30/07/2020 CODE-A

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

MM : 720 Test - 23 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Topics covered : Complete Syllabus of Class XI and XII

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. If error in measurement of volume of a cube is
6% then percentage error in the measurement of
its surface area is
(1) 2%
(2) 3%
(3) 4%
(4) 6%
2. An object at rest starts its motion with constant (1) T1 > T2 and u1 > u2 (2) T1 = T2 and u1 < u2
acceleration and then decelerates uniformly to (3) T1 = T2 and u1 > u2 (4) T1 < T2 and u1 < u2
rest. The distance s covered by the object as a
function of time t is best represented by  3
4. In the arrangement shown in figure  sin37º  
 5

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) Direction of force of friction is up the plane

(2) Magnitude of force of friction is zero
3. Trajectory of two projectiles 1 and 2 are shown. If
(3) Tension in the string is 20 N
time period is denoted by T and initial speed is
denoted by u then (4) Magnitude of force of friction is 56 N

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Test-23 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

5. In the diagram shown, force F acts on the free 6s 4s

(1) (2)
end of the string. If the weight W moves up slowly R R
by distance h then work done on the weight by
3s 2s
the string holding it is (Pulley and string are ideal) (3) (4)
R R
11. Three rods of identical geometry but different
thermal conductivity are joined as shown.
Temperature of the three ends are shown.
Temperature of the junction is

(1) Fh (2) 2Fh

Fh
(3) (4) 4Fh
2
6. An automobile of constant power P travels a
distance x in time t. Kinetic energy of the
automobile is directly proportional to
2 (1) 35ºC (2) 40ºC
(1) x 3 (2) t2 (3) 45ºC (4) 55ºC
1
12. One mole of an ideal gas expands from initial
(3) t
2
(4) x2 state (2T0, V0) to final state (T0, 2V0). The process
7. Two spheres of same mass m are moving in  T 
opposite directions with speed v and 2v. They of expansion is given by T    0 V  3T0  . Work
 0V 
1 done by the gas during the expansion is
collide with coefficient of restitution e  . Loss
2 (T : temperature; V : volume)
of kinetic energy of the system in the collision is (1) RT0 ln2 (2) 3RT0 ln2
27 mv 2 3 mv 2 (3) RT0 (3ln2 – 1) (4) T0 V0
(1) (2)
8 8 13. The efficiency of a heat engine increases by 20%
2 2 when temperature of source is increased by 20%
27 mv 3 mv
(3) (4) and temperature of sink is decreased by 20%
16 16 simultaneously. The old efficiency of the engine is
8. A body is under pure rolling. Fraction of its total (1) 40% (2) 42.5%
1 (3) 50% (4) 62.5%
kinetic energy which is purely rotational is .
2
14. In the arrangement for SHM shown, the
The body is horizontal ground is smooth and the coefficient of
(1) Circular ring (2) Circular disc friction between the two blocks is . The time
(3) Hollow sphere (4) Solid sphere period of oscillation is T. The maximum amplitude
of vibration so that the two blocks remain
9. If the earth suddenly contracts to half of its radius together is
without change in its mass then the duration of
the day will be
(1) 24 hours (2) 12 hours
(3) 6 hours (4) 96 hours
10. A soap bubble of radius R is surrounded by m1gT 2 2g
another concentric soap bubble of radius 2R. If (1) (2)
42m2 T2
surface tension is s, then excess pressure inside
the smaller soap bubble compared to outside gT 2 m2gT 2
(3) (4)
atmosphere will be 42 42m1

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)

15. A particle is executing SHM according to the 20. In the electrical network shown, the energy stored
relation x = A cost. Average speed of the in the capacitor at steady state is

particle during time interval 0  t  is
6

3 A 3A
(1) (2  3 ) (2)
 4
3A 3A
(3) (4)
2 
16. Two identical wires are stretched by same
tension of 100 N and each wire emits note of CE 2 2CE 2
(1) (2)
frequency 400 Hz. If the tension of any wire is 9 9
increased by 2 N then beat frequency heard is
CE 2 2CE
(1) 1 Hz (2) 2 Hz (3) (4)
3 3
(3) 3 Hz (4) 4 Hz
21. A solid cylindrical rod of cross-sectional radius
17. The equation of a stationary wave in a string is R = 2 cm is carrying current I along its axis. The
given by y = 2A sinkx cost. Maximum magnetic field at a perpendicular distance
transverse speed of the particle is r = 1 cm from the central axis is
 2A 0I 0I
(1) (2) (1) (2)
k  2 4
(3) 2kA (4) 2A
 0I  0I
(3) (4)
18. There exists uniform electric field E as shown in 8 16
the space. Four points A, B, C and D are also
22. In a compound microscope the focal length of two
shown which are equidistant from origin. If VA, VB,
lenses are 1.5 cm and 6.25 cm. An object is
VC and VD are their respective potentials then
placed at 2 cm from objective lens and final
image is formed at 25 cm from the eyepiece. The
length of the microscope is
(1) 6 cm (2) 7.75 cm
(3) 9.25 cm (4) 11 cm
23. A circular beam of light of diameter 6 cm falls
on a plane surface of glass. The angle of
incidence is 60º and the refractive index of glass
3
is   . The diameter of refracted beam is
2
(1) 4 cm (2) 5 cm
(1) VA > VB > VC > VD (2) VA = VB > VC = VD (3) 3 cm (4) 4.5 cm
(3) VC = VD > VA = VB (4) VA > VB > VC = VD 24. Light ray is incident on a glass surface at
19. In the circuit shown, the equivalent capacitance polarizing angle 54º. The angle between the
between A and B is reflected ray and the refracted ray is
(1) 144º (2) 90º
(3) 164º (4) 138º
25. The electric current passing through a resistance
R is given by I = 2 + 4 sint. The RMS value of
C 3C this current is (symbols have SI units)
(1) (2)
4 4
(1) 2 2 A (2) 2 3 A
C 4C
(3) (4)
3 3 (3) 6 A (4) 3 2 A

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Test-23 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

26. In a photoelectric experiment a light of 31. An object cools from 80ºC to 60ºC in 10 minutes.
wavelength 6000 Å is incident on a metal surface. Suddenly the room temperature drops by 5ºC and
When light of wavelength 4000 Å is incident then the object cools from 60ºC to 40ºC in 15 minutes.
the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted Assume that Newton’s law of cooling is
photoelectrons is doubled. The work function of applicable, find the initial temperature of the room.
the metal is (1) 15ºC (2) 20ºC
(1) 2.33 eV (2) 4.03 eV (3) 25ºC (4) 35ºC
(3) 3.53 eV (4) 1.03 eV 32. 60% of a diatomic gas dissociates into
27. In the network of logic gates shown, which of the monatomic gas. Ratio of specific heats (Cp/Cv) for
following input (A, B) and output (x) combinations the gas mixture is
is possible? 11 11
(1) (2)
9 7
7 5
(3) (4)
5 3
33. Longitudinal mechanical wave in gaseous
medium travels in the form of compression and
rarefaction. If the wavelength of the gas is  then
(1) A = 0, B = 0, x = 1 the minimum distance between two adjacent
(2) A = 0, B = 1, x = 0 compressions is
(3) A = 1, B = 0, x = 0  
(1) (2)
(4) A = 1, B = 1, x = 0 4 2
28. In the circuit shown, Zener diode is being used as (3)  (4) 2
voltage regulator. The current through the diode 34. A closed pipe 1.25 m long vibrates in its second
is overtone mode. It is in unison with the second
harmonic mode of an open pipe. The length of
the open pipe is approximately
(1) 0.5 m (2) 1 m
(3) 1.5 m (4) 2 m
35. Two conducting spheres of radii 10 cm and
20 cm contain 900 C of charge on each sphere.
(1) 25.5 mA (2) 27.5 mA
Now they are joined by a conducting wire. The
(3) 2.5 mA (4) 30 mA amount of charge flown through the wire is
29. A circular disc X of radius R is made of iron plate (1) 300 C (2) 600 C
of thickness t. Another disc Y of radius 4R is
(3) 400 C (4) 200 C
t
made of iron plate of thickness . The
4 36. In the circuit shown the power consumed in 8 
relationship between their moment of inertia IX resistor is 8 W. The power consumed in 2 
and IY is resistor will be
(1) IY = 64 IX (2) IY = 32 IX
(3) IY = 16 IX (4) IX = IY
30. For a harmonic oscillator the magnitude of
maximum acceleration of the particle is  times
the maximum speed of the particle. The time
period of oscillation of its kinetic energy is
(1) 3 s (2) 2 s (1) 4 W (2) 8 W
(3) 1 s (4) 0.5 s (3) 16 W (4) 24 W
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)

37. In the potentiometer circuit shown below the 41. A real image of an object kept at infinity, is
length of potentiometer wire is 2.5 m. An emf formed at a distance of 20 cm from a lens. On
 = 10 V is balanced against length l = 50 cm. putting another lens in contact with it, the image
The resistance per unit length of the is shifted 10 cm towards the lens combination.
potentiometer wire is The power of the lens is
(1) 4 D (2) 5 D
(3) 10 D (4) 20 D
42. A double slit experiment is performed with light of
wavelength  = 500 nm. A thin film of thickness
2 micron and refractive index  = 1.5 is
introduced in the path of the upper beam. The
location of central maximum will
(1) Remain as it is
(1) 40 /m (2) 400 /m
(2) Shift downward nearly by two fringes
(3) 4 /m (4) 40 k/m
(3) Shift upward nearly by two fringes
38. Length of wire required to manufacture a solenoid
(4) Shift downward by 10 fringes
of length l and self-inductance L is
43. If the series limit of Lyman series for hydrogen
2Ll 0Ll atom is equal to the series limit of Balmer series
(1) (2)
0 4 for a hydrogen like atom then the atomic number
of this hydrogen like atom is
4Ll 0Ll (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) (4)
0 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
39. Assume a light bulb of power P as a point source 44. The combined network of the following NOR
of electromagnetic radiation. The amplitude of gates will behave as
electric field in the radiation at a distance R from
the source is (C : speed of light)
P P
(1) (2)
C 0R 2 2C0R 2

2P P
(3) (4) 2
C 0R 2 C0R 2
(1) AND gate (2) XOR gate
40. Two small bar magnets apply a force F on each (3) NOR gate (4) NAND gate
other. If the separation between the two magnets
45. A transistor has a current amplification factor of
is doubled then the force they apply on each
50. In a common emitter (CE) amplifier circuit, the
other is
collector resistance is chosen as 5  and the
F F input resistance is 1 . If the input voltage is
(1) (2)
2 4 0.01 V, then output voltage will be
F F (1) –2 V (2) –2.5 V
(3) (4)
8 16 (3) –1 V (4) –5 V

CHEMISTRY
46. Weight of KMnO4 (Molecular weight = 158) is to 47. If the ratio of radii of two shells of a H-like species
be heated at 513 K to get oxygen, which is 25 : 64, then the ratio of the velocities will be
completely reacts with 2.7 g of aluminium is (1) 5 : 8
(2) 8 : 3
(1) 1.58 g (2) 23.7 g
(3) 64 : 25
(3) 15.8 g (4) 2.37 g (4) 8 : 5

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Test-23 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

48. Hybridization of each atom as we move from

1  6 in the following compound is
(1) (2)

(1) sp, sp2, sp, sp2, sp, sp2

(2) sp2, sp2, sp3, sp2, sp2, sp3
(3) (4)
(3) sp, sp2, sp3, sp, sp2, sp3
(4) sp2, sp2, sp2, sp2, sp2, sp2
56. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
49. The value of Ksp of different salts AB, AB2, A2B (1) CF2Cl2 (2) CH4
and A2B3 are 4 × 10–10, 8 × 10–15, 2 × 10–14,
(3) NO2 (4) CO2
5 × 10–18 respectively. The most soluble salt is
57. Two liquids A and B are mixed in a ratio of 2 : 3.
(1) AB (2) AB2
If P Ao  100 mmHg and PBo  300 mmHg, then
(3) A2B (4) A2B3
the mole fraction of A in vapour phase will be
50. Which out of the following compound(s) can
2 2
cause hardness of water? (1) (2)
11 5
a. Ca(HCO3)2 b. MgCl2
3 10
(3) (4)
c. CaSO4 d. CaCl2 5 11
(1) Only a (2) a, b and d only 58. Reduction electrode potential of hydrogen
(3) a, c and d only (4) a, b, c and d electrode having pH = 4 will be
(1) 0.236 V (2) –0.236 V
51. Which of the following is responsible for colour in
borax bead test? (3) – 0.059 V (4) 0.059 V

(1) Na2B4O7 (2) B2O3 59. If aqueous solution of CuCl2 is electrolysed by

9.65 A current for 1000 seconds then mass of Cu
(3) NaBO2 (4) H3BO3 liberated is (Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5 u)
52. Ketones can be converted to alkanes directly on (1) 0.635 g (2) 6.35 g
reaction with
(3) 0.3175 g (4) 3.175 g
(1) LiAlH4 (2) H2/Pt 60. If, at t = 30 sec, [A] = 100 moles/L,
(3) HI/P4/ (4) Na/NH3(l) at t = 40 sec, [A] = 80 moles/L,
53. Which of the following compound will react with at t = 50 sec, [A] = 64 moles/L
NaOH readily? For a reaction, A B, the order will be
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) (2)
(3) 3 (4) Zero
61. Froth floatation cannot be done for concentration
(3) (4) of
(1) PbS (2) ZnS
54. Iodoform test is not given by
(3) Cu2S (4) Ag2S
(1) C2H5OH (2) CH3CHO 62. Hot and concentrated HNO3 on reaction with Zn,
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) 3-Pentanone Cu and Fe separately gives
55. The compound, 'C' in the following sequence of (1) NO2, NO2, NO2
reactions is (2) NO, NO2, NO2
(3) NO2, N2O, NO
1. O Ca(OH)2 C H CO H
 3
 A 

B 
6 5 3
C
2. H O2 (4) NO2, NO, N2O

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)

63. The major product of the following reaction 70. Which of the following is the correct real gas
equation for 2 moles of gas at high pressure?
(1) PV – 2 Pb = RT
will be (2) PV – Pb = RT
(3) PV = 2 (RT + Pb)
(4) PV – Pb = 2 RT
71. Given : H+ + OH–  H2O, H1 = –56 kJ/mole
(1) (2)
1
2H + O2  H2O, H2 = –66 kJ/mole
2
2H + O  H2O, H3 = –46 kJ/mole
1
H2 + O2  H2O, H4 = –36 kJ/mole
2
(3) (4) Choosing correct data of Hf(H2O), the heat
liberated when one gram of water is formed, is
(1) 36 kJ (2) 2 kJ
(3) 18 kJ (4) 1 kJ
64. At higher concentration of NaOH, the order of
Cannizzaro reaction is 72. The degree of dissociation of 0.1 M CH3COOH in
(1) 1 (2) 2 0.1 M HCl will be (Ka(CH3COOH) = 10–5)

