WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING

GROUNDWATER HYDROLOGY

1) Science of the occurrence, distribution and movement of water below the surface of earth is
called:
a) Hydro-geology b) hydraulics
c) groundwater hydrology d) none of these
2) An example of artificial discharge of groundwater is:
a) groundwater flow into streams b) springs
c) pumpage from wells d) none of these
3) Aquifer is also known as:
a) water bearing formation b) aquiclude
c) both (a) & (b) d) none of these
4) A relatively impermeable formation neither containing nor transmitting water, is called:
a) aquitard b) aquifuge
c) leaky aquifer d) confined aquifer
5) The combination of soil-water zone, intermediate vadose zone and capillary zone is called:
a) zone of aeration b) zone of saturation
c) root zone d) none of these
6) According to Darcy’s Law, the flow rate through a porous media is inversely proportional to:
a) head loss b) cross-sectional area
c) length of the flow path d) none of these
7) Aquifer having same hydraulic conductivity in all directions at a point is called:
a) homogeneous b) isotropic
c) anisotropic d) both (a) & (b)
8) The lines perpendicular to groundwater flow lines are called:
a) isohyets b) equipotential lines
c) isobars d) contours
9) The annual groundwater storage in an area is equal to:
a) land area x drop in water table
b) land area x rise in water table x porosity of formation
c) land area x maximum seasonal fluctuation in water table x specific yield of
aquifer
d) all of the above
10) The soil uniformity coefficient ‘Cu’ is equal to:
a) D60/D10 b) D10/D60
c) D40/D10 d) D10/D40
11) Volume of water, expressed as percentage of total volume of saturated aquifer, that can be
drained by gravity, is called:
a) specific retention b) specific yield
c) specific storage d) storativity
12) For unconfined aquifers, the storage coefficient is same as:
a) specific retention b) porosity
c) void ratio d) specific yield
13) Discharge of a well per unit drawdown, is called:
a) specific capacity of well b) well yield
c) well capacity d. all of these
14) Theis equation is used for:
a) steady radial flow in an unconfined aquifer
b) unsteady radial flow in an unconfined aquifer
c) steady radial flow in a confined aquifer
d) unsteady radial flow in a confined aquifer
15) Jacob’s equation is used for:
a) steady radial flow in an unconfined aquifer
b) unsteady radial flow in an unconfined aquifer
c) steady radial flow in a confined aquifer
d) unsteady radial flow in a confined aquifer
16) In image well theory, distance of the image well from the observation well is found by:
a) Law of sines b) Law of times
c) Darcy’ law d) none of these
17) Capacity of the well in an aquifer to supply water without causing a continuous lowering of
the water table or piezometric surface, is called its:
a) safe yield b) ultimate yield
c) normal yield d) specific yield
18) Ratio of the specific capacity for the observed drawdown to theoretical specific capacity is
called:
a) aquifer recovery b) well efficiency
c) pump efficiency d) none of these
19) The hydraulic conductivity multiplied by the saturated thickness of the aquifer is called:
a) storativity b) permeability
c) transmissivity d) all of these
20) For laminar flow in a medium sand aquifer, the RN is:
a) <2000 b) <1
c) 1 to 10 d) <50
21) Aquifer having same hydraulic conductivity at different points as well as in different
directions, is called:
a) homogeneous b) isotropic
c) anisotropic d) both (a) & (b)
22) A geologic formation which can only store water but cannot transmit significant amounts, is
called:
a) aquitard b) aquifuge
c) aquiclude d) confined aquifer
23) Constant head permeability test is used to determine permeability:
a) Of any type of soil in field b) Of relatively fine-grained soils in lab

