Final Test

Test № 1
1. The condyle of the mandible is growth by:

A. The growth of the bone membrane
B. The growth of interstitial bone
C. The cartilage proliferation
D. All of the above
D. None of the above
2. The opening of the naso-palatine canal is located:

A. In the anterior midline of the palate
B. In the posterior midline of the palate
C. On the posterior palate, bilaterally, near the apex of the roots of the first molar.
D. Posteriorly, distal at the last maxillary molar exit, bilaterally
E. On the wall side of the oropharynx, just prior to the pillars of the tonsils
3. The function of Langerhans cells:

A. Osteoblastic activity
B. Antigenic function
C. Inhibition of salivary secretion
D. Inhibition of the odontoblastic activity
E. None of the above
4. The angular commissure cheilitis is manifested by ulcerations at the level of the

labial commissures. What would be the cause?
A. Nutritional impairment
B. Loss of the vertical dimension
C. Infection by Candida Albicans
D. Infection by Staphylococcus
E. All of the above
5 A day after receiving an anesthesia injection, a patient presents a restriction limited
mouth opening. Which of the following was most probably injured?
A. The medial pterygoid muscle
B. The pen mandibular ligament
C. The deep fibers of the masseter muscle
D. The posterior belly of the digastric muscle
E. The lower head of the lateral pterygoidian muscle
6 Three days after a total extraction, an elderly patient complains of black and blue
spots on his neck. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Ca pillary fragility
C. Formation of hematoma
D. Post-operative ecchymosis
E. A + B
7. The dysfunctions of polynuclear neutrophils leads to:

A. A susceptibility of periodontal infections
B. The appearance of gingivitis
C. The appearance of periodontitis
E. All of the above
8. The role of polynuclear neutrophils is:

A. Kill the pathogens
B. To amplify the inflammatory reaction
C. To block the immunity response
D. A + B
E. A + C
9 The follicular cyst meets:
A. On a tooth having not erupted
B. On a tooth having erupted
C. At the level of an accessory salivary gland
D. At the tongue level
10 Pemphigus is a disease:
A. Erosive
B. Ulcerative
C. Vesicular
D. Bullous
E. none of the above
11 The level of blood creatinine is a test for:

A. liver function
B. heart function
C. renal function
D. the function of the pancreas
E. the acidity of saliva
12 Sarcoma is a cancer:
A. Of the epithelial tissue
B. Of the connective tissue
C. Of the bone tissue,
E. All of the above
13 Each of the following fissural cysts appears on x-rays except one. Which is the
exception?
A. The nasolabial
B. The median palate
C. The globulo-maxillary
D. The naso-palate
14 The Hemangioma is a lesion due to:

A. A proliferation of blood vessels
B. A hyperplasia of the arterial walls
C. A chronic traumatic hematoma
D. Is a congenital damage of the lymphatic system
15 The leukoedema is:

A. A chronic inflammation of the skin and the mucous membranes
B. Is a chronic autoimmune disease
C. Non pathological oral mucosa aspect
D. Is a precancerous lesion of whitish color
E. None of above
16 Which of the following patients should avoid the prescription of macrolides?

A. Ethylic
B. Hemophilia
C. Diabetic
D. Immune-depressed
E. all of the previous answers
17 In a patient suffering from gastric hyperactivity, is to be avoided:

A. Analgesics
B. Macrolides
C. Vitamins B1, B6 and B12
D. Corticosteroids
E. Neuroleptics
18 Maxillary sinusitis can cause:

A.A perforation of sinus floor following an extraction
B. An infection of the upper respiratory tracts
C. An acute periapical abscess
D. An allergy
E. All of the above
19 Each of the following is associated with Sjögren's syndrome with the exception of:
A. Arthritis
B. Xerostomy
C. Cervical caries
D. Spontaneous obesity
E. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
20 The mechanisms of action of local anaesthetics are the following except:

A. They stabilize the axonal cell membrane by preventing its depolarization
B. They have myocardial depression actions
C. They can cause ocular troubles
D. They can cause respiratory depression
E. They are hypotensive
21 A patient taking penicillin for three weeks, comes with white lesions slightly
painful on the tongue, the palate and the cheeks. A dentist wipe lesions with a
compress and notes that they have red surfaces. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. A lichen planus
B. Candidose
C. Polymorphic Erythema
D. A primary herpetic gingivo-stomatitis
22. All of the following are vesicular lesions that precede the formation of ulcers
except:
A. Herpangina
E. Zona
C. Herpetic stomatitis
D. Aphthous stomatitis
E. Hands-feet and mouth disease
23 All of the following give similar radiological results except:

A. Odontoma complex
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Radicular cyst
D. Eosinophilic Granuloma
E. Lateral periodontal cyst
24 Which of the following odontogenic neoplasms is least likely to manifest the

radio-opacity?
A. Pindborg tumor
B. Cementoblastoma
C. Odontoma complex
D. Ameloblastic fibroma
E. Odontogenic adenoma tumor
25. The most numerous cells in acute inflammatory exudate of a periodontal abscess
are:
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Basophils
D. Lymphocytes
E. Monocytes
26. Regarding cavity preparation for indirect esthetic restoration, the cusp should be
overlaid if:
A. The cavosurface margin is within 1mm of nonworking cusp tip
B. The cavosurface margin is within 1mm of the working cusp tip
C. Enamel lack support anywhere from the cusp up to the pulpal floor
D. Both Band C
E. Both A and C
27. Which of the following clinical situation necessitates replacement of composite

resin restoration?
A. Recurrent caries
B. Small occlusal ditch
C. Color change of the restoration
D. All the above
28. Which of the following is NOT true about a smile line?

A. Should mimic the inferior border of the upper lip.
B. Should mimic the superior border of the lower lip.
C. The centrals should be slightly longer than the laterals to have a pleasing smile
D. The centrals should not be shorter than the canines along the incisal plane
29. Best prognosis of tooth whitening is anticipated with:

A. Brown greyish stains
B. Brown yellowish stains
C. Tetracycline Stains
D. Severe fluorosis stains
E. All the above
30. Biting test is useful for testing

A. Root resorption
B. Cracked tooth
C. Vitality of the pulp
D. Premature occlusion
E. Pulp polyps
31.Percussion test is helpful in determination of whether

A. The tooth is vital
B. The tooth apex has formed
C. Pulp stones exist
D. Periodontitis exists
E. Pulpitis exists
32. When using thermal pulp tester, pain that last for long time after removal of the
stimulus indicates:
A. Reversible pulpitis
B. Periapical granuloma
C. Cyst formation
D. Irreversible pulpitis
E. All the above
33. Laser Doppler Flowmetry (LDF) is used for:

A. Working length determination
B. Treatment of root resorption
C. Pulp vitality testing
D. All the above
34. Which of the following may cause false negative response to Electric pulp tester?
A. Diffuse calcification
B. Immature teeth
C. Recently traumatized tooth
D. All the above
35. Electrical pulp testing is least useful in case of

A. Previously traumatized teeth
B. Newly erupted teeth
C Multi-rooted teeth
D. Necrotic pulp
36. Perforations are .......communications between pulp and periodontium

A. Pathologic
B. Physiologic
C. Iatrogenic
D. Surgical
37. The percentage of moisture endodontically treated teeth is..

A. 9%
B. 8%
C. 25%
D. 30%
E. 50%
38. Endodontic retreatment is recommended when the tooth is not coronally restored
for
A. 1-2 week (s)
B. 2-4 weeks
C. 1-3 months
D. 1-6 months
E. More than one year
39. The main function of the post is to

A. Retain core material
B. Strengthen the tooth
C. Provide better esthetics
D. Splint the tooth
E. All the above
40. A minimum of .................. mm of gutta-percha should be let apically after post

space preparation
A. 1-2
B. 3-4
C. 4-5
D. 5-6
E. 7-9
41. The most common complication with intentional reimplantation is

A. Root caries
B. Root resorption
C. Root fractures
D. Perforations
E. All the above
42. Bacterial infections might persist after root treatment due to

A Misdiagnosis
B. Treatment errors
C. Delayed restorations
D. All the above
43: Signs of root canal failure include all of the following except?
A Diminishing periapical lesions
B. Sinus tracts
C Swellings
D. Pain on biting
44. The most abundant white cell in a parasitic infection is the:

A. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Monocyte
D. Basophil
E. All the above
45. The only blood vessels whose walls exchange between the blood and the
surrounding interstitial fluids are the
A. Arteries
B. Arterioles
C. Veins
D. Capillaries
46. A crown margin can be extended subgingivally when required

1. For esthetics.
2. To increase retention.
3. To reach sound tooth structure.
4. For caries prevention.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
47. In removable partial denture design, the surface of the abutment tooth most often
altered to provide clasp reciprocity is
A. Mesial.
B. Distal.
C. Occlusal.
D. Buccal.
E. Lingual.
48 Which of these alloys presents the lower contraction when cooling?

A. Gold-ceramic alloys
B. Cr—Co.
C. Nickel-chrome or non precious alloys
D. All exhibit an equal retraction
E. B- C
49 The least hydrophylic material :

A. Polyethers
B. Polysulfides
C. Addtional silicones.
D. Condensation silicones
E. Vinylsiloxanether
50 Which is false: the best impression technique to record a bridge of 5 units or more:
A. Multiple-mix technique.
B. One time-one shot.
C. Monophase
D. Wash—technique.
E. Non-compressive technique
51 Which viscosity presents the higher deformation with elapsing time:

A. Medium
B. Light
C. Putty
D. Heavy
E. X-hard putty
52 Propane-oxygen carburant is used when melting:

A. Ceram-gold alloys.
B. Conventional go1d alloys.
C. Nickel-Chrome.
D. Cobalt—Chrome.
E. C—D
53 The least hydrophylic material :

A. Polyethers
B. Polysulfides
C. Addtional silicones
D. Condensation silicones
E. Vinylsiloxanether
54 A laboratory remount of processed dentures is done in order to correct occlusal

disharmony produced by errors primarily in the
A. Mounting of the casts on the articulator.
B. Registration of jaw relation records.
C. Processing of acrylic dentures.
D. Registration of condylar guidance.
E. All of the above
55 If an alginate impression must be stored for a few minutes before the cast is
poured, it should be placed in
A. Water.
B. 100% relative humidity.
C. A 1% aqueous calcium sulfate solution.
D. A 1% aqueous potassium sulfate solution
E. None of the above.
56 Which impression material can be stored for more than 24 hours before being
poured and still produce accurate dies?
A. Polysulfide.
B. Condensation reaction silicone.
C. Reversible hydrocolloid.
D. Polyvinylsiloxane.
E. Irreversible hydrocolloid.
57. A pontic exerting too much pressure against the ridge may cause
1. fracture of the solder joints.
2. hypertrophy of the soft tissue.
3. crazing of the gingival portion of the porcelain.
4. resorption of the alveolar bone.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
58. A characteristic of a group function occlusion is

A. The teeth on the nonworking side contact in lateral excursion.
B. The teeth on the working side contact in lateral excursion.
C. The canine and lateral incisors contact in lateral excursion.
D. The posterior teeth on both working and nonworking sides contact in lateral
excursion.
59. A maxillary anterior bite plane may cause

A. translation of the maxillary incisors.
B. extrusion of the mandibular incisors.
C. extrusion of the maxillary posterior teeth.
D. no occlusal changes.
E. Intrusion of the maxillary incisors
60. The most practical method to significantly reduce the setting time of stone and
plaster is to use
A. warm mixing water.
B. a calcium sulfate dihydrate nucleating agent.
C. a sodium sulfate nucleating agent.
D. a longer mixing time.
E.A+B
61. Following the premature loss of the deciduous molars, the Angle classification is
most accurately determined using the
A. facial profile.
B. permanent molars.
C. permanent canines.
D. permanent incisors.
E. Permanent premolars
62. A patient presents with a chief complaint of “severe pain in my right ear” which
began when eating, three hours ago. An examination reveals tenderness over the right
preauricular region, maximum interincisal opening of 21mm with deflection to the
right, right lateral excursion of 9mm and left lateral excursion of 21mm. The most
likely diagnosis is
A. left anterior disc displacement with reduction.
B. right anterior disc displacement with reduction.
C. left anterior disc displacement without reduction.
D. right anterior disc displacement without reduction.
63 During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture will exhibit

A. expansion
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.
E. B + C
64 The most appropriate treatment for an endodontically treated molar with an

existing MOD restoration is a
A. cast gold inlay.
B. bonded composite resin.
C. bonded silver amalgam.
D. cast restoration with cuspal coverage.
E. cast metal inlay
65 When a partial denture framework fits the master cast but does not fit properly in
the mouth, the error is likely to be in the
A. Impression making.
B. Casting of the framework.
C. Design of the framework.
D. Preparation of the teeth.
E. B + C
66. Which is the most accurate impression technique :

A. One shot technique
B. Putty-wash technique.
C. Compressive technique
E. B- C
F. Any technique as we use a condensation polymers
67. How long time the elastomeric silicones and polyethers should be kept in mouth
at least:
A. 12
B. 6
C. 4 minutes
D. 8
68. After pouring, it is advisable to separate the plaster model at least after:
A. 7 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 40'
D. 2 hours
E. 48h
69. The product which cannot tolerate an alteration in catalyst/base ratio:

A. Polyvinyl siloxanes
B. Silicones par addition
C. Organohydrogenosiloxane-initiator
D. All of the above tolerate this alteration
E. None of them tolerate an alteration
70. The most important consideration for treatment of patients with Alzheimer's
disease is:
A. The use of a rubber dam
B. The increased use of removable prostheses as disease progresses
C. That necessary dental treatment be completed early in the illness
D. Longer appointment times are preferred to complete restorative care
E. The use of fluoride containing restorative materials
71. Loco-regional anesthesia in Pediatric Dentistry is:

A. Achievable regardless of the age of the child
B. Necessary for a pulp treatment of 75 in three-year-old
C. Necessary for the care of a deeper carious lesion of the 85 in a child of six years
old
D. Done with shorter needles and diameter lower than those used in the adult
72. Nitrous oxide is contra-indicated in patients with:

A. a cold
B. cerebral palsy
C. hemophilia
D. asthma
E. anxiety
73. The x-ray examination of the left lower temporary canine (73) reveals an early
internal resorption. What to do?
A. Pulpotomy
B. Pulpoectomy
C. Observe and reevaluate in three to six months
D. Extraction
E. A+C
74. During the sanitizing of the second temporary upper right molar, you notice a
break—in of the mesio-vestibular pulp Horn whose diameter is approximately 1 mm.
You then propose to the parents :
A. direct pulp capping
B. A pulpotomy
C. A canal treatment
D. Extraction
75. An acute apical abscess in children must be assymptomated with:

A. Pain.
B. A necrotic tooth
C. Periapical radiolucent lesion
D A sensitivity to the percussion
E. all the answers are correct
76. When checking the occlusion on a ceramic inlay, you notice a prematurity on it,
you reduce it by:
A. Blue coded diamond bur .
B. 16 wing carbide bur
C. 32 wing carbide bur
D. Red coded diamond bur
E. Black coded diamond bur
77. Extra buccal try in of an inlay received directly from the lab shows:
A. Adaptability of the inlay on plaster model
B. Crack inside the inlay
C. Eventual presence of an under or over contour of the inlay in regards to plaster
model
D. A + B
E. all the answers are incorrect
78. Which one adheres naturally to tooth structure:

A. calcium hydroxide
B. Zinc oxide
C. glass ionomer
D. zinc phosphate
79. The rubber dam should be placed:

A. for a clear operative field
B. to prevent moisture caused by the expiration
C. to isolate the tooth from the oral cavity
D. B +C
E. all of the above are appropriate
80. Strong acid etching:

A. should not be left more than 15 seconds on the enamel
B. should not be left more than 15 seconds on the dentine
C. should have a pH>2
D. should be placed on the dentine then on the enamel
E. b and c are appropriate
81. A post-operative sensitivity after a direct composite restoration is due to:

A. the passage of the acid etching to the pulp through the dentinal tubules
B. an under occlusion in the composite restoration
C. a microleakage formation between the restoration and the tooth
D. the hybrid layer formation
E. a, b and c are appropriate et
82. The amalgam retention must be done with:

A. Intra-dentinal pins
B. Screw posts
C. Amalgapins
D. Dual cure bonding
E. a, c and b are appropriate
83. Cranial vault growth is:

A. Formed through cartilaginous precursors
B. Is independent from any periosteal activity
C. Formed directly by intramembranous bone formation
D. Mainly due to sutures present at birth
E. Continuous till 17 years old
84. The nasomaxillary growth is:

A. Accomplished entirely by intramembranous ossification.
B. Achieved by cartilage replacement.
C. Not related to cranial base growth.
D. Finished at age 7.
E. Directed downward and backward.
85. Mandibular growth is:

A. Identical to maxillary growth.
B. Simply endochondral.
C. Highly related to cranial base growth that moves the temporomandibular joint
D. Occurring by direct surface apposition and remodeling
E. Terminated at age 15 for females and 16 for males
86. Regarding soft tissue growth:

A. It’s not perfectly parallel to the underlying hard tissue growth
B. Lip incompetence is maintained from adulthood to adolescence.
C. Nasal bone growth continues till age 20.
D. Lip prominence is stable during growth periods.
E. The profile becomes more convex with age.
87. Regarding maturation of oral functions:

A. It follows a gradient from anterior to posterior
B. At birth, the respiration is oral and became nasal after 1 year
C. The transition to adult swallowing occurs even with sucking habits presence
D. Adult swallowing is established automatically at age 7
E. Adult swallowing is established automatically at age 12
88. The primary dentition:

A. Has an eruption sequence of incisors, canines and lastly molars. '
B. Is completed at 48 months.
C. Is completed at 60 months.
D. Present teeth spacing which is considered as normal.
E. 15 not related to the permanent dentition alignment.
89. The taper of a preparation is of

A. 6 degrees
B 12 degrees
C 3 degrees
D. 15 degrees
90. The root canal preparation for a post and core must preserve at least of
Gutta-percha at the apex:
A. 2 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 4 mm
D 8 mm.
E. All the answers are incorrect
91. The retention of an individual crown:

A. Increase if stabilization increases
B. Decrease if the height of the preparation decreases
C. Inversely proportional to the volume of the preparation
D. Is more important if the volume of the core is large
92. The ideal thickness of reduction at an occlusal surface is of:

A. 0.5mm
B. 1mm
C. 5mm
D. 2mm
E. All the answers are incorrect
93. The thickness of the die spacer must be of
A. 200um and 400 um
B. 6 um and 19.8 um
C. 25 um and 40 um
D. 50 pm and 100 um C. 25 um et 40 um
94. The ideal thickness of the impression material is of:

A. 0.2-0.3 mm
B. 1 mm
C. 2 - 3 mm
D. 1.5 - 2mm
E. None the answers are incorrect
95. A provisional crown can be produced in:

A. Ceramics.
B. Polyvinyl siloxane.
C. Methyl metacrylate.
D. Glass ionomer
E. All the answers are correct
96. The infraorbital nerve is a branch of

A. The lacrimal nerve
B. The facial nerve
C. The temporal nerve
D. The ophthalmic nerve
97. The facial artery is a branch of:

A. The maxillary artery
B. The internal carotid artery
C. The external carotid artery
D. The ophthalmic artery
98. Adverse Drug Reactions (ADR):

A. Occurs when recommended doses are not respected
B. Occurs in general with long term therapy
C. Occurs when the patient was wrongly diagnosed
D. You believe that treatment should be dropped when ADR are reported
E. Practitioner should always take in consideration the odds and the severity of the
ADR mentioned
99. The shared adverse effect between tetracyclines, ampicillin, clindamycin is:
A. Hepatic impairment
B. Pseudomembranous colitis
C. Renal impairment
D. Neurotoxicity
E. Osteoneerosis
100. from the following medications which are those responsible for xerostomia:
A. psychotropic
B. antihypertensives
C. diuretics
D. a-b correct
E. all answers are correct.
101. Biopsy is not indicated in:

A. ameloblastoma
B. cysts
C. benign tumors
D. malignant tumors
E. all of the above
102. The difficulty in the surgical extraction of a retained third mandibular molar is
due to:
A. depth of the inclusion
B. relation with the mandibular nerve
C. proximity to the adjacent tooth
D. quantity of the covering bone
E. all of the above
103. Preoperative radiological assessment for the surgery of a retained maxillary

canine consists a:
A. panoramic radiograph
B. profile radiograph
C. intraoral occlusal radiograph
D. intraoral periapical radiograph
E. all of the above
104. Surgical approach of a periapical lesion depend of:

A. the dimension of the lesion
B the location of the lesion
C. the responsible tooth
D. the anatomic limitation
E all of the above
105. The antibiotic of choice to prescribe for a patient allergic to penicillin is:
A. spiramycin
B. roxythromycin
C. érythromycin
D. clindamycin
E. all of the above
106. The post-surgical edema can be treated by:

A. cold pack
B. steroid-anti—inflammatory
C. non-steroid anti-inflammatory
D. enzymatic anti-inflammatory
E. all the above
107. Lingual paresthesia can be observed after a:

A. periodontal surgery of the third mandibular molar
B. surgical extraction of the third mandibular molar
C. implant placement in the posterior region of the mandible
D. orthognatic surgery of the mandible
E all of the above
108.The maxillary cyst of non-dental etiology is:

A. primordial
B. Gorlin
C. globulo-maxillary
D. epidermoid
E. residual
109.What is considered as a diagnostic feature of an odontogenic keratocyst?

A. mitosis in basal cellular row of the epithelium
B. absence of keratin in the epithelium
C. absence of epithelium
D. soluble protein content of cystic fluid is less than 4mg/100m1
E. lipid content of cystic fluid is more than 10mg/1000 m1
110. The most appropriate treatment of anaphylaxis?

A. oxygen (5 liters per minute) avec diazepam IM
B. Diazépam en IM
C. 5 ml of 1/1000 IM adrenalin
D. 0.5 m1 of 1/1000 adrenalin, IM, twice
E. 0.5 m1 of 1/1000 adrenalin, IM, repeated at 5 minutes intervals if no improvement.
111. What is the situation that forces us to refer an anticoagulated patient to his/her
treating physician, before operating on his/her?
A. INR above 4
B. INR=1
C. INR above 2
D. INR above 3
E. INR less than 1
112. Which of the following is most effective method of preventing dental caries in
general population?
A. Diet counseling
B Oral prophylaxis
C. Fluoride mouth rinses and pastes
D Systemic fluoride
E. Topical fluoride
113. Antiseptics:
A. cannot be used on the tissue cells of the body
B. destroy all forms of microorganisms and spores
C. are used to disinfect the dental unit and clinical surfaces
D. are used on soft tissue as topical application
114. Wearing gloves are a major point in infection control:

A. It replaces hand washing and decontamination
B. We should disinfect the hands before and immediately after wearing gloves
C. Gloves should be made only from latex
D. Wearing gloves should follow washing and hands antiseptic
E. Vinyl gloves are not recommended because they are very fragile
115. In case of accidental injury with a needle or other contaminated instrument:

A. I make bleed the injury then I immerge the part wounded in a cool solution of
glutaraldehyde during 5 minutes.
B. I let bleed the injury, wash directly under the water of the faucet and make a
medical investigation on patient status which could lead to blood test
C. I only take off the gloves, and I thread a new pair of gloves without any worry
D. Nothing to do, because anyway I am up to date of my vaccination against the B
hepatitis and recalls.
E. I take Antibiotics immediately
116. The sterilization of the reusable instruments:

A. must follow their decontamination, washing and drying
B. must be made by a Dry heat sterilizer under pressure 4 bar
C. The temperature must rise to 220 °C no matter what technique is applied
D. It is always a very long cycle about 3hours at very high temperature that alter the
instruments
E. All answers are valid.
117. During guided tissue regeneration therapy the regenerative cells originate
primarily from the
A. lamina propria
B periodontal ligament
C. cellular cementum
D collagen membrane
118. The primary objective of periodontal flap surgery in the treatment of

periodontitis is to
A. remove granulation tissue
B. provide access for root debridement
C. add bone support
D. correct gingival architecture
119. In gingivitis, the initial cellular immune response predominantly involves

A. T lymphocytes
B. B lymphocytes
C. neutrophils
D. plasma cells
E. All of the above
120. A patient fails to demonstrate effective plaque control during initial periodontal
therapy for moderate periodontitis. The most appropriate management is
A. continued initial therapy
B. gingival curettage
C. gingivectomy
D. an apically positioned flap
E. All of the above
Answers for test №1.
1. C 21. B 41. B 61. B 81. C 101. E

2. A 22. D 42. D 62. D 82. C 102. E
3. B 23. A 43. A 63. A 83. C 103. E
4. E 24. D 44. A 64. D 84. A 104. E
5. A 25. A 45. D 65. A 85. D 105. E
6. D 26. D 46. A 66. A 86. A 106. E
7. E 27. A 47. E 67. B 87. A 107. E
8. D 28. A 48. A 68. D 88. D 108. C
9. A 29. B 49. D 69. E 89. A 109. D
10. D 30. B 50. D 70. C 90. C 110. E
11. C 31. D 51. B 71. C 91. B 111. A
12. B 32. D 52. E 72. D 92. D 112. D
13. A 33. C 53. D 73. E 93. C 113. D
14. A 34. D 54. C 74. E 94. C 114. D
15. C 35. B 55. B 75. E 95. C 115. B
16. A 36. C 56. D 76. D 96. E 116. A
17. D 37. A 57. C 77. E 97. C 117. B
18. E 38. C 58. B 78. C 98. E 118. B
19. D 39. A 59. C 79. E 99. B 119. C
20. C 40. C 60. B 80. B 100. E 120. A
Test № 2
1. The position of the cervical limit is

a. the depth of the sulcus
b. The aesthetic criteria
c. The mechanical retention factors
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
2. Thermal expansion of a coating is caused mainly by:

a. Graphit
b. Refractory material
c. Sodium chloride
d. Potassium sulfate
e. The environmental temperature.
3. The retention of unitary fixed prosthesis:

a. Is proportional to the degree of skinning preparation.
b. Is proportional to the volume of preparation.
c. Decreases by decreasing the surface area of dento-prothetic contact.
d. a and c.
e. b and c.
4. The reduction of the D. V. O may be due to:

a. Extractions with the loss of posterior wedging.
b. The loss of front teeth.
c. The abrasion at the level of front teeth.
d. Stress
e. The quality of consumed food
5. Lina accompanies her 7 years daughter for dental care. After examining her mouth
you find that there are caries presented on the distal side of the 85 and the 55. At the
moment of cleaning, the was in difficult attitude. Which tooth should be treated first?
a. 55
b. 85
c. The 2 in one session
d. There is no difference
e. None of the above
6. Samar calls you : the right cheek of her son began to swell about two hours after
completing a pulpotomy on 84. The most likely reason would be :
a. Necrosis of 84, who would have to undergo pulpectomy instead of pulpotomy
b. Allergy of the child to aneasthetic solution.
c. A bad placement of the dam during the procedure
d. A post-operative accidental bite of his cheek
7. After 4 treatment sessions, and after para-apical anesthesia to extract the 55, Jina a
8 years old girl complains of pain at the moment of dislocation. What is the most
likely reason for this pain?
a. A root crack.
b. A bone fracture.
c. A root fracture.
d. Uncomplete anesthesia technic.
e. None of the above.
8. Lynn a little girl of 5 years, presents with a ravaging caries on the 55. The decision
of her dentist was to extract this tooth. Which of the following is the most adverse
effect that may take place in this child as a result of this extraction :
a. A space saver.
b. A deviation of the median line.
c. An alteration of phonation.
d. A delayed eruption of permanent tooth.
e. An early eruption.
9. Rami is a child of 4 years old, fell down at school causing him an avulsion of the
51. The head of his class brings him to your clinic urgently with the tooth placed in
normal saline. What would be your attitude your respect to the 51 .
a. Replace the tooth in its place and make an contention for 1 week.
b. Replace the tooth in its place and make an contention for 1 month.
c. Replace the tooth in its place and make an contention for 1 year.
d. Do not replace the tooth in its place.
10. The amalgam retention must be done with:

a. Intra-dentinal pins
b. Screw posts
c. Amalgapins
d. Dual cure bonding
e. a, c and b are appropriate
11. Among the following bases and liners used under amalgam restorations. Which
one adheres naturally to tooth structure:
a. calcium hydroxide
b. Zinc oxide
c. glass ionomer
d. zinc phosphate
e. none of them
12. The characteristics of the 2nd generation LED light curing units:
a. Present a wavelength between 400 and 500 nanometers
b. Doesn’t polymerize all kind of composites
c. Have an intensity more than 800mw/cm2
d. Include the slow and gradual polymerization mode
e. Answers c and d are appropriate
13. Strong acid etching:

a. should not be left more than 15 seconds on the enamel
b. should not be left more than 15 seconds on the dentine
c. should have a pH>2
d. should be placed on the dentine then on the enamel
e. b and c are appropriate
14. Leaving a large excess of water on the “wet dentine” will lead to:
a. better adhesion
b. a hybrid layer of good quality
c. the dissolution of the primer
d. penetration of the primer in the dentinal tubules
e. a and d are appropriate
15. A good bonding is provided by:

a. the deep bonding penetration in the dentinal tubules
b. the hybrid layer formation
c. the use of a weak acid to avoid to damage the pulp
d. the complete drying of the enamel and the dentin
e. c and d are appropriate

a. the passage of the acid etching to the pulp through the dentinal tubules
b. an under occlusion in the composite restoration
c. a microleakage formation between the restoration and the tooth
d. the hybrid layer formation
e. a, b and c are appropriate
17. For a good polymerization, composites need:

a. 150 mW/cm2
b. 250 mW/cm2
c. 300 mW/cm2
d. 450 mW/cm2
e. 450mW/cm2
18. When an occlusal equilibration is indicated, it is practiced:

a. at the end of any orthodontic treatment
b. before the end of the orthodontic treatment
c. 3 to 4 months after the beginning of the period of restraint
d. in patients with not terming their growth
19. The contention of the maxillary incisor and canine block is not often done by a
wire stuck on the faces palatines because:
a. is a difficult area to brush
b. is a difficult area to access to perform a good wire bonding
c. The thread will often take off because of contact with the mandibular incisive
edges
d. recidivism is rare at the level of the front teeth and maxillary canines.
20. The ideal age and the right time to undertake a speech therapy would be:
a. 6 years, before orthodontic treatment
b. 10 years, before orthodontic treatment
c. 12 years after orthodontic treatment
d. 14 years after orthodontic treatment
e. none of the above
21. Recidivism after orthodontic treatment may be due:

a. to the muscle tone that can be changed by our treatment
b. to poor cooperation of the patient
c. to an atypical swallowing if she is not re-educated
d. bad hygiene throughout the treatment
e. none of the above.
22. Indirect resorption accompanies:

a. force whose duration of action is prolonged.
b. a very high force and involving the cement
c. an important hyalinisation
d. lack of hyalinisation
23. A temporary ankylosed tooth:

a. reabsorbs always late
b. reabsorbs usually normally
c. doesn't reabsorb and its extraction is necessary
d. reabsorbs very slowly causing always a deviation from the path of eruption of the
underlying permanent tooth.
24. A disharmony of dento-maxillary:

a. is a lack of harmony between the mesio-distal diameter of teeth within a same
arcade
b. it is described by excess when there is more place than it is necessary
c. it is described by defect when there is less place than it is necessary
d. the teeth may appear large or small compared to the arcades
25 Immediate or early overload on an implant unit depends :

a. On the length of the implant
b. On the surface of the implant
c. On the mark of the implant
d. On the primary stability of the implant
e. On the diameter of the implant
26. Osseointegration is :
a. A fibro-integration.
b. An inflammatory reaction.
c. An infectious reaction.
d. A biochemical link between oxide and the bone.
e. A chemical link between the bone and any metal.
27. Prosthetic hyperplasia of the oral mucosa:

a. Is a premalignant lesion in 78% of cases
b. Is not associated with a chronic irritation
c. Should be excised and biopsied
d. Is never a malignant lesion.
28. Among these lesions, which one of the following shows a high rate recidivism :
a. Residual maxillary cyst
b. Periodontal cyst
c. Cyst of dental origin
d. Keratcyste odontogene
e. Ameloblastic fibroma
29. Which of the following describes osseointegrated implants :

a. They have structural and functional connection directly with the bone only at the
level of the radiographic detection.
b. They are rooted directly on life bone as determined by radiographic analysis and
light microscopy
c. They form an epithelium junction with the surrounding tissue
d. They form pseudo-periodontal ligament
30. Corticosteroids may be used for:

a. Asthma
b. Arthritis
c. Allergy
d. All the above
e. a+b only
31 Which of the following is the strongest factor stimulating the increase in

respiration?
a. A decrease in venous oxygen
b. A decrease in arterial oxygen
c. An increase in venous carbon dioxide
d. An increase in arterial carbon dioxide
e. An increase in blood pH
32 Metronidazole is effective in the treatment of:

a. Acute ulcero-necrotic gingivitis.
b. Chronic gingivitis.
c. Periodontal abscess.
d. Pemphigus vulgaris‘
e. Allergical stomatitis
33 The organisms most difficult to eradicate by sterilization are:

a. Fungi
b. Anaerobics
c. AIDS virus
d. Hepatitis B
e. spore forming bacteria
34. Which of the following is the main character that helps in distinguishing between
pemphigus vulgaris and pemphigoide:
a. Volume of ulceration
b. Age and sex of the patient
c. Quantity of hyperkeratose
d. The histology of the lesion indicating its localization
e. Presence of intact vesicules
35. The sulcus corresponds to:

a. To the free gingiva
b. To the attached gingiva
c. At the interradicular space
d. At the gingivodental groove
36. Two cement adherent teeth represent:

a. A dental concrescence
b. A dental fusion
c. A dental bigemination
d. None of the answers
e. All the answers are right
37. An epulis is a hyperplastic inflammatory tumor is:

a. Malignant
b. jugal
c. Gingival
d. Labial
e. All the answers are right
38 Describing the advantage of the flap of apical repositioning, which statement is

correct :
a. The elimination of pockets.
b. Bone defects are exposed to change
c. Repositioning of muscular attaches
d. Creation of an area of attached gingiva
e. All of the above
39 What are the medicines that must be stopped at least 15 days before a local
anesthesia:
a. Anxiolytics
b. Classic I.M.A.O type antidepressants
c. Antiepileptics
d. Synthetic antithyroids
40 A voluminous laterally deviated, painful tongue, with a relatively free buccal floor
evokes:
a. superficial median lingual abscess
b. A deep lateral abscess
c. Central abscess
d. An abscess of the tip
e. None of these answers
41 The favorite seat Leukoplakia sits with predilection:

a. On the palate
b. On the cheeks
c. On the gum
d. On the tongue
e. On the lips
42 A radiograph of the canine lateral region shows an irregular mass of radiopaque

material, located between the roots and surrounded by a radiolucent line. The
diagnosis is:
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Mature cementoma
c. Condensing ostitis
d. complex composite odontoma
e. supernumerary tooth
43 The so-called geographic tongue is:

a. a tongue that has its papilla (bald)
b. a plicated tongue
c. a smooth tongue
d. an erosive tongue
e. all the answers are right
44. One of the components of ganglionic chains is Rouviere‘s triangle which is

composed of:
a. the submental gangliona
b. the submaxillary gangliona
c. the genian gangliona
d. the internal jugular chain
e. the external jugular chain
45 The Maxillary nonodontogenic cysts are:

a. primordial cyst
b. Gorlin’s cyst
c. Globulo maxillary cyst
d. Epidermoid cyst
e. Residual cyst
46 The most frequent oral localization of a tertiary syphilitic lesion is:

a.lip
b. tongue
c. palate
d. the skin
e. the gingiva
47 The mandible grows mainly by:

a. intramembranous ossification
b. enchondrale ossification
c. remodeling
d. displacement
e. all the answers ,
48 Ectopic or delayed eruption of anterior teeth is caused by:

a. the presence of supernumerary teeth
b. premature loss of the primary teeth
c. a discrepancy between the size of teeth and arch
d. an unfavorable sequence of eruption all the proposals
e. all the proposals
49. Dentin bonding agents can be classified according to:

a. The number of application steps
b. The mode of action of etchant
c. The thickness of the hybrid layer
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c
50. Which of the following is considered advantage of acid etching?

a. increase surface area
b. increase bond strength of enamel
c. increase surface tension
d. both a and b
e. both b and c
51. Post-bleaching hypersensitivity could be treated by

a. application of potassium nitrate
b. application of ACP-CPP
c. analgesics
d. all of the above
52. Which of the following is NOT true about a smile line?

a. Should mimic the inferior border of the upper lip
b. Should mimic the superior border of the lower lip
c. The centrals should be slightly longer than the laterals to have a pleasing smile
d. The centrals should not be shorter than the canines along the incisal plane
e. all statements are not true
53. The maximum brightness of the central incisor is present in the:
a. Cervical 1/3
b. Middle 1/3
c. Incisal 1/3
d. Middle and incisal 1/3
e. cervical and middle 1/3
54. How should we consider the use of rubber dam for direct composite restorations?
a. Useful
b. Depending on clinical situation
c. Mandatory
d. Useless
e. Time spending
55. For base plate wax, it is important that there is no flakiness of the wax upon:
a. Carving
b. Compression
c. Bending
d. Shearing
e Tensing
56. Which gypsum product(s) is/are suitable for pouring an impression to fabricate a
study model:
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
e. a and b
57. Impression material containing lead is:

a. Addition Silicone
b. Condensation Silicone
c. Polysulfide
d. Polyether
e. Agar Agar
58. What percentage of plasma is there in the blood?

a. 35%
b. 45%
c. 55%
d. 65%
e. 92%
59. Which of the following is an agranular leukocyte?

a. eosinophil
b. neutrophil
c. basophil
d. monocyte
e. both b and d
60. Which of the following blood proteins is not produced in the liver?
a. Gamma globulin
b. Alpha globulin
c. Albumin
d. Beta globulin
e. Fibrinogen
61. The proteins that attack foreign proteins and pathogens are called:
a. Alpha globulins
b. Albumins
c. Beta globulins
d. Fibrinogens
62. Blood plasma pH is maintained at:

a. (7.0 to 7,3)
b. (7.2 to 7.4)
c. (7.35 to 7.45)
d. (7.4 to 7.55)
e. (5.0 to 5.5)
63. Which of the following substances can be added to a test tube to prevent blood
from clotting
a. Citrate
b. EDTA
c. Heparin
d. All of the preceding
e. Both a and c
64. The cariogenic potential of food depends on the association of many factors:
a. The acidogenicity
b. The Food-tooth contact time
c. The food—tooth contact time has no effect
e. a+b+d
65. Resilon is:

a. Silicon based obturation core material
b. Resin based obturation core material
c. Gutta—percha based obturation core material
d. Glass ionomer based obturation core material
66. Function of intra-canal medication is:

a. Disinfect the root canal system
b. Reduce the number of microorganisms, prevent further growth.
c. Prevention, control of post treatment pain
d. All of the above
67. What shape is the access cavity for upper and lower incisors?
a. Triangular
b. Ovoid
c. Round
d. Oblong
e. Square
68. During an endodontic surgery the hemostasis is obtained by:

a. horsley wax
b. astringdent
c. laser
d. compression
e. all of the above
69. Hemisectioning is to cut the entire tooth:

a. Vertically in half from buccal to palatal of the crown in the maxillary molars
b. Horizontally in half from mesial to distal 0f the crown in the maxillary molars
c. Buccal to lingual of the crown in the mandibular molars
d. Mesial to distal of the crown in the mandibular molars
70. The prevention of oral affections goes through a certain number of practices:
a. Hygiene measures and it is the major point
b. Periodic control visits
c. Appropriate diet
d. Rational consumption of fluoride
e. All of the above
a. The acidogenicity
b. The Food-tooth contact time
c. The food-tooth contact time has no effect
d. Sugar consumption
e. a+b+d
72. Where is an 'extra' canal often found in upper molars?

a. Mesiobuccal root
b. Distobuccal root
c. Palatal root
d. Mesiolingual root
e. Distolingual root
73. During periodontal disease activity, the loss of clinical attachment

a. precedes alveolar bone loss
b. follows alveolar bone loss
c. is concomitant with alveolar bone loss
d. All of the above
74. The Silness-Löe index measures

a. periodontal disease.
b. oral hygiene.
c. attachment level.
d. probing depth.
75. Xerostomia can result from

a. Sjögren’s syndrome.
b. radiation therapy for oral cancer
c. antidepressant drug therapy.
4. anticholinergics (Atropine).
a. (1), (2), (3)
b. (1) and (3)
c. (2) and (4)
d. (4) only
e. All of the above
76. Water irrigation devices have been shown to

a. eliminate plaque.
b. dislodge food particles from between teeth.
c. disinfect pockets for up to 18hours.
d. prevent calculus formation
77. Among the precautions in the dental clinic in a hyperthyroid patient:

a. minimize the stress
b. prophylactic antibiotic therapy before the treatment
c. prescription of antibiotic after simple dental extraction
d. a+ b
e. all of the above
78. Overhanging margins of restorations at the gingival margin contribute to

gingivitis in all cases EXCEPT
a. retain dental plaque
b. retain food debris
c. cause irritation
d. create excessive pressure.
79. The subgingiva1 microbial flora isolated from sites of

a. periradicular abscess
b. gingivitis
c. periodontitis
d. All of the above
80. In chronic periodontitis, the causative microorganisms are found in

1. the periodontal ligament.
2.the connective tissues of the gingiva.
3. the alveolar bone.
4. the pcriodonta1 pocket.
a. (1) (2) (3)
b. (1) and (3)
c. (2) and (4)
d. (4) only
e. All of the above.
81. The predominant micro-organisms associated with periodontitis are

a. gram-positive aerobes
b. gram-negative aerobes
c. gram-positive anaerobes
d. gram-negative anaerobes
82. Which disease is associated with a higher proportion of Fusobacterium,

Porphyromonas, Prevotella and spirochetes?
a. Necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis
b. Chronic periodontitis
c. Aggressive periodontitis
d. Root caries
e. Early childhood caries
83. Periodontitis
1. develops from gingivitis.
2. is associated with bone loss
3. goes through stages of activity and remission.
4. is caused by occlusal trauma.
a. (1) (2) (3)
b. (1) and (3)
c. (2) and (4)
d. (4) only
84. Which of the following is/are clinical signs of gingivitis?

1. Loss of stippling
2. Gingival hyperplasia.
3. Bleeding on probing.
4. Loss of attachment.
a. (1)(2)(3)
b. (1) and (3)
c. (2) and (4)
d. (4) only
e. All of the above
85. Which type of periodontitis is generally treated WITHOUT antibiotics?

a. Aggressive periodontitis in a 16 year old patient
b. Aggressive periodontitis in a 25 year old patient
c. Refractory chronic periodontitis
d. Chronic periodontitis
e. Aggressive periodontitis in a child
86. The most appropriate radiographic examination for a new patient with an
extensively restored dentition and generalized periodontal disease is
a. full mouth periapicals
b. full mouth periapicals and bitewings
c. panoramic radiograph
d. panoramic radiograph and bitewings
e. cone beam computed tomography
87. The ideal treatment of young permanent molars presenting severe enamel lesions:
a. amalgam reinforced by dentinal screws
b. posterior composite
c. stainless steel crown while preserving dental vitality
d. a pulpectomy followed by a stainless steel crown
e. extraction
88. The primate spaces are:

a. mesial to the maxillary canine
b. mesial to the mandibular canine
c. mesial to the maxillary canine and distal to the mandibular canine
d. distal to the maxillary canine and mesial to the mandibular canine
89. When performing pulpotomy the physiological serum promotes:
a. hemostasis
b. fixation
c. asepsis
d. analgesia
e. a+b
90. The first primary teeth to erupt into the oral cavity are the:
a. maxillary central incisors
b. mandibular first molars
c. maxillary first molars
d. mandibular central incisors
91. Biopsy is not indicated in:

a. ameloblastoma
b. cyst
c. benign tumors
d. malignant tumors
e. all of the above
92. The difficulty in the surgical extraction of a retained third mandibular molar is
due to:
a. depth of the inclusion
b. relation with the mandibular nerve
c. proximity to the adjacent tooth
d. quantity of the covering bone
e. all of the above
a. spiramycin
b. roxythromycin
c. erythromycin
d. clindamycin
e. all of the above
94. Lingual paresthesia can be observed after:

a. periodontal surgery of the third mandibular molar
b. surgical extraction of the third mandibular molar
c. implant placement in the posterior region of the mandible
d. orthognatic surgery of the mandible
e. all of the above
95. The most appropriate treatment of anaphylaxis?

a. oxygene(5 litres per minute) avec diazepam IM
b. diazepam en IM
c. 5 ml of 1/1000 IM adrenalin
d. 0,5 ml of 1/1000 adrenalin, IM, twice
e. 0,5 ml of 1/1000 adrenalin, IM, repeated at 5 minutes intervals if no improvement
96. To ensure the greatest accuracy, polysulfide base impressions should be poured
a. within 10 minutes
b. within 1 hour.
c. within 8 hours.
d. after 24 hours,
e. Immediately
97. In an otherwise acceptable occlusion, an impacted maxillary canine

a. could be extracted.
b. could be retained and the first premolar removed to allow the canine to erupt.
c. could be surgically exposed to speed its eruption
d. constitutes a problem requiring consultation with an orthodontist.
e. All of the above
98. Angle’s classification of occlusion is based on

a. a full complement of teeth.
b. antero-posterior skeletal relationship of maxilla to mandible.
c. antero—posterior relationship of maxillary and mandibular first permanent molars.
d. vertical relationships in the lower face
e. b +d
99. Reversible hydrocolloids transform from sol to gel and gel to sol as a function of
a. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers.
b. percent composition by weight of water.
c. concentration of potassium sulfate.
d. temperature.
e. time
100. For a ceramometal crown, the thermal expansion coefficient of the ceramic
(porcelain) should be
a. slightly lower than that of the underlying metal structure.
b. equal to that of the underlying metal structure.
c. slightly higher than that of the underlying metal structure.
d. significantly higher than that of the underlying metal structure.
101. Assuming a maxillary cast is accurately mounted on an articulator, a centric

relation record is used to
a. determine the vertical dimension of occlusion.
b. mount the mandibular cast.
c. establish the occlusal plane.
d. record the inclination of the condylar guidance.
e. Establish the occlusal curves
102. I-bar clasp arms and circumferential clasp arms both

1. terminate in retentive undercuts lying gingival to the height of contour
2. originate from the framework and approach the tooth undercut area from a gingival
direction
3. provide retention by the resistance of metal to deformation rather than frictional
resistance of parallel walls
4. are circular in cross-section.
a. (1) (2) (3)
b. (1) and (3)
c. (2) and (4)
d. (4) only
e. All of the above
103. In treatment planning for a removable partial denture, a knife-edge bony ridge
will
a. make impression- making difficult
b. necessitate relief to the partial denture
c. cause difficulty in tooth selection
d. Indicate implant placement
e. a + b
104. The best method to control the setting time of an irreversible hydrocolloid
without affecting its physical properties is to alter the
a. water temperature.
b. water; powder ratio.
c. mixing time.
d. composition
e. mixing technique
105. The addition of platinum to a dental gold alloy results in increased

l. strength.
2. hardness.
3. melting point.
4. resistance to corrosion.
a. (1) (2) (3)
b. (1) and (3)
c. (2) and (4)
d. (4) only
e. All of the above
106. For a cast gold restoration, a gingival bevel is used instead of a shoulder because
a bevel
l. protects the enamel.
2. Increases retention.
3. improves marginal adaptation.
4. increases the thickness of gold.
a. (1) (2) (3)
b. (1) and (3)
c. (2) and (4)
d. (4) only
e. All of the above
107. "Cuspid guided occlusion" occurs when the

a. teeth on the nonworking side make contact in lateral excursions.
b. teeth on the working side make contact in lateral excursions.
c. canine and lateral incisors make contact in lateral excursion.
d. posterior teeth make no contact in lateral excursions on the working side
e. None 0fthe above
108. Resin bonding of composites to acid—etched ename1 results in

a. decreased polymerization shrinkage of the resin
b. decreased crack formation in the enamel.
c. reduced microleakage.
d. improved wear resistance of the composite.
e. a + d
109. The function(s) of the reciprocal clasp arm is/are to

1. act as an indirect retainer.
2. stabilize the abutment teeth.
3. act as a direct retainer for the distal base.
4. counteract any force transmitted by the retentive arm.
a. (1) (2) (3)
b. (1) and (3)
c. (2) and (4)
d. (4) only
e. All of the above
110. The maxillary east partial denture major connector design with the greatest
potential to cause speech problems is
a. a thick narrow major connector.
b. an anterior and a posterior bar.
c. a thin broad palatal strap.
d. narrow horseshoe shaped.
111. A laboratory remount of processed dentures is done in order to correct occlusal
disharmony produced by errors primarily in the
a. mounting of the casts on the articulator.
b. registration of jaw relation records.
c. processing of acrylic dentures.
d. registration of condylar guidance.
e. All of the above
112 Which of the following removable partial dentures has the LEAST amount of
rotation around the fulcrum?
a. Kennedy Class I
b. Kennedy Class II
c. Kennedy Class III
d. Kennedy Class IV
e. Class I and II
113. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of a candida albicans
infection?
a. Penicillin
b. Nystatin
c. Chlorhexidine.
d. Tetracycline
e. b + d
114. A tissue-level implant should be used when

a. the edentulous site is in the esthetic zone
b. platform switching is desired
c. a 2-stage surgical approach is planned
d. ease for oral hygiene is desired to preserve crestal bone
e. a + d
115. During setting, a gypsum-bonded investment material will undergo an additional
expansion will undergo an expansion if occurs
a. under water
b. under vacuum
c. in a cold environment
d. in a dry environment
e. b + d
116. Which of the following could cause phonetic problems for patients with
removable dentures?
1. Posterior teeth placed in a buccal position.
2. Excessive bulk in the palatal area.
3. Anterior teeth that are too long.
4. Advanced ridge resorption.
a (1) (2) (3)
b. (1) and (3)
c. (2) and (4)
d (4) only
Answers for test №2
1. E 21. C 41. B 61. E 81. D 101. B

2. B 22. B 42. D 62. C 82. A 102. B
3. E 23. D 43. A 63. D 83. A 103. B
4. A 24. A 44. D 64. E 84. A 104. A
5. A 25. D 45. D 65. B 85. D 105. A
6. D 26. D 46. C 66. D 86. B 106. B
7. D 27. C 47. E 67. A 87. C 107. D
8. D 28. D 48. A 68. E 88. C 108. C
9. D 29. B 49. D 69. C 89. A 109. C
10. C 30. D 50. D 70. E 90. D 110. B
11. C 31. D 51. D 71. E 91. E 111. C
12. B 32. A 52. A 72. A 92. E 112. C
13. B 33. E 53. B 73. A 93. E 113. B
14. C 34. D 54. C 74. B 94. E 114. D
15. B 35. D 55. C 75. E 95. E 115. A
16. C 36. A 56. E 76. B 96. B 116. A
17. C 37. C 57. C 77. A 97. D
18. C 38. E 58. C 78. D 98. C
19. C 39. B 59. D 79. C 99. D
20. C 40. B 60. A 80. C 100. A
Test №3
1. Temporary inlay is bonded with:

a) Zinc carboxylate cement
b) Zinc oxyde eugenol based cement
c) Non eugenol Zinc oxide cement
d) Glass ionomer
e) All the answers are correct
2. When we decide to rebuild a cusp with amalgam, this would:

a) Increase the possibility of decay
b) Increase the force applied to the tooth
c) Increase the resistance to fracture of amalgam
d) Increase the retention
e) Increase the amalgam bond strength
3. Which one adheres naturally to tooth structure:

a) calcium hydroxide
b) Zinc oxide
c) glass ionomer
d) zinc phosphate
e) a+b
4. A good bonding is provided by:

a)the deep bonding penetration in the dentinal tubules
b) the hybrid layer formation
c) the use of a weak acid to avoid to damage the pulp
d) the complete drying of the enamel and the dentin
e) b+c
a) for a clear operative field
b) to prevent moisture caused by the expiration
c) to isolate the tooth from the oral cavity
d) all of the above are appropriate
e) none of the above

a) the passage of the acid etching to the pulp through the dentinal tubules
b) an under occlusion in the composite restoration
c) a microleakage formation between the restoration and the tooth
d) the hybrid layer formation
e) a, b and c are appropriate
7. The composites retract more :

a) with a light intensity of 1200 mW/cm2
b) with a light intensity of 600 mW/cm2
c) with the slow and gradual polymerization technique
d) in the pre-gel state
e) a+c
8. A microfilled composite has a mean particle size of fillers of about:

1. 0004 um
2. 004 um
3. 04 um
4. 4 um
5. 0.2 um
9.Sjögren's syndrome:
a) Is an exclusive affection of salivary glands
b) Is an exclusive affection of lacrymal glands
c) Is an exocrinopathy of infectious origin
d) Is an auto immune system inflammatory disease
e) All the above are false
10.Which of the following characters corresponds to the pemphigus vulgaris :

a) Non auto immune bullosa disease.
b) Benign and harmless disease
c) The buccal disease is readily inaugurated.
d) Existence of auto antibodies is directed against the basal membrane.
e) All the above are false.
11. Essential neuralgia pain is characterized by :

a) The uniqueness of the crisis (not-repeated).
b) The absence of trigger zone.
c) A night throbbing pain.
d) Its dazzling character (intense and short duration).
e) All the above are false.
12. All of the following antibiotics can increase the frequency and severity of
hemorragic accidents related to AVK, except :
a) Macrolides.
b) Metronidazole.
c) Amphotericine B.
d) Ampicilline.
e) tetracycline
13. On palpation of lymphatic ganglion, the criteria of benignity are the following
except one. Which one ?
a) A moderate volume of adenopathy (less than 1 cm)
b) A flatness
c) A flexible and soft consistency
d) A volume greater than 1 cm and is present for more than one month
e) All the above are false
14. The shift from primary to permanent dentition occurs frequently between:
a) 7 and 14 years
b) 6 and 12 years
c) 10 an 18 years
d) 5 and 9 years
e) None of the above
15. Evaluation of the dental midlines is done:

a) at the clinical examination, with respect to the median sagittal plane
b) on the dental casts by marking the upper midline and then the lower midline
c) on the Panoramic radiograph
d) once the canine and molar relationships are determined
e) only after the eruption of all the permanent teeth.
16. When the primary cuspids are lost prematurely, the permanent incisors may be
tipped:
a) Lingually
b) Labial1y
c) Mesially
d) Distally
e) No change of position.
17. The Angle classification:

a) describes the dento-alveolar relations
b) describes the sagittal occlusion between the arches of the permanent dentition
c) is a three—dimensional dental description
d) describes the mixed dentition
e) described in the report of the anterior teeth occlusal
18 Normally, the lower lip:

a) touches the edge of upper incisors
b) interposes between the upper and lower incisors
c) covers the upper incisors
d) none of the above
e) covers half the crown of the upper incisors
19. In order to make a temporary tooth by block technology, what sequence must be
done?:
a) Put the block in the mouth, ask the patient to close, remove the excesses in
interproximal, rebasing, hollow out the bottom surface of the block, sculpt and polish.
b) Put the block in the mouth, ask the patient to close, remove the excesses in
interproximal, hollow out the bottom surface of the block, rebasing, remove the
excesses in three dimensions and polish.
c) Put the block in the mouth, remove the excesses in interproximal, hollow out the
bottom surface of the block, rebasing, sculpt and polish.
d) Put the block in the mouth, ask the patient to close, remove the excesses in
interproximal, hollow out the bottom of the block, rebasing, sculpt and polish.
e) None of the above.
20 The taper of a preparation is to:

a) 6 degrees
b) 12 degrees
c) 3 degrees
d) 15 degrees
e) 8 degrees
21 The canal desobturation for taking a view to a crown-radicular reconstitution must
preserve at least the last:
a) 2 mm
b) 6 mm
c) 4 mm
d) 8 mm
e) 3 mm
22 The thickness of prosthetic reduction at the level of the area requested by the
occlusion for a CMC is:
a) 0.5mm
b) 1mm
c) 5mm
d) 2mm
e) 3mm
23 The ideal thickness of polyether impression material:

a) 0.2- 0.3 mm
b) 1 mm
c) 2-3 mm
d) None of the answers
e) 0.5 mm
24. For making a weld in the mouth we prefer to use:

a) Temporary Classic acryl
b) A hard wax with low contraction
c) Duralay
d— Kerr paste
e— All of the above are correct
25. It is preferable that a retractor cord is soaked:
a) in water
b) in aluminium chloride
c) in ferric sulfate
d) None of the answers
e) In normal saline
26 The name of sphincter located between the stomach and the duodenum is the:
a) Cardiac sphincter
b) Pyloric sphincter
c) Duodenal sphincter
d) Ileocecal sphincter
e) Gastric sphincter
27. In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is:

a. About equal to the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
b. Half the amount of oxygen combined with hemoglobin
c. Only about 3% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form
d. Greater than the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
e. Not present except where it is combined with carrier molecules
28. Plasma is:

a. Blood that has 110 red blood cells
b. The liquid portion of blood including clotting factors
c. The liquid portion of blood excluding clotting factors
d. The liquid portion of blood after it has clotted
e. The proteins of blood
29. Platelets normally have a half life of:

a. 7 minutes
b. 7 hours
c. 7 days
d. 4 weeks
e. 3 months
30. Awake fullness and alertness are controlled by :

a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Premotor area
d. Basal ganglia
e. Reticular formation
31. Regarding Toughness:

a. It describes the energy required permanently deform a material
b. It is calculated by the area above the stress/strain curve
c. Ceramics are examples of materials with high toughness
d. It can be calculated by three point bending test
e. It is the same as resilience
32. A lower dentulous arch impression could be registered with :

a. Alginate
b. Addition Silicon
c. Condensation Silicone
d. Zinc Oxide Eugenol
e. a, b and c
33. At 45°C, impression compound shows:

a. 0% Flow
b. 6% Flow
c. 30% Flow
d. 60% Flow
e. 80% Flow
34. Zinc Oxide Eugenol shrinks in the order of:

a. 0.1 %
b. 1%
c. 5%
d. 10%
e. 20%
35. Glycol in alginate:

a. Gives the material its color
b. Renders the powder dustless
c. Reacts with calcium ions to increase working time
d. Counteract inhibiting effect of hydrocolloid on gypsum
e. Improve taste
36. All of the following are hydrophillic materials except:

a. Alginate
b. Agar agar
c. Polyether
d. Plaster of Paris
e. Addition Silicone
37. The following are resin based root canal sealers except:
a. Endo REZ
b. AH 26
c. Epiphany
d. Guttaflow
e. AH Plus
38. Alpha- phase (CL) of gutta-percha core material is:

a. Most used in thermally softened obturation techniques
b. Most used in chemically softened obturation techniques
c. Most used in cold lateral obturation techniques
d. Not used in any obturation technique
e. Could be used in all root canal obturation techniques
39. Triple antibiotic paste intra-canal medication contains:

a. Calcium hydroxide, Ciprofloxacin, Minocycline
b. Metronidazole, Ciprofloxacine and Minocycline
c. Penicilin, Ciprofloxacin , and Streptomycin
d. Calcium hydroxide, Penicilin, and Metronidazole
e. Metronidazole, Ciprofloxacin, and Calcium hydroxide
40. Symptoms of reversible pulpitis are all the following except one:
a. Pain on hot
b. Pain on cold
c. Pain on percussion
d. Usually asymptomatic
e. Air may produce sharp transient pain transitoire intense
41. To differentiate between the lateral radicular cyst, which is an endodontic

inflammatory lesion related to a necrotic pulp and the lateral periodontal cyst, is done
by:
a. Probing
b. Percussion testing
c. Palpation testing
d. Radiographic testing
e. Pulp vitality testing
42. Use of rubber dam in endodontics prevents all of the following except:
a. Salivary contamination in root canal
b. Aspiraion of root canal instruments
c. Ingress of irrigating solution to the mouth
d. Reduce patient conversation
e. Over instrumentation beyond the root apex
43. A yellowish discoloration of the crown is often a manifestation

a. Internal resorption
b. Calcific metamorphosis
c. Hyperplastic pulpitis
d. All of the above
44. Which in the following conditions produce no pain on tooth percussion:

a. Periodondal abscess
b. Periapical abscess
c. Pulp calcification
d. All of the above
45. One of the treatment choices of acute apical periodontitis is:

a Relief of occlusion
b. Pulpotomy
c. Pulpectomy
d. Pulp capping
e. Gingival curettage
46. Before conducting intraoral examination check the degree of mouth opening, for
normal patient it should be at least:
a. Three fingers
b. Two fingers
c. One finger
d. Four fingers
e. Five fingers
47. Pulp testers should only be used to assess the:

a. Vital pulp
b. Non vital pulp
c. Degree of pulpal inflammation
d. a & b ‘
e. All of the above
48. When a crown or a bridge is present on a tooth that requires retreatment the pulp
chamber will be accessed through the existing restoration if:
a. The restoration is well fitting
b. Restoration is esthetically unpleasing to the patient
c. Tooth to be retreated is tilted or over tapered
d. Tooth with a post
49. Chronic periapical disease is mostly associated with:

a. Low virulence bacteria
b. Bacteria in biofilms
c. Bacteria those are inaccessible to host defense mechanisms
d. All of the above
50. Acitamenophen should be used cautiously in patients with:
a. Heart disease
b. Renal disease
c. Liver disease
d. Stomach disease
51 What is (are) the component that does not fill exactly the same role in the maxillae
and the mandible:
a. The Clasps
b. Minor connectors
c. Major connector
d. Rests
e. Saddles
52 Designing a Removable Partial Denture starts with:

a. Drawing the preliminary RPD design
b. Surveying the east with a surveyor
c Clasps and rest seats preparation
d. Analysis of the oral environment
e. Panoramic X ray exam
53 Anterior edentulous spaces are best treated with:

a. A fixed partial dental prosthesis
b. An RPD, especially when soft tissue is present b
c. An RPD, especially when soft tissue surgery is indicated
d. Temporary RPD
e. c+d
54 When drawing the Removable Partial Denture design, first draw:

a. Major and minor connectors then rests and clasps
b. Rests and minor connectors, then the major connector and finally the clasps
c. First the rests and then clasps. Finally major and minor connectors
d. First the clasps, then the major and minor connectors. Finally the rests
e. The strategy depends on the Kennedy class situation
55 The purpose of surveying the cast after drawing a preliminary design is to:
a. Place 3 rests as far apart as possible
b. Check the feasibility of the preliminary selected drawn design
c. Check all the undercuts that exist on the dental arch
d. Draw the survey line and to select the type of clasp needed
e. c+d
56 The optimum RPD path of placement:

a. Approximates the perpendicular to the plane of occlusion
b. Is when at least 2 rest seats can be found
c. Is when at least 2 retention clasp can be placed
d. Is when no tooth preparation is required
57 Which of the following is not correct for a mandibular major connector?

a. Thickness 3 to 4 mm for bars
b. Half pear shaped for lingual bar
c. Half pear shaped for lingual plate
d. 4 mm width for lingual bars
e. Lingual bars are relieved from mucosal surface
58 U-shaped palatal connector is indicated:

a. As first choice whenever possible
b. In the presence of inoperable tori
c. Gag reflex
d. Class IV de Kennedy
59 Thickness and width of a single strap—type palatal connector are:

a. 1mm—4mm
b. 0.5mm—4mm
c.1mm—8mm
d. 0.5 mm—8mm
e. Minimum 0.5 mm - minimum 8 mm
60 For a partially edentulous patient, several treatment options are available:

a. Conventional Removable Partial Denture (CRPD), implant Supported Removable
Partial Denture (ISRPD) or implant-tooth Supported
b. Shortened Dental Arch (SDA)
c. Fixed option (Teeth or Implant supported)
d. a+b+c
e. a+c
61 The shortened dental arch concept includes all of the following except:
a. Sufficient occlusal stability
b. Stable TNJ
c. Satisfactory mastication
d. Simplification of oral hygiene
e. Unsatisfactory esthetics
62 Salvaging failed fixed implant case may lead to implant supported removable
partial denture. This include:
a. Poorly positioned dental implant
b. Failure in osseointegration
c. Fracture of implant components under a fixed implant restoration
d. a+b
e. repetitive debonding of the restoration on implant
63 Advantages of implant supported removable partial denture to conventional

removable partial denture are all of the following except:
a. May improve retention, support, functional stability and patient comfort
b. May improve patient satisfaction
c. May provide better aesthetics
d. Preservation from bone loss
e. Prevent from regular relining
64 Advantages of implant supported fixed partial denture to implant supported

removable partial denture are:
a. Fewer patient visits and laboratory procedures (shorter time treatment)
b. The use of a minimal number of implants
c. Easier oral hygiene by the patient
d. May provide superior aesthetics in cases involving advanced ridge resorption
65 Biomechanical complexity of implant supported removable partial denture are

because of the involvement of:
a. 3 different supports (teeth, implants, and alveolar ridge)
b. 2 different supports (teeth and implants)
c. Mobility of the denture
d. b+c
66 An overhanged prosthesis:
a. protects the gingival from the mechanical imitations
b. is more esthetical because it closes the embrasures
c. is associated with a higher periodontal index
d. facilitates the oral hygiene
67 Accessory innervation of mandibular permanent teeth is provided by:

a) auriculo-temporal nerve
b) lingual nerve
c) spheno-palatine nerve
d) mylo-hyoid nerve
e) inferior alveolar nerve
68 Fluorides way of action in the oral cavity

a. Fluoride has no prophylactic action
b. Fluoride acts only on dental enamel
c. Fluoride acts only on dental plaque
d. Fluoride acts on dental enamel and plaque
e. Human dental enamel has a non-complex structure
69 Choose the correct answer:

a. The efficiency of brushing depends on a number of factors including motivation
b. Brushing lasts one minute
c. Brushing mainly takes place in the morning
d. Brushing the tongue is not recommended
e. a+b+c
70 Choose the correct answer:

a. Drinking water fluoridation didn't give good results in terms of reducing caries
indicators
b. Drinking water fluoridation is hard to be implemented
c. Naturally fluoridated waters with dosages < to 2 ppm are recommended for
drinking
d. Milk fluoridation is impossible
e. a+b
71 The incisal guidance on the articulator is the

a. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap
b. mechanical equivalent of the compensating curve
c. same as the condylar guidance
d. horizontal guidance
72 A patient wearing complete dentures has trouble swallowing. What is the most
probable cause?
a. excessive interocclusal space
b. insufficient interocclusal space
c. posterior teeth set too far facially on the maxillary denture
d. posterior teeth set too close to the bearing area on the maxillary denture
73 An excessive vertical dimension of occlusion in a patient with complete dentures

will adversely affect
a. retention
b. protrusion
c. centric relation
d. balanced occlusion
e. interocclusal clearance
74 Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may

a. poor denture retention
b. increased interocclusal distance
c. drooping of the corners of the mouth
d. creases and wrinkles around the lip
e. trauma to underlying supporting tissues
75. The face—bow is used to record

a. centric relation
b. relation of the maxilla to the temporomandibular joint
c. relation of the mandible to the maxilla
d. relation of the mandible to the temporomandibular joint
e- none of the above
76 The sealing of implant prostheses should be done with a cement:

a. Resin
b. Oxyphosphate.
c. Zinc oxide without eugenol.
d. Glass ionomer
e. Zinc oxide with eugenol.
77. The implant prostheses screws are:

a. more aesthetic
b. easier to drop in case of loosening of a screw
c. more appropriate in case of bad implant angulations
d. a+b
e. b+c
78 Root planning is:

a. Removal of material Alba and stains from root surface
b. Removal of soft tissue wall of the periodontal pocket
c. Removal of calculus & plaque from root surface
d. Removal of food debris from tooth surface
e. Removal of diseased cementum along with other root deposits
79 Localized aggressive periodontitis is best treated stage by:

a. Tetracycline 250mg 4 times daily for fourteen days.
b. Tetracycline 250mg once daily for 7 days.
c. Tetracycline 250mg twice daily for 7 days.
d. Tetracycline 250mg 4 times daily for 3 days.
e. Tetracycline 250mg 4 times daily for 5 days.
80. Vincent’s angina is a fusospirochetal infection of:

a. Marginal gingival
b. Oropharynx and throat
c. Heart
d. Larynx and colon
e. Middle ear and small intestine
81 The bacteria detected in localized aggressive periodontitis are:

a. Borrelia vincenti, medium size spirochetes.
b. Fusiformis, Tanerella forsythus.
c. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans, capnocytophaga Spp., Eikenella
corrodens, campylobacter rectus, prevotella intermedia.
d. Mycoplasma, capnocytophaga sputigena, spirocheles.
e. Treponema denticola, fusobacterium nucleatum, C. rectus, Actinobacillus
Actinomycetem comitans.
82. Acute periodontal abscess is treated by:

a. Gingivoplasty
b. Gingivectomy
c. Periodontal flap procedure
d. Antibiotics
e. Drainage through the gingival sulcus or by an external incision
83 False gingival enlargement is caused by:

a. Underlying drug induced gingival enlargement.
b. Underlying inflammation of periodontal ligament.
c. Underlying dental and osseous structures.
d. By epulis.
e. Sarcoidosis.
84. Necrotising ulcerative periodontitis:

a. Is associated with deep periodontal pockets
b. Is associated with a crater like depression at the tip of interdental papilla and
vesicle formation
c. Is associated with a crater like interdental bony depression
d. Is not responsive to any therapy
e. Leads to gingival recession because of faulty tooth brushing
85. The amount of gingival crevicular fluid is:

a. Decreased when inflammation is present
b. Increase by trauma from occlusion.
c. Decreased by mastication of coarse foods and smoking.
d. Decreased by ovulation and hormonal contraceptives.
e. Increased by tooth brushing and gingival massage.
86. Leukemia gingival enlargement:

a. Occurs in edentulous areas
b. Occurs in chronic leukemia
c. Occurs by abnormal accumulation of leukemia cells in dermal and subcutaneous
connective tissue
d. Occurs by dense cellular accumulation in papillary layer of connective tissue
e. Occurs by dense cellular accumulation in reticular layer of connective tissue
87. The initial colonisers in the dental plaque are:

a. Fusobacterium nucleatum, prevotella intermedia.
b. Capnocytophaga, campylobacter rectus.
c. Tannerella forsythus, bacterionema maturochottii.
d. Streptococcus sanguis, actinomyces viscosus.
e. Eikehella corrodens, actinobacills actenomycetem comitans
88. There is partial or complete loss of lamina dura in:

a. Hypoparthyroidism
b. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Beriberi
d. Pellagra
e. Hypervitaminosis D
89. Mineral precipitation results from a local rise in the degree of saturation of
calcium and phosphate ions because:
a. A decrease in the pH of the saliva cause precipitation of calcium and phosphate
ions
b. An increase in the pH of the saliva cause precipitation of calcium and phosphate
ions by lowering of precipitation constant.
c. A decrease in pH of saliva lowers precipitation constant leading to precipitation of
calcium and phosphate ion
d. An increase in the pH of saliva increases precipitation constant leading to
precipitation of calcium and phosphate ions.
e. An increase in the pH of saliva with no effect on precipitation constant.
90. Periodontal destruction is considered moderate when:

a. 3-4mm of clinical attachment loss has occurred in chronic periodontitis
b. 1—2mm of clinical attachment loss has occurred in chronic periodontitis
c. 5mm or more of clinical attachment loss has occurred in chronic periodontitis
d. 0-1 mm of clinical attachment loss has occurred in chronic periodontitis
e. 0.5-0.9mm of clinical attachment loss has occurred in chronic periodontitis
91. Horizontal bone loss is present in:

a. Localized aggressive periodontitis.
b. Generalized aggressive periodontitis.
c. Infrabony pockets.
d. Chronic periodontitis.
e. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.
92. Periodontal attachment loss detect clinically:

a. When there is recession only
b. When there is recession and/or true pocket
c. When there is radiographic alveolar bone loss
d. When there is true pocket only
e. When there is gingival enlargement
93. Periodontal attachment loss measure clinically from:

a. Gingival margin to the base of the pocket.
b. CEJ to the gingival margin.
c. CEJ to the base of the pocket.
d. Gingival margin to the bone crest
e. CEJ to the bone crest
94. The term gingivitis refers to a condition which
a. Is reversible and only effects the gingiva
b. Is irreversible and only effects the gingiva
c. Affects the underlying alveolar bone
d. Irreversibly damages the underlying bone
e. Is always acute in nature
95. The term chronic inflammation is best defined as

a. An inflammatory process of long duration
b. An rapid onset of inflammation
c. An inflammatory process of short duration
d. A process with no evidence of repair
e. A process which will be self limiting
96. The clinical presentation of gingivitis and periodontitis are similar. How could
you determine if a patient has periodontitis
a. The gingiva would bleed on probing
b. Look for bone loss on a radiograph
c. The gingiva would appear swollen
d. The patient would report pain
e. The oral hygiene would be poor
97. Long term effect of radiotherapy to oral mucosa is characterized by:

a) Epithelium becomes more keratinized.
b) Sub mucosa becomes highly vascular.
c) Break down & delayed healing, sub mucosa less vascular.
d) No sub mucosal fibrosis.
e) Epithelium becomes thin & there is rapid healing.
98. Common sequela after cancer chemotherapy is myelosuppression, which is

characterized by:
a) Anemia&thrombocytopenia
b) Thrombocytosis
c) Leukocytosis
d) Lymphocytosis
e) Purpura
99. Maxillary sinus infection of odontogenic origin is most commonly caused by:
a) Aerobic bacteria
b) Anaerobic bacteria
c) Fungal
d) Viral
e) Spirochetes
100. Major duct of submandibular gland is:

a) Bartholin’s duct
b) Minor salivary gland’s duct
c) Stenson’s duct
d) Wharton’s duct
e) Lacrimal duct
101. Which of the following method of sterilization is ineffective?

a) Ethylene oxide gas
b) Gamma radiation.
c) UV radiation.
d) Autoclaving.
e) Hot air oven.
102. If a patient is taking cyclosporine-A. What will be its side effect in oral cavity:
a) Mucosal ulceration
b) Gingival hyperplasia
c) Mucosal white lesion
d) Gingival recession
e) No side effect in oral cavity
103. Vasoconstrictor in local anesthetics (LA) solution:
a) Reduces toxic effects of LA solution
b) Decreases depth & duration of LA
c) Increases bleeding
d) Increases toxic effects of LA
e) Has no effect on efficacy of LA solution
104. When injecting LA solution in maxilla on buccal side. The technique is:
a) Subperiosteal
b) Supraperiosteal
c) Submucosal
d) Intraosseous
e) Intraseptal
105. Which of 2 nerves blocked when injection is given in pterygo-mandibular

space?
a) Buccal & lingual nerve
b) Lingual & inferior alveolar nerve
c) Buccal & inferior alveolar nerve
d) Buccal nerve & infra orbital nerve
e) Inferior alveolar & posterior superior alveolar nerve
106. Pulpotomy is:

a. Eviction as complete as possible, of pulp parenchyma
b. Indicated in case root resorption
c. Indicated in case of internal resorption
d. Carried out by ductal debribement e
e. The answers a and d are correct.
107. Infantile deglutition:
a. Is said to be pathological if it occurs before the appearance of the milk teeth
b. Is when the tongue be an obstacle to the extrusion of teeth
c. Does not stop the growth of mandible
d. Causes nasal breathing
e. The answers c and d are correct
108. Sleep apnea:

a. Disrupts sleep cycle
b. The patient wakes up with dry mouth
c. The patient wakes up with sore throat
d. Causes difficulty in concentration
e. All of the above answers are true
109. Anesthesia:
a. It is the transitory and reversible suppression of sensibility
b. Can be local, regional or general
c. Create optimal conditions of operating comfort
d. Seeks to temporary remove the function of the sensory trunks
e. All the above answers are true
110. The causes of teeth loss:

a. Poor oral hygiene
b. Poor nutrition of certain types of food
c. Root fracture
d. Some contact sports
111. Causes of teeth discoloration:

a. Tooth trauma
b. Cerebral vascular accident
c. Can be caused by some antibiotics
d. Can be caused by endodontic treatment
112. What color is favorable

a. The antibiotic tetracycline during the formation of teeth can make them grey
b. The caries due to bottle feeding is in the form of brown spots on the posterior teeth
extremities
c. The changing of teeth color always affects the permanent teeth
d. The discoloration of teeth is never due to a systemic disease
e. The discoloration is not caused by caries
113. Fissure sealant:

a. Prevents the caries of wells and fissures
b. Is done mostly on the 1st and 2nd permanent molars
c. Bis GMA resins: auto or photo polymerizable
d. Indicated in children at risk of: cardiopathy, hemopathy
114. The preformed cover:

a. Has an essential role in the reconstitution of the function and the morphology of
temporary tooth
b. Is indicated for restoration of small coronary destruction of molars
c. Anatomical crowns alloy of chrome- cobalt type
d. Are prefabricated in 2 dimensions
e. The answers a and d are correct
115. The direct pulp capping:

a. Accidental opening and puncture of the pulp
b. The material used can be calcium hydroxide
c. Achieve obturation with hermetic materials
d. Is done under dam
e. All the above answers are correct
116. The class cavity III mesial on level 12:

a. Reach the incisal edge
b. Is located at the level of the distal wall.
c. The shape of C.
d. The bevel must be vestibular and palatal.
e. The answers c and d are correct.
117. The inter-dental corners or wood cones have a role:

a. In the spacing of the teeth
b. in the tightening of the matrix
c. To compensate for the thickness of the matrix
d. To ensure a good point of contact
e. All the above answers are correct
118. What matrix is used without matrix port?:

a. Ivory 14
b. Toflemire matrix
c. Universal matrix
d. Automatrix
119. In class II amalgam cavity:

a. The angle of junction between the pulp wall and the axial wall is bright
b. The pulp wall is parallel to occlusal plan
c. The depth of cavity class II is 2mm
d. The axial wall is rather horizontal
120. The break of a background of cavity is done the following:

a. Probe N: 17
b. Excavator
c. Enamel chisel
d. Ball point
e. The answers c and d are correct
1. C 21. C 41. E 61. E 81. B 101. C

2. C 22. D 42. E 62. D 82. C 102. B
3. C 23. C 43. B 63. E 83. E 103. A
4. B 24. C 44. C 64. E 84. C 104. B
5. D 25. B 45. A 65. A 85. E 105. B
6. C 26. C 46. B 66. C 86. E 106. A
7. A 27. C 47. D 67. D 87. D 107. B
8. B 28. B 48. A 68. D 88. B 108. E
9. D 29. C 49. D 69. A 89. B 109. E
10. C 30. E 50. C 70. C 90. A 110. E
11. D 31. A 51. C 71. A 91. D 111. E
12. D 32. E 52. D 72. B 92. B 112. A
13. D 33. E 53. A 73. E 93. C 113. E
14. B 34. A 54. B 74. E 94. A 114. A
15. A 35. B 55. B 75. B 95. A 115. E
16. A 36. E 56. A 76. C 96. B 116. C
17. B 37. D 57. A 77. B 97. C 117. E
18. C 38. A 58. B 78. E 98. A 118. D
19. D 39. B 59. D 79. A 99. B 119. B
20. A 40. C 60. D 80. B 100. D 120. D
Test №4
1. Which dietary component(s) is/are needed for DNA synthesis, and thus greatly
influence the production of red blood cells?
a. Calcium
b. Iron
c. vitamin B12 and folic acid
d. protein
2. An acute infection would show up in a blood count as

a. leukopenia
b. leukocytosis
c. Too few helper T cells
d. Thrombocytopenia
3. A hematocrit measures:
a. The percentage of blood cells consisting of leucocytes
b. Total lymphocytes
c. The percentage of red blood cells in blood
d. The percentage of white blood cells in blood
e. The percentage of cells in blood
4. What percentage of plasma is there in the blood?

a. 35%
b. 45%
c. 55%
d. 65%
e.n92%
5. Bite salts are secreted into the
a. Stomach
b. Duodenum
c. Jejunum
d. Ileum
6. Excessive destruction of erythrocytes can result in

a. Thalassemia
b. Aplastic anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia
7. All the following are direct restorative materials except:

a. Resin Composites
b. Amalgam
c. Glass Ionomer Cement
d. Ceramics
e. Zinc oxide Eugenol
8. Solubility of a dental cement could affect:

a. Color of the restoration
b. Strength of the restoration
c. Hardness of the restoration
d. Rigidity of the restoration
e. Marginal integrity of the restoration
9. Specific gravity of a dental material is particularly important in:

a. Direct composite
b. Indirect composite
c. Ceramic restoration
d. Complete denture
e. Metallic crown
10. Heat dissipation upon drinking a hot beverage for example depends on :
a. Coefficient of thermal expansion
b. Specific heat
c. Specific gravity
d. Rigidity
e. Hardness
11. Laser is an acronym for

a. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
b. Light acceleration by stimulated emission of radiation
c. Light attenuation by stimulated electron radiation
d. Light amplification by stimulated electron radiation
e. light attenuation by stimulated emission of radiation
12. Elastic Impression material include all except:

a. Alginate
b. Impression compound
c. Polyether
d. Agar-Agar
e. Condensation silicone
13. Zinc in dental amalgam:

a. Reacts with Gamma 2 phase to enhance the mechanical properties
b. Prevents delayed expansion
c. Prevents oxidation of other components by acting as a scavenger
d. Increases radioopacity
e. All of the above
14. Which of the following is not a main portal of microorganisms to enter the dental
pulp?
a. Dentinal tubules.
b. Direct pulp exposure.
c. Occlusal grooves.
d. Periodontal disease.
e. Lateral canals
15. The patient’s medical history is important step during diagnosis:

a. It must be taken in patient‘s own words
b. It's one of the objective data
c. It alters the treatment plan according to the severity of the illness
d. Recognize the oral manifestations of dental condition
e. All of the above
16. Recognizing the provoking and relieving factors of pain may help to:
a. Determine which diagnostic tests should be performed to establish a more
objective diagnosis.
b. Directly establish a definitive diagnosis
c. Determine the necessity of local anesthesia
d. Directly start root canal treatment
17. Resilon is:

a. Silicon based root canal obturation core material
b. Resin based root canal obturation core material
c. Gutta-perсha based obturation core material
d. Glass ionomer based obturation core material
18. Cases considered for emergency manadement:

a. Have prolonged onset
b. Disturb daily activity
c. Relieved by analgetics
d. Pain lasts for few seconds
e. All of the above
19. Craze lines

a. Easily identified radiographically
b. Easily identified using transillumination
c. Involves both enamel and dentine
d. Limited to enamel
20. Emergency management of acute irreversible pulpitis associated with apical

periodontitis diagnosed eases must involve:
a. Partial pulpolomy
b. Complete pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide capping material
c. Complete pulpotomy with formocresol
d. Complete pulpectomy with calcium hydroxide intracanal medication
e. Complete pulpectomy with formocresol
21. The data collected from the objective examination tests:

a. Do not necessarily mimic the chief complain symptoms
b. Must duplicate the symptoms or the chief complain
c. Is the solitary key for definitive diagnosis
d. Must be collected before recognizing definitive chief complain
22. Amount of retained gutta-percha in the canal after post preparation to preserve the
apical seal:
a. One mm
b. Three mm
c. Five mm
d. Seven mm
e. Nine mm
23. Objectives of root canal obturation including all of the following except:
a. Prevent coronal leakage of baclerta
b. Entombing remaining bacteria.
c. Create a favorable environment for periapical tissue healing
d. Allow the influx of apical tissue-derived fluids
24. In order to reduce postoperative pain in cases of pulp necrosis without swelling ,
the following should be done except one:
a. Reassuring the patient
b. Removing the irritant
c. Proper cleaning of the canal(s)
d. Prescribe long acting antibiotic
e. Prescribe an analgesic
25. The periapical lesions of endodontic origin have the following characteristic
features except one of the following:
a. Radiolucency moves away from the apex by changing the angle
b. Loss of lamina dura in the apical region
c. Radiolucency remains at the apex even if radiograph is taken by changing the angle
d. Etiology of pulpal necrosis is apparent
26. The ideal metal for a metallic crown is:

a. Nickel- chrome
b. Chrome-Cobalt
c. Gold
d. Silver
e. Titanium
27. The programmation of a semi adaptable articulator is done by:

a. Using a record of the centric relation
b. Using a record of eccentric movements
c. Using a record of a retrusion
d. Using a record of the (OIM)
e. Using a record of a protrusion
28. The taper of the tooth preparation should be

a. 6 degrees
b. 12 degrees
c. 3 degrees
c. 15 degrees
e. 9 degrees
29. The role of gingival retraction is

a. Control the bleeding
b. Visualization of the gingival gingivail margin
c. Visualization of the emergence profile
d. Opening of the sulcus
e. All the answers are correct
30. Conical pontic is indicated:
a) For the posterior teeth
b) In the presence of a large ridge
c) In the presence of a narrow knife ridge
d) Has a single contact point with the ridge
e) a, c and d are correct
31. What kind of bonding exists between metal and ceramic?

a. Chemical bonding
b. Mechanical bonding
c. Physical bonding
d. All the answers are correct
e. All the answers are incorrect
32. After crown lengthening we must wait:

a) 3 weeks before the relining
b) 6 weeks prior to the adjustment of the margins
c) 3 months before the definitive impression
d) 6 months in the aesthetic areas
33. The retentive characteristics of a full crown may be enhanced by

a. using glass ionomer cement
b. using zinc phosphate cement
c. adding grooves parallel to the path of draw
d. maximizing the parallelism of the axial walls
e. C + D
34. To provide proper deflection patterns for food during mastication that will
minimize the potential for gingival irritation, the contact area between premolars is
positioned to create
a. a wide facial and a narrow lingual embrasure
b. a wide lingual mid a narrow facial embrasure
c. equal embrasures on both the facial and the lingual
d. none of the above. It depends upon whether the maxillary or the mandibular arch is
being considered
e. it depends on filling materials
35. The greatest potential for wear exists between

a. tooth and gold
b. tooth and tooth
c. porcelain and tooth
d. porcelain and porcelain
e. no difference
36. Which of the following is most likely to cause necrosis of the sulcular epithelium
and adjacent layer of connective tissue when impregnated into string used for tissue
retraction?
a. epinephrine
b. zinc chloride
c. aluminum sulfate
d. aluminum chloride
37. In an early mixed dentition case with insufficient space ill the anterior segment
for erupting permanent lateral incisors, what treatment is indicated?
a. no treatment: allow the incisors to erupt in a crowded state and treat the case in the
permanent dentition
b. grind the proximal surfaces of the permanent incisors to reduce the space required
c. grind the deciduous cuspids
d. extract the deciduous cuspids
38. By what mechanism does the mandible grow downward and forward as viewed
on
successive superimposed head film?
a. growth of the alveolar process
b. condylar growth
c. growth of the frontonasal process
d. sutural growth
39. Stiffness of orthodontic wire is a function of

a. length of the wire segment
b. diameter of the wire segment
c. alloy composition
d. A + B
e. A + B + C
40. The active growth site(s) of the mandible is (are)

a. posterior border of the ramus
b. condyl coronoid process
c. alveolar process
d. A + B
e. A + B + C
41. Acceleration of the early prepuberal growth indicates

a. a longer orthodontic treatment time
b. a fast maturing child
c. a slow maturing child
d. nothing of interest
e. an endocrine dysfunction, such as hyperthyroidism
42. When the orthodontic force applied is light, resorption will probably be
a. apical
b. direct
c. indirect
d. undermining
43. Which of the following is the strongest factor in stimulating an increase in

respiration ?
a. a decrease in venous oxygen
b. a decrease in arterial oxygen
c. an increase in venous carbon dioxide
d. an increase in arterial carbon dioxide
e. an increase in blood pH
44.The organisms most difficult to eradicate by sterilization are

a. fungi
b. anaerobes
c. AIDs virus
d. hepatitis B
e. spore forming bacteria
45. Which of the following is the most consistent finding in systemic infections?
a. fever
b. tachypnea
c. lymphadenopathy
d. abscess formation
e. cellulitis formation
46. The major cause of speech problems in persons with cleft lip and palate is
a. intellectual deficiency
b. inability to control tongue movements
c. inability to build up intraoral air pressure
d. abnormal tooth position and arch relationships
e. inability to sustain laryngeal vibrations (phonation)
47. Which of the following is classified as an antianxiety drug?
a. Methohexital
b. Lorazepam
e. Haloperidol
d. Pentazocine
e. Phenyl propanolamine
49. Compared to codéine, morphine is

a. Safer
b. A more potent analgesic
c. A more efficacious analgesic
d. Ineffective when administered orally
e. A + D
49. A patient is scheduled in the dental office for minor periodontal surgery. She has
a documented history of rheumatic heart disease but is not receiving any prophylactic
antibiotic therapy. She has no known drug allergies. This prophylactic anti biotic
therapy should begin
a. immediately prior to the dental procedure
b. one hour prior to the dental procedure
c. four hours prior to the dental procedure
d. one day prior to the dental procedure
8. two days prior to the dental procedure
50. Hepatic «first pass» metabolism of drugs is most significant after which route of
administration?
a. Oral
b. Rectal
c. Sublingual
d. Intravenous
e. Subcutaneous
51. After the incision and drainage of an abscess, the infectious process has failed to
decline despite continued patient on high doses of antibiotics. The treatment choice
is:
a. Inserting a drain
b. Make tests culture and sensitivity
c. To request a complete blood count
d. Debride and irrigate the area with a fibrinolytic agent
e. Starting the parenteral administration of proteolytic enzyme to enhance the
antibiotic
52. To reduce systemic complication of local or regional infiltration. we should:

a. Always inject for local without adrenaline and regional with adrenaline
b. Aspirate with regional block
c. Make a slow injection
d. Make intraligamentary injection with adrenaline
e. b-c
53. In order to extract 2nd lower premolar:

a. We should always make local infiltration
b. We should always make mandibular bloc
c. We should always make intraligamentary injection.
d. All of the above
54. A patient with an history of allergy to anesthetics which of these choices below
seems the most adequate:
a. Scandicaine 3% without adrenaline seems to be safe
b. The allergy is always type IV allergy so any molecule seems to be safe
c. Benzocaine 5 % without vasoconstrictor
e. a - c
55. Which temporary teeth present a crown having a bigger mesio distal distance than
its occluso-cervical height?
a. upper central incisor
b. upper first molar
c. lower lateral incisor
d. lower first molar
e. a b and d
56. By observing any tooth from a lingual view, which face(s) can u see:
a. mesial
b. occlusal
c. proximal
d. vestibular
e. a b et c
57. Early closure of cranial vault sutures is called

a. ptagiosis
b. dermo-cephalosis
c. steno-poriosis
d. cephalosis
58. Overjet is:

a. The vertical overlapping of the maxillary and mandibular incisors
b. The distance between maxillary and mandibular incisors
c. The amount of mandibular incisors visible in maximum intercuspation
d. The difference between the mesio-distal widths of the maxillary and mandibular
incisors.
59. It is generally accepted that the primary cause of inflammation in periodontal

disease
a. dental plaque
b. open contacts
c. food impaction
d. calculus
e. lysosomal enzymes
60. The best marginal limit of a fixed restoration for periodontal health is
a. supra gingival
b. extra gingival
c. juxta gingival
d. trans gingival
e. sub gingival
61. Give the correct answer

1. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary for intra-ligament local anesthesia
2. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary in nonsurgical periodontal care
3. Antibiotic prophylaxis is required in patients treated by Cyclosporine
4. Antibiotic prophylaxis is necessary for a well-controlled hypertensive diabetic
subject
5. Antibiotic prophylaxis is required in subject treated by Hepari
a. l, 2 and 4 is correct
b. 1, 2 and 5 are correct
c. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
e. Only 5 is not correct
62. Amoxicillin
1. is used for eradication of Helicobacter pylori
2. Has an oral bioavailability > 90%
3. Has a plasma half—life: 80 min
4. Is indicated against enterobacterial infections
5. Should not be dissolved with gentamicin in the same syringe
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 4 is correct
d. 3 4 and 5 are correct
e. Only the 4 answer is false
63. In case of infection with hepatitis B, acute hepatitis typically develops after
a. 7 days
b. 2 months
c. 6 months
d. 3 years
e. Anyone of the above may be correct
64. The hepatitis B vaccine, consists of:
a. purified hepatitis B surface antigen (HIBsAg)
b. recombinant HBsAg
c. inactivated virus
d. attenuated virus
e. viral DNA
65. Concerning the hepatitis B vaccine, all of the following is true except one:
a. It 18 currently recommended at birth, for all newborns
b. it should be administered in 3 doses; the 2nd and the 3rd should be given 1 and 6
months
c. A booster dose is recommended after 5 years
d. it protects against hepatitis B and hepatitis D infection
e. About 10-l5% of vaccine recipients remain seronegative
a. Hepatic impairment
b. Pseudomembranous colitis
c. Renal impairment
d. Neumtoxicity
e. Osteonecrosis
67. What should be given to pregnant women allergic to b-lactam with Gram
negative bacterial infection in upper respiratory tract?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Cefuroxin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Ertapenem
e. Azithromycin
68. About local anesthetic when used in pregnant women:
a. The local vasoconstrictor is tolerated since its dose is very low
b. Lidocaine should be avoided since it is teratogen
c. Procainamide should be avoided because of its anti- arythmic
d. Bupivacaine is contra-indicated during the first trimester
e. Local vasoconstrictors are forbidden at any stage of pregnancy
69. As a dentist, you think that Adverse Drug Reactions (ADR):

a. Occurs when recommended doses are not respected
b. Occurs in general with long term therapy
c. Occurs When the patient was wrongly diagnosed
d. You believe that treatment should be dropped when ADR is reported
e. Practitioner should always take in consideration the odds and the severity of the
ADR mentioned
70. Is considered as subject to risk of general infection anyone:

a. With hepatic impairment
b. With renal impairment
c. With heart failure
d. Treated with high doses of corticosteroids
e. Treated with insulin
71. Describing the advantage of the flap of apical repositioning, which statement is
correct:
b. Bone defects are exposed to change.
c. Repositioning of muscular attaches.
d. Creation of an area of attached gingiva.
72. The germ the most frequently find in the osteomyelitis at the teenager is:
a. Staphylococcus.
b. Pneumoeoecus.
c. Colibacillus.
d. A virus.
73. The parodontal therapeutic act :

a. An over treatment.
b. Is essential for maintaining the dentoparodontal health
c. Diminish the immunity and the resistance of parodontal tissues.
d. A+B
74. In a conventional gingivectomy, what statement is correct :

A. Eliminates infra bone defects.
B. Eliminates false pockets.
C. Preserves the width of attached gingiva.
D. Provides access to the alveolar bone.
E. Is indicated for acute gingival disease case.
75. The flap of lateral repositioning is indicated for:

a. Creating a large area of attached gingiva.
b. Recovering the exposed root surface.
c. Replacing the gingival graft.
d. Replacing gingivectomy.
e. Deepening the vestibule.
76. The dry socket (alveolitits) appears:

a. 2-3 hours after the extraction of the tooth.
b. 2-3 days after the extraction of the teeth.
c. 6 days after the extraction of the tooth
d. 6 hours after the extraction of the tooth.
e. Immediate after the extraction of the tooth.
77. What should not be done in case of post-operatory hemorrhage:

a. Prescribe ice vessels on the skin in regard of the wound.
b. Put hemostatic sponges in the alveoli
c. Reopen the operatory wound if the hemorrhage does not stop in order to precise the
cause.
d. Bite on a game.
e. Prescribe mouth wash with warm water
78. Gingival hypertrophy caused by:

a. A pathological increase of gingival cell number.
b. An increase of interstitial liquid volume.
c. A bone tumor.
d. A+B
79.What is the incidence of osteoradionecrosis in patients receiving radiation therapy

to the mandible?
a. < 5%.
b. 10%
c.15%
d. 20%
e. 25%
80. The muscles of the tongue are in number of:

a. 12 muscles .
b. 9 muscles .
c. 6 muscles .
d. 16 muscles
e. 17 muscles.
81.The recovering gingival graft permits:

a. To deepen the vestibule.
b. Coating recessions.
c. Reducing the vestibule.
d. A+B.
e. B+C.
82. Excessive salivation occurs in :

a. Hand foot mouth disease.
b. Herpangina.
c. Diabetes mellitus.
d. Allergical stomatitis.
e. Primary hepatic gingivostomatitis.
83.Minor aphthous ulcer presents as :

a. A bundle on non keratinized mucosa.
b. Isolated ulcers on non keratinized mucosa.
c. Isolated ulcers on keratinized mucosa.
d. A bundle of vesicles on the tongue.
84. The organisms most difficult to eradicate by sterilization are:

a. fungi.
b. anaerobes.
c. AIDS virus
d. Hepatitis B.
e. Spore forming bacteria.
85. An epulis is a hyperplastic inflammatory tumor that is :

a. malignant.
b. jugal.
c. gingival.
d. labial.
86. The encroachment of biological space might cause :

a. An irreversible gingival recession.
b. Bone resorption.
c. Formation of a periodontal pocket.
d. Chronic gingival inflammation.
e. All the above.
87. Immediate or early overload on single implant depends :

a. On the length of the implant.
b. On the surface of the implant.
c. On the mark of the implant.
d. On the primary stability of the implant.
e. On the diameter of the implant.
d. A biochemical link between titanium oxide and the bone.
89. A common side effect of antihistamine therapy is:
a. tremorrs
b. anemia.
c. Drowsiness.
d. Vomiting.
e. Diuresis.
90. The antibiotic of choice in patients allergical to penicillin is:
a. ampicilline.
b. Erythmmycin.
c. doxycycline
d. terlacycline.
e. lincomycine.
91. The auotoclave is the most recommended mean for sterilization because of:
a. It utilizes vapor pressure.
b. It doesn’t lead to instruments corrosion.
c. Because of the low temperature used "thermo-sensitive" instruments can be
sterilized.
d. All the above.
92. A single dose of 15 grams of paracetamol can be fatal for the following reason :
a. Arterial hypertension.
b. Arterial hypotension.
c. Hypoxia.
d. Hepatotoxicity.
e. Hypersensitivity.
a. Residual maxillary cyst.
b. Periodontal cyst.
c. Cyst of dental origin.
d. Keratcyste odontogene.
e. Ameloblastic fibroma.
94. Among the following nerves, which one of the following provides the secondary
(additional) innervation of the permanent mandibular teeth in adults :
a. Auriculo—temporal.
b. Facial.
c. Lingual
d. Eardrum rope.
e. Mylo-hyoidien.

light microscopy.
c. They form an epithelium junction with the surrounding tissue.
d. They form pseudo-parodontal ligament.
96. Angular cheilitis is manifested by fissures at the corner of the mouth. Which of
the following may be a cause of this condition“?
a. Nutritional deficiencies
b. Loss of vertical dimension.
c. Infection by Candida Albicans
d. Slaphilococcal infection
e. All of the above
97. Classical hemophilia is due to deficiency in normal factor VIII which in turn is
due to genetic deficiency that is:
a. Partially dominant.
b. Autosomal dominant.
c. Autosomal recessive.
d. Sex-linked dominant.
e. Sex-linked recessive.
98. Langerhans cells perform what function?

a. Osteoblastic activity.
b .Antigen processing
c. Inhibit salivary secretion
d. Inhibit odontoblastic activity
99. Osteoradioncerosisvis usually associated with:

a. Edentulous patients.
b. The maxilla.
c. Tori.
d. Patients not having a soft liner.
e. Patients having extractions prior to or immediately following radiation.
100. All of the following are used in the fixation of bone graft EXEPT
a. bone plates
b. catgut sutures
c. Biphasic pins
d. titanium mesh
e. transosseous wires
101. Proprioceptors are found in each of the following except
A. gingiva
B. skeletal muscle
C‘. the pulp of a tooth
D. the periodontal ligament
E. the temporomandibular joint
102. Which of the following increase with age in dental pulp?

A. size of the pulp chamber
B. number of collagen fibers
C. calcification within the pulp
D. A + B
E. B + C
103. Zinc is an essential factor in the activation of enzymes in numerous metabolic

pathways. Symptoms of zinc deficiency include:
A. increased appetite
B. growth
C. increased taste activity
D. impaired wound healing
E. all of the above
104. Which of the following nerves innervates the capsule of the temporomandibular
joint?
A. facial
B. buccal
C. maxillary
D. mylohyoid
E. auriculotemporal
105. Trigeminal nerve:
A. is the fifth cranial nerve
B. has three divisions
C. the maxillary nerve is one of these divisions
D. A+B
E. A+B+C
106. Which of the following nerves supplies the motor fibers to the temporalis, lateral
pterygoid and medial pterygoid muscles?
A. the superior division of the trigeminal nerve
B. the intermediate division of the trigeminal nerve
C. the inferior division of the trigeminal nerve facial
D. the temporal branches of the facial nerve
E. the mandibular branches of the facial nerve
107. The maxillary nerve is part of:

A. Pneumogastric
B. The third cranial nerve
C. Facial
D. The fourth cranial nerve
E. Trigeminal
108. A drug that blocks transmission at the neuromuscular junction is:

A. methacholine
B. carbachol
C. nicotine
D. neostigmine
E. curare
109. The removable partial denture frameworks are casted using

A. Silica-bonded investment
B. Phosphate-bonded investment
C. Gypsum investment
D. All of the above
110. Which of the following has the least density?

A. gold
B. dentine
C. enamel
D. amalgam
E. porcelain
111. In comparison to Type 1 gold casting alloys, Type IV gold casting alloys have:
A. an increased percentage of both gold and palladium.
B. a decreased percentage of both gold and palladium
C. an increased percentage of gold but decreased palladium
D. a decreased percentage of gold but increased palladium.
112. The best protective measure that a dentist should take against hepatitis B is :
A. Vaccination
B. Wearing gloves
C. Ethylic alcohol disinfection
D. Wearing glasses
E. Wearing mask
113. Autoclave is the most recommended mean for sterilization because:

a. It utilizes vapor pressure
b. It doesn't lead to instruments corrosion
c. Because of the low temperature used, thermosensitive instrument can be sterilized
d. It sterilize at 180 C for 1 hour
e. It sterilize at 220 C for 1 hour
114. In the case of disc displacement without reduction:

a. when opening, the mandible goes towards the normal side
b. the patient cannot move the mandible towards the non affected side
c. the ratio laterality opening is 1/4.
d. all of the above
115. The treatment of bruxism is:

A. psychotherapy
B. repositioning appliance
C. occlusal equilibration
D. B+C
116. The most common cause of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ) ankylosis is
A. TMJ trauma
B. osteoarthritis
C. childhood illness
D. rheumatoid arthritis
E. eruption of wisdom teeth
117. To which class of "Kennedy" belong the following models

A. class IV
B. class V
C. class II, division 1
D. class III, division 3
E. class I, division 2
118. Choose the type of major connector for each model:

a. Lingual bar
b. Lingual plate
c. Horseshoe plate
d. Full palate plate
e. Ring bar
119. Determine the type of the clasp for model:

A. Ackers
B. Ring clasp
C. T-clasp
D. Back action
E. None of above
120. The thickness of a mid-palatal bar is

A. 1mm
B.1.5mm
C. 0.5 mm
D. 0.3 mm
1. C 21. B 41. B 61. E 81. B 101. C

2. B 22. C 42. B 62. E 82. C 102. E
3. C 23. D 43. D 63. B 83. B 103. D
4. C 24. D 44. E 64. B 84. E 104. E
5. B 25. A 45. A 65. C 85. C 105. E
6. D 26. A 46. C 66. B 86. E 106. C
7. D 27. B 47. B 67. E 87. D 107. E
8. E 28. A 48. B 68. A 88. D 108. E
9. D 29. E 49. B 69. E 89. C 109. A
10. B 30. E 50. A 70. D 90. B 110. B
11. A 31. D 51. B 71. E 91. A 111. D
12. B 32. D 52. E 72. A 92. D 112. A
13. C 33. E 53. E 73. E 93. D 113. A
14. C 34. B 54. A 74. E 94. C 114. B
15. A 35. C 55. E 75. E 95. B 115. E
16. A 36. B 56. E 76. E 96. E 116. A
17. B 37. C 57. E 77. E 97. E 117. C
18. B 38. B 58. B 78. B 98. B 118. B
19. D 39. E 59. A 79. A 99. E 119. E
20. D 40. E 60. A 80. E 100. B 120. E
Test №5
1. The maxillary artery has:

a. 10 branches
b. 11 branches
c. 12 branches
d. l3 branches
e. 14 branches
2. The superior surface of the sublingual lodge is:

a. Muscular l
b. Bony
e. Mucous
d. a+c
3. Before blood transfusion, donor’s serum must be screened for the absence of
a. Anti-HBC
b. Anti-HBs
c. HBc antigen
d. HBs antigen
e. HBc antigen
4. The infrastructure of the soft palate is:

a. Bony-muscular
b. Aponeurosis-muscular
c. Muscular—fibrous
d. Bony—fibrous
5. About local anesthetic when used in pregnant women:
a. The local vasoconstrictor is tolerated since its dose is very low
b. Lidocaine should be avoided because of its teratogen
c. Procainamide should be avoided because of its anti— arrhythmic
d. Bupivacaine is contra—indicated during the first trimester
e. Local vasoconstrictors are forbidden at any stage of pregnancy
6. The hepatitis B vaccine, consists of

a. purified hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
b. recombinant-HBsAg
c. inactivated virus
d. attenuated virus
e. viral DNA
7. Which of the following drugs induce gingival hyperplasia

l. Phenytome
2. Gentamycine
3. Cyclosporine
4. Chloramphenicol
5. Nifédipine
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 1, 2 and 4 are correct'
d. 3,4 and 5 are correct
e. l, 3 and 5 are correct
8. Is considered as subject to risk of general infection anyone:

a. With hepatic impairment
b. With renal impairment
c. With heart failure
d. Treated with high doses of corticosteroids
e. Treated with insulin
9. Anterior occlusal plane should be

a. Parallel to interpapillary line
b. Parallel to camper plane
c. Parallel to franckfort plane
d. Perpendicular to fox plane
10. Increased vertical dimension of occlusion can cause

a. Poor stability of the prostheses
b. Increase of interocclusal space
c. Lowering of commisures of the mouth
d. Wrincles around the lips
e. Trauma of the prosthese bearing tissues
11. Ceramic teeth

a. Have excellent mechanical retention with resin
b. Have excellent chemical retention with resin
c. Minimal masticatory efficiency
d. Easy to polish
e. All of the above
12. The occlusal corrections are done:

a. after removal from the flask
b. Before insertion of the prosthesis
c. After the bearing tissue adaptation
d. In mouth the same day of insertion
e. Non of the above
13. Dental dyschromias of extrinsic origin:
a) are superficial stains of various origins
b) interest the chemical structure of the dental organ
c) can be removed by brushing or careful scaling
d) are genetic defects that cannot be eliminated
e) a, b and c
14. Which of the following morphologic features of a permanent first molar is the
cause of these teeth being restored early?
a. Presence of a fifth cusp
b. Developmental grooves on the buccal and lingual surfaces
c. Deep grooves and fissures
d. Mesial contact area
e. all of the above
15. Pulp vitality tests on a central incisor immediately after the tooth received a
traumatic blow indicate that the tooth is nonvital. The best course of action is to
a) perform an immediate pulpotomy
b) consider the tooth for pulpectomy
c) observe and retest the tooth after two weeks
d) splint the tooth for 6 weeks
e) investigate the cause of nonvitality
16. A maxillary central incisor may be in crossbite because of

a) a maxillary arch length deficiency
b) an unerupted labial supernumerary tooth
c) trauma to the incisor
d) the tooth erupting in a lingual direction
e) any of the above
17. Among these materials, which is the best impression material used in fixed
prostheses:
a) addition silicone
b) condensation silicone
c) polysulfide polymer
d) polyethers
e) a and d
18. The major inconvenient of the wash technique is:

a) Little compressive
b) Too compressive
c) The polymerization by addition
d) Requires custom tray
e) c and d
19. Which of these suggestions is true: for the treatment of the glass-ceramic, we use:
a- phosphoric acid 9% then silane
b. silane then phosphoric acid 9%
c. silane then hydrofluoric acid 9%
d. hydrofluoric acid 9% then silane
e. a and d
20. After surgical extraction of impacted lower third molar, the patient revealed a
sign of hypoesthesia on the lower lip, noting that there was no evidence of direct
trauma during the procedure this might be due to:
a. chemical trauma of anesthetic solution such as articaine
b. postoperative edema
c. lesion called axonotmesis
d. a+b
e. all of the above
21. After mandibular bloc, the blockage of mylohyoid nerve is indicated:

a. When we have slight lingual and mental paresthesia
b. When we have slight lingual paresthesia
c. When we have paresthesia of the corner of the mouth
d. All of the above
22. Which of the following tests, is necessary to monitor treatment with heparin:
a. Prothrombin
b. activated partial thromboplastin time PTT
c. Platelet count
d. Fibrinogen
e. Time Ivy
23. After regional block, the limitation of mouth opening:

a. May be due to a trauma in buccal muscle
b. May be due to hematoma in muscular fibers
c. Always treated with Antibiotics
d. Mainly seen in infra orbital bloc
24. Estimate the dental age of a child presenting his temporary incisors, canines and
molars as well as his permanent mandibular incisors and first molars.
a. between 2 and 4 years
b. between 5 and 7 years
c. between 8 and 9 years
d. between 10 and 11 years
e. more than 12 years.
25. When a permanent tooth emerges in the mouth, the amount of root structure most
likely to have developed is:
a. root initiated to 1/4
b. b-1/4 -1/2
c. 1/2 to 3/4
d. the root is complete
e. the apex is closed
26. Maxillary growth occurs

a. downward and backward
b. downward and forward
c. forward only
d. downward only
e. backward only
27. Transverse mandibular growth after 2 years, occurs relying on

a. symphysal suture
b. condylar suture
c. divergent mandibular form
d. cartilaginous cores
28.A deciduous first primary molar with a chronic apical infection exhibits severe
loss of supporting bone. The treatment of choice is to
a. administer antibiotics and analgesics to treat the infection
b. allow the tooth to remain in place as long as possible, so that space is maintained
c. extract the tooth to prevent damage to the underlying permanent tooth
d. perform an apicoectomy on the tooth
e. all of the above
29. The first primary teeth to erupt into the oral cavity are the
a. maxillary central incisors
b. mandibular first molars
c. maxillary first molars
d. mandibular central incisors
30. A mandibular lingual holding arch is used in children for

a. correction of rotations
b. regaining space
c. space maintenance only
d. correction of distally tilted molars
e. all of the above
31. How much fluoride supplement should be provided to a 1 year old child (in a day)
where level of water fluoride is 0.02 ppm ?
a. 0.25 mg
b. 0.50 mg
c. 1 mg
d. 2mg
e. 0.75 mg
32. Hepatitis B vaccine for dentist and dental personal:

a. Is obligatory
b. Is optional
c. Consist in a single intra-muscular injection
d. is contra-indicated because its rote in multiple sclerosis
e. One injection guarantee protection for life
33. Which of the following are effective antidotes for accidental fluoride poisoning:
a. Milk
b. Lime water
c. Preparations containing large amounts of magnesium
d. a+b
e. a+b+c
34. What is the recommended regimen for 0.2% NaF mouthrinses:

a. Once daily rinsing
b. Twice daily rinsing
c. Once weekly rinsing
d. Once monthly rinsing
e. twice weekly rinsing
35. Primary preventive treatment in dental clinic are

a. Scaling
b. Pit and fissure sealant
c. Composites fillings
d. Fluoride gel application
e. a+b+d
36. Dry heat sterilization in dental clinic:

a. is the most recommended
b. Is indicated for the sterilization of all dental instruments
c. Sterilize at 134°C
d. Sterilization cycle is long > 60’
e. All the above
37. Endodontic instruments sterilization cycle :

a. Glutaraldehyde solution before sterilization
b. Ultrasonic bath
c. Should be packed instruments then sterilized by steam sterilizer
d. Dry heat sterilizer is the most recommended
38. The mucostatic impression of total prosthesis:

a. Uses the plaster as material of impression
b. Is not indicated for the floating crests
c. is indicated for the resorbed crests
d. Is an anatomo-functional impression
e. None the answers
39. The following materials are used in primary impression:

a. Plaster and alginate
b. Thermoplastic paste
c. Polyether
d. Polysulfide
e. (a + b)
40. In complete dentures the fronto-posterior curves allow

a) Balanced occlusion during lateral movements
b) Balanced occlusion during protrusive movements
c) Correct phonation of F and V sounds
d) Posterior clearance when in edge to edge anterior occlusion
e) All of the above
41. Increased vertical dimension of occlusion can cause

a) Angular chelitis
b) Increase of interocclusal space
c) Lowering of commisures of the mouth
d) Wrincles around the lips
6) Difficulty in diglutation
42. Tongue biting is due to

a.) Absence of overlap between the buccal cusps
b. Small space between the upper and lower dentures at the retromolar areas and the
maxillary tuberosity
c. Increased VDO
d. Lowered occlusal plane
e. All of the above
43. In an inflammatory gingival lesion, one would expect to find

a. a decreased amount of exudate
b. large amounts of C-reactive proteins
c. increased vascular permeability
d. decreased vascular permeability
e. both (a) and (d)
44. Mouth Breathing favors the progression of periodontal disease due to .

