MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION IN

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

SET – A – 100 Items

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer
for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no.1 only.

1. Every organization, to be effective, must have a structure. What best describes a structure from the
following?
A. Set up
B. Hierarchy
C. Design
D. Drawing

2. The organizational structure determines the hierarchy and flow of reporting in an

organization. Hierarchy is closest to the concept of –
A. Chain of command
B. Ranking system
C. Chart
D. Leadership style

3. The different types of organizational structures that an organization follows depends on a variety of
factors like the following, except –
A. Leadership style
B. Type of Organization
C. Gender of Personnel
D. Work Flow

4. What is the kind of structure that has a specific line of command where approvals and orders in this
kind of structure come from top to bottom in a line?
A. Line type
B. Functional type
C. Informal type
D. Staff type

5. Among the following, what kind of organizational structure is suitable for smaller organizations since it
is simple and direct?
A. Functional type
B. Matrix type
C. Line type
D. All of the above

6. Which one best describe the most advantage of a line type of organization?
A. Simplest kind of organizational structure
B. Strict authority which results in stronger discipline
C. Prompt decision which result to quick and effective action
D. All of the above

7. Which one best describe the disadvantage of a line type of organization?

A. Lack of specialization
B. Superiors can misuse authority for their benefit
C. Two heads are better than one
D. A and B are correct

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8. What organizational structure characterized by approvals come from top to bottom at the same time
staff departments are utilized for support and specialization?
A. Line Type
B. Functional Type
C. Line and Staff Type
D. Mixed Type

9. This kind of organizational structure classifies people according to the function they perform in their
professional life or according to the functions performed by them in the organization. Which one of the
following is described?
A. Functional type
B. Line type
C. Line and staff type
D. All of these

10. Large organizations have offices at different places, for example, there could be a north, south, west
and east zones. The organizational structure, in such a case, follows a zonal structure which are based
on a -
A. Matrix structure
B. Geographical structure
C. Bureaucratic structure
D. Product structures

11. A matrix structure of organization is a combination of function and product structures thus a complex
structure. It uses teams of employees to accomplish work by capitalizing on their strengths while
creating weaknesses which are of functional form. This statement is –
A. True
B. False
C. Unknown
D. Depend on leadership style

12. What characterizes a Bureaucratic Structure of organization?

A. The structure can be seen in tall organizations where tasks, processes and procedures are all
standardized.
B. This type is suitable for huge enterprises that involve complex operations and require smooth
administration of the same.
C. There are strict hierarchies ensure timely completion of tasks and quality.
D. All of the above

13. In organizational developments, what is known as the Horizontal Organization Structure organization?
A. Flat structure type
B. Vertical structure type
C. Lateral structure type
D. Organic structure type

14. The regular communications facility of a plant is not adequate for protective security purposes. Security
needs a special communication system that will vary in size, type, nomenclature and other factors
affecting the security of the installation. Which of the following is not an equipment used in
communications?
A. Local or commercial telephone
B. Bullhorn
C. Intercommunication device
D. Trumpet

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15. The patrol force is the largest and oldest of all police services and it is the focal point of all police
activities. This statement is –
A. True, because it is considered as the most important component of the police organization
B. False, since it is just a minor component
C. True, because it is the arm and mind of the organization
D. False, since there are other line functions of the police

16. There are five major objectives of police patrol, which one is the most primordial?
A. Police visibility and response to criminal activities
B. Crime prevention and suppression
C. Preventive patrol
D. Criminal investigation

17. Patrol officers run the greatest risk in performing this role, which is due in part to the nature of the laws
which they are expected to enforce. Which one is described by the statement?
A. Crime prevention
B. Order maintenance
C. Law enforcement
D. Protection of lives and properties

18. What operational plan can be prepared in relation to police visibility patrol?
A. Oplan Sagip-yagit
B. Oplan Laging Handa
C. Oplan Tulong sa Nasalanta
D. Oplan Bantay Bata

19. Because of the frequent changes of living conditions in urban communities the roles of the police
become varied and complex, hence community participation is an important ingredient in the
accomplishment of the said functions. Which of the following policing concepts can be applied to
impose community support on policing programs?
A. We are the police for the people
B. The police are the public, the public are the police
C. Police “harana” principle
D. The police office is public trust