c) Of relatively coarse-grained soils in lab d. None of these

24) The equations used for steady radial flow into a well are called:
a) Thiem’s equations b) Dupuit’s equations
c) Theis equations d) none of these
25) In Theis method, W(u) is called as:
a) Water table b) Well function
c) Drawdown d) none of these
26) Plot of u verses W(u) on standard log paper is called:
a) discharge curve b) drawdown curve
c) type curve d) groundwater curve
27) If the porosity of a soil is 30% and specific yield is 10%, what would be the value of specific
retention of the soil?
a) 20% b) 40%
c) 3% d) None of these
28) If in an aquifer of 1 km2 surface area, the groundwater level dropped by 1 m and specific
yield of formation is 10%, determine the volume of water pumped out:
a) 105 m3 b) 106 m3
3
c) 1 m d) 10 m3
29) Distance up to which the draw down due to a pumping well is affected, is called:
a) Well radius b) Radius of Influence
c) Well screen d) Drawdown
30) In well loss equation sw = BQ + CQ2, B is called coefficient of:
a) well losses due to turbulent flow b) losses due to well casing
c) formation losses d) none of these
31) A perched water table
a) may lie below the groundwater table b) may lie above the groundwater table
c) both (a) & (b) d) none of these
32) A spring may be formed when a sloping permeable bed is interrupted by
a) a dyke
b) an impermeable bed due to the presence of a fault
c) both (a) & (b) d) none of these
33) Which of the following factors contribute towards high porosity of soil?
a) uniform particle sized soil b) non-uniform soil with wider range
in size
c) rhombic packing or arrangement of grains d) all of these
34) The values of specific yield for alluvial aquifers are in the range of:
a) 10-20% b) 30-40%
 c) less than 5% d) more than 40%
35) The values of specific yield for uniform sands are about:
a) 15% b) 20%
c) 30% d) more than 50%
36) Coefficient of storage ‘S’ is a function of:
a) elasticity of water b) elasticity of aquifer skeleton
c) both (a) & (b) d) none of these

Answers:
1. C 11 B 21 D 31 B
2 C 12 D 22 C 32 C
3 A 13 A 23 C 33 A
4 B 14 D 24 A 34 A
5 A 15 B 25 B 35 C
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 C
7 B 17 A 27 A
8 B 18 B 28 A
9 C 19 C 29 B
10 A 20 B 30 C
 SURFACE WATER HYDROLOGY

1) Which of the following has same units as that of infiltration rate?

a) runoff b) evapotranspiration
c) rainfall intensity d) both (b) & (c)
2) In hydrograph theory, groundwater contribution to the stream is called:
a) base flow b) sub-surface flow
c) surface flow d) both b& c
3) Which of the following is part of direct runoff?
a) base flow b) sub-surface flow
c) surface flow d) both (b)& (c)
4) In hydrologic cycle filling of undulations on the earth surface by water before it starts flowing,
is called:
a) infiltration b) percolation
c) depression storage d) seepage
5) Difference between saturated vapor pressure and actual vapor pressure is called:
a) relative humidity b) absolute humidity
c) specific humidity d) Saturation deficit
6) Ratio of actual vapor pressure to saturation vapor pressure is called:
a) relative humidity b) absolute humidity
c) specific humidity d) saturation deficit
7) Rate of decrease in atmospheric temperature per unit rise in vertical direction through
troposphere is called:
a) albedo b) lapse rate
c) insulation d) both (a) & (b)
8) Lines of equal atmospheric pressure are known as:
a) isohyets b) isobars
c) isotherms d) contours
9) Which of the following instruments is used for measuring relative humidity?
a) barograph b) bimetallic actinography
c) hair hygrograph d) pryanometer
10) Which of the following instruments is used for measuring radiation heat?
a) barograph b) thermograph
c) hair hygrograph d) pryanometer