a. it increases the oxygen levels in the oral cavity
b. leads to increase salivary flow
c. favors plaque accumulation
d. It promotes the passage of a larger number of bacteria
e. all of the above
45. Orthodontic treatment

a. is accompanied by reversible osseous destruction
b. favors vertical food impaction
c. Promotes the triggering of a reversible immune reaction
d. Promotes the growth of anaerobic bacteria
e. non of the above
46. Describing the advantage of the flap of apical repositioning, which statement is
correct :
b. Bone defects are exposed to change
c. Repositioning of muscular attaches.
d. Creation of an area of attached gingiva.
47. The primary cause of periodontal disease is due to:

a. A systemic disease.
b. Vitamins deficiency.
c. Dental plaque.
d. Mouth breathing.
e. Direct trauma.
48. Metronidazole is effective in the treatment of :

a. Acute ulcero—necrotic gingivitis.
b. Chronic gingivitis.
c. Periodontal abscess.
d. Pemphigus vulgaris.
e. Allergical stomatitis.
49. In a conventional gingivectomy, what statement is correct :

a. Eliminates infra bone defects.
b: Eliminates false pockets.
c. Preserves the width of attached gingiva.
d. Provides access to the alveolar bone.
e. Is indicated for acute gingival disease case.
50. The flap of lateral repositioning is indicated for:
a. Creating a large area of attached gingiva.
b. Recovering the exposed root surface.
c. Replacing the gingival graft.
d. Replacing gingivectomy.
e. Deepening the vestibule.
51. The modified Widman flap is indicated:

a. To expose the root surface for meticulous instruments.
b. To irradicate the pseudo-pockets.
c. To decrease the depth of the pockets.
d. To deepen the vestibule.
e. To avoid massive gingival recessions.
52. Which of the following drugs is the main cause of dry mouth :
a. Steroides.
b. Antiacides,
c. Antihistamines.
d. Antibiotics.
e. Analgesics.
53. Which of the following is the main character that helps in distinguishing between
pemphigus vulgaris and pemphigoide :
a. Volume of ulceration.
b. Age and sex of the patient.
c. Quantity of hyperkeratose.
d. The histology of the lesion indicating its localization.
e. Presence of intact vesicules.
54. In diabetes mellitus, which of the following is correct :
a. There is no sign for specific pathognomonic of the oral manifestations.
b. There is a specific acute gingivitis.
c. There is oral candidosis.
d. There is an increase in mucosal peeling.
e. There is an increase of aphtous ulcer.
55. Excessive salivation occurs in :

a. Hand foot mouth disease.
b. Herpangina.
c. Diabetes mellitus.
d. Allergical stomatitis.
e Primary hepatic gingivostomatitis.
56. Minor aphthous ulcer presents as :

a. A bundle on non keratinized mucosa.
b. Isolated ulcers on non keratinized mucosa.
c. Isolated ulcers on keratinized mucosa.
d. A bundle of vesicles on the tongue.
57. In orofacial pathology, ultrasound is used for salivary gland examination because:
a. They are superficial.
b. They are filled with water.
c. They absorb the ultrasounds.
d. They are soft tissues.
58. Maxillary sinusitis may results from :

a. Perforation 0f the sinus floor following an extraction.
b. An infection of the upper respiratory tract.
c. Acute periapical abscess
d. An allergy.
e. All the above.
59. Immediate or early overload on an implant unit depends :

a. On the length of the implant.
b. On the surface of the implant.
c. On the mark of the implant.
d. On the primary stability of the implant.
e. On the diameter of the implant.
d. A biochemical link between titanium oxide and the bone.
61. A molar was extracted, and a mass of soft tissue was attached on the root. On
microscopic examination, this tissue was composed of a fairly dense fibrous tissue
with many lymphocytes, plasma cells and capillaries. The likely diagnosis is :
a. Fibroma.
b. Hemangioma.
c. Root cyst.
d. Dental granuloma.
e. Fibrous scar defect,(scar).
62. Prosthetic hyperplasia of the oral mucosa:

a. Is a premalignant lesion in 78% of cases.
b. Is not associated with a chronic irritation.
c. Should be excised and biopsied.
d. Is never a malignant lesion.
63. The discision of avulsion of teeth before radiotherapy is based on the presence
of :
a. Ravaging of caries.
b. Periodontal diseases.
c. Absence of teeth antagonists.
d. Total or partial inclusion.
64. A single dose of 15 grams of paracetmol can be fatal for the following reason :
a. Arterial hypertension.
b. Arterial hypotension.
c. Hypoxia.
d. Hepatotoxicity.
e. Hypersensitivity.
a. Residual maxillary cyst.
b. Periodontal cyst
c. Cyst of dental origin.
d. Keratcyste Odontogenic.
e. Ameloblastic fibroma.
66. Among the following nerves, which one of the following provides the secondary
(additional) innervation of the permanent mandibular teeth in adults :
a. Auriculo-temporal.
b. Facial.
c. Lingual.
d. Eardrum rope.
e. Mylo-hyoidien.

light microscopy.
c. They form an epithelium junction with the surrounding tissue.
d. They form pseudo-parodontal ligament
68. Lichen planus is a disease that occurs:

a. Most frequently in people under tension (stress)
b. In debilated individuals.
c. Only on mucous membranes
d. in people with vitamin deficiencies.
e. In alcoholics
69. Classical hemophilia is due to deficiency in normal factor VIII which in turn is
due to genetic deficiency that is :
a. Partially dominant.
b. Autosomal dominant.
c. Autosomal recessive.
d. Sex-linked dominant.
e. Sex-linked recessive.
70. A patient suffers from cardiopathy with risk, dental extractions must be
completed under antibiotic prophylaxis. What is the antibiotic of choice?:
a. Penicillin
b. Tetracycline.
c. Streptomycine.
d. Gentamycine.
e. Penicillin group A or macrolide
71.In implantology the prosthetic analysis consists of:

a. Mounting on articulator.
b. Installation of commercial teeth or " set-up"
c. A diagnostic wax-up.
d. An occlusal analysis.
e. All the above.
72. Cementation of implanted prosthesis should be done with a cement:

a. Resin.
b. Oxyphosphate.
c. Temporary cement (Temp Bond).
d. Glass ionomer.
73. For positioning Hexagon pillars on intended implants to obtain cemented

prosthesis, we should:
a. Use a Duralay guide for positioning.
b. Trying 6 different positions for each pillar.
c. Make a radiography to determine in which position to put the pillar.
d. Request the aid of the technician to find the correct position.
74. The placement of cervical limits in sub-gingival is advisable:

a. To put the prosthetic joint free from microbial agents.
b. For anterior aesthetic reasons.
c. To support the marginal gingiva and muscular tissue tone.
d. a + b.
e. a + b + c.
75. At the level of a bridge screwed to implants:

a. Screws are visible at the level of the occlusal sides.
b. The screws are invisible hidden by ceramic restorations.
c. The access to the screws shall be sealed with composite.
d. The access to the screws shall be sealed with cement.
76. The metal of ceramo-metall crown must have a thermal coefficient expansion:
a. Higher than the ceramic.
b. Equal to that of ceramic.
c. Lower than the ceramic,
d. Has no importance,
77. A very thick ceramic of 2.5mm:

a) is subjected to fracture.
b) Is very resistant.
c) Is like ceramic thickness 1.2mm.
d) Is more aesthetic
78. The minimum thickness of the impression material is:

a. 0.2 — 3 mm.
b. 1—2 mm.
c. 0.6-0.8 mm.
d. 0.8 — 1 mm.
e. 2—3mm.
79. Onlays are prosthesis that restore :

a. One or more cusps.
b. All of the coronal part of the tooth.
c. Cavity type class II or III.
d. The root part of the tooth.
80. The thickness of prosthetic reduction by occlusion is:

a. 0.5 mm
b. 1 mm
c. 1.5 mm
d. 2 mm
e. 0.8 mm
81. The thickness of the metal that supports the porcelain can be reduced up to
without affecting the future crown :
a. 0.1 mm
b. 0.3 mm
c. 0.5 mm
d. 0.7 mm
e. 1.0 mm
82. To achieve a welding it is better to cut :

a. Vertically in the pontic.
b. Diagonally in the pontic.
c. At the level of the mesial connector.
d. At the level of the distal pillar.
e. All of the above
83. During the preparation of root canal for an inlay core, it is necessary to leave ......
mm gutta-percha at the apex:
a. 3 mm
b. 5 mm
c. 8 mm
d. 10 mm
e. Is not necessary to leave gutta-percha at the apex.
84. The use of screw posts should be avoided because :

a. They are not popular.
b. They are not retentive.
c. They treat a huge amount of stress throughout the post.
d. They are easy to use.
85. The V.D.O. decrease may be due to:

a. The extractions with loss of posterior altimeter.
b. Loss of anterior teeth.
c. Abrasion at the level of the anterior teeth.
d. Loss of unilateral altimeter.
86. The resultant force of masticatory muscles is :

a. Vertical.
b. Horizontal.
c. Mesial.
d. Distal.
87. The temporlis muscle has a role in:

a. Elevating.
b. opening.
c. Protraction.
d. Laterality.
88. In class 2 div 1, the anterior guide is:

a. Functional.
b. Not functional.
c. Dysfunctional.
d. Physiological.
89. Anterior teeth are most likely to be fractured in children with which of the
following mixed dentition malocclusions?
a. Class I
b. Class II, Division 1
cc. Class II, Division 2
d. Class III
90. The flush terminal plane relationship of the second primary molars is considered:
a. abnormal
b. abnormal only under specific circumstances
c. normal
d. normal only under specific circumstances
91. The following does not represent the types of dental movements:
a. version
b. moving mass
c. extrusion
d. maxillary impaction
e. all of the above
92. When should children be examined for possible orthodontic problems?

a. At age 3 years
b. At age 6 years
c. Whenever they are in any dental office
d. At age of 12 years
e. At age of 14years
93. Leeway is:

a. the space between the deciduous incisors
b. the space between the maxillary and mandibular teeth
c. the difference between the width of the posterior primary teeth and the premolars
of replacement
d. the space between the permanent incisors
94. A patient has sustained bilateral dislocated fractures of the necks of the
mandibular condyles. There are no other injuries. Clinical signs include
a. Anterior open bite
b. Anesthesia of the mental nerve
c. Inability to protrude the mandible
d. Inability to bring posterior molars into contact
e. A + C
95. A patient is experiencing a throbbing pain in a specific tooth. This pain is
aggravated by heat and relieved by cold. The tooth is sensitive to percussion. The
most likely diagnosis is :
a. Occlusal trauma
b. Periodontal abscess
c. Irreversible pulpitis
d. Hypermia of the pulp
e. B + D
96. Strip perforation is common in:

a. Outer curve of the root
b. Inner curve of the root
c. Apical one third
d. Lingual shoulder area
e. At the furcation area
97. Over-obturation is:

a. Poorly filled canals beyond the root apex
b. Poorly filled canals less than working length
c. Extension of the obturation materials beyond the level of orifices
d. Always asymptomatic
e. Has acceptable prognosis
98. An asymptomatic, healthy tooth revealed definite radiographic evidence of

internal resorption in the tooth the treatment of choice is
a. Pulp capping
b. Observation
c. Extraction
d. Extirpation of the pulp
99. Which of the following criterion is not considered a predictor of success or

failure?
a. Apical periodontitis
b. Quality of coronal restoration
c. The patient's medical history
d. Extent and quality of obturationl
100. Enterococcus Faecalis is the major species that is predominately found in:
a. Primary infection.
b. Secondary infection.
c. Persistent infection.
d. Periodontal infection.
e. All of the above
101. Thermal sensibility testing :

a. Measure the neural response to an insult
b. Measure the blood supply of tooth
c. Accurate to evaluate the degree of root maturation
d. Accurate for post-traumatic vitality follow up
102. Post-obturation emergency management of cases diagnosed to have poor

obturation:
a. Patient assurance, prescribe analgesics
b. Patient assurance , relief occlusion
c. Patient assurance, retreatment
d. Patient assurance, incision and drainage
103.Localization of the dental pain source is a challenge in case of:

a. Acute irreversible pulpitis
b. Acute apical periodontitis
c. Acute reversible pulpitis associated with apical periodontitis
d. Acute irreversible pulpitis associated with apical periodontitis
e. All of the above
104. Endodontic case selection mainly based on:

a. Periodontal status of the tooth
b. Restorative status of the tooth
c. Status of the pulp tissue
e. All of the above
105. Objectives of root canal obturation include all of the following except:
a. Prevent coronal leakage of bacteria.
b. Entombing remaining bacteria.
c. Create a favorable environment for periradicular tissue healing
d. Allow the influx of apical tissue-derived fluids
e. All of the above
106. a-phase of gutta-percha core material is:

a. Mostly used in thermally softened obturation techniques
b. Mostly used in chemically softened obturation techniques
c. Mostly used in cold lateral obturation techniques
d. Mostly used in custom made gutta-percha cone technique
e. Not used in any obturation technique
107. Which of the following is cold lateral obturation technique modification for
teeth with wide apical foramina
a. Apexification
b. Chloro-percha
c. Inverted cone technique
d. Obtura II
108. The following materials can be used as apical barriers in cases with immature
apex to prevent extrusion of obturation materials except:
a. Gutta—percha
b. MTA
c. Dentin chips
d. Tricalcium phosphate
e. BioDentine
109. Management of necrotic teeth with immature open apices enhancing their
closure with increased wall thickness is:
a. Apexification
b. Immediate MTA barrier
c. Revascularizatlon
d. Pulpotomy
110. Triple antibiotic paste intra-canal medication contains:

a. Calcium hydroxide, Ciprofloxacin, and Minocycline
b. Metronidazole, Ciprofloxacin, and Minocycline
c. Penicillin, Ciprofloxacin , and Streptomycin
d. Calcium hydroxide, Penicillin, and Metronidazole
111. Function of intra-canal medication is:
a. Disinfect the root canal system
b. Reduce the number of microorganisms, prevent further growth
c. Prevention, control of post treatment pain
e. All of the above
112. The most common preoperative cause of endodontic treatment failure includes
all of the following except:
a. Misdiagnosis.
b. Poor case selection.
c. Leaking coronal restoration.
d. Error in treatment planning.
113. A cement characterized by being highly irritating to the pulp:

a. Glass Ionomer Cement
b. Zinc oxide eugenol
c. Zinc polycarboxylate
d. Zinc phosphate
114. Resin cements are based on which of the following polymers:

a. Polytetrafluoroethylene
b. Bis GMA
c. Polyethylene
d. Polypropylene
e. All of the above
115. A cement characterized by high molecular weight of its liquid component is :
a. Zinc polyacrylate
b. Zinc polycarboxylate
c. Glass Ionomer cement
e. All of the above
116. An amalgam with superior mechanical properties is:

a. High copper amalgam
b. Low zinc amalgam
c. Low copper amalgam
d. High zinc amalgam
117. Weakest and most liable to creep phase of dental amalgam:

a. Gamma (Ag2Sn3)
b. Gamma 1 (Ag2Hg3)
c. Gamma 2 (Sn8Hg)
d. Eta phase (Cu6Sn5)
118. Common etchant used is:

a. 20% polyalkanoic acid
b. 37% hydrofluoric acid
c. 37% phosphoric acid
d. 20% hydrochloric acid
119. Hybrid layer is formed after:

a. Finalizing bonding procedure
b. Light curing the composite
c. Cutting dentine with a bur
d. Etching
120. ZrO2 ceramic used in dentistry is:

a. Zirconia
b. Zirconium
c. Zircon
d. Zirconiate
1. E 21. E 41. E 61. C 81. B 101. A

2. C 22. B 42. A 62. C 82. B 102. C
3. D 23. B 43. C 63. E 83. B 103. A
4. E 24. B 44. C 64. D 84. C 104. E
5. A 25. C 45. A 65. D 85. A 105. D
6. B 26. B 46. E 66. C 86. C 106. A
7. E 27. C 47. C 67. B 87. A 107. C
8. D 28. A 48. A 68. A 88. B 108. A
9. A 29. D 49. B 69. E 89. B 109. C
10. E 30. C 50. B 70. E 90. C 110. B
11. A 31. A 51. A 71. E 91. D 111. E
12. D 32. A 52. C 72. C 92. B 112. C
13. A 33. E 53. D 73. A 93. C 113. D
14. C 34. C 54. D 74. B 94. E 114. B
15. E 35. E 55. C 75. A 95. C 115. E
16. E 36. D 56. B 76. A 96. B 116. A
17. B 37. C 57. B 77. A 97. A 117. C
18. B 38. A 58. E 78. A 98. D 118. C
19. D 39. A 59. D 79. A 99. C 119. A
20. D 40. A 60. D 80. C 100. C 120. A
Test №6

d. Using a record of the OIM

b. Visualization of the gingival margin
d. Opening the sulcus
3. All endodontically treated teeth

a. Should be crowned
b. Should be reconstituted using a post and core
c. Should be reconstituted with a composite if possible
d. a and b are correct
4. The role of the post and core is

a. Protect the remaining tooth structure
b. Replace missing tooth structure
c. Strengthen the root
d. Strengthen the whole tooth
5. The ideal crown root ratio:
a. 1/1
b. 1/2
c. 1/3
d. 2/3
e. 3/4
6. In ceramo-metallic crowns, the fracture of the felds pathic ceramic is caused by:
a. Porosities
b. Surface cracks
c. Impurities in the ceramic
d. Weak bond between the metal and the ceramic
7. The dentine opaque is used:

a) To strengthen the ceramic
b) To hide the metal
c) To strengthen the metal
d) a and c are correct
8. What is the chief advantage of the porcelain jacket crown over the porcelain metal
crown?
a. it is generally more aesthetic
b. it is less expensive
c. it is easier to adjust and repolish
d. it is usually achieves better marginal fit
9. The setting time of zinc phosphate cement can be

a. increasing the ratio of powder to liquid
b. diluting the liquid with a small amount of water
c. accelerating the rate of addition of powder to liquid
d. decreasing the rate of addition of powder to liquid
e. A+B
10. The faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of a hygienic pontic is

primarily
determined by the
a. length of the pontic
b. masticatory force of the patient
c. width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge
d. faciolingual position of opposing centric holding contact areas
11. Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs

a. on closing from centric relation
b. on initial opening from centric relation
c. in the upper compartment of the temporomandibular joint
d. in the lower compartment of the temporomandibular joint
12. Lichen planus is a disease which occurs

a. more frequently in persons under emotional stress
b. in debilitated individuals
c. only on mucous membranes
d. in persons with vitamin deficiencies
e. in alcoholics
13. Jaundice is characteristic of all of the following conditions EXCEPT

a. aplastic anemia
b. liver cell damage
c. excessive hemolysis
d. bile duct obstruction
e. carcinoma of the head of the pancreas
14. Classic hemophilia is due to a deficiency of normal Factor VIII which in turn is
due to a genetic deficiency that is
a. partially dominant
b. autosomal dominant
c. autosomal recessive
d. sex-linked dominant
e. sex-linked recessive
a. anterior open bite
b. anesthesia of the mental nerve
c. inability to protrude the mandible
d. inability to bring posterior molars into contact
e. A+C
16. Corticosteroids may be used to treat

a. asthma
b. arthritis
c. allergies
d. all of the above
e. A+ B only
17. One of the first sensations usually lost after administration of a local anesthetic is
a. pain
b. touch
c. pressure
d. proprioception
18. Which of the following drugs act(s) as antisialogogues?

a. codeine
b. atropine
c. acetylsalicylic acid
d. all of the above
19. Discernable movement of a tooth usually indicates

a. A chronic pulpal disease
b. normal response to external pressures
c. a need for periodontal treatment
d. inflammation of the periodontal ligament
e. all of the above
20. The appearance of a rash, itching, bronchoconstriction and fever some time after
the administration of a drug is most likely the result of
a. allergy
b. tolerance
c. idiosyncrasy
d. teratogenicity
e. cumulative effects
21. If the pH of an area is lower than normal body pH, the membrane theory of local
anesthetic action predicts that the local anesthetic activity would be
a. greater, owing to an increase in the free-base form of the drug
b. greater, owing to an increase in the cationic form of the drug
c. less, owing to an increase in the free-base form of the drug
d. less, owing to a decrease in the free-base form of the drug
22. 10-year-old girl with clinically normal occlusion reports for examination
immediately after losing a primary mandibular second molar. The dentist should
a. keep the patient under observation
b. place a lingual arch space maintainer
c. place a functional space maintainer
d. place a removable partial denture
e. base his choice of treatment upon radiographic findings
23. Cephalometrics is used in orthodontics to

a. treat malocclusions
b. study growth changes
c. aid in diagnosis and case analysis
d. only A+ B above
e. only B + C above
24. Dental arch form is ultimately determined by

a. skeletal growth pattern
b. classification of malocclusion
c. facial type coupled with body type
d. the functional relationship of posterior teeth
e. interaction of environmental influences on the genetic pattern
25. The most common cause of class I malocclusion is

a. mandibular incisor crowding
b. lack of sufficient tooth material
c. uncoordinated growth of the arches
d. discrepancy between tooth size and supporting bone
26. Excision of a maxillary frenum in the area of a midline diastema is indicated

when
a. a bony cleft is seen in a radiograph
b. space between central incisors persists to age 10
c. maxillary central incisors erupt with spacing
d. maxillary central and lateral incisors erupt with spacing
27. The best time to correct a maxillary central incisor crossbite is

a. after permanent canines erupt
b. after permanent central incisors erupt
c. after permanent lateral incisors erupt
d. during the eruptive stage of central incisors
e. at 18-year-old
28. The chronology age of a child is

a. closely related to his dental age
b. closely related to physiologic age
c. often independent of dental and skeletal ages
d. usually an accurate index of maturation
e. A+B
29. A patient, age ten, has lost a maxillary permanent central incisor. The correct
treatment is to
a. Observe
b. construct a suitable space maintainer immediately
c. delay treatment until a fixed bridge can be constructed
d. allow complete healing (at least two months) before constructing a replacement
e. A+D
30. Which of the following is the preferred procedure to anesthetize primary

mandibular molars for restorative procedures?
a. mental nerve block
b. inferior alveolar nerve block
c. infiltration around the teeth and the mental foramen
d. buccal and lingual infiltration around the teeth
e. None of the above. No anesthesia is necessary for primary molars
31. Treatment of choice for traumatic intrusion of a primary tooth includes

a. taking radiographs
b. repositioning the tooth
c. splinting the tooth
d. appointing the patient for recall in one month
e. A+D
32. The most common site of bone destruction with a pathologically involved
primary molar is
a. at the apex of the root
b. in the lateral root area
c. A + B
d. in the periodontal space
e. in the bifurcation area
33. Which of the following medicaments is indicated to obturate the canals of a

primary tooth in which a pulpectomy was performed?
a. gutta—percha
b. calcium hydroxide
c. zinc oxide-eugenol
d. calcium hydroxide-C.M.C.P. paste
e. bakelite paste with gutta-percha
34. A child fractured a permanent maxillary central incisor 15 minutes ago.

Examination of the tooth reveals a very small
a. formocresol pulpotomy
b. pulpectomy and root canal
c. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
d. direct pulp capping with calcium hydroxide
e. direct pulp capping with zinc oxide-eugenol
35. Surgical immediate dentures is used for

a. Superior protrusion
b. Severe labial undercuts
c. Angle class II arch relation
d. a and b.
36. The lateral pterygoid muscle

a. Is attached to the coronoid process and elevates the mandible.
b. Is attached to the condylar process and elevates the mandible.
c. Is attached to the coronoid process and protrudes the mandible.
d. Is attached to the condylar process and protrudes the mandible.
37. A removable partial denture is preferable to a fixed bridge when the

a. Abutment teeth are tipped.
b. Abutment teeth have large undercuts.
c. Abutment teeth are rotated.
d. Residual ridges are severely resorbed.
e. All of the above
38. The occlusal rest should be placed on the lingual surface lingual surface of a
canine rather than on the incisal surface incisal partial surface in removable partial
denture because
a. Less leverage is exerted against the tooth by the rest.
b. The enamel is thicker on the lingual surface.
c. Visibility and access are better.
d. The cingulum of the canine provides a natural recess.
39. Removable partial denture rest should

a. Be extended for retention
b. Increase retention of the partial denture.
c. Direct forces parallel to the long axis of the abutment.
d. Be located on a centric contact.
40. Mouth preparation must be accomplished

a. Before primary impression .
b. Before final impression.
c. Before surveying diagnostic caste
d. After final impression.
41. The rest seat must be prepared

a. After guiding planes have been established on abutment teeth
b. Before guiding planes have been established on abutment teeth.
c. Before surveying diagnostic casts.
d. Any time after drawing the survey line.
42. Knife edge edentulous ridge is:

a. Usually seen in mandibular arch.
b. Should not be relieved.
c. Present a favourable prognosis
d. Supported by firm keratinised mucosa
e. Always present in maxillary arch.
43. Overlay or occlusal onlays used in RPD are indicated in ease of:
a. Tipped teeth.
b. Supra erupted teeth.
c. Lack of retentive undercuts.
d. Discolored teeth
44. The anterior lingual sulcus is properly recorded by asking patient

a. To protrude the tongues
b. To elevate the tongue and put it posteriorly to touch palate.
c. To put tongue in the floor of the mouth.
d. To swallow.
45. During centric relation recording the patient is asked to:

a. Say “M” and relax.
b. Pronounce the letter “S”.
c. Protrude his tongue.
d. Retrude his tongue backward.
e. Say "F".
46. During recording the jaw relations for complete denture:

a) The vertical dimension should be recorded before centric relation.
b) The centric relation should be recorded before the vertical dimension.
c) Makes no difference which relation before the other.
d) According to operator preference.
47. At try in stage of complete denture construction, when differences exist between
the occlusion in the articulator and occlusion in the mouth, it becomes necessary to:
a) Process the denture directly
b) Make new centric relation record and remounting
c) Make laboratory remounting
d) Rearrange the anterior teeth,
48. In complete denture cramped tongue may be clue to:

a) Posterior teeth set lingually to the neutral zone.
b) Posterior teeth tilted lingually.
c) Too broad buccolingual dimension of posterior teeth.
d) All of above.
49. A patient wearing a complete denture is suffering from inability to eat anything.
The problem may be due to :
a) Instability.
b) Too narrow occlusal table.
c) decreased vertical dimension,
d) Increased vertical dimension
e) All of the above
50. Increased vertical dimension will lead to all of the following except:
a) Pain.
b) Inefficiency.
c) Angular cheilitis.
d) Teeth clattering
e) All of the above
51. All of the following are advantages of artificial anatomic teeth except:
a) Esthetically acceptable.
b) More horizontal forces during function.
c) They can be arranged in balanced occlusion.
d) More efficient in cutting of food.
52. Mandibular overdentures are used to :

a) Increase the strength of the denture
b) Preserve the alveolar ridge morphology;
c) Improve periodontal health of abutment teeth.
d) Due to decrease costs.
e) All of the above.
53. During complete denture fabrication, the angulation of the horizontal guidance
plane of the articulator is determined by the
a) cuspal inclination of the teeth selected.
b) orientation of the occlusal plane.
c) incisal guidance.
d) centric relation interocclusal record.
e) protrusive interocclusal records
54. Indirect retention is not required for a removable partial denture which has
a) a unilateral distal extension base.
b) bilateral distal extension bases,
c) complete tooth support.
d) an anterior extension base.
55. For a patient with a complete denture, insufficient space between the maxillary
tuberosity and retromolar pad will require
a) avoiding covering the retromolar pad with the mandibular base
b) not covering the tuberosity with the maxillary base.
c) surgically reducing the retromolar pad.
d) surgically reducing the maxillary tuberosity.
56. In removable partial denture, the major connectors should begin 3- 6 mm from
the
gingival margin in order to
a) improve phonetics.
b) allow sufficient length for the minor connectors
c) prevent inflammation of the gingival tissues.
d) prevent rotation in an anteroposterior direction of the major connector
e) All of the above
57. The flexibility of the retentive clasp is affected by the

a) placement of the bracing arm.
b) Length of the arm.
c) position on the abutment tooth
d) location 0fthe occlusal rest.
58. Maxillary single denture opposing a full complement of natural teeth is more
often associated with
a) a- less denture tooth wear.
b) greater incidence of denture fracture.
c) improved retention of the denture.
d) improved stability of the denture.
e) improved appearance of the denture
59. Which of the following impression materials will distort the least when stored for
24 hours before pouring?
a) A silicone impression.
b) A polyether impression.
c) A compound copper band impression.
d) Reversible hydrocolloid in a humidor.
e) An alginate impression.
60. At the palate, in the 3rd molar region is located:

a) the anterior palatine canal foramen.
b. The greater palatine nerve.
c) The inferior palatine nerve.
d) The sphenopalatine artery.
61. In the construction of complete dentures, all of the following are determined by
the dentist except the:
a) Height of the cusps.
b) Incisal guidance.
c) Compensating curve
d) Condylar inclination.
e) Orientation planet
62. The most likely reason for fracture of a maxillary complete denture along the
midline is :
a) Alveolar resorption.
b) Porosity of the denture base material.
c) Over-relief of the incisive papilla.
d) Inadequate extension of the posterior palatal seal.
63. The setting time of zinc oxide euginol impression material can be accelerated by
the addition of a small amount of:
a) Water.
b) Glycerin
c) Petroleum.
d) Plaster of paris
64. Which of the following muscle of mastication protract the mandible forward and
downward?
a) Masseter
b) Medial pterygoid.
c) Lateral pterygoid.
d) Temporalis.
65. The infraorbital nerve

a) Is a terminal branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.
b) Is a terminal branch of the maxillary branch of the facial nerve.
c) Carries parasympathetic secretomotor neurons to the lacrimal gland.
d) Innervates the inferior part of the orbicularis oculi muscle.
66. The sensory and taste sensation of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is supplied by:
a) Hypoglossal nerve (XII).
b) Facial nerve (VII).
c) Mandibular nerve (trigeminal V).
d) Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX).
e) Vagus nerve (X).
67. The treatment of jaw pain and dysfunction should be based upon :
a) Correct differential diagnosis.
b) The relative urgency of the presenting symptoms.
c) Being directed toward eliminating the cause of the symptoms
d) All of the above.
68. Hemorragia during the root canal treatment is caused

a. by passing the instrument over the apex
b. wrong canal pathway
c. vasodilatation of arterioles
d. a + b
e. b + c
69. Root canal irrigation with sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl) is necessary

a. to assure lubrication for instruments
b. to prevent the compaction of smear layer
c. to increase dissolution of organic tissues and substances
d. to destroy endodontic germs
e. all of the above
70. Pain of short duration due to heat and cold suggests

a. chronic pulpitis
b. pulp necrosis
c. hyperemie pulp
d. gangrene of pulp
71. Anatomic complications requiring apical surgery include

a. asymptomatic calcified teeth with no evidence of periapical pathosis
b. a well filled dilacerated root canal
c. obturated canals with extensive root resorption showing evidence of healing
d. fenestrated roots of endodontically treated teeth with lingering symptoms
e. a well filled very curved root canal.
72. An inflamed pulp responds to the electric pulp tester

a. later than normal pulp
b. earlier than normal pulp
c. the same as the normal pulp
d. fails to respond at all
73. The mandibular first molar exhibits the greatest curvature in the
a. mesiobuccai canal
b. mesiolinguai canal
c. distobuccal canal
d. distolingual canal
e. a + d
74. In the absence of a root canal treatment, which of the following lesions causes a
short-term periapical complication?
b. Pulp hyperemia
c. Acute suppurative pulpitis
d. Chronic pulpitis
e. Pulpal calcification
75. In periapical surgery, which of the following flap designs limits access to
operative site and often heals with scar formation?
a. Envelope
b. semilunar
c. Triangular
d. Rectangular
e. Trapezoidal
76. Internal resorption is detected in a vital asymptomatic tooth. The treatment of

choice is to:
a. extract the tooth
b. perform a pulpotomy
c. keep the tooth under observation
d. remove the pulp and proceed with endodontic treatment at this time
e. prescribe fluorine tablets
77. The most efficient material for retrofilling is :

a. M.T.A.
b. gold foil
c. Gutta-Percha
d. zinc- oxide eugenol mixture
e. calcium hydroxide mixture
78. Endodontic failure can be attributed to:

a. an inadequate cleaning and shaping.
b. an inadequate obturation
c. a re-infection
d. a+b
e. all of the above
79. Gutta—Percha may be softened or dissolved within the canal by using :

a. alcohol
b. chloroform
c. eucalyptol
d. a+b
e. b+c
80. The efficacy of the solvent is attributed to:

a. contact surface of the solvent with the root canal filling
b. contact time
c. concentration of solvent
d. a+b
e. all of the above.
81. The most common curvature of the palatal root of the maxillary first molar is to
be:
a. facial
b. mesial
c. distal
d. palatal
82. Endodontic failures can be re—treated by several ways. The treatment of choice,
when it is possible, is:
a. wait and see
b. extraction
c. non—surgical retreatment
d. surgical re-treatment
e. antibiotherapy
83. The nerves in the dental pulp are:

a. afferent only
b. sympathetic only
c. parasympathetic only
d. afferent and sympathetic
e. afferent and parasympathetic
84. What is the typical particle size in micro filled composite in micrometers?
a. 0.004
b. 0.4
c. 0.04
d. 0.05
e. 0.5
85. Removal of separated files from the endodontic system can be facilitated by:
a. straight-line access
b. a good light source
c. magnification
d. a+c
e. All of the above
86. All of the following are considered broad spectrum antibiotics, except:
a. ampicilin
b. chloramphenicol
c. tetracyclin
d. cephalosporin
e. streptomycin
87. Glass ionomer bonds best to:

a. enamel
b. dentin
c. cementum
d. amalgam
e. equally to all of the above
88. The solvent of choice to remove resin points from the canal is:
a. orange solvent
b. eucalyptol
c. xylol
d. halothane
e. dimethylformamide
89. The type of obturation paste used in previous root canal treatment can be
confirmed by:
a. X-ray
b. color after realizing an access cavity
c. testing the rigidity or softness of the paste using ultra-sonic inserts.
d. all of the above
e. a+c
90. The success of retreatment could be defined by the following criteria:

a. the patient should be asymptomatic
b. the periodontium should be healthy
c. the principles of restoration should be satisfied
d. a+b
e. all of the above
91. Prevention of ORN must include:

a. State setting of oral cavity and oral hygiene
b. Extraction of all teeth
c. A long-term antibiotic
d. An hyperbaric oxygen
e. Treatment with Praxilene ® (Naftidrofuryl)
92. What is the correct interpretation of the following blood count performed in an
adult: white blood cell: 5450/mm3, PN: 3600, PE 50, PB 50, Lymphocytes: 1600 ;
Monocytes: 150
a. Hypereosinophilia
b. Neutrophilia
c. Neutropenia
d. Hyperlymphocytosis
e. Normal NFS
93. Which of the following tests, is necessary to monitor treatment with heparin:
a. Prothrombin
b. activated partial thromboplastin time PTT
c. Platelet count
d. Fibrinogen
e. Time Ivy
94. In a patient suffering from a heart disease with oslerian risk, dental extractions
must be done with antibioprophylaxis. What is the antibiotic of choice?
a. Penicillin G
b. Tetracycline
c. Streptomycin
d. Gentamicin
e. Penicillin A or macrolide
95. Optimum moment for orthodontic treatment:

a. Age 12
b. Depends on dentition stage, bone age and maturation
c. Depends on chronological age only.
d. Depends on arch morphogenesis.
e. Varies according to growth rhythm and growth ratio only.
96. Craniofacial growth is controlled by factors :

a. Genetic factor only,
b. Nutrition, endocrine, emotional and psychological factors are more important than
others.
c. Heredity and function both associated to Nutrition, endocrine, emotional and
psychological factors.
d. Muscles.
e. Sutures and muscles.
97. From the following medicaments which are those responsible for xerostomia:
a. psychotropic
b. antihypertensives
c. diuretics
d. a-b correct
e. all answers are correct.
98. Which of the following ulceration had a little indurate base:
a. reccurent aphtous
b. reccurent buccal herpes
c. squamous cell carcinoma
d. syphilitic chancre
e. geant aphtous
99. The principal etiology of non-specific marginal gingivitis in children is:

a. herpes simplex
b. candida albicans
c. growth hormone
d. dental plaque
e. genetic
100. In pediatric Dentistry, the most frequent accident related to the anesthesia is:
a. Toxicity
b. Allergy
c. Lipothymie
d. Bite of the lip
e. Fracture of the needle
101. How much fluoride supplement should be provided to a 1 year old child (in a
day) where the level of water fluoride is 0.02 ppm ?
a. 0,25 mg
b. 0.50 mg
c. 1mg
d. 2 mg
e. 0.75 mg
102. The periodontal ligament has the following functions :

1. attaches the teeth to the alveolar bone
2. reparation and homeostasis function
3. sensorial function due to the mechanoreceptors
4. nutritive function provided by the rich periodontal vascularisation
a. (1+2)
b. (1+2+3)
c. (1+2+3+4)
d. (1+3)
103. Resorption of the cementum can affect teeth

a. Subjected to excessive occlusal forces
b. Reimplanted or transplanted
c. impacted
d. All of the above
104. The primary purpose of root planning is to:

a. Remove calculus deposits
b. Remove the entire cementum layer to expose dentine.
c. Remove all viable bacteria
d. Smooth root surfaces
e. All the above
105. In phase I evaluation, we evaluate :

a. Patient motivation and compliance
b. Periodontal parameters such as Bleeding On Probing, Plaque Index, Clinical
Attachment Level
c. The need of periodontal surgery
d. All of the above
106. Bleeding in gingivitis is due to :

a. Thinning of the junctional epithelium
b. The epithelium is less protective
c. Harmless stimuli causing rupture of capillaries
e. All of the above
107. In drug—influenced gingivitis due to intake of (DIHIDAN -PHENYTOIN):

a. We notice gingival hypertrophy
b. The treatment consists of Scaling/Root Planning
c. The treatment consists of scaling/Root
d. The treatment consists of scaling/Root Planning + Gingivectomy/Gingivoplasty
108. Across the greater palatine foramen passes:

a. The sphenopalatine artery
b. The posterior palatine nerve
c. The medial palatine nerve
d. The superior palatine artery
109. The infra orbital nerve is a branch of:

a. The maxillary nerve
b. The facial nerve
c. The temporal nerve
d. The ophthalmic nerve
e. None 0fthe above
110. In case of infection with hepatitis B, acute hepatitis typically develops after
a. 7 days
b. 1-2 months
c. 6 months
d. 3 years
e. Any one of the above may be correct
a. Hepatic impairment
b. Pseudomembranous colitis
c. Renal impairment
d. Neurotoxicity
e. Osteonecrosis
112. What should be given to pregnant women allergic to b-lactam with Gram
negative bacterial infection in upper respiratory tract?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Cefuroxime
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Ertapenem
e. Azithromycin
113. Give the correct answer

1. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary for intra-ligament local anesthesia
2. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary in non-surgical periodontal care
3. Antibiotic prophylaxis is required in patients treated by Cyclosporine
4. Antibiotic prophylaxis is necessary for a well-controlled hypertensive diabetic
subject
5. Antibiotic prophylaxis is required in subject treated by Heparin
a. 1, 2 and 4 is correct
b. 1, 2 and 5 are correct
c.1, 2 and 3 are correct
d. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
e. Only 5 is not correct
114. Which of the following is the correct dose for perioperative antibiotic
prophylaxis?
a. Amoxicillin 3 g Oral
b. Amoxicillin 2g IV 2 or 3 g Oral
c. Amoxicillin 2 g Oral
d. Clindamycin 2g Oral
e. Tetracycline 500 mg 3 times / day
115. What is KEYES diagram of dental caries

a. The KEYES diagram which illustrates the etiological factors of dental caries
includes 3 circles: plaque, sugar, host.
b. KEYES diagram currently includes 4 circles, the fourth one being the time factor.
c. The etiological factors of dental caries are unknown.
d. The two etiological factors of dental caries are plaque and sugar.
e. The host factor (total and general immunity) has no influence on dental caries.
116. The topical fluoride gel application is essentially used in:

a. Diseases irradiating on the oro-facial sphere level.
b The disabled.
c. Subjects presenting hypersensitivities in the collar.
d. A+B+C
e. Children starting 3 years of age.
a. The acidogenicity.
b. The Food-tooth contact time.
c. The food-tooth contact time has no effect.
e. a+b+d
118. Most biologic damage produced by ionizing radiation is believed to result from:
a. interference with mitotic activity of cells.
b. direct interactions of ionizing radiation with DNA.
c. damage inflicted by radiation-produced free radicals on biologic molecules.
d. none of the above
119. Split cast technique allows:

a. Verify successive registrations in CR
b. Study the models on the articulator as well as on the surveyer
c. Setting of the articulator
d. Remounting on the articulator after curing
e. All of the above are correct
120. Fiber posts:

a. Have elastic modulus close to that of dentin
b. Are the best method of corono-radicular reconstruction
c. Are more resistant to the fracture than the cast metal post
d. Increase the risk of root fracture
e. a and b
1. B 21. D 41. A 61. D 81. A 101. A

2. E 22. E 42. A 62. A 82. C 102. C
3. D 23. E 43. A 63. A 83. D 103. D
4. B 24. E 44. B 64. C 84. C 104. D
5. D 25. D 45. D 65. B 85. E 105. D
6. E 26. E 46. A 66. D 86. E 106. E
7. B 27. D 47. B 67. D 87. A 107. D
8. A 28. C 48. D 68. D 88. C 108. D
9. D 29. B 49. A 69. E 89. E 109. A
10. D 30. B 50. C 70. C 90. E 110. B
11. C 31. E 51. B 71. D 91. A 111. B
12. A 32. E 52. B 72. B 92. E 112. E
13. A 33. C 53. E 73. A 93. B 113. E
14. D 34. D 54. C 74. C 94. E 114. C
15. A 35. D 55. D 75. B 95. B 115. B
16. B 36. D 56. C 76. D 96. C 116. D
17. D 37. D 57. B 77. A 97. E 117. E
18. A 38. A 58. B 78. E 98. D 118. C
19. D 39. C 59. A 79. E 99. D 119. E
20. A 40. B 60. B 80. E 100. D 120. A
Test №7
1. In the phonetic references, the "M" determines :

a. The rest position .
b. The degree of mediotrusion of the incisors
c. The anterior space o phonation .
d. All of the above are correct.
e. None of the above is valid.
2. The gingival contour

a) Is at the same level for the central and the canine.
b) Is the highest at the level of the central canine.
c) Is lowest on the side compared to the canine and the central.
d) Answers a and c are correct
e) None of the above is valid.
3. The minimum thickness of a metal substructure is:

a. 0.3 mm for a precious alloy
b. 0.6 mm for a non-precious alloy
c. 0.3 mm for a non precious alloy
d. 0.8 mm for a precious alloy
e. None of the answers is valid
4. The pontic is said to be “Hygienic" if there :

a. is in direct contact with the gingiva in a single vestibular point
b. is in direct contact with the entire gingiva
c. Does not affect the gingiva
d. Used on anterior tooth
e. None of the answers is valid.
5. High gold content alloys:
a. Are indicated for long-range bridges
b. Are contraindicated for long-range bridges
c. Contain 60% gold 40% Palladium
d. Contain 60% gold 40% platinum.
e. None of the above answers is valid
6. A precious alloy containing no gold contains 60% of:

a. Palladium
b. Platinium
c. Titanium
d. Silver
e. None of the above answers is valid
7. Primary weld is decided during:

a. Biscuit trying
b. Impression taking
c. Metal try in
d. Treatment plan
8. Secondary weld has a melting temperature:

a. lower than the melting temperature of the ceramic
b. above the melting temperature of the alloy of the infrastructure
c. above the melting temperature of the ceramic
d. equal to the melting temperature of the alloy of the infrastructure
e. None of the answers is valid.
9. Disinfection of fingerprints is done by:

a. Rinsing with water
b. Using a spray disinfectant
c. Rinse water— spray disinfectant-dry
d. Use disinfectant spray - water - dry
e. None of the answers is valid
10. Die spacer must have a thickness of:

a. 10 to 20 microns
b. 25 to 40 microns
c. 45 to 60 microns
d. 65 to 80 microns
e. None of the above is valid
11. The stump:

a) Is intact tooth adjacent to the crowned tooth
b) Is the result of the size of a tooth
c) Is a decayed tooth that must be crowned
d) Metallic substrate on dilapidated tooth
e) None of the above is valid
12. Stripping, in a fixed prosthesis preparation, is:

a. Divergent reduction of walls from a peripheral preparation
b. Convergent reduction of walls from a peripheral preparation
c. Reduction of the occlusal surface of the molar
d. Polishing the preparation
13. The axis of insertion of a fixed prosthesis is:

a) The direction that a prosthesis is set up
b) Can be different on each wall of the preparation
c) Is defined by the laboratory technician
d) Is the largest tooth contour line
e) None of the above is valid
14. The reference position of a patient presenting by acute dysfunction of the

manducator apparatus and requiring a rehabilitation is:
a. The centric relation
b. The maximum occlusion of intercuspation
c. The stabilized joint relationship
d. The corrected joint relationship
15. A non functional anterior guidance is a function:

a. of anterior interference
b. of absence interference
c. of posterior interference
d. of anterior and posterior interference
16. The difference between the occlusion in centric relation (ORC) and occlusion in
intercuspation maximum (IOM) is a pathological sign :
a. In case of an anterior shift
b. In the case of a lateral anterior shift.
c. Regardless of the shift
d. In case of a posterior shift
17. A mandibular deviation of the mouth during opening means:

a. A muscle spasm
b. A condylar disco disunity
c. Muscle tension
d. Muscle inflammation
18. A painful palpation of the temporal is sign of:

a. Clenching tight teeth
b. Articular pain.
c. Arthritis.
d. a and b
19. The etiopathogenesis of temporomandibular disorders is of origin:

a. Occlusal.
b. Skeletal.
c. Psychological.
d. Multifactor.
20. The class I of angle:

a. The canine sup is distal half a tooth from the canine inf.
b. The canine sup is mesial half a tooth from the canine inf.
c. The canine inf is distal half a tooth from the canine sup.
d. The canines inf and sup are end to end.
21. Evaluation of the dental midlines is done:

a. at the clinical examination, with respect to the median sagittal plane
b. on the dental casts by marking the upper midline and then the lower midline
c. on the panoramic radiograph
d. once the canine and molar relationships are determined
22. The frenectomy of a large upper labial frenum is required:
a. as soon as permanent central incisors
b. as soon as permanent lateral incisors
c. after permanent cuspids erupt
d. before orthodontic treatment
23. The best time to begin a speech and swallow therapy is:
a. 10 years old
b. 5 years old
c. the adolescence
d. the adulthood
24. Regarding the third molars:

a. they should be taken into consideration in the treatment planning if only they are
on the arches
b. they should be systematically removed not to compromise the treatment
outcome
c. they are the sole responsible for the relapse in the lower incisors area
d. they are one of the reason of the relapse in the lower incisors area
25. Clinical examination of the occlusion:

a. is done in centric maxillo—mandibular relationship
b. is done in the usual occlusal position of the patient (MI)
c. should take into consideration the difference between the two positions
d. shouldn’t necessarily take into consideration the difference between the two
positions, because the occlusal relationships will be changed with the orthodontic
treatment
26. A patient calls you to the clinic to inform you that one of the front teeth of his 5
year old daughter just fell following oral trauma and is in possession of all intact.
a. Put the teeth in water and come to your clinic at the end of the day
b. Put the teeth in milk and come to your clinic immediately.
c. Put the teeth in serum and come to your clinic immediately.
d. Place the tooth under the tongue and come to your clinic immediately.
e. Doing nothing
27. The success of replantation of an avulsion tooth is dependent upon

a. The length of time between avulsion and replantation
b. Completion of root canal treatment before replantation
c. Immersing the tooth in fluoride solution before replantation
d. Using calcium hydroxyde as treatment root canal filling
e. a and b
28. Delayed eruption, blunted root apices, hypoplastic, enamel, and other dental
manifestations of hypoparathyroidism, can be prevented by early treatment with
a. vitamin D
b. iodine
c. ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
d. Insulin
e. Vitamin B
29. Initial vitality testing of traumatized teeth can help to

a. establish a base-line for comparison with future testing
b. determine whether or not root canal treatment is indicated
c. determine if the blood supply to the pulp is compromised
d. predict the prognosis
e. all of the above
30. A patient requires tooth extractions from an area that has been subjected to
radiation therapy. Which of the following represents the greatest danger to this
patient?
a. Alveolar osteitis
b. Osteoradionecrosis
c. Prolonged healing
d. Fracture of the mandible
e. B+D
31. Hybrid composites present very good physical and mechanical properties
because.
a. of the nature of their organic phase
b. of the nature of their load material
c. of the dimension of their loading particles
d. of a better filling in loading material
e. all of the above
32. An adequate enamel etching creates micro retentions of:

a. 15 — 25 microns
b. 40 — 60 microns
c. 80 — 100 microns
d. 100 — 120 microns
e. 200 - 300 microns
33. Glass ionomer bonds best to:

a. enamel
b. dentin
c. cementum
d. amalgam
e. equally to all of the above
34. What is the typical particle size in microfilled composite in micrometers ?

a. 0.004
b. 0.4
c. 0.04
d. 0.05
e. 0.5
35. Which factor contributes to greatest amount of retention for an onlay restoration?
a. near parallel axial walls
b. flat pulpal and gingival walls
c. cusp reduction and contra bevels
d. proximal cavosurface margin bevels
36. The most common curvature of the palatal root of the maxillary first molar is to
be:
a. facial
b. mesial
c. distal
d. palatal
37. Internal resorption is due to:

a. the inflammation of the periodontal
b. pulpal inflammation
c. pulpal necrosis
e. a + b
38. The Raschkov plexus is a dense network of pulpal nerve endings :

a. composed of myelin fibers
b. composed of non myelin fibers
c. composed of sensitive and motor fibers
d. regulates the intrapulpal vascular pressure
e. b + d
39. Which of the following increases with age in the dental pulp ?
a. the size of the pulp chamber
b. the number of collagen fibers
c. the calcification within the pulp
d. a + b
e. b + c
40. Electric pulp tester gives false negative response if:

a. the pulp tester touches a metallic restoration
b. the pulp tester touches the gum
c. the tooth is not well dried
d. the tooth presents an immature apex
e. the pulp is in state of liquefying necrosis
41. The point "D1" in an endodontic instrument is located :

a. at the tip of the instrument
b. at 1 mm from the tip of the instrument
c. at 2 mm from the tip of the instrument
d. at the end of the cutting flute
e. at the end of the non—cutting flute
42. The development of hyperplasic chronic pulpitis occurs in presence of:
a. an opened big cavity
b. a chronic inflammation
c. a resistant young pulp
d. a mild stimulus
e. all of the above
43. Over extended gutta-percha should be removed:

a. by pulling out in one piece
b. surgically
c. with rotary instruments
d. with solvents
e. with the help of ultrasonic vibrations
44. Which of the following periapical lesions is a sequela of pulpal pathosis ?

a. hypercementosis
b. ossifying fibroma
c. condensing osteitis
d. benign cementoblastoma
e. traumatic bone cyst
45. The nerves in the dental pulp are:

a. afferent only
b. sympathetic only
c. parasympathetic only
d. afferent and sympathetic
e. afferent and parasympathetic
46. Anatomic complications requiring apical surgery include:

d. fenestrated roots of endodontically treated teeth with lingering symptoms
e. well filled root canals with exagerated curvatures
47. The most common error during access preparation for a maxillary lateral incisor
is a:
a. palatal perforation
b. labial perforation
c. mesial perforation
d. distal perforation
e. apical perforation
48. It is best to delay root canal filling if the tooth:

a. is asymptomatic
b. has a dislodged temporary filling
c. is dry in the canal space
d. shows no sinus tract
e. shows sinus tract
49. Irreversible pulpitis may be asymptomatic when:

a. resulting from an acute pulpal infection
b. inflammatory exudates are vented
c. accompanied by a strong pulp irritant
d. caused by incipient caries
50. For direct access to the root canal orifices the shape of the access opening for
maxillary first molars would generally be
a. oval
b. circular
c. trapezoidal
d. egg shape
e. triangular
51. Pulpal necrosis is manifested by:

a. a coronary discoloration
b. a pulsating pain
c. an acute pain
d. pain on pressure
52. Apical granuloma:

a. always evolves into an apical cyst
b. is a periapical acute lesion
c. is a periapical suppurative lesion
d. is a periapical chronic lesion
e. is highly symptomatic
53. The most frequent cause of failure in endodontics is:

a. split roots
b. root perforation
c. incomplete obturation
d. separated instruments
e. filling beyond the apex
54. Gutta-Percha may be softened or dissolved within the canal by using :

a. alcohol
b. chloroform
c. eucalyptol
d. a+b
e. b+c
55. An acute apical abscess is characterized by :

a. pus formation
b. a sinus tract
c. extensive bone loss
d. parulis formation
e. all of the above
56. The effect of local anesthesia is reduced in the presence of :

a. an acute infection
b. an inflammation
c. antibiotics
d. a+b
e. a+c
57. Which, among the following patients, where you should avoid the prescription of
macrolides?
a. alcoholic
b. hemophilia
c. diabetic
d. immunosuppressed
e. all of the above
58. Median rhomboid glossitis results from:

a. a bacterial infection
b. a developmental anomaly
c. a vitamin deficiency
d. an endocrinal disturbance
e. a traumatic injury
59. Tuberculosis is transmitted by:

a. skin contact
b. oral fluids
c. feces
d. blood
e. respiration
60. All of the following are considered broad spectrum antibiotics, except :
a. ampicilin
b. chloramphenicol
c. tetracyclin
d. cephalosporin
e. streptomycin
61. The attachment-design RPD is recommended to provide:

a. Superior retention.
b. Superior esthetics.
c. More hygienic.
d. a and b.
62. Disadvantages of fixed implant- support prosthesis

a. Lack of tissue support.
b. Lack of tissue contact.
c. Increased masticatory efficiency.
d. Decrease masticatory efficiency.
63. Lateral forces transmitted to the saddle during mastication can be reduced by:
a. Reducing cusp angle of artificial teeth
b. increasing the size of artificial teeth
c. Covering retromolar area.
d. Uncovering tuberosity.
64. All of the following clasp components contribute to its stability in varying
degrees, except the
a. Reciprocal arm.
b. Retentive clasp arm.
c. Shoulder.
d. Retentive clasp terminal.
e. Minor connector.
65. Effectiveness of indirect retainer is influenced by

a. Effectiveness of direct retainer.
b. Health of supporting tooth surface.
c. Rigidity of the connector.
d. How far the distance from the fulcrum.
66. The most commonly used impression material for making primary impression for
a partially edentulous arch.
a. Zinc-oxide euginol paste.
b. Silicon rubber base material.
c. Alginate impression material
d. Agar—Agar material.
67. In a partial denture wearer, the stresses transmitted to the abutment teeth will be
decreased , if the
a. length of the clasp arm is increased
b. Diameter of retentive clasp arm is increased.
c. Length of the edentulous span is increased.
d. All of the above.
68. Guiding planes may be prepared on anterior teeth

a. To enhance support of the prosthesis.
b. To decrease desirable space.
c. To increase retention frictional resistance.
e. a and c
69. The Interim or transitional complete immediate denture is :

a. Immediate denture constructed before and inserted after extraction of all remaining
teeth.
b. It will survive for few months only.
c. It is always considered as a two - step technique.
d. a and b.
70. The most important post insertion instruction given to an immediate denture
patient is that
a. Denture adhesive may be necessary to retain the denture.
b. Provisional liners are placed in the loose denture to help holding it in place during
healing.
c. The patient should return to remove the sutures and check sore spots.
d. The patient does not remove the immediate denture until the day after insertion.
71. Overdenture is indicated when :

a. There is inadequate inter-arch distance
b. The patient has hereditary disease such as partial anodontia.
c. The patient is normally liable to periodontal full mouth extraction.
d. The patient has a high caries index.
e. All of the above
72. The reduction in height of overdenture abutment

a. Decreases tooth mobility.
b. Increases bulk of denture.
c. Decrease quality of bone.
73. Patient wearing a new complete denture can have a defective pronounciation of
the letter “t” which sound like a “d” if :
a. Upper anterior teeth are set too far labially.
b. Upper anterior teeth are set too far lingually.
c. Upper anterior teeth are too long.
d. Space between tongue and palate is too large.
74. Changes described as the combination syndrome include all except

a. Loss of bone from anterior part of the maxillary ridge.
b. Downward growth of tuberosity.
c. Palatal papillary hyperplasia.
d. Increase tooth mobility of the remaining teeth.
e. Loss of taste.
75. During occlusal adjustment of a single complete denture:

a. Maxillary molars should be into maximum intercuspation.
b. Deep overlap should be avoided.
c. Anterior teeth should be used for function only.
d. Posterior teeth should be used for esthetics only
76. The most important treatment protocol associated with single maxillary denture is
or
are:
a. Adjustment of occlusal plane of remaining natural teeth.
b. Reduce the force induced by natural teeth.
c. Treatment of unfavorable jaw relations.
77. The function of the surgical template in the immediate dentures construction:
a. Helps in setting of the teeth of the immediate dentures.
b. Helps in trimming the bony spicules for proper fitting of the denture.
c. Helps in control of bleeding only at the time of extraction.
d. Helps to locate the border of the immediate denture.
78. The main contra—indication to immediate complete denture treatment:

a. Need for interim relining.
b. Patients do not accept the treatment.
c. Excess pain associated with the procedure.
79. Most acceptable occlusion scheme for maxillary single denture is:
a. Unilateral balancing occlusion.
b. Cusp to cusp relation.
c. Group function or cuspid guidance.
d. Bilateral balance.
80. In case of combination syndrome, Flabby ridge is mainly present in the:

a. Mandibular posterior area.
b. Maxillary anterior area.
c. Maxillary posterior area.
d. Mandibular anterior.
81. In protrusive movement of the mandible

a. The condyles move downward and forward.
c. Condyle moves on posterior slope of articular eminence.
82. If you slide your teeth to your right, and only your right canines contact during
this lateral excursion
a. It is known as group function.
b. It is known as cuspid guidance.
c. This side is known as the non-working side.
d. a and c are true.
e. Centric occlusion.
83. Temporalis muscle
a. Elevates the mandible.
b. Retracts the mandible.
c. Protrudes the mandible.
d. a and b.
84. Masseter muscle :

a. Is inserted in lateral surface of ramus, condyle and angle of mandible.
b. Is inserted in lateral surface of ramus, coronoid process, and angle of mandible.
c. Depress the mandible.
d. b and c are true.
85. The chemical that is used to retard the setting reaction in alginate impression
materials is
a. Calcium sulfate.
b. Sodium sulfate.
c. Calcium phosphate
d. Sodium phosphate.
86. Which of the following impression materials has the best dimensional stability?
a. Polysulfide rubber.
b. Condensation silicone.
c. Polyvinyl siloxane.
d. Irreversible hydrocolloid.
87. In the processing of methyl methacrylate, denture porosity is most likely to

appear in the
a. Thickest portion.
b. Thinnest portion.
c. Buccal surface.
d. Palatal area.
e. Occlusal area
e. Region occlusal.
88. A patient wearing complete dentures complains of tingling and numbness in the
lower lip bilaterally. This is often an indication of
a. Allergy to denture base material.
b. Impingement of denture on mandibular nerve.
c. Defective occlusal contacts.
d. Impingement of denture upon mental nerve.
e. Neoplastic invasion of the inferior mandibular nerve.
89. Polysulfide rubber base impressions should be

a. Poured immediately.
b. Allowed to stand a half hour before
c. Immersed in a fixing solution before pouring
d. Immersed in water 10 minutes before pouring.
e. Coated with a thin film of separating medium.
90. The infraorbital nerve

a. Is a terminal branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.
b. Is a terminal branch of the maxillary branch of the facial nerve.
c. Carries parasympathetic secretomotor neurons to the lacrimal gland.
d. Innervates the inferior part of the orbicularis oculi muscle.
91. A practitioner takes a radiograph of a patient’s mandibular molar at 0° vertical
angulation. It shows the superior border of the mandibular canal in apparent contact
with the apices. This practitioner takes a second radiograph at -2° vertical angulation;
it shows the mandibular canal separated from the apices by several millimeters. These
radiographs confirm that the anatomic location of the mandibular canal, in relation to
the root apices of the molars, is
A. inferior and lingual
B. inferior and facial
C. superior and lingual
D. superior and facial
E. in juxtaposition
92. Which of the following cells are the MOST radioresistant to cell death?
a. lymphocytes
b. granulocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. epithelial cells
e. muscles cells
93. A cellulitis is treated by

A. large doses of antibiotics
B. the occasional necessity of an intra-oral incision
C. closing the tooth if sufficient drainage from the incision is established
D. A + B + C
94. The first clinical sign of early caries of enamel is

A. cavitation
B. sensitivity
C. loss of translucency
D. a brown or black pigmented spot
E. all of the above
95. Which three spaces of the head and neck are bilaterally involved in Ludwig’s
angina infection?
A. sublingual, temporal, infratemporal
B. submandibular, submental, sublingual
C. submandibular, submental, masseteric
D. pterygomandibular, masseteric, sublingual
E. pterygomandibular, submental, lateral pharyngeal
96. A horizontal fracture of the maxilla below the level of the orbits is classified as a
A. Le Fort I
B. Le Fort II
C. Le Fort III
D. zygomatico—maxillary fracture
E. Caldwell-Luc fracture
97. Ameloblastomas occur most frequently in which of the following facial areas?
A. maxillary molar area
B. mandibular premolar area
C. antrum and floor of the nose
D. symphysis area of the mandible
E. molar area of the ramus of the mandible
98. Which of the following drugs is most effective against candidiasis?

