk is important and, decide on a suitable course of action?

a. Risk identification and ranking

b. C-B Analysis
c. Risk profile analysis
d. Using decision trees

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 9:
The projects that an organization undertakes within a planning cycle are referred to as
a. Business cycle programmes
b. Strategic programmes
c. Infrastructure programmes
d. Research and development programmes

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 10:
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Benefits that BSNL will get from obtaining local administration approval for constructing a mobile tower
in a street, can be
a. quantified and valued
b. quantified but not valued
c. identified and easily quantified
d. identified but not easily quantified

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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************END*******
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
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Software Project Management

Assignment- 4
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10
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QUESTION 1:
How many man-hours is a man-month?
a. 142
b. 152
c. 162
d. 172

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 2:
Which one of the following is the correct order in which a software project manager estimates various
project parameters while using COCOMO?
a. cost, effort, duration, size
b. cost, duration, effort, size
c. size, effort, duration, cost
d. size, cost, effort, duration
Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 3:
Which one of the followings is NOT a factor for "Lines of code" being considered a poor software size
metric?
a. It is programming language dependent.
b. It penalizes efficient and compact coding.
c. It is programmer dependent.
d. It is dependent on the complexity of the requirements.

Correct Answer: d
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Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 4:
Which one of the following estimating methods is most appropriate when detailed information about
the project is lacking?
a. Parametric Models
b. Basic Expert Judgement Technique
c. Analogy-Based Method
d. Price to win

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 5:
Which one of the followings is NOT a limitation of bottom-up estimation?
a. It may overlook many of the system-level costs.
b. It may be inaccurate because the necessary information may not be available in the
early phase.
c. It tends to underestimate and overlook complexities of low-level components.
d. It tends to be more time-consuming.

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 6:
Which one of the followings is NOT a desirable characteristic of a good algorithmic estimation model?
a. A clear procedure for estimation is provided
b. Subjective factors are avoided
c. Results are valid for a wide range of parameter values
d. Requires data that are accurately known only in future

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:
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_____________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION 7:
Which one of the followings is NOT a key component in function point analysis?
a. External Inputs
b. External Outputs
c. External Operations
d. External Inquiries

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 8:
In function point analysis, how many general systems characteristics are evaluated and used to compute
the Value Adjustment Factor (VAF)?
a. 12
b. 13
c. 14
d. 15

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 9:
Which one of the followings is NOT a disadvantage of function point analysis?
a. It is labor intensive.
b. Extensive training is required.
c. Does not consider algorithmic complexity of a function.
d. It is hard to fudge

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 10:
Which one of the following function points is most suitable for use in embedded system development
projects?
a. IFPUG function points
b. Mark II function points
c. COSMIC function points
d. None of the above

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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************END*******
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Software Project Management

Assignment- 5
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10
______________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION 1:
Which one of the followings is an example of organic project?
a. An accounting system development project
b. A compiler writing project
c. An operating system development project
d. A real-time database system development project

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 2:
Which one of the following statements is true of the COCOMO model?

a. Cost is considered to be the most fundamental attribute of a software product,

based on which the project size and duration are measured.
b. Size is considered to be the most fundamental attribute of a software product,
based on which the project cost and duration are measured.
c. Effort is considered to be the most fundamental attribute of a software product,
based on which the project size and cost are measured.
d. Duration is considered to be the most fundamental attribute of a software
product, based on which the project size and effort are measured.
Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 3:
In intermediate COCOMO, if modern programming practices are used, then the initial cost and effort
estimates obtained by the basic COCOMO, are
a. scaled downwards
b. scaled upwards
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c. remained unchanged
d. none of the above

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 4:
Which one of the following COCOMO estimation models considers the project as a collection of
heterogeneous sub-systems?
a. Basic COCOMO
b. Intermediate COCOMO
c. Detailed (Complete) COCOMO
d. All of the above

