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My Revision Qs - Huda Madanli

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2019 Questions

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1. patient with acute mania , which drug isn’t effective: phenytoin /chlorpromazine
‫كلور! ما فيني جنون‬

2. - TCA metabolized by : CYP450


3. drug not used in Parkinson:
a-levodopa
b-bromocriptine (Dopamine-agonist)
c-Chlorthalidone (Thiazide-like diuretic)
d-MAOI

N.B.: NOT USE IN PARKINSON:


( 1- Chlorthalidone 2- Chlorpromazine 3- Halopridol )

4. TB. medication ,INH,PYZ,RMP ,which is the SE. of INH (Isoniazide):


peripheral neuropathy>> hence we give B6 with it!
 RifampinE>> Discoloration: Teeth (may be permanent), urine, feces, saliva, sweat, and
tears (yellow, orange, red, or brown)
 Ethambutol>> Colour blindness
 Isoniazid>> peripheral neuropathy

5. antiviral used for influenza and , Parkinson:


a-amantidine (dopamine agonist)
b-lamuvidine
c-zidovudine

6. mitochondrial toxicity,, ANTIVIRUAL used:


a-lamivudine
b-amatidine
c-zidovudine

(N.B. : 1- Stavudine 2- Zidovudine)

7. patient with HIV , the CD4 less than:-   CD4 count drops below 200>>HIV
a-200
b-400
c-500
d-600
8. antiviral used in HBV:
a-lamivudine
b-amatidine
c-zidovudine
d. stavudine

9. 54- CD4 bind to which antigen in the HIV positive Pt:


a-T lymphocyte
b-B lymphocyte
c-macrophages
d-natural killer

10. long case have arrhythmia+ COPD can use except


a-digitalis
b-verpamil
c-amiodarone causes pulmonary toxicity
d-diltiazem

11. all about immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) is true except:
a-not effected by glucocorticoids or anti inflammatories
b-the action of antiviral starts
c-the patient start to respond to ttt
IRIS: A paradoxical clinical worsening of a known condition or the appearance of a new
condition after initiating antiretroviral therapy in HIV-infected patients

12. Meperidine is not suitable for use for long time because of: (opioid)
a-Nephrotoxicity
b- Neurotoxicity
c- Cardiotoxicity

13. Primaquine is contraindicated in all of the following except: (Antimalarial)


a- RA, SLE(systemic lupus erythematosus)
b- G6PD deficiency
c- Lactating female
d- Pregnancy

14. Which vitamin diminishes the effect of Levodopa? >> Pyridoxine (B6)
15. Desipramine (TCA) causes all except: Brady cardia

16. Pt. take INH, PYZ, rifampicin & ethambutol, least likely to cause urine
Discoloration: Ethambutol

17. Exposed to needle last 6 months, lab result shows HBV, least effective
medicine: vaccine
18. phenoxybenzamine what type of adrenergic antagonist: irreversible alpha blocker
19. SE of ecothiophate: cataract (Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitor)
20. SE of Botox injection: respiratory paralysis
21. Pt take bleomycin , vinblastine and cisplatin for testicular cancer
which drug cause dry cough and rales (abnormal lungs sound): bleomycin
22. Drug with least myelosuppression: bleomycin
23. Drug act on M phase: vinblastine (also vincristine, vinorelbine, and vindesine
24. Which drug not cause hyperglycemia symptoms: NSIADS
(may cause hypoglycemia by affecting ion channel functions in insulin secreting beta
cells)

25. Which bacteria cause pseudomembranous colitis: C.difficle


26. Drug for sickle cell anemia: hydroxyurea increases Hb and decreases the number of attacks
27. Drug used for anemia: erythropoietin, cyanocobalamin (B12) , iron, and folic acid
28. Drug used along with iron for dialysis patient: erythropoietin
29. Histamine auto receptors: H3
30. NSAIDs with high risk for thrombosis and MI: celecoxib (not used in cardiac patients)
31. Bethanecol not used in: sijorens syndrome
32. Estrogen used in menopause woman: ethinylestradiol (Yasmin®)
33. ACEI not renaly execreted: fosinopril (hepatic >> not used in liver insufficiency)
34. Pt has diarrhea with mucus and blood in his stool , lab result indicate shigella DOC:
Norfloxacin
35. Pt with TB bacteria resist DNA dependent RNA polymerase, so bacteria resist
which drug: Rifampicin
s
36. what is true about Sumatriptan: CI in coronary artery disease, causes less nausea
than di-hydroergotamine, and another attack is common

