25/04/2020 CODE-B

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 11

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of XI & XII

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. If v is speed, r is radius and g is acceleration due 3. The rod as shown in figure starts slipping. The
to gravity, which of the following is speed of the lower end, at the instant when
dimensionless? speed of upper end is 3 m/s and rod makes an
angle of 30° with x-axis is
v 2r
(1)
g

v 2g
(2)
r

v2
(3)
rg
(1) 3 m/s (2) 3 m/s
(4) v2rg
2. For a man running horizontally along east at (3) 2 m/s (4) 2 m/s
speed of 4 km/hr, the rain appears to fall 4. On the horizontal surface of truck a block of
vertically. If he doubles his speed the rain mass 2 kg is placed and coefficient of friction
appears to hit him at an angle at 30° with vertical. between the block and surface is (µs = 0.6). If
The original speed and direction of rain will be truck starts moving with acceleration 4 m/s2, then
(1) 4 km/hr, 30° with vertical towards east frictional force on the block will be
(g = 10 m/s2)
(2) 4 km/hr, 30° with vertical towards west
(3) 8 km/hr, 30° with vertical towards east (1) 12 N (2) 10 N

(4) 8 km/hr, 30° with vertical towards west (3) 6 N (4) 8 N

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Test-11 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

5. A man is supplying a power of 500 W at an 8. Two point masses m and 2m are joined by light
instant on a massless string as shown in figure. If rod of length d. The moment of inertia of the
at that instant speed of block is 10 m/s and system about an axis passing through its centre
increasing at the rate of 10 m/s2. Then the mass of mass and making an angle 30° with the light
of block is rod will be

md 2
(1)
3

md 2
(2)
6

md 2
(3)
(1) 2.5 kg (2) 4 kg 4
(3) 6 kg (4) 1 kg
md 2
(4)
6. A particle of mass 2 kg moves on the x-axis 2
under the influence of force of attraction acting
 9. A particle is moving along the x-axis under the
4
towards the origin given by F = − 2 iˆ . If the influence of a force given by F = –5x + 15. At
x
t = 0, the particle is located at x = 6 and is having
particle starts from rest at x = 4 m, the speed it
zero velocity. It takes 0.5 seconds to reach the
will attain to reach the point x = 2 m will be
origin for the first time. The equation of motion of
(1) 1 m/s particle can be represented by
(2) 2 m/s (1) x = 3 + 3cosπt (2) x = 3cosπt
3
(3) m/s (3) x = 3 + 3sinπt (4) x = 3 + 3cos(2πt)
2
10. Particle A and B are dropped to fall towards the
1
(4) m/s earth from a height 2 Re (Re = radius of earth)
2
from surface of earth. If the particles are dropped
7. A ring of radius R is rolling over rough horizontal simultaneously but from two locations which are
surface with velocity v0. Two points located at A slightly away from one another, then the
and B on rim of ring. The angular velocity of point separation between the particles (ignore
A w.r.t. point B will be gravitational interaction between the particles)
(1) Decrease
(2) Increase
(3) Remains same
(4) Becomes zero immediately after released
11. A window whose area is 2 m2 open on a street
v0 where the street noise results in an intensity level
(1)
2R of 60 dB at the window. If an acoustic absorber is
fitted at the window, the energy from the street
v0
(2) will it collect in 10 hours will be
R
(1) 36 mJ
v0
(3) (2) 48 mJ
2R
(3) 72 mJ
2 v0
(4) (4) 24 mJ
R
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-B)

12. Two potentiometer wires W1 and W2 of equal 16. Two rods one is semi circular of thermal
length l connected to a battery of emf EP and conductivity K1 and other is straight of thermal
internal resistance ‘r’ through two switches S1 conductivity K2 and of same cross-sectional area
and S2. A battery of emf E is balanced on these are joined as shown in figure. The point A and B
potentiometer wires. If potentiometer wire W1 is are maintained at same temperature difference. If
l K
of resistance 2r and balancing length on W1 is rate of flow of heat is same in two rods then 1
2 K2
when only switch S1 is closed and S2 is open. On is
closing S2 and opening S1 the balancing length
 2l 
on W2 is found to be   , the resistance of the
3
potentiometer W2 will be

(1) π : 2 (2) 2 : π
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 2
17. A spring-block system undergoes simple
harmonic motion on smooth horizontal surface.
The block is now given some positive charge and
a uniform horizontal electric field to the right is
switched on as a result of

