Strength of Materials - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers For Competitive Exams

Strength of Materials - Mechanical Engineering Multiple
Choice Questions and Answers for competitive exams
1. Strain is defined as the ratio of

(a) change in volume to original volume
(b) change in length to original length
(c) change in cross-sectional area to original cross-sectional
area
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
2. Hooke's law holds good upto
(a) yield point
(b) limit of proportionality
(c) breaking point
(d) elastic limit
(e) plastic limit.
Ans: b
3. Young's modulus is defined as the ratio of
(a) volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(b) lateral stress and lateral strain
(c) longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(d) shear stress to shear strain
(e) longitudinal stress and lateral strain.
Ans: c
1
4. The unit of Young's modulus is
(a) mm/mm
(b) kg/cm
(c) kg
(d) kg/cm2
(e) kg cm2.
Ans: d
5. Deformation per unit length in the direction of force is
known as
(a) strain
(b) lateral strain
(c) linear strain
(d) linear stress
(e) unit strain.
Ans: c
6. It equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend to
elongate it, the stress so produced is called
(a) internal resistance
(b) tensile stress
(c) transverse stress
(d) compressive stress
(e) working stress.
Ans: b
7. The materials having same elastic properties in all
directions are called
(a) ideal materials
(b) uniform materials
2
(c) isotropic materials
(d) practical materials
(e) elastic materials.
Ans: c
8. A thin mild steel wire is loaded by adding loads in equal

increments till it breaks. The extensions noted with increasing
loads will behave as under
(a) uniform throughout
(b) increase uniformly
(c) first increase and then decrease
(d) increase uniformly first and then in-crease rapidly
(e) increase rapidly first and then uniformly.
Ans: d
9. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of

(a) longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(b) volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(c) lateral stress and lateral strain
(d) shear stress and shear strain
(e) linear stress and lateral strain.
Ans: d
10. If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its

Young's modulus will be
(a) doubled
(b) halved
(c) become four times
(d) become one-fourth
(e) remain unaffected.
Ans: e
3
11. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel compared to
ultimate compressive stress is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more or less depending on other factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
12. Tensile strength of a material is obtained by dividing the

maximum load during the test by the
(a) area at the time of fracture
(b) original cross-sectional area
(c) average of (a) and (b)
(d) minimum area after fracture
Ans: b
13. The impact strength of a material is an index of its

(a) toughness
(b) tensile strength
(c) capability of being cold worked
(d) hardness
(e) fatigue strength.
Ans: a
14. The Young's modulus of a wire is defined as the stress

which will increase the length of wire compared to its original
length
(a) half
4
(b) same amount
(c) double
(d) one-fourth
(e) four times.
Ans: b
15. Percentage reduction of area in performing tensile test on

cast iron may be of the order of
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 0%
(d) 15%
(e) 60%.
Ans: c
16. The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called

(a) unit stress
(b) bulk modulus
(c) modulus of rigidity
(d) modulus of elasticity
(e) principal stress.
Ans: d
17. True stress-strain curve for materials is plotted between

(a) load/original cross-sectional area and change in
length/original length
(b) load/instantaneous cross-sectional area original area and
log.
(c) load/instantaneous cross-sectional area and change in
(d) load/instantaneous area and instantaneous area/original
5
area
Ans: b
18. During a tensile test on a specimen of 1 cm cross-section,

maximum load observed was 8 tonnes and area of cross-section
at neck was 0.5 cm2. Ultimate tensile strength of specimen is
(a) 4 tonnes/cm2
(b) 8 tonnes/cm2
(c) 16 tonnes/cm2
(d) 22 tonnes/cm2
Ans: b
19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in

tension is nearly
(a) same
(b) half
(c) one-third
(d) two-third
(e) one-fourth.
Ans: b
20. Which of the following has no unit

(a) kinematic viscosity
(b) surface tension
(c) bulk modulus
(d) strain
(e) elasticity.
Ans: d
6
21. Which is the false statement about true stress-strain
method
(a) It does not exist
(b) It is more sensitive to changes in both metallurgical and
mechanical conditions
(c) It gives, a more accurate picture of the ductility
(d) It can be correlated with stress-strain values in other tests
like torsion, impact, combined stress tests etc.
(e) It can be used for compression tests as well.
Ans: a
22. In a tensile test on mild steel specimen, the breaking stress

as compared to ultimate tensile stress is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on composition
(e) may have any value.
Ans: b
23. If a part is constrained to move and heated, it will develop

(a) principal stress
(b) tensile stress
(c) compressive stress
(d) shear stress
(e) no stress.
Ans: c
24. Which of the following materials is most elastic
7
(a) rubber
(b) plastic
(c) brass
(d) steel
(e) glass.
Ans: d
25. The value of modulus of elasticity for mild steel is of the

order of
(a) 2.1xl05 kg/cm2
(b) 2.1 X 106 kg/cm2
(c) 2.1 x 107 kg/cm2
(d) 0.1 xlO6 kg/cm2 (<?) 3.8 x 106 kg/cm2.
Ans: b
26. The value of Poisson's ratio for steel is between

(a) 0.01 to 0.1
(b) 0.23 to 0.27
(c) 0.25 to 0.33
(d) 0.4 to 0.6
(e) 3 to 4.
Ans: c
27. The buckling load for a given material depends on

(a) slenderness ratio and area of cross-section
(b) Poisson's ratio and modulus of elasticity
(c) slenderness ratio and modulus of elasticity
(d) slenderness ratio, area of cross-section and modulus of
elasticity
(e) Poisson's ratio and slenderness ratio.
Ans: d
8
28. The total elongation produced in a bar of uniform section
hanging vertically downwards due to its own weight is equal to
that produced by a weight
(a) of same magnitude as that of bar and applied at the lower
end
(b) half the weight of bar applied at lower end
(c) half of the square of weight of bar applied at lower end
(d) one-fourth of weight of bar applied at lower end
Ans: b
29. The property of a material by virtue of which a body

returns to its original, shape after removal of the load is called
(a) plasticity
(b) elasticity
(c) ductility
(d) malleability
(e) resilience.
Ans: b
30. The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in

all directions are called
(a) homogeneous
(b) inelastic
(c) isotropic
(d) isotropic
(e) relativistic.
Ans: c
31. The value of Poisson's ratio for cast iron is

9
(a) 0.1 to 0.2
(b) 0.23 to 0.27
(c) 0.25 to 0.33
(d) 0.4 to 0.6
(e) 3 to 4.
Ans: b
32. The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into

a smaller section is called
(a) plasticity
(b) ductility
(c) elasticity
(d) malleability
(e) durability.
Ans: b
33. Poisson's ratio is defined as the ratio of

(b) longitudinal stress and lateral stress
(c) lateral stress and longitudinal stress
(d) lateral stress and lateral strain
Ans: c
34. For which material the Poisson's ratio is more than unity
(a) steel
(b) copper
(c) aluminum
(d) cast iron
Ans: e
10
35. The property of a material by virtue of which it can be
beaten or rolled into plates is called
(a) malleability
(b) ductility
(c) plasticity
(d) elasticity
(e) reliability.
Ans: a
36. The change in the unit volume of a material under tension

with increase in its Poisson's ratio will ,
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase initially and then decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
37. The percentage reduction in area of a cast iron specimen

during tensile test would be of the order of
(a) more than 50%
(b) 25—50%
(c) 10—25%
(d) 5—10%
(e) negligible.
Ans: e
38. If a material expands freely due to heating it will develop

(a) thermal stresses
(b) tensile stress
11
(c) bending
(e) no stress.
Ans: e
39. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone, the

(a) tensile strain increases more quickly
(b) tensile strain decreases more quickly
(c) tensile strain increases in proportion to the stress
(d) tensile strain decreases in proportion to the stress
(e) tensile strain remains constant.
Ans: a
40. The stress necessary to initiate yielding is

(a) considerably greater than that necessary to continue it
(b) considerably lesser than that necessary to continue it
(c) greater than that necessary to stop it
(d) lesser than that necessary to stop it
(e) equal to that necessary to stop it.
Ans: a
41. In the tensile test, the phenomenon of slow extension of

the material, i. e. stress increasing with the time at a constant
load is called
(a) creeping
(b) yielding
(c) breaking
(d) plasticity
Ans: a
12
42. The stress developed in a material at breaking point in
extension is called
(a) breaking stress
(b) fracture stress
(c) yield point stress
(d) ultimate tensile stress
(e) proof stress.
Ans: a
43. Rupture stress is

(a) breaking stress
(b) maximum load/original cross-section¬al area 04)
(c) load at breaking point/A
(d) load at breaking point/neck area
(e) maximum stress.
Ans: d
44. The elasticity of various materials is controlled by its

(a) ultimate tensile stress
(b) proof stress
(c) stress at yield point
(d) stress at elastic limit
(e) tensile stress.
Ans: d
45. The ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain within elastic
limit is known as
(a) Young's modulus
(b) bulk modulus
13
(e) Poisson's ratio.
Ans: e
46. The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain in case of a

body subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses of equal
intensity, is equal to
(a) Young's modulus
(b) bulk modulus
Ans: b
47. The stress at which extension of the material takes place

more quickly as com¬pared to the increase in load is called
(a) elastic point of the material
(b) plastic point of the material
(c) breaking point of the material
(d) yielding point of the material
(e) ultimate point of the material.
Ans: d
48. In question 56, the internal reaction in bottom 80 cm

length will be
(a) same in both cases
(b) zero in first case
(c) different in both cases
(d) data are not sufficient to determine same
Ans: b
14
49. Flow stress corresponds to
(a) fluids in motion
(b) breaking point
(c) plastic deformation of solids
(d) rupture stress
Ans: c
50. When it is indicated that a member is elastic, it means that

when force is applied, it will
(a) not deform
(b) be safest
(c) stretch
(d) not stretch
Ans: c
51. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within

the elastic limits, is known as
(a) strain energy
(b) resilience
(c) proof resilience
(d) modulus of resilience
(e) toughness..
Ans: a
52. Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected

to
(a) frequent heat treatment
(b) fatigue
(c) creep
15
(d) shock loading
(e) resonant condition.
Ans: d
53. The maximum strain energy that can be stored in a body is

known as
(a) impact energy
(b) resilience
(e) toughness.
Ans: c
54. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as

(a) resilience
(b) proof resilience
(c) modulus of resilience
(d) toughness
(e) impact energy.
Ans: a
55. Proof resilience per material is known as

(a) resilience
(d) toughness
(e) impact energy.
Ans: c
56. The stress induced in a body due to suddenly applied load

compared to when it is applied gradually is
16
(a) same
(b) half
(c) two times
(d) four times
Ans: c
57. The strain energy stored in a body due to suddenly applied

load compared to when it is applied gradually is
(a) same
(b) twice
(c) four times
(d) eight times
(e) half.
Ans: c
58. A material capable of absorbing large amount of energy

before fracture is known as
(a) ductility
(b) toughness
(c) resilience
(d) shock proof
(e) plasticity.
Ans: b
59. Coaxing is the method of increasing

(a) strength by reversible cycling
(b) corrosion resistance by spraying
(c) hardness by surface treatment
(d) fatigue resistance by over-stressing the metal by
successively increasing loadings
17
(e) creep by head treatment.
Ans:
60. A beam is loaded as cantilever. If the load at the end is

increased, the failure will occur
(a) in the middle
(b) at the tip below the load
(c) at the support
(d) anywhere
Ans: d
61. A non-yielding support implies that the

(a) support is frictionless
(b) support can take any amount of reaction
(c) support holds member firmly
(d) slope of the beam at the support is zero
Ans: d
62. The ratio of elongation in a prismatic bar due to its own

weight (W) as compared to another similar bar carrying an
additional weight (W) will be
(a) 1:2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 2.5
(e) 1 : 2.25.
Ans: b
63. In a prismatic member made of two materials so joined that

18
they deform equal¬ly under axial stress, the unit stresses in two
materials are
(a) equal
(b) proportional to their respective moduli of elasticity
(c) inversely proportional to their moduli of elasticity
(d) average of the sum of moduli of elasticity
Ans: b
64. In riveted boiler joints, all stresses, shearing, bearing and

tensile are based on the
(a) size of rivet
(b) size of the drilled or reamed hole
(c) average of size of rivet and hole
(d) smaller of the two
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b
65. The distance between the centers of the rivets in adjacent

rows of zig-zag riveted joint is known as
(a) pitch
(b) back pitch
(c) diagonal pitch
(d) diametral pitch
(e) lap.
Ans: c
66. Efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of its strength

(max. load it can resist without failure) to the strength of the
unpunished plate in
(a) tension
19
(b) compression
(c) bearing
Ans: a
67. When two plates are butt together and riveted with cover
plates with two rows of rivets, the joi;it is known as
(a) lap point
(b) butt joint
(c) single riveted single cover butt joint
(d) double riveted double cover butt joint
(e) single riveted double cover butt joint.
Ans: d
68. A riveted joint in which every rivet of a row is opposite to

other rivet of the outer row, is known as
(a) chain riveted joint
(b) diamond riveted joint
(c) cross-cross riveted joint
(d) zig-zag riveted joint
Ans: a
69. A riveted joint in which the number otrivets decrease from

innermost to outer most row is called
20
Ans: b
70. If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and the

outermost row has only one rivet, the arrangement of the rivets
is called
(a) chain riveting
(b) zig zag riveting
(c) diamond riveting
(d) cross-cross riveting
Ans: c
71. Diamond riveted joint can be adopted in the case of

following type of joint
(a) butt joint
(b) lap joint
(c) double riveted lap joints
(d) all types of joints
Ans: a
72. Rivets are made of following type of material

(a) tough
(b) hard
(c) resilient
(d) ductile
(e) malleable.
Ans: d
73. The weakest section of a diamond riveting is the section

which passes through
21
(a) the first row
(b) the second row
(c) the central row
(d) one rivet hole of the end row
Ans: d
74. The deformation of a bar under its own weight compared

to the deformation of same body subjected to a direct load equal
to weight of the body is
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
(e) one-fourth.
Ans: c
75. The force acting along the circumference will cause stress
in the walls in a direction normal to the longitudinal axis of
cylinder; this stress is called
(a) longitudinal stress
(b) hoop stress
(c) yeiled stress
(d) ultimate stress
Ans: b
76. A boiler shell 200 cm diameter and plate thickness 1.5 cm

is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5 MN/m , then the hoop
stress will be
(a) 30 MN/m2
22
(b) 50 MN/m2
(c) 100 MN/m2
(d) 200 MN/m2
(e) 300 MN/m2.
Ans: c
77. A cylindrical section having no joint is known as

