UM TAGUM COLLEGE

DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION

PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

Booklet No. __________

INSTRUCTION: Read the statement carefully and select the best answer for each of the following
questions. Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of
your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil only.

FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION

1. A declaration made under the consciousness of an impending death.

A. Patrol of res gestate B. Confession
C. Dying declaration D. admission

2. A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing B. Casing
C. Espionage D. Undercover work

3. Also known as undercover assignment, it is a method of investigation in which the investigator

assumes a different and unofficial identity to locate criminals and obtain information.
A. roping B. reverse-line up method
C. rough shadowing D. seizure

4. An informal and summary investigation conducted by a public prosecutor in criminal cases

involving persons arrested and detained without the benefit of a warrant for the purpose of
determining whether or not said persons should remain under custody an correspondingly be
charged in court.
A. Investigation B. Interrogation
C. Custodial Investigation D. Inquest

5. A trespassing was reported to the police. Officers responding to the scene found at a point of
forced entry. Upon searching the immediate vicinity, they chanced upon a young man hiding behind
the bushes. Valuable items, later identified as taken from the building, were frisked from the suspect.
The recovered items are called –
A. Tracing Evidence B. Associative Evidence
C. Circumstantial Evidence D. Valuable Evidence

6. In the techniques employed in interrogation, which of the foregoing is not utilized by police
investigators.
A. Friendliness B. Emotional approach
C. Sympathetic approach D. Financial assistance

7. Necessary to determine the appearance of the crime scene as well as the objects, what naturally
occurred and what were the circumstances of the crime?
A. Crime scene B. Physical reconstruction
C. Mental reconstruction D. Reconstruction of the crime

8. It is the skillful and thorough questioning of a reluctant person who may be a suspect in a
particular crime.
A. interrogation B. interview
C. investigation D. custodial investigation

9. It is where the techniques and principles of natural and physical sciences are applied and
practiced to the analysis of crime scene evidence.
A. crime laboratory B. crime scene sketches
C. crime scene reconstruction D. crime scene investigation

10. Method employed when subject is moving and is not constantly within the view.
A. intent B. loose tail
C. shadowing D. involuntary informants

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 UM TAGUM COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

11. In reconstructing crime incidents, reasoning from specific to general is known as –

A. Deductive reasoning B. Specific reasoning
C. Inductive reasoning D. Positive reasoning

12. Refers to the art and science which deals with the identity and location of the offender and
provide evidence of his guilt in criminal proceedings.
A. crime scene investigation B. criminal investigator
C. criminal investigation D. scene of the operation

13. Refers to the direct acknowledgement of guilt for the commission of a criminal offense.
A. admission B. compass direction
C. confession D. comparison

14. Refers to the physical evidence which link directly the suspect to the crime scene.
A. associative evidence B. circumstantial evidence
C. direct evidence D. crime scene evidence

15. Refers to those paid informants who give information for valuable consideration.
A. mercenary informant B. one man shadow
C. motive D. close tail

16. The disguised observation of places person’s and vehicles for the purpose of obtaining
information which concerns the identities or the activities of the subject
A. surveillance B. strip method
C. split pair method D. specific incident reconstruction

17. The method of operation which enable investigators to a pattern of criminal behavior.
A. Reconstruction of the crime scene B. Elicitation
C. Instrumentation D. Modus operandi

18. The number of persons who handle the evidence from the scene of the crime and between the
time of the commission up to final disposition of cases.
A. Time of custody B. Time of disposition
C. Time of disposal D. Chain of custody

19. They are who give information to the police to do away with competition.
A. informer B. informant
C. rip-job D. rival elimination informants

20. This is applicable in oval or circular crime scene wherein the searchers gather at the middle and
proceed outward along spokes or radius,
A. Wheel method B. Spiral method
C. Strip method D. Zone method

21. This is a compilation of photographic files of known criminals kept for identification purposes of
witnesses in case of future crimes.
A. roping B. rogue’s gallery
C. rival elimination informants D. remuneration

22. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant to divulge information.

