AITS1
AITS1
AITS1
Part Test – 01
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Atomic Structure, IUPAC Nomenclature, Isomerism
Zoology : Structural Organisa on in Animals, Diges on and Absorp on, Breathing and Exchange of Gases
SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A 6. A stone is dropped from a balloon going up with a
dy uniform velocity of 5 m/s. If the balloon was at
1. y = 3ex – 5x3 + 3, then find .
dx 60 m height when the stone was dropped, find the
(1) 3ex + 15x2
time after which the stone hits the ground.
(2) 3xex + 15x2
(3) 3ex – 15x2 (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(4) 3xex – 15x2 (1) 2 sec
(2) 4 sec
1
2. Evaluate x2 dx = (3)
(4)
6 sec
8 sec
(1) x–2 + C
(2) –x–1 + C
7. Motion of a particle is given by equation
(3) x2 + C
(4) –x2 + C S = (2t3 + 3t2 + 4t + 2) m, where S displacement in
meter and t time in second, find acceleration of
3. A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches particle at time t = 1 sec.
the ground in 4 sec. The height of the tower is about: (1) 18 m/s2
(1) 80 m (2) 12 m/s2
(2) 40 m
(3) 6 m/s2
(3) 20 m
(4) 160 m (4) Zero
4. If A = iˆ + ˆj − 2kˆ and B = 2iˆ – ˆj + kˆ then find 8. Two boys are standing at the ends of A & B of a
ground, where AB = a. The boy at B starts running
magnitude of 2 A − 3B .
in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity v1.
(1) 80
The boy at A start running simultaneously with
(2) 85 velocity v in straight line path and catches the other
(3) 90 in time t1, where t1 is.
(4) 95 a
(1)
v − v1
5. The magnitude of the displacement of particle
moving in a circle of radius 'a' with constant angular a2
(2)
speed ω varies with time t as, v2 − v12
(1) 2a sin ωt
t v 2 − v12
(2) 2a sin (3)
2 a2
(3) 2a cosωt 9
t (4)
(4) 2a cos v + v1
2
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[2]
9. The variation of velocity of a particle with time (1) Speed of A is smaller then B while hitting the
moving along a straight line is illustrated in the ground.
following figure. (2) Kinetic energy of both the particles is same
The distance travelled by the particle in four while hitting the ground
seconds is (3) Velocity of both the particles is same while
hitting the ground
(4) Distance covered by both of them is same
[3]
17. The tension is the spring is: (1) greater than v
(2) | v |in the direction of the largest force
(3) v , remaining unchanged
(1) Zero (4) less than v .
(2) 2.5 N
(3) 5N
21. The maximum range of a projectile is 22m. When
(4) 10 N
it is thrown at an angle of 15º with the horizontal,
its range will be
18. Two projectiles of same mass have their maximum
(1) 22 m
kinetic energies in ratio 4 : 1 and ratio of their
(2) 6 m
maximum heights is also 4 : 1, then what is the ratio
(3) 15 m
of their ranges?
(4) 11 m
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
22. A ship is travelling due east at 10 km/h. Another
(3) 8 : 1 ship heading 30º east of north is always due north
(4) 16 : 1 from the first ship. The speed of the second ship in
km/h is
19. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity (1) 20 2
10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road, the 3
(2) 20
rain drops appear to be coming with a velocity of 2
(3) 20
20 m/s. The velocity of the cyclist is
20
(1) 10 m/s (4)
2
(2) 10 3 m/s
(3) 20 m/s 23. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) The coefficient of friction between two
(4) 20 3 m/s surfaces increases as the surface in contact are
made rough.