37. Prophylaxis for migraine: Propranolol (/metoprolol >> BB used)


ABC prophylaxis: Amitriptyline (TCA), Anticonvulsant (Topiramate) BB, CCB (Verapamil)

38. Drug is used in amoebiasis with asymptomatic cysts: Diloxanide


39. treatment of amoeba (no cyst): metronidazole, emetin, diloxanide (all are true)
40. Anti-fungal for athlete’s foot: Clotrimazole and griseofluvin
41. Not reversed by leucovorin (Folinic acid): hepatotoxicity (Methotrexate is given with
folinic acid to decrease its toxic effects)

42. We can treat ChemO-induced Thrombocytopenia by: Oprelvekin (leads to production


of platelets)
43. Nephroprotective immune suppressant: Sirolimus
44. Antiphlogistics act by: Cooling by evaporation
45. INR, amiodarone & MTX common side effect: Cirrhosis of liver
46. Drug of choice for pseudomembranous colitis (by C.difficle): Vancomycin
(OR Fidaxomicin >>if not then metronidazole)
47. - Patient with renal transplant and chronic gout, most suitable ttt: Allopurinol
48. Anaesthesia for patient with severe psychosis: Methohexital
49. Acidic drug carrier in plasma: Albumin
50. Patient was using pilocarpine for 3 years without medical supervision; suddenly
experienced loss of breath. Management? Epinephrine
51. All enhance effect of sulfonylureas except : (BB, Probenecid, sulfonamides,… >>
increase)
 Salicylate
 Propranolol
 Diloxinide

52. Two oppositely charged hydrophobic mixed with water what will
happen :Micellization
53. Morphine like-dependence………diacetylmorphine (Heroin)
54. Erythromycin …….short half life
55. Community acquired pneumonia…………..Influenza ,mycoplasma pneumonia
56. Generalized tonic colonic DOC……………….Valproate
57. Propranolol in Thyrotoxicosis…………Reduce thyroid symptoms and inhibit conversion
of T4,T3(active)
58. Stilbeglibtine…………….peptidase dipeptide inhibitor
59. Patient take Acyclovir for cold sore, how many times should apply it? 5 times
60. Mupirocin cream used in ……………….Dermatitis (AB)
61. Which is caused by staphylococcus? Impetigo
62. Which is not true in the following? Diphenhydramine is the drug of choice of
morning sickness
63. Hydrochlorothiazide MOA? Inhibits sodium reabsorption in the distal tubules
causing increased excretion of sodium and water as well as potassium and hydrogen ions
64. Vaccine for elderly people that is given yearly for respiratory infection?
Haemophilus influenza vaccine
65. About fibercon® which is true?
a-take it with plenty of water
b-its used for diarrhea and constipation
c-it is avoided with tetracycline
d-all of the above

66. Iron decrease absorption of: Moxifloxacin (quinolones)


67. Which of the following need vertical laminar flow? Doxorubicin (Chemotherapy)
68. Alprazolam is: Short acting benzodiazepines, controlled drug
69. Hyperparathyroidism ttt>> Dihydro-tachy-sterol (vit D analogue)
70. Lanatoprost MOA >> prostaglandin F2α-analogue believed to reduce intraocular
pressure by increasing the outflow of the aqueous humor
71. NOT a sign of taking cocaine? Peripheral vasodilation
72. NOT used in dandruff? Permethrin (insecticide)
73. Narrow therapeutic index……………….all (heparin, alprazolam, warfarin)
74. In which case gentamycin will not be toxic ? if plasma conc is less than 2mg\ml
75. Saline flush is used to: flush active drug into circulation
76. All of the following decrease the effects of BB except:
1- Phenytoin
3-Rifampicin
4-Fluoxetine