2r
(1) r (2)
5
2r
(3) 3r (4)
3
(1) The time period of oscillation will increase
13. An ideal diatomic gas is at pressure 4 × 105 N/m2.
(2) The time period of oscillation will remains
Energy density (energy per unit volume) of the
unaffected
ideal diatomic gas is
(3) The mean position of simple harmonic
(1) 5 × 105 J/m3 (2) 8 × 105 J/m3
motion will shift to the right
(3) 10 × 105 J/m3 (4) 3 × 105 J/m3
(4) Both (2) and (3)
14. The frequency of fundamental tone in a closed
18. The latent heat of vaporisation of water is more
pipe is than latent heat of fusion of ice, because
(1) Same as the fundamental frequency of an (1) On vaporisation much larger increase in
open tube of same length volume takes place
(2) Exactly half the frequency of fundamental (2) Increase in kinetic energy is much smaller on
tone of open tube of same length and boiling
diameter (3) Kinetic energy decrease on boiling
(3) Same as that of the first overtone of an open (4) Volume decreases when the ice melts
tube of same length
19. The emissive power of a black body at
(4) None of these T = 300 K is 100 W/m2. Consider a body B of
15. For the travelling harmonic wave y(x, t) = 2.0 cos area A = 10 m2, coefficient of reflectivity r = 0.3
2π(10t – 0.0080x + 0.35) where x and y are in cm and absorptivity a = 0.2. If its temperature is 300
and t in second. The phase difference between K, then markout the correct statement.
oscillatory motion of two points separated by a (1) The emissive power of B is 20 W/m2
distance 4 m will be (2) The emissive power of B is 200 W/m2
(1) 9.4π rad (2) 2.4π rad (3) The power emitted by B is 20 W
(3) 6.4π rad (4) 7.4π rad (4) The power emitted by B is 180 W

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Test-11 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

20. For the indicator diagram given below, correct 24. The radius of a coil decreases steadily at the rate
statement is of 10–2 m/s. A constant and uniform magnetic
field of induction 10–3 Wb/m2 acts perpendicular
to the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil
when the induced emf in the coil is 2 mV, is

10
(1) m
π

100
(1) Cycle-II is heat engine cycle (2) m
π
(2) No net work is done on the gas in cycle-I
50
(3) Work done is positive for cycle-I (3) m
π
(4) Work done is positive for cycle-II
21. A liquid is contained in a vertical tube of semi- 200
(4) m
circular cross-section as shown in figure. The π
contact angle is zero. The force of surface 25. A set of n resistors each of resistance R are
tension on the straight part and force of surface connected in series to a battery of emf E and
tension on the curved part are in ratio internal resistance R then a current I is observed
to flow. If these n resistors are connected in
parallel to same battery. It is observed that
current increased by 5 times then the value of n
will be
(1) 10
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : π (2) 15
(3) 1 : 2 (4) π : 2
(3) 5
22. Two block of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are
connected by a metal wire going over a smooth (4) 8
pulley as shown in figure. The breaking stress of 26. Among the following, the hydrogen spectral lines
the metal is 2 × 109 N/m2. What should be the that lie in ultraviolet region of electromagnetic
minimum radius of the wire used. If it is not to spectrum is
break? Take g = 10 m/s2
(1) Lyman series
(2) Paschen series
(3) Brackett series
(4) Pfund series
27. Half life of a radioactive nuclei is 5.6 days. After
(1) 4.6 × 10-5 m (2) 4.6 × 10-6 m 19
how many days will th fraction of the sample
20
(3) 46 × 10-6 m (4) 4.6 × 10-7 m
 ln 20 
23. The viscous force per unit area acting between decays  = 4.32 ?
 ln(2) 
F dv
two layers of a liquid is given by = −η . This
A dx (1) 27.3
F (2) 31.9
may be called
A
(3) 30.1
(1) Tangential stress (2) Volume stress
(3) Longitudinal stress (4) Pressure (4) 24.2

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-B)

28. The interference pattern is obtained with two µ0 i 3µ0 i

coherent light sources of intensity ratio 4. In the (1) (2)
4πR 4πR
Imax − Imin
interference pattern, ratio will be µ0 i µ0 i
Imax (3) (4) ( π + 1)
2πR 2πR
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 1 : 9 33. In a plane electromagnetic wave the electric field
(3) 8 : 9 (4) 5 : 4 oscillates sinusoidly at a frequency of
29. Which voltmeter will give non-zero reading at 2 × 1010 Hz and amplitude of 48 V/m. The
resonance? frequency of oscillation of magnetic field will be
(1) 2 × 108 Hz (2) 16 × 1010 Hz
(3) 2 × 1010 Hz (4) 16 × 108 Hz
34. A charge Q is situated at the corner of the cube.
The electric flux through the cube will be
Q Q
(1) (2)
2∈0 4∈0
(1) Only V1 (2) Only V2 Q Q
(3) (4)
(3) Both V1 and V3 (4) Both V1 and V2 ∈0 8∈0
30. A non-conducting disc of radius R charged 35. The capacity of a parallel plate capacitor
uniformly over one side with surface charge depends on
density σ rotate about its geometrical axis with an
(1) The metal used to make the plate
angular velocity ω. The magnetic moment of the
(2) The thickness of the plates
disc is
(3) The potential applied across the plates
ωπσR 4 ωπσR 4
(1) (2) (4) The separation between the plates
3 4
36. A prism of refractive index ‘µ’ and refracting
ωπσR 4 angle ‘A’ is placed in the minimum deviation
(3) (4) ωπσR4
2 position. If the angle of minimum deviation is A,
31. The magnetic susceptibility of a magnetic then the value of A in term of ‘µ’ is
material at 227°C is –0.00002. Then magnetic µ −1
µ
susceptibility of material at 727°C will be (1) sin−1   (2) sin−1
2 2
(1) –0.00002 (2) –0.00004
µ µ
(3) 2cos−1   (4) cos−1  
(3) –0.00001 (4) –0.00008 2 2
32. All straight wires are very long. Both AB and CD 37. The magnifying power of an astronomical
are arcs of the same circle, both sub-tending telescope for normal adjustment is 10 and the
right angles at the centre O. Then the magnetic length of telescope is 110 cm. The magnifying
field at O is power of the telescope when image is formed at
the least distance of distinct vision is
(1) 14 (2) 48
(3) 28 (4) 52
38. The condition of observing Fraunhalfer
diffraction, from a single slit is that the wavefront
incident on the slit must be
(1) Spherical (2) Elane
(3) Cylindrical (4) Elliptical

