Bookmark: Answer Key/solution

Solutions of Mock CAT - 09 (CAT 2015 Pattern)
 Scorecard
 Accuracy
 Qs Analysis
 GP Attempted Video
 Solutions
 Bookmarks
 Toppers
 VRC
 LRDI
 QA
Sec 1
Q.1
Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c) and (d). Of these, three sentences
need to be arranged in a logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the
given options, choose the one that does not fit the sequence.
a It was barely dawn and I was being driven to the airport by a woman, who was
confident and also eager to make conversation.
b After a sleepless night, I thought it best to maintain indifference even as she

persisted with her explanations.
c Her story, however, hit a deadlock as she abruptly stopped talking - perhaps,
realizing she was revealing too much to a stranger (a man) - and I honestly did not
know what to ask next.
d However, soon enough, the intrigue started to get to me - my efforts to nap had
also proven futile.
o Bookmark
o Answer key/Solution
Correct Answer : c
Q.2
a The Chinese produced some of the finest Buddhist monuments, temples and
monasteries, and among the greatest Buddhist sculptures and paintings in the world.
b Turning from science and mathematics to the broader field of culture, the
consequences of Buddhist connections on China and India were also extensive.
c While these must, at one level, be seen as religious achievements, one would have
to be quite boorish to see in these works of art nothing other than graphic religiosity.
d That Buddhism had an impact on Chinese literature cannot come as a surprise.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
Q.3
a Though aimed at the mass market and a largely female demograph, they don't
want to classify it as chick-lit, which is a term they find derogatory to women.
b Is it fair to call their work chick-lit, a label that comes with numerous
preconceived notions, not all of them flattering?
c So, for the sake of that inevitable classification that book-stores and publishers
demand, what are authors like Narayan and Shirodkar writing?
d Or should they be classified as a new, hybrid genre, one that has retained the
romance, but introduced with it a whole new layer that does not shy away from
exploring difficult subjects and gritty issues?
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Q.4
a These by and large are curable cancers but require long-term follow-up as well
as a significant amount of expenditure.
b While government should initiate a nationwide screening programme for the
most prevalent cancers and invest in more affordable treatment centers, we too must
meet our obligation to give cancer the stick with more information and less prejudice.
c There is more to this than meets the eye.
d But perhaps the saddest statistics are those of childhood survivorship which in
our country are almost half of those in the developed world.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.5
Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence.
A. The silent disintegration of judgments - as an alternative to the more hard-edged

options of judicial overruling or legislative repeal- is a common phenomenon.
B. In the United States, the Supreme Court under Justice John Roberts has narrowed
precedents in many areas, including abortion, campaign finance and affirmative action.
C. The high court then capitalized on the poor reasoning of the judgment in Koushal to
narrow its precedential value, holding that the Supreme Court's judgment rested
significantly on the presumption of constitutionality and did not cast light on the
'subject matter' of homosexuality in general.
D. In the United Kingdom, the House of Lords gradually retreated from its
controversial decision in Pepper V Hart (allowing parliamentary proceedings to be cited
for the purposes of statutory interpretations).
E. These two judgments suggest that the imperfect legal reasoning adopted in Koushal
makes it highly susceptible to narrowing.
a BDCAE
b BDACE
c CEBDA
d CEADB
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
Q.6
Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D and E. They need to be arranged in a
logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the
most appropriate sequence.
A. With mounting criticism has also come growing praise for his vision to place Turkey
prominently on the global map.
B. But is that really the primary concern of the Turks today, given that the majority of
them, as polls show, find Mr. Erdogan's conservative values appealing?
C. Are they really proud of the paradoxes?
D. So we won't know till the next election.
E. The authoritarian and Islamist rule indicates a reversal of the secular state structure
that Ataturk had succeeded in ushering in.
a EBCAD
b AEBCD
c EBCDA
d EABCD
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Q.7
The following text is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best
captures the essence of the text.
It was a brilliant idea for Garsington Opera, which has an orchestra and chorus to
hand, to invite the Royal Shakespeare Company to stage an abridged version of the
play, A midsummer night's dream, with Mendelssohn's entire score attached. Conducted
by Douglas Boyd and directed by Owen Horsley, the result is a perfect marriage of
words and music in a setting - with the local woods skirting one side of the theatre - that
is nigh-on ideal.
a The production of Shakespeare's play, complete with a live backing of

Mendelssohn's score, is as brilliant as it is rare.
b Garsington Opera joined hands with the Royal Shakespeare Company to stage, A
midsummer night's dream.
c Garsington Opera in collaboration with the Royal Shakespeare Company has

created a new version of A midsummer night's dream.
d Royal Shakespeare Company's rendition of A midsummer night's dream, complete

with a live backing of Mendelssohn's score at the Garsington Opera has reaped great
results.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
Q.8
Thaler is a brilliant scholar, endlessly curious, empirically inclined and public spirited.
But he is also the perfect spokesman for an approach that has come to be known as
behavioural economics. He does not come across as someone lecturing others about
their shortcomings, because they feel like his shortcomings too. Thaler recounts a
dispute at an academic conference with the orthodox economist Robert Barro: "I said
that the difference between our models was that he assumed that the agents in his model
were as smart as he was, and I assumed they were as dumb as I am. Barro agreed."
a Thaler has turned his weaknesses into the subject of a new branch of economic
science.
b Thaler is a scholar of behavioural economics; a branch of economics which seeks

to understand individuals as they really are - full of weaknesses.
c Thaler is a brilliant scholar whose ability to laugh at himself has gained him
popularity.
d Thaler's brilliance lies in his ability to identify with the subject of his study.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.9
The thought that bacteria or inflammatory chemicals released by immune cells in the
gums can enter the bloodstream and influence the behaviour of other tissues or organs
is known as the mouth-body connection. In the past decade, there has been an explosion
of new research linking oral health to illnesses such as Type 2 diabetes, cancer and
heart disease. The most likely explanation is inflammation; the same heat, swelling and
discomfort you experience when you stub your toe or get an infected splinter, only in
this case it isn't switched off. Such chronic inflammation can be damaging to cells and
the DNA they contain.
a To avoid diseases like diabetes and cancer, one must take good care of one's teeth
and gums.
b A mouth-body connection exists which can lead to inflammation and can hence,
damage important cells.
c A lackadaisical approach to dental care could cause diabetes, heart disease and
cancer.
d People should not underestimate how the body will react when the mouth is
neglected.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
Q.10
Read the following argument and answer the question that follows.
"In the Philippines, a study found that workers who worked both for a piece rate and
for a flat wage ate 25 percent more food on the day before they worked for piece rate."
Which of the following is the best justification of the above statement?
a The flat rates are lesser than the piece rate.
b The flat rates are higher than the piece rate.
c There is an inverse relation between the amount of food one eats on the previous
day and the amount of work that one can do on the next day.
d There is a direct relation between the amount of food one eats on the previous day
and the amount of work that one can do on the next day.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
Q.11
Stampedes during religious festivals are quite common in India. Over a dozen instances
of pilgrims being trampled to death have been recorded in independent India, and the
common thread running through every such tragedy is the utter failure of the
authorities and the public alike to learn any lesson from previous disasters.
Which of the following options justifies the author's views?
a The mistakes made by the authorities are similar in nature at each of such
disasters.
b The public needs to be actively involved in crowd management in order to avoid