(a) joint less section
(b) homogeneous section
(c) perfect section
(d) manufactured section
(e) seamless section.
Ans: e
78. Longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder is

(a) equal to the hoop stress
(b) twice the hoop stress
(c) half of the hoop stress
(d) one-fourth of hoop stress
(e) four times the hoop stress.
Ans: c
79. The safe twisting moment for a compound shaft is equal to

the
(a) maximum calculated value
(b) minimum calculated value
(c) mean value
(d) extreme value
Ans: b
23
80. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is expressed by the
(a) maximum torque it can transmit
(b) number of cycles it undergoes before failure
(c) elastic limit upto which it resists torsion, shear and bending
stresses
(d) torque required to produce a twist of one radian per unit
length of shaft
(e) maximum power it can transmit at highest possible-speed.
Ans: d
81. The value of shear stress which is induced in the shaft due
to the applied couple varies
(a) from maximum at the centre to zero at the circumference
(b) from zero at the centre to maximum at the circumference
(c) from maximum at the centre to mini-mum at the
cricumference
(d) from minimum at the centre to maxi-mum at the
circumference
Ans: b
82. A key is subjected to side pressure as well at shearing

forces. These pressures are called
(a) bearing stresses
(b) fatigue stresses
(c) crushing stresses
(d) resultant stresses
Ans: a
83. In a belt drive, the pulley diameter is doubled, the belt

24
tension and pulley width remaining same. The changes required
in key will be
(a) increase key length
(b) increase key depth
(c) increase key width
(d) double all the dimensions
Ans: c
84. Shear stress induced in a shaft subjected to tension will be

(a) maximum at periphery and zero at center
(b) maximum at center
(c) uniform throughout
(d) average value in center
Ans: e
Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions And
Answers for download free pdf
Labels: Mechanical Engineering
10.1. The unit of force in S.I. units is

(a) kilogram
(b) newton
(c) watt
25
(d) dyne
(e) joule.
Ans: b
10.2. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is

(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) kilogram metre
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: e
10.3. The unit of power in S.I. units is

(a) newton metre
(b) watt
(c) joule
(d) kilogram metre/sec.
(e) pascal per sec.
Ans: b
10.4. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action

meet in
26
(a) one point
(b) two points
(c) plane
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different planes.
Ans: a
10.5. Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on

body lie in
(a) one point
(b) one plane
(c) different planes
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different points.
Ans: b
10.6. A force acting on a body may

(a) introduce internal stresses
(b) balance the other forces acting on it
(c) retard its motion
(d) change its motion
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
10.7. Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of
27
forces ?
(a) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented
by the sides
of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
(b) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented
in direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon, then the
forces are in equi¬librium
(c) if a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed
then forces are in equilibrium
(d) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented
in direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon taken in
order, then the forces are in equilibrium
Ans: d
10.8. Effect of a force on a body depends upon

(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) position or line of action
(d) all of the above
Ans: d
10.9. If a number of forces act simultaneously on

a particle, it is possible
28
(a) not a replace them by a single force
(b) to replace them by a single force
(c) to replace them by a single force through C.G.
(d) to replace them by a couple
(e) to replace them by a couple and a force.
Ans: b
10.11. A force is completely defined when we specify

(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) point of application
Ans: d
10.12. If two equal forces of magnitude P act at an angle 9°,

their resultant will be
(a) P/2 cos 9/2
(b) IP sin 9/2
(c) 2P tan 9/2
(d) IP cos 9/2
(e) Psin 9/2.
Ans: d
10.13. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of
29
forces in a given direction is equal to the resolved part of their
resultant in the same direction. This is as per the principle of
(a) forces
(b) independence of forces
(c) dependence of forces
(d) balance of force
(e) resolution of forces.
Ans: e
10.14. The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined

at an angle 9 in a given direction is equal to
(a) the algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the
given direction
(b) the sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given
direction
(c) the difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of 9
(d) the sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of 9
(e) the sum of the forces multiplied by the tangent of 9.
Ans: a
10.15. Which of the following do not have identical dimensions

?
(a) Momentum and impulse
(b) Torque and energy
(c) Torque and work
30
(d) Kinetic energy and potential energy
(e) Moment of a force and angular momentum.
Ans: e
10.16. Which of the following is not the unit of distance ?

(a) angstrom
(b) light year
(c) micron
(d) millimetre
(e) milestone.
Ans: e
10.17. Which of the following is not the unit of power ?

(a) kW (kilowatt)
(b) hp (horse power)
(c) kcal/sec
(d) kg m/sec
(e) kcal/kg sec.
Ans: e
10.18. Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy

and heat ?
(a) kcal
(b) kg m
(c) kWhr
31
(d) hp
(e) hp hr.
Ans: d
10.19. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure ?

(a) kg/cm
(b) ata
(c) atmosphere
(d) mm of wcl
(e) newton.
Ans: e
10.20. The weight of a body is due to

(a) centripetal force of earth
(b) gravitational pull exerted by the earth
(c) forces experienced by body in atmos-phere
(d) force of attraction experienced by par-ticles
(e) gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the
earth.
Ans: e
10.21. The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of
action do not lie in a plane, are called
(a) coplanar non-concurrent forces
(b) non-coplanar concurrent forces
32
(c) non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(d) intersecting forces
Ans: b
10.22. When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied

(a) coplanar force
(b) non-coplanar forces
(c) lever
(d) moment
(e) couple.
Ans: e
10.23. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity

(a) time
(b) mass
(c) volume
(d) density
(e) acceleration.
Ans: e
10.24. According to principle of transmissibility of forces, the

effect of a force upon a body is
(a) maximum when it acts at the centre of gravity of a body
(b) different at different points in its line of action
33
(c) the same at every point in its line of action
(d) minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the body
Ans: c
10.25. Which of the following is a vector quantity

(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) momentum
(d) angle
(e) speed.
Ans: c
10.26. The magnitude of two forces, which when acting at right

angle produce resultant force of VlOkg and when acting at 60°
produce resultant of Vl3 kg. These forces are
(a) 2 and V6
(b) 3 and 1 kg
(c) V5andV5
(d) 2 and 5
Ans: c
10.27. A number of forces acting at a point will be in

equilibrium if
34
(a) their total sum is zero
(b) two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are
equal
(c) sum of resolved parts in any two per-pendicular directions
are both zero
(d) all of them are inclined equally
Ans: c
10.28. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite

direction
(a) balance each other
(b) constitute a moment
(c) constitute a couple
(d) constitute a moment of couple
(e) constitute a resultant couple.
Ans: c
10.29. According to principle of moments

(a) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their
algebraic sum is zero
(b) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the
algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane
is zero
(c) the algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about
35
any point is equal to moment of theiwesultant about the same
point
(d) positive and negative couples can be balanced
Ans: b
10.30. Which of the following is not a vector quantity

(a) weight
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) force
(e) moment.
Ans: a
10.31. According to law of triangle of forces

(a) three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be represented by a
triangle, each side being proportional to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a patticle are represented in
magnitude and direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in
order, they will be in equi¬librium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force
is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two
Ans: c
36
1033. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three
forces, then
(a) these forces are equal
(b) the lines of action of these forces meet in a point
(c) the lines of action of these forces are parallel
(d) (b) and (c) above
Ans: d
1036. D' Alembert's principle is used for

(a) reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics
problem
(b) determining stresses in the truss
(c) stability of floating bodies
(d) designing safe structures
(e) solving kinematic problems.
Ans: a
1037. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall

may not be in equilibrium, if
(a) the floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(b) the floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(c) the floor and wall both are smooth sur¬faces
(d) the floor and wall both are rough sur-faces
37
(e) will be in equilibrium under all condi-tions.
Ans: c
1038. According to Lami's theorem

(a) three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be represented by a
triangle, each side being proportional to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a particle are represented in
magnitude and
direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be
in equilibrium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force
is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two
Ans: d
1039. Two coplanar couples having equal and op-posite

moments
(b) produce a couple and an unbalanced force
(c) are equivalent
(d) produce a moment of couple
(e) can not balance each other.
Ans: e
38
10.40. A framed structure is perfect if it contains members
equal to
(a) 2n-3
(b) n-l
(c) '2n-l
(d) n - 2
(e) 3n-2.
where n = number of joints in a frame
Ans: a
10.42. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the
couple is called
(a) resultant couple
(b) moment of the forces
(c) resulting couple
(d) moment of the couple
Ans: d
10.43. In detennining stresses in frames by methods of

sections, the frame is divided into two parts by an imaginary
section
drawn in such a way as not to cut more than
(a) two members with unknown forces of the frame
(b) three members with unknown forces of the frame
39
(c) four members with unknown forces of the frame
(d) three members with known forces of the frame
(e) four members with two known forces.
Ans: b
10.44. The centre of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at

(a) the centre of heavy portion
(b) the bottom surface
(c) the mid point of its axis
Ans: c
10.45. Centre of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the

height
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
Ans: a
10.46. Centre of percussion is

(a) the point of C.G.
(b) the point of metacentre
40
(c) the point of application of the resultant of all the forces
tending to cause a body to rotate about a certain axis
(d) point of suspension
(e) the point in a body about which it can rotate horizontally
and oscillate under the influence of gravity.
Ans: c
10.47. Centre of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at

a height of
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
Ans: b
10.48. The units of moment of inertia of an area are

(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) m3
(e) kg/m4.
Ans: b
10.49. The centre of percussion of the homogeneous rod of
41
length L suspended at the top will be
(a) L/2
(b) L/3
(c) 3L/4
(d) 2L/3
(e) 3L/8.
Ans: d
10.50. The centre of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of

(a) concurrence of the medians
(b) intersection of its altitudes
(c) intersection of bisector of angles
(d) intersection of diagonals
Ans: a
10.51. The units of moment of inertia of mass are

(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) kg/m
(e) m2/kg.
Ans: a
10.52. The possible loading in various members of framed
42
structures are
(a) compression or tension
(b) buckling or shear
(c) shear or tension
(e) bending.
Ans: a
10.53. A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal

level and when central dip is very small approaches the
following curve
(a) catenary
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) circular arc.
Ans: b
10.54. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per metre length. The ends
of the wire are attached to two poles 20 metres apart. If the
horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the
span
(a) 2.5 cm
(b) 3.0 cm
(c) 4.0 cm
43
(d) 5.0 cm
(e) 2.0 cm.
Ans: c
10.55. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle

whose diameter is a radius of the plate. Find the e.g. of the
remainder from the centre of circular plate
(a) 0.5 cm
(b) 1.0 cm
(c) 1.5 cm
(d) 2.5 cm
(e) 0.25 cm.
Ans: a
10.58. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :

(a) The C.G. of a circle is at its centre
(b) The C.G. of a triangle is at the inter¬section of its medians
(c) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the inter-section of its diagonals
(d) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a dis¬tance of r/2 from the
centre
(e) The C-G. of an ellipse is at its centre.
Ans: d
10.59. The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius r

resting on a horizontal plane will be
44
(a) r/2
(b) 2r/3
(c) r/A
(d) 3r/2
(e) 3r/A.
Ans: d
10.62. In the equation of virtual work, following force is

neglected
(a) reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in
contact
(b) reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it
without slipping
(c) reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a
body is con-strained to turn
Ans: d
10.63. If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion,

then the pressure on die axis passing through the point of
suspension will be
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
45
(d) infinity
(e) same as the force applied.
Ans: c
10.65. The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force,

0.5 m arm, $ ve sense 30 kg force, 1 m arm, - ve sense 40 kg
force, 0.25 m arm, + ve sense having arm of 0.5 m will be
(a) 20 kg, - ve sense
(ft) 20 kg, + ve sense
(c) 10 kg, + ve sense
(d) 10 kg, - ve sense
(e) 45 kg, + ve sense.
Ans: a
10.68. Angle oT friction is the

(a) angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal
reaction and the limiting friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(ey the ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force
acting when the body is just about to move
(d) the ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting
when the body is in motion
(e) ratio of static and dynamic friction.
Ans: a
46
10.69. The coefficient of friction depends on
(a) area of contact
(b) shape of surfaces
(c) strength of surfaces
(d) nature of surface
Ans: d
10.70. Least force required to draw a body up the inclined

plane is W sin (plane inclination + friction angle) applied in the
direction
(a) along the plane
(b) horizontally
(c) vertically
(d) at an angle equal to the angle of fric¬tion to the inclined
plane
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d
10.71. The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is

known as
(a) coefficient of friction
(b) angle of friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) sliding friction
47
(e) friction resistance.
Ans:
10.72. Which one of the following statements is not correct

(a) the tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of
friction
(b) the angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
(c) the tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of
friction
(d) the sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to
friction
Ans: d
10.73. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning

against vertical wall, the force of friction will be
(a) towards the wall at its upper end
(b) away from the wall at its upper end
(c) upwards at its upper end
(d) downwards at its upper end
Ans: c
10.74. On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against

a smooth vertical wall, the force of friction will be
48
(a) downwards at its upper end
(b) upwards at its upper end
(c) perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
(d) zero at its upper end
Ans: d
10.76. Frictional force encountered after commencement of

motion is called
(a) post friction
(b) limiting friction
(c) kinematic friction
(d) frictional resistance
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: e
10.77. Coefficient of friction is the

(a) angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal
reaction and the limiting friction
(c) the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(d) the friction force acting when the body is in motion
(e) tangent of angle of repose.
Ans: b
49
10.78. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry
surfaces. Friction force is
(a) proportional to normal load between the surfaces
(b) dependent on the materials of contact surface
(c) proportional to velocity of sliding
(d) independent of the area of contact sur-faces
(e) none of the above is wrong statement.
Ans: c
10.79. A body of weight W on inclined plane of a being pulled

up by a horizontal force P will be on the point of motion up the
plane when P is equal to
(a) W
(b) W sin (a + $)
(c) Wtan(a + <|))
(d) W\an(a-<t>)
(e) Wtana.
Ans: c
10.80. A particle moves along a straight line such that distance

(x) traversed in t seconds is given by x = t2 (t - 4), the
acceleration of the particle will be given by the equation
(a) 3t2-lt
(b) 3t2+2t
(c) 6f-8
50
(d) 6f-4
(e) 6t2-8t.
Ans: c
10.81. If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the

movement of a pedestrain, he has to hold his umbrella
(a) more inclined when moving
(b) less inclined when moving
(c) more inclined when standing
(d) less inclined when standing
Ans: d
10.86. A projectile is fired at an angle 9 to the vertical. Its

horizontal range will be maximum when 9 is
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°
(e) 90°.
Ans: c
10.88. Limiting force of friction is the

