NCM-107-RLE EVALUATION EXAM

1. Which of the following conditions will lead to a small-for-gestational-age fetus due to less blood
supply to the fetus?
A. Diabetes in the mother
B. Maternal cardiac condition
C. Premature labor
D. Abruptio placenta

2. The lower limit of viability for infants in terms of age of gestation is:
A. 21-24 weeks
B. 25-27 weeks
C. 28-30 weeks
D. 38-40 weeks

3. A nurse in the labor room is monitoring a client with dysfunctional labor for signs of maternal or fetal
compromise. Which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse to a compromise?
A. Coordinated uterine contractions
B. Meconium in the amniotic fluid
C. Progressive changes in the cervix
D. Maternal fatigue

4. While assessing a G2P2 client who had a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery 30 minutes ago, the
nurse notes a large amount of red vaginal bleeding. What would be the initial priority nursing action?
A. Notify the physician
B. Encourage to breast-feed soon after birth
C. Monitor vital signs
D. Provide fundal massage

5. The preferred manner of delivering the baby in a gravido-cardiac is vaginal delivery assisted by forceps
under epidural anesthesiA. The main rationale for this is:
A. To allow atraumatic delivery of the baby
B. To allow a gradual shifting of the blood into the maternal circulation
C. To make the delivery effort free and the mother does not need to push with contractions
D. To prevent perineal laceration with the expulsion of the fetal head

6. When giving narcotic analgesics to mother in labor, the special consideration to follow is:
A. The progress of labor is well established reaching the transitional stage
B. Uterine contraction is progressing well, and delivery of the baby is imminent
C. Cervical dilatation has already reached at least 8 cm. and the station is at least (+)2
D. Uterine contractions are strong and the baby will not be delivered yet within the next 3 hours.

7. The cervical dilatation taken at 8:00 AM in a G1P0 patient was 6 centimeters. A repeat I.E. done at 10
A. M. showed that cervical dilation was 7 cm. The correct interpretation of this result is:
A. Labor is progressing as expected
B. The latent phase of Stage 1 is prolonged
C. The active phase of Stage 1 is protracted
D. The duration of labor is normal

8. Which of the following techniques during labor and delivery can lead to uterine inversion?
A. Fundal pressure applied to assist the mother in bearing down during delivery of the fetal head
B. Strongly tugging on the umbilical cord to deliver the placenta and hasten placental separation
C. Massaging the fundus to encourage the uterus to contract
D. Applying light traction when delivering the placenta that has already detached from the uterine wall

9. The fetal heart rate is checked following rupture of the bag of waters in order to:
A. Check if the fetus is suffering from head compression
B. Determine if cord compression followed the rupture
C. Determine if there is uteroplacental insufficiency
D. Check if fetal presenting part has adequately descended following the rupture
 NCM-107-RLE EVALUATION EXAM
10. Upon assessment, the nurse got the following findings: 2 perineal pads highly saturated with blood
within 2 hours postpartum, PR= 80 bpm, fundus soft and boundaries not well defineD. The appropriate
nursing diagnosis is:
A. Normal blood loss
B. Blood volume deficiency
C. Inadequate tissue perfusion related to hemorrhage
D. Hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony

11. The following are signs and symptoms of fetal distress EXCEPT:
A. Fetal heart rate (FHR) decreased during a contraction and persists even after the uterine contraction
ends
B. The FHR is less than 120 bpm or over 160 bpm
C. The pre-contraction FHR is 130 bpm, FHR during contraction is 118 bpm and FHR after uterine
contraction is 126 bpm
D. FHR is 160 bpm, weak and irregular

12. If the labor period lasts only for 3 hours, the nurse should suspect that the following conditions may
occur:
1.Laceration of cervix
2.Laceration of perineum
3.Cranial hematoma in the fetus
4.Fetal anoxia
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4

13. The primary power involved in labor and delivery is

A. Bearing down ability of mother
B. Cervical effacement and dilatation
C. Uterine contraction
D. Valsalva technique

14. The proper technique to monitor the intensity of a uterine contraction is

A. Place the palm of the hands on the abdomen and time the contraction
B. Place the fingertips lightly on the suprapubic area and time the contraction
C. Put the tip of the fingers lightly on the fundal area and try to indent the abdominal wall at the height of
the contraction
D. Put the palm of the hands on the fundal area and feel the contraction at the fundal area