20. Three forces start acting simultaneously on a (2) The force of kinetic friction acts in a direction
opposite to the applied force.
particle moving with velocity v . These forces are (3) Rolling friction is greater than sliding friction.
represented in magnitude and direction by the three (4) The coefficient of friction between wood and
sides of a triangle ABC as shown in the figure. The wood is less than 1.
particle will now move with velocity
24. If a particle is moving on a curved path with
constant speed, then
(1) Velocity remains constant
(2) Body is said to be under acceleration
(3) Body remains unaccelerated
(4) Body is moving with decreasing velocity
[4]
5x2 29. For the arrangement shown in the figure, the
25. The equation of projectile is y = 16x − . The reading of spring balance is
4
horizontal range is:
(1) 16 cm
(2) 8 m
(3) 3.2 m
(4) 12.8 m
[5]
33. If a body is in equilibrium under a set of non- 37. Assertion: A rocket moves forward by pushing
collinear forces, then the minimum number of the surrounding air backwards.
forces has to be Reason: It derives the necessary thrust to move
(1) Four forward according to Newton’s third law of
(2) Two motion.
(3) Three (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(4) Five
the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
34. A force F1 accelerates a particle from rest to a
velocity v. Another force F2 decelerates the same (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
particle from v to rest, then the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) F1 is always equal to F2 Assertion.
(2) F2 is greater than F1 (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) F2 may be smaller than, greater than or (4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true
equal to F1
(4) F1 cannot be equal to F1 38. Assertion: A null vector is a vector whose
magnitude is zero and direction is arbitrary.
35. A car is travelling with a linear velocity v on a
circular road of radius r. If it is increasing its speed Reason: A null vector does not exist.
at the rate of a m/s2, then the resultant acceleration (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
will be the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
v2
(1) − a2 (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
r2 the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
v4 Assertion.
(2) 2
+ a2 (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
r
(4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true
v4
(3) − a2
r2 39. Assertion: In s-t graph shown in the figure, velocity
v 2 of particle is negative & acceleration is positive
(4) + a2 Reason: The slope of s-t graph is negative and
r2
increasing in magnitude
SECTION - B
36. Assertion: To conserve linear momentum of a
system, no force should act on the system.
Reason: If net force on a system is zero, its linear
momentum should remain constant.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is the correct explanation of the the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion. Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is not a correct explanation of the the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true (4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true
[6]
40. The position (in m) vector of a particle changes
with time according to the relation
r (t ) = 15t 2iˆ + (4 − 20t 2 ) ˆj.
What is the magnitude of the acceleration at t = 1 sec?
(1) 40 m/s2
(2) 100 m/s2 (1) 2 m
(3) 25 m/s2 (2) 4 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 50 m/s2
(4) 3 m
[7]
46. A body in one dimensional motion has zero speed 49. Figure shows s-t graph. Motion of body is
at an instant. At that instant, body must have
(1) Zero velocity
(2) Non-zero velocity
(3) Zero acceleration
(4) Non-zero acceleration
[8]
SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A 56. The work function for a metal is 4 eV. To emit a
51. The ratio of radii of first orbits of H, He+ and Li2+ is photo-electron of zero velocity from the surface of
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 the metal, the wavelength of incident light should
(2) 6 : 3 : 2 be
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (1) 2700 Å
(4) 9 : 4 : 1 (2) 1700 Å
(3) 5900 Å
52. The calculated value of (spin only) magnetic (4) 3100 Å
moment of 26Fe3+ is
(1) 3.89 B.M 57. Which of the following set of quantum numbers
(2) 1.73 B.M belong to highest energy?
(3) 4.90 B.M 1
(4) 5.92 B.M (1) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0, s = +
2
1
53. If the K.E. of a particle is doubled, its de Broglie (2) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
2
wavelength becomes
1
(1) 2 times (3) n = 4, l = 0, m = 1, s = +
2
(2) 4 times
1
(3) 2 times (4) n = 4, l = 1, m = 1, s = +
2
1
(4) times
2 58. The maximum amount of BaSO4 that can be
obtained on mixing 0.5 mol BaCl2 with 1 mol
54. How many electrons will have m (magnetic
H2SO4 is
quantum number) = 0 in Fe3+ ion?