77. All of the following anti-epileptic drugs are avoided in pregnancy except:
1- Phenytoin
2- Valproate
3- Diazepam
4- Clonazepam
78. All of the following are used for treatment of acute mania except:
1- Lorazepam
2- Chlorpromazine
3- Lithium
4- Valproate

79. Used for HIV&HIB : Lamivudine


80. Case scenario about patient HIV and have low fever and lung diffuse >> which
negative mycobacterium is likely to cause this infection : Mycobacterium avium complex

81. Which of the following is considered a Narcotic according to UAE regulations:


A.methylphenidate 5mg tab
B.bupernorphin 500 inj.
C.buprenorphen 200 mcg tab
D.nabluphine
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2018 Questions

1. Which drug is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis? Clindamycin


2. Pregnant with UTI (with/without G6PD) : choose a Broad-spectrum Cephalosporin
3. DOC in meningitis? Cefuroxime
 Bacterial meningitis >> 3rd generation cephalosporin (cefixime, cefotaxime,
ceftriaxone) is the DOC >> Penicillin G, ampicillin, chloramphenicol, fluoroquinolone,
and aztreonam are alternatives therapies
 Viral meningitis >> Acyclovir.
 Cryptococcal fungal meningitis >> Amphotricin B, Flucytosine

4. All decrease the effect of digoxin except:


a) captopril
b) cycloserine
c) Azithromycin
d) cephalexin

5. What to use instead of vincristine: paclitaxel (vi>>p =VIP)


6. Not for crohn's disease:
a) Adliximab
b) Infliximab
c) certolizumab
d) Ustekinumab or Golimumab (can't remember but both used)
e) Etanercept the odd one!

7. Patient take DMARDs and after 2 weeks have eye problem which drug cause that:
a) sulfalazine
b) hydroxyquine

8. Does not potentiate the effects of sulphonylurea / enhance the action of sulphonylurea
except ? Diazoxide (treats hypoglycemia due to hyperinsulinemia)

9. Patient with glaucoma taking ecothiophate (long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)


what’s the reoccurring side effect?
a) Tonic pupil
b) Cataract
c) Strabismus
10. Which is NOT a non-mast cell that produce histamine?
a) Adipose tissue
b) CNS cells
c) Epidermis
d) GI cells

11. Best drug to decrease the exacerbation IBS: prednisolone


12. Patients admitted with morphine over dose what is the appropriate treatment:
a) Naletraxone (should not be used before detoxification) Opioid antagonist!
b) Methadone (used in detoxification of opioids)
c) Prozethacain

13. DOC for status epilepsy: (1st Diazepam >> 2nd Clonazepam >> 3rd Phenytoin) DPC!
a) Clonazepam
b) Diazepam
c) Phenobarbital

14. Safe for pregnancy or can use for pregnancy: carbamazepine


15. Phenytoin SE all Except : Nephrotoxicity (Phen is nephro safe)
16. Patient taking ACEl which antacid should not be used? Potassium bicarbonate
(Risk of hyperkalemia)

17. Case patient taking procarbazine (chemotherapy), Which amino acid is contraindicated?
a)phenylalanine
b)tyramine ‫!تاير السيارة‬
c)valine
d)leucine

18. Nail fungal infection DOC: Terbinafine


19. Paracetamol >> ALL: Analgesic, Antipyretic , selective COX-3 inhibitor, No platelet or
anti-inflammatory actions
20.When patient take prophylaxis therapy for gout:
a. more than One attack per year
b. Association with Kidney stones
c. urate excretion 500 mg
d. blood urea level 10mg/dl (normal <6mg/dl),

21. bumetanide true about it : (LOOP)


A. cause Ototoxicity
B. Need potassium treatment with it
C. Contraindicated with sulphonamide sensitivity
D. All of the above

22.case about a patient had an organophoshorous toxicity , all of the following are side
effect except:
A-Cyclopegia (paralysis of the ciliary muscle of the eye resulting in a loss of accommodation)
B-Miosis
C-Skeletal muscle weakness
D-GIT disturbance

23.Tamoxifen not used in: advanced breast cancer


24.T 4 binds to:
albumin
thyroxine binding globulinc.
Trans thyretine
all of the above

25.Simvastatin causes serious interaction with: Amiodarone (also Verapamil!)