(a) tangent of angle between normal-reac-tion and the
resultant of normal reac-tion and limiting friction
51
(e) minimum force of friction.
Ans: c
10.89. Coulomb friction is the friction between

(a) bodies having relative motion
(b) two dry surfaces
(c) two lubricated surfaces
(d) solids and liquids
(e) electrically charged particles.
Ans: a
10.90. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is

(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less of more depending on na-ture of surfaces and
velocity
(e) has no correlation.
Ans: c
10.92. Tangent of angle of friction is equal to

(a) kinetic friction
52
(c) angle of repose
(d) coefficient of friction
(e) friction force.
Ans: d
10.93. Kinetic friction is the

(a) tangent of angle between normal reac-tion and the
resultant of normal reac-tion and the limiting friction
Ans: d
95. The effort required to lift a load W on a screw jack with

helix angle a and angle of friction <j) is equal to
(a) Wtan(a + <)>)
(b) Wtan(a-<)>)
(c) Wcos(a + <t>)
(d) Wsin(a + <(>)
(e) W (sin a + cos <j>).
Ans: a
10.96. A semi-circular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its
53
top flat surface horizontal and circular portion touching down.
The coefficient of friction between semi-cricular disc and
horizontal surface is \i. This disc is to be pulled by a horizontal
force applied at one edge and it always remains horizontal.
When the disc is about to start moving, its top horizontal force
will
(a) remain horizontal
(b) slant up towards direction of pull
(c) slant down towards direction of pull
(d) unpredictable
Ans: c
10.97. A particle inside a hollow sphere of radius r, having

coefficient of friction -rr can rest upto height of
(a) r/2
(b) r/A
(c) r/%
(d) 0.134 r
(e) 3r/8.
Ans: d
10.98. The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming

couple about any point in their plane is
(a) equal to the moment of the couple
54
(b) constant
(c) both of above are correct
(d) both of above are wrong
Ans: a
10.99. A single force and a couple acting in the

same plane upon a rigid body
(b) cannot balance each other
(c) produce moment of a couple
(d) are equivalent
Ans: b
10.100. If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body,

keep it in equilibrium, then they must either
(a) meet in a point
(b) be all parallel
(c) at least two of them must meet
(d) all the above are correct
Ans: d
10.101. The maximum frictional force which comes into play
55
when a body just begins to slide over another surface is called
(a) limiting friction
(b) sliding friction
(c) rolling friction
(d) kinematic friction
Ans: a
10.102. The co-efficient of friction depends upon

(a) nature of surfaces
(b), area of contact
(c) shape of the surfaces
(d) ail of the above.
(e) (a) and (b) above.
Ans: a
10.104. The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium

is that these should be
(a) coplanar
(b) meet at one point ;
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) all be equal
(e) something else.
Ans: c
56
10.105. If three forces acting in different planes can be
represented by a triangle, these will be in
(a) non-equilibrium
(b) partial equilibrium
(c) full equilibrium
(d) unpredictable
Ans: a
10.106. If n = number of members andy = number of joints,

then for a perfect frame, n =
(a) j-2
(b)2j-l
(c) 2/-3
(d)3/-2
(e) 2/ -4.
Ans: c
10.107. A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration

of 5 m per sec. The distance covered in 5 sec is most nearly
(a) 38 m
(b) 62.5 m
(C) 96 m
(d) 124 m
(e) 240 m.
57
Ans: b
10.108. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6

sec. The number of revolutions made is nearly equal to
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 250
(e) 500.
Ans: b
10.110. Which of the following is the locus of a point that

moves in such a manner that its distance from a fixed point is
equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a constant
greater than one
(a) ellipse
(b) hyperbola
(c) parabola
(d) circle
Ans: b
10.111. Which of the following is not the unit of energy

(a) kg m
(b) kcal
58
(c) wattr
(d) watt hours
(e) kg m x (m/sec)2.
Ans: c
10.112. A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in

water, 120 gms in an unknown fluid. Then which is correct
statement about density of metal
(a) density of metal can't be determined
(b) metal is twice as dense as water
(c) metal will float in water
(d) metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
Ans: a
10.113. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius

3r
(a) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(b) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(c) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(d) at distance — from the plane base or
(e) at distance — from the plane base.
Ans: d
10.117. The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical
59
centre in the case of a
(a) right angled triangle
(b) equilateral triangle
(c) square
(d) circle
(e) rectangle.
Ans: a
10.119. The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at

the following distance from the base
(a) h/2
(b) J/3
(c) h/6
(d) h/4
(e) 3/i/5.
Ans: d
10.122. The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis

perpendicular to section as compared to its M.I. about
horizontal axis is
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
(e) one fourth.
60
Ans: b
10.126. Which of the following is the example of lever of first

order
(a) arm of man
(b) pair of scissors
(c) pair of clinical tongs
Ans: d
10.127. A pair of smith's tongs is an example of the lever of

(a) zeioth order
(b) first order
(c) second order
(d) third order
(e) fourth order.
Ans: c
10.128. In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum

F are oriented as follows
(a) W between P and F
(b) F between W and P
(c) P between W and F
(d) W, P and F all on one side
61
Ans: a
10.129. The angle which an inclined plane makes with the

horizontal when a body placed on it is about to move down is
known as angle of
(a) friction
(c) repose
(d) kinematic friction
(e) static friction.
Ans: c
10.130. In actual machines

(a) mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(b) mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(c) mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(d) mechanical advantage is unity
Ans: c
10.131. In ideal machines

(a) mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(b) mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(c) mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
62
(d) mechanical advantage is unity
Ans: b
10.136. A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal

metre run will take the following shape
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) part of a circle.
Ans: b
Strength of Materials - Mechanical Engineering Multiple

1 Strain is defined as the ratio of

(a) change in volume to original volume
(b) change in length to original length
(c) change in cross-sectional area to original cross-sectional
area
63
Ans: d
2. Hooke's law holds good upto
(a) yield point
(b) limit of proportionality
(c) breaking point
(d) elastic limit
(e) plastic limit.
Ans: b
3. Young's modulus is defined as the ratio of
(a) volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(b) lateral stress and lateral strain
(c) longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(d) shear stress to shear strain
(e) longitudinal stress and lateral strain.
Ans: c
4. The unit of Young's modulus is
(a) mm/mm
(b) kg/cm
(c) kg
(d) kg/cm2
(e) kg cm2.
Ans: d
5. Deformation per unit length in the direction of force is
known as
64
(a) strain
(b) lateral strain
(c) linear strain
(d) linear stress
(e) unit strain.
Ans: c
6. It equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend to
elongate it, the stress so produced is called
(a) internal resistance
(b) tensile stress
(c) transverse stress
(e) working stress.
Ans: b
7. The materials having same elastic properties in all
directions are called
(a) ideal materials
(b) uniform materials
(c) isotropic materials
(d) practical materials
(e) elastic materials.
Ans: c
8. A thin mild steel wire is loaded by adding loads in equal

increments till it breaks. The extensions noted with increasing
65
loads will behave as under
(a) uniform throughout
(b) increase uniformly
(c) first increase and then decrease
(d) increase uniformly first and then in-crease rapidly
(e) increase rapidly first and then uniformly.
Ans: d
9. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of

(b) volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(c) lateral stress and lateral strain
(d) shear stress and shear strain
(e) linear stress and lateral strain.
Ans: d
10. If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then

its Young's modulus will be
(a) doubled
(b) halved
(c) become four times
(d) become one-fourth
(e) remain unaffected.
Ans: e
66
11. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel compared to
ultimate compressive stress is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) more or less depending on other factors
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
12. Tensile strength of a material is obtained by dividing the

maximum load during the test by the
(a) area at the time of fracture
(b) original cross-sectional area
(c) average of (a) and (b)
(d) minimum area after fracture
Ans: b
13. The impact strength of a material is an index of its

(a) toughness
(b) tensile strength
(c) capability of being cold worked
(d) hardness
(e) fatigue strength.
Ans: a
67
14. The Young's modulus of a wire is defined as the stress
which will increase the length of wire compared to its original
length
(a) half
(b) same amount
(c) double
(d) one-fourth
(e) four times.
Ans: b
15. Percentage reduction of area in performing tensile test on

cast iron may be of the order of
(a) 50%
(b) 25%
(c) 0%
(d) 15%
(e) 60%.
Ans: c
16. The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called

(a) unit stress
(b) bulk modulus
68
(e) principal stress.
Ans: d
17. True stress-strain curve for materials is plotted between

(a) load/original cross-sectional area and change in
(b) load/instantaneous cross-sectional area original area and
log.
(c) load/instantaneous cross-sectional area and change in
(d) load/instantaneous area and instantaneous area/original
area
Ans: b
18. During a tensile test on a specimen of 1 cm cross-section,

maximum load observed was 8 tonnes and area of cross-section
at neck was 0.5 cm2. Ultimate tensile strength of specimen is
(a) 4 tonnes/cm2
(b) 8 tonnes/cm2
(c) 16 tonnes/cm2
(d) 22 tonnes/cm2
Ans: b
69
19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in
tension is nearly
(a) same
(b) half
(c) one-third
(d) two-third
(e) one-fourth.
Ans: b
20. Which of the following has no unit

(a) kinematic viscosity
(b) surface tension
(c) bulk modulus
(d) strain
(e) elasticity.
Ans: d
21. Which is the false statement about true stress-strain

method
(a) It does not exist
(b) It is more sensitive to changes in both metallurgical and
mechanical conditions
(c) It gives, a more accurate picture of the ductility
(d) It can be correlated with stress-strain values in other tests
like torsion, impact, combined stress tests etc.
70
(e) It can be used for compression tests as well.
Ans: a
22. In a tensile test on mild steel specimen, the breaking

stress as compared to ultimate tensile stress is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on composition
(e) may have any value.
Ans: b
23. If a part is constrained to move and heated, it will develop

(a) principal stress
(b) tensile stress
(c) compressive stress
(d) shear stress
(e) no stress.
Ans: c
24. Which of the following materials is most elastic

(a) rubber
(b) plastic
(c) brass
(d) steel
71
(e) glass.
Ans: d
25. The value of modulus of elasticity for mild steel is of the

order of
(a) 2.1xl05 kg/cm2
(b) 2.1 X 106 kg/cm2
(c) 2.1 x 107 kg/cm2
(d) 0.1 xlO6 kg/cm2 (<?) 3.8 x 106 kg/cm2.
Ans: b
26. The value of Poisson's ratio for steel is between

(a) 0.01 to 0.1
(b) 0.23 to 0.27
(c) 0.25 to 0.33
(d) 0.4 to 0.6
(e) 3 to 4.
Ans: c
27. The buckling load for a given material depends on

(a) slenderness ratio and area of cross-section
(b) Poisson's ratio and modulus of elasticity
(c) slenderness ratio and modulus of elasticity
(d) slenderness ratio, area of cross-section and modulus of
elasticity
72
(e) Poisson's ratio and slenderness ratio.
Ans: d
28. The total elongation produced in a bar of uniform section

hanging vertically downwards due to its own weight is equal to
that produced by a weight
(a) of same magnitude as that of bar and applied at the lower
end
(b) half the weight of bar applied at lower end
(c) half of the square of weight of bar applied at lower end
(d) one-fourth of weight of bar applied at lower end
Ans: b
29. The property of a material by virtue of which a body

returns to its original, shape after removal of the load is called
(a) plasticity
(b) elasticity
(c) ductility
(d) malleability
(e) resilience.
Ans: b
30. The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in

all directions are called
73
(a) homogeneous
(b) inelastic
(c) isotropic
(d) isotropic
(e) relativistic.
Ans: c
31. The value of Poisson's ratio for cast iron is

(a) 0.1 to 0.2
(b) 0.23 to 0.27
(c) 0.25 to 0.33
(d) 0.4 to 0.6
(e) 3 to 4.
Ans: b
32. The property of a material which allows it to be drawn

into a smaller section is called
(a) plasticity
(b) ductility
(c) elasticity
(d) malleability
(e) durability.
Ans: b
33. Poisson's ratio is defined as the ratio of
74
(b) longitudinal stress and lateral stress
(c) lateral stress and longitudinal stress
(d) lateral stress and lateral strain
Ans: c
34. For which material the Poisson's ratio is more than unity
(a) steel
(b) copper
(c) aluminum
(d) cast iron
Ans: e
35. The property of a material by virtue of which it can be

beaten or rolled into plates is called
(a) malleability
(b) ductility
(c) plasticity
(d) elasticity
(e) reliability.
Ans: a
36. The change in the unit volume of a material under tension
75
with increase in its Poisson's ratio will ,
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase initially and then decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
37. The percentage reduction in area of a cast iron specimen

during tensile test would be of the order of
(a) more than 50%
(b) 25—50%
(c) 10—25%
(d) 5—10%
(e) negligible.
Ans: e
38. If a material expands freely due to heating it will develop

(a) thermal stresses
(b) tensile stress
(c) bending
(e) no stress.
Ans: e
76
39. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone, the
(a) tensile strain increases more quickly
(b) tensile strain decreases more quickly
(c) tensile strain increases in proportion to the stress
(d) tensile strain decreases in proportion to the stress
(e) tensile strain remains constant.
Ans: a
40. The stress necessary to initiate yielding is

(a) considerably greater than that necessary to continue it
(b) considerably lesser than that necessary to continue it
(c) greater than that necessary to stop it
(d) lesser than that necessary to stop it
(e) equal to that necessary to stop it.
Ans: a
41. In the tensile test, the phenomenon of slow extension of

the material, i. e. stress increasing with the time at a constant
load is called
(a) creeping
(b) yielding
(c) breaking
(d) plasticity
Ans: a
77
42. The stress developed in a material at breaking point in
extension is called
(a) breaking stress
(b) fracture stress
(c) yield point stress
(d) ultimate tensile stress
(e) proof stress.
Ans: a
43. Rupture stress is

(a) breaking stress
(b) maximum load/original cross-section¬al area 04)
(c) load at breaking point/A
(d) load at breaking point/neck area
(e) maximum stress.
Ans: d
44. The elasticity of various materials is controlled by its