A. Nystatin
B. Neomyein
C. Bacitracin
D. penicillin
E. polymyxin B
99. A patient has a pulse rate of 72, a respiratory rate of 15, a RP of 120/80, warm
pink
extremities and pupilos that constrict during near accommodation. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. myopia
B. diabetes
C. normal patient
D. acute anxiety syndrome
E. coronary artery disease

most likely diagnosis is
A. occlusal trauma
B. periodontal abscess
C. irreversible pulpitis
D. hyperemia of the pulp
E. B + D
101. The primary use of tranquilizers in dentistry is to

A. produce conscious sedation in an anxious patient
B. facilitate sleep in an anxious patient
C. produce amnesia in an anxious patient
D. produce muscle relaxation in a myofacial pain patient
102. Most fractures of the mandible with a full complement of teeth are best treated
by
A. full cast splints
B. circumferential wiring
C. Kingsley splint
D. intraoral open reduction
E. closed reduction by intermaxillary wiring
103. Three days after full mouth extraction, an elderly patient complains of black-
and-blue marks on her neck. The most probable diagnosis is
A. thrombocytopenia
B. capillary fragility
C. hematoma formation
D. postoperative ecchymosis
E. A + B
104. All of the following are used in the fixation of bone grafts EXCEPT
A. bone plates
B. gut sutures
C. biphasic pins
D. titanium mesh
E. transosseous wires
105. Lowering of the floor of the mouth involves detachment of all or part of which
muscle(s)?
A. Mylohyoid
B. Geniohyoid
C. Buccinator
D. Genioglossus
E. A + D
106. The left hand of a right—handed operator should serve which of the following
functions when extracting a mandibular tooth?
A. shield the patient's eyes from the forceps
B. help squeeze the handles of the forceps
C. support the mandible
D. A + B
E. B + C
107. Trismus seen the day after a mandibular block usually means injury to which of
the following muscles?
A. masseter
B. temporalis
C. lateral pterygoid
D. medial pterygoid
E. all of the above
108. The drug of choice in management of a patient with an acute allergic reaction
involving bronchospasm and hypotension is
A. epinephrine
B. aminophylline
C. dexamethasone
D. diphenhydramine
E. ampicilline
109. During the diagnosis of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis ( NUG), it is important

to make a differential diagnosis with herpetic gingivitis The NUG is characterized by
being:
l. most frequently seen in children
2.rare in children
3.preferentially occur interdentally, rarely with lesions outside the gingiva
4.necrotic ulcers with a pseudomembranous
5. marked temperature elevation
A. 1,3,5
B. 1,4,5
C. 2,3,4
D. 2,3,4,5
E. 1,3,4,5
110. The osseoplasty is defined as being:

a. a osseous graft composed of cortical bone exclusively
b. a osseous graft composed of cancellous bone exclusively
c. a reshaping of the bone with elimination of supporting alveolar bone
d. a reshaping of the bone without elimination of supporting alveolar bone
111. The main objective of the periodontal therapy is

A. the elimination of the periodontal pocket
B. the decrease of the dental mobility
C. to maintain the epethelio-connective tissue attachment stable
D. the elimination of the osseous defect
E. a physiological occlusion

a. increased appetite
b. growth
c. increased taste activity
d. impaired wound healing
e. all of the above
113. Cementum is embyologically derived from the :

a. dental follicle
b. epithelial rests of Malassez
c. reduced enamel epithelium
d. basal lamina of Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath
114. Infra-orbital nerve innervates:

A. Half of the upper lip
B. Half of the upper lip and part of the nose
C. The palate
D. The palate and half of the upper lip
E. The content of orbital fossa
115. Among these groups of maxillary teeth, what is the group of antral teeth?
a. incisors and premolars
b. incisors and molars
c. canines and incisors
d. premolars and molars
e. incisors, premolars and molars
116.The strong affinity of troponin for which of the following ions is believed to
initiate the contraction du muscle contraction process of skeletal muscle:
a) sodium
b) potassium
c) calcium
d) chloride
e) nitrogen
117. How long time can we wait to pour an impression taken with condensation
silicone:
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 2 h
d. 30 min
e. 5 min
118. Using which product it is possible to pour the same impression twice and obtain
accurate models?
a. Polyether
b. Silicone par
c. Polysulfides
d. Agar- Agar
119. The hydrocolloid impression materials are:

a. The least elastic
b. Fragile, delicate
c. Can record the finest details
d. Influenced by external thermal variations
e. All of the above
120. The green Pate de Kerr is used at temperature:

a. 50°C.
b. 55°C
c. 40°C
d. 60°C.
1. D 21. A 41. E 61.D 81. D 101. A

2. D 22. C 42. E 62. A 82. B 102. E
3. C 23. A 43. A 63. A 83. D 103. D
4. C 24. D 44. C 64. D 84. B 104. B
5. B 25. C 45. D 65. E 85. D 105. E
6. A 26. E 46. D 66. C 86. C 106. E
7. C 27. E 47. B 67. A 87. A 107. D
8. A 28. A 48. B 68. C 88. D 108. A
9. D 29. A 49. B 69. D 89. B 109. C
10. B 30. B 50. E 70. D 90. A 110. D
11. B 31. E 51. A 71. B 91. A 111. C
12. B 32. A 52. D 72. A 92. E 112. D
13. A 33. A 53. C 73. B 93. D 113. A
14. D 34. C 54. E 74. E 94. C 114. B
15. C 35. A 55. A 75. B 95. B 115. D
16. B 36. A 56. D 76. A 96. B 116. C
17. B 37. B 57. A 77. B 97. E 117. D
18. A 38. B 58. B 78. B 98. A 118. A
19. D 39. E 59. E 79. D 99. C 119. B
20. A 40. D 60. E 80. B 100. C 120. A
Test №8
1. The cervical margin should be:

a) Subgingival
b) Supragingival when possible
с) At the gingiva
d) Subosseous
2. The hygienic (sanitary) pontic:

a) Is indicated in the absence of aesthetic requirements (Posterior teeth)
b) Requires a sufficient interdental space
c) Causes a food trap for patients with bad hygiene
d) All the answers are correct
e) None of the above is correct
3. Conical pontic is indicated:

a) For the posterior teeth
b) In the presence of a large ridge
c) In the presence of a narrow knife ridge
d) Has a single contact point with the ridge
e) a, c and d are correct
4. What kind of bonding exists between metal and ceramic?

a) Chemical bonding
b) Mechanical bonding
c) Physical bonding
e) All the answers are incorrect
5. The biological space:
a. Is 2.04mm
b. Is 3 mm
c. Is formed by the epithelial junction + connective tissue attachment + healthy sulcus
d. Presents 2 vectors: horizontal and vertical
e. a and d are correct
6. Concerning the gingival sulcus:

a. 0.63 is considered as healthy
b. Is not a part of the biological space
c. Is a part of the SGT
7. In case of a short tooth that lacks of retention we should:

a) Do a crown lengthening if possible
b) Extract the tooth
c) Finish at a subgingival margin
d) Splint it with the adjacent tooth
8. After crown lengthening, we must wait:

a) 3 weeks before the relining
b) 6 weeks prior to the adjustment of the margins
c) 3 months before the definitive impression
d) 6 months in the aesthetic areas
9. The ovoid pontic:

a) Allows cleaning by a dental floss
b) Is aesthetic
c) The most favorable in the soft tissue management
d) Can be inserted in post extraction sites
10. The need for primary soldering is decided during:

a) The biscuits trying
b) The impression
c) The copings trying
d) The treatment plan
11. The minimum ferrule effect needed in a root canal tooth reconstruction with post
and core is:
a) 1mm
b) 2mm
c) 2.5mm
d) 3mm
e) 3.5mm
12. The polysulfides contain:

a) Lead (Pb)
b) Hydrogen (H)
c) Palladium(Pd)
d) Gold(Au)
13. The considerations for an ideal pontic design are:

a) Rigid pontic
b) Strong connectors
c) Aesthetic
d) Cleansable tissue surface
14. The minimum length of the remaining gutta-percha to ensure a good apical seal
is:
a) 3mm
b) 4mm
c) 5mm
d) 2mm
e) 1mm
15. The dentine opaque is used:

a) To strengthen the ceramic
b) To hide the metal
c) To strengthen the metal
d) a and c are correct
16. For patients who have AIDS, which of the following locations is the MOST
common for Kaposi‘s sarcoma?
a. Tongue
b. Palate
c. Gingiva
d. Buccal mucosa
e. Floor of the mouth
17. The main route of drug excretion is via the:

a. Urine
b. Sweat
c. Stool
d. Saliva
18. Metronidazole is:

a. likely to cause allergic reactions
b. Effective against all anaerobic bacteria
c. Used in 200 mg dose every 3 hours
d. used in l 000 mg dose once daily
19. Protrusive jaw relation records are used to

a. Give direction to the occlusal plane
b. Set the incisal guides of the articulator
c. Set the lateral posts of the articulator
d. Set the condylar inclinations of the articulator
20. Occlusal traumatism may initiate which of the following condition?

a. Tooth mobility
b. Gingival recession
c. Periodontal pockets
d. Suppuration in the periodontal ligament
e. All of the above
and adjacent layer of connective tissue when impregnated into string used for tissue
retraction?
a. Epinephrine
b. Zinc chloride
c. Aluminium sulfate
d. Aluminium chloride
22. The patient complains of sensitivity a week after cementation of a fixed partial
denture with polycarboxylate cement. What is the most likely cause?
a. Irritation from the cement
b. Premature occlusion
c. A loose retainer
d. An open margin
23. The retentive characteristics of a full crown, may be enhanced by

a. Using glass ionomer cement
b. Using zinc phosphate cement
c. Adding grooves parallel to the path of draw
d. Maximizing the parallelism of the axial walls
minimize the potential for gingival irritation, the contact area betwee, premaolars is
a. A wide facial and a narrow lingual embrasure
b. A wide lingual and a narrow facial embrasure
c. Equal embrasures on both the facial and the lingual
d. None of the above. It depends upon whether the maxillary or the mandibular arch
is being considered
e. It depends on filling materials
25. The use of a retraction cord impregnated with 8% recemic epinephrine may be
hazardous for some patients because of its.
a. Local caustic action on the gingival tissue
b. Propensity for causing an allergic response
c. Potential for systemic action
d. Local astringent action
26. Three weeks after insertion of a fixed partial denture, marked discomfort to heat
and cold occurs. There are no other symptoms. The most likely cause is
a. Gingival recession
b. Unseating of the fixed partial denture
c. Deflective occlusal contact
d. Torsional forces on one abutment tooth
e. Incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth
27. Which of the following impression materials will distort the LEAST when stored
for 24 hours before pouring?
a. A-silicone impression
b. A polyether' impression
c. A compound copper band impression
d. Reversible hydrocolloid in a humidor
e. An alginate impression
28. To have a correct incisal and gingival color of metal-ceramic restorations, the
color may be modified by
a. Use of stains
b. Use of stained porcelain
c. Retiring at a higher temperature
d. Changing the light reflection by grinding and repolishing
e. A+B only
29. A patient who has which of the following conditions is most likely to have
postoperative bleeding after multiple extractions ?
a. Angina
b. Diabetes
c. Liver cirrhosis
d. Rheumatic fever
e. Chronic bronchitis
30. A patient requires tooth extractions from an area that has been subjected to
radiation therapy. Which of the following represents the greatest danger to this
patient?
a. Alveolar osteitis
b. Osteoradionecrosis
c. Prolonged healing
d. Fracture of the mandible
e. B+D
31. A patient who has been taking penicillin for three weeks presents with slightly
painful white lesions on the tongue palate and cheeks. A dentist wipes the lesions
with gauze and notes that they have red surfaces The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Lichen planus
b. Candidiasis
c. Erythema multiforme
d. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
32. .During which stage of tooth development is the cariostatic effect of fluoride
manifested?
a. Calcification
b. Apposition
c. Proliferation
d. Histo-differentiation
e. B+C
33. The lower denture bearing area has different compressibility. Which in your
opinion is the most compressible tissue in the lower arch:
a. Buccal shelf
b. Premylohoid region
c. Labial sulcus
d. Retromolar pad
e. Alveolar ridge
34. Surgical removal of a maxillary torus is indicated when:

a. The torus impinges on the soft palate
b. The torus is undercut
c. The torus extends so far posteriorly that it interferes with the posterior palatal seal
d. When it is psychologically disturbing to the patient who suffers from cancerphobia
e. All of the above
35. The primary denture support area for a mandibular complete denture is:
a. The vestibule
b. The buccai shelf
c. The palatopharyngeal fold
d. The frenulum
e. All of the above
36. The position of the upper occlusal rim in the articulator is adjusted by:
a. Arbitrary means
b. By using a facebow
c. By adjusting the intercondylar distance
d. By adjusting the incisal pin
e. Visually
37. A loss in vertical dimension in complete denture will cause the mandible to move:
a. Backward in relation to upper jaw
b. Forward in relation to upper jaw
c. No change in the position of the jaws
d. Loss of vertical dimension is very rare
e. In eccentric movements
38. Balanced occlusion in complete denture is essential:

a. For the patient to masticate properly
b. For the dentures to have adequate retention
c. To ensure even pressure in all parts of the arch, which maintains the stability of the
dentures when the mandible is in centric and eccentric position.
d. Balanced occlusion is not essential in complete dentures
e. For aesthetic purposes
39. A patient is referred to the prosthodontist with complaint of a newly made denture
which is loose and causes soreness even after repeated adjustments. What is the most
important protocol to follow in such a case?
a. To check the occlusion
b. To take another impression denture immediately
c. To relieve the denture at the sore spots
d. To ask the patient to use denture fixatives
e. To tolerate the denture
40. A complete denture wearer, reports complaining of discomfort with his dentures.
On examination it is observed that the posterior teeth are set edge to edge, without
horizontal overjet, the possible discomfort may be:
a. Gagging
b. Cheek biting
c. Reduced taste
d. Speech alterations
e. Lip biting
41. For better stability the occlusal plane of the lower denture should be positioned
a) with level the tongue
b) slightly below level of the tongue
c) above level of the tongue
d) at the level of the lip
42. Which of the following is important consideration when deciding whether to

design an upper partial denture with or without anterior flange
a. the amount of labial alveolar bone resorption.
b. available intermaxillary distance .
c. density of alveolar bone.
d. quality of alveolar bone.
e. all of the above
43. The full palatal major connector is indicated where

a. there is a high, narrow palatal vault.
b. a well-defined, undercut palatal torus is present
c. very few teeth remain in a flat or U shaped arch.
d. palatal tissue is soft and compressible.
e. all of the above
44. Guiding planes are prepared on:

a. Proximal surface of abutment teeth adjacent to tooth supported segments.
b. Proximal surface of abutment teeth adjacent to distal extension edentulous space .
c. Lingual surfaces of abutment teeth to provide stability.
d. a& b
45. A metal frame that fit the model but does not fit the mouth indicates
a. Errors in mouth preparation.
b. Errors in design of partial denture.
c. Errors in impression
d. Errors in occlusion
e. All of the above
46. A reverse aker clasp

a. Approach a disto-buccal undercut from mesial occlusal surface.
b. Is acceptable for distal extension partial denture.
c. Projects between two teeth.
47. Indirect retainer used in RPD

a. Resists denture base movement towards the tissue.
b. Is located posterior to the fulcrum line in free-end distal extension .
c. is essential in class I and II Kennedy’s classification.
d. a and b
e. All of the above
48. A prophylactic antibiotic is needed when treating a patient with a history of:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Rheumatic fever
c. Toxic goiter
d. Leukemia
e. All of the above
49. Extraction of decayed tooth for patients with hypothyroidism is:

a. A relative contraindication
b. An absolute contraindication
c. Indicated with maximum precautions
d. Treated as normal extraction
e. Indicated for mandibular teeth only
50. Most common type of flap used to gain access to a fractured lower wisdom root
are:
a. Envelope flap
b. Pyramidal flaps
c. Triangular/ 2 lines incision flap
d. Extended buccal flap
e. b & c
51. Tooth decapitation for a horizontally impacted lower wisdom is best done by:
a. Diamond bur
b. Surgical bur
c. Unibevelled chisel and mallet
d. Periotome
52. Exposure of the torus palatinus for surgical removal is best done through:
a. bilateral pyramidal flaps
b. mucoperiosteal palatal flap from premolar area of right side to premolar area of left
side
c. Y— shaped palatal flap
d. Double— Y palatal flap
e. Buccal flap
53. The most obvious radiographic picture of an ankylosed tooth is:

a. Widening of PDL space
b. Root divergence
c. The presence of large amount of inter-radicular bone
d. Loss of lamina dura
54. Which anatomic site is most likely to field a failed implant:

a. Maxillary posterior region
b. Mandibular posterior region
c. Maxillary anterior region
d. Mandibular anterior region
e. Mandibular premolar region
55. Absolute diagnostic criteria of a failed implant is:

a. Radiographic marginal bone loss.
b. Pocket formation
c. Bleeding upon probing
d. Mobility
e. Gingivitis
56. The commonest site of a stone is:

a. Parotid gland
b. Submandibular gland
C. Sublingual gland
d. Minor salivary glands
e. c & d
57. From the following, which is the best diagnostic measure for a bony cyst:
a. X- ray
b. Clinical palpation
c. Aspiration biopsy
d. Lack of vitality of the involved teeth.
e. pain
58. The most recurrent odontogenic cyst is:

a. Dentigerous cyst
b. Keratocyst
c. Aneurysmal bone cyst
d. Periapieal cyst
e. c & d
59. Class I impacted maxillary canine is removed through:

a. Buccal approach
b. Palatel approach
c. Both buccal and palatal approaches
d. Incision along the crest of the ridge.
60. The best dental radiograph for diagnosis of a maxillary sinus lesion is:
a. Posteroanterior x-ray
b. Panoramic x-ray
c. Occiptomental view
d. Submentovertex view
e. Lateral cephalometric
61. Oroantrai communication is better to be closed by:

a. Interrupted suture
b. Continuous suture
c. Mattress suture
d. Figure of eight suture
62. Periodontal attachment loss is detected clinically:

a. When there is recession only.
b. When there is recession and/or true pocket.
c. When there is radiographic alveolar bone loss.
d. When there is true pocket only.
e. c & d
63. 16 years boy, present clinically with attachment loss related to 1st Molars and
Incisors only. Diagnosis of this case according to AAP 1999 periodontal diseases
Classification is:
a. Localized aggressive periodontitis.
b. Generalized aggressive periodontitis.
c. Generalized juvenile periodontitis.
d. Localized juvenile periodontitis.
64. Planning of periodontal surgery best accomplished at:

a. Phase I therapy.
b. After phase I therapy and before reevaluation.
c. After phase therapy and during re-evaluation visit.
d. Can be planned at any phase of periodontal therapy.
65. Most commonly used periodontal pack is/are:

a. Zinc oxide Eugenol pack.
b. Non Eugenol pack.
c. Coe—Pack.
d. Both b & c.
e. both a and c
66. On human jaws there are anatomical areas which can be used as a source for bone
graft harvest for periodontal regenerative surgical procedure, of those areas is/are:
a. Premaxilla.
b. Maxillary Tuberosity.
c. External oblique ridge of the mandible.
d. Maxillary Tuberosity and External oblique ridge of the mandible
e. a and b
67. Two months after placing a large MOD inlay in a maxillary second premolar, the
patient has a dull pain on pressure and some thermal sensitivity. Which of the
following is a potential cause?
a. The tooth is cracked
b. The tooth is in infraocclusion
c. Excess cement was not removed at the gingival margin
d. There is a deficient margin on the restoration
68. The area of the tooth that is most sensitive during cavity preparation is the
a. Dentin
b. Enamel
c. Cementum
d. Cementoenamel junction
69. What is the Matrix in composite?

a. The resin into which the filler particles are inserted
b. A transparent strip against the tooth
c. The polymerization initiator
d. An energy source for machines
70. What is the typical particle size in microfilled composite, in micrometers?

a. 0.04
b. 0.4
c. 4
d. 40
e. 0.5
71. What is special about a direct posterior composite?

a. It is dual-cured
b. It is heavily filled
c. It flows easily during placement
d. It is cured outside the mouth
e. It shrinks 0.23%
72. Difficulty in finishing composite resin restorations is due primarily to

a. The density of filler particles
b. Hardness of resin matrix
c. Hardness of filler particles only
d. Softness of the resin matrix and hardness of the filler particles
73. The cavosurface angle of a cavity preparation for an acid—etched composite is

beveled in order to
a. Eliminate the need for internal retention
b. Enable the operators to better see the margin
c. Allow an easier finishing of the composite
d. Afford more surface area for etching to enhance seal and retention
e. Strengthen the margins by removing undermined enamel
74. In a class III composite preparation, retention points should be placed:

a. In the axial wall
b. Entirely in dentine
c. At the dentinoenamel junction
d. In facial and lingual walls
75. The chemical wear of the dental tissue is called:

a. Abrasion
b. Attrition
c. Erosion
d. Percolation
76. Resistance form in a cavity preparation is achieved by

a. Sharp point angles
b. Parallel surrounding walls
c. Pulpal and gingival walls those are perpendicular to occlusal forces
d. All of the above
e. Name of the above
77. When fitting a principal point of gutta-percha to a prepared canal, the primary
consideration Is that the point
a. Fit the exact apex
b. Be 2mm from the apex
c. Fit loosely in the canal
d. Have a definite apical seat lightly short from the apex
e. Have a good tug-back at 3mm from the apex
78. Gutta-percha may be softened or dissolved within the canal by using

a. Alcohol
b. Chloroform
c. Eucalyptol
d. A + B
e. B + C
79. A negative response to the vitality tests immediately after severe luxation or
displacement of a tooth indicates that the
a. Pulp is inflamed
b. Pulp tester is giving a false reading
c. Pulp is necrotic and has to be removed
d. Blood supply is interrupted, and the negative response may be temporary
e. Neural transmission is interrupted, and the negative response may be temporary
80. A radiograph of a maxillary lateral incisor reveals a radiolucent area

circumscribing the apex. The tooth does not respond to vitality tests. A sinus tract is
present. In conjunction with endodontic treatment, the tract should receive
a. Suturing
b. Cauterization
c. Antibiotic therapy
d. No special treatment
e. Irrigation with sodium hypochlorite
81. An internal resorption is detected in a vital, asymptomatic tooth. Treatment of

choice is to
a. Extract the tooth
b. Perform a pulpotomy
c. Keep the tooth under observation
d. Remove the pulp and proceed with endodontic treatment at this time
e. Prescribe fluorine tablets

a. By passing the instrument over the apex
b. Wrong canal pathway
c. Vasodilatation of arterioles
d. a+b
e. b+c

a. Later than normal pulp
b. Earlier than normal pulp
c. The same as the normal pulp
d. Fails to respond at all
84. Root canal irrigation with sodium hypochlorite (Na OCI) is necessary
a. To assure lubrication for instruments
b. To prevent the compaction of smear layer
c. To increase dissolution of organic tissues and substances
d. To destroy endodontic gems
e. All of the above

a. Chronic puipitis
b. Pulp necrosis
c. Hyperemic pulp
d. Gangrene of pulp
a. Mesiobuccal canal
b. Mesiolingual canal
c. Distobuccal canal
d. Distolingual canal
e. a + d
87. In order to improve tissue support for removable partial dentures, the first author
to describe the altered cast procedure in 1966 was:
a. Niswonger
b. Applegate
c. Demer
d. Holmes, J.E.
e. Roach
88. The nociceptive reflex is:

a. a reflex initiated by the tooth and the periodontal ligament
b. has impulses carried by afferent fibers to the trigeminal motor nucleus.
c. a protective reflex
d. all of the above
89. What is the most common all-ceramic crown complication?

a. caries
b. Loss of retention
c. Periodontal disease
d. Fracture
e. Pulpal health
90. Lidocaine, Mepivicaine local anesthetics are:

a. amides
b. esters
c. proteins
d. glycosides
91. Which of the following is not a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent (NSAID):

a. Aspirin.
b. Acetaminophen.
c. Ibuprofen.
d. Naproxen.
92. A side effect of NSAID (non-steroidal anti- inflammatory drugs) is:

a. increased bleeding time
b. reduced bleeding time
c. increased platelet function and no effect on bleeding time
e. possible pancreas dysfunction
93. The tongue is innervated by several cranial nerves, which of the following is (are)
true?
a. Cranial nerve VII (facial) innervates anterior 2/3 of the tongue for taste
b. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal) innervates the posterior 1/3 of the tongue for
taste and general sensory
c. Cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) innervates the anterior 2/3 of the tongue for
general sensory
d. A and B
e. B and C
94. What is the distance necessary between two adjacent implants for papilla
generation?
a. 2mm
b. 3mm
c. 4mm
d. 5mm
95. What is the golden proportion between mesiodistal diameter of maxillary lateral
incisor and the central incisor?
a.555
b.618
c.826
d.700
e.750
96. Which of the following variables facilitates seating of the crown during
permanent cementation?
a. Placement of grooves
b. Increasing crown length
c. Decreasing crown length
d. A and D
97. The most common complication of fixed partial dentures is:

a. caries.
b. need for endodontic treatment.
c. loss of retention.
d. tooth fracture.
e. periodontal disease
98. The treatment of open bite malocclusion in Orthodontics:

a. Is performed exclusively in combination with orthognathic surgery
b. Is only functional rehabilitation
c. Should mainly diagnose the etiology
d. Requires a short period of retention
e. Has no relation with facial pattern
99. Levelling the curve of Spee in an orthodontic treatment:

a. Done at the end of orthodontic treatment
b. A technical necessity
c. Depending on the practitioner
d. Depending on the thickness of the lips
100. The marginal ridges must be on the same level it is:

a. A secondary objective
b. An esthetic objective
c. An occlusal objective
d. A functional objective
101. Effect of the thumb succion will be a:

a. vestibulo-version of the superior incisors and lingual version of the inferior incisors
b. Vestibulo-version of the inferior incisors and lingual version of the superior
incisors
c. supraclusion of the anterior teeth
d. infraclusion of the posterior teeth
102. The inclination of the mandibular incisor relatively to the mandibular plan must
be
1. An acute angle
2. An obtuse angle
3. Perpendicular
4. Parallel
5. None of the above
103. The signs of ankylosis of a primary tooth include all except:

a. Dull sound on percussion
b. Absence of lamina dura on x-ray
c. Darker shade of the tooth
d. Infraclusion
104. The tonicity of the muscles in the hyperdivergent:

a. Hypotonic
b. Hypertonic
c. Normal
e. All of the above
105. The determination of the discrepancy between the maxillary and the mandibular
anterior teeth is assessed thanks to the index of:
a. Spec
b. Bolton
c. Nance
d. Wilson
e. Delaire
106. The point of insertion of the needle of an inferior alveolar nerve block injection
for a child is:
a) higher than for an adult
b) lower than for an adult
c) more anterior than for an adult
d) at the same spot as for an adult
107. The second primary molars are completely calcified between:

a) 7 and 9 months of fetal life
b) 4 and 6 months of age
c) 10 and 11 months of age
d) 2 and 3 years of age
6) none of the above
108. Prolonged use of antibiotics in children can result in

a) necrotizing ulcerative
b) candidiasis
c) actinomycosis
d) aphthous ulcers
e) all of the above
109. When preparing a tooth for a steel crown which of the following tooth surfaces
requires the least amount of reduction:
a) Mesial
b) Distal
c) Lingual
d) Occlusal
110. Hand over mouth exercise (Home) technique of guiding behavior should be
used:
a. routinely
b. when a child is slightly uncooperative
c. when a child is crying hysterically
d. only for children above 11 years
e. all of the above
111. Delayed eruption, blunted root apices, hypoplastic enamel, and other dental
manifestations of hypoparathyroidism, can be prevented by early treatment with
a. vitamin D
b. iodine
c. ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
d. insulin
e. vitamin B
112. Which of the following clinical lesions MOST often reveals histologic evidence
of severe dysplasia or carcinoma, in situ?
a. leukoedema
b. leukoplakia
c. lichen planus
d. erythroplakia
e. white sponge nevus
113. A permanent teeth with a mature apex has become intruded deeply into the
bone. As a result of this trauma, which of the following pulpal changes is the most
likely to occur?
a. necrosis
b. internal resorption
c. calcific metamorphosis
d. transient inflammation
e. hyperemia
114. Each of the following is associated with Sjögren’s syndrome EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. arthritis
b. xerostomia
c. cervical caries
d. spontaneous obesity
e. keratoconjunctivitis sicca
e. A + C
116. Which of the following are characteristics of an apical cyst?

a. It usually is asymptomatic
b. it can be differentiated from chronic apical periodontitis histologically
c. it can be differentiated from chronic apical periodontitis radiographically
d. its formation is associated with stimulation of epithelial cell remnants
e. A + B + D
117. The most accepted way of treating a patient with trismus and an elevated
temperature from acute pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular third molar is to
a. administer a general anesthetic and remove the tooth
b. irrigate the tooth socket, administer antibiotics and palliative treatment until the
acute stage has subsided, and remove the tooth
c. remove the opposing maxillary third mole:
d. perform an extraoral I and D and then place the patient on antibiotics
e. perform an intraoral I and D and then place the patient on antibiotics
118. An anxious, nervous patient is appointed for a surgical procedure. The patient
states that she has had recent weight loss and is easily fatigued. Physical findings
include tremors, tachycardia and warm, sweaty palms. The most likely diagnosis is
a. diabetes
b. gastritis
c. renal disease
d. hyperthyroidism
e. Cushing’s disease
119. The most sensitive technique for palpation of a submandibular gland is

a. bimanual, simuitaneous immoral and extraoral palpation
b. bimanual, extraoral palpation with the patient’s head tipped forward
c. intraoral palpation with the patient’s head tipped forward
d. intraoral palpation with the patient’s head unsupported
e. monomanual, extraoral palpation with the patient’s head tipped forward and toward
the same side
120. Which of the following teeth would most likely be congenitally absent?
a. maxillary canine
b. mandibular canine
c. maxillary central incisor
d. mandibular central incisor
e. maxillary lateral incisor

1. B 21. B 41. B 61. D 81. D 101. A
2. D 22. B 42. A 62. B 82. D 102. C
3. E 23. E 43. C 63. A 83. B 103. C
4. E 24. B 44. E 64. C 84. E 104. A
5. E 25. C 45. C 65. D 85. C 105. B
6. E 26. C 46. D 66. D 86. A 106. B
7. A 27. B 47. C 67. A 87. B 107. D
8. E 28. E 48. B 68. E 88. D 108. A
9. E 29. C 49. D 69. A 89. D 109. C
10. C 30. B 50. D 70. A 90. A 110. C
11. B 31. B 51. A 71. B 91. B 111. A
12. A 32. A 52. D 72. D 92. A 112. D
13. E 33. D 53. D 73. D 93. D 113. A
14. B 34. E 54. A 74. B 94. B 114. D
15. B 35. B 55. D 75. C 95. B 115. E
16. B 36. B 56. B 76. C 96. C 116. E
17. A 37. B 57. C 77. D 97. A 117. B
18. B 38. C 58. B 78. E 98. C 118. D
19. D 39. A 59. B 79. E 99. B 119. A
20. A 40. B 60. C 80. D 100. C 120. E
Test №9
1. According to the AAP (American Academy of Periodontology), a relationship

exists between Periodontal disease and:
a. Cardiovascular Disease
b. Arthritis
c. Alzheimer
d. Diabete
e. All of the above
2. What is a common finding in Ulcero-necrotic Periodontitis patients?

a) Obesity
b) Diabetes
c) Reduced host resistance
d) Cardio-vascular disease
6) All of the above
3. What is the instrument of choice when root planning a single rooted tooth?
a) Gracey 1-2 Curette
b) Gracey 7-8 Curette
c) Gracey 11-12 Curette
d) All of the above
4. Periodontal Disease is:

a) A bacterial infection
b) A viral infection
c) A rare disease
d) A disease with unknown etiology
e) b and a
5. Leeway is:
a. the space between the deciduous incisors
b. the Space between the maxillary and mandibular teeth
c. the difference between the width of the posterior segments ofthe primary arch and
their permanent successors
d. the space between the permanent incisors
6. When should children be examined for possible orthodontic problems?

a. At age 3 years
b. At age 6 years
c. Whenever they are in any dental office
d. At age of 12 years
e. At age of 14 years
7. Anterior teeth are most likely to be fractured in children with which of the
following mixed dentition malocclusions?
a. Class I
b. Class II, Division I
c. Class II, Division 2
d. Class III
e. None of the above. Type of malocclusion has no bearing on incidence of fractures
8. According to the classification of Armitage 1999 (American Periodontology) a

Periodontitis is considered generalized if:
a) >l5% of the sites have clinical attachment 1055
b) >20% of the sites have clinical attachment loss
c) >25% of the sites have clinical attachment loss
d) >30% of the sites have clinical attachment loss
9. Periodontal treatment could include:

a) Scaling
b) Scaling and root planning
c) Open flap debridement
d) Osseous resective surgery
e) All of the above
10. The flush terminal plane relationship of the second primary molars is considered:
a. abnormal
b. abnormal only under specific circumstances
c. normal
d. normal only under specific circumstances
11. The following represent types of tooth movement:

a. tipping
b. bodily movement
c. extrusion
d. translation
e. all of the above
12. Stiffness of orthodontic wire is a function of

a. length of the wire segment
b. diameter of the wire segment
c. alloy composition
d. A + B
e. A + B + C
13. The active growth site(s) of the mandible is (are)
a. posterior border of the ramus
b. condyl, coronoid process
c. alveolar process
d. A + B
e. .A+B+C
14. The most stable area from which to evaluate craniofacial growth is the
a. nasal floor
b. cranial vault
c. occlusal plane
d. nasomaxillary complex
e. anterior cranial base
15. An early prepuberal growth spun indicates

a. a longer orthodontic treatment time
b. a fast maturing child
c. a slow maturing child
d. nothing of interest
e. an endocrine dysfunction, such as hyperthyroidism
16. A major disadvantage of treatment using a cervical headgear is

a. impaction of maxillary canines
b. extrusion of maxillary incisors
c. extrusion of maxillary molars
d. potential deformity of the neck
e. psychological trauma due to appearance
17. A patient eight years of age has maxillary permanent central incisors erupted to
the extent that two—thirds of the anatomic crowns may be seen clinically. A 3mm
diastema exists between these teeth. In such cases, the diastema is usually a result of
a. a failure of fusion of the premaxillae
b. an abnormal labial frenum
c. a supemumerary tooth in the midline
d. the normal eruption pattern of these teeth
e. a thick midline septum of bone
18. The best time to correct a maxillary central incisor crossbite is

a. after permanent canines erupt
b. after permanent central incisors erupt
c. after permanent lateral incisors erupt
d. during the eruptive stage of central incisors
e. at 18-year-old
19. Radiographic examination of a 9-year-old patient reveals the pre-eruptive position

of a mandibular second premolar tipped 20° from vertical. The most appropriate
action is to
a. perform a surgical procedure to upright the tooth
b. remove the primary second molar and place a space maintainer
c. warn the child’s parents that ectopic eruption will probably occur
d. observe the tooth. The condition will probably correct itself as the tooth erupts
e. remove the first premolar to have the necessary space to upright the tooth
20. Dental arch form is ultimately determined by

a. skeletal growth pattern
b. classification of malocclusion
c. facial type coupled with body type
d. the functional relationship of posterior teeth
e. interaction of environmental influences on the genetic pattern
21. The undesirable side-effect most commonly associated with use of a finger spring
to tip the crown of a tooth is
a. pain
b. gingival irritation
c. tendency for the tooth to intrude
d. severe mobility of the tooth
e. tendency for the root apex to move in the direction opposite from the crown
22. Protection is obligatory when using a laser. Security measures are:

a. the use of reflecting surfaces
b. aspiration tube are metallic
c. eyes protection for patient only
d. all of the above are correct
e. all of the above are wrong
23. The total wound healing by CO2 laser is obtained

a. at day 6
b. at day 10
c. at day 14
d. at day 21
e. all of the answers are wrong
24. When its use in oral surgery, CO2 laser compared to electro-cauter present the
best following characteristics:
a. more efficacy and rapid
b. wound are more sterile
c. muscles fibers are not damaged
d. healing is obtained at minimal time
e. all of the above are correct
25. How much hydrocortisone is secreted by the adrenal cortex daily normally?
a. About 1 mg
b. About 20 mg
c. About 100 mg
d. About 50 mg
6. About 200 mg
26. Which of the following are local contraindications for tooth extractions?
a. Acute dento-alveolar abcess
b. Irradiated jaws
c. Severe bleeding disorder
d. Uncontrolled leukemias
e. All of the above
27. During extraction of a maxillary third molar, you realize the tuberosity has also
been extracted. What is the proper treatment in this case?
a. Remove the tuberosity from the tooth and reimplant it with suturing
b. Just bite on gauze for at least half a hour
c. Smooth the sharp edges of the remaining bone and suture the remaining soft tissue
e. All of the above
28. A patient with “dry socket" develops a severe dull throbbing pain:
a. Two to three hours following a tooth extraction
b. One day following a tooth extraction
c. Two to three days following a tooth extraction
d. Twelve hours following a tooth extraction
e. Immediately following a tooth extraction
29. The ideal time to remove impacted third molar is:
a. When the root is fully formed
b. Makes no difference how much of the root is formed
c. When the root is approximately two-thirds formed
d. When the root is approximately one-third formed
e. When the root is not yet formed
30. Which muscle below is responsible for the forward displacement of the condylar
head when the neck of the condyle is fractured
a. Masseter muscle
b. Myioid muscle
c. Medial pterygoid muscle
d. Lateral pterygoid muscle
e. Temporal muscle
31. Allografts are composed of tissues taken from:

a. Another species
b. Another races
c. An individual of the same species who is not genetically related to the recipient.
d. An individual of the same species who is genetically related to the recipient
e. The same individual
32. Which of the following can contribute to the non-healing of a fracture?

a. Ischemia
b. Excessive mobility
c. Interposition of soft tissue
d. Infection
e. All of the above
33. Management of an acute asthmatic episode occurring during oral surgery includes
all of the following except:
a. Position the patient in an erect or semi-erect position
b. Patient should administer their own bronchidilator using an inhaler
c. Administer oxygene
d. Administer nitroglycerin
e. Terminate all dental treatment and monitor vital signs
34. Which of the following is a metabolic disorder caused by a chronic excess of

glucocorticoids?
a. Amyloidosis
b. Grave’s disease
c. Cushing’s disease
d. Addison’s disease
e. Sjogren’s syndrome
35. The determinant point in using laser is:

a. power
b. mode
c. focal length
d. wave length
36. To make an over denture on mandibular implant how many is the ideal number of
implants and where is the implementation of these implants :
a. 2 implants and at 43.33
b. 3 and implants at 44.31.34
c. 2 implants and at 44.34
d. 4 implants at 34.35.44.45
e. 6 implants and at 45.44.42.32.34.35
37. A primary stability of the implant depends on:

a. In the age of the patient
b. From the diameter of the implant only
c. The quality of the bone only
d. From the drilling technique only
e. b, c and d together
38. Treatment of choice for traumatic intrusion of a primary tooth includes

a. taking radiographs
b. repositioning the tooth
c. splinting the tooth
d. appointing the patient for recall in one month
e. A + D
39. If a successful pulpectomy cannot be accomplished in a 5-year-old child with a

chronically-infected primary molar, which of the following is the most acceptable
treatment?
a. treat with an antibiotic and allow the tooth to remain in place
b. allow the tooth to remain in the mouth for a space maintainer
c. allow the tooth to remain in the mouth unless it is creating pain for the patient
d. extract the tooth to prevent damage to the surrounding bone and the developing
permanent tooth
e. B + C
40. Which of the following teeth is most likely to resist caries?

a. maxillary central incisor
b. mandibular canine
c. mandibular first premolar
d. maxillary lateral incisor
e. maxillary first premolar
41. The cotton pellet applied to pulpal stumps during a formocresol pulpotomy
should be
A. dampened with water and formocresol
B. left in place for 5 minutes
C. sealed in place until the next dental appointment
D. A + B
E. A + C
42. An 11-year-old child comes to the dental office one hour after injury to a
maxillary central incisor. The tooth is vital and slightly mobile. Radiographic
examination reveals a fracture at the apical third of the root. The indicated treatment
at this time is to
a. render palliative therapy
b. extract the tooth
c. relieve the occlusion and splint the tooth
d. perform immediate root canal treatment and splint
e. render palliative and antibiotic therapy
43. Routine radiographic examination of a six-year-old patient discloses a

supernumerary tooth between the maxillary central incisors. The dentist should
a. delay removal until its complete eruption
b. wait until twelve years of age for removal
c. remove it only if it develops cystic tendencies
d. remove it as soon as possible without injury to the central incisors
e. B + C
44. The chronologic age of a child is

a. closely related to his dental age
b. closely related to physiologic age
c. often independent of dental and skeletal ages
d. usually an accurate index of maturation
e. A + B
45. A disadvantage of a removal space maintainer is that it

a. is difficult to keep clean
b. cannot be made esthetic
c. will not maintain vertical dimension
d. is ineffective
e. may not be worn
46. If during extraction of a primary molar, the permanent tooth bud is accidentally
totally withdrawn from the mouth, the treatment of choice is to
a. discard the tooth bud
b. curette this area thoroughly
c. perform a pulpotomy and replant the tooth bud
d. perform a pulpectomy and replant the tooth bud
e. replace the tooth bud deep in the alveolus from which it came
47. In a child patient with a suspected case of leukemia and with a badly infected
primary tooth, the procedure of choice would be to
a. administer antibiotics and refer the patient to a physician
b. obtain specialized consultation before determining the course of action
c. obtain a blood count, admit the child to a hospital for extraction
d. provide palliative treatment only .
e. extract the tooth under local anesthesia and refer the patient to a physician
48. A 4-years-old child has a normal complement of primary teeth, but they are gray
and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. Radiographic examination indicates
extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. This condition is:
a. A. neonatal hypoplasia
b. amelogenesis imperfecta
c. cleidocranial dysplasia
d. dentinogenesis imperfecta
e. tetracycline intoxication
49. Fluorides way of action in the oral cavity:

e. Human dental enamel has a non-complex structure
50. The absorption of fluoride:

a. Occurs primarily in the stomach and duodenum
b. Occurs rapidly following ingestion
c. Is modified in the presence of calcium ions
d. Occurs only by respiration
e. Occurs only in the stomach
51. The most dangerous micro organism

a. The HIV1
b. The HIV2
c. The hepatitis B virus
d. The hepatitis A virus
e. HSV virus
52. The best protective measure that a dentist

a. Vaccination
b. Wearing gloves
c. Ethylic alcohol disinfection
d. Wearing glasses
e. Wearing mask
53. The fluoride excretion from the body takes place mainly by :
a. Urine
b. Feces
c. Sweat
d. Saliva
e. Respiration
54. Autoclave is the most recommended mean for sterilization because

a. It utilizes vapor pressure
b. It doesn’t lead to instruments corrosion
c. Because of the low temperature used, thermosensitive instrument can be sterilised
d. It sterilize at 180 C for 1 hour
e. It sterilize at 220 C for 1 hour
55. The most recommended daily fluoride mouth rinse is:

a. NaF a 0,5%
b. SnF2 a 0,5%
c. NaF a 0.05%
d. SnF2 a 1%
e. NaF a 1 %
56. In pit and fissure sealant the retention is related to:

a. Width of occlusal fissure
b. Increasing the etching time
c. polymerisation mode
d. Resin type
e. Resin tags formation
57. Wearing gloves is a major point in infection control:
a. It is a perfect protection in the hands cross contamination process
b. We should disinfect the hands before and after wearing gloves
c. Gloves should be made from latex and completely sterile
d. Wearing gloves should follow washing and disinfecting the hands
e. Vinyl gloves are not recommended
58. For bonding porcelain veneers on an upper canine, it’s recommended to use:
a. Glass ionomer cement
b. Light cure composite resin
c. Compomer
d. Dual cure composite resin
e. Zinc phosphate cement
59. When checking the occlusion on a ceramic onlay, you notice a prematurity on it,
you reduce it by:
a. Blue coded diamond bur
b. 16 wing carbide bur
c. 32 wing carbide bur
d. Red coded diamond bur
e. Black coded diamond bur
60. Amalgam:
a. is esthetic
b. is non-toxic
c. is corrosive
d. Adheres to the tooth structure
e. Is forbidden all over the world
61. When we decide to rebuild a cusp with amalgam, this would:

a. Increase the possibility of decay
b. Increase the force applied to the tooth
c. Increase the resistance to fracture of amalgam
d. Increase the retention
e. Increase the toxicity

a. for a clear operative field
b. to prevent moisture caused by the expiration
c. to isolate the tooth from the oral cavity
d. to reduce time of dental operation
e. all of the above are appropriate
63. Washing of the acid etching while using phosphoric acid:

a. must be done for 15 seconds and more
b. eliminates the smear layer and the hybrid layer
c. is done with a single air jet
d. will enhance the bonding quality if the washing time is reduced
e. none of the above is correct
64.A microfilled composite has a mean particle size of fillers of about:

a. 0.004 um
b. 0.04 um
c. 0.4 um
d. 4 um
e. 40 um
65. The dentine bridge developed after the direct pulp cupping is formed by:
a. a necrosis layer and fibrodentine
b. a necrosis layer and orthodentine
c. a necrosis layer, fibrodentine and orthodentine
d. a necrosis layer, fibrodentine and fibroblasts
e. a hybrid layer and orthodentine
66. If the cavity for a composite restoration is about 2 mm of depth:

a. we should use the calcium hydroxide
b. we should use the calcium hydroxide covered by a glass ionomer base
c. we should use a glass ionomer base alone
d. we should not use a liner or a base
e. we should use carboxylate cement
67. The excess of the 4th generation bonding is eliminated with:

a. an air spray
b. water spray
c. surgical suction
d. dry micro- brush
e. dry cotton
68. A patient needs a bleaching treatment. You refuse categorically to make an

internal bleaching on the tooth # 12 because:
a. He smokes a lot
b. He drinks lots of cola
c. The tooth has an internal resorption
d. The tooth has 2nd degree fluorosis
e. Answers c and d are appropriate
69. When there is an "over etching"

a. This is due to the laying of hydrofluoric acid more than 15s on dentin
b. This leads to the infiltration of the etching in the pulp
c. This leads to the burning of collagen fibers affected by the etching
d. All answers are appropriate
e. None of the above is appropriate
70. Cracked teeth can be diagnosed by:

a. Erratic pain on mastication
b. Mild pain to percussion
c. Pain with release of biting
d. All answers are appropriate
e. Answers a and c are appropriate
71. In the non-vital whitening treatment you do for the canine:

a. The cement plug placed serves primarily to protect the apex
b. The cement plug serves primarily to protect the cervical tubules
c. The cement plug is preferably a glass-ionomer
d. Answers a and care the most appropriate ones
e. Answers b and c are the most appropriate ones
72. Cementum is embyologicaily derived from the :

a. dental follicle
b. epithelial rests of Malassez
c. reduced enamel epithelium
d. basal lamina of Hertwig's epithelial root sheath
73. Langerhans cells perform what function?

a. osteoblastic activity
b. antigen processing
c. inhibit salivary secretion
d. inhibit odontoblastic activity
74. Anabolism is increased by which of the following:
a. increased food intake
b. fever
c. infection
d. surgery
e. all of the above

a. increased appetite
b. growth
c. increased taste activity
d. impaired wound healing
e. all of the above
76. Which of the following is true?

a. the parotid gland is composed mostly of serous glands.
b. the parotid gland is composed of mostly serous and mucous glands.
c. the submandibular gland is composed of mostly mucous and some serous glands.
d. the sublingual gland is composed of mostly serous and some mucous glands.
e. the palatal glands are mostly serous glands.
77. Osteoradionecrosis is usually associated with:

a. edentulous patients
b. the maxilla
c. tori
d. patients not having a soft liner
e. patients having extractions prior to or immediately following radiation
78. What is the incidence of osteoradionecrosis in patients receiving radiation therapy
to the mandible?
a. <5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
e. 25%
79. Which of the following drugs may cause a dry mouth/throat as a side effect of
drug therapy?
a. diuretics
b. beta blocker therapy
c. tetracycline
d. salicylic acid
e. antibiotics
80. In the absence of a root canal treatment, which of the following lesions causes a
short—term periapical complication?
b. Pulp hyperemia
c. Acute suppurative pulpitis
d. Chronic pulpitis
e. Pulpal calcification
operative site and often heals with scar formation?
a. Envelope
b. Semilunar
c. Triangular
d. Rectangular
e. Trapezoidal
82. Pulpal necrosis is manifested by:

a. A coronary discoloration
b. A pulsatile pain
c. An acute pain
d. Pain on pressure

a. Always evolves into an apical cyst
b. Is a periapical acute lesion
c. is a periapicalsuppurative lesion
d. Is a periapical chronic lesion
e. Is highly symptomatic
84. The most frequent cause of failure in endodontics is:

a. Split roots
b. Root perforation
c. Incomplete obturation
d. Separated instruments
e. Filling beyond the apex
85. Gutta-percha may be softened or dissolved within the canal by using:

a. Alcohol
b. Chloroform
c. Eucalyptol
d. A+B
e. B+C
86. Internal resorption is detected in a vital asymptomatic tooth. The treatment of
choice is to:
b. Perform a pulpotomy
c. Keep the tooth under observation
d. Remove the pulp and proceed with endodontic treatment at this time
e. Prescribe fluorine tablets
87. If the radiographs show the cone of Gutta-percha to be too short, the clinician
should:
a. Use a lubricant to seat the cone further
b. Enlarge the canal by filing and refit the cone
c. Trim 1mm from the end of cone and reinsert
d. Change to a large cone and exert apical pressure
88. The most efficient material for retrofilling is:

a. M.T.A.
b. Gold foil
c. Gutta-percha
d. Zinc- oxide eugenol mixture
e. Calcium hydroxide mixture
89. An acute apical abscess is characterized by:

a. Pus formation
b. A sinus tract
c. Extensive bone loss
d. Parulis formation
e. All of the above
90. Hand cutting instruments are composed of
a. Handle and neck
b. Handle and blade only
c. Handle, shank and blade
d. Handle, neck and shank
e. Handle, neck, shank, and blade.
91. Use of water spray during cutting procedures have following advantages:
a. Dehydration of oral tissues.
b. Tooth restorative material and other debris are carried away.
c. Pulp is protected from heat.
d. Clean view of cavity can be achieved.
e. Bacterial contamination controlled.
92. In a cavity preparation cavo-surface margin will be junction between:

a. Cavity wall/ floor and adjacent tooth surface.
b. Cavity wall and floor,
c. Floor of occlusal box and approximial box.
d. proximal wall of one tooth with another.
93. Diamonds burs are superior for cutting:

a. Cementum
b. Dentine.
c. Enamel
d. Soft tissues
e. Caries
E. caries.
94. Pits and fissure sealants are usually derived from:

a. BlS-GMA resin
b. Polyurethanes.
c. Zinc phosphate
d. Both A and B
95. The pulp chamber in milk teeth in proportion to that of permanent teeth is:
a. Bigger in milk teeth.
b. Smaller in milk teeth.
c. Same in both teeth.
d. Absent in milk teeth.
e. Less vascular in milk teeth.
96. In aesthetic dentistry, color of the tooth is:

a. Hue.
b. Chroma.
c. Value
d. Translusency.
e. all of the above
97.Which crown will have the maximum retention:

a. Full cast crown.
b. 3/4 crown and no grooves.
c. 3/5 crown and groove.
d.7/8 crown and groove.
e. Post retain crown.
98. Optimum strength and esthetics are present when porcelain forms a uniform layer
on a fixed partial denture framework ranging from:
a. 0.5 to 1.0 mm
b. 1.0 to 1.5mm
c. 1.5to 2.0 mm
d. 2.0 to 2.5 mm
99. Tissue support areas for an RPD in the mandible include:

a. buccal shelf area
b. crest of the posterior residual ridge
c. horizontal portion of the hard palate
d. a and c
e. a, b and c
100. In comparison to Type I gold casting alloys, Type IV gold casting alloys have:
a. an increased percentage of both gold and palladium
b. a decreased percentage of both gold and palladium
c. an increased percentage of gold but decreased palladium
d. a decreased percentage of gold but increased palladium
101. The most frequent cause of an allergic or toxic reaction to a denture base
material is:
a. residual monomer
b. plasticizer
c. Candida albicans
d. poly(methyl methacrylate)
e poly(ethyl methacrylate)
102. Angular chellitis is the development of symptomatic cracks at the corner of the
mouth. Which of the following may be a cause of this condition?
a. nutritional deficiencies
b. loss of vertical dimension
c. infection by Candida albicans
d. Staphilococcal infection
e. all of the above
103. To prevent injury to bone during the placement of implant fixtures with the
Branemark Implant System it is recommended that:
a. speeds between 3000 and 4000 rpm be used for initial drilling in bone.
b. bone not be heated above 46 degrees C
c. bone not be heated above 39 degrees C.
d. threaded fixtures be placed with threading speeds less than 10 rpm.
104. The minimal thickness of the metal copings in a ceramo-metallic crown is :

a. 0.3mm
b. 0.5mm
c. 0.6mm.
d. 0.9mm.
e. 1.2mm.
105. In ceramo-metallic crowns, the fracture of the feldspathic ceramic is caused by:
a. Porosities
b. Surface cracks
c. Impurities in the ceramic
d. Weak bond between the metal and the ceramic
106. Concerning the ideal properties of interim luting agents:

a. Seal against leakage of oral fluids
b. Ease of eliminating the excess
c. Long setting time
d. a and c are correct
e. a and b are correct
107. Which one of those properties doesn’t apply to resin modified composites
a. No Exothermic reaction
b. Good resistance to fracture
c. Polymerization shrinkage
e. b and c are correct
108. The ideal metal for a metallic crown is:

a. Nickel-chrome
b. Chrome- Cobalt
c. Gold
d. Silver
e. Titanium

d. Using a record of the 01M
110. The taper of the tooth preparation should be

a. 6 degrees
b. 12 degrees
c. 3 degrees
d. 15 degrees
e. 9 degrees

b. Visualization of the gingival margin
d. Opening the sulcus
e. a, b and d are correct
112. The thickness of the impression material should be 2

a. 0.5-1mm
b. 1-2 mm
c. 2-3 mm
d. 3-4 mm
e. 4-5 mm
113. All endodontically treated anterior teeth

a. Should be crowned
b. Should be reconstituted using a post and core
c. Should be reconstituted with a composite if possible
114.The role of the post and core is

a. Protect the remaining tooth structure
b. Replace missing tooth structure
c. Strengthen the root
d. Strengthen the whole tooth
115. The ideal crown-root ratio:
a. 1/1
b. 1/2
c. 1/3
d. 2/3
e. 3/4
116. The cervical margin should be:

a. Subgingival
b. Supragingival when possible
c. At the gingiva
d. Subosseous
117. The thickness of the ceramic in a ceramo-metallic crown is;

a. 0.3mm.
b. 0.5mm
c. 0.6mm.
d. 0.9mm.
e. 1.2mm.
118. The hygienic (sanitary) pontic:

a) 15 indicated in. the absence of aesthetic requirements (Posterior teeth)
b) Requires a sufficient interdental space
c) Causes 3 food trap for patients with bad hygiene
e) None of the above is correct
119. The primary denture support area for a mandibular complete denture is:
a. The vestibule
b. The buccal shelf
c. The palatopharyngeal fold
d. The frenulum
e. All of the above
120. Which impression technique will be used in a patient with a sharp mandibular
ridge?
a. Minimum pressure impression technique
b. Selective pressure impression technique
c. Excessive pressure impression technique
d. All of the above of impression techniques
1. C 21. E 41. B 61. C 81. B 101. A

2. C 22. E 42. C 62. E 82. A 102. E
3. B 23. D 43. D 63. A 83. D 103. C
4. A 24. E 44. C 64. B 84. C 104. B
5. C 25. B 45. E 65. C 85. E 105. E
6. B 26. B 46. E 66. D 86. D 106. E
7. B 27. C 47. B 67. D 87. B 107. C
8. D 28. C 48. D 68. C 88. A 108. C
9. E 29. C 49. D 69. E 89. A 109. B
10. D 30. D 50. C 70. E 90. C 110. A
11. C 31. C 51. C 71. E 91. C 111. E
12. E 32. E 52. A 72. A 92. A 112. D
13. E 33. D 53. A 73. B 93. C 113. E
14. E 34. C 54. A 74. A 94. D 114. B
15. B 35. D 55. C 75. D 95. A 115. D
16. C 36. A 56. E 76. A 96. A 116. B
17. D 37. E 57. D 77. E 97. A 117. D
18. D 38. E 58. B 78. A 98. B 118. D
19. D 39. D 59. D 79. A 99. A 119. B
20. E 40. B 60. C 80. C 100. D 120. A
Test №10
1. After the tooth whitening and before the tooth restoration, placing of calcium
hydroxide for 2 weeks ensures:
a. the disappearance of peroxide residues
b. the shade stability
c. removing the effect of active oxygen
d. neutralizing acid or none of above
e. all of the above
2. The gap between at the amalgam-tooth interface in case of an ultrasonic

condensation is almost:
a. 9,5 u
b. 16 u
c. 6,5 u
d. 13.5 u
e. 11.34 u
3. Type IV amalgam condensation with spherical particles needs:

a. an amalgam condenser smaller than the width of the cavity
b. a rounded amalgam condenser with rounded angles
c. an amalgam condenser smaller than the width of the cavity
d. a burnisher larger than the cavity
e. a spherique burnisher with a striated surface
4. The role of the hybrid layer is:

a. Promotes the formation of a tight seal
b. Isolation of dentin pulp complex
c. Prevents bacterial percolation
d. Shock absorbent because it is visco-elastic
e. All the above
5. The facial artery present

a. six collaterals branches and one terminal
b. nine collaterals branches and one terminal
c. five collaterals branches and one terminal
d. six collaterals branches and two terminals
e. seven collaterals branches and one terminal
6. The infraorbital nerve is a branch of

a. the maxillary nerve
b. the facial nerve
c. the temporal nerve
d. the ophthalmic nerve
7. The upper surface of the sublingual lodge is

a. muscular
b. bony
c. mucous
d. fibrous
8. Candida albicans
a. is responsible of oral thrush
b. is a common cause of angular cheilitis
c. is a yeast
d. a+ b+c
9. Corticosteroids
a. stimulate cyclooxygenase
b. promotes water retention
c. promotes healing
d. a+b+c
10. Which of the following ulceration had an indurate basis:

a. recurrent aphtous
b. reccurent buccal herpes
c. squamous cell carcinoma
d. syphilitic chancre
e. geant aphtous
11. Lichen planusis a:

a. hyperkeratosis lesion
b. lesion can affect skin
c. lesion who had multiples forms at the oral cavity
d. necrotic lesion
e. a, b and c
12. Foot hand mouth syndrome is characterized by:

a. herpetic viral infection
b. diffuse few ulcers (lips, cheek, tongue and palate)
c. cutaneous lesions on the extremity: pulp of finger and foot
d. b et c
e. a, b et c
13. Leukoplakia is a:
a. hyperkeratosis lesion
b. necrotic lesion
c. lesion can be transformed to malignant lesion
d. lesion who don’t need any treatment
e. a and c
14. Most biologic damage produced by ionizing radiation is believed to result from:
A. interference with mitotic activity of cells
B. direct interactions of ionizing radiation with DNA‘
C. damage inflicted by radiation-produced free radicals on biologic molecules.
D. none of the above
E. all of the above
15. An odontogenic neoplasm that may be mistaken for an ameloblastoma but is of

mixed tissue origin and considerably less aggressive is:
A. a cementoblastoma,
B. an odontogenic fibroma.
C. a cementifying fibroma.
D. a calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
16. Intensifying screens are used with extraoral radiographic films to:
A. increase kVp.
B. increase exposure time.
C. improve image quality.
D. decrease radiation to the patient.
E. all of the above GB
17. The radiopacity that frequently obliterates the apices of maxillary molars when
using the bisecting principle of intraoral radiography is the:
A. maxillary sinus.
B. palatine bone and the zygoma.
C. orbital process of the zygomatic bone.
D. zygoma and the zygomatic process of the maxilla.
E. all of the above
18. Which of the following may cause excessively dense radiographs?