26.Patient with hypertension and gout which antihypertensive drug suitable for him:
a. Chlorthiazide
b. Torsemide (loop)
c. Metolazone (thiazide)
d. Tenormin (atenolol)
Thiazides and loop diuretics may precipitate gout!

27.Patient with hypertension and congestive heart failure with ejection fraction 28%
which suitable antihypertensive for him:
a. Clonidine (CI)
b. Gaunithidine
c. Diltiazem
d. Nisoldipine
28.All of the following drugs are avoided with azathioprine except:
a. Propranolol
b. Allopurinol
c. Enalapril

29.Azathioprine SE not dose related: Hepatotoxicity


30.Which antiplatelet cause agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia and aplastic anemia:
Ticlopidine

31. patient has HIV, which NRTI cause lactic acidosis and hepatic steatosis:
a.Zidovudine
b.Stavudine

32.In filteration ophthalmic atrophy due to :


A.Hyperthyroiditis
B.Toxic unilateral goiter
C.toxic bilateral goiter
D. Graves’ disease (toxic diffuse goiter)

33.Carbon monoxide binds to: Hemoglobin, Myoglobin, and cytochrome oxidase


34.should not be used in dry eyes : Chloramphenicol
35.Antiepileptic drug cause acne and hirsutism >> Phenytoin
36.Lithium is CI with: Ibuprofen (NSAIDs)
37.Least effect of Pseudoephedrine on: B2 receptors
38.Benzodiazepines >> have high therapeutic index
39.Which of the following drugs acts on T-lymphocyte blocking? Alefacept
40.NSAID has CNS side effects: mefenamic acid
41. Which of the following cause suppression in T-lymphocyte? Basiliximab/Daclizumab
42.Anti-emetic with CNS effect : Domperidone aslo Metoclopramide
43.female take antibiotics and suffer from ear problem what's antibiotic
a. Amikacin (it’s less ototoxic than gentamycin)
b. Gentamycin

 Efavirens: Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor, Non-nucleoside (NNRT)

 Zoledronic acid: Bisphosphonate Derivative, used in osteoporosis, Hypercalcemia of


malignancy, to prevent skeletal fractures in patients with cancer like myeloma, or
prostate cancer MOA: inhibits bone resorption via actions on osteoclasts.
 Ifosfamide: Antineoplastic, testicular cancer. MOA: causes cross-linking of strands
of DNA by binding with nucleic acids and other intracellular structures, resulting in
cell death; inhibits protein synthesis and DNA synthesis
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2017 Questions

1. Female taking UTI medication, after few days she developed rashes and red spots on
hands, face, what medication she's on? (any of the Quinolones/Tetracyclines)

2. Most drugs are >> weak electrolytes


3. which supplement to be used with MTX? Folinic acid (the active form of folic acid) Folic
acid is hepatically converted to the active form, MTX causes hepatotoxicity>> thus we take the
readily available active form (Folinic acid)
4. Drug that promote hyperglycemia in DM except>> NSAIDS
5. All are Side Effects of salbutamol EXEPT >> Hyperkalemia (or constipation)
6. Alcohol and benzodiazepine >> CNS Depression
7. Which of the following is an old generation antipsychotic& most potent? Fluphenazine
8. Which of the following is used in dilation of eye? Phenylephrine (alpha1-agonist)
9. To help a patient to get into sleep and he doesn’t have the problem of frequent
wakening during sleep: Triazolam (Try to sleep with triazolam)
10. Formula for calculating the dose for a child more than 2 years :
 young's rule: ]age in years / (age in years +12)[ × adult dose
 age in month/ (age in month +12)* adult dose
11. The following is true about demulcent: A formula used for soothing mucous membranes
12. An indirect test for calculating bacteria:
 direct is coulter counter
 colorimeter test
13. Which of the following can affect disturbed coordination and dizziness :
Diphenhydramine (1st generation antihistamine)
14. Phenol is a: Carbolic acid
15. Which of the following is true about micro emulsion: homogenous translucent
thermodynamically stable
16. Sodium lauryl sulfate is used as :
Antifoaming
Antioxidant
Solubilizing agent