(a) ultimate tensile stress
(b) proof stress
(c) stress at yield point
(d) stress at elastic limit
(e) tensile stress.
Ans: d
78
45. The ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain within elastic
limit is known as
(a) Young's modulus
(b) bulk modulus
Ans: e
46. The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain in case of a

body subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses of
equal intensity, is equal to
(a) Young's modulus
(b) bulk modulus
Ans: b
47. The stress at which extension of the material takes place

more quickly as com¬pared to the increase in load is called
(a) elastic point of the material
(b) plastic point of the material
(c) breaking point of the material
79
(d) yielding point of the material
(e) ultimate point of the material.
Ans: d
48. In question 56, the internal reaction in bottom 80 cm

length will be
(a) same in both cases
(b) zero in first case
(c) different in both cases
(d) data are not sufficient to determine same
Ans: b
49. Flow stress corresponds to

(a) fluids in motion
(b) breaking point
(c) plastic deformation of solids
(d) rupture stress
Ans: c
50. When it is indicated that a member is elastic, it means

that when force is applied, it will
(a) not deform
(b) be safest
80
(c) stretch
(d) not stretch
Ans: c
51. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within

the elastic limits, is known as
(a) strain energy
(b) resilience
(e) toughness..
Ans: a
52. Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected

to
(a) frequent heat treatment
(b) fatigue
(c) creep
(d) shock loading
(e) resonant condition.
Ans: d
53. The maximum strain energy that can be stored in a body is

known as
81
(a) impact energy
(b) resilience
(e) toughness.
Ans: c
54. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as

(a) resilience
(d) toughness
(e) impact energy.
Ans: a
55. Proof resilience per material is known as

(a) resilience
(d) toughness
(e) impact energy.
Ans: c
56. The stress induced in a body due to suddenly applied load

compared to when it is applied gradually is
82
(a) same
(b) half
(c) two times
(d) four times
Ans: c
57. The strain energy stored in a body due to suddenly

applied load compared to when it is applied gradually is
(a) same
(b) twice
(c) four times
(d) eight times
(e) half.
Ans: c
58. A material capable of absorbing large amount of energy

before fracture is known as
(a) ductility
(b) toughness
(c) resilience
(d) shock proof
(e) plasticity.
Ans: b
83
59. Coaxing is the method of increasing
(a) strength by reversible cycling
(b) corrosion resistance by spraying
(c) hardness by surface treatment
(d) fatigue resistance by over-stressing the metal by
successively increasing loadings
(e) creep by head treatment.
Ans:
60. A beam is loaded as cantilever. If the load at the end is

increased, the failure will occur
(a) in the middle
(b) at the tip below the load
(c) at the support
(d) anywhere
Ans: d
61. A non-yielding support implies that the

(a) support is frictionless
(b) support can take any amount of reaction
(c) support holds member firmly
(d) slope of the beam at the support is zero
Ans: d
84
62. The ratio of elongation in a prismatic bar due to its own
weight (W) as compared to another similar bar carrying an
additional weight (W) will be
(a) 1:2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 1 : 2.5
(e) 1 : 2.25.
Ans: b
63. In a prismatic member made of two materials so joined that

they deform equal¬ly under axial stress, the unit stresses in two
materials are
(a) equal
(b) proportional to their respective moduli of elasticity
(c) inversely proportional to their moduli of elasticity
(d) average of the sum of moduli of elasticity
Ans: b
64. In riveted boiler joints, all stresses, shearing, bearing and

tensile are based on the
(a) size of rivet
(b) size of the drilled or reamed hole
85
(c) average of size of rivet and hole
(d) smaller of the two
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: b
65. The distance between the centers of the rivets in adjacent

rows of zig-zag riveted joint is known as
(a) pitch
(b) back pitch
(c) diagonal pitch
(d) diametral pitch
(e) lap.
Ans: c
66. Efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of its strength (max.

load it can resist without failure) to the strength of the
unpunished plate in
(a) tension
(b) compression
(c) bearing
Ans: a
67. When two plates are butt together and riveted with cover
86
plates with two rows of rivets, the joi;it is known as
(a) lap point
(b) butt joint
(c) single riveted single cover butt joint
(d) double riveted double cover butt joint
(e) single riveted double cover butt joint.
Ans: d
68. A riveted joint in which every rivet of a row is opposite to

other rivet of the outer row, is known as
Ans: a
69. A riveted joint in which the number otrivets decrease

from innermost to outer most row is called
Ans: b
87
70. If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and the
outermost row has only one rivet, the arrangement of the
rivets is called
(a) chain riveting
(b) zig zag riveting
(c) diamond riveting
(d) cross-cross riveting
Ans: c
71. Diamond riveted joint can be adopted in the case of

following type of joint
(a) butt joint
(b) lap joint
(c) double riveted lap joints
(d) all types of joints
Ans: a
72. Rivets are made of following type of material

(a) tough
(b) hard
(c) resilient
(d) ductile
88
(e) malleable.
Ans: d
73. The weakest section of a diamond riveting is the section

which passes through
(a) the first row
(b) the second row
(c) the central row
(d) one rivet hole of the end row
Ans: d
74. The deformation of a bar under its own weight compared

to the deformation of same body subjected to a direct load
equal to weight of the body is
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
(e) one-fourth.
Ans: c
75. The force acting along the circumference will cause stress
in the walls in a direction normal to the longitudinal axis of
cylinder; this stress is called
89
(a) longitudinal stress
(b) hoop stress
(c) yeiled stress
(d) ultimate stress
Ans: b
76. A boiler shell 200 cm diameter and plate thickness 1.5 cm

is subjected to internal pressure of 1.5 MN/m , then the hoop
stress will be
(a) 30 MN/m2
(b) 50 MN/m2
(c) 100 MN/m2
(d) 200 MN/m2
(e) 300 MN/m2.
Ans: c
77. A cylindrical section having no joint is known as

(a) joint less section
(b) homogeneous section
(c) perfect section
(d) manufactured section
(e) seamless section.
Ans: e
90
78. Longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder is
(a) equal to the hoop stress
(b) twice the hoop stress
(c) half of the hoop stress
(d) one-fourth of hoop stress
(e) four times the hoop stress.
Ans: c
79. The safe twisting moment for a compound shaft is equal

to the
(a) maximum calculated value
(b) minimum calculated value
(c) mean value
(d) extreme value
Ans: b
80. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is expressed by the

(a) maximum torque it can transmit
(b) number of cycles it undergoes before failure
(c) elastic limit upto which it resists torsion, shear and
bending stresses
(d) torque required to produce a twist of one radian per unit
length of shaft
(e) maximum power it can transmit at highest possible-speed.
91
Ans: d
81. The value of shear stress which is induced in the shaft due
to the applied couple varies
(a) from maximum at the centre to zero at the circumference
(b) from zero at the centre to maximum at the circumference
(c) from maximum at the centre to mini-mum at the
cricumference
(d) from minimum at the centre to maxi-mum at the
circumference
Ans: b
82. A key is subjected to side pressure as well at shearing

forces. These pressures are called
(a) bearing stresses
(b) fatigue stresses
(c) crushing stresses
(d) resultant stresses
Ans: a
83. In a belt drive, the pulley diameter is doubled, the belt

tension and pulley width remaining same. The changes
required in key will be
92
(a) increase key length
(b) increase key depth
(c) increase key width
(d) double all the dimensions
Ans: c
84. Shear stress induced in a shaft subjected to tension will be

(a) maximum at periphery and zero at center
(b) maximum at center
(c) uniform throughout
(d) average value in center
Ans: e
Theory of Machines - Mechanical Engineering Multiple

1. Which of the following disciplines provides study of

inertia forces arising from the combined effect of the mass
and the motion of the parts
(a) theory of machines
(b) applied mechanics
(c) mechanisms
93
(d) kinetics
(e) kinematics.
Ans: d
2. Which of the following disciplines provides study of
relative motion between the parts of a machine
(c) mechanisms
(d) kinetics
(e) kinematics.
Ans: e
3. Which of the following disciplines provides study of the
relative motion between the parts of a machine and the
forces acting on the parts
(c) mechanisms
(d) kinetics
(e) kinematics.
Ans: a
4. The type of pair formed by two elements which are so
connected that one is constrained to turn or revolve about a
fixed axis of another element is known as
(a) turning pair
94
(b) rolling pair
(c) sliding pair
(d) spherical pair
(e) lower pair,
Ans: a
5. Which of the following is a lower pair
(a) ball and socket
(b) piston and cylinder
(c) cam and follower
(d) (a) and (b) above
(e) belt drive.
Ans: d
6. If two moving elements have surface contact in motion,
such pair is known as
(a) sliding pair
(b) rolling pair
(c) surface pair
(d) lower pair
(e) higher pair.
Ans: e
7. The example of lower pair is

(a) shaft revolving in a bearing
(b) straight line motion mechanisms
(c) automobile steering gear
95
Ans: d
8. Pulley in a belt drive acts as

(a) cylindrical pair
(b) turning pair
(c) rolling pair
(d) sliding pair
(e) surface pair.
Ans: c
9. The example of rolling pair is

(a) bolt and nut
(b) lead screw of a lathe
(c) ball and socket joint
(d) ball bearing and roller bearing
Ans: d
10. Any point on a link connecting double slider crank

chain will trace a
(a) straight line
(b) circle
(c) ellipse
(d) parabola
(e) hyperbola.
Ans: c
11. Theipurpose of a link is to

(a) transmit motion
96
(b) guide other links
(c) act as a support
Ans: d
12. A universal joint is an example of

(a) higher pair
(b) lower pair
(c) rolling pair
(d) sliding pair
(e) turning pair.
Ans: b
13. Rectilinear motion of piston is converted into rotary by

(a) cross head
(b) slider crank
(c) connecting rod
(d) gudgeon pin
(e) four bar chain mechanism.
Ans: b
14. Pitch point on a cam is

(a) any point on pitch curve
(b) the point on cam pitch curve having the maximum
pressure angle
(c) any point on pitch circle
(d) the point on cam pitch curve having the minimum
pressure angle
Ans: b
97
15. The values of velocity and acceleration of piston at near
dead center for a slider-crank mechanism will be
(a) 0, and more than co2r
(b) 0, and less than coV
(c) 0, 0
(d) cor, 0
Ans: a
16. The example of spherical pair is

(a) bolt andnut
(b) lead screw of a lathe
(c) ball and socket joint
(d) ball bearing and roller bearing
(e) none qf the above.
Ans: c
17. Cross head and guides form a

(a) lower pair
(b) higher pair
(c) turning pair
(d) rolling pair
(e) sliding pair.
Ans: e
19. A circular bar moving in a round hole is an example of

(a) incompletely constrained motion
(b) partially constrained motion
(c) completely constrained motion
(d) successfully constrained motion
98
(e) none of the above
Ans: a
20. If some links are connected such that motion between

them can take place in more than one direction, it is called
Ans: a
21. If there are L number of links in a mechanism then

number of possible inversions is equal to
(a) L + 1
(b) L - 1
(c) L
(d) L + 2
(e) L - 2.
Ans: c
22. Kinematic pairs are those which have two elements

that
(a) have line contact
(b) have surface contact
(c) permit relative motion
(d) are held together
(e) have dynamic forces.
Ans: c
24. The lower pair is a

99
(a) open pair
(b) closed pair
(c) sliding pair
(d) point contact pair
(e) does not exist.
Ans: b
25. Automobile steering gear is an example of

(a) higher pair
(b) sliding pair
(c) turning pair
(d) rotary pair
(e) lower pair.
Ans: e
26. In higher pair, the relative motion is

(a) purely turning
(b) purely sliding
(c) purely rotary
(d) purely surface contact
(e) combination of sliding and turning.
Ans: e
27. Which of the following has sliding motion

(a) crank
(b) connecting rod
(c) crank pin
(d) cross-head
(e) cross head guide.
Ans: d
100
28. Theji example of higher pair is
(a) belt, rope and chain drives
(b) gears, cams
(c) ball and roller bearings
Ans: d
29. Which of the following mechanism is obtained from

lower pair
(a) gyroscope
(b) pantograph
(c) valve and valve gears
(d) generated straight line motions
Ans: e
30. Which of the following would constitute a link

(a) piston, piston rings and gudgeon pin
(b) piston, and piston rod
(c) piston rod and cross head
(d) piston, crank pin and crank shaft
(e) piston, piston-rod and cross head.
Ans: e
31. The Scott-Russell mechanism consists of

(a) sliding and turning pairs
(b) sliding and rotary pairs
(c) turning and rotary pairs
(d) sliding pairs only
(e) turning pairs only.
101
Ans: a
32. Davis steering gear consists of

(a) sliding pairs
(b) turning pairs
(c) rolling pairs
(d) higher pairs
(e) lower pairs.
Ans: a
33. Ackermann steering gear consists of

(a) sliding pairs
(b) turning pairs
(c) rolling pairs
(d) higher pairs
(e) lower pairs.
Ans: b
34. A completely constrained motion can be transmitted

with .
(a) 1 link with pin joints
(b) 2 links with pin joints
(c) 3 links with pin joints
(d) 4 links with pin joints
Ans: d
36. Oldham's coupling is the

(a) second inversion of double slider crank chain
(b) third inversion of double slider crank chain
(c) second inversion of single slider crank chain
102
(d) third inversion of slider crank chain
(e) fourth inversion of double slider crank chain.
Ans: b
37. Sense of tangential acceleration of a link

(a) is same as that of velocity
(b) is opposite to that of velocity
(c) could be either same or opposite to velocity
(d) is perpendicular to that of velocity
Ans: c
38. A mechanism is an assemblage of

(a) two links
(b) three links
(c) four links or more than four links
Ans: c
39. The number of links in pantograph mechanism is equal

to
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6.
Ans: c
40. Elements of pairs held together mechanically is known

as
103
(a) closed pair
(b) open pair
(c) mechanical pair
(d) rolling pair
Ans: a
41. Shaft revolving in a bearing is the following type of

pair
(a) lower pair
(b) higher pair
(c) spherical pair,
(d) cylindrical pair
(e) bearing pair.
Ans: a
42. Rectangular bar in a rectangular hole is the following

type of pair
(a) completely constrained motion
(c) incompletely constrained motion
(d) freely constrained motion
Ans: a
43. A foot step bearing and rotor of a vertical turbine form

examples of
104
Ans: b
44. A slider crank chain consists of following numbers of

turning and sliding pairs
(a) I, 3
(b) 2, 2
(c) 3, 1
(d) 4, 0
(e) 0, 4.
Ans: c
46. Relationship between the number of links (L) and

number of pairs (P) is
(a) P = 2L-4
(b) P = 2L + 4
(c) P = 2L+2
(d) P = 2L-2
(e) P = L-4.
Ans: c
2.49. In problem 47, the chain is unconstrained when