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Test-11 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

39. A potential barrier V volts exists across P-N 42. When a monochromatic point source of light is at
junction. The thickness of the depletion region is a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the
‘d’. An electron with velocity ‘v0’ approaches P-N cut-off voltage and saturation current are
junction from P side. The velocity of electron respectively 0.6 V and 18.0 mA. If the same
crossing the junction is source placed 0.6 m away from the photoelectric
cell, then
2Ve 2Ve
(1) v 02 + (2) v 02 −
m m (1) The stopping potential will be 0.2 V
(2) The stopping potential will be 0.6 V
2Ve
(3) v0 (4)
m (3) The saturation current will be 2.0 mA

40. For the given operational amplifier circuit, the (4) Both (2) and (3)
value of output (V0) will be 43. Nuclear reaction obey the law of conservation of
(1) Charge (2) Momentum
(3) Mass-energy (4) All of these
44. After the emission of one α-particle followed by
238
two +1β particles from 92
U , the number of
neutrons in the newly formed nucleus is
(1) 142 (2) 140
(1) 0.5 V (2) 2.5 V
(3) 144 (4) 146
(3) 2 V (4) 1.2 V
45. An α-particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered
41. If y1= A + A and y2 = A · A then value of through 180º by a fixed uranium nucleus. The
y1 + y2 in boolean algebra is closet distance is in order of
(1) 1 (2) Zero (1) 1 Å (2) 10–10 cm

(3) A (4) A (3) 10–12 cm (4) 10–16 cm

CHEMISTRY
46. 1  of NH3 gas at STP weighs 50. Ratio of average molar kinetic energies of CH4
and CO2 at same temperature is
(1) 1.43 g (2) 2.24 g
(1) 2 : 11 (2) 11 : 2
(3) 0.76 g (4) 1.12 g
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 8 : 11
47. If equivalent mass of a metal ‘M’ is 12, molar
51. Temperature at which real gases obey ideal gas
mass (in g) of its sulphate MSO4 would be
laws over an appreciable range of pressure is
(1) 60 (2) 120 called
(3) 72 (4) 96 (1) Boyle’s temperature
48. Ratio of radii of first and second Bohr orbits of (2) Critical temperature
He+ ion is
(3) Standard temperature
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(4) Inversion temperature
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
52. pH of mixture of 500 ml 0.1 M CH3COOH and
49. Total number of orbitals in third energy level of an 250 ml 0.1 M NaOH solution is (given pKa of
atom is acetic acid is 4.74)
(1) 3 (2) 9 (1) 5.74 (2) 5.04
(3) 7 (4) 10 (3) 4.74 (4) 11.74

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-B)

53. (i) A(g) + B(g)  C(g) (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1