(3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 10–3 (2) 10–5

65. Yellow oily liquid is formed when HNO2 reacts (3) 10–4 (4) 10–6
with 73. A, B and C in the following reaction sequence
(1) CH3NH2 (2) C6H5NH2 can be respectively

(3) (CH3)2NH (4) (CH3)3N

66. Which of the following is homopolymer as well as
condensation polymer?
(1) Nylon 6, 6 (2) Polythene
(3) Dacron (4) Nylon-6 (1) LiAlH4, H3O+, P2O5
67. Number of electrons present in 10 g of water (2) P2O5, LiAlH4, H3O+
sample having each molecule containing 10
(3) H3O+, HI/Red P, LiAlH4
neutrons are
(4) P2O5, H3O+, LiAlH4
(1) 10 NA (2) NA
74. Alkali metals when dissolved in liquid NH3 at very
(3) 5 NA (4) 20 NA
high concentration gives which of the following
68. Which elements in the periodic table should be in coloured solution?
liquid state at 35°C?
(1) Red (2) Blue
(1) Hg, Br2 only (2) Hg, Cs only
(3) Bronze (4) Yellow
(3) Hg, Cs, Br2 only (4) Hg, Br2, Cs, Ga
75. Most stable carbocation out of the following.
69. Which of the following is correct relation for
stability? (1) (2)

(1) B 2 >O 2–
2 (2) H 2 < Li 2
(3) (4)
(3) O 2 >O 2 (4) N 2 < N 2

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Test-23 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

76. Which of the following will not show elimination

reaction with alc. KOH?
(3)

(1) CH3CH2CH2Cl (2)

(3) (4)
(4)

77. Which of the following is part of classical smog? 84. Major product of the reaction is
(1) NO2 (2) CO2
(3) SO2 (4) N2O
78. Packing fraction of hexagonal close packing in
2–D is about
(1)
(1) 91% (2) 74%
(3) 68% (4) 80%
79. Example of negatively charged sol is
(1) Gold sol (2) Ferric hydroxide (2)
(3) TiO2 (4) Haemoglobin
80. Which among the following has positive (3)
EM2 /M ?

(1) Co (2) Ni
(3) Cu (4) Zn (4)
81. [Co(NH3 )6 ][Cr(CN)6 ] and [Cr(NH3 )6 ][Co(CN)6 ]
are
85. Carbylamine reaction and Reimer-Tiemann
(1) Linkage isomers reaction have same
(2) Coordination isomers (1) Reactants
(3) Ionisation isomers (2) Products
(4) Geometric isomers (3) Intermediate
82. The value of CFSE for d5 system in an octahedral (4) Nucleophile
complex in presence of a weak ligand is
86. Benzene can be converted to benzaldehyde by
12 –6
(1) –  0 (2) 0 (1) Etard reaction
5 5
(2) Rosenmund reduction
3
(3) –  0 (4) Zero (3) Gattermann–Koch reaction
5
83. Which of the following is Sandmeyer's reaction? (4) Stephen's reaction
87. Which one of the following will give phthalic acid
on oxidation by KMnO4/H+?

(1)
(1) (2)

(2) (3) (4)

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)

88. In which of the following method of reduction of 89. The groups present in a unit of maltose are
C6H5NO2, the product is having two different
(1) Alcohol, acetal (2) Only alcohol
groups showing +M effect?
(1) Electrolytic reduction/strongly acidic medium (3) Only acetal (4) Cyclic ether only

(2) Electrolytic reduction/weakly acidic medium 90. The atoms present in cationic detergent can be
(3) Sn/HCl (1) C, H, S, O (2) C, H, O
(4) LiAlH4 (3) C, H, N (4) C, H, S

BOTANY
91. Read the statements carefully and select correct 96. Read the statement carefully and select which
options. one is True(T) or False(F)?
A. Intrinsic increase in mass of body is defining A. Primary meristem which occurs between
property of living organisms. mature tissues and regenerates part removed
B. Reproduction is synonymous with growth in by grazing herbivores.
all the organisms
B. In stems, the protoxylem lies towards
C. Reproduction is defining feature of all periphery and metaxylem lies towards the
organisms centre.
D. Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are living
C. Xylem fibres have highly thickened walls and
reactions.
obliterated central lumens.
(1) A and B (2) B and C
D. Collenchyma is living mechanical tissue with
(3) A and D (4) B and D
intercellular spaces.
92. Taxa with least number of common
A B C D
characteristics are
(1) Felis and Panthera (1) T T F T
(2) Potato, Brinjal and Makoi (2) T F T F
(3) Polymoniales and Poales (3) F T T F
(4) Arthropoda and Angiosperms (4) T F F T
93. Select the incorrect w.r.t five kingdom system. 97. 80S ribosomes are found in
(1) Plantae-Autotrophic (1) Cytoplasm of eukaryotes
(2) Protista-Prokaryotes (2) Mitochondria
(3) Monera-Archaebacteria (3) Chloroplast
(4) Fungi-Heterotrophic
(4) Prokaryotes
94. Which of the following is not true about red
98. What will be the amount of DNA in meiotic II
algae?
products if a meiocyte at G1 stage possesses 80
(1) Predominance of r-phycoerythrin in their body pg DNA?
(2) Majority of them are found in colder areas
(1) 20 pg (2) 40 pg
(3) The red thalli of most of the red algae are
multicellular (3) 80 pg (4) 10 pg
(4) The food is stored as floridean starch 99. What is present in the space between the cell
wall and the shrunken protoplast in a
95. Select incorrectly matched pair.
plasmolysed cell?
(1) Inferior ovary – Guava
(1) Hypertonic solution
(2) Aestivation with unequal – Cotton
sized petals (2) Hypotonic solution
(3) Polyadelphous condition – Citrus (3) Air
(4) Irregular flower – Canna (4) Isotonic solution