15. To monitor the frequency of the uterine contraction during labor, the right technique is to time the
contraction
A. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction
B. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
C. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
D. From the deceleration of one contraction to the acme of the next contraction

16. The peak point of a uterine contraction is called the

A. Acceleration
B. Acme
C. Deceleration
D. Axiom

17. When determining the duration of a uterine contraction the right technique is to time it from
A. The beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction
B. The end of one contraction to the beginning of another contraction
C. The acme point of one contraction to the acme point of another contraction
D. The beginning of one contraction to the end of another contraction
 NCM-107-RLE EVALUATION EXAM
18. When the bag of waters ruptures, the nurse should check the characteristic of the amniotic fluiD. The
normal color of amniotic fluid is
A. Clear as water
B. Bluish
C. Greenish
D. Yellowish

19. When the bag of waters ruptures spontaneously, the nurse should inspect the vaginal introitus for
possible cord prolapse. If there is part of the cord that has prolapsed into the vaginal opening the correct
nursing intervention is:
A. Push back the prolapsed cord into the vaginal canal
B. Place the mother on semi fowlers position to improve circulation
C. Cover the prolapsed cord with sterile gauze wet with sterile NSS and place the woman in
Trendelenburg position
D. Push back the cord into the vagina and place the woman on sims position

20. The fetal heart beat should be monitored every 15 minutes during the 2nd stage of labor. The
characteristic of a normal fetal heart rate is
A. The heart rate will decelerate during a contraction and then go back to its pre-contraction rate after the
contraction
B. The heart rate will accelerate during a contraction and remain slightly above the pre-contraction rate at
the end of the contraction
C. The rate should not be affected by the uterine contraction.
D. The heart rate will decelerate at the middle of a contraction and remain so for about a minute after the
contraction

21. The mechanisms involved in fetal delivery is

A. Descent, extension, flexion, external rotation
B. Descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation
C. Flexion, internal rotation, external rotation, extension
D. Internal rotation, extension, external rotation, flexion

22. The first thing that a nurse must ensure when the baby’s head comes out is
A. The cord is intact
B. No part of the cord is encircling the baby’s neck
C. The cord is still attached to the placenta
D. The cord is still pulsating

23. To ensure that the baby will breathe as soon as the head is delivered, the nurse’s priority action is to
A. Suction the nose and mouth to remove mucous secretions
B. Slap the baby’s buttocks to make the baby cry
C. Clamp the cord about 6 inches from the base
D. Check the baby’s color to make sure it is not cyanotic

24. When doing perineal care in preparation for delivery, the nurse should observe the following
EXCEPT
A. Use up-down technique with one stroke
B. Clean from the mons veneris to the anus
C. Use mild soap and warm water
D. Paint the inner thighs going towards the perineal area

25. What are the important considerations that the nurse must remember after the placenta is delivered?
1.Check if the placenta is complete including the membranes
2.Check if the cord is long enough for the baby
3.Check if the umbilical cord has 3 blood vessels
4.Check if the cord has a meaty portion and a shiny portion
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 3
 NCM-107-RLE EVALUATION EXAM
26. The following are correct statements about false labor EXCEPT
A. The pain is irregular in intensity and frequency.
B. The duration of contraction progressively lengthens over time
C. There is no bloody vaginal discharge
D. The cervix is still closed.

27. The passageway in labor and delivery of the fetus include the following EXCEPT
A. Distensibility of lower uterine segment
B. Cervical dilatation and effacement
C. Distensibility of vaginal canal and introitus
D. Flexibility of the pelvis

28. The normal umbilical cord is composed of:

A. 2 arteries and 1 vein
B. 2 veins and 1 artery
C. 2 arteries and 2 veins
D. none of the above

29. At what stage of labor and delivery does a primigravida differ mainly from a multigravida?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4

30. The second stage of labor begins with ___ and ends with __?
A. Begins with full dilatation of cervix and ends with delivery of placenta
B. Begins with true labor pains and ends with delivery of baby
C. Begins with complete dilatation and effacement of cervix and ends with delivery of baby
D. Begins with passage of show and ends with full dilatation and effacement of cervix

31. In the Nursery Room, nurse Fatima is performing an assessment of a newborn infant. She is preparing
to measure the head circumference of the infant. The nurse would most appropriately:
A. Wrap the tape measure around the infant’s head and measure just above the eyebrows.
B. Place the tape measure under the infants head at the base of the skull and wrap around to the front just
above the eyes
C. Place the tape measure under the infants head, wrap around the occiput, and measure just above the
eyes
D. Place the tape measure at the back of the infant’s head, wrap around across the ears, and measure
across the infant’s mouth.