A. Interview B. Interrogation
C. Investigation D. All of these

TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION

23. A crosswalk, which is a painted portion of a street, located usually on an intersection for allowing
pedestrians to safely cross the street.
A. perception delay B. pavement
C. pedestrian lane D. passing lane

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 UM TAGUM COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

24. An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces unintended injury, death or
property damage.
A. Traffic incidents B. Traffic accidents
C. Traffic hazards D. Traffic events

25. An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court, but without detaining him.
A. Traffic citation B. Traffic request
C. Traffic warrant D. Traffic violation

26. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.

A. Non motor vehicle traffic accident B. Non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident D. Motor vehicle traffic accident

27. Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal B. Chronic
C. Non fatal D. Injurious

28. Which could be considered an indication of hi-and-run accident?

A. The driver leaving the area of accident because he is in imminent danger
B. The driver fleeing the area of accident to evade responsibility
C. After hitting someone on the highway, the driver left and reported to the police
D. After sideswiping a pedestrian the driver fled to seek assistance of a physician

29. A power operated traffic control device by which traffic is warned or directed to take some
specific action.
A. Traffic signs B. Warning Lights
C. Traffic islands D. Traffic light signals

30. Are areas within the roadway constructed in a manner to establish physical channels through
which vehicular traffic flow is guided.
A. traffic island B. traffic light signals
C. traffic sign D. traffic stop

31. A triangular device consisting of reflectorized folding pieces, used to provide stalled vehicle with
a means of forewarning other vehicles of their presence.
A. early warning device B. driveway
C. embankment D. detection of violation

32. Every device which is self- propelled and every vehicle which is propelled by electric power
obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not operated upon rails are considered –
A. Skating B. Bicycle
C. Tricycle D. Motor vehicles

33. It is a means to control the movements of vehicles, pedestrians at certain point of a certain area
by mechanical objects or manpower.
A. Traffic supervision B. Traffic direction
C. Traffic control D. All of these

34. Last step in the enforcement wherein the court imposes the penalty upon the guilty traffic law
violator.
A. penalization B. penalty
C. perception of hazard D. obstruction

35. PO2 Vargas apprehended Miss Mindurown B. Isness for traffic infraction. The infraction involves
a violation of R.A. 4136. If you are PO2 Vargas, which will you issue as receipt of confiscation of the
latter’s driver’s license?
A. Traffic Citation Ticket B. Traffic Violator’s Receipt
C. Temporary Operator’s Permit D. Traffic Infraction Receipt
E. Any of these can be issued

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 UM TAGUM COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

36. Yardstick of an effective traffic law enforcement program.

A. Smooth traffic law
B. Increase traffic enforcement action
C. Less traffic law enforcement officers deployed with the same output
D. Reduction of traffic accidents and delays

37. Anything on the road that prevents or hinders free and smooth flow of traffic.
A. overtaking B. non-fatal injury
C. obstruction D. multi-unit accident

38. A term used to denote any vehicle used for commercial purposes without any valid franchise.
A. collision B. contact damage
C. colurum D. crossbar

39. Refers to the movement of persons, goods and vehicles from the point of origin to the point of
destination by utilizing public roads for the purpose of safe travel.
A. traffic control B. traffic citation
C. traffic enforcer D. traffic

40. Refers to the paved or unpaved area or portion on the side of the road whether capable of
handling traffic or not.
A. sequential factors B. sidewalk
C. shoulder D. sideswipe

41. Refers to the sign placed place on the road, made of metal plates with a specific shapes and
design for the purpose of informing road users of applicable road instructions and conditions.
A. saturation flow B. road markings
C. road sign D. road side

42. The conducting of fact-finding activities, surveys, and recommendations of traffic rules and
regulations is a function of –
A. Traffic Enforcement B. Traffic Engineering
C. Traffic Environment D. Traffic Education

43. The entire width between property line or either boundary line for every way or place of which
any part is open for public use particularly for vehicular travel.
A. traffic way B. triangulation
C. traffic arrest D. traffic engineering

44. What are physical channels within the roadway, which are constructed to establish physical
channels thru which vehicular traffic is guided without the use of signals?
A. Traffic signs B. Traffic islands
C. Pavement markings D. Traffic signals

SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION

45. An act that defines certain rights of person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation as
well as the duties of arresting, detaining, and investigating officers and providing penalties for
violation thereof. This refer to.
A. R.A. 7438 B. R.A. 7348
C. R.A. 7843 D. R.A. 7483

46. If the crime committed was homicide, search for physical evidence will be centered on which of
the following?
A. undercarriage and hood of car
B. Tool marks
C. Fingerprints nail and clothing
D. Weapon and other types of evidence left as a result of contact between victim and
assailant.