(l) Overexposure.
(2) Underdevelopment.
(3) Backwards placement of the film.
(4) Use of excessive milliampere seconds.
(5) Use of a longer cone without adjustment in exposure time,
a. 1,2,4,5
b. 1, 3, 5
c. 1, 4 only
d. 2, 3,5
19. Fluoride
a. has a relative atomic mass equal to 10
b. is not found in mineral kingdom
c. not found in animal kingdom
d. has a relative atomic mass equal to 19
e. is not included in halogens family
20. Fluoride excretion in human body

a. is mainly performed by the urines
b. is never accomplished by perspiration
c. salivary excretion is very important (more than 30 %)
d. Fluorides are not excreted by feces
e. under normal feeding conditions, the fluoride rate in the urine is evaluated at 10
mg/L
21. Fluorides way of action in the oral cavity

e. Human dental enamel has a non complex structure
22. Fluorides topical application:

a. Fluorides are not included in tooth-pastes
b. Fluorides are not included in mouth bathes
c. Fluorides chewing gum is a very interesting and pleasant method of topical
fluoride application for the youth
d. There has never been added fluoride to dental amalgams or cements
e. Fluorides gels are only used by electrolytic method (ionotherapy)
23. The absorption of fluoride:

a. Occurs primarily in the stomach and duodenum
b. Occurs rapidly following ingestion
c. Is modified in the presence of calcium ions
d. a and b
e. All of above
24.The most dangerous microorganism encountered in the dental setting is:

a. the HIV1
b. The HIV2
c. The hepatitis B virus
e. The hepatitis A Virus
e. The non A non B hepatitis virus
25. Antiseptics:
a. do not affect the tissue cells of the body
b. destroy all forms of microorganisms
c. destroy only microorganisms on dental instruments
d. are used only to topical application
26. The best protective measure that a dentist should take against hepatitis B is:
a. Vaccination
b. Wearing of gloves, mask and eye glasses
c. Ethylic alcohol desinfection
d. all of the above
27. The proper daily dosage for a pediatric fluoride supplement prescribed for a 6
years-old child whose drinking water does not contain fluoride is:
a. 025 mg
b. 0.50 mg
c. 1.00 mg
d. 1.50mg
e. 0.75 mg
28. During dental practice, we have to wear an airway protection (mask):

a. Because particles emitted from the patient mouths can stay in suspension in the air
for more than two hours
b. Because our nose and mouth are the closest part from the patient's mouth
c. The mask with a high degree of filtration is wore after hand washing and
disinfecting.
d. This represents a 50 to 70 % of protection
e. b+c+d
29. IN FIXED PROSTHESIS THE PLASTER PATTERN IS ELABORATED WITH

PLASTER :
a) TYPE IV.
b) HAVING A RATIO OF WATER/POWDER 2 24%.
c) B HEMI HYDRATE.
d) a-b-c
e) NONE OF THE ABOVE
30. THE PLASTER MODEL IN COMPLETE DENTURE IS ELABORATED

FROM PLASTER :
a) HEMIHYDRATE
b) HAVING A RATIO OF WATER/POWDER : 26%-32%.
c) THE MOST HARD
d) ANY TYPE OF PLASTER WILL BE ACCEPTABLE.
31. THE PLASTER OF PARIS IS A PLASTER TYPE:

a) TYPE I
b) TYPE II
c) TYPE V
d) a HEMIHYDRATE
32. THE REMOVABLE PARTIAL DENTURE FRAMEWORKS ARE CASTING

WITH:
a) SILICA-BONDED INVESTNEENT.
b) PHOSPHATE-BONDED INVESTMENT.
c) GYPSUM INVESTMENT.
d) ANYONE OF THEM.
33. THE GREEN PATE DE, KERR IS USED AT A T°OF :

a) 50°C.
b) 55°C
c) 40°C
d) 60°C
34. THE HYDROCOLLOIDS IMPRESSION MATERIALS ARE :

a) THE LEAST ELASTIC.
b) FRAGILE, DELICATE,
c) CAN RECORD THE FINEST DETAILS.
d) INFLUENCED BY EXTERNAL THERMAL VARIATIONS.
e) ALL OF THE ABOVE
35. WHICH OF THESE IMPRESSION MATERIAL CAN RECORD THE FINEST

DETAIL: DETAILS EN BOUCHE:
a) HYDROCOLLOIDES
b) POLYSULFIDES
c) SILICONE ELASTOMERS
d) POLYETHERS
e) b and c
36. WHICH OF THESE IMPRESSION MATERIAL IS THE MOST

HYDROPHILIC:
a) POLYETHERS
b) POLYSULFIDES
c) ELASTOMERES SILICONES
d) THEY ARE EQUAL
e) a and c
37. AFTER POURING THE IMPRESSION WE CAN TAKE OFF THE PLASTER
MODEL AT LEAST AFTE
a. 20 min
b. 30 min
c. 40 min
d. 2 HOURS
e. 15 min
38. THE MOST ACCURATE IMPRESSION IS ONE WHICH IS TAKEN :

a. IN ONE SHOT (MULTIPLE—MIX: ONE TIME).
b. IN TWO TIMES (PUTTY—WASH TECHNIQUE).
c. WITH A CUSTOM TRAY.
d. WITH A PLASTIC STOCK TRAY.
e. b AND c.
39. WHICH OF THESE PRODUCTS PRESENTS THE BEST ELASTIC

RECOVERY.
a. POLYETHERS.
b. CONDENSATION SILICONES
c. POLYSULFIDES.
d. THIOCOLS.
e. ALGINATE
40. WHICH OF THESE VISCOSITIES GIVES THE LEAST ACCURATE

IMPRESSION :
a. LIGHT
b. MEDIUM
c. HEAVY
d. PUTTY
e. SAME RESULT
41. WHICH OF THESE IMPRESSION PRODUCT CAN BE POURED AFTER 2h,

24h, OR ONE WEEK WITHOUT PRODUCING ANY VARIATIONS
DIMENSIONAL VARIATION
a) POLYETHERS
b) CONDENSATION SLLICONE
c) POLYSULFURES
d) AGAR-AGAR
42. WITH WICH PRODUCTS CAN WE POUR THE SAME IMPRESSION TWO
TIMES FOR OBTAINING TWO ACCURATE MODELS
a) POLYETHERS
b) SILICONES PAR CONDENSATION
c) POLYSULFURES
d) AGAR-AGAR
43. HOW LONG TIME CAN WE WAIT TO POUR AN IMPRESSION TAKEN

WITH CONDENSATION SILICONE
a. 1 DAY
b. 3 DAYS
c, 2 h
d. 30 min
e. 5 min
44. Lichen planus is a component of the differential diagnosis. What is the most
common site? (CS)
A. Gingival crest
B. Inside of the cheeks
C. Tonsillar pillars
D.Mobi1e Sail
E. Red lip
45. A patient receiving chemotherapy treatment for pancreatic cancer shows a

subperiosteal abscess at a maxillary lateral incisor restored with a composite filling.
Which of the following is the most acceptable treatment?
a. Conventional endodontic treatment
b. Extraction and curettage
c. Treatment with surgery and retrograde
d. obturation
e. Drainage and antibiotic treatment
46. A patient develops a palatal abscess fluctuating three days after the extraction of a
maxillary molar. The treatment of choice is:
a. Only antibiotics
b. Surgery Cadwell-Luc
c. Alternate antibiotic and anti-inflammatory
d. Incision, drainage and antibiotic
e. Initiate treatment of alveolitis
47. Treatment of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis include:

A. saucerization
B. Hyperbaric oxygen
C. Blood culture and antibiogram
D. Antibiotic
E. Tooth extraction
48.Which of the following periapical lesions may be a sequel or secondary
endodontic pathology
A. Ossifying fibroma
B Cementoblastoma Benin
C. Central osteitis
D. Alveolar osteitis
49. A patient who received a dose of 60 Gy irradiation for laryngeal tumor presents
for extraction of the lower wisdom tooth, four months after the end of radiotherapy,
The most common complication that can occur is:
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Delayed healing
C. A sign of Vincent
D. Prolonged bleeding
E. Osteoradionecrosis
50. The major indication of the CO2 laser use in oral surgery is :
a. leukoplakia
b. le lichen plan
c. malign tumors
d. lymphangioma
e. Apicectomie

a. by passing the instrument over the apex
b. wrong canal pathway
c. vasodilatation of arterioles
d. a + b
e. b + c
52. Root canal irrigation with sodium hypochlorite (Na 0C1) is necessary
a. to assure lubrication for instruments
b. to prevent the compaction of smear layer
c. to increase dissolution of organic tissues and substances
d. to destroy endodontic germs
e. all of the above

a. later than normal pulp
b. earlier than normal pulp
c. the same as the normal pulp
d. fails to respond at all

A. chronic pulpitis
B. pulp necrosis
C. hyperemic pulp
D. gangrene of pulp
a. mesiobuccal canal
b. mesiolingual canal
c. distobuccal canal
d. distolingual canal
e. a + d

d. fenestrated roots of endodontically treated teeth With lingering symptoms
e. a well filled very curved root canal.
57. The most common error during access preparation for a maxillary lateral incisor
is a
a. palatal perforation
b. labial perforation
c. mesial perforation
d. distal perforation
e. apical perforation
58. It is best to delay canal obturation if the tooth

a. is asymptomatic
b. has a dislodged temporary filling
c. is dry in the canal space
d. shows no sinus tract
e. shows sinus tract
59. Irreversible pulpitis may be asymptomatic when

a. resulting from an acute pulpal infection
b. inflammatory exudates are vented
c. accompanied by a strong pulp irritant
d. caused by incipient caries
60. For direct access to the root canal orifices the shape of the access opening for
maxillary first molars would generally be
a. oval
b. circular
c. trapezoidal
d. egg shape
e. triangular
61. Gingivitis
a. is irreversible after controlling the oral hygiene:
b. the color of the gingiva is pink
c. the gingiva is inflamed with tendency to bleeding on probing
d. the interdental papilla fills the interdental space
62. In case of sub gingival crown preparation the height of keratinized tissue needed
is :
a. 2mm
b. < 1mm
c. 0mm
d. 4mm
63. In case of secondary occlusal traumatism the primary factor to control is

a. occlusion
b. occlusal traumatisme
c. inflammation
d. mobility
64. In perioendo lesions what is the first treatment to be performed

a. Cleaning
b. Access flap and debridement
c. Endodontic treatment
d. Occlusal equilibration
65. What is the normal wait for osseointegration?

a. 6 months
b. 8 months
c. 4 months
d. 6 to 8 weeks
66. All following indications for porcelain inlays are true except:
a. Tooth moderately decayed
b. Vital tooth with one lost cusp
c. Endodontically treated tooth presenting two residual walls having more than 1.5
mm thickness
d. Endodontically treated tooth presenting three residual walls having less than 1.5
mm thickness
e. Vital tooth with two lost cusps
67. Which of these dental cements adhere naturally to tooth structures:

a. Glass ionomer
b. Zinc phosphate
c. Calcium hydroxyde
d. Natural resin based varnishes
e. Answers a and d are appropriate
68. While performing a porcelain onlay preparation on a mandibular molar we have

to avoid making:
a. An occlusal beveled finish line
b. All internal cavity rounded angles
c. 6 to 10 degrees flaring of cavity walls
d. Polishing of unsupported enamel at cavity margins
69. For the etching of silica based ceramics, we use:

a. 37 % phosphoric acid
b. 15 % carboxylic acid
c. 9.5 % hydrofluoric acid
d. 10 % maleic acid
e. None of the above mentioned acids
70. All the following advantages of composite resin as compared to amalgam, are
true except one:
a. Tissue economy
b. Reduced thermal conductivity
c. Add- on possibilities
d. Esthetic
e. No shrinkage on polymerization
71. When performing a Power Bleaching, The product used is:

a. 35% carbamide peroxide
b. 35% hydrogen peroxide
c. 10% hydrogen peroxide
d. 65% hydrogen peroxide
82. Amalgam retention is done with:

a. Intradentine pins
b. Screw posts
c. Amalgapins
d. Dual cure bonding
73. Acid etching:

a. Should not be left more than 15 seconds on the enamel
b. Should not be left more than 15 seconds on the dentine
c. Should have a ph>2
d. Should be placed on the dentine then on the enamel
e. None of the above,
74. If a bonding of the 7th generation is used:

a. We do the total etch before the bonding
b. We etch only the enamel
c. We etch the enamel then the dentin
d. We don’t etch before the bonding

a. The passage of the acid etching to the pulp through the dentinal tubules
b. An under occlusion in the composite restoration
c. A microleakage formation between the restoration and the tooth
d. The hybrid layer formation
76. When performing a home bleaching , the products used:

a. Are 35% Carbamide peroxide
b. Are very caustic
c. Are 35% Hydrogen peroxide
d. Must be stored in hot places
77. Leaving a large excess of water on the "wet dentine” will lead to:
a. A better adhesion
b. A hybrid layer of good quality
c. The dissolution of the primer
d. Penetration of the primer in the dentinal tubules
78. Resin dam applied while bleaching teeth:

a. Is chemically cured
c. May injure soft tissues
d. Is applied by a brush
79. The failure of the direct pulp capping can cause:

a. A pulp necrosis
b. Calcification of the pulp
c. An internal resorption of the pulp
d. All of the above are right
80. A mandibular deviation during the oral opening means:

a. a muscular spasm
b. a total disconnection of the condylar disc
c. a muscular tension
d. a muscular inflammation
e. none of the above‘
81. The inter-arch relationship is:
a. dental
b. jawbone
c. ligamentary
d. muscular
e. none of the above,
82. The vertical dimension of occlusion is obtained

a. when the condyles occupy a centered position
b. when the patient is at rest
c. when the antagonistic teeth are in contact
d. at the first contact point
83. To cast an alloy for a ceramo-metal crown, a coating containing must be used:
a. phosphates
b. sulfure
c. zinc chloride
d. velmix
84. To make a provisional tooth with the block technique, it is necessary to follow
which sequence?
a. put the block in the mouth, ask the patient to close, remove inter proximal excess,
reline, empty the inside of the block, carve then polish.
b. put the block in mouth, ask the patient to close, remove inter proximal excess,
empty
the inside of the block, rebase, reline excess in three dimensions, carve then polish.
c. put the block in mouth, remove inter proximal excess, empty the inside of the
block, reline, carve then polish.
d. put the block in mouth, ask the patient to close, remove excess in inter proximal,
empty the inside of the block, reline, carve then polish
85. The spacer is painted on the individual model:

a. to increase the abrasion resistance of the individual model
b. to create a space between the interior of the crown and the surface of the individual
model
c. to act like a separator between the crown and plaster surface of the individual
model
d. to leave a space of 20 microns for cement
A. (a-b-c-d)
B. (a-b—d)
C. (b-c—d)
D. (b—d)
E-none of the above.
86. The taper of a preparation is of:

a. 6 degrees
b. 12 degrees
c. 3 degrees
d. 15 degrees
87. The root canal preparation for a post and core must preserve at least ------ of
Gutta-percha at the apex:
a. 2 mm
b. 6 mm
c. 4 mm
d. 8 mm
88. The retention of an individual crown:

a. increase if stabilization is reduced
b. decrease if the height of the preparation decreases
c. inversely proportional to the volume of the preparation
d. is more important if the volume of the core is large
89. The ideal thickness of reduction at an occlusal surface is of:

a. 05mm
b. 1mm
c. 5mm
d. 2mm
90. The thickness of the die spacer must be of

a. 200um and 400 um
b. 6um and 19.8 um
c. 25 um and 40 um
d. 50 um and 100 um
91. The ideal thickness of the impression material is:

a. 0.2 - 0.3 mm
b. 1 mm
c. 2 - 3 mm
d. 4mm
92.The fracture of ceramics is due to:
a. occlusal overload
b. the architecture and the thickness of metal
c. the incompatibility between metal and the crown
d. all the answers are exact
93. A provisional crown can be produced in:

a. ceramics.
b. polyvinylsiloxane.
c. methylmetacrylate.
d. glass ionomer
94. The placement of the cervical margins sub-gingivally is advised:

a. To put the prosthetic joint at a distance of the microbial agents.
b. or esthetics reasons.
c. To support the marginal gum and the soft tissues tonicity.
d. a+b.
95. To carry out a soldering it is preferable to cut:

a. vertically in the pontic.
b. diagonally in the pontic.
c. on the level of the connector mesial.
d. on the level of the distal abutment.
96. Temporization of teeth intended to be orthodontically moved, is necessary:

a. to give a final form to the occlusal surface.
b. to seal the provisional with a weak cement.
c. to ensure a good marginal adaptation.
d. to put it out of the occlusion to facilitate the movement of the other teeth.
97. One of the answers is false: a post and core

a. increases the fracture strength of the upper incisor
b. preparation of the root canal must be slightly convergent apically
c. the preparation of the root canal must follow the long axis of the tooth
d. the preparation of the root canal must finish at the apex of the tooth
98. The screw-fixed implant prostheses are:

a. more aesthetic.
b. easier to deposit in the event of loosening of the screw.
c. more adapted in the case of acute implant angulations.
d. a+b.
99. A healthy periodontium has :

a. a reddish color.
b. its contour follows the contour of enamel-cement junction.
c. its consistency is rather loose.
d. its texture is smooth and shiny.
e. none of the above,
100. The success of an implant treatment starts:

a. by the surgery
b. by the installation of the implants
c. by the installation of the prostheses
d. by a wax up of the zones to be restored
101. Gargiulo et all considered biological space as being of:

a. 1.5 mm.
b. 1.75 mm.
c. 2.04 mm.
d. 2.32 mm
e. 3mm
102. The sealing of implant prostheses should be made with cement:

a. resin.
b. oxyphosphate.
c. provisional cement.
d. glass ionomer.
103. The differential between the centric relation and the maximum intercuspation is
a pathological sign
a. in the case of an anterior shift.
b. in the case of an antero-lateral side shift.
c. in all kinds of shifts.
d. in none of these cases.
104. The primary function of the dental pulp is:

a. Provide nutrition
b. Provide sensation
c. Protect the periodontium
d. Form dentin
e. All of the above
105. The branchial arches concerned in the development of the tongue are:
a. Primary and second
b. First, second, and third
c. Second and third
d. Second, third, and fourth
e. Third and fourth
106. The parotid duct pierces the buccinator muscle opposite the:
a. Mandibular first molar
b. Maxillary first premolar
c. Maxillary first molar
d. Maxillary second molar
e. Maxillary third molar
107. The fiber group in the periodontal ligament that constitutes the main support of
the tooth against masticatory forces is the:
a. Apical
b. Oblique
c. Transverse
d. Horizontal
e. Transseptal
108. Crossbite is a term applied when:

a. An abnormal bucco—lingual -transverse — relationship exists
b. An abnormal vertical relationship of teeth exists
c. Tongue thrust and open bite presents
d. An abnormal muscle pressure exists
109. In which of the following types of tooth movement minimal optimum force is
mandatory?
a. Translation (Bodily Movement)
b. Rotation
c. Intrusion
d. Extrusion
e. Tipping
110. How much fluoride supplement should be provided daily to a one-year child
where the level of water fluoride is 0.02 ppm?
A. 0.50mg
B. 1.00mg
C. 0.25mg
D. 2.00mg
E. 1.50mg
111. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomies in 1ry molars end up in failure because:

A. Pulp gangrene
B. Internal root resorption
C. Alveolar bone resorption
D. External root resorption
112. Pulp vitality test on central incisor immediately after tooth received a traumatic
blow indicates non vital tooth, the best course of action is to:
A. Perform-immediate pulpotomy
B. Consider pulpectomy
C. Observe and retest the tooth after 2 weeks
D. Splint the tooth for 6 weeks
E. Suggest no treatment
113. Prolonged use of antibiotics in children can result in:

a. A.N.U.G. (Necrotizing Gingivostomatitis)
B. Candidiasis
C. Actinomycosis
D. Aphthous ulcers
E. Periodontitis
114. An Ellis Class IV Crown fracture:

A. Does not involve the pulp
B. Involves only the enamel
C. May expose the pulp
D. The entire crown is lost
115. To which class of "Kennedy” belong the following model:

a) class IV
b) class V
c) class II, division 1
d) class III, division 3
e) class I, division 2
116. To which class of ”Kennedy" belong the following model:

a) class IV
b) class V
c) class II, division 1
d) class III, division 3
e) class I, division 2
117. Choose the type of major connector for each model
a) Lingual bar
b) Lingual plate
c) Horseshoe plate
d) Full palatal plate
e) Ring bar
118.Choose the type of major connector for each model

a) Lingual bar
b) Lingual plate
c) Horseshoe plate
d) Full palatal plate
e) Ring bar
119. Detennine the type of each clasp

a) Ackers
b) Ring clasp
C) T-Clasp .
d) Back action
120. Determine the type of each clasp

a) Ackers
b) Ring clasp
c) T-clasp
d) Back action
1. E 21. D 41. A 61. C 81. A 101. C

2. C 22. C 42. A 62. A 82. C 102. C
3. A 23. E 43. D 63. C 83. A 103. B
4. E 24. C 44. B 64. C 84. B 104. D
5. E 25. D 45. D 65. D 85. D 105. B
6. A 26. A 46. D 66. D 86. A 106. D
7. C 27. C 47. C 67. A 87. C 107. B
8. D 28. E 48. E 68. A 88. B 108. B
9. B 29. A 49. E 69. C 89. D 109. C
10. C 30. B 50. E 70. E 90. C 110. B
11. E 31. A 51. D 71. B 91. C 111. C
12. D 32. A 52. E 72. E 92. D 112. C
13. E 33. A 53. B 73. B 93. C 113. B
14. C 34. B 54. C 74. C 94. B 114. D
15. D 35. D 55. E 75. A 95. B 115. E
16. D 36. A 56. D 76. A 96. C 116. C
17. D 37. D 57. B 77. C 97. A 117. C
18. C 38. A 58. B 78. B 98. B 118. B
19. D 39. A 59. E 79. D 99. B 119. E
20. A 40. A 60. C 80. B 100. D 120. C
Test №11
1. "Decreased vertical dimension of occlusion” refers to

a. a vertical dimension that leaves the teeth in a clenched, closed relation in normal
position
b. an occluding vertical dimension that results in an excessive interocclusal distance
when the mandible is in rest position
c. an insufficient amount of interarch distance because of heavy, bony ridges
d. a condition in which the patient cannot open the mandible because of
temporomandibular joint pathosis
2. Centric relation is a
a. tooth-to-tooth relationship
b. mandible-to-condyle relationship
c. mandible-to-skull relationship
d. maxilla-to-skull relationship
3. Which of a distal-extension removable partial denture provides the greatest

resistance to movement and torquing of the abutment teeth?
a. rest
b. base
c. guiding plane
d. retentive clasp
e. minor connector
4. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, the distance between the
occluding surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth is
A. vertical dimension
B. interocclusal distance
C. vertical dimension of rest
D. centric occlusion (maximum intercuspation)
E. A + C
5. Both porcelain and acrylic resin teeth are used in prostheses. Both are secured to
the base during processing. Identify the correct anchorage.
A. Both are chemically united with the resin base
B. both are held to the base in a mechanical bond
C. the anchorage of both kinds of teeth is both chemical and mechanical
D. resin teeth are chemically bonded to the base and porcelain teeth are mechanically
held to the base
E. both use a special glue
6. In processing methyl methacrylate, the resin may show porosity if the flask is
placed in boiling water. Where in the denture is this type of porosity most likely to
occur?
A. throughout
B. in the thickest part
C. near the borders
D. close to the surface
E. on the tissue surface
7. Interocclusal records for an edentulous patient have been established. Casts have
been mounted on an articulator. It is decided to increase the occlusal vertical
dimension by 4mm. This will necessitate
A. a new face-bow transfer
B. a new centric relation record
C. selection of different teeth
D. a change in the condylar guide settings
E. an increase of the rest vertical dimension
8. Two of the most common causes for complete dentures to click are
A. reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion
B. excessive vertical dimension and poor denture retention
C. use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal overlap
D. improper relation of teeth to the ridge and excessive anterior vertical overlap
E. reduced Vertical dimension and excessive anterior vertical overlap
9. Filters are used in the X-ray beam to:

a) Increase contrast.
b) Reduce film density.
c) Reduce exposure time.
d) Reduce patient radiation dose.
e) Correct the size of the X-ray beam.
10. Which of the following is characteristic of a primordial cyst?

a) Develops in place of the tooth.
b) Attaches to the apex of a tooth.
c) Attaches to the crown of a tooth.
d) Remains after the tooth is extracted.
11. The radiopacity that frequently obliterates the apices of maxillary molars when
using the bisecting principle of intraoral radiography is the:
a) Maxillary sinus.
b) Palatine bone and the zygoma.
c) Orbital process of the zygomatic bone.
d) Zygoma and the zygomatic process of the maxilla.
12. Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp
chambers?
a) Amelogenesis imperfect.
b) Regional odontodysplasia.
c) Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
d) Dentinal dysplasia type 1.
13. All of the following give similar radiographic findings EXCEPT :

a) Ameloblastoma.
b) Radicular cyst.
c) Complex odontoma.
d) Eosinophilics granuloma.
e) Lateral periodontal cyst.
14.Which is a suitable alternative antibiotic, when a child is sensitive to penicillin?

a. Tetracycline
b. Ampicillin
c. Sulfanilamide
d. Erythromycin
e. None
15. The most effective antibiotic in oral infection is:

a. Erythromycin
b. Penicillin
c. Clindamycin
d. Tetracycline
16. The contact point between primary teeth is closer to:
a. occlusal 1/3
b. gingival 1/3
c. half of mesial and distal surfaces
d. gingival 1l4
e. like the permanent teeth
17. Usually the time needed between the complete root formation and its resorptionis:
a. 3 years
b. 4 years
c. 6 years
d. 1 year
e. 6 months
18. The carious lesion always appears smaller on the radiograph than it actually is.
Likewise, microscopic observation of ground sections of teeth reveals that progress
of the lesion through the enamel and dentin is more extensive than is evident on the
radiograph.
a. Both statements are false
b. Both statements are true
c. First statement is true the second is false
d. First statement is false the second is true
e. None
19. In caries risk assessment which of the following factors are evaluated?
a. Medical and social history
b. Dietary habits
c. Fluoride used
d. plaque control
e. All the above
20. Following the premature loss of a deciduous tooth, which of the following is the
most important factor in deciding to place a space maintainer?
a. Amount of bone covering the succedaneous tooth
b. Arch in which the tooth was lost
c. Age of the child
d. Stage of development of the succedaneous tooth
21. Pit and fissure caries can be best prevented by

a. the use of adhesive sealants
b. topical fluoride application
c. diet control
d. effective plaque control
e. Mouthwash
22. The existence of a 2 mm diastema between the fully erupted maxillary permanent
central incisors of a 7-year-old child may be attributed to
a) a prominent anterior nasal spine
b) a broad nasal septum
c) failure of fusion of the premaxillae
d) the normal eruption pattern of these teeth
e) all of the above
23.The point of insertion of the needle of an inferior alveolar nerve block injection
for a child is
a) higher than for an adult
b) lower than for an adult
c) more anterior than for an adult
d) at the same spot as for an adult
e) more posterior than for an adult
24.What is bacterial plaque?

a. The bacterial plaque is not a static phenomenon but rather a constantly evolving
aggregate
b. The bacterial plaque is a static phenomenon
c. The bacterial plaque does not form an aggregate
d. The bacterial plaque is a hard colloidal layer forming an incoherent mass of micro-
organisms
e. B+C
25.
a. The KEYES diagram which illustrates the etiological factors of dental caries
includes circles: plaque, sugar, and host
b. KEYES diagram currently includes 4 circles, the fourth one being the time factor.
c. The etiological factors of dental caries are unknown
d. The two etiological factors of dental caries are plaque and sugar
e. The host factor {total and general immunity) has no influence on dental caries
26.The prevention of oral affections goes through a certain number of practices:

a. Hygiene measures and it is the major point.
b. Periodic control visits.
c. Appropriate diet.
d. Rational consumption of fluoride.
b. The Food-tooth contact time.
c. The food-tooth contact time has
e. A+B+D
28. What is correct?

a. Sweeteners (non cariogenic sugar) nowadays show no side effect and meet all the
requirements.
b. They have a nice taste.
c. They are all non-cariogenic.
d. Cyclamates are very often used nowadays.
e. Sorbitol does not provoke diarrhea.
29. The methods for the prevention of dental caries have the following goals:
a. Limiting the demineralization factors.
b. Oral dental hygiene is not an essential factor.
c. The food balance is not taken into consideration.
d. A+E
e. Favoring the re-mineralization phases.
30. Enamel degradation during the carious process goes through the following
phases:
a. Enlargement of inter-prismatic spaces.
b. Demineralization of the prisms.
c. pH does not play a role.
d. Penetration of bacteria into the demineralization areas.
e. A+B+D
31. Incorporation of fluoride into the enamel depends on:

a. Age.
b. Environment.
c. Food habits.
d. A+B+C
32. Dental implications resulting from fluoride ingestion depend on:

a. The ingested dosage of fluoride.
b. The time of ingestion is of no influence.
c. The duration of impregnation.
d. It has no dental consequences.
e. A+C
33. What is correct?

a. Carbohydrates exert no action on the pH of the dental plaque.
b. With the xylitol the pH remains > to 7.
c. Substitute sugars are not efficient.
d. A+C
e. A+B
34.Biopsy is indicated in:

a. ameloblastoma
b. cysts
c. benign tumors
d. malignant tumors.
e. all of the above
35. The third mandibular molar completely impacted provokes:

a. cellulitis
b. osteomyelitis
c. pericoronaritis
d. fracture of the mandibular angle
36. The difilculty in the surgical extraction of a retained third mandibular molar is
due to:
a. depth of the inclusion
b. relation with the mandibular nerve
c. proximity to the adjacent tooth
d. quantity of the covering bone
e. all of the above
37. Preoperative radiological assessment for the surgery of a retained maxillary

canine consists a:
a. panoramic radiograph
b. profil radiograph
c. intraoral occlusal radiograph
d. intraoral periapical radiograph
e. all of the above
38. Surgical approach of a peri-apical lesion depend of :

a. the dimension of the lesion
b. the location of the lesion
c. the responsible tooth
d. the anatomic limitation
e. all of the above
39. During an endodontic surgery the hemostasis is obtained by:

a. hotsley wax
b. astringdent
c. laser
d. compression
e. all of the above
40. The lubke-osheinbein incision is indicate in case of existence of:
a. crown
b. a large band of attached gingiva
c. periodontic pocket
d. a and b
e. all of the above
a spiramycin
b. roxythmmycin
c. erythromycin
d. clindarnycin
e. all of the above
42. The postsurgical edema can be treated by:

a. cold pack
b. steroid-antiinflammatory
c. non-steroid antiinflammatory
d. enzymatic antiinflammatory
e. all the above
43. Lingual paresthesia can be observed after a:

a. periodontal surgery of the third mandibular molar
b. surgical extraction of the third mandibular molar
c. implant placement in the posterior region of the mandible
d. orthognatic surgery of the mandible
e. all of the above
44. A retained mandibulary molar may provoke an

a. suppurative pericoronaritis
b. serous pericoronaritis
c. suppurative cellulitis
d. serous cellulitis
e. all of the above
45. The maxillary cyst of non-dental etiology is:

a. primordial
b. Goflin
c. globulo-maxillary
d. epidermoid
e. residual
46. Precurving files are indicated

a. for files sizes #35 and over
b. in canals that are even slightly curved
c. as a way to negotiate past canal obstructions
d. all of the above
e. only B + C
47. Prior to obturation with Gutta-percha, instrumentation must result in canal walls
that are
a. parallel throughout their length
b. slightly tapered lo the apical constriction
c. well tapered to the apical constriction
d. widest in apical area
e. widest in midroot area
48. If the radiographs show the cone of Gutta-Percha to be too short, the clinician
should a. use a lubricant to seat the cone further
b. enlarge the canal by filing and refit the cone
c. trim 1mm from the end of cone and reinsert
d. change to a large cone and exert apical pressure
49. Maintenance of pulpal vitality of teeth with crown fractures and an exposed pulp
a.helps to prevent internal resorption
b. is desirable with teeth with immature spices
c. is generally reserved for mature teeth
d. is recommended for teeth with partial calcific pulpal obliteration
e. is recommended for replanted mature teeth
50. Which of the following is a major symptom of acute, nonsuppurative pulpitis?

a. pain on biting
b. extreme pain on percussion
c. cessation of pain when the stimulus is removed
d. increased and persistent pain on application of cold
51. A significant disadvantage of gutta-percha as a filling material is the

a. reaction between it and periapical tissues
b. difficulty of preparing a post space
c. solubility of gutta—percha in chloroform and xylol
d. lack of rigidity in the smaller sizes of gutta—percha points
52. 52-year-old patient presents with mild discomfort in maxillary central incisors.
The teeth were traumatized the day before in a fall from a bicycle. Both teeth are
slightly percussion sensitive and the crowns are intact. Electric pulp tests indicate that
neither tooth is responsive to electric stimulation. Treatment of choice is
a. pulpectomy on the both teeth
b. pulpotomy on the both teeth
c. thermal testing
d. observation of the patient over the next few weeks
e. referral to a periododontist
53. A patient has a severe, throbbing toothache in the area of the mandibular right
first premolar. The tooth is very painful to percussion, but does not respond to heat,
cold or the electric pulp tester. No swelling is noted. Radiographs show no
abnormalities. The most probable diagnosis is ‘
a. reversible pulpitis
b. irreversible pulpitis
c. acute apical periodontitis
d. chronic apical periodontitis
e. suppurative apical periodontitis
operative site and oftten heals with scar formation?
A. envelope
B. semilunar
C. triangular
D. rectangular
E. trapezoidal
55. An acute apical abscess is characterized by

a. pus formation
b. a sinus tract
c. extensive bone loss
d. parulis formation
e. all of the above
56. Internal resorption is LEAST likely to continue in a tooth with
a. a necrotic pulp
b. acute pulpitis
c. chronic pulpitis
d. incipient acute pulpalgia
e. a pinkish discoloration of the crown
57. What is the response of a NORMAL pulp to the application of intense heat or
cold?
A. no response by a normal pulp
B. pain which lasts for 30-60 seconds
C. feeling of warmth or coldness on the tooth
D. pain which lasts for 10-15 minutes after the stimulus is removed
E. pain which lasts for only a short time after the stimulus is removed
58. The functions of the dental pulp include all the following EXCEPT to
a. form dentin
b. supply dentin with nutrients
c. innervate the enamel with nerve fibers
d. transmit sensory stimuli to the central nervous system
e. protect the tooth against microbial aggressions
59. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is essentially a

a. necrotizing lesion
b. suppurative lesion
c. proliferation of chronically inflamed pulp tissue
d. very sensitive, painful lesion
e. all of the above
60. Mandibular bicuspids can be the easiest or the hardest to treat endodontically
because of the
A. size of the canal t
B. length of the canal
C. shape of the canal
D. possibility of bifurcations in the root canal
E. position of the tooth in the mouth
61. Which of the following muscles of mastication protract the mandible forward and
downward?
a. Masseter
b. Medial (Internal) pterygoid
c. Lateral Pterygoid
d. Temporalis
e. All of the above
62. The sensory and taste sensation of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is supplied by:
a. Hypoglossal nerve ( XII)
b. Facialnerve(Vll)
c. Mandibular nerve (Trigeminal (V)
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
e. Vagus nerve (X)
63. The intrinsic and extrinsic muscle 5 of the tongue except the palatoglossus is
supplied by:
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
B. Lingual nerve
C. Facial nerve
D. Hypoglossal nerve
E. Vagus nerve
64. In successful mandibular nerve block anesthesia, which of the following zones
are anesthetized?
A. All the buccal teeth of half of the mandible
B. The skin and mucous membrane of the lower lip
C. The Skin of the chin
D. The mandibular incisors
E. All of the above
65. Taste sensation of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is provided by:
A. The mandibular branch of Trigeminal nerve
B. The lingual nerve
C. The glossopharyngeal nerve
D. The chorda tympani, a branch of the facial
66. The hard or bony palate is consisted of

A. Four bony parts joined by sutures
B. Two bony parts only
C. Two palatine processes of maxilla and two horizontal plates of palatine bone
D. A and C
E. All of the above
67. The condyle of the mandible grows by

a. membrane bone growth
b. interstitial bone growth
c. proliferation of cartilage
d. all of the above
68. The pterygomandibular raphe is composed of
a.medial pterygoid and buccinator muscles
b.the tendinous portion of the temporal muscle
c. buccinator muscle and sphenomandibular ligament
d.the buccinator and superior constrictor muscle junction
e. sphenomandibular ligament and medial pterygoid muscles
69. Generally, the most difficult mandibular impacted molar to remove when the
direction is:
A. Mesio-angular
B. Disto-angular
C. Bucco-angular
D. Vertical
E. Linguo—angular
70. Postsurgical swelling and edema can be best controlled by:

A. Application of hot packs
B. Application of cold packs
C. Using antihistamines
D. Careful surgical manipulation of hard and soft tissues
E. Using anti—inflammatory drugs
71. Which is the common source of bone for an autogenous bone graft in the
mandible?
A. Tibia
B. Fibula
C. Femur
D. Iliac crest
E. Clavicle
72. When using elevators to extract a tooth, the fulcrum should be the:
a. Adjacent tooth
b. Dentist’s wrist
c. Tooth to be removed
d. Alveolar bone
e. Opposite arch
73.Angle's Class I Malocclusion resembles normal occlusion in

a. Molar relationship only
b. Overjet
c. Overbite
d. Absence of crowding
e. Absence of rotations
74. The face and the oral structures of the embryo develop between:
A. 2-5 Weeks
B. 4-5 Weeks
C. 4-7 Weeks
D. 4-9 Weeks
E. 2-6 months
75. In which of the following types of tooth movement minimal optimum force is
mandatory?
a . Translation (Bodily Movement)
b. Rotation
c. Intrusion
d. Extrusion
e. Tipping
76. In early treatment the removal of etiologic factors is recommended:

a. At any time
b. Between 9 — 14 years
c. Between 6 — 12 years
d. As early as possible
e. Between 2 — 6 years
77. During growth, the interocclusal (freeway) space is kept constant mainly through:
a. Vertical growth of the alveolar process
b. Vertical growth of the Condylar cartilage
c. Vertical growth of the ramus
d. Vertical growth of the body of the mandible
e. Vertical growth of the naso-maxillary complex
78. Peak growth velocity in girls is:

a. 6 months ahead of boys
b. 6 months after that of boys
c. 2 years ahead of boys
d. At the same time as in boys
e. 1 year after that of boys
79. Which statement is true? Inter-proximal of lower incisor teeth to relieve crowding
may cause :
a. Resorption of the roots
b. Residual space between teeth
c. Interproximal caries development
d. Pulp exposure
e. Gingival trauma
80.The main causative factor of ectopic or delayed eruption of maxillary incisor is:
A. Presence of supernumerary teeth
B. Premature loss of primary teeth
C. Discrepancy between the size of teeth and arch
D. Unfavorable sequence of eruption
E. All of the above
81. Which of the following faults in class II restorations may be predisposing factors
to periodontal disease?
a. Gingival overhang
b. Week proximal contact
c. Broad contact faciolingualy
d. Contact in the gingival third
e. All of the above
82. Which of the following findings best supports a clinical diagnosis of acute apical
periodontitis?
a. A sensitive response to the electric pulp test
b. Pain that is difficult to localize to any one tooth
c. Marked tenderness of the tooth to touch and pressure
d. Sharp, shooting, laminating pain when cold is applied to the tooth
e. B+D
83. When a patient fails to demonstrate adequate oral hygiene during initial therapy,
the best course of action is
a. Conservative osseous surgery
b. To perform curettage only
c. To limit therapy to gingivectomy
d. To continue providing oral hygiene instruction and root planning
84. Each of the following drug regimens is likely to influence periodontal treatment
planning EXEPT
a. Cortisone
b. Dicumarol
c. Parathormone
d. Nitroglycerine
e. Antihistamine
85. Hemisection or root amputation is usually precluded when the roots are
a. Long
b. Short
c. Curved
d. A+C
e. Fused
86.Treatment of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis should begin with

a. Rinsing with a 3 per cent hydrogen peroxide solution q. i d
b. Debridement and instrumentation
c. Antibiotic therapy
d. Vitamin therapy
e. Cauterization
87. The only accurate way to determine the presence or absence of a pocket is by
a. Radiographic examination
b. Occlusal examination
c. Pocket probing
d. Visual examination for gingival enlargement
e. Visual examination for color change
88.To reduce sensitivity to thermal change after removal of a periodontal dressing, it

is best to
a. Replane the roots
b. Adjust the occlusion
c. Prescribe a desensitizing dentifrice
d. Desensitize the roots with an appropriate medicament
e. Keep the roots free of bacterial plaque
89. A patient has a periodontal abscess on the distal aspect of a maxillary second
molar, Pain and mobility are moderate. The remaining dentition is generally healthy.
Immediate treatment of choice is to
a. Provide drainage
b. Extract the tooth
c. Relieve the occlusion
d. Prescribe an antibiotic
e. Prescribe a antibiotic and relieve the occlusion
90. Of the following trauma from occlusion is the least likely to affect
a. Enamel
b. Cementum
c. Alveolar bone
d. The periodontal ligament
e. The epithelial attachment
91. If a dentist finds only thin ring of calculus in the bottom third of a deep pocket, it
may be assumed that
A. Calculus calcfied before the pocket reached this depth
B. Calculus previously extended to the enamel, but the top part was removed
C. Bacterial plaque formed only in the deeper region of the pocket
D.Calculus migrated apically as the pocket grew deeper, and new calculus formed on
the apical side while that on the occlusal side dissolved
E. All the above
92. Which of the following is most likely to cause gingival recession?
A. Toothbrush abrasion
B. Occlusal trauma
C. Poor home care
D. Improper deflecting contour
E. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
93. Which of the following factors is the most critical in determining whether or not
to extract a tooth involved with periodontal disease?
A. Depth of pockets
B. Mobility of tooth
C. Amount of attachment loss
D. Relationship to adjacent teeth
E. A+B
94. A patient has an isolated 8mm pocket and furcation involvment at the distal
aspect of the maxillary right second molar. This tooth is the only distal abutment for
an hour-unit bridge. Clinical inspection reveals an enamel pearl (2mm in diameter)
located 5mm apical to the gingival margin. This site should be treated by
A. Extraction
B. Scaling and root planning at six month intervals
C. Resection of the palatal root followed by regular recall appointments
D. Flap surgery and odontoplasty followed by regular recall appointments
E. Flap surgery and bone grafting followed by regular recall appointments
and adjacent layer of connective tissue when impregnated into string use for tissue
reaction?
A. Epinephrine
B. Zinc chloride
C. Aluminium sulfate
D. Aluminium chloride
96. In designing a retainer on a noncarious mandibular first premolar abutment with a

short clinical crown, which of the following restorations is most appropriate?
A. An MOD onlay
B. A reverse 3/: crown
C. An OD onlay
D. An inlay
E. a full crown
97. The retentive characteristics of a full crown may be enhances by

a. Using glass ionomer cement '
b. Using zinc phosphate cement
c. Adding grooves parallel to the path of draw
d. Maximizing the parallelism of the axial walls
e. C+D
a. A wide facial and a narrow lingual embrasure
b. A wide lingual and a narrow facial embrasure
c. Equal embrasures on both the facial and the lingual
d. None of the above. It depends upon whether the maxillary or the mandibular arch
is being considered
e. It depends on filling materials
99. Splinting adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture is performed primarily
to
a. Augment retention of the fixed partial denture
b. Improve embrasure contours, thus enhancing gingival health
c. Stabilize abutment teeth, thus preventing rotational movement or distal migration
d. Improve mesiodistal spacing of abutment teeth and pontics for optimum esthetics
and function
e. Improve distribution of the occlusal load
100. A patient has recently had an endodontically treated tooth restored with a cast
post and core and crown. The patient complains of pain on biting. Tooth mobility is
normal and radiographs appear normal. The most probable cause of the pain is
a. Loose crown
b. Psychosomatic
c. Vertical root fracture
d. Premature eccentric contact
101. For best results when using an elastomeric impression material, the prepared
tooth should be
a. Very dry
b. Free of surface moisture
c. Covered thinly with a water-soluble lubricant
d. Covered with a surface tension-reducing agent and air dried
e. A+D
102: The faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of a hygienic pontic is

primarily determined by the
a. Length of the pontic
b. Masticatory force of the patient
c. Width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge
d. Faciolingual position of opposing centric holding contact areas
103. Prolonged sensitivity to heat, cold and pressure after cementation of a crown or
a fixed partial denture is usually related to
a. Occlusal trauma
b. Improper cementation
c. Impingement on the marginal gingival
d. Failure to desensitize abutment teeth
e. Chronic abscess on abutment teeth
104. Which of the following impression materials will distort the LEAST when
stored for 24 hours before pouring?
a. A silicone impression
b. A polyether impression
c. A compound copper band impression
d. Reversible hydrocolloid in a humidor
e. An alginate impression
105. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth
for a fixed partial denture?
a. Tooth with pulpal involvement
b.Tooth with minimal coronal structure
c. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
d. Tooth with short, tapered root with long clinical crown
e. A+B
106. The coefficient of thermal expansion of a metallo-ceramic crown must be

a. superior to the one of the ceramic
b. equal to the one of the ceramic
c. inferior to the one of the ceramic
d. does not have any importance
107.The thickness of a prosthetic reduction preparation at the level of the surfaces

solicited by the occlusion is:
a. 0.5 mm
b. 1 mm
c. 1.5 mm
d. 2 mm
108. The thickness of a non precious metal supporting the ceramic can be reduced
to.... mm without affecting the solidity of the future crown:
a. 0.1 mm
b. 0.3 mm
c. 0.5 mm
d. 0.7 mm
e. 1.0 mm
109. To make a soldering joint it is preferable to cut:

a. Vertically in the pontic
b. Diagonally in the pontic.
c. At the level of the mesial connector.
d. At the level of the distal preparation
110. It is necessary to avoid the use of screwed post and a core because :
a. not commonly used
b. they are not retentive
c. they create a huge quantity of stress along the root
d. they are easy to use
111. After crown lengthening Rosenberg et al, recommend the positioning of the
margin to a distance of ........ to the bony crest:
a. 2 mm.
b. 1 mm.
c. 4 mm.
d. 1.5mm.
112. The term internal derangement implies:

a. the presence of a degenerative arthritic condition
b. an anatomical disturbance of the disc-condyle relationship
c. a complete or partially restricted joint movement
d. the translation of the condyle beyond the anterior band of the articular disc
113. Which of the following do polycarboxylate and glass ionomer have in common?
a. Zinc oxide
b. Polyiloxane
c. Phosphoric acid
d. Polyacrilic acid
e. Ion-leachable glass
114. The organisms most difficult to eradicate by sterilization are

a. Fungi
b. Anaerobes
c. AIDS virus
d. Hepatitis B
e. Spore forming bacteria

a. codeine
b. atropine
c. Acetylsalicylic acid
d. All of the above

a. Tooth and gold
b. Tooth and tooth
c. Porcelain and tooth
d. Porcelain and porcelain
e. No difference
117. Bacteremias in patients with heart valve abnormalities may result in:
a. scarlet fever
b. rheumatic fever
c. ludwg's angina
d. infective endocarditic
e. streptococcal pharyngitis
118. The non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may provoke :

a. A-post operative edema
b. gastric ulcer
c. intermittent headache
d. post operation pain
e. all the answers are correct
119. Insulin acts to control diabetes mellitus by:

A. Inhibiting amino acid metabolism
B. Increasing glucose utilization of the cells
C. Inhibiting lipogenesis
D. Stimulating urine excretion of glucose
E. Inhibiting glucose absorption by intestines
120. The hormone primarily responsible for the maintenance of serum calcium level
is
A. Testosterone
B. Growth hormone
C. Thyroid hormone
D. Parathyroid hormone
1. B 21. A 41. E 61. C 81. E 101. B

2. C 22. D 42. E 62. D 82. C 102. D
3. B 23. B 43. E 63. D 83. B 103. A
4. B 24. A 44. E 64. E 84. E 104. B
5. D 25. B 45. E 65. D 85. E 105. D
6. B 26. E 46. E 66. D 86. B 106. A
7. B 27. E 47. C 67. C 87. C 107. C
8. B 28. C 48. B 68. D 88. E 108. B
9. D 29. D 49. B 69. B 89. A 109. B
10. A 30. E 50. D 70. D 90. E 110. C
11. D 31. A 51. D 71. D 91. B 111. C
12. B 32. E 52. D 72. D 92. A 112. B
13. C 33. B 53. C 73. A 93. C 113. D
14. D 34. E 54. B 74. C 94. E 114. E
15. C 35. E 55. A 75. C 95. B 115. B
16. A 36. E 56. A 76. D 96. E 116. C
17. A 37. E 57. E 77. B 97. E 117. D
18. B 38. E 58. C 78. C 98. B 118. B
19. E 39. E 59. C 79. C 99. E 119. B
20. A 40. E 60. D 80. A 100. C 120. D
Test №12
1. Safe effective agents used in the chemomechanical retraction technique include all
of the following except:
a. Aluminum chloride
b. Aluminum potassium sulfate
c. Zinc chloride
d. Aluminum sulfate
e. Ferric sulfate
2. Acceptable reasons to place crown margins subgingivally include all of the

following except
a. caries
b. esthetics
c. resistance and retention
d. lack of enamel
e. to get past existing restorations
3. During solidification, gold alloys shrink approximately:

a. 0.1%
b. 1%
c. 0.5%
d. 1.5%
e. 5%
4. Bonding mechanisms that have been reported for a ceramic veneer to a metal
substructure include all of the following except:
a. mechanical
b. compressive
c. Van der Waal’s forces
d. Covalent bonding
e. chemical bonding
5. According to Garber et al. which of the following finish lines is best for veneers?
a. Shoulder
b. Bevel
c. Chamfer
d. Feather edge
e. a,c
6. Vitamin K is necessary for the formation of:

l. Prothrombin
2. F actor VII
3. Factor VIII
4. Factor X
Choose one:
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3
d. All of the above
7. The sensory organs in muscles are:

1. Muscle Spindles
2. Alpha nerve fibers
3. Golgi Tendon Organs
4. Gamma Nerve Fibers
Choose one:
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1,2, 3
d. All of the above
8. When designing a casting for a maxillary removable partial denture, the first part
of the design should be:
a. Rests.
b. Retainers.
c. Major connectors
d. Minor connectors.
e. Saddles
9. Wear of tooth structure and the opposing restorative material is complex and can
be affected by many factors. Exposure to a beverage with a low PH significantly
increased the wear rate of enamel when opposed by:
a) Glazed porcelain
b) Unglazed porcelain
c) Polished porcelain
d) a&c
e) All of the above
10. The combination of canine guidance and lateral disocclusion results in:
a. A decrease in EMG activity of the temporal and masseter muscles.
b. Isotonic muscle contraction of the medial pterygoid muscle.
c. Increased activity in the anterior temporal muscle during lateral slide from centric
occlusion.
d. An increase in EMG activity of all muscles.
e. No significant effect on the EMG activity of the temporal and masseter muscles.
11. Inflammation of the denture supporting tissues can often be reduced or eliminated
by:
a. Having the patient leave their dentures out of their mouth
b. Judicial and correct use of tissue conditioners inside the dentures
c. Surgical procedures
d. Occlusal correction of the existing dentures and the use of resilient liners
e. All of the above
12. Use of metal-base prosthesis for treatment of an edentulous xerostomic patient is

preferred over conventional acrylic resin for the following reason:
a) Increased wettability
b) More accurate fit
c) Less porous
d) b, c
e) a b, c
13. Henderson states that the superior border of a lingual bar mandibular major
connector must be four, and preferably five, millimeters from the gingival crest of the
mandibular teeth because:
a) this provides the most comfort to the patient
b) a three millimeter sulcular depth in this area is normal and 4-5 millimeters assures
the connector will rest on attached tissue
c) it covers the least tissue and will not impinge on the lingual frenum
d) regardless of where the fulcrum is the bar will not impinge on the tissue
14. Which part of a distal extension removable partial denture best provides
resistance to torquing and movement of the abutment teeth?
a) major connector
b) rest
c) guide plane
d) guide plate
e) clasp
15. According to Tallgren, after teeth are removed and complete dentures are placed,
the mandible loses how many more times ridge height than the maxilla over a seven
year period?
a. 2x.
b. 4x.
c. 6x.
d. 8x.
16. Which of the following is not correct about gypsum products?

a. Type III stone is an alpha hemihydrate.
b. Type V stone has a higher setting expansion than Type IV stone.
c. Type V stone has a higher compressive strength than Type IV
stone.
d. Small amounts of many inorganic salts act as retarders of setting time.
17. The activator for chemically cured methyl methacrylate is:

a. benzoyl peroxide
b. dimethyl-para-toluidine
c. camphoroquinone
d. heat
e. dibutyl phthalate
18. If you prescribe atropine to reduce salivary flow, you should advise the patient
that the following side effects may be experienced:
a. dryness and burning of the throat
b. vasodilation of skin capillaries with flushing
c. blurred vision
d. all of the above
e. a and b
19. Titanium and its alloys are important in Le dental and surgical implants because
of its:
a. biocompatibility, strength and corrosion resistance.
b. biocompatibility, strength and thermo-conductivity.
c. biocompatibility and resistance to surface oxidation.
d. biocompatibility, resistance to surface oxidation and low cost.
20. Which ofthe following are not considered a mandibular border movement in the
sagittal plane (Posselt’s envelope)
a. Centric occlusion
b. Retruded contact position
c. Maximum protrusion with tooth contact
d. Postural rest position
e. Rotational hinge movement
b. The Food—tooth contact time.
c. The food-tooth contact time has no effect.
d. Sugar consumption.
e. A+B+D
22. Choose the correct answer:

a. Sweeteners nowadays show no side effect and meet all the requirements.
b. They have a nice taste.
c. They are all non-cariogenic.
d. Cyclamates are very often used.
e. Sorbitol does not provoke diarrhea.
23. The methods for the prevention of dental caries have the following goals:
a. Limiting the demineralization factors.
b. Oral dental hygiene is not an essential factor.
c. The food balance is not taken into consideration.
d. A+E
e. Favoring the remineralization phases.
24. Saliva has many functions:

a. Elimination of food debris.
b. Elimination of the oral cavity micro-organism.
c. A+B
d. Lubrication and anti-microbial action.
e. A+B+D

a. Over the last decades a growing importance has been given to education in order to
prevent diseases.
b. There are no relations between behavior, lifestyle and health.
c. It is more costly to promote than to bear the costs of illness.
d. A+B
e. A+B+C

a. The efficiency of brushing depends on a number of factors including motivation.
b. Brushing lasts one minute.
c. Brushing mainly takes place in the morning.
d. Brushing the tongue is not recommended.
e. A+B+C

a. Toothpastes don’t contain abrasives.
b. Abrasives are generally toxic free and hardly soluble inorganic salts.
c. Some methods are being used to determine toothpastes abrasiveness
d. B+C
e. A+B+C

a. Drinking water fluoridation didn’t give good results in terms of reducing caries
indicators.
b. Drinking water fluoridation is hard to be implemented.
c. Naturally fluoridated waters with dosages < to 2 ppm are recommended for
drinking.
d. Milk fluoridation is impossible.
e. A+E
29. The most commonly used compounds are:

a. Sodium Fluoride (NAF)
b. Acid phosphate fluoride (APF)
c. Stannous fluoride (SnF2)
d. A+B+C

a. The morphology of pits and fissures influences occlusal dental caries.
b. Inter-proximal dental caries appear starting 12 years of age.
c. Occlusal dental caries evolve very slowly.
d. Caries in collars evolve very rapidly.
31. Dental extractions for a patient with heart disease (endocarditis risk) must be
done after prophylactic antibiotherapy. What is antibiotic of choice
a. Penicillin G
b. Tetracycline
c. Streptomycin
d. Gentamicin
32. Oral candidiasis may be due to:

a. a large spectrum antibiotic treatment
b. corticosteroid therapy
c. immunosuppressive therapy
d. head and neck radiotherapy
e. all of the above
33. From the following drugs which are those responsible for xerostomia:
a. psychotropic
b. antihypertensives
c. diuretics
d. a, b correct
e. all answers correct
34. Hypoplasia may be responsible of oral complications

a. candidiasis
b. black hairy tongue
c. dysguesia
e. all of the bove
35. The means used for clinical examination:

a. Inspection + Palpation
b. Percussion + Auscultation
c. Olfaction
d. a+b
e. all of the above
36. The herpetic primoinfection is characterized by:

a. acute gingivostomatitis
b. an incubation period of 5 to 6 days followed by fever and pharyngeal pain
c. many small ulcers on all oral mucosa
d. a and b
e. a, b and c
37. The space maintainer distal shoe is:

a. Recommended after every extraction of the second primary molar
b. Recommended after every extraction of the first primary molar
c. Recommended if the first permanent molar has not erupted
d. Not recommended
38. The principal etiology of non-specific marginal gingivitis in children is:

a. herpes simplex
b. candida albicans
c. growth hormone
d. dental plaque
e. genetic
39. Pulpitis on temporary teeth:
a. it is short.
b. surrender to painkillers.
c. a rare cause of consultation.
d. all of the above.
e. A + C.
40. Early childhood caries are mostly due to:

a. A very poor oral hygiene
b. The breastfeeding for hours during night
c. A multiple intake of snacks
d. The sticky sugar (candy, bubble gum, lollipop)
e. All the above
41. The resorption of the deciduous teeth:

a. is a pathological resorptoin of the tooth
b. appears only when there is decay in the tooth
c. starts directly after the eruption of the tooth
d. reaches only the anterior incisors
e. is a physiological phenomenon
42. Which is the antibiotic of choice in case of children cellulitis :

a. Penicilline
b. Amoxicilline
c. Doxicycline
d. Clindamycine
e. Quinolone
43. Which of the following is the most important criteria of a successful pulpotomy
on a young permanent central incisor?
A. Calcified bridge visible on radiographs
B. Uncompleted root completes its development
C. Tooth completely asymptomatic for a period of 6 months
D. Resolution of the peri apical pathology.
E. Absence of ankylosis
44. Free gingiva:

1. Can be probed probed
2. Is separated from the tooth by the free
3. Free gingiva has rolled margin and is translucent
a) 1
b) 1,2
c) 1,3
d) 2,3
e) 1,2,3
45. Attached gingiva:

1. Is larger regarding a buccally tilted tooth
2. Tend to increase with age
3. Range between 1 and 9 mm
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1,2
d) 1,3
e) 1,2,3
46. Between all this structures, which of the following can be seen on radiographs:
1. Cementum
2. Periodontal ligament
3. Fenestrations
4. Dehiseenee’s
5. Alveolar bone proper (cribriform plate)
a) 2
b) 2,3
c) 4,5
d) 2,5
e) 1,2
47. Hemidesmosomes:
l. Attache epithelial cells together
2. Attache epithelium to connective tissue
3. Attache junctionnal epithelium to the tooth
4. Are always in contact with the basement membrane
a) 3,4
b) 2,3
0) 2,4
d) 2,3,4
e) 1,2,3,4
48. Junctional epithelium (JE):

1. Basal cells of JE are in contact with the enamel surface of tooth
2. Is parakeratinized
3. Extend apically to the cement-enamel junction
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1,3
e) 2,3
49. An anaphylactic reaction
a. is a predictable adverse drug reaction
b. Is a hypersensitivity reaction Type I
c. involves the production of IgG antibodies after exposure to the antigen
d. may be clinically similar to anaphylaxis
e. Affects women more than men
50. Oxygen can be administered in almost all medical emergencies occurring in the
dental office. Unless:
a. cardiovascular
b. Hyperventilation
c. vagal malaise
d. Inhalation of foreign body
e. hypoventilation
51. In case of acute asthmatic crisis with no possibility of administration by

inhalation of Ventolin®, are used as first line the injection of:
a. Adrenaline
b. Bricanyl
c. Calcium chloride
d. 20mg Celestene
e. antihistamine
52. Immediately after tooth extraction, a known cardiac patient experiencing angina.
This is most likely enhanced by:
a. Its position in the chair
b. An allergy to analgesic agent
c. The stimulus of pain and anticipation
d. The adrenaline of the analgesic agent
e. Hypertension
53. Three days after full mouth extraction, an elderly patient complains of black-and-
blue marks on her neck. The most probable diagnosis is
a. thrombocytopenia
b. capillary fragility
c. hematoma formation
d. postoperative ecchymosis
e. A + B
54. The type of radiation used in radiotherapy is:

A. alpha
B. beta
C. gamma
D. omega
E. all of the above
55. In MRI, the elements which determine the intensity of the signal emitted by a
tissue are:
1. opacity of the tissue against the waves
2. the hydrogen concentration
3. the organization of the tissue
4. the depth of the examined organ
A. 1 + 2 + 3
B. 2 + 3
C. l + 3 + 4
D. 1 + 4
56. The amount of cellular damage after irradiation depends on:

A. tissue radiosensitivity
B. volume or region of tissue irradiated
C. dose rate
D. the intensity of exposure
E. all of the above
57. Ameloblastoma can originate from epithelial lining of which cyst:

A. Periradicular
B. Dentigerous
C. Residual
D. Lateral paxodontal
E. all of the above
58. A radio opaque image in the alveolar bone which contain several rudimentary
teeth can be considered:
A. Periapical cemental dysplasia
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Composed odontoma
D. Complex odontoma
E. Pindborg tumor
59. Radiographic examination of the four lower incisors shows radiolucent vertical
lines from the apical region toward the body of the mandible. This can be:
A. sinuous paths
B. fistulous paths
C. nutrient canals
D. osteomyelitis of the mandible
60. The lateral cephalometric radiograph requires a target-object distance:

A. > 90 cm
B. > 1 meter
C. > 1.5 meters
D. > 4 meters

A. Urine
B. Sweat
C. Stool
D. Saliva

A. likely to cause allergic reactions
B. Effective against anaerobic bacteria
C. Used in 200 mg dose every 3 hours
D. used in1000 mg dose once daily
63. A tooth with a nonvital pulp and a firm swelling of the overlying mucosa requires
a. immediate incision and drainage
b. debridement of the root canal spaces
c. systemic antibiotic therapy
d. probing of the gingival sulcus for a sinus tract
e. A + B
64. Pain to percussion before endodontic treatment is an indication of

b. irreversible pulpitis
c. inflammation of the periodontal ligament
d. pulp necrosis
e. pulp gangrene
65. A patient presents with intermittent pain from a maxillary central incisor.
Radiographically, the root canal appears calcified and a periapical lesion is evident.
Based on history, clinical examination and tests, it is determined that the pulp is
necrotic. Which procedure is recommended as the first step in treatment?
a. apicoectomy and retrofill
b. incision and drainage, and trephination
c. delay treatment until pain becomes constant
d. attempt to find the root canal as part of conventional root canal therapy
e. none ofthe above
66. Two hours elapsed before a patient with an avulsed tooth was able to see a
dentist. The dentist replanted and splinted the tooth, and performed nonsurgical
endodontic therapy. Which of the following probably resulted afler the treatment?
A. radicular cyst formation
a. radicular cyst formation
b. condensing osteitis
c. external root resorption
d. chronic periapical periodomitis
67. Which of the following causes discoloration of a tooth with necrotic pulp?
a. decomposition of necrotic tissue
b. hemolysis of unremoved blood cells
c. failure to include pulp horns in a coronal access
d. use of a root canal sealer that contains precipitated silver
e. all of the above
68. The most frequent cause of failure in endodontics is
a. split roots
b. root perforation
69. Endodontically treated posterior teeth are more susceptible to fracture than
untreated posterior teeth. The best explanation for this is
a. moistureloss
b. loss of root vitality
c. plastic defamation of dentine
d. destruction of the coronal architecture
e. increased susceptibility of the enamel to fracture
70. Prognosis of a tooth with a broken instrument located 3mm. from the apex is
probab1y best if the tooth has a
a. vital pulp with a periapical lesion
b. vital pulp without a periapical lesion
c. necrotic pulp with a periapical lesion
d. necrotic pulp without a periapical lesion
e. B + D
71. A new patient had root canal therapy performed seven months ago in another
country. No historical radiographs are available. The root canal filling appears to be
satisfactory, the tooth is asymptomatic, and there is no associated sinus tract.
However, small periapical radiolucency is evident. Which of the following is
indicated?
a. incision and drainage
b. nonsurgical retreatment
c. re-evaluation in six months
d. apicoectomy and apical amalgam
e. prescription of an appropriate antibiotic
72. One year ago, an 8 year-old boy fractured a central incisor. There are no
symptoms. The tooth does not respond to pulp testing; however, control teeth do
respond. What is the preferred treatment?
a. pulpotomy with Ca (OH);
b. pulpotomy with formocresol
c. conventional root canal treatment
d. debridement of the pulp space and apexification
73. A patient of record calls late Saturday night because of severe, throbbing pain
aggravated by “heat, biting and touching mandibular premolar. What procedure is
recommended?
a. instruct the patient to apply ice intermittently, take aspirin, and call Monday for an
appointment
b. prescribe an analgesic and refer the patient to an endodontist
c. refer the patient to the hospital oral surgery department for extraction
d. see the patient at the office, remove the carious dentine and place a sedative zinc
oxide-eugenol cement
e. see the patient at the office and initiate endodontic treatment
74. Blood vesse15 become established in the dental papilla

a. prior to the formation of the cervical loop
b. during the bud stage of tooth formation
c. during the bud stage of tooth formation
d. during the cap stage of tooth formation
e. no relation with these four stages
75. Microorganisms may infect the root canal and I or periapical tissue by
a. direct extension between saliva and pulp chamber
b. direct extension between saliva and periapical region (retrograde infection)
c. through exposed dentinal tubules to pulp chamber
d. through the vascular channels
e. all of the above
76. A standard endodontic instrument of 25mm length has an active portion of

a. 16mm
b. 10mm
c. 25mm
d. 21mm
e. 18mm
77. A patient has a mandibular molar with pulp necrosis, pain to percussion, and with
no periradicular lesions. The emergency treatment for this tooth is which of the
following?
a. Opening the tooth, performing apical trephination, temporizing, and checking the
occlusion
b. Prescribing analgesics and antibiotics, and rescheduling the patient
c. Performing pulpotomy, temporizing, and checking the occlusion
d. Debriding the canals, temporizing, and checking the occlusion
e. Opening the tooth for drainage and leaving the tooth open
78. During root planning and scaling, each of the following can take place one.
Which one is this EXCEPTION?
a. Dentin removal
b. Eamel removal
c. Calculus removal
d. Cementum removal
e. Enadvertent curettage
79. The antibiotic effective against pathogenic fungi is:

a. Bacitracin
b. Nystatin
c. Polymyxine
d. Doxycycline
e. Cephalexin
80. Cortocosteroids may be used to treat:

A. allergies
B. Asthma
C. Arthritis
D. Addison's disease
B. All of the above
81. In the following illustration ofa radiograph, facial and lingual objects (- and v) are
superimposed.
When the central ray is directed from farther posteriorly, the radiograph appears as
follow.
Which of the following statements about the location of the two objects are true?
a.The object is located lingually and the object is located lingually
b. The object is located lingually and the object is located facially
c. The object is located facially and the object is located lingually
d. The object is located facially and the 1 object is located facially
82. The cross-sectional view at midroot illustrated is MOST probably that of a
A. maxillary first premolar

B. mandibular first premolar
C. lingual root of a maxillary molar
D. distal root of a mandibular first molar
E. mesial root of a mandibular first molar
83. Which of the following diagrams illustrates the occlusal view of a primary
maxillary right first molar?
84. The midroot cross-sectional diagram illustrates the root of molar?
A. Right first maxillary molar viewed from the occlusal

B. Left first maxillary molar
C. Right second mandibular molar
D. Right third maxillary molar
E. Left third maxillary molar
85. Trismus, secondary to an inferior alveolar injection, most likely results from
a. failure to use an aspirating syringe
b accidental injection of the solution near a branch of the facial nerve
c. allowing the needle tip to rest beneath the periosteum during injection
d. passing the needle through the medial pterygoid muscle
e. accidental injection of the solution near a major motor branch of the trigeminal
nerve
86. All of the following give similar radiographic findings EXCEPT

a. complex odontoma
b. ameloblastoma
c. radicular cyst
d. eosinophilic granuloma
e. lateral periodontal cyst
87. Prolonged sensitivity to heat, cold and pressure after cementation of a crown or a
fixed partial denture is usually related to
A. occlusal trauma
B. improper cementation
C. impingement on the marginal gingival
D. failure to desensitize abutment teeth
E. using polycarboxylate base cement
88. Antibiotics are useful in the treatment of which of the following?

a. Herpangina
b. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
c. Angina pectoris
d. Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
e. All of the above
89. The main result of trauma from occlusion is

a. mobility of teeth
b. pain on percussion of a tooth
c. faceting of the cusps of the teeth
d. pain on drawing cold air into the mouth
e. a widened periodontal space on radiographic examination
90. A 14-year-old girl fell from her bike and avulsed her maxillary right central and
lateral incisors. The patient was brought to the dental office within 25 minutes. The
treatment-of-choice is to
a. perform gutta—percha pulpectomies, then replant and splint
b. perform calcium hydroxide pulpectomies, then replant and splint
c. replant and splint, then do gutta-percha pulpectomies in one week
d. replant immediately, splint, and do calcium hydroxide pulpectomies after one week
e. replant, splint and observe
91. For the dentist, the most reliable method of detecting a patient's allergy to
penicillin is by:
a. Injecting a small amount of penicillin intra-muscular
b. Injecting a small amount of penicillin intra—dermal
c. Asking patient to inhale penicillin spray
d. Taking a thorough medical history
e. All of the above
92. Which of the following has the broadest antimicrobial spectrum?

A. Erythromycin
B. Clindamycin
C. Chlortetracycline
D. Vancomycin
E. Streptomycin
93. Hepatic “first pass” metabolism of drugs is most significant after which route of
administration?
a. Oral
b. Rectal
c. Sublingual
d. Intravenous
e. Subcutaneous
94. Which of the following is a frequent side-effect of antihistaminic therapy?

a. Anemia
b. Anuria
c. Diuresis
d. Drowsiness
e. Autonomic nervous system overactivity
95. Tetracyclines:
A. Have an adverse effect on cardiac function
B. Are effective against anaerobes
C. Have synergic effect with penicillin
D. Frequently cause allergic reactions
96. The antibiotic of choice in patients allergic to penicillin is:

A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Tetracycline
E. Lincomycin
97. During preparation for a cast gold restoration, the tooth tissue, which is weakened
by the cavity preparation and subjected to damage by the forces of mastication, must
be
a. reduced and covered by the cast restoration
b. strengthened by the use of cement or an amalgam core
c. protected by resorting to full coverage of the tooth
d. beveled and the patient reminded not to exert undue forces on the tooth
e. put the restoration out of occlusion
98. One of the best materials for sedation of dental pulp is

a. cavity varnish
b. calcium hydroxide
c. zinc oxide-eugenol
d. zinc silicophosphate cement
e. a proprietary product of sterilized dentin powder and distilled water
99. An amalgam restoration was placed in a premolar. The preparation contained

large, deep, retentive undercuts in the dentinal line angles. About one month after
insertion of this restoration, the patient experienced definite pain in the region of this
tooth The most probable cause of this pain is
a. undetected pulp exposure
b. excessive delayed expansion of the amalgam
c. moisture contamination of the amalgam only after condensation
d. moisture contamination of the amalgam before and after condensation
e. the fact that, although the amalgam was overtriturated, an insufficient amount of
mercury was expressed from it during condensation
100. A 15-year-old patient has a proximal cavity on a posterior tooth. There are no
missing teeth. Oral hygiene and tooth relationship are excellent. The cavity
preparation can be limited to the involved proximal surface if
a. x-ray examination of the proximal area of the affected tooth reveals that the carious
process has not reached the dentinoenamel junction
b. the facial and lingual cavosurface margins of the cavity preparation can be
extended to self-cleansing areas
c. the carious lesion does not undermine the enamel at the marginal ridge
d. the carious lesion does not involve the contact area
101. Acid etching of enamel increases retention and adaptation of resin restorations
by
a. increasing the surface area
b. conditioning the surface for better wetting
c. creating surface irregularities for better mechanical locking
d. all of the above
102. Which of the following apply when using a light to cure light activated
composite resin?
A. Curing time should be increased with darker resin shades
B. Curing time should be increased with lighter resin shades
C. the light should be held at least 5.0mm from the resin surface
D, A + B
E. C + D
103. The greatest potential hazard of chronic mercury toxicity comes from
a. . skin contact with mercury
b. inhalation of mercury vapor
c. amalgam restorations in a patient
d. ingestion of amalgam scrap during removal of an old restoration
e. stocking a big quantity of mercury
104. A class V carious lesion on the maxillary left canine usually has a conical decay
pattern with the
a. base of the cone in the dentinal portion facing the pulp
b. base of the cone in the enamel portion on the facial surface
c. apex of the cone in the dentinal portion facing the dentinoenamel junction
d. apex of the cone in the enamel portion of the facial surface away from the
dentinoenamel junction
e. none of the above. The usual pattern of a ciass V lesion is not conical
105. In which of the following situations does pulp capping have the most favorable
prognosis?
a. there is a mechanical exposure in a clean, dry field in a developing tooth
b. there is a mechanical exposure in a clean, dry field in a mature tooth
c. assurance of vitality is evidenced by hypersensitivity to heat
d. there is no hemorrhage from the exposure
e. an antibiotic is used in the pulp capping medicament
106. Progressive destruction of periodontai tissues after restorative procedures is

most likely due to
a. the type of material used
b. trauma caused by tooth preparation
c. rough surfaces and ill-fitting margins
d. retraction strings and impression techniques
e. all of the above
107. Which of the foiiowing variables has the greatest significance in antibiotic
management of dental infections?
A .route of administration
B. susceptibility of the organism
C. antigenicity of the antibiotic
D. acceleration of lymphatic drainage
E. specific antibody rate of the host
108. Sodium hypochlorite used as a root canal irrigant cannot act as

A. an antiseptic
B. an anodyne
C. a lubricant
D. a solvent of pulp tissue
E. a bleach
109. Which of the following methods is the best to preserve dental arch length?
A. Placing a lingual arch
B. Restoring proximal carious teeth
C. Placing fixed retainers
D. Placing functional retainers
110. The main growth site fir the mandible is in the:

A. Posterior border of the ramus
B. Condylar cartilage
C. Body of the mandible
D. Gonial angle
E. Symphysis
111. A pediatric stainless steel crown should extend subgingivally around:

a. 0.5mm
b. 1mm
c. 1.5mm
d.2mm
e. 2.5mm
112. Spoon excavator should preferably be used during pulpotomy in deciduous teeth
so as to prevent:
A. Perforation of pulpal floor
B. Pulling out of radicular pulp
C. Pulpal maceration at amputation site
D. Excessive bleeding from radicular pulp stump
E. All of the above
113. The chronological age of the child is:

A. Closely related to dental age
B. Closely related to physiologic age
C. An accurate index of maturation
D. Often independent of dental and skeletal ages
114. The treatment of choice for a pulpless young permanent incisor is:
A. Pulpotomy
B. Pulpectomy
C. Retrograde root canal filling with amalgam
D. Filling the canal with calcium hydroxide
E. All of the above
115. Peak growth velocity in girls is:

a. 6 months ahead of boys
b. 6 months after that of boys
c. 2 years ahead of boys
d. At the same time as in boys
e. 1 year after that of boys
116. In early treatment the removal of etiologic factors is recommended

a. At any time
b. Between 9-14 years
c. Between 6-12 years
e. Between 2-6 years
117. Increased value of ANB angle yields (gives):

A. Class I malocclusion
B. Class III malocclusion
C. Class II malocclusion
D. Normal occlusion with bimaxillary protrusion
E. All of the above
118. The face and the oral structures of the embryo develop between:
A. 2-5 Weeks
B. 4-5 Weeks
C. 4-7 Weeks
D. 4-9 Weeks
E. 2—6 months
119. Which of the following etiologic factors may not produce open bite?
A. Thumb and /or finger sucking
B. Severe crowding
C. Infantile type of swallowing
D. Abnormal muscle and pressure habits
E. Oral breathing
120. Cephalometrically, the sagittal maxillo-mandibular relationship is better
assessed by:
A. SNA angle
B. SNB angle
C. ANB angle
D. SN / Go-Gn angle
E. All of the above
1. C 21. E 41. E 61. A 81. B 101. C

2. D 22. C 42. D 62. B 82. A 102. A
3. D 23. D 43. E 63. B 83. C 103. B
4. D 24. E 44. C 64. C 84. A 104. B
5. C 25. A 45. E 65. D 85. D 105. A
6. D 26. A 46. D 66. C 86. A 106. C
7. A 27. D 47. D 67. E 87. A 107. B
8. A 28. C 48. D 68. C 88. B 108. B
9. E 29. D 49. B 69. D 89. A 109. B
10. A 30. A 50. D 70. B 90. C 110. B
11. E 31. E 51. D 71. C 91. D 111. B
12. E 32. E 52. C 72. D 92. C 112. E
13. B 33. E 53. D 73. E 93. A 113. D
14. A 34. E 54. C 74. C 94. D 114. D
15. B 35. E 55. B 75. E 95. B 115. C
16. D 36. E 56. E 76. A 96. B 116. D
17. B 37. C 57. B 77. D 97. A 117. C
18. D 38. D 58. C 78. B 98. C 118. C
19. A 39. E 59. C 79. B 99. A 119. B
20. D 40. B 60. C 80. E 100. E 120. C
Test №13

joint?
a. facial
b. buccal
c. maxillary
d. mylohyoid
e. auriculotemporal
2. Salivary glands of the hard palate are located in the

A. median raphe
B. gingival zone
C. anterolateral zone
D. posterolateral zone
E. whole palatine mucosa
3. The incisor indicated by the arrow in the following sketch is a
a.primary maxillary left lateral

b. primary mandibular right central
c. primary mandibular right lateral
d. permanent mandibular right lateral
e. permanent mandibular left lateral
4. The following sketch represents the

a.mesial view of a permanent mandibular first molar
b. mesial view of a permanent mandibular second molar
c. mesial view of a permanent mandibular third molar
d. distal view of a permanent mandibular first molar
e. distal view of a permanent mandibular second molar
5. The highest and sharpest cusp on a pn'maxy mandibular first molar is the
a. mesiolingual
b. distolingual
c. mesiofacial
d. distofacial
e. distal
6. Which of the following teeth is most likely to occasionally exhibit a lingual groove
that extends from the enamel onto the cemental ma of the root?
a. maxillary canine
b. maxillary central incisor
c. maxillary lateral incisor
d. maxilla” first premolar
e. mandibular second premolar
7. For the dentist, the most reliable method of detecting a patient's allergy to
penicillin is by:
a. Injecting a small amount of penicillin intra-muscular
b. Injecting a small amount of penicillin intra-dermal
c. Asking patient to inhale penicillin spray
d. Taking a thorough medical history
e. All of the above
8. Which of the following has the broadest antimicrobial spectrum?

a. Erythromycin
b. Clindamycin
c. Chlortetracycline
d. Vancomycin
e. Streptomycin
9. The antibiotic effective against pathogenic fungi is:

a. Bacitracin
b. Nystatin
c. Polymyxin B
d. Doxycycline
e. Cephalexin
10. Cortocosteroids may be used to treat:

A. allergies
B. Asthma
C. Arthritis
D. Addison's disease
E. All of the above
11. ln a normal healthy mouth, the interdental papilla that is the shortest cervico-
occlusally id between mandibular
a. Acentral and lateral mcisors
b. lateral mcisor and canine
c. canine and first premolar
d. first and second pxemolars
e. second premolar and first molar
12. The distal contact area of a permanent maxillary canine is usually located at the
a. middle third
b. middle of the incisal third
c. middle of the cervical third
d. junction of iucisal and middle thirds
e. B or C
13. Which otthe following represents the basis for the topical application of fluorides
in dental caries prevention?
a. Fluoride penetrates the enamel through the lamellae
b. Keralin content of the enamel is made more insoluble
c. Fluoride coats the tooth forming a uniform protective barrier
d. The primary cuticle, being less calcified, absorbs the fluoride
e. Acid solubility ofthe surface enamel is reduced by the fluoride
14. Which of the following represents the primary function of cementum?

a. Attach Sharpey‘s fibers
b. Protect the root from caries
c. Repair traumatic injuries of the root
d. Supply nutrition to the periodontal ligament
e. Maintain the width ofthe periodontal ligament

A. Urine
B. Sweat
C. Stool
D. Saliva
A. likely to cause allergic reactions
B. Effective against anaerobic bacteria
C. Used in 200 mg dose every 3 hours
D. used in 1000 mg dose once daily

A. gold
B. dentjne
C. enamel
D. amalgam
E. porcelain
18. Local anesthetics aid in reducing flow of saliva during operative procedures by
a. blocking cholinergic nerve endings
b. blocking innervation to major salivary glands
c. blocking efferent parasympathetic nerve pathways
d. reducing sensitivity and anxiety during tooth prepaxafion
19. Full denture patients with inflammation of the entire tissue bearing areas should
probably be treated with:
A. Polymyxin B
B. Amoxicillin
C. Neomycin
D. Cephalexin
E. Erythromycin
20. The most effective local antiseptics are:
A. Hexaehlorophane
B. Mercury and hypochlorite
C. Chlorhexidine and iodine
D. Mercury only
E. Iodine only
21.On a carbide bur, a greater number of cutting blades results in

A. less efficient cutting and a smoother surface
B. less efificient cutting and a rougher surface
C. more eflicient cutting and a smoother surface
D. more eflicient cutting and a rougher surface
22. Which the following groups of fibers of the periodontal ligament is most likely to
be found in the middle third of
a. apical
b. oblique
c. horizontal
d. transseptal
e. alveolar crest
23. The spacing between anterior teeth in the primary dentition is most frequently
caused by
A.thumb-sucking
B. tongue thrusting
C. the growth of the dental arches
D. the pressme from succedaneous teeth
E. the articulation
24. A cross section at midroot of a permanent mandibular centlal incisor is likely to
show that the pulp cavity is
A. almost round
B. divided into two canals
C. flattened mesiodistally
D. flattened faciolingualty
E. shaped much the same as that of a maxillary central incisor
25. In an early mixed dentition case with insufficient space in the anterior segment for
erupting permanent lateral incisors, what teatment is indicated?
A. no treatment: allow the incisors to erupt in a crowded state and treat the case in the
permanent dentition
B. disc the proximal surfaces ofthe permanent incisors to reduce the space required
C. disc the deciduous cuspids
D. extract the deciduous cuspids
E. none otlhe above
26. By what mechanism does the mandible grow downward and forward as viewed
on successive superimposed head film?
A. growth ofthe alveolar process
B. condylar growth
C. growth ofthe fi‘ontonasal process
D. sutural growth
E. none ofthe above
27. Which of the following methods is the best to preserve dental arch length?
A. Placing a lingual arch
B. Restoring proximal carious teeth
C. Placing fixed retainers
D. Placing functional retainers
28. The main growth site fir the mandible is in the:

A. Posterior border of the ramus
B. Condylar cartilage
C. Body of the mandible
D. Gonial angle
E. Symphysis
29. A pediatric stainless steel crown should extend subgingivally around:

A. 0.5mm
B. 1mm
C. 1.5mm
D. 2mm
E. 2.5mm
30. Spoon excavator should preferably be used during pulpotomy in deciduous teeth
so as to prevent:
A. Perforation of pulpal floor
B. Pulling out ofradicular pulp
C. Pulpal maceration at amputation site
D. Excessive bleeding from radicular pulp stump
B. All of the above
31. The chronological age of the child is:

A. Closely related to dental age
B. Closely related to physiologic age
C. An accurate index of maturation
D. Often independent of dental and skeletal ages
32. The treatment of choice for a pulpless young permanent incisor is:
A. Pulpotomy
B. Pulpectomy
C. Retrograde root canal filling with amalgam
D. Filling the canal with calcium hydroxide
B. All of the above
33. Bleeding upon gentle probing the gingiva is indicative of

a. food impaction
b. crestale bone loss
c. ulceration ofthe sulcutar epithelium
d. apical migration ofthe epithelial attachment
e. all ofthe above
34. When the free margin ofthe gingiva is enlarged as a resultofinflammation, its crest
moves
a. apically
b. distally
c. mesially
d. cervically
e. occlusally
35. The petiodontal condition which usually has the worst prognosis is
a. occlusal traumatism
b. gingivitis
c. juvenile periodontitis (periodontosis)
d. periodontal atrophy
e. moderate periodontitis
36. When inflammation in the gingiva extends into the deeper supporting tissues and
part of the periodontal ligament is destroyed, the diagnosis is
A. gingivosis
B. chronic gingivitis
C. juvenile periodontiu‘s (periodontosis)
D. dependent upon the age of the patient
E. none ofthe above
37. Which of the following statements about the gingiva is not tme?
A. normal gingiva is firm and resilient
B. normal gingival surface is either keratitnized or parakeratinized
C. gingival enlargement may cause a coronal positioning of the gingival margin
D. bleeding of the gingiva during tooth-brushing usually is not considered an
abnormal finding
E. fibroedematous gingival consistency indicates the pnesence of an increase in
connective tissue fibers and cells along with the edema of inflammation
38. Hemisection or root amputation is usually precluded when the roots are
a. long
b. short
c. curved
d. A + C
e. fused
39. Sensitivity of exposed root sun‘aces after periodontal surgery may be caused by
A. exposed dentinal tubules
B. accumulation of food debris and dental plaque at the site
C. improper tooth brushing or no tooth brushing at the site
D. A + B + C
E. B + C
40. Each of the following drug regimens is likely to influence periodontal treatment
planning EXCEPT
a. cortisone
b. dicumarol
c. parathormone
d. nitroglycerin
e. antihistamine
41. Sulcular brushing is best accomplished by using a

A. natural-bristle brush
B. soft 2- or 3-row brush with rounded bn'stle tips
C. brushwith anguar-cut bristle tips and a soft texture
D. brush with square-cut bristle tips and a medium texture
42. When a patient fails to demonstrate adequate oral hygiene during initial therapy,
the best course of action is
A. conservative osseous surgery
B. to perform curettage only
C. to limit therapy to gingivectomy
D to continue providing oral hygiene instruction and root planning
43. Swelling beneath the eye due to an abscessed maidllary canine tooth occuIs
because
a. maxillary bone is very porous
b. venous drainage takes place in that direction
c. the root apex of the tooth lies above the attachment
d. an allergic motion to infection is present
e. the maxillary antrum is involved
44. Calcium hydroxide when applied directly to an exposed pulp

a. causes a localized area of pulpal necrosis
b. becomes incorporated in the reparative dentine
c. is rapidly absorbed imo the blood stream
d. is inert and has no effect
e. causes apical necrosis only
45. Which ofthe following causes discoloration ofa tooth with necrotic pulp?
A. decomposition ofnecrotic tissue
B. hemolysis of unremoved blood cells
C. failure to include pulp horns in a coronal access
D. use of a root canal sealer that contains precipitated silver
E. all of the above

a. split roots
b. root perforation
c. complete obturation
47. If the radiographs show the cone of Gutta-Percha to be too short, the clinician
should
a. use a lubricant to seat the cone further
b. enlarge the canal by filing and refit the cone
c. trim 1mm from the end of cone and reinsert
d. change to a large cone and exert apical pressure
48. Maintenance of pulpal vitality of teeth with crown fractures and an exposed pulp
a. helps to prevent internal resorption
b. is desirable with teeth with immature apices
d. is recommended for teeth with pattial calcific pulpal obliteration
49.The endodontie surgical incision

a. should create beveled edges for both the horizontal and vertical component
b. is a continuous cut through the mucosa connective tissue, and periosteum
c. is allowed to cross an existing or created body defect
d. should allow the vertical component to be ptaced over root prominences
e. all of the above
50. Material most popular for retrofilling is

A. amalgam
B. gold foil
C. gutta-percha
D. zinc-oxide eugenol mixture
E. calcium hydroxide mixture
51. Prior to obturation with Gutta-percha, instrumentation must result in canal walls
that are
a. parallel throughout their length
b. slightly tapered to the apical constriction
c. well tapered to the apical constriction
d. widest in apical area
e. widest in midroot area
A. asymptomatic calcified teeth with no evidence of periapical pathosis
B. a well filled dilacerated root canal
C. obturated canals with extensive root resorption showing evidence of healing
D. fenestrated roots of endodonticaliy treated teeth with lingering symptoms
E. a well filled very curved root canal
53. Which of the following factors contribute the greatest amount of retention to the
Onlay restoration?
b. flat pulpal and gingival walls
c. cusp reduction and contrabevels
54. One month after polishing a class V amalgam on a mandibular right first molar,
the gingival tissue was receded apically from the gingival margin restoration. The
dentist should suspect:
A. periodontitis
B. marginal gingivitis
C. allergic response between tissue and metal
D. irreversible tissue change related to finishing
E. physiologic gingival recession
55. An amalgam restoration was placed in a premolar. The preparation contained

large, deep, retentive undercuts in the dentinal line angles. About one month after
insertion of this restoration, the patient experienced definite pain in the region of this
tooth. The most probable cause of this pain is
a. undetected pulp exposure
b. excessive delayed expansion of the amalgam
c. moisture contamination of the amalgam only after condensation
d. moisture contamination of the amalgam before and after condensation
e. the fact that, although the amalgam was overtriturated, an insuffiicient amount of
mercury was expressed from it during condensation
56. A 15-year-old patient has a proximal cavity on a posterior tooth. There are no
missing teeth. Oral hygiene and tooth relationship are excellent The cavity
preparation can be limited to the involved proximal surface if
A. x-ray examination of the proximal area of the affected tooth reveals that the
carious process has not reached the dentinoenamel junction
B. the facial and lingual cavosurface margins of the cavity preparation can be
extended to self-cleansing areas
C. the carious lesion does not undermine the enamel at the marginal ridge
D. the carions lesion does not involve the contact area
57. Which of the following etiologic factors may not produce open bite?
a. Thumb and for finger sucking
b. Severe crowding
c. Tongue thrusting
d. Abnormal muscle and pressure habits
e. Oral breathing
58. Cephalometrically, the sagittal maxillo-mandibular relationship is better assessed

by:
A. SNA angle
B. SNB angle
C. ANB angle
D. S—N / Go-Gn angle
E. All of the above
59. First permanent molars should be extracted for orthodontic treatment only when:
A. Crowding is the problem
B. They are badly decayed
C. Anchorage is not a problem
D. Lower wisdom teeth are in mesioangular impaction
E. Lower second molars are not yet erupting
60. The main purpose of an anterior bite plane in Hawley appliance is to:
a. Reduce the overbite
b. Increase the freeway space
c. Promote eruption of the posterior teeth
d. Allow the mandible to grow forward
e. All of the above
61. For aesthetic and functional considerations, the top of the pontic must be in
contact with:
a) Buccal mucosa
b) Keratinized buccal gingiva
c) The top of the crestal ridge
d) Must be away from the ridge
62. The depression formed after removing of one or several teeth is non aesthetic;it
will be filled :
a) By increasing the volume of the pontic
b) By bone graft
c) By epithelial graft
d) By grafting a connective tissue
63. In the opposite face of the fibromucosa of the ridge, the shape of an ideal pontic
would be:
a) In U shape or arch
b) Triangular
c) Saddle shape
d) Modified saddle or ovoid shape
e) Other
64. The contact between the pontic and the edentulous ridge is best provided by:
a) Glazed ceramic
b) Opaque ceramic
c) Polished alloy
d) Alloy-ceramic intersection
e) No difference
65. Which gas combination could provide the most powerful flame:
a) Hydrogen-air
b) Propane - air
c) Propane -O.
d) Natural gas - air
e) No difference
66. For melting based-alloys (Co -Cr) we use the duo:

a) Gypsum-bonded investment+ ( propane-O2)
b) Phosphate-bonded + (propane-O2)
c) Phosphate-bonded + (propane-air)
d) Gypsum-bonded + (propane-air)
67. In investment the wax pattern must be placed:
a) In the middle of the cylinder
b) Above the mid-cylinder
c) Under the mid-cylinder
d) At any place
e) At any place provided with a cellulose sheet placed inside the cylinder
68. Which of these suggestions is wrong: cellulose sheet inside the cylinder:
a) Increase the expansion of the mold
b) Must be at 5mm distant from the end of the cylinder
c) Decrease the expansion of the mold
d) Will evaporate while wax burnout
e) None of these suggestions is wrong
69. Which alloy exhibits the highest melting point:

a) High Noble alloys for inlays-onlays
b) HN alloys for build-up ceramics
c) Semi-precious alloys
d) Metal-based alloys
e) a et c
70. Which is the time allowed for cylinder transfer from the oven to the creuset of the
sprinwound- machine:
a) 20 sec.
b) 40 sec
c) 50 sec
d) 5 sec.
e) 60 sec
71. The maximum tolerated marginal discrepancy for a crown is:

a) 0,3 mm
b) 0,2mm
c) 0,1mm
d) 0,01mm
e) 0,001 mm
72. Which cement exhibits the highest resistance to traction(best retention):

a) Zinc phosphate
b) G.I.C
c) Hybrid G.I.C
d) Resin cements
e) Zinc oxide eugenol
73. Short preparations should be cemented with:

a) Hybrid G.I.C
b) G.I.C
c) Resin cements
d) Zinc phosphate
e) Zinc oxide eugenoi
74. Which of the following are not considered a mandibular border movement in the
sagittal plane (Posselt’s envelope)
a. Centric occlusion
b. Retruded contact position
c. Maximum protrusion with tooth contact
e. Rotational hinge movement
75. In many studies of actual crown preparations the average mesial - distal taper of
preparations for complete coverage crowns has been found to be in the range of
a. - 6 degrees
b. 10- 15 degrees
c.15 - 25 degrees
d. Over 30 degrees
76.Carbon fiber reinforced epoxy resin posts have a stiffness similar to human dentin.
Which of the following statements is also true.
a. Are less likely than metal posts to cause root fracture at failure.
b. Are radiolucent and biocompatible.
c. Occlusai loads may cause post failure and early preliminary failure of the core.
d. a & c
e. All of the above
77. Utilizing a facebow when mounting a master cast on a semi-adjustable articulator

may have adverse esthetic consequences because:
a. The esthetic reference plane and intercondylar axis may not be parallel.
b. The incisal edge position of the anterior restorations may be placed too far labially.
c. Condylar determinants may not be accurately transferred.
d. all of the above
78. In clinical case series studies of TMD patients with no detectable organic
etiology, in which conservative, reversible, non-invasive therapy was emphasized, the
presenting signs and symptoms appeared to:
a. Improve in the vast majority of patients.
b. Persist or recur in most patients.
c. Worsen in the majority of patients.
d. Remain the same in most patients.
79. Which of the following statements clearly is supported from controlled,
randomized studies:
a. Orthodontic treatment prevents TMD
b. Orthodontic treatment predisposes to TMD
c. Orthodontic treatment causes TMD
d. All of the above
80. Compared to computed tomography (CT), the inferior alveolar canal cannot be
identified using periapical, panoramic, or tomographic techniques in what percentage
of cases?
a. 10 %
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. CT is not better at identifying the inferior alveolar canal
81. Isotopes of an element have the same:

a) half-life
b) A number
6) Z number
d) N number
e) All of the above
82. Which of the following are properties of x rays?

1. they travel at the speed of light
2. they have a longer wavelength than light
3. they are differentially absorbed by matter
4. they cause chemical changes in matter
a) 1,2,and3
b) 1,3,and 4
c) 1,3and 4
d) 2,3and 4
e) all of the above
83. The inside of the x-ray tube has a high vacuum. Its purpose is to:
a) slow the electrons
b) give the electrons an unobstructed path to the anode
6) reduce the amount of heat generated
d) reduce me amount of "scatter" x-rays formed
e) all of the above
84.Ionization occurs:
A. when atoms lose electrons; they become deficient in negative charges and,
therefore, behave as positively charged atoms
B. when atoms gain electrons; they become positively charged
C. when an atom loses its nucleus
D. only when a K-orbit electron is ejected and replaced by an L-orbit electron.
85. The amount of tissue damage following irradiation depends on:

1. radiation type
2. radiation dose
3. radiation dose rate
4. volume of tissue irradiated
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1,2 and 4
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 1and 4
e) all of the above
86. The majo rpart of radiation damage is believed to be produced by:
a) interference with the mitotic acticity of cells
b) a direct action of x-rays on DNA
c) the liberation of free radicals from biological molecules
d) all of the above
87. The type of radiation used in radiotherapy is:

a) alpha
b) beta
c) gamma
d) omega
e) all of the above
88. Chondroma:
a) is a cartilaginous tumor
b) induce bone formation
c) adjacent root resorption is frequent
d) all of the above
e) non of the above
89. A 6 year-old child presented with a unilateral pulsate swallow, characterized

radiologically by a multilocular radiolucent image at the corpus and at the angle of
the mandible. Diagnosis is probably:
a) cherubism
b) hemangioma
c) giant central cell granuloma
d) ameloblastoma
90. Characteristics of tori:
1. they are considered to be devolopment abnormalities
2. they are located in the middle of the palate
3. they are located at the buccal part of the mandible
4. they are characterized radiologically by a radioopaque well limited image and
encountered with a radiolucent ring
a) l and 2
b) l and 3
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) all of the above
e) none of the above ‘\ ,’
91. The nerve responsible for secondary innervation of permanent mandibular

molars:
a. lingual nerve
b. auriculo-temporal nerve
c. inferior alveolar nerve
d. myloioid nerve
e. facial nerve
92. Among the following statements, choose the one which doesn’t correspond to dry
socket:
a. pain is often resistant to common (non nacrotic) analgesics
b. alveolar cavity is often devoid (of blood clot)
c. pain is not irradiated
d. mouth smells foul
e. it occurs in 3% of extractions
93. Amond the following agents, which one is not hemostatic?

a. regenerated oxidized cellulose
b. fibrin
c. collagen
d. gelatin
e. morphogenetic proteins
94. During surgical extraction of an impacted maxillary third molar, the practitioner
inadvertently pushes the tooth which practically disappears. Where do you think this
“lost” tooth could have been pushed?
a. in the sinus
b. in the nasal fossa
c. in the maxillary tuberosity
d. in the infra-temporal fossa
e. in zygomatic bone
95. Fracture of alveolar bone during dental extractions is more likely in case of:
a. hemophilia
b. osteogenesis imperfecta and Paget’s desease
c. multiple myeloma
d. pediatric oral surgery
e. anemia
96. The most appropriate test to evaluate a patient on warfarin before an oral surgical
procedure is:
a. Bleeding time
b. fibrin
c. sedimentation rate
d. platelet count
e. INR
97. What is to be avoided in case of an acute pericoronitis of a partially impacted 38?
a. antibiotherapy
b. surgical removal of operculum overlying 38
c analgesics
d. chlorhexidine mouthwashes
e. antiseptic local irrigation
98. What is the ideal treatment of an acute cellulites of the palate?

a. antibiotherapy
b. incision
c. drainage and culture/ sensitivity test
d. puncture and antibiotherapy
e. none of these treatments (above)
99. Among the following cysts, which one is the most recurring?
a. Odontogenic keratocyst
b. residual cyst
c. eruption cyst
d. nasopalatine cyst
e. lateral periodontal cyst
100. Ludwig’s angina involves:

a. infra-orbital region
b. both sides of the floor of the mouth
c. infra-temporal space
d. masseteric space
e. the right side of the floor of the mouth
101. Which of the following ulceration had a little indurate base:

a) reccurent aphtous
b) reccurent buccal herpes
c) squamous cell carcinoma
cl) syphilitic chancre
e) geantaphtous
102. Which of the following ulcers have an indurate base larger, at the palpation, than
clinical appearance?
b) reccurent buccal herpes
d) syphilitic chancre
e) destructive syphilitic gomrna
103. Which of the following ulcers had a yellow necrotic flat bottom:
b) reccurent vesicle buccal herpes
d) syphilitic chancre
e) destructive syphilitic gomma
104. The herpetic primoinfection is characterized by:

a) acute gingivostomatitis
b) an incubation period of 5 to 6 days followed by fever and pharyngeal pain
c) many small ulcers on all oral mucosa
d) a et b
e) a, b et c
105. rom the following medications which are those responsible for xerostomia:
a) psychotropic
b) antihypertensives
c) diuretics
d) a-b correct
e) all answers are correct.
106.Hyposialia may be responsible complications mouth:

a) candidiasis
b) a black hairy tongue
c) a disgueusie
d) none of the answers is correct
e) a+b+c
107. Herpetic primary infection:

a) has often goes unnoticed in children
b) table gives typical angina bullosa
c) due to the HHV6 virus
d) can give oral scars
e) can give a vesicular angina
108. Stomatitis induced by antibiotics is of type:.

a) hyperpastic
b) diffuse erythema
c) ulcer
d) vesicular
e) none of the answers is correct
109. A parent of a 6-year old child asks about fluoride supplementation. The child
weighs 20 kg and lives in a fluoride-deficient area with less than 0.3 ppm of fluoride
ion in drinking water. What do you recommend?
a. Sodium fluoride, 1-mg tablets, to be chewed and swallowed at bedtime.
b. Sodium fluoride, 2-mg tablets, to be chewed and swallowed at bedtime.
c. Topically applied gels of 2.0% NaF
d. Mouth rinses of 0.2% NaF weekly
e. Mouth rinses of 0.2% NaF daily
110. For effective caries control a 5 year old child staying in an area where
concentration of fluoride ion in drinking water is 0.3 - 06 PPM should consume a
fluoride tablet of
a. 0.25 mg
b. 0.50 mg
c. 1 mg
d. 2 mg
111. .After drinking fruit juice the teeth should be brushed:

a. After 5 minutes.
b. After 10 minutes.
c. After 15 minutes.
d. Afier 20 minutes.
e. Immediately
112. Fluoride gel for home use has an approximate concentration of:
a. 12 000-15 000 ppm.
b. 8000-12 000 ppm.
c. 6000-8000 ppm.
d. 1000-5000 ppm.
113. Which of the following is NOT added to toothpaste as a detergent?

a. Sodium bicarbonate.
b. Sodium lauryl sulphate.
c. Sarcosinate.
d. Sodium N-lauryl
114. What type of fluoride is most commonly found in toothpaste?

a. Stannous fluoride and potassium chloride.
b. Strontium chloride and potassium fluoride.
c. Sodium monofluorophosphate and sodium fluoride.
d. Potassium fluoride and sodium fluoride.
e. Stannous fluoride and sodium fluoride.
115. What concentration of fluoride in toothpaste should be recommended for a 6-

year-old child with a low caries risk, living in a fluoridated area?
a. 100 ppm.
b. 600 ppm.
c. 1450 ppm.
d. 2600 ppm.
116. The organisms most difficult to eradicate by sterilization are

A. fungi
B. anaerobes
C. AIDS virus
D. hepatitis B
E. spore forming bacteria
117. The most reliable method for destroying microorganisms is

A. heat
B. ethylene oxide
C. glutaraldehyde
D. microwave radiation
E. alcohols
118. To be fully effective, glutaraldehyde must be

A. acid pH
B. neutral pH
C. alkaline pH
D. completely polymerized
E. B+D
119.Resistance of staphylococcus aureus to penicillin is caused by

A. pleomorphism
B. an enzyme that attacks penicillin
C. production of a penicillin analogue
D. a lack of mycolic acid in the cell wall
E. the presence of a tough lipopolysaccharide capsule
120. All of the following are possible effects of aspirin EXCEPT

A. reduction of fever
B. shortening of bleeding time
C. suppression ofinflammatory response
D. bleeding from gastrointestinal tract
E. increase in the renal excretion of uric acid at high doses
1. E 21. A 41. B 61. B 81. C 101. C

2. D 22. B 42. B 62. D 82. C 102. C
3. D 23. C 43. C 63. D 83. B 103. A
4. D 24. C 44. A 64. A 84. A 104. E
5. A 25. C 45. E 65. C 85. E 105. E
6. C 26. B 46. C 66. B 86. C 106. E
7. D 27. B 47. B 67. B 87. C 107. A
8. C 28. B 48. B 68. C 88. D 108. B
9. B 29. B 49. B 69. D 89. B 109. A
10. E 30. E 50. A 70. A 90. A 110. A
11. E 31. D 51. C 71. C 91. D 111. D
12. A 32. D 52. D 72. D 92. C 112. D
13. E 33. C 53. A 73. C 93. E 113. A
14. A 34. E 54. D 74. D 94. D 114. C
15. A 35. C 55. A 75. C 95. B 115. B
16. B 36. C 56. E 76. E 96. E 116. E
17. B 37. D 57. B 77. A 97. B 117. A
18. D 38. E 58. C 78. A 98. E 118. C
19. C 39. D 59. B 79. E 99. A 119. B
20. C 40. E 60. E 80. B 100. A 120. B
Test № 14
1. Caries of deciduous teeth must be treated, primarily to

a) maintain arch length
b) maintain esthetics
c) prevent food impaction
d) prevent secondary lesion of permanent tooth bud
e) all of the above
2. During the extraction of a deciduous molar, the permanent tooth bud is

accidentally removed. The treatment of choice is
a. to curette the area thoroughly and remove any remaining bud fragments
b. perform a pulpectomy and replant the tooth bud
c. discard the tooth bud and place a space maintainer
d. close the apex with MTA
3. A 4-year-old boy reports to the clinic immediately after receiving a traumatic blow
to both the maxillary central incisors. On examination, both the teeth were extremely
mobile and there are root fractures in radiographs. The treatment of choice is to
a. observe the teeth for 1 week and then decide
b. extract the teeth
c. perform endodontic therapy on the teeth
d. stabilize the teeth with a splint and observe periodically
4. Which of the following is the most important criterion of successful pulpotomy in

a young permanent molar?
a) Calcified bridge evident on radiographs
b) Uncompleted root end completes its development
c)Tooth completely asymptomatic for 6 months
d) Resolution of the periapical pathology
e) all of the above
5. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomies in temporary molars end up mandatory in failures

because of
a) mortification
b) pulp gangrene
c) alveolar bone resorption
d) external resorption
6. The most important factor in the development of gingivitis in children is :

a) irregular food habits
b) spaces between the teeth
c) physical nature of the food ingested
d) eruption of a tooth
7. What is the feature that doesn’t correspond to Gardner’s syndrome?

a. osteomas of jaws and facial bones
b. colorectal polyps
c. multiple odontomas and impacted teeth
d. family history
e. multiple radiolucent lesions
8. What is the most appropriate treatment of stafne bone defect?

a. enucléation
b. decompression
c. monitoring and surgery
d. monitoring only
e. marsupialization
9. What is the feature that doesn't correspond to Paget's disease (of bone)?
a. xerostomia and multiple papillomas
b. Jaw and skull enlargement
c. hypercementosis and obliteration of periodontal membrane space
d. deep aching pain in affected bones
e. facial paresis (in later phases)
10. What is the factor that doesn‘t influence the success of osseointegration of a
dental osseointegrated implant?
a. biocompatibility of the implant material
b. design of the implant
c. surface characteristics of the implant
d. quality of bone where implant is to be placed
e. the patient's type of occlusion
11. Among the following nerves, which one is inconstant?

a. infra-orbital nerve
b. superior and middle alveolar nerve
c. inferior alveolar nerve
d. greater palatine nerve
e. superior and posterior alveolar nerve
12. In a patient suffering from hemphilia or taking coumarin, it is contra-indicated to

perform:
a. a regional analgesia of inferior alveolar nerve
b. an alveolectomy in order to extract a tooth
c. incision and drainage ofa cellulitis
d. multiple extractions
e. an intra-ligamentary analgesia
13. Among the following groups of local anesthetics, which one comprises long-
acting local anesthetics exclusively?
a. lidoeaine, bupivacaine, xylocaine
b. prilocaine, etidocaine, bupivacaine
c. procaine, ropivacaine, lidocaine
d. bupivacaine, ropivacaine, etidocaine
e. mepivacaine, etidocaine, xylocaine
14. What is the feature that is not found in cleidocranial dysplasia?

a. hypercementosis
b. delayed fontanelle closure
c. supernumerary teeth
d. aplasia or hypoplasia of clavicles
e. wormian bones defects
15. "Cherubism"
a. has no genetic origin
b. involves mandibule on one side only
c. shows its early signs in childhood
d. shows symmetric multiloculated radioopacities in mandible
e. has same prognosis as that of histiocytosis X
16. What is the feature that correspond to peripheral ossifying fibroma?

a. it is never bleedy or ulcerated
b. exclusive gingival location
c. no fibroblastic proliferation inside
d. it is a neoplasm
e. rarely found in young adults and adolescents
17. Which of the following is responsible for much of the irradiation of the patient?
A. transmitted photons
B. absorbed photons
C. scattered photons
D. remnant photons
19. Which of the following cells is least radiosensitive?