(ii) C(g)  D(g) (3) 4 : 7 (4) 1 : 10

61. Ortho and para hydrogen differ in
Above two equilibria co-exist in a closed
container. If few moles of C has been added at (1) Electron spin (2) Nuclear spin
constant temperature, then select the correct (3) Molar mass (4) Densities
statement(s)
62. 20 volume H2O2 solution has its strength
(1) Moles of A will be increased
(1) 2% (2) 3%
(2) Moles of B will be increased
(3) 6% (4) 11.2%
(3) Moles of D will be increased
63. Most soluble hydroxide in water is
(4) All of these
(1) Mg(OH)2 (2) Ca(OH)2
54. Polar molecule is
(3) Ba(OH)2 (4) Sr(OH)2
(1) PCl5 (2) XeF4
64. Select the correct match regarding composition
(3) NO2 (4) BeCl2
of Portland cement
55. Select an option with incorrect match of given
(1) CaO → 10 to 20%
molecule/ion and its shape
(1) SO3 ; Trigonal planar (2) SiO2 → 20 to 25%
(3) Al2O3 → 30 to 40%
(2) NO3− ; Pyramidal
(4) Fe2O3 → 10 to 20%
(3) I3− ; Linear
65. Number of Boron atom(s) having sp3
(4) NF3 ; Pyramidal hybridisation in borax molecule is
56. Boron shows diagonal relationship with (1) 2 (2) 3
(1) Lithium (2) Aluminium (3) 4 (4) 1
(3) Silicon (4) Sodium 66. 0.5 g of an organic substance was kjeldahlised
57. Molar solubility of AgCl at 25°C is 1× 10 mol/ .
–5 and the ammonia released was neutralised by
Its solubility in 0.05 M NaCl solution is 100 ml 0.1 M HCl. Percentage of nitrogen in the
compound is
(1) 10–5 M (2) 2 × 10–5 M
(1) 14 (2) 42
(3) 2 × 10–9 M (4) 2 × 10–3 M
(3) 28 (4) 72
58. Common ion effect is not observed in which of
the following mixtures? 67. Strongest +I effect is shown by
(1) CH3COOH + CH3COONa (1) –CH3
(2) HCN + NaCN (2) –OH
(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl (3) –CH2−
(4) HCl + NaCl
(4) –O
59. Oxidation state of P in NaH2PO2 is
68. Correct order of stability of following carbocations
(1) +1 (2) +3
is
(3) +5 (4) +4
60. In the following balanced equation,

(1) I > III > II (2) II > I > III

ratio of b to c is (3) II > III > I (4) III > I > II

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Test-11 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

74. In the reaction Ph – MgBr + Ph – OH → Major

69. product formed is
(1) Ph–OPh (2) PhH

Order of ease of dehydration of above alcohols in (3) (4)

acidic medium is
(1) 1 > 2 > 3 (2) 2 > 3 > 1 75. Most acidic compound among the following is
(3) 1 > 3 > 2 (4) 3 > 1 > 2

(1) (2)
70. , compound (y) is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

76.
(3) (4)
compound (z) is

71. Which one is most reactive towards SN1

(1)
reaction?
(1) Ph–CH2–CH2–Br (2)

(2)

(3) (4)
(3)
72. An ether is not easily prepared in which of the
following reaction?
(4)
−
(1) CH3Cl + CH3 ONa +

− 77.
CH2 CH – Cl + CH3 ONa+
(2)= product (P) is
− (1) CHBr3 (2) CH3–Br
(3) Ph – Cl + CH3 ONa +
(3) CH4 (4) CH3–CH3
(4) Both (2) and (3) LiAlH (i) NaNO + HCl
78. R CN 
4
→ (x)  2
(ii) H O
→ (y)
2
73. Strongest nucleophile among the following is
compound (y) may be
(1) CH3– (2) NH2–
(1) An aldehyde (2) A ketone
(3) OH –
(4) F –
(3) An alcohol (4) An ether

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-B)

85. Total charge required to reduce 1 mole of Cr2O72–

79. to Cr3+ ions is
(1) 6 F (2) 3 F
Suitable pH range maintained in the above (3) 2 F (4) 5 F
reaction to get a better yield is 86. E° values for Li+/Li, Pb+2/Pb,
Cu+2/Cu and Sn2+/Sn
(1) 2 – 5 (2) 5 – 6 are –3.05 V, –0.13 V, +0.34 V and
–0.14 V respectively. Least reducing power is of
(3) 9 – 10 (4) 12 – 14
R e d P +HI
(1) Li (2) Pb
80. Glucose → , Product formed is
(3) Sn (4) Cu
(1) Hexanoic acid (2) n – Hexane
87. Effective number of atoms in fcc unit cell is
(3) n – Pentane (4) Acetone
(1) 1 (2) 2
81. Water soluble vitamin is
(3) 4 (4) 6
(1) Vitamin - A (2) Vitamin - D
88. For a reaction 2A + B → product, rate law is
(3) Vitamin - K (4) Vitamin - C 1
1
given as r = K [ A ] [B]2 . What will be the order of
82. Caprolactam is the monomer of
reaction if A is taken in excess?
(1) Nylon - 6 (2) Nylon - 6, 6
1
(3) Nylon - 2 - nylon - 6 (4) Dacron (1) 1 (2)
2
83. Which of the following artificial sweeteners does
3
not contain an amide linkage? (3) (4) Zero
2
(1) Sucralose (2) Aspartame
89. The maximum power to precipitate CdS sol is of
(3) Saccharin (4) Alitame
(1) Al2(SO4)3 (2) NaCl
84. Molar conductivities (Λ )
°
m at infinite dilution of (3) KCl (4) BaCl2
NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa are x, y and z 90. van't Hoff factor for aqueous Na2SO4 solution with
respectively, Λm° for CH3COOH will be degree of ionisation α = 0.75, is
(1) x + y + z (2) x + y – z (1) 1 (2) 1.5
(3) y + z – x (4) z + x – y (3) 2.5 (4) 3