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 UM TAGUM COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

47. “A” was caught after killing “C”. At the police station he freely and voluntarily confessed and
admitted the killing before the start of interrogation and no warning on his rights was made. which of
the following statement is true?
A. His confession is admissible as evidence
B. His confession is inadmissible as evidence
C. It is inadmissible because it was made without a warning of his right
D. All of these

48. Before investigating a rape victim, the best first procedure to do is______.
A. Bring victim to hospital for medical examination
B. Interrogate victim to get facts of the incident
C. Conduct investigation in such a way that there is privacy
D. Prepare victim by having a person of her trust and confidence usually her mother, a sister,
to talk to victim to tell her side and decide if victim is really willing to be investigated.

49. During a quarrel on a crowded city street in a university belt in Davao City, one man stabs
another flees. A policeman arriving at the scene a short time later finds the victim unconscious, call
for an ambulance and orders the crowed to leave. His action was:
A. Bad; there may have been witnesses to the assault among the crowd
B. good; it is proper first aid procedure to give an injured person room and air
C. bad; the assailant is probably among the crowd
D. good; a crowed may destroy needed evidence
E. bad; it is poor public relations for the police to order people about needlessly

50. Estimates the time of death that would refer to the cooling of the body.
A. Algor Mortis B. Livor Mortis
C. Post Mortem Lividity D. Rigor Mortis

51. Extravasations of blood in the newly formed cavity known as blood tumor caused by blunt
instrument.
A. Hematoma B. Incised wound
C. Lacerated wound D. Punctured wound

52. Forcible application of sharp-pointed with sharp edges.

A. Hematoma B. Incised wound
C. Punctured wound D. Stab wound

53. An injury found in the substance of the skin discoloration of the surface due to extravasations of
blood caused by the application of a blunt instrument.
A. Abrasion B. Contusion
C. Hematoma D. Incised wound

54. In a crime scene physical investigation, what is the interest of the police investigator in relation to
criminal or suspect?
A. Scene reconstruction
B. Pattern of actions or modus operandi
C. Traces from the scene imparted on the criminal/suspect
D. Extent of the influence of the victim as reflected by the physical evidence

55. In making initial contact with the person to be arrested with or without warrant the investigator
must always state the Miranda Doctrine EXCEPT:
A. When the suspect is wanted for other crimes
B. When giving of such information will imperil the arrest
C. When the person to be arrested is a fugitive from justice or an escapee
D. When the arrest is made by a bondsman for the purpose of surrendering the accused
E. When the person to be arrested has committed, is actually committing, or is attempting to
commit a crime

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 UM TAGUM COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

56. In the scene of death involving narcotics death investigation, the following relevant items should
be carefully listed except one;
A. Merchandise B. Needle marks and tracks
C. Paraphernalia D. Playing cards

57. It refers to terrorism that initiates, or threatens to initiate, the exploitation of or attach on
information systems.
A. Computerrorism B. Cyber terrorism
C. Enviroterrorism D. Technological terrorism

58. Regarding actions by first officer at the crime scene, which one takes precedence over other
responsibilities?
A. preserve the scene B. Cordon off crime area
C. attend to any injured persons D. arrest suspicious persons

59. Intent to kill is presumed if deaths result from the unjustified act. If death did not result from the
act, intent to kill is essential to prove attempted or frustrated homicide otherwise the crime may be –
A. Murder B. Parricide
C. Physical injuries D. None of these

60. The first action of an investigation upon arriving at the crime scene of the homicide is –
A. The verification of death
B. Identification of the victim
C. Search of the scene for weapon used
D. Call an ambulance
.
61. Under standard composition of the SOCO Team, which among the following is not a SOCO
MEMBER?
A. Team leader
B. Intelligence personnel
C. Photographer and photographic log recorder
D. Sketcher and Evidence Recorder