32. Nurse Fatima prepares to administer a vitamin K injection to a newborn infant. The mother asks the
nurse why her newborn infant needs the injection. The best response by nurse Fatima would be:
A. “Your infant needs vitamin K to develop immunity.”
B. “The vitamin K will protect your infant from being jaundiced.”
C. “Newborn infants are deficient in vitamin K, and this injection prevents your infant from abnormal
bleeding.”
D. “Newborn infants have sterile bowels, and vitamin K promotes the growth of bacteria in the bowel.”

33. Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. Nurse Fatima prepares to administer the medication in which
muscle site?
A. Deltoid
B. Triceps
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Biceps

34.Nurse Fatima asks a nursing student to describe the procedure for administering erythromycin
ointment into the eyes of a neonate. The nurse determines that the student needs to research this
procedure further if the student states:
A. “I will cleanse the neonate’s eyes before instilling ointment.”
B. “I will flush the eyes after instilling the ointment.”
C. “I will instill the eye ointment into each of the neonate’s conjunctival sacs within one hour after birth.”
D. “Administration of the eye ointment may be delayed until an hour or so after birth so that eye contact
and parent-infant attachment and bonding can occur.”
 NCM-107-RLE EVALUATION EXAM
35. Nurse Fatima understands that the primary critical observation for Apgar scoring is the:
A. Heart rate
B. Respiratory rate
C. Presence of meconium
D. Evaluation of the Moro reflex

36. When performing a newborn assessment, the student nurse should measure the vital signs in the
following sequence:
A. Pulse, respirations, temperature
B. Temperature, pulse, respirations
C. Respirations, temperature, pulse
D. Respirations, pulse, temperature

37. Within three (3) minutes after birth the normal heart rate of the infant may range between:
A. 100 and 180
B. 130 and 170
C. 120 and 160
D. 100 and 130

38. The nurse is aware that a healthy newborn’s respirations are:

A. Regular, abdominal, 40-50 per minute, deep
B. Irregular, abdominal, 30-60 per minute, shallow
C. Irregular, initiated by chest wall, 30-60 per minute, deep
D. Regular, initiated by the chest wall, 40-60 per minute, shallow

39. The nurse notice that the newborn has small, whitish, pinpoint spots over the nose, which the nurse
knows are caused by retained sebaceous secretions. When charting this observation, the nurse identifies it
as:
A. Milia
B. Lanugo
C. Whiteheads
D. Mongolian spots

40. You’re assessing the one minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note the
following about your newborn patient: heart rate 130, pink body and hands with cyanotic feet, weak cry,
flexion of the arms and legs, active movement and crying when stimulated. What is your patient’s
APGAR score?
A. APGAR 9
B. APGAR 10
C. APGAR 8
D. APGAR 5

41. You’re assessing the one minute APGAR score of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note the
following about your newborn patient: heart rate 101, cyanotic body and extremities, no response to
stimulation, no flexion of extremities, and strong cry. What is your patient’s APGAR score?
A. APGAR 4
B. APGAR 6
C. APGAR 3
D. APGAR 2

42. A newborn’s five minute APGAR score is 5. Which of the following nursing interventions will you
provide to this newborn?
A. Routine post-delivery care
B. Continue to monitor and reassess the APGAR score in 10 minutes.
C. Some resuscitation assistance such as oxygen and rubbing baby’s back and reassess APGAR score.

43. Regarding the scenario in the question above, when would you reassess the APGAR score?
A. 2 minutes after the previous APGAR assessment
B. 15 minutes after the previous APGAR assessment
C. 5 minutes after the previous APGAR assessment
D. No reassessment of the APGAR score is needed
 NCM-107-RLE EVALUATION EXAM
44. While assessing a 2-hour old neonate, the nurse observes the neonate to have acrocyanosis. Which of
the following nursing actions should be performed initially?
A. Activate the code blue or emergency system
B. Do nothing because acrocyanosis is normal in the neonate
C. Immediately take the newborn’s temperature according to hospital policy
D. Notify the physician of the need for a cardiac consult

45. By keeping the nursery temperature warm and wrapping the neonate in blankets, the nurse is
preventing which type of heat loss?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Evaporation
D. Radiation

46. When a student nurse is teaching umbilical cord care to a new mother, the student nurse would
include which information?
A. Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper change
B. Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after bathing
C. Keep the cord dry and open to air
D. Wash the cord with soap and water each day during a tub bath