BOTANY
91. The cytoskeleton in a cell are involved in all of 93. During which stage of prophase I of meiosis I,
the given functions, except condensation and coiling of chromatin fibres
(1) Mechanical support begin to form distinct chromosomes which
(2) Protein synthesis gradually visible under the light microscope
(3) Maintenance of the shape of the cell (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(4) Motility (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
92. Who concluded that presence of cell wall is
94. Cells remain metabolically active but no longer
unique character of the plant cells?
proliferate in which of the given phase of cell
(1) Matthias Schleiden
cycle?
(2) Theodore Schwann
(1) Mitotic phase (2) Synthesis phase
(3) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Quiscent phase (4) Gap 1 phase
(4) Robert Brown

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Test-11 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

95. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t universal 101. Match column I with column II
rules of nomenclature.
Column I Column II
(1) Biological names are generally in Latin and
written in italics A. Stomata (i) Prevent loss of water

(2) The first word in a biological name represents B. Cuticle (ii) Regulate transpiration
the species while the second component and gaseous exchange
denotes genus
C. Mesophyll (iii) Involved in secondary
(3) Both the words in a biological name, when
growth
handwritten, are separately underlined
(4) The genus in the biological name starts with D. Cork (iv) Possesses
a capital letter while the specific epithet starts cambium chloroplasts and carry
with a small letter out photosynthesis
96. Select the incorrect taxonomic category w.r.t A B C D
wheat
1. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) Genus – Triticum
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Order – Poales
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) Class – Dicotyledonae
4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) Division - Angiospermae
102. The inward curling of leaves to minimise water
97. Which of the given is acellular and causes bovine
loss in grasses is due to the presence of
spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) in cattles?
(1) Bulliform cell (2) Mesophyll cell
(1) Bacteriophage
(3) Bundle sheath cell (4) Pith
(2) Prions
103. The stored food very similar to amylopectin and
(3) Viroid
glycogen in structure, is characteristic feacture of
(4) TMV which of the given algae?
98. Comma-shaped bacteria are (1) Polysiphonia (2) Fucus
(1) Bacillus (3) Laminaria (4) Ulothrix
(2) Coccus 104. The ploidy level of rhizoids, seta and capsule in
(3) Vibrium Funaria respectively are
(4) Spirillum (1) n, n and 2n (2) n, 2n, and 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, and n (4) 2n, n and n
99. is the floral formula of
105. Select the correct sequence of tissues w.r.t.
(1) Petunia pathway of water movement in the root.
(2) Colchicum (1) Epidermis → Pericycle → Endodermis
(3) Aloe Cortex → Xylem
(4) Trifolium (2) Epidermis → Cortex → Endodermis Pericycle
100. Axile placentation is seen in → Xylem
(1) Lemon (3) Xylem → Endodermis → Pericycle → Cortex
(2) Pea → Epidermis
(3) Argemone (4) Cortex → Pericycle → Epidermis → Xylem
(4) Primrose → Endodermis

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-B)

113. Mathematically, arithmetic growth of plants is

expressed by
rt
(1) W1 = W0 e (2) L=
t
L0 + rt

106. (3) L= L0 × rt (4) W

= W0 × rt
t 1

114. Select the incorrect match

(1) Indole compounds - Auxin
(2) Terpens - Ethylene
In the given diagram, four cells A, B, C and D are (3) Adenine derivatives - Kinetin
interconnected. In which of the given cells, net
(4) Derivatives of carotenoids - ABA
movement of water is zero?
115. Gemmule formation is seen in
(1) A and B (2) A and D
(1) Sponge
(3) B and C (4) C and D
(2) Hydra
107. Deficiency of which of the given elements usually
cause necrosis in plants? (3) Penicillium

(1) N, K, Mg, Mo (2) S, Fe, Mn, Zn (4) Chlamydomonas

(3) Ca, Mg, Cu, K (4) N, K, S, Mo 116. Main plant body is haploid in
108. The element involved in the metabolism of urea (1) Algae (2) Pteridophytes
is mainly (3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms
(1) Nickel (2) Chlorine 117. The given below figure is a typical dicot embryo.
(3) Molybdenum (4) Boron What do A, B and C represent respectively?
109. Major limiting factor influencing the rate of
photosynthesis is
(1) Light
(2) CO2 concentration
(3) Temperature
(4) Water
110. Which of the given is first stable compound in
C3–cycle?
(1) 3–PGA
(2) OAA
(3) Phosphoenolpyruvate
A B C
(4) RuBP
1. Radicle Plumule Cotyledon
111. What is the net gain of ATP molecules from each
molecule of glucose which undergoes 2. Hypocotyl Cotyledon Plumule
fermentation?
3. Radicle Plumule Hypocotyl
(1) 36 ATP (2) 38 ATP
(3) 2 ATP (4) 12 ATP 4. Plumule Radicle Cotyledon