(a) L.H.S. = R.H.S.
(b) L.H.S. > R.H.S.
(c) L.H.S. < R.H.S.
(d) there is no such criterion for checking above
requirement
Ans: c
50. In problem 47, the chain is constrained when

105
(a) L.H.S. = R.H.S.
(b) L.H.S. < R.H.S.
(c) L.H.S. > R.H.S.
(d) there is no such criterion for checking above
requirement
Ans: a
51. The tendency of a body to resist change from rest or

motion is known as
(a) mass
(b) friction
(c) inertia
(d) resisting force
(e) resisting torque.
Ans: c
53. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes
are neither in same straight line nor parallel, but intersect is
(a) flexible coupling
(b) universal coupling
(c) chain coupling
(d) Oldham's coupling
(e) American coupling.
Ans: b
54. The advantage of the piston valve over D-slide valve is

that in the former case
(a) wear is less
(b) power absorbed is less
(c) both wear and power absorbed are low
106
(d) the pressure developed being high provides tight
sealing
(e) there is overall economy of initial cost, maintenance
and operation.
Ans: c
55. Flexible coupling is used because

(a) it is easy to disassemble
(b) it is easy to engage and disengage
(c) it transmits shocks gradually
(d) it prevents shock transmission and eliminates stress
reversals
(e) it increases shaft life.
Ans: d
56. With single Hooke's joint it is possible to connect two

shafts, the axes of which have an angular misalignment up to
(a) 10°
(b) 20°
(c) 30°
(d) 40°
(e) 60°.
Ans: d
57. The Hooke's joint consists of :

(a) two forks
(b) one fork
(c) three forks
(d) four forks
(e) five forks.
107
Ans: a
58. The Klein's method of construction for reciprocating

engine mechanism
(a) is based on acceleration diagram
(b) is a simplified form of instantaneous center method
(c) utilities a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of
mechanism for reciprocating engine
(d) enables determination of Corioli's component
Ans: c
59. It is required to connect two parallel shafts, the

distance between whose axes is small and variable. The
shafts are coupled by
(a) universal joint
(b) knuckle joint
(c) Oldham's coupling
(d) flexible coupling
(e) electromagnetic coupling.
Ans: c
60. The e.g. of a link in any mechanism would experience

(a) no acceleration
(b) linear acceleration
(c) angular acceleration
(d) both angular and linear accelerations
Ans: d
61. In elliptical trammels

108
(a) all four pairs are turning
(b) three pairs turning and one pair sliding
(c) two pairs turning and two pairs sliding
(d) one pair turning and three pairs sliding
(e) all four pairs sliding.
Ans: c
62. In automobiles the power is transmitted from gear box

to differential through
(a) bevel gear
(b) universal joint
(c) Hooke's joint
(d) Knuckle joint
(e) Oldham's coupling.
Ans: c
63. The indicator using Watt mechanism is known as

(a) Thompson indicator
(b) Richard indicator
(c) Simplex indicator
(d) Thomson indicator
Ans: b
64. The Ackermann steering mechanism is preferred to the

Davis type in automobiles because
(a) the former is mathematically accurate
(b) the former is having turning pair
(c) the former is most economical
(d) the former is most rigid
(e) none of thfr above.
109
Ans: b
12-65. Transmission of power from the engine to the rear

axle of an automobile is by means of
(a) compound gears
(b) worm and wheel method
(c) Hooke's joint
(d) crown gear
(e) bevel gears.
Ans: c
66. When a ship travels in a sea, which of the effect is more

dangerous
(a) steering
(b) pitching
(c) rolling
Ans: b
67. In an ideal machine, the output as compared to input is

(a) less
(b) more
(c) equal
(d) may be less or more depending on efficiency
(e) always less.
Ans: c
68. Governor is used in automobile to

(a) decrease the variation of speed
(b) to control
110
(c) to control SN
Ans: c
69. In gramophones for adjusting the speed of the turntable,

the following type of governor is commonly employed
(a) Hartung governor
(b) Wilson Hartnell governor
(c) Pickering governor
(d) Inertia governor
Ans: c
70. For fluctuating loads, welsuited bearing is

(a) ball bearing
(b) roller bearing
(c) needle roller bearing
(d) thrust bearing
(e) sleeve bearing.
Ans: c
71. Crowning on pulleys helps

(a) in increasing velocity ratio
(b) in decreasing the slip of the belt
(c) for automatic adjustment of belt position so that belt
runs centrally
(d) increase belt and pulley life
Ans: c
111
72. Idler pulley is used
(a) for changing the direction of motion of the belt
(b) for applying tension
(c) for increasing -velocity ratio
Ans: b
73. In multi-V-belt transmission, if one of the belt is

broken, we have to change the
(a) broken belt
(b) broken belt and its adjacent belts
(c) all the belts
(d) there is no need of changing any one as remaining belts
can take care of transmission of load
(e) all the weak belts.
Ans: c
74. The moment on the pulley which produces rotation is

called
(a) inertia
(b) momentum
(c) moment of momentum
(d) work
(e) torque.
Ans: e
75. Creep in belt drive is due to

(a) material of the pulley
(b) material of the belt
(c) larger size of the driver pulley
112
(d) uneven extensions and contractions due to varying
tension
(e) expansion of belt.
Ans: d
76. TJie horse power transmitted by a belt is dependent

upon
(a) tension on tight side of belt
(b) tension on slack side of belt
(c) radius of pulley
(d) speed of pulley
Ans: e
77. The locus of a point on a thread unwound from a

cylinder will be
(a) a straight line
(b) a circle
(c) involute
(d) cycloid
(e) helix.
Ans: c
78. To transmit power from one rotating shaft to another

whose axes are neither parallel nor intersecting, use
(a) spur gear
(b) spiral gear
(c) bevel gear
(d) worm gear
(e) crown gear.
Ans: d
113
79. For S.H.M. cam, the acceleration of the follower at the
ends of the stroke and aimidstroke respectively, is
(a) maximum and zero
(b) zero and maximum
(c) minimum and maximum
(d) zero and minimum
(e) maximum and minimum.
Ans: a
80. Throw of a cam is the maximum distance of the

follower from
(a) base circle
(b) pitch circle
(c) root circle
(d) prime circle
(e) inner circle.
Ans: a
81. To obviate axial thrust, following gear drive is used

(a) double helical gears having opposite teeth
(b) double helical gears having identical teeth
(c) single helical gear in which one of the teeth of helix
angle a is more
(d) mutter gears
Ans: a
82. Which of the following is false statement in respect of

differences between machine and structure
114
(a) Machines transmit mechanical work, whereas
structures transmit forces
(b) In machines, relative motion exists be-tween its
members, whereas same does hot exist in case of structures
(c) Machines modify movement and work, whereas
structures modify forces
(d) Efficiency of machines as well as structures is below
100%
(e) Machines are run by electric motors, but structures are
not.
Ans: d
83. If D1 and D2 be the diameters of driver and driven

pulleys, then belt speed is proportional to
(a) D1/D2
(b) D2/D1
(C) D1-D2.
(d) D1
(e) D1+D2.
Ans: d
84. Typewriter constitutes

(a) machine
(b) structure
(c) mechanism
(d) inversion
Ans: c
85. Lower pairs are those which have

(a) point or line contact between the two elements when in
115
motion
(b) surface contact between the two elements when in
motion
(c) elements of pairs not -held together mechanically
(d) two elements that permit relative motion
Ans: b
86. A point on a link connecting double slider crank chain

traces a
(a) straight line
(b) circle
(c) parabola
(d) hyperbola
(e) ellipse.
Ans: e
87. A pantograph is a mechanism with

(a) lower pairs
(b) higher pairs
(c) rolling pairs
(d) turning pairs
(e) spherical pairs.
Ans: a
88. Kinematic pairs are those which have

motion
motion
(c) elements of pairs not held together mechanically
116
Ans: d
89. If the opposite links of a four bar linkage are equal, the
links will always form a
(a) triangle
(b) rectangle
(c) parallelogram
(d) pentagon
(e) trapezoid.
Ans: c
90. Higher pairs are those which have

motion
motion
Ans: a
91. A cam mechanism imparts following motion

(a) rotating
(b) oscillating
(c) reciprocating
Ans: d
117
92. A cam with a roller follower would con statute
following type of pair
(a) lower pair
(b) higher pair
(c) open pair
(d) close pair
(e) cam pair.
Ans: b
93. The approximate straight line mechanism is a

(a) four bar linkage
(b) 6 bar linkage
(c) 8 bar linkage
(d) 3 bar linkage
(e) 5 bar linkage.
Ans: a
94. Open pairs are those which have

motion
motion
Ans: c
95. Peaucellier mechanism has

(a) eight links
(b) six links
(c) four links
118
(d) twelve links
(e) five links.
Ans: a
96. Hart mechanism has

(a) eight links
(b) six links
(c) four links
(d) twelve links
(e) five links.
Ans: b
97. A chain comprises of 5 links having 5 joints. Is it

kinematic chain ?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) it is a marginal case
(d) data are insufficient to determine it
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
99. The main disadvantage of the sliding pair is that it is

(a) bulky
(b) wears rapidly
(c) difficult to manufacture
(d) (a) and (b) above
(e) (a) and (c) above.
Ans: d
100. For a kinematic chain to be considered as mechanism

(a) two links should be fixed
119
(b) one link should be fixed
(c) none of the links should be fixed
(d) there is no such criterion
Ans: b
101. An eccentric sheave pivoted at one point rotates and

transmits oscillatory motion to a link whose one end is
pivoted and other end is connected to it. This mechanism has
(a) 2 links
(b) 3 links
(c) 4 links
(d) 5 links
Ans: c
102. Whitworth quick return mechanism is obtained by

inversion of
(a) slider crank mechanism
(b) kinematic chain
(c) five link mechanism
(d) roller cam mechanism
Ans: a
103. In its simplest form, a cam mechanism consists of

following number of links
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
120
(e) none.
Ans: c
104. Which of the following mechanisms produces

mathematically an exact straight line motion
(a) Grasshopper mechanism
(b) Watt mechanism
(c) Peaucellier's mechanism
(d) Tchabichiff mechanism
(e) Ackermann mechanism.
Ans: c
105. In a mechanism, usually one link is fixed.

If the fixed link is changed in a kinematic chain, then
relative motion of other links
(a) will remain same
(b) will change
(c) could change or remain unaltered depending oh which
link is fixed
(d) will not occur
Ans: a
106. A kinematic chain requires at least

(a) 2 links and 3 turning pairs
(b) 3 links and 4 turning pairs
(c) 4 links and 4 turning pairs
(d) 5 links and 4 turning pairs
Ans: c
121
107. In a darg link quick return mechanism, the shortest
link is always fixed. The sum of the shortest and longest link
is
(a) equal to sum of other two
(b) greater than sum of other two
(c) less than sum of other two
(d) there is no such relationship
Ans: c
108. The following is the inversion of slider crank chain

mechanism
(a) Whit worth quick return mechanism
(b) hand pump
(c) oscillating cylinder engine
Ans: d
109. Kinematic pairs are those which have

(a) two elements held together mechanically
(b) two elements having relative motion
(c) two elements having Coroili's component
(d) minimum of two instantaneous centers
Ans: b
110 A typewriter mechanism has 7 number of binary

joints, six links and none of higher pairs. The mechanism is
(a) kinematic ally sound
(b) not sound
122
(c) soundness would depend upon which link is kept fixed
(d) data is not sufficient to determine same
Ans: a
111. In a four-bar chain it is required to give an oscillatory

motion to the follower for a continuous rotation of the crank.
For the lengths of 50 mm of crank and 70 mm of the
follower, determine theoretical maximum length of coupler.
The distance between fixed pivots of crank and followers is
(a) 95 mm
(b) slightly less than 95 mm
(c) slightly more than 95 mm
(d) 45 mm
Ans: b
112. In above example, the minimum length of the coupler

will be
(a) 45 mm
(b) slightly less than 45 mm
(c) slightly more than 45 mm
(d) 95 mm
Ans: c
113. In S.H.M., acceleration is proportional to

(a) velocity
(b) displacement
(c) rate of change of velocity
123
Ans: b
114. For simple harmonic motion of the of follower, a

cosine curve represents
(a) displacement diagram
(b) velocity diagram
(c) acceleration diagram
Ans: c
115. In S.H.M., the velocity vector w.r.t. displacement

vector
(a) leads by 90°
(b) lags by 90°
(c) leads by 180°
(d) are in phase
(e) could be anywhere.
Ans: a
116. A body having moment of inertia o:m2 is rotating at

210 RPM and r with another body at rest having 40 kg m2.
The resultant speed after will be
(a) 90 RPM
(b) 100 RPM
(c) 80 RPM
(d) data are insufficient
Ans: a
124
117. Inertia force acts
(a) perpendicular to the accelerate force
(b) along the direction of accelerate force
(c) opposite to the direction of accelerate force
(d) in any direction w.r.t. accelerate force depending on the
magnet two
Ans: c
118. The frequency of oscillation at compared to earth will

be
(a) 6 times more
(b) 6 times less
(c) 2.44 times more
(d) 2.44 times,less
(e) 36 times less.
Ans: d
119. Angle of ascent of cam is defined as the angle

(a) during which the follower returns to its initial position
(b) of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the
follower
(c) through which the cam rotates during the period in
which the follower remains in highest position
(d) moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins
to rise, till it reaches its highest position
(e) moved by the cam from beginning of ascent to the
termination of descent.
Ans: d
120. If the radius of gyration of a compound pendulum

125
about an axis through e.g. is more, then its frequency of
oscillation will be
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) data are insufficient to determine same
Ans: a
121. The Bifilar suspension method is used to determine

