Set No.

85

1. To avoid hitting a waterfall, realignment of the route must be done. Being a new road that will
pass through loose or heterogeneous strata, auger borings should be made on the proposed
alignment at an average interval of:
a) 150 m
b) 200 m
c) 250 m
d) 500 m

2. A set of revised drawings shows a grade separation structure at railroad crossing with cross
sections of the railroad taken at 20 m interval and extended at least 50m from both sides of the
centerline. Does the 50m extension conform with survey/design requirements?
a) Yes, 50 m is in order
b) No, it should be 100 m both sides
c) No, it should be 200 m both sides
d) No, 100 m left side and 200 m right side

3. Depth of exploration for a highway project with light cut and fill where there are no special
problems should extend to a maximum depth of:
a) 1.0 m below bottom of subbase
b) 1.5 m below the proposed subgrade
c) 2.0 m below the proposed subgrade
d) 3.0 m below the proposed subgrade

4. For a bridge project, spacing of borings should be made at a minimum of:

a) One deep boring per abutment and pier
b) Two deep borings per abutment and per pier
c) Two deep borings per abutment and an additional one per pier
d) Three deep borings per abutment and pier

5. The maximum length of ascending gradient which a loaded truck can operate without undue
reduction in speed is called:
a) critical length of grade for design
b) exceptional gradient
c) limiting gradient
d) ruling gradient

6. In practice, K – factor is used to convert average annual daily traffic to the 30th highest annual
hourly volume (DHV) and is defined as:
a) DHV/AADT
b) DDHV/ (DxAADT)
c) V/PHF
d) L/A
Set No. 85
7. A contractor encountered an equation on the plans. Quite confused, he clarified the terms
“BK” and “AH” from the Engineer. If you were the Engineer, you would say that:
a) BK means new survey stationing
b) AH means old survey stationing corrected
c) BK means old survey stationing corrected;
AH, new survey stationing
d) Both a and b

8. The general principles of design of bridges depend on many factors. These may be broadly
unified under the following with the exception of:
a) Selection of site
b) Water discharge
c) Design of bridge
d) Bank protection

9. If the good and hard soil is available within 2 to 3 m below the bed level of a river, the design
will generally require:
a) Spread foundations
b) Raft foundations
c) Pile foundations
d) Caisson foundations

10. Per bridge design procedures, the design method to be used for columns should preferably be:
a) Service load design
b) Working stress design
c) Load factor (ultimate strength) design
d) Both a and b

11. Every building will be designed for lateral seismic forces. As a minimum, the design base shear
(V=ZICW/Rw) will be applied to the structure as a whole and be distributed to the various levels
of the structure. The factor Z (seismicity of the site) as used in the Philippines is:
a) less than 0.2 for Zone 1
b) 0.2 for Zone 2
c) 0.3 for Zone 3
d) 0.4 for Zone 4

12. In foundation design, the allowable load or bearing capacity is obtained by reducing the ultimate
bearing capacity by a factor of safety of:
a) 1.5
b) 2.0
c) 1 to 2
d) 2 to 3

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Set No. 85

13. The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat, should be within the range of:
a) 0.2 – 0.5 1/m2
b) 0.2 – 0.7 1/m2
c) 0.15 – 0.7 1/m2
d) 0.15 – 0.5 1/m2

14. The minimum distance of extended compaction of road embankment material from the edge of
the designed width should be:
a) 2.00 m
b) 3.00 m
c) 0.50 m
d) 1.00

15. Normally within how many hours can sawing of joints commence given that concrete has
hardened sufficiently?
a) 36
b) 72
c) 12
d) 24

16. Repainting of steel bridges is an activity under:

a) special maintenance
b) periodic maintenance
c) preventive maintenance
d) routine maintenance

17. Before placing concrete, the base of a roadway for concreting should be kept in moist
condition and saturated with water for at least:
a) 6 hrs.
b) 1.5 hrs.
c) 2 hrs.
d) 3 hrs.