 Side note: K-depleting Diuretics (e.g. Furosemide) can cause metabolic ALKALOSIS

17. The filler that help in dispersing and mixing well the component: Sugar
18. Pretender to medicine skill : Quackery 

19. which of the following is narcotic drug has more effect as analgesic :
Codein
pentazocin
Buprenorphine
Morphine

20.Which used in alcohol dependence?


Naltrexone
Disulfiram
acamprosate
all

21. Which is a fundamental test for new drug: Intrinsic solubility and dissociation Constant
22.Dihydroergotamine is use for: Migraine
23.Bumetanide and ethacrynic acid are : loop diuretics
24.Which of the following need vertical laminar flow? Doxorubicin
25.Lomotil is a mixture of Atropine and? Diphenoxylate (Lomotil is anti-diarrheal)
26.Sumatriptan is: 5-HT1 agonist
27.Community accqired pneumonia, which is the cause?
mycoplasma pneumonia
influenza
both

28.What is the pore size for cold sterilization? 0.22


29.Which is caused by staphylococcus? Impetigo
30.Alprazolam is: Short acting BDZ. Controlled drug
31. Which is used for hyperammonemia? Duphalac/ Constulose/ Enulose/ All
32.Which is associated with symptoms prior to rash and lesions? Cold sore (tingling and itching)

33.Infectious mononucleosis is caused by: Epastin Barr virus (usually affects teenagers)
34.Iron decreases the absorption of: Moxifloxacin (Quinolones)
35.Patient has glutamate allergy .he suffers from: Celiac disease
36. Which of these drugs have only one Enantiomer: Escitalopram (SSRI) (1 then escape)
37.In which case gentamycin will not be toxic? If plasma con is <2mg/ml
38.What is the physiological antagonist of histamine? Epinephrine
39.Patient with hypertension and congestive heart failure with ejection fraction 28%
which suitable antihypertensive for him:
a. Clonidine
b. Gaunithidine
c. Diltiazem
d. Nisoldipine
40.Clozapine (Atypical) blocks which receptor(s): Dopamine and Serotonin
41. Droperidol: Slows alpha rhythm on EEG
42.Patient to ED having ECG abnormality what drug caused it? Verapamil
43.Propranolol is contraindicated in : Partial atrioventricular block
44.for treatment of impetigo what is used: Muprocin + fucidic acid
45.Patient having MI was discharged, which agent is used in prophylaxis from arrhythmia:
1- Quinidine
2- Verapamil
3- Sotalol
4- Lidocaine

46.Dinoprostone used for : Cervical ripening, should be in supine position wait & for 2 hrs
47.
48.Tacrolimus comparison with Cyclosporine: is less nephrotoxic
49.What is the antiviral that is the most suitable for HSV infection?
Famciclovir >> Valacyclovir >> Acyclovir
50.Patient has a problem in bowel emptying, he develops pain while passing stool. Which is
the least likely condition to cause this problem?
- Bowel obstrusction
- IBD
- Carcinoma
-Hyperthyroidism (as it causes bowel movements and diarrhea)

51. What is Sulindac (NSAID) other indications?


52.Patient with panic attack what is DOC: BDZ
53.HZV patient wants to stop treatment, advise him: post-herpetic neuralgia
54.Which drug causes hepatotoxicity and pancreatitis: Valproate
55.Which anti TB cause DNA mutation? Rifampicin

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2016 Questions

1. Least to interact with b- blocker: Phenytoin


2. Which of the following is NOT a drug-metabolizing enzyme?
a. CYP 3A4
b. CYP 450
c. UDP-GT
d. N-acetyl transferees
e. Alcohol dehydrogenase