20. Organization should be directed to a systematic management of patrol personnel and their functions
including other resources in a manner consistent with proper management for –
A. imposing required professionalism and leadership
B. achieving an efficient and effective patrol objective
C. enhancing police visibility and omnipresence
D. improving police use of discretion

21. ___ is considered the backbone and operational heart of the Police Organization.
A. Investigation division
B. Patrol division
C. Intelligence division
D. Records division

22. The use of discretion or one’s judgment, personal experience and common sense to decide a particular
situation should be controlled and minimized due to the following, except –
A. does not support “side walk justice”
B. lack of uniformity for implementation
C. discriminatory
D. foster corruption on victimless crime

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23. ___ is a strategy in which patrol officers are involved in designing and implementing patrol activities on
the basis of analysis of specific community problems.
A. Directed patrol
B. Interactive patrol
C. Decoy patrol
D. Aggressive patrol

24. ___ is a patrol strategy where the principal tactics are blending in which patrol personnel are deployed
in specific high crime areas in discreet disguises in an effort to blend into their surroundings in the
expectation of observing crime in progress.
A. Directed patrol
B. Decoy patrol
C. Aggressive patrol
D. Low visibility patrol

25. Which of the following describes High Visibility patrol?

A. Police in plain clothes
B. Unmarked vehicles
C. Maximized number of officers on field to specific location
D. Use of siren and fluctuating police lights

26. When the patrol force is divided into two separate elements, one responds to calls for service while the
other remains free to concentrate on self-initiated non-dispatched patrol duties, then the strategy used
is called –
A. Team policing strategy
B. Split patrol strategy
C. Aggressive patrol
D. High visibility patrol

27. ___ is an organized schedule or sequence by methodical activities intended to attain a goal and
objectives for the accomplishments of mission or objectives.
A. Procedure
B. Plan
C. Strategy
D. Alternative

28. The process of determining the problem of the organization and coming up with proposed resolutions
and finding the best solution is called –
A. Staffing
B. Organizing
C. Planning
D. Coordinating

29. The body of principles officially accepted and taught about as the best way of conducting public safety
functions namely: law enforcement, crime prevention and control, maintenance of peace and order, fire
safety protection, jail management and penology and social defense in general, is called –
A. Public Safety Doctrine
B. Police Operational Doctrine
C. Public Trust Doctrine
D. The Peel Principles

30. Which of the following best describe the doctrine of command responsibility?
A. All for one, one for all
B. Your failure is my failure
C. No pain, no gain
D. The police office is public trust

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31. Among the following, which one best defines the doctrine of maximum tolerance?
A. Crying policeman
B. Anger should be minimized at the heat of a public chaos
C. Force is necessary when properly ordered
D. No warning shot during police interventions

32. In police planning, the plan is suitable when the course of action is evaluated in accordance with
general policies, rules and laws. It is ___ when the plan is appraised of the effects of a number of
factors weighed separately.
A. Acceptable
B. Feasible
C. Cost effective
D. Adjustable

33. ___ is a series of preliminary decisions on framework, which in turn guides subsequent decisions that
generate the nature and direction of an organization.
A. Visioning
B. Mission-Vision formulation
C. Strategic Planning
D. Goal orientation

34. The concept of COPS is founded on democracy. Which of the following statement best describe the
concept of democracy?
A. The police office is a public trust
B. The police are of the people, by the people and for the people
C. Ask not what your country do for you
D. We serve, we protect

35. Who among these popularized the idea that “the police are the public and the public are the police”?
A. August Vollmer
B. Sir Robert Peel
C. Henry Fielding
D. James Wilson

36. What is the policing system that is focused on the problem that serves as root causes or breeding
grounds of crime?
A. Policing through participative law enforcement
B. Problem Solving policing
C. Community oriented policing
D. Political Era

37. ___ is all about being able to produce "products" that are disseminated in a timely fashion to those in a
position to make decisions and take action.
A. Data Analysis
B. Intelligence work
C. Espionage
D. Cold war