11) Which of the following rain-gauges cannot be used for recording snow?
a) weighing type b) float type
c) tipping bucket type d) both (a) & (b)
12) The capacity of one bucket in tipping bucket raingauge is:
a) 0.25 mm b) 0.5 mm
c) 1.5 mm d) 1.25 mm
13) For saturated condition, when humidity is 100%, the difference between dry bulb and wet
bulb temperatures is:
a) maximum b) relatively high
c) negative d) zero
14) Precipitation that occurs due to lifting of moist air after striking with mountain barriers is
called:
a) convectional precipitation b) frontal precipitation
c) orographic precipitation d) cyclonic precipitation
15) Ratio of rainfall in a particular year to average annual rainfall is called:
a) rainfall ratio b) index of wetness
c) percentage rainfall d) specific rainfall
16) An index of wetness of 60% shows that in a particular year, there is:
a) 40% more rainfall b) 60% more rainfall
c) 40% less rainfall d) 60% less rainfall
17) Which of the following methods is used for adjustment of rainfall records at a station?
a) station-year method b) isohyetal method
c) double mass analysis d) arithmetic average method
18) In which method of determining mean aerial depth of precipitation, the addition or removal
of a raingauge will change the whole scenario?
a) arithmetic average method b) Thiessen polygon method
c) isohyetal method d) both (a) & (b
19) If coefficient of variation calculated from rainfall data of different raingauge stations in an
area is 40% and permissible error in estimating average depth of rainfall is 10%, what would be
the optimum number of raingauge stations to be established in the area?
a) 4 b) 16
c) 30 d) 3
20) The graph between rainfall intensity and time is called:
a) hyetograph b) hydrograph
c) mass curve of rainfall d) both (a) & (b)
21) Time from the centeroid of net rainfall to the peak of hydrograph is called:
a) time of concentration b) lag time
c) basin lag d) both (b) & (c)
22) The point on hydrograph, upto which all the surface water has drained out, is called:
a) rising point b) peak
c) inflexion point d) both (b) & (c)
23) In double ring infiltrometer, water is filled in the outer ring in order to:
a) take reading
b) discourage underground lateral movement of water from inner ring
c) encourage underground lateral movement of water from outer ring
d) cool the soil
24) Which of the following crops is used as standard for determining potential ET?
a) fodder b) citrus
c) wheat d) alfalfa
25) Ratio of actual ET of a specific crop to potential ET is called:
a) ET ratio b) crop coefficient
c) pan coefficient d) depletion factor
26) The period of direct surface runoff of the unit hydrograph is called:
a) time base b) base width
c) unit period d) both (a) & (b)
27) When volume of direct surface runoff is divided by the area of drainage basin under study,
we get:
a) net rainfall b) unit hydrograph ordinates
c) base flow d) total runoff
28) Unit hydrograph ordinates are multiplied by Pnet to get direct runoff ordinates; this process is
called:
a) UG derivation b) UG alteration
c) UG application d) base flow separation
29) While converting a 3-hr UG having time base of 24 hours to 6-hr UG using S-curve method,
what will be required number of successions to be developed?
a) 8 b) 4
c) 10 d) 12
30) While converting a 4-hr UG into 6-hr UG using S-curve method, the ordinates of S-curve
difference will be multiplied by:
a) 6/4 b) 4/6
c) 2 d) 10
31) Fraction of total incoming radiation, which is reflected back by the earth to atmosphere, is
called:
a) albedo b) lapse rate
c) insulation d) both a & b
32) Precipitation which occurs due to clash of two air masses having contrasting temperatures
and densities, is called:
a) convectional precipitation b) frontal precipitation

