EduShrine Scholarship Cum Admission Test Model Question Paper
EduShrine Scholarship Cum Admission Test Model Question Paper
EduShrine Scholarship Cum Admission Test Model Question Paper
ESSAT
Edu-Shrine Scholarship Cum Admission Test
MODEL PAPER
Instructions to the students
ESSAT Scholorship is designed to diagnose the fundamental knowledge, understanding and analytical
skills of students of class-X from SSLC, CBSE and ICSE curricula and honour them with scholarships
to help their further studies.
Test includes Four Parts:
Part-A: Physics (Q. No. 1 to 20): (i) Light - Reflection and Refraction; (ii) Electricity;
(iii) Magnetic effects of current
Part-B: Chemistry (Q. No. 21 to 40): (i) Carbon and its compounds; (ii) Periodic classification;
(iii) Metals and Non-metals; (iv) Chemical reactions and equations
Part-C: Mathematics (Q. No. 41 to 65) : (i) Arithmetic Progressions; (ii) Some applications of
Trigonometry; (iii) Circles; (iv) Quadratic equations
Part-D: Aptitude & Reasoning (Q. No. 66 to 80): Series, Alphabet test, Classification, Analogy,
Coding-Decoding, Number and Ranking, Blood relation, Direction sense
Thus a total of 80 Questions each carrying 2 marks will be given. Hence the test is for 160 marks.
There is no negative marking.
1
PART-A: Physics
1. A mirror forms a virtual image of a real object.
(A) It must be a convex mirror (B) It must be a concave mirror
(C) It must be a plane mirror (D) It may be any of the mirrors mentioned above.
2. An object is placed at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The distance between its image and
the pole is (f = focal length of the mirror)
(A) Equal to f (B) Between f and 2f
(C) Equal to 2f (D) Greater than 2f
3. Which mirror is used as rear view mirror in scooters, motorcycles, etc.?
(A) Plane mirror (B) Parabolic mirror
(C) Convex mirror (D) Concave mirror
4. A concave mirror forms an inverted image of an object placed at a distance of 12 cm. If the image is
twice as large as the object, the distance of image from the mirror is
(A) 20 cm (B) 24 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 34 cm
5. A clock with hour-minute hand shows 3 : 00. In the image of this clock seen in a plane mirror the time
seen is
(A) 3: 00 (B) 9: 00 (C) 6: 00 (D) 5: 00
6. A ray of light enters glass from air. If the speed of light in air is 3 10 ms1 and refractive index of
8
2
11. An electron with charge ‘e’ is moving in a circular orbit of radius r with uniform speed v. The equivalent
current produced is
e ev ev
(A) (B) (C) (D) None
2r 2r r
12. In the following circuits (Figure), heat produced in the resistor or combination of resistors connected to a
12 V battery will be
3
19. The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short circuiting or
overloading is
(A) earthing (B) use of fuse (C) use of stabilizers (D) use of electric mete
20. A commutator changes the direction of current in the coil of
(A) a DC motor (B) a DC motor and an AC generator
(C) a DC motor and a DC generator (D) an AC generator
PART-B: Chemistry
21. Which of the following reactions is not feasible (doesn’t occur)?
(A) Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 (B) Cu + 2ZnSO4 → CuSO4 +Zn