3. Diazepam storage condition: Keep at room temperature / Protect from light


4. Elidel cream ( Pimocrolimus) :CDB
5. DOC in myoclonic seizure: Valproate
6. A teenager woke up at night and had contraction in muscle, what’s the seizure type?
Myoclonic
7. Patient travel to epidemic region with malaria what medicine to be taken as
prophylaxis:
a.primaquine
b.Quinine
c.proguanil

8. Poliomyelitis Vaccine: inactivated polio virus


9. Renal adjustment is needed with:
a. Rifampicin
b. INZ
c. PZD (BDZ? Or pyrazinamide?)hy
10. Vaccines documents should be kept for : min. 2 years
11. Meningitis caused by gram negative bacteria : H. Influenza
12. Patient took penicillin, he got allergy which type of antibody will be released? IgE
13. rule of KI (lugol’s solution ) in managing of thyroidism :for external use/caution stain
 5% (for internal use): >> may stain (here it’s for thyroidism so it’s 5%)
 2% or 7%: >> for external use
14. Side effect of tetracycline, frusemide and corticosteroids: acute pancreatitis
15. What type of drug is Pralidoxime (PAM)? Acetyl cholinesterase Reactivator (Antidote)
16. What receptor/s do the following act on: Tubocurarine ,Pancuronium , Atracurium:
Nicotinic receptors (Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers = cholinergic antagonists)
17. What type of cholinergic antagonist is Suxamethonium (Succinyl Choline)? Depolarizing
18. What type of cholinergic antagonists are Glycopyrruiom and Dicyclomine? Synthetic
19. What type of drug is Dobutamine? Beta agonist
20.Which anticholinergic can’t reach the brain? Ipratropium ‫!إبرة! ما بتفوت عالمخ‬
21. Ephedrine stimulates the release of what neurotransmitter? Norepinepherine
22.What type of drug is Guanethidine? Indirect Acting Adrenergic Antagonist
23.Case of patient having Parkinson’s disease. This patient is taking selegiline, this drug
should be taken along with:
A.levodopa
B.carbidopa
C. buspirone
D.a&b
24.Baclofen is used primarily as: muscle relaxant
25.At high doses, Dopamine effects what receptor(s)? D1>D2>Beta-1>Alpha-1
A.Beta 1
B.Alpha 1
C.Dopamine 1 & 2
D.Beta 3 & Alpha 1

26.Which of the following drugs is not classified as Antipsychotic drug? Buspirone


27.Which of the following is not a benzodiazepine? Chlormethiazole
28.Prostate cancer is treated by the following except for one:
a-cyproterone acetate
b-tamoxifen (used in e.g metastatic breast cancer)
c-flutamide
d-triptorelin

29.Which of the following is NOT a colloid solution ?


A.albumin 5%
B. ringer`s solution
C.dextran
D.beta starch

30.The term shock signifies : Hypo perfusion


31. Female Patient having osteoporosis, wants to initiate a treatment ,which of the
following is NOT true?
A.Aledornate should be taken 60 min. Before breakfast (30min)
B. Ca and vit. D are essential
C.hormone replacement therapy should be considered
D.outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density
E.raloxifen is selective oestrogen modulator

32.Controlled drug used for pain during acute myocardial infarction is: Morphine
33.Which hormone is secreted from posterior pituitary gland?Oxytocin (or ADH/vasopressin)
34.Which of the following drugs is the drug may cause discolouration of nail beds and
mucus membranes? I
A.Tetracycline
B.Chloroquine
C. Doxycycline
D. Rifampicin
35.The following drugs may be given by sublingual route except:
A. Digoxin (only Oral,IM, orIV)
B.Nifedipine
C. Nitroglycerin
D.Isoprenaline

36.Which of the following drug interactions is not used therapeutically?