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 5:
Which one of the following COCOMO II estimation levels would provide most accurate estimations?
a. Application composition
b. Early design
c. Post-architecture
d. All COCOMO II estimation levels provide equally accurate results

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 6:
Early design model of COCOMO II would be used
a. when software is composed from existing parts
b. when requirements are available but design has not yet started
c. to compute the effort of integrating reusable components
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d. once the system architecture has been designed and more information about
the system is available

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 7:
In COCOMO II, the scale factor Architecture/risk resolution (RESL) refers to
a. The degree to which there are past examples that can be consulted
b. The degree of flexibility that exists when implementing the project
c. The degree of uncertainty about requirements
d. None of the above

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 8:
In Halstead’s software science, higher the level of a language,
a. The less effort it takes to develop a program using that language.
b. The more effort it takes to develop a program using that language.
c. The same effort it takes to develop a program using that language.
d. None of the above

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 9:
Suppose the development time of a large software product has been estimated to be one and half year.
Then in order to develop the product in nine months, what will be total increase in development effort?
(Use Putnam’s model).
a. 2 times
b. 4 times
c. 8 times
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d. 16 times

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 10:
Boehm observed that “There is a limit beyond which the schedule of a software project cannot be
reduced by buying any more personnel or equipment.” This limit occurs roughly at
a. 25% of the nominal time estimate.
b. 50% of the nominal time estimate.
c. 75% of the nominal time estimate.
d. 90% of the nominal time estimate.

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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************END*******
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
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Software Project Management

Assignment- 6
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10
______________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION 1:
Which one of the following charts would be the most useful to decompose the project activities
into smaller tasks that are more meaningfully managed?
a) PERT chart
b) GANTT chart
c) Task network representation
d) Work breakdown structure
Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 2:
Which one of the following is the critical path for the activity network given below?

a. A, B, F, H, G, I, L
b. A, B,F,H,I,L
c. A, C, D, J, K, L
d. A, C,D,G,K,L
Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 3:
Consider a portion of a PERT network diagram given below. What is the LF of activity C?

a) 10
b) 11
c) 16
d) 17

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 4:
Consider a portion of a PERT network diagram given below. What is the ES of activity C?

a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
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Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 5:
PERT method differs from CPM in which one of the following aspects?
a) PERT uses statistical time durations whereas CPM uses deterministic time
durations.
b) PERT uses dummy activities whereas CPM does not
c) PERT uses free float, whereas CPM uses total float in critical path
calculations.
d) PERT uses activity on arc whereas CPM uses activity on node networks.
Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 6:
Consider the data regarding the activities, their duration, and precedence for a certain project
given in the following table. What is the total project duration?
Activity Duration Predecessors
A 14 -
B 13 A
C 20 A
D 10 B,C

a) 37
b) 44
c) 47
d) 57

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 7:
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Which one of the following is true of a critical path in a PERT chart?

a) It is the path having maximum number of tasks.
b) It is the shortest path in terms of time
c) It is the longest path in terms of time
d) It is the path with the largest amount of slack time

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 8:
Which one of the following statements regarding critical paths in a PERT chart is true?
a) A critical path through a PERT chart is any path through the chart that
contains the least number of edges.
b) Some activities on the critical path can have slack.
c) Every PERT chart has exactly one critical path.
d) It is possible that in the PERT chart for a project, there can be multiple
critical paths, all having exactly the same duration.

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 9:
For a project whose activities, their precedence ordering, estimated time for completion are
given in the following table.

Immediate Estimated time in

Activity
follower weeks
A E,B 3
B C,F 2
C D,G 8
D F 4
E F 5
F --- 10
G --- 10
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Which one of the following sequence of activities is on the critical path?

a) A-E-F
b) A-B-C-G
c) A-B-C-D-F
d) A-B-F

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 10:
For a project whose activities, their precedence ordering, estimated time for completion are
given in the following table.