c) orographic precipitation d) cyclonic precipitation

33) Which of the following is non-recording raingauge?
a) tipping bucket gauge b) weighing type
c) float type d) Symon’s gauge
34) Formation of a layer or film of water before it starts flowing to generate runoff, is called:
a) depression storage b) percolation
c) detention storage d) none of these
35) When an air mass is cooled at constant vapor pressure, it gets condensed at a temperature,
called:
a) lapse rate b) saturation point
 c) dew point d) none of these
36) A constant infiltration rate, which is achieved after the soil is saturated, is called:
a) maximum infiltration rate b) basic infiltration rate
c) lapse rate d) none of these

Answers:
1. D 11 C 21 D 31 A
2 A 12 A 22 C 32 B
3 D 13 D 23 B 33 D
4 C 14 C 24 D 34 C
5 D 15 B 25 B 35 C
6 A 16 C 26 D 36 B
7 B 17 C 27 A
8 B 18 B 28 C
9 C 19 B 29 A
10 D 20 A 30 B

PUMPS AND TUBEWELLS

1) Pumps are used to

a) Elevate fluid a) move fluid
c) Pressurized fluid d) All of above
2) For irrigation purposes following pumps are used
a) Reciprocating b) Rotary
c) Centrifugal d) diaphragm
3) Minimum energy required by a pump to avoid cavitation is
a) NPSH b) NPHSA
c) NPSHR d) energy loss in overcoming friction
4) When impellers are connected in series the discharge
a) add up b) remains same
c) head remains same d) head adds up
5) When impellers are connected in series the head
a) add up b) remains same
c) discharge remains same d) discharge adds up
6) When impellers are connected in parallel the head
a) add up b) remains same
c) discharge remains same d) discharge adds up
7) When impellers are connected in parallel the discharge
a) add up b) remains same
c) head remains same d) head adds up
8) As compared to reciprocating pumps, the centrifugal pumps are
a) low head pumps b) high discharge pumps
c) costly pumps d) both a) and b)
9) Dunckey pumps use
a) centrifugal action for pumping b) Rotary action for pumping
c) to and fro motion for pumping d) venturi action for pumping
10) In jet pump
a) rotary and centrifugal action are combined
b) rotary and reciprocating action are combined
c) centrifugal and venture actions are combined
d) centrifugal and rotary action are combined
11) For a centrifugal pumps when discharge increase
a) head also increase b) head decrease
c) head remains same d) efficiency increase
12) NPSHR is a function of
a) pump b) system
c) both pump and system d) fluid handled
13) The part of well used to extract water from aquifer is called
a) blind pipe b) casing pipe
c) screen d) check valve
14) The process of getting maximum and sand free water from a well is called
a) well drilling b) screening
 c) well development d) well testing
15) In Pakistan in general
a) confined aquifer is found b) unconfined aquifer is found
c) perched aquifer is found d) aquitard is found
16) If NPSHA> NPSHR the pump will
a) work safely b) cavitate
c) Will cavitate after some time d) no effect
17) If efficiency is plotted against discharge, the efficiency will
a) increase b) decrease
c) remain same d) non of above
18) For drilling following equipment is used
a) percussion rigs b) rotary rigs
c) none of above d) both a) and b)
19) For the selection of a pump, following are the design parameters
a) efficiency and horse power b) head and efficiency
c) discharge and horse power d) head and discharge
20) Priming a process of
a) installing a screen b) installing casing pipe
c) filling suction line and pump upto delivery point with pumping fluid
d) all of above
21) NPSHA is a function of
a) pump b) system
c) both pump and system d) fluid handled
22) Affinity law-I deals with
a) pumps head b) impeller speed
c) impeller diameter d) pump design
23) Affinity law-II deals with
a) pumps head b) impeller speed
c) impeller diameter d) pump design
24) For drainage works following type of pumps is used
a) radial flow b) axial flow
c) mixed flow d) None of these
25) For drainage works following type of impeller is used
a) open impeller b) closed impeller
c) semi-open impeller d) all of these
26) For drainage works following type of pump is used
a) high head low discharge b) low head high discharge
c) all of above d) none of above
27) Cavitation is the process of
a) filling the suction line and pump casing with the working fluid
b) pumps selection c) pump maintenance
d) bubble formation
28) Output of pump is called
a) Output horse power b) Input horse power
c) Water horse power d) Brake horse power
29) In pumps cavitation will occur when pressure is
a) Lower than atmosphere b) Negative
c) Lower than vapor pressure of the liquid
d) All of above
30) When water table deep, a bore hole is drilled and pump is placed into that to avoid
a) priming b) cavitaion
c) pump damage d) all of above
31) Pumps are required for:
a) surface irrigation b) sub-surface irrigation
c) furrow irrigation d) sprinkler irrigation
32) Priming of pumps is done with:
a) water b) air
c) the liquid which is to be pumped or heavier than the pumped liquid
d) all of above
33) An advantage of deep well turbine pump over centrifugal pump is that it:
a) is easy to install b) requires no priming
c) is difficult to repair d) none of above
34) Pumps in ascending order of head are:
a) axial, mixed, radial b) mixed, axial, radial
c) radial, mixed, axial d) mixed, radial, axial
35) Pumps in ascending order of discharge are:
a) axial, mixed, radial b) mixed, axial, radial
c) radial, mixed, axial d) mixed, radial, axial
36) Caviation in pumps causes:
a) reduced discharge b) reduced pump efficiency
c) damage to impeller d) all of above

Answers:
1. D 11 B 21 B 31 D
2 C 12 A 22 B 32 C
3 C 13 C 23 C 33 B
4 B 14 C 24 B 34 A
5 A 15 B 25 A 35 C
6 B 16 A 26 B 36 D
7 A 17 D 27 D
8 D 18 D 28 C
9 C 19 D 29 C
10 C 20 C 30 B