47. Patient Covita, a mother of a term neonate asks what the thick, white, cheesy coating is on his skin.
Which correctly describes this finding?
A. Lanugo
B. Milia
C. Nevus flammeus
D. Vernix

48. Patient Covita delivers a 3,250 g neonate at 42 weeks’ gestation. Which physical finding is expected
during an examination of this neonate?
A. Abundant lanugo
B. Absence of sole creases
C. Breast bud of 1-2 mm in diameter
D. Leathery, cracked, and wrinkled skin

49. Which of the following behaviors would indicate that Mrs Covita was bonding with her baby?
A. The client asks her husband to give the baby a bottle of water.
B. The client talks to the baby and picks him up when he cries.
C. The client feeds the baby every three hours.
D. The client asks the nurse to recommend a good child care manual.

50. The Clinical Instructor is presenting education to her students to promote consistency in the
interventions used with lactating mothers. She emphasizes that the optimum time to initiate lactation is
A. as soon as possible after the infant’s birth.
B. after the mother has rested for 4-6 hours.
C. during the infant’s second period of reactivity.
D. after the infant has taken sterile water without complications.

51. It is important that the student nurse should understand that the Newborn screening is done on which
of the following:
A. Ideally done on the 48th to 72nd hour of life
B. Ideally done on the 72nd hour to 88th hour of life
C. Ideally done just after birth
D. Ideally done within 24 hour of life

52. The hormone primarily responsible for milk ejection (“let-down”) is:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Prolactin
D. Oxytocin
 NCM-107-RLE EVALUATION EXAM
53. Compared with mature milk, colostrum is:
A. Lower in sodium, potassium and chloride
B. Higher in fat and sodium
C. Higher in protein, sodium, and fat soluble vitamins
D. Lower in fat and carotenoids

54. Hypoglycemia, both symptomatic and asymptomatic, is a common concern in healthy term breastfed
neonates. While glucose monitoring should be performed only in high-risk infants and those who are
symptomatic, the management strategies employed to prevent and treat hypoglycemia should support
breastfeeding. Which one of the following strategies is the BEST method to prevent symptomatic
hypoglycemia:
A. Glucose monitoring every thirty minutes following delivery
B. Oral glucose solution by mouth immediately following birth, followed by breastfeeding on
demand
C. Early initiation of breastfeeding on demand, within 30–60 minutes after delivery
D. Define hypoglycemia

55. All of the following are recommended to encourage successful breastfeeding EXCEPT
A. Initiation of breastfeeding within 1 hour of birth
B. Avoiding the use of pacifiers and artificial nipples in term breastfeeding infants
C. Continuous rooming in with breastfeeding on demand
D. Restricting length of breastfeeding time to prevent nipple soreness and engorgement

56. In which of the following circumstances should it be necessary to delay the initiation of breastfeeding
after delivery (for more than 1 hour):
A. C-section with spinal anesthesia
B. Mother fatigued due to a long and difficult labor
C. Mother receiving MgSO4 for preeclampsia
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

57. When discussing feeding options with parents of healthy full-term infants in your practice, which one
of the following do you usually recommend for the first month of life?
a) Formula feeding exclusively
b) Breastfeeding exclusively
c) Breastfeeding with formula supplement
d) Make no recommendation/support mother’s choice

58. Signs of milk ejection in the first few weeks include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Milk leaking from the other breast
b) Uterine cramping
c) Breast erythema
d) Audible swallowing

59. In which of the following circumstances should it be necessary to delay the initiation of breastfeeding
after delivery (for more than 1 hour):
A. C-section with spinal anesthesia
B. Mother fatigued due to a long and difficult labor
C. Mother receiving MgSO4 for preeclampsia
D. None of the above

60. The most common cause of poor weight gain among breastfed infants during the first 4 weeks after
birth is:
a) Infant metabolic disorders
b) Infrequent or ineffective feedings
c) Low fat content of breast milk
d) Maternal endocrine problems

61. Which drug category may be safely administered during pregnancy?

A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
D. Category D
 NCM-107-RLE EVALUATION EXAM
62. Which of the following is a positive indication of pregnancy?
A. Quickening
B. Chadwick’s sign
C. Auscultation of fetal heart sounds
D. Ballottement

63. During the last months of pregnancy, the nurse should instruct the client to:
A. rest on her left side for at least 1 hour in the morning and afternoon
B. sleep on her back during the night and during naps
C. start nipple exercises and stimulation twice a day
D. start to cut back on water intake, especially at night