(1) 0.5 mol
(1) 12
(2) 0.1 mol
(2) 13
(3) 0.15 mol
(3) 11
(4) 0.2 mol
(4) 14
[9]
60. Which one among the following statements is 64. In Mn2+ ion, the number of unpaired electrons is
correct? (1) 2
(1) An orbital containing an electron having (2) 3
quantum numbers n = 2; l = 0; m= 0 and s = (3) 4
+1/2 is spherical. (4) 5
(2) The frequency of X-rays is less than that of
radio-waves. 65. If E is the kinetic energy of the particle then which
(3) All photons have same energy.
of the following expressions is correct for de
(4) As intensity of light increases, its frequency
Broglie wave length of the particle?
also increases.
h
(1) =
61. Photoelectric emission is observed from a surface 2mE
for frequencies 1 and 2 of incident radiations h
(1 > 2). If the maximum kinetic energy of (2) =
4mE
photoelectrons in the two cases are in the ratio of
h
2 : 1, then threshold frequency v0 is given by (3) =
2 − 1 2mE
(1)
2 −1 2mE
(4) =
21 − 2 h
(2)
2 −1
2 2 − 1 66. Wavelength of an electron is equal to distance
(3)
2 −1 travelled by it in one second, then correct relation
2 − 1 is
(4)
2 h
(1) =
p
62. The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau principle
is violated is h
(2) =
2s 2p p
(1) h
(2) =
2s 2p m
(2)
h
(4) =
2s 2p m
(3)
2s 2p 67. The ratio of kinetic energy and total energy of an
(4) electron in a Bohr orbit of a hydrogen like
species is
63. Radial part of the wave function depends on (1) 1/2
quantum numbers
(2) −1/2
(1) n and s
(2) l and m (3) 1
(3) l and s (4) −1
(4) n and l
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[10]
68. In Bohr’s hydrogen atom, the electronic transition 75. Which of the following compounds can exist in its
emitting light of longest wavelength is meso form?
(1) n = 5 to n = 4 (1) 1, 2−dichlorobutane
(2) n = 4 to n = 3 (2) 2, 3−dichloropentane
(3) n = 3 to n = 2 (3) 2, 3−dichlorobutane
(4) n = 2 to n = 4 (4) 1, 2−dichloropentane
69. The IUPAC name
of the compound, 76. With increase of temperature, which of these
(CH3 )2 CHCH2CH2Br is: changes?
(1) 2-methyl-3-bromopropane (1) Molality
(2) 1-bromopentane (2) Weight fraction of solute
(3) 2-methyl-4-bromobutane (3) Molarity
(4) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane (4) Mole fraction
70. Optically active compound is 77. The number of isomers of compounds with
(1) 2-chloropropane molecular formula C2H2Br2 is:
(2) 2-chlorobutane (1) 3
(3) 3-chloropentane (2) 2
(4) None of these (3) 4
(4) 5
71. The concentrated sulphuric acid that is peddled
commercial is 95% H2SO4 by weight. If the 78. Select the optically inactive compound among the
density of this commercial acid is 1.834 g cm–3, following.
the molarity of this solution is
(1) 17.8 M
(2) 12.0 M (1) CH3 NH2
(3) 10.5 M NH2 CH3
(4) 15.7 M
[11]
79. Which of the following compounds will exhibit C6H5
geometrical isomerism?
H
(1) 1-Phenyl-2-butene (3)
(2) 3-Phenyl-1-butene H H
H C6H5
(3) 2-Phenyl-1-butene
(4) 1, 1-Diphenyl-1-propene C6H5
H H
80. If specific rotation of glucose solution is 52° and
that of fructose solution is –92° then what will be (4)
H H
the specific rotation of invert sugar?
C6H5
(1) –20°
(2) +20°
(3) –72° 83. Which of the following can form geometrical
(4) +72° isomer?