WATER MANAGEMENT

1) Upper limit of moisture availability is called

a) Gravitational water b) Saturation point
c) Field capacity d) Maximum available water
2) Lower limit of moisture availability is called
a) Hygroscopic moisture b) Minimum available moisture
c) Permanent wilting point d) None of above
3) Available moisture is equal to
a) Maximum available water - Minimum available moisture
b) Field capacity – permanent wilting point
c) Field capacity – hygroscopic moisture
d) Saturation point - permanent wilting point
4) Soil moisture characteristic curve gives relationship between
a) Soil tension and moisture content b) Soil salinity and moisture content
c) Soil texture and moisture content d) Soil water and soil moisture
5) ‘Water at field / water stored in the rootzone’ is called
a) Conveyance efficiency b) Water application efficiency
c) Irrigation efficiency d) None of above
6) Application efficiency could be 100% in case of
a) Precise irrigation
b) High efficiency irrigation systems water application
c) Under irrigation d) All of above
7) Soil Salinity causes
a) Reduction in soil nutrients b) Reduction in soil organic matter
c) Reduction in soil water available to plants c) All of Above
8) Potential evapotrainspiration is defined for
a) Cotton b) Maize
c) Rice d) Grass
9) Kc value is
a) <1 b) >1
c) =1 d) All of above
10) Field capacity has highest value for
a) Sandy soils b) Loamy soils
c) Clay soils d) Pulverized soils
11) Best climatic method for determination of actual evapotrainspiration is
a) Hargreaves equation b) Blaney-Criddle equation
c) Penman equation d) Penman-Montieth equation
12) Maximum evapotrainspiration is defined for
a) Alfalpha b) Grass
c) None of a) and b) d) Both of a) and b)
13) For Agricultural point of view, effective rainfall is that portion that contributes to
a) Ground water recharge b) Dam storage
c) crop rootzone d) River supply
14) Crop water requirement is the function of
a) Soil factors b) Crop factors
c) Irrigation method d) Both a) and b)
15) Crop water requirement may be determined by
a) Soil moisture sampling b) Climatic methods
c) Water balance approach d) All of above
16) Flood Irrigation suitable for
a) Sandy soils b) Clay soils
c) Organic soils d) None of above
17) The advantage of drip irrigation system over sprinkler irrigation system may be used in
a) Undulating areas b) Saline soils
c) Windy areas d) Cash crops
18) Leveling along a watercourse is
a) Topographic leveling b) Profile leveling
c) Reciprocal leveling d) None of above
19) Precision land leveling helps in
a) Water saving b) Increase in crop yield
c) Reduce in water logging d) All of above
20) For agricultural area the grid size is usually
a) 10X10 m b) 15X15 m
c) 20X20 m d) 25X25 m
21) For park area the grid size is usually
a) 10X10 m b) 15X15 m
c) 20X20 m d) 25X25 m
22) With increasing grid size leveling accuracy
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Unchanged d) None of above
23) With the increase in organic matter
a) Moisture holding capacity increases b) Soil texture improves
b) Soil porosity increases d) Both a) and c)
24) During watercourse design
a) Highest field to be irrigated in considered
b) Lowest field to be irrigated in considered
c) Average command area elevation is considered
d) Length of the watercourse is considered
25) Watercourse forms
a) Primary component of irrigation system
b) Secondary component of irrigation system
c) Tertiary component of irrigation system
d) None of above
26) Watercourses should be improved to
a) Save water b) Increase command area
c) Increase watercourse capacity d) All of above
27) Drip irrigation system designed on the basis of
a) Crop water requirements b) Soil infiltration rate
c) Crop growth stage d) All of above
28) Surface irrigation is also called
a) Gravity irrigation b) Flood irrigation
c) Both a) and b) d) None of above
29) A hydraulic structure that divert water from watercourse to field is called
a) Check structure b) Mogha
c) Nakka d) All of above
30) Basin Irrigation is well suited to
a) Wheat b) Cotton
c) Rice d) All of above
31) Infiltration capacity of a soil----------------- with time:
 a) same b) increases
c) decreases d) all of above
32) Permanent wilting point is:
a) a characteristic of a plant b) a soil characteristic
c) a soil characteristic modified by crop
d) dependent on the soil water plant fertilizer interaction
33) Consumptive use is the sum of:
a) evapotranspiration and infiltration loss
b) evapotranspiration plus application losses
c) evapotranspiration plus amount of water used up in plant metabolism
d) evapotranspiration plus amount of water used up in plant metabolism plus percolation
losses
34) Blaney-Criddle method is used to estimate:
a) open water evaporation b) potential evaporation
c) actual evapotranspiration d) potential evapotranspiration
35) For a given soil:
a) texture and structure represent same property
b) texture implies presence of particles of different sizes
c) farmer can change the texture using cultivation method
d) texture implies the proportion of sand silt and clay
36) Energy will be required to irrigate land:
a) under gravity b) much above the river bed level
c) in delta region d) all of above
Answers:
1. C 11 D 21 A 31 C
2 C 12 C 22 B 32 B
3 B 13 C 23 D 33 B
4 A 14 D 24 A 34 D
5 D 15 D 25 C 35 D
6 C 16 B 26 D 36 B
7 C 17 C 27 D
8 D 18 B 28 C
9 D 19 D 29 C
10 C 20 C 30 C