112. Raw material for the synthesis of carotenoids is 118. Cells in which layer of anther are ephemeral?
(1) Acetyl CoA (2) Succinyl CoA (1) Epidermis (2) Endothercium
(3) OAA (4) α - KGA (3) Middle layer (4) Tapetum

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Test-11 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

119. How many maximum types of gametes can be 127. Order of different age group in the urn-shaped
obtained when an individual has two age pyramid for human population will be
heterozygous pairs (AaBb) (1) Pre-reproductive > Reproductive > Post –
(1) 2 (2) 3 reproductive
(3) 4 (4) 9 (2) Pre-reproductive = Reproductive > Post –
120. What is the genetic disorder in which female has reproductive
chromosome complement 44 + XO and such
(3) Pre-reproductive < Reproductive > Post –
females are sterile with short stature, rudimentary
reproductive
ovaries and NO menstrual cycle?
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome (4) Pre-reproductive ≥ Reproductive = Post –
reproductive
(2) Down’s syndrome
(3) Turner’s syndrome 128. The number of individuals of the same species
entering the habitat from elsewhere during the
(4) Edward syndrome
time period under consideration refers to
121. Select the incorrect match
(1) Natality (2) Mortality
(1) RNA polymerase II – hn RNA
(2) Rho factor – Initiation of transcription (3) Immigration (4) Emigration

(3) DNA gyrase – Topoisomerase activity 129. In forest ecosystem, bottom strata or layer is
(4) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase – Activation of occupied by
amino acids (1) Trees only
122. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t VNTRs. (2) Herbs only
(1) Show very high degree of polymorphism (3) Both shrubs and trees
(2) Surrounded by conserved restriction sites
(4) Both herbs and grasses
(3) Are microsatellites
130. Pioneer species on rocks are usually
(4) Size varies from 0.1 to 20 kb
(1) Lichens (2) Bryophytes
123. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any
cell/explant is called (3) Shrubs (4) Earthworm
(1) Totipotency 131. Which of the given vertebrates are maximum in
(2) Somatic hybridisation global biodiversity?
(3) Biofortification (1) Mammals (2) Birds
(4) Plant breeding (3) Amphibians (4) Fishes
124. Pomato was produced as a result of
132. Rivet popper hypothesis’ was given by
(1) Biofortification (2) Protoplast fusion
(1) David Tilman
(3) Meristem culture (4) Mutation
(2) Paul Ehrlich
125. Which of the given bacteria play very beneficial
role in checking disease causing microbes in our (3) Alexander von Humboldt
stomach? (4) Lindeman
(1) Lactic acid bacteria (LAB)
133. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ‘Terror of
(2) Methanococcus Bengal’
(3) Streptococcus
(1) It is alien species introduced in India
(4) Propionibacterium shermanii
(2) They are the plants of water hyacinth
126. Alcoholic beverages produced without distillation
(Eichhornia crassipes)
are
(3) Grow abundantly in eutrophic water bodies
(1) Wine and beer (2) Wine and whisky
(3) Whisky and rum (4) Brandy and rum (4) Maintains ecosystem dynamics of water body

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-B)

134. Match the Column I with column II A B C D

Column I Column II 1. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

A. Ramesh Chandra (i) Wild life 2. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Dagar protection award 3. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
B Ahmed Khan (ii) Appiko
4. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
movement
135. The international initiative to control the emission
C. Amrita Devi (iii) Remedy for
of ozone – depleting substance is
Bishnoi plastic waste
Pandurang (iv) Integrated (1) Montreal protocol (2) Kyoto protocol
D.
Hagde organic farming (3) Doha amendment (4) The Earth summit

ZOOLOGY
136. Maximum life span is the characteristic of (1) Both statements are correct.
and life expectancy is the (2) Both statements are incorrect.
characteristic of a .
(3) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect.
Select the option which fills A and B correctly.
(4) Statement A is incorrect and B is correct.
A B
140. Which of the following is not a sexually
(1) Population Species transmitted disease?
(1) Syphilis (2) AIDS
(2) Species Population
(3) Hepatitis - B (4) Amoebiasis
(3) Individual Species
141. During evolution through geological periods, all of
(4) Population Genera the following possibly evolved from thecodonts
except
137. Clones are genetically identical individuals and
are product of (1) Crocodiles (2) Dinosaurs
(1) Sexual reproduction (3) Birds (4) Snakes
(2) Asexual reproduction 142. Which of the following is considered as a missing
(3) Mutation link between reptiles and birds?