64. When teaching a pregnant woman about traveling during the pregnancy, it is important to focus on
which of the following?
A. If traveling by car, stop every 2 hours for 10 minutes
B. Get plenty of rest before long trips made in automobiles
C. Travel in any type of aircraft is acceptable
D. Travel can be completed anytime throughout the pregnancy

65. Which of the following is recommended for all women during the childbearing age?
A. Additional B vitamins
B. Additional vitamin A
C. Folic acid supplement
D. Vitamin C supplement

66. An 18-year old girl visits to obtain a contraceptive. She elected to use the intrauterine device (IUD) as
a method of birth control. The major concern with the use of the IUD is:
A. thrombophlebitis.
B. pain on intercourse.
C. infection.
D. abnormal bleeding and hemorrhage.

67. The client begins to question the nurse about sexuality and becoming sexually active. During sexual
counseling, the nurse should place a major point of emphasis on:
A. douching after sexual intercourse.
B. sex during menstruation.
C. performing Kegsl exercises.
D. safe and responsible sex.

68. Using Naegle’s Rule, calculate the estimate date of delivery if the woman’s LMP was October 1.
A. June 23
B. July 8
C. December 23
D. January 8

69. Which of the following would be appropriate to teach the pregnant woman regarding exercise?
A. Avoid any physical activity during the second trimester
B. Contact sports are allowed during the first trimester
C. Extremely active women should reduce the level of exertion
D. Relaxation and stretching exercises should be discontinued.

70. One of the functions of the amniotic fluid is to:

A. exchange nutrients from mother to fetus
B. immobilize the fetus
C. protect the woman’s uterus
D. regulate temperature

71. A feeling of ambivalence about the pregnancy is:

A. a sign of unwanted pregnancy
B. normal in early pregnancy
C. rare at any stage of pregnancy
D. typical in late pregnancy
 NCM-107-RLE EVALUATION EXAM
72. Which assessment relates most directly to rupture membranes and release of amniotic fluid?
A. Bloody show
B. Fluid with a pH of 7.0 to 7.5 with nitrazine test
C. Fluid with a pH of 5.0 with nitrazine test
D. Woman complains of urge to push

73. When the placenta is delivered with the dull side out (Duncan presentation), the woman is at risk for:
A. excessive bleeding
B. hemorrhoids
C. increased lacerations of the perineum
D. sterility

74. To assess the uterine contraction during labor, the nurse:

A. asks the woman if she is having a contraction.
B. palpates above the symphysis pubis.
C. palpates just below the xyphoid process of the sternum.
D. performs a sterile vaginal examination.

75. The nurse knows that a postpartum client’s susceptibility to hemorrhage is most likely related to a:
A. boggy uterus
B. firm fundus
C. long labor
D. negative Homan’s sign

76. Between 24 and 28 weeks, all pregnant women should be screened for:
A. Anemia
B. Bladder infections
C. Diabetes
D. Neural tube defects

77. Which of these measures would be helpful for the pregnant client complaining of sleeplessness?
A. Eat evening meal close to bedtime
B. Sit in a sitz bath before bedtime
C. Try to remain in one position when sleeping
D. Use pillows to help find a comfortable position

78. Why is the first 8 weeks of pregnancy known as the critical period of human development?
A. By the time this period ends, the embryo is completely safe from any damage
B. Many embryos die during this period
C. The infant’s sex is determined at the end of the eight week
D. The major structures of the embryo are forming, and damage can result in major birth defects

79. Which of these statements is most accurate about the placenta?

A. The blood of the baby mixes with the mother’s blood to permit exchange of nutrients and oxygen.
B. The blood of the baby and the mother do not mix; exchange occurs across blood vessels and the
walls of the villi.
C. The placenta lets the blood from the fetus cross to the mother, but the mother’s blood does not
cross to the fetus.
D. The placenta serves as a complete barrier between the baby and mother so that any drugs the
mother takes do not cross the baby.