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Test-23 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

100. Root nodules are formed due to division and 107. With respect to population growth model study,
growth of dN
the equation  rN describes
(1) Root hair cell dt
(2) Cortex cells and endodermal cells (1) Carrying capacity
(3) Epidermal and pericycle cells (2) Logistic growth
(4) Cortical and pericycle cells (3) S-shaped curve
101. C4 acid is converted into C3 acid and vice-versa (4) Geometric growth
in sugarcane leaf, respectively in 108. How many statements are correct w.r.t.
(1) Mesophyll and mesophyll cell ecological succession?
(2) Mesophyll and bundle sheath cell a. Climax community is most stable & shows
(3) Bundle sheath cell and mesophyll cell more niche specialisation.
(4) Mesophyll lysosomes and mesophyll b. Lichen and fungi are examples of climax
chloroplast communities
102. Total number of ATPs produced during aerobic c. Hydarch succession leads to mesic condition.
respiration of one glucose molecule is d. Xerarch succession leads to very wet
(1) Ten (2) Thirty eight condition.
(3) Twenty eight (4) Thirty (1) Four (2) Three
103. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. plant growth (3) Two (4) One
regulators. 109. Find the odd one out w.r.t. narrowly utilitarian
(1) 2, 4-D (2, 4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) is a ecosystem services
synthetic auxin (1) Food and fibres
(2) Spraying sugarcane crop with gibberellins (2) Drugs and industrial products
increases the length of the stem
(3) Pollination
(3) Cytokinins promote the apical dominance
(4) Construction material & firewood
(4) Ethylene is a gaseous hormone
110. Good ozone and bad ozone are present
104. Chromosome component in the person affected respectively in
from Klinefelter syndrome will be
(1) Mesosphere and stratosphere
(1) 44 + XX (2) 44 + XXY
(2) Exosphere and stratosphere
(3) 44 + XY (4) 44 + XO
(3) Stratosphere and troposphere
105. During transcription, RNA polymerase binds to
(i) region and uses substrate as (ii) to (4) Stratosphere and mesosphere
111. How many of the given taxa belongs to the
polymerise in template dependent fashion.
taxonomic category that has maximum number of
(i) (ii) common characters in comparison to other taxa?
(1) Intron Nucleoside triphosphate
Poales, Anacardiaceae, Homo sapiens,
(2) Promotor Nucleoside monophosphate
Panthera leo, Poaceae, Convolvulaceae
(3) Promotor Nucleoside triphosphate
(4) Structural Nucleoside monophosphate (1) Six (2) Five

106. During sewage treatment when the BOD is (3) Three (4) Two
reduced significantly, the effluent is passed to the 112. The prime source of taxonomic studies of various
(1) Large aeration tank to form flocs species of plants, animals and other organisms is
(2) Primary settling tank to remove primary (1) Collection of actual specimens
sludge (2) Identification
(3) Secondary settling tank to sediment the flocs (3) Description
(4) Anaerobic sludge digester (4) Nomenclature
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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)

113. Select incorrect matching (3) Vascular – Partly primary in origin

cambium in dicot
root
(4) Lenticels – Lens shaped openings
for gaseous exchange
118. Acid hydrolases enzymes are found in
(1) RER (2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Lysosomes (4) SER
114. Both haploid and diploid plant body are
multicellular and independent in 119. If meiocyte has 24 chromosomes with 10 pg DNA
then what will be the total number of bivalents,
(1) Naked seeded vascular plants chromatids number in prophase-I and amount of
(2) Chlorophyllous non-embryophytes DNA in meiosis-I products?
(3) Atracheophyte archegoniates Bivalents Chromatids DNA(pg)
(4) Vascular cryptogams (1) 12 48 10
115. Embryo sac of flowering plants (2) 12 24 5
(1) Is a 3 celled structure (3) 6 24 10
(2) Is formed in microsporangium (4) 12 24 20
(3) Has 7 cells and 8 nuclei 120. In a plasmolysed cell

(4) Has pollen tetrads in them (1) TP is very high

116. Select incorrect matching w.r.t. aestivation (2) DPD= 0

considering all columns (3) Cell membrane burst due to swelling of cell
Column-I Column-II Column-III (4) Pressure potential is negative
121. Which of the following enzyme catalyze the
conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?
(1) Valvate Calotropis (1) Invertase (2) Hexokinase
(3) Aldolase (4) Pyruvate kinase
122. For plants, when only light of wavelengths
beyond 680 nm are available for excitation then
(2) Twisted Lady's finger (1) Two photosystems are connected through an
ETC to accomplish electron journey
(2) Only PS-I is functional
(3) NADP reductase activity occurs on the
(3) Imbricate China rose stroma side of the membrane
(4) Both (1) and (3)
123. Read the given statements and select the
correct option
Statement-A : Shuttles do not occur in
(4) Vexillary Pea
prokaryotes.
Statement-B : Glucose is favoured substrate for
117. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? respiration.