(C) Na + H2O → NaOH + H2 (C) All of them are feasible
22. Which of the following pairs of compounds belong to same homologous series?
(A) C4 H6 & C5 H10 (B) C3H6 & C5 H12 (C) C5 H8 & C3H4 (D) C4 H10 & C4 H8
H H2
C C
(C) and (D) All pairs represent isomers
H3 C CH2 H3 C CH3
24. Zn + HNO3 → Zn(NO3)2 + NH4NO3 + H2O. If this equation is to be balanced, the coefficients to be
placed before the reactants and products are respectively are…
(A) 2, 5, 2, 1, 3 (B) 8, 10, 4, 1, 6 (C) 4, 10, 4, 1, 3 (D) 4, 10, 5, 1, 4
25. Which of the following reactions is an example of displacement?
(A) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO (B) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(C) Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2 (D) Fe + S→ FeS
26. A chemical equation must be balanced because…
(A) compounds are formed by combination of elements in fixed proportions
(B) mass is neither created nor destroyed
(C) atoms combine in simple whole numbers to form molecules
(D) products of the reaction are more stable than the reactants
27. An anion X-2 has 18 electrons. How many neutrons does it contain if the mass number is 32?
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 52 (D) 14
4
28. The formula C3H6 represents……
(A) propene (B) propane (C) cyclopropane (D) both (A) and (C)
29. What is the number of valence electrons in an element with electronic configuration 1s22s22p4?
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 2
30. Which of the following species has octet structure?
(A) Ne (Z = 10) (B) Na+(Z = 11) (C) Cl(Z = 17) (D) All of these
31. Identify a p-Block element from the following.
(A) K (Z = 19) (B) Mg (Z = 12) (C) As (Z = 33) (D) Sc (Z = 21)
32. Which of the following substances is basic in nature?
(A) H2O (B) CO2 (C) CaO (D) All the above
33. An element when placed in hydrochloric acid solution liberates a gas that puts off the burning splinter
with 'pop' sound. The element may be...
(A) carbon (B) Potassium (C) copper (D) All the above
34. Activity series of metals is the arrangement of metals in the order of their reactivity. Less reactive (more
noble) the metal, more precious it is due to its long shelf-life. Arrange the following metals in the
decreasing order of their reactivity.
(A) Cu Ag Au Pt (B) Pt Au Ag Cu
(C) Pt Cu Ag Au (D) Cu Pt Ag Au
35. Symbol of an ionic compound is derived using criss-cross method of cation and anion. Formula of ‘meta
aluminate’ anion is AlO21 . What is the formula of the compound ‘calcium meta aluminate’ if the
5
Consider the elements marked by roman numerals in the following model periodic table and answer the
questions 21 to 25.
VII I
IV V VI III
II
VIII
36. How many electrons will be present in the penultimate shells of the Elements I, II & III respectively?
(A) 18, 18 and 18 (B) 8, 8 and 18 (C) 3, 2 and 8 (D) 18, 18 & 8
37. If electronic arrangement (configuration) in the four shells of Element-IV is 2,8,9,2 and that of Element-
V is 2, 8, 18, 2 then what is the number of electrons present in the valence shell of Element-VI?
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 18
38. Which two elements shown in the above table would have same number of electrons in their respective
valence shells?
(A) VII & VIII (B) VIII & IV (C) II & VIII (D) I & VI
39. What is the total number of electrons present in the atoms of Element-VII?
(A) 11 (B) 7 (C) 20 (D) 19
40. Which pair of elements would have the same number of shells?
(A) IV & V (B) IV & VI (C) III & IV (D) All the above
PART-C: Mathematics
41. If the sum of two numbers is 23 and product is 132 then the two numbers are
(A) 14, 9 (B) 15, 8 (C) 6, 17 (D) 11, 12
42. The product of roots of 6x – x – 2 = 0 is
2
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 6 6 3
43. The nature of roots of 2x 2 4x 5 2 0 is
(A) Distinct real roots (B) real and equal roots
(C) no roots (D) distinct but not real
6
44. If 4a – 2b + c = 0 then one of the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 is
(A) –2 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 1
45. If the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 are in the ratio m : n then which of the following is true
b2 m n
2
b2 m n
(A) (B)
ac mn ac mn
b m n
2
b mn
(C) (D)
ac mn ac mn
46. If one of the roots of the equation x3 – 9x2 + 25x – k = 0 is 3 2 , then k =
(A) 15 (B) –21 (C) 21 (D) –15
47. If a2, b2, c2 are in A. P then
ba cb a b cb ba cb
(A) (B) (C) (D) None
bc ba a c ba ba cb
48. 24th term from the end in 1, 4, 7,……….298 is
(A) 229 (B) 226 (C) 232 (D) 235
49. If the sum of 1st (n + 1) terms of an A. P is 3570 and sum of 1st n terms of the same A. P is 3525 then
(n + 1)th term is
(A) 90 (B) 45 (C) 55 (D) None
50. The income of a person is Rs 3,00,000 in the 1st year and he receives in increase of Rs 10,000 to his
income per year for the rent 19 years. Find the total amount, he received in 20 years