18. On sloping surface, concrete should be placed starting at:

a) top of slope
b) bottom of slope
c) middle of slope
d) any part of the slope

3
Set No. 85

19. What is the minimum width required in pipe culvert excavation?

a) 300 mm greater than the diameter of the pipe
b) 2 times the diameter of the pipe
c) 1.5 times the diameter of the pipe
d) Just enough to put the pipe

20. What will you do if there is evidence of discrepancies on the actual elevation from those
shown in the Plans?
a) Conduct Pre-construction Survey
b) Conduct Parcellary Survey
c) Conduct Geotechnical Survey
d) Conduct Boring Test

21. What is the difference between the Net Volume Suitable Materials Embankment and Net
Volume of Suitable Materials from Excavation?
a) Free haul volume
b) Overhaul volume
c) Unsuitable materials
d) Surplus materials

22. The time elapsed from the time water is added to the concrete mix and transported by a truck
mixer up to the time said mix is deposited in place at the site should not exceed?
a) 15 minutes
b) 45 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 20 minutes

23. What do you call the collapse of earth and side slope due to slope failure and natural calamity
like earthquake?
a) Denudation
b) Gully erosion
c) Landslide
d) Scouring

24. What do you call the strengthening of an old existing asphalt or concrete pavement by
providing additional and adequate thickness over it?
a) re-blocking
b) sealing
c) grouting
d) overlaying

4
Set No. 85

25. What do you call the portion of earth or base course the portion of earth or base course
materials left unleveled by a road grader during longitudinal grading operation?
a) windrow
b) stockpile
c) hump
d) edging

26. Resurfacing of unpaved shoulder that has settled or been eroded by traffic and water is an
activity under:
a) preventive maintenance
b) routing maintenance
c) periodic maintenance
d) special maintenance

27. The inside face of a pothole, aside from squaring, must be made vertical before patching
using cold or hot mix asphalt in order to:
a) ensure bond between the new mix and old surface
b) prevent pumping
c) minimize spalling
d) prevent faulting

28. As practically possible, concrete mix should not be placed where this can be subject to
manual dropping by not more than ______ and where no other special tools and means are
used:
a) 3.0 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 2.0 m
d) 1.5 m

29. Concrete Class A mix used and deposited in water for footing construction shall maintain a
slump between:
a) 5 and 10 cm
b) 10 and 20 cm
c) 20 and 30 cm
d) 30 and 40 cm

30. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a minimum period
of how many days after it has been placed?
a) 28
b) 30
c) 14
d) 7
5
Set No. 85

31. What is the maximum allowable variation at the butt end of a pile in any direction from its
location shown in the approved plans?
a) 75 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 40 mm

32. In pile driving, when the desired penetration cannot be obtained by driving alone, other
schemes are used. Which of the following is not acceptable?
a) Water jets
b) Pilot holes
c) Both jet and holes
d) Square hole

33. What is the required minimum weight of the gravity hammer used in pile driving?
a) 2000 kg
b) 1500 kg
c) 1800 kg
d) 1700 kg

34. What is the technical term used in repairing the foundation of piers and abutments that have
an indication of scouring and erosion?
a) Shotcreting
b) Underpinning
c) Riveting
d) plastering

35. In underpinning a pier the following methods may be undertaken before the repair work
starts, with the exception of:
a) Earth-filled wood cofferdaming
b) Water diversion thru dikes of rock and earth
c) Use of steel sheet piles
d) Spurdiking

36. Which of the following is not classified as a type of caisson foundation?

a) Pneumatic foundation
b) Box Caisson
c) Open Caisson
d) Hydraulic Caisson

6
Set No. 85

37. What is the simplest type of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limited span of 8
meters?
a) Reinforced concrete slab
b) Concrete plank deck
c) Girder and slab superstructure
d) Beam or plank bridge

38. What is the minimum length requirement for longitudinal reinforcement of the piles that
should be embedded in the bridge structure?
a) 30 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
b) 40 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
c) 50 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
d) 20 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars

39. What do you call the additional support on steel sheet piles to support embankment of the
abutment of a bridge embedded in the ground designed to increase load safety factor against
overturning?
a) Dead man
b) Pile
c) Bridge panel
d) Cross bracing

40. After a typhoon, a dam measuring 250 meters suffered a 40-meter breach equivalent to P4.8
million. You found out that it is impossible to close the gap before the onset of rainy months,
which may result in total collapse of the dam. If you are the new Project Engineer, what will
you do?
a) Risk 3-shift operation to attain maximum accomplishment
b) Suspend the project and resume after the rainy months
c) Armor the breached section with gabion-mattress and spurdike, to utilize gap as diversion
channel
d) Introduce a crash program sacrificing quality

41. Which of the following is not a function of a groin?

a) It decreases the flow velocity
b) It regulates the flow direction
c) It stabilizes the mountain grade
d) It decreases the scouring effect