(a) natural frequency of vibration
(b) position of balancing weights
(c) moment of inertia
(d) centripetal acceleration'
(e) angular acceleration of a body.
Ans: c
122. Which is the false statement about the properties of

instantaneous center
(a) at the instantaneous center of rotation, one rigid link
rotates instantaneously relative to another for the
configuration of mechanism considered
(b) the two rigid links have no linear velocities relative to
each other at the instantaneous center
(c) the two rigid links which have no linear velocity relative
to each other at this center have the same linear velocity to
the third rigid link
(d) the double center can be denoted either by 02\ or Ol2,
but proper selection should be made
Ans: d
126
123. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a four bar
mechanism lies on
(a) right side pivot of this link
(b) lift side pivot of this link
(c) a point obtained by intersection on extending adjoining
links
(d) can't occur
Ans: c
124. The number of links and instantaneous centers in a

reciprocating engine mechanism are
(a) 4, 4
(b) 4, 5
(c) 5, 4
(d) 6, 4
(e) 4, 6.
Ans: e
125. According to Kennedy's theorem, if three bodies have

plane motions, their instantaneous centers lie on
(a) a triangle
(b) a point
(c) two lines
(d) a straight line
(e) a curve.
Ans: d
126. In a rigid link OA, velocity of A w.r.t. will be

(a) parallel to OA
127
(b) perpendicular to OA
(c) at 45° to OA
(d) along AO
(e) along OA.
Ans: b
127. Two systems shall be dynamically equivalent when

(a) the mass of two are same
(b) e.g. of two coincides
(c) M.I. of two about an axis through e.g. is equal
Ans: d
128. The velocity of any point in mechanism relative to any

other point on the mechanism on velocity polygon is
represented by the line
(a) joining the corresponding points
(b) perpendicular to line as per (a)
(c) not possible to determine with these data
(d) at 45° to line as per (a)
Ans: a
129. The absolute acceleration of any point P in a link

about center of rotation 0 is
(a) along PO
(b) perpendicular to PO
(c) at 45° to PO
(d) along OP
128
Ans: e
130. Angular acceleration of a link can be determined by

dividing the
(a) centripetal component of acceleration with length of
link
(b) tangential component of acceleration with length of
link
(c) resultant acceleration with length of link
Ans: b
131. Corioli's component of acceleration exists whenever a

point moves along a path that has
(a) linear displacement
(b) rotational motion
(c) tangential acceleration
(d) centripetal acceleration
Ans: b
132. The direction of Corioli's component of acceleration is

the direction
(a) of relative velocity vector for the two coincident points
rotated by 90° in the direction of the angular velocity of the
rotation of the link
(b) along the centripetal acceleration
(c) along tangential acceleration
(d) along perpendicular to angular velocity
129
Ans: a
133. In a shape mechanism, the Corioli's component of

acceleration will
(a) not exist
(b) exist
(c) depend on position of crank
(d) unpredictable
Ans: b
134. The magnitude of tangential acceleration is equal to

(a) velocity2 x crank radius
(b) velocity vcrankradius
(c) (velocity/crankradius)
(d) velocity x crank radius2
Ans: b
135. Tangential acceleration direction is

(a) along the angular velocity
(b) opposite to angular velocity
(c) may be any one of these
(d) perpendicular to angular velocity
Ans: c
136. Coriolis component is encountered in

(a) quick return mechanism of sharper
(b) four bar chain mechanism
(c) slider crank mechanism
130
(d) (a) and (c) above
Ans: a
137. Klein's construction gives a graphics construction for

(a) slider-crank mechanism
(b) velocity polygon
(c) acceleration polygon
(d) four bar chain mechanism
(e) angular acceleration.
Ans: c
138. Klein's construction can be used to determine

acceleration of various parts when the crank is at
(a) inner dead center
(b) outer dead center
(c) right angles to the link of the stroke
(d) at 45° to the line of the stroke
Ans: e
139. The number of load centers in a crank driven slider

crank mechanism are
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
(e) may be any number depending upon position of
mechanism.
Ans: b
131
140. Corioli's component acts
(a) perpendicular to sliding surfaces
(b) along sliding surfaces
(c) somewhere in between above two
(d) unpredictable
Ans: a
141. The sense of Corioli's component is such that it

(a) leads the sliding velocity vector by 90°
(b) lags the sliding velocity vector by 90°
(c) is along the sliding velocity vector
(d) leads the sliding velocity vector by 180°
Ans: a
142. Klein's construction can be used when

(a) crank has a uniform angular velocity
(b) crank has non-uniform velocity
(c) crank has uniform angular acceleration
(d) crank has uniform angular velocity and angular
acceleration
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: a
143. Klein's construction is useful to determine

(a) velocity of various parts
(b) acceleration of various parts
(c) displacement of various parts
(d) angular acceleration of various parts
132
Ans: b
144. A circle passing through the pitch point with its center
at the center of cam axis is known as
(a) pitch circle
(b) base circle
(c) prime circle
(d) outer circle
(e) cam circle.
Ans: c
145. The pressure angle of a cam depends upon

(a) offset between center lines of cam and follower
(b) lift of follower
(c) angle of ascent
(d) sum of radii of base circle and roller follower
Ans: e
146. Cam size depends upon

(a) base circle
(b) pitch circle
(c) prime circle
(d) outer circle
Ans: a
147. Cylindrical cams can be classified as

(a) circular
(b) tangent
(c) reciprocating
133
Ans: e
148. The maximum value of the pressure angle in case of

cam is kept as
(a) 10°
(b) 14°
(c) 20°
(d) 30°
(e) 25°.
Ans: d
149. For the same lift and same angle of ascent, a smaller
base circle will give
(a) a small value of pressure angle
(b) a large value of pressure angle
(c) there is no such relation with pressure angle
(d) something else
(e) none of the above is true.
Ans: b
150. Cam angle is defined as the angle

follower
(c) through which, the cam rotates during the period in
which the follower remains in the highest position
(e) moved by the cam from beginning of i ascent to the
134
Ans: b
151. Angle of descent of cam is defined as the angle

follower
Ans: a
152. Angle of action of cam is defined as the angle

follower
Ans: e
153. Angle of dwell of cam is defined as the angle

(b) of rotation of the cam for definite displacement of the
follower
135
(e) moved by the cam from a beginning of ascent to the
Ans: c
Hydraulic and Fluid Machines Multiple Choice Questions
and Answers for freshers
8.1. Fluid is a substance that

(a) cannot be subjected to shear forces
(b) always expands until it fills any con-tainer
(c) has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of its motion
(d) cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
(e) flows.
Ans: d
8.2. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of

(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) shape
136
(d) volume
(e) temperature.
Ans: c
8.3. Practical fluids

(a) are viscous
(b) possess surface tension
(c) are compressible
(d) possess all the above properties
(e) possess none of the above properties.
Ans: d
8.4. In a static fluid

(a) resistance to shear stress is small
(b) fluid pressure is zero
(c) linear deformation is small
(d) only normal stresses can exist
(e) viscosity is nil.
Ans: d
8.5. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is

(a) incompressible
137
(b) inviscous
(c) viscous and incompressible
(d) inviscous and compressible
(e) inviscous and incompressible.
Ans: e
8.6. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following

(a) Newton's law of motion
(b) Newton's law of viscosity
(c) Pascal' law
(d) Continuity equation
(e) Boundary layer theory.
Ans: d
8.7. If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a

substance is known as
(a) fluid
(b) water
(c) gas
(d) perfect solid
(e) ideal fluid.
Ans: e
8.8. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is

known as
138
(a) volumetric strain
(b) volumetric index
(c) compressibility
(d) adhesion
(e) cohesion.
Ans: c
8.9. Liquids
(a) cannot be compressed
(b) occupy definite volume
(c) are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
(GO are not viscous
Ans: e
8.10. Density of water is maximum at

(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C
(d) 100°C
(e) 20°C.
Ans: c
8.12. The value of mass density in kgsecVm4 for water at 0°C is

(a) 1
139
(b) 1000
(c) 100
(d) 101.9
(e) 98.1
Ans: d
8.14. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are

attracted is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
Ans: b
8.15. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of

liquid known as
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
Ans: c
8.16. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile
140
stress is known as
(a) compressibility
(b) surface tension
(c) cohesion
(d) adhesion
(e) viscosity.
Ans: c
8.17. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds

of fluids are attracted to each other is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
Ans: a
8.18. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m"

(a) at norma] pressure of 760 mm
(b) at 4°C temperature
(c) at mean sea level
(d) all the above
Ans: d
141
8.19. Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to
(a) 1000 N/m3
(b) 10000 N/m3
(c) 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
(d) 9.81 xlO6N/m3
(e) 9.81 N/m3.
Ans: c
8.20. When the flow parameters at any given instant remain

same at every point, then flow is said to be
(a) quasi static
(b) steady state
(c) laminar
(d) uniform
(e) static.
Ans: d
8.21. Which of the following is demensionless

(a) specific weight
(b) specific volume
(c) specific speed
(d) specific gravity
(e) specific viscosity.
Ans: d
142
8.22. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all
directions at a point only if
(a) it is incompressible
(b) it has uniform viscosity
(c) it has zero viscosity
(d) it is frictionless
(e) it is at rest.
Ans: e
8.23. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the
directions when the fluid is
(a) moving
(b) viscous
(c) viscous and static
(d) inviscous and moving
(e) viscous and moving.
Ans: e
8.24. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg on a spring

balance. The value of 'g' at this place is
(a) 10m/sec2
(b) 9.81 m/sec2
(c) 10.2/m sec
(d) 9.75 m/sec2
(e) 9 m/sec .
143
Ans: a
8.25. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the

following property
(a) cohesion
(b) adhesion
(c) viscosity
(d) surface tension
(e) elasticity.
Ans: d
8.26. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature

compared to that of water is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on size of glass tube
Ans: a
8.27. A perfect gas

(a) has constant viscosity
(b) has zero viscosity
(c) is incompressible
(d) is of theoretical interest
144
Ans: e
8.28. For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and

liquids
(a) remains same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) shows erratic behaviour
Ans: d
8.33. A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain

(a) tensile stress
(b) compressive stress
(c) shear stress
(d) bending stress
Ans: c
8.34. Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is

(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) higher/lower depending on temperature
145
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
8.35. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) increases first upto certain limit and then decreases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a
8.36. The bulk modulus of elasticity

(a) has the dimensions of 1/pressure
(b) increases with pressure
(c) is large when fluid is more compres¬sible
(d) is independent of pressure and viscosity
(e) is directly proportional to flow.
Ans: b
8.37. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle

(a) law of gravitation
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) principle of buoyancy
(e) continuity equation.
146
Ans: d
8.38. The value of the coefficient of compressibility for water at

ordinary pressure and temperature in kg/cm is equal to
(a) 1000
(b) 2100
(c) 2700
(d) 10,000
(e) 21,000.
Ans: e
8.39. The increase of temperature results in

(a) increase in viscosity of gas
(b) increase in viscosity of liquid
(c) decrease in viscosity of gas
(d) decrease in viscosity of liquid
(e) (a) and (d) above.
Ans: d
8.40. Surface tension has the units of

(a) newtons/m
(b) newtons/m
(c) new tons/m
(d) newtons
(e) newton m.
147
Ans: c
8.41. Surface tension

(a) acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the
surface
(b) is also known as capillarity
(c) is a function of the curvature of the interface
(d) decreases with fall in temperature
(e) has no units.
Ans: a
8.42. The stress-strain relation of the newtoneon fluid is

(a) linear
(b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
(d) inverse type
Ans: a
8.43. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3

at 50 kg/cm2 and a volume of 0.039 m3 at 150 kg/cm2. The
bulk
modulus of elasticity of liquid is
(a) 400 kg/cm2
(b) 4000 kg/cm2
148
(c) 40 x 105 kg/cm2
(d) 40 x 106 kg/cm2
Ans: b
8.44. The units of viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre2
(d) newton-sec per metre
Ans: b
8.45. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon

(a) pressure
(b) distance
(c) level
(d) flow
(e) density.
Ans: e
8.46. Units of surface tension are

(a) energy/unit area
(b) distance
(c) both of the above
149
(d) it has no units
Ans: c
8.47. Which of the following meters is not associated with

viscosity
(a) Red wood
(b) Say bolt
(c) Engler
(d) Orsat
Ans: d
8.48. Choose the correct relationship

(a) specific gravity = gravity x density
(b) dynamicviscosity = kinematicviscosity x density
(c) gravity = specific gravity x density
(d) kinematicviscosity = dynamicviscosity x density
(e) hydrostaticforce = surface tension x gravity.
Ans: b
8.49. Dimensions of surface tension are

(a) MlL°T2
(b) MlL°Tx
(c) MlL r2
150
(d) MlL2T2
(e) MlL°t.
Ans: a
8.50. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having

(a) higher surface tension
(b) lower surface tension
(c) surface tension is no criterion
(d) high density and viscosity
(e) low density and viscosity.
Ans: a
8.51. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height

of 3.75 cm of mercury will be following cm of water
(a) 51 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 52 cm
(d) 52.2 cm
(e) 51.7 cm.
Ans: a
8.52. Choose the wrong statement.