OPEN CHANNEL HYDRAULICS

1) Steady flow in an open channel exists when the
a) flow is uniform b) depth does not change with time
c) channel is frictionless d) channel bed is not curved
2) In a steady spatially-varied flow in a prismatic open channel, the
a) depth does not change along the channel length
b) discharge is constant along the channel length
c) discharge varies along the channel length
d) discharge is constant with respect to time
3) In a uniform flow in a channel of small bed slope, the hydraulic grade line
a) coincides with the bed b) is considerably below the free surface
c) is considerably above the free surface d) essentially coincides with the free surface
4) A uniform flow takes place in a steep channel of large slope. The hydraulic grade line is
a) coincides with the bed b) essentially coincides with the free surface
c) is above the free surface d) is below the free surface
5) One dimensional of flow analysis means
a) uniform flow b) steady uniform flow
c) neglecting the variation in the transverse direction
d) neglecting the variation in the longitudinal direction
6) The velocity and depth of flow in 3.0 m wide rectangular a channel are 2.0 m/s and 2.5 m,
respectively. If the channel has its width enlarged to 3.5 m at a section. The discharge past that
section is
a) 10.0 m3/s b) 20.0 m3/s
c) 15.0 m3/s d) 17.5 m3/s
7) A sluice gate in a small pond discharges a flow having 10.0 m2 flow area and a velocity of 4.0
m/s. If the pond has a surface area of 1.0 hectare, the rate at which the water surface falls in a
pond is
 a) 0.25 m/s b) 4 cm/s
c) 4 mm/s d) 4.0 m/s
8) The total energy head for an open channel flow is written with usual notation as H = z+y
+V2/2g. In this each of the term represent
a) energy in kg m/kg mass of fluid b) energy in N m/N of fluid
c) power in kW/kg mass of fluid d) energy in N m/kg mass of fluid
9) Piezometric head is the sum of
a) pressure head, elevation head and velocity head b) elevation head and velocity head
c) pressure head and velocity head d) pressure and elevation head
10) The difference between total head and piezometric head line represents
a) the velocity head b) the pressure head
c) the elevation of the bed of the channel d) the depth of flow
11) The two alternate depths in a 4.0 m wide rectangular channel are 3.86 m and 1.0 m
respectively. The discharge in the in the channel in m3/s is
a) 15 b) 1.5
c) 7.76 d) 31.0
12) In a rectangular channel, the alternate depths are 1.0 m and 2.0 m respectively. The specific
energy head in m is
a) 3.38 b) 1.33
c) 2.33 d) 3.0
13) A rectangular channel carries a certain flow for which the alternate depths are found to be 3.0
m and 1.0 m. The critical depth in m for this flow is
a) 2.65 b) 1.65
c) 0.65 d) 1.33
14) In defining a Froude number applicable to the open channels of any shape, the length
parameter used is the
a) ratio of area to top width b) ratio of area to wetted perimeter
c) depth of flow d) square root of the area
15) At critical depth
a) the discharge is minimum for the given specific energy
b) the discharge is maximum for the given specific force
c) the discharge is maximum for the given specific energy
d) the discharge is minimum for the given specific force
16) For a given open channel carrying a certain discharge the critical depends upon
a) the geometry of the channel b) the viscosity of water
c) the roughness of the channel d) the longitudinal slope of the channel