80. Which of the following is the best recommendation about taking medicines during pregnancy?
A. All over-the-counter (OTC) drugs are safe during pregnancy
B. All herbal preparations are safe during pregnancy
C. Don’t take anything during pregnancy without asking your health care provider
D. Take an OTC diuretic if you have swelling during the pregnancy

81. When providing postpartum teaching about self-care, one of the danger signs that a lactating woman
should know to report to the birth attendant is:
A. breast engorgement to a degree that the baby can’t latch on.
B. breast fullness just before feeding .
C. nipple soreness after feedings.
D. nipple dryness before feedings.
 NCM-107-RLE EVALUATION EXAM

82. “Show” is usually present in:

A. Braxton Hicks contraction.
B. false labor.
C. true labor.
D. Second stage of labor only.

83. APGAR score assessments are completed at:

A. birth and 10 minutes.
B. 1 and 5 minutes.
C. 5 minutes and upon arrival to the nursery.
D. the time of birth.

84. A newborn of 4 hours displays grunting respirations and a respiratory rate of 70 breaths/minute. The
priority nursing intervention would be to:
A. begin resuscitative measures and call for help.
B. continue to monitor respiratory status variations are normal.
C. obtain vital signs every 15 minutes.
D. transfer the newborn to the mother’s room for feeding.

85. Which measure would be used to prevent loss of heat in the newborn?
A. Immediately give the baby a bath
B. Place the baby on the mother’s bare stomach
C. Offer the baby warm glucose water
D. Wrap the baby in room-temperature blankets

86. Which of the following indicates that the new mother understands how to handle breast milk safely?
A. “I can store fresh milk in the refrigerator for only 24 hours.”
B. “I can store frozen breast milk for up to 1 month.”
C. “I need to express my breast milk into a clear glass.”
D. “I should never store my breast milk in a frozen-food locker.”

87. To prevent infection of the perineal area after delivery, the nurse should instruct the client to:
A. Begin sitz bath at the first sign of infection
B. Pull panties straight down
C. Use hot water to cleanse the area after bowel movement
D. Wipe with sweeping motion, from front to back

88. Analgesics given too late in labor can result in which of the following?
A. Contractions that increase in intensity
B. Early deceleration
C. FHR dropping to 100 beat per minute
D. Pain during contractions

89. In evaluating the effects if oxytocin after delivery, the nurse should monitor for:
A. effective breastfeeding.
B. engorged breasts.
C. relief of pain.
D. the uterus remaining firm.

90. During active labor, the mother usually exhibits which of the following behaviors?
A. Difficulty following directions
B. Excitedness and talkativeness
C. Frustration and irritability
D. Serious expression and apprehension

91. When evaluating the effectiveness of instruction regarding breastfeeding, which of the following
responses
by the mother indicate that she understands the teaching?
A. “I need to rub my nipples to toughen them up.”
B. “I should apply lotion to my nipples to prevent cracking.”
C. “I should nurse at least 10 minutes on one breast before offering the next breast.”
D. “I should use soap and water to gently cleanse my breast gently.”
 NCM-107-RLE EVALUATION EXAM

92. Which of the following should the nurse recommend to the breastfeeding mother to limit in her diet?
A. Cheese
B. Fruit
C. Strongly flavored foods
D. Vegetables

93. The fontanels are soft spots formed by the:

A. blood accumulated between the bone and periosteum.
B. edema of the scalp from birth pressure.
C. junction of individual skull bones.
D. pressure of a vacuum extractor.

94. Signs of respiratory distress in a neonate include:

A. grunting with expiration.
B. respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute.
C. synchronized movement of the baby’s chest and abdomen.
D. the baby’s chest expanding as a whole.

95. The most efficient way for a baby to regulate temperature is to:
A. burn body fat.
B. move arms and legs.
C. shiver.
D. use brown fat.

96. Which measure would be most effective in preventing the transfer of gonorrhea or Chlamydia to the
infant’s eyes from the mother?
A. Administering Vitamin K
B. Bathing the newborn
C. Cleaning the infant’s eyes with warm saline
D. Applying erythromycin ointment

97. A newborn will respond to sudden noises or jarring movement by throwing out the arms and drawing
up the legs. This is called a:
A. Moro reflex
B. Babinski reflex
C. Rooting reflex
D. Tonic neck reflex

98. The nurse is caring for a newborn at 12 hours of life. The newborn has just voided. The most
appropriate
response by the nurse would be:
A. immediately check vital signs.
B. notify the physician.
C. continue to monitor voiding patterns.
D. obtain an order for a straight catheter.

99. Which position should newborns be placed when sleeping?

A. Back
B. Head of bed elevated
C. Prone
D. Side lying with pillow

100. Most babies should be fed:

A. Every 1 to 2 hours
B. Every 2 to 4 hours
C. Every 4 to 6 hours
D. On demand