(4) Paedogenesis (1) Triceratops (2) Archaeopteryx

138. Birth canal is formed during parturition by female (3) Seymouria (4) Ichthyosaurus
accessory ducts namely 143. Which of the following is mismatch?
(1) Uterus and cervix (1) Charles Darwin – Branching descent and
(2) Cervix and labia majora natural selection

(3) Cervical canal and vagina (2) Lamarck – Theory of use and
disuse
(4) Oviduct and uterus
(3) Hugo de Vries – Mutation theory
139. Read statements A and B w.r.t. gestation in a
(4) A.R Wallace – Theory of Panspermia
human female and choose the correct option.
144. Type of natural selection in which more
(A) During 5th month of gestation, foetus starts to
individuals acquire value other than the mean
move within uterus.
character value is termed
(B) Foetal ejection reflex triggers release of
(1) Stabilizing selection (2) Balancing selection
oxytocin from foetal pituitary gland to induce
labour pain. (3) Directional selection (4) Disruptive selection

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Test-11 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

145. Hardy Weinberg equilibrium will be disturbed by (1) Both statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct.
presence of all the following except (2) Both statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are incorrect.
(1) Gene flow (2) Recombination
(3) Statement ‘A’ is correct and ‘B’ is incorrect.
(3) Random mating (4) Genetic drift
(4) Statement ‘A’ is incorrect and ‘B’ is correct.
146. Eye of Octopus and mammals exhibit
151. Choose an option given below which is correctly
(1) Homology (2) Divergent evolution matched w.r.t plants and drugs obtained from
(3) Adaptive radiation (4) Analogy them.

147. Select incorrect statement w.r.t pathogens – (1) Papaver somniferum – Opioids

(1) They can cause diseases in organisms (2) Erythroxylum coca – Atropine

(2) Multiply in body of host and interfere with vital (3) Atropa belladona – Marijuana
activities (4) Cannabis sativa – Crack
(3) Pathogens are unable to adapt to life within 152. Which of the following breeding methods in cattle
body of host increases homozygosity?
(4) Most parasites are pathogens (1) Inbreeding (2) Out-breeding
148. Match column A with column B and select the (3) Out-crossing (4) Cross-breeding
option containing all correct matches.
153. Rearing of more than two species of only fishes
in same water body based on their feeding habits
is called
(1) Monoculture (2) Polyculture
(3) Apiculture (4) Sericulture
154. A bioreactor does not contain
(1) Agitator system
(2) Oxygen delivery system
(1) (i) – a, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – d
(3) Foam control system
(2) (i) – d, (ii) – c, (iii) – b, (iv) – a
(4) Product purification system
(3) (i) – c, (ii) – d, (iii) – b, (iv) – a
155. The key tools used in construction of recombinant
(4) (i) – c, (ii) – d, (iii) – a, (iv) – b DNA are
149. Which of the following is usually not considered (1) Exonucleases only
carcinogenic?
(2) Restriction endonucleases and ligases
(1) Ionizing radiations
(3) Restriction endonucleases and gyrases
(2) Nonionizing radiations
(4) DNA polymerase only
(3) Viral infections
156. C – peptide of human insulin is
(4) Bacterial infections
(1) A part of mature insulin molecule
150. Read statements A and B w.r.t HIV infections and
choose a correct option given below (2) Responsible for formation of disulphide
bridges between chain A and C in mature
Statement – A : A widely used diagnostic test
insulin
for AIDS is ELISA.
(3) Removed during maturation of pro–insulin to
Statement – B : HIV infection may make
mature insulin.
patients more vulnerable to
infection by oncogenic viruses. (4) Responsible for it biological activity

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-B)

157. Which of the following is wrong for Bt toxin? 162. Graph plotted between pO2 and percentage
(1) Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some saturation of normal haemoglobin, fetal
bacteria kill the bacteria themselves haemoglobin and myoglobin are shown below.
Identify A, B and C and choose option with all
(2) cryIAb is effective against corn borer
correct representations.
(3) Bt toxin is not harmful to mammals
(4) cryIAc is effective against cotton bollworms
158. Connective tissue is
(1) Ectodermal in origin with intracellular space
(2) Mesodermal in origin without intercellular
spaces
(3) Ectodermal in origin with intercellular spaces
(1) A – Adult haemoglobin,
(4) Mesodermal in origin with intercellular spaces
B – fetal hemoglobin,
159. Which one is correctly matched? C – myoglobin
(1) Serotonin – Anticoagulant (2) A – myoglobin,
B – fetal hemoglobin,
(2) Histamine – Vasoconstrictor
C – hemoglobin
(3) Heparin – Vasodilator (3) A – fetal haemoglobin,
(4) Chondrin – Matrix of cartilage B – myoglobin,
160. Select incorrect statement with respect to C – haemoglobin
biomolecules (4) A – haemoglobin,
B – myoglobin,
(1) Lipids are not strictly biomacromolecules.
C – fetal hemoglobin
(2) Lipids, proteins and nucleic acids are
163. CO2 dissociates from carbaminohaemoglobin
obtained in retentate after chemical analysis.
when
(3) Proteins are polymers of amino acids and are (1) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low
considered as homopolymers.
(2) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low
(4) Haemoglobin is tetrameric conjugated protein (3) pCO2 and pO2 are equal
having quaternary structure.
(4) A small amount of CO is present
161. Study the following statements.
164. When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive
a. The substrate binds to the active site of an food low in proteins and calories, the infants
enzyme. below age of one year are likely to suffer from
b. A triglyceride molecule is made up of one (1) Marasmus (2) Rickets
glycerol and three fatty acid molecules. (3) Kwashiorkar (4) Pellagra
c. The active site of enzyme breaks the 165. The wall of alimentary canal from oesophagus to
chemical bonds of products. rectum possesses four layers. The sequence of
these layers from outside to inside is
d. Coenzymes are tightly bound to the
(1) Serosa – mucosa – submucosa
apoenzyme.
– muscularis
Select the option which includes all correct
(2) Muscularis – serosa – mucosa
statements.
– submucosa
(1) a and c
(3) Serosa – muscularis – submucosa
(2) b and c
– mucosa
(3) a and b
(4) Mucosa – submucosa – muscularis
(4) a, c and d – mucosa
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Test-11 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