17) The flow in a rectangular channel is subcritical. If the width is expanded at a centain section,
the water surface
a) at a downstream section will drop b) at a downstream section will rise
c) at a upstream section will rise d) at a upstream section will drop
18) In a non-prismatic channel
a) unsteady flow is not possible b) the flow is always uniform
c) uniform flow is not possible d) the flow is not possible
19) Uniform flow in an open channel exists when the flow is steady and the channel is
a) prismatic
b) non-prismatic and depth of flow is constant along the channel
c) prismatic and the depth of flow is constant along the channel
d) frictionless
20) In a uniform there is a balance between
a) gravity and frictional forces b) gravity and inertial forces
c) inertial and frictional flow d) inertial and viscous flow
21) Uniform flow is not possible if
a) friction is large b) fluid is an oil
c) So ≤ 0 d) So > 0
22) The dimensions of the Chezy coefficient C are
a) L2T-1 b) LT-1/2
0 0 0
c) M L T d) L1/2T-1
23) The dimensions of Manning’s n are
a) L1/6 b) L1/2
c) L-1/3T d) L-1/3T-1
24) If the bed particle size d50 of a natural stream is 2.0 mm, then by Strickler formula, the
Manning’s n for the channel is about
 a) 0.017 b) 0.023
c) 0.013 d) 0.044
25) The Manning’s n for a smooth, clean, unlined, sufficiently weathered earthen channel is
about
a) 0.012 b) 0.20
c) 0.02 d) 0.002
26) The Manning’s n for a straight concrete sewer is about
a) 0.025 b) 0.014
c) 0.30 d) 0.14
27) In a wide rectangular channel if the normal depth is increased by 20%, the discharge would
increase by
a) 20% b) 15.5%
c) 35.5% d) 41.3%
28) A triangular section is hydraulically efficient when the vertex angle is
a) 90o b) 120o
c) 60o d) 30o
29) The hydraulic jump is a phenomenon
a) in which the water surface connects the alternate depths
b) which occurs only in frictionless channels
c) which occurs only in rectangular channels d) none of these
30) A hydraulic jump occurs when there is break in grade from a
a) mild slope to steep slope b) steep slope to mild slope
c) steep slope to steeper slope d) mild slope to milder slope
31) The sequent-depth ratio in a hydraulic jump formed in horizontal rectangular channel is
16.48. The Froude number of the supercritical stream is
a) 8.0 b) 4.0
c) 20.0 d) 12.0
32) The Froude number of a subcritical stream at the end of a hydraulic jump in a horizontal
rectangular channel is 0.22. The sequent-depth ratio of this jump is
a) 11.25 b) 15.25
c) 8.35 d) 6.5
33) The initial depth of a hydraulic jump in a rectangular channel is 0.2 m and the sequent-depth
ratio is 10. The length of the jump is about
a) 4 m b) 6 m
c) 12 m d) 20 m
34) Ina hydraulic jump taking place in horizontal rectangular channel the sequent-depth are 0.30
m and 1.50 m respectively. The energy loss in this jump is
a) 1.92 m b) 1.50 m
c) 0.96 m d) 1.20 m
35) 70% of the initial energy is lost in a hydraulic jump in rectangular channel. The Froude
number of the flow at the toe is
a) 4.0 b) 9.0
c) 20.0 d) 15.0
36) In a hydraulic jump in horizontal rectangular channel with an initial Froude number of 12,
the sequent-depth ratio is found to be 13.65. The energy dissipation as a percentage of the initial
specific energy is about
a) 62 % b) 50 %
c) 87 % d) 73 %
Answers:
1. B 11 D 21 C 31 D
2 C 12 C 22 D 32 B
3 D 13 B 23 C 33 C
4 D 14 A 24 A 34 B
5 C 15 C 25 C 35 D
6 C 16 A 26 B 36 A
7 C 17 A 27 C
8 B 18 C 28 A
9 D 19 C 29 D
10 A 20 A 30 B

