24/06/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 14 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII.

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. The number of components in which a vector can 4. The time period of a simple pendulum measured
be resolved into is inside a stationary elevator is 4 s. If the lift start
accelerating downwards with an acceleration
(1) One (2) Two
3g/4, the time period will be
(3) Three (4) Infinite
(1) 4 s (2) 8 s
2. A particle is moving with a velocity (3) 6 s (4) 3 s

v  (2i  3 j ) m/s at an instant of time. If a force 5. Consider the following pulley mass system. The

F  (4i  6 j  5k ) N acts on the particle at that frequency of the vibration of the second overtone
of the wire between the pulleys is (Given: Mass
instant then the radius of curvature of the particle
of the wire between the pulleys : 24 g)
at the instant is (mass of the particle is 2 kg)
(1) 3 m (2) 5.2 m
(3) 2 m (4) 7.1 m
3. The quantities A and B are related by the
relation, m = A/B , where m is the linear
momentum and A is the angular impulse. The
dimensions of B are of
(1) Perimeter
(1) 65 Hz
(2) Work (2) 115 Hz
(3) Latent heat (3) 36 Hz
(4) None of these (4) 75 Hz

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Test-14 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

6. The moment of inertia of semicircular plate of 10. Two objects A and B each of mass m are
radius R and mass M about axis AA in its plane connected by a light inextensible string. They are
passing through its centre, as shown in the restricted to move on a frictionless ring of radius
figure, is (  = 45°) R in a vertical plane(as shown in fig). The objects
are released from rest at the position shown.
Then, the acceleration of mass A just after
release is nearly (g = 10 m/s2)

MR 2 MR 2
(1) (2)
2 6

MR 2 MR 2
(3) (4)
4 8
7. A rigid body can be hinged about any point on
the x-axis. When it is hinged such that the hinge (1) Zero (2) 5 m/s2
is at x, the moment of inertia is given by
(3) 14.14 m/s2 (4) 0.7 m/s2
2
I = x – 24x + 48
11. The distance of center of mass of a uniform
The x-coordinate of centre of mass is
semicircular disc, of radius 3 m, from its center
(1) 6 (2) 12 of curvature is
(3) 24 (4) 4 (1) 2 m (2) 1.67 m
8. A uniform hollow sphere starts rolling from a
(3) 4.5 m (4) 4 m
height 'h' on an inclined plane. At some
instant t, the ratio of its rotational kinetic energy 12. Two soap bubbles of different radii are connected
and the total kinetic energy would be to each other through a tube as shown.
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 1 : 3 Choose the most appropriate alternative.
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1
9. A system consists of two identical cubes each of
mass m, linked together by a compressed
weightless spring of force constant k. The cubes
are also connected by a thread which is burnt at (1) Size of the bubbles remains unchanged
a certain moment. The minimum value of initial
(2) Larger bubble bursts instantly
compression of the spring for which the lower
cube will bounce up after the burning of the (3) Air flows from larger bubble into the smaller
thread is one
(4) Air flows from smaller bubble into the larger
bubble
13. A car starts from rest travelling with constant
acceleration. If distance covered by it in 4th
second of its journey is 21 m, what will be the
acceleration of car?
(1) 4 m/s2
2mg 3mg
(1) (2) (2) 3 m/s2
k k
(3) 2 m/s2
3mg 6mg
(3) (4)
2k k (4) 6 m/s2

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-14 (Code-A)

14. A parallel beam of light is incident on a tube 18. The angular momentum of an electron in
containing two convex lenses of focal length 5h
hydrogen atom is . Here h is the Plank's
5 cm and 10 cm as shown (the rays are incident 2
on the 5 cm focal length lens first). If the diameter constant. The potential energy of this electron is
of incident beam is 1.6 cm, find the diameter of (1) 4.53 eV (2) –1.51 eV
final beam
(3) –1.088 eV (4) 6.8 eV
19. An open pipe of sufficient length is dipping in
water with a speed v vertically. If at any instant 
is length of tube above water. Then the rate at
which fundamental frequency of pipe changes, is
(speed of sound = c)
(1) 4 cm (2) 2.31 cm
(3) 3.2 cm (4) 6 cm
15. A thin rod of length f/2 is placed along the
principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length
f, such that its image which is real and elongated,
just touches the rod. Then the longitudinal
magnification of the rod is
cv cv
(1) 1.5 (2) 0.67 (1) (2)
2
2 4 2
(3) 0.5 (4) 2
c c
16. Consider the following two statements (3) (4)
2(v )2 4(v  )2
a. Among a given set of axis for a rigid body,
the moment of inertia is always minimum 20. In a uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius
about the one passing through the center of R, a spherical cavity is created such that the
mass. center of the cavity does not coincide with the
center of the original solid sphere. The
b. Perpendicular axis theorem for moment of
gravitational field inside the cavity will be
inertia would be applicable for a solid sphere.
(1) Uniform in magnitude
The correct statement(s) is/are
(2) Uniform in direction
(1) Only a (2) Only b
(3) Zero
(3) Both a and b (4) Neither a nor b
(4) Both (1) and (2)
17. In the circuit shown in figure the current gain,
 = 200 for the transistor. What would be the 21. A mixture of two gases X and Y is enclosed at
constant temperature. The molecular mass of X,
base resistance RB so that VCE = 2 V?
which is diatomic, is 16 times that of Y, which is
(Neglect VBE) monatomic. The ratio of r.m.s. speed of Y
molecules to that of molecules of X is
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 2 2 (4) 6
22. If there are no heat losses, the heat released by
the condensation of x g of steam at 100°C into
water at 100°C can be used to convert y g of
ice at 0°C into water at 100°C. Then ratio
y : x is nearly
(1) 2  103  (2) 2.5  105 
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 :1
(3) 1 106  (4) 500  (3) 3 : 1 (4) 2.5 : 1