Cl
81. Geometrical isomerism is shown by (1)
Cl
H I
(1) C=C (2) CH3–CH=N–OH
H Br
H I (3)
(2) C=C
H3C Br
(4) All of the above
H3C Cl
(3) C=C
H3C Br
84. Total number of geometrical isomers of the
H Cl
(4) C=C compound CH3−CH=CH−CH=CH−C2H5 is
H3C Cl
(1) 2
(2) 3
82. The most stable conformation of 1,2–diphenyl
ethane is (3) 4
H (4) 5
C6H5 H
(1) 85. A solution of (+)-1-chloro-1-phenyl ethane in
C6H5 H toluene racemises slowly in the presence of small
H amount of SbCl5, due to the formation of:
C6H5 (1) Carbanion
C6H5 (2) Carbene
(2) (3) Free radical
H H (4) Carbocation
H H
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[12]
SECTION - B 92. If m1 g of a metal A, displaces m2 g of another
86. 1,3−Dichloroallene (CHCl=C=CHCl) shows metal B from its salt solution and if their
(1) Geometrical isomerism. equivalent masses are E1 and E2 respectively, then
(2) Optical isomerism. the equivalent mass of A can be expressed as
m2 E 2
(3) Both (1) and (2). (1) E1 =
(4) None of these. m1
m
87. Which of the following compound has zero dipole (2) E1 = 1 E 2
m2
moment?
m m2
(1) Cis-but-2-ene (3) E1 = 1
(2) Trans-but-2-ene E2
(3) But-1-ene m1
(4) 2-methylprop-1-ene (4) E1 = E2
m2
88. HCN and HNC exhibit
93. Equivalent mass of H3PO2 when it
(1) Optical isomerism.
disproportionates into PH3 and H3PO3 is
(2) Tautomerism.
(Molecular mass = M):
(3) Metamerism. (1) M
(4) None of these.
M
(2)
89. Number of moles of KMnO4 that is needed to
2
react with one mole of FeC2O4 in acidic medium M
(3)
is 4
(1) 2/5 3M
(4)
(2) 3/5 4
(3) 4/5
94. The treatment of CH3OH with CH3Mgl releases
(4) 1
1.04 ml of a gas at STP. The mass of CH3OH
added is
90. 0.126 g of an acid requires 20 ml of 0.1 N NaOH (1) 1.485 mg
for complete neutralization. Equivalent weight of (2) 2.98 mg
the acid is (3) 3.71 mg
(1) 45 (4) 4.47 mg
(2) 53
(3) 40 95. 3BaCl2 + 2Na3PO4 ⎯→ Ba3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl.
(4) 63 Maximum amount of Ba3(PO4)2 formed when
2 moles each of Na3PO4 and BaCl2 react together is
(1) 4 mol
91. An oxide of a metal M has 60% metal by mass.
(2) 1 mol
What is the equivalent weight of the metal?
(1) 12
2
(3) mol
(2) 24 3
(3) 36 1
(4) mol
(4) 48 3
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[13]
96. The percentage of Fe in +3 oxidation state in 99. Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water
Fe0.9O is? is 1.02 g/ml. The molality of the solution is
(1) 78%
(2) 90% (Atomic mass: H = 1, C = 12, O = 16)
(3) 10% (1) 3.28 mol kg−1
(4) 22% (2) 2.28 mol kg−1
97. What volume of 0.5 M Ba (OH)2 solution will (3) 0.44 mol kg−1
react completely with 25 mL of 3N H3PO4? (4) 1.14 mol kg−1
(1) 50 mL
(2) 57 mL
(3) 60 mL 100. Arrange the following (I to IV) in the increasing
(4) 75 mL order of their masses and choose the correct
answer.
98. How many moles of electron weigh one kilogram?
(NAV = Avogadro’s no. = 6.023 × 1023) (I) 1 atom of oxygen.
(1) 6.023 × 1023 (II) 1 atom of nitrogen.
1 (III) 1 × 10–10 g molecule of oxygen.
(2) 1031
9.1 (IV) 1 × 10–7 g atom of copper.
6.023 1054 (1) (II) < (I) < (III) < (IV)
(3)
9.1 (2) (IV) < (III) < (II) < (I)
1 108 (3) (II) < (III) < (I) < (IV)
(4)
9.1 6.023 (4) (III) < (IV) < (I) < (II)
[14]
SECTION-III (BOTANY)
[15]
108. Read the given statements. 113. Bacterial flagella are similar to eukaryotic flagella
P: It can occupy upto 90% volume of a plant cell. in
Q: It contains water, sap as well as excretory (1) Having same constituent proteins
products.
(2) Having same basal body
Identify the cell organelle on the basis of above
(3) Providing motility
features.
(4) Having ' 9 + 2 ' arrangement of microtubules
(1) Lysosome
(2) Vacuole
(3) Ribosomes 114. The layer of bacterial cell envelope which is
(4) Peroxisome structurally similar to that of eukaryotes is related to
all of the given features, except.
109. Select the statement which is not true for smallest
(1) Lipid bilayer found
cell organelle.
(2) Hydrophilic head is outside
(1) Can form polysomes
(2) Are found in cytoplasm as well as on the (3) Tail is composed of only unsaturated
surface of the nuclear membrane hydrocarbons
(3) Are composed of ribosomal RNA only (4) Within the bilayer, proteins show lateral
(4) Are site of protein synthesis movement
[16]
117. Match the following columns and select the correct 120. Few chromosomes sometimes have a small
option. fragment separated by non-staining secondary
constriction at constant location called
Column I Column II
(1) Chromatid
(Chromosomes) (Shapes during Anaphase) (2) Satellite
(a) Metacentric (i) L-Shaped (3) Centromere
(b) Telocentric (ii) V-Shaped (4) Centrosome
(c) Acrocentric (iii) I- Shaped
121. Plastids which give specific & distinct colours to the
(d) Submetacentric (iv) J-Shaped plants are known as
(1) a (iii), b (i), c (ii), d (iv) (1) Chloroplasts
(2) a (ii), b (iii), c (iv), d (i) (2) Chromoplasts
(3) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i) (3) Elaioplasts
(4) a (ii), b (i), c (iii), d (iv) (4) Aleuroplasts
118. Spherical structures present in nucleoplasm and are 122. In Mango plant, cytoplasm of neighbouring cells are
site of active r-RNA synthesis are absent in connected by
(1) Chlamydomonas (1) Plasmodesmata
(2) Amoeba (2) Middle lamella
(3) Transport proteins
(3) Purple and green photosynthetic bacteria
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(4) A plant cell
[17]
126. In mammals, proteinaceous structure which 132. A student prepared a herbarium sheet then this does
maintains the shape of a cell, is not provide the information of
(1) Cell wall (1) Species of specimen
(2) Cytoplasm (2) Genus of specimen
(3) Cytoskeleton
(3) Family of specimen
(4) Vacuole
(4) Division of specimen
[18]
SECTION - B 140. During crossing over which is not occur
136. Mark the right match. (1) Recombination of genetic material
(1) Synapsis – Zygotene (2) Formation of recombination nodule
(2) Desynapsis – Pachytene (3) Exchange of genetic material between sister
(3) Chiasmata formation – Diakinesis chromatids
(4) Chiasmata terminalisation – Diplotene (4) Recombinase enzyme
137. Which of the given feature is not true for anaphase I? 141. A student observed that a cell has completed DNA
(1) Separation of homologous chromosomes
replication but fails to enter M-phase. It indicates
(2) Spindle fibres are attached to one side of a
that the cell is arrested at
chromosome only
(1) G1 → S checkpoint
(3) Centromere splitting of chromosomes
(2) G2 → M checkpoint
(4) Leads to reduction in chromosome number
(3) S → G2 checkpoint
138. A museum does not have (4) M→ G2 checkpoint
(1) Dry specimens of plants
(2) Skeleton of some larger animals 142. When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis it
(3) Specimens of insects leads to formation of
(4) Photographs of both plants & animals (1) Dyad of cells
(2) Syncytium
139. Correctly identifies the given stage of cell division (3) Single cell with large number of nuclei
along with its true feature. (4) Both (2) & (3)
[19]
145. G0 phase is: 148. Select the right match w.r.t. taxonomical aids
(1) Quiescent stage for dividing cells (1) Monograph → Actual account of habitat and
(2) Metabolically inactive distribution of plants of a given area
(3) Present in meristem cells
(2) Manual → Contains information on any one
(4) Part of interphase
taxon
146. Mr. Parker observed during mitosis stage that in cell (3) Herbarium → Ex-situ conservation of plants
chromosomes can no longer be seen and chromatin (4) Museums → contains insects in insect box
material tends to collect as a mass at the poles during
(1) Anaphase 149. Identify the group of taxa belonging to the same
(2) Telophase
taxonomic category.
(3) Metaphase
(1) Chordata, Poales, Musca
(4) Late prophase
(2) Sapindales, Anacardiaceae, Mangifera
147. Find the correct statement from the following? (3) Diptera, Insecta, Arthropoda
(1) Meiosis involves pairing of non-homologous (4) Hominidae, Muscidae, Poaceae
chromosomes
(2) Mitosis or the equational division is restricted
150. Find the incorrect one w.r.t. endomembrane system
only to the diploid cell in plant
(1) Lysosomes and vacuoles
(3) The growth of multi-cellular organisms is due
to mitosis (2) Peroxisomes and chloroplasts
(4) Splitting of the centromere of each (3) Endoplasmic reticulum and golgi body
chromosome takes place during anaphase-I (4) Lysosomes and golgi body
[20]
SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION – A 156. Which of the following options is correct
151. Choose the incorrect pair concerning asthma?
(1) Crop- Storing of food (1) It is a respiratory disorder
(2) Gizzard - Grinding of food particles (2) Surface area gets decreased
(3) Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing sounds
(3) Malpighian tubules - Removal of excretory
(4) Both (1) and (3)
products from haemolymph
(4) Hepatic caeca- Storage of waste material 157. The secretion of oil, earwax, saliva all are function
of __________ tissue
152. The common bile duct in human is formed by the (1) Simple squamous epithelial
joining of_______ (2) Compound epithelial
(1) Pancreatic duct and bile duct (3) Sensory epithelial
(2) Cystic duct and hepatic duct (4) Glandular epithelial
(3) Cystic duct and pancreatic duct
158. The protection of gastric mucosa from excoriation
(4) Hepatic duct and pancreatic duct
by hydrochloric acid is done by
(1) Zymogens
153. Which of the following muscles contract in a (2) Bicarbonates and mucus
forceful expiration? (3) Mucus only
(1) Diaphragm and EICM (4) Electrolytes
(2) EICM and IICM
(3) Diaphragm and Abdominal muscles 159. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is
(4) IICM and Abdominal muscles (1) Hypobolic
(2) Hyperbolic
(3) Linear
154. All of the statements are true regarding adipose
(4) Sigmoid
tissue except
(1) Matrix of the tissue contains fibres
(2) Adipose tissue connects different organs or 160. Which of the following cells has the property of
layer of tissues insulating and protecting the neural tissue?
(3) Adipose tissue has adipocytes cells which (1) Schwann
store fats (2) Oligodendrocytes
(4) Macrophages are amoeboid, non-phagocytic (3) Microglia
cells that are present in adipose connective (4) Both (1) and (2)
tissue
155. Which of the following statements is correct 161. Choose the correct statement about transport of
regarding absorption of digested products? gases
(1) Carbohydrates are absorbed as disaccharides (1) About 97 percent of O2 is transported by
(2) Transport of water depends upon the osmotic RBCs in the blood
gradient
(2) 20-25 percent of CO2 is transported by RBCs
(3) Amino acids move across the plasma
membrane only by diffusion (3) 7 percent of CO2 is carried in a dissolved state
(4) Bile transports fats across plasma membrane through plasma
(4) All of the above
[21]
162. Which of the following muscle shows the 167. Which of the following is a pollution related
intercalated discs? disorder?