42. Which of the following is not a measure against mudflow?

a) Sabo dams
b) Retarding basins
c) Cut-off channels
d) Groundsills

7
Set No. 85

43. You are to recommend measures to minimize inundation on the landside of an overflowing
river. Which of the following is not acceptable?
a) Reduce the flood inflow to the area by constructing spillways and retarding basins
b) Regulate the land use in the area
c) Install drainage facilities like pumping stations
d) Introduce dredging works

44. Which of the following items is not a structure of a dam?

a) Impervious fill
b) Random fill
c) Outlet protection works
d) Distribution canal

45. During construction of a flood control dam, the proposed spillway was overcut by one meter.
What should the Project Engineer do?
a) Cover the section with excavated materials
b) Continue work and disregard the overcut
c) Suspend work and request for design analysis
d) Blame and blacklist the contractor

46. What kind of cut-off channel is being constructed to carry 10% of a river discharge, and
which subsequently develops capacity of up to 40%?
a) Diversion channel
b) Pilot channel
c) River channel
d) Open channel

47. A proposed flood control project has a mini-hydro electric power component. However, the
area is already being serviced by the National Power Corporation. Which of the following
will be the best action to take?
a) implement all work components
b) locate to other service areas needing power
c) delete the mini-hydro power component
d) abort the implementation of the flood control project

48. If the void ratio (e) of a soil is 1, the porosity (n) is equal to:
a) 10 %
b) 20 %
c) 30 %
d) 50 %

8
Set No. 85

49. What is the apparatus used in determining the consistency of a liquid asphalt?
a) penetrometer
b) viscometer
c) thermometer
d) viscometric meter

50. The flow curve obtained when the liquid test results are plotted on a semi-log scale is in the
form of a/an:
a) Parabola
b) Straight line
c) Hyperbola
d) Arc

51. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if their average
strength is equal to:
a) at least 85 % of and no single core is less than 85 % of f ’c
b) at least 75 % of and no single core is less than 75 % of f ’c
c) at least 85 % of and no single core is less than 75 % of f ’c
d) at least 75 % of and no single core is less than 85 % of f ’c

52. A series of almost parallel cracks running longitudinally along bituminous pavement surfaces
is caused by:
a) Volume change of expansive clay subgrade
b) Cyclical weakening of pavement edge
c) Differential settlement between cut and fill
d) All of the above

53. During the curing period, the exposed surfaces of normal cement concrete should be kept
continuously moist for at least:
a) 3 days
b) 5 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days

54. To attain a uniform consistency of concrete during the pouring operation of a concrete
pavement, the slump should not be more than:
a) 40 mm (1½ inches)
b) 50 mm ( 2 inches)
c) 62 mm (2½ inches)
d) 75 mm ( 3 inches)

9
Set No. 85

55. The flexural strength of concrete is considered satisfactory when the average strength of all
sets of 3 consecutive strength test results equal or exceed the specified strength and when no
individual strength test result is deficient by more than:
a) 10 % of 550 psi
b) 15 % of 550 psi
c) 20 % of 550 psi
d) 25 % of 550 psi

56. For a compacted pavement, what does the stability value in the Marshall test measure?
a) cohesion resistance
b) resistance to displacement
c) diametric distortion
d) skid resistance

57. How many set/s of in-situ density tests is required in a 1500 square meter compacted
aggregate subbase course?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5

58. If the designed thickness of aggregate subbase course is 200 mm, in how many layers may
the material be spread and compacted?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

59. Per program of work, the estimated volume of Item 201 materials is 7,500 cu.m. How many
Grading and Plasticity tests are required based on the DPWH minimum testing requirement?
a) 5
b) 25
c) 15
d) 20

60. Verification of in-placed Items 200 and 201 materials were conducted thru test pitting. As
Project Inspector, what would you do to best determine whether Item 201 was incorporated in
the project?
a) Determine its soil texture
b) Scrutinize project reports/logbooks
c) Determine the maximum size of aggregates in-place
d) Verify delivery receipts
10
Set No. 85

61. The temperature of a 5.0 cu.m. bituminous mix delivered in the project site is 15 oC lower
than the required compaction temperature of the submitted Job-Mix Formula. As resident
engineer of the project, what decision should you take?
a) allow the spreading and compaction of the material delivered
b) advise the contractor to spread the mixture in one layer only
c) reject the delivered material
d) adjust the job-mix formula