Epinephrine / Lidocaine
Probenicid / Penicillin
Pseudoephedrine / Salbutamol
Trimethoprim / Sulphamethoxazole

37.Percentage of total body iodine in thyroid glands is: 90%


38.Which is not essential amino acid? Glu is not essential!
a- Threonine
b- Tryptophane
c- Glutamite
d- Methionine
39.Ovary secretes: Estrogen, Progesterone and Androgen
40.Major pathway of excretion of Calcium: Gut!
41. Which neurotransmitter controls secretion of prolactin? Dopamine
42.Lorazepam is classified as: dibenzazepine
43.Which considered fibrin selective:
a- Alteplase
b- Fondaparinux
c- Streptokinase

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2015 Questions

1. Ramipril initial daily dose: 10mg


2. Drugs excreted in milk should have: High lipid solubility
3. Drug cause photosensitivity: ciprofloxacin (fluoroquinolones)
4. Bacteriostatic : doxycycline
5. Vit. C and aspirin: vitamin acts as an antioxidant in the stomach to decrease aspirin-
induced stomach damage

6. NSAIDs is contraindicated with: ACEI, B-blockers, Diuretics (CI with ABCD)


7. which of the following is NOT associated with hemolytic anemia:
 mefenamic acid
 methyldopa
 methadone
 methyl testosterone
8. Which of the following local anesthesia is for topical administration ONLY? Benzocaine
9. Which drug recommended for allergic rhinitis :
 cromoglycolate
 nedocromoil
 cs
 all
10. Which of the following is true about ORILSTAT ?
 it inhibit absorption of dietary fat (Lipase inhibitor)
 patient should consume about 30 % of fats in diet (not more than 30% fats in daily
total calorie) ✔
 no more than one dose should be taken in 24 hours

11. Immune serum globulin is usually administrated by which type of injection?


IV,IM,SC,intradermal, all

12. Sulfasalazine max and daily dose in ulcerative colitis is? 3-6g
13. Grape fruit should not be used with which of the following;
 losartan
 omeprazole
 Nifedipine Only (or levothyroxine)

14. Epigastric pain relieved by eating: duodenal ulcer


15. In cryotherapy you need: 30 d to see results in warts
16. Streptomycin is best monitored by: Audiometry (mainly) >> Renal function (Aminoglycoside)
17. Which of the following is CI with MAOI: (all are antidepressant, inhibit uptake of 5-HT)
1. Duloxetine, ✔
2. fluoxetine, ✔
3. Paroxetine ✔
4. All
18. IV dose of metoclopramide as an antiemetic in cancer therapy: 10mg IV
19. How can you manage the drug interaction between quinolone & amiodarone? Avoid
quinolone! (torsades de pointes may develop)
20.Antibiotic for pregnant woman on labor for streptococcal infection:
a- tetracycline and fluroquinolones (not safe)
b- penicillin G (safe: used in Gram +ve)
c- cephalosporin (safe: used in Gram –ve)
d- erythromycin (safe: 2nd line after Penicillin)

21. Not used together:


1. Acitretin +UVB - also Acitretin + puva
2. Acitretin+psoralen+UVA
3. MTX+UVA

22.A property of bulk forming laxative: bulk laxatives are gluten free
23.Patient travelling on plane, to prevent jet lag effect and help him sleep use: melatonin
24.Worker has been injured with blood infected with hepatitis B. upon analysis it shows he
has HB surface antigen. the most proper action is:
- give immunoglobulin
- give vaccine
- give Ig and vaccine
- do nothing as its only surface antigen

25.Misoprostol: not used in child-bearing age women


26.Which is weak electrolyte :
a) urea
b) ephedrine
c) glucose

27.Which microorganisms is treated by Bactroban®(Mupirocin) nasal ointment:Staph a(/MRSA)


28.Ephedrine acts on which receptor? Alpha1, Alpha2, Beta1, Beta2 (ALL)
29.Not used as antifungal: Sodium picosulfate (stimulant laxative)
30.Patient has closed angle glaucoma which is contraindicated: Atropine (any anticholinergic)
31. Patient had MI and recovered, which drug is prophylactic antiarrhythmic? B-blocker
32.Patient with Macrocytic anemia , which medicine can decrease the cell size: B12
33.Which is used in alcohol dependence:
Naltrexone
Disulfiram
Acamprosate
All
44.Virus parasite on bacteria what is called: Bacteriophage
45.From where gastrin secreted: Parietal cell

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