SOIL AND WATER CONSERVATION ENGINEERING

1) In splash erosion the raindrop energy acts in the form of
a) kinetic energy b) potential energy
c) chemical energy d) none of these
2) Kinetic energy of raindrop depends on
a) terminal velocity of raindrop b) drop diameter
c) rainfall intensity d) none of these
3) An intense storm involves
a) greater intensity b) greater kinetic energy
c) greater potential energy d) both (a) and (b)
4) For attaining a raindrop to terminal velocity, the fall height should be
a) atleast 5 m b) atleast 7 m
c) less than 7 m d) 15 m
5) A greater detachment of soil particle is caused by a
a) high intensity rainfall for a shorter duration
b) low intensity rainfall for a longer duration
c) all of above d) none of above
6) Removal of transportable fragments of material from the soil mass by an eroding agent
(falling raindrop) is called as
a) detachment b) erosion
c) transportation d) all of above
7) A soil having greater entrapped air, involves
a) less soil erosion b) more soil detachment
c) no effect d) none of above
8) Clayey soils are more easily detached, at
a) low moisture potential b) high moisture potential
c) none of above d) both (a) and b)
9) Pore water pressure influences detachability by changing the
a) soil strength b) soil texture
c) soil structure d) all of above
10) Soil loss is net amount of
a) sediment yield b) soil moved off a point
c) soil detached d) all above
11) The erosion caused by concentration flow in small channels or rills is called as
a) gully erosion b) rill erosion
c) torrent erosion d) all above
12) The erosion from the area between the rill is termed as
a) sheet erosion b) splash erosion
c) interrill erosion d) both (a) and (b)
13) Mass movement of soil occurs at
a) critical slope b) mild slope
c) steep slope d) none o above
14) Detachability of soil particle increases with
a) decreasing median grain size b) increasing median grain size
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of above
15) A network of gully is called as
a) gullied area b) ravine area
c) hilly area d) all above
16) Cohesive force is minimum in
a) sandy soils b) clayey soils
c) clay-loam soils d) all above
17) A soil becomes more resistance to wind erosion at the moisture potential of
a) -1.5 MPa b) 1.5 MPa
c) 1.0 MPa d) none of above
18) Gravity force opposes the
a) soil lift b) initiation of movement
c) soil entrainment d) both (a) and (b)
19) An erosion, in which rate of soil loss exceeds the rate of soil formation is referred as
a) accelerated erosion b) normal erosion
c) glacial erosion d) chemical erosion
20) Gully erosion is the advance stage of
a) splash erosion b) sheet erosion
c) rill erosion d) tunnel erosion
21) Universal Soil Loss Equation is named, because
a) its validity is more b) it accounts all parameters affecting the
soil loss
c) it is universally adopted d) all above
22) Universal Soil Loss Equation is not used, when slopes are steeper than
a) 20% b) 10%
c) 25% d) 5%
23) Biological erosion control measure, refers to
a) kinds of crops with their, rotation b) measures used for flow control
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of above
24) In USEE, the input parameter is
a) soil erodibility b) rainfall erosivity index
c) topographic factors d) slope steepness factors
25) Detaching capacity is greater of
a) falling raindrop b) flowing water
c) snow melt d) both (b) and (c)
26) Gully erosion usually control in
a) check dams b) diversions
c) spurs d) both (a) and (b)
27) Typical width of strip-cropping ranges from
a) 20 to 50 m b) 30 to 100 m
c) 50 to 100 m d) none of above
28) Drainage type terraces are not suitable for
a) humid zones b) semi-arid zones
c) tropical zones d) all above
29) Water harvesting is most essential for the regions of
a) humid zones b) arid zones
c) semi-arid zones d) both (b) and (c)
30) Underground dams are meant for
a) erosion control b) water harvesting
c) runoff control d) both (b) and (c)
31) Downstream section of straight drop spillway is called as
a) apron b) stilling basin
c) both (a) and (b) d) none of above
32) Rational method is suitable to compute peak runoff rate from
a) large watersheds b) small watersheds
c) medium watersheds d) none of above
33) Runoff coefficient is the ratio of
a) annual rainfall t annual runoff b) runoff to rainfall
c) runoff to rainfall intensity d) all of above
34) Curve number method estimates the
a) runoff rate b) direct runoff
c) subsurface runoff d) both (a) and (b)
35) Compaction of soil
a) increases erosion b) decreases erosion
c) no effect on erosion d) none of above
36) At greater temperature , the infiltration rate is
a) more b) less
c) no effect d) none of above
Answers:
1. A 11 B 21 C 31 C
2 D 12 D 22 A 32 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 B
4 B 14 A 24 B 34 B
5 A 15 B 25 A 35 A
6 A 16 A 26 D 36 A
7 B 17 A 27 B
8 A 18 C 28 B
9 A 19 A 29 D
10 B 20 B 30 D