A. red blood cell
B. epithelial cell
C. endothelial cell
D. white blood cell
E. connective tissue cell
20. Protection from x-radiation is accomplished by:

A. operator standing directly in front of patient
B. operator standing directly to the right of patient
C. operator standing directly to the left of patient
D. adequate distance between operator and patient's face
21. If a radiolucent image appears to move (after changing the horizontal angle) from
the apex of the upper incisor, it is in fact:
A. a radicular dental cyst
B. a granuloma
C. the anterior palatine foramen
D. an abscess
E. an odontoma
22. The magnetic resonance imaging of the T.M.J.
l. is a noninvasive technique
2. is the only technique that reveals the meniscus
3. is a technique that requires less ionizing radiation
4. does not allow the formation of a three—dimensional image
A. 1 + 2
B. 2 + 3 + 4
C. 2 + 4
D. all of the above
23. For the diagnosis of a necrotic pulp, one must be based:

A. on clinical signs
B. the presence of deep cavity
C. on clinical, radiographic and vitality test
D. the presence of decay or trauma
24. A periapical lesion limited by a radiopaque border states:

A. an abscess
B. a granuloma
C. a radiolucent cyst
D. a slow—growing lesion
E. a rapidly—growing lesion
25. A flush terminal plane in the mixed dentition:

a. Might evolve into a Class I
b. Might evolve into a Class II
c. Is considered normal at this stage
e. All of the above
26. In radiation therapy, rays are used to:

A. destroy a tissue
B. increase mitotic activity
C. release energy
D. dehydrate a tissue
E. all of the above
27. In the case of tumors of the jaws, the CT scan is useful:

A. to clarify the relationship of the tumor with the surrounding anatomical structures
B. to clarify the relationship of the tumor with tooth roots
C. to clarify the tumor extension in both endosteal and the soft parts
D. all of the above
28. Which of the following increase with age in dental pulp?

A. size of the pulp chamber
B. number of collagen fibers
C. calcification within the pulp
D. A + B
E. B + C
joint?
A. facial
B. buccal
C. maxillary
D. mylohyoid
E. auriculotemporal

A. median raphe
B. gingival zone
C. anterolateral zone
D. posterolateral zone
E. whole palatine mucosa
31. Proprioceptors are found in each of the following EXCEPT

A. gingiva
B. skeletal muscle
C. the pulp of a tooth
E. the temporomandibular joint
32. Which of the following groups of fibers of the periodontal ligament is most likely
to be found in the middle third of the root?
A. apical
B. oblique
C. horizontal
D. transseptal
E. alveolar crest
33. Which of the following best describes the root lengths of a maxillary molar?
A. the lingual root is the longest and the distofacial root is the shortest
B. the lingual root is the longest and the mesiofacial root is the shortest
C. the mesiofacial root is the longest and the distofacial root is the shortest
D. the mesiofacial root is the longest and the lingual root is the shortest
E. all roots are the same length
34. From a proximal view, which of the following permanent teeth tends to be
positioned in the arch with its axis most nearly vertical?
A. maxillary canine
B. maxillary lateral incisor
C. maxillary central incisor
D. mandibular lateral incisor
E. mandibular central incisor
35. How soon after the eruption of a permanent tooth is the apex usually fully
developed?
A. immediately
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 2 or 3 years
E. 5 or 6 years
36. The smallest cusp of a permanent mandibular first molar is the

A. distal
B. mesiolingual
C. mesiofacial
D. distolingual
E. cusp of Carabelli
37. The opening of the nasopalatine canal is located at the

A. anterior midline of the palate
B. posterior midline of the palate
C. posterior palate, bilaterally near the first molar root apices
D. posterior, distal to the last erupted maxillary molar, bilaterally
E. lateral wall of the oropharynx, just anterior to tonsillar pillar
38. Which of the following muscles originates from the zygomatic process of the
maxilla?
A. middle temporal
B. lateral pterygoid
C. superficial layer of the masseter
D. posterior portion of the buccinator
39. The lingual height of contour on a permanent mandibular second molar is located
A. in the middle third
B. in the cervical third
C. in the occlusal third
D. at the junction of the cervical and middle thirds
E. at the junction of the middle and occlusal thirds
40. In mixing zinc phosphate cement, which clinical variable has the greatest effect
on the strength of the cement?
A. spatulation time
B. liquid-powder ratio
C. temperature of the mixing slab
D. number and size of powder increments
41. On a carbide bur, a greater number of cutting blades results in

A. less efficient cutting and a smoother surface
B. less efficient cutting and a rougher surface
C. more efficient cutting and a smoother surface
D. more efficient cutting and a rougher surface
A. tooth and gold
B. tooth and tooth
C. porcelain 'and tooth
D. porcelain and porcelain
E. no difference
43. Increasing the water—powder ratio when mixing gypsum materials will
A. increase the setting time
B. decrease the setting expansion
C. increase the porosity of the set material
D. all of the above

A. gold
B. dentine
C. enamel
D. amalgam
E. porcelain
45. Trauma to the pulp caused by ultrahigh—speed cutting is related to the

A. remaining thickness of dentin
B. pressures placed upon the instrument while cutting
C. coolant used while cutting
D. sharpness of the bur
E. all of the above
46. In the presence of a recession of 2 mm, a periodontal pocket of 3 mm corresponds

to a clinical attachment level of:
A. 1 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 3 mm
D. 5 mm
E. 6 mm
47. The goal of scaling/root planning is to:

1. Reduction in clinical attachment levels
2. Reduction in probing depths
3. Gain in clinical attachment levels
4. Gain in probing depths
A. 1,2 B. 1,4 C. 2,3 D. 3,4 E. 5
48. The primary purpose of root planning is to:

A. Remove calculus deposits
B. Remove the entire cementum layer to expose dentine.
C. remove all viable bacteria
D. Smooth root surfaces
E. All the above
49. Bacteriological changes that occur after the scaling and planning are:
1. Decrease in Gram — organism
2. Elimination of spirochetes
3. Increase of Gram + organism
5. Elimination of Gram — organism
A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C.1,2,3 D.1,4 E. 5
50. Rotation in orthodontics:
a. is the lesser relapsing movement
b. necessitates an over correction
c. doesn’t require a long period of retention
d. relapses more after fiberotomy
51. During tooth movement :

a. there is bone formation on the pressure side and bone resorption on the tension side
b. there is bone formation on the tension side and bone resorption on the pressure side
c. hyalinization can never happens
d. root resorption can never happens
52. 3-A Class II Division 2 malocclusion differs from a Class II Division 1

malocclusion, in that, in Class II Division 2 malocclusion:
a. there is a labioversion of all four maxillary incisors
b. overbite tends to be less
c. there is a labioversion of the maxillary central incisors only
d. overjet tends to be less
53. Which of the following tooth movements can be easily achieved with removable
appliances?
a. eruption
b. rotation
c. bodily movement
d. tipping
e. root movement
54. In the class I angle, the mesio buccal cusp of the first upper permanent molar is in
relation:
a. Between first and second lower permanent molar
b. Between second bicuspid and first lower permanent molar
c. Mesio buccal sulcus of the second lower permanent molar
d. Between the first and second lower bicuspid
55. The Wits analysis (AoBo):

a. Is a dimension in mm
b. Is a transversal relationship analysis
c. 15 a tridimensional analysis
d. Is a vertical relationship analysis
56. What kind of periodontal therapy should be instituted before orthodontic tooth
movement is initiated.
a. Scaling, root planning, open flap surgery, gingival grafting
b. Bone grafting procedures in an edentulous area.
c. Bone grafting for implant placement
d. Crown lengthening.
e. a+b
57. What are the contraindications intermaxillary elastics in Class II malocclusion?

a. Excessive overbite.
b. Dental open bite
c. Orthognatic facial profile
d. Severe mandibular retrognathia.
e. b+d
58. Xylitol added to chewing gum can reduce the incidence of dental caries. Which of
the following is not a reasonable explanation for such anti cariogenic action xylitol:
a. It increases salivary flow
b. It is a non—cariogenic sugar substitute
c. It arrests incipient caries lesions
d. Cariogenic bacteria are reduced in number
e. a+d
59. Caries spread rate can be well assessed by graphic analysis of various factors.
Which of the following factors are depicted in ‘Stephan’s curve”?
a. pH of saliva following a sucrose rise is plotted against time
b. Consumption of sugary snacks between meals plotted against time
c. The effect of acid binding to calcium salts and removing them from the tooth
surface
d. Increase in salivary flow and rate of remineralization
e. c+d
60. Which of the following is NOT a major mechanism of action for fluoride in caries
inhibition?
a. Increases remineralization of enamel.
b. Inhibits carbohydrate metabolism
c. Reduces enamel solubility.
d. Ability to prevent reduction of the pH of plaque
61. Film thickness is an important property of

A. silicate cement
B. zinc phosphate cement
C. direct-filling resins
D. calcium hydroxide base materials
E all of the above
62. A routine patient schedules an appointment because he says he is having a

problem. Examination reveals a purulent discharge distal to the first molar, which the
patient states has been present for the past week. Radiographs reveal considerable
loss of bone on the distal of the tooth Pulp tests indicate a nonvital tooth. The
treatment of choice would be to
b. refer the patient to a periodontist
c. undertake endodontic therapy and then refer the patient to a periodontist
d. undertake endodontic therapy and observe results by recalling the patient every
three months
e. perform an apicoectomy
63. A large MOD alloy restoration is placed in the mandibular right first premolar. A
week later the patient returns saying that he gets a short sharp pain when he eats or
drinks something cold. Radiographs ate negative. Teeth respond normally to electric
pulp tester and heat. All teeth, except the mandibular tight first premolar, respond
normally to cold. The patient feels a sharp shocking pain when ice is applied to this
teeth. but it disappears as soon as this ice is removed. The tooth is not in traumatic
occlusion. The tooth does not hurt when he eats nor is it sensitive to percussion. The
diagnosis is
A. hypercementoma
B. fractured cusp
C. hypexsensitivity
D. moderate acute pulpalgia
E. acute apical petiodontitis
64. Radiographically, the level of the normal interproximal alveolar crest is related to
a. the epithelial attachment
b. anatomy of the alveolar process
c. location of the gingival attachment
d. amount of underlying trabecular bone
e. position of the cementoenamel junctions of approximal teeth
65. A commonly used chemical for testing pulp vitality is

A. methyl alcohol
B. ethyl alcohol
C. methyl chloride
D. ethyl chloride
66. Which of the following has the greatest impact on success of a periodontal flap
procedure?
a. type of initial incision
b. Extent of flap reflection
c. Position of the flap at closure
d. Level of postoperative plaque control
e. Postoperative width of attached gingiva
67. Sulcular brushing is best accomplished by using a

a. natural-bristle brush
b. soft 2- or 3-row brush with rounded bristle tips
c. brush with angular—cut bristle tips and a soft texture
d. brush with square-cut bristle tips and a medium texture
68. What control tooth or teeth should be utilized when testing a suspected pulpally
involved tooth?
A. Adjacent tooth
B. Suspected tooth
C. Opposing teeth and adjacent teeth
D. Contra lateral tooth and opposing teeth
E. Adjacent teeth and contra lateral tooth
69. Brushing with a hard multibristled tooth brush could cause

a. gjngival recession
b. gingival sensitivity
c. abrasion at the neck of teeth
d. all of the above
e. only A and C above
70. Vesicular lesions precede the formation of ulcers in each of the following except
one. Which one is this exception?
a. Herpangina
b. Herpes zoster
c. Herpetic stomatitis
d. Aphthous stomatitis
e. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease
71. When is the appropriate time to correct a crossbite of a permanent maxillary

central incisor?
A. When the tooth is erupting
B. After the tooth is fully erupted
C. After all anterior teeth are erupted
D. After the opposite central incisor has erupted
E. All of the above
72. The crown of a primary maxillary first molar beats the closest resemblance to the
crown of a
A. permanent maxillary first molar
B. primary mandibular first molar
C. mandibular second premolar
D. maxillary second premolar
E. maxillary third molar
73. Which root of a permanent maxillary first molar is flattened mesiodistally and has
root depressions on both its mesial and distal surfaces?
A. lingual
B. distofacial
C. mesiofacial
D. distolingual
E. mesiolingual
74. In the mandibular arch, the greatest lingual inclination of the crown from its root
is seen in a permanent
A. canine
B. third molar
C. first premolar
D. central incisor
E. lateral incisor
75. Which of the following permanent teeth is least likely to have a divided pulp
canal?
b. maxillary first premolar
c. mandibular central incisor
d. mandibular lateral incisor
e. mandibular first premolar
76. Which of the following muscles receives its motor supply from the facial nerve?
a. masseter
b. temporal
c. buccinator
d. lateral pterygoid
e. tensor veli palatini
77. Circular fibers are present in the

A. free gingiva and encircle the tooth
B. free gingiva and encircle alveolar bone
C. attached gingiva and encircle alveolar bone
D. periodontal ligament and encircle the tooth

A. membrane bone growth
B. interstitial bone growth
C. proliferation of cartilage
D. all of the above
79. Among the clearly established local etiologic factors, the one most fiequently
producing a malocclusion is
A. thumb—sucking
B. tongue thrusting
C. mouth breathing
D. premature loss of deciduous teeth
E. prolonged retention of deciduous teeth
80. Keloids are composed predominantly of

A. adipose tissue
B. collagen fibers
C. granulation tissue
D. Gaseous necrotic debris
E. lymphocytes
81. Suppuration is mainly the result of the combined action of four factors. Which of
the following is NOT one of these factors ?
a. necrosis
b. presence of lymphocytes
c. collection of neutrophils
d. accumulation of tissue fluid
e. autolysis by proteolytic enzymes
82. Internal resorption appears first in the radiograph as

a. interproximal bony loss
b. small granules in the pulp chamber
c. a small area around the apex of the root
d. an encroaching radiolucency on the medial surfaces of the roots
e. small ladiolucent enlargement of the pulp cavity in a localized area
83. The absence of pulp chambers is suggestive of

a. dentinogenesis imperfecta
c. cleidocranial dysostosis
d. all of the above
84. A periapical cyst and a dental granuloma have all of the following histologic
features in common EXCEPT
A. lymphocytes
B. plasma cells
C. fibrous connective tissue
D. an epithelial—lined lumen
E. stratified squamous epithelium
85. Radiographs of maxillary central and lateral incisors disclose a heart-shaped

radiolucency in the midline, with its apex toward the incisal edge. The teeth are vital.
This difference in density is compatible with a diagnosis of
a. nasoalveolar cyst
b. median palatal cyst
c. globulomaxillary cyst
d. nasopalatine duct cyst
e. cyst of the incisive papilla
86. Edema may be produced by

A.1ymphatic obstruction
B. increased capillary permeability
C. increased capillary blood pressure
D. all of the above
E. B + C
87. Following the initial period of functional activity, an appreciable alteration in size
of the pulp chamber is a direct result of
A. pulp fibrosis
B. morphodifferentiation
C. dentinal dysplasia
D. deposition of primary dentin
E. deposition of secondary dentin
88. Jaundice is characteristic of all of the following conditions E(CEPT
A. aplastic anemia
B. liver cell damage
C. excessive hemolysis
D. bile duct obstruction
E. carcinoma of the head of the pancreas
89. Classic hemophilia is due to a deficiency of normal Factor VIII which in mm is

due to a genetic deficiency that is
A. partially dominant
B. autosomal dominant
C. autosomal recessive
D. sex-linked dominant
E. sex-linked recessive
90. Which of the following properties is (are) most characteristic of currently

available cement bases?
A. adhesiveness
B. high ductility
C. high edge—strength
D. low coefficient of thermal conductivity
E. all of the above
91. Creep of a metal indicates that the metal

a. lacks edge strength
b. has excessive flexibility
c. has insufficient retention
d. will deform under static load
e. has insufficient crushing strength
92. Pulpal inflammation is most commonly caused by
A. bacteria
B. accidental trauma
C. cavity preparation
D. traumatic occlusion
E. irritants in dental materials
93. Thorough irrigation of the canal with sodium hypochlorite is likely to result in
a. severe postoperative pain
b. irreversible damage from irritation of periapicai tissues
c. debridement of residual organic material without any effect on bacteria remaining
in the canal
d. dissolution of remaining tissue debris and bactericidal action on bacteria in contact
with the agent
e. all of the above
94. The intraorbital nerve block does not

a. anesthetize the posterior superior alveolar naive
b. provide anesthesia to the maxillary premolars
c. provide anesthesia to the mesiobuccal root of the maxillary first molar
d. provide anesthesia to the maxillary canine
e. A+B+C+D
95. The inability to gain adequate anesthesia in some cases of inflamed or infected
pulps is attributed to
a. increase in tissue pH in the tissue around the involved tooth
b. a lower portion of the cation
c. a higher portion of the free base
d. fewer cations available for binding at the receptor site
e. A+B
96. In dental caries an inflammatory reaction develops in the pulp prior to actual pulp
infection because
A. sclerotic dentin precedes the caries process
B. bacterial products reach the pulp before the bacteria
C. dentin permeability is less near the pulp space
D. peripheral dentin is much more permeable
E. pulp is nonvital
97. Which of the following agents may be used on dentin as a cavity medicament
because it does not imitate the dental pulp?
A. alcohol
B. calcium hydroxide
C. ethyl chloride
D. 10% hydrogen peroxide
98. A patient has a severe, throbbing toothache in the area of the mandibular right
first premolar. The tooth is very painful to percussion, but does not respond to heat,
cold or the electric pulp tester, No swelling is noted. Radiographs show no
abnormalities. The most probable diagnosis is
b. itreversible pulpiu's
c. acute apical periodontitis
d. chronic apical petiodorm'tis
e. suppurative apical periodontitis
99. Apexifixation for an incompletely formed root of a tooth with a necrotic pulp is
based on the theory that
a. necrotic pulp material will enhance normal radicular development
b. Ca(OH)2 placed in the apical portion of the root canal will stimulate hard tissue
formation
c. maintenance of tissue within the root canal of an incompletely developed tooth will
permit eventual root-end closure
d. all of the above
100. After endodontic therapy is completed on a tooth with periapical rarefaction,

marked reduction in the size of the rarefaction should be evident in about
A. 5-6 days
B. 6-8 weeks
C. 2—4 months
D. 6-12 months
E. 3-5 years
101. An endodontic instrument was broken in the apical third of a root canal. The
fragment is 3mm long and is lodged tightly. No radiographic changes at the apex are
evident. The procedure of choice is to
A. extract the tooth
B. perform an apicoectomy and place a reverse filling
C. resect the apical section of the root containing the broken instrument
D. perform a routine root canal filling in the remaining root canal space and place the
patient on recall
E. to put an effective antiseptic so as to maintain the root canal sterilized
102. The most common cause of fracture at the isthmus of a Class II dental amalgam
restoration is
a. delayed expansion
b. inadequate depth at the isthmus area
c. inadequate width at the isthmus area
d. moisture contamination of the amalgam during placement
e. use of the matrix during placement of the amalgam
103. A patient has sensitivity in a mandibular premolar. A well-condensed class V

dental amalgam restoration was placed in the tooth five months previously, with no
discomfort for the first four months. Since then, it has become painful. The problem
probably relates to
a. marginal leakage
b. toothbrush abrasion
ca fractured restoration
d. an allergic reaction to amalgam
e. irreversible pulpal damage
104. In which of the following situations does pulp capping have the most favorable
prognosis?
a. there is a mechanical exposure in a clean, dry field in a developing tooth
b. there is a mechanical exposure in a clean, dry field in a mature tooth
c. assurance of vitality is evidenced by hypersensitivity to heat
d. there is no hemorrhage from the exposure
e. an antibiotic is used in the pulp capping medicament
105. Progressive destruction of periodontal tissues after restorative procedures is

most likely due to
a. the type of material used
b. trauma caused by tooth preparation
c. rough surfaces and ill-fitting margins
d. retraction strings and impression techniques
e. all of the above
106. A radiograph of a first molar shows a very extensive carious lesion that may
involve a horn of the dental pulp. The treatment plan of choice is to
A. assume that the pulp is exposed
B. obtain occlusal access to the pulp chamber
C. remove all carious material, reach the pulp and cap the obvious pulp exposure
D. remove all carious material, place a sedative dressing and plan for pulpectomy at
the next siding
E. remove a major portion of the decayed tooth tissue and place an interim sedative
dressing
107. One week after cementation of an MOD onlay on a maxillary molar adjacent to
an existing amalgam, the patient report sensitivity to cold and pressure of the tooth.
The most likely cause is
a. hyperocclusion
b. chronic pulpilis
c. galvanic response
d. minute pulpal exposure
e. acid irritation from the cement
108. The light from visible-light polymerization units can cause which of the
following?
A. iritis
B. cataracts
C. retinal damage
D. corneal ulcerations
109. Which of the following is NOT a function of the matrix band in placement of
Class II dental amalgam restorations?
a. establishing proximal contour
b. establishing occlusal embrasure
c. limiting moisture contamination doting condensation
d. aiding in preventing gingival overextension of the amalgam
110. In comparison with poly (methyl methacrylate), composite resin has

a. a lower coefficient of thermal expansion
b. lower polymerization shrinkage
c. greater compressive strength
d. greater stiffness
e. all of the above
111. Which of the following is the weakest phase of the set amalgam?
A. Alpha—1
B. Beta-2
C. Gamma
D. Gamma-1
E. Gamma-2
112. If a dentist finds only a thin ring of calculus in the bottom third of a deep pocket
it may be assumed that
a. calculus calcified before the pocket reached this depth
b. calculus previously extended to the enamel, but the top part was removed
c. bacterial plaque formed only in the deeper region of the pocket
d. calculus migrated apically as the pocket grew deeper, and new calculus formed on
the apical side while that on the occlusal side dissolved
e. all of the above
113. The subgingival plaque at the base of a 7-8mm intetproximal intrabony pocket
in a patient with periodontitis can effectively be disrupted by using
A. a toothpick
B. unwaxed dental floss
C. a mouthrinse containing chlorhexidine
D. the sulcular method of tooth brushing
114. The earliest microorganisms occurring in bacterial plaque are

A. vibrios
B. spirochetes
C. gram—positive rods and cocci
D. fungus
E. viruses
115. Which of the following is most likely to cause gingival recession?

a. toothbrush abrasion
b. occlusal trauma
c. poor home care
d. improper deflecting contour
e. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
116. When drilling cylindrical implant sites in bone, which of the following is
FALSE?
A. copious irrigation should be used with the drill
B. the drill should not rotate more than 5 seconds continuously in contact with bone
C. only speeds above 20,000 rpm should be used in drilling
D. enough pressure should be used to proceed 0.5-1 mm every 5 seconds
117. Which of the following factors is most critical in determining whether or not to
extract a tooth involved with periodontal disease?
a. depth of pockets
b. mobility of tooth
c. amount of ttachment loss
d. relationship to adjacent teeth
e. A + D
118. The most numerous cells in the inflammatory exudate of an acute periodontal
abscess are
a. neutrophils
b. eosinophils
c. basophils
d. lymphocytes
e. monocytes
119. A patient has a periodontal abscess on the distal aspect of a maxillary second
molar. Pain and mobility are moderate. The remaining dentition is generally healthy,
Immediate treatment of choice is to
a. provide drainage
b. extract the tooth
c. relieve the occlusion
d. prescribe an antibiotic
e. prescribe an antibiotic and relieve the occlusion
120. The depth of the clinical gingival sulcus is the distance from the gingival margin
to the
a. cementoenamel junction
b. most apical penetration of the periodontal probe
c. most apical extension of the junctional epithelium
d. bottom of the sulcus in well—preserved histologic block sections
e. average depth of the pocket around the tooth
1. E 21. C 41. A 61. B 81. B 101. D

2. E 22. A 42. C 62. D 82. E 102. B
3. B 23. D 43. B 63. C 83. A 103. E
4. A 24. D 44. B 64. E 84. D 104. A
5. E 25. A 45. E 65. D 85. D 105. C
6. E 26. A 46. D 66. D 86. D 106. E
7. C 27. D 47. C 67. B 87. E 107. A
8. D 28. E 48. D 68. E 88. A 108. C
9. A 29. E 49. B 69. D 89. E 109. B
10. E 30. D 50. B 70. D 90. D 110. E
11. B 31. C 51. B 71. A 91. D 111. E
12. D 32. B 52. E 72. D 92. A 112. B
13. D 33. A 53. D 73. C 93. D 113. E
14. A 34. A 54. E 74. C 94. D 114. C
15. C 35. D 55. A 75. A 95. D 115. A
16. B 36. A 56. E 76. C 96. B 116. C
17. B 37. A 57. A 77. A 97. E 117. C
18. D 38. C 58. C 78. C 98. C 118. A
19. E 39. A 59. A 79. D 99. B 119. A
20. D 40. B 60. D 80. B 100. D 120. B
Test №15
1. Which of the following statements regarding replanted teeth is true?

A. Curettement of the periodontal ligament increases the degree of root resorption
B. of avulsed permanent teeth, 20% undergo root resorption
C. resorption is usually of the internal type
D. immersion in 2% sodium fluoride prior to replantation retards the late of
resorption
E. all of the above
2. Resorption following bleaching

A. is a reason not to treat tetracycline-stained teeth with root canal therapy
B. may be due to denaturation of dentine exposed at the cervical line
C. is related to the use of heat and 30% hydrogen peroxide
D. B + C
E. A + B + C
3. The action used for placing a K-type file into a canal should resemble
a. an up-and-down motion
b. a straight apical pressure
c. complete rotation of the instrunent with pressure directed apically
d. a clockwise—counterclockwise motion with pressure directed apically
e. a scraping motion on the canal walls
4. The most important aspect of emergency treatment for an acute apical abscess is to
A. establish drainage
B. maintain obturation
C. adjust the occlusion
D. provide systemic chemotherapy
E. introduce antimicrobial medicaments into the canal
5. In treating a root canal before obturation, the most important consideration is
a.general health of the patient
b. cleaning and shaping of the canal
c. efficacy of the irrigating solution
d. amount and concentration of medication used
e. sterilization of the canal as evidenced by negative culture
6. When fitting a principal point of gutta-percha to a prepared canal, the primary

consideration is that the point
A. fit the exact apex
B. be 2mm from the apex
C. fit loosely in the canal
D. have a definite apical seat lightly short from the apex
E. have a good tug—back at 3mm from the apex
7. Gutta—percha may be softened or dissolved within the canal by using

A. alcohol
B. chloroform
C. xylene
D. A + B
E. B + C
8. A negative response to the vitality tests immediately after severe luxation or

displacement of a tooth indicates that the
A. pulp is inflamed
B. pulptester is giving a false reading
C. pulp is necrotic and be removed
D. blood supply is interrupted, and the negative response may be temporary
E. neural transmission is interrupted, and the negative response may be temporary
9. A radiograph of a maxillary lateral incisor reveals a radiolucent area
circumscribing the apex. The tooth does not respond to vitality tests. A sinus tract is
present. In conjunction with endodontic treatment, the tract should receive
a. suturing
b. cauterization
c. antibiotic therapy
d. no special treatment
e. irrigation with sodium hypochlorite
10. The four mandibular incisors of a patient were traumatized in an automobile

accident three years ago. Current radiographs show bone rarerefaction in the region
of the apices of the incisors. Which of the following courses of treatment is
indicated?
a. test the pulp vitality of the incisors and perform root canal therapy only in those
teeth that do not respond to pulp testing
b. perform root canal therapy on the incisors and curet the entire area of bone
involvement
c. extract the four incisors and construct a fixed partial denture
d. postpone all treatment and recheck the status of the condition periodically
e. postpone all treatment waiting for symptoms appearance
11. The action of calcium hydroxide in promoting formation of an apical calcified

barrier in a tooth with an open apex and necrotic pulp is probably best explained by
a. creation of a zone of liquefaction necrosis at the apex
b. creation of a zone of coagulation necrosis at the apex
c. creation of an alkaline environment that promotes hard tissue deposition
e. calcium ions from the canal dressing precipitating apically to form an apical bridge
12. Internal resorption is detected in vital, asymptomatic tooth. Treatment of choice is
to
b. perform a pulpotomy
c. keep the tooth under observation
d. remove the pulp and proceed with endodontic treatment at this time
e. prescribe fluorine tablets
13. Which statement is correct with regard to flap designs?

A. semilunar offers ideal access and convenience to the operative site
B. Luebke-Oschenbein provides definitive landmarks for repositioning and suturing
the flap
C. triangular is ideal in the presence of veneer crowns
D. trapezoidal has the disadvantage that there is great tension on the flap
E. A + C
14. The integrity of the floor of the antrum is at greatest risk with surgery involving
the removal of (a)
A. torus palatinus
B. nasopalatine cyst
C. maxillary third molar
D. single remaining maxillary molar
E. supernumerary tooth from maxillary canine region
15. Epinephrine is added to local anesthetics because it

A. decreases the rate of absorption of the local anesthetic at the injection site
B. prevents the rapid deterioration of the local anesthetic solution
C. increases the rate of destruction of the local anesthetic
D. potentiates the action of all local anesthetics
E. all of the above
16. A patient has localized fluctuant infection with pus formation. Treatment of
choice is to
a. wait for drainage
b. establish drainage
c. administer antibiotics
d. apply cold to the area
e. have the patient use hot mouthwashes
17. A patient develops the typical Bell’s palsy (facial expression within ten minutes
after an attempted inferior alveolar nerve block on the same side. The most logical
explanation is that the injection was into the
A. parotid gland
B. masseter muscle
C. maxillary artery
D. posterior facial vein
E. pterygoid plexus of veins
18. The soft tissue incision used for removal of a mandibular torus should be placed
A. directly over the torus to allow maximum exposure
B. directly over the torus with extension to the floor of the mouth for exposure
C. inferior to the torus in the area of the floor of the mouth
D. over the edentulous alveolar crest or in the gingival crevice around the natural
dentition
E. all of the above
19. If several teeth are out of a lignment following trauma, the most reasonable
explanation is
A. luxation
B. subluxation
C. bone fracture
D. contusion
E. crowns fracture
20. Most fractures of the mandible with a full complement of teeth are best treated by
A. full cast splints
B. circumferential wiring
C.Kingsley splint
D. intraoral open reduction
E. closed reduction by inteermaxillary wiring
21. Maxillary anterior teeth are most likely to be fractured in children with Class
a. I— malocclusion
b. II- malocclusion
c. III- malocclusion
d. none of the above. Type malocclusion has no bearing on incidence of fractures
e. all of the above
22. An upper first molar had an extensive combined endodontic-periodontic lesion

that required amputation of the mesio—buccal root. Which of the following best
describes the level of root or crown sectioning?
a. mesio-buccal root sectioned at the level of the apical third .
b. mesio-bucca1 root sectioned at the level of the middle third
c. crown divided and the mesio—buccal root and associated crown portion of tooth
removed
d. mesio—buccal root sectioned at the level of the cervical third
23. During an extraction, when the crown of a multiroot tooth fractures, the prudent
next step is to
A. reflect a flap
B. divide the roots with a bur
C. reapply the forceps in a more apical direction
D. leave the roots in place and explain the reasons to the patient
E. leave the roots in place and give another appointment for alveolectomy
24. The most objective way to detect sharp ridges of bone while performing osseous
recontourtng is to
a. place a finger over the bony ridge and palpate
b. place a finger over the soft tissue flap and palpate
c. have the patient return in one week and palpate ridges at that time
e. A + B + C
25. During exodontia, the maxillary tuberosity is framed but remains attached to
periosteum with an intact blood supply. Treatment of choice is to
a. remove the tubetosity
b. refer the patient to an oral surgeon
c. elevate the flap and place transosseous wires
d. reposition the fragment and stabilize with sutures
e. send the patient for preventive dentistry instruction to prevent loss of the tuberosity
26. The beak of an extraction forceps is designed so that most of the extraction
pressure is transmitted to the
A. alveolar bone
B. root of the tooth
C. crown of the tooth
D. cementoenamel junction
E. A + B + C + D
27. A compound fracture is characterized by
a. many small fragments
b. a “star“ shaped appearance
c. an incomplete break in the bone
d. bleeding in the masticator space
e. communication with the oral cavity
28. Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to which of the

following nerves?
a. auditory
b. optic
c. facial
d. trigeminal
29. Apicoectomy and apical curettage were performed on a maxillary central incisor
of a 27—year—old man A year later a persistent area of radiolucency was noted;
however, the patient was asymptomatic. The area was again curetted and histologic
examination of the tissue showed it to consist of dense fibrous connective tissue. The
a. apical scar
b. odontogenic fibroma
c. central fibrosarcoma
d. residual periapical cyst
e. residual periapical granuloma
30. Filters are used in the x—ray beam to

a. increase contrast
b. reduce film density
c. reduce exposure time
d. correct the x-ray beam size
e. remove low energy x-ray photons
31. The most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is

A. trauma
B. osteoarthritis
C. Childhood illness
D. rheumatoid arthritis
E. eruption of wisdom teeth
32. Although each cations lesion is individual and influenced by multiple factors, the
carious process is generally
a. continuous
b. rapid
c. intermittent
d. slow
e. stable
33. A patient reports for examination with a growth on the inside of the cheek that is
approximately 1/2 cm in diameter, but is not painful. The patient has been aware of
the growth for about three months. The best treatment is to
a. see if the lesion responds to antibiotics
b. observe periodically for continued growth
c. remove part of it and send for a biopsy
d. remove all of it and send for biopsy
e. cauterize with trichloroacetic acid
34. Which of the following types of fractures is most likely to produce respiratoty
obstruction?
a. a unilateral fracture of the maxilla
b. a unilateral fracture through the condyle
c. a fracture of the angle of the mandible
d. a fracture through the symphysis of the mandible
e. a bilateral fracture of the mandible in the second premolar area
35.The pulp has several defense mechanisms to protect it from irritation. These
include
1. sclerotic dentin
2. interglobular dentin
3. reparative dentine
4. vascularity
A. 1,2 and3
B. 1, 2and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4 ,
D. 2, 3 and 4
E. 3 and 4 only
36. The cross-sectional view at midtoot illustrated is MOST probably that of a


39. On a carbide bur, a greater number of cutting blades results in

A. less efficient cutting and a smoother surface
B. less efficient cutting and a rougher surface
C. more efficient cutting and a smoother surface
D. more efficient cutting and a tougher surface
40. Which of the following sensory responses can persist in a tooth after root canal
therapy?
a. tactile sensation
b. thermal sensation
c. sensitivity to electrical test
d. sensitivity to sweets
41. Which of the following groups of fibers of the periodontal ligament is most likely
to be found m the middle third of fine root?
a. apical
b. Oblique
c. horizontal
d. transseptal
e. alveolar crest
42. Which of the following best describes the root lengths of a maxillaly molar?
A. the lingual root is the longest and the distofacial root is the shortest
B. the lingual root is the longest and the mesiofacial root is the shortest
C. the mesiofacial root is the longest and the distofacial root is the shortest
D. the mesiofacial root is the longest and the lingual root is the shortest
E. all roots are the same length
43. Bleeding from the oral mucosa can be reduced by topical use of
a. dicumarol
b. lidocajne
c. epinephrine
d. methacholine
e. hydrocortisone
44. Which of the following drugs is most useful in treating or preventing angina
pectoris?
A. digitalis
B. quinidine
C. propranolol
D. procainamide
E. pentobarbital
45. Which of the following variables has the greatest significance in antibiotic
A. route of administration
B. susceptibility of the organism
C. antigenicity of the antibiotic
D. acceteration of lymphatic drainage
E. specific antibody rate of the host
46. Two months after placing a large MOD inlay in a maxillary second premolar, the
patient has dull pain on pressure and some thermal sensitivity. Which of the
following is potential cause?
A. the tooth is cracked
B. the tooth is in infraocclusion
C. excess cement was not removed at the gingival margin
D. there is a deficient margin on the restoration
47. The area of the tooth that is most sensitive during cavity preparation is the
a. dentin
b. enamel
c. cementum
d. cementoenamel junction
e. dentinoenamel junction
48. Difficulty in finishing composite resin restorations is due primarily to

A. the density of filler particles
B. hardness of resin matrix
C. hardness of filler particles only
D. softness of the resin matrix and hardness of the finer particles
49. The cavosurface angle of a cavity preparation for an acid-etched composite is
beveled in order to
A. eliminate the need for internal retention
B. enable the operators to better see the margin
C. allow for easier finishing of the composite
D. afford more surface area for etching to enhance seal and retention
E. strengthen the margins by removing undermined enamel
50. Resistance form in a cavity preparation is achieved by

a. sharp point angles
b. parallel surrounding walls
c. pulpal and gingival walls that are perpendicular to occlusal forces
d. all of the above
51. The high copper dental amalgams are superior to other amalgams because high
copper dental amalgams
a. are less likely to corrode
b. have less marginal breakdown
c. are workable at lower Hg - alloy ratios
d. generally have a higher ratio of tensile to compressive strength
e. A + B
52. Incorporating coils and loops in a removable orthodontic appliance:

a. Decreases flexibility
b. Increases rigidity
c. Causes damage to periodontal ligament
d. Essential for light physiologic force delivery
e. All of the above
53. The circum — pubertal growth period is between the age of:
A. (9 - 15 years)
B. (8 — 12 years)
C. (8 - 16 years)
D. (15-21years)
E. ( 6 — 9 years)
54. In early treatment the removal of etiologic factors is recommended:

a. At any time
b. Between 9 — 14 years
c. Between 6 — 12 years
e. Between 2 — 6 years
55. Adams’ clasps are essentially designed for:

a. Retention and some anchorage
b. Proper seating of the appliance
c. Function of the appliance
d. Patient cooperation
e. All of the above

a. codeine
b. atropine
c. acetylsalicylic acid
d. all of the above
57. Discernable movement of a tooth usually indicates

A. chronic pulpal disease
B. normal response to external pressures
C. a need for periodontal treatment
D. inflammation of the periodontal ligament
E. all of the above
58. Which of the following can be accurately identified radiographically?

A. Chronic apical periodontitis
B. Periapical osteofibrosis
C. Mental foramen
D. Apical cyst
B All of the above
59. In acute inflammation of the pulp, which of the following occurs first?
A. Liquefaction necrosis
B. Increased collagen fiber production
C. Increased concentration of neutrophils
D. Round cell infilttation of connective tissue
E. Fibrous connective tissue confinement of the area of inflammation
60. A horizontal fracture of the maxilla on the level of the nasal cavity is classified as
a
a. Le Fort I
b. Le Fort II
c. Le Fort III
d. zygomatico—maxillary complex fracture
e. Caldwell-Luc fracture
61. A crown casting with a chamfer margin fits the diet in the mouth, the casting is
open approximately 3 mm. A satisfactory fit and an accurate physiologic contour of
the gingival area of the crown can best be achieved by
A. hand burnishing
B. mechanical burnishing
C. using finishing burs and points to remove the enamel margins on the tooth
D. making a new impression and remaking the crown
E. relieving the inside of the occlusal surface of the casting to allow further seating
62. As a preventive measure, fixed partial dentures should be constructed so that the
pontic
A. completely fills the edentulous space
B. covers the maximum of the mucosa
C. has no contact with soft tissue
D. has minimal contact with soft tissue
E. has no occlusal contact
63. On a properly trimmed die, wax of the completed pattern should not extend
deliberately beyond the gingival finish lines because, upon removal of an
overextended pattern, some degree of permanent wax distortion may occur.
A. both statement and reason are correct and related
B. both statement and reason are correct but NOT related
C. the statement is correct but the reason is NOT
D. the statement is NOT correct but the reason is an accurate statement
E. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
64. In a normal occlusion, the distolingual cusp of a maxillary second molar occludes
with the
A. central fossa of a mandibular second molar
B. distal fossa of a mandibular second molar
C. central fossa of a mandibular third molar
D. marginal ridges of a mandibular first molar and a mandibular second molar
E. marginal ridges ofa mandibular second molar and a mandibular third molar
65. In general, periodontal treatment should be completed before fixed partial denture
construction because gingival margins of abutment teeth must be extended 0.5mm.
apically to the free gingival crest, to assure continued periodontal health and to
prevent caries
A. both statement and reason are correct and related
B. both statement and reason are correct but NOT related
C. the statement is correct but the reason is NOT
D. the statement is NOT correct but the reason is an accurate statement
E. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct
66. Rough, poorly—polished areas of pontics may cause

A. halitosis
B. discomfort
C. chronic inflammation of the ridge tissue
D. all of the above
E. only B and C
67. A patient has recently had an endodonticaily—treated tooth restored with a cast
post and core and crown. The patient complains of symptoms to biting force but tooth
mobility is within normal range. Radiographic evidence appears normal. The most
probable reason for the symptoms is
A. loose crown resulting in gingival irritation
B. premature centric contact
C. vertical root fracture
D. psychosomatic
E. only A or B
68. The periodontium remains healthier when full—crown margins are placed
A. at the gingival crest
B. above the gingival crest
C. about 1/2 mm apical to the gingival crest
D. about 1 mm apical to the gingival crest
69. The major components of high noble metal alloys in metal—ceramic restorations
are
A. gold and platinum or zinc
B. gold and copper or silver
C. gold and tin or indium
D. gold and platinum or palladium
E. platinum and palladium or tin
70. Which of the following impression materials will distort the LEAST when stored
for 24 hours before pouring?
a. a silicone impression
b. a polyether impression
c. a compound copper band impression
d. reversible hydrocolloid in a humidor
e. an alginate impression
71. In designing a retainer on a noncarious mandibular first premolar abutment with a

short clinical crown, which of the following restorations is most appropriate?
A. an inlay
B. a full crown
C. an MOD onlay
D. a reverse 3%: crown
72. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for
a fixed partial denture?
A. tooth with pulpal involvement
B. tooth with minimal coronal structure
C. tooth rotated and tipped out of line
D. tooth with short, tapered root with long clinical crown
E. A + B
73. Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages over zinc
phosphate cement?
A. longer working time
B. lower film thickness
C. increased compressive strength
D. superior biologic compatibility
E. C+D
74. Which of the following will increase retention of a complete denture?

A. xerostomia
B. air chamber in midpalate
C. foreshortened denture bases
D. increased salivary film thickness
E. accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa
75. An excessive vertical dimension of occlusion in a patient with complete dentures

will adversely affect
A. retention
B. protrusion
C. centric relation
D. balanced occlusion
E. intemcclusal clearance
76. In the construction of complete dentures, all of the following factors are
determined by the dentist EXCEPTthe
A. height of cusps
B. incisal guidance
C. compensating curve
D. condylar inclination
E. plane of orientation
77. The Camper’s plane passes from the

A. lateral commissure of the mouth to the inferior edge of the ear
B. orbital to the middle of the tragus of the ear
C.ala of the nose to the superior edge of the tragus of the ear
D. outer canthus of eye to the most posterior point on the tragus of the ear
E. point of the chin to the tragus of the ear
78. The most likely reason for breakage of a maxillary denture along the median line
is
A. alveolar resorption
B. porosity of the denture base material
C. over—relief of the incisive papilla
D. inadequate extension of the posterior palatal seal
79. The error that most frequently contributes to poor esthetics 0f dentures is the
practice of placing maxillary anterior teeth
A. following the smile line
B. too far below the lip line
C. directly over the edentulous ridge
D. too far to the facial of the edentulous ridge
E. too far to the lingual of the edentulous ridge
80. Which of the following may result if an excessive amount of monomer is
incorporated into an acrylic resin mixture?
A. excessive expansion
B. excessive shrinkage
C. low impact strength
D. excessive brittleness
E. A+C
81. Which of the following sensory responses can persist in a tooth after root canal
therapy?
A. tactile sensation
B. thermal sensation
C. sensitivity to electrical test
D. sensitivity to sweets
82. Local anesthetics aid in reducing flow of saliva during operative procedures by
A. blockihg cholinergic nerve endings
B. blocking innervation to major salivary glands
C. blocking efferent parasympathetic nerve pathways
D. reducing sensitivity and anxiety during tooth preparation
83.The lingual nerve contributes sensory fibers to the

A. otic ganglion
B. mandibular molars
C. floor ofthe mouth
D. all of the above
84. Which of the following cell types may be found in the periodontal ligament?
A. fibroclasts
B. osteoblasts
C. macrophages
D. cementoblasts
E. all of the above
85. All of the following are possible effects of aspirin EXCEPT

A. reduction of fever
B. shortening of bleeding time
C. suppression of inflammatory
D. bleeding from gastrointestinal
E. increase in the renal excretion of acid at high doses
86. Corticosteroids may be used to treat

A. asthma
B. arthritis
C. allergies
D. all of the above
E. A + B only
87. One of the first sensations usually lost after administration administration of a
local anesthetic is
A. pain
B. touch
C. pressure
D. proprioception
88. Bleeding from the oral mucosa can be reduced by topical use of
A. dicumarol
B. lidocaine
C. epinephrine
D. methacholine
E. hydrocortisone
89. Which of the following drugs is most useful in treating or preventing angina
pectoris?
A. digitalis
B. quinidine
C. propranolol
D. procainamide
E. pentobarbital

A. codeine
B. atropine
C. acetylsalicylic acid
D. all of the above
91. In the presence of a recession of 2 mm, a periodontal pocket of 3 mm corresponds

to a clinical attachment level of :
a. 1 mm
b. 2 mm
c. 3 mm
d. 5 mm
e. 6 mm
92. The goal of Scaling Root Planing is
1. Reduction in clinical attachment levels
2. Reduction in probing depths
3. Gain in clinical attachment levels
4. Gain in probing depths
a. 2.1
b. 4.1
c. 3.2
d. 4.3
e. 5
92. The Reduction of probing depths after scaling and root planing is due to:
1. Reduction of edema
2. Reduction in clinical attachment
3. Long Junetional Epithelium
4. Long Connective tissue Attachment
5. Short Connective tissue attachment
a. 1-3-5
b. 1-2-3
c. 1-3-4
d. 1-4
e. 2-5
94. In gingivitis, bleeding is an important factor due to:

a. Vasoconstriction of blood capillaries
b. Increase in the permeability of sulcular epithelium
c. Decrease in the intercellular space of epithelial cells
d. Decrease in the permeability of the suleular epithelium
e. Decrease in the quantity of the interstitial liquid
95. Bleeding in gingivitis is due to :
a Thinning of the junctional epithelium
b. The epithelium is less protective
c. Harmless stimuli causing rupture of capillaries
e. a+b+c
96. In drug-influenced gingivitis due to intake of (DIHIDAN-PHENYTOIN):

a. We notice gingival hypertrophy
b. The treatment consists of a Scaling/Root Planing
c. The treatment consists of scaling/Root Planing + Open flap (intrasulcular incision)
+ Ostectomy/ Osteoplasty
d. The treatment consists of scaling/Root Planing + Gingivectomy/Gingivoplasty
e- None of the above
97. A bone crater is:

a. A horizontal bony defect
b. A mesio-distal bony defect
c. Bucco-lingual bony defect
d. Buccal bony defect
e. Bony dehisence in lingual or palatal plate
98. In the radiographic exam, all these elements can be evaluated except:
a. Presence of calculus
b. Hypercementosis
c. Buccal furcation of the upper molars
d Buceal furcation of the lower molars
e. Rhizalysis
99. Clinical signs of localized aggressive periodontitis are:
a. Vertical bone loss on the first molars and incisors
b. Vertical bone loss on the first molars and/or the premolars
c. Vertical bone loss on the first molars and for the incisors
d. Horizontal bone loss on the first molars and/or the incisors
e. Horizontal bone loss on the first molars or the incisors
100. The most accurate method to evaluate the epithelial attachment level is:
a. probing with a Williams graduated prob
b. Nabers graduated probe
d. Evaluation of radiographic bone loss
e. Evaluation of the exact type of disease
101. The pulpotomy is indicated:

a. For the permanent molars only
b. For temporary molars presenting clinical signs
c. For temporary molars at their third stage
d. For an accidental effraction of the pulp
e. For pulp necrosis
102.The pulp tissue in the temporary molars:

a. is comparing to the permanent molars proportionably smaller then the crown
b. is comparing to the permanent molars nearer to the external surface of the tooth
c. Follows the contour of the dental surfaces
d. Has its mesial horn nearer to the external surface than the distal one
e. b,c,d
103. A 6 year’s old child presents cellulitis on the upper right cheek after having a
deep decay on the 55. What is the emergency treatment totake?
a. Draining of the 55
b. Appropriate antibiotherapy
c. Draining of the 55 with appropriate appropriée antibiotherapy
d. Antiseptic temporary dressing
104. A child shows the avuision of the 4 upper anterior centrals after a traumatic
choc. What is the emergency treatment to take?
a. Appropriate antibiotherapy only
b. Anti-inflammatory only
c. Recall the patient after 3 days
d. Peri apical x-rays, appropriate antibiotherapy and anti-inflammatory and anti-
tetanic to be administered
105. The most important tooth brushing is:

a. At morning after wake—up
b. At morning after breakfast
c. At noon after lunch
d. At night after dinner
e. All of the above
106. A two year old child has:

a. Ten primary teeth
b. Three molars, four canines and eight incisors
c. Forteen primary teeth
d. Four molars, four canines and eight incisors
e.Twenty primary teeth
107. Primarv teeth eruption is associated with:

a. Nasal discharge
b. Hypersaiivation
c. Fever
d. Tears
e. All of the above
108. A deciduous tooth with a chronic apical infection exhibits severe loss of
supporting bone. The treatment of choice is to
a. administer antibiotics and analgesics to treat the infection
b. allow the tooth to remain in place as long as possible, so that space is maintained
c. extract the tooth to prevent damage to the underlying permanent tooth
d. perform an apicoectomv on the tooth
e. all of the above
109. How much fluoride supplement should be provided to a 1 year old child ( in a
day) where the level of water fluoride is 0.02 ppm ?
A. 0.25 mg
B. 0.50 mg
C. 1mg
D. 2mg
E. 0.75 mg
110. Which of the following agents is capable of effectively removing dental plaque?
A. Chewing gum or bubble gum
B. Water irrigation devices
C. Mouth rinses
D. Fibrous and detergent foods
111. Which of the following factors is common for dental caries and periodontal
disease?
A. Disturbed occlusion
B. Fluoride in drinking water
C. Nutritional disturbances
D. Dental piaque
E. Low socioeconomic status of patient
112. During dental practice, we have to wear an airway protection (mask):

A. Because particles emitted from the patient mouths can stay in suspension in the air
for more than two hours.
B. Because our nose and mouth are the closest part from the patients mouth.
C. The mask with a high degree of filtration is worn after hand washing and
disinfecting.
D. This represents a 50 to 70 % of protection.
E. B+C+D
113. Heat sterilization of non—disposable instruments:

A. Should follow their disinfecting.
B. ls preferably done by dry heating under pressure.
C. Temperature should increase to 180°C regardless of the technique used.
D. it’s a very long cycle that could alter the instruments.
E. All the above.
114. Because the effect of prenatal fluoride is uncertain, the prescription of fluoride
to pregnant women is:
a. contraindicated.
b. indicated.
c. has no effect.
d. is hazardous.
115. Wearing gloves is one of the steps in infection control:
a. lt’s a perfect protection of the cross contamination by hands.
b. We should disinfect hands before and after wearing gloves.
c. Gloves are preferably made of “latex’ and not necessarily sterile.
d. Gloves are worn after washing and drying the hands.
116. Fluoride concentration in breast milk is:

A. always between 03 and 0.5 ppm.
B. always between 0,5 and 1,0 p.p.m.
C. is constant and a fluoride intake by the mother has little effect.
D. is not constant and excessive fluoride intake by the mother leads to
dental lesions on the primary teeth (intoxication).
E. A+C.
117. Fluoride protects better the enamel in:

A. acidic pH.
B. neutral pH.
C. aicaline pH.
D. none of the above
E. A or B
118. If water fluoridation decreases decay by 50 %, and if a topical fluoride

application used later lead to a 50 % reduction in decay, the total caries reduction will
be:
A. 100%,
B. 85%.
C. 75%.
D. 65%.
E. 50%.
119. The fluoride excretion from the body takes place mainly by:
A. urine
B. feces
C. sweat
D. saliva.
E. A+B+C
120. The most utilized fluoride rinsing solution nowadays is:

A. an aqueous solution of 0,4% Sn F2 every six month.
B. an aqueous solution of 0.4% Sn F2 once a week.
C. an aqueous solution of 0,2% NaF once a week.
D. an aqueous solution of 0,2% NaF every six month.
E.None of the above
1. A 21. B 41. B 61. D 81. A 101. D

2. E 22. D 42. A 62. D 82. D 102. E
3. D 23. B 43. C 63. A 83. C 103. C
4. A 24. B 44. C 64. E 84. E 104. D
5. B 25. D 45. B 65. C 85. B 105. D
6. D 26. B 46. A 66. D 86. D 106. D
7. E 27. E 47. E 67. C 87. A 107. E
8. E 28. A 48. D 68. B 88. C 108. C
9. D 29. A 49. D 69. D 89. C 109. A
10. A 30. E 50. C 70. B 90. B 110. E
11. C 31. A 51. E 71. B 91. D 111. D
12. D 32. C 52. D 72. D 92. C 112. B
13. B 33. D 53. A 73. D 93. A 113. A
14. D 34. E 54. D 74. E 94. B 114. C
15. A 35. C 55. A 75. E 95. E 115. D
16. B 36. A 56. B 76. D 96. D 116. E
17. A 37. C 57. D 77. C 97. B 117. A
18. D 38. A 58. C 78. A 98. D 118. C
19. C 39. A 59. C 79. C 99. C 119. A
20. E 40. A 60. A 80. B 100. A 120. C
Test №16
1. A patient has a pulse rate of 72, a respiratory rate of 15, 3 BP of 120/80, warm pink
extremities and pupil is that constrict during near accommodation. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
a. myopia
b. diabetes
c. normal patient
d. acute anxiety syndrome
e. coronary artery disease
2. Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst ?

a. nasolabial cyst
b. nasopalatine cyst
c. incisive canal cyst
d. median alveolar cyst
e. median palatine cyst
3. A patient has sustained bilateral dislocated fractures of the necks of the mandibular
condyles. There are no other injuries. Clinical signs include
e. A + C

a. occlusal trauma
b. periodontal abscess
c. irreversible pulpitis
d. hyperemia of the pulp
e. B+D

A. cavitation
B. sensitivity
E. all of the above
6. When a dental film needs to be held in the mouth of a child, the operator should
A. hold himself the film
B. use a film holder
C. ask a dental auxiliary to hold the film
D. ask a parent or a guardian to hold the film
E. B + D
7. When dentinal tubules become completely calcified, dentin is

A. atrophic
B. necrotic
C. insensitive
D. caries prone
E. hypersensitive
8. A 14-month—old girl has a 0.5x0.15cm bluish—black swelling on the right

maxillary alveolar ridge. Maxillary central and lateral incisors are empted. The most
likely diagnosis is
A. varix
B. eruption cyst
C. pigmented nevus
D. malignant melanoma
E. hemorrhagic bone cyst
9. A patient reports for examination with a growth on the inside of the cheek that is
approximately 1/2 cm in diameter, but is not painful. The patient has been aware of
the growth for about three months. The best treatment is to
a. see if the lesion responds to antibiotics
b. observe periodically for continued growth
c. remove part of it and send for a biopsy
d. remove all of it and send for biopsy
e. cauterize with trichloroacetic acid
10. Which of the following types of fractures is most likely to produce respiratory
obstruction?
A. a unilateral fracture of the maxilla
B. a unilateral fracture through the condyle
C. a fracture of the angle of the mandible
D. a fracture through the symphysis of the mandible
E. a bilateral fracture of the mandible in the second premolar area
11. Internal resorption appears first in the radiograph as

a. interproximal bony loss
b. small granules in the pulp chamber
c. a small area around the apex of the root
d. an encroaching radiolucency on the medial surfaces of the roots
e. small radiolucent enlargement of the pulp cavity in a localized area
12. The absence of pulp chambers is suggestive of

a. dentinogenesis imperfecta
c. cleidocranial dysostosis
d. all of the above
13. A periapical cyst and a dental granuloma have all of the following histologic
features in common EXCEPT
A. lymphocytes
B. plasma cells
C. fibrous connective tissue
D. an epithielial-lined lumen
E. stratified squamous epithelium
14. Radiographs of maxillary central and lateral incisors disclose a heart-shaped

radiolucency in the midline, with its apex toward the incisal edge. The teeth are vital.
This difierence in density is compatible with a diagnosis of
a. nasoalveolar cyst
b. median palatal cyst
c. globulomaxillary cyst
d. nasopalatine duct cyst
e. cyst of the incisive papilla
15. Keloids are composed predominantly of

A. adipose tissue
B. collagen fibers
C. granulation tissue
D. caseous necrotic debris
E. lymphocytes
16. Suppuration is mainly the result of the combined action of four factors Which of
the following is NOT one of these factors?
A. necrosis
B. presence of lymphocytes
C. collection of neutrophils
D. accumulation of tissue fluid
E. autolysis by proteolytic enzymes
17. The pterygomandibular raphe is composed of

A. medial ptetygoid and buccinator muscles
B. the tendinous portion of the temporal muscle
C. buecinator muscle and sphenomandihular ligament
D. the buccinator and superior constrictor muscle junction
E. sphenomandibular ligament and medial pterygoid muscles
18. From a proximal view, which of the following permanent teeth tends to be
positioned in the arch With its axis most nearly vertical?
a. maxillary canine
b. maxillary lateral incisor maxillary central incisor
e. mandibular central incisor
19. The crown of a primary maxillary first molar bears the closest resemblance to the
crown of a
A. permanent maxillary first molar
B. primary mandibular first molar
C. mandibular second premolar
D. maxillary second premolar
E. maxillary third molar
20. Which root of a permanent maxillary first molar is flattened mesiodistally and has
root depressions on both its mesial and distal surfaces?
A. lingual
B. distofacial
C. mesiofacial
D. distolingual
E. mesiolingual
21. In the mandibular arch, the greatest lingual inclination of the crown from its root
is seen in a permanent
a. canine
b. third molar
c. first premolar
d. central incisor
e. lateral incisor
22. Which of the following permanent teeth is least likely to have a divided pulp
canal?
b. maxillary first premolar
c. mandibular central incisor
e. mandibular first premolar
23. Which of the following muscles receives its motor supply from the facial nerve?
A. masseter
B. temporal
C. buccinator
D. lateral pterygoid
E. tensor veli palatini
24. Circular fibers are present in the
A. free gingiva and encircle the tooth
B. free gingiva and encircle alveolar bone
C. attached gingiva and encircle alveolar bone
D. periodontal ligament and encircle the tooth

A. membrane bone growth
B. interstitial bone growth
C. proliferation of cartilage
D. all of the above
26. Among the clearly established local etiologic factors, the one most frequently
producing a malocclusion is
A. thumb-sucking
B. tongue thrusting
C. mouth breathing
D. premature loss of deciduous teeth
E. prolonged retention of deciduous teeth
27. Which of the following can be accurately identified radiographically?