62. In DNA sampling and analysis, which of the following part of the body can be least considered?
A. Hair with follicle root B. Buccal cells
C. Bone marrow D. Fingernails

63. Chemically, DNA is an acid and is composed of three sub-units, namely

A. Phosphate group, deoxyribose sugar, and one of the four bases
B. Nucleus, an elongated body, and a multi-colored tail
C. Acid base, cryogenic gas, and adenine
D. Deoxide, ribose, and a gaseous state liquid

64. What kind of investigation is the official inquiry made by the police on the facts and
circumstances surrounding the death of the person which is expected to be criminal or unlawful?
A. Homicide investigation B. Property crime investigation
C. Crime of Chastity D. Crime against person

65. Any attack upon or seizure of any vessels, or taking away of the whole or part thereof of its
cargo, equipment or the personal belonging of its complement or passengers is considered –
A. Brtigandage B. Piracy
C. Robbery D. Smuggling

ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION

66. According to Wilkinson, a type of terrorist who simply engage in all types of crimes since they
recognize no law.
A. political B. state sponsored
C. criminal D. nationalistic

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 UM TAGUM COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

67. A computer network attack which attempts to cause harm to computer systems by explaining
system faults and vulnerabilities.
A. active attack B. passive attack
C. security password D. fire wall

68. Assassins who are loveless and emotionally deprived in childhood, they are resentful and
morally indifferent and wish to strike back at the society they blame for their miseries.
A. political assassins B. psychopathic assassins
C. egocentric assassins D. insane assassins

69. A type of computer network attack which focus on intercepting data such as passwords, user
names, e-mail messages, and even secret data using sniffing software.
A. active attack B. passive attack
C. security password D. fire wall

70. Considered as the ultimate political violence of the government, the mass destruction and
annihilation of the population.
A. leftist B. genocide
C. secret police D. underground force

71. In computer crimes, when it is used to retrieve confidential information from the data bank of the
employer, the crime is;
A. estafa or swindling B. embezzlement
C. violation of intellectual property right D. economic sabotage

72. In the history of political ideologies, ideological leaders have shared the same fate as
dethronement and violent death. With it what did they reap at the end?
A. judgment of history B. heroism
C. popularity D. immortality

73. Referring to those victims of electronic frauds/white collar crimes who tends to keep silent than
come out in the open for fear of public outrage and ridicule since it will bring out to the open their
weaknesses.
A. high-risk-takers B. business empires
C. banking industries D. politicians

74. Theorist defines globalization as the world undergoing fundamental and structural changes
which means;
A. time and space compression B. human interconnections
C. global constrictions D. economic revolution

75. There are two fundamentals principles of religious freedom, which freedom is not absolute which
may be override by police power.
A. freedom to believe
B. freedom to act on the basis of one’s own belief
C. freedom to preach and have followers
D. freedom to choose a religious group to join

76. This consists of the destruction of specific characteristics of the group such as language,
literature, learning, religion and art.
A. cultural genocide B. domestic killing
C. localized terrorism D. ideological malevolent

77. What is committed when with the use of computer, one’s ill gotten wealth is converted to a less
suspicious, less traceable form of assets.
A. financial fraud B. financial crimes
C. internet fraud D. scam

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 UM TAGUM COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

78. When the computer is introduced to alter or facilitate alteration of public documents in relation to
elections, there is;
A. estafa or swindling B. electoral fraud
C. violation of intellectual property rights D. economic sabotage

79. When the computer is used to introduce complex program to alter the data already in existence,
it constitute;
A. estafa or swindling B. embezzlement
C. violation of intellectual property rights D. economic sabotage

80. Organized crime thrives on the infiltration of legitimate business much like a parasite, attaching
itself and stealing from the host. This statement is
A. Absolutely true B. Absolutely false
C. Partially true D. Partially false

81. Mafia families have begun to implant themselves deep into multinational corporations in order to
generate massive revenues to bypass having to take on riskier investments such as ----, except
A. Narcotics trafficking B. Terrorism for political aim
C. Human Trafficking D. Market monopoly