(1) Cardiac (1) Silicosis
(2) Smooth (2) Pneumoconiosis
(3) Skeletal (3) Fluorosis
(4) All of the above
(4) All of the above
168. Which of the following sphincter regulates the
163. Select the incorrect option
opening of oesophagus into stomach?
Part of alimentary Structures present/
(1) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
canal function (2) Cardiac sphincter
(1) Small intestine Lacteals (3) Pyloric sphincter
Intestinal mucosal (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Crypts of Lieberkühn
epithelium
(3) Colon Water absorption 169. Which of the following is not the function of
(4) Gall bladder Formation of bile conducting part of respiratory passage?
(1) Humidify the inhaled air
(2) Clean the inspired air
164. Which of the following can bind several hundred
(3) Perform gaseous exchange
times more strongly to the haemoglobin than
(4) Warm up the air
oxygen?
(1) H2CO3 170. Choose the incorrect match
(2) CO2 Salivary glands Location
(3) CO (1) Sub-linguals - Below tongue
(4) NO (2) Parotids - Near cheek
(3) Sub-mandibular - Near lower jaw
165. Which of the following muscle shows fusiform (4) Sub-maxillary - Near cheek
fibers?
(1) Cardiac 171. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
(2) Smooth approximately ________ of CO2 in the alveoli
(3) Skeletal (1) 4 ml
(4) All of the above (2) 3 ml
(3) 5 ml
(4) 15 ml
166. The alimentary canal in human beings begins with
an ____X____ opening and opens out
172. Read the statements given below and Identify the
______Y______ through the anus tissue
Choose the option that fills the blank X and Y I. The nuclei are present at the base
correctly II. They are mainly present in the stomach
X Y III. Main function is secretion and absorption
(1) Anterior Posteriorly (1) Simple ciliated epithelial tissue
(2) Anterior Anteriorly (2) Simple squamous epithelial tissue
(3) Posterior Anteriorly (3) Simple columnar epithelial tissue
(4) Posterior Posteriorly (4) Pseudostratified epithelial tissue
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
[22]
173. The given diagram represents the T.S of gut. 176. CO2 dissociates from carbamino-haemoglobin
Identify A, B, C and D when condition is
(1) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low
(2) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low
(3) pCO2 and pO2 are equal
(4) All of the above
[23]
181. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the common 184. Select the enzyme whose action on substrate
characteristics of the given tissues (A and B) yields amino acids
(1) Chymotrypsin
(2) Trypsin
(3) Dipeptidase
(4) Amylase
[24]
188. Match the following columns and choose the 192. Identify the figure of animal tissue given below,
correct option along with its correct location
Column-I Column-II
A. Duodenum I. A cartilaginous flap
B. Epiglottis II. Small blind sac
C. Glottis III. C shaped structure
[25]
195. Ejection of stomach contents through mouth after 198. Excess of nutrients which are not used
nausea is a reflex action which is under the control immediately are stored in _________ tissue
of medulla oblongata and is termed as _____ (1) Areolar tissue
(1) Diarrhoea (2) Adipose Tissue
(2) Vomiting (3) Tendon
(3) Indigestion (4) Bone
(4) Constipation
199. Mark the odd one w.r.t. the function of liver
196. Carbonic anhydrase enzyme is found in (1) Storage of fat and glycogen
(1) Only RBCs
(2) Urea synthesis
(2) Only WBCs
(3) Erythropoiesis in adult
(3) Only Plasma
(4) Secretion of bile pigments and bile salts
(4) Both RBCs & Plasma
[26]
Rough Work
[27]
Rough Work
[28]
Rough Work
[29]