disasters.
c A feature common to religious festivals in India is crowd management.
d Religious festivals are very common in India and attract a large crowd of
believers to certain sacred places.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Q.12
"India is perhaps the only country in the world to have such a system, where it is
punishable by law to charge a price higher than the printed maximum retail price
(MRP)."
Which of the following will mitigate the effectiveness of the law mentioned above?
A. It is not illegal for the shopkeeper to sell an article at a price offered by the customer,
even if it is greater than the printed MRP.
B. It is not illegal for the shopkeeper to sell an article at a high price in absence of an
MRP.
C. The absence of a minimum selling price on the articles allows shopkeepers to charge
at will.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a Only A
b A and B
c B and C
d Only C
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Q.13
"It may be largely impossible to avoid getting bitten by a mosquito unless and otherwise
one can remain nearly invisible and have a cool body temperature."
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from this statement?
a Only visual and thermal signs guide a mosquito towards its host.
b There are very few ways for hosts to avoid being bitten by mosquitoes.
c Mosquitoes are attracted to certain hosts irrespective of what they do.
d Mosquitoes use visual and thermal signs to locate a host.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
Q.14
Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. In the space given below, write
the most appropriate sequence that forms a coherent paragraph/passage.
(1) The further news that this book had been chosen and was being pushed by the Book
of the Month Club, though it occasioned surprise, was pleasant because it seemed to
herald one of those instances when unusual talent of the sort rarely popular receives
recognition and a great tangible reward.
(2) George Orwell in his critical writings shows imagination and taste; his wit is both
edged and human.
(3) The news that he had written a satirical allegory, telling the story of a revolution by
farm animals against their cruel and dissolute master, and of their subsequent fortunes,
was like the smell of a roast from a kitchen ruled by a good cook, near the end of a
hungry morning.
(4) There are times when a reviewer is happy to report that a book is bad because it
fulfills his hope that the author will expose himself in a way that permits a long
deserved castigation.
(5) Few writers of any period have been able to use the English language so simply and
accurately to say what they mean, and at the same time to mean something.
52314
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : 25314
Q.15
Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. In the space given below, write
the most appropriate sequence that forms a coherent paragraph/passage.
(1) In such a scenario, Uber may not even have got all the dope on Yadav, even if it had
sought this information.
(2) There are also several specialized agencies which are hired by major private
corporations to get background check done on job applicants.
(3) Each of these reports costs about Rs. 3000.
(4) These agencies confront many stumbling blocks in the form of bureaucratic
indifference and hostility.
(5) Ultimately in most cases they manage to get only half-baked police reports which
they pass on to those hiring them because they have no other option.
o Bookmark
Directions for questions 16 to 19: The passage given below is followed by a set of four
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer to each question.
The gospels of the New Testament, compiled somewhere between AD 50 and 110, get
older every year. They also stay strikingly new, fuelled by a literary experimentalism
that keeps them alive not as religious artefacts but as pieces of writing.
The Gospel of John stands apart, with no mention of the nativity or the breaking of
bread at the last supper. But even though the synoptic gospels of Matthew, Mark and
Luke share many of the same incidents, or "pericopes", these short, self-contained
passages appear in a different order in each one. In Matthew, the pericopes of the
Sermon on the Mount, for example, are gathered together in a single block. In Luke,
they're separate. Each gospel is therefore a reworking of predetermined material for
literary effect. Sound familiar?
The postmodern cut-up technique, as used by writers from William Burroughs to Julio
Cortázar, is often traced back to Dada experiments of the 1920s. Think again. The word
'pericope' comes from the Greek, meaning "cut around", placing the gospels a mere
preposition away from the cut-ups of the 20th century.
This resemblance to postmodern texts goes further. The pericopes are a mash-up of
genres, including exorcisms, miracle stories, parables, sayings (prophetic and
apocalyptic), proverbs, instructions for church discipline, and rules for communities.
With a little more typographical flamboyance, the gospels could look like the kind of
mosaic text readers might expect from Jennifer Egan.
These ancient avant-garde techniques mean that a composite picture of Jesus and his
activities are created at the expense of a fixed realist portrait. The early church did
consider merging the four gospels into a single linear story. The theologian Tatian
compiled a version called the Diatessaron ("made of four") in the second century,
condensing the four gospels into a single narrative known as a "gospel harmony". It
didn't catch on.
Already by AD155, Justin Martyr is comfortable referring to the gospels in the plural.
He and other church leaders preferred the narrative flexibility of four separate
versions. To paraphrase Einstein, the story of Jesus should be made as simple as
possible, but no simpler than that.
The four perspectives of the New Testament offer a prefiguration of another

postmodern commonplace - there is no single incontrovertible truth. This multiple Jesus
story leaves space for interpretation between the repetitions, revisions and
contradictions that punctuate four distinct gospels.
It's a notion that glints with postmodern playfulness, undermining the traditional vision
of the evangelion as an authoritative proclamation definitively announced by a herald.
Instead, the one truth is announced in four different ways, a sophisticated narrative
strategy that takes advantage of the fact that unreliable narrators are simply more
plausible because they're more recognisably human. Uncertainty and inconsistency
better reflect the world as it is, in AD100 just as now.
The word gospel comes from the Old English "godspel", a good story. The longevity
and power of the New Testament gospels are deeply reassuring for literary
experimentalists. Structural experiments are worth pursuing because they work - if they
add to a story the authentic textures of lived experience, then the story may last for
2,000 years.
No wonder, then, that the repeatable story of Jesus seems to invite attempts to tell it
again. The ongoing 21st-century renewal of the New Testament is a constructive
reaction to the original material. Don't be frightened, that's the literary message of the
four pre-postmodern gospels. Be bold, writers, because there's more than one way to
approach the truth.
Q.16
Which of the following can be inferred about the 'literary experimentalism' that the
author refers to in the first paragraph?
a There is a predetermined quality in the gospels with the structure having been
worked out for a particular effect.
b The gospels of the New Testament have been placed through experimental
literary techniques and this has ensured a long literary shelf life for them.
c Each testament is not like the other in terms of content and structure.
d The gospels were written by four different individuals but structured by one.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
didn't catch on.

2,000 years.
approach the truth.
Q.17
Which of the following has not been stated as a resemblance between the gospels and
post-modern texts?
a A reworking of the predetermined material for literary effect
b A mix of various sections including miracle stories, parables, and proverbs
c Multiple perspectives on a particular story that opens the mind to interpretation
d A typographical flamboyance that is particular to a few postmodern authors

o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
didn't catch on.