38. When an undercover man is burnt out, he –

A. recorded the information
B. was being compromised
C. has escaped from a shoot out
D. was able to eliminate the subject

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39. What phase in the intelligence cycle a more complete process of evaluating data for reliability, validity,
and relevance are made?
A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV

40. To effectively understand intelligence work, one should have an understanding of the ____, which is
the beginning of the cycle.
A. Strategic Intelligence Planning
B. Data Analysis
C. Intelligence Networking
D. Evaluation and Processing information gathered

41. ___ is the central repository for professional and technical expertise, clearinghouse for the collection,
collation, analysis and dissemination of information on transnational crimes.
A. NATO
B. INTERPOL
C. ASEANAPOL
D. NICA

42. In the world of intelligence, ___ are verified information; something known to exist or to have
happened.
A. Fictions
B. Facts
C. Narratives
D. Estimates

43. Basically, the content of intelligence reports, research, and reflection on an intelligence issue that
helps to evaluate the likelihood that something is factual and thereby reduces uncertainty is called –
A. Intelligence product
B. Documentary evidence
C. Legal reports
D. Intel Estimates

44. ____ is the separation of a whole into its parts to allow an examination and interpretation of the
information. It typically involves certain methods and techniques, some of which are statistical, others
which are not, which reveal patterns and trends that often reveal the probability of conclusions.
A. Evaluation procedures
B. Analysis
C. Reporting
D. Testing

45. The sole basis for clearance to a classified matter is none but –
A. Access to information
B. Need-to-know basis
C. Order of superior officer
D. Linkage with the president

46. What form of intelligence work involves national estimates about the strength, size, and capabilities of
another nation’s military and/or counterintelligence threat?
A. Estimative Intelligence
B. Political Intelligence
C. Technical Intelligence
D. Biographical Intelligence

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47. The Royal Canadian Mounted Police live by the motto Maintiens le droit which means –
A. We serve, we protect
B. Life over property
C. Defend the Law
D. The Police is the Law

48. One of the following involves threat assessment, the analysis of surprise, intelligence failures, and
other indicators of catastrophe. It’s the use of hindsight to improve foresight.
A. Estimative Intelligence
B. Warning Intelligence
C. Technical Intelligence
D. None of these

49. What is meant by the word “drop” in intelligence operations?

A. Observation from a fixed point
B. Moving surveillance
C. Unsuspecting place for information relay
D. Sensitive items to purchase

50. When the knowledge we want to derive consists of the things that economists collect data on, such as
population demographics, labor statistics, crop statistics, manufacturing production rates, import-export
rates, natural resources, and public opinion, then intelligence falls under -.
A. Science and technology intelligence
B. Economic intelligence
C. Biographical intelligence
D. Any of the above

51. These present an analytical overview of data, showing an activity or relationship in the simplest
manner. They often contain a legend.
A. Collection plan
B. Chronological tables
C. Charts
D. Conclusions

52. At the INTERPOL, each member country has its own National Central Bureau (NCB). In the
Philippines, which of the following is the chairman of the NCB Manila?
A. NBI Director
B. Chief PNP
C. Sec. of DOJ
D. The President

53. The Filipino president of the INTERPOL in 1980-1984 was –

A. Roger Delos Santos
B. Jolly R. Bugarin
C. Ernesto Maceda
D. Pablo San Jose

54. Among the following, the highest rank in the Japanese Police organization is the –
A. Chief of Police
B. Superintendent General
C. Kempetai
D. Kobayashi

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55. Which of these also known as a timeline, these depict the specific time frames of intelligence activities?
A. Charts
B. Chronological tables
C. Conclusions
D. Collection Plan

56. These are group- or activity-specific lists of things to be done to prove or disprove
hypotheses. Unknown persons or locations that need to be investigated are pointed out. The focus is
usually on geographic territory.
A. Collection Plan
B. Commodity flow chart
C. Demographic analysis
D. Composite table

57. At the INTERPOL, the Executive Committee, composed of the President, VPs and Delegates are
mandated to meet ___ in a year prior to the General Assembly.
A. 3 times
B. 2 times
C. 5 times
D. Every month