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Test-14 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

23. Three rods made of the same material and K 2K

(1) (2)
having the same cross- section have been joined ed ed
as shown in the figure. Each rod is of the same K K
length. The left and right ends are kept at 0°C (3) (4)
2ed 4ed
and 90°C respectively. The temperature of the
27. In the circuit shown, the ratio I1 : I2, is equal to
junction of the three rods will be

(1) 45°C (2) 60°C

(3) 30°C (4) 20°C
24. A mass at the end of a spring executes harmonic (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
motion about an equilibrium position with an (3) 4 : 3 (4) 2 : 5
amplitude A. Its speed as it passes 28. In the ladder network shown, current through the
through the equilibrium position is 2V. If the resistor 3 Ω is 4 A. The emf V of the ideal battery
spring is given a net extension 4A and released, is equal to
the speed of the mass passing through the
equilibrium position will be
(1) 2V (2) 8V
(3) V/2 (4) V/4
25. Some equipotential surfaces are shown in the
figure. The magnitude and direction of the
electric field is

(1) 120 V (2) 320 V

(3) 420 V (4) 80 V
29. Three rings, each having equal radius R, are
placed mutually perpendicular to each other and
(1) 100 V/m making angle 120° with the x-axis each having its center at the origin of coordinates
system. If current I is flowing through each ring,
(2) 100 V/m making angle 60° with the x-axis then the magnitude of magnetic field at the
(3) 200 V/m making angle 120° with the x-axis common center is
(4) None of these
26. An electron is projected as in fig. with kinetic
energy K, at an angle  = 45° between two
charged plates. The magnitude of the electric
field (uniform) so that the electron just fails to
strike the upper plate, should be greater than

0I
(1) 3 (2) Zero
2R
0I 0I
(3)  2  1 (4)  3  2
2R 2R

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-14 (Code-A)

30. A metallic rod of length L = 2 m and mass 33. In Young’s double slit experiment carried out with
M = 2 kg is moving under the action of two light of wavelength 6000 Å, the distance between
unequal forces F1 = 10 N and F2 = 20 N (directed the slits is 0.4 mm and the screen is at 250 cm
opposite to each other) acting at its ends along from the plane of slits. The distance of the fifth
its length. Ignore gravity and any external order maxima from the centre of the screen, will
magnetic field. If specific charge of electrons is be
α C/kg, then the potential difference between the (1) 1.87 cm (2) 1.5 cm
ends of the rod is steady state must be (3) 0.5 cm (4) 5.0 cm
10 20 34. In the figure shown the equivalent capacitance
(1) V (2) V
  between 'A' and 'B' is
10
(3) V (4) Zero
3
31. A ring of resistance 20  , radius 1 m and 50
turns is rotated at a rate 100 revolutions per
second about its diameter perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic field of induction 10 mT. The
amplitude of the current in the loop will be nearly
(Take : 2 = 10)
(1) 200 A (2) 50 A (1) 3.75 F (2) 2 F
(3) 0.005 A (4) None of these (3) 21 F (4) 16 F
32. Three consecutive flash photographs of a 35. Ten tuning forks are arranged in increasing order
travelling wave on a string are reproduced in the of frequency in such a way that any two
figure here. The following observations are consecutive tuning forks produces 8 beats/s. The
made. Which of the following options is correct. highest frequency is four times that of the lowest.
(Mass per unit length of the string = 6 g/cm). Possible highest and lowest frequencies (in Hz)
are
(1) 160 and 40 (2) 200 and 50
(3) 96 and 24 (4) 144 and 36
36. An electron is orbiting around a nucleus in a
circle of radius ‘r’. Magnetic moment moment of
(1) Displacement amplitude of the wave is
electron is proportional to
0.25 m, wavelength is 1 m, wave speed is
2.5 m/s and the frequency of the driving force (1) r0.5
is 0.2/s (2) r
(2) Displacement amplitude of the wave is (3) r2
2.0 m, wavelength is 2 m, wave speed is (4) Independent of r
0.4 m/s and the frequency of the driving force 37. Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom
is 0.7/s correspond to increasing values of energy, i.e.
(3) Displacement amplitude of the wave is EA < EB < EC. If 1, 2 and3 are the wavelengths
0.25 m, wavelength is 2 m, wave speed is 5 of radiations corresponding to transitions C to B,
m/s and the frequency of the driving force is B to A and C to A respectively, then which of the
2.5/s following relations is correct?
(4) Displacement amplitude of the wave is 0.5 m, (1) 3  1  2 (2) 31  11  21
wavelength is 2 m, wave speed is 2.5 m/s
and the frequency of the driving force is 0.2/s (3)  3  1   2  0 (4) 32  12  22

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Test-14 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

38. The power factor of the circuit shown in figure is 43. The rms value of electric field at a distance r from
a source of electromagnetic wave of power P is
(ԑ : Permittivity of free space)

P P
(1) 2
(2)
2r c  4r 2c 

P 2P
(3) (4)
8r 2c  r 2c 
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.6 44. Which among the following represents an OR
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.4 gate?
39. In an LR circuit current at t = 0 is 20 A. After
2 second current in the circuit decreased by 2 A. (1)
Time constant of the circuit is (in second)
9 9
(1) ln   (2) 2ln  
 10   10  (2)
1 2
(3) 2ln   (4)
 10  10 
ln   (3)
9
40. A faulty thermometer reads 5°C in melting ice
and 99°C in steam. The correct temperature in F, (4)
when this faulty thermometer reads 52°C, is
(1) 120°F (2) 118°F 45. The fraction f of radioactive material that has
(3) 122°F (4) 148°F decayed in time t, varies with time t. The correct
41. First excitation potential of a hypothetical variation is given by the curve
hydrogen like atom is 15 V. Find third excitation
potential of the atom
(1) 15 V (2) 18.75 V
(3) 10 V (4) 11.25 V
42. A He+ ion is at rest and is in ground state. A
neutron with initial kinetic energy K collides head
on with the He+ ion. Among the following, the
(1) A
value of K so that there can be an inelastic
collision between these two particle (2) B
(1) 55 eV (2) 69 eV (3) C
(3) 23 eV (4) Both (1) and (2) (4) D

CHEMISTRY
46. For a reaction 47. If the electronic configuration of nitrogen atom is
2A + 3B + 5C  D + 4E 2px7, then which of the following is/are violated?

If 16 mol A, 24 mol B and 30 mol of C mixed (1) Pauli exclusion principle

together than mol of E formed is (2) Aufbau rule
(1) 30 mol (2) 32 mol (3) Hund’s rule for maximum multiplicity
(3) 20 mol (4) 24 mol (4) All of these

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-14 (Code-A)

48. Ratio of de Broglie wavelength of proton and an (1) 2.36 (2) 6.32
alpha particle accelerated through same potential (3) 4.74 (4) 6.9
difference is
56. For the reaction A(g)  2B(g), Kp = 8 atm if
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
initially 4 atm of gas A is present then total
(3) 1 : 2 2 (4) 2 2 : 1
pressure at equilibrium is
49. Correct order of ionisation enthalpy is
(1) 2 atm (2) 4 atm
(1) Li < Be > B < C < N < O
(3) 6 atm (4) 8 atm
(2) Li < Be > B < C > N < O
57. If the molar mass of FeS2 is M then the
(3) Li < Be > B < C < N > O
equivalent mass of FeS2 in the reaction
(4) Li < Be < B < C < N < O FeS2  Fe2O3 + SO2 is
50. If 2s-2p mixing is not present then which among
M M
the following is/are paramagnetic (1) (2)
1 4
(1) C2 (2) B2
M M
(3) N2 (4) All of these (3) (4)
10 11
51. For linear shape an atom should have
58. For the balanced redox reaction.
(1) 2 bond pairs only
aMnO4– + bH2O2 + cH+  dMn2+ + eO2 + fH2O
(2) 2 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs
the value of a, b, c and e respectively are
(3) 2 bond pairs and 3 lone pairs
(1) 2, 5, 3, 4
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) 2, 5, 6, 5
52. A container contains mixture of O2 and H2. If
(3) 3, 4, 5, 6
1
mole fraction of H2 is then the ratio of volume
3 (4) 2, 6, 4, 8
of H2 to O2 diffuse out initially from the container 59. Strongest reducing agent in gas phase is
is (1) Li (2) Na
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) Cs (4) K
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
60. Select the incorrect statement
53. A process is spontaneous if
(1) Boron tribromide is stronger lewis acid than
(1) Gsys < 0 boron trifluoride
(2) Hsys < 0 and Ssys > 0 (2) Borax has two tetrahedral and two triangular
(3) Stotal > 0 units
(4) All of these (3) B2H6.2NH3 considered as ionic product
54. Select the incorrect statement (4) When diborane with excess of NH3 mixture is
(1) Extensive properties are additive in nature heated at high temperature Borazole is
(2) Intensive properties are mass independent formed

(3) Vapour pressure is an extensive property 61. Which carbide on hydrolysis gives propyne gas
as one of the product?
(4) Pressure is an intensive property
(1) Be2C (2) CaC2
55. An aqueous solution of CH3COOH is titrated with
aqueous solution of NaOH. The pH of the (3) Mg2C3 (4) Al4C3
1 62. Strength in g/L of 22.4V H2O2 solution is
solution at equivalence point is
2 (1) 3.4 (2) 6.8
(pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.74) (3) 34 (4) 68
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Test-14 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020
63. Maximum enol content among the following is in 68. A liquid mixture of A and B contains 1 mol of
(1) C6H5 — C — CH2 — C — C6H5 each if the pressure is reduced, at what pressure
|| || does the last drop of liquid disappear?
O O
( PA0 = 400 mmHg, PB0 = 100 mmHg)
(2) CH3 — C — CH2 — C — CH3
|| ||
(1) 106.6 mmHg
O O
(3) CH3 — O — C — CH2 — C — CH3 (2) 213.3 mmHg
|| || (3) 160 mmHg
O O
(4) 240 mmHg
(4) CH3 — O — C — CH2 — C — OCH3
|| || 69. Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode at pH
O O of 3 and pH2 = 1 atm is
64. Total number of structural isomers possible for
C4H6 is (1) – 0.29 V
(1) 6 (2) 7
(2) – 0.177 V
(3) 8 (4) 9
(3) – 0.34 V
(4) –0.78 V
65.
70. For a cell
A(s) |A+(aq) | | B+(aq)| B
The product A and B respectively are
E 0ce ll is 4.2 V at 25°C and 4.1V at 35°C. The
(1) (2) value of S0 for cell reaction (assuming S°
remains constant) in JK–1 mol–1 is
(3) (4) (1) –9.65 (2) –96.5
(3) –965 (4) –0.965
66. Excessive nitrate in drinking water can cause
(1) Brown mottling of teeth 71. In H2 – O2 fuel cell, 11.2 L H2 at NTP reacts in
(2) Laxative effect 5000 sec, the current (average) produced by the
(3) Methemoglobinemia fuel cell is
(4) All of these (1) 1.93A
67. Which of the following combination gives AB2O4 (2) 19.3A
type structure?
(3) 9.65A
1
(1) Oxide ions at CCP, A ions at th of (4) 96.5A
4
tetrahedral voids and B ions at all the 72. For a first order reaction following data is
octahedral voids
collected. A(g)  B(g) + C(g)
1
(2) Oxide ions at CCP, A ions at th of Time 0 20 min
8
tetrahedral voids and B ions at all the Total pressure 60 105
octahedral voids
The half life of the reaction is
1
(3) Oxide ions at CCP, A ions at th of (1) 5 min (2) 10 min
2
1 (3) 20 min (4) 40 min
tetrahedral voids and B ions at of
2 73. Classification based on physical states (solid,
octahedral voids
liquid and gas) of dispersed phase and
1 dispersion medium, total number of colloids
(4) Oxide ions at CCP, A ions at th of
8 formed is
1
tetrahedral voids and B ions at of (1) 2 (2) 3
2
octahedral voids (3) 8 (4) 12

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-14 (Code-A)

74. Select the correct statement on the basis of

following Ellingham diagram
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
(1) Above 1073K, carbon can reduce Fe2O3
(2) Fe2O3 can be reduced by CO below 1073K
80. For the molecule
(3) Below 1073K CO2 + C  2CO is
CH3CH(OH) CH(OH)CH(OH) CH3 total number
spontaneous
of stereoisomers and meso form respectively are
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) 4, 0
75. NH3(g) + O2(g)  A(g) + H2O(g)
(2) 4, 1
A(g) + O2(g)  B(g)
(3) 3, 1
B(g) + H2O(l)  C(aq) + A(g)
(4) 4, 2
C(g) + NH3(aq)  D(aq)

D(s)   E(g) + H2O(g)
Gas E formed in the reaction is 81.
(1) N2O (2) NO
(3) NO2 (4) N2H4
76. Number of  and  bonds in tetrathionic acid are The product A obtained is

(1) 9 and 4

(2) 11 and 4
(1)
(3) 9 and 2
(4) 11 and 2
77. Outer electronic configuration of cerium is
(Cerium atomic number is 58)
(1) 5d 16s2 (2) 4f 15d16s2 (2)

(3) 4f 46s2 (4) 4f 66s2

78. In which of the following metal ion configuration
CFSE(0) depends on pairing nature of ligand
(neglect pairing energy)
(3)
(1) d7 (2) d8
(3) d9 (4) d10

(i) CHCl /KOH

79. 
3
A (4)
(ii) CH2I2 /NaOH

The product A is

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Test-14 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

18 
H
82. CH2  CH — O — CH2 — CH3  
 products.
The major products formed in the above reaction (3) (4)
are
18 87. Most basic among the following is
(1) CH3CHO and CH3CH2OH
(1) (2)
18
(2) CH3CHO and CH3CH2 OH
18
(3) CH2  CH  OH and CH3 – CH2 – OH (3) (4)
18
(4) CH2  CH  OH and CH3CH2 OH
83. Which of the following artificial sweetener does 88. Which of the following will not show Cannizzaro
not contain nitrogen? reaction?
(1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin
(3) Sucralose (4) Alitame
84. The main reasons for which vulcanisation of (1) (2)
natural rubber is carried out is/are
(1) Soft at high temperature and brittle at low
temperature
(2) High water absorption capacity
(3) (4)
(3) Non resistant to attack by oxidising agent
(4) All of these
85. Which among the following is non essential
89. Hybridisation and magnetic moment of Cu in
amino acid having a ring structure?
[Cu(NH3)4]2+ are
(1) Proline (2) Arginine
(1) dsp2, 0 BM (2) dsp2, 3 BM
(3) Histidine (4) Phenylalanine
 (3) sp3, 0 M (4) sp3, 3 BM
(i) O3 (i) dil OH
86.   (A)   (B)
(ii) Zn/H O 2(ii)  90. XeF6 on partial hydrolysis gives
Product B is (1) XeOF4
(2) XeO2F2
(3) HF
(1) (2) (4) All of these

BOTANY
91. Bacterial flagellum is similar to eukaryotic (1) (a), (b) and (d) (2) (b) and (c)
flagellum as both (3) (b) and (d) (4) (b) only
(a) Are made up of tubulin protein 92. Choose the odd one for nucleolus.

(b) Help in motility (1) Non membrane bound

(2) Site for rRNA synthesis
(c) Contain same basal body
(3) Found in nucleus
(d) Are extensions of plasma membrane
(4) Smaller and fewer in number in cells involved
Choose the correct one(s) in protein synthesis

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-14 (Code-A)

93. Glycosylation of proteins occur at 100. Fungi imperfecti

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum (1) Produce non motile asexual spores
(2) Golgi complex (2) Have sex organs but do not reproduce
(3) Ribosomes sexually

(4) Lysosome (3) Possess coenocytic hyphae

(4) Are non pathogenic
94. Post mitotic gap phase in an animal cell is
characterised by all of the following events, 101. Choose the odd one w.r.t. stem modification.
except (1) Tendrils of watermelon
(1) Duplication of ER (2) Phylloclade
(2) Synthesis of amino acids (3) Tendrils of pea
(3) Duplication of centriole (4) Thorns of Bougainvillea
(4) Deoxyribonucleotide synthesis 102. Identify the member of Liliaceae family
95. In which phase of meiosis I, chiasmata appears (1) Lupin (2) Petunia
as an X-shaped structure? (3) Trifolium (4) Tulip
(1) Diplotene (2) Diakinesis 103. Which one is not a secondary meristem?
(3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene (1) Phellogen
96. Sapindales of mango is equivalent to ________ (2) Interfascicular meristem
of housefly. (3) Vascular cambium in dicot root
Complete the statement by choosing appropriate (4) Fascicular vascular cambium
option to fill up the blank. 104. Mark the incorrect feature of heartwood.
(1) Diptera (2) Muscidae (1) Centrally located
(3) Insecta (4) Arthropoda (2) Darker in colour
97. Select the wrong match. (3) Hard, durable and resistant
(1) Indicator of water – Soap box like body (4) Non functional primary xylem
pollution 105. Match the columns and select the correct option.
(2) Malaria causing – Lack locomotory Column-I Column-II
organism structure
a. Fucus (i) Source of iodine
(3) Smallest cell – Wall less moneran
b. Gracilaria (ii) Haplodiplontic life
(4) Red tide causing – Can fix CO2 as well cycle
organism as N2 c. Laminaria (iii) Diplontic life cycle
98. A non motile asexual spore of Penicillium is d. Polysiphonia (iv) Source of agar
(1) Conidia (1) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(2) Sporangiospore (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) Ascospore (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(4) Basidiospore (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
99. Viroids and prions both are similar as both 106. Which of the given features is true for some
possess/are pteridophytes but false for all bryophytes?
(1) RNA (1) Heterospory
(2) Infectious in nature (2) Presence of vascular system
(3) Proteins (3) Formation of embryo
(4) Non pathogenic in nature (4) Formation of motile male gametes

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Test-14 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

107. Seeds are not covered inside the fruit in 116. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Pea (2) Pinus (1) Gibberellin – Stem elongation
(3) Sunflower (4) Eucalyptus (2) Cytokinin – Promote senescence
108. The correct expression for a turgid cell is (3) ABA – Induce stomatal closure
(1) DPD = OP (4) Auxin – Promote abscission of older
(2) w = s leaves

(3) OP – TP = 0 117. Which plant requires long photoperiods above

than critical periods?
(4) TP = –ve
(1) Radish (2) Tomato
109. Transport proteins of ________ cells adjust the
quantity and type of solutes that reach the xylem. (3) Tobacco (4) Soyabean

Complete the above statement by choosing 118. Motile asexual spores are formed by
correct option. (1) Penicillium (2) Chlamydomonas
(1) Epidermal (2) Pericycle (3) Hydra (4) Yeast
(3) Xylem parenchyma (4) Endodermal 119. Choose the odd one for ploidy level.
110. Deficiency of which of the following set of (1) Pollen grain (2) Synergid
elements are responsible for necrosis of leaves? (3) Scutellum (4) Polar nucleus
(1) N, S, Mg (2) Ca, Mg, K 120. Read the given statements and choose the
(3) N, K, S (4) Mg, N, Mo correct option.
111. Find out the autotrophic symbiotic nitrogen fixer Statement-A : Some flowers of common pansy
among these. do not require pollinators.
(1) Frankia (2) Rhizobium Statement-B : Geitonogamy is prevented in
(3) Azotobacter (4) Anabaena castor.

112. Noncyclic photophosphorylation is not related (1) Only A is correct

with (2) Only B is correct
(1) NADH synthesis (2) P700 (3) Both A and B are correct
(3) ATP formation (4) O2 evolution (4) Both A and B are incorrect
113. Identify the incorrect statement for photo 121. What will be the percentage of offsprings with
respiration light skin, if a mulattoe female marries a negro
(1) Do not occur in C4 plants man?

(2) Release of CO2 occurs in chloroplast (1) 12.5% (2) 6.25%

(3) Utilisation of O2 occurs in chloroplast and (3) 25% (4) 0%

peroxisome 122. The gene which normally codes for enzyme
(4) Formation of NADH occurs in mitochondria phenylalanine hydroxylase after mutation

114. Which of the given reactions does not occur (1) Affects multiple phenotypic expressions
during glycolysis? (2) Causes sickle cell anaemia
(1) Substrate level phosphorylation (3) Show pleiotropic response
(2) Isomerisation (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) Decarboxylation 123. Trisomy of 21st chromosome in human causes
(4) Dehydrogenation (1) Down’s syndrome
115. RQ value is highest when substrate is (2) Turner’s syndrome
(1) Malic acid (2) Glucose (3) Edward’s syndrome
(3) Fat (4) Oxalic acid (4) Klinefelter’s syndrome

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-14 (Code-A)

124. Phosphoester bond will be seen in 130. Zooplanktons escape the unfavourable condition
(1) Cytidine (2) Guanosine in suspended stage called
(3) Cytidylic acid (4) Uridine (1) Diapause (2) Aestivation
125. “Genetic code is said to be degenerate.” Which (3) Hibernation (4) Migration
of the below given options elaborates this 131. All of the given organisms do not occupy any
statement with suitable example. place in ecological pyramid, except
(1) AUG acts as start codon and codes for (1) Detritivores
methionine. (2) Insectivorous plants
(2) Serine and leucine are coded by 6 codons. (3) Sparrow
(3) UUU codes for phenylalanine in all organisms (4) Lion
except mitochondria.
132. Choose the odd one w.r.t. ex-situ conservation
(4) Third nitrogenous base of a codon is usually strategies.
not read by t-RNA.
(1) Wildlife safari park
126. RNA polymerase I does not synthesises
(2) Seed bank
(1) 5.8 S rRNA (2) 18 S rRNA
(3) National park
(3) 28 S rRNA (4) 5 S rRNA
(4) Zoological park
127. Mark the wrongly matched pair.
133. Out of the total quantity of global carbon, 71%
(1) Atlas 66 – Biofortified wheat carbon is found in
(2) Sonora-64 – Semidwarf Indian wheat (1) Plants (2) Rocks
(3) Himgiri – Resistant to leaf rust (3) Soil (4) Ocean
(4) Protina – Maize variety rich in lysine 134. Choose the incorrect statement for soil pollution.
128. All of the following enzymes are produced by (1) Addition of pesticide in soil is called negative
fungi, except soil pollution
(1) Lipases (2) Amylase (2) Intensive irrigation causes negative soil
(3) Pectinase (4) Streptokinase pollution
129. In which of the given population interactions one (3) Hospital wastes causes soil pollution
species harm other without getting benefitted? (4) Plastics causes long term soil pollution
(1) Tiger and deer 135. ________ is related with control of green house
(2) Penicillium and bacteria gas emission.
(3) Paramecium aurelia and P. caudatum (1) Kyoto protocol (2) Montreal protocol
(4) Barnacles and whale (3) Earth summit (4) Geneva protocol

ZOOLOGY
136. Select the correct match. 137. Choose the incorrect set w.r.t. category
(1) Simple squamous Bowman’s capsule mentioned
epithelium (1) Adipose tissue, – Loose connective
areolar tissue tissue
(2) Simple cuboidal Gastric mucosa
(2) Tendon, ligaments – Dense irregular
epithelium connective tissue
(3) Simple columnar PCT (3) Saliva, milk, sweat – Secretions of
epithelium multicellular glands
(4) Schwann cells, – Neuroglial cells
(4) Simple ciliated Intestinal mucosa
astrocytes,
epithelium
oligodendrocytes
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Test-14 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

138. Fusiform, uninucleated, unbranched and 145. Select the correct statement.
involuntary muscle fibres are likely to be found in (1) Nearly 20-25 percent of CO2 is transported
(1) Biceps by RBCs as carboxyhemoglobin under
(2) Heart normal physiological conditions.
(3) Wall of blood vessels (2) Decline in pH of a blood shifts the oxygen
(4) Quadriceps dissociation curve to left.