(1) Dedifferentiated – Interfascicular cambium (1) Only statement A is correct

medullary cells (2) Only statement B is correct
(2) Heart wood – Highly lignified walls (3) Both statements A and B are correct
and non-conductive (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

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Test-23 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

124. Which one of the following pair of plants will 129. What will be number of phosphodiester bonds in
remain in vegetative stage if the length of a 10 bp ds DNA molecule?
photoperiod applied is less than the critical
(1) 20 (2) 10
photoperiod?
(3) 9 (4) 18
(1) Rice and soyabean
130. ‘The Evil Quartet’ has all of the given except
(2) Xanthium and Chrysanthemum
(3) Henbane and sugar beet (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation

(4) Cucumber and maize (2) Over-exploitation

125. Zygote undergoes a period of rest-before (3) Alien species invasions
germination in sexual life cycle of organisms (4) Ex-situ conservation
belonging to
131. Cyclosporin A is produced by
(1) Algae and fungi
(1) Penicillium
(2) Liverworts and mosses
(2) Yeast
(3) Gymnosperms
(3) E. coli
(4) Pterdophytes
(4) Trichoderma
126. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. pollen
grains 132. Detritivores break down detritus into smaller
(1) Pollen consumption has been claimed to particles by a process known as
increase the performance of athletes and (1) Fragmentation
race horses
(2) Leaching
(2) It is possible to store pollen grains of a large
(3) Humification
number of species for years in liquid nitrogen
(–196°C) (4) Decomposition
(3) In cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen 133. Ecological pyramid is straight and upright for food
grains maintain viability for months chain w.r.t.
(4) Parthenium or carrot grass causes pollen a. Number in terrestrial ecosystem.
allergy
b. Biomass in pond.
127. Which of the following statements are correct?
c. Number in aquatic ecosystem.
a. Integument, placenta, nucellus and embryo
d. Energy.
sac are sporophytic in origin.
b. Egg apparatus is made of two polar nuclei e. Number of organisms in single tree
and an egg ecosystem.
c. Exine is made up of sporopollenin Select the correct option.
d. Intine is composed of celluose and pectin (1) a, c and d (2) Only a and e
(1) All are correct, except a (3) Only a and c (4) c, d and e
(2) b and c only 134. Sixth mass extinction of species is
(3) a and c only (1) Natural extinction
(4) c and d only (2) Background extinction
128. A dihybrid pea plant TtYy considering height (T), (3) Mass extinction due to catastrophes
and seed colour (Y) is test-crossed. What is the
probability of getting offspring with genotype (4) Anthropogenic extinction
TTYY (A) and with ttyy genotype (B) 135. Montreal protocol was signed to control the
respectively? emissions of which of the following greenhouse
1 1 1 1 gas which was also a ozone depleting
(1) A  ; B (2) A  ; B substance?
16 16 8 4
1 1 1 1 (1) CO2 (2) CH4
(3) A  ; B (4) A  ; B
4 8 16 8 (3) CFCs (4) N2O

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
136. Which sequence explains the level of (2) Screening, identification of the DNA with
organisation found in the human body? desirable genes
(1) Muscle cell  muscular system  muscle  (3) Recombining DNA of host and vector
muscular tissue (4) Cloning of recombinant DNA in a host
(2) Muscle cell  muscle tissue  muscle  141. If the oxygen dissociation curve shifts towards left
muscular system side, it is associated with
(3) Muscular system  muscle tissue  muscle (1) Decreased affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
 muscle cell (2) Decreased oxygen carrying capacity of
(4) Muscle  Muscle cell  Muscle tissue  hemoglobin, a result of residing at a high
Muscular system altitude.
137. Which of the following statements about muscle (3) Increased ability to unload oxygen in the
metabolism is false? tissue.
(1) ATP can be quickly obtained by combining (4) Decreased P50
ADP with phosphate derived from creatine 142. In which of the following segments, conditional
phosphate reabsorption of Na+ and water mainly takes
(2) Energy obtained from hydrolysis of ATP is place?
used for the formation of cross bridges. (1) PCT
(3) ATP is required for pumping of the Ca2+ back (2) Descending limb of loop of Henle
into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(4) Aerobic oxidation of glycogen during rapid (4) DCT
muscle contraction leads to accumulation of 143. HIV weakens the immune system by
lactic acid, causing fatigue (1) Blocking the action of macrophages as they
138. False statement about ‘Amniocentesis’ is act as HIV factories
(1) Foetal sex determination test based on the (2) Destroying the helper T cells, their number
chromosomal pattern of cells in amniotic fluid falls below 200/mm3
surrounding the developing embryo (3) Activating the production of immature B cells
(2) Amniotic fluid is withdrawn for analyzing fetal (4) Destroying all cells with CD4 receptors like
cells and dissolved substances macrophages and helper T cells
(3) It can reveal genetic diseases, chromosomal 144. The diagram below shows how mutations in
abnormalities and metabolic disorders certain genes can lead to cancer. Here X and Y
(4) It can help the physician to test the foetus for represent genes, which when mutated can lead
eye colour and cleft palate to cancer.
139. Which of the following statements is incorrect Choose the correct option.
about menstrual cycle?
(1) The menstrual flow is due to the breakdown
of endometrial lining of the uterus and its
blood vessels which forms a liquid that
comes out of the vagina
(2) Menstruation occurs only if the released
ovum is not fertilised
(3) Estrogen causes the regeneration of
endometrium of uterus through proliferation
(4) The secretion of gonadotropins increases
gradually during the follicular phase due to X Y
positive feedback of estrogen on the posterior (1) Mutagens – Carcinogens
lobe of pituitary (2) Carcinogens – Mutagens
140. A probe is used in which stage of genetic (3) Proto-oncogenes – Tumor-suppressor
engineering? genes
(1) Cleaving DNA and introduction of the (4) Tumor suppressor – Mutagens
identified DNA into the host genes

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Test-23 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

145. Which sequence reflects the correct order of (3) Chymotrypsin  Enterokinase  Pepsin
hominid evolution? (4) Aminopeptidase  Trypsin  Pepsin
(1) Homo habilis  Homo erectus  151. False statement about Periplaneta americana is
Ramapithecus  Australopithecus
(1) Paurometabolous development
(2) Ramapithecus  Australopithecus 
Homo habilis  Homo erectus (2) Deuterostome with enterocoely
(3) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  (3) It has mosaic vision during night with more
Homo habilis  Homo erectus sensitivity but less resolution
(4) Australopithecus  Homo erectus  (4) It has biting type of mouth parts as mandibles
Ramapithecus  Homo habilis are present with both incising and grinding
146. Which of the following describes bats but not the regions
birds? 152. False statement about Amphioxus is that
(1) They are endotherms (1) It is exclusively marine
(2) They are amniotes (2) It is a cephalochordate, notochord extends
(3) They are viviparous from head to tail, persistent throughout life
(4) They have feathers (3) Protonephridia or flame cells are its excretory
147. Which of the following is the incorrect match structures
w.r.t ART? (4) Central nervous system is ventral, solid and
(1) ZIFT : Zygote or early embryo upto eight double
blastomeres is transferred into the 153. Presence of the following factors will cause
fallopian tubes. deviation in the gene frequencies as predicted by
(2) IUT : Embryo with more than eight Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, except
blastomeres is transferred into the (1) Mutation (2) Genetic drift
uterus (3) Selective mating (4) Random mating
(3) GIFT : Transfer of an ovum after fertilisation 154. Which of the following epithelium covers the dry
into the fallopian tube of another surface of the skin, moist surface of the buccal
female who cannot produce her own cavity, pharynx, lining of the ducts of salivary
ova. glands and pancreatic ducts?
(4) ICSI : A specialised procedure to form an (1) Non-keratinised stratified squamous
embryo in the laboratory in which the
sperm is injected into the ovum. (2) Ciliated epithelium
148. Choose the incorrect match. (3) Compound epithelium
(1) Nucleoside : Adenosine, uridine (4) Cuboidal epithelium
(2) Nucleotide : Uridylic acid, cytidylic acid 155. All are edible marine fishes, except
(3) Nucleic acid : DNA, RNA (1) Common carp
(4) Pyrimidines : Adenine and Guanine (2) Hilsa
149. Which group of three of the following statements (3) Sardines and Mackerel
A to E contains all correct statements w.r.t. (4) Pomfret
Kwashiorkor? 156. Which cells of the areolar connective tissue are
A. Caused mainly by deficiency of proteins. involved in inflammatory reactions and secrete
B. Fat is not left under the skin. histamine, serotonin and heparin?
C. Extensive oedema and swelling of the body (1) Fibroblasts (2) Macrophages
parts. (3) Mast cells (4) Eosinophils
D. Is found in a child more than one year of age.
157. Secondary metabolites Abrin and Ricin are
E. Extreme emaciation and thinning of limbs
(1) Alkaloids (2) Drugs
occurs.
(1) A, C and E (2) A, C and D (3) Lectins (4) Toxins
(3) B, D and E (4) C, D and E
150. Which enzymes are likely to act sequentially on
white of egg eaten by man as it moves down the 158. The reaction,
alimentary canal? is catalysed by a/an
(1) Trypsin  Pepsin  Carboxypeptidase (1) Transferase (2) Hydrolase
(2) Pepsin  Trypsin  Carboxypeptidase (3) Lyase (4) Isomerase

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Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-23 (Code-A)

159. Each of the following statements concerning 167. Which of the following is included in upstream
pneumonia are correct, except processing?
(1) It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae (1) Separation and purification of products
and Hemophilus influenzae (2) Product is formulated with suitable
(2) Pneumonia bacteria grow better at 33°C than preservatives
at 37°C, hence they tend to cause the (3) Quality control testing
disease in upper respiratory tract rather than (4) The expression of foreign genes in host cells
the lower respiratory tract to produce a desirable protein
(3) Bacteria infects alveoli of lungs 168. The first transgenic cow Rosie, produced milk
(4) In pneumonia finger nails turn bluish in colour which was rich in
160. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita (1) -1 antitrypsin
exhibit
(2) Human -lactalbumin
(1) Homology (2) Analogy
(3) Polygalacturonase
(3) Industrial melanism (4) Adaptive radiation
(4) Vitamin-A
161. Intercalated discs are types of
169. What induces the completion of the meiotic
(1) Adhering junction division of the secondary occyte?
(2) Anchoring junction (1) Contact of the sperm with the zona pellucida
(3) Communication junction layer of ovum
(4) Tight junction (2) Entry of the sperm into the cytoplasm of the
162. Which of the following is not a second ovum through the zona pellucida and the
messenger? plasma membrane
(1) Adenylate cyclase (3) Fast block to polyspermy
(2) Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (4) Release of sperms by the penis into the
(3) Calcium ions vagina of female
(4) c-GMP 170. The maximum volume of air a person can
163. Proteins coded by cry IAb control breathe in after a forced expiration is
(1) Corn borer (1) TV + IRV (2) TV + ERV
(2) Cotton bollworm (3) ERV + TV + IRV (4) ERV + RV
(3) Meloidogyne incognita 171. Which of the following hormones are rapidly
(4) Bacillus thuringiensis secreted during emergency situations, example
during fight or fright?
164. From original seed-eating finches, many other
forms with altered beaks arose, enabling them to (1) Glucocorticoids (2) Catecholamines
become insectivorous and vegetarian finches. (3) Mineralocorticoids (4) Sex corticoids
This process of evolution of different species 172. Select the incorrect statement about
starting from a point is parathormone
(1) Parallel evolution (1) Hypercalcemic hormone
(2) Adaptive radiation (2) Decrease in the level of Ca2+ ions in the
(3) Convergent evolution blood plasma would stimulate the release of
(4) Natural selection PTH
165. To induce follicular maturation and superovulation (3) Increases Ca2+ absorption from the digested
in successful production of hybrids, which of the food
following hormone analogues would be (4) Excess of parathormone would cause
administered to a cow? parathyroid tetany
(1) Progesterone (2) Estrogen 173. During ECG of a healthy person, P-wave
(3) FSH (4) hCG represents
166. Which of the following lymphoid organs provide (1) Ventricular depolarisation
the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the (2) Ventricular repolarisation
antigen, which then proliferate to become effector (3) Joint diastole
cells? (4) Atrial depolarisation
(1) Bone marrow 174. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles
(2) Thymus occurs mostly due to which genetic disorder?
(3) Tonsils (1) Myasthenia gravis (2) Muscular dystrophy
(4) Primary lymphoid organs (3) Tetany (4) Arthritis

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Test-23 (Code-A) Aakash Rank Booster Test Series for NEET-2020

175. False statement w.r.t. Periplaneta americana is

(1) Open blood vascular system
(2) Alimentary canal contains crop and gizzard A.
(3) In male, a pair of spermathecae are present
in the 6th segment
(4) On an average, females produce 9-10
oothecae each containing 14-16 eggs
176. False statement w.r.t. Ascidia is
(1) Present exclusively in marine water
(2) It is a urochordate and notochord is present
only in larval tail B.
(3) It is a vertebrate because it has a notochord
(4) It is a protochordate
177. Vasopressin is mainly responsible for
(1) Obligatory reabsorption of water in PCT
(2) Conditional reabsorption of water in DCT
(3) Facultative reabsorption of water in
descending limb of loop of Henle
(4) Conditional reabsorption of water in C.
ascending limb of loop of Henle
178. Selective destruction of the zona glomerulosa of
the adrenal cortex would cause a deficiency of
which hormone?
(1) Aldosterone
(2) Androstenedione
(3) Cortisol D.
(4) Dehydroepiandrosterone
179. Which of the following is not a direct method of
gene transfer? Identification Drug Function
(1) Microinjection (1) A : Cannabinoid Hallucinogenic Effects
cardiovascular
(2) Biolistic system
(3) Electroporation (2) B : Papaver somniferum Morphine Relieves intense
pain
(4) Transfer by Ti plasmid
(3) C : Erythroxylum coca Cocaine Interferes with the
180. Which of the following is correct identification of transport of
plants and structure illustrated in diagrams A, B, dopamine
C, D, drugs obtained from them and their (4) D : Flowering branch Sedative Depression
function? of Datura and insomnia

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Edition: 2020-21