166. Heart beat increases at the time of interview due 170. Cell aggregate body plan is exhibited by
to secretion of an adrenal hormone in our body (1) Sponges (2) Cnidarians
known as
(3) Flatworms (4) Roundworms
(1) Acetylcholine (2) Adrenaline
171. Segmentation is not a salient feature of
(3) Cortisol (4) ACTH
167. A part of circulatory system that transports (1) Annelids (2) Arthropods
deoxygenated blood from heart to the lungs and (3) Echinoderms (4) Chordates
brings oxygenated blood back to the heart is 172. Read following statements carefully.
referred to as
(a) Schwann cells are microglia in CNS
(1) Pulmonary circulation
responsible for formation of myelin sheath.
(2) Coronary circulation
(b) Action potential refers to depolarisation
(3) Systemic circulation
observed due to stimulus received by a
(4) Single circulatory system neuron
168. In given figure of Malpighian body, identify A, B, (c) Neurotransmitters are responsible for
C and D.
conduction of impulse through gap junctions
across electrical synapse.
(d) Neurilemma is present around both
myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibres in
PNS.
Choose the option containing all incorrect
statements.
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and c
173. Select correct statement.
Choose option which correctly represent A, B, C
(1) Olfactory epithelium of nose has
and D.
chemoreceptors and olfactory substances are
A B C D dissolved in secretion of Bowman’s gland.
(1) Afferent Efferent Bowman’s PCT
(2) Fovea in retina contains only cones and blind
arteriole arteriole capsule
spot contains only rods.
(2) Afferent Bowman’s PCT Efferent
arteriole capsule arteriole (3) Depolarisation of sensory hair cells on
(3) J.G cells Renal ciliated Efferent
tympanic membrane take place due to efflux
capsule cuboidal arteriole of Na+ ions.
epithelium
(4) All papillae present on upper surface of
(4) Afferent Malpighian Loop of Effernet tongue contain taste buds.
arteriole body Henle arteriole
174. Muscular dystrophy is a congenital disorder
169. In haemodialysis,
characterised by
(1) Blood is drained from a convenient artery
(1) Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles
(2) Blood is drained from a convenient vein
(2) Excessive convulsions
(3) Dialysing fluid has exactly same composition
as that of blood (3) Shaking and trembling
(4) Cellophane tube is not required (4) Damage to cardiac muscles only

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-11 (Code-B)

175. Match the following and choose the correct 177. Choose mismatch w.r.t hormones and their
option. deficiency diseases.
(1) Growth hormone – Acromegaly
(2) Parathormone – Tetany
(3) Thyroxine – Myxoedema
(4) Vasopressin – Diabetes insipidus
178. Which of the following is not a true fish?
(1) Fighting fish (2) Dog fish
(3) Saw fish (4) Devil fish
179. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) a – (v), b – (iv), c – (iii), d – (ii), e – (i)
(2) a – (i), b – (ii), c – (iii), d – (iv), e – (v) (1) In cockroaches and prawns, excretion of
waste materials occurs through malpighian
(3) a – (i), b – (iii), c – (ii), d – (iv), e – (v)
tubules.
(4) a – (v), b – (iii), c – (ii), d – (i), e – (iv)
(2) Ctenophores exhibit bioluminescence.
176. Secretin
(3) Protonephridia are responsible for excretion
(1) Stimulates enzyme secretion by pancreas in Fasciola and Amphioxus.
and inhibits acid secretion in stomach.
(4) Earthworms are hermaphrodite yet cross
(2) Stimulates bicarbonate secretion in
fertilisation occurs.
pancreatic juice and inhibits gastric secretion.
180. Choose the structure not found in a male
(3) Inhibits bicarbonate secretion by pancreas
cockroach.
and acid secretion in stomach.
(1) Labium (2) Anal cerci
(4) Stimulates acid secretion in stomach and
potentiate action of CCK. (3) Anal style (4) Spermatheca

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