A. Chronic apical periodontitis
B. Periapical osteofibrosis
C. Mental foramen ‘
D. Apical cyst
E. All of the above
28. In acute inflammation of the pulp, which of the following occurs first?
a. Liquefaction necrosis
b. Increased collagen fiber production
c. Increased concentration of neutrophils
d. Round cell infiltration of connective tissue
e. Fibrous connective tissue confinement of the area of inflammation
29. A patient returns five hours after extraction of a tooth because of persistent
bleeding, Initial treatment is to
A. inject a local anesthetic into the area to provide vasoconstriction
b. inject 10mg of vitamin K intramuscularly to promote clot formation
c. have the patient bite on a gauze pad saturated with epinephrine solution
d. remove clots and examine the area to locate the source of bleeding
e. refer the patient to the local hospital or to his physician for bleeding and
coagulation tests
30. Immediately after tooth extraction, a patient with a known cardiac problem
experiences angina. This is most likely precipitated by
A. his upright position in the chair
B. an allergy to the anesthetic agent
C. the stimulus of pain and anticipation
D. the epinephrine in the anesthetic agent
E. the position of the tooth
31. After incision and drainage of an abscess, the infectious process has failed to
regress in spite of the patient’s being on high doses of an antibiotic. Treatment of
choice is to
A. insert a large drain
B. repeat culture and sensitivity tests
C. secure a complete blood count of the patient
D. debride and irrigate the area with a fibrinolytic agent
E. begin the parenteral administration of proteolytic enzymes to augment the
antibiotic
32. A patient develops a fluctnant palatal abscess three days after extraction of a
maxillary first molar. Treatment of choice is
a. antibiotic therapy only
b. a Caldwell-Luc procedure
c. alternate heat and cold therapy
d. incision and drainage and antibiotic therapy
e. alternate heat and cold therapy and antibiotic therapy
33. Ameloblastomas occur most frequently in which of the following facial areas ?
a . maxillary molar area
b. mandibular premolar area
c. antrum and floor of the nose
d. symphysis area of the mandible
e. molar ramus area of the mandible
34. A patient has an infectious process associated with the maxillary right lateral
incisor. The tooth is deeply carious and norestorable. His temperature is 39°C. The
patient has not been able to chew for the past 24 hours. The right side of the face is
swollen. The patient cannot open his right eye. The tissues are hard and film. This
hard, firm condition of the tissues is termed
A. cellulitis
B. purulence
C. coagulum
D. abscess
E. granuloma
35. Following a blow to the chin, a patient has pain over the right temporomandibular
join: an open bite and deviation or the chin and the teeth to the tight. These symptoms
suggest
A. fracture of the symphysis
B. fracture of the right angle
C. fracture of the left mandibular condyle
D. fracture of the right mandibular condyle
E. dislocation of the tight mandibular condyle
36. A mandibular molar was extracted because of advanced dental caries. A month
later, an intimated swelling arose externally adjacent to the extraction site. Several
draining sinuses appeared spontaneously and drained pus which initially contained
yellow granules. The most probable diagnosis is
A. syphilis
B. tuberculosis
C. actinomycosis
D. histoplasmosis
E. streptococcal infection
37. When reconstructing an edentulous mandible with implants, which of the

following is true?
A. the osteointegrated concept of implant stabilization has the best documentation of
long-term success
B. the mandibular staple implant is useful for the posterior mandible
C. the subperiosteal implant requires only a single surgical procedure
D. both the blade and the osteointegrated cylinder are useful as posterior abutments in
patients with high mental foramen
38. The soft tissue-tooth interface that forms most frequently alter flap surgery in an
area previously denuded by inflammatory disease is a
a. collagen adhesion
b. reattachment by scar
c. long junctional epithelium
d. connective tissue attachment
e. fibrous attachment
39. All of the following are used in the fixation of bone grafts EXCEPT
A. bone plates
B. gut sutures
C. biphasic pins
D. titanium mesh
E. transosseous wires
40. Three minutes after giving an inferior alveolar nerve block for removal of a
premolar, the patient develops a paralysis ofe muscl es of forehead, eyelids and upper
and lower lips on the same side of the face. This is probably related to
a. anesthesia to the otic ganglion .
b. anesthesia to the motor branches of the mandibular nerve supplying the
masticatory muscles
c. diffusion of the anesthetic solution involving the ophthalmic division of the
trigeminal
d. diffusion of the anesthetic solution through the inferior orbital fissure to
anesthetize the oculomotor nerve
e. injection of the anesthetic solution into the capsule of the parotid gland and
consequent block of the facial nerve
41. When mandibular teeth are to be extracted, the patient should be positioned so
that the occlusal plane of the mandibular arch is
A. parallel to the floor when the mouth is wide open
B. perpendicular to the floor when the mouth is wide open
C. parallel to the floor when the teeth are closed together
D. perpendicular to the floor when the teeth are closed together
42. Toxic effects seen after administration of a local anesthesic with epinephrine are
probably due to the anesthesic if which of the following signs is apparent?
a. Sweating
b. drowsiness
c. tachypnea
d. tachycardia
e. apprehension
43. Which of the following planes of space are used to classify malocclusion?
a. Horizontal, vertical, diagonal
b. Antero—posterior, sagittal, vertical
c. Antero—posterior, transverse, vertical
d. Antero-posterior, sagittal, coronal
e. B + D
44. A patient has a large cyst—like lesion in his posterior mandibular region. Which
of the following is MOST likely to facilitate an accurate diagnosis of the lesion?
a. Exfoliative cytology
b. Aspiration
c. A radiographic examination
d. A microscopic examination of incised tissue
e. A periodic clinical examination
45. Swelling beneath the eye due to an abscessed maxillary canine tooth occurs
because
A. maxillary bone is very porous
B. venous drainage takes place in that direction
C. the root apex of the tooth lies above the attachment
D. an allergic reaction to infection is present
E. the maxillary antrum is involved

A. causes a localized area of pulpal necrosis
B. becomes incorporated in the reparative dentine
C. is rapidly absorbed into the blood stream
D. is inert and has no effect
E. causes apical necrosis only
e. all of the above

a. split roots
b. root perforation
49. The action used for placing a K—type file into a canal should resemble
a. an up-and—down motion
b. a straight apical pressure
c. complete rotation of the instrument with pressure directed apically
d. a clockwise—counterclockwise motion with pressure directed apically
e. a scraping motion on the canal walls
50. Which of the following is most likely to cause damage to the gingival papilla?
a. punching holes that are too small in the rubber dam
b. A punching holes that are too far apart in the rubber dam
c. punching holes that are too clogs together in the rubber dam
d. failure to lubricate the rubber dam before placement
51. Internal resorption is LEAST liker to continue in a tooth with

a. a necrotic pulp
b. acute pulpitis
c. chronic pulpitis
d. incipient acute pulpalgia
e. a pinkish discoloration of the crown
52. What is the response of a NORMAL pulp to the application of intense heat or
cold?
A. no response by a normal pulp
B. pain which lasts for 30-60 seconds
C. feeling of warmth or coldness on the tooth
D. pain which lasts for 10-15 minutes after the stimulus is removed
E. pain which lasts for only a short time after the stimulus is removed
53. Which of the following properties of dental materials is time—dependent?

A. creep
B. resilience
C. elastic limit
D. ultimate strength
E. compressive strength
54. Which of the following provides the best guarantee for sterilization in a heat
sterilizer?
a. using a chemical indicator ship or pouch
b. recording the temperature and/or pressure readings from the sterilizer gauges
c. using bacterial spore tests
d. determining the ability of the sterilizer to kill the hepatitis B virus
e. demonstrating inactivation of the tuberculosis bacterium
55. How should proper subject contrast be maintained when taking a radiograph of a
patient with thick, heavy bones?
a. increase milliamperage
b. increase kilovoltage
c. use a high-contrast film
d. increase exposure
e. increase development time
56. Antiseptics differ from disinfectants in that antiseptics

A. sterilize
B. kill pathogens
C. ate bactericidal only
D. are bacteriostatic only
E. are applied to living tissues
57. The lingual nerve contributes sensory fibers to the

A. otic ganglion
B. mandibular molars
C. floor of the mouth
D. all of the above
58. The effect of local anesthesia is reduced in the presence of

A. acute infection
B. inflammation
C. antibiotics
D. A + B
E. A + C
59. On a carbide but, a greater number of cutting blades results in

a. less efficient cutting and a smoother surface
b. less efficient cutting and a tougher surface
c. more efficient cutting and a smoother surface
d. more efficient cutting and a rougher surface
60. Which the following groups of fibers of the periodontal ligament is most likely to
be found in the middle third of
a. apical
b. oblique
c. horizontal
d. transseptal
e. alveolar crest
61. The occlusal surface of a wax pattern should be carved

A. to obtain desired occlusal contacts
B. slightly out of occlusion to allow for thickness of cement
C. with the patient’s mandible in the most retruded position
D. to duplicate the original anatomic form of the tooth
E. B + D
62. The patient complains of sensitivity a week after cementation of a fixed partial
denture with polycarboxylate cement. What is the most likely cause?
a. irritation from the cement
b. premature occlusion
c. a loose retainer
d. an open margin
63. Which of the following characterizes a temporomandibular joint?

a. it is immune to arthritis
b. it has one synovial cavity
c. it has two synovial cavities ' ’
d. it has no synovial cavities
e. all the answers are wrong
A. a wide facial and a narrow lingual embrasure
B. a wide lingual and a narrow facial embrasure
C. equal embrasures on both the facial and the lingual
D. none of the above. It depends upon whether the maxillary or the mandibular arch
is being considered
E. it depends on filling materials
65. Splinting adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture is performed primarily
to
A. augment retention of the fixed partial denture
B. improve embrasure contours, thus enhancing gingival health
C. stabilize abutment teeth, thus preventing rotational movement or distal migration
D. improve mesiodistal spacing of abutment teeth and pontics for optimum esthetics
and function
E. improve distribution of the occlusal load
66. In a canine-protected occlusion, which prepared tooth cannot be evaluated for

adequate clearance by lateral excursions of the mandible?
a. maxillary canine
b. maxillary first molar
c. maxillary first premolar
d. mandibular second molar
e. mandibular second premolar
67.Three weeks after insertion of a fixed partial denture, marked discomfort to heat
and cold occurs. There are no other symptoms. The most likely cause is
a. gingival recession
b. unseating of the fixed partial denture
c. deflective occlusal contact
d. torsional forces on one abutment tooth
e. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth
68. Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs

A. on closing from centric relation
B. on initial opening from centric relation
C. in the upper compartment of the temporomandibular joint
D. in the lower compartment of the temporomandibular joint
69. Each of the following factors makes porcelain jacket crowns more vulnerable to
fracture EXCEPT
A. sharp line angles in the preparation
B. folds of platinum matrix imbedded in the porcelain
C. an irregular thickness of porcelain in the restoration
D. a great amount of vertical overlap and moderate horizontal overlap
E. a great amount of horizontal overlap and moderate vertical overlap
70. When a removable partial denture is completely seated, the retentive terminals of
the retentive clasp arms should be
a. passive and applying no pressure on the teeth
b. contacting the abutment teeth only in the suprabulge areas
c. resting lightly on the height of contour line on the abutment teeth
d. applying a definite, positive force on the abutment teeth in order to prevent
dislodgment of the removal partial denture
71. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate complete denture

therapy?
a. trauma to extraction sites
b. increased potential for infection
c. impossibility for an anterior try-in
d. excessive resorption of residual ridges
e. A+D
72. Porosity in a heat—activated acrylic resin denture base is most frequently caused
by
A. lack of pressure on the resinous mass
B. heating the case too slowly
C. packing during the doughy stage
D. processing for 9 hours at 160°F
E. all of the above
73. A patient who wears complete dentures is having trouble pronouncing the letter
“T”. This is probably caused by
A. too thick at palatal seal area
B. too thick 21 base in the mandibular denture
C. incorrect positioning of maxillary incisors
D. improper positioning of mandibular incisors
E. B+C
74. A patient wearing complete dentures has trouble swallowing. What is the most
probable cause?
A. excessive interocclusal space
B. insufficient interocclusal space
C. posterior teeth set too far facially on maxillary the maxillary denture
D. posterior teeth set too close to the
75. The setting time of zinc oxide-eugenol impression pastes can be accelerated by
the addition of a small amount of
A. water
B. glycerin
C. petrolatum
D. plaster of Paris
76. What is the probable cause of a sore throat following insertion of a removable
mandibular partial denture?
A. the lingual bar is impinging upon the lingual frenum
B. the lingual flange of the partial denture is overextended
C. insufficient relief has been provided for the lingual bar
D. the distofacial flange is overextended
77. One of the best materials for sedation of dental pulp is

A. cavity varnish
C. zinc oxide—eugenol
D. zinc silicophosphate cement
E. a proprietary product of sterilized dentin powder and distilled water.
78. For a 12 year old, the treatment of choice for a fractured mandibular lateral
incisor involving the mesioincisal angle but not the pulp is
A. etching, bonding and placement of a resin composite restoration
B. a lingual dovetail inlay
C. a pin-retained metallic restoration
D. a porcelain-fused-to—metal crown
E. a pin—retained resin composite restoration
79. The greatest percentage of tooth loss in the first two decades of life (except
natural loss of deciduous is due to
A. periodontal disease
B. treated dental caries
C. untreated dental caries
D. trauma to teeth from accidents
E. systemic diseases
80. A zinc oxide—eugenol cement base is contraindicated for use with self—curing
resin restorative materials because
a. the compressive strength of the cement is too low
b. cement interferes with the polymerization of the resin
c. zinc oxide and Bis—GMA form a soluble compound
d. the cement increases the polymerization shrinkage of the resin
e. all of the above
81. Which the following factors contribute the greatest amount of retention to the
onlay restoration?
b. flat pulpal and gingival walls
c. cusp reduction and contrabevels
82. The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen on the surface of a
dental amalgam restoration is most likely
a. mercury
b. a sulfide
c. gamma-H
d. copper oxide
83. Acid etching of enamel increases retention and adaptation of resin restorations by
a. increasing the surface area
b. conditioning the surface wetting
c. creating surface irregularities for better mechanical locking
d. all of the above
84. Beveling the enamel margin of a composite resin preparation is accomplished in

order to
A. improve esthetics
B. improve wettability of the surface during bonding
C. smooth the enamel and cavosurface margin
D. expose the ends of the enamel rods for acid attack
E. A + D
85. It is preferable to prepare narrow cavities rather than wide cavities in order to
a. reduce operating time
b. conserve tooth strength
c. avoid undermining the enamel
d. avoid overheating the pulpal tissues
e. all of the above
86. Inclusion of pins in an amalgam restoration results in an increase in

a. retention
b. reinforcement
c. tensile strength
d. compressive strength
e. B+D
87. When we have inflamed gingival

a) Inflammatory cells migrate through the vascular wall and penetrate into the
epithelium
b) There will be a loss of the intercellular cohesion between the epithelium cells
c) There will be an increase of the intercellular space which will promote deepening
of the sulcus and formation of periodontal pocket
d) All the above
88. Pocket probing is done clinically with a periodontal probe graduated in mm:
a. Clinical measurement is less than histological measurement
b. Clinical measurement equals the histological measurement
c. Clinical measurement is superior than the histological measurement
d. Clinical measurement is equal to the histological measurement when the force
during probing is 25 gr
89. Presence of pus in periodontal pocket is a sign of:

a) Severity of periodontal disease
b) Pocket depth
c) Presence of vertical bony defect
d) Mobility
90. In gingivitis, bleeding on probing is an important factor due to :

a) Vasoconstriction and engorgement of the capillaries
b) The increase of the permeability of the sulcular epithelium
c) The decrease of the intercellular space between epithelial cells
d) The decrease of the permeability of the sulcular epithelium
e) The decrease of the quantity of the interstitial fluid.
91. In ulceronecrotic gingivitis, we assist to:

a) Acute gingival inflammation
b) Marked tendency to bleeding
c) Halitosis and intense pain
d) Fatigue and adenopathy
e) All of the above
92. Secondary occlusal trauma is defined as:

a) Injury resulting from a normal force on a tooth with a reduced periodontium
b) Injury resulting from an excessive force on a tooth with a reduced periodontium
c) Injury resulting from an excessive force on a tooth with a normal periodontium
d) Injury resulting from a normal force on a tooth with a normal periodontium
93. Traumatic ulcer:

a. is an uncommon oral lesion
b. is usually asymptomatic
c. is treated by biopsy
d. all of the above
94. Gingival hyperplasia may be induced by:

a. phenytoin
b. cyclosporine
c. nifedipine
d. all of the above
95. Angioneurotic edema:

a. is an allergic reaction
b. lasts, if not treated, two weeks
c. is treated with tetracyclines
d. all of the above
96. Geographic tongue:

a. is caused by bacterias
b. frequently coexists with cremated tongue
c. is treated with antifungal agents
d. all of the above
97. Fissured tongue:

a. is due to traumatism
b. is characterized by multiple fissures
c. is usually painful
d. all of the above
98. Glossodynia:
a. is a symptom of burning sensation of the tongue
b. is a very common condition in women more than 50 years old
c. represents, in the vast majority, a manifestation of an underlying psychologic
problem
d. all of the above
99. Ranula:
a. is exclusively localized at the ventral surface of the tongue
b. pathogenesis is similar to that of mucoceles
c. has a whitish color
d. all of the above
100. Herpes labialis:

a. is due to reactivation of HIV 1
b. is the most common form of recurrent herpetic infection
c. is characterized by large bullas
d. all of the above
101. Please circle the correct answer:

a) The bacterial plaque is not a static phenomenon but rather a constantly evolving
aggregate
b) The bacterial plaque is a static phenomenon.
c) The bacterial plaque does not form an aggregate.
d) The bacterial plaque is a hard colloidal layer forming an incoherent mass of micro
—organisms.
e) B+C
102. The prevention of oral affections goes through a certain number of practices:
a) Hygiene measures and it is the major point.
b) Periodic control visits.
c) Appropriate diet
d) Rational consumption of fluor.

a) The KEYES diagram which illustrates the etiological factors of dental caries
includes 3 circles: plaque, sugar, host,
b) KEYES diagram currently includes 4 circles, the fourth one being the time factor.
c) The etiological factors of dental caries are unknown,
d) The two etiological factors of dental caries are plaque and sugar.
e) The host factor (total and general immunity) has no influence on dental caries.
a) The acidogenicity.
b) The Food—tooth contact time.
c) The food—tooth contact time has no effect.
d) Sugar consumption.
e) A+B+D

A. Sweeteners (non cariogenic sugar) nowadays show no side effect and meet all the
requirements.
B. They have a nice taste.
C. They are all non—cariogenic.
D. Cyclamates are very often used nowadays.
E. Sorbitol does not provoke diarrhea.
106. Good oral hygiene and fluoridation will least protect which of the following?
A. groove defects
B. lingual smooth surfaces
C. facial smooth surfaces
D. proximal smooth surfaces
107. A child fractured a permanent maxillary central incisor 15 minutes ago.

Examination of the tooth reveals a very small (pin point) pulp exposure and a wide
open root apex. This condition is best treated by
a. formocresol pulpotomy
b. pulpectomy and root canal
c. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
d. direct pulp capping with calcium hydroxide
e. direct pulp capping with zinc oxide—eugenol
108. The usual metabolic pathway of ingested fluoride involves urinary excretion
primarily, with the remaining portion found largely in
a. teeth
b. muscles tissues
c. skeletal tissues
d. all of the above
109. What is true about the extraction of temporary molars?

A. extraction of the first temporary molar at seven years and half may lead to an early
eruption of the first bicuspid
B. extraction of the second upper temporary molar at three years and half may lead to
an extrusion of the antagonist
C. extraction of the second lower temporary molar at ten years and half may lead to
an eruption in mesial position of the first lower permanent molar
D. extraction of a temporary molar with mobility may be done without previous
radiographic examination
E. all of the above

primary tooth in which a was performed?
A. gutta—percha
C. zinc oxide-eugenol
D. calcium hydroxide-C.M.C.P. paste
E. bakelite paste with gutta-percha
111. A 15—year—old patient has all teeth present and normal occlusion; molar roots
are not fully calcified. The mandibular right first molar has a pathologic pulp
exposure. Endodontic treatment has failed and the tooth must be extracted. The
subsequent treatment indicated is to
a. place a space maintainer
b. place a fixed partial denture
c. place a removal partial denture
d. all the answers are right
e. do nothing and observe
112. Which of the following diagnostic criteria is least reliable in assessing pulp
status in the primary dentition?
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
113. Which of the following is the preferred procedure to anesthetize primary

mandibular molars for restorative procedures?
A. mental nerve block
B. inferior alveolar nerve block
C. infiltration around the teeth and the mental foramen
D. buccal and lingual infiltration around the teeth
E. None of the above. No anesthesia is necessary for primary molars
114. In which of the following situations should a primary tooth generally be

removed?
a. the tooth is nonvital
b. caries involves the bifurcation
c. there is exposure of a vital pulp
d. the corresponding tooth on the opposite side has been lost
e. all of the above
115. There are two normal children of the same age and sex. In one, all permanent
teeth except third molars have erupted. 1n the other, no permanent canines or
premolars have erupted. How old are these children?
a. 7 years
b. 9 years
c. 11 years
d. 13 years
e. 15 years
116. Optimum moment for orthodontic treatment:

a. Age 12
b. Depends on dentition stage, bone age and maturation
c. Depends on chronological age only.
d. Depends on arch morphogenesis.
e. Varies according to growth rhythm and growth ratio only
117. Craniofacial growth is controlled by factors

a) Genetic factor only.
b) Nutrition, endocrine, emotional and psychological factors are more important
than ethers.
c) Heredity and function both associated to Nutrition, endocrine, Emotional and
psychological factors.
d) Muscles.
e) Sutures and muscles
118. Comprehensive diagnosis in orthodontics needs

a) study models, profile X-ray, presence of the patient
b) panoramic, presence of the patient, hand wrist X-ray
c) presence of the patient, panoramic, photos
d) presence of the patient, profile X-ray, panoramic X-ray
119. A 9 year old boy has a diastema between his upper front teeth. What is the best
thing to do:
a) frenectomy
b) space closure
c) composite filling the space
d) refer to an orthodontist for an opinion
120. An 8 year old girl has the right first molar on the arch but the contralateral has
not yet erupted. What to do 7?
a) to wait ,
b) Expose surgically and orthodontic traction
c) panoramic x—ray
d) mandibular space maintainer
1. C 21. C 41. A 61. A 81. A 101. D

2. A 22. A 42. B 62. B 82. B 102. E
3. E 23. C 43. C 63. C 83. C 103. B
4. C 24. A 44. D 64. B 84. E 104. E
5. C 25. C 45. C 65. E 85. B 105. C
6. E 26. D 46. A 66. A 86. A 106. A
7. C 27. C 47. E 67. C 87. D 107. D
8. B 28. C 48. C 68. C 88. C 108. C
9. D 29. D 49. D 69. E 89. E 109. A
10. E 30. C 50. C 70. A 90. B 110. C
11. E 31. B 51. A 71. C 91. E 111. A
12. A 32. D 52. E 72. A 92. A 112. B
13. D 33. E 53. A 73. C 93. E 113. B
14. D 34. A 54. C 74. B 94. D 114. B
15. B 35. D 55. B 75. A 95. A 115. C
16. B 36. C 56. E 76. B 96. E 116. B
17. D 37. A 57. C 77. C 97. B 117. C
18. A 38. C 58. D 78. A 98. D 118. D
19. D 39. B 59. A 79. C 99. B 119. D
20. C 40. E 60. B 80. B 100. B 120. C
Test №17
1. Efficiency of mastication is related to:

a) type of teeth
b) number of remained teeth
c) number of occlusal contacts
d) number and surface of occlusal contacts
e) a+d
2. Dental abrasion:
a) is equivalent to bruxism
b) is a physiological phenomena
c) increases the efficiency of mastication
d) b+c
e) a+c
3. Occlusal contacts during swallowing:

a) are always present
b) their existence is not a general rule
c) are mostly existent during swallowing of liquids or soft nutriments
d) a+c
4. Which of the following cells is least radiosensitive?

a) red blood cell
b) epithelial cell
c) endothelial cell
d) white blood cell
e) connective tissue cell
5. Protection from x-radiation is accomplished by:
a) operator standing directly in front of patient
b) operator standing directly to the right of patient
c) operator standing directly to the left of patient
d) adequate distance between operator and patient's face
6. When using the buccal object rule to determine the position of an impacted tooth,
if the impaction moves mesially when the tube head is shifted mesially, this indicates
that the impacted tooth is lying
a) buccally
b) mesially
c) distally
d) lingually
7. Which of the following variables has the greatest significance in antibiotic

a) route of administration
b) susceptibility of the organism
c) antigenicity of the antibiotic
d)acceleration of lymphatic drainage
e) specific antibody rate of the host
8. Bone compared to soft tissue

a) is more radiopaque
b) has a higher average atomic number
c) has a greater absorption of x-rays
d) none of the above
e) all of the above
9. Three days after removal of teeth for an immediate denture, a patient complains of
a diffuse, nonpainful, yellow, submandibular and suprasternal discoloration of the
skin. The dentist should
a) apply cold compresses
b) administer antibiotics only
c)administer anti-inflammatory agents
d) apply moist heat and administer antibiotics
10. Which of the following is NOT a reason for using vasoconstrictors in a local
anesthetic solution?
a) to make anesthesia more profound
b) to reduce toxicity because less drug is necessary
c) to reduce regional vascularity when infiltrated
d) to prolong the anesthetic effect without reinjection
e) to prolong the shelf life of the anesthetic solution
11. Because the effect of prenatal Fluoride is uncertain, the prescription of Fluoride to
pregnant women is:
a) contraindicated
b) indicated
c) has no effect
d) is hazardous
e) non of the above
12. If water fluoridation decreases decay by 50%, and if a topical Fluoride application
used later lead to a 50% reduction of decay, the total caries reduction will be:
a) 100%
b) 85%
c) 75%
d) 65%
e) 50%
13. The autoclave is the most recommended mean for sterilization because:
a) It utilizes vapor pressure
b) It doesn't lead to instrument corrosion
c) because of the low temperature used, "thermo-sensitive" instruments can be
sterilized
d) all of the above
e) non of the above
14. Proper lip support for a patient with complete dentures is provided primarily by
the
a) convex surface of the labial flange
b) rounded contours of interdental papillae
c) proper pronouncement of sibilant sounds
d) thickness of the border in the vestibule
e) facial surfaces of teeth and simulated attached gingiva
15. The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a complete denture that
has been worn for a long time is
a) epulis fissuratum
b) pyogenic granuloma
c) papillary hyperplasia
d) giant cell reparative granuloma
e) basal cell papilloma
16. Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete denture with severe
bilateral tuberosity undercuts to
a) remove both tuberosity undercuts
b) reduce the tissue bilaterally
c) reduce the tissue on one side only, if possible
d) No treatment is necessary
17. The usual cause of contacting or clicking of posterior teeth when a patient with
denture speaks is
a) decreased vertical dimension of occlusion
b) increased vertical dimension of occlusion
c) posterior teeth set too far lingually
d) posterior teeth set too far facially
e) anterior teeth are too short
18. The most frequent cause of tissue soreness along the mucobuccal area of a
removal partial denture is
a) use of anatomic teeth
b) a centric prematurity
c) heavy balancing contact
d) extension of the denture border
e) lack of rigidity of the major connector
19. Failure of partial dentures due to poor clasp design can best be avoided by
a) using stress breakers
b) using bar-type clasps
c) using intracoronal attachments
d) altering tooth contours
e) clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and normal bone support
20. The distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a complete denture is
limited by the action of the
a). Stylohyoid muscle
b) Medial pterygoid muscle
c) Lateral pterygoid muscle
d) Superior constrictor muscle
e) Buccinator muscle
21. Tooth-borne removable partial dentures should normally have the rests located
a) next to edentulous areas
b) away from edentulous areas
c) primarily on molars because they are the strongest teeth
d) on as few teeth as feasible in order to preserve as many teeth as possible
e) a+c
22. In removal partial denture design, guiding planes serve to

a) aid in balancing occlusion
b) assure predictable clasp retention
c) form right angles to the occlusal plane
d) eliminate the necessity for precision attachments
e) eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp
23. An advantage of a wide, thin palatal bar (strap) compared with a narrow bar is
that the wide bar
a) is more stable
b) is easier to polish
c) can be rigid with less bulk
d) is less irrigating to the soft tissue
24. The patient has worn a new denture for three months. He complains Ufa burning
sensation in the palatal area. Which of the following areas should be relieved?
a. post dam area
b. incisive foramen
c. hamular notch area
d. both A and B above
25. A mandibular arch is to be restored with a removal partial denture, replacing first
and second molars on both sides. Which of the following is the best method for
recording centric relation?
a. use a plaster record of the interdigitation of teeth
b. articulate the casts by eye and secure with sticky wax
c. use a wax registration that covers the premolars of the mandibular arch and anterior
teeth
d. use an occlusal rim made on the master cast to which is added a soft wax for the
registration
e. use an occlusal rim made on the master cast and attached to the completed partial
denture frame
26. To have a correct incisal and gingival color of metal-ceramic restorations, the
color may be modified by
A. use of stains
B. use of stained porcelain
C. refIring at a higher temperature
D. changing the light reflection by grinding and repolishing
E. A + B only
27. To fulfill its requirements satisfactorily, a pontic must

a. restore tooth function
b. be biologically acceptable to the soft tissues
c. minimize galvanic reactions between abutments and proximating restorations
d. A + B only
e. A + B + C
28. Which of the following procedures are carried out as recommended routine post
cementation practice?
a. finishing margins of restorations at a future appointment
b. making radiographs of involved teeth to find residual cement
c. adjusting existing discrepancies in occlusion before dismissing the patient
d. all of the above
e. A + C only
29. Ridge tissue tolerates some materials better than others. Which of the following
(is) are true?
A highly glazed porcelain is tolerated better than highly polished gold
B. highly polished porcelain is tolerated better than highly polished acrylic
C. highly polished gold is tolerated better than unglazed porcelain
D. all of the above
E. only B + C
30. Which of the following is (are) (a) cause(s) of fracture or separation of porcelain
from metal in the porcelain—fused—to—gold technique?
a. poor design of the metal framework
b. contamination of metal before application of the opaque layer
c. centric occlusal contacts at the junction of metal and porcelain
d. all of the above
31. A thin application of cavity varnish over the cut surface of a prepared tooth just
prior to cementation of a crown or a bridge with zinc phosphate cement will
A. impede the seating of the restoration
B. insulate the tooth against thermal change
C. increase the possibility of thermal sensitivity
D. reduce the possibility of irritation of the pulp
E. increase the possibility of leakage of the restoration
32. The Face-how is used to record

A. centric relation
B. relation of the maxilla to the temporomandibular joint
C. relation of the mandible to the maxilla
D. relation of the mandible t0 the temporomandibular joint
33. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because
A. it can be treated as an independent abutment
B. it is stronger
C. better esthetics can be achieved
D. less chair time is required in its fabrication
E. it is cheaper
34. Within practical limits, using less water in mixing plaster will result in a set
product that
A. contracts
B. is stronger
C. is more porous
D. is less brittle
E. is more breakable
35. A permanently cemented fixed partial denture may become loose because of
A. insufficient retention in the abutment preparation
B. deformation of the metal casting on the abutment
C. lack of embrasure space
D. all of the above
E. A + B
36. The forces acting through a fixed partial denture on to the abutment tooth should
be directed
A. as far as possible at right angles to the long axes of the teeth
B. parallel to the long axes of the teeth
C. in a mesial direction so that teeth nearer the midline will offer additional support
D. out of the pontic by decreasing its mesiodistal dimension
E. B + C
37. A 25—year-old patient resents with one missing maxillary central incisor,
extreme labioversion of the remaining maxillary central incisor and a history of
having worn a “flipper—type” removable appliance for ten years. There are no other
missing teeth. A Class I interarch relationship exists. Which of the following is
indicated to achieve optimum esthetics and function?
a. extract the malposed central incisor and place a removable appliance
b. extract the malposed central incisor and place a fixed partial denture
c. reduce the facial of the remaining central incisor maximally and place a fixed
partial denture
d. Orthodontically reposition the remaining maxillary central incisor and place a
fixed partial denture
38. Which of the following is a primary consideration for full coverage of abutment
teeth to be used in the construction for a fixed partial denture?
A. health of the mucous membrane
B. health of the gingival tissues
C. amount of supporting bone remaining
D. carious susceptibility of the patient
F. none of the above
39. All other conditions being normal, the ideal posterior pontic is constructed of
A. gold entirely
B. gold with resin facial surface
C. gold with a fused porcelain facial surface
D. porcelain on the occlusal surface and gold approximating the ridge
E. gold on the occlusal surface and glazed porcelain approximating the mucosa
40. A patient is missing a mandibular first molar. The maxillary molar has extruded
approximately 2.8mm into the space. Periodontal health is acceptable. Restoring
satisfactory occlusion with a fixed partial denture will require
a. extraction of the maxillary molar only
b. extraction of the maxillary molar and construction of a maxillary fixed partial
denture
c. reducing and restoring the maxillary molar to a normal occlusal plane
d. reducing and polishing the maxillary molar to a normal occlusal plane
e. None of the above. No treatment is indicated
41. The origin of the maxillary osteosarcomas is:

a) Gingival
b) Cutaneous
c) Osseous
d) Cartilaginous
e) All of the above

a) Occurred on vital tooth
b) Occurred on non vital tooth
c) No related to neighboring teeth
d) Osseous origine
43. The facial nerve is:

a) Motor,
b) Sensitive,
c) Sensorial,
d) Mixte,
e) Sympathetic.
44. Pulp polyp could occurs :

a) After a dental extraction,
b) On vital tooth,
c) On non vital tooth,
d) After an orthodontic treatment,
45. Residual cyst :

a) Occur on previous extraction site,
b) Has traumatic etiology
c) Has bone starting point,
d) Occur around a vital tooth,
e) is radio—opaque.
46. Motor innervation of the face is assured by :

a) Trigeminal nerve,
b) Facial nerve,
c) Hypogloss nerve,
d) Vidien nerve,
47. Sialolithiasis can cause:

a. Salivary hernia,
b. Salivary colic,
c. Inflammatory reaction,
d. Pain during mastication,
48. Lingual new is :

a. Motor,
b. Sensitive,
c. Mixte,
d. Parasympathetic,
e. Sensorial.
49. A patient has localized infection with pus formation. Treatment of choice is to:
a. wait for drainage,
b. establish drainage,
c. administer antibiotics,
d. apply cold to the area,
e. have the patient use hot.
50. The mandibular right second molar of a 14—year-old boy is unerupted.

Radiographs show a small dentigerous cyst surrounding the crown. The treatment of
choice is to:
b. Observe and defer treatment
c. Aspirate the contents of the cyst
d. Uncover the crown and keep it exposed,
e. Orthodontic traction.
51. In the absence of canal treatment, which of the following lesions can cause short
—term periapical complication?
a. internal resorption
b. pulpal hyperemia
c. suppurative pulpitis
d. chronic pulpitis
e. pulp calcification
52. Pulpal hyperemia:

a) indicates an inflammatory process
b) is an irreversible pulpal condition
c) is asymptomatic
d) justifies devitalization
e) is equal to hyperesthesia
53. A full pulp necrosis may result in:

a. radiating pain
b. liquefaction
c. acute symptoms
d. sensitivity to cold
e. dentinal hyperesthesia

a) always develops into apical dental cysts
b) is an acute injury
c) is a suppurative lesion
d) consists of an inflammatory tissue surrounded by a fibrous capsule
e) is severely symptomatic
55. Acute suppurative pulpitis:

a. is less symptomatic that the serous form
b. is an advanced but a reversible inflammatory pulp process
c. is highly symptomatic
d. justifies antibiotherapy
e. is asymptomatic
56. Recrudescent abscess:

a) indicates an exacerbation of the apical granuloma
b) is the first pulp infection complication
c) is asymptomatic
d) is a chronic manifestation of periapical pathology
e) presents a different symptomatology than the phoenix abscess
57. Apical pain is paroxysmal when it comes to:

a) pulpo—osteosclerosis
b) granuloma
c) inflammatory apico—dental cyst
d) acute apical abscess
e) chronic apical abscess
58. A subacute pulpitis indicates a pathological condition of the parenchyma:

a) advanced
b) intermediate between acute and chronic forms
c) reversible
d) associated with a suppurative process
e) severely symptomatic
59. Diagnosing a cyst in the maxillary is based on:
a) the X-ray definition
b) clinical tests
c) clinical examination
d) the histopathology
e) all responses
60. The aneurysmal cyst has the appearance of a:

a) mesh
b) geode
c) lacuna
d) osteolith
e) radiopacity
61. Which of the following is classified as an antianxiety drug?

A. Methohexital
B. Lorazepam
C. Haloperidol
D. Pentazocine
E. Phenylpropanolamine
62. Compared to codeine, morphine is

a. Safer
b. A more potent analgesic
c. A more efficacious analgesic
d. ineffective when administered orally
e. A + D
63. From the occlusal aspect, which of the following represents the most frequently
seen form of a maxillary second molar ?
A. Round
B. Square
C. Trapezoidal
Di Rhomboidal
E. Heart- shaped
64. Initiation of calcification for the mandibular central incisor normally occurs at
a. 34 months of age
b. 1 year of age
c. 2-3 years of age
d. 45 years of age
e. 6-7 years of age
65. Prior to surgery, an anxious patient has a higher systolic blood pressure than
previously noted. Which of the following represents the most likely reason?
a. Cardiac shock
b. Anaphylactic shock
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Ventricular fibrillation
e. Decreased arterial compliance
66. The carotid sheath encloses each of the following structures EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Vagus nerve
b. External carotid
c. Internal jugular vein
d. Common carotid artery
67. Which of the following represents the basis for the topical application of fluorides
in dental caries prevention?
a. Fluoride penetrates the enamel through the lamellae
b. Keratin content of the enamel is made more insoluble
c. Fluoride coats the tooth forming a uniform protective barrier
d. The primary cuticle, being less calcified, absorbs the fluoride
e. Acid solubility of the surface enamel is reduced by the fluoride
68. Which of the following represents the primary function of cementum ?

a. Attach Sharpey’s fibers
b. Protect the root from caries
c. Repair traumatic injuries of the root
d. Supply nutrition to the periodontal ligament
e. Maintain the width of the periodontal ligament
69. Bleeding upon gentle probing the gingiva is indicative of

a. food impaction
b. crestal boneloss
c. ulceration of the sulcular epithelium
d. apical migration of the epithelial attachment
e. all of the above
70. When the free margin of the gingiva is enlarged as a result of inflammation, its
crest moves
A. apically
B. distally
C. mesially
D. cervically
E. occlusally
71. Chronic gingivitis is caused by
A. calculus
B. occlusal trauma
C. organisms invading tissues
D. retention of food and food breakdown products
E. by products of mixed microorganisms massed on tooth and tissue surfaces
72. A bacteremia can result from scaling root planning in

A. gingivitis only
B. periodontitis only
C. healthy gingiva
D. periodontitis and gingivitis
E. all of the above
73. To reduce sensitivity to thermal change after removal of a periodontal dressing, it

is best to
A. replane the roots
B. adjust the occlusion
C. prescribe a desensitizing dentifrice
D. desensitize the roots with an appropriate medicament
E. keep the roots free of bacterial plaque
74. Radiographically, the level of the normal interproximal alveolar crest is related to
the
a. epithelial attachment
b. anatomy of the alveolar process
c. location of the gingival attachment
d. amount of underlying trabecular bone
e. position of the cementoenamel junctions of approximal teeth
75. An early effect of primary traumatic occlusion is
A. vertical pocket formation
B . generalized alveolar bone loss
C . undermining resorption of alveolar bone
D. hemorrhage and thrombosis of blood vessels in the periodontal ligament
E. none of the above because at this stage there are no changes
76. Which of the following procedures might be useful in reducing tooth mobility?
a. repositioning of the tooth out of occlusal trauma
b. endodontic therapy
c. occlusal adjustment
d. reduction of inflammation in the periodontium
e. all of the above
77. Plaque is a major etiologic factor in which of the following conditions?

a. gingival atrophy
b. Occlusal traumatism
c. desquamative gingivitis
d. juvenile periodontitis
78. Of following, trauma from occlusion is least likely to affect

A. enamel
B. cementum
C. alveolar bone
E. the epithelial attachment
79. The opposite sketch represents the

A. facial view of a permanent mandibular right second molar
B. lingual view of a permanent mandibular right second molar
C. facial view of a permanent mandibular left second molar
D. lingual view of a permanent mandibular left second molar
E. lingual view of a primary mandibular left second molar
80. The occlusal view of a normal dental arch segment is shown above. The arrow
points to
A. primary mandibular right first molar
B. primary mandibular left first molar
C. permanent maxillary right first premolar
D. permanent mandibular left second premolar
E. primary mandibular right second molar
81. The cross-sectional view at midtoot illustrated is MOST probably that of a


84. How much fluoride supplement should be provided daily to a one-year child
where the level of water fluoride is 0.02 ppm?
A. 0.50mg
B. 1.00mg
C. 0.25mg
D. 200mg
E. 1,50mg
85. Calcium hydroxide pulpotomies in primary molars end up in failure because :

A. Pulp gangrene
B. Internal root resorption
C. Alveolar bone resorption
D. External root resorption
86. The point of insertion of the needle of an inferior alveolar nerve block injection
for a child is?
a. Higher than that of the adult
b. Lower than that of the adult
c. More anterior
d. At the same spot as for adult
e. More posterior
87. Prolonged use of antibiotics in children can result in :

a. Necrotizing gingivostomatitis
b. Candidiasis
c. Actinomycosis
d. Aphthous ulcers
e. Periodontitis
88. A symptomatic dental disharmony:

a. Is due to a disproportion between the dental and skeletal dimensions
b. Is due to a perfect alighment of the temporary teeth
c. Is the result of dental movements due to early loss or interproximal decays
d. Is spontaneously resolved by the lee—way space
89. Regarding the third molars:

a. They should be taken into consideration in the treatment planning if only they are
on the arches
b. They should be systematically removed not to compromise the treatment outcome
c. They are the sole responsible for the relapse in the lower incisors area
d. They are one of the reason of the relapse in the lower incisors area
e. They are the principal cause of tempomandibular jaw disorders
90. A Class II cavity in a primary molar prepared for a dental amalgam restoration
does NOT require a gingival bevel because enamel rods in the area incline
a. occlusally
b. gingivally
c. diagonally
d. vertically
e. horizontally
91. Caries activity is directly proportional to each of the following EXCEPT

a. oral retention of fermentable carbohydrates eaten
b. frequency of eating fermentable carbohydrates
c. total daily intake of fermentable carbohydrates
d. physical form of food items eaten containing fermentable carbohydrates
92. The most common site of bone destruction with a pathologically involved
primary molar is
A. at the apex of the root
B. in the lateral root area
C. A + B
D. in the periodontal space
E. in the bifurcation area

primary tooth in which a pulpectomy was performed?
A. gutta-percha
C. zine oxide-eugenol
D. calcium hydroxide-C.MC.P. paste
E. bakelite paste with gutta-percha
94. Radiographic examination of a permanent first molar with an early acute pulpal
abscess in a 9—year-old child is likely to reveal
a. involvement of the bifurcation
b. little change from normal structure
c. a large area of periapical bone rarefaction
d. a disturbance in the integrity of the periodontal ligament
e. all of the above
95. A child accidentally swallows 10cc of a 10 percent fluoride solution. The most
effective immediate action is to
A. have the Child drink copious quantities of water
B. have the child drink a 10 percent sodium bicarbonate solution
C. have the child drink milk or some other calcium-containing liquid
D. prescribe a vomitive to the child
E. send the child to the family physician
96. In which of the following situations should a primary tooth generally be

removed?
a. the tooth is nonvital
b. caries involves the bifurcation
c. there is exposure ofa vital pulp
d. the corresponding tooth on the opposite side has been lost
e. all of the above
97. The cotton pellet applied to pulpal stumps during a formocresol pulpotomy
should be
a. dampened with water and formocresol
b. left in place for 5 minutes
c. seated in place until the next dental appointment
d. A + B
e. A + C
98. A 15-year-old patient has all teeth present and normal occlusion; molar roots are
not fully calcified. The mandibular right first molar has a pathologic pulp exposure.
Endodontic treatment has failed and the tooth must be extracted. The subsequent
treatment indicated is to
A. place a space maintainer
B. place a fixed partial denture
C. place a removal partial denture
D. all the answers are right
E. do nothing and observe
99. Which of the following diagnostic criteria is least reliable in assessing pulp status
in the primary dentition?
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
100. Following a traumatic injury to a tooth, how long may it take for normal blood
flow to return to the coronal pulp?
A. 2 weeks
B, 2 months
C. 9 weeks
D. 9 months
E. 3 years
101. Primary endodontic lesions which secondary periodontal involvement usually

require
A. endodontic treatment only
B. periodontal therapy only
C. periodontal therapy following endodontic treatment
D. endodontic treatment following periodontal therapy
E. prescription of antibiotics and mouth-wash only
e. all of the above

a. split roots
b. root perforation
104. The endodontic surgical incision

a. should create beveled edges for both the horizontal and vertical component
b. is a continuous cut through the mucosa, connective tissue, and periosteum
c. is allowed to cross an existing or created body defect
d. should allow the vertical component to be placed over root prominences
e. all of the above
105. Material most popular for retrofilling is

A. amalgam
B. gold foil
C. gutta—percha
D. zinc-oxide eugenol mixture
E. calcium hydroxide mixture
106. If the radiographs show the cone of gutta-percha to be too short, the clinician
should
A. use a lubricant to seat the cone further
B. enlarge the canal by filling and refit the cone
C. trim 1mm from the end of cone and reinsert
D. change to a large cone and exert apical pressure
107.Maintenance of pulpal vitality of teeth with crown fractures and an exposed pulp
a. helps to prevent internal resorption
b. is desirable with teeth with immature apices
d. is recommended for" teeth with partial calcific pulpal obliteration
108. Swelling beneath the eye due to an abscessed maxillary canine tooth occurs
because
A. maxillary bone is very porous
B. venous drainage takes place in that direction
C. the root apex of the tooth lies above the attachment
D. an allergic reaction to infection is present
E. the maxillary antrum is involved

a. causes a localized area of pulpal necrosis
b. becomes incorporated in the reparative dentine
c. is rapidly absorbed into the blood stream
d. is inert and has no effect
e. causes apical necrosis only
110. Characteristic dental findings of cleidocranial dysostosis include
A. increased canes susceptibility
B. enamel hypoplasia and lack of enamel formation
C. juvenile periodontitis and subsequent premature loss of teeth
D. failure of shedding and eruption, and numerous unerupted supernumerary teeth
E. all of the above
111. The syndrome of geographic tongue should be treated by

a. deep lingual frenectomy
b. excision of discrete lesions
c. topical application of Nystatin
d. penicillin therapy to relieve infection
e. no treatment indicated

A. cavitation
B. sensitivity
E. all of the above
113. When a dental film needs to be held in the mouth of a child, the operator should
A. hold himself the film
B. use a film holder
C. ask a dental auxiliary to hold the film
D. ask a parent or a guardian to hold the film
E. B + D
114. The most accepted way of treating a patient with trismus and an elevated
temperature from acute pericoronitis of an impacted mandibular third molar is to
a. administer a general anesthetic and remove the tooth
b. irrigate the tooth socket, administer antibiotics and palliative treatment until the
acute stage has subsided, and remove the tooth
c. remove the opposing maxillary third molar
d. perform an extraoral I and D and then place the patient on antibiotics
e. perform an intraoral I and D and then place the patient on antibiotics
115. An anxious, nervous patient is appointed for a surgical procedure. The patient
states that she has had recent weight loss and is easily fatigued. Physical findings
include tremors, tachycardia and warm, sweaty palms. The most likely diagnosis is
A. diabetes
B. gastritis
C. renal disease
D. hyperthyroidism
E. Cushing’s disease
116. The most frequent cause of pulpal inflammation is

a. trauma
b. bacteria
c. chemical
d. iatrogenic
e. idiopathic
117. Most useful in differentiating between an acute apical abscess and an acute
periodontal abscess is
a. palpation
b. radiographs
c. anesthetic test
d. percussion test
e. pulp vitality test
118. Which of the following nerves innervates the capsale of the temporomandibular
joint?
a. facial
b. buccal
c. maxillary
d. mylohyoid
e. auriculotemporal

a. median raphe
b. gingival zone
c. anterolateral zone
d. posterolateral zone
e. whole palatine mucosa
120. In mixing zinc phosphate cement which clinical variable has the greatest effect
on the strength of the cement?
A. spatulation time
B. liquid—powder ratio
C. temperature of the mixing slab
D. number and size of powder increments;
1. E 21. A 41. C 61. B 81. A 101. C

2. D 22. B 42. B 62. B 82. C 102. E
3. B 23. C 43. D 63. D 83. A 103. C
4. E 24. B 44. C 64. A 84. C 104. B
5. D 25. E 45. A 65. E 85. B 105. A
6. D 26. E 46. B 66. B 86. B 106. B
7. B 27. D 47. E 67. E 87. B 107. B
8. E 28. D 48. B 68. A 88. C 108. C
9. E 29. D 49. B 69. C 89. D 109. A
10. E 30. D 50. D 70. E 90. A 110. D
11. C 31. D 51. C 71. E 91. C 111. E
12. C 32. B 52. A 72. E 92. E 112. C
13. A 33. A 53. D 73. E 93. C 113. E
14. E 34. B 54. D 74. E 94. B 114. B
15. A 35. E 55. C 75. D 95. C 115. D
16. C 36. B 56. A 76. E 96. B 116. B
17. B 37. D 57. D 77. D 97. B 117. E
18. D 38. D 58. B 78. E 98. A 118. E
19. D 39. E 59. E 79. A 99. B 119. D
20. D 40. C 60. A 80. B 100. D 120. B

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What is the most common cause of pulpal inflammation?

What is the most common cause of pulpal inflammation?

What structure innervates the capsular of the temporomandibular joint?

What structure innervates the capsular of the temporomandibular joint?

Test № 1

1. The condyle of the mandible is growth by:

2. The opening of the naso-palatine canal is located:

3. The function of Langerhans cells:

4. The angular commissure cheilitis is manifested by ulcerations at the level of the

7. The dysfunctions of polynuclear neutrophils leads to:

8. The role of polynuclear neutrophils is:

11 The level of blood creatinine is a test for:

14 The Hemangioma is a lesion due to:

15 The leukoedema is:

16 Which of the following patients should avoid the prescription of macrolides?

17 In a patient suffering from gastric hyperactivity, is to be avoided:

18 Maxillary sinusitis can cause:

20 The mechanisms of action of local anaesthetics are the following except:

23 All of the following give similar radiological results except:

24 Which of the following odontogenic neoplasms is least likely to manifest the

27. Which of the following clinical situation necessitates replacement of composite

28. Which of the following is NOT true about a smile line?

29. Best prognosis of tooth whitening is anticipated with:

30. Biting test is useful for testing

31.Percussion test is helpful in determination of whether

33. Laser Doppler Flowmetry (LDF) is used for:

35. Electrical pulp testing is least useful in case of

36. Perforations are .......communications between pulp and periodontium

37. The percentage of moisture endodontically treated teeth is..

39. The main function of the post is to

40. A minimum of .................. mm of gutta-percha should be let apically after post

41. The most common complication with intentional reimplantation is

42. Bacterial infections might persist after root treatment due to

44. The most abundant white cell in a parasitic infection is the:

46. A crown margin can be extended subgingivally when required

48 Which of these alloys presents the lower contraction when cooling?

49 The least hydrophylic material :

51 Which viscosity presents the higher deformation with elapsing time:

52 Propane-oxygen carburant is used when melting:

53 The least hydrophylic material :

54 A laboratory remount of processed dentures is done in order to correct occlusal

58. A characteristic of a group function occlusion is

59. A maxillary anterior bite plane may cause

63 During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture will exhibit

64 The most appropriate treatment for an endodontically treated molar with an

66. Which is the most accurate impression technique :

69. The product which cannot tolerate an alteration in catalyst/base ratio:

71. Loco-regional anesthesia in Pediatric Dentistry is:

72. Nitrous oxide is contra-indicated in patients with:

75. An acute apical abscess in children must be assymptomated with:

78. Which one adheres naturally to tooth structure:

79. The rubber dam should be placed:

80. Strong acid etching:

81. A post-operative sensitivity after a direct composite restoration is due to:

82. The amalgam retention must be done with:

83. Cranial vault growth is:

84. The nasomaxillary growth is:

85. Mandibular growth is:

86. Regarding soft tissue growth: