[1]

SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A (1) Center of mass will fall vertically down
1. A shell following a parabolic path explodes (2) Center of mass will follow a circular path
somewhere in its flight. The centre of mass of (3) Centre of mass will follow any curved path
fragments will move in (4) All of these
(1) Tangential direction
5. An object moves at constant speed along a circular
(2) Radial direction
path in a horizontal xy plane, with the center as
(3) Horizontal direction
origin. When the object is at x = –2 m, its velocity
(4) Same parabolic path
is −4 ˆj m/s. Its acceleration when it is at y = 2 m is
2. When a body fall in air, the resistance of air
depends on a greater extent on the shape of the
body. Three different shapes are given

(1) −8iˆ m/s2

(2) −2 ˆj m/s2
(3) −8 ˆj m/s2
(4) 2iˆ m/s2
Identify the combination of air resistances, which
truly represents the physical situation (The cross- 6. A measured value 0.00274 expressed in two
sectional areas are the same). significant digits is
(1) 1 < 2 < 3 (1) 0.0
(2) 2 < 3 < 1 (2) 0.0028
(3) 0.0027
(3) 3 < 2 < 1
(4) 2.8 × 10–3
(4) 3 < 1 < 2
7. A body starts from rest with an acceleration 2 m/s2
3. Two wires are made of the same material and have till it attains the maximum velocity then retards to
the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional rest with 3 m/s2. If total taken is 10 second, then
area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area maximum speed attained is
3 A. If the length of the first wire is increased by l (1) 12 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
on applying a force F, how much force is needed to (3) 6 m/s
stretch the second wire by the same amount? (4) 4 m/s
(1) 9 F
(2) F 8. An ant is walking on the horizontal surface. The
(3) 4 F number of degrees of freedom of any will be
(4) 6 F (1) 1
(2) 2
4. When a stick of length L mass M initially upright (3) 3
on a frictionless floor, starts falling the (4) 6
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[2]
9. If the amount of heat given to a system is 35 J and (1) 50 N
the amount of work done by the system is –15 J, (2) 20 N
then the change in the internal energy of the system (3) 30 N
is (4) Zero
(1) –50 J
(2) 20 J 13. The tension in piano wire is 10 N. What should be
(3) 30 J the tension in the wire to produce a note of double
(4) 50 J the frequency?
(1) 5 N
10. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. (2) 20 N
It maximum acceleration is  and maximum (3) 40 N
velocity is . Then, its time period of vibration will (4) 80 N
be
2 14. If the rms velocity of a gas is v, then
(1) (1) v2T = constant

(2) v2/T = constant
2 (3) vT2 = constant
(2)
2 (4) v is independent of T

(3) 15. The displacement of an SHM doing oscillation

when K.E. = P.E. (amplitude = 4 cm) is
2 (1) 2 2 cm
(4)
 (2) 2 cm
1
(3) cm
11. In an adiabatic process, the state of a gas is changed 2
from P1, V1, T1 to P2, V2, T2. Which of the following (4) 2 cm
relations is correct?
(1) T1V1−1 = T2V2−1 1
−1
16. Evaluate  x 2 dx =
(2) PV
1 1 = P2V2−1
(1) x–2 + C
(3) T1P1 = T2 P2 (2) –x–1 + C
(3) x2 + C
(4) T1V1 = T2V2
(4) –x2 + C

12. In the arrangement shown, what is the normal 17. The velocity of freely falling body changes as gxhy.
reaction between the block A (mass = 5 kg) and where g is acceleration due to gravity and h is
ground height. The values of x and y are
1 1
(1) ,
2 2
1
(2) ,1
2
1
(3) 1,
2
(4) 1, 1
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[3]
18. The length, breadth and height of a glass slab are 22. A Block of mass m moving with speed v0 strikes
respectively 50 cm, 20 cm and 25 cm. Find the another particle of mass 2 m at rest. If collision is
order of magnitude of volume of slab in SI unit. head-on and the coefficient of restitution e = 1/2,
(1) 10–2m3 then the loss in kinetic energy will be
(2) 10–4m3 1 2
(1) mv0
2
(3) 10–5m3
1 2
(4) 10–3m3 (2) mv0
4
1 2
19. A particle starts with an u = 2.5 m/s along the (3) mv0
3
positive x direction and accelerates with 0.50 ms–2.
3 2
Time taken to reach the velocity 7.5 m/s will be (4) mv0
4
(1) 5 sec
(2) 2 sec 23. The moment of inertia of a uniform semicircular
(3) 10 sec disc of mass M and radius r about a line
(4) 15 sec perpendicular to the plane of the disc through the
centre is
20. A rod of length L is hinged from one end. It is (1) Mr2
brought to a horizontal position and released. The 1 2
(2) Mr
angular velocity of the rod, when it is in vertical 2
position is 1 2
(3) Mr
2g 4
(1)
L 2 2
(4) Mr
5
3g
(2)
L 24. A liquid will not wet the surface of a solid if the
g angle of contact is
(3)
2L (1) 0°
(2) 45°
g
(4) (3) 60°
L
(4) > 90°

21. A constant torque of 1000 N m turns a wheel of 25. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
moment of inertia 200 kg-m2 about an axis symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
through its centre. Its angular velocity after 3 s is sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which
(in rad/s) of the following physical quantities would remain
(1) 1 constant for the sphere?
(2) 5 (1) Angular velocity
(3) 15 (2) Moment of inertia
(3) Rotational kinetic energy
(4) 10
(4) Angular momentum

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[4]
26. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into wire of T
(1)
length l. When this wire is subjected to a constant 2
force F, the extension produced in the wire is l. T
Which of the following graphs is a straight line? (2) 3
2
(1) l versus 1/l T
(2) l versus l2 (3) 3
4
(3) l versus 1/l2 T
(4)
(4) l versus l 4

27. If pressure amplitude in a sound wave is increased 7

three times, then the percentage increase in the 31. 1 mole of a gas having  = is mixed with
5
intensity of wave will be 4
(1) 900% 1 mole of a gas having  = . What will be the 
3
(2) 800% of the mixture?
(3) 600% 5
(4) 500% (1)
11
15
28. If the total number of H2 molecules is double that (2)
13
of the O2 molecules, then the ratio of total kinetic
15
energies of H2 of that of O2 at 300 K is (3)
11
(1) 1 : 1
5
(2) 1 : 2 (4)
13
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 16
32. Velocity of sound in air is 332 m/s. Its velocity in
vacuum will be
29. Two waves are represented by y1 = a sin ( t − kx ) (1) More than 332 m/s
and y2 = a cos ( t − kx ). The resultant wave will (2) Equal to 332 m/s
have an amplitude (3) Less than 332 m/s
(1) a (4) Meaningless
(2) 2a
33. A Carnot engine takes heat from a reservoir at
(3) 2a 627°C and rejects heat to a sink at 27°C. Its
(4) Zero efficiency is
(1) 3/5
g (2) 1/3
30. A lift is ascending with acceleration . What will
3 (3) 2/3
be the time period of a simple pendulum (4) 200/209
suspended from its ceiling if its time period in
stationary lift is T?
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[5]
34. Gravitational potential difference between a point 37. Assertion: If pressure of an ideal gas is doubled
on surface of planet and another point 10 m above and volume is halved, then its internal energy will
is 4 J/kg. Considering gravitational field to be remain unchanged.
uniform, how much work is done in moving a mass Reason: Internal energy of an ideal gas is a
of 2 kg from the surface to a point 5 m above the function of only temperature.
surface? (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(1) 4 J the Reason is the correct explanation of the
(2) 5 J
Assertion.
(3) 6 J
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(4) 7 J
the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
35. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet of Assertion.
mass m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
twice the shaded area SAB. If t1 be the time for the (4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true
planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to
move from A to B, then:
38. Assertion: Two persons on the surface of moon
cannot talk to each other.
Reason: There is no atmosphere on moon.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 = 8t2 (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(3) t1 = 4t2 the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(4) t1 = 2t2 Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
SECTION - B (4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true
Fl
36. Assertion: From the relation Y = , we can say
AΔl 39. Assertion: Positive potential energy means that a
that, if length of a wire is doubled, its Young's positive work will be done on the body by the
modulus of elasticity will also becomes two times. conservative force while returning to its reference
Reason: Modulus of elasticity is a material property. position.
Reason: The absolute value of potential energy
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and depends on reference.
the Reason is the correct explanation of the (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is not a correct explanation of the the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Assertion. (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true
(4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true
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[6]
40. Assertion: In a thermodynamics process, if initial 43. Which of the following is not conserved in an
volume is equal to the final volume, work done by inelastic collision?
an ideal gas is zero. (1) Kinetic energy
Reason: Work done by a gas is dW = PdV, when V
(2) Momentum
remains same, dV = 0  dW = 0 (3) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (4) Both momentum and kinetic energy
the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion. 44. If 250 J of work is done in sliding a 5 kg block up
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and an inclined plane of height 4 m. Work done against
friction is (g = 10 m/s2)
the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) 50 J
Assertion.
(2) 100 J
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (3) Zero
(4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true (4) 200 J

45. Four massless spring whose force constants are 2k,

41. A block is placed on a smooth inclined plane as
shown. For what value of horizontal force F, the 2k, k and 2k respectively are attached to a mass M
block will remain at rest? kept on a frictionless plane as shown in the figure.
If

the mass M is displaced in the horizontal direction,

then the frequency of the system is
(1) mg tan 
1 k
(2) mg sin  (1)
(3) mg cos  2 4 M
(4) mg cot  1 4k
(2)
2 M
42. A U-238 nucleus originally at rest, decays by
emitting an -particle, say with a velocity of v m/s. 1 k
(3)
The recoil velocity (in m/s) of the residual nucleus 2 7 M
is 1 7k
4v (4)
(1) 2 M
234
4v 46. For a body to escape from earth, angle from
(2)
238 horizontal at which it should be fired is
(3) v/4 (1) 45º
4v (2) 0º
(4) −
234 (3) 90º
(4) Any angle

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[7]
47. A car for mass m is driven with an acceleration a 1
(1) MR 2
along a straight level road against a constant 2
external resistive force R. When the velocity of (2) MR2
the car is v, the rate at which engine of the car is 3
doing work, will be (3) MR 2
2
(1) Rv (4) 2MR2
(2) mav
(3) (R + ma) v 50. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to move
(4) (ma – R)v along the x-axis is given by:
 x4 x2 
48. An object moves in a circular path with a constant V ( x) =  −  J
 4 2 
speed in the xy plane with the centre at the origin. 
When the object is at x = –2 m, its velocity is The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2 J.
− ( 4 m / s ) ˆj . Then object velocity at y = 2 m is Then, the maximum speed (in m/s) is:
1
(1) 4 m/s iˆ (1)
2
(2) ( −4 m/s ) iˆ
(2) 2
(3) ( −4 m/s ) ˆj 3
(3)
(4) 4 m/s ˆj 2
(4) 2
49. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls on a
flat surface. Its moment of inertia about the line of
contact is

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A (2) By reducing temperature
51. A+ B ⇌ C + D. If initially the concentration of A and (3) By removing some hydrogen
B are both equal but at equilibrium, concentration (4) By adding some C2H6
of D will be twice of that of A then what will be
−4
the equilibrium constant of reaction? 53. Ka for hydrofluoric acid is 6.9  10 . What is the
(1) 4/9 equilibrium constant K for the following
(2) 9/4
reaction?
(3) 1/9
(4) 4 F− (aq.) + H2O(l) HF(aq.) + OH− (aq.)
−11
(1) 6.92  10
52. Following gaseous reaction is undergoing in a
−11
vessel, C2H4 + H2 ⇌ C2H6; H = – 32.7 Kcal (2) 1.45  10
Which will increase the equilibrium concentration −9
(3) 2.64  10
of C2H6:
−6
(1) Increase of temperature (4) 3.33  10

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[8]
54. Zirconium phosphate [Zr3(PO4)4] dissociates into
three zirconium cations of charge +4 and four
phosphate anions of charge –3. If molar solubility (2)
of zirconium phosphate is denoted by S and its
solubility product by Ksp then which of the
following relationship between S and Ksp is (3)
correct?
(1) S = {Ksp/(6912)1/7}
(2) S = (Ksp/6912)1/7
(3) S = {Ksp/1441/7} (4)
(4) S = {Ksp/(6912)7}

55. Which compound undergoes hydrolysis by the 57. Among the following which is most stabilized
SN1 mechanism at the fastest rate? cation?

..
NH2

(1) (1)

..
NH2

(2)

(2)

..
NH2

(3) 
(3)
..
NH2

(4)

(4)

56. Major product of the reaction given below is 58.

CH3MgBr/H+ cold alk.KMnO4 CrO3 H+/

alc. KOH (1) (2) (3) (4)
For the above conversion the correct order of
reagents used is:
(1) (1) 1→ 2 → 3 → 4
(2) 1→ 4 → 3 → 2
(3) l → 4 → 2 → 3
(4) 2 → 3 → 4 → 1

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59. A compound A (C5H12O4) upon treatment with CHO
CH3MgX gives 4 mole of methane. Identify the
structure of (A) if it has all primary functional (4)
groups:
C2H5

(1)

61.


(2) Na CC −CH3
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ X ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
H2 ,Pd-BaSO4
H /H 2O
Isoquinoline
→Y
Identify structure of Y:

(1)
(3)

(2)
(4)

(3)

60. The aromatic compound ‘X’ with molecular

formula C9H10O on vigorous oxidation gives
1, 2- benzenediacarboxylic acid. (4)
The compound X is

(1) 62.

Product (B) is:

(2)
(1) CH  CH
(2) H2C = CH2

(3)
(3)

(4)

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63. What is the acid derivative that is hydrolyzed?

(2)

(3)
(1)

(2) (4)

66. Decreasing order of acidity of following benzoic

(3) acid derivatives is

(4)

CH3
64. On reductive ozonolysis yields (P) (Q) (R) (S)
(1) P > R > Q > S
(1) 6-oxoheptanal
(2) S > R > Q > P
(2) 6-oxoheptanoic acid
(3) P > S > Q > R
(3) 6-hydroxyheptanal
(4) Q > S > P > R
(4) 3-hydroxypentanal

67. The correct IUPAC name of

65. Consider the highlighted protons. Which
compound is predicted to have the lowest pKa? is

(1) 7-bromo-2Z, 5E-heptadiene

(1) (2) 1-bromo-2Z, 5E-heptadiene
(3) 1-bromo-2Z, 5Z-heptadiene
(4) 1-bromo-2E, 5Z-heptadiene

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[11]
68. Which of the following compounds possesses a 71. The correct structure of 2-Ethyl-3-methylhexa-1,
chiral centre: 4-diene
H OH
CH3 (1)
(2)
(1)

O
(3)
H OH

(4)
(2)
72. If the numbers of orbitals of a particular type were
O (3l + 1), but spin quantum numbers were only +1/2
H Br and –1/2, then d-type orbitals will contain a
maximum of _____ electrons
(3) (1) 10
(2) 14
Cl Br (3) 7
(4) 5
(4)
73. The number of possible spectral lines in Brackett
series in hydrogen spectrum, when the electrons
69. How many geometrical isomers are possible for present in the ninth excited state return to the
the given compound? ground state, is
CH2 = CH – CH = CH – CH = CH2 (1) 36
(1) 2 (2) 45
(2) 3 (3) 5
(3) 4 (4) 6
(4) 8 74. Which of the following pairs of elements have
almost similar atomic radii?
70. The IUPAC name of the following compound is (1) Zr, Hf
(2) Mo, W
(3) Co, Ni
(4) All of these

75. Which of the following represents the correct order

of increasing first ionization enthalpy for Ca, Ba,
(1) 4-Bromo-3-cyanophenol S, Se and Ar?
(2) 2-Bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile (1) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar
(3) 2-Cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene (2) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar
(4) 6-Bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile (3) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar
(4) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar
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[12]
76. The shape of XeF4, XeF5− and SnCl2 are: (1) 29.11 × 1023

(1) octahedral, trigonal bipyramidal and bent (2) 30.11 × 1023

(2) square pyramidal, pentagonal planar and (3) 3.011 × 1023
linear (4) 2.911 × 1023
(3) square planar, pentagonal planar and angular
(4) see-saw, T-shaped and linear
81. An organic compound containing C, H and N gave
the following analysis C = 40%, H = 13.33%,
77. Which one of the following has the highest dipole N = 46.67%. Its empirical formula would be
moment?
(1) CH4N
(1) CH3F
(2) CH5N
(2) CH3Cl
(3) C2H7N2
(3) CH3l
(4) CH3Br (4) C2H7N

78. x g of KHC2O4 requires 100 ml of 0.02 M-KMnO4 a

82. The ratio   (a and b being the van der Waal’s
in acidic medium. In another experiment, y g of b
KHC2O4 requires 100 ml of 0.05 M-Ca(OH)2. The constants of real gases) has the units of
ratio of x and y is (1) atm mol–1
(1) 1 : 1
(2) L mol–1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) atm L mol–1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) atm L mol–2
(4) 5 : 4

79. If the weight of metal oxide is x g containing y g 83. ( )

The van der Waal’s equation for 1 2 mole of a
of oxygen, the equivalent weight of metal will be
gas
(1) E = 8 x  a 
y (1)  P + 2  (V − b ) = RT
 V 
(2) E = 8( y − x)
 a  b  RT
x (2)  P + 2   V −  =
 4V   2 2
y
(3) E =
8  a  V − b 
(3)  P + 2    = RT
8( x − y )  4V   2 
(4) E =
y  a  V − b 
(4)  P + 2    = 2 RT
 4V   2 
80. If 1023 molecules are removed from 220 g of CO2,
then the number of molecules of CO2 left are

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84. A heat engine caries one mole of an ideal CH3
monoatomic gas around the cycle as shown in the |
(1) CH3CCH 2CH 2CH 2Cl
figure. Select the correct option: |
OH

(2) CH3CCH 2CH 2CH 2CH3

||
O

(3)

(1) qAB = 450 R and qCA = –450 R

(4)
(2) qAB = 450 R and qCA = –225 R
(3) qAB = 450 R and qCA = –375 R
(4) qAB = 375 R and qCA = –450 R
88. Find the product of the following reaction:

85. When two mole of an ideal gas is heated from

300 K to 600 K at constant pressure. The −
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
NH 2 -NH 2 /OH (alcoholic)
Δ
→
magnitude of work done is
(1) −600R
(2) 600R
(3) 300R
(4) −300R (1)

SECTION - B
86. HX is a weak acid (Ka = 10–5). It forms a salt NaX
(0.1 M) on reacting with caustic soda. The degree of (2)
hydrolysis of NaX is
(1) 0.01%
(2) 0.0001%
(3) 0.1% (3)
(4) 0.5%

CH MgBr (4) None of these

87. CH3CCH 2CH 2CH 2Cl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3

→ A, A is
||
O

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[14]
89. What is the product of the following reaction? (1) 2R, 3R
(2) 2S, 3R
(3) 2R, 3S
(4) 2S, 3S

92. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is

OH

(1)

O
(1) 3-(1-Methylethenyl)-4-hydroxypentan-2-one
(2) 3-(1-Hydroxyethyl)-4-methylpent-4-en-
(2)
2-one
(3) 3-(1-Hydroxymethyl)-4-methylenepentan-
2-one
(4) 3-(1-Oxoethyl)-4-methylpent-4-en-2-ol
(3)

93. Degree of unsaturation in C20H21NO2 is:

(1) 8
(4) (2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 11
90. Identify correct reactivity order for ArSN reaction
F Cl Br
94. The force of attraction on electron by the nucleus
is directly proportional to
(i) (ii) (iii)
n3
NO 2 NO 2
(1)
NO 2 Z4
(1) i > ii > iii Z3
(2)
(2) ii > iii > i n4
(3) i > iii > ii n4
(3)
(4) iii > i > ii Z2
Z2
(4)
91. In the structure n4
CH 3
95. An element with atomic number 117 is known
H OH as
H Br (1) Nihonium
(2) Flerovium
CH 3 (3) Tennessine
the configurations at the chiral centres are - (4) Roentgenium

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[15]
96. If the bond length and dipole moment of a (2) 1
diatomic molecule are 1.25 Å and 1.0 D (3) 1/3
respectively, what is the per cent ionic character (4) 2/3
of the bond?
(1) 10.66 99. What is final p when stopcock is opened b/w two
(2) 12.33 vessels which are maintained at their temperatures
(3) 16.66 T1 & T2, having pressure P1 & P2, volume V1 &
(4) 19.33 V2 respectively
P V T + P2 V2T1
97. For the standardization of Ba(OH) 2 solution, (1) 1 1 2
V1T2 + V2T1
0.204 g of potassium acid phthalate was weighed
(2) P1V1T2 + P2 V2T1
which was then titrate with Ba(OH)2 solution. The
titration indicated equivalence at 25.0 ml of P1V1T2 + P2 V2T1
(3)
Ba(OH)2 solution. the reaction involved is P1 + P2
KHC8H4O4 + Ba(OH)2 → P1V1T2 + P2 V2T1
(4)
P1V1 + P2 V2
H2O + K + + Ba 2+ + C8H4O42−
The molarity of the base solution is
100. One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change of
(molar mass of KHC8H4O4 = 204)
state from (1.0 atm, 3.0 L, 200 K) to (4.0 atm,
(1) 0.04 M
5.0 L, 250 K) with a change in internal energy
(2) 0.03 M
(U) = 40 L-atm. The change in enthalpy of the
(3) 0.02 M
process in L-atm
(4) 0.01 M
(1) 43
98. According to following reaction: (2) 57
A + BO3 → A3O4 + B2O3 (3) 42
The number of moles of A3O4 produced if 1 mole (4) None of these
of A is mixed with 1 mole of BO3
(1) 3

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A (3) IV→I→II→V→III
(4) IV→I→III→V→II
101. Arrange the following taxonomic categories in
increasing number of common characteristics. 102. Some protists like as "P" proliferate in large
I. Dicotyledonae number and cause "Q".
II. Sapindales (1) P – Gonyaulax, Q – Red sea
III. Mangifera (2) P – Trichoderma, Q – Red tide
IV. Angiospermae (3) P – Dinoflagellates, Q – Red tide
V. Anacardiaceae (4) P – Gymnodinium, Q – Red sea
(1) IV→I→II→III→V
(2) III→V→I→IV→II
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103. Lichens are: 108. Study of number of chromosomes for resolving
P. Mutually beneficial associations. difficulties in classification is used in
Q. Symbiotic associations in which algae provide (1) Chemotaxonomy
food and shelter for its fungal partner. (2) Morphotaxonomy
R. Mutual associations between green algae and (3) Cytotaxonomy
fungi.
(4) Classical taxonomy
S. Symbiotic associations in which heterotrophic
component absorbs mineral nutrients and water
for the autotrophic component. 109. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words and mark
Which of the above statements is/are not correct? the correct option.
(1) P & Q I. The plant body of bryophytes is more
(2) R & S differentiated than 'P'.
(3) Q only II. Plant body is 'Q' in Liverworts.
(4) P & S III. The male sex-organ of bryophytes is 'R'.
(1) P – Algae, Q – Thalloid, R – Antheridium
104. Which of the following statements about (2) P – Pteridophyte, Q – Leafy, R – Oogonium
Mycoplasma is correct?
(3) P – Algae, Q – Leafy, R – Archegonium
(1) They are smallest, disease causing thin walled
(4) P – Pteridophyte Q – Dorsiventral,
organisms
(2) They differ from viruses in being cellular in R – Archegonium
organisation
(3) They are pathogenic in plants only 110. The first terrestrial plants which possess vascular
(4) They can not survive without oxygen tissues, show
(1) External fertilization of gametes
105. Among Azotobacter, Rhizobium, Euglena, (2) Presence of true root, stem and leaves
Gymnodinium, Trypanosoma and Anabaena. (3) Presence of parasitic sporophyte
How many organisms is/are autotroph(s) as well as (4) Abundance in dry, hot and shady places only
fix(es) atmospheric nitrogen?
(1) Two 111. Among Wolfia, Fucus, Sequoia, Pinus,
(2) Three Polytrichum, Chara and Eucalyptus.
(3) One How many spermatophytes exhibit diplontic life
(4) Four cycle?
(1) Seven
106. Ascospores and basidiospores both are:
(2) Four
(1) Exogenous meiospores
(2) Endogenous sexual spores (3) Six
(3) Haploid asexual spores (4) Five
(4) Sexual spores
112. In which of the following plants, primary root is
107. Which of the following are colonial and filamentous short lived and new roots originate from the base of
green algae respectively? the stem?
(1) Ulothrix and Volvox (1) Rice
(2) Chlamydomonas and Chara (2) Banyan tree
(3) Volvox and Polysiphonia (3) Mango
(4) Volvox and Spirogyra (4) Rhizophora

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113. In how many of the given plants, single leaf is 117. Choose the correct location of sclereids in the
present at each node in alternate fashion? sapota, tea, pea, almond respectively.
Calotropis, Mustard, China rose, Alstonia, Guava, (1) Pulp, endosperm, fruit wall, seed coat
Sunflower, Nerium (2) Pericarp, leaves, pulp, fruit wall
(1) Three (3) Pulp, leaves, seed coat, fruit wall
(2) Five (4) Seed coat, leaves, pulp, pericarp
(3) Four
(4) Six 118. Which of the following functions are performed by
heartwood?
114. The aestivation in petals of china rose and P. Mechanical support
Calotropis plants can be shown respectively by Q. To provide durability
R. Conduction of water
S. Pathogen resistance
I. II.
(1) P, R & S only
(2) P,Q,R & S
(3) P, Q & R only
(4) P, Q & S only
III. IV
119. Which of the following components of Gram
negative bacteria is structurally similar to plants?
(1) I & IV (1) Cell wall
(2) II & III (2) Nucleus
(3) II & IV (3) Plastids
(4) IV & II (4) Plasma membrane

115. The floral formula of plant, which is the source of 120. ER → P → Lysosome.
mitotic poison colchicine, is In the above given schematic representation of
endomembrane system, choose the correct function
(1) associated with organelle labelled as 'P'.
(1) Post transcription RNA processing.
(2)
(2) Formation of basal bodies.
(3) (3) Post translation protein modification.
(4) Detoxification of drugs.
(4)
121. Gas vacuole is present in
P. Blue green algae
116. Companion cells are: Q. Purple photosynthetic bacteria
(1) Thin, parenchymatous, enucleated cells R. Green photosynthetic bacteria
(2) Thick, sclerenchymatous, nucleated cells (1) P only
(3) Thin, parenchymatous, nucleated cells (2) Q only
(4) Thick, collenchymatous, enucleated cells (3) R only
(4) All P, Q and R