58. These are narrative paragraphs which indicate the bases used for making several predictions based on
different bases, and the reasoning behind the choice about the most certain prediction.
A. Frequency distribution
B. Tabular Presentation
C. Forecast
D. Indicator analysis

59. What should be used to show report on important geographic or locational information relating to
territory or turf covered by an activity?
A. Map
B. Locator
C. GPS
D. Mathematics

60. These are narrative statements about the propensity of a group or entity to engage in some activity,
usually a violent activity. They usually describe the data on which the possibility of the threat is based,
the projected time frame of the threat, the possible targets of the threat, a vulnerability assessment for
the targets, and recommendations for countermeasures.
A. Threat Assessment
B. Trend Analysis
C. Visual Investigative Analysis
D. Time Series Analysis

61. The sending of written messages is a standard feature of government in early civilizations. Much of our
knowledge of those times derives from archives of such messages, discovered by archaeologists. In
the estimation of the ancient world the most efficient Postal Service is that of the ____.
A. Persians
B. Indians
C. Peruvians
D. Egyptians

62. Which of the following is not one among the official language of the INTERPOL?
A. English
B. German
C. Spanish
D. French

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63. Who was accused of stealing the American atomic secret and found guilty of communicating the
atomic secret to the Soviet?
A. Emil Durham Klaire
B. Emil Julius Klaus Fuchs
C. Joseph Fossil
D. Emilio Esteves

64. The final modification of the INTERPOL flag was made in __.
A. 1923
B. 1973
C. 1953
D. 1983

65. As a means of relaying message of intelligence value, which group of society first started the use of
domesticated pigeons?
A. Romans
B. Indians
C. Egyptians
D. Greeks

66. The term police administration focuses on the policing process or how police agencies are organized
and managed in order to achieve the goals of law enforcement most effectively, efficiently, and
productively. This statement is -
A. True
B. False
C. Neither
D. Either

67. What appellate board of the National Police Commission hears cases decided by the Local Chief
Executive?
A. City Appellate Board
B. Regional Appellate Board
C. National Appellate Board
D. Provincial Appellate Board

68. The CODE-P strategic plan of the PNP under the administration of Gen. A. Purisima, being the Chief
PNP, states that C in the acronym CODE is –
A. Control
B. Competence
C. Coordination
D. Crime prevention

69. Which is not an imposable penalty in an administrative case against a member of the PNP?
A. Reprimand
B. Imprisonment for not more than 6 months
C. Dismissal from service
D. Forfeiture of Privilege

70. The basic assumption in understanding administration is the recognition that without well-structured
and well-managed institutions of public service, they would not be effective, efficient, and impartial.
Formal organizations are –
A. structured
B. not structured
C. complicated
D. simple and straight forward

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71. There are seven Regional offices of the INTERPOL, which one of the following is not one among
them?
A. Thailand
B. Zimbabwe
C. Kenya
D. Malaysia

72. In the study of police reports, which one of these is not an Index Crime?
A. Murder
B. Rape
C. Arson
D. Robbery

73. The examination of raw information to determine intelligence value, pertinence of the information,
reliability of the source and agency, and its credibility or truth of information is called –
A. Recording
B. Analysis
C. Evaluation
D. Collection

74. The National Headquarter of the Royal Malaysian Police is located in –

A. Mabes
B. Bukit Aman
C. Phnom Penh
D. Cali

75. The earliest private police organization which paved the way for the business of private security and
detective services was credited to the Americans through the initiatives of –
A. Burns and Pinkerton
B. Thomas and Moore
C. Smith brothers
D. Fielding brothers

76. What is an example of a special reconnaissance?

A. Covert missions to conduct surveillance activities in foreign countries
B. Secret observation of persons
C. Clandestine police operations in a town fiesta
D. All of these

77. At the INTERPOL, the Secretary General is appointed by the General Assembly for the term of office of
__.
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years

78. The insertion of an action agent to the target organization in an undercover project is called –
A. Penetration
B. Infiltration
C. Recruitment
D. Access to information

79. The term unconventional warfare is a fancy term for –

A. Chinese communism
B. long-term guerrilla warfare
C. special operations
D. Political Terrorism

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80. The Brazilian term Provost means –
A. Police Guard
B. Military Police
C. Agent
D. Operative