82. A complete understanding of the function of organized crime lies not in one discipline, but in
several, multi disciplinary approach. This statement describe –
A. The accumulation of knowledge and the eventual integration of the relevant insights from
several disciplines that gives the unique perspective of the problem
B. Planning the collection of information process for integration of anti-organized crime
measures
C. Interdisciplinary investigation of crime
D. A more holistic understanding of the issue as well as means to a possible solution

83. Organized crime commonly established division of labor designated for the commission of crime.
Thus, this characterized its being –
A. Monopolistic B. Hierarchical
C. Exclusive membership D. Unique subculture

84. In general, an organized crime group is motivated commonly by nothing but –

A. Social doctrine B. Ideology
C. Political beliefs D. Money and power

85. Organized crime has this common attribute. Which one does not characterized an organized
crime group?
A. They are motivated by achieving political goals
B. They are governed by stringent rules and regulation
C. They constitute a unique subculture
D. They are monopolistic

86. Among the following organized crime personalities, who was known as the “Scarface”?
A. Frank Carusso B. Al Capone
C. Salvatore Luciano D. John Gotti

.DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL

87. A person with an overpowering physical and psychological need to take a particular substance.
A. abuse of drugs B. administer
C. anesthetic drugs D. addict

88. Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature alters the structure and functioning
of living organism.
A. Alcohol B. Poison
C. Drug D. Vice

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 UM TAGUM COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

89. A highly addictive crystalline form of cocaine containing remnants of hydrochloride and sodium
bicarbonate which emits a crackling sound when smoked.
A. cultivate or culture B. crack
C. cough syrup D. clandestine laboratory

90. It is the removal of poisonous substance such as drug or alcohol from the body.
A. Rehabilitation B. Detoxification
C. Medication D. Withdrawal

91. It produces altered perception, slurred-speech, staggering gait and can produce calmness and
relaxed muscles.
A. Hallucinogens B. Stimulants
C. Depressants D. Sedatives

92. It refers to a scene of well being on a high feeling; exaggerated sense of happiness or well being
or a feeling of great happiness of joy or the “high” drug users initially feel.
A. Ecstacy B. Fantasy
C. Euphoria D. High

93. It refers to a condition resulting from the repeated consumption of a drug.

A. Drug dependence B. Psychological dependence
C. Social dependence D. Physical dependence
E. Drug habituation

94. Natural or synthetic substances that produce vivid dissolution of the sense without greatly
disturbing consciousness.
A. hashish B. drug misuse
C. hallucinogens D. drug experimenter

95. Occurring naturally as a minor alkaloid ingredient in raw opium, and is more often produced from
morphine.
A. codeine B. cocaine
C. chloral hydrate D. chronic alcoholics

96. Often described as a psychotropic (mind affecting or mind altering drug), and a chemical
substance that changes one’s thinking, feelings, perceptions, and behavior.
A. psychological dependence B. rehabilitation
C. psychoactive drug D. psychedelics

97. Refers to a person who engages in sexual intercourse with another for hire.
A. Prostitute B. Whores
C. Knockers D. All of the foregoing

98. Relives uncomfortable emotional feelings by reducing anxiety and promoting relaxation.
A. tranquilizers B. treatment
C. thebaine D. withdrawal symptoms

99. The comprehensive Drug Act of 2002 is the –

A. R.A. 6425 B. R.A. 6425 as amended
C. R.A. 9165 D. R.A. 9344

100. The most popular and latest sex drug, whose chemical name is “Methy Dioxy
Methamphetamine”.
A. Chomper B. Ecstacy
C. Shabu D. Heroin
101. The onset of a predictable constellation of signs and symptoms involving altered activity of the
central nervous system after the abrupt discontinuation of the intake of an addictive substance.
A. withdrawal symptoms B. whores/knockers
C. rehabilitation D. relapse

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 UM TAGUM COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

102. The physiological adaptation to the effect of drugs so as to diminish the effects with constant
dosages or to maintain the intensity and duration of effects through increase dosage.
A. tolerance B. totalizer
C. total reaction D. tranquilizers

103. The process of gradually depriving drugs from the point of habituation until such time he is no
longer hooked on the substance.
A. Rehabilitation B. Treatment
C. Therapy D. Withdrawal method

104. Use of two to more psycho-active substance and quantities and with frequencies that cause the
individual significant physiological or sociological distress or impairment.
A. polydrug abuse B. prohibited drugs
C. planting evidence D. point shaving