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122. One very short arm and one very long arm is found (1) Responsible for guttation.
in chromosome. (2) Possible when sunlight high.
(1) Submetacentric (3) Developed under high transpiration.
(2) Metacentric (4) Responsible for increased water absorption but
(3) Acrocentric decreased mineral absorption .
(4) Telocentric
128. For bulk transport of organic solutes, hydrostatic
123. In which of the following phases of the cell cycle, pressure should ___in
activity of recombinase enzyme is seen? (1) Increase, sieve tube
(1) Leptotene (2) Decrease, mesophyll cell
(2) Zygotene (3) Decrease, xylem
(3) Pachytene
(4) Increase, companion cell and mesophyll cell
(4) Diplotene
129. Which of the following equation is correct for a
124. Assertion: In monocotyledonous stem, the vascular
solution at atmospheric pressure?
bundles are conjoint and opens.
(1) ψw = ψs
Reason: The monocot stem has no hypodermis but
phloem parenchyma is present. (2) ψs = ψp
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the (3) ψw = 0
reason is the correct explanation of the (4) ψw = ψs – ψp
assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the 130. Transport protein as control points to determine the
reason is not the correct explanation of the type and quantity of solutes in xylem, is present
assertion. on/in
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false. (1) Root hair cell membrane
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (2) Cortical cell membrane
statements. (3) Endodermal cell membrane
(4) Epidermal cell membrane
125. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reappear during
(1) Anaphase 131. Match the columns and select the correct option.
(2) Metaphase Column I Column II
(3) Prophase P. Silicon (i) Required for uptake
(4) Telophase of Ca2+
Q. Molybdenum (ii) Beneficial element
126. How many bivalents are formed in meiocyte of R. Iron (iii) Required for nitrogen
human female? metabolism
(1) 2 S. Boron (iv) Activates catalase
(2) 23 enzyme
(3) 46 (1) P (ii), Q (iii), R (iv), S (i)
(4) 21
(2) P (i), Q (ii), R (iii), S (iv)
(3) P (ii), Q (iv), R (iii), S (i)
127. Increased positive pressure inside xylem of
(4) P (iv), Q (i), R (ii), S (iii)
herbaceous plant is
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132. Nitrate present in the soil is reduced to nitrogen by: 138. The total number of ATP produced from ETS only
(1) Denitrification, carried by Pseudomonas from one molecule of pyruvic acid in aerobic
(2) Ammonification, carried by plants respiration is
(3) Nitrification, carried by Nitrococcus (1) 9
(4) Reductive amination, carried by plants (2) 14
(3) 11
133. Light is rarely a limiting factor affecting (4) 17
photosynthesis. The light saturation for most of
139. Find the odd one w.r.t. fermentation in yeast cell.
plants occurs at ________ of the full sunlight.
(1) Ethanol
(1) 20%
(2) Phosphoglyceric acid
(2) 30%
(3) Oxaloacetic acid form
(3) 10% (4) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(4) 40%
140. Find the incorrectly matched pair w.r.t. RQ.
134. High temperature of tropical regions is optimum for (1) Glucose  1
(1) C3, C4 and CAM plants (2) Protein  more than 1
(2) C4 plants only (3) Tripalmitin  0.7
(3) Both C3 and C4 plants (4) Anaerobic respiration  infinite
(4) C3 plants only
141. Cytokinin is antagonistic to ABA in which of the
135. Which one of the given events is similar to both following physiological effects?
cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation? (1) Delaying senescence
(1) Oxidation of Chlorophyll–a and uphill flow of (2) Bolting in rosette plants
electrons in ETS (3) Breaking of dormancy
(2) NADP reductase activity (4) Apical dominance
(3) Photolysis of H2O
(4) Synthesis of ATP 142. Developmental heterophylly is shown by
(1) Wheat and maize
(2) Rice and buttercup
(3) Cotton and larkspur
SECTION - B
(4) Capsicum and coriander
136. During C4-cycle, the decarboxylation takes place in
(1) Vascular bundles 143. Read the following statements w.r.t. vernalization
(2) Cytosol of mesophyll cells and select the correct option.
(3) Chloroplast of mesophyll cells P. Promotes precocious reproductive
(4) Bundle sheath cells development late in growing season.
Q. Inhibits seed germination.
137. During respiration, three carbon (3C) acid is formed R. Prevents precocious reproductive development
in early in growing season.
(1) Mitochondrial matrix S. Promotes flowering in biennial plants.
(2) Cytoplasm (1) Only S is incorrect
(3) Inter membrane space of mitochondria (2) P, Q & R are correct
(4) Inner membrane of mitochondria (3) Only P & S are correct
(4) P, R & S are correct

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144. Select the incorrect matched pair regarding 148. The semi-autonomous cell organelles such as
taxonomic categories of housefly. mitochondrion and chloroplast contain
(1) Genus : Musca (1) ds linear DNA and 70S ribosomes
(2) Family : Muscidae (2) ds circular DNA and 70S ribosomes
(3) Order : Insecta (3) ds linear DNA and 80S ribosomes
(4) Phylum : Arthropoda (4) ds circular DNA and 80S ribosomes

145. Select correct match w.r.t. plant growth regulators. 149. Assertion:The petioles in Australian acacia expand,
Column I Column II become green and synthesise food.
a. Mobilisation of nutrients (i) Auxin Reason: Venus-fly trap has modified leaves.
b. Eradication of weeds (ii) Cytokinin (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
c. Closing of stomata (iii) GA3 reason is the correct explanation of the
d. Stimulate synthesis of (iv) ABA assertion.
hydrolytic enzymes (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
during seed germination reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) a (ii), b (i), c (iv), d (iii) assertion.
(2) a (ii), b (i), c (iii), d (iv) (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(3) a (i), b (ii), c (iv), d (iii) (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) a (iv), b (i), c (iii), d (ii) statements.

146. A student observed a section of root nodules of a 150. During cell cycle, the interval between mitosis and
leguminous plant in which pink coloured cells were initiation of DNA replication
seen. This was due to P. Is metabolically active
(1) Haemoglobin Q. Involves cell growth
(2) Leghaemoglobin R. Involves centriole duplication
(3) Myoglobin S. Involves chromosome replication
(4) Tubulin Choose the correct option.
(1) P & Q
147. Mark the odd one w.r.t. modification of root. (2) P & R
(1) Sweet potato (3) Q & S
(2) Radish (4) R & S
(3) Onion
(4) Turnip