Immediate Estimated time in

Activity
follower weeks
A E,B 3
B C,F 2
C D,G 8
D F 4
E F 5
F --- 10
G --- 10

Which one of the following paths has the greatest slack time?
a) A-E-F
b) A-B-C-G
c) A-B-C-D-F
d) A-B-F

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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************END*******
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
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Software Project Management

Assignment- 7
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10
______________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION 1:
Which one of the following may be the highest motivator for a senior manager of a software
development organization?
a) Lunch allowance
b) House rent allowance
c) Company provided car
d) More interesting job assignment at the same pay
Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 2:
Which one of the following is the most accurate ranking of human needs as per Maslow?
a) Self actualization; self promotion; social; security and physiological needs
b) Self esteem; self actualization; social; security and physiological
c) Self actualization; self esteem; social; security and physiological
d) Self fulfillment; self esteem; social; security and physiological
Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 3:
Which one of the following has been identified by Herzberg as a factor, which, if present, will
lead to increased motivation.
a) Good supervision
b) Job security
c) Regular promotions
d) Documented company policies

Correct Answer: c
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Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 4:
If a team member is finding it extremely stressful, which one of the following stress
management techniques would be suggested by a systemic approach?
a) Rolling head from side to side
b) Change of job role
c) Deep breathing
d) Increased social interactions
Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 5:
Which one is not a factor in job satisfaction according to Oldham-Hackman job characteristics
model?
a) Skill variety
b) Task identity
c) Task complexity
d) Task significance
Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 6:
Which one of the following is a “hygiene factor” under Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene Theory?
a) Recognition for excellent work
b) Self-actualization
c) Good relations with co-workers and managers
d) Clean work environment

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 7:
Which one of the following types of team organization would be most suitable for a small yet
complex project?
a) Chief programmer
b) Democratic
c) Hybrid
d) Squat

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 8:
In which one of the following types of organization is team building likely to be most difficult?
a) Functional
b) Projectized
c) Matrix
d) Hybrid

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 9:
Joy is a software engineer who works for a software development company. The company
accepts outsourcing projects from overseas clients. Each time it accepts a project, it sets up a
team to handle the project. When the project completes, the team is dissolved and the
engineers are assigned to other projects. Which one of the following is the organization
structure of Joy’s company?
a) Matrix
b) Projectized
c) Functional
d) Hybrid

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:
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QUESTION 10:
Assume that you are the project manager for a software development project. Sunrise
Engineering Works, a hardware vendor has intimated you that a problem in customs clearance
is preventing your network equipment from being delivered on time and may get delayed by
several months. For handling this risk, you have arranged for leasing a network equipment from
a local company as an interim arrangement. You one of the following risk response strategies
have you adopted?
a) Transference
b) Acceptance
c) Mitigation
d) Avoidance

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

______________________________________________________________________

************END*******
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Software Project Management

Assignment- 8(n)
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10
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QUESTION 1:
Which one of the following is true regarding activity schedule?
a. It indicates the planned start and completion dates for each activity
b. It shows the dates on which each resource will be required and level of
requirement
c. It shows the planned cumulative expenditure incurred by the use of
resources over time
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 2:
Which one of the followingshows the dates on which each resource will be required for an
activity and level of that requirement?
a. Activity schedule
b. Resource schedule
c. Cost schedule
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 3:
Which one of the following is FALSE regarding resource scheduling?
a. Resource scheduling may lead to changing the durations of some activities on
the PERT chart
b. Resource scheduling may not affect the critical path
c. Resource scheduling usually shortens the critical path
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

d. Resource scheduling can create additional critical paths

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 4:
Given the followings, which one represents the correct order of priorities in Burman’s priority
list?
1. shortest critical activity
2. critical activities
3. non-critical activities.
4. non-critical activity with least float
5. shortest non-critical activity

a.1-2-3-4-5
b. 1-2-5-4-3
c. 2-1-5-4-3
d. 5-4-3-2-1

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 5:
Which one of the followings is the best way of publishing and communicating project
schedules?
a. activity plan
b. activity bar charts
c. resource histograms.
d. work schedule
Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

____________________________________________________________________________
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

QUESTION 6:
Which one of the followings is the proper scheduling sequence?
a. activity plan, resource allocation, risk assessment, cost schedule
b. activity plan, risk assessment, cost schedule resource allocation,
c. activity plan, risk assessment, resource allocation, cost schedule
d. activity plan, cost schedule, risk assessment, resource allocation

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 7:
Which one of the followings is an example of oral formal regular reporting method?
a. Weekly progress meetings
b. End-of-stage review meetings
c. Progress reports
d. Exception reports

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 8:
Which one of the following check points is a time driven check point?

a. Production of SRS document

b. Production of a coding module
c. Production of test cases
d. Checking the progress monthly

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

______________________________________________________________________________
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

QUESTION 9:
In Red/Amber/Green reporting, Amber represents which one of the following?

a. The tasks are ‘on target’

b. The tasks are ‘not on target but recoverable’
c. The tasks are ‘not on target and recoverable only with difficulty’
d. The tasks are ‘not on target and not recoverable’

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 10:
Which one of the following statements concerning reviews is true?

a. Usually, review is more cost-effective in removing defects as compared to

testing.
b. Usually, review is less cost-effective in removing defects as compared to
testing.
c. Usually, review is as much cost-effective in removing defects as testing.
d. Reviews are considered as a dynamic analysis technique.

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

______________________________________________________________________

************END*******
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Software Project Management

Assignment- 9(n)
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10
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QUESTION 1:
Code review does not target to detect which one of the following types of errors:
a. Logical error
b. Algorithmic error
c. Syntax error
d. Programming errors.
Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 2:
When is code review performed during software life cycle?

a. After unit testing

b. After coding and compiling
c. During integration testing
d. During system testing

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 3:
Cleanroom technique does not use which one of the following activities?

a. Code walkthrough
b. Code inspection
c. Formal verification for bug removal
d. Testing of code by executing it
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Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 4:
In a slip chart, the more the slip line bends,

a. The greater is the variation from the plan.

b. The smaller is the variation from the plan.
c. No change happens in the plan.
d. None of the above.

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 5:
Which of the following charts shows the slippage of the project completion date through the
life of the project?
a. Gantt chart
b. Slip chart
c. Timeline chart
d. PERT chart
Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 6:
Which one of the following methods is preferred for assigning an earned value (EV) in software
projects?

a. The 0/100 technique

b. The 50/50 technique
c. The 75/25 technique
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Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

d. The milestone technique

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 7:
Suppose, the work with a PV of Rs. 40,000 should have been completed by now. In fact, some
of that work has not been done, so that the EV is only Rs. 30,000. What is the value of Schedule
Variance (SV)?
a. 10000
b. -10000
c. 70000
d. None of the above

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 8:
The cost performance index (CPI) is given by which of the following expressions?
a. CPI = AC/EV
b. CPI = EV/AC
c. CPI = AC*EV
d. CPI = EV-AC
Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 9:
Which one of the following would equal EV/PV?

a. SPI
b. CPI
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c. SV
d. CV

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 10:
Assume that a medium-sized project is experiencing considerable schedule slippage. Which one
of the following may not help to get the project back on schedule?

a. Shortening the critical path

b. Altering the activity precedence requirements
c. speeding up non-critical path activities
d. Reducing scope of the project

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

______________________________________________________________________

************END*******
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Software Project Management

Assignment- 10
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10
______________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION 1:
In software configuration management, system accounting deals with

a. Keeping track of who made a particular change to a configuration item,

what change was exactly made, and when the change was made.
b. Controlling access to the different deliverable objects.
c. Undoing changes to some part of a revision
d. Preventing unauthorized changes to the work products.