(A) 79,00,000 (B) 76,00,000 (C) 79,10,000 (D) None
51. Find the sum of 25 terms of A.P whose nth term is 2n + 5
(A) 768 (B) 770 (C) 775 (D) 785
52. The product of three numbers in A.P is 224, and the largest number is 7 times the smallest. Find the
numbers
(A) 3, 6, 21 (B) 2, 8, 14 (C) 1, 32, 7 (D) None
53. How many two-digit numbers are divisible by 3?
(A) 30 (B) 33 (C) 36 (D) 32
54. If P times the pth term of an A. P is equal to q times the qth term then (p + q)th term is
(A) pth term + qth term (B) pth term – qth term (C) 0 (D) None
55. From an external point P, tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle with centre O. If PAB = 50, then
AOB =
(A) 80 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 100
2
56. If x and x = –3 are roots of the quadratic equation ax2 + 7x + b = 0, find the values of a and b
3
(A) 3, 6 (B) 3, 6 (C) 3, 6 (D) 3, 6
7
57. If AP and BP are tangents to a circle with centre O, such that AP = 5 cm and APB = 60. Then the
length of chord is
5 5 3
(A) cm (B) 5 cm (C) cm (D) None
2 2
1 1 P 1 2P
58. The common difference of A.P in , , ,………. is
P P P
(A) P (B) 1 (C) P (D) 1
59. A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle such that its sides AB, BC, CD and AD touch
the circle at P, Q, R and S respectively. If AB = x cm, BC = 7 cm, CR = 3 cm, AS = 5 cm, find x
D R C
S Q
A P B
63. If two circles with centres C1 and C2 with radii r1 and r2 touch each other externally then which of the
(C) 5x 2 3x 2 5 0 (D)
2 5 x 3x 2 5 0
8
PART-D: Aptitude and Reasoning
66. Total number of squares of 3 3 square grid i.e.,
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 14 (D) 15
67. A person observed analog clock in the mirror and noticed the time as 4 : 20. Then what was the actual
time?
(A) 7 : 80 (B) 7 : 40 (C) 8 : 40 (D) 6 : 40
68. If A + B means A is daughter of B, A B means A is the son of B, A – B means A is the wife of B, than
P Q – S represents
(A) S is the wife of Q (B) S is father of P (C) P is daughter of Q (D) Q is father of P
69. Two positions of dice as shown below. When 4 is at the bottom which number will be on the top?
1 1
5 6 3 2
9
1. (D)
A convex mirror always forms a diminished virtual image of real object.
A plane mirror always forms a virtual image, of the same size as object, of real object.
A concave mirror can also form magnified virtual image of a real object if the object is placed between
the pole and focus.
2. (C)
u 2f , f f
1 1 1
v u f
1 1 1
v 2f f
1 1 1 1
v f 2f 2f
v 2f
3. (C)
Convex mirror produced virtual, erect and diminished image. This allows for a wider field of view.
4. (B)
m 2 (inverted image)
v
m
u
v
2
(12)
v 24cm
Thus image distance is 24 cm in front of the mirror.
5. (B)
One of the property of image formed by plane mirror is that the image is laterally inverted. This means
that in the image formed by a plane mirror, the left and right sides are reversed.
Thus 3: 00 will be seen as 9: 00.
6. (B)
c
Refractive index n
v
c 3 10 8
v 2 108 m / s
n 1.5
7. (A)
sin i
n
sin r
sin 450
2
sin r
1 1 1 1
sin r sin 450
2 2 2 2
This gives r = 30
10
8. (C)
f
m
f u
12
m 4
12 15
h
m i
ho
hi
4 h i 8cm
2
The negative sign shows that the image is inverted.