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 SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A (1) One
151. Consider the given statements and choose the (2) Two
option with incorrect statement (3) Three
(1) In humans, lungs are enclosed in a double layered (4) Four
peritoneum formed by connective tissue with a
155. Choose the correct option
fluid between them that reduces friction
(2) Alveoli are the main sites where actual Dorsally
Vertebrosternal
diffusion of gases O2 and CO2 takes place (1) – attached to the
ribs
between blood and atmospheric air sternum
(3) During expiration, diaphragm relaxes and Also known as
arches upwards (2) Vertebral ribs –
floating ribs
(4) Value of tidal volume is the lowest among all Present on the
types of respiratory volumes (3) Sternum – dorsal midline
152. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. the animal, its of the thorax
characteristic and the phylum to which it belongs Formed of three
Animal Characteristics Phylum bones namely
(1) Loligo Digestion is Mollusca
(4) Pectoral girdle –
ilium, pubis and
extracellular
ischium
(2) Adamsia Gastro-vascular Ctenophora
cavity is present
(3) Locusta Chitinous Arthropoda 156. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. specialised
exoskeleton connective tissue
(4) Balanoglossus External Hemichordate
fertilisation
(1) Matrix occurs in the form of concentric layer
(lamellae) in both cartilage and bone
(2) Matrix of cartilage is solid and pliable
153. Identify the protein produced by liver in inactive
form whose activated form stimulates adrenal whereas matrix of bone is hard and non-
cortex to release mineralocorticoid that increases pliable
the reabsorption of the Na+ ions from the filtrate (3) Bone marrow of all bones functions as
(1) ACE erythropoietic organ during old age
(2) ANF (4) Limb bones do not serve weight-bearing
(3) Angiotensinogen functions
(4) Renin
157. Which of the following structures have saddle
154. Consider the following characteristics joint?
I. Flagellated choanocytes (1) Between humerus and pectoral girdle
II. Reproduction only by sexual means (2) Between atlas and axis
III. Presence of hooks and suckers (3) Between tarsals
IV. Presence of spongocoel (4) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
How many of the given characteristics is/are
associated with the phylum porifera?

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158. Match the column-I with column-II and choose 162. Identify the below given diagrammatic
the correct answer representation of an organic compound and
Column I Column II choose the correct statement about it
P. Smooth i. Present beneath the skin
muscles
Q. Neurons ii. Excitable cells of neural
system
R. Skeletal iii. Closely attached to
muscles bones (1) It is a nucleoside-adenosine
S. Areolar iv. Present in the wall of (2) It is present in ATP
tissue blood vessels (3) It is a constituent of nucleotide, uridylic acid
P Q R S (4) It is a nitrogenous base-adenine
(1) iv ii iii i
(2) iv iii ii i 163. Select the incorrect pair among the following
(3) iv ii i iii
w.r.t. given structures and characteristics
(4) i ii iii iv
Structural
159. Read the given statements and choose the correct component
option of cell
I. Primary metabolites have identifiable (1) membrane
functions and play known roles in normal of plants
physiological processes
II. Pigments are primary metabolites
III. Morphine is a secondary metabolite
(1) I and II are correct while III is incorrect Fatty acids
(2) I and III are correct while II is incorrect are
(3) II and III are correct while I is incorrect esterified
(2)
(4) I, II and III are correct with it to
form
160. Read the following statements and choose the glycerides
correct answer
Statement I: In male cockroach, the genital pouch It’s
lies at the hind end of abdomen bounded dorsally by structure
9th and 10th terga and ventrally by the 9th sternum changes in
Statement II: The head of cockroach is connected (3)
solution of
with thorax by a short extension of the prothorax
known as the neck different
(1) Both statements are correct pH
(2) Both statements are incorrect
It is a
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct nucleoside
(4) present in
161. Select an enzyme among the following that is not RNA and
proteinaceous in nature DNA
(1) Nitrogenase
(2) Pectinase
(3) Trypsin
(4) Ribozyme

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164. Which of the following is true w.r.t. inhibition of Dorsal anus, Collaterial glands, Ventral male
succinic dehydrogenase by malonate? genital pore, Gonapophysis, Spermathecal
(1) The rate of reaction decreases if more amount pores
of substrate is added
(2) Malonate closely resembles the succinate in (1) Three
structure (2) Four
(3) Km value decreases (3) Two
(4) Vmax decreases (4) Five

165. The mucus present in the gastric juice protects the 170. Choose the incorrect depiction w.r.t the flow of
mucosal epithelium from the excoriating action of blood in fishes
HCl. The mucosal lining is a ___ barrier of innate (1)
immunity
Select the correct option to fill in the blank (2)
(1) Physical
(2) Physiological (3)
(3) Cytokine
(4) Cellular
(4)
166. Total number of thecodont teeth in the lower jaw
of an adult human is __________ 171. Match column I with column II and choose the
(1) 32 correct option
(2) 20 Column I Column II
(3) 16
(4) 12 P. Diarrhoea i. Protein-energy
malnutrition
167. Choose the incorrect option about the secretions Q. Constipation ii. Abnormal
of endocrine glands frequency of
(1) Non-nutrient chemicals bowel movement
(2) Produced in minute amounts and increased
(3) Carried by the blood liquidity of
(4) Does not show target-specificity faecal discharge
168. An enzyme ___X___ which converts dipeptides R. Indigestion iii. Faeces are
into amino acids is present in ___Y___ retained
Choose the option which correctly represents X within the colon
and Y S. Kwashiorkor iv. Caused due to
X Y inadequate
(1) Pepsin Intestinal juice enzyme
(2) Trypsin Gastric juice
(3) Chymotrypsin Succus entericus secretion
(4) Dipeptidase Intestinal juice P Q R S
(1) i iii ii iv
169. How many of the following parts given in the box
(2) ii iii i iv
below are associated with genital chamber of male
(3) iii ii iv i
cockroach?
(4) ii iii iv i

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172. Time interval from beginning of joint diastole to 178. Choose the correct match w.r.t structure of human
end of atrial systole is________ ear
(1) 0.4 seconds (1) Round window - Scala tympani
(2) 0.5 seconds (2) Basilar membrane - Otolith organ
(3) 0.3 seconds (3) Tectorial membrane - Saccule
(4) 0.8 seconds (4) Incus - Organ of corti

