(SPMM - 01) Question Paper Limited Departmental Competitive Examination - 2007 For The Post of Chargeman-Gr - Ii (T) & (NT)
(SPMM - 01) Question Paper Limited Departmental Competitive Examination - 2007 For The Post of Chargeman-Gr - Ii (T) & (NT)
(SPMM - 01) Question Paper Limited Departmental Competitive Examination - 2007 For The Post of Chargeman-Gr - Ii (T) & (NT)
QUESTION PAPER
Instructions: Please read the following instructions carefully before writing your answers:
1) All Questions in Part – A, B & C are compulsory.
2) Each Questions in Part - A & B carries 1 mark and that in Part - C carries 5 marks.
3) There are four alternatives - (A), (B), (C), (D) given against each question in Part - A out of
which only one is the most appropriate answer.
If (A) is correct, round on the correct alternative like (A) .
4) The discarded answer if any, must be crossed properly and supported by initial of the
candidate.
5) If a question in Part - A & B is answered wrongly or more than one answers are
marked, 0.25 marks will be deducted for each such question.
6) Use only blue or black ball pen. Use of Pencil is not allowed.
7) No sheet from the Question Paper / Answer Book should be detached.
8) You may do rough work, if required, on the blank sheets.
9) Please DO NOT repeat DO NOT write your name anywhere in the Question Paper.
PART - A
(Each question carries 1 mark)
Q.4. The responsibility of intimation of rejection of stores to the supplier / consignor lies with:
(A) Provisioning Section (B) MCO
(C) Planning Office (D) Stores Section
Q.8. In case of IFT, if the discrepancy is due to surplus quantity supplied which of the
following will not happen ?
(A) Consignor may accept the D.R
(B) Consignor may call for return of the excess
(C) Consignor may disown the responsibility for the excess
(D) Consignor will always make a plus adjustment
Q.9. In case of IFT, a CRV is not necessary in case of deficient quantity supplied & consignor
disowning responsibility if:
(A) DR is not prepared
(B) DR is prepared
(C) Quantity vouchered by consignor is shown in column 10 of the MI slip
(D) Entered in the issue voucher, issued by the consignor, by stores staff
( SPMM - 03 )
Q.10. In case of indigenous supplier, DD voucher is not prepared if any claim preferred is:
(A) accepted in part (B) accepted in full
(C) on carrying agency (D) None of these
Q.11. In case of indigenous supplies, supplier can be made responsible when _______ is
given standard remarks:
(A) Issue Voucher (B) Carrier’s Receipt
(C) MI Slip (D) Receipt Voucher
Q.12. When discrepancy report is turned down by a supplier and decided to prepare a loss
statement, then a loss statement is prepared on form:
(A) IAF(Fac) – 144 (B) IAF(Fac) – 145 (C) IAFA – 1445 (D) IAFZ – 1445
Q.13. When demurrage / wharfage becomes payable because of the negligence or inaction of
the consignor or consignee, the loss statement is prepared on Form:
(A) IAFA – 1445 (B) IAF(Fac) – 145
(C) IAF(Fac) – 144 (D) IAFA – 498
Q.14. While issuing the materials that tend to deteriorate or become obsolete, the principle of
____________ is followed:
(A) POFO (B) FIFO (C) FOFI (D) FOPO
Q.15. Railways liability of damage expiries after ______ days on termination of transit:
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
Q.16. In case of delivery of full wagons, if the seals, rivets and lock are not intact, it should be
noted on ____________ and, opening and checking of contents should be done in
presence of ____________:
(A) Receipt Voucher, Railway Representative
(B) Receipt Voucher, Stores Officer
(C) Railway Receipt, Railway Representative
(D) Railway Receipt, Store Holder
Q.17. In case of discrepancy while taking delivery of smalls from local Railway Authorities,
particulars of discrepancies will be entered in:
(A) Receipt Voucher & Issue Voucher
(B) Railway Receipt & Receipt Voucher
(C) Railway Receipt & Issue Voucher
(D) Railway Receipt & Railway Delivery book
Q.19. Which is the document for accounting the receipt of material to make good deficiency by
supplier at his expense ?