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 2:
Which one of the following scenarios can occur even while a software development
organization is impeccably using a configuration management tool?

a. Two team members overwrite each other’s code that are under
configuration control
b. Accidental deletion of a work product that is under configuration control,
by a developer and consequent loss of work
c. A user reporting a software configuration error during installation
d. Unauthorized modifications to a work product under configuration control
by one of the developers

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

______________________________________________________________________________
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Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

QUESTION 3:

Pre-controlled work products are

a. those that are put under configuration control

b. those that are not yet under configuration control, but will eventually be
under configuration control
c. those that will not be subject to configuration control
d. none of the above

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 4:
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding SCCS tool?
a. It is a popular configuration management tool on UNIX systems
b. It can be used for controlling and managing different versions of text files.
c. It can handle binary files.
d. It provides an efficient way of storing versions that minimize the amount of
occupied disk space.

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 5:
Which is true concerning bespoke system?
a. It is a system which is created especially for one customer
b. It is a package which is bought ‘as is’
c. It is a core system which is customized to meet the needs of the client
d. none of the above

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
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____________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION 6:
The contract in which the customer is charged at a fixed rate per unit of effort, is known as
a. fixed price contracts
b. time and materials contracts
c. fixed price per unit delivered contracts
d. none of the above

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 7:
Which one of the following is typically not expected in a fixed price contract?
a. Vendors tend to overprice the bids
b. The selected vendor may demand higher price to accommodate new requirements
c. Better quality of software is realized compared to time and material contracts
d. Best model to follow when the bidder has stringent budget restrictions

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 8:
Which one of the following is a project proposal evaluation method?
a. Interviews
b. Demonstrations
c. Practical tests
d. All of the above

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:
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Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

______________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION 9:
Which one of the following is NOT true concerning project closeout report?
a. It documents the important results obtained from various project closeout tasks.
b. It starts with a historical summary of the projects deliverables and baseline activities
over the course of the project.
c. It presents the summary of the survey results and the quantitative data gathering
about the project's performance.
d. It does not contain any recommendation for improvement for other similar projects.

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 10:
Which one of the following most accurately states the main aim of a post-project review?
a. Validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.
b. Capture knowledge and document it for future usage.
c. Ensure all documentation is accepted and signed by the sponsor.
d. Establish that project benefits have been identified.

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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************END*******
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Software Project Management

Assignment- 11
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10
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QUESTION 1:
Which one of the following is the basic focus of the modern quality assurance paradigms?
a) Process assurance
b) Product assurance
c) Thorough testing
d) Thorough testing and rejection of bad products
Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 2:
Which one of the following ISO quality assurance standard applies to software development
organizations?
a) ISO 9000
b) ISO 9001
c) ISO 9002
d) ISO 9003
Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 3:
A software organization has been assessed at SEI CMM Level 4. Which one of the following
does the organization need to achieve, for satisfying one of the KPAs of CMM Level 5?
a) Defect detection
b) Defect prevention
c) Defect isolation
d) Defect localization
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Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 4:
Which one of the following can be considered to be the focus of “quality control”?
a) All development work products are delivered on time and under budget
b) The development process is completely documented and adhered to during
development
c) The performance of the development work products are measured
d) All development work products are thoroughly tested before delivery to the
customer
Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 5:
Which one of the following is expected to observed in a software development organization
assessed at the SEI CMM repeatable level?
a) Success in development of a software can be repeated
b) Success in development of a software can be repeated on similar software
development projects.
c) Success in development of a software can be repeated in all software
development projects that the organization might undertake.
d) When the same development team is chosen to develop another software,
they can repeat their success.
Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 6:
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Which one of the following is a requirement for ISO 9001 certification?

a) Demonstrate that the developed software has fulfilled its quality
requirements
b) Submit the reliability assessment of all the developed software
c) Document the process being followed
d) Demonstrate that through stringent design and use of coding standards,
testing is largely made redundant