Alcohol is used in manometer, because
(a) its vapour pressure is low
(b) it provides suitable meniscus for the in-clined tube
151
(c) its density is less
(d) it provides longer length for a given pressure difference
(e) it provides accurate readings.
Ans: a
53. Increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius R

due to rotation at corad/sec, full of liquid of density p will be
(a) pco2/?2
(b) pco2/?2/2
(c) 2pa2R2
(d) pa2R/2
Ans: b
8.54. The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance

to shear is called
(a) surface tension
(b) adhesion
(c) cohesion
(d) viscosity
Ans: d
8.55. Choose the wrong statement

(a) fluids are capable of flowing
152
(b) fluids conform to the shape of the con-taining vessels
(c) when in equilibrium, fluids cannot sus-tain tangential forces
(d) when in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
(e) fluids have some degree of compres-sibility and offer little
resistance to form.
Ans: d
8.56. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at

(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C (d) 20°C
(e) all temperature.
Ans: c
8.57. If w is the specific weight of liquid and k the depth of any

point from the surface, then pressure intensity at that point will
be
(a) h
(b) wh
(c) w/h
(d) h/w
(e) h/wh.
Ans: b
153
(a) Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the
amount of its resistance to a shearing force
(b) Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid
molecules
(c) Viscosity of liquids decreases with in-crease in temperature
(d) Viscosity of liquids is appreciably af-fected by change in
pressure
(e) Viscosity is expressed as poise, stoke, or saybolt seconds.
Ans: d
8.59. The units of kinematic viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre
(d) newton-sec per metre
Ans: a
60. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass den-sity is known as

(a) specific viscosity
(b) viscosity index
(c) kinematic viscosity
(d) coefficient of viscosity
(e) coefficient of compressibility.
Ans: c
154
4-61. Kinematic viscosity is equal to
(a) dynamic viscosity/density
(b) dynamicviscosity x density
(c) density/dynamic viscosity
(d) 1/dynamicviscosity x density
(e) same as dynamic viscosity.
Ans: a
4.62. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity

(a) pascal
(b) poise
(c) stoke
(d) faraday
Ans: c
$.63. A one dimensional flow is one which

(a) is uniform flow
(b) is steady uniform flow
(c) takes place in straight lines
(d) involves zero transverse component of flow
(e) takes place in one dimension.
Ans: d
155
64. Alcohol is used in manometers because
(a) it has low vapour pressure
(b) it is clearly visible
(c) it has low surface tension
(d) it can provide longer column due to low density
(e) is provides suitable meniscus.
Ans: d
8.65. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to

(a) 25 kN/m2
(b) 245 kN/m2
(c) 2500 kN/m2
(d) 2.5kN/m2
(e) 12.5 kN/m2.
Ans: b
8.66. Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water

because it contains
(a) dissolved air
(b) dissolved salt
(c) suspended matter
(e) heavy water.
Ans: d
156
8.67. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men
0.85 represents its
(a) specific weight
(b) specific mass
(c) specific gravity
(d) specific density
Ans: c
8.69. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest

possible area due to force of
(a) surface tension
(b) viscosity
(c) friction
(d) cohesion
(e) adhesion.
Ans: a
8.70. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An

iron piece is suspended into water without touching sides of
bucket from another support. The spring balance reading will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
157
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
8.71. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the

property of
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
Ans: c
8.72. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as

compared to cohesion forces are
(a) less
(b) more
(c) equal
(d) less at low temperature and more at high temperature
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: b
8.73. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than

adhesion between fluid and glass, then the free level of fluid in
a dipped glass tube will be
(a) higher than the surface of liquid
158
(b) the same as the surface of liquid
(c) lower than the surface of liquid
(d) unpredictable
Ans: c
8.74. The point in the immersed body through which the

resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to act is known as
(a) meta centre
(b) centre of pressure
(c) centre of buoyancy
(d) centre of gravity
Ans: b
8.75. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2

m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface being 0.5 m below the water
level will be
(a) 500 kg
(b) 1000 kg
(c) 1500 kg
(d) 2000 kg
(e) 4000 kg.
Ans: d
159
8.76. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating
body is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body.
This definition is according to
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Equilibrium of a floating body
(c) Archimedes' principle
(d) Bernoulli's theorem
(e) Metacentric principle.
Ans: c
8.77. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an

immersed body is called
(a) upthrust
(b) buoyancy
(c) centre of pressure
(e) none of above is correct.
Ans: b
8.78. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating

body are
(a) the meta-centre should lie above the centre of gravity
(b) the centre of buoyancy and the centre of gravity must lie on
the same vertical line
(c) a righting couple should be formed
160
(e) none of the above is correct.
Ans: d
8.79. Poise is the unit of

(a) surface tension
(b) capillarity
(c) viscosity
(d) shear stress in fluids
(e) buoyancy.
Ans: c
8.80. Metacentric height is given as the distance between

(a) the centre of gravity of the body andthe meta centre
(b) the centre of gravity of the body and the centre of buoyancy
(c) the centre of gravity of the body and the centre of pressure
(d) centre of buoyancy and metacentre
Ans: a
8.81. The buoyancy depends on

(a) mass of liquid displaced
(b) viscosity of the liquid
(c) pressure of the liquid displaced
(d) depth of immersion
161
Ans: a
8.82. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced

by an immersed body is called
(a) meta-centre
(d) centre of gravity
Ans: c
8.83. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in

mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is
under mercury?
(a) the metal piece will simply float over the mercury
(b) the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
(c) whole of the metal piece will be im-mersed with its top
surface just at mer-cury level
(d) metal piece will sink to the bottom
Ans: c
8.84. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon

(a) the nature of the liquid and the solid
162
(b) the material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
(c) both of die above
(e) none of die above.
Ans: c
3.85. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to

contract to smallest possible area due to the
(a) force of adhesion
(b) force of cohesion
(c) force of friction
(d) force of diffusion
(e) none of die above.
Ans: b
8.86. Rain drops are spherical because of

(a) viscosity
(b) air resistance
(c) surface tension forces
(d) atmospheric pressure
Ans: c
87. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically

equal to ..
163
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) surface tension
(c) force of adhesion
(d) force of cohesion
(e) viscosity.
Ans: b
1-88. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm

bore containing water is ap-proximately
(a) 1 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 20 mm
(e) 30 mm.
Ans: e
89. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside

of a liquid drop is
(a)p = Txr
(b)p = T/r
(c) p = T/2r
(d)p = 2T/r
Ans: d
164
90. If the surface of liquid is convex, men
(a) cohesion pressure is negligible
(b) cohesion pressure is decreased
(c) cohesion pressure is increased
(d) there is no cohesion pressure
Ans: c
91. To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the
ridge is laid such that it is not more than
(a) 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(b) 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(c) 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
(d) 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
Ans: b
8.92. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon, an air

vessel is provided
(a) at the inlet
(b) at the outlet
(c) at the summit
(d) ay nay point between inlet and outlet
Ans: c
165
8.93. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is
(a) less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(b) equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(c) greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(d) zero
Ans: a
8.94. The peoperty by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative

motion between its different layers is called
(a) surface tension
(b) co-efficient of viscosity
(c) viscosity
(d) osmosis
(e) cohesion.
Ans: c
8.95. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other

through a semi-permeable membrane is called
(a) viscosity
(b) osmosis
(c) surface tension
(d) cohesion
(e) diffusivity.
166
Ans: b
8.96. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre
(d) newton-sec2 per metre
Ans: c
8.98. The continuity equation is connected with

(a) viscous/unviscous fluids
(b) compressibility of fluids
(c) conservation of mass
(d) steady/unsteady flow
(e) open channel/pipe flow.
Ans: c
8.99. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface

tension wim increase in size of tube will
(a) increase
(b) remain unaffected
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the characteristics
of liquid
(d) decrease
167
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d
8.100. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions.

This is according to
(a) Boyle's law
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) Pascal's law
(d) Newton's formula
(e) Chezy's equation.
Ans: c
8.101. Capillary action is due to the

(a) surface tension
(b) cohesion of the liquid
(c) adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the
surface of a solid
Ans: d
8.103. Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between

(a) shear stress anctthejiate of angular dis¬tortion
(b) shear stress and viscosity
(c) shear stress, velocity and viscosity
168
(d) pressure, velocity and viscosity
(e) shear stress, pressure and rate of an-gular distortion.
Ans: a
8.104. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases

(a) linearly
(b) first slowly and then steeply
(c) first steeply and then gradually
(d) unpredictable
Ans: b
8.105. Pressure of the order of 10"' torr can be measured by

(a) Bourdon tube
(b) Pirani Gauge
(c) micro-manometer
(d) ionisastion gauge
(e) McLeod gauge.
Ans: d
8.106. Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure

measurement is based on the principle of
(a) gas law
(b) Boyle's law
(c) Charle's law
169
(d) Pascal's law
(e) McLeod's law.
Ans: b
8.107. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01

m3 volume will be completely submerged in a fluid having
specific gravity of
(a) 1
(b) 1.2
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.75
(e) 1.25.
Ans: d
8.108. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure

(a) decreases linearly with elevation
(b) remains constant
(c) varies in the same way as the density
(d) increases exponentially with elevation
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
8.109. Mercury is often used in barometer because

(a) it is the best liquid
(b) the height of barometer will be less
170
(c) its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
(d) both (b) and (c)
(e) it moves easily.
Ans: d
8.110. Barometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) rain level.
Ans: b
8.111. Which of the following instrument can be used for

measuring speed of a submarine moving in deep sea
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) hot wire anemometer
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot tube.
Ans: e
8.112. Which of the following instrument can be used for

measuring speed of an aeroplane
(a) Venturimeter
171
(b) Orifice plate
(c) hot wire anemometer
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot tube.
Ans: e
8.113. Piezometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipe, channels etc.
(c) very low pressures
(e) flow.
Ans: c
8.114. Which of the following instruments is used to measure

flow on the application of Bernoulli's theorem
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) nozzle
(d) pitot tube
Ans: e
8.116. The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies directly as its

(a) pressure
172
(b) temperature
(c) density
(e) absolute temperature,
Ans: e
8.119. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in

temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(a) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
Ans: b
8.120. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in

temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
Ans: a
8.121. A metal with specific gravity of o floating in a fluid of
173
same specific gravity a will
(a) sink to bottom
(b) float over fluid
(c) partly immersed
(d) be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
Ans: d
8.123. Euler's dimensionless number relates the following

(a) inertial force and gravity
(b) viscous force and inertial force
(c) viscous force and buoyancy force
(d) pressure force and inertial force
(e) pressure force and viscous force.
Ans: d
8.128. Manometer is used to measure

(e) velocity.
Ans: a
.129. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity
174
(a) U-tube with water
(b) inclined U-tube
(c) U-tube with mercury
(d) micro-manometer with water
(e) displacement type.
Ans: d
8.130. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer,

one leg is usually inclined by angle 9. Sensitivity of inclined tube
to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to
(a) sin 9
(b) sin 9
(c) casS
(d) cos 9
(e) tan 9.
Ans: b
8.131. Working principle of dead weight pressure gauge tester

is based on
(a) Pascal's law
(b) Dalton's law of partial pressure
(c) Newton's law of viscosity .
(d) Avogadro's hypothesis
(e) Second law of thermodynamic.
Ans: a
175
8.132. The resultant of all normal pressures acts
(a) at e.g. of body
(b) at centre of pressure
(c) vertically upwards
(d) at metacentre
(e) vertically downwards.
Ans: c
8.133. Centre of pressure compared to e.g. is

(a) above it
(b) below it.
(c) at same point
(d) above or below depending on area of body
Ans: b
8.134. Metacentric height is the distance between the

metacentre and
(a) water surface
(c) centre of gravity
(d) centre of buoyancy
Ans: c
176
8.135.. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an
immersed body due to its tendency to uplift the sub-merged
body is called
(a) upthrust
(b) reaction
(c) buoyancy
(d) metacentre
(e) centre of pressure.
Ans: c
8.136. The centre of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid

pressure is the point
(a) on the surface at which resultant pres-sure acts
(b) on the surface at which gravitational force acis
(c) at which all hydraulic forces meet
(d) similar to metacentre
(e) where pressure equivalent to hydraulic thrust will act.
Ans: a
8.137. Buoyant force is

(a) the resultant force acting on a floating body
(b) the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
(c) equal to the volume of liquid dis-placed
(d) the force necessary to maintain equi-librium of a submerged
177
body
Ans: b
8.138. The horizontal component of buoyant force is

(a) negligible
(b) same as buoyant force
(c) zero
Ans: c
140. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
(a) centroid of the volume of fluid verti-cally above the body
(b) centre of the volume of floating body
(c) centre of gravity of any submerged body
(d) centriod of the displaced volume of fluid
Ans: d
8.141. Centre of buoyancy is the

(a) centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
(b) centre of pressure of displaced volume
(c) e.g. of floating 'body
(d) does not exist
Ans: a
178
8.142. A body floats in stable equilibrium
(a) when its meatcentric height is zero
(b) when the metancentre is above e.g.
(c) when its e.g. is below it's centre of buoyancy
(d) metacentre has nothing to do with position of e.g. for
determining stability
Ans: b
vl43. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg

when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 6
Ans: d
8.151. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the

area multiplied by the intensity of pressure at the centriod, if
(a) the area is horizontal
(b) the area is vertical
(c) the area is inclined
179
Ans: d
8.152. A square surface 3 m x 3 m lies in a vertical line in water

pipe its upper edge at vater surface. The hydrostatic force on
square surface is
(a) 9,000 kg
(b) 13,500 kg
(c) 18,000 kg
(d) 27,000 kg
(e) 30,000 kg.
Ans: b
8.153. The df pth of the centre of pressure on a vertical

rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6 m high, when the water
surface coincides with the top of the gate, is
(a) 2.4 m
(b) 3.0 m
(c) 4.0 m
(d)"2.5 m
(e) 5.0 m.
Ans: b
8.154. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank

(sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm", the pressure at a depth of 50 m
below the oil surface will be
180
(a) 2 metres of water column
(b) 3 metres of water column
(c) 5 metres of water column
(d) 6 metres of water Column
(e) 7 metres of water column.
Ans: d
8.155. Metacentre is the point of intersection of

(a) vertical upward force through e.g. of body and centre line of
body
(b) buoyant force and the centre line of body
(c) mid point between e.g. and centre of buoyancy
Ans: b

(a) The horizontal component of the hydro-static force on any
surface is equal to the normal force on the verti¬cal projection
of the surface
(b) The horizontal component acts through the centre of
pressure for the vertical projection
(c) The vertical component of the hydros-tatic force on any
surface is equal to the weight of the volume of the liquid above
the area
181
(d) he vertical component passes through the centre of
pressure of the volume
(e) Centre of pressure acts at a greater depth than centre of
gravity.
Ans: d
8.157. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure

exerted by the liquid acts at
(a) bottom surface of the body
(b) e.g. of the body
(c) metacentre
(d) all points on the surface of the body
Ans: d

(a) any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is acted upon
by a buoyant force
(p) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
(c) The point through which buoyant force acts, is called the
centre of buoyancy
(d) Centre of buoyancy is located above the centre of gravity of
the displaced liquid v
(e) Relative density of liquids can be determined by means of
the depth of flotation of hydrometer.
182
Ans: d
8.159. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or

partially immersed in a fluid will be lifted up by a force equal to
(a) the weight of the body
(b) more than the weight of the body
(c) less than the weight of the body
(d) weight of the fluid displaced by the body
(e) weight of body plus the weight of the fluid displaced hy the
body.
Ans: d
8.160. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it

oscillates about
(a) e.g. of body
(d) metacentre
(e) liquid surface.
Ans: d
5.161. Buoyant force is

(a) resultant force acting on a floating body
(b) equal to the volume of liquid dis¬placed
(c) force necessary to keep a body in equi¬librium
183
(d) the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
Ans: d
8.l62. Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is known as