9. (B)
If the refractive of the medium is same as the material of the lens then the rays will not suffer any
bending during refraction. Thus the rays will remain parallel.
10. (C)
Light entering the eye is controlled by the size of pupil, which can be changed with the help of the iris.
11. (B)
distance 2 r
The time period of revolution of electron in the circular orbit T
speed v
Starting from point on the orbit, if we wait for one time period T then during this time the charge
transferred through any point on the orbit = e
e ev
Thus, current i
T 2r
12. (D)
Resistance of the circuit (i) is R1 = 2
Resistance of circuit (ii) is R2 = 2 + 2 = 4
2 2
Resistance of the circuit (iii) is R 3 1
22
Since same voltage is applied to all the combinations, power consumed (and hence heat produced)
V2
P is maximum for that combination which has minimum resistance
R
13. (D)
Resistivity of a wire does not depend on the dimensions of the wire. Thus it remains unchanged
14. (C)
We have, Wfrom A to B q VB VA 1.5 120 50 105J
15. (A)
V2
P
R
122
24 ……………… (1)
R
In the second case,
62
P1 ………………. (2)
R
Dividing the two equations
P1 62 1
2 P1 6 W
24 12 4
11
16. (B) Magnetic field lines form closed loops.
17. (D)
Use Fleming’s Left Hand rule.
18. (D)
The field consists of concentric circles centered on the wire given by Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule
19. (B)
An overload or a short-circuit causes excessive heating of the wire, which may even cause a fire. To
prevent this, fuses or circuit breakers are used.
20. (A)
If the commutator is not used in a motor, the direction of current in an arm of the coil will always remain
same. So, the direction of force on the arm will not change, and the coil will not be able to complete one
rotation.
21. (B)
Copper is less reactive than Zinc. Hence, it cannot displace Zn from ZnSO4 solution.
Since Zn (option-A) and Na (Option-C) are active metals they can displace hydrogen from acids and
water to liberate hydrogen gas.
22. (C)
Explanation:
(A) Alkyne & Alkene (B) Alkene & Alkane
(C) Both Alkynes (D) Alkane & Alkene
23. (C)
Isomers should possess same molecular formula.
24. (C)
Verify balancing of atoms with each option.
25. (C)
(A) Combination (B) Decomposition (C) Displacement (D) Combination
26. (B)
Balancing of equation is in accordance with Law of conservation of mass.
27. (B)
An anion is formed by gaining of electrons. X 2e X2 . Since anion has 18 electrons, X has 16
electrons. Number of electrons in neutral atom is the atomic number.
N = A – Z = 32 – 16 = 16 Neutrons
28. (D)
Alkenes and Cycloalkanes have same general formula.
29. (B)
Second shell is the valence shell in the given configuration.
30. (D)
Ne and Na+ have configuration 2, 8. Cl– has configuration 2, 8, 8. All contain 8 electrons in the valence
shell (Octet).
31. (C)
(A) K (19) : 1s22s22p63s23p64s1 (K is s-block element as last electron enters into s-subshell).
(B) Mg (12): 1s22s22p63s2 (Mg is s-block element)
(C) As (33): 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p3 (As is p-block)
(D) Sc(21): 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d1 (Sc is d-block)
12
32. (C)
Metal oxides are basic and non-metal oxides are acidic.
33. (B)
Only active metals can displace hydrogen from HCl solution and liberate H 2 gas that puts off burning
splinter with pop sound.
34. (A)
Platinum is the least reactive and hence most precious among all the metals.
35. (C)
36. (B)
Element-I is in third period. Hence there are three shells. Valence shell is 3 rd shell and penultimate
shell will be the second shell. Since previous period has 8 elements second shell should have got
filled with 8 electrons by the end of 2nd period. Filling of 3rd shell starts at the beginning of 3rd
period.