139. At which level of structural organisation of a (3) Asthma is difficulty in breathing causing
globular protein, will disulphide bonds appear wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
first? bronchioles.
(1) Primary (2) Tertiary (4) Functional residual capacity refers to total
volume of air remaining in the lungs even
(3) Secondary (4) Quaternary
after forcible expiration.
140. Read the given statements and identify the
biomolecule 146. The condition termed erythroblastosis foetalis
arises due to Rh incompatibility between mother
I. It is a polymer of glucose
and foetus. The antibody that primarily harms the
II. -glycosidic bonds are present foetus is
III. It is a structural polysaccharide (1) IgA (2) IgM
Select the correct option (3) IgE (4) IgG
(1) Glycogen (2) Starch 147. Select the incorrect match.
(3) Chitin (4) Cellulose
(1) Systole Contraction of heart
141. A health conscious woman consumes a large
portion of germinating lentils in breakfast. Which (2) Atherosclerosis Lumen of only cardiac
of the following enzyme will act on it at pH 1.8? veins becomes
(1) Salivary amylase (2) Carboxypeptidase narrower

(3) Trypsin (4) Pepsin (3) QRS complex Depolarisation of

142. These biomolecules carry hereditary information ventricles
and are passed on from parental generation to (4) Dub Closure of semilunar
progeny. The monomeric form of these valves
biomolecules can be found in all except
148. Read the given statements
(1) Acid soluble fraction
A : Secretions of JGA eventually result in
(2) Cytoplasmic fraction
constriction of efferent arteriole, thereby
(3) Retentate fraction
increasing GFR.
(4) Filtrate fraction
B : Sympathetic stimulation leads to constriction
143. Relaxation of sphincter of Oddi and stimulation of of afferent arteriole leading to fall in GFR.
flow of bile from gall bladder into duodenum is a
Select the correct option.
function of
(1) Statement A is incorrect
(1) CCK-PZ (2) Secretin
(2) Statement B is incorrect
(3) GIP (4) Duocrinin
(3) Both statements A & B are correct
144. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct
option (4) Both statements A & B are incorrect
Cutaneous respiration : Earthworm : : Pulmonary 149. Tubular secretion of which of the following occurs
respiration : ________ in DCT?
(1) Aquatic insects (2) Aquatic mammals (1) NaCl (2) H2O
(3) Fishes (4) Aquatic arthropods (3) H+ (4) Glucose

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-14 (Code-A)

150. _______ is absent or highly reduced in cortical 155. A child is enjoying a ride in ‘Merry go Round’ in a
nephrons in comparison to JG nephrons. school fete. The part of ear responsible for
Select the option that fills the blank correctly maintaining rotational equilibrium during the ride
is
(1) Malpighian corpuscle
(2) PCT (1) Cochlear part (2) Otolith organ

(3) Peritubular capillaries (3) Utricle (4) Crista ampullaris

(4) Loop of Henle 156. Select the correct option after matching items
listed in column I with those in column II.
151. Which option represents the correct type of joint
between the following in humans? Column I Column II
Location Joint i. Exopthalmic p. Anti-diuretic hormone
goitre
(1) Atlas/Axis Hinge joint

(2) Carpal/Metacarpal of Pivot joint ii. Diabetes q. Glycosuria & ketonuria

thumb insipidus

(3) Between cranial bones Saddle joint iii. Addison’s r. Damage to -cells of
disease pancreas
(4) Between pubic bones Cartilaginous
in the pelvic girdle joint iv. Diabetes s. Deficiency of hormones
mellitus from adrenal cortex
152. Read the given statements
a. All mammals have seven cervical vertebrae t. Hyperthyroidism
in adult stage i ii iii iv
b. The human cranium is made of 22 bones (1) t p s q
c. The number of phalanges in each limb of a (2) t s p r
human is 14
(3) t q p s
Select the correct option w.r.t. true (T) and false
(4) t p s r
(F)
157. Immune responses of old persons become weak
a b c
due to atrophy of which gland upon ageing?
(1) T F T
(1) Parathyroid (2) Thymus
(2) T T F
(3) Pineal (4) Pancreas
(3) F F T
158. How many among the hormones gives in box
(4) F T F
below are steroidal in origin and regulate
153. Calsequestrin binds calcium in sarcoplasmic chromosome function by the interaction of
reticulum of skeletal muscle fibres. Which protein hormone receptor complex with the genome.
binds calcium upon its release into sarcoplasm of
voluntary muscles? Cortisol, PIH, ACTH, Testosterone, Thyroxine,
Estrogen
(1) Tropomyosin (2) Head of myosin
(3) Actin (4) Troponin Select the correct option.
154. Part of PNS that relays impulses from the CNS to (1) One (2) Three
skeletal muscles is (3) Two (4) Four
(1) Visceral nervous system 159. Which among following can exhibit radial or
(2) Sympathetic neural system bilateral symmetry depending on the stage?
(3) Somatic neural system (1) Sea pen (2) Sea urchin
(4) Parasympathetic neural system (3) Sea walnut (4) Sea horse