2,000 years.
approach the truth.
Q.18
Why, according to the passage, would inconsistency help the case of the New
Testament?
a It reflects the credibility of the text as it indicates a lived experience and one that
is more human.
b There is no single truth and the gospel is also open to the manifestation of many
truths.
c The gospel was to be read by many and hence it was necessary to leave it open for
interpretation.
d They help in ensuring the longevity of the story.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
didn't catch on.

2,000 years.
approach the truth.
Q.19
Which of the following options would the author most agree with?
a The simpler the story the better acceptance it will have.
b Readers are willing to accept a story that has been written through experimental
techniques.
c Addition of authenticity of an experience may increase the longevity of a story.
d Circumvention is a technique in story telling that has been gaining acceptance in

the postmodern world.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
Colour has been used to make symbolic statements in cinema since the days when
"talkies" were tinted, toned or hand-coloured. From the Wizard of Oz, with its vibrant
Emerald City and yellow brick road, to the dramatic and ground-breaking use of colour
in Gone with the Wind, the most famous, early technicolour films harnessed the power
of colour, not only to stimulate the senses, but to enhance and express the themes of the
story.
Throughout cinematic history, the tradition of colour storytelling thrived. In 1951's A

Streetcar Named Desire, director Elia Kazan used colour to convey themes of class and
superficiality; dressing characters of a lower class in vibrant hues to symbolise their rise
to power in the case of the former, and using Blanche DuBois' love of colour as
metaphor for her desire to gloss over life's gritty realities in the case of the latter.
In 1968, Roman Polanski explored the relationship between colour and Christianity,
dressing his protagonist, Mia Farrow's Rosemary Woodhouse, in white (purity), yellow
(hope) and red (martyrdom). In 1979's Apocalypse Now, Francis Ford Coppola lashed
the audience with deep red napalm flames, enveloping green jungle foliage and the
foreboding, pitch black of Colonel Kurtz's lair, all oversaturated to increase the
claustrophobia and sense of death. In the 90s, M. Night Shyamalan first revealed his
signature use of colour symbolism - in the Sixth Sense, for example, vivid pops of red
show up in every scene where living characters connect with the dead.
And in 2000, two acclaimed movies used colour as a broad storytelling device. In
Christopher Nolan's Memento, colour sequences contrast with black and white to mark
a simple differentiation between chronological and reverse-chronological events (in an
otherwise complex and brain-teasing tale), and in Steven Soderbergh's Traffic, each of
the three separate story strands has its own palette. But since the turn of the century,
there has been a shift. With the rise of superhero blockbusters and action-packed
celebrity vehicles, cinema seats have been filled at the expense of subtlety. The craft of
colour symbolism has been relegated to independent moviemakers, while mainstream
jaunts blaze a 3D-enhanced trail.
Colour storytelling is far from passé, however. From the comfort of our sofas, we've
watched the ambitions of small screen creativity explode. As competing broadcasters,
including new players Netflix and Amazon, have lured movie stars and directors into
TV contracts, the limitations (and stigma) of serial television has been obliterated.
Those early adopters who devoured Lost, The Wire and The Sopranos have been
rewarded with a boom in "box set culture". And this eruption in television scope, reach
and budget can be seen in a riot of thematic hues.
Take Breaking Bad. Vince Gilligan's cult behemoth depicted a downtrodden, cancer-
ravaged teacher's transformation into a pork-pie-hat-wearing drug overlord, using
"hot" colour to punch Walter White's modern-day fable into living rooms across the
globe. From the acid yellow of the meth makers' jumpsuits to the bright blue shade of
the "product" itself, Walter's epic fall into criminality is characterised by larger-than-
life colour.
Gilligan's use of colour continued in spin-off series, Better Call Saul, with fans picking
up on a "fire and ice" code; colder colours are used in scenes that convey themes of
authority and respectability.
Q.20
Which of the following options can be best said to express the central idea of the
passage?
a The use of colour as a symbolic statement in cinema is not new, though the
degree and type of symbolism has varied with time.
b The thematic use of colour in cinema is nothing new, but the explosion of the
concept in television is proof that the ambitions of small screen storytelling know no
bounds.
c Each director has a special way in which he/she uses colour symbolism to depict
the themes in the movie/serial.
d Colour symbolism in movies has been used to predict the nature of the scene and
to bring in a sense of the future.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
story.

life colour.
Q.21
According to the passage, colour has been used to symbolise all of the following except
for
a to symbolise death or a foreboding of it.
b to symbolise the relationship between religion and the main character.
c to symbolise a change in someone's social/power status.
d to symbolise someone's longing to artfully mislead away from life's rough side.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
story.

life colour.
Q.22
Which of the following options would the author most agree with?
a Colour can even be used to depict stimuli from other senses in movies and TV
serials.
b Colour symbolism is an outdated idea.
c The symbolic use of colour in the small screen is only set to rise as a trend.
d Colour has been used to help the viewer find a common thread in a complex story
line.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
story.

life colour.
Q.23
Which of the following options would complete the author's explanation of the "fire and
ice" code?
a Hotter colours may be associated with crime and corruption.
b Hotter colours convey a feeling of vibrancy and energy.
c Hotter colours are associated with crime and corruptibility.
d Hotter colours always bring out the aggression in the viewer.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
Demand-pull theory states that inflation accelerates when aggregate demand increases
beyond the ability of the economy to produce (its potential output). Hence, any factor
that increases aggregate demand can cause inflation. However, in the long run,
aggregate demand can be held above productive capacity only by increasing the
quantity of money in circulation faster than the real growth rate of the economy.
Another (although much less common) cause can be a rapid decline in the demand for
money, as happened in Europe during the Black Death, or in the Japanese occupied
territories just before the defeat of Japan in 1945.
The effect of money on inflation is most obvious when governments finance spending in
a crisis, such as a civil war, by printing money excessively. This sometimes leads to
hyperinflation, a condition where prices can double in a month or less. Money supply is
also thought to play a major role in determining moderate levels of inflation, although
there are differences of opinion on how important it is. For example, Monetarist
economists believe that the link is very strong; Keynesian economists, by contrast,
typically emphasize the role of aggregate demand in the economy rather than the money
supply in determining inflation. That is, for Keynesians, the money supply is only one
determinant of aggregate demand.
Some Keynesian economists also disagree with the notion that central banks fully
control the money supply, arguing that central banks have little control, since the
money supply adapts to the demand for bank credit issued by commercial banks. This is
known as the theory of endogenous money, and has been advocated strongly by post-
Keynesians as far back as the 1960s. It has today become a central focus of Taylor rule
advocates. This position is not universally accepted - banks create money by making
loans, but the aggregate volume of these loans diminishes as real interest rates increase.
Thus, central banks can influence the money supply by making money cheaper or more
expensive, thus increasing or decreasing its production.
A fundamental concept in inflation analysis is the relationship between inflation and

unemployment, called the Phillips curve. This model suggests that there is a trade-off
between price stability and employment. Therefore, some level of inflation could be
considered desirable in order to minimize unemployment. The Phillips curve model
described the U.S. experience well in the 1960s but failed to describe the combination of
rising inflation and economic stagnation (sometimes referred to as stagflation)
experienced in the 1970s.
Thus, modern macroeconomics describes inflation using a Phillips curve that shifts (so
the trade-off between inflation and unemployment changes) because of such matters as
supply shocks and inflation becoming built into the normal workings of the economy.
The former refers to such events as the oil shocks of the 1970s, while the latter refers to
the price/wage spiral and inflationary expectations implying that the economy
"normally" suffers from inflation. Thus, the Phillips curve represents only the demand-
pull component of the triangle model.
Another concept of note is the potential output (sometimes called the "natural gross
domestic product"), a level of GDP, where the economy is at its optimal level of
production given institutional and natural constraints. (This level of output corresponds
to the Non-Accelerating Inflation Rate of Unemployment, NAIRU, or the "natural" rate
of unemployment or the full-employment unemployment rate.) If GDP exceeds its
potential (and unemployment is below the NAIRU), the theory says that inflation will
accelerate as suppliers increase their prices and built-in inflation worsens. If GDP falls
below its potential level (and unemployment is above the NAIRU), inflation will
decelerate as suppliers attempt to fill excess capacity, cutting prices and undermining
built-in inflation.
However, one problem with this theory for policy-making purposes is that the exact
level of potential output (and of the NAIRU) is generally unknown and tends to change
over time. Inflation also seems to act in an asymmetric way, rising more quickly than it
falls. Worse, it can change because of policy: for example, high unemployment under
British Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher might have led to a rise in the NAIRU (and a
fall in potential) because many of the unemployed found themselves as structurally
unemployed, unable to find jobs that fit their skills. A rise in structural unemployment
implies that a smaller percentage of the labor force can find jobs at the NAIRU, where
the economy avoids crossing the threshold into the realm of accelerating inflation.
Q.24
Which of the given options best defines structural unemployment?
a A situation where people are rendered jobless by those who possess better skills
b A situation where people do not find employment that befits their skills
c A case where there are more jobs than there are people
d A scenario where skills are given lesser importance than qualifications
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
built-in inflation.
Q.25
What according to the author is usually a comparatively uncommon reason for the rise
of inflation?
a Aggregate demand becoming more than production capacity
b A steep fall in the currency value
c A rapid decline in the amount of money in circulation

d Stagnation in money circulation channels
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b

built-in inflation.
Q.26
Which of the below examples, highlights a prominent failing of the Philips curve model?
a Unemployment and inflation following clearly disparate trends
b Unemployment leading to an increase in price stability
c The steady rise of inflation with slow economic growth
d The observed increase in inflation in tandem with resultant decrease in economic

growth
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c

built-in inflation.
Q.27
According to the passage under what circumstances would built-in inflation rise?
a High GDP, low unemployment
b Low GDP, high unemployment
c Price instability
d Prevalence of structural unemployment
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Mutations can involve the duplication of large sections of DNA, usually through genetic
recombination. These duplications are a major source of raw material for evolving new
genes, with tens to hundreds of genes duplicated in animal genomes every million years.
Most genes belong to larger families of genes of shared ancestry. Novel genes are
produced by several methods, commonly through the duplication and mutation of an
ancestral gene, or by recombining parts of different genes to form new combinations
with new functions.
Here, domains act as modules, each with a particular and independent function, that
can be mixed together to produce genes encoding new proteins with novel properties.
For example, the human eye uses four genes to make structures that sense light: three
for colour vision and one for night vision; all four arose from a single ancestral gene.
Another advantage of duplicating a gene (or even an entire genome) is that this
increases redundancy; this allows one gene in the pair to acquire a new function while
the other copy performs the original function. Other types of mutation occasionally
create new genes from previously non-coding DNA.
Changes in chromosome number may involve even larger mutations, where segments of
the DNA within chromosomes break and then rearrange. For example, in the
Homininae, two chromosomes fused to produce human chromosome-2; this fusion did
not occur in the lineage of the other apes, and they retain these separate chromosomes.
In evolution, the most important role of such chromosomal rearrangements may be to
accelerate the divergence of a population into new species by making populations less
likely to interbreed, thereby preserving genetic differences between these populations.
Sequences of DNA that can move about the genome, such as transposons, make up a
major fraction of the genetic material of plants and animals, and may have been
important in the evolution of genomes. For example, more than a million copies of the
Alu sequence are present in the human genome, and these sequences have now been
recruited to perform functions such as regulating gene expression. Another effect of
these mobile DNA sequences is that when they move within a genome, they can mutate
or delete existing genes and thereby produce genetic diversity.
Non-lethal mutations accumulate within the gene pool and increase the amount of
genetic variation. The abundance of some genetic changes within the gene pool can be
reduced by natural selection, while other "more favorable" mutations may accumulate
and result in adaptive changes.
For example, a butterfly may produce offspring with new mutations. The majority of
these mutations will have no effect; but one might change the color of one of the
butterfly's offspring, making it harder (or easier) for predators to see. If this color
change is advantageous, the chance of this butterfly's surviving and producing its own
offspring are a little better, and over time the number of butterflies with this mutation
may form a larger percentage of the population.
Neutral mutations are defined as mutations whose effects do not influence the fitness of
an individual. These can accumulate over time due to genetic drift. It is believed that the
overwhelming majority of mutations have no significant effect on an organism's fitness.
Also, DNA repair mechanisms are able to mend most changes before they become
permanent mutations, and many organisms have mechanisms for eliminating
otherwise-permanently mutated somatic cells.
And as it has been observed, beneficial mutations, usually, improve reproductive

success.
Q.28
Which of the following can be attributed to the emergence of new species as given in the
third paragraph?
a Addition of chromosomes
b Mutations involving chromosomal segments
c Fusion of chromosomal segments
d An increased instance of interbreeding
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
with new functions.

success.
Q.29
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the idea behind natural
selection as explained by the butterfly example in the passage?
a A black-coloured butterfly thriving in an area where there are no woods.
b A black-coloured butterfly thriving in an area where the woods are black.
c A white-coloured butterfly thriving in an area where the woods are black.
d A white-coloured butterfly thriving in an area where there are no woods.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
with new functions.

success.
Q.30
According to the passage, most mutations are-
a independent mutations
b involve gene deletions
c neutral mutations
d involve gene additions
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
with new functions.

success.
Q.31
What purpose has the example of the human eye been cited for?
a To highlight the workings of genetic renewal
b To give an example for chromosomal duplication
c To highlight the impact of mutation
d To differentiate between the genes responsible for colour vision and night vision
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.32
Given below are four sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or
part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are incorrect in terms of grammar, usage, spellings and
punctuation. Then, choose the most appropriate option.
A. If you're tired, you're also likely to feel frustrated, impulsed and a bit miserable.
B. Sleepiness is also often accompanied by finding it hard to remember things, an
inability to concentrate and tendency to bump into things.
C. Thank goodness there's a cure - even on the busiest of days.
D. It's the midday nap.
a A and B
b C and D
c B and C
d A and D
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Q.33
A. The best part of my job is seeing people who start out unfit and overweight and go on
to become healthy and strong.
B. They often say, "I couldn't have done it without you", but the truth is they have done
it all by themselves.
C. I can't control how much one eats at the end of each day, or give them the drive to
push that extra weight.
D. You can't stop people once they are adults.
a A, B and C
b B and C
c Only C
d D and A
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
Q.34
A. I ask my mother and my aunt Mary about their approach, and its the same.
B. For Mary, it's obvious: you want to eat something that is fresh, cooked just right,
arranged with purpose.
C. There's nothing worse than a grey, boiled meal.
D. But it's the ingredeints first and foremost that matter: if it's fresh, it'll be beautiful.
a B and C
b A and D
c C and A
d D and B
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Sec 2
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions on the basis of the information
given below.
India is a major producer of wheat, and it exports some part of its production every
year. The remaining part is consumed domestically. When the availability is less than
demand, government is forced to import wheat in order to meet the required demand. If
availability is equal to or more than demand, then the availability becomes equal to
consumption.
Following chart shows the per capita availability of wheat (In Kg) in different years.
The following chart gives the information about production and exports during the
given period
Availability = Production – Export

During the given period, India exported wheat at the rate of Rs. 90/Kg and imported at
the rate of Rs. 150/Kg.
Q.35
In which year, during the given period, was the consumption of wheat in India as a
percentage of export the highest? (Assume India did not import wheat during the given
period.)
a 2008
b 2007
c 2005
d Data insufficient
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
given below.
consumption.
given period

Q.36
In which of the following years was the population of India the lowest?
a 2007
b 2006
c 2009
d 2008
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
given below.
consumption.
given period
Q.37
In 2007, if 20% of demand was met by imports, then by what percent was earning from
exports less/more than expenditure on import of wheat?
a 16.75% more
b 45.95% more
c 8.25% less
d 16.75% less
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
given below.
consumption.
given period

Q.38
What was the average annual increase in production (in terms of percentage) of wheat
from 2005 to 2009?
a 2.56%
b 2.05%
c 10.24%
d None of these
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
given below.
The line graph given below shows the profit percentage of three companies – Ibay,
Dabong and Syntra – during the period 2005-2010.
Profit = Revenue – Expenditure

Profit percentage = (Profit/Expenditure) × 100
Q.39
If revenue of Ibay in 2008 increased by 40% over that in the year 2007, then what was
the percentage change in profit of Ibay for the same period?
a 40% increase
b 30% decrease
c 2% decrease
d 21.9% decrease
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
given below.

Q.40
Revenue of Ibay in 2007 was equal to the expenditure of Syntra in 2006, and profit of
Ibay in 2007 exceeded that of Syntra in 2006 by Rs.24 crores, then what was the
expenditure (in Rs. crore) of Ibay in 2007?
a 100
b 200
c 10
d 280
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
given below.

Q.41
In which year was the percentage increase/decrease in the profit of the company
Dabong with respect to the previous year the highest?
a 2006
b 2009
c 2008
d Data insufficient
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
given below.

Q.42
If revenue of Dabong in 2007 increased by 25% over that in the year 2006, then what is
the approximate percentage change in expenditure of Dabong in the year 2007 over
2006?
a No change
b 16.66% increase
c 20% increase
d 25% increase
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
given below.
The following tables show data related to the investments made by a group of investors
comprising 120 Indians and 80 NRIs in three real estate projects – one each in Mumbai,
Pune and Nagpur. It is also known that each of the 200 investors invested in all the
three projects.
For example, in Nagpur’s project, the investments made by 32 Indians was in the range
of 9 lakhs to 22 lakhs, the lowest investment was 9 lakhs and highest investment was 22
lakhs.
Q.43
Which of the following can be true about the investments made in the Mumbai project?
a Total investment made by NRI investors could be more than that by Indian
investors.
b Average investment made by NRI investors could be more than that by Indian
investors.
c Average investment made by Indian investors could be 42 lakhs.
d More than one of the above
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
given below.
comprising 120 Indians and 80 NRIs in three real estate projects – one each in Mumbai,
three projects.
For example, in Nagpur’s project, the investments made by 32 Indians was in the range
of 9 lakhs to 22 lakhs, the lowest investment was 9 lakhs and highest investment was 22
lakhs.
Q.44
The investors who invested at least 36 lakhs in each of the three projects were gifted a
car. The number of Indian investors who got a car cannot be less than
a 16
b 12
c 8
d 0
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
given below.
comprising 120 Indian and 80 NRI in three real estate projects – one each in Mumbai,
three projects.
For example, in Nagpur’s project, the investments made by 32 Indians were in the
range of 9 lakhs to 22 lakhs, the lowest investment was 9 lakhs and highest investment
was 22 lakhs.
Q.45
The number of NRI investors who invested at least 50 lakhs in each of the three projects
was at most
a 25
b 43
c 44
d 52
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
given below.
comprising 120 Indian and 80 NRI in three real estate projects – one each in Mumbai,
three projects.
For example, in Nagpur’s project, the investments made by 32 Indians were in the
range of 9 lakhs to 22 lakhs, the lowest investment was 9 lakhs and highest investment
was 22 lakhs.
Q.46
Which of the following could be a value of the average investment (in lakhs) made by
NRI investors in the Mumbai project ?
a 46.05
b 39.5
c 61.5
d None of these
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
Direction for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
Last year elections were held in all the four zones – east, west, north and south zone of Goa.
The following table shows the data related to votes polled across four zones of Goa in the
recently held elections.
Election Commission of India declares a zone as “Developed Electoral Zone” if it satisfies the
following two conditions –
(i) Number of votes polled by female voters should not be less than the votes polled by male
voters in that zone by more than 5%.
(ii) For both male and female, valid votes cast should be at least 90% of respective votes polled.
Q.47
How many Zones in Goa are declared as “Developed Electoral Zones”?
a 0
b 1
c 2
d 3
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
below.
Q.48
In how many zones was the number of valid votes as a percent of the total number of votes
polled higher for male voters as compared to that of female voters?
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1
below.
Q.49
In which zone was the number of votes polled by male voters as a percentage of total number of
votes polled in that zone the highest ?
a South
b East
c North
d West
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
below.
Q.50
In how many zones was the number of votes polled by female voters more than 25% of the total
votes polled by female voters in all the four zones together?
a 1
b 2
c 3
d Cannot be determined
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
given below.
In a group of ten students – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J – each pursuing Phd, every

student has chosen two subjects – one as a compulsory subject from among History,
Chemistry, English and Politics and the other as an optional subject from among
Economics, History, Geography and Sociology. Each of the compulsory subjects was
chosen by a different number of students, which is at least one, and the same is true for
the optional subjects. Further it is also known that:
1. Three students have chosen History as their compulsory subject and each of these
students has chosen a different optional subject but none of them has chosen Sociology.
I has chosen History as both of his/her subjects.
2. Both D and H have chosen English as their compulsory subject and this is the only
pair of students in which both the students have chosen the same compulsory subject as
well as same optional subjects, which is different from the compulsory subject. A has
chosen the same optional subject which has been chosen by both D and H as their
optional subject.
3. Maximum number of students have chosen History as their optional subject.No two
students who have chosen History as their optional subject have the same compulsory
subject.
4. E has chosen English as his/her compulsory subject and Economics as the optional
subject.
5. No one has chosen the same optional subject which B has chosen as optional subject.
B and C have chosen the same compulsory subjects while G and A have chosen different
compulsory subjects.
6. C and F have chosen different compulsory subjects as well as optional subjects. C has
chosen Economics as his/her optional subject.
7. F and G have chosen different compulsory subjects but the same optional subjects. G
has chosen Politics as his compulsory subject.
Q.51
How many students have chosen Geography as the optional subject?
1
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : 1
given below.

optional subject.
subject.
subject.
Q.52
Who has chosen Chemistry and Sociology as his/her compulsory and optional subjects
respectively?
a F
b B
c A
d J
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
given below.

optional subject.
subject.
subject.
Q.53
The compulsory subject chosen by F is
a Chemistry
b English
c History
d Either (a) or (b)

o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
given below.

optional subject.
subject.
subject.
Q.54
Which of the following represents the group of students who have chosen History as
their optional subject?
a I, D, A and H
b I, J, F and G
c I,G and F
d None of these
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
given below.
Four friends – Clarke, Sen, Steve and Richard – are sitting in a row (not necessarily in
the same order ) and their children – Clive, Jordan, Mark and Ken – are sitting in the
row behind them. Each child is seated directly behind his/her respective father. Each
friend has exactly one child. All of them are wearing jackets, the colours of which are
from among blue, brown, green and yellow. No two friends are wearing jackets of the
same colour and the same holds true for the children. No father is wearing jackets of the
same colour as worn by his child. It is also known that:
1. Clarke’s child is wearing blue coloured jacket.
2. Ken’s father is wearing neither blue nor yellow coloured jacket.
3. Steve is sitting immediately next to the friends who are wearing green and brown
coloured jackets.
4. Richard’s child is wearing yellow coloured jackets.
5. Clarke and Richard are sitting at the extreme ends.
6. Sen is not wearing brown coloured jacket.
7. Mark is Sen’s child.
8. The child wearing green coloured jacket is immediately left of the child who is
wearing yellow coloured jacket.
Q.55
Which one of the following pairs does not contain the names of person who would be
wearing the Yellow coloured jacket?
a Clive and Ken
b Mark and ken
c Ken and Jordan
d Clive and Jordan
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
given below.
coloured jackets.
Q.56
Which of the following statement(s) may be true?
(i) Ken is sitting immediately next to Sen’s child.
(ii) Clive’s father is wearing the brown coloured jacket.
(iii) Jordan is wearing the blue coloured jacket.
a Only (i) and (ii)
b Only (i)
c Only (iii)
d Only (ii) and (iii)
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
given below.
coloured jackets.
Q.57
How many of the following statements cannot be inferred with certainty from the given
information?
(i) Colour of Sen’s Jacket
(ii) Name of Clive’s father
(iii) Colour of Ken’s jacket
(iv) Name of the friend whose child is wearing green coloured jacket
(v) Name of the child wearing blue coloured jacket
(vi) Name of Steve’s child
a 2
b 3
c 4
d More than 4
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
given below.
coloured jackets.
Q.58
What is the colour of Richard’s jacket?
a Brown
b Blue
c Yellow
d Green
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
given below.
Six friends – Jatin, Ketan, Lalit, Manoj, Nitin and Pulkit – went to a general shop with
Rs. 99, 78, 90, 74, 82 and 86 respectively. The shopkeeper had seven different types of
chocolates – stix, barone, munch, perk, crackle, snickers and silk – worth Rs. 8, 12, 20,
25, 30, 34 and 60 per chocolate respectively. These friends spent their money only on
chocolates. It is also known that:
1. Each chocolate was purchased by at least two friends and no one bought more than
one unit of the same type of chocolate.
2. Each friend bought either 3 or 4 chocolates.
3. Only barone was bought by 5 people.
4. Except one friend, who spent all his money, each friend was left with some amount of
money after they completed their shopping. The amount left with none of them was
sufficient enough to buy any other chocolate.
5. Nitin bought more number of chocolates than what Pulkit bought. Lalit bought 3
chocolates and snickers was not one of them.
6. Ketan did not buy crackle and Jatin did not buy silk.
Q.59
Who did not buy barone?
a Jatin
b Ketan
c Lalit
d Pulkit
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
given below.
Q.60
How many chocolates were bought by the six friends put together?
a 22
b 19
c 20
d 21
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
given below.
Q.61
How many friends bought both snickers and stix?
a Zero
b One
c Two
d cannot be determined
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
given below.
Q.62
Who among the following was/were left with Rs.7?
(i) Jatin
(ii) Ketan
(iii) Nitin
(iv) Pulkit
a Both (i) and (iv)
b Only (iii)
c Both (ii) and (iii)
d only (ii)
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
given below.
Six countries – India, Japan, Norway ,Germany, Brazil and China – are ranked on the
basis of three parameters – Infant mortality rate(IMR), Sex ratio(SR) and Literacy
rate(LR). The country with the highest LR value is ranked 1 and that with the lowest
LR value is ranked 6. The same holds true for SR as well. The country with the highest
IMR is ranked 6 and that with the lowest IMR is ranked 1. Sex ratio is defined as the
number of females (an integral value) for every 1000 males.
Some additional information is given below:

1. No country is given the same rank on any of the two parameters out of the three, and
no two countries are given the same rank on any of the three parameters.
2. The number of countries having higher IMR value than that of Japan is equal to the
number of countries having higher SR value than that of Brazil.
3. Japan is given the same rank on SR as China is given on LR and China is given the
same rank on SR as Japan is given on LR.
4. India has higher SR and LR values as compared to Brazil, China and Germany.
5. Norway is ranked 2 on IMR, Germany is ranked 3 on LR and China is ranked 6 on
IMR.
6. The sum of the numerical values of three ranks given to a country is not maximum
for Brazil.
7. The number of countries that are given higher rank on LR than what China is given
is equal to the number of countries that are given lower lower rank on SR than what
China is given.
Q.63
What is the rank of Norway on LR?
a 6
b 4
c 5
d 2
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
given below.

IMR.
for Brazil.
China is given.
Q.64
If females do not outnumber males in any of the six countries, then which of the
following countries can have sex ratio of 998?
(i) Germany
(ii) India
(iii) Japan
(iv) Norway
(v) Brazil
a Only (ii) and (v)
b Only (ii)
c Only (ii),(iii) and (iv)
d Only (ii) and (iii)
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
given below.

IMR.
for Brazil.
China is given.
Q.65
If the sum of the three ranks is a prime number for exactly three countries, then what is
the rank of India on IMR?
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : 4
given below.

IMR.
for Brazil.
China is given.
Q.66
If the country having the least sum of the three ranks is given the best rating, then
which country is given the best rating?
a Norway
b India
c Japan
d Cannot be determined
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Sec 3
Q.67
N = a + 4 , where ‘a’ is a natural number. For how many values of ‘a’ is N a prime
4 a
number?
a One
b Two
c Three
d Infinitely many
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Q.68
A fruit dealer fixes selling price of watermelon juice in such a way that he ends up
earning a profit of 30% after paying tax, which is 13% of the cost price. A shopkeeper
buys watermelon juice from the dealer and marks up the price by 15% and then adds
25% water to the juice. He then gives a discount of 4% on juice to his customers and
thereby sells juice at Rs. 98.67 per litre. What is the cost price per litre of the
watermelon juice for the fruit dealer?
a Rs. 47.50
b Rs. 50.00
c Rs. 52.20
d Rs. 87.50
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.69
a 2
b 4
c –3 or 2
d 4 or –3
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.70
o Bookmark
Q.71
In a landlocked country named Afjanistan, there are only two banks namely B1 and B2.
On fixed deposits, B1 pays interest in the form of simple interest at the rate of 10% and
B2 pays interest in the form of compound interest, compounded annually, at the same
rate. A man deposits 12000 Euros in B1 and withdraws the amount generated at the end
of the year and deposits it in B2. At the end of the second year, he withdraws the
amount from B2 and deposits it in B1. At the end of the third year, he withdraws the
amount from B1 and deposits it in B2. He continues with this strategy. After a minimum
of how many years (approximately) will he get an amount which is more than 20400
Euros?
a 5
b 6
c 7
d 8
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.72
a Only statement I
b Only statement II
c Both the statements I and II
d Neither statement I nor II
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.73
If both the equations x + 4x + C = 0 and x + 4x – C = 0, have rational roots, where ‘C’ is
2 2
a natural number, then the number of possible value(s) of C is/are

a 0
b 2
c 3
d 1
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Q.74
One of the angles of a triangle is 60° and lengths of two of its sides are 6 cm and 7 cm.
The length (in cm) of the third side of the triangle is
a √43
b 3 + √22
c √43 or 3 + √22
d 3 √22
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
Q.75
If X is the smallest number that is divisible by both 6 and 5, then the highest power of
10 that would completely divide the product of the first 20 multiples of X is
a 4
b 24
c 27
d 20
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.76
The game of Doku is played on an array using the natural numbers 1 to 4. The array is
shown as below.
According to the rule of the game, the numbers must be filled such that:
I. No digit repeats in a row or a column.
II. All the four digits must be used in the square formed by C11, C12, C21 and C22 and
as well as in that formed by C13, C14, C23 and C24 also.
The maximum number of different Doku results that can be arrived at without the
pattern being repeated is:
a 576
b 96
c 48
d 24
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.77
Vikram has a certain number of gold coins with him. He wants to distribute these coins
among his 3 sons and 3 daughters. He also wants to keep some coins with him. He keeps
one coin with him and gives 1/5 of the remaining to his first son; out of the remaining
coins, he keeps one coin with him and gives 1/5 of the remaining to his second son; and
he does the same with his third son. He then distributes the remaining coins among his 3
daughters in the ratio 23 : 46 : 55. The number of coins with Vikram could not be less
than
a 246
b 124
c 624
d 196
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Q.78
In the diagram given below, ABC is an equilateral triangle and all the circles inside it
are of the same radius. Each circle touches at least one side of the triangle and at least
two other circles as shown below. If the radius of each circle is R units, then find the
area of the triangle.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
Q.79
a
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Q.80
If a + b + c + d = x, where a, b, c and d are natural numbers that are not multiples of
7! 8! 9! 10!
10, then how many distinct values of unit’s digit of x are possible?
a 10
b 9
c 8
d 4
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.81
A group comprises 11 people namely A , A , A ,...... A . The ages of 11 people, in the order
1 2 3 11
in which their names are given, are in an arithmetic progression. If the sum of the ages
of A , A , A , A , A and A is 72,then what is the sum of the ages of A , A and A ?
1 3 5 7 9 11 1 6 11
9.8
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : 36
Q.82
If f(g(x))= g(f(x)) = h(x), which of the following is definitely true?
a If f(x)= x + 2 then g(x) can’t be x – 10
b If f(x) = g(x) then h(x) = [f(x)]

2
c f(h(x)) = h(f(x))
d None of these
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
Q.83
In the figure given below, altitude PS of triangle PQR meets the circumcircle of the
triangle at T. If ST = 3 cm and H is the orthocentre of the triangle PQR, then what is
the length of the line segment HT?
a 4.5 cm
b 5 cm
c 6 cm
d 4 cm
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
Q.84
From a solution, containing milk and water in the ratio 3 : 5, 20% of the solution is
taken out and replaced with milk. How many more times should this process be
repeated to make the ratio of milk to water in the final solution 17 : 8 ?
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : 2
Q.85
There are 2n consecutive natural numbers. If (n + 1) numbers are randomly selected,
then what is the probability that their HCF is 1?
a 1/2
b 1/(n+1)
c 1/2n
d 1/(2n) 0
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
Q.86
Which of the following graphs represents the function y = min (x ,|| x | – 3 | )
2
c
d
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Q.87
In a relay race between two groups A and B (5 people in each group and the speeds of
each group member being different), group A defeats group B by 50 m. If each member
of group B increases his speed by x%, then group B defeats group A by 125 m. The
speeds of the last runners of groups A and B are 25 km/hr and 20 km/hr respectively
and the time taken by group A to complete the race is 4 min. Find the approximate
value of x. (Assume that each runner has to run more than 125 m.)
a 11.75
b 12.15
c 10
d 15
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.88
In an n-sided regular polygon, how many distinct values can the length of diagonals
take?
a n(n - 3)/2
b (n - 3)/2
c (n - 2)/2
d Either (b) or (c)

o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
Q.89
If H.C.F. (n, 4) = 2, where n<6,then which of the following numbers does not divide (5 –
4n
3 )?2n
a 317
b 13
c 11
d 7
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.90
Raju, a rice dealer, has packets of 10 kg, 50 kg, 100 kg and 1000 kg of rice with him. He
has to deliver an order of 1,380 kgs of rice. The cost price of rice for Raju is Re.1/kg.
The transportation cost is Rs. 8 per packet, irrespective of packet’s weight. If he
delivers full packets only, what is the minimum cost (cost price and transportation cost
together) that he would incur in order to deliver the order?
a Rs. 1444
b Rs. 1414
c Rs. 1448
d Rs. 1426
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Q.91
A group of five men started painting a wall in such a way that 3 additional men joined
them on the 2nd day and 2 men left on the third day. Similarly, 3 additional men joined
the group on the 4th day and 2 men left on the fifth day. The same process is repeated
till the completion of the work. If the wall was completely painted in 15 days, find the
number of days that 29 men , working simultaneously, would take to paint the wall
completely.
a 7
b 5
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.92
The sum of 30 terms of an arithmetic progression is 0. If the first term is –29, find the
sum of the last 3 terms of the progression.
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : 81
Q.93
‘abc’, a three-digit number, has three factors. How many factors of the number
‘abcabc’ are possible?
a 24
b 16
c 8
d Either (a) or (b)

o Bookmark
Correct Answer : d
Q.94
In ΔPQR, the incircle touches the sides QR, RP and PQ at T, U and S respectively. If
the radius of the incircle is 4 units and the lengths of QT, RU and PS are consecutive
integers, the area of the triangle PQR (in sq. units) is
a 42
b 84
c 21
d 48
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.95
On a planet, named M, one day has 36 hours, and it follows a 9-hour clock (like we
follow a 12-hour clock). In an hour, there are 100 minutes and in a minute, there are
200 seconds. Moreover, the hour hand and the second hand move in a clockwise
direction, while the minute hand moves in an anticlockwise direction. On the planet,
how many times will the hour hand and the minute hand meet in a day?
a 32
b 36
c 40
d 44
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
Q.96
a 9/2
b 7/2
c 5/2
d 3/2
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a
Q.97
In the figure given below, ΔABC is an equilateral triangle of side 14 cm. A semicircle,
taking BC as its diameter, is drawn and it intersects AB at D and AC at E. Find the area
of the shaded region.
c 49 cm 2
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.98
If (52a) = (169) ,where a and b are single digit natural numbers, and the difference
b 11
between a and b is 2, then find the value of (a + b).
a 6
b 8
c 10
d 14
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : c
Q.99
There are four towns (located in the same direction with respect to Sunil’s house)
namely A, B, C and D, along a highway, at distances 10, 20, 35 and 45 miles,
respectively. Sunil wants to set up a shop to service these four towns. If the demand
from each of these towns is found to be identical and there are no other shops servicing
them, where should he set up his shop to minimize the cost of transportation,
considering he travels through the highway only?
a Anywhere between towns A and B
b Anywhere between towns B and C
c at town B
d at town C
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : b
Q.100
For sets A and B the following operations are defined as:
A – B is the set of all elements of set A that are not elements of set B;
A B is the set of all elements that appear in either A or B or both A and B;
A ∩ B is the set of all elements that are common to both sets A and B.
With the above definitions, if P, Q and R are three sets, then P – (Q – R) is equivalent to
a (P – Q) (P ∩ R)
b P – (Q R)
c P – (Q ∩ R)
d (P – Q) (P – R)
o Bookmark
Correct Answer : a

Bookmark: Answer Key/solution

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Bookmark: Answer Key/solution

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Bookmark: Answer Key/solution

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Solutions of Mock CAT - 09 (CAT 2015 Pattern)

b After a sleepless night, I thought it best to maintain indifference even as she

d That Buddhism had an impact on Chinese literature cannot come as a surprise.

c There is more to this than meets the eye.

A. The silent disintegration of judgments - as an alternative to the more hard-edged

a The production of Shakespeare's play, complete with a live backing of

c Garsington Opera in collaboration with the Royal Shakespeare Company has

d Royal Shakespeare Company's rendition of A midsummer night's dream, complete

b Thaler is a scholar of behavioural economics; a branch of economics which seeks

Which of the following is the best justification of the above statement?

a The flat rates are lesser than the piece rate.

b The flat rates are higher than the piece rate.

Which of the following options justifies the author's views?

b The public needs to be actively involved in crowd management in order to avoid

c A feature common to religious festivals in India is crowd management.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from this statement?

c Mosquitoes are attracted to certain hosts irrespective of what they do.

d Mosquitoes use visual and thermal signs to locate a host.

The four perspectives of the New Testament offer a prefiguration of another

The four perspectives of the New Testament offer a prefiguration of another

a A reworking of the predetermined material for literary effect

b A mix of various sections including miracle stories, parables, and proverbs

c Multiple perspectives on a particular story that opens the mind to interpretation

d A typographical flamboyance that is particular to a few postmodern authors

The four perspectives of the New Testament offer a prefiguration of another

d They help in ensuring the longevity of the story.

The four perspectives of the New Testament offer a prefiguration of another

a The simpler the story the better acceptance it will have.

c Addition of authenticity of an experience may increase the longevity of a story.

d Circumvention is a technique in story telling that has been gaining acceptance in

Throughout cinematic history, the tradition of colour storytelling thrived. In 1951's A

Throughout cinematic history, the tradition of colour storytelling thrived. In 1951's A

a to symbolise death or a foreboding of it.

b to symbolise the relationship between religion and the main character.

c to symbolise a change in someone's social/power status.

Throughout cinematic history, the tradition of colour storytelling thrived. In 1951's A

b Colour symbolism is an outdated idea.

Throughout cinematic history, the tradition of colour storytelling thrived. In 1951's A

a Hotter colours may be associated with crime and corruption.

b Hotter colours convey a feeling of vibrancy and energy.

c Hotter colours are associated with crime and corruptibility.

d Hotter colours always bring out the aggression in the viewer.

A fundamental concept in inflation analysis is the relationship between inflation and

d A scenario where skills are given lesser importance than qualifications

a Aggregate demand becoming more than production capacity

b A steep fall in the currency value

c A rapid decline in the amount of money in circulation

A fundamental concept in inflation analysis is the relationship between inflation and

a Unemployment and inflation following clearly disparate trends

b Unemployment leading to an increase in price stability

c The steady rise of inflation with slow economic growth

d The observed increase in inflation in tandem with resultant decrease in economic

A fundamental concept in inflation analysis is the relationship between inflation and

a High GDP, low unemployment

b Low GDP, high unemployment

d Prevalence of structural unemployment

And as it has been observed, beneficial mutations, usually, improve reproductive

c Fusion of chromosomal segments