179. Nucleases acts on

173. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate (1) Nucleic acids in basic medium
digesting enzyme? (2) Nucleotides in basic medium
(1) Ptyalin (3) Nucleosides in basic medium
(2) Lipase (4) Both nucleic acids and nucleotides
(3) Maltase
(4) Amylase 180. Photopigment present in rods is
(1) Rhodopsin
174. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (2) Iodopsin
(3) Erythropsin
(1) PCT and DCT of the nephrons are situated in
(4) Chloropsin
the cortical region of the kidney
(2) In most of the nephrons, vasa recta run 181. S-wave of normal human ECG originates due to
parallel to the Henle’s loop (1) Ventricular depolarisation
(3) Columns of Bertini divide the medulla into (2) Ventricular repolarisation
many medullary pyramids (3) Atrial depolarisation
(4) Bowman’s capsule encloses the glomerulus (4) Atrial repolarisation

175. Pharynx is perforated by gill slits in_________ 182. Choose the correct statement w.r.t human brain
(1) Star fish (1) Cerebellum is the largest part of brain
(2) Cerebrum is a structural constituent of brain stem
(2) Devil fish
(3) Optic lobes are present in forebrain
(3) Cuttle fish
(4) Corpora quadrigemina is present in midbrain
(4) Dog fish
183. Choose the incorrect statement
176. Filtration slits are formed by (1) In reptiles, limbs are either absent or present
(1) Glomerulus (2) All reptiles are oviparous and have internal
(2) Inner epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule fertilisation and indirect development
(3) Outer epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule (3) Some of the mammals are adapted to fly or
(4) Efferent arteriole live in water
(4) In cartilaginous fishes, teeth are modified
177. Complete the analogy w.r.t. locomotory structures placoid scales which are backwardly directed
and select the correct option
Nereis : Parapodia : : Ctenoplana : _____ 184. Catecholamines are associated with all the
(1) Tentacles following except
(1) Pupillary dilation
(2) Flagellated comb plates
(2) Hypertension
(3) Ciliated comb plates
(3) Proteolysis
(4) Jointed legs (4) Glycogenesis

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185. Read the given statements w.r.t. cardiac cycle and 189. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver
select the incorrect option from_______
(1) SAN generates an action potential which Select the option that correctly fills the blank
stimulates both the atria to undergo a (1) Oesophagus
simultaneous contraction (2) Intestine
(2) The action potential is conducted to the (3) Heart
ventricular side by the AVN and AV bundle (4) Kidneys
from where the bundle of His transmits it
through the entire ventricular musculature 190. Generally, myoglobin and haemoglobin
(3) During joint diastole, semilunar valves are respectively exist in which of the following
closed and the tricuspid and bicuspid valves structures of protein?
are open (1) Primary and secondary
(4) In ventricular diastole, the ventricular (2) Secondary and tertiary
pressure falls causing the closure of (3) Tertiary and quaternary
semilunar valves which prevents the (4) Secondary and quaternary
backflow of blood into the ventricles
191. All of the following peculiar features of
SECTION - B
platyhelminthes can differentiate between free
186. Which of the following set of hormones bind with
living and parasitic forms except
receptors present on plasma membrane?
(1) Dorsoventrally flattened body
(1) FSH, estrogen
(2) Presence of hooks
(2) Androgen, progesterone
(3) Presence of suckers
(3) Adrenaline, glucagon
(4) Absorption of nutrients from the host directly
(4) Thyroxine, secretin
through their body surface

187. Complete the analogy and select the correct

192. Total lung capacity cannot be represented by
option.
(1) TV + IRV + ERV + RV
B blood group: Anti A : : O blood group : ___
(2) IC + ERV + RV
(1) Anti-A only
(3) EC + IRV+RV
(2) Nil
(4) IC + EC + FRC
(3) Anti-B only
(4) Anti-A, B
193. Veins are best defined as the vessels which
(1) Carry blood from one visceral organ to
188. How many hormones given in the box are released
from pituitary gland? another visceral organ
(2) Collect deoxygenated blood from different
LH, ACTH, TSH, Oxytocin, ADH, GHIH,
organs
PRL
(3) Carry blood from different organs to the heart
(1) Four
(4) Break up into capillaries which reunite to
(2) Five
form an artery
(3) Six
(4) Three
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194. Match items in column I with those in column II 198. How many of the following are not included in the
and choose the correct option human hindbrain?
Column I Column II Medulla oblongata, Thalamus, Corpora
qudrigemina, Pons, Cerebrum, Cerebellum
P. Pleurobrachia i. Oral sucker
Q. Fasciola ii. Collar (1) Two
(2) Three
R. Spongilla iii. Paired tentacles (3) Four
S. Saccoglossus iv. Collar cells (4) Five

199. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. nodes of

P Q R S
Ranvier
(1) i ii iii iv
(1) Present on dendrites
(2) ii iv i iii
(3) iii i iv ii (2) Interruptions between myelin sheaths
(4) iv iii ii i (3) Seen on nerve cells
(4) Help in impulse transmission
195. Which of the following is the blood concentration
of monomer of maltose in a normal healthy 200. Assertion (A): Ciliated compound epithelium is
human? composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells
(1) 2.4 mmol/L – 6.1 mmol/L Reason (R): Ciliated epithelium is present in the
(2) 0.0042 mol/L – 0.0061 mol/L inner surface of hollow organs like fallopian tubes.
(3) 0.42 mmol/L – 0.61 mmol/L In the light of above statements, select the correct
(4) 0.042 mol/L – 0.061 mol/L option
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
196. Removal of loop of Henle from the nephron will
correct explanation of (A)
result in
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(1) No urine formation
correct explanation of (A)
(2) More diluted urine
(3) More concentrated urine (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) No change in quality and quantity of urine (4) (A) is false but (R) is true

197. Which part of brain contains neural centre to

moderate the cardiac function through ANS as
well as to maintain the respiratory rhythm?
(1) Pons
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Cerebrum
(4) Medulla oblongata

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