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Test-14 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

160. Select the correct match w.r.t. animal given, its 164. Consider the following parameters
characteristics and the taxon mentioned. (a) Chromosome number
Animal Characteristics Taxon (b) Motility
(c) Size
(1) Exocoetus Absence of Osteichthyes
operculum How many parameters are basis of difference
between male and female gamete in humans?
Presence of
pelvic claspers (1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Zero
(2) Euspongia Fresh water Cnidaria
sponge 165. The stimulatory reflex between the uterine
contractions during childbirth and ‘X’ secretion
Choanocytes
continues resulting in positive feedback until
(3) Eptatretus Absence of Cyclostomata parturition.
paired fins Select the option that identifies ‘X’ and its site of
Circular mouth synthesis
devoid of jaws X Site of synthesis
(4) Elephas Homeothermy Mammalia (1) Oxytocin Hypothalamus

Lack of (2) Oxytocin Placenta

mammary teats (3) Estrogen Placenta

161. Select the option where members do not belong (4) Oxytocin Posterior pituitary
to same phylum/class as mentioned. 166. Select the correct statement.
(1) Dog fish, jelly fish, saw – Chondrichthyes (1) The genome of somatic cells is same as that
fish, sting ray of germ cells that give rise to eggs or sperms.

(2) Sea lily, star fish, sea – Echinoderms (2) Blastocyst becomes embedded in the
cucumber, brittle star myometrium of uterine wall.
(3) Lack of menstruation is a sure indicator of
(3) Sea anemone, sea fan, – Cnidaria
pregnancy in all females.
brain coral, Physalia
(4) First hormone to peak in luteal phase is
(4) Round worm, Trichinella, – Aschelminthes
estrogen
Hookworm, Filarial worm
167. Human sperms contribute to cleavage of zygote
162. Unpaired, tongue like structure among
by providing
mouthparts of cockroach is
(1) Nutrients
(1) Maxilla (2) Hypopharynx
(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Labrum (4) Labium
(3) Mitochondria
163. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. Periplaneta
(4) Centriole
(1) Anal styles – Unjointed appendages
168. Choose the odd one w.r.t. haploidy
th
attached to 9 sternite
(1) Spermatid (2) 1st polar body
(2) Elytra – Unjointed chitinous
(3) Ootid (4) Oogonia
extensions attached to
pronotum 169. In many parts of the world, amniocentesis can be
used to determine all except
(3) Filiform antenna – Jointed appendages
(1) Cleft lip
attached to head
(2) Down’s syndrome
(4) Malpighian – Excretory structures
tubules present at junction of (3) Haemophilia
midgut and hindgut (4) Sex of the foetus

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-14 (Code-A)

170. A number of eggs were released by the 176. Introduction of fish like Gambusia in ponds can
mother when she gave birth to identical twins. result in decline in spread of all except
However, when fraternal twins are born, the (1) Dengue
number of eggs released is B . Select the
(2) Malaria
option that fills A and B suitably.
(3) Chikungunya
A B
(1) 1 2 (4) Typhoid
(2) 2 1 177. Spread of babesiosis would greatly affect
(3) 1 1 production of
(4) 2 2 (1) Milk
171. Method that does not fall under the umbrella of (2) Beeswax
test tube baby programme is
(3) Honey
(1) ICSI (2) GIFT
(3) ZIFT (4) IUT (4) Chicken

172. STI caused by a spirochete which can be cured 178. Golden rice
completely if detected early and treated properly (1) Is resistant to all pests and abiotic stresses
is caused by
(2) Is biofortified GM crop
(1) Trichomonas
(2) Treponema pallidum (3) Developed by RNAi that reduces post harvest
(3) HBV losses

(4) HIV (4) Promotes early exhaustion of soil nutrients

173. Select the odd one w.r.t. convergent evolution and fertility
(1) Anteater - Numbat 179. Upstream processing does not involve
(2) Lemur – Spotted cuscus (1) Purification of desired DNA from source
(3) Flying squirrel – Sugar glider
(2) Expression of protein in heterologous host
(4) Koala - Bandicoot
(3) Large scale culture of recombinant bacteria in
174. Among the following, which one walked upright
bioreactors
for the first time?
(1) Australopithecines (2) Homo erectus (4) Separation and purification of product from
(3) Neanderthal man (4) Homo habilis cultures
175. Stimulants of CNS whose excessive 180. Select the correct fact in context of Taq
consumption can lead to hallucinations are polymerase.
obtained from
(1) Isolated from a virus
(1) Cannabis sativa
(2) Thermolabile in nature
(2) Erythroxylum coca
(3) Papaver somniferum (3) Required for extension step of PCR
(4) Nicotiana tabaccum (4) Serves as a selectable marker in pBR322

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Edition: 2020-21