(A) Additional Receipt (B) Deficiency Receipt
(C) Discrepancy Receipt (D) Miscellaneous Receipt
( SPMM - 04 )
Q.20. M.C. Notes are used to despatch goods for Ordnance Factories by:
(A) Air (B) Sea (C) Rail (D) Road
Q.22. In case of imported stores having no evidence that the quantities and / or condition of
material found are different from those existing at the time of unloading and came in
hands of clearing agency, the quantity will be __________ & entered in __________ of
MI Slip:
(A) that unloaded from ship or air craft, column 7
(B) that found on receipt, column 5
(C) that found on receipt, column 10
(D) that unloaded from ship or aircraft, column 11
Q.25. Discrepancy Report for rejection is prepared on the consignor factory on Form:
(A) IAFZ 3045 (B) IAFZ 3046 (C) IAFZ 3047 (D) IAFZ 3048
Q.26. Slow moving and non-moving items are periodically checked at an interval of:
(A) 3 months (B) 6 months (C) 9 months (D) 12 months
Q.30. The guiding / reserve price of stores for disposal is made known to the auction
supervisor on:
(A) day of auction two hours before auction
(B) one day before auction
(C) day of auction one hour before auction
(D) day of auction half-an-hour before auction
( SPMM - 05 )
Q.32. To prevent fire and debris of explosion being blown up storage is made in ___________
buildings:
(A) Traversed (B) Oblique (C) Longitudinal (D) None of these
Q.34. All products are identified by ______ digit code number for the purpose of preparation of
Material Planning sheet:
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 10
Q.35. The manual system of document, on which the procurement action is initiated is:
(A) Material Planning Sheet (B) Store Holder’s Inability Sheet
(C) Demand Sheet from MCO (D) Material Procurement Sheet
Q.36. Acceptance of supplies in excess / short of the quantity ordered will not be held to be
modification in the conditions of a contract if the value of excess / short supply does not
exceed ______ % of the original value:
(A) 2.5 (B) 5 (C) 7.5 (D) 10
Q.37. For any claim of increase in price by the party due to permissible factors and where risk
purchase cannot be resorted to due to certain compelling reasons GMs can allow price
increase upto a ceiling of _______ % of the contracted price:
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Q.38. Price increase is admissible within the prescribed ceiling only if:
(A) Risk purchase is not practicable
(B) Risk purchase would adversely affect production
(C) Either ‘A’or ‘B’
(D) Neither ‘A’nor ‘B’
Q.39. GM’s power for conclusion of contracts for road transport in each case between places
not connected by Rails:
(A) Rs. 2 Lakhs (B) Rs. 4 Lakhs (C) Rs. 6 Lakhs (D) Rs. 8 Lakhs
Q.40. The power of GM to regularise loss due to theft, fraud or neglect is:
(A) Rs. 5,000/- (B) Rs. 50,000/-
(C) Rs. 5,00,000/- (D) Rs. 10,000/-
( SPMM - 06 )
Q.41. Power of GM for regularization of loss not due to neglect in case of rejection in
manufacture:
(A) 25% of UAR percentage with maximum limit of Rs. 10,00,000/-
(B) 50% of UAR percentage with maximum limit of Rs. 10,00,000/-
(C) 25% of UAR percentage with maximum limit of Rs. 2,00,000/-
(D) 50% of UAR percentage with maximum limit of Rs. 2,00,000/-
Q.42. Financial power of GM for air-lifting from abroad in each occasion is:
(A) Rs. 2 Lakhs (B) Rs. 4 Lakhs (C) Rs. 8 Lakhs (D) Rs. 10 Lakhs
Q.43. When supplies of stores of Ordnance origin is not forthcoming from depots and stock
level have fallen down and production is likely to be affected, GM can procure stores
directly for a period of:
(A) 3 months (B) 6 months (C) 9 months (D) 12 months
Q.46. All direct purchases in Ordnance Factories above _________ will be made on the basis
of recommendation of relevant Tender Purchase Committee:
(A) Rs.25,000/- (B) Rs.50,000/- (C) Rs. 1 Lakh (D) Rs. 2 Lakhs
Q.48. GM’s power for sanction of demurrage and wharfage in each case is:
(A) Rs.1,00,000/- (B) Rs.75,000/- (C) Rs.50,000/- (D) Rs.25,000/-
Q.52. Security Deposit Register is maintained in two parts, one __________ for cash deposit
and the other __________ for all other modes of deposit respectively:
(A) IAFA? 299, IAFA? 300 (B) IAFA? 426, IAFA? 530
(C) IAFA? 625, IAFA? 389 (D) IAFA? 525, IAFA? 285
Q.53. For vendor rating and grading, past _____ years performance is considered:
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
( SPMM - 07 )
Q.54. The weightage for Cost Rating in vendor rating exercise as per OFB Material
Management Manual is:
(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 60
Q.58. For controlling WIP, the production warrants are generally issued for _______ months:
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12
Q.60. The optimum level of stocks to be held in respect of imported items for non-stock pile
items is ______ months:
(A) 18 (B) 12 (C) 9 (D) 6
PART ? B
There are two alternatives - 'T' for True and 'F' for False given against each statement in this
part. If ‘T’is correct, round on the correct alternative like T . Each question carries 1 mark.
Q.62. In case of IFT, MI Slip serves as a CRV for a plus adjustment for excess supply. T / F
Q.64. Despatch by road are dealt in similar manner as in the case of Railway
consignments for discrepancies in quantity or damage. T / F
Q.66. Factories Act, 1948 provides rules for storage & handling of hazardous
substances. T / F
( SPMM - 08 )
Q.68. One of the major sources of chemical injury in storage system pipe line is
opening of wrong valve. T / F
Q.69. Automatic sprinkler system is used in areas where water sensitive fire &
explosion hazardous materials are stored. T / F
Q.70. The final authority for sanctioning of stock pile of material to be built in the
factory rests with DGOF. T / F
Q.73. The financial limits indicated against each TPC are for both RE & FE T / F
Q.74. TPC is the Competent Authority for release and revalidation of FE for
relevant cases decided by it. T / F
Q.76. As per M/s. Batliboi Committee, the order should be placed within 2 months of
date of receipt of firm targets from OFB. T / F
Q.78. The optimum level of stock for ordinary indigenous item is 3 months. T / F
Q.79. For ordinary item, the indents are placed 24 months in advance. T / F
Q.80. The EMD is to be charged at the rate of 2% of the estimated value of the store
without any ceiling limit. T / F
PART - C
(Each question carries 5 marks)
Q.82. Write in details the process of Tender opening and CST preparation.
Q.84. Write about Compressed Gas cylinders, use and risks, precautions in their storage and
handling.