81. The police strategic plan 2030 of the PNP is PATROL 2030. P in the acronym PATROL means –
A. Prevention of Crime
B. Peace and Order
C. Protection of lives and Properties
D. Program

82. The telegraph was invented as a medium of communication and was used in police communication in
the history of policing. It was invented by –
A. Joseph Hill
B. William Cooke
C. Billy Cook
D. Samuel Cooker

83. The standard unit of comparison between militaries is the division. A division consists of infantry,
armor, artillery, and support under one command and capable of independent operation for extended
periods of time. Which of the following has the biggest number of men?
A. Brigade
B. Battalion
C. Company
D. Platoon

84. The PLEB is the central receiving body of all citizen’s complaint against a member of the PNP. The
PLEB is composed of –
A. 5 members
B. 7 members
C. 9 members
D. None of these

85. ___ is the sum of the traits that serves as an index of the essential intrinsic nature of a person. It is the
aggregate of distinctive mental and moral qualities that have been impressed by nature, education and
habit upon the individual.
A. Moral
B. Integrity
C. Character
D. Loyalty

86. As a rule in police intervention operations, the police team leader should be –
A. the most senior officer
B. at least a commissioned officer
C. police captain
D. any of the above

87. When the person accepts every story at face value and can see no wrong in anyone, usually idealists
and can sometimes be utilized by unscrupulous persons, then he/she possesses a weakness known as
–
A. Jealousy
B. Gullibility
C. Weakness of Character
D. Infidelity

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88. The head of the Internal Affairs Service of the PNP is –
A. Senior Superintendent
B. Superintendent General
C. Senior Inspector
D. Inspector General

89. Margaretha Zelle MacLeod, was a Dutch exotic dancer, courtesan, and accused spy who was
executed by firing squad in France under charges of espionage for Germany during World War I. She
was better known by her screen name –
A. Medusa
B. Mata Hari
C. Anne Margarete
D. Kolkovia Sprikitik

90. GPS means –

A. Global Programmed Services
B. Great Program for Security
C. Global Positioning System
D. Global Personnel Security

91. What is the lowest rank of the auxiliary force adopted by the Soviet Union?
A. Constable
B. Private Molotov
C. Gendarme
D. Komsomol

92. Of the following, what kind of cyber modus operandi is made whereby an attempt to make a computer
resource unavailable to its intended users is made?
A. Computer Virus infection
B. Cyber Crime
C. Hacking
D. Denial-of-service attack

93. In understanding cybercrimes, what is known as a technologically-based "attack" on one person who
has been targeted specifically by reasons of anger, revenge or control?
A. Denial of Service attack
B. Cyber stalking
C. Malware or malicious coding
D. Cyborg

94. The basic load of ammunition per unit of duly licensed firearm shall no exceed:
A. 20 loads
B. 30 loads
C. 25 loads
D. 50 loads

95. The equivalent position of security guard 2 in the staff of security guards:
A. Shift-in-charge
B. Post-in-charge
C. Watchman
D. None of the above

96. It is the mission order of every guard employed by the agency:

A. Mission Order
B. Duty Detail Order
C. Order
D. Mail order

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 97. One example of an SOP is “Man Hunt Bravo” which commonly refers to
A. Neutralization of wanted persons
B. Anti-illegal gambling
C. Anti-carnapping plan
D. None of the above

98. While covering his beat, PO1 Juan chased upon a pickpocket. What will be his first action?
A. Arrest the pickpocket
B. Call for a criminal investigation
C. Bring the pickpocket to the police department
D. Just continue his beat

99. The police must endeavor to establish and impress upon the law-abiding citizens and would be
criminals alike that the police are always available to respond to any situation at a moment’s notice and
he will just around the corner at all times. What does this situation indicate?
A. Police Omnipresence
B. Police Discretion
C. Police Control
D. Police Interaction

100. The classical philosophy of management that sought to discover the best method of performing specific
task. This is based from the works of Frederick Taylor.
A. Scientific Management
B. Bureaucratic Model
C. Theory X and Y
D. The Hawthorne Effect

-End of Mock Board Exam-

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