Element-II is the second element of 5th period. Previous period would have ended with 8 electrons
in the 4th shell and filling of 5th shell starts for the 5th period. Hence II also has 8 electrons in the 4th
shell (penultimate shell)
Element- III is at the end of 4th period. Its valence shell (4th shell) should have only 8 electrons but
the period has 18 elements. Hence the additional 10 elements come due to filling of penultimate
shell (3rd shell). Hence penultimate shell of III has 18 electrons.
37. (C)
Penultimate shell can accommodate a maximum of only 18 electrons. Hence after Element-V the
electrons are filled in valence shell. Hence the extra two electrons of Element-VI go to 4th shell.
38. (C)
When the position of elements in the respective periods is identical, they must possess same number of
electrons in the valence shell as the filling of valence shell starts in a given period. II & VIII both are the
second members of their respective periods.
(Thus, a group of elements would have same number of valence electrons in their atoms)
39. (A)
Number of electrons increases by one for every successive element in the periodic table. Element-VII is
the 11th element in the periodic table.
40. (D)
A period of elements has same number of shells and the number is equal to the period number.
41. (D)
By verification
11 + 12 = 23
11 12 = 132
42. (A)
We know that
For ax2 + bx + c = 0
13
b
Sum of roots
a
c
Product of roots
a
c 2 1
From equation
a 6 3
43. (D)
Clearly = b2 – 4ac
16 4 2 5 2 0
No real roots Distinct but not real
44. (A)
By verification
If x = 2 a(2)2 + b(2) + c = 0
4a 2b + c = 0
45. (B)
Let the roots be = mk, = nk
b c
Sum of roots Product of roots
a a
b
m nk …(i)
a
c
mn k 2 …(ii)
a
b
k …(i)
a m n
From (i) and (ii)
2
b c
mn
a m n a
b2 c
mn 2
a m n
2
a
b2 m n
2
ac mn
46. (C)
3 2 is one root 3 2 is another root of x3 – 9x2 + 25x – k = 0
Let be the third root
Sum of roots 3 2 3 2 9
6+=9
=3
Product of roots is 3 2 3 2 k
7 = 3
73=k
k = 21
14
47. (A)
p, q, r are in A. P then
Common difference q p = r – q
a2, b2, c2 are in A. P
b2 – a2 = c2 – b2
b a b a c b c b
ba cb
bc ba
48. (A)
From the end the series 298, 295,…………1
a = 298, d = 3
T24 = 298 + (24 – 1) (–3)
= 298 – 69 = 229
49. (B)
Tn + 1 = Sn + 1 Sn
= 3570 – 3525 = 45
50. (A)
Total amount in 20 years = Sum of first 20 terms of below A. P
300000, 310000, 320000,………….upto 20 terms
20
S20 300000 20 1 10000 7900000
2
51. (C)
Tn = 5 + 2n
= 5 + 2n – 2 + 2
Tn = 7 + 2(n 1) = a + (n – 1)d
a=7 d=2
25
S25 7 25 1 2 775
2
52. (B)
Consider 3 numbers of A. P are a – d, a, a + d
Sum (a – d) + a + (a + d) = 18
a=6
Product (a – d) a (a + d) = 192
a(a2 – d2) = 192
6(36 – d2) = 192 d = 2
The numbers are 4, 6, 8 if d = 2
8, 6, 4 if d = 2
53. (A)
Series of 3 multiples is 12, 15,……….99
Here Tn = a + (n – 1)d
99 = 12 + (n – 1)d