62. The primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixtures which will
have a high degree of uniformity that will satisfy job requirements is called:
a) Job-Mix formula
b) Marshall Stability Test
c) Immersion-Compression Stability Test
d) Plant-Mix Design

63. When a completed asphalt pavement exhibits too much voids, it is usually caused by the
following with the exception of:
a) rolling the mixture below the temperature requirements
b) too much coarse aggregates
c) too little binder
d) too much fine aggregates

64. If permitted by the Engineer, additional water may be added to the batch concrete materials in
truck mixers for portland cement concrete pavements. Additional mixing may be performed
to increase the slump to meet the specified requirement provided that the water-cement ratio
is not exceeded and that the said operations are performed within ______minutes after the
initial mixing operation.
a) 30
b) 45
c) 60
d) 90

65. When consolidating concrete during pouring operations, vibrator should not be operated in
any one location longer than:
a) 10 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 20 seconds
d) 30 seconds

11
Set No. 85

66. The depth of corrugations and roughened finish by brooming on the surface3 of a newly set
concrete pavement should not be more than:
a) 6.0 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 2.5 mm

67. In order to attain the minimum percentage design strength of concrete for floor slabs, the
minimum time before forms and supports are removed should be:
a) 3 days
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 28 days

68. In order to attain the minimum percentage design strength of concrete for concrete walls, the
minimum time before forms and supports are removed should be:
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days

69. In laying stone components of Item 505 (Riprap and Grouted Riprap), each stone should be:
a) Laid with its longest axis perpendicular to the slope
b) Pitched to line along the beds and joints
c) Laid with its face parallel to the faces of the walls
d) Reasonably uniform with no projections more than 150 mm

70. What is Item 506 in the DPWH Standard Specification?

a) Structural Concrete
b) Prestressed Concrete
c) Stone Masonry
d) Riprap and Grouted Riprap

71. Which Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is not preferable for bituminous mixture in
accordance with the Immersion-Compression Stability Test?
a) 50 %
b) 70 %
c) 75 %
d) 80 %

12
Set No. 85

72. Lumber is considered well-seasoned when its moisture content is between:

a) 5 to 11 %
b) 12 to 18 %
c) 19 to 25 %
d) 26 to 32 %

73. In case of emergency, e.g. earthquake, typhoons, or volcanic eruption, what report should a
Project Engineer submit?
a) Executive Report
b) Periodic Report
c) Exception Report
d) Accomplishment Report

74. Who decides on all the questions which arise as to the interpretation of plans and
specifications in the field execution of the project?
a) Project Inspector
b) Materials Engineer
c) Resident Engineer
d) Project Engineer

75. Who prepares daily reports on work accomplishment for review of the Project Engineer?
a) Project Engineer
b) Materials Engineer
c) Project Inspector
d) Contractor’s Engineer

76. In a PERT/CPM diagram, the contract time duration of the project is represented by:
a) Dummy Activities
b) Float
c) Critical Path
d) End event

77. In a PERT/CPM networking, the process of compressing the duration of a project is called?
a) Time optimization
b) Crashing
c) Contract time adjustment
d) reduction

13
Set No. 85

78. Which of the following need not be resorted as to when compressing the duration of a
project?
a) Use of two-shift work force
b) Use of advanced construction technology
c) Use of additional equipment
d) Use of additional materials

79. In the calculation of total project duration in an infrastructure project (equipment oriented),
which of the following is the most important consideration?
a) Right-of-way acquisition
b) Local manpower capability
c) Climatic condition in the area
d) Availability of funds

80. In terms of percentage, how much higher in strength is a well-consolidated concrete

compared to a concrete not thoroughly consolidated?
a) 5 to 10 percent
b) 10 to 15 percent
c) 15 to 20 percent
d) 20 to 25 percent

81. During the test run, a mini dam was observed to have a high probability of overtopping due to
increase in river discharge capacity brought about by massive deforestation. Which of the
following is the most logical recommendation?
a) acceptance and keep information to yourself
b) increase in height of dam
c) armoring of the upstream pacing
d) redesign/reconstruction of the spillway structure

82. Which of the following is not a cause of delay in project implementation?

a) revision in plans
b) inadequacy of contractor’s resources
c) non-availability of construction materials
d) Rainy months pre-determined in the area

83. Concerning delayed project implementation, which of the following is not the fault of the
contractor?
a) delayed preparation of contract documents
b) faulty construction method
c) defective construction equipment
d) undersized construction materials delivered
14
Set No. 85