(a) Mach number
(b) Froude number
(c) Reynold's number
(d) Weber's number
Ans: d
8.163. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10

m/sec. For dynamic similarity,
at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed through water
?
(a) 10 m/sec
(b) 25 m/sec
(c) 2 m/sec
(d) 50 m/sec
(e) 250 m/sec.
Ans: c
8.164. A model of a reservior is drained in 4 mts by opening the

sluice gate. The model scale is 1: 225. How long should it take
184
to empty the prototype ?
(a) 900 minutes
(b) 4 minutes
(c) 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
(d) 4 (225)1/3 minutes
(e) 4 x V225 minutes.
Ans: e
165. A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity

of 25 m/sec. The prototype is expected to attain a velocity
of 5 m/sec. What model scale has been used ?
(a) 1 : 5
(b) 1 : 2.5
(c) 1 :25
(d) 1:V5"
(e) 1 : 53/2
Ans: a
8.166. Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as

(a) Mach number
(b) Froude number
(c) Reynold's number
(d) Weber's number
Ans: a
185
8.167. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its
metacentre should be
(a) below the centre of gravity
(b) below the centre of buoyancy
(c) above the centre of buoyancy
(d) between e.g. and centre of pressure
(e) above the centre of gravity.
Ans: e
8.168. For a floating body to be in equilibrium

(a) meta centre should be above e.g.
(b) centre of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on same vertical plane
(c) a righting couple should be formed
Ans: d
8.169. The two important forces for a floating body are

(a) buoyancy, gravity
(b) buoyancy, pressure
(c) buoyancy, inertial
(d) inertial, gravity
(e) gravity, pressure.
Ans: a
186
(a) The centre of buoyancy is located at the centre of gravity of
the displaced liquid
(b) For stability of a submerged body, the centre of gravity of
body must lie directly below the centre of buoyancy
(c) If e.g. and centre of buoyancy coin¬cide, the submerged
body must lie at neutral equilibrium for all positions
(d) For stability of floating cylinders or spheres, the e.g. of body
must lie below the centre of buoyancy
(e) All floating bodies are stable.
Ans: e
8.171. Centre of pressure on an inclined plane is

(a) at the centroid
(b) above the centroid
(c) below the centroid
(d) at metacentre
(e) at centre of pressure.
Ans: c
8.172. An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined

plane. The free water surface will
(a) be horizontal
(b) make an angle in direction of inclina¬tion of inclined plane
187
(c) make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined
plane
(d) any one of above is possible
Ans: c
8.173. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
centroid of the
(a) submerged body
(b) volume of the floating body
(c) volume of the fluid vertically above the body
(d) displaced volume of the fluid
Ans: d
8.174. Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an

immersed body acts through
(a) centre of gravity
(c) metacentre
(e) in between e.g. and centre of pressure.
Ans: b
8.175. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid
188
displaced by an immersed body is called
(a) centre of gravity
(c) metacentre
(e) centroid.
Ans: d
8.176. Differential monometer is used to measure

(e) velocity in pipes
Ans: d
8.177. The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8)
surface in a tank is 0.1 kg/cm".
The pressure at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be
(a) 2 metres of water column
(b) 3 metres of water column
(c) 3.5 metres of water column
(d) 4 m of water column
Ans: b
189
8.178. The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in
metacentric height will be
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
(d) lower/higher depending on weight of body
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
8.179. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is

(a) at the centre of gravity
(b) above the centre of gravity
(c) below be centre of gravity
(d) could be above or below e.g. depend¬ing on density of body
and liquid
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
8.180. The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a

fluid
(a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) only when the fluid is incompressible and has zero viscosity
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an
adjacent layer
190
(d) irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an
adjacent layer
(e) in case of an ideal fluid.
Ans: c
8.181. Select the correct statement

(a) Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of
locality only
(b) Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local
atmospheric pressure a* sea level
(c) Local atmospheric pressure is always below standard
atmospheric pressure
(d) A barometer reads the difference be-tween local and
standard atmospheric pressure
(e) Gauge piessure is equal to atmos¬pheric pressure plus
instrument read¬ing.
Ans: b
8.184. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, if should be

installed in
(a) vertical line
(b) horizontal line
(c) inclined line with flow downward
(d) inclined line with upward flow\
(e) in any direction and in any location.
191
Ans: e
8.185. Total pressure on a lmxlm gate immersed vertically at a

depth of 2 m below the free water surface will be
(a) 1000 kg
(b) 4000 kg
(c) 2000 kg
(d) 8000 kg
(e) 16000 kg.
Ans: a
8.186. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in gases
(b) liquid discharge
(c) pressure in liquids
(d) gas velocities
(e) temperature.
Ans: d
8.187. Rotameter is a device used to measure

(a) absolute pressure
(b) velocity of fluid
(c) flow
(d) rotation
(e) velocity of air.
192
Ans: c
8.188. Flow of water in a pipe about 3 metres in diameter can

be measured by
(a) orifice plate
(b) venturi
(c) rotameter
(d) pitot tube
(e) nozzle
Ans: d
8.189. True one-dimensional flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the veiocity at all points are
identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the
same at suc-cessive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change
from point to point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the
streamline pat-terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure etc. change from point to point in
the fluid flow.
Ans: a
8.190. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
193
(a) Pascal law
(b) Newton's law of viscosity
(c) boundary layer theory
(d) continuity equation
(e) Bernoulli's theorem.
Ans: d
8.191. In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of

any fluid particle is
(a) constant
(b) variable
(c) zero
(d) zero under limiting conditions
(e) never zero.
Ans: c
8.193. Non uniform flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are
identical
(c) the magnitude aricf direction of the velocity do not change
194
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in
the fluid flow.
Ans: e
8.194. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is

(a) steady
(b) unsteady
(c) uniform
(d) laminar
(e) free vortex type.
Ans: b
8.195. Uniform flow occurs when

(a) the flow is steady
(b) the flow is streamline
(c) size and shape of the cross section in a particular length
remain constant
(d) size and cross section change uniform¬ly along length
(e) flow occurs at constant fate.
Ans: c
8.196. Gradually varied flow is

(a) steady uniform
(b) non-steady non-uniform
(c) non-steady uniform
195
(d) steady non-uniform
(e) true one-dimensional.
Ans: d
8.197. Steady flow occurs when

identical
the fluid flow.
Ans: b
8.198. The flow which neglects changes in a transverse

direction is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: a
196
8.199. The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path
and their paths do not cross each other is called
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
Ans: e
8.200. The flow in which conditions do not change with time at

any point, is known as
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
Ans: c
8.201. The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in

magnitude and direction at every point, for any given instant, is
known as
(b) uniform f^w
(c) steady flow
197
(d) turbulent flow
Ans: b
8.202. The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such

velocities that vary from point to point in magnitude and
direction as well as from instant to instant, is known as
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
Ans: d
8.210. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being

opened is
(a) steady
(b) unsteady
(c) laminar
(d) vortex
(e) rotational.
Ans: b
8.211. General energy equation holds for

(a) steady flow
198
(b) turbulent flow
(c) laminar flow
(d) non-uniform flow
Ans: d
8.212. A streamline is defined as the line

(a) parallel to central axis flow
(b) parallel to outer surface of pipe
(c) of equal yelocity in a flow
(d) along which the pressure drop is uniform
(e) which occurs in all flows.
Ans: c
8.213. Two dimensional flow occurs when

identical
the fluid flow.
199
Ans: d
8.215. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of

specific gravity 13.6. What fraction of its volume is under
mercury ?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.515
(d) 0.5
Ans: c
8.216. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with

60% of its volume under the liquid. The specific gravity of wood
is
(a) 0.83
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.3
Ans: b
8.218. The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a

tank filled with water is proportional to
(a) head of water (h)
200
(b) h2
(c) V/T
(d) h2
(e) h3/1.
Ans: c
8.219. In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity

everywhere is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) non-zero and finite
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
8.220. In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere

within the fluid is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) non-zero finite
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d
8.221. The region between the separation streamline and the
201
boundary surface of the solid body is known as
(a) wake
(b) drag
(c) lift
(d) boundary layer
(e) aerofoil section.
Ans: a
8.222. For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is

(a) unity
(b) greater than unity
(c) greater than 2
(d) greater than 4
(e) greater than 10.
Ans: d
8.223. The upper surface of a weir over which water flows is

known is
(a) crest
(b) nappe
(c) sill
(d) weir top
(e) contracta.
Ans: c
202
8.224. Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow
corresponding to
(a) steady flow
(b) unsteady flow
(c) laminar flow
(d) uniform flow
(e) critical flow.
Ans: d
8.226. Uniform flow occurs when

identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid pai-ticles, at any point, is the
same at suc¬cessive periods of time
streamline pat-terns are identical in each plsr.e
the fluid flow.
Ans: c
8.227. Pitot tube is used for measurement of

(a) pressure
(b) flow
203
(c) velocity
(d) dsscharge
(e) viscosity.
Ans: c
8.228. Hydrometer is used to determine

(a) specific gravity of liquids
(b) specific gravity of solids
(c) specific gravity of gases
(d) relative humidity
(e) density.
Ans: a
8.229. The total energy of each particle at various places in the

case of perfect incompres sible fluid flowing in continuous
sream
(d) keeps on increasing
(b) keeps on decreasing
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase/decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
8.230. According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid

flow
204
(a) principle of conservation of mass holds
(b) velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
(c) total energy is constant throughout
(d) the energy is constant along a stream-line but may vary
across streamlines
Ans: d
8.231. The equation of continuity holds good when the flow

(a) is steady
(b) is one dimensional
(c) velocity is uniform at all the cross sec-tions
Ans: d
8.232. Mach number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes,
aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a
surface of dis-continuity, gravity force, and wave making
effects, as with ship's hulls
(d) all of fhe above
205
Ans: a
8.233. Froude number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces, and wave making
effect, as with ship's hulls
(e) none of the above
Ans: c
8.234. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli's equation have

dimension of
(a) energy
(b) work
(c) mass
(d) length
(e) time.
Ans: d
8.235. Reynolds number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
206
surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces, and wave making
effect, as with ship's hulls
Ans: b
8.236. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes

equation are
(a) gravity, pressure and viscous
(b) gravity, pressure and turbulent
(c) pressure, viscous and turbulent
(d) gravity, viscous and turbulent
Ans: a
8.237. A large Roynold number is indication of

(a) smooth and streamline flow
(b) laminar flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) highly turbulent flow.
Ans: e
207
8.239. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Roynolds number is
(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000
(c) more than 4000
(d) less than 4000
Ans: a
8.240. In order that flow takes place between two points in a

pipeline, the differential pressure between these points must
be more than
(a) frictional force
(b) viscosity
(c) surface friction
Ans: d
8.241. At the centre line of a pipe flowing under pressure

where the velocity gradient is zero, the shear stress will be
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) negative value
(e) could be any value.
208
Ans: e
8.242. The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the free

surface of a body of water will be equal to
(a) 1 Pa
(b) 98.1Pa
(c) 981 Pa
(d) 9810 Pa
(e) 98,100 Pa.
Ans: d
8.244. Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the

following quantites are same
(a) friction loss and flow
(b) length and diameter
(c) flow and length
(d) friction factor and diameter
(e) velocity and diameter.
Ans: a
8.245. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number

is
(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000
(c). more than 4000
209
(d) less than 4000
Ans: c
8.246. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of

(a) mass
(b) momentum
(c) energy
(d) work
(e) force.
Ans: c
8.247. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and

plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to lift a weight of 1 tonne. The
force required on plunger is equal tc
(a) 10 kg
(b) 100 kg
(c) 1000 kg
(d) 1 kg
(e) 10,000 kg.
Ans: a
8.248. Cavitation is caused by

(a) high velocity
(b) high pressure
210
(c) weak material
(d) low pressure
(e) low viscosity.
Ans: d
8.249. Cavitation will begin when

(a) the pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure
equal to the saturated vapour pressure of the liquid
(b) pressure becomes more than critical pressure
(c) flow is increased
(d) pressure is increased
Ans: a
8.250. Principle of similitude forms the basis of

(a) comparing two identical equipments
(b) designing models so that the result can be converted to
prototypes
(c) comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
(d) hydraulic designs
(e) performing acceptance tests.
Ans: b
8.251. For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically

similar to prototype, the following in both cases should also be
211
equal
(a) ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
(b) ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
(c) ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
(d) all the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity,
gravitation, sur-face tension, and elasticity
Ans: d
212

Strength of Materials - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers For Competitive Exams

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Strength of Materials - Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers For Competitive Exams

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Strength of Materials - Mechanical Engineering Multiple

Choice Questions and Answers for competitive exams

1. Strain is defined as the ratio of

8. A thin mild steel wire is loaded by adding loads in equal

9. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of

10. If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its

12. Tensile strength of a material is obtained by dividing the

13. The impact strength of a material is an index of its

14. The Young's modulus of a wire is defined as the stress

15. Percentage reduction of area in performing tensile test on

16. The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called

17. True stress-strain curve for materials is plotted between

18. During a tensile test on a specimen of 1 cm cross-section,

19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in

20. Which of the following has no unit

22. In a tensile test on mild steel specimen, the breaking stress

23. If a part is constrained to move and heated, it will develop

24. Which of the following materials is most elastic

25. The value of modulus of elasticity for mild steel is of the

26. The value of Poisson's ratio for steel is between

27. The buckling load for a given material depends on

29. The property of a material by virtue of which a body

30. The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in

31. The value of Poisson's ratio for cast iron is

32. The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into

33. Poisson's ratio is defined as the ratio of

36. The change in the unit volume of a material under tension

37. The percentage reduction in area of a cast iron specimen

38. If a material expands freely due to heating it will develop

39. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone, the

40. The stress necessary to initiate yielding is

41. In the tensile test, the phenomenon of slow extension of

43. Rupture stress is

44. The elasticity of various materials is controlled by its

46. The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain in case of a

47. The stress at which extension of the material takes place

48. In question 56, the internal reaction in bottom 80 cm

50. When it is indicated that a member is elastic, it means that

51. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within

52. Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected

53. The maximum strain energy that can be stored in a body is

54. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as

55. Proof resilience per material is known as

56. The stress induced in a body due to suddenly applied load

57. The strain energy stored in a body due to suddenly applied

58. A material capable of absorbing large amount of energy

59. Coaxing is the method of increasing

60. A beam is loaded as cantilever. If the load at the end is

61. A non-yielding support implies that the

62. The ratio of elongation in a prismatic bar due to its own

63. In a prismatic member made of two materials so joined that

64. In riveted boiler joints, all stresses, shearing, bearing and

65. The distance between the centers of the rivets in adjacent

66. Efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of its strength

68. A riveted joint in which every rivet of a row is opposite to

69. A riveted joint in which the number otrivets decrease from

70. If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and the

71. Diamond riveted joint can be adopted in the case of

72. Rivets are made of following type of material