87 = (n – 1)3
(n – 1) = 29
n = 30
15
54. (C)
Given p(Tp) = q(Tq)
p (a + (p – 1)d) = q(a + (q – 1)d)
pa + p(p – 1)d = qa + q(q – 1)d
(p – q) a = {q2 – q – p2 + p} d
(p – q) a = {(q2 – p2) – (q – p)}d
(p – q)a = (q – p){q + p – 1}d
a = {p + q 1}d
a + (p + q – 1)d = 0 Tp + q = 0
55. (D)
W. K. T PAO = 90 A
PAB + BAO = 90
80
BAO = 90 50 = 40 P O
BAO = ABO = 40
BAO + ABO + OAB = 180 B
DAB = 180 40 40 = 100
56. (C)
2 4 14
x is a root of ax2 + 7x + b = 0 a b 0
3 9 3
4a 42 9b 0 …(i)
x = 3 9a 21 b 0 …(ii)
From (i) and (ii) a = 3, b = 6
57. (B)
PAO = PBO = 90
APB = 60 APO = BPO = 30 A
16
BP = BQ = a CQ = CR = b DR = DS = G AS = AP = d
Given AB = AP + PB BC = BQ + CQ CR = b AS = d
x=d+a 7=a+b 3=b 5=d
From the above equation
x = 5 + 4 x = 9 cm
60. (C)
OA = OB = 5 5
OM = 3 3
From OMB OM + MB = 5
2 2 2
3 5
MB = 4 A M B
AB = 2 MB = 8
61. (B)
W. K. T sec2A tan2A = 1
(sec A – tan A) (sec A + tan A) = 1
1
sec A tan A …(i)
3
Sec A + tan A = 3 …(ii)
1 10
(i) (ii) 2sec A 3
3 3
3
cos A
5
62. (B)
A
h
tan 45
12 h
h = 12 45
B C
63. (A)
Distance between C1 and C2 is C1C2 = r1 + r2
r1 r2
C1 C2
64. (A)
a, A, A2,………..An, b where A1, A2,……..An be new numbers
A1 + A2 +………..+An = ?
Tn + 2 = b a + (n +1)d = b
ba
d
n 1
ba
A1 a
n 1
2b a
A2 a
n 1
n b a
An a
n 1
n n 1 b a nb na na nb na n
A1 A2 ......... A n na na 2 a b
2 n 1 2 2 2
17
65. (C)
Since , are roots of
2 5 x 2 3x 5 0
= x, = x
1 1
Required equation consists of
, as roots
1 1 1
x, x replace x by in (i)
x x
2
1
x
1
2 5 3 5 0
x
5x 2 3x 2 5 0
66. (C)
1 1 Unit squares 9
2 2 unit squares 4
3 3 unit squares 1
Total number of squares 14
67. (B)
The differences between and actual is left and right get inverted
In Mirror In Actual
If MT = 4 : 20
AT = 7 : 40
68. (B)
Given A + B means A is daughter of B Q S+
A B means A is son of B
Father
A B means A is wife of B P+
Then P + Q S means
69. (D)
In two dice ‘1’ is common face
Faces adjacent to 1 are 2, 3, 5, 6 Autonomically ‘4’ is opposite to ‘1’
70. (C)
N
6
3 W E
10
4
5 km/E
S
71. (B)
Total students = 30
Kiran can speak form top = 16
Number of students below kiran = 30 – 16 = 14
Kiran rank from bottom = 14 + 1 = 15
72. (C)
All are used for top to bottom and bottom to top except bridge
73. (C)
3, 7, 16, 35, 74,______
321=7
7 2 + 2 = 16
18
16 2 + 3 = 35
35 2 + 4 = 74
74 2 + 5 = 148 + 5 = 153
74. (D)
GH, JL, NQ, SW, YD
+3 +4 +5 +6 +4 5 +6 +7
Take all first letters Take all second letters
G J N S Y H L Q W D
7 10 14 19 25 8 12 17 23 30/4
75. (A)
Time is 4 : 20 = H : M
11
Angle between two hands M 30H
2
11
20 30 4
2
= |110 – 120| = 10
76. (B)
Word Code
H OU S E I P VT F
77. (A)
A B > C Greatest must be A
B>D
78. (C)
By calculating odd days we must get ‘4’ odd days Thursday
79. (A)
How 1st is related to 2nd apply same relation to get missing thing
80. (B)
Similar to 14Q
122 + 12 12 : 156 : : 14 : 142 + 14 = 210
19