105. What do you call the incident where vast numbers of American soldiers were addicted on the
morphine drug during the American Civil War?
A. Morpheum Illness B. Soldier’s Disease phenomenon
C. American Addiction D. Dreamer’s syndrome

106. What do you call the name of the drug from the leaves from the coca bush plant, a South
American shrub? It is a central nervous system stimulant.
A. Opiates B. Marijuana
C. Cocaine D. Shabu

107. What groups of drugs can produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy of dullness of mind with
delusions?
A. Stimulants B. Narcotics
C. Depressant D. Volatile Substance

108. Which of the following is considered as the world’s oldest cultivated plant as a source of
prohibited drug?
A. Marijuana B. Coca Bush
C. Opium Poppy D. Peyote Cactus

FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

109. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire within the room or throughout the structure.
A. Accelerant B. Plants
C. Trailer D. Wick

110. A mechanical devise strategically placed in an installation or street where a fire hose may be
connected in cases of fire.
A. fire hazard B. fire point
C. fire hydrant D. fire resistance

111. An agent used for class a, b, c, fires that extinguishes fire by interrupting the chemical chain
reaction in the combustion zone.
A. dry chemical B. dry powder
C. deflagration D. detonation

112. A pre-requisite to grant permit / license by local government for any particular establishment.
A. Fire safety inspection B. fire trap
C. fire triangle D. fire wall

113. Are incandescent gases that rapid oxidation of a combustible material. The burning gas or
vapor of the fire that is visible as light of various colors.
A. flame front B. flames
C. flash fire D. flame interface

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 UM TAGUM COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

114. Are persons possessed with the uncontrollable desire or impulse to set things on fire, without
any motive .
A. pyromaniacs B. pyrophorics
C. third degree burn D. size of fire

115. A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain metals in finely divided forms;
magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc.
A. class A B. class B
C. Class C D. class D

116. Conditions conducive to fire or that are likely to increase the extent or severity of fire.
A. fire hazard B. fire safety inspection
C. flame front D. flames

117. First element known to man by experience, a colorless tasteless and odorless gas which
supports life and power.
A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen D. Neon

118. Heat transfer by direct contact from one body to another.

A. Radiation B. Convection
C. Conduction D. Fission

119. Is an active chemical reaction that takes place between fuel, heat and oxygen in the form of
light of noticeable heat.
A. fire B. fire point
C. fire behavior D. fire extinguishers

120. Lowest temperature at which a substance will automatically burn without the application of
spark or flame.
A. auto ignition point B. auto ignition temperature
C. backdraft D. bitting smoke

121. Most important part of the fire triangle for it is what burns.
A. Fuel B. Heat
C. Oxygen D. Gas

122. The law which established the Bureau of Fire Protection is the –
A. PD 1185 B. PD 1196
C. RA 6975 D. PD 1096

123. The lowest temperature of a liquid in open container at which vapors are evolved fast enough
to support continuous combustion.
A. Ignition temperature B. Kindling temperature
C. Fire point D. Flash point

124. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to that of light.
A. Ignition B. Convection
C. Radiation D. Conduction
125. These are liquefied gases that exist in its container at temperature far below normal
atmospheric temperature, usually slightly above its boiling point with low moderate pressure.
A. Liquefied gas B. Compressed gas
C. Cryogenic gas D. Natural gas
E. Inert gas
126. This is known as incendiarism or classified as arson. This kind of fire is set on purpose either to
collect insurance, cover-up another crime or eliminate personal business rivalry.
A. ignition temperature B. intentional fire
C. incipient or initial phase D. luminous flame

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 UM TAGUM COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

127. This phenomenon may occur inside a burning building when heated air increase the
combustion rate to instantaneous combustion.
A. flash over B. flash point
C. flash fire D. free burning stage

128. This refers to the chemical process whereby fire consumes the most solid part of the fuel. It is
the thermal decomposition of combustible matter. It is the chemical decomposition of a solid fuel
through the action of heat.
A. Rapid combustion B. Pyrolysis
C. Burning D. Rapid burning

229. Usually comes in the form of combustible liquid which is a contrivance to hasten the start of fire.
A. Accelerant B. Plants
C. Trailer D. Wick