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 7:
In CMMI, which one of the following is the name of the maturity level 5?
a) Six Sigma
b) Optimized
c) Statistical
d) Optimizing
Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 8:
Which one of the following summarizes an important difference between quality assurance and
quality control?
a) Thorough product testing
b) Ensuring that a good process is in place and has been documented
c) Ensuring that a good team is in place
d) Ensuring adequate usage of modern automated development tools
Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 9:
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Which one of the following SEI CMM maturity levels should be recommended to a small startup
company that focuses on outsourced software development and software maintenance work.
a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 4
d) Level 5

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

____________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION 10:
Which one of the following is a software defect?
a) A mistake made by a team member during requirements specification
b) A change that the team needs to make based on a finding during code review
c) A configuration management plan that is too elaborate
d) A change request that has been launched by the customer

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

______________________________________________________________________

************END*******
 NPTEL Online Certification Courses
Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur

Software Project Management

Assignment- 12
TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ/MSQ
Number of questions: 10 Total mark: 10 X 1 = 10
______________________________________________________________________________

QUESTION 1:
Which one of the following is not a factor contributing to the increased difficulty in software
reliability measurement, as compared to hardware reliability measurement?
a) The reliability improvement due to fixing a single bug depends on where the
bug is located in the code.
b) The perceived reliability of a software product is observer-dependent.
c) The reliability of a software product keeps changing as errors are detected
and fixed.
d) Software is invisible in contrast to hardware, though the effect of execution
of software can be observed.
Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 2:
Which one of the following can be said about the overall reliability behavior of a typical
software during its life time?
a) Initially increases, but later decreases
b) Initially decreases, but later increases
c) Increasing trend throughout the life cycle
d) Decreasing trend throughout the life cycle

Correct Answer: a

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 3:
After a software is maintained, which one of the following types of testing involves repeating
execution of tests that were already performed to ensure that the code modifications carried
out during maintenance have not introduced additional faults?
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a) Beta testing
b) Functional testing
c) Bottom-up testing
d) Regression testing

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 4:
Which one of the following statements is not an objective of software verification?
a) Ensuring that the software development steps are carried out correctly.
b) Ensuring that the correct software has been developed.
c) Achieving phase containment of errors.
d) Ensuring that the outputs produced at a development stage conform to the
outputs of the previous phase.

Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 5:
Which of the following is a practical use of reliability growth modelling?
a) Determine the operational life of an application software
b) Determine when to stop testing
c) Incorporate reliability growth information while designing
d) Incorporate reliability growth information in the code
Correct Answer: b

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 6:
Which one of the following is the objective of statistical testing?
a) Use statistical techniques to design test cases
b) Apply statistical techniques to the results of testing to determine the number of
latent bugs in the software
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c) Estimate software reliability

d) Apply statistical techniques to the results of testing to determine how long
testing needs to be carried out

Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 7:
What is the availability of a software with the following reliability figures? Mean Time Between
Failure (MTBF) = 45 days, Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 5 hours.
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 90%
d) 99%

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 8:
On 4000 service invocations, a software failed on 10 occasions. What is its POFOD (Probability Of Failure
On Demand)?
a) 4%
b) 1%
c) 0.25%
d) 0.1%
Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 9:
On a bug fix, the reliability of a software may actually decrease, rather than increase. Which one of the
following explains this phenomenon?
a) The fixed bug is in the core part
b) The fixed bug is in the non-core part
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c) Bug-fix induces several other bugs

d) Bug-fix is not proper
Correct Answer: c

Detailed Solution:

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QUESTION 10:
Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
a) Every failure is caused due to a fault
b) A fault is a synonym for a bug
c) An error may or may not cause a fault
d) Every mistake committed by a programmer shows up as a failure

Correct Answer: d

Detailed Solution:

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************END*******