84. Which of the following financial controls should be imposed if the project is delayed?
a) Penalty by way of additional bond
b) Confiscation of surety bond
c) Liquidated damages
d) Withhold progress billing

85. The following are basic documents needed as reference in an assessment of a project with the
exception of:
a) Program of Works
b) Statement of Work Accomplished
c) Certificate of Availability of Funds
d) Certificate of Quality Control Assurance

86. In embankment works involving a 300-meter hauling distance, what is the most efficient
equipment mix?
a) one bulldozer, one payloader, one compactor and one dump truck
b) One bulldozer, one payloader, one grader, and two dump trucks
c) One bulldozer, one payloader, one grader, one compactor and three dump trucks
d) One bulldozer, one payloader and five dump trucks

87. If a project is abandoned by the contractor due to peace and order problems, what
recommendation should immediately be submitted?
a) Rescission of Contract
b) Termination of Contract
c) Contract Suspension
d) Blacklisting of Contractor

88. An Extra Work Order may be issued if:

a) There are additional works necessary but were not included as items of works in the
original contract
b) The aggregate amount of the variation order is more than 25% of the original contract
cost
c) There is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items or sections of the project
d) The aggregate amount of the variation order is more than 100% of the original contract
cost

89. A supplemental agreement may be entered into when the aggregate amount of the variation
order:
a) Exceeds 25% but less than 100% of the escalated original contract price
b) Does not exceed 25% of the escalated original contract price
c) Exceeds 100% of the escalated original contract price
d) Is limited to 25% of the escalated original contract price
15
Set No. 85

90. Which does not fall under the condition when a change order can be issued?
a) The aggregate cost is limited to 25% of original contract cost
b) There is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items or sections of the project
c) There are additional works which were not included as items of work in the original
contract
d) There is reclassification of an existing item due to latent conditions which were not
known at the time of bidding

91. A change order may be issued when:

a) The aggregate cost is limited to 25% of original contract cost
b) The aggregate cost exceeds 25% of the original contract cost
c) There are additional works which were not included as items of work in the original
contract
d) The quantity overruns or underruns in a unit price contract is not more than 15% of the
estimates per major pay item and 25% per minor pay item

92. Select one not covered by conditions where an extra work order may be issued:
a) Where there are additional works needed for the completion of the project which were
not included as items of work in the original contract
b) Where there are subsurface or latent physical conditions at the site differing materially
from those indicated in the contract beyond the limit of the change order
c) Where there are unknown physical conditions at the site of an unusual nature beyond the
limits of change order inherent in the work
d) Where the additional works necessary for the completion of the project is beyond the
limits and the general scope of the project

93. Your total approved accomplishment on a project including those to be covered by an extra
work is equivalent to 75% but only 65% is covered under the approved original contract. Up
to what level of progress billing would you allow?
a) Up to the total 75% accomplishment
b) Below 75% but more than 65% accomplishment
c) Up to the documented value not more than 50%
d) Up to the documented value not more than 65%

94. After the issuance of the “Punch List” during the pre-final inspection, what is the time
duration imposed to complete the project without penalties?
a) one month
b) two months
c) three months
d) four months

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Set No. 85

95. Adjustment of contract price of a project may be authorized if:

a) the awarded contract price is below the government estimate
b) the cost of labor, equipment, materials and supplies increased artificially in the locality
c) the cost of labor, equipment, materials and supplies increased, due to acts of the
government
d) the cost of labor, equipment, materials and supplies increased, due to multiple handling

96. Advance payment shall be repaid by deducting from a contractor’s periodic progress
payments an amount equivalent to:
a) 10 %
b) 15 %
c) 20 %
d) 25 %

97. The contract time may be suspended once the project reaches an accomplishment of:
a) 80 %
b) 85 %
c) 90 %
d) 95 %

98. For creeks in urban and rural areas and not subject to overbank flows, a minimum easement
to be provided measured from the edge of the existing bank or the improved bank should be:
a) 3.0 m
b) 4.0 m
c) 4.5 m
d) 20.0 m

99. Rivers, esteros and navigating canals, not subject to overbank flows should have a minimum
easement measured from the edge of the existing bank or the improved bank of:
a) 4.5 m
b) 5.5 m
c) 20.0 m
d) 40.0 m

100. What does scoured depth refer to?

a) Total change in elevation of works
b) Total depth of water from surface to a scoured bed level
c) Depth of scour
d) Backwater depth

17