TECHNICAL REPORT WRITING

130. A directive affecting the status of individuals, such as appointment, promotion, transfer, relief
from duty, leave of absence or separation from service.
A. situation report B. spot report
C. standing operating procedures D. special order

131. A kind of report that gives advance information on a new or fresh case assigned to an
investigator.
A. Final report B. initial report
C. Progress report D. all of the above

132. A kind of report that should be submitted when the case is solved.
A. Final report B. Initial report
C. Progress report D. all of these

133. An accurate narration of facts discovered in the course of an investigation which serves as
permanent written record for present and future reference.
A. police report B. police sentence
C. office orders D. progress report

134. An appropriate complimentary close ending to use when communicating with the provincial
governor.
A. Respectfully yours B. Sincerely yours
C. Very respectfully yours D. Very truly yours

135. A police investigator should maintain a record of all field interrogation in order to:
A. assist him in expanding their files to include descriptions of as many person as possible
B. enable him to assist citizens by providing addresses of relatives and friends with whom
they have lost contact
C. enable him to protect the innocent by providing them with proof of their whereabouts at
the same time the crime was committed
D. provide him with possible leads to suspects or witnesses if a crime is later reported in the
area of a field of interrogation

136. Detailed account of the collection and preservation of evidence obtained at the crime scene.
Indicating among others quantity, quality of the evidences and the chain of custody.
A. footnote B. evidence report
C. formal report D. form report style
137. It is a report to be submitted by a police officer within twenty four (24) hours from the time an
incident is reported.
A. Beat inspection report B. Special report
C. Spot report D. Progress report

CDI PRE REVIEW PROGRAMPage 12 OF 13

 UM TAGUM COLLEGE
DEPARTMENT OF CRIMINAL JUSTICE EDUCATION
PRE REVIEW PROGRAM

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (SET B)

138. It is a form of an inter-office communications that deals with official matter within the PNP
organization.
A. Memorandum B. Letter Directive
C. General Circular D. Subject-To-Letter

139. It is a type of a civilian letter that is used in securing a speaker for an important occasion.
A. Asking letter B. Invitation letter
C. Request letter D. All of these

140. Developed the first telephone that was installed in a Police Call Box.
A. Alexander Graham Bell B. Daniel Noble
C. Paul Galvin D. William Wright

141. It is the result of the follow up investigation of the fresh or new case.
A. Final report B. Initial report
C. Progress report D. All of the above

142. SPO1 Solomon Matiyaga was promoted to the next rank by his Commanding Officer, on the
strength of his recommendation. He gave a blow-out to his friends. Three months passed and he
was still receiving the same salary. What form of communication is missing?
A. memorandum B. special order
C. approval by his CO D. written confirmation

143. The issue of confidentiality of police reports hinges on the reason that _____.
A. The investigator might free superior over his associates
B. The victim might be put to bad light and may drop the case
C. The suspect may be identified and assisted by friends to hide in a far place
D. On-going investigation may be compromised if the police report is open to the public

144. The resume of a person is called

A. Bio-data B. Personal Data Sheet
C. Qualification summary D. All of these

145. Used to document the events that transpired in criminal apprehension.

A. arrest report B. article report
C. after patrol report D. action form

146. Which of the following defined as the transfer of thought from the mind of one person to the
mind of another through a common medium and channel?
A. Communication B. Investigate
C. Report D. All of these

147. Which of the following is the appropriate correspondence to be used is communicating with the
President of the Philippines
A. Civilian letter B. Letter of instructions
C. Memorandum D. All of these

148. What concept pertains to determining the similarities and/or differences in the compared items
and is evaluated to determine which one is valuable for a conclusion?
A. Comparison B. Document
C. Evaluation D. Examiner
149. When the testimony of a witness is reduced into writing or affirmation, then it is appropriately
called –
A. An affidavit B. A disposition
C. A confession D. An admission
150. Legally, ______________ is an expressed acknowledgment by the accused in criminal cases
of the truth of his guilt as to the crime charged or of some of the essential part thereof….
A. Deposition B. Confession
C. Admission D. Sworn Statement

CDI PRE REVIEW